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KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-1
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

Which of the following countries have an Unwritten Constitution?


a) U.S.A
b) U.K.
c) Pakistan
d) India
The Constitution of India was adopted on
a) 26 January, 1950
b) 26 January, 1949
c) 26 November, 1949
d) 31 December, 1949
How many schedules does the Constitution of India contain?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Under which article of Constitution Jammu and Kashmir does enjoys special
constitutional position?
a) Article 356
b) Article 124
c) Article 170
d) Article 370
Which of the following is a feature to both the Indian Federation and the American
Federation?
a) A singe citizenship
b) Dual judiciary
c) Three Lists in the constitution
d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Which of the following is not a tool of legislative control over administration in
India?
a) Dissolution of House
b) Resolutions
c) Questions
d) No Confidence Motion
In which year were the Indian states reorganized on the linguistic basis?
a) 1947
b) 1951

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8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

c) 1956
d) 1966
The articles 17 and 18 of constitution provide
a) Social equality
b) Economic equality
c) Political equality
d) Religious equality
The constitution of India describes India as
a) A Union of States
b) Quasi-federal
c) A federation of state and union territories
d) A Unitary State
How many languages are contained in the VIIIth schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
a) 18
b) 22
c) 16
d) 12
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution provides for
a) Equality before law
b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
c) Abolition of titles
d) Abolition of untouched ability
Article 370 of the Constitution of India provides for
a) Temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir
b) Special provisions in respect of Nagaland
c) Provisions in respect of the financial emergency
d) None of these
Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) M.A. Jinnah
d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
The majority of the provisions of Indian Constitution can be amended
a) By the State Legislatures acting together
b) By the Parliament alone
c) With the joint approval of the Parliament and State Legislatures
d) Only on ratification by half of the States
A proclamation of emergency, under Article 352, on account of war or aggression
requires approval of the Parliament within
a) One month

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16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

b) Two months
c) Four months
d) Six months
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution upholds
a) Land reforms legislation in India
b) Diplomatic privileges and immunities
c) Special status of Jammu and Kashmir State
d) Duties and rights of Lokpal
In our Constitution, Economic Planning is included in
a) Union list
b) State list
c) Concurrent list
d) Not any specified list
Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of
State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
a) 42nd
b) 44th
c) 52nd
d) 56th
Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the Indian
Constitution?
a) Sovereign Democratic Republic
b) Socialist
c) Secular
d) Federal
The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under
Article 368 are
a) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
b) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of
Government
c) Judicial review and the federal system
d) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
and parliamentary system of Government
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State
Policy?
a) Part I
b) Part III
c) Part IV
d) Part V
Which is the national flower of India?
a) Rose

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b) Lotus
c) Lily
d) Sunflower
23. Which Amendment Act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian
Constitution?
a) The 38th Amendment Act, 1975
b) The 40th Amendment Act, 1976
c) The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
d) The 44th Amendment Act, 1979
24. What is the motto incorporated under our National Emblem?
a) Satyam Shivam
b) Amendment Act Sundaram
c) Satyameva Jayate
d) Jai Hind
25. By which Amendment were Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution?
a) 40th Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment
c) 44th Amendment
d) 45th Amendment
ANSWERS
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.

b
a
d
c
c

2.
7.
12.
17.
22.

c
c
a
c
b

3.
8.
13.
18.
23.

d
a
a
a
c

4.
9.
14.
19.
24.

d
a
b
d
c

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5.
10.
15.
20.
25.

d
b
a
d
b

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SECTION-2

26. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouch ability?


a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 17
27. Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government?
a) China
b) USA
c) Cuba
d) Belgium
28. How many Articles are there in the Indian Constitution?
a) 448
b) 396
c) 398
d) 399
29. Although Union List, State List and concurrent List cover the entire legislative
business, yet there may be an item not mentioned anywhere. Who will legislate on
that item?
a) Parliament only
b) State Legislature only
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
30. A financial Emergency can be declared by applying
a) Article 360
b) Article 361
c) Article 370
d) Article 371
31. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the
a) Act of 1861
b) Act of 1909
c) Act of 1919
d) Act of 1939
32. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Chief Justice of a High Court
c) Governor

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33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

d) Vice President
Consent of the people means consent of
a) A few people
b) All people
c) Majority of the people
d) Leader of the people
When was our National Anthem first sung and where?
a) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
b) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
c) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
d) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words Socialist
and Secular in the Preamble?
a) 28th
b) 40th
c) 42nd
d) 52nd
The Constitution of India came into force on
a) 26 January, 1950
b) 26 January, 1952
c) 15 August, 1948
d) 26 November, 1949
The term Caste was derived from
a) Portuguese
b) Dutch
c) German
d) English
The term Greater India denotes
a) Political unity
b) Cultural unity
c) Religious unity
d) Social unity
Which is an extra-Constitutional body?
a) Language Commission
b) Planning Commission
c) Election Commission
d) Finance Commission
The declaration of Constitutional Emergency in an Indian State has to be approved
by the Parliament within a period of
a) 2 months
b) 4 months

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41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

c) 6 months
d) 12 months
The number of subjects in the Union List of the Indian Constitution is
a) 47
b) 66
c) 97
d) 100
Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
a) Election commission
b) Financial commission
c) Union Public Service commission
d) Planning commission
The Constitution of India contains
a) 340 Articles
b) 395 Articles
c) 400 Articles
d) 448 Articles
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution deals with the Fundamental
Duties?
a) Article 39 C
b) Article 51 A
c) Article 29 B
d) None of the above
Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the
Constitution?
a) Right to Equality
b) Right against Exploit-action
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
d) Right to freedom of Religion
Who had proposed party less democracy in India?
a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Vinoba Bhave
d) S.A. Dange
The Drafting of the Constitution was completed on :
a) 26th January, 1950
b) 26th December, 1949
c) 26th November, 1949
d) 30th November, 1949
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

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b) Sardar Patal
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
49. The method of Impeachment of the President of India is adopted from
a) U.S.A.
b) U.K.
c) U.S.S.R.
d) France
50. In the English Schedule of the Constitution of India, which languages were added
subsequently?
a) English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit
b) Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri
c) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali
d) Marathi, Oriya, Konkani, Nepali

ANSWERS
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.

d
d
a
c
a

27.
32.
37.
42.
47.

b
c
a
d
c

28.
33.
38.
43.
48.

a
c
b
d
c

29.
34.
39.
44.
49.

a
d
b
b
a

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30.
35.
40.
45.
50.

a
c
a
c
c

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SECTION-3

51. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Presidents Rule introduced in a State
due to the failure of the constitutional machinery?
a) 352
b) 356
c) 360
d) 350
52. Who said that Oh! Disrespectable democracy! I love you?
a) G.B. Shaw
b) Carpenter
c) Lord Bryce
d) Appa Doral
53. The final authority to interpret our Constitution is the
a) President
b) Parliament
c) Prime Minister
d) Supreme Court
54. A secular State is one which:
a) has no religion of its own
b) is irreligious
c) is anti-religion
d) takes into consideration the religious sentiments of the people
55. The Parliament can legislate on subjects given in the Union List only in consultation
with the State Government for the State of:
a) Assam
b) Rajasthan
c) Jammu & Kashmir
d) Kerala
56. What is the colour of the Dharma Chakra in the middle of our national flag?
a) Sea blue
b) Black
c) Navy blue
d) Green
57. The Constitution of India describes the country as a
a) Union of States

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10

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58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

b) Federation
c) Unitary State
d) Confederation
The seventy third Amendment Act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution was passed to
a) Strengthen Panchayti Raj
b) Strengthen rural institutions
c) Strengthen urban institution
d) None of the above
Indian Constitution has divided the powers and function of the state into
a) Two lists
b) Three lists
c) Four lists
d) Five lists
The concept of Constitution first originated in
a) Switzerland
b) Britain
c) U.S.A.
d) Japan
On the subjects mentioned in the concurrent list, laws may be enacted by the
a) States and the Union
b) Union alone
c) States alone
d) States and the Union territories
Freedom of the press is implied in the right to
a) Equal protection of the laws
b) Freedom of speech
c) Freedom of association
d) Work and material security
The provisional President of the Constituent Assembly was
a) Sachidanand Sinha
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Articles 74 and 75 of Indian Constitution deal with matters of
a) The council of Ministers
b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) The President of India
d) The Cabinet Ministers
The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was
a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

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11

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66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
A proceeding under Article 226 in case of detention of a person is a
a) Civil proceeding
b) Criminal proceeding
c) Judicial proceeding
d) Statutory proceeding
Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India?
a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Dr. B.N. Rau
d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Which item out of the following is contained in the concurrent list?
a) Trade Union
b) Agriculture
c) Tolls
d) Markets and Fairs
Persons may change but rules should not change is the principle of
a) Absolute Monarchy
b) Constitutional Government
c) Unwritten Constitution
d) Republic
The Constituent Assembly of Indian was set up under the
a) Simon Commission proposals
b) Cripps proposals
c) Mountbatten plan
d) Cabinet Mission plan
The objectives of Indian Planning are
a) Increasing national income
b) Reducing inequalities in income and wealth
c) Elimination of poverty
d) All of the above
The term Fourth Estate is used for
a) The press and newspaper
b) Parliament
c) Judiciary
d) The Executive
Through which Constitutional Amendment was the Nagarpalika Bill passed?
a) 70th
b) 72nd
c) 73rd

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12

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74th

d)
74. Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/
State/ Concurrent lists?
a) State legislatures exclusively
b) Parliament alone
c) Parliament after State legislatures concur
d) Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
75. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected
members on the ground of defection?
a) 8th
b) 9th
c) 10th
d) 11th

ANSWERS
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.

b
c
a
b
d

52.
57.
62.
67.
72.

a
a
b
b
a

53.
58.
63.
68.
73.

d
a
a
a
d

54.
59.
64.
69.
74.

a
b
a
b
d

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55.
60.
65.
70.
75.

c
b
d
d
c

13

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SECTION 4

76. According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are
collectively responsible to the
a) President
b) Parliament
c) Lok Sabha
d) Rajya Sabha
77. Communism has given importance to
a) Political equality
b) Economic equality
c) Social equality
d) Natural equality
78. The two words that were inserted by the 42nd Amendment to the Preamble of the
Constitution are
a) Secular, Democratic
b) Sovereign, Democratic
c) Socialist, Secular
d) Secular, Republic
79. Sikkim was granted statehood in the year
a) 1973
b) 1974
c) 1975
d) 1976
80. From each according to his capacity, to each according to his needs is the
principle of
a) Democracy
b) Fascism
c) Communism
d) Dictatorship
nd
81. 52 Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 deals with
a) Union Territories
b) Defection and disqualification
c) Extending reservation
d) Abolition of privy purses

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14

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82. Cabinet system and Collective responsibility are the contributions of
a) Ireland
b) United States
c) India
d) Britain
83. Popular sovereignty was advocated by
a) Rousseau
b) John Locke
c) Thomas Hobbes
d) T.H. Green
84. The Creamy Layer, concept refers to
a) The grouping based on social status
b) The grouping based on castes
c) The grouping based on economic status
d) The grouping based on milk consumption
85. In the Constitution of India, the Right to Constitutional Remedies has been
provided in Article
a) 30
b) 31
c) 32
d) 35
86. Which amendment to the Constitution provide for the reservation of one-third
seats in the Municipal Boards and Village Panchayats for women?
a) 73rd and 74th Amendments
b) 82nd and 83rd Amendments
c) 72nd and 73rd Amendments
d) 74th and75th Amendments and Ordinary Law
87. By which constitutional amendment political defections were banned?
a) The Fiftieth amendment of 1984
b) The fifty-third amendment of 1986
c) The fifty-fourth amendment of 1986
d) The fifty-second amendment of 1985
88. Which Article of the Constitution provides special status to Jammu and Kashmir?
a) 360
b) 368
c) 370
d) 375
89. The system of privy purses in respect of former rulers of Indian States before
Independence was abolished by the Constitution through
a) 26th Amendment Act, 1971
b) 27th Amendment Act, 1971

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15

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38th

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

c)
Amendment Act, 1975
d) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
What is meant when the Constitution declares India a Secular State?
a) Religious worship is not allowed
b) Religious are patronized by the State
c) The State regards religious as a private affairs of the citizen and does
not discriminate on this basis
d) None of these
Which State enjoys the distinction of being the first linguistic state of India?
a) West Bengal
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
When a constitutional amendment bill goes to the President, he
a) Can withhold his assent
b) Can return it to the Parliament for reconsideration
c) Can delay it for not more than six months
d) Is bound to give his assent
The Federal System with strong Centre has been borrowed by the Indian
Constitution from
a) United States of America
b) Canada
c) United Kingdom
d) France
Which of the following rights is not granted by the Constitution of India at present
as a fundamental right?
a) Right to equality
b) Right to freedom
c) Right to property
d) Right against exploitation
Which among the following writs comes in to the category of public litigation
petition before high court of Supreme Court?
a. the challenge to election of the office bearers of a political party
b. against political interference
c. against the decision of lower court
d. against a general topic
What is the period with in which a proclamation of national emergency made by
the president is to be placed before each house of the parliament for approval?
a. within one month
b. within two months
c. within four months

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16

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97.

98.

99.

100.

d. within six months.


What is the exact constitutional position of the Indian republic when the
constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January 1950?
a. A democratic republic
b. A sovereign democratic republic
c. A sovereign secular democratic republic
d. A sovereign secular socialist democratic republic
Fabianism is closely related to
a. Fascism
b. Scientific socialism
c. Democratic socialism
d. Liberalism
The federal structure for India was first put forward by the
a. Act of 1909
b. Act of 1919
c. Act of 1935
d. Act of 1947
Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the
Indian constitution?
a. British constitution
b. US constitution
c. Irish constitution
d. The government of India act, 1935

ANSWERS
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.

b
b
a
b
a

77.
82.
87.
92.
97.

b
d
d
d
b

78.
83.
88.
93.
98.

c
c
c
b
c

79.
84.
89.
94.
99.

c
c
a
c
c

80.
85.
90.
95.
100.

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c
c
c
d
d

17

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SECTION 5

101. How does the constitution of India describe India as?


a. A federation of states and union Territories
b. A union of states
c. Bharatvarsh
d. A federated nation
102. Right to vote is mentioned in the part of the constitution relating to
a. Fundamental right
b. Union legislature
c. State legislature
d. Election
103. A low can be enacted, or executive order issued even contrary to article 19, during
proclamation of emergency
a. Caused by war or external aggression
b. Caused by internal armed rebellion
c. Caused by constitutional breakdown
d. Caused by financial crisis
104. The following article of the Indian constitution abolished the practice of
untouchability.
a. Article 14
b. Article 18
c. Article 17
d. Article 19
105. From the following languages listed in the eighth schedule of the constitution pick
out the one which is the official language of a state:
a. Kashmiri
b. Urdu
c. Sindhi
d. Nepali
106. The term secular was added in the preamble to the Indian constitution by
a. 41st Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 43rd Amendment
d. 44th Amendment

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18

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107. Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the constitution of
India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a fundamental right.
a. Right to privacy
b. Equality before law
c. Abolition of untouchability
d. Right to form associations or unions
108. Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the constitution of
India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a fundamental Right?
a. Right to life
b. Equality of opportunity in matter of public employment
c. Protection of personal liberty
d. Right to permanent housing
109. Article 243 of the constitution of India inserted by a constitutional Amendment
deals with which of the following?
a. Extended the benefits of reservation on the basis of mandal
commission Recommendation
b. Land Reforms
c. To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official
language
d. Panchayati Raj system
110. From which Constitution of the world, the Indian constitution has adopted the
concept of Directive Principles of state policy ?
a. Ireland
b. U.S.A.
c. Canada
d. Australia tanks and wells
111. The concept of political sovereignty was advocated by
a. Plato
b. John Locke
c. Rousseau
d. Austin
112. Plural theory of sovereignty emphasizes of
a. A. State
b. Religion
c. Individuals
d. Association
113. Where is the objective of social justice articulated in the constitution of India?
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 16
d. Preamble

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19

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114. Under which article of the constitution can emergency be declared in India on
account of war or external aggression?
a. Article 356
b. Article 352
c. Article 353
d. Article 354
115. Form which historical work were the words Satyameva Jayate appearing under
the national emblem taken?
a. Bhagawad Gita
b. Rig veda
c. Ramayana
d. Mundaka Upanishad
116. Which among the following legislation gives constitutional status to three tier
Panchayati Raj system?
a. 72nd constitutional amendment, 1992
b. 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993
c. 74th constitutional amendment, 1993
d. 75th constitutional amendment, 1994
117. Which among the following Articles of the Indian constitution provides for states
emergency and suspends constitutional arrangement in a state?
a. Article 352
b. Article 356
c. Article 389
d. Article 392
118. Article 32 of the Indian constitution relates to:
a. Right against exploitation
b. Right to religion
c. Right to constitutional remedies
d. Right to equality
119. What was the basis for constituting the constituent Assembly of India?
a. The Resolution of the Indian national congress
b. The cabinet mission plan, 1946
c. The Indian Independence act, 1947
d. The resolutions of the provincial/ State legislatures of the dominion
of India
120. Civil equality implies
a. equality before law
b. equality of opportunity
c. equal distribution of wealth
d. equal right to participate in the affairs of the state

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20

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121. During emergency, imposed under art. 352 which of the following constitutional
provisions stands suspended?
a. Directive principle of state policy
b. Amendment procedures
c. Fundamental right
d. Judicial review
122. Where the constitutional power is located enabling the central government to
legislate on cow slaughter?
a. Entry 17, list 3 in schedule 7 prevention of cruelty to Animals
b. Residuary powers under Art 248.
c. Emergency power
d. Art 48 in the directive principles
123. What is the playing time of the full version of the Indian National Anthem?
a. 47 seconds
b. 50 seconds
c. 52 seconds
d. 60 seconds
124. What constitutional provision enables the central government to provide
reservations in jobs and educational institution for the weaker sections of the
society?
a. Article 14
b. Article 16
c. Article 46
d. Article 19
125. Article 370 of the constitution is applicable to the state of:
a. Nagaland
b. Mizoram
c. Manipur
d. Jammu and Kashmir

ANSWERS
101.
106.
111.
116.
121.

b
b
c
b
c

102.
107.
112.
117.
122.

d
a
d
b
d

103.
108.
113.
118.
123.

a
d
d
c
c

104.
109.
114.
119.
124.

c
d
b
b
a

105.
110.
115.
120.
125.

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a
a
d
b
d

21

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SECTION 6

126. What provision in the constitution enabled the central government to impose the
service tax and to expand its span?
a. List 1, Schedule 7,
b. List 3, Schedule 7,
c. Residuary powers under Article 248,
d. Emergency powers.
127. Which of the following sets of Article deals with emergency provision ?
a. Article 32 and 226
b. Article 350 and 351
c. Article 352,356 and 336
d. Articles 335, 336 and 337
128. Which one of the following is a political right?
a. Right to freedom
b. Right to contest elections
c. Right equality before law
d. Right to life
129. Article 14 of the Indian constitution guarantees Indian citizens:
a. Equal protection of laws
b. Equality before law
c. Equal distribution of economic resources
d. Equality before law and equal protection of the laws
130. Article 19 of the Indian constitution provides:
a. 6 freedoms
b. 7 freedoms
c. 8 freedoms
d. 9 freedoms
131. Of various grounds below, which is the one criterion on which discrimination by
the state is not prohibited in Article 15 of the constitution?
a. Place of birth
b. Race
c. Language
d. Caste
132. Where is the objective of Social justice articulated in the constitution of India?

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22

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133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

a. Art.14
b. Art.16
c. Art.15
d. Preamble
From each according to his capacity, to each according to his needs is:
a. a socialist ideal
b. a communist ideal
c. a secular ideal
d. a democratic ideal
Where in the Indian constitution has economic justice been provided as one of
the objective?
a. Mental Rights
b. Directive principle
c. Fundamental Rights
d. Fundamental rights and the directive principle
Which one of the following is not enumerated as a right in the constitution of
India?
a. Political and social right
b. Educational right
c. Economic right
d. Right to religion
From the Constitution of which country the provision of federation was borrowed
while framing the constitution of India?
a. USA
b. UK
c. Canada
d. Switzerland
Who among the following was not a member of the constituent Assembly
established in July 1946?
a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b. K M Munishi
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Abdul Kalam Azad
Which Article of the Constitution of India accords special status to the state of
Jammu and Kashmir?
a. 324
b. 311
c. 370
d. 356
The Indian constitution recognized minorities on the basis of
a. Religion

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

23

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

b. Cast
c. Percentage of the population of the group to the total population
d. Colour
How many spokes are there in the Ashoka Chakra depicted on the National flag of
India?
a. 16
b. 20
c. 24
d. 32
The basic structure of our constitution was proclaimed by the Supreme Court in
a. Keshvananda Bharati Case
b. Golak Nath case
c. Minerva Mills case
d. Gopalan Case
India is a Republic, because
a. it is a parliamentary democracy
b. the head of the state is elected for a definite period
c. it is a democratic country
d. all of these
Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India?
a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
c. Sir B.N. Rao
d. Shri K.M. Munshi
The constitution of India lays down that the two houses of parliament must be
summoned at least
a. four times a year
b. thrice a year
c. twice a year
d. once a year
Which organ is the custodian of the national purse?
a. Executive
b. Judiciary
c. Legislature
d. Civil Servants
The right to vote in election to a parliament is a
a. Fundamental Right
b. Constitutional right
c. Legal right
d. Natural right
Which of the following countries has introduce Direct democracy?

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

24

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


a. Russia
b. India
c. France
d. Switzerland
148. Which Article of the constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its
practice in any form?
a. Article16
b. Article17
c. Article18
d. Article15
149. Which Article of the Indian constitution provides for the institution a Panchayati
Raj?
a. Article 36
b. Article 39
c. Article 40
d. Article 48
150. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas corpus
c. Quo Warrantor
d. Certiorari

ANSWERS
126.
131.
136.
141.
146.

c
c
c
a
b

127.
132.
137.
142.
147.

c
c
c
b
d

128.
133.
138.
143.
148.

b
b
c
c
b

129.
134.
139.
144.
149.

d
b
c
c
c

130.
135.
140.
145.
150.

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

a
c
c
c
b

25

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-7

151. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantage?
a) Greater adaptability
b) Strong State
c) Greater participation by the people
d) Lesser Chances of authoritarianism
152. Which one of the following is not an element of the State?
a) Population
b) Land
c) Army
d) Government
153. How many types of emergencies are envisaged by the Constitution?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
154. Which constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of
Fundamental Rights?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 62nd Amendment
c) 44th Amendment
d) 43rd Amendment
155. English is the official language of which one of the following Indian State?
a) Nagaland
b) Tripura
c) Assam
d) Manipur
156. The Panchayat Raj system in India was introduced under the direction of which
article of the constitution?
a) 32
b) 40
c) 45
d) 51
157. What should be the gap between first No-Confidence motion and second Noconfidence motion?
a) 2 month
b) 3 month
c) 6 month
d) 9 month

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

26

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


158. The Constitution of India assures economic justice to citizens through
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Fundamental duties
c) Preamble
d) Directive Principles of State Policy
159. Who interprets the Constitution?
a) Legislature
b) Executive
c) Judiciary
d) President
160. Nomination of Rajya Sabha Members by the President was taken from the
Constitution of:
a) U.S.A.
b) Ireland
c) South Africa
d) France
161. The concept of Sovereign Parliament originated in:
a) England
b) India
c) France
d) Japan
162. Who is considered the Architect of the Indian constitution?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) B.N. Rao
163. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of
a) U.S.A.
b) Canada
c) Germany
d) Australia
164. Not to destroy the Government property is a
a) Positive duty
b) Legal duty
c) Civil duty
d) Negative duty
165. Which of the following items is under the State List?
a) Agriculture
b) Criminal Law
c) Education
d) Defense
166. In the constitution of India, which Article mentions about the establishment of
Welfare State in India?
a) 99

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

27

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.

173.

174.

b) 38
c) 59
d) 69
The essential feature of democracy is giving prominence to the
a) Executive
b) Judiciary
c) Citizen
d) Civil Society
India is a secular state because in our country:
a) State has no religion
b) Religion has been abolished
c) State patronizes a particular religion
d) None of these
Which one of the following is a hindrance to liberty and independence?
a) Centralization
b) Decentralization
c) Privatization
d) Nationalization
As per Indian Constitution, the Right to Property is a
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Natural Rights
c) Legal Rights
d) Moral Rights
Which one of the following ceased to be a fundamental right under the
Constitution?
a) Right to Education
b) Right to work
c) Right to Property
d) Right to Equality before Law
The idea of Lokpal is taken from
a) Britain
b) America
c) Scandinavian Countries
d) France
Which country is following One Party System?
a) Mongolia
b) Spain
c) Chile
d) China
The mind and ideals of the framers of Constitution are reflected in the
a) Preamble
b) Fundamental Duties
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Directive Principles of State Policy

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

28

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


175. In which of the following list docs the subject planning figure?
a) State List
b) Concurrent List
c) Residuary List
d) Union List

ANSWERS
151.
156.
161.
166.
171.

b
b
a
b
c

152.
157.
162.
167.
172.

c
c
b
c
c

153.
158.
163.
168.
173.

c
c
d
a
d

154.
159.
164.
169.
174.

c
c
c
a
a

155.
160.
165.
170.
175.

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

a
b
a
c
b

29

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-8

176. Which of the following is not a Union Territory?


a) Pondicherry
b) Nagaland
c) Daman and Diu
d) Lakshadweep
177. By which Constitutional Amendment Bill, did the Parliament lower the voting age
from 21 to 18 years?
a) 42nd
b) 44th
c) 61st
d) 73rd
178. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian Constitution?
a) Parliamentary form of Government
b) Independence of Judiciary
c) Presidential form of Government
d) Federal Government
179. The Supreme Court of India was set up:
a) By the Constitution
b) By the law of President
c) By the Presidential Order
d) By the Act of 1947
180. Indian Constitution is:
a) Federal
b) Quasi Federal
c) Unitary
d) Presidential
181. Constitution of India came into force in
a) 1951
b) 1956
c) 1950
d) 1949
182. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution ensures social and economic
democracy?
a) Emergency Provisions
b) Centre- State relations
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) None of the above
183. Article -1 of the Indian Constitution declares India that is Bharat is a:

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

30

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

184.

185.

186.

187.

188.

189.

190.

191.

a) Union of States
b) Federal State with Unitary features
c) Unitary State with federal features
d) Federal State
The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on :
a) Simon Commission
b) Lord Curzon Commission
c) Dimitrov Thesis
d) Lord Clives report
The National Emergency in India declared by the President of India due to the
external aggression or armed revolt through
a) Article-352
b) Article-356
c) Article-360
d) Article-368
Who described the Government of India Act, 1935 as a new charter of bondage?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Rajendra Prasad
c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
d) B.R. Ambedkar
In which part of the Indian Constitution, the fundamental duties are enshrined?
a) IV A
b) IV B
c) V
d) IV
Who is custodian of the Indian Constitution?
a) President of India
b) Chief Justice of India
c) Prime Minister of India
d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Which has become a legal right under 44th amendment?
a) Right of Education
b) Right of Property
c) Right to Judicial Remedies
d) Right to work
By which Constitution Amendment Act, Right to Property ceased to remain a
fundamental right?
a) 44th
b) 42nd
c) 43rd
d) 45th
____ are essential for liberty.
a) Restrictions
b) Rights

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

31

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

192.

193.

194.

195.

196.

197.

198.

199.

c) Privileges
d) Laws
Which is the most important system in Democracy?
a) Social
b) Political
c) Economic
d) Governmental
Which Article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar term as the Heart
and Soul of the Indian Constitution?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 356
d) Article 32
Under which Article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the
members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?
a) Article 33
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 25
Which one of the following languages is not specified in the Eighth schedule of the
Indian Constitution?
a) Urdu
b) English
c) Sindhi
d) Sanskrit
Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for equal opportunities for all
citizen in Public employment?
a) Article 22
b) Article 16
c) Article 20
d) Article 25
Which one of the following is opposite to democratic state?
a) Despotism
b) Republic
c) Socialism
d) Monarchy
The concept of Concurrent List in Indian constitution is borrowed from Constitution
of
a) Japan
b) Canada
c) Australia
d) U.S.A.
Under which Article of the Constitution can an individual move to the Supreme
Court directly in case of any violation of Fundamental Rights?

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

32

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a) Article 32
b) Article 28
c) Article29
d) Article 31
200. To which category right to vote belongs?
a) Human Rights
b) Civil Rights
c) Natural Rights
d) Political Rights

ANSWERS
176.
181.
186.
191.
196.

b
c
c
b
b

177.
182.
187.
192.
197.

c
c
a
b
a

178.
183.
188.
193.
198.

c
a
b
d
c

179.
184.
189.
194.
199.

a
a
b
a
a

180.
185.
190.
195.
200.

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

b
a
a
b
d

33

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-9

201. Residuary powers under the Indian Constitution means


a) The powers relating to International Affairs
b) The powers relating to International Emergency
c) The powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government
and the State
d) The powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union
List, State List and Concurrent List
202. Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution?
a) The Preamble
b) Part III
c) Part IV
d) Part I
203. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State Governments to organize
Village Panchayats?
a) Article 32
b) Article 37
c) Article 40
d) Article 51
204. Which Article empowers the President to impose Financial Emergency?
a) Article 356
b) Article 364
c) Article 352
d) Article 360
205. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to regulate right
of citizenship?
a) Article 8
b) Article 9
c) Article 10
d) Article 11
206. Which of the following would be called a Secular state?
a) The state which follows a particular religion
b) The state which is anti-religion
c) The state which does not discriminate between religions
d) The state which accepts all religions as religions of state
207. Which Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution gave constitutional status to
Panchayati Raj System?
a) 71st
b) 72nd

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

34

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


73rd

208.

209.

210.

211.

212.

213.

214.

215.

c)
d) 74th
Special status to Jammu and Kashmir is given by the Indian Constitution under the
article
a) 364
b) 368
c) 370
d) 377
The method of amending the Constitution by popular veto is found in
a) Britain
b) Switzerland
c) Russia
d) India
The unification of Karnataka was achieved in the year
a) 1956
b) 1957
c) 1958
d) 1960
Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India to be a
a) Union of States
b) Federal State
c) Quasi-Federal State
d) Unitary State
Residuary powers in the Indian Constitution have been assigned to
a) Union Parliament only
b) State Legislatures only
c) Both Union Parliament and State Legislatures
d) None of the above
The phrase equality before law used in Article- 14 of Indian Constitution has been
borrowed from ______
a) U.S.A.
b) Germany
c) Britain
d) Greece
The playing time (in second) of the full version of Indian National Anthem is
a) 60
b) 52
c) 55
d) 57
The number of subjects incorporated in the Union List is
a) 97
b) 102
c) 82
d) 89

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

35

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


216. Democratic Socialism aims at
a) Bringing about Socialism through peaceful means
b) Bringing about Socialism through violent and peaceful means
c) Bringing about Socialism through violent means
d) Bringing about Socialism through democratic means
217. How many items are there in the Union List?
a) 52
b) 66
c) 97
d) 99
218. How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended so far?
a) Three times
b) Two times
c) Once
d) Not amended
219. When did the Constitution Assembly adopt National Anthem?
a) 25th January 1950
b) 26th January 1950
c) 24th January 1950
d) 29th January 1950
220. In which year were the States recognized on a linguistic basis?
a) 1951
b) 1947
c) 1950
d) 1956
221. The state Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises Municipal
elections under
a) Article 240(1)
b) Article 241 (2)
c) Article 243 (K)
d) Article 245 (D)
222. Which of the following judgments stated that Secularism and Federalism are the
basic features of the Indian Constitution?
a) Keshavananda Bharati case
b) S.R. Bommai case
c) Indira Sawhney case
d) Minerva Mills case
223. Which one of the Constitutional amendment has established Panchayati Raj
Institution?
a) 72nd Amendment act
b) 71st Amendment act
c) 73rd Amendment act
d) 78th Amendment act
224. The Election Commission is established under the Article

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

36

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


a) Article 355
b) Article 256
c) Article 324
d) Article 320
225. Which of these is NOT included as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution?
a) Right to Freedom of Speech
b) Right to Equality before the Law
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
d) Right to equal wages for equal work

ANSWERS
201.
206.
211.
216.
221.

d
c
a
d
c

202.
207.
212.
217.
222.

a
c
a
c
b

203.
208.
213.
218.
223.

c
c
c
c
c

204.
209.
214.
219.
224.

d
b
b
c
c

205.
210.
215.
220.
225.

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

d
a
a
d
d

37

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-10

226. Which of the following can a court issue for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
a) A decree
b) An Ordinance
c) A writ
d) A notification
227. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Rights?
a) Right to equality
b) Right to liberty
c) Right against Exploitation
d) Right to Property
228. What is the category in which the negotiating strategy of a strike by the
Government employees falls?
a) Fundamental Rights of freedom of association and expression
b) Legal Right
c) Trade Union right as common law
d) There is no right
229. On which of the following day, United Nations General Assembly ratified its
universal declaration on human rights?
a) October 24, 1945
b) December 10, 1948
c) December 16, 1966
d) April 25, 1995
230. Fundamental Rights in India are guaranteed by it through
a) The Right to Equality
b) Right against Exploitation
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
d) Education and Cultural Rights
231. How many Fundamental Duties are included in Indian Constitution?
a) Nine
b) Ten
c) Eleven
d) Twelve
232. The Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of
a) United State of America
b) United Kingdom
c) Switzerland

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

38

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


233.

234.

235.

236.

237.

238.

239.

240.

d) Canada
The writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights are issued by
a) The Parliament
b) The President
c) The Supreme Court
d) The Election Commission
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that fundamental rights
are unamendable?
a) A.K. Gopalans case
b) Keshvananda Bhartis case
c) M.C. Mehtas case
d) Golak Naths case
Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule
of
a) Indira Gandhi Government
b) Morarji Desai Government
c) Narasimha Rao Government
d) Vajpayee Government
The chapter on Fundamental Duties includes
a) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired out
freedom movement
b) Duty to vote in General Election
c) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
d) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested
election
Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution
a) Supreme Court
b) Parliament
c) Constitution
d) President
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
a) Part I
b) Part II
c) Part III
d) Part IV
Fundamental Rights are not given to
a) Bankrupt persons
b) Aliens
c) Persons suffering from incurable diseases
d) Political sufferers
Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Rights?

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

39

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

241.

242.

243.

244.

245.

246.

247.

a) Legislature
b) Executive
c) Political parties
d) Judiciary
Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available to Indian citizens only?
a) Equality before law
b) Protection of life and personal liberty against any action without
authority of law
c) Protection from discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
or place of birth
d) Freedom of religion
Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by
a) 24th Amendment
b) 39th Amendment
c) 42nd Amendment
d) 44th Amendment
Fundamental Rights granted to the Indian citizens
a) Cannot be suspended
b) Can be suspended
c) Can never be suspended under any circumstance
d) None of the above is correct
Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
a) Right to religion
b) Right to constitutional remedies
c) Right to property
d) Right to education
Which one of the following is a Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution
of India?
a) Right to govern
b) Right to property
c) Right to information
d) Right to equality
Right to free education within certain limits is
a) Guaranteed as a Fundamental Right
b) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Outlined in the Preamble of the Constitution
d) Ignored by the Constitution
The two basic principles of the liberal theory of democracy as emphasized by John
Locke, are
a) Universal Adult Franchise and the Right to property

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

40

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


b) Representative Democracy and Workers Right
c) Popular Sovereignty and constitution government
d) Women suffrage and popular sovereignty
248. List of Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution as Part
a) Four
b) Five
c) Two
d) Three
249. Socialist thinkers advocate the extension of the right to equality in
a) Political sphere
b) Economic sphere
c) Social sphere
d) Legal sphere
250. In the Constitution of India, the Fundamental Rights
a) Formed a part of the original Constitution
b) Were added by the Fourth Amendment
c) Were added by the Parliament in 152
d) Were added under the forty second Amendment

ANSWERS
226.
231.
236.
241.
246.

c
c
a
c
a

227.
232.
237.
242.
247.

d
a
a
c
a

228.
233.
238.
243.
248.

b
c
c
b
a

229.
234.
239.
244.
249.

b
b
b
b
b

230.
235.
240.
245.
250.

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

c
b
d
d
a

41

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-11

251. In India, the right to property is now recognized as


a) A fundamental right
b) A legal right
c) A natural right
d) A political right
252. Right to vote is a
a) Political right
b) Civil right
c) Economic right
d) Legal right
253. Which Fundamental Right according to Dr. Ambedkar is like the heart of the
Constitution?
a) Right of Constitutional remedies
b) Right to religion
c) Right to equality
d) Right to freedom
254. What is the status of the Right to Property now?
a) Legal Right
b) Human Right
c) Fundamental Right
d) Natural Right
255. A court enforces enjoyment of a Fundamental Right by issuing
a) A decree
b) An ordinance
c) A writ
d) A notification
256. Political Right does not include which of the following?
a) Right to vote
b) Right to life
c) Right to contest in election
d) Right to lodge complaint with executive bodies of the Government
257. When were the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens incorporated in the
constitution?
a) 1952
b) 1976
c) 1979

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

42

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


258.

259.

260.

261.

262.

263.

264.

265.

d) 1981
The Right to Public office is a
a) Civil right
b) Economic right
c) Moral right
d) Political right
Which case is related to Fundamental Right?
a) Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
b) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
c) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
d) State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)
The chief Minister is appointed by
a) President of India
b) Chief Justice of High Court
c) Governor
d) President of the Party
The success of democracy depends upon the
a) Right to criticise
b) Right to association
c) Right to personal liberty
d) Right to property
Right to Education became a fundamental right on
a) March 15, 2010
b) April 1, 2010
c) July 17, 2010
d) October 10, 2010
Which of the following is a political right?
a) Right to Work
b) Right to Education
c) Right to Freedom of Expression
d) Right to Vote
How many Fundamental Rights were granted initially?
a) Six
b) Seven
c) Four
d) Five
Which one of the following is an item included in the list of Fundamental Duties of
an Indian citizen in the Constitution?
a) To practice secularism
b) To develop scientific temper humanism and the spirit of enquiry and
reform

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

43

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

266.

267.

268.

269.

270.

271.

272.

273.

c) To pay all taxes to government regularly and correctly


d) Not to assault any public servant in the (during)performance of his
duties
When were the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution?
a) 1975
b) 1976
c) 1977
d) 1979
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was for the first time amended by the
a) 24th Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment
c) 44th Amendment
d) None of the above
Of the following words in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, which was not
inserted through the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976?
a) Socialist
b) Secular
c) Dignity
d) Integrity
Which one of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of
India?
a) Justice
b) Fraternity
c) Adult franchise
d) Equality of position
The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as
a) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
b) Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
c) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
d) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
Who proposed the Preamble before the drafting committee of the Constitution?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) B.N. Rao
d) Mahatma Gandhi
According to Preamble, the ultimate power lies in hands of:
a) Parliament
b) Constitution
c) President
d) People
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution makes no mention of

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

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a) Justice
b) Fraternity
c) Equality of status
d) Adult franchise
274. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of
India shall be filled within:
a) 1 month
b) 6 months
c) 3 months
d) 1 year
275. In Indian Republic, the real executive authority rests with the:
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Bureaucrats
d) Council of Ministers

ANSWERS
251.
256.
261.
266.
271.

b
b
c
b
a

252.
257.
262.
267.
272.

a
b
b
b
d

253.
258.
263.
268.
273.

a
a
d
c
b

254.
259.
264.
269.
274.

a
a
b
c
b

255.
260.
265.
270.
275.

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

c
c
b
d
d

45

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-12

276. Governance through trade union organisations is known as:


a) Guild Socialism
b) Fabian Socialism
c) Syndicalism
d) Liberalism
277. Parliamentary form of Government is also known as :
a) Responsive Government
b) Responsible Government
c) Federal Government
d) Presidential Government
278. One feature is common to the following bodies. Find it out. Supreme Court,
Election Commission, UPSC, Office of CAG
a) They are advisory bodies
b) They are extra constitutional bodies
c) They are controlled by legislature
d) They are constitutional bodies
279. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?
a) Governors of States
b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Court
c) Vice-President
d) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court
280. Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority
to perform a function that it was not performing?
a) Writ of Certiorari
b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
c) Writ of Mandamus
d) Writ of Quo Warranto
281. Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the
following parts of the Indian Constitution:
a) The Preamble
b) The Fundamental Rights
c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
d) The Seventh Schedule
282. What amidst the following is not true of the general electoral roll prepared
through the agency of the Election Commission? It is to be used for elections to the
a) Lok Sabha

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

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283.

284.

285.

286.

287.

288.

289.

290.

b) Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalika institutions


c) Legislative Assemblies of the state
d) Legislative Councils of the states where these exist
Which of the following categories of citizens of the prescribed age may be
registered as a voter?
a) Bankrupt
b) Convicted for certain crimes or corruption
c) Non- resident citizens
d) Mentally unsound
The system of judicial review originated in :
a) India
b) Germany
c) Russia
d) U.S.A.
Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?
a) Attorney General of India
b) Solicitor General of India
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Chief Election Commissioner
Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not?
a) President
b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
d) Finance Minister
Who is authorized to transfer the Judge of one High Court to another High Court?
a) The President
b) The Chief Justice of India
c) A Collegium of Judges of Supreme Court
d) The Law Minister
Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the
Punjab Reorganisation Act which created the states Punjab and Haryana?
a) Dhar Commission
b) Dass Commission
c) Shah Commission
d) Mahajan Commission
Which body framed the Constitution of Independent India?
a. Drafting Committee
b. Constituent Assembly
c. Union Constitution Committee
d. A Working Committee
The constituent Assembly was set up in :

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

47

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

291.

292.

293.

294.

295.

296.

297.

a. 1945
b. 1946
c. 1947
d. 1949
The Constitution of India was adopted by the
a. Governor General
b. Constituent Assembly
c. British Parliament
d. None of these above
Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. B.N Rao
d. Mahatma Gandhi
Who among the following was the Chairman of Steering Committee of the
Constituent Assembly?
a. B. R. Ambedkar
b. Rajendra Prasad
c. J. B. Kripalani
d. Tej Bahadur Sapru
Who among the following was the Chairman of States Committee of the
Constituent Assembly?
a. Rajendra Prasad
b. Lal Bahadur Shastri
c. Jawaharlal Nehru
d. B.N. Rao
Who among the following was the Chairman of Fundamental Rights SubCommittee of the Constituent Assembly?
a. J.B. Kripalani
b. Rajendra Prasad
c. B.R. Ambedkar
d. Gopinath Bardoloi
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into effect on
a. 14 August 1947
b. 18 July, 1947
c. 26 January, 1947
d. none of these
The President's Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum
period of
a. two months
b. five months

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c. six months
d. one year
298. According to Indian Constitution Treaty making power is conferred upon
a. The Prime Minister
b. The Foreign Minster
c. The President of India but is subject to ratification by the parliament
d. None of these
299. The Vice President of India is elected
a. by an electoral college consisting of all the members of Rajya Sabha
b. by an electoral college consisting of all the members of Lok Sabha
c. by an electoral college of all the members of both the Houses of
Parliament
d. by an electoral college of all the members of both the Houses of
Parliament in accordance with proportional representation by means
of single transferable vote and by secret ballot
300. The powers of the President of India are
a. beyond the Constitution
b. in accordance with the Constitution
c. in accordance with the Parliament
d. in accordance with the Supreme Court

ANSWERS
276.
281.
286.
291.
296.

c
c
b
b
b

277.
282.
287.
292.
297.

b
d
a
a
c

278.
283.
288.
293.
298.

d
c
c
b
c

279.
284.
289.
294.
299.

c
d
a
c
d

280.
285.
290.
295.
300.

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

c
a
b
a
b

49

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-13

301. The minimum gap permissible between two sessions of Parliament


a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 100 days
d. 90 days
302. The Council of Ministers remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of
a. President
b. Lok Sabha
c. Prime Minister
d. None of these
303. The Comptroller and Auditor-General(CAG) is appointed by
a. The President
b. The Council of Ministers
c. The Prime Minister
d. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
304. To whom the Speaker of Lok Sabha has to address his resignation letter?
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
c. The Prime Minister
d. The President
305. Which is the largest committee of Parliament of India?
a. Public Accounts Committee
b. Business Advisory Committee
c. Estimates Committee
d. Joint Parliamentary Committee
306. As per President's Emoluments and Pension (Amendment) Act, 2008 (No. 28 of
2008) the emoluments of the President of India is:
a. 1.2 Lakh
b. 1.5 Lakh
c. 2 Lakh
d. 2.5 Lakh
307. 118th Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2012 related to
a. Amendment of First Schedule to Constitution
b. Empower the Governor of Karnataka to take steps to develop the HyderabadKarnataka Region
c. Insert a new article 371-J
d. Replace "Oriya" with "Odia"
308. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

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309.

310.

311.

312.

313.

314.

315.

316.

a. Federal court
b. Governors
c. British parliament
d. None of these
Who introduced the dual government system in Bengal?
a. Warren Hastings
b. Sir John Shore
c. Robert Clive
d. Sir Alured Clarke
The scheme of Morley-Minto constitutional reforms were came into effect through
a. Indian Councils Act, 1892
b. Montagu-Chelmsford reforms
c. Indian Council Act, 1909
d. The Government of India Act, 1919
Article 39A of the Constitution of India deals with
a. Free Legal Aid
b. Free and Compulsory Education
c. Free Housing to the Poor
d. Free Medical Aid to the Citizen
The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by:
a. The Cabinet
b. The Chief Justice of India
c. The Prime Minister of India
d. The President of India
Which one of the following amendment accorded precedence to Directive
principles to Fundamental Rights?
a. 44th Amendment
b. 24th Amendment
c. 39th Amendment
d. 42th Amendment
The oath is administered to the President of India by
a. Speaker of Lok Sabha
b. Prime Minister of India
c. Attorney General of India
d. Chief Justice of India
The special provisions to Finance Bills is provided under the Constitution of India in
:
a. Article 114
b. Article 115
c. Article 116
d. Article 117
Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during Emergency is dealt in :
a. Article 352
b. Article 355

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317.

318.

319.

320.

321.

322.

323.

324.

c. Article 358
d. Article 361
Provisions as to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled
Tribes are in :
a. Ninth Schedule
b. Seventh Schedule
c. Fifth Schedule
d. Third Schedule
Which one of the following amendment accorded precedence to Directive
principles to Fundamental Rights?
a. 44th Amendment
b. 24th Amendment
c. 39th Amendment
d. 42th Amendment
Which of the following Schedules relates to the Municipality?
a. VII
b. IX
c. XI
d. XII
Presidential satisfaction for imposing President Rule is
a. Subject to judicial review on the ground of malafied.
b. Subject to judicial review
c. Not subject to judicial review
d. Subject to judicial review after the rule ends
The current Lokpal Bill was introduced under :
a. Article 248
b. Article 252
c. Article 253
d. Article 246
The legislature of a State may impose restrictions on trade, commerce and
intercourse under :
a. Article 302
b. Article 303
c. Article 304
d. Article 305
Article 245 has been interpreted on the basis of :
a. Doctrine of Territorial Nexus
b. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
c. Doctrine of Eclipse
d. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
By 42nd Amendment Act the Preamble of Indian Constitution has been amended
at :
a. One place
b. Two places

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

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c. Three places
d. None of the above
325. Which of the following states has two houses?
a. Orissa
b. Karnataka
c. Assam
d. Rajasthan

ANSWERS
301.
306.
311.
316.
321.

d
b
a
c
c

302.
307.
312.
317.
322.

b
c
d
c
a

303.
308.
313.
318.
323.

a
b
d
d
a

304.
309.
314.
319.
324.

b
c
d
d
b

305.
310.
315.
320.
325.

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

c
c
d
b
b

53

KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

SECTION-14

326. The provisions dealing with the Supreme Court can be amended :
a. By absolute majority
b. By absolute majority and ratification
c. By special majority and ratification
d. By special majority
327. Which one of the following doctrines is not related to Article 13 of the
Constitution?
a. Doctrine of Eclipse
b. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
c. Doctrine Waiver
d. Doctrine of Severability
328. Which of the following is not state under Article 12 of the Constitution?
a. Gauhati University Student Union
b. C.S.I.R.
c. Municipal Corporation, Bhubaneshwar
d. Union Public Service Commission
329. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to Doctrine of self-incrimination?
a. Article 20(1)
b. Article 22
c. Article 20(3)
d. Article 20(2)
330. Indian Constitution was enacted and adopted on :
a. 26th January, 1950
b. 26th November, 1949
c. 15th August, 1947
d. 14th August, 1947
331. The Constitution(97th Amendment) Act, 2011 inserted under Article 19(1)(C) :
a. Associations
b. Unions
c. Organizations
d. Co-operative societies
332. New states are formed under Article 3 of the Constitution by :
a. A Law of the Parliament
b. By Constitutional Amendment under Article 368
c. By a Law of the State Legislature
d. By a Law of the State Legislature concerned and Law of the Parliament
333. Article 123 deals with :
a. Power of the President to dissolve Lok Sabha
b. Power of the Governor to promulgate ordinances

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KEY TO CRACK EXAMS

334.

335.

336.

337.

338.

339.

340.

c. Power of the President to promulgate ordinances


d. Power of the Parliament to pass the bills
Doctrine of Pith and Substance relates to :
a. Interpretation of statutes to solve the problem of competing legislature in
the same field
b. Serve the objectionable portions of the statute that violate Fundamental
Rights
c. Interpretation of statutes to solve problems arising out of territorial nexus
d. Interpretation of statutes to solve problems of waiver of Fundamental Rights
Provision of imposing the President's rule in case of failure of Constitutional
machinery in the states is provided under :
a. Article 353
b. Article 360
c. Article 352
d. Article 356
Removal or suspension of a member of Public Service Commission shall be done in
accordance with :
a. Article 316
b. Article 317
c. Article 350
d. Article 351
According to Article 233 the appointment of a District Judge shall be done by
a. The President in consultation with the High Court of the State concerned
b. The Governor of the State concerned in consultation with the High Court of
the State concerned
c. The Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
d. The collegium of the High Court
Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution provides protection of
certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc.?
a. Article 18(2)
b. Article 18(1)
c. Article 19
d. Article 20
Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution gives the provision of the
Post of Prime Minister of India?
a. Article 73
b. Article 74
c. Article 75
d. Article 74(1)
Which of the following methods is adopted for the election of the President of
India?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Proportional representation

MCQs FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

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KEY TO CRACK EXAMS


341.

342.

343.

344.

345.

346.

347.

348.

d. both [A] and [C]


In which of the following Articles is the procedure for impeachment of the
President mentioned?
a. Article 61
b. Article 60
c. Article 59
d. Article 58
By which of the following Amendment Act, Sikkim is associated with the Union?
a. 36th Amendment Act, 1975
b. 36th Amendment Act, 1974
c. 38th Amendment Act, 1975
d. 36th Amendment Act, 1974
Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any firm is forbidden in the essence
of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 16
d. Article 17
All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in which
language?
a. Hindi
b. English
c. Language of the Bill/Case
d. Both [A] and [B]
Which of the following Articles describes India as a Union of State?
a. Article 4
b. Article 1
c. Article 3
d. Article 2
Which Part of the Indian Constitution is associated with Citizenship?
a. Part-I
b. Part-II
c. Part-III
d. Part-IV
Right to Equality is mentioned in which of the following Articles of Indian
Constitution?
a. Article 14
b. Article 14(1)
c. Article 13(3)(1)
d. Article 15
Which of the following is not an eligibility criterion for election as President of
India?
a. Should be citizen of India
b. Should be at least 35 years of age

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c. Should be qualified for election to the House of the people
d. He should be elected as a member of the House of the People
349. The term of office of the President of India is :
a. 5 years from the date of his election
b. 5 years from the date of his entering upon his office
c. 7 years from the date of his election
d. 7 years from the date of his entering upon his office
350. In which year was the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) first constituted?
a. 1951
b. 1952
c. 1956
d. 1947

ANSWERS
326.
331.
336.
341.
346.

c
d
b
a
b

327.
332.
337.
342.
347.

c
a
b
a
a

328.
333.
338.
343.
348.

a
c
c
d
d

329.
334.
339.
344.
349.

c
c
d
b
b

330.
335.
340.
345.
350.

b
d
b
b
b

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57