2

Answer all questions.

1

A light microscope is used to observe two membranes that are 200 nm apart.
How far apart are the membranes when the objective lens is changed from low power (x40) to high
power (x400)?
A 2 m

20 m

200 m

2000 m

The diagram is an outline of the procedure for separation of cell components from a liver homogenate
in 0.25 M sucrose at 00C.

What do X, Y and Z represent?

X
nuclei

Y
mitochondria
mitochondria

endoplasmic reticulum
and ribosomes
nuclei

mitochondria

A
B

mitochondria
endoplasmic reticulum
and ribosomes

Cells which do not have nucleoli die because they do not have
A
B
C
D

endoplasmic reticulum
and ribosomes
nuclei

Z
endoplasmic reticulum
and ribosomes
nuclei

Centrioles and cannot divide

Mitochondria and cannot release energy
mRNA and cannot transcribe DNA
Ribosomes and cannot synthesis protein

Four sugar solutions were tested with a standard Benedicts solution. The table shows the colour of
the solutions after testing.
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Solution
1

Colour
Green

Blue

Brick red

Yellow

What is the best interpretation of the results?

A
B
C
D
5

1.0 % non-reducing
sugar

Solution 3
1.0 % reducing sugar

1.0 % non-reducing
sugar
0.5 % reducing sugar

1.5 % reducing sugar

0.1 % reducing sugar

0.5 % non-reducing
sugar

Solution 4
0.1 % reducing
sugar
1.0 % reducing
sugar
0.5 % reducing
sugar
0.1 % non-reducing
sugar

400
40
160
80

The R groups (side chains) of amino acids can be hydrophobic, hydrophilic, acidic or basic. The
diagram shows four different amino acid R groups.

A
B
C
D
7

0.5 % non-reducing
sugar
1.0 % reducing sugar

Solution 2
0.5 % non-reducing
sugar
0.05 % reducing sugar

A sequence of amino acids may end in either an amino group (NH2) or a carboxyl group (COOH).
What is the theoretical number of chemically different dipeptides that may be assembled from 20
different amino acids?
A
B
C
D

Solution 1
0.05 % reducing sugar

hydrophobic
Ala
Ala
Asp
Asp

hydrophilic
Ser
Ser
Lys
Ser

acidic
Asp
Lys
Ser
Lys

basic
Lys
Asp
Ala
Ala

Which feature is true of cellulose and accounts for its strength?

A It contains both 1,4 and 1,6 links between glucose units.
B It has OH groups that form hydrogen bonds with adjacent cellulose molecules.
C It is a fibrous molecule which is insoluble in water.
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D It is made up of long, branched and coiled chains of glucose units with 1, 4 links.
8

An enzyme is a globular protein held together by several different types of chemical bond, giving the
enzyme primary, secondary and tertiary levels of structure.
What correctly summarises the types of bonds involved in each level of structure?
A
B
C
D

disulphide bonds
tertiary
primary, tertiary
secondary
primary

hydrogen bonds
secondary, tertiary
primary
secondary
tertiary

ionic bonds
tertiary
secondary, tertiary
tertiary
secondary

peptide bonds
primary
secondary
primary
tertiary

The diagrams show where an inhibitor becomes attached to an enzyme and whether this is permanent
or temporary.

Which diagrams represent a non-competitive inhibitor?

A
B
C
D

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

10 Glucose in urine can be detected using a biochemical test. When the end of a test strip, which is
impregnated with the enzyme glucose oxidase, is dipped into urine, the development of a blue colour
indicates that glucose is present.
This is a reliable test that people with diabetes can carry out at home.
Which feature of the enzyme makes this test so reliable?
A It is heat stable.
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B It is specific.
C It lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
D It only works at low pH range.
11 Which group of cells, taken from the same plant, has been placed in a solution with a less negative
water potential than the cell contents?

12 Some organism change the composition of their membranes to maintain membrane fluidity when
temperature changes.
Which changes occur in the composition of membranes following a change to low temperature?
A
B
C
D

increase phospholipids, decrease cholesterol

increase saturated fatty acids, increase cholesterol
increase saturated fatty acids, decrease cholesterol
increase unsaturated fatty acids, increase cholesterol

13 Which one of the following statements about the cell membrane is correct?
A
B
C
D

Some small molecules move passively between the phospholipid molecules.

Cellulose molecules act as receptors on the membrane surface.
Some molecules move passively through the membrane against the concentration gradient.
Phospholipid molecules are embedded in two layers of protein molecules.

14 The graph shows the length of the spindle fibres during mitosis.
Which region of the graph shows when the centromeres detach from the spindle fibres?

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15

A plant cell had been grown in a culture medium containing radioactive DNA nucleotides. The level
of radioactivity at each stage of mitosis was measured and the results are shown in the table below.
Stage of mitosis
Level of radioactivity /
arbitrary units

Prophase

Metaphase

Anaphase

Telophase

102

100

52

51

For which stage of mitosis was the level of radioactivity incorrectly measured?
A Prophase

B Metaphase

C Anaphase

D Telophase

16 At prophase of mitosis, a eukaryote chromosome consists of two chromatids.

What is the structure of a single chromatid?
A one molecule of single-stranded DNA coiled around protein molecules
B two molecules of single-stranded DNA each coiled around protein molecules
C one double helix of DNA coiled around protein molecules
D two double helices of DNA each coiled around protein molecules
17 Bacteria were grown for many generations in a medium containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen, 15N.
They were then transferred to a medium containing the light isotope of nitrogen, 14N. They were
given time to replicate DNA and divide once. Their DNA was extracted, spun in a centrifuge and
observed using ultra violet light. The DNA with the 15N settled at a lower depth than the DNA with
the 14N.
Which shows the predicted results after one generation in the medium with the light isotope?

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18 Pyrimidine bases contain 4 carbon atoms and purine bases contain 5.

How many carbon atoms are there in a nucleotide containing cytosine?
A 8

B 9

C 10

D 11

19 Biochemical analysis of a sample of DNA shows that cytosine forms 40% of the nitrogenous bases.
Which percentage of the bases is adenine?
A 10%

B 20%

C 40%

D 60%

20 Which structural feature of the DNA molecule varies?

A
B
C
D

the arrangement of the sugar-phosphate groups

the double helical arrangement
the order of bases on a single nucleotide chain
the pairing of purines with pyrimidines

21 The diagram shows a growing plant in sunlight.

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What would be the relative solute potentials in MPa in the phloem at P, R and S and in the
mesophyll cells at Q?
A
B
C
D

P
-1.3
-2.2
-2.0
-2.5

Q
-2.5
-2.0
-1.3
-2.2

R
-2.2
-1.3
-2.5
-2.0

S
-2.0
-2.5
-2.2
-1.3

22 The table given below shows the surface area to volume ration of a spherical cell at two stages of its
growth.
Stage of growth

Surface area to volume ratio

3:1

1:1

At stage W of its growth, the cell

A
B
C
D

has a smaller mass than at stage X.

is less efficient in exchanging materials by diffusion than at stage X.
has same surface area at stage X.
has a larger volume than at stage X.

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23 What occurs in the apoplast and symplast pathways?

A
B
C
D

water enters cell

wall

water enters
cytoplasm through
plasma membrane

water
enters
vacuoles

water moves
from cell to
cell through
plasmodesmata

apoplast
apoplast
symplast
symplast

apoplast
symplast
apoplast
symplast

apoplast
symplast
apoplast
symplast

symplast
symplast
apoplast
apoplast

water moves
from cell to cell
through
intercellular
spaces
symplast
apoplast
symplast
apoplast

24 The diagram represents the relationship between tissue cells and capillaries in the transport of
carbon dioxide. At which point does carbonic anhydrase operate?

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25 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves of haemoglobin for eight mammals.

Which conclusion can be drawn from the graph?

A The activity of the mammal is directly proportional to the ability of its haemoglobin to release
oxygen.
B The haemoglobin of larger mammals will release oxygen at a higher pO2 than that of smaller
mammals.
C The haemoglobin of smaller mammals will release oxygen at a higher pO2 than that of larger
mammals.
D The size of the mammal is directly proportional to the ability of its haemoglobin to release
oxygen.
26 Which blood vessels change their resistance to blood flow to regulate distribution of blood to
organs?
A
B
C
D

arteries
arterioles
capillaries
veins

27 How does nicotine in cigarette smoke increase the risk of cardiac disease?
A
B
C
D

by binding with haemoglobin

by constricting blood vessels
by inhibiting nerve transmission
by stimulating the pacemaker

28 Which tissues are present in the walls of a trachea and an alveolus?

tissue
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cartilage
A trachea
alveolus

epithelium with
goblet cells

smooth muscle

B trachea
alveolus

C trachea
alveolus

D trachea
alveolus

29 Between 1954 and 1958 many doctors read a report that linked smoking cigarettes to deaths from
lung cancer. The graph shows deaths from lung cancer among male doctors and all other men in
England and Wales between 1954 and 1962.

Which statements best explain the changes in deaths from lung cancer between 1954 and 1962?
1 All other men are more at risk of dying from lung cancer then male doctors.
2 Male doctors are more at risk of dying from lung cancer than all other men.
3 Proportionally more all other men gave up smoking than male doctors.
4 Proportionally more male doctors gave up smoking cigarettes than all other men.
A 1 and 3
B 2 and 3
C 2 and 4
D 1 and 4
30 Which statement is an example of epidemiological evidence linking smoking to lung cancer?
A Chemical analysis of tar from cigarettes shows that it contains carcinogens.
B Dogs made to inhale the smoke from cigarettes develop lung tumours.
C The incidence of lung cancer increases in a population as more cigarettes are smoked.
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D When tar from cigarettes is rubbed onto the skin of mice, the mice develop skin tumours.
31

Some antibacterial drugs can affect the synthesis of proteins.

Antimicrobial
drug
Mode of
action

Rifampicin

Streptomycin

Tetracycline

Binds to RNA
polymerase

Genetic code misread

during translation

Prevents binding of
tRNA to ribosome

Which is the correct set of immediate effects of these drugs?

Rifampicin

Streptomycin

Tetracycline

Defective protein synthesised

mRNA does not bind to

ribosome

Amino acids not added to

growing chain

mRNA not synthesised

Defective protein
synthesised

Amino acids not added to

growing chain

mRNA not synthesised

mRNA does not bind to

ribosome

Transcription prevented

Transcription prevented

Defective protein
synthesised

mRNA does not bind to

ribosome

32 For which disease is vaccination the most successful method of prevention?

A
B
C
D

cholera
HIV / AIDS
TB
malaria

33 What causes the measles vaccine to be less effective in children from less economically developed
countries?
A
B
C
D

Their diet does not contain enough carbohydrate.

Their diet does not contain enough protein.
They are carriers of the disease.
They rapidly become reinfected.

34 Smallpox has been eradicated, but not malaria or cholera.

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Which statements correctly explain this?
1 Cholera bacteria in the intestines are not destroyed by antibiotics.
2 Plasmodium antigens change during the life cycle.
3 Smallpox antigens remain stable.
4 Vaccines only work against viruses.
A 1, 2 and 3

B 1, 2 and 4

C 1, 3 and 4

D 2, 3 and 4

35 A graft of tissue, such as skin, from a different person is usually rejected by the body. Which
statement about graft rejection is correct?
A The graft is rejected by T-lymphocytes because they circulate in the blood and can gather at
the graft site.
B The graft is rejected by B-lymphocytes because they make and release antibodies which react
with the surface antigens on the graft cells.
C The graft is rejected by B-lymphocytes because T-lymphocytes are not stimulated to produce
antibodies.
D The graft is rejected by T-lymphocytes because the graft tissue causes T-lymphocytes to
release antibodies.
36 The numbers on the diagram refer to different types of immunity.

Which term is correct for each of these numbers?

1

active

passive

natural

artificial

natural

artificial

active

passive

artificial

natural

artificial

natural

passive

active

natural

artificial

natural

artificial

passive

active

artificial

natural

artificial

natural

37 Which sequence of events correctly describes the action of a phagocyte when a pathogen is
encountered?
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A endocytosis digestion by lysosome enzymes phagocytic vacuole formation
exocytosis
B endocytosis phagocytic vacuole formation digestion by lysosome enzymes
exocytosis
C exocytosis phagocytic vacuole formation digestion by lysosome enzymes
phagocytosis
D phagocytosis digestion by lysosome enzymes phagocytic vacuole formation
endocytosis
38 The diagram shows some values for productivity and energy flow in an ecosystem, measured in
kJm-2y-1.

What percentage of energy in the producers is stored in the secondary consumers?

A 1.3 %

B 6.7%

C 18.3%

D 19.6%

39 Water logging is caused by poor drainage. Air spaces in soil become filled with water, changing the
activities of soil bacteria.
Which changes occur in soil as a result of water logging?

A
B
C
D

activity of anaerobic
denitrifying bacteria
decreases
increases
increases
stays the same

activity of aerobic
nitrifying bacteria
increases
decreases
increases
decreases

gaseous nitrogen
content of soil
decreases
decreases
stays the same
increases

nitrate content
of soil
increases
decreases
increases
decreases

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40

In an investigation, discs of 2.5 cm diameter were cut from leaves. Fifty discs were put into three
identical bags with different net sizes and buried in newly dug soil at a depth of 3 cm.
At 60 day intervals the bags were dug up and the leaf discs measured to see how much of the leaf
area had disappeared.
The table shows the percentage of leaf discs remaining in each bag.

time / days
0
60
120
180
240
300

percentage of leaf disks remaining

net size 7 mm
net size 0.5 mm
net size 0.03 mm
100
100
100
80
94
100
30
81
100
14
67
100
9
63
100
6
61
100

Which organisms are most important for breaking down the leaves?
A earthworms and beetles
B microorganisms only
C small invertebrates only
D small invertebrates and microorganisms

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