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Marie De Pona St.

Jude Review Center

MIDWIFERY

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES
TEST TAKING EXAM-SET B (100 items)
1. Which of the following terms refers to a sudden increase in the incidence of a contagious disease?
a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Pandemic
2. Which of the following is confined to a certain geographical are or locality?
a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Pandemic
3. Which of the following terms refers to the first exposure to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms?
a. Prodromal period
c. Incubation period
b. Stage of illness
d. Convalescence
4. Prodromal period is best described as:
a. The gradual recovery of health and strength after illness
b. Patient is actually manifesting the signs and symptoms of the disease
c. First exposure to disease
d. Premonition of an impending attack of a disease
5. A person whose medical and diagnostic test reveals that he is having the disease is called:
a. Contact
b. Infected
c. Suspect
d. Carrier
6. A person who has been exposed to an infectious disease is called;
a. Diseased
b. An incubator
c. A contact
d. A mortality
7. The epidemiologist closely monitored and supervised contacts to recognize infection without limitation of
movement. This is known as;
a. Case finding
b. Isolation
c. Surveillance
d, Quarantine
8. The separation of infected persons or animals from others during the period of communicability is called;
a. Case finding
b. Quarantine
c. Reverse isolation
d. Surveillance
9. Is the balanced state of having adequate biological defenses to fight infection, disease, or other unwanted
biological invasion.
a. Immunity
b. Vaccination
c. Immunization
d. Defense mechanism
10. A very good example of natural passive immunity is;
a. Vaccination
c. Injection of immune serum for rabies
b. Immunization
d. Breastfeeding
11. Which of the following is not included in the epidemiologic triangle?
a. Host
b. Person
c. Agent
d. Environment
12. Among the following diseases, which is airborne?
a. Diphtheria
b. Measles
c. Viral conjunctivitis
d. Acute poliomyelitis
13. You were invited to be the resource person in a training class for food handlers. Which of the following would you
emphasize regarding prevention of staphylococcal food poisoning?
a. Food must be cooked properly to destroy staphylococcal microorganisms.
b. All cooking and eating utensils must be thoroughly washed.
c. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition.
d. Food handlers and food servers must have a negative stool examination result.
14. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person propagated epidemic?
a. There are more cases of the disease than expected
b. The disease must necessarily be transmitted through a vector
c. The spread of the disease can be attributed to a common vehicle
d. There is gradual build-up of cases before we epidemic becomes easily noticeable
15. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, together with some other countries in
the Western Pacific Region, free of which disease?
a. Pneumonic plaque
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Small pox
d. Anthrax
16. This is the most common clinical form of Anthrax which can be acquired by contact with infected animals.
a. Cutaneous
b. Pulmonary
c. Gastrointestinal
d. Circulatory
17. Anthrax is caused by which of the following?
A. Virus
b. Parasite
c. Bacteria
d. Fungus
18. If a person has been exposed to anthrax, which antibiotic can prevent the disease?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Doxycycline
c. Amphotericin
d. All of the above
19. Patients exposed from Shigella will most likely to show signs and symptoms in:
a. In one week
c. Less than one day
b. Less than four days
d. Less than an hour
20. Midwife Natalia is correct if she will instruct a patient with Shigellosis to:
a. Increase intake of fiber and fluids
b. Limit the intake of fiber and fluids
c. Limit the intake of fiber and increase fluid intake
d. Eat easily digestible foods and limit fluid intake
21. This refers to a feeling of constantly needing to pass stools, despite an empty colon
a. Constipation
b. Dyspepsia
c. Diarrhea
d. Tenesmus
22. Influenza can be treated with;
a. Antivirals
b. Decongestants
c. Analgesics
d. All of the above
23. It is necessary to institute which of the following measures to birds suspected of being exposed to the virus?
a. Vaccination of poultry
b. Killing of all infected or exposed birds
c. Mixing antiviral to feeds and water supplied to poultry suspected of being exposed to avian flu
d. All of the above
24. The spots in chicken pox disease start in which of the following body parts?
a. hands and feet
b. face and trunk
c. inside the body
d. knees and elbows

TEST TAKING EXAM-CD SET B

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Marie De Pona St. Jude Review Center

MIDWIFERY

25. Which of the following statements is true about chicken pox on children and in adults?
a. Chicken pox is severe in children
b. Both adults and children have the disease for the same amount of time.
c. Children have it for a longer amount of time.
d. Adults have it for a longer amount of time.
26. The following are common signs in female having chlamydia.
I. Fishy vaginal discharge
II. Itching and burning of vagina
III. Painful intercourse
IV. Abdominal pain
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III
c. I and III
d. I and II
27. Patients and their partners who undergo the recommended treatment for chlamydia should wait how long after
starting the treatment before resuming intercourse?
a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. 14 days
28. Which of the following drugs is given to patients with cholera?
a. Tetracycline
b. Choramphenicol
c. Co-trimoxazole
d. ORESOL
29. Symptoms of cholera include all of the following, except.
a. Vomiting and severe muscular cramps
c. Profuse diarrhea
b. Cold, sticky perspiration
d. Frequency of urination
30. What diagnostic procedure will confirm that the client is having DHF?
a. Blood smear
c. Sputum examination
b. Urinalysis and Fecalysis
d. Tourniquet test
31. Dengue Fever is also known as _______________?
a. Breakbone Fever
c. Mosquitoes Fever
b. Yellow Fever
d. D-fever
32. Which of the following is a characteristic of the female Aedes aegypti mosquito?
a. With shorter legs
c. Strips of black and white
b. Their bites usually dont leave a red mark
d. They bite in the morning
33. Treatment modalities for DHF includes;
a. Paracetamol for fever
c. Analgesics for headaches and other pains
b. Blood transfusion
d. All of the above
34. Shicks test is done in:
a. Meningitis
b. diphtheria
c. pertussis
d. poliomyelitis
35. Which of the following types of diphtheria is most fatal due to proximity to epiglottis?
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
c. Nasopharyngeal
d. Laryngeal
36. Ebola is introduced to human through ______.
a. Direct contact to body fluids
c. Direct contact to contaminated objects
b. Airborne
d. A and B
37. Which of the following statements about the treatment for Ebola virus is not true?
a. It can be prevented by a vaccine.
b. Patients receive supportive care and treatment.
c. Vaccines are now available especially for high risk areas.
d. Treatment and care for patients is based on the clinical manifestations.
38. Drug of choice for filariasis.
a. Praziquantel
b. Biltricide
c. Hetrazan
d. Oxamniquine
39. Aedes poecillus usually bites at
a. Morning
c. Night
b. 4 oclock in the afternoon
d. Throughout the day
40. The following are chronic signs and symptoms of filariasis, except.
a. Hydrocele
b. Lymphedema
c. Elephentiasis
d. Lymphadenitis
41. Untreated gonorrhea leads to this disease in women.
a. PID
b. Herpes
c. Vaginal Cancer
d. Chlamydia
42. Patients with gonorrhea can be treated with:
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Metronidazole
c. Flagyl
d. Fluconazole
43. Other names for gonorrhea, except.
a. Clap
b. Gleet
c. Flores Blancas
d. Morbus gallicus
44. What is the mode of transmission for hepatitis A virus?
a. Fecal-oral
b. Airborne
c. Transplacental
d Blood transfusion
45. Sisa, an HAV victim needs no further instruction if she selects which of the following diet?
a. Turkey salad, French fries and sherbet
b. Salad, sliced chicken sandwich and gelatin dessert
c. Cheeseburger, taco chips and chocolate pudding
d. Cottage cheese, peanut butter sandwich and milk shake
46. Mode of transmission for Hepatitis B virus?
a. Person to person
c. Parenteral
b. Placental
d. All of the above
47. Clinical manifestations during the icteric phase for patient with HBV, except.
a. LUQ pain
b. Jaundice
c. Bile-colored urine
d. Alcoholic stool
48. Which form of hepatitis can exist for years without symptoms?
a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B
49. What is the most effective way to prevent contracting the HIV virus?
a. Spray everything with a 10% bleach solution before you touch it
b. Always wear a condom
c. Never share needles with people you don't know
d. Always practice Universal Precautions and good hand washing
TEST TAKING EXAM-CD SET B

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Marie De Pona St. Jude Review Center

MIDWIFERY

50. The most common therapy in prevention, multiplication of AIDS virus is by:
a. Antiviral azidothymidine or rabairrin treatment
b. Replacement of destroyed immune cells through bone marrow
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
51. A midwife is conducting a lecture on the prevention of the spread of HIV. Which of the following measures is not
appropriate?
a. Patients infected with AIDS should be secluded.
b. Collected specimens should be labeled AIDS precaution
c. Needles should be disposed into a puncture resistant container
d. Blood spills should be cleaned with bleach.
52. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT, are used in the management of AIDS. Which of the following is NOT an action
expected of these drugs.
a. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS.
b. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition.
c. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease.
d. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
53. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?
a. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
b. Making sure that ones sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS
c. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers
d. Using a condom during each sexual contact
54. Patients who are suffering from influenza are at risk for acquiring pneumonia. What should a midwife do to
prevent this from happening?
a. Keep the patient warm and free from drafts in bed.
b. Keep patient away from persons suffering from respiratory tract infections.
c. Always provide TSB when the patient is having a fever.
d. Report the case to local Health Officer as soon as possible.
55. The following should be included in a midwifes teaching plan in educating the public regarding methods in
preventing and controlling influenza, except;
a. Educate the public to avoid spitting in public places
b. Educate the public to avoid sharing towels, glasses, and eating utensils
c. Educate the public to the importance of influenza vaccine
d. Educate the public the proper burning method on soiled clothing and linens.
56. Leprosy is also called:
a. Humptons disease
c. Hansen's disease
b. Humprey's disease
d. Harry's disease
57. The duration of treatment for paucibacillary leprosy cases?
a. 6-9 weeks
b. 6-9 months
c. 24-30 weeks
d. 24-30 months
58. Which of the following is the etiologic agent of leptospirosis?
a. Leptospira spirochete
c. Leptospira interrogans
b. Mycobacterium leprae
d. Leptospira spiroviridae
59. The pathognomonic sign for leptospirosis is
a. Orange eyes
b. Lioning face
c. Elephantiasis
d. Risus sardonicus
60. Characteristics of an anopheles mosquitoes, except.
a. Night time biting
c. High-flying
b. Common in rural areas
d. Clean stagnant water
61. What would be your intervention to a patient with malarial infection who is under wet stage?
a. Keep patient warm
c. Change wet clothing
b. Perform TSB
d. Encourage fluid intake
62. Chemoprophylaxis drug for malaria.
a. Chloroquine
b. Primaquine
c. Quinine
d. None
63. Which of the following is NOT an anti-malarial drug?
a. Sulfadoxine
b. Amoxicillin
c. Tetracycline
d. Quinidine
64. You may see Koplik's spot by inspecting the _____.
a. Skin on the antecubital surface
c. Buccal mucosa
b. Nasal mucosa
d. Skin on the abdomen
65. How is measles transmitted to other person?
a. Droplet
b. Unprotected sex
c. Airborne
d. Contaminated water
66. What skin manifestation can be observed to a child having the 3- day measle?
a. Generalized flushing of the skin
b. Rashes that appears on chest spreading gradually upward and downward
c. Macupapular rashes on the cheeks (slightly elevated)
d. Rose-red papules on the face
67. Meningitis is also known as
a. Neisseria meningitides
c. Cerebrospinal fever
b. Meningococcus
d. M-fever
68. This is given to patients with meningitis to relieve cerebral edema?
a. Valium
b. Dexamethasone
c. Penicillin
d. Diazepam
69. A mother of 6-year-old boy with meningococcemia came to the RHU and said that his child has been complaining
of deafness. What would be your response?
a. Tell the guardian deafness is the side effect of his medication and will subside in no time.
b. Deafness is one of the common signs of meningitis and will subside as he gets well
c. Record the findings and instruct mother on standard precautions
d. Refer the child for audiology testing
TEST TAKING EXAM-CD SET B

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Marie De Pona St. Jude Review Center

MIDWIFERY

70. Time between when a person is exposed to MERS-CoV and when they start to have symptoms.
a. 2 to 14 days
c. 8 to 10 days
b. 10 to 15 days
d. 8 hours to 24 hours
71. MERS-CoV was initially known as ______ in 2012.
a. New Mellenium Disease
c. Novel Coronavirus
b. Middle East Respiratory Syndrome
d. Arabian virus
72. The etiologic agent of Epidemic parotitis is mums virus which is under what virus family?
a. Paramyxoviridae
c. Haemophilus influenza
b. Influenza virus
d. None of the above
73. The most common complication in male adults infected with mumps virus?
a. Anorexia
b. Infertility
c. Orchitis
d. Erectile dysfunction
74. A patient infected with mumps virus is suffering from sudden rise of temperature, stiff neck, double vision, and
delirium. You would suspect that the patient is suffering from;
a. Encephalitis
c. Common s/sx of mumps
b. Meningitis
d. Pneumonia
75. The causative agent for paragonimiasis.
a. Paragonimus westermani
c. Paragonimus philippinensis
b. Paragonimus siamenses
d. All of the above
76. Which of the following is an alternative drug to paragonimiasis patient who is resistant to praziquantel?
a. Biltrizide
b. Hetrazan
c. Bithionol
d. Metronidazole
77. Which of the following organisms causes red tide in the seas around Manila Bay, Samar, Bataan, and Zambales?
a. Pyromidium bahamense var. planktossum
c. Bahamense var. compressum
b. Pyromidium bahamense var. compressum
d. Pyromidium
78. How is PSP transmitted?
a. By ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked seafood especially during red tide season.
b. By ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked seafood especially during high tide season.
c. By ingestion of contaminated water source
d. All of the above
79. The toxin of Pyromidium in PSP increases 15 times greater when mixed or cooked with
a. Gata
b. Vinegar
c. Soy sauce
d. Sea salt
80. Which of the following statements is FALSE about red tide poisoning?
a. The toxin of red tide is totally destroyed upon cooking.
b. Fluids should not be given at the late stage or PSP.
c. Do not cook or mix shellfish affected with red tide with any form of acid.
d. Pure coconut milk weakens the toxic effect of red tide.
81. A doctor would order this type of test to confirm the infecting organism to patients with pneumonia.
a. Blood tests
b. X-ray
c. Sputum test
d. Ultrasound
82. Which of the following instructions should not be included to patients with pneumonia?
a. Have an adequate bed rest
c. Minimize salt and calorie intake
b. Frequent turning from side to side
d. Increase fluid intake
83. Mang Ramon came to the RHU because he was bitten by their dog. What would be your priority?
a. Administration of Anti- rabies vaccine
b. Provision of dim, quiet and non- stimulating room for the client
c. Assessment of wound for classification, severity, and other signs and symptoms
d. Provision of isolation precautions
84. Which among these groups needs prophylaxis for rabies?
a. Barangay tanod officials patrolling the streets at night, side walk vendors, veterinarians and animal
handlers
b. All people living within an area where there are dogs that roam their neighborhood
c. Pet owners, animal handlers, health personnel working in anti-rabies units and children below 15 years
old
d. Pregnant women, side walk vendors, pet owners, veterinarians and infants.
85. The first case of SARS was recognized when?
a. April 11, 2002
c. April 12, 2002
b. April 11, 2003
d. April 12, 2003
86. Within 2 to 7 days the illness may precede this stage in SARS as characterized by dry and non-productive cough
with or without respiratory distress.
a. Prodromal
b. Respiratory
c. Incubation
d. Icteric
87. The causative factor of scabies.
a. Sarcoptes scabiei
c. Trichuris trichuria
b. Pediculosis Capitis
d. Sparticus scabiei
88. The drug of choice for scabies.
a. Metronidazole
b. Kwell
c. Antibiotics
d. Hydrocortisone
89. The infective stage of oncomelania quadrasi is called
a. Cercaria
b. Prodromal
c. Infectious
d. Late stage
90. What is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
c. Building of foot bridges
d. Proper use of sanitary toilets
91. A patient with tetanus complains of facial muscle tightening. As a midwife, you would anticipate that this drug
should be included in his prescription.
a. Diazepam
b. Bronchodilator
c. Pen G
d. ATS

TEST TAKING EXAM-CD SET B

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Marie De Pona St. Jude Review Center

MIDWIFERY

92. Which of the following should a midwife emphasize when conducting a seminar on method of prevention and
control of tetanus neonotarum?
a. Licensing of midwives into professional supervision
b. Methods, equipment and techniques of sepsis in childbirth
c. Health education of mothers, relatives and attendants in the practice of strict aseptic technique of
umbilical care in newborn.
d. All of these measures
93. The following are tests and diagnosis for trichomoniasis, except.
a. Microscopic exam of vaginal fluid and urine for men
b. Rapid antigen test
c. Nucleic acid amplification
d. Kalm test
94. The pathognomonic sign for syphilis.
a. Painless chancre sore
c. Painful chancre sore
b. Yellowish discharge
d. Dysuria
95. What diagnostic procedure is usually done early in the morning to confirm PTB?
a. Chest X- ray
c. Sputum Examination
b. Bronchoscopy
d. All of the above
96. A patients right forearm that had PPD test is reddened and raised about 3mm. This would be reads as;
a. Indeterminate
c. Needs to be redone
b. Negative
d. Positive
97. If a client is positive for sputum culture, he will be sent for a chest x-ray for what reason?
a. To confirm the diagnosis
b. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed
c. To determine the extent of the lesions
d. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection
98. As a midwife, what would be your appropriate action to a client with TB who does not regularly take his
medication?
a. Ask the clients spouse to supervise the daily administration of the medications.
b. Visit the clinic weekly to ask him whether he is taking his medications regularly.
c. Notify the physician of the clients non-compliance and request a different prescription.
d. Remind the client that TB can be fatal if not taken properly
99. All of the following instructions should be included in your care plan to a family taking care of their member
infected with S. Typhi, except.
a. Demonstrate how to give bedside care such as TSB and changing bed linen.
b. Instruct to report immediately if there is sudden drop in temperature and abdominal pain.
c. Teach family member on how to take and record vital signs.
d. Explain to the family that blood in the stool is expected to patients with typhoid fever.
100. As a midwife, what would be your focus in taking care of a patient with pertussis?
a. Prevention of complication
c. Proper nose and throat care
b. Reporting of further complication
d. Providing vaccines

TEST TAKING EXAM-CD SET B

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