Gate 2016 Ce Set 1 PDF

IES MASTER
Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)
GATE - 2016
Set-1(Session-5)
Questions & Solutions (Civil Engineering)
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GATE-2016 Exam. Questions & Solution

(Civil Engineering Set-1 Session-5)
5.
Out of the following four sentences, select the

most suitable sentence with respect to
grammar and usage.
(A) I will not leave the place until the minister
does not meet me.
(B) I will not leave the place until the minister
doesnt meet me.
Area = 6 4 4 96
6.
Q.6 - Q. 10 Carry two marks each.

A shaving set company sells 4 different types
of razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and
Executive. Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth
at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs.
173 per piece. The table below shows the
numbers of each razor sold in each quarter of
a year.
A rewording of something written or spoken is

a ________
(A) paraphrase
(B) paradox
(C) paradigm
(D) paraffin
Ans.(A)
Archimedes said, Give me a lever long enough

and a fulcrum on which to place it, and I will
move the world.
The sentence above is an example of a
_______ statement.
(A) figurative
(B) collateral
(D) figurine
(C) literal
If relftaga means carefree, otaga means

careful and fertaga means careless, which of
the following could mean aftercare?
(A) zentaga
(B) tagafer
IE
4.
(D) 96
Ans.(D)
Ans.(A)
(C) 72
On removing the corner cube 3 faces will be

removed while 3 new faces will be exposed. So
total area is still same as without removing
cubes.
(D) I will not leave the place until the minister

meets me.
3.
(B) 64
Ans.(D)
(C) I will not leave the place until the minister

meet me.
2.
(A) 56
1.
A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side

one unit. After it is built, one cubic block is
removed from every corner of the cube. The
resulting surface area of the body (in square
units) after the removal is______.
Q.1 - Q. 5 Carry one mark each.
(C) tagazen
(D) relffer
Quarter / Pr oduct Elegance Smooth Soft Executive

Q1
27300
20009 17602
9999
Q2
25222
19392 18445
8942
Q3
28976
22429 19544
10234
Q4
21012
18229 16595
10109
Which product contributes the greatest fraction

to the revenue of the company in that year?
(A) Elegance
(B) Executive
(C) Smooth
(D) Soft
Ans.(B)
Revenue due to executive
= 9999 8942 10234 10109 173
Ans.(C)
relftaga = care free
otaga = care full taga = care
fertaga = care less

aftercare = taga zen
as tagafer = less care
IES MASTER
IES MASTER
Institute for Engineers

IES/GATE/PSUs
= 6796132
Revenue due to soft = 7218678 = 5630508
Revenue due to smooth = 8005963 = 5043717
Revenue due to elegance = 10251048 =
4920480
Executive gives highest revenue.
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7.
GATE-2016 Exam. Questions & Solutions

Indian currency notes show the denomination

indicated in at least seventeen languages. if
this is not an indication of the nations diversity,
nothing else is.
Which of the following can be logically inferred
from the above sentences?
Ans.(B)
f(x) = 2x 7 3x 5
f(1) = 2 3 5 0
(x 1) is a factor f(x).
10.
(A) India is country of exactly seventeen

languages.
(B) Linguistic pluralism is the only indicator
of a nations diversity
(C) Indian currency notes have sufficient space
for all the Indian languages.
(C) 60.01
Ans.(B)
Let N = No. of cycles
t = load
Ans.(D)
P always beats Q
II.
R always beats S
III.
S loses to P only sometimes
IV.
R always loses to Q
Which of the following can be logically inferred

from the above statements?
P is likely to beat all the three other
players
(ii)
S is the absolute worst player in the set.
(i)
IE
100 = C1e 80C2 ....(1)
I.
N = C1e C2 t
Consider the following statements relating to

the level of poker play of four players P, Q, R
and S.
8.
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) neither (i) or (ii)
(D) 92.02
(D) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of

Indias diversity.
In a process, the number of cycles to failure

decreases exponentially with an increase in
load. At a load of 80 units, it takes 100 cycles
for failure. When the load is halved, it takes
10000 cycles for failure. The load for which the
failure will happen in 5000 cycles is _______.
(A) 40.00
(B) 46.02
10000 = C1e 40C2 ....(2)
40C 2 = ln100
C2 = 0.1151
100 = C1e 800.1151
C1 = 106
Now,
5000 = 106 e t0.1151
t = 46.02
Q.1 - Q. 25 Carry one mark each.

1.
Newton-Raphson method is to be used to find
root of equation 3x ex + sin x = 0. If the
initiaol trial value for the root is taken as 0.333,
the next approximation for the root would
be_________ (note : answer up to three
decimal)
Ans.(D)
Since S loses to P only sometimes, So S could

not be termed as absolute worst player. Thus P
also not likely to beat all three other players.
9.
If f(x) = 2x7 + 3x 5, which of the following is

a factor of f(x)?
(A) (x3 + 8)
(B) (x-1)
(C) (2x-5)
(D) (x+1)
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs
Ans. (0.333)
x1 x0
f(x)
f (x)
3 0.333 e0.333 sin (0.333)

0.333
3 e0.333 cos(0.333)
= 0.36
Here x is in radians i.e.0.333

2.
The type of partial differential equation

2
(C) Cekt C1 cos
P
P P
2 3
2
0 is
2
xdy
x y
x
y
(D)
(A) elliptic
(B) parabolic
(C) hyperbolic
(D) none of these
k / x C2 sin k / x
C cos k / x
C sin(kt) 1
C
sin
x
k
/
2
Ans.(B)
Ans.(C)
6.
A = 1 B =
Consider the plane truss with load P as shown

in the figure. Let the horizontal and vertical
reactions at the joint B be H B and V B,
respectively and VC be the vertical reaction at
the joint C.
A 2P
2P
2P
P
P
2B
C 2 D
E
0
2
x
x y
y
x
y
3
C = 1
2
(C) 2
(D) 1
60
60
B
(B) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is

true and should be accepted
(B) VB = P/2; HB = 0; VC = P/2
(A) VB = 0; HB = 0; VC = P
(C) VB = P/2; HB = P (SIN 60); VC = P/2
(D) VB = P; HB = P (cos 60); VC = 0

Ans.(A)
IE
(D) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it

is true and should be accepted
Fx
Ans.(A)
Type-2 error is the failure to reject a false null
hypothesis
Fy
(B) Cekt C1e(
k / )x
k / )x
C2 e
IES MASTER
IES/GATE/PSUs
7.
C2e
( k / )x
( k / )x
=0
VC + V B = P
VB = 0
(A) C cos(kt) C1e(
= 0 So HB = 0
Taking moment about B

RC = P = VC
The solution of the partial differential equation
u
u
2 is of the form
t
x
IES MASTER
Which one of the following sets gives the

correct values of VB, HB and VC?
(C) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is

false and should be rejected
5.
60
60
Type II error inhypothesis testing is

(A) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it
is false and should be rejected
4.
Ans.(D)
If the entries in each column of a square matrix

M add up to 1, then an eigenvalue of M is
(A) 4
(B) 3
3.
B2 AC > 0
So hyperbola
In shear design of an RC beam, other than the

allowable shear strength of concrete c , there
is also an additional check suggested in IS
456-2000 with respect to the maximum
permissible shear stress c max . The check
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11.
for c max is required to take care of

(A) additional shear resistance from reinforcing
steel
(A) during shearing stage only
(B) additional shear stress that comes from

accidental loading
(B) at the end of consolidation stage only

(C) both at the end of consolidation and during
shearing stages
(C) possibility of failure of concrete by

diagonal tension
(D) possibility of crshing of concrete by
diagonal compression
(D) under none of the above conditions

Ans.(B)
12.
Ans.(D)
Ans.(C)
(C) CL-ML
Ans.(D)
222
fy Z
m0
200 500
90.909KNm
=
1.1
9.
(D) none of these
IE
Ans.(C)
(C) bricks
(B) cement
Bulls dtrench kiln is commonly used for

manufacturing of bricks in India.
10.
The compound which is largely responsible for

initial setting and early strength gain of Ordinary
Portland Cement is
(A) C3A
(B) C3S
(C) C2S
(D) C4AF
Ans.(B)
3(W
0.7
20.44
20
0)
2
48
IP = 48 26
0.73(48 20) = 20.44 < 22
CI
I3.
A vertical out is to be made in a soil mass

having cohesion c, angle of internal friction
, and unit weight . Considering Ka and Kp
as the coefficients of active and passive earth
pressures, respectively, the maximum depth
of unsupported excavation is
4c
(A)
(C)
2c KP
KP
(B)
4c K a
4c
(D) K
a
Ans.(D)
C3S readily reacts with water, producing more

heat of hydration and is responsible for early
strength of concrete.
0 = KaYZ0 2C Ka
Z0 =
IES MASTER
IES MASTER
(D) CI
IP = 22
Bulls strench kiln is used in the manufacturing

of
(A) lime
(B) CH
Design flexure capacity of semi-copact section
(A) CL
The semi-compact section of a laterally

unsuported steel beam has an elastic section
modulus, plastic section modulus and design
bending compressive stress of 500 cm3, 650
cm3 and 200 MPa, respectively. The design
flexureal capacity (expressed in kNm) of the
section is_________.
A fine grained soil is found to be plastic in the

water content range of 26-48%. As per Indian
Standard Classification System, the soil is
classified as
8.
In the consolidated undrained triaxial test on a

saturated soil sample, the pore water pressure
is zero

IES/GATE/PSUs
4C
2C Z
max
Ka
Y Ka

14.
The direct runoff hydrograph in response to 5

cm rainfall excess in a catchment is shown in
the figure. The area of the catchment
(expressed in hectares) is________.
y2
1
2
1 8 10 1
=
y1
2
y2
y1 = 13.651
1.2
17.
0.8
(A) NOX, VOCs and sunlight
0.6
(B) SO2, CO2 and sunlight
0.4
(D) SO2, NH3 and sunlight

1
2 3 4 5
Time (hours)
Ans.(A)
18.
Ans.(21.6)
I9.
Hydraulic flood
The type of flood routing (Group I) and the

equation(s) used for the purpose (Group II) are
given below.
Group I
Group II
flood routing
(B) CO2
(C) CH4
(D) NH3
Ans.(A)
A = 21.6 ha
Hydrologic
(A) H2S
A = 21.6 10 4 m 2
Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer

is caused by :
1
1 6 3600 = 0.05 A
2
P.
(C) H2S, CO and sunlight
0.2
0
15.
Pre-cursors to photochemical oxidants are
Discharge (m /s)
1.
Continuity
equation
2.
Momentum
routing
3.
It was decided to construct a fabric filter, using

bags of 0.45 m diameter and 7.5 m long, for
removing industrial stack gas containing
particulates. The expected rate of airflow into
the filter is 10 m3/s. If the filtering velocity is
2.0 m/min, the minimum number of bags
(rounded to nearest higher integer) required for
continuous cleaning operation is
equation
(A) 27
(B) 29
Energy equation
(C) 31
(D) 32
The correct match is
IE
Ans.(B)
(A) P 1; Q 1, 2 & 3
Surface area = 2rl
(B) P 1; Q 1 & 2
of one bag = 2
(C) P 1 & 2; Q1
(D) P 1 & 2; Q 1 & 2
Area required =
Ans.(B)
I6.
The pre-jump Froude Number for a particular

flow in a horizontal rectangular channel is 10.
The ratio of sequent depths (i.e., post-jump
depth to pre-jump depth) is_________.
0.45
7.5 10.6028
2
10 60
300
2
No. of bags required

=
300
28.29
10.6028
29 Ans.
Ans.(13.65)
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

Match the items in Group - I with those in

Group - II and choose the right combination.
Group - I
Group - II
P.
Activated sludge
1.
Nitrifiers
process
and denitrifiers
Q. Rising of sludge
2.
Autotrophic
bacteria
R.
3.
Heterotrophic
S.
VFB
Conventional
nitrification
bacteria
Biological nitrogen 4.
Denitrifiers
Vb
22.
In a one-lane one-way homogeneous traffic

stream, the observed average headway is 3.0
s. The flow (expressed in vehicles/hr) in this
traffic stream is________.
Ans.(1200)
removal
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-l
23.
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-l
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-l

(D) P-l, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) 4
Ans.(C)
Fundamental principal of GPS is triangulation.
For triangulation GPS receiver measures distance
using travel time of radio signal. Along with
distance we should know exactly where the
satellites are in space, which is achieved by
close monitoring of space. As timing is not
perfect, so we take one more satellite.
Flow
Marshall Stability
During a forensic investigation of pavement

failure, an engineer reconstructed the graphs
P, Q, R and S, using partial and damaged old
reports
(D) 24
Ans.(A)
21.
3600
1200 veh hr
3
The minimum number of satellites needed for
a GPS to determine its position precisely is
(A) 2
(B) 3
q=
20.
Bitumen content
Air voids
Voids filled
with bitumen
IE
Bitumen content
24.
Bitumen content
The system that uses the Sun as a source of

electromagnetic energy and records the
naturally radiated and reflected energy from
the object is called
(A) Geographical Information System
(B) Global Positioning System
(C) Passive Remote Sensing
Bitumen content
Theoreticallyd plausible correct graphs

according to the Marshall mixture design
output are
(A) P, Q, R
(B) P, Q, S
(C) Q, R, S
Note : If 3 perfect measurement can locate a

point in space, then four imperfect measurement
can do the same thing.
(D) R, S, P
(D) Active Remote Sensing

Ans.(C)
Sensors can be classified on the basis of source
of energy. The sensors which depend on external
source of energy, usually the sun, are known as
Passive sensors, while the sensors which have
their own source of energy are known as Active
Sensors.
Ans.(B)
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

25.
The staff reading taken on a sworkshop floor

using a level is 0.645 m. The inverted staff
reading taken to the bottom of a beam is 2.960
m. The reduced level of the floor is 40.500 m.
The reduced level (expressed in m) of the
bottom of the beam is
(A) 44.105
(B) 43.460
(C) 42.815
Ans.(B)
1
0 1 x 2 dx 0
tan 1 x 0
sin x
dx
x
sin x
x

=
2 2
Option (B)
(D) 41.145
Ans.(A)
(A)
0.645 m
2.960m
RL = 40.500 m
P(X < 4) is
(C)
1
4
(B)
1
2
T
x 2 x 1
0.25 dx
The value of
1
1 x
IES MASTER
2 3 x x 2 1 dx
dx
2
sin x
dx is
x
(A)
(B)
(C)
3
2
(D) 1
IES MASTER
IES/GATE/PSUs
=0
x = 1, 2
3
= 0.75
4
27.
xy3
x 2 2x 2 = 0
x2 x 2 = 0
S
=
7
6
3 x = x2 1
0 f x dx
IE
P x 4 =
(D)
y x2 1
1
(D)
8
Ans. (A)
9
2
Ans.(B)
3
4
10
3
(B)
0.25 if 1 x 5
f(x) = 0
otherwise
(A)
(C)
59
6
RL = 40.500 + 0.645 (2.960)

RL = 44.105 m
Q.26-Q.55 carry two marks each.
26. Probability density function of a random variable
X is given below
0m
The area of the region bounded by the parabola

y = x2 + 1 and the straight line x + y = 3 is
28.
2 2dx xdx x 2 dx
9
2
Option (B).
29.
The magnitudes of vectors P, Q and R are 100

kN, 250 kN and 150 kN. respectively as shown
in the figure

(A)
c1 c 2 x c 3 sin 3x c 4 cos 3x
and
3x 4 12x 2 c
45 P
R
90
60
(B)
c 2 X c 3 sin 3x c 4 cos 3x
and
x
4
2
5x 12x c
The respective values of the magnitude (in kN)

and the direction (with respect to the x-axis) of
the resultant vector are
(A) 290.9 and 96.0
(C)
(B) 368.1 and 94.7
(D)
c1 c 3 sin 3x c 4 cos 3x
3x 4 12x 2 c
c1 c 2 x c 3 sin 3x c 4 cos 3x
(C) 330.4 and 118.9
Ans.(A)
Ans.(C)
d4 y
d2 y
3
= 108x2
dx 4
dx 2
For complementary solution
250
100
15
D4 3D2 = 0
150
250
60
15
D 2 D 2 3 = 0
D2 = 0
D2 + 3 = 2i
Complementary solution :
C.F. = C1 C2 x C3 sin 3x C 4 cos 3x
Particular integral
cos15 100 sin 0 150 sin15 289.26
IE
C1 C2 x C3 sin 3x C 4 cos 3x
Resultant =
159.59 2 289.26 2
= 330.4 KN
159.59
0 = 28.89
??
Angle with horizontal = 118.9
tanQ =
The respective expressions for complimentary

function and particular integral part of the
solution of the dif f erential equation
4
dx
dy
dx
and 3x 4 12x 2 C
Option (A)
31.
A 3 m long simply supported beam of uniform

cross section is subjected to a uniformly
distributed load of w = 20 kN/m in the central
1 m as shown in the figure.
w = 20kN/m
6
108x 2
D4 D2
P.I. = 3x 4 12x 2 C
250 sin15 150 cos15 100 cos 60 159.59
d y
108x2 are
and
5x 4 12x 2 c
(D) 400.1 and 1 13.5
30.
and
P
1m
EI = 30 10 Nm
1m
Q
1m
If the flexural rigidity (EI) of the beam is 30
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs

W
106 N-m2, the maximum slope (expressed in

readians) of the deformed beam is
(A) 0.681 107
(B) 0.943 107
(C) 4.310 107
Figure-II
1m
1m
d2 y
20(x 1 2 20 x 2 2
10x
2
dx
2
2
(A)
max1 max 2 and max1 max 2
(B)
(C)
(D)
1m
Ans.(D)
dy
x
5x 2 10
dx
3
EIQmax
x 0
65
6
65
6
65
3.616 10 7
6 30 10 6
Two beams PQ (fixed at P and with a roller
support at Q, as shown in Figure I, which
allows vertical movement) and XZ (with a hinge
at Y) are shown in the Figures I and II
respectively. The spans of PQ and XZ are L
and 2L respectively. Both the beams are under
the action of uniformly distributed load (W) and
have the same flexural stiffness, El (where, E
and / respectively denote modulus of elasticity
and moment of inertia about axis of bending).
Let the maximum deflection and maximum
rotation be max1 and max1, respectively, in
the case of beam PQ and the corresponding
quantities for the beam XZ be max2 and
R
Y
Y
Qmax =
l 4 Rl 3
RQ 3 l 4
=
8EI 3EI
3EI 8EI
R=0
In PQ beam also at Q support is roller so Ry =
0
So, PQ beam and XY and YZ beam are same.
So, Qmax1 Qmax 2
32.
10 x 2
3
dy
dx
1 3
EI
10 0.5
0 5 1.52
C 0
3
65
C=
6
EI
dy
10
10 x 2 3
EI
5x 2
x 1 3
C
dx
3
3
x 1.5
Z
L
Which one of the following relationships is true.

20 kN/m
dy
dx
Hinge
Y
L
Ans. (No option)
EI
(D) 5.910 107
maxi max 2
#or directly
IE
2L
Option (D)
33.
A plane truss with applied loads is shown in

the figure.
10 kN H
G
20 kN
10 kN
J
K
L
U V
F
P
L
Figure-I
IES MASTER
IES/GATE/PSUs
equivalent
to
max2,respectively..
IES MASTER
T
2m
S
2m
R
2m
Q
2m
P
2m
1m
1m
1m
1m
2m
10

(A) FT, TG, HU, MP, PL
Ans.(D)
(B) ET, GS, UR, VR, QL
RBH
(C) FT, GS, HU, MP, QL
(D) MP, PL, HU, FT, UR

Ans.(A)
Zero force member
FT, TG, HU, MP, PL
34. 34 A rigid member ACB is shown in the figure.
The member is supported at A and B by pinned
and guided roller supports, respectively. A force
F acts at C as shown. Let RAh and RBh be the
horizontal reactions at supports A and B,
respectively, and RAv be the vertical reaction
at support A. Self-weight of the member may
be ignored
RAH
A
Fr
=0
RAV = P
Taking moment about B
P
2m
35.
RAH = RBH =
1.5P
8
A reinforced concrete (RC) beam with width of

250 mm and effective depth of 400 mm is
reinforced with Fe415 steel. As per the
provisions of IS 456-2000, the minimum and
maximum amount of tensile reinforcement
(expressed in mm 2) for the section are,
respectively
(A) 250 and 3500
(B) 205 and 4000
1.5
1.5
6m
(C) 270 and 2000
(D) 300 and 2500
Ans.(B)
A
0.85
Minimum tensile reinforcement = P
y
S
1.5m
1.5m
Which one of the following sets gives the

correct magnitudes of RAv, RBH and RAh ?
IE
Ast
0.85
=
bd
415
(A) R AV 0; RBh
(B) R AV 0; RBh
1
2
P; and R Ah P
3
3
1.5
1.5
P; and RAh
P
8
8
IES MASTER
IES MASTER
Ast max = 4% of bD
4
400 250
100
= 4000 mm2
2
1
P; and R Ah P
3
3
3
1.5
P
(C) RAV P; RBh P; and RAh
8
8
(D) RAV P; RBh
Ast = 204.81 205mm 2

IES/GATE/PSUs
36.
For M25 concrete with creep coefficient of 1.5,

the long-term static modulus of elasticity
(expressed in MPa) as per the provisions of
18:456-2000 is_________.

Ans.(10000)
11
E
Long term static modulus of elasticity =
1
100 mm
5000 fCK
1
5000 25
2.5
= 10000 MPa
=
A propped cantilever of span L carries a vertical

concentrated load at the mid-span. If the plastic
moment capacity of the section is Mp, the
magnitude of the collapse load :
(C)
L
4Mp
L
2Mp
(D)
As per the Limit State Method of IS 800: 2007,

the minimum length (rounded off to the nearest
higher multiple of 5 mm) of each weld to
transmit a force P equal to 270 kN (factored)
is
(A) 90 mm
(B) 105 mm
6Mp
(B)
8Mp
(A)
150 mm
37.
(C) 110 mm
Ans.(B)
P
(D) 115 MM
Ans.(B)
Two plates carrying 270 kN
Single plate will carry 135 kN
L/2
fu
L/2
135 103 =
IE
410
0.7 10 l
3 1.25
0 = 101.84 next multiple of 5
= 110 mm
38.
M1
3MPQ =
Pl
Q
2
P=
6MP
l
MD
Two plates are connected by fillet welds of

size 10 mm and subjected to tension, as
shown in the figure. The thickness of each
plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the
ultimate tensile stress of steel are 250 MPa
and 410 MPa, respectively. The welding is done
in the workshop ( mw = 1.25).
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs
l t
135 103 =
MP
3 mw
39.
The Optimistic Time (O), Most likely Time (M)

and Pessimistic Time (P) (in days) of the
activities in the critical path are given below in
the format O-M-P. The expected completion
time (in days) of the project is
E
8-10-14
6-8-11
5-7-10
7-12-18
The expected completion time (in days) of the

project is________.
Ans.(37.833 days)
tEF =
t 0 4t m t 8
8 4 10 14 62
=
6
6
6
12
tFG =

49
6
t GH
43 43
6
6
t HI
The maximum Weight of the wall (expressed

in kN per m length0 required to prevent it from
overturning about its toe (Point P) is
(A) 120
(B) 180
73
6
62 49 43 73
6
= 37.833 days
Expected completion time =
(C) 240
(D) 360
Alternatively :
TE of project =
Ans.(A)
t 0 4 tm t p
6
t 0 8 6 5 7 26
F
2
tm 10 8 7 12 37
tp 14 11 10 18 53
E
W
Ans.(42)
42.
VV
0.7
V
Porosity = n =
VV = 0.7 100 70m 3
VW
VV = S = 0.4
VW = 70 0.4 = 28
IE
Va = VV VW 70 28 42m3
Volume of air = 42
41.
m3
A homogeneous gravity retaining wall supporting

a cohesionless backfill is shown in the figure.
The lateral active earth pressure at the bottom
of the wall is 40 kPa.
Gravity
Retaining
Wall
The porosity (n) and the degree of saturation

(S) of a soil sample are 0.7 and 40%,
respectively. In a 100m3 volume of the soil, the
volume (expressed in m3) of air is________.
Moment about to a
F 2=W 2
F=W
40.
26 4 37 53
37.833 days
6
TE =
2m
1
6 40
2
= 120 KN
Weight of wall = 120 kN
W= F
An undisturbed soil sample was taken from

the middle of a clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below
GL), as shown in figure. The water table was
at the top of clay layer. Laboratory test results
are as follows :
Natural water content of clay
: 25%
Precdonsilidation pressure of clay : 60 kPa
Compression index of clay
: 0.50
Recompression index of clay
: 0.05
Specific gravity of clay
: 2.70
Bulk unit weight of sand
GL
1m
4m
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs
Sand
GWT
1m
17 kN/m3
A compacted fill of 2.5 m height with unit weight

of 20 kN/m3 is placed at the ground level.
Cohesionless
backfill
6m
Clay
Hard stratum
IES MASTER
for
THE ACHIEVERS IN GATE - 2016
th
4
st
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th
th
will get consolation prizes
NOTE :
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Assuming unit weight of water as 10 kN/m3,
the ultimate consolidation settlemnet
(expressed in mm) of the clay layer
is________.
0.05 1000
60
log
1.675
22.07
H1 = 12.966 mm
Ans.(37.04 mm)
H2 =
= 17 1 0.5 Ysubclay
Cr =
1m
13
Sand
CCH
72.07
log
1 e
60
e
0.05
60
log
22.07
e = 0.653
Clay
0.5 1000
72.07
log
1.653
60
1m
e = 0.0217
H2 =
For clay
W = 0.25
S = 1
g = 2.7
Se = GW
H2 = 24.075 mm
H = H1 H2 37.04mm
43.
A seepage flow condition is shown in the figure.

The saturated unit weight of the soil sat 18
2.7 0.25
1
e = 0.675
e=
Ysub =
Ysub = 10.15kN m3
G 1
2.7 1
Y
10
1 e
1 0.675
kN/m3. Using unit weight of water, w 9.81

kN/m3, the effective vertical stress (expressed
in kN/m2) ON PLANE X-X is _______.
= 17 0.5 10.15
3m
= 22.07kN m 2
IE
= 2.5 20 50kN m 2
1m
Cr
22.07
CC
5m
Soil
3
ysat = 18 kN/m
60 72.07
H = H1 H2
Ans.(65.475)
CrH
60
H1 = 1 e log 22.07
0
Force = hv rw
hL at X X =
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs
2m
Alternate Method
Ans.
IES MASTER
1m
3
5 2.5 W
6
14

Effective stress at X X = 5 sub 2.5 rW
Ans.(10500)
= 5 18 9.81 2.5 9.81
10
= 65.475 kN/m2
A drained triaxial compression test on a

saturated clay yielded the effective shear
5Y
65Y
strength parameters as c = 15 kPa and ' =
65 5 Y 25 Y
25Y 5

22. Consolidated Undrained triaxial test on an

identical sample of this clay at a cell pressure
of 200 kPa developed a pore water pressure of
150 kPa at failure. The deviator stress
(expressed in kPa) at failure is_________.
31 200kPa u = 150 kPa

46.
Seepage is occurring through a porous media

shown in the figure. The hydraulic conductivity
values (k1, k2, k3) are in m,/day.
31 200 150 50 kPa
= 2.197898
1 sin 1 sin22
1 sin 1 sin 22
31 = 31Ka 2C Ka
Ka =
Imprevious
15m
11 = 50 2.19798 2 15 2.19798
= 154.375 kPa
31
Deviator stress = 11
3m
10m
k1 = 2
k2 = 2
20m
10m
k3 = 1
20m
3m
10m
The seepage discharge (m3/day per m) through

the porous media at section PQ is
= 154.375 50
= 104.375 kPa
A concrete gravity dam section is shown in

the figure. Assuming unit weight of water as
10 kN/m3 and unit weight of concrete as 24
kN/m3 the uplift force per unit length of the
dam (expressed inkN/m) at PQ is_________.
IE
45.
1
1
10 65 25 10 25 5 40 10
2
2
= 4500 + 6000
F = 10500
Ans.(104.375)
44.
40
(A)
7
12
(B)
1
2
(C)
9
16
(D)
3
4
Ans.(B)
65m
H1 H2 H3
Keq = H H
H
1
2 3
K1 K 2 K 3
Drain
holes
5m
P
Q
40m
10 m
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs
20 30 10 60
2
= 20 30 10
30
2
3
1
Keq = 2

q = KiA
q=
30
30
1
2
A 4 m wide rectangular channel, having bed

slope of 0.001 carries a discharge of 16 m3/s.
Considering Mannings roughness coefficient
= 0.012 and g = 10 m/s2, the cateogry of the
channel slope is
(A) Horizontal
Spillway
(B) Mild
(C) Critical
Ans.(127.03)
(D) Steep
Ans.(B)
1/3
42

10
1.1696m
1/3
q2
y =
g
5m
Sector gate
5
= 2 3
60
47.
1
Q = AR 2/3 5
n
4yn
1
16 = 0.012 4 yn 4 2y 0.001
FH
5Y
FH =
4yn
1.51789 = y n
4 2y n
1
5 5Yw
2
2/3
5
2.5
30
y 5/3
30
IE
0.6024 = 4 2y 2/3
2.5
yn
yC
FV = Wt. of liquid in shaded portion
1
1 2
= r 5 cos30 Y 1
2
2
yn = 1.6305 m
yn > y C
So mild slope.
48.
15
= 25 12.5 cos30 10
2
3
A sector gate is provide on a spillway as shown

in the figure. Assuming g = 10 ,/s2, the resultant
force per meter length (expressed in kN/m) on
the gate will be _____
= 22.65kN m
FR =
1252 22.65 2
= 127.03kN m FR
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs
16
49.

A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel

section has a uniform flow of 2 m. The bed
width (expressed in m) of the channel is _____
0.96 =
0.97 = 1 e
Ans.(B)
y
w
= 5.748 104
0.99 = 1 e5.748 10
Effluent from an industry A has a pH of 4.2.

The effluent from another industry B has double
the hydroxyl (OH) ion concentration than the
effluent from industry A. pH of effluent from the
industry B will be _____
OH
OH = 2 10 9.8
B
A = 109.8
POHB = 9. log2
PHB = 4.50
An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with 5600

m2 of collector plate area is 96 percent efficient
in treating 185 m3/s of flue gas from a 200
MW thermal power plant. It was found that in
order to achieve 97 percent efficiency, the
collector plate area should be 6100 m2. In order
to increase the efficiency to 99 percent, the
ESP collectro plate area (expressed in m 2)
would be _____
IE
51.
pH = 4.2
H = 104.2
A
100 = L 0 1 e K 2
155 = L 0 1 e K 4
Ans.(4.50)
Ans.(0.13)
2y
4
2.309 B
3
3
B=
The 2-day and 4-day BOD values of a sewage

sample are 100 mg/L and 155 mg/L,
respectively. The value of BOD rate constant
(expressed in per day) is _____
y2
=B
3
(A)
52.
Slope length = B
y2
A = 8011.78m2
w
6100
60
50.
w
5600
1 e
53.
1.55 =
...(1)
...(2)
1 e 4K
1 e 2K
K = 0.2989
K at Base 10 = 0.13 per day

A two lane, one way road with radius of 50 m
is predominantly carrying lorrries with
wheelbase of 5m. The speed of lorries is
restricted to be between 60 kmph and 80 kmph.
The mechanical widening and psychological
widening required at 60 kmph are designated
as wme, 60 and wps, 60, respectively. The
mechanical widening and psychological
widening required at 80 kmph are designated
as wme, 80 and wps, 60, respectively. The correct
values of wme, 60, wme, 80, wps, 80, respectively
are
(A) 0.89 m, 0.50 m, 1.19 m and 0.50 m
(B) 0.50 m, 0.89 m, 0.50 m and 1.19 m
(C) 0.50 m, 1.19 m, 0.50 m and 0.89 m
(D) 1.19 m, 0.50 m, 0.89 m and 0.50 m
Ans.(8011.78)
=
Ans.(B)
w
A
1 e
Wme ,60 =
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs
2 5
2 50
0.5 Wme ,80

55.
60 18
0.893
W PS, 60 =
2.64 50
5
80 18
W PS, 80 =
264 50
W PS, 80 = 1.19
17
The vertical angles subtended by the top of a

tower T at two instrument stations set up at P
and Q, are shown in the figure. The two stations
are in line with the tower and spaced at the
benchmark (BM = 450.000 m) are alos shown
in the figure. The reduced level of the top of
the tower T (expressed in m) is _____
T
10.5
10.5
16.5
BM=450
60
RL T 450 0.555 60 D tan10.5
....(1)
Also RL T 450 2.555 D tan16.5
....(2)
q K 20 = 50
From (1) and (2), we get
q + K 30 = 200

0.555 60 D tan10.5 2.555 D tan16.5
50 K = 150
K = 3 Veh/Km
IE
2.555
0.555
q + KVa = 200
Ans.(476.92)
V = velocity of test vehicle along

the stream
Va = velocity of test vehicle against
the stream
q KV = 50
60m
Ans.(3 Veh/Km)
Relative flow along the stream = q KV
Relative flow against the stream = q + KVa
when,
q = traffic flow
K = traffic density
16.5
2.555
0.555
BM450.000
While traveling along and against the traffic

stream, a moving observer measured the
relativ e f lows as 50 v ehicles/hr and
200 vehicles/hr, respectively. The average
speeds of the moving observer while traveling
along and against the stream are 20 km/hr
and 30 km/hr, respectively. The density of the
traffic stream (expressed in vehicles/km) is
_____
54.
2 60 tan10.5
tan10.5 tan16.5
D = 82.258 m
D=
RLT = 450 + 0.55 + 26.366

RLT = 476.92
IES MASTER
IES MASTER

IES/GATE/PSUs
IES MASTER
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IES MASTER

Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)

GATE-2016 Exam. Questions & Solution

Out of the following four sentences, select the

Q.6 - Q. 10 Carry two marks each.

A rewording of something written or spoken is

Archimedes said, Give me a lever long enough

If relftaga means carefree, otaga means

On removing the corner cube 3 faces will be

(D) I will not leave the place until the minister

(C) I will not leave the place until the minister

A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side

Q.1 - Q. 5 Carry one mark each.

Quarter / Pr oduct Elegance Smooth Soft Executive

Which product contributes the greatest fraction

fertaga = care less

Institute for Engineers

GATE-2016 Exam. Questions & Solutions

Indian currency notes show the denomination

(A) India is country of exactly seventeen

S loses to P only sometimes

Which of the following can be logically inferred

S is the absolute worst player in the set.

100 = C1e 80C2 ....(1)

Consider the following statements relating to

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) (i) and (ii)

(D) neither (i) or (ii)

(D) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of

In a process, the number of cycles to failure

10000 = C1e 40C2 ....(2)

5000 = 106 e t0.1151

Q.1 - Q. 25 Carry one mark each.

Since S loses to P only sometimes, So S could

If f(x) = 2x7 + 3x 5, which of the following is

Institute for Engineers

3 0.333 e0.333 sin (0.333)

GATE-2016 Exam. Questions & Solution

The type of partial differential equation

(C) Cekt C1 cos

(D) none of these

Consider the plane truss with load P as shown

(B) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is

(B) VB = P/2; HB = 0; VC = P/2

(D) VB = P; HB = P (cos 60); VC = 0

(D) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it

(B) Cekt C1e(

(A) C cos(kt) C1e(

Taking moment about B

The solution of the partial differential equation

Which one of the following sets gives the

(C) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is

Type II error inhypothesis testing is

If the entries in each column of a square matrix

In shear design of an RC beam, other than the

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GATE-2016 Exam. Questions & Solutions

for c max is required to take care of