WGU OBC1 QUIZZES &

STUDY QUESTIONS MOST

RECENT
FOR MORE OF THIS COURSE AND ANY
OTHER COURSES, TEST BANKS, FINAL
EXAMS, AND SOLUTION MANUALS
CONTACT US
AT WHISPERHILLS@GMAIL.COM
1. The "exchange" influence tactic involves getting others to support your
effort to persuade someone to your point of view.
2. Conclusions from a meta-analysis suggest ingratiation (making the
boss feel good) can slightly improve your performance appraisal
results and make your boss like you significantly more.
3. Personalized power is directed at helping oneself for the sake of
personal aggrandizement.
4. According to French and Raven, an individual is using expert power
when his or her charismatic personality is the reason for the
compliance of others.
5. According to your textbook, "participation" is the highest degree of
empowerment.
6. The __________ influence tactic involves getting others to participate
in planning, making decisions, and changes.
7. Threats of punishment and actual punishment give an individual
__________ power over others.

8. Along the continuum of employee empowerment, __________ occurs

when managers and followers jointly make decisions.
9. Political behaviour and maneuvering is often triggered by uncertainty.
Which of the following is not a source of uncertainty that may trigger
such actions?
10. A)Unclear measures of performance.
B) Any change taking place in the organization.
C) High levels of competition among individuals or groups.
D) Organizational objectives that are not clearly spelled out.
E) All of these are sources of uncertainty that may trigger political
behaviour and maneuvering.

11. Hardiness refers to a personality trait that allows a person to

neutralize stress by perceptually or behaviorally transform negative
stressors into positive challenges.
12. According to the typology of change, innovative change involves
introducing a practice that is new to the industry.
13. In Lewin's change model, the "unfreezing" stage involves getting
employees to become dissatisfied with the old way of doing things.
14. A company's strategic plan outlines the organization's long-term
direction and actions necessary to achieve planned results.
15. Research in the area of resistance to change revealed that high levels
of self esteem were negatively associated with resistance to change.
16. Which of the following was not mentioned as a stress reduction
technique in the discussion in the text?
17. Which of the following is not a reason why employees resist change?
18. __________ is a commonly used method to overcome resistance to
change in situations where speed is essential and where the change
initiators possess considerable power.
19. According to the Model of Occupational Stress, __________ is an
example of a group-level stressor.
20. A(n) __________ coping strategy consists of using methods such as
relaxation, meditation, medication, or exercise to manage stress.
21. Race represents an external dimension of diversity.

22. Internal dimensions of diversity contain an element of control or

choice.
23. Current day minority groups do not experience their own glass ceiling.
24. Team performance is positively related to a team's diversity in gender,
ethnicity, age and education.
25. __________ is an example of an external dimension of diversity.
26. Affirmative action is __________ driven.
27. All of the following are tips for women to advance to senior positions
and career success except:
28. Which of the following is NOT one of the Generic Action Options for
handling diversity according to R Roosevelt Thomas Jr.?
29. Which of the following Generic Action Options for handling diversity
states that all diverse people will learn to fit in or become like the
dominant group?
30. Generally speaking, the more narrow the span of control in an
organization, the higher the organization's administrative costs.
31. The modular structure overlays a vertical and with a horizontal
structure which results in two command structures - functional and
divisional.
32. A learning organization is one that proactively creates, acquires, and
transfers knowledge and that changes its behavior on the basis of new
knowledge and insights.
33. Whether or not an organization meets or exceeds its goals is one way
to judge the effectiveness of an organization.
34. One of the benefits of innovation identified in the Model of Innovation
was improving on services and products the organization already has.
35. __________ refers to the idea that each employee should report to
only one manager.
36. Which of the following is identified as an early warning sign of decline
in the text?
37. A synonym for the term "innovation" in the context of organizational
innovation would be:

38.
39. When measuring organizational effectiveness, the __________
approach is appropriate when powerful stakeholders can significantly
benefit or harm the organization.
40. Which of the following is a characteristic of mechanistic organizations?
41. A simple change in an existing product would be a _____ innovation.
42. _________ is usually associated with incremental innovation.
43. The two types of innovations are incremental and ______.
44. The Apple iPod is an example of a ______ innovation, while iTunes is
an example of a _____ innovation.
45. Six Sigma is ________ approach.
46. According to Clayton Christensen, __________ are incremental
innovations that improve product or process performance.
47. According to Clayton Christensen, ________ revolutionize industries
and create new ones.
48. Apple's innovation with iPod and iTunes is a _______ innovation.
49. Behavioral and psychological characteristics that are usually
associated with successful entrepreneurs include all but which one of
the following?
50. _________________ is the money provided to the venture that must
be repaid at some point in time.
51. Which two of the Big Five personality traits were found to be the most
stable?
52. Which of the following traits would predict motivation at work?
53. Staying awake 24 hours impairs cognitive psychomotor performance
to the same degree as having a _____% blood alcohol level.
54. Emotions are contagious
55. Masking one's feelings may cause long-term psychological and
physical problems.
56. Women's felt emotions are no different than men's.
57. Self-esteem is a belief about one's own self-worth based on an overall
self-evaluation.

58. Complex, challenging and autonomous jobs tend to enhance

perceived self-efficacy while boring, tedious jobs tend to lower
perceived self-efficacy.
59. Low self-monitors are sometimes criticized for being on their own
planet and insensitive to others.
60. Among the Big Five personality dimensions, conscientiousness had
the strongest positive correlation with job and training performance.
61. People with proactive personalities tend to experience less individual,
team, and organizational success.
62. An internal locus of control should be tempered with ___________ so
that healthy characteristics such as self-confidence, self-esteem, and
self-assessment don't turn into over-confidence, narcissism, and
stubbornness.
63. __________ occurs when organizational values or beliefs become
part of one's self-identity.
64. Regarding the Big Five personality dimensions, a person scoring high
on __________ is outgoing, talkative, sociable, and assertive.
65. _________ is a goal congruent emotion.
66. __________ is a goal incongruent emotion.
67. I want to be healthy by exercising regularly; I want to advance my
career and be a good parent to my children
68. I want to be honest by reporting company financials accurately; My
coworker values a bonus that would come from adjusting the company
financials.
69. I want to be healthy; My organization values smoking
70. Family-supportive philosophy is more important than specific
programs. In other words a company can have a policy but if the
culture is one that discourages people taking advantage of this policy
or it's perceived as career suicide, then it won't really serve it's
purpose.
71. Work flexibility is important in promoting work-family balance -research
findings indicate that type of assignment and project based work can
allow employees to focus on work more on occasion, when necessary,
than family, and vice versa. This suggests that we are not talking
about equal time splitting, but a fluid emphasis on work or family that

shifts with the employee needs being the key to work/life balance.
Work/life researchers have begun to espouse the notion that work and
family are not opposites and should not be balanced but instead
organizations should find ways to better enable employees to
integrate both important and satisfying aspects of one's life.
72. Managers perceived as having higher work-life balance were rated
MORE not LESS promotable.
73. I like going to work."
"
74. Working allows me to afford what I want and need." 75. "I intend to quit my job."
76. "Working with my coworkers is frustrating." 77. "I believe working helps contribute to society."
78. Dylan is independently wealthy but works very hard at his job. He
believes in the values of the company and enjoys devoting time to
accomplishing the company goals. Dylan most likely has _________.
79. Values are relatively unstable and do not influence our behaviour.
80. The discrepancy models of job satisfaction propose that satisfaction is
determined by the extent to which the characteristics of a job allow an
individual to fulfill his or her needs.
81. Research on the correlates of job satisfaction discovered a strong,
negative relationship between perceived stress on the job and job
satisfaction.
82. Interpersonal value conflict occurs when values espoused and
enacted by the organization collide with employees' personal values.
83. Value congruence is associated with positive job outcomes such as
career success, satisfaction and lower turnover intentions.
84. More women in the paid workforce, more dual-income families, more
single working parents, and an aging population that gives mid-career
employees day care or elder care responsibilities are all factors
serving to increase
85. work/family life conflict.
86. Leon Festinger theorized that people will seek to __________ through
one of three main methods: changing one's attitude, behavior or both;

belittling the importance of the inconsistent behavior; or finding

consonant elements that are more important.
87. The __________ is the feelings or emotions one has about an object
or situation.
88. According to the __________ model of job satisfaction, satisfaction is
a function of how "fairly" an individual is treated and occurs when
one's perception that work outcomes, relative to inputs, compare
favorably with a significant other's outcomes/inputs.
89. A(n) __________ represents an employee's beliefs about what he or
she is entitled to receive in return for what he or she provides to the
organization.
90. Describe perception in terms of the information-processing model.
91. Identify and briefly explain seven managerial implications of social
perception.
92.
93. Discuss stereotypes and the process of stereotype formation.
94. Summarize the managerial challenges and recommendations of sexrole, age, racial and ethnic, and disability stereotypes.
95. Describe and contrast the Pygmalion effect, the Galatea Effect, and
the Golem Effect.
96. Explain, according to Kelley's model, how external and internal causal
attributions are formulated.
97. Contrast the fundamental attribution bias and the self-serving bias.
98. External Attribution
99. Internal Attribution
100.

Explain the concept of Mutuality of Interest

101.
What are soft influence tactics (summarize lessons from
research)
102.

What are hard tactics (summarize lessons from research)

103.

What are French and Raven's five bases of power

104.

Discuss French and Raven's responsible use of power.

105.

What is empowerment and the degrees

106.
Why is delegation the highest form of empowerment and
discuss the connections among delegation, trust and personal
inititative.
107.

What are organization politics and explain what triggers it.

108.

What are favorable impression management tactics

109.

What are unfavorable impression management tactics

110.

What are the outcomes of Influence attempts

111.What is the right combination of influence tatics?

112.

Participative management can

113.

Personal initiative

114.
Which source of power would be most applicable when
influencing the following targets?
Your manager
115.
Which source of power would be most applicable when
influencing the following targets?
116.
Which source of power would be most applicable when
influencing the following targets?
Your subordinate
117.
118.

Principles of Influence

119.
120.

Impression Management Tips

Building Empowerment Through Ownership

121.

Being Politically Proactive

122.

The Paradox of Self-Reliance in the Age of Empowerment

123.

Research on lying has revealed these four lessons:

124.
Discuss the external and internal forces that create the need
for organizational change.
125.
Describe Lewin's change model and the systems model of change.
126.

Discuss Kotter's eight steps for leading organizational change.

127.

Define organizational development.

128.

Explain the dynamic model of resistance to change.

129.
Discuss the key recipient and change agent characteristics
that cause resistance to change.
130.
Identify alternative strategies for overcoming resistance to
change.
131.
Define the term stress, and describe the model of
occupational stress.
132.
Discuss the stress moderators of social support, hardiness,
and Type A behavior.

133.
Discuss employee assistance programs (EAPs) and a holistic
approach toward stress reduction.
134.

TYPES OF ORGANIZATIONAL CHANGE

Resistance to change increases as changes go from adaptive, to

innovative, to radically innovative.
135.
Radically Innovative Changes complexity, cost, and uncertainty are the
highest.
136.
Five assumptions of Lewin's Change Model are as follows:
137.

Describe Lewin's systems model of change.

138.

Explain the OD process.

139.

The four major types of stressors are

140.

Cognitive Appraisal of Stressors

141.

Coping Strategies

142.

Common phases of change are:

143.
To ensure long-term sustainability through effective business
processes, organizations need
144.

Process Enablers:

145.

Enterprise Capabilities:

146.

Resistance can be lowered by following these guidelines

147.

Describe the four characteristics common to all organizations,

148.

Explain the difference between closed and open systems.

149.

Define the term learning organization.

150.

Describe seven basic ways organizations are structured.

151.
Discuss Burns and Stalker's findings regarding mechanistic
and organic organizations.
152.
Identify when each of the seven organization structures is the
right fit.
153.

Describe the four generic organizational effectiveness criteria.

154.

Explain how managers can prevent organizational decline.

155.
Discuss the difference between innovation, invention,
creativity, and integration.
156.

Review the myths about innovation

157.

Explain the model of innovation.

158.

Organizational Structure Terms

159.

Decentralized decision making

160.

Centralized decision making

161.
Summarize the difference between incremental and
breakthrough innovation.
162.
Explain what is meant by continuous improvement and how it
contributes to incremental innovation
163.
Summarize the risks associated with an incremental versus a
breakthrough approach to innovation.
164.
Describe the three key elements of the entrepreneurship
process.
165.

Explain intrapreneurship and how to enable it to thrive.

166.

Define diversity and review the four layers of diversity.

167.
Explain the difference between affirmative action and
managing diversity.
168.
Explain why Alice Eagly and Linda Arlie believe that a
women's career is best viewed as traveling through a labyrinth.
169.
Review the demographic trends pertaining to racial groups,
educational mismatches, and an aging workforce.
170.
Highlight the managerial implications of increasing diversity in
the workforce.
171.
Describe the positive and negative effects of diversity by using
social categorization theory and information/decision-making theory.
172.

Identify the barriers and challenges to managing diversity.

173.
Discuss the organizational practices used to effectively
manage diversity as identified by R. Roosevelt Thomas, Jr.
174.
Define self-esteem, and explain how it can be improved with
Branden's six pillars of self-esteem.
175.

Define self-efficacy, and explain its sources.

176.
Contrast high and low self-monitoring individuals, and discuss
the ethical implications of organizational identification.
177.
Identify and describe the Big Five personality dimensions, and
specify which one is correlated most strongly with job performance.

178.
Describe the proactive personality and internal locus of
control.
179.
Identify at least five of Gardner's eight multiple intelligences,
and explain "practical intelligence."
180.
Distinguish between positive and negative emotions, and
explain how they can be judged.
181.
Identify the four key components of emotional intelligence,
and discuss the practical significance of emotional contagion and
emotional labor.
182.
Explain how psychological capital, deliberate practice, luck,
and humility can pave your road to success.
183.

Successful performance depends on the right combination

184.

Intelligence is the

185.
Other specific intelligence-related predictors of job
performance are:
186.

Howard Gardner's updated concept of multiple intelligences.

187.

three primary determinants of organization-based self-esteem.

188.
Factors positively influenced by high OBSE and negatively
impacted by low OBSE
189.

Diverging Learning Style

190.

Accommodating learning Style

191.
192.

Assimilating learning Style

Converging Learning Style

193.
Explain Schwartz's value theory and describe three types of
value conflict.
194.
Describe the values model of work/family conflict, and specify
at least three practical lessons from work/family conflict research.
195.
Identify the three components of attitudes and discuss
cognitive dissonance.
196.
Explain how attitudes affect behavior in terms of Ajzen's
theory of planned behavior.
197.
198.

Describe the model of organizational commitment.

.

199.
Define the work attitudes of job involvement/employee
engagement and job satisfaction.

200.
Identify and briefly describe five alternative causes of job
satisfaction.
201.
Identify eight important correlates/consequences of job
satisfaction, and summarize how each one relates to job satisfaction.
202.
Identify the causes of counterproductive work behavior and
measures to prevent it.
203.

Intrapersonal Value Conflict

204.

Interpersonal Value Conflict

205.

Individual-Organization Value Conflict

206.

Family values are

207.

Work values center

208.

Value similarity is the

209.

Value congruence involves

210.

affective

211.

Behavioral

212.

cognitive

213.
Based on social perception research, which of the following
would NOT be advised?
214.
Jamie is a brand-new salesperson who has just graduated
from college. Her first task is to sell consulting services to a new
potential client. Based on your knowledge of social perception, which
of the following would NOT be advised?
215.
Josie is a hard-working administrative assistant. She has a
low attention to detail and sometimes handles customer's calls
unprofessionally. However, Josie never misses a day of work and is
always on time. As a result, her manager rates her positively on many
aspects of her performance. This is an example of which perceptual
error?
216.
Based on the self-fulfilling prophecy, which of the following
would not be advised?
217.
Nadia's performance is declining. Her peers performance
hasn't changed, it is occurring on several tasks, and has occurred for
the past six months.
218.

The attribution her supervisor is likely to make is...

219.
In the four-phase process of social information processing, the
encoding stage involves storing information in long-term memory.

220.

A 65 year-old university student would be a salient stimulus.

221.
The contrast effect is the tendency to evaluate people or
objects by comparing them with characteristics of recently observed
people or objects.
222.
According to Kelley, people make causal attributions after
gathering information about three dimensions of behavior: consensus,
distinctiveness, and consistency.
223.
The fundamental attribution bias represents a person's
tendency to attribute another individual's behavior to his or her
personal characteristics, as opposed to situational factors.
224.
According to the social information processing model, the
__________ stage involves depositing information in long-term
memory.
225.
The __________ perceptual error represents the tendency to
form an overall impression about a person and then use that
impression to bias ratings about the person.
226.
According to Kelley's model of attribution, __________ means
that an individual has performed the task in question in a significantly
different manner than he or she has performed other tasks.
227.
According to one expert, all of the following are
recommendations for designing an effective web page except:
228.
229.
The __________ reflects one's tendency to take more
personal responsibility for success than for failure.
230.

Define organizational culture and discuss its three layers.

231.
Discuss the difference between espoused and enacted
values.
232.

Describe the four functions of organizational culture.

233.
Discuss the four types of organizational culture associated
with the competing values framework.
234.
235.
Summarize the seven conclusions derived from research
about the outcomes associated with organizational culture.
236.

Review the three caveats about culture change.

237.
Summarize the methods used by organizations to change
organizational culture.

238.
Describe the three phases in Feldman's model of
organizational socialization.
239.
any role conflicts.
240.
Discuss the various socialization tactics used to socialize
employees.
241.
Explain the four developmental networks associated with
mentoring.
242.

Which of the following is most resistant to change?

243.
Organizational culture is the set of shared, taken-for-granted
implicit assumptions held by a group that determines how the group
perceives, thinks about, and reacts to its various environments.
244.
Enacted values represent the explicitly stated values and
norms that are preferred by an organization.
245.
A clan culture has an internal focus and values flexibility rather
than stability and control.
246.
Employees working in organizations with hierarchical or
market-based cultures reported lower job satisfaction and
organizational commitment, but have greater intention to keep their
jobs.
247.
The encounter phase is the last stage in the organizational
socialization process.
248.
___________ is a long term plan outlining actions needed to
achieve a desired result.
249.
Strategic Plan
250.
Which of the following is an example of a psychosocial
function of mentoring?
251.
In the __________ phase of the organizational socialization
process, employees begin to learn what the organization is really like.
This phase begins when the employment contract is signed.
252.
A __________ developmental network is composed of a few
weak ties from one social system such as an employer or professional
association.
253.
The __________ network is the strongest type of
developmental network.
254.

Contrast Maslow's, Alderfer's, and McClelland's need theories.

255.
Explain the practical significance of Herzberg's distinction
between motivators and hygiene factors.
256.

Discuss the role of perceived inequity in employee motivation.

257.
Explain the differences among distributive, procedural, and
interactional justice.
258.

Describe the practical lessons derived from equity theory.

259.
Explain Vroom's expectancy theory and review its practical
implications., racial and ethnic, and disability stereotypes.
260.
Explain how goal setting motivates an individual and review
the four practical lessons from goal-setting research.
261.
Review the mechanistic, motivational, biological, and
perceptual-motor approaches to job design
262.
Maslow's Need Hierarchy
Alderfer's ERG
McClelland's Need
Herzberg's Motivator-Hygiene
263.
Goal Setting Theory
264.
265.

Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory is probably the best-known

266.

McClelland's Need Theory

267.
McClelland's research found that the Leader motive Profile
included a
268.
A manager made the following work assignments based on
her perception of her employee's needs. Sam - responsible for
orienting new employees to the team; Rex - responsible for operations
of an entire division; Jose - researcher in R & D. Which of the
following pairs below is probably ?
269.
Answer: B
270.

Herzberg's Motivator-Hygiene Model

271.

Locke's Model of Goal Setting

272.
Maslow viewed esteem as the highest step in his proposed
hierarchy of needs.
273.
The need for affiliation is defined as the desire to spend time
in social relationships and activities.

274.
Designing jobs according to the principles of scientific
management tends to increase efficiency and productivity, but also
leads to simplified and repetitive jobs.
275.
According to Frederick Herzberg, hygiene factors are job
characteristics associated with job dissatisfaction.
276.
Horizontal loading consists of giving employees more
responsibility by taking on tasks normally performed by their
supervisors.
277.
In Maslow's need hierarchy, the __________ need is the most
basic need, involving having enough food, air, and water to survive.
278.
According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene model, which of
the following is a motivator?
279.
Which of the following is not one of the key motivational
approaches to job design discussed in the text?
280.
According to the job characteristics model, __________
represents the extent to which an employee receives direct and clear
information about how effectively he or she is performing the job.
281.

Distributive justice is defined as:

282.
Identify five traditional organizational structures and the pros
and cons of each
283.
Describe the product-team structure and explain why it is a
prototype for a more open, agile organizational structure
284.
Explain five ways improvements have been sought in
traditional organizational structures
285.

Describe what is meant by agile, virtual organizations

286.
Explain how outsourcing can create agile, virtual
organizations, along with its pros and cons
287.
288.
Describe boundaryless organizations and why they are
important
289.
Explain why organizations of the future need to be
ambidextrous learning organizations
290.
Of the following, which one is regarding a functional
organizational structure?
291.
Strategic advantages of a functional organization structure
would include all but which one of the following?

292.
Which type of organizational structure is best identified as
having a set of relatively autonomous units or divisions that are
governed by a central corporate office yet each unit or division has its
own functional specialists who provide services or products that are
different from the other units.
293.
Which of the following is best identified as being an adaptation
of the divisional structure in which various divisions are grouped
together based on some common elements?
294.
The ________ structure is where the corporate entity is a
broad collection of often unrelated businesses and divisions such that
the corporate entity must act as a financial overseer.
295.
All of the following except which one would be classed as
statements regarding the matrix organizational structure?
296.
Of the following, which one is least likely to be considered a
strategic advantage derived from a matrix organizational structure?
297.
Which one of the following would not be classed as one of the
major trends driving decisions about effective organizational structures
in the 21st century?
298.

Describe what good organizational leadership involves

299.
Explain how vision and performance help leaders clarify
strategic intent
300.
Make clear the performance expectations a leader has for the
organization, and managers in it, as they seek to move toward that
vision
301.
Explain the value of passion and selection/development of
new leaders in shaping an organization's culture
302.
Briefly explain seven sources of power and influence available
to every manager
303.
304.
Define and explain what is meant by organizational culture,
and how it is created, influenced, and changed
305.
Describe four ways leaders influence culture
306.
Manage organizational culture in a global organization:
307.

Explain four strategy-culture situations

308.
The CEO of the Baxley Corporation has a clear sense of
where he wants the corporation to go and also knows exactly what
results are desired and necessary. It can be stated Baxley's CEO has
which one of the following?
309.
Strategic intent

310.
Of the following, which one would be considered incorrect
when discussing the concept of a leader's business vision?
311.
A strategic plan is needed more than a leader's vision in
organizations desiring to globalize operations.
312.
Problems leaders may face when they are attempting to build
their organizations include all but which one of the following?
313.
Surrendering organizational control to lower-level subordinates
314.
The effort to familiarize future leaders with the skills important
to the company and to develop exceptional leaders among the
mangers employed is best known as __________.
315.
__________ are fundamental personal standards that guide
your sense of honesty, integrity, and ethical behavior.
316.
Of the following, which one is best identified as the capacity to
see a commitment through to completion long after most other people
would have stopped trying?
317.
Jason is highly committed to what he does for his company
and also to what he wants to do with his company in the future. It can
be stated that Jason has _______.
318.
Important ways leaders can shape an organization's culture
would include all but which one of the following?
319.
Many new organizational managers expect to be able to rely
on which type of power in order to get things accomplished?
320.
_______ power refers to the ability to influence and direct
others that comes from being able to confer desired items in return for
desired actions or outcomes.
321.
Define the term performance management, distinguish
between learning goals and performance outcome goals, and explain
the three-step goal setting process.
322.
Identify the two basic functions of feedback, and specify at
least three practical lessons from feedback research.
323.
Define 360-degree feedback, and summarize how to give
good feedback in a performance management program.
324.
Distinguish between extrinsic and intrinsic rewards, and
explain the four building blocks of intrinsic rewards and motivation
325.
Summarize the reasons why extrinsic rewards often fail to
motivate employees.
326.
Discuss how managers can generally improve extrinsic reward and pay for
327.
State Thorndike's "law of effect," and explain Skinner's
distinction between respondent and operant behavior.

328.
Define positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement,
punishment, and extinction, and distinguish between continuous and
intermittent schedules of reinforcement.
329.

Demonstrate your knowledge of behavior shaping.

330.

Intermittent Reinforcement

331.
Research indicates that employees with little tenure are more
likely to seek feedback than long-tenured employees.
332.
Personal feelings of self-esteem are an example of an
extrinsic reward.
333.
Rewarding an employee based on his or her tenure is an
example of a reward based on nonperformance criteria.
334.
Hourly pay is an example of a fixed interval reinforcement
schedule.
335.
According to the guidelines for SMART goals, the more vague
the goal the more effective it is.
336.

Money is an example of a(n) __________ reward.

337.
Distributing rewards based on how well an employee
cooperates with other employees is an example of the __________
distribution criteria.
338.
Reflexively withdrawing one's hand from a hot stove is an
example of
339.
You decide to get rid of your boyfriend or girlfriend by refusing
to answer his/her phone calls. You are using a(n) __________
strategy to end the relationship.
340.
Employees with a clear _______ understand the
organization's strategic goals and know what actions they need to
take, both individually and as team members.
341.
Describe the five stages in Tuckman's theory of group
development, and discuss the threat of group decay.
342.

Distinguish between role conflict and role ambiguity

343.
Distinguish between task and maintenance functions in
groups.

344.
Summarize the practical contingency management
implications for group size.
345.
Discuss why managers need to carefully handle mixed-gender
task groups.
346.
347.

Describe groupthink, and identify at least four of its symptoms

mindguards.

348.
it.

Define social loafing, and explain how managers can prevent

349.
Identify the four sociological criteria of a group, and discuss
the impact of social networking on group dynamics.
350.
The four sociological criteria of a group include: two or more
freely interacting individuals, collective norms, collective goals, and
common identity.
351.
An organizational function of formal groups is to increase an
individual's self-esteem and sense of identity.
352.
According to Tuckman's five-stage theory of group
development, during the "storming" stage subgroups form and power
politics may erupt into open rebellion.
353.
Role conflict occurs when the expectations of the role senders
exceed what the focal person is able to do.
354.
The stepladder technique is a proven way to prevent social
loafing.
355.
Which of the following is an example of an organizational
function of a formal group?
356.
A group member who says __________ is acting in a task
role.
357.
"Last week we decided to table this agenda item. Are we ready
to address it
358.
A group member serving in the harmonizer maintenance role
359.
mediates conflict using reconciliation or humor.
360.
361.

Self-censorship is a symptom of
groupthink.

362.

One way to prevent groupthink is to

363.

Explain how a work group becomes a team.

364.

Identify and describe four types of work teams.

365.
Explain the model of effective work teams, and specify the two
criteria of team effectiveness.
366.
Identify five teamwork competencies team members need to
possess.
367.

Discuss why teams fail.

368.

List at least four things managers can do to build trust.

369.
Distinguish two types of group cohesiveness, and summarize
cohesiveness research findings.
370.

Define virtual teams and self-managed teams

371.
Describe high-performance teams and discuss team
leadership.
372.
Define the term conflict, and put the three metaphors of
conflict into proper perspective for the workplace.
373.
Distinguish between functional and dysfunctional conflict, and
discuss why people avoid conflict
374.
List six antecedents of conflict, and identify the desired
outcomes of conflict.
375.
Among the many antecedents of conflict are incompatible
personalities or value systems; competition for limited resources;
inadequate communication;
376.
Define personality conflicts, and explain how managers
should handle them.
377.
Discuss the role of in-group thinking in intergroup conflict, and
explain what management can do about intergroup conflict
378.
Discuss what can be done about cross-cultural conflict.
379.
Explain how managers can stimulate functional conflict, and
identify the five conflict-handling styles.
380.
Explain the nature and practical significance of conflict
triangles and alternative dispute resolution for third-party conflict
intervention.
381.
Explain the difference between distributive and integrative
negotiation, and discuss the concept of added-value negotiation.
382.

Explain the concept of strategic management

383.
Describe how strategic decisions differ from other decisions that managers
384.
Name the benefits and risks of a participative approach to
strategic decision making
385.
Understand the types of strategic decisions for which different
managers are responsible
386.

Describe a comprehensive model of strategic decision making

387.

Company Mission

388.
Appreciate the importance of strategic management as a
process
389.
Too much team cohesiveness can be a problem for the
organization.
390.
In general, success leads to cohesion, rather than cohesion
causing success
391.

External threats hurt team cohesiveness

392.
Members of cohesive teams enjoy more satisfaction and less
turnover
393.

A flight attendant crew is an example of a project team.

394.
Instrumental cohesiveness is a sense of group togetherness
based on mutual dependency needed to get the job done.
395.
Researchers concluded that competition is superior to
cooperation in promoting achievement and productivity.
396.
According to Management professor/consultant Fernando
Bartolom, all of the following except which are good guidelines to
follow in building and maintaining trust.
397.

A baseball team is an example of a(n) __________ team.

398.
According to the model of work team effectiveness presented
in Figure 11-1, performance and viability are both
399.
Which of the following is a typical managerial mistake leading
to team failure?
400.
One way managers can enhance socio-emotional
cohesiveness is by
401.
encouraging interaction and cooperation.
402.

Ideally, an organization should experience no conflict.

403.
A day off with pay that occurs one time only intended to allow
the employee to recommit to the organization's values and mission is
known as the dialectic method.

404.
The devil's advocacy method of stimulating functional conflict
involves assigning one person the role of critic.
405.
The obliging (smoothing) style of handling dysfunctional
conflict is appropriate for complex issues where the chance of
misunderstanding is high.
406.
_________ is defined as conflict that raises different opinions
regardless of the personal feelings of those involved.
407.
The nondisclosure negotiation tactic involves partial
disclosure of facts, failure to disclose a hidden fact, failure to correct
the opponents' misperceptions, and concealment of the negotiator's
own position.
408.
When a situation is characterized by __________, managers
should anticipate conflict.
409.
A major drawback of the __________ method of stimulating
functional conflict is that "winning the debate" may become more
important than arriving at the best solution.
410.
The __________ style of handling dysfunctional conflict
involves either passive withdrawal from the problem or active
suppression of the issue.
411.
The primary strength of the __________ style of handling
dysfunctional conflict is that it has a longer lasting impact because it
deals with the underlying problem rather than merely with symptoms.
It's primary weakness is that it is very time consuming.
412.
When the ABC Corporation makes decisions that assist it in
formulating and implementing plans that are designed to achieve its
objectives, it is most likely engaging in _________.
413.
Of the following, which one is least likely to be considered a
critical task associated with an organization's strategic management
process?
414.
The We Have It Your Way Organization has an established
"game plan" for its business operations. This game plan reflects the
company's awareness of how and where it should compete and
against whom the competition should take place. It can be stated this
organization has an established _________.
415.
Of the following, which statement would most likely not be
considered a dimension of strategic issues?
416.
The decision making hierarchy of a firm typically contains
_______ levels.
417.
Which level of the decision making hierarchy is best identified
as being composed principally of business and corporate mangers

who must translate the statements of direction and intent into concrete
objectives and strategies for the individual business units?
418.
An organization's board of directors and administrative officers
are most likely to be found at the ________ in its decision making
hierarchy.
419.
At which hierarchy level would the decisions made be more
value-oriented, more conceptual, and less concrete?
420.
Common functional-level decisions would include all of the
following except ___________.
421.
________ refers to the degree in which participants,
responsibilities, authority, and discretion in decision making are
specified.
422.
Describe a company mission and explain its value
423.
Why is this firm in business?
What are our economic goals?
What is our operating philosophy in terms of quality, company image,
and self-concept?
What are our core competencies and competitive advantages?
What customers do and can we serve?
How do we view our responsibilities to stockholders, employees,
communities,
424.
Explain why the mission statement should include the
company's basic product or service, its primary markets, and its
principal technology
425.
Explain which goal of a company is most important: survival,
profitability, or growth
426.
GROWTH IS MOST IMPORTANT
427.
Discuss the importance of company philosophy, public image,
and company self-concept to stockholders
428.
Public Image
429.
Give examples of the newest trends in mission statement
components: customer emphasis, quality, and company vision
430.
CUSTOMER EMPHASIS
QUALITY
VISION
FORD MOTOR COMPANY CORPORATE VISION
GENERAL ELECTRIC CORPORATE VISION
MAGNA CORPORATE VISION
MICROSOFT CORPORATE VISION

431.
Describe the role of a company's board of directors
Explain agency theory and its value
432.
433.
All of the following statements would be considered of a
company's mission statement except which one?
434.
435.
Of the following, which aspect is least likely to be a
consideration addressed in an organization's mission statement?
436.
Which one of the following statements is least likely to represent a fundamental belief an
organization would have to guide it in creating its mission statement?
437.
The XYZ Organization's mission statement is focused around
three indispensable components. Of the following, which one would
not be considered one of these components?
438.
Of the following statements, which one would not fit well in the
segment of a corporate mission statement expressing the
corporation's concern for public image?
439.
440.
Purportedly, there are three economic goals that serve to
guide the strategic direction of almost every business organization.
________ is least likely to be considered one of these goals?
441.
When an organization makes a statement such as "We
believe that meeting the needs of customers, suppliers, and neighbors
is instrumental to fulfilling our mission" the organization is most likely
identifying its _________.
442.
Of the following statements, which one is least likely to be
regarding a company's statement of philosophy?
443.
Which one of the following statements would be considered
when discussing the value a company places on its public image?
444.
The board of directors of the TMJ Company takes great pride
in the operations of this very successful company. Which of the
following statements would most likely be considered about TMJ's
board of directors?
445.
Discuss seven different topics for long-term corporate
objectives
446.
Profitability
447.
Describe the five qualities of long-term corporate objectives
that make them useful to strategic managers
448.
Explain the generic strategies of low-cost leadership,
differentiation, and focus
449.
underappreciated customer segments
450.

Discuss the importance of the value disciplines

451.

Operational Excellence

Customer Intimacy
Customer intimacy means continually tailoring and shaping products
and
Product Leadership
List, describe, evaluate, and give examples of 15 grand strategies that
decision makers use in forming their company's competitive plan
452.
Understand the creation of sets of long-term objectives and
grand strategies options
453.

Concentrated growth

454.
455.

Market development
used to initiate this approach

456.

Product development

457.

Innovation

458.

Horizontal Integration

459.

vertical integration

460.

concentric diversification

461.

conglomerate diversification

462.

turnaround

463.

divestiture

464.

liquidation

465.
466.

bankruptcy
Chapter 7

467.
468.

joint ventures
advantages for both partners

469.

strategic alliances

470.

consortia.

471.
the following areas would these long-term objectives need to
address?
472.
The ability of the firm to invest in capital equipment this year.
page 179.
473.
There are several qualities the long-term objectives developed
by Stormio should posses that will improve their chances of being
attained. All of the following except _________ would be considered
one of these necessary qualities.

474.
A set of measures directly linked to a company's strategy,
financial performance, customer knowledge, internal business
processes, and learning and growth is best known as that company's
_________.
475.
The Grinder Up Corporation is a waste disposal business
based in Santa Fe. This corporation possesses unique capabilities
that assist it in being able to sustain its current market position. These
capabilities include having secured suppliers of scarce raw materials,
continuing dominance in its market, excellence at efficiencies, and a
high degree of capitalization. It is most likely that Grinder Up engages
in which one of the following strategies?
476.
The strategy embraced by the Kun-Pow Fortune Cookie
Company of Memphis strives to address the needs of a very select
and specialized market segment. Kun-Pow is most likely to engage in
which one of the following types of strategy?
477.
Of the value disciplines proposed by Michael Treacy and Fred
Wiersema, which one is best identified as referring to providing
customers with convenient and reliable products and services at
competitive prices?
478.
Operational excellence
Companies that implement a strategy of ________ continually tailor and
shape products and services to fit an increasingly refined definition of
the customer.
479.
Which one of the following grand strategies is noted as
presenting products, often with only cosmetic modifications, to
customers in related marketing areas?
480.
_________ involves the substantial modification of existing
products or the creation of new but related products that can be
marketed to current customers through established channels.
481.
Determine why a business would choose a low-cost,
differentiation, or speed-based strategy
482.
Explain the nature and value of a market focus strategy
483.
Market focus: the extent to which a business concentrates on a
narrowly defined market
Small companies, at least the better ones, usually thrive because they
serve narrow market niches
Market focus allows some businesses to compete on the basis of low
cost, differentiation, and rapid response against much larger businesses
with greater resources
484.
Illustrate how a firm can pursue both low-cost and
differentiation strategies
485.
Identify requirements for business success at different stages
of industry evolution
486.
MATURE INDUSTRIES

DECLINING INDUSTRIES
487.
FRAGMENTED INDUSTRIES
GLOBAL INDUSTRIES
488.
Determine good business strategies in fragmented and global
industries
489.
.
.
490.

Decide when a business should diversify

491.
Which one of the following statements would be considered
about the concept of competitive advantage?
492.
Major Lionel Minor began his own new home construction
company when he retired from the Air Force five years ago. The
company has rapidly grown to be very large and has reported
earnings of over $40 million in the past year. Retired Major Minor
attributes this high rate of success to his ability to service his
customers at a low price. His organization has to meet several
requirements in order to continually support and sustain this low-cost
leadership status. Which of the following would not be one of these
requirements?
493.
A business strategy that seeks to build competitive advantage
with its product or service by having it be unique from other available
competitive products would be classed as __________ strategy.
494.
All of the following would be considered organizational skills
and resources that foster a differentiation strategy except which one?
495.
Sustainable activities that provide all of the following
opportunities relative to key industry forces except _________ should
become the basis for differentiation aspects within the business's
competitive strategy.
496.
The Tick-Tock Clock Corporation is able to successfully meet
the needs of its customers more rapidly than any of its competitors
can. It is most likely this corporation is engaging in which one of the
following business strategies?
497.
All of the following would be considered emerging industries
of the last decade except _______.
498.
Through its use of speed-based strategy, the Tick-Tock Clock
Corporation is most likely to gain its competitive advantage by being
proficient in all but which one of the following activities?
499.
The extent to which a business concentrates on a narrowly
defined market is best referred to as ___________.
500.

501.
The business strategy decided upon by the Ripper Up
Remodeling Corporation is one that engages in value chain activities,
which are achieved at a cost that is well below its competitors. In this
way, the competitors can require less money for its services than
competitors can. It is safe to say this corporation is engaging a
__________.
502.
Understand the portfolio approach to strategic analysis and
choice in multibusiness companies.
503.
Understand and use three different portfolio approaches to
conduct strategic analysis and choice in multibusiness companies
504.
Identify the limitations and weaknesses of the various portfolio
approaches
505.
Understand the synergy approach to strategic analysis and
choice in multibusiness companies
506.
Evaluate the parent company role in strategic analysis and
choice to determine whether and how it adds tangible value in a
multibusiness company
507.
Jerome Washington's company has decided to acquire two
other businesses in order to increase its growth and earning potential.
In essence, Jerome's company desires to become a multibusiness
company. Which one of the following would be least likely to be
considered another valid rationale for why the company would desire
to take this action?
508.
.
509.
The market share of a business divided by the market share
of its largest competitor equals the business's ________.
510.
According the BCG growth-share matrix, which of the
following would be most likely to possess a low market share and a
high growth rate?
511.
The Denard Corporation currently possesses a low share of
its available market. Additionally, this company's portfolio reveals it
has extremely low market growth. This business is most likely to be
classed as which one of the following according the BCG growthshare matrix?
512.
All of the following would be considered reasons for why the
industry attractiveness-business strength matrix offers improvement
over the BCG matrix except _________.
513.
Which one of the following would not be classed as a
necessary financial strength factor to be considered when a company
is constructing its industry attractiveness-business strength matrix?
514.
The Ride 'Em Cowboy Western Wear Corporation of Houston
is very efficient in maintaining low overhead costs. This corporation
has excellent skills in operational efficiency and cost management.
However it faces few sources of advantage within its industry, with
most of those being quite small. Under which of the following industry
environments is this corporation most likely to be placed?

515.
Businesses with many sources of advantage that are
characterized by high levels of skill in achieving differentiation such as
product design and innovation would most likely be classed as which
one of the following under the BCG's strategic environments matrix?
516.
Which one of the following would not be considered a
contribution to strategic analysis through the organizations' use of the
portfolio approach?
517.
The ______ perspective sees multibusiness companies as
creating value by influencing the businesses they own.
518.
Understand how short-term objectives are used in strategy
implementation
519.
Identify and apply the qualities of good short-term objectives
to your own experiences
520.
Illustrate what is meant by functional tactics and how they are
used in strategy implementation
521.
Gain a general sense of what outsourcing is and how it
becomes a choice in functional tactics decisions for strategy
implementation
522.
Understand what policies are and how to use them to
empower operating personnel
523.
Identify different types of executive compensation and when to
use each in strategy implementation
524.
Measurable outcomes that are designed to be achievable in
one year or less of the company's life are called ___________.
525.
Short-term objectives are more consistent when they clearly
indicate all but which one of the following?
526.
Functional tactics are different from business or corporate
strategies in all but which one of the following ways?
527.
________ are directives designed to guide the thinking,
decisions, and actions of managers and subordinates in implementing
a firm's strategy.
528.
The act of allowing an individual or team the right and
flexibility to make decisions and initiate actions is best referred to as
which one of the following?
529.
an organization's formal, written polices have several
advantages. Which one of the following would not be considered one
of these advantages?

530.
The type of executive bonus compensation that is noted for
promoting longer executive tenure than other forms is which one of
the following?
531.
When discussing executive bonus compensation plans, the
right to purchase company stock at a fixed price at some future date is
called ________.
532.
Describe and illustrate four types of strategic control.
533.
A drastic event should trigger an immediate and intense
reassessment of the
534.
Summarize the balanced scorecard approach and how it
integrates strategic and operational control.
535.
Illustrate the use of controls to guide and monitor strategy
implementation.
536.
Managers who are in charge of the success of an
organization's strategy typically are concerned with all but which one
of the following?
537.

Strategic control is concerned with tracking a strategy

538.
Which one of the following would not be considered a basic type of strategic
539.
Which one of the following strategic controls would have the
basic characteristics of a high degree of focusing, a high degree of
formalization in data acquisition, can be used with company- and
strategy-specific factors, and have key strategic thrusts and
milestones as objects of control?
540.
Every strategy is based on certain assumptions and
predications. ________ control is designed to check systematically
and continuously whether or not what the strategy is based on is still
valid.
541.
_________ control is designed to monitor a broad range of
events inside and outside the firm that are likely to affect the course of
its strategy.
542.
Which one of the following is best described as being a
thorough, often rapid reconsideration of the firm's strategy because of
a sudden, unexpected event?
543.
Which one of the following would not be considered a basic
type of implementation control?
544.
Implementation control is enabled through all of the following
operational systems except _______.
545.

_________ is one of the basic types of strategic control.

546.
Three tiers of environmental factors that affect firm
performance

547.
The five factors in the operating environment (competitive or
task environment)
548.

Economic Factors

549.

Social Factors

550.

Political Factors

551.

Technological Factors

552.

Ecological Factors

553.

International Environment

554.

Entry Barriers

555.

Supplier Power

556.

Substitute availability

557.

Competitive rivalry

558.
The construction company owned by Tom and Adam Smith - T
& A Contracting- faces many challenges posed by its external
environment. Of the following, which factor is most likely to be classed
as belonging in the remote environment of T & A Contracting?
559.
________ factors concern the nature and direction of the
economy in which a firm operates.
560.
The social factors that affect a firm involve all of the following
except _______.
561.
Political constraints are placed on firms through a variety of
avenues except which one of the following?
562.
Which of the following is a statement regarding the fourth set
of factors - technological changes- in a firm's remote environment?
563.
The quasi-science of anticipating environmental and
competitive changes and estimating their importance to an
organization's operations is best identified as which one of the
following?
564.
Strategies dependent on ______ are designed to appeal to
customers with a special sensitivity for a particular product attribute.
...
565.
The most prominent factor found in the remote environment of
businesses is most often that of the reciprocal relationship between
those businesses and the ecology. Specific ecological concerns focus
on all but which one of the following?
566.
Which one of the following would not be considered a method
a firm can engage in to enhance an eco-efficient strategy?

567.
the general conditions for competition that influences
businesses, which provide similar products and services is best
referred to as a/an ________.
568.
Defining the boundaries of an industry can be a very difficult
task. This difficulty stems from all of the following except which one?
569.
Industries are very static in nature.
570.

The importance of a company's decision to globalize

571.
572.

The four main strategic orientations of global firms

573.
The complexity of the global environment and the control
problems that are faced by global firms
574.
Major issues in global strategic planning, including the
differences for multinational and global firms
575.
The market requirements and product characteristics in global
competition
576.

The competitive strategies for firms in foreign markets

577.
For the past two years the Broken Arrow Corporation has
been planning to expand its operations in order to reach out to the
market arenas of the world. Its future plans include continuation of its
standardized product line to be offered within the new marketplaces.
Essentially, the Broken Arrow Corporation desires to _____________.
578.
As a corporation grows into that of being a global operation, it
can expect to undergo the need for various progressively involved
strategy levels. At which level should a corporation most likely expect
to face the challenge of foreign licensing and technology transfer?
579.
All of the following except _________ would be considered
rationales for why an organization may wish to globalize its operations in
the international marketplace.
580.
When the values and priorities of the parent organization
guide the strategic decision making of all its international operations, it
can be said there is a/an _______ present within the organization.
581.
A corporation with a/an ________ is likely to adopt a global
systems approach to its strategic decision making that empathizes
global integration.
582.
The primary niche market approach for a company that wants
to export is to do which one of the following?
583.
All of the following would be considered about a firm at the
start of its globalization process except which one?
584.
Which one of the following would not be considered a factor
that contributes to the increase in the complexity found within today's
global environment?

585.
Of the following, which one is least likely to be classed as
creating or contributing to the control problems a global firm may
face?
586.
A/An ______ is one in which competition crosses national
borders on a worldwide basis.
587.

Understand how to conduct a SWOT analysis

588.
Understand value chain analysis and how to use it to
disaggregate a firm's activities
589.

Understand the resource-based view of a firm

590.
Apply four different perspectives for making meaningful
comparisons to assess a firm's internal strengths and weaknesses
591.
Simon Ize is the owner of a company (2-Shine Simon Ize-It)
that specializes in a variety of floor waxing and polishing products. His
company managers are in the process of finding answers to such
questions as: How well is our current strategy working? and What is
our current situation? In order to obtain the answers to these types of
questions Simon's company is most likely to conduct which one of the
following?
592.
The 2-Shine Simon Ize-It Company wants to know the major
favorable situations that exist in its environment. Essentially, the
company wants to gain understanding of its _________.
593.
all of the following would represent possible threats to the 2Shine Simon Ize-It Company except which one of the following?
594.
All of the following except which one would be considered a
weakness to a business such as the one owned by Simon Ize?
595.
Utilizing a SWOT analysis diagram, one would expect to find
which piece of information about the company in question in Cell 2?
596.
All but which one of the following would be considered a
limiting factor or influence to a SWOT analysis?
597.
_______ attempts to understand how a business creates
customer value by examining the contributions of different activities
within a business to that value.
598.
Primary activities conducted by a firm are those that are
involved in the creation, marketing, and transfer of the product to the
buyer. Which one of the following would not be considered a primary
activity?
599.
The _______ is a method of analyzing and identifying a firm's
strategic advantages based on examining its distinct combination of
assets, skills, capabilities, and intangibles as an organization.
600.
the tangible assets of a firm such as Gary's Two-Can Tan
Company would include all but which one of the following?