1 | diagnostic exams

NORTH CREST REVIEW PROFESSIONALS, INC

IFUGAO STATE UNIVERSITY
DIAGNOSTIC EXAMS
Fundamentals of Health Care
1. A midwife is caring for a pregnant mother with eclampsia. She conceptualized the act of
utilizing the environment of the patient to assist or promote her recovery:
a. Virginia Henderson
c. Hildergard Peplau
b. Florence Nigntingale
d. Dorothea Orem
2. Mrs. Rulloda is a client whom you care for. When interviewing Mrs. Rulloda for her past
obstetric history, this is what step of the healthcare process:
a. Assessment
Implementation
b. Analysis
Evaluation
3. Mrs. Aly is complaining of pain. Pain medication was given by as ordered by the physician.
Which step of the healthcare process has taken place?
a. Assessment
Implementation
b. Planning
Evaluation
4. When setting goals in a care plan, it would be correct if objectives are:
a. Realistic
Attainable
b. With specific duration
All of the above
5. Midwife Anna asked Ms. Lloyd if the back massage she gave helped eased her back pain,
which step of the healthcare process this represents.
a. Assessment
c. Planning
b. Diagnosis
d. Evaluation
6. Of
a.
b.
c.
d.

the following statements, which is TRUE about temperature?

The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8pm to 12midnight
The lowest temperature is usually in early morning, around 12 midnight to 3am
Thyroxin decreases body temperature
Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to decreased thermoregulatory control.

7. Baby Peter has a fever of 38.5oC. It surges at around 40o and goes back to 38.5o 6 times
today in a typical pattern. This type of fever is called:
a. Relapsing
Remittent
b. Intermittent
Constant
8. Baby is naked and sitting in a room of normal room temperature. The mechanism of heat loss
applied is:
a. Conduction
Radiation
b. Convection
Evaporation
9. Midwife Cristine is assessing the blood pressure of a client diagnosed with primary
hypertension. She ensures accurate measurement by avoiding which of the following?
a. Seating the client with arm bore, supported, and at heart level.
b. Measuring the blood pressure after the client has been seated quietly for 5 minutes.
c. Using a cuff with rubber bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb.
d. Taking the blood pressure within 30 minutes after nicotine or caffeine ingestion.
10.Of the following statements, which is most true about pulse?

2 | diagnostic exams
a.
b.
c.
d.

Young persons have higher pulse than older persons.

Males have higher pulse rates than females after puberty.
Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect.
In lying position, pulse rate is higher.

11.All are objective findings, except:

a. Patient walks unsteadily.
b. Patient states that he feels dizzy.
c. Patient sat down suddenly after walking.
d. Patient has an abrasion on his knee.
12.
13.When assessing the skin, midwife Mylene knows that a flat lesion with circumscribed area of
color with no elevation of its surface is referred to as:
a. plaque
papule
b. macule
bulla

a.
b.

14.When assessing elderly clients Midwife Bebeth should be aware that normal aging will usually
not affect their:
Sense of taste or smell
Muscle or motor strength
Gastrointestinal motility
Ability to handle lifes stresses

a.
b.

15.During a hearing assessment, Midwife Ysa notes that the sound lateralizes to the clients left
ear with the Weber test. Midwife Ysa analyses these results as:
A normal finding
A sensorineural or conductive loss
A conductive hearing loss in the right ear
The presence of nystagmus

a.
b.
c.
d.

16.Which of the following sounds would midwife Ghie expect to find on auscultation of normal
lung?
Tympany over the right upper lobe
Resonance over the left upper lobe
Hyperresonnance over the left lower lobe
Dullness above the left 10th intercostal space

17.When ausculating the chest of a client, which finding indicates normal lung assessment?
There are continuous, low-pitched, coarse, gurgling, louder sounds with a moaning or snoring
quality.
b.
There is soft-intensity; low-pitched sounds created by air moving through smaller airways.
c.
Continuous, high-pitched musical sounds best heard on expiration.
d.
Fine, short, interrupted crackling sounds
a.

a.
b.

18.During an auscultation for normal heart sounds, a dull, low-pitched sound was heard. This
sound or phase is:
S1
Systole
S2
Diastole

a.
b.

19.Midwife Lucy is performing primary assessment on a child found lying on the floor. To assess
for the presence of pulse, Midwife Lucy is most likely to palpate for:
brachial pulse
femoral pulse
carotid pulse
radial pulse

a.

20.In palpating the clients breast, which of the following position is necessary for the patient to
assume before the start of the procedure?
Supine
Dorsal recumbent

3 | diagnostic exams
c.

Sitting

Lithotomy

a.
b.
c.
d.

21.Midwife Lorie is performing one-handed palpation after bimanual palpation of the left breast.
The following techniques are correct, except:
Place the client in supine position.
Palpate the breast tissue along the hands of the clock, moving from the areola to the periphery.
Use the fingertips of one hand.
Instruct the client to abduct the arm, and place her hand behind her head.

a.
b.

22.Midwife Bers is assessing patient Lesters abdomen. After inspection, what should be done
next?
Inspection
Percussion
Auscultation
Palpation

a.
b.

23.Midwife Gigi knows that the sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:
RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ
RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ
RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ
RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ

a.
b.
c.
d.

24.When teaching Patient Alfred how to perform testicular self-examination, all are correct
instructions, except:
Examine the testicles every other month, one at a time.
Use the fingertips to probe the surface gently, like examining an egg for imperfections.
Roll the testicles between the thumb and fingers.
Use the thumb, index, and middle fingers for examination.

a.
b.
c.
d.

25.When assessing an elderly client, the health care provider knows that changes in the female
genitourinary system usually take place. Included are normal findings, except:
Loss of pubic hair and a flattening of the labia occur.
The vaginal wall becomes thinner and less vascular.
The vulva hypertrophies.
The vaginal environment becomes drier and more alkaline.

c.
d.

26.When performing musculoskeletal assessment to an elderly, findings will be based on the

following information, except:
Muscle mass increases progressively with age
The decrease in muscle speed and strength is due to a decrease in nerve conduction and muscle
tone.
The bones become more fragile
In most elderly people, osteoarthritic changes in joints can be observed.

a.
b.
c.
d.

27.When testing the coordinated functioning of cranial nerve III, IV, and VI, Bert would correctly
identify it when the following is being assessed:
Corneal reflex
Six cardinal fields of gaze
Pupil response to light
Pupil response to light and accommodation

a.
b.

28.World Health Organization defined health as:

The absence of disease
Not a condition, but an adjustment.

a.
b.

4 | diagnostic exams
c.

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the disease or
infirmity.
d.
A dynamic state of being in which the developmental and behavioral potential for an individual is
realized to the fullest extent possible.

a.
b.

29.In this Health and Wellness model, people are viewed as physiologic systems with related
functions, and health is identified by absence of signs and symptoms of disease or injury.
Role Performance Model
Adaptive Model
Clinical Model
Eudemonistic Model

a.
b.

30.In the Health Belief model, individual perceptions include the following, except:
Perceived susceptibility
Perceived seriousness
Perceived curability
Perceived threat

a.
b.
c.
d.

31.Of the following statements, which is most true about acute illness?
Often have periods of remission and exacerbation
Many must learn to live with increasing physical limitations and discomfort
Usually have a slow onset
Characterized by severe symptoms of relatively short duration

32.Among the following statements, which describes the Stage 2 of Illness:

The person comes to believe something is wrong.
The person is expected to relinquish the dependent role and resume former roles and
responsibilities.
c.
The person accepts the sick role and seeks confirmation from family and friends.
d.
The person becomes dependent on the professional for help.
a.
b.

a.
b.
c.
d.

33.A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not
the spores:
Sterilization
Disinfectant
Antiseptic
Autoclave

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
a.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.

a.
b.

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.

34.Midwife Jenny is preparing to care for a burn client in protective isolation. She plans care
knowing that all are components of protective isolation techniques, except:
Using sterile sheets and linens
Strict handwashing
Wearing gloves and gowns only when giving direct care to the client
Wearing protective garb, including a mask, gloves, cap, shoe covers, scrub clothes, and plastic
aprons
35.First aid is the immediate action taken to:
Care for the injured until medical help is available
Supplement proper medical or surgical treatment
Preserve vitality and resistance to disease
Rescue and transport the injured
36.After a poisoning victim vomits, give the victim:
activated charcoal
raw egg to coat the stomach
lemon juice in a glass of water
syrup of ipecac and water
e.
37.An open wound characterized by jagged skin edges and free bleeding is:
A laceration
A contusion
An incision
An abrasion
e.
38.When a puncture wound is caused by an impailed object, as a healthcare provider you should:
Remove the object and cover the wound with sterile dressing
Stabilize the object with a bulky dressing
Apply slight pressure on the object to control bleeding
Always shorten the object so it will be easier to move the victim
e.
39.This type of respiration is characterized as rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations, from
very deep to very shallow breathing and temporary apnea:
Kussmauls respiration
Cheyne-stokes respiration
Hyperventilation
Tachypnea
e.
40.Midwife Cathy instructs a client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing. Patient Betty asks
her about the purpose of this type of breathing. She responds, knowing that the primary
purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to:
Promote oxygen intake
Strengthen the intercostal muscles
Strengthen the diaphragm
Promote carbon dioxide elimination
e.
41.Dr. M orders oxygen therapy via nasal cannula (nasal prongs) at 2LPM for an elderly client
with heart failure. The healthcare providers priority action would be to:
Maintain the client on bed rest
Investigate if the client has COPD
Determine if the client is a mouth breather
Obtain the appropriate cannula size for the client
e.
42.Recommended dietary allowances (RDA) are:
The lowest amount of essential nutrients necessary to maintain health.
Levels of essential nutrients adequate to meet needs of healthy individuals.
Levels of nutrients found in inexpensive foods.
Applicable to children only.
e.
43.Amiel has right-sided weakness and needs to learn how to use a cane. Midwife Naomi plans
to teach Amiel to position the cane by holding it with the:
Left hand and placing the cane in front of the left foot
Right hand and placing the cane in front of the right foot

c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Left hand and 6 inches lateral to the left foot

Right hand and 6 inches lateral to the right foot
e.
44.Midwife Dona is evaluating a clients use of a cane for left-sided weakness. He would
intervene and correct the client if the nurse observed that the client:
Holds the cane on the right side
Keeps the cane 6 inches out to the side of the right foot
Moves the cane when the right leg is moved
Leans on the cane when the right leg swings through
e.
45.Naiza is being measured for crutches, she asked the health care provider why the crutches
cannot rest up underneath the arm for extra support. The response is based on the
understanding that this could result in:
Impaired range of motion while the client ambulates.
Skin breakdown in the area of the axilla
Injury to the brachial plexus nerves
A fall and further injury
e.
46.Fea has given a client instruction about crutch safety. She evaluates that the client needs
reinforcement of information if the client states:
The need to have spare crutches and tips available.
That crutch tips will not slip even when wet.
Not to use someone elses crutches.
That crutch tips should be inspected periodically for wear.
e.
47.A midwife falls asleep in the middle of her duty. This disorder is referred to as:
Hypersomnia
Narcolepsy
Somnambulism
Sleep apnea
e.
48.When performing back massage to facilitate sleep, proper technique is done when:
Using the fingertips to perform the stroking motions
Pouring the lotion directly on the clients skin
Using firm, continuous pressure
Continuing the massage for at least 15 minutes
e.
49.Women should be informed that they are more susceptible to urinary tract infections than
males because:
Vaginal secretions provide a good medium for bacterial growth
Candida affects females more than males
Most males are circumcised, which protects them
The urethra in females is shorter than that of males
e.
50.When collecting for a midstream urine specimen, Midwife Fannie instructs a client how to
collect the specimen correctly. Which of the following would she include in her teaching?
Void directly into the sterile specimen container
Do not collect the first voided urine in the morning
Stop collecting the urine after the bladder is empty
Cleanse the urethral meatus after obtaining the specimen
e.
51.Which of the following interventions would be a priority in discharge teaching for a client with
kidney infection?
Drink at least 3-4 L of fluid/day
Take sitz baths 3-4 times/day for urethral burning
Void immediately after sexual intercourse
Avoid exposure to persons with respiratory infections
e.

f. Professional Growth and Development

g.
52.These are the proportional enforced contributions from persons and property to support the
government and public needs?
a. Taxes
c. Revenue
b. Taxation
d. Community tax
a.
53.You are working as a midwife already, where will you pay your income tax?
a. Where you reside
c. BIR, Manila
b. Where the income is derived
d. PRC, Manila
e.
54.Annual income tax return should be filed every?
a. May 17
c. November 15
b. August 15
d. April 15
e.
55.In case of wilful neglect to file the income tax return on time, you will be charged of?
a. 25% penalty
c. 75% penalty
b. 50% penalty
d. 100% penalty
e.
56.The registration fee for those professions or occupations requiring less than a baccalaureate?
a. P150.00
c. P200.00
b. P175.00
d. P250.00
e.
57.Midwives are exempted from paying the professional tax if they are working in:
a. Private hospitals
c. Private schools
b. Lying in clinics
d. The government
e.
58.Administrative proceedings conducted by the Professional Regulation Commission against a
board member must be compelled within a period of?
a. 20 days
c. 60 days
b. 30 days
d. 90 days
e.
59.One requirement for board examination is the certificate of live birth, it will be accepted by the
PRC if it came from?
a. NSO
c. DOH
b. Local Civil Registrar
d. MMDA
e.
60.Another requirement is that the applicant should be a Filipino citizen. Of the following options,
which is not considered as a Filipino citizen?
a. Parents are Filipino citizens
b. Naturalized in accordance with the law
c. Those who elect citizenship pursuant to the provision of the Constitution of 1935
d. Those who are citizen of the Philippines at the time of adoption of 1988 constitution
e.
61.The IMAP is the accredited organization for midwives by the PRC at present. Its first president is?
a. Leoncia Chuatoco
c. Juana Reyes
b. Angelina Ponce
d. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo
e.
62.This professional organization was founded in 1961, it has been a member of the International
Confederation of Midwives from 1969, its first president was Leoncia Chuatoco, this organization
is?
a. NFFM
c. APSOM
b. IMAP
d. ICM
e.
63.The following are the constitutional rights of the accused, which one is not included?
a. The right to be presumed innocent until the contrary is proved

b. The right against excessive fines and excessive bail

c. The right to have speedy, partial trial
d. The right to testify as a witness in his own behalf
e.
64.Evidence is the means of ascertaining the truth respecting the matter of fact. The kind of
evidence that include written contracts and birth certificate is?
a. Object
c. Real
b. Documentary
d. Testimonial
e.
65.The first board examiner was appointed by the President on August 5, 1960. The first board
examiners were the following, except?
a. Valeriano Fugoso Jr.
c. Angelina Ponce
b. Vicenta Castro Ponce
d. Leoncia Chuatoco
e.
66.The board of midwifery is under the supervision of?
a. CHED
c. Office of the President
b. PRC
d. DENR
e.
67.Of the following definitions of profession, which is incorrect?
a. Has its own unique body of knowledge
b. Means of employment and occupation for its members
c. Committed to serve the society
d. Profit oriented
e.
68.According to EO 114, the most peripheral first level health worker is?
a. Private practice midwife
c. Principal
b. Nurse
d. Rural health midwife
e.
69.If your catchment area is accessible within 2 hours by regular routes, you should visit the
barangay at least every?
a. Day
c. Week
b. Other day
d. 2 weeks
e.
70.The necessary last step a midwife should take before she can practice her profession after
passing the board exam is?
a. To take the oath of professionals
b. Put up a tarpaulin informing the world of her service
c. Pay her community tax
d. Pay IMAY membership fee
e.
71.Which of the following is true for nurses who would like to become registered midwives?
a. Handled 15 actual deliveries and assist in 5 another deliveries
b. Pass the board exam with the same passing rate as the graduate midwife
c. Should perfect the board exam
d. Pass the board exam with passing rate higher than the graduate midwife
e.
72.A midwife can practice her profession in a foreign country by virtue of reciprocity which means
that:
a. The midwife will be hired by the foreign country provided she pay taxes in that country
b. The recruiter succeeded in getting working permit for the midwife
c. The midwife was able to secure a visa
d. There is an agreement between the two countries on the matter
e.
73.The midwife can affix the initial R.M. after her name if:
a. She has already taken the board examination
b. She submitted the application for examination

c. She passed the examination and placed under deferred

d. She passed the examination and has taken the oath if professions
e.
74.A midwife has to renew her license every:
a. 2 years
c. 4 years
b. 3 years
d. 5 years
e.
75.When resigning from ones position in the hospital, the midwife needs to observe the following
considerations, except?
a. Obtain a clearance from your employer to avoid any liability
b. Submit your letter of resignation at least 30 days before leaving
c. Inform your immediate when you leave
d. File your letter of resignation on the date of effectivity of the resignation
e.
76.If you would like to work legally in a foreign country, you should have two travel documents, such
as?
a. Passport and visa
b. Travel permit and visa
c. Tourist visa with multiple entry
d. Passport and student visa
e.
77.A passport is an official document that serves as:
a. A document that allows a person to work outside the country
b. A proof of ones citizenship
c. A certification that a midwife is qualified to work abroad
d. A permanent right to enter a foreign country
e.
78.In writing a letter of application for a job, which comes first in the body of the letter?
a. Qualifications
c. Purpose of the letter
b. References
d. Request for personal interview
e.
79.The basic contents of a letter of application are:
a. Biodata
c. Position applied for
b. References
d. Qualifications
e.
80.The following persons maybe your references when applying for a job, except?
a. Former employers
c. Relatives
b. Barangay captain
d. Former teachers
e.
81.When applying for job, which of the following actions is appropriate for a personal interview?
a. Look glamorous to empress your prospective employer
b. Wear casual every day clothes
c. Wear your hospital uniform
d. Wear a business suit
e.
82.Which if the following document is the most important when applying for a passport?
a. Diploma
c. PRC license
b. Membership card from IMAP
d. Birth certificate
e.
83.The following are sub technical panel for midwifery education, except?
a. BOM
c. APSOM
b. PRC
d. CHED
e.
84.Only schools, colleges and universities duly accredited by CHED shall operate the midwifery
course. All curricular program in midwifery must have prior authorization from:
a. BOM
b. PRC

c. APSOM

d. CHED

e.
85.The following are qualifications of a principal in a school of midwifery, which is not included?
a. Filipino citizen
b. 3 years teaching experience
c. 3 years experience in maternity ward
d. Registered nurse midwife
e.
86.Which of the following statements is true?
a. Part time instructors should be given minor subjects only
b. The principal cannot follow up students in the ward and community
c. At least 75% of midwifery course should be handled by full time instructors
d. At least 60% of midwifery course should be handled by full time instructors
e.
87.A registered midwife maybe allowed to follow up students in the community/ward provided she
has?
a. 3 years experience in the area of assignment
b. 2 years experience in the area of assignment
c. She is also a BS degree holder
d. She is a degree holder in health related field
e.
88.A part time instructor have a teaching load of?
a. 10 units
b. 15 units
c. 20 units
d. 25 units
e.
89.A registered professional shall be permanently exempt from CPE requirements upon reaching the
age of?
a. 55
b. 60
c. 65
d. 70
e.
90.The total CPE credit units for registered professionals without baccalaureate degree shall be:
a. 30 credit units for 2 years
b. 30 credit units for 3 years
c. 60 credit units for 2 years
d. 30 credit units for 3 years
e.
91.This includes allowing the patient to refuse treatment if he so decides, disclosure of his ailment,
prognosis, and maintaining confidentiality?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
b.
92.The physician tells the patient and his family his diagnosis, and plan of care, what principle of
biomedical ethics does the physician exercising?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
b.
93.The recovery room midwife received a patient post CS. When the midwife arranged the bed and
raised the side rails of the patient, this action reflects?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
b.
94.An experimental drug to be tested in patients inside the OB ward was introduced by a particular
drug company. The midwife refused to give the drug since the potential harm may be greater
than the expected benefit, what principle of biomedical ethics did the nurse exercise?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
b.

95.RA 7432 called the senior Citizens Act, gives honor and justice to the elderly by giving 20%
discount in public establishments such as restaurants, pharmacies and hospitals. This is an
example of?
a. Justice
b. Autonomy
c. Veracity
d. Fidelity
b.
96.One of the patients in the community has Diabetes Mellitus and the mans foot is gangrenous.
The midwife helps the patient understand that the amputation will save the patients life; he can
still walk through the aid of crutches or artificial limbs. What moral principle did the nurse
exercise?
a. Totality
b. Epikia
c. Two fold effect d. Golden rule
b.
97.If a patient who has cancer of the uterus submits to hysterectomy she will not be able to bear a
child. If she does not have the operation, she will die. This is an example of?
a. Totality
b. Epikia
c. Two fold effect d. Golden rule
b.
98.An anxious patient repeatedly uses the call bell to get the nurse to come to the room. Finally, the
midwife says to the patient, If you keep ringing, I will tie you to your bed. This is an example
of?
a. Slander
b. Assault
c. Battery
d. Libel
b.
99.A patient G5P5 refused to be injected with her third dose of Depo Provera. The midwife insisted
despite the patients refusal and forcibly injected Depo. The midiwfe can be sued for which of the
following?
a. Slander
b. Assault
c. Battery
d. Libel
b.
100.
A midiwfe is driving her car when she hit a 5 year old boy, the boy was injured. This is an
example of?
a. Negligence
b. Malpractice
c. Force majeure
d. Respondeat Superior
b.
101.
You are preparing to go to work when suddenly, theres a major earthquake. You failed to
go to work and you are not liable for it. This is an example of?
a. Negligence
b. Malpractice
c. Force majeure
d. Respondeat superior
b.
c. Obstetrics
d.
102. These are lobular glands located just superior to the prostate. It produces seminal fluid
that is secreted during ejaculation to support sperm metabolism and motility.
a. a. Vas deferens
c. c. Urethra
b. b. Prostate glands
d. d. Seminal vesicles
e.
103. A small soft fold of tissue that directly covers the vaginal introitus.
a labia minora
b. clitoris
a. labia majora
c. vagina
a.
104. Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics?
a. Thelarche
c. Ovulation
b. Menarche
d. Adrenarche
a.
105. What are the four body structures involved in the physiology of the menstrual cycle?
a. Hypothalamus, ovaries, uterus, vagina
b. Pituitary gland, ovaries, uterus, vagina
c. Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, ovaries, uterus
d. Pituitary gland, ovaries, endometrium, uterus
e.
106. Mrs. Luisa Vitton typically has a menstrual cycle of 34 days. She tells you she had coitus
with Mr. Georgio Armandi on days 8, 10, 15 & 20 of her last cycle. When she is most likely

i.
i.
i.
v.

conceived?
a. Day 14
c. Day 30
b. Day 20
d. Day 34
e.
107. What is the stage of the sexual response cycle wherein the body suddenly discharges
accumulated sexual tension?
a. Excitement
c. Orgasm
b. Plateau
d. Resolution
e.
108. This is the type of sexual orientation when this person is an individual who, although or
one biologic gender, feels as if he or she should be of the opposite gender.
a. Heterosexuality
c. Bisexuality
b. Homosexuality
d. Transexuality
e.
109. This is the component of sexuality that refers to gender based on sex chromosomes?
a. Gender role
c. Gender identity
b. Biologic gender
d. Sexual identity
e.
110. The inability of a man to produce or maintain an erection long enough for vaginal
penetration or partner satisfaction is known as:
a. Inhibited sexual desire
c. Failure to achieve orgasm
b. Erectile dysfunction
d. Premature ejaculation
e.
111.
This is the involuntary contraction of the muscles at the outlet of the vagina when coitus
is attempted.
a. Vestibulitis
c. Dyspareunia
b. Vaginismus
d. Masturbation
e.
112. Which of the following factors would cause infertility in males?
inadequate sperm count
obstruction or impaired sperm motility
ejaculation problems
presence of just one functional testis
b.
c. a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,4
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,4
d.
113. What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
a. Anovulation
c. Uterine problems
b. Tubal transport problems
d. Cervical problems
e.
114. In fertility assessment, how long will be evaluated for infertility if she is more than 35
years old.
a. 1 year
c. 8 months
b. 12 months
d. 6 months
115. A woman who is unable to bear a child after being married for 3 years came to the clinic
for check up. She said her husband underwent certain diagnostic procedures and found
nothing wrong with him so she decided to subject herself for check up. Which of the following
procedures are related diagnostics to be done to her:
a. Rubins test
c. Friedman test
b. Ladins Test
d. Pregnancy test
e.
116. When assisting in an advance surgical procedure for fertility testing, the nurse is correct if
she describes laparoscopy as?
a Usually done 2 or 3 days before the expected menstrual flow.
a. Visual inspection of the uterus through the insertion of a hysteroscope.
b. Introduction of a thin, hollow, lighted tube through a small incision in the abdomen.

c. All of the above.

a.
117. Endometrial biopsy is used to test for ovulation or to reveal an endometrial problem such
as a luteal phase defect. If the endometium resembles a corkscrew, this suggests that?
a. Ovulation did not occur
c. Ovulation occur early
b. Ovulation has occurred
d. Ovulation will occur late
e.
118. If sperm are present but the total count is low. How long will a man are advised to abstain
from coitus.
a. 3-7
c. 7-10
b. 2-5
d. 1-3
e.
119. This is method of an assistive reproductive technique matured oocytes are removed from
a womans ovary by laparoscopy and fertilized by exposure to sperm under laboratory
conditions outside the womans body. About 40 hours after fertilization, the ova will be
inserted in the womans uterus.
a. Surrogate mothers
c. In vitro fertilization
b. Gift
d. Artificial insemination
e.
120. Mr. Hugo Bogs ask you what artificial insemination by donor entails. Which would be your
best answer?
a. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency
b. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix
c. The husbands sperm is administered intravenously weekly
d. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary
e.
121. In assessing family genograms for the incidence of inherited disorders a number of
common findings are usually discovered when a dominant inherited pattern in the family is
present. Which of the following is not included:
a. One of the parents of a child with the disorder will also have the disorder.
b. Sex of the affected individual affected is unimportant in terms of inheritance.
c. There is usually history of the disorder in other family members.
d. Sex of the affected individual affected is very important in terms of inheritance.
e.
122. Emma and Lando a newly married couple came to the clinic to have advice on test to be
done to check any genetic abnormalities present. She asked Janero, the nurse on duty, There
are no inherited diseases that we know of in our family, but should my husband and I have a
karyotype done just to be sure before we have our first baby? Janeros best response
would be:
a. A karyotype is a visual presentation of the chromosome pattern of an individual.
b. A perfect karyotype guarantees that a newborn will not be ill in a non-inherited way.
c. A genetic analysis is routinely recommended
d. Karyotyping reveals only disease that is present in the chromosomes.
e.
123. This is the insertion of a fiberoptic fetoscope through a small incision in the mothers
abdomen into the uterus and membranes to visually inspect the fetus for gross abnormalities
a. Amniocentesis
c. Karyotyping
b. Fetoscopy
d. Chronic Villi sampling
e.
124. Liz Clabore asks you how much longer will she refer to the baby inside her as an embryo.
What would be your best explanation?
a. Ovulation to fertilization
c. Implantation to 5-8 weeks
b. Fertilization to implantation
d. 5-8 weeks until firm
e.
125. This is the union of an ovum and a spermatozoon. This usually occurs in the outer third of
a fallopian tube, the ampullar portion?

a. Fertilization
c. Capacitation
b. Implantation
d. Ovulation
e.
126. This is the structure during embryonic development that consists of 2 layers of cells that
encloses a fluid filled space.
a. Morula
c. Trophoblast
b. Blastocyst
d. Zygote
e.
127. This is the hormone secreted by the placenta; its function is to maintain the corpus
luteum.
a. Progesterone
c. HCG
b. Estrogen
d. HPL
e.
128. A pregnant client in the prenatal clinic is scheduled for a biophysical profile. The client
asks the nurse what the test involves. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
a This test only measures the amount of the amniotic fluid present in the uterus
a. This test measures amniotic fluid volume and fetal activity
b. This test measures your ability to tolerate pregnancy
c. This test measures your cardiac status and ability to tolerate labor
a.
129. In the fetal circulation, what is the blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the
inferior vena cava?
a. Ductus venosus
c. Foramen ovale
b. Ductus arteriosus
d. Umbilical cord
e.
130. At what lunar month is sex determined by UTZ?
a. 2nd lunar month
c. 6th lunar month
th
b. 4 lunar month
d. 8th lunar month
e.
131. All of the following are seen during the 2 nd lunar month except?
a. Organogenesis is complete
c. Arms & legs have developed
b. Facial features are definitely discernible
d. Babinski reflex is present

e.
132. A client attending the prenatal clinic for the first time tells the nurse that her last
menstrual cycle began on January 11, 2008. The client also states that she had one day of
light spotting on February 7, 2008. The expected date of birth (EDB) is calculated to be:
a. October 14
b. October 18
c. November 14
d. November 18
b.
133. A non stress test is prescribed for a pregnant client, and the client asks Nurse Mike about
the procedure. The nurse is knowledgeable about the procedure, when she tells the client
that:
a The test is an invasive procedure and requires that an informed consent be signed.
a. The test will take about 2 hours and will require close monitoring for 2 hours after
the procedure is completed.
b. An ultrasound transducer that records the fetal heart activity is secured over the
abdomen where the fetal heart is heard most clearly
c. The fetus is challenged or stresses by uterine contraction to obtain the necessary
information
a.
134. Which of the following best characterizes the contraction stress test (CST)?
a The fetus typically is monitored for at least 40 minutes; then the entire
monitoring strip (or tracing) is analyzed
a. Any abnormal or non reactive stress test results require further evaluation that
same day.
b. It is the least invasive test of fetal well being that involves using an electronic
fetal monitor
c. Three contractions within 10 minutes must be evaluated. Ideally, each
contraction should last from 40 to 60 seconds.
a.
135. Rihanna, at 20 weeks AOG is scheduled for an ultrasound to determine the sex of her
baby. What instruction would you give her prior to the examination?
a. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size.
b. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does not hurt the fetus
c. You will need to drink at least 3 glasses of fluid before that procedure
d. You can have medicine for pain for any contractions caused by the test
e.
136. The use of ultrasound can assess placental grading based particularly on the amount of
calcium deposits in the based of the placenta. A grade 0 can be interpreted as:
a. A Placenta 12-24 weeks
b. A Placenta 30-32 weeks
c. A Placenta 36 weeks
d. A placenta 38 weeks
e.
137. Remedios is scheduled for an amniocentesis to test for fetal maturity. What instruction
would you give her before this procedure?
a. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size.
b. The X- ray used to reveal your fetus position has no long- term effects.
c. No more amniotic fluid forms afterward, which is why only a small amount is removed.
d. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does not hurt the fetus
e.
138. A pregnant woman, Rh negative, underwent cordocentesis. She is given RhIG after the
procedure. She asked Nurse Leo what is the reason for this, the correct response would be:
a. For prophylactic purposes.
b. To promote clotting from the aspiration site
c. To prevent infection to the baby
d. To prevent sensitization of your blood by the fetal blood.
e.
139. Lindsay Gohan sometimes feels ambivalent about being pregnant. As the nurse, the
psychological task youd like to see her complete during the first trimester of pregnancy?
a. Morning sickness is tolerable
b. Accept the fact that shes pregnant
c. Accept the fact that the baby is growing inside her
d. Choose a name for the baby
e.
140. Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect
to occur during the second trimester?
a. Ambivalence, fear
b. Narcissism, fantasies, extroversion
c. Ambivalence, introversion, fantasies
d. Narcissism, introversion
e.
141.
Mrs. Christine Dior did a urine pregnancy test but was surprised to learn that a positive
result is not a sure sign of pregnancy. She asks you what would be a positive sign of

pregnancy?
She is having consistent uterine growth
She can feel her fetus move inside her
HCG can be found in her bloodstream
The fetal heart can be seen on ultrasound
e.
142. Cervical softening and uterine souffl are classified as which of the following?
a Diagnostic signs
a. Presumptive signs
b. Probable signs
c. Positive signs
a.
143. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
a Hegars sign
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Periodic uterine tightening
c. Positive serum pregnancy test
a.
144. Quickening in primigravidas usually can be detected during which of the following weeks
of gestation?
a 10 -14 weeks
a. 15-17 weeks
b. 18-20 weeks
c. 20-22 weeks
a.
145. Which of the following findings in a woman would be consistent with a pregnancy of two
months duration?
a Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of striae gravidarum
a. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
b. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
c. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
a.
146. The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in pregnancy is:
a The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the increased need for red blood
cell mass as well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
a. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
b. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother must supply
c. The mother may have a problem of digestion because of pica
a.
147. Mrs. Guccing fells well. She asks you why she needs to come for prenatal care. The best
reason for her to receive regular care is?
a. Discovering allergies can help eliminate early birth
b. It helps document how many pregnancies occur each year
c. It provides time for education about pregnancy at birth
d. It determines whether pregnancies today are planned or not
e.
148. Why is it important to ask a client about past surgery in taking the health history of a first
time mother?
a. To test her recent and long term memory
b. Adhesions from surgery could limit uterine growth
c. To assess whether she could be allergic to any medication
d. To determine if she has effective health insurance
e.
149. Donna Karen reports that the palm of her hands is always itchy. You noticed scratches on
them during a physical exam. As the nurse, what is the most likely cause of this finding during
pregnancy.
a. She must have become allergic to dish washing soap
b. She has an allergy to her fetus & will probably abort
c. Her weight gain has stretched the skin over her hands
d. This is a common reaction to increasing estrogen levels
e.
150. Diadora 2 months pregnant has not had a pelvic exam since she was in high school. What
advice would you give her to help her relax during her first prenatal pelvis exam?
a. Have her take a deep breath and hold it during the exam
b. Tell her to bear down slightly as the speculum is inserted
c. Singing out loud helps, because it pushes down the diaphragm
d. She should breath slowly and evenly during the exam
e.
151. Mrs. Blueberry describes her typical day to you. What would alert you that she may need
further pregnancy advice?
a. I jog rather than walk every time I can for exercise
a.
b.
c.
d.

b. I always go to sleep on my side, not on my back

c. I pack my lunch in the morning when Im not so tired
d. I perform strenuous activities for no longer than 20 minutes
e.
f. Primary Health Care
g.
152. Leopolds maneuver is done during the consultation phase of the prenatal clinic routine.
Which finding requires referral:
a. LM 1 - round ballotable mass
b. LM 2 small irregular parts, right
153.

154.

e.
During the mothers class, most complain of leg varicosities. Which is recommended:
a. Do dorsiflex of the foot
b. Take calcium rich foods
c. Elevate the legs the whole night
d. Do not wear constricting garters on the legs
f.
One minor discomfort in pregnancy is backache. This can be prevented by regular:
a. Walking
b. Pelvic rocking exercise

155.

c. Use of low heeled shoes

d. Aerobics daily

e.
To prepare the nipples for breastfeeding, primis are taught to do:
a. Breast massage
b. Nipple rolling

156.

c. Breast care
d. Hoffman technique

e.
The farmers who died of PTB were cases of relapse. Their classification is:
a. Cavity and infiltrative
b. Category III

157.

c. LM 3 smooth large place, left

d. LM 4 cephalic prominence, right

c. Category II
d. Extrapulmonary

e.
Where should the municipal form 102 be filed?
a. Mayors office
b. Local registrars office

c. School of the child

d. MHO

e.
158. You are discussing the birth plan of a pregnant mother on 32 weeks AOG. Which is not
considered?
a. Encourage to deliver at home
b. Prepare things needed for delivery
c. Set aside babys layette she needs to bring
d. Choose her preferred health facility
159.

f.
To know the OB history of the mother, you can check on the:
a. ITR

160.

b. TCL

d. ECCD

e.
One of the mothers urine exam result is yellow green in color. The test done is:
a. Acetic acid test
b. Albumin test

161.

c. HBMR

c. Multistix
d. Benedicts test

e.
Ms. Ys albumin test result is (+). The best action of the midwife is:
a. Observe the edema on her next
visit
e.

b. Monitor her BP daily at home

c. Repeat the test to validate findings
d. Refer for further management

162. Ms. Z is 4 weeks PP. the FH is non-palpable. To check if involution has occurred, the
midwife should:
a. Measure the height of the fundus
b. Do vaginal exam

c. Refer to the obstetrician

d. Check the lochia

e.
163. Common water facility in the barangay is standpost. Which of the following describes this
type of water facility:
a. Delivers 40-80 liters water/100
houses

b. Delivers 40-140 liters/min

c. With reservoir
d. With individual household tap

e.
164. Most toilets are poor flush toilets requiring the use of a small amount of water. This is
classified as:
a. Level 4
165.

b. Level 3

c. Level 2

d. Level 1

e.
Aside from one, these are the responsibilities of the midwife in environmental sanitation:
a. Coordinate environmental
programs

b. Training of food handlers

c. Interpretation of PD 856
d. Disaster management

e.
166. Prevention and control of communicable diseases is one of the functions of the midwife.
She should be reminded that these are factors affecting distribution of disease occurrence.
a. Host, agent, time
b. Person, place, time
167.

c. Environment, agent, time

d. Any of the above

e.
Patterns of disease occurrence wherein cases occur occasionally in the place is:
a. Epidemic
b. Endemic

c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic

e.
168. When planning for home visits, the midwife should consider to follow the steps
sequentially such as:
a. Socialization, planning, professional, closing
b. Professional, planning, socialization, closing
c. Planning, socialization, professional, closing
d. Use flexible in following the steps of the visit
f.
169. There is a BEMOC facility in your barangay. Which function can the midwife perform in the
facility?
a. Perform episiotomy
b. Manually extract the placenta

170.

c. Inject oxytocin during the third

stage of labor
d. Do fundal pressure

e.
In the same facility, in order to prevent eclampsia, the midwife may also inject:
a. Sedative
b. Hypotensive

c. Tranquilizer
d. Magnesium sulfate

e.
171. There is an outbreak of typhoid in the baranggay, you will conduct epidemiological
investigation. The first thing you will do is:
a. Investigate time and space relationship to the disease
b. All suspects should undergo widal test
c. Check if there is relationship to a particular group
d. Conduct community assembly
f.

172. To achieve health for all in the year 2020, the approach is Primary Health Care. As
frontliner, the midwife should implement these concepts aside from:
a. Make services available and accessible to people
b. Encourage people to be responsible for their health
c. Mobilize people to actively participate in programs/projects
d. Plan all activities with experts from other communities
g.
173. Several children in the UFC are IMCI cases. As a general rule, when a child has one danger
sign, the classification belongs to:
a. Pink row
b. Yellow row
174.

c. Green row
d. Depends on the main symptoms

e.
Which of the following IMCI classification requires home medication and follow up?
a. Pink row
b. Yellow row

c. Green row
d. Depends on the main symptoms

e.
175. In febrile conditions like malaria, when fever persists up to 7 days in spite of oral
antimalarial drug and paracetamol, the next action of the midwife is:
a. Give antibiotic
b. Refer for assessment
176.

e.
Common supplement given to children with measles regardless of complications is:
a. Iron

177.

178.

c. Increase the dose of anti-malarial

d. All of the above

b. Iodine

f.
Jenny is 8 weeks old, she should have completed which immunization:
c. DPT 2, OPV 2
d. DPT 1, OPV 1, Hepa B3

e.
Tina has ear discharge of 14 days duration. The appropriate management is:
a. Cotrimoxazole, dry by wicking
b. Amoxicillin, dry by wicking
c. Tetracycline, dry by wicking

180.

d. Vit. C

e.
For measles with clouding of the cornea, the management is:
a. First dose antibiotic, eye ointment, refer
b. Eye ointment, refer
c. Vitamin A, 1st dose antibiotic, eye ointment, refer
d. Any of them

a. BCG, Hepa B1
b. DPT1, OPV 1, Hepa B2
179.

c. Vit. A

d. Quinolone ear drops after cleaning

ears

e.
Nino, 3 year old, has very low weight for his age. Appropriate management is:
a. Albendazole, Vit. A, follow up after 15 days
b. Vitamin A follow up after 30 days
c. Counsel mother about feeding
d. Iron, Vitamin A, follow up after 30 days

f.
181. Kim has 4x watery stools and pinched skin goes back slowly. His mother cannot stay in the
health center for 4 hours to give ORS. Your alternative is:
a. Show how to give ORS at home
b. Give 2 packs ORS, explain rules in home treatment
c. Discuss how much ORS to give in 4 hours
d. All of the above
182.

g.
Baby A is 6 weeks old. Nasal flaring, skin pustules and grunting are noted. Classification is:
a. Possible serious bacterial infection

b. Local bacterial infection

c. Complicated skin pustules

183.

e.
For skin pustules, advice the mother to:
a. Clean with salt water
b. Clean with sugar water

184.

c. Clean with soap and water

d. Clean with betadine antiseptic

e.
The appropriate antibiotic for Baby A is:
a. Cotrimoxzole
b. Amoxicillin

185.

d. Complicated local bacterial

infection

c. Gentamycin
d. Benzylpenicillin

Baby James had 5x watery stools with skin pinched back very slowly. Your management is:
a. IV fluids and urgent referral
b. Urgent referral with ORS, instruct mother to keep warm
c. Discuss how much ORS to give in 4 hours
d. Plan B and refer

186.
187. Some children passed out adult round worms about 10-12 inches long. They are affected
by:
a. Tapeworm
b. Hookworm
188.

e.
The preventive measure of this parasite is:
a. Thorough handwashing
b. Cook food well

189.

c. Pinworm
d. Ascaris

c. Use protective footwear

d. Cook meat well

e.
To prevent food and waterborne diseases teach the mother:
a. Handle food well
b. Food preservation

c. Boil water
d. Food and water sanitation

e.
190. There are some cases of EPI among pregnant mothers. In counseling them which is not
considered:
a. Follow safe sex practice
b. Chlamydia infection may cause ectopic pregnancy
c. Practice infection control measures
d. Return to the center for follow up
191.

192.

193.

194.

195.

196.

f.
A person with AIDS will manifest these infections except:
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
d. Liver cancer
g.
Persons with CD should be isolated during this period to prevent spread of the disease:
a. Incubation period
b. Period of communicability
c. Prodromal period
d. Contact period
One of these is not a source of infection:
a. Protozoa, parasite
b. Contaminated articles
c. Animal host
d. Mosquito vector
The midwife prepares for this program on April 14-18 in the health center:
a. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy
b. Garantisadong Pambata
c. No Tobacco Week
d. Hospital Week
Sangkap Pinoy Seal guarantees the public that food they buy is fortified with:
a. Micronutrients
b. Vit A and D
c. Calcium
d. Vit B complex
h.
Additional health services for women are available in health centers during the month of:
a. January
b. February
c. March
d. April

i.
197. VAD is one of the most common nutritional deficiency in children. To prevent night
blindness, which is recommended:
a. Tiki-tiki
b. SPS
c. VAC
d. IOC
j.
The groups most commonly affected by IDA are:
a. Pregnant and lactating mothers
b. Pre-schoolers
c. Infants
d. School children
199. Immunization education should be done before each session. These are discussed except:
a. Apply cold compress to BCG site
b. Apply warm compress to swollen TT site
c. Expect no reaction to OPV
d. Give paracetamol after DPT immnunization
200. You have conducted 3 outreach immunization sessions in the barangay, which is your
priority?
a. Check vaccine carriers from leaks
b. Request the right number of vaccines, ADS, MS, and SCB
198.

c. Maintain correct temperature of the vaccine reference

d. Discard vaccines that have not been used since the first session
k.
201. The role of the midwife in EPI monitoring is:
a. Referral of EPI cases
b. Analysis of EPI cases
c. Report deaths due to EPI cases
d. Count FIC monthly
202. Maintain the cold chain, which vaccines should be placed in the upper compartment of the
refrigerator?
a. DPT, TT
b. OPV, measles
c. DPT, OPV
d. Measles, TT
l. Care of the Infant and the Child
m.
203. A mother is playing with her infant, who's sitting securely alone on the floor of the clinic.
The mother hides a toy behind her back and the infant looks for it. What age would the
midwife estimate the infant to be?
n. A. 6 months
o. B. 4 months
p. C. 8 months
q. D. 10 months
r.
204. The normal respiratory rate of an infant within 3 minutes after birth especially when crying
may be as high as:
a. 50
c. 80
b. 60
d. 100
e.
205. The respiratory status of baby Mary is expected to be:
a. abdominal and irregular
c. deep and retracting
b. shallow and thoracic
d. paradoxic and irregular
e.
206. At 72 hours old, which umbilical stump finding is considered normal?
a. slight swelling at the base of the stump
b. slight amount of serosanguinous drainage from the stump
c. redness at the base of the stump
d. beginning dryness and atrophy of the stump
f.
207. Which antibody in breastmilk provides immunity to neonates?
a. IgA
c. IgM
b. IgB
d. IgG
e.
208. Which of the following muscles would the midwife choose as the preferred site for a
newborns vitamin K injection?
a. gluteus medius
c. vastus lateralis
b. mid-deltoid
d. rectus femoris
e.
209. The midwife knows that Mrs. T understands proper cord care fro her newborn when the
client
a. views a videotape on newborn hygiene care
b. reads a booklet on care of the newborns cord stump
c. says she will apply Bacitracin ointment three times per day
d. Cleanse the cord and surrounding skin with an alcohol pad.
e.
210. In specific situations, gloves are being used when handling newborns whether they are HIV
positive or not. The midwife understands that it is usually not necessary to wear gloves with
infants when
a. giving a feeding
c. suctioning the infant
b. changing the diaper
d. doing an admission bath
e.
211. An assessment of a newborn includes the differentiation between cephalhematoma and
caput succedaneum. When making this assessment, the midwfie understands that with caput
succedaneum the:
a. edema crosses the suture line

a.
b.

b. swelling increases within 24 hours

c. scalp over the swelling becomes ecchymotic
d. area surrounding the swelling will be tender
e.
212. When assessing a newborns grasp reflex, the midwife should elicit it by:
a. putting direct pressure along the sole of the newborns feet
b. jarring the crib and watching the movement of the newborns hands
c. pressing the examining fingers against the palms of the newborns hands
d. holding the body upright and allowing the newborns feet to touch a surface
e.
213. The midwife is aware that corrective surgery for a newborns hypospadias will be done:
a. shortly after birth
b. within a few months after birth
c. at approximately 5 years of age
d. when the child is between 3 and 4 years old
a.
214. The midwife recognizes that behaviors typical of an 8-month-old include:
a. a. Drinking form a cup, using the words mama and dada and standing alone
b. b. Smiling spontaneously, clasping hands
c. c. Removing some clothing, , and stopping to pick up
d.
toys
e. d. Being shy with strangers
f.
215. After the birth of her daughter, a mother states to the midwife, I was told that my baby
has to have an injection of vitamin K. Shes so small to be getting a shot. Why does she have
to have it? The midwifes most appropriate response would be:
a. Your baby needs the injection to help her develop red blood cells.
b. An injection of vitamin K will help to prevent your baby from becoming jaundiced.
c. Newborns are deficient in vitamin K. this treatment protects your baby from bleeding.
d. A newborns blood clots faster than it should. This injection helps decrease the clotting time.
e.
216. At one minute after birth a newborns body is pink with blue extremities, the heart rate is
122, there is withdrawal when the soles are flicked, the respirations are easy with no evidence
of distress, and the arms and legs are flexed and vigorously moving. The midwife assesses
the Apgar score to be:
a. 7
c. 9
b. 8
d. 10
e.
217.
When assessing a newborn, the midwife notes several areas of raised white spots
on the chin and nose. The midwife is aware that these are known as:
a. milia
c. vascular nevi
b. lanugo
d. eryhtema toxicum
e.
218.
The midwife teaches a new mother that neonatal weight loss in the first three days
of life is most often the result of:
a. allergy to formula
b. a hypoglycemic response
c. inadequate breast- or formula feeding
d. excretion of fluid via lungs, urinary bladder, and bowels
e.
219.
When assessing a post-term newborn, which of the following woulds the midwife
expect?
a. meconium-stained skin
c. hypoglycemia
b. round, red face
d. poor feeding
e.
220.
Which of the following would the midwife expect to find in a newborn with birth
asphyxia?
a. hyperoxemia
c. acidosis
b. hypocarbia
d. ketosis
e.
221.
Which of these vitamins is obtained by the breast-fed infant through the colostrum
and breast-milk?
A
c. D
C
d. E
e.
f. Red, a 2 year old boy is brought to the health center for a regular check up. His mother
tells the nurse that his child exhibits negativistic behavior, more so when he is tired, hungry

or uncomfortable.
g.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

222.
His mother tells the nurse, My Red is becoming stubborn and is behaving so badly.
He does not obey rules anymore. Which of the following responses of the midwife will be
most appropriate?
Probably youre right. This happens when he has so many rules to follow.
All toddlers exhibit negativism in varying degrees from 18 months to 2 years of age.
He just want to test your limit-setting behavior.
Maybe you should bring him to a child psychologist.

223.
In counseling a teenage mother on the first solid food to introduce to her 5-monthold child, which of the following foods should be recommended?
a. Eggs
c. Bananas
b. Pureed chicken
d. Rice cereal
e.
224. When inspecting her newborn, a mother asks the midwife whether her newborn has flat
feet. The midwife recalls that:
a. flat feet are common in children and infants
b. this is difficult to assess because the feet are so small
c. flat feet are associated with major deformities of the bones of the feet such as
clubfoot
d. the arch of the newborns foot is covered with a fat pad, giving the appearance of
being flat
a.
225. A primigravid client delivers a full-term girl. When teaching the client and her husband
how to change their neonate's diaper, the nurse should instruct them to:
a. A. fold a cloth diaper so that a double thickness covers the front.
b. B. clean and dry the neonate's perineal area from front to back.
c. C. place a disposable diaper over a cloth diaper to provide extra protection.
d. D. position the neonate so that urine will fall to the back of the diaper.
e.
226. The midwife assesses a 1-day-old neonate. Which finding indicates that the neonate's
oxygen needs are not being met by current treatment?
a. A. Respiratory rate of 54 breaths/minute
b. B. Abdominal breathing
c. C. Nasal flaring
d. D. Acrocyanosis
e.
227. A client plans to bottle-feed her full-term neonate. What is the normal feeding pattern for a
full-term neonate during the first 24 hours after delivery?
a. A. 120 ml of formula every 2 to 3 hours
b. B. 80 to 100 ml of formula every 2 hours
c. C. 40 to 60 ml of formula every 2 to 4 hours
d. D. 20 to 40 ml of formula every 3 hours
e.
228. When caring for a neonate, what is the most important step the midwife can take to
prevent and control infection?
a. A. Assessing frequently for signs of infection
b. B. Using sterile technique for all caregiving
c. C. Practicing meticulous hand washing
d. D. Wearing gloves at all times
e.
229. The midwife is caring for a newborn with a myelomeningocele. The priority care of a
newborn with a myelomeningocele is primarily directed toward:
a. A. ensuring adequate nutrition.
c. C. promoting neural tube sac drainage.
b. B. preventing infection.
d. D. conserving body heat.
e.
230. Which of the following describes a preterm infant?
a. A. An infant weighing less than 2,500 g (5 lb, 8 oz)
b. B. A low-birth-weight infant
c. C. An infant born at less than 37 weeks' gestation regardless of weight
d. D. An infant diagnosed with intrauterine growth retardation
e.
231. Which of the following describes how the midwife interprets a newborn's Apgar score of 8
at 5 minutes?
a. A. An infant who's in good condition
b. B. An infant who's mildly depressed

c. C. An infant who's moderately depressed

d. D. An infant who needs additional oxygen to improve the Apgar score
e.
232. The midwife is about to give a full-term neonate his first bath. How should the midwife
proceed?
a. A. Bathe the neonate only after his vital signs have stabilized.
b. B. Clean the neonate with medicated soap.
c. C. Scrub the neonate's skin to remove the vernix caseosa.
d. D. Wash the neonate from feet to head.
e.
233. A baby boy is born 8 weeks premature. At birth, he has no spontaneous respirations but is
successfully resuscitated. Within several hours he develops respiratory grunting, cyanosis,
tachypnea, nasal flaring, and retractions. He's diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome,
intubated, and placed on a ventilator. Which action should be included in the baby's plan of
care to prevent retinopathy of prematurity?
a. A. Cover his eyes while receiving oxygen.
b. B. Keep his body temperature low.
c. C. Monitor partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) levels.
d. D. Humidify the oxygen.
e.
234. A full-term neonate is diagnosed with hydrocephalus. Assessment is most likely to reveal:
a. A. wide or bulging fontanels.
c. C. upward-slanting eyes.
b. B. a decreased occipitofrontal
d. D. heightened alertness.
circumference.
e.
235. After delivering an 8 lb (3.6 kg) girl, a client asks the midwife what her daughter should
receive for the first feeding. For a bottle-fed neonate, the first feeding usually consists of:
a. A. sterile water.
c. C. standard infant formula.
b. B. glucose water.
d. D. enriched infant formula.
e.
236. During a bath, a neonate has a diagnosis of Risk for injury related to slippage while
bathing. Which intervention best addresses this diagnosis?
a. A. Hold the neonate loosely and gently.
b. B. Support the neonate's head and back with the forearm.
c. C. Use one hand to support the neonate's head.
d. D. Strap the neonate into the bath basin.
e.
237. A client just had twins. Twin "A" weighs 2,500 g (5 lb, 8 oz), and Twin "B" weighs only 1,900
(4 lb, 3 oz). In addition to routine care, the physician has ordered that Twin "B" be kept in an
Isolette to help maintain his temperature. Based on the latest research, the midwife might
suggest which of the following interventions in place of using an Isolette to maintain the
baby's temperature?
a. A. Increasing the number of calories to support a stable temperature
b. B. Wrapping the baby in two blankets with a hat and a monitor for low temperatures
c. C. Placing the twins in the same crib so the larger baby can keep the smaller baby warm
d. D. Placing a hot-water bottle in the crib of Twin "B"
e.
238. While caring for a healthy newborn female, the midwife notices red stains on the diaper
after the baby voids. Which of the following should the nurse do next?
a. A. Call the physician to report the problem.
b. B. Encourage the mother to feed the baby to decrease dehydration.
c. C. Do nothing because this is normal.
d. D. Check the baby's urine for hematuria.
e.
239. The newborn of a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at high risk for hypoglycemia. An
initial sign the midwife should recognize as indicating hypoglycemia in a newborn is:
a.
b. A. peripheral acrocyanosis.
d. C. lethargy.
c. B. bradycardia.
e. D. jaundice.
f.
240. To minimize the amount of a drug received by an infant through breast-feeding, the
midwife should tell the mother to:
a. A. take the medication immediately before breast-feeding.
b. B. take the medication immediately after breast-feeding.
c. C. feed the infant 2 hours after taking the medication.
d. D. feed the infant 4 hours after taking the medication.
e.

241. The midwife prepares to administer an I.M. injection of prophylactic vitamin K to a normal,
full-term neonate. Which needle should the midwife use?
a.
b. A. 25G, 1" needle
d. C. 22G, 1" needle
c. B. 25G, 5/8" needle
e. D. 22G, 5/8" needle
f.
242. A newborn infant receives an Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes of age. The 1-minute Apgar
score is a good indication of which of the following?
a. A. How well the newborn tolerated labor
b. B. How well the newborn has adapted to extrauterine life
c. C. How well the newborn tolerated the birth
d. D. Gestational age of the newborn
e.
243. A female newborn born by elective caesarean section to a 25-year-old mother weighs
3,265 g (7 lb, 3 oz). The midwife places the newborn under the warmer unit. In addition to
routine assessments, the midwife should closely monitor this newborn for which of the
following?
a. A. Temperature instability due to type of birth
b. B. Respiratory distress due to lack of contractions
c. C. Signs of acrocyanosis
d. D. Unstable blood sugars
e.
244. The midwife has been teaching a new mother how to feed her infant son who was born
with a cleft lip and palate. Which action by the mother would indicate that the teaching has
been successful?
a. A. Placing the baby flat during feedings
c. C. Placing the nipple in the cleft palate
b. B. Providing fluids with a small spoon
d. D. Burping the baby frequently
e.
245. A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color. What should the midwife do first?
a. A. Calm the neonate.
b. B. Notify the physician.
c. C. Provide oxygen via a face mask as ordered.
d. D. Aspirate the neonate's nose and mouth with a bulb syringe.
e.
246. During neonatal resuscitation immediately after delivery, chest compressions should be
initiated when the heart rate falls below which of the following?
a. A. 60 beats/minute
c. C. 100 beats/minute
b. B. 80 beats/minute
d. D. 110 beats/minute
e.
f.
247. The midwife places a neonate with hyperbilirubinemia under a phototherapy lamp,
covering the eyes and gonads for protection. The midwife knows that the goal of
phototherapy is to:
a. A. prevent hypothermia.
bilirubin level.
b. B. promote respiratory stability.
d. D. decrease the serum unconjugated
c. C. decrease the serum conjugated
bilirubin level.
e.
248. An infant arrives at the emergency department in full cardiopulmonary arrest. Efforts at
resuscitation fail, and he's pronounced dead. The cause of death is sudden infant death
syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following is true regarding the etiology of SIDS?
a. A. It occurs in suspected child abuse cases.
b. B. It occurs primarily in infants with congenital lung problems.
c. C. It occurs primarily in black infants.
d. D. It occurs more commonly in infants who sleep in the prone position.
e.
249. For an infant who's about to undergo a lumbar puncture, the midwife should place the
infant in:
a. A. an arched, side-lying position, with the neck flexed onto the chest.
b. B. an arched, side-lying position, avoiding flexion of the neck onto the chest.
c. C. a mummy restraint.
d. D. a prone position, with the head over the edge of the bed.
e.
f.
250. Which assessment finding would the midwife identify as abnormal for a 4-month-old?
a. A. The abdominal wall is rising with inspiration.
b. B. The respiratory rate is between 30 and 35 breaths/minute.
c. C. The infant's skin is mottled during examination.

d. D. The spaces between the ribs (intercostal) are delineated during inspiration.
e.
251. When performing a physical examination on an infant, the midwife notes abnormally lowset ears. This finding is associated with:
a. A. tetanus.
c. C. congenital heart defects.
b. B. tracheoesophageal fistula.
d. D. renal anomalies.

e.
252. A mother calls the clinic to report that her 9-month-old infant has diarrhea. Upon further
questioning, the midwife determines that the child has mild diarrhea and no signs of
dehydration. Which advice is most appropriate to give this mother?
a. A. Call back if your baby has 10 stools in 1 day.
b. B. Feed your baby clear liquids only.
c. C. Continue your baby's normal feedings.
d. D. Notify your baby's day care of his illness.