Page 1

SLR-PK 1
*SLRPK1*
Seat
No.
Set
F. E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS I
Day and Date : Monday, 25-4-2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Attempt any three questions from each Section.

Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of calculator is allowed.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Duration : 30 Minutes
Marks : 14
1. Choose the correct answer :
14
1) If x = cos + i sin then the value of x100 +

a) 2 i sin 100
b) 2 cos100
c)
1
x
is ____________
100
cos
2
d) None
2) The modulus of z is constant then it represents

a) A circle
b) Straight line
c) Ellipse
d) None
3) The real part of sinhz if z = x + iy is

a) sinhx cosy
b) sinx coshy
c) coshx coshy
d) None of these
4) Which of the following is not true ?

a) cosix = cos hx
c) tan ix = i tan hx
b) sin ix = i sin hx
d) sec ix = i sec hx
5) If y = e10x then yn = ____________

a) ( 10) e10x
c) e10x
b) ( 10)n e10x
d) ( 10)n e10x
6) If y = ex cos x then yn = ___________

a) ex 2
c) ex 2
cos (x + n tan1(1))
b) ex 2
cosx
d) None of these
sin (x + n tan1(1))
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 1
*SLRPK1*
-2-
7) The coefficient of x5 in the expansion of cosx is

1
1
a) 0
b)
c)
5!
5
d) None
8) Let A be 33 matrix of rank 2 then the solution of AX = 0 has

a) One independent parameter
b) A trivial solution
c) Three independent parameters
d) Two independent parameters
1 1 1
0 1 2
9) Consider
0 0 3
a)
b)
c)
d)
For
For
For
For
x 6

y = 4

, then which of the following is not true.
z 10
= 3, = 10, system is consistent

= 3, 10, system is inconsistent
3, 10, system has no unique solution
3, having any value, system is consistent.
2 3 5
0 3 6
3
10) If M =
, then the eigen values of A are
0 0 2
1 1
1
, ,
d) None of these
2 3
2
11) If X1 , X2, X3 are linearly independent and K1 X1+ K2 X2 + K3 X3 = 0, then
___________
b) K1 = 0 but K2, K3 0
a) All K1, K2, K3 are zero
c) K1, K2, K3 are all equal to 1
d) K1= K2 = 0 but K3 0
a) 2, 3, 2
b) 8, 27, 8
12) If u = f(r, s), r = x + y, s = x y, then

a) 2
u
s
b) 2
b) 24
u u
+
= _________
x y
u
s
13) If u = log (x2 + y2 + z2), then x

a) 2
c)
c) 2
u
r
d) 2
u
r
u
u
u
+y
+z
= _____________
x
y
z
c) 2
d) 24
x
14) If x is an error in x, then
is called
x
a) Absolute error in x
c) Percentage error in x
b) Relative error in x
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK1*
SLR-PK 1
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2.
1
i
+
a) Prove that
2
2
10
1
i
+
2
2
10
= 0.
b) Express sin8 in a series of cosines of multiples of .
c) Find the roots of the equation x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1 = 0.
3. a) If y =
1
3
x +x + x +1
find yn.
b) If y = sinrx + cosrx, prove that yn = rn [1 + (1)n sin 2rx]
3
1
2.
c) If y = (x2 1)n then prove that (x2 1) yn+2 + 2x yn+1 n (n + 1) yn = 0.

4. a) Expand in power of x upto x6 if f(x) =ex sin x.
b) Prove that
tan1
3x x 3
1 3x 2
3
4
3
3
x3
x5
= 3x
+
...... .
3
5
Set P
SLR-PK 1
-4-
*SLRPK1*
c) Expand log tan x + in powers of x upto x2 by using Taylors theorem.

4
OR
c) Expand log (1 + ex) by using Maclaurins theorem.
5. a) If log tan x = y, prove that cos h ny =
1
[ tannx + cotnx].
2
b) If sin ( + i) = x + iy prove that x2 cosec2 y2 sec2 = 1.

c) Prove tanh1x = sinh1
2
1 x
3
3
3
3
SECTION II
6. Attempt the following :
a) Find the rank of the matrix :
1 3 4
2 1 3
A = 3 5 2
6 3 8
2 by reducing it to normal form.
b) Investigate the values of and so that the equations
2x + 3y + 5z = 9, 7x + 3y 2z = 8, 2x + 3y + z = have
i) no solution
ii) a unique solution
c) Solve by matrix method
x + y + 2 z = 0, x + 2 y + 3 z = 0,
x + 3 y + 4 z = 0, 3 x + 4 y + 7 z = 0.
Set P
*SLRPK1*
SLR-PK 1
-5-
7. Attetmpt the following :

a) Determine linear dependence or independence of vectors (2, 1, 3, 2), (1, 3, 4, 2)
and (3, 5, 2, 2). Find the relation between them if dependent.
b) Find the eigen values and eigen vector corresponding to the smallest eigen value
of matrix
3 1 4
0 2 6
A=
0 0 5
c) Find the characteristic equation of the Matrix A.
4 3 1
2 1 2
1
A =
. Hence find A .
1 2 1
8. Atteempt the following :
a)
x+y
prove that
x + y
If u = sin1
x2
2u
x 2
+ 2xy
2u
2u sin u cos 2u
+ y2 2 =
x y
4 cos 3 u
y
b) If z = f(x, y) , x= r cos , y = r sin , prove that

2
z
1
z
z
z
=
+
+ 2 +
r
x
r

y

a) Find [(3.82)2 + 2 (2.13)3]
1 .
5
u, v
for u = ex siny and v = x log sin y.
b) Find the Jacobian J
x, y
c) Examine f(x, y) = x3 + y3 3 axy for maximum and minimum values.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 1
*SLRPK1*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
14

1 1 1
0 1 2
2) Consider
0 0 3
a)
b)
c)
d)
For
For
For
For
x 6

y = 4

z 10

2 3 5
0 3 6
3
3) If M =
0 0 2
a) 2, 3, 2
b) 8, 27, 8
c)
1 1
1
, ,
2 3
2
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 1
*SLRPK1*
-2-

___________
b) K1 = 0 but K2, K3 0
d) K1= K2 = 0 but K3 0
a) 2
u
s
b) 2
u
s
6) If u = log (x2 + y2 + z2), then x

a) 2
u u
+
= _________
x y
b) 24
c) 2
u
r
d) 2
u
r
u
u
u
+y
+z
= _____________
x
y
z
c) 2
d) 24
x
is called
x
d) None of these
is ____________
x
cos
a) 2 i sin 100
b) 2 cos100
c)
d) None
2
a) A circle
b) Straight line
c) Ellipse
d) None
100

a) sinhx cosy
b) sinx coshy
c) coshx coshy

a) cosix = cos hx
12) If y = e10x then yn = ____________

a) ( 10) e10x
c) e10x
b) ( 10)n e10x
d) ( 10)n e10x
d) None of these

a) ex 2
c) ex 2
cos (x + n tan1(1))
b) ex 2
cosx
d) None of these

1
1
a) 0
b)
c)
5!
5
______________
sin (x + n tan1(1))
d) None
Set Q
*SLRPK1*
SLR-PK 1
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
1
i
+
a) Prove that
2
2
10
1
i
+
2
2
10
= 0.
3. a) If y =
1
3
x +x + x +1
find yn.
3
1
2.

b) Prove that
tan1
3x x 3
1 3x 2
3
4
3
3
x3
x5
= 3x
+
...... .
3
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 1
-4-
*SLRPK1*

4
OR
1
[ tannx + cotnx].
2

2
1 x
3
3
3
3
SECTION II
1 3 4
2 1 3
A = 3 5 2
6 3 8
2x + 3y + 5z = 9, 7x + 3y 2z = 8, 2x + 3y + z = have
i) no solution
x + y + 2 z = 0, x + 2 y + 3 z = 0,
x + 3 y + 4 z = 0, 3 x + 4 y + 7 z = 0.
Set Q
*SLRPK1*
SLR-PK 1
-5-

of matrix
3 1 4
0 2 6
A=
0 0 5
4 3 1
2 1 2
1
A =
. Hence find A .
1 2 1
a)
x+y
prove that
x + y
If u = sin1
x2
2u
x 2
+ 2xy
2u
2u sin u cos 2u
+ y2 2 =
x y
4 cos 3 u
y

2
z
1
z
z
z
=
+
+ 2 +
r
x
r

y

a) Find [(3.82)2 + 2 (2.13)3]
1 .
5
u, v
x, y
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 1
*SLRPK1*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14

1) If y = e10x then yn = ____________
a) ( 10) e10x
c) e10x
14
b) ( 10)n e10x
d) ( 10)n e10x

a) ex 2
c) ex 2
cos (x + n tan1(1))
b) ex 2
cosx
d) None of these
sin (x + n tan1(1))

1
1
a) 0
b)
c)
d) None
5!
5
1 1 1
0 1 2
5) Consider
0 0 3
a)
b)
c)
d)
For
For
For
For
x 6

y = 4

z 10

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 1
*SLRPK1*
-2-
2 3 5
0 3 6
3
6) If M =
0 0 2
1 1
1
, ,
d) None of these
2 3
2
___________
b) K1 = 0 but K2, K3 0
d) K1= K2 = 0 but K3 0
a) 2, 3, 2
b) 8, 27, 8

a) 2
u
s
b) 2
b) 24
u u
+
= _________
x y
u
s
9) If u = log (x2 + y2 + z2), then x

a) 2
c)
c) 2
u
r
d) 2
u
r
u
u
u
+y
+z
= _____________
x
y
z
c) 2
d) 24
x
is called
x
d) None of these
1
11) If x = cos + i sin then the value of x100 + 100 is ____________

x
a) 2 i sin 100
b) 2 cos100
c)
cos
2
d) None

a) A circle
b) Straight line
c) Ellipse
d) None

a) sinhx cosy
b) sinx coshy
c) coshx coshy
d) None of these

a) cosix = cos hx
______________
Set R
*SLRPK1*
SLR-PK 1
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
1
i
+
a) Prove that
2
2
10
1
i
+
2
2
10
= 0.
3. a) If y =
1
3
x +x + x +1
find yn.
3
1
2.

b) Prove that
tan1
3x x 3
1 3x 2
3
4
3
3
x3
x5
= 3x
+
...... .
3
5
Set R
SLR-PK 1
-4-
*SLRPK1*

4
OR
1
[ tannx + cotnx].
2

2
1 x
3
3
3
3
SECTION II
1 3 4
2 1 3
A = 3 5 2
6 3 8
2x + 3y + 5z = 9, 7x + 3y 2z = 8, 2x + 3y + z = have
i) no solution
x + y + 2 z = 0, x + 2 y + 3 z = 0,
x + 3 y + 4 z = 0, 3 x + 4 y + 7 z = 0.
Set R
*SLRPK1*
SLR-PK 1
-5-

of matrix
3 1 4
0 2 6
A=
0 0 5
4 3 1
2 1 2
1
A =
. Hence find A .
1 2 1
a)
x+y
prove that
x + y
If u = sin1
x2
2u
x 2
+ 2xy
2u
2u sin u cos 2u
+ y2 2 =
x y
4 cos 3 u
y

2
z
1
z
z
z
=
+
+ 2 +
r
x
r

y

a) Find [(3.82)2 + 2 (2.13)3]
1 .
5
u, v
x, y
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 1
*SLRPK1*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
14
2 3 5
0 3 6
3
1) If M =
0 0 2
1 1
1
, ,
d) None of these
2 3
2
___________
b) K1 = 0 but K2, K3 0
d) K1= K2 = 0 but K3 0
a) 2, 3, 2
b) 8, 27, 8

a) 2
u
s
b) 2
u
s
4) If u = log (x2 + y2 + z2), then x

a) 2
b) 24
c)
u u
+
= _________
x y
c) 2
u
r
d) 2
u
r
u
u
u
+y
+z
= _____________
x
y
z
c) 2
d) 24
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 1
*SLRPK1*
-2-
x
is called
x
d) None of these
is ____________
x
cos
a) 2 i sin 100
b) 2 cos100
c)
d) None
2
a) A circle
b) Straight line
c) Ellipse
d) None
100

a) sinhx cosy
b) sinx coshy
c) coshx coshy

a) cosix = cos hx
10) If y = e10x then yn = ____________

a) ( 10) e10x
c) e10x
d) None of these
b) ( 10)n e10x
d) ( 10)n e10x

a) ex 2
c) ex 2
cos (x + n tan1(1))
b) ex 2
cosx
d) None of these
sin (x + n tan1(1))

1
1
a) 0
b)
c)
5!
5
d) None

1 1 1
0 1 2
14) Consider
0 0 3
a)
b)
c)
d)
For
For
For
For
x 6

y = 4

z 10

3, having any value, system is consistent
______________
Set S
*SLRPK1*
SLR-PK 1
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
1
i
+
a) Prove that
2
2
10
1
i
+
2
2
10
= 0.
3. a) If y =
1
3
x +x + x +1
find yn.
3
1
2.

b) Prove that
tan1
3x x 3
1 3x 2
3
4
3
3
x3
x5
= 3x
+
...... .
3
5
Set S
SLR-PK 1
-4-
*SLRPK1*

4
OR
1
[ tannx + cotnx].
2

2
1 x
3
3
3
3
SECTION II
1 3 4
2 1 3
A = 3 5 2
6 3 8
2x + 3y + 5z = 9, 7x + 3y 2z = 8, 2x + 3y + z = have
i) no solution
x + y + 2 z = 0, x + 2 y + 3 z = 0,
x + 3 y + 4 z = 0, 3 x + 4 y + 7 z = 0.
Set S
*SLRPK1*
SLR-PK 1
-5-

of matrix
3 1 4
0 2 6
A=
0 0 5
4 3 1
2 1 2
1
A =
. Hence find A .
1 2 1
a)
x+y
prove that
x + y
If u = sin1
x2
2u
x 2
+ 2xy
2u
2u sin u cos 2u
+ y2 2 =
x y
4 cos 3 u
y

2
z
1
z
z
z
=
+
+ 2 +
r
x
r

y

a) Find [(3.82)2 + 2 (2.13)3]
1 .
5
u, v
x, y
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 2
*SLRPK2*
S
Set
t
F.E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-4-2016
Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
2) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary and mention them clearly.
3) Figures to the right indicate full mark.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
5) Answer MCQ/objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on top of page.
6) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 4 are Short Answer Type Question.
7) Q. No. 3 and Q. No. 5 are Long Answer Type Question.
8) Use of log tables and non-programmable single memory calculator is
allowed.
MCQ/Objective Type Question
1.
1) In throttling process
a) W = 0
b)
H=0
c)
E=0
Marks : 14
d) All above
2) A surge tank is used

a) To increase kinetic energy water leaving to tailrace
b) To prevent water hammer effect
c) To increase pressure energy water leaving tailrace
d) To decrease pressure energy water leaving tailrace
3) Universal gas constant of perfect gas
a) increases with temperature
b) decreases with temperature
c) increases with increase in molecular weight
d) is always constant
4) The statement which is not first law statement is
a) The heat transfer cannot exceed work done
b) Heat transfer = work done and energy change
c) Net heat transfer per cycle = net work done per cycle
d) The energy of an isolated system remains constant
5) The difference between two specific heats, Cp and Cv for gas represents
a) increase in kinetic energy of gas molecules
b) increase in potential energy of gas molecules
c) characteristic gas constant
d) increase in volume
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 2
-2-
6) Positive displacement compressor is

a) roots blower compressor
c) reciprocating compressor
b) vane blower compressor

d) all of the above
7) For which turbine nozzle is used

a) Pelton turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
d) None
*SLRPK2*
8) The process of removing material from face of work piece is called

a) Chamfering
b) Knurling
c) Turning
d) Facing
9) In an I.C. engine, the ratio of volume displaced by the piston per stroke to clearance
volume in cylinder, is known as
a) expansion
b) compression ratio
c) combustion ratio
d) none of the above
10) Otto cycle is also known as
a) constant pressure cycle
c) constant temperature cycle
b) constant volume cycle

11) Centrifugal tension in belt depends upon

a) velocity of the belt
b) weight per unit length of the belt
c) both (a) and (b) above
12) When two pulleys are connected by a cross belt drive then, both the pulleys rotate in
a) same direction
b) opposite direction
c) not necessary
d) none
13) Material used for coating the electrode in Arc welding is called
a) Protective Layer
b) Binder
c) Slag
d) Flux
14) The ratio of the ultimate stress to the working stress is known as
a) elastic limit
b) strain
c) factor of safety
d) bulk modulus
______________
Set P
*SLRPK2*
S
SLR-PK 2
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 56
Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.

Make suitable assumptions, if necessary and mention them clearly.
Figures to the right indicate full mark.
Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 4 are Short Answer Type Question.
Q. No. 3 and Q. No. 5 are Long Answer Type Question.
Use of log tables and non-programmable single memory calculator is
allowed.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any five of the following :
15
a) By applying SFEE, derive an expression for velocity of fluid at the exit of Nozzle.
b) State the First Law of Thermodynamics and explain the limitations of it.
c) Define process and explain the Quasi-Static Process.
d) Derive an expression for work done in Polytropic Process.
e) Explain with neat sketch the working of single acting reciprocating pump.
f) Differentiate clearly between Reciprocating and Rotary Pumps.
g) From the Thermal Power Plant, explain the working of

i) Green Economizer
ii) Air Pre-heater
iii) Boiler.
3. Attempt any three of the following :

a) A steady flow thermodynamic system receives fluid at the rate of 0.1 kg/sec. with an initial
pressure of 2 bar, velocity 150 m/s, internal energy 800 kJ/kg and specific volume
0.037 m3/kg. The fluid leaves the system with a final pressure of 8 bar, velocity 200 m/s,
internal energy 800 kJ/kg, and specific volume 0.25 m3/kg. If the fluid receives 80 kJ/kg
of heat during passing through the system and raises through 60 metres, determine the
workdone during the process.
13
m3 of
gas at10 bar and 150C expands adiabatically, until its pressure is 4 bar. It is
b) 0.336
then compressed isothermally to its original volume. Find the final temperature and pressure
of the gas. Also determine the change in internal energy. Take Cp = 0.996 kJ/kgK;
and Cv = 0.703 kJ/kgK, R = 0.293 kJ/kgK.
Set P
SLR-PK 2
-4-
*SLRPK2*
c) A cycle comprises three processes. The energy transfers in each are tabulated
below.
P
If the net work done per cycle is +30 kJ and if 10 such cycles are completed per minute.
Complete the table and find the power. State whether it is a power producing or power
absorbing system.
d) Draw the neat sketch of Pelton Wheel. Name its various components and
explain the functions of each.
e) Explain the working of Nuclear Power Plant in detail.
4
4
SECTION II
a) Derive an expression for the thermal efficiency of Otto Cycle.
b) Explain, with the help of neat sketches, any three types of flat belt drives.
c) Write a short note on Chain Drives giving its advantages and disadvantages.
d) Define factor of safety and explain how to select it.
e) Define the following terms :
a) Elasticity
b) Tensile Stress
c) Compressive Stress
f) Compare Electric Arc Welding with Gas Welding.
g) Explain the process of Riveting.
15
3
3
3
3

a) Write a short note on Pillar Drilling machine.
b) Define mechanical engineering design and explain the Need of Design in detail.
c) A belt is running over a pulley of diameter 120 cm at 200 rpm. The angle of contact is
165 and coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley is 0.3. If the maximum tension
in the belt is 3000 N, find the power transmitted by the belt.
d) An engine is working on Otto Cycle. The pressure and temperature at the beginning of
compression stroke is 1 bar and 300 K and the temperature at the end of compression
stroke is 600 K. If the temperature at the end of constant volume heat addition is 1800 K.
Calculate the compression ratio, air standard efficiency, heat addition for 1 kg of air
and heat rejected for 1 kg of air.
13
5
4
3
3
3
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 2
*SLRPK2*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
allowed.
1.
Marks : 14

a) Chamfering
b) Knurling
c) Turning
d) Facing
a) expansion
c) combustion ratio



a) same direction
c) not necessary
d) none
a) Protective Layer
b) Binder
c) Slag
d) Flux
a) elastic limit
b) strain
c) factor of safety
d) bulk modulus
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 2
a) W = 0
*SLRPK2*
-2-
b)
H=0
c)
E=0
d) All above


d) all of the above

a) Pelton turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
d) None
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK2*
S
SLR-PK 2
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 56

allowed.
SECTION I
15

i) Green Economizer
ii) Air Pre-heater
iii) Boiler.

13
m3 of
b) 0.336
Set Q
SLR-PK 2
-4-
*SLRPK2*
below.
P
absorbing system.
4
4
SECTION II
a) Elasticity
b) Tensile Stress
15
3
3
3
3

13
5
4
3
3
3
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 2
*SLRPK2*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
allowed.
1.
Marks : 14
a)
b)
c)
d)
increase in kinetic energy of gas molecules

increase in potential energy of gas molecules
characteristic gas constant
increase in volume


d) all of the above

a) Pelton turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
d) None

a) Chamfering
b) Knurling
c) Turning
d) Facing
a) expansion
c) combustion ratio

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 2
*SLRPK2*
-2-


a) same direction
c) not necessary
d) none
a) Protective Layer
b) Binder
c) Slag
d) Flux
a) elastic limit
b) strain
c) factor of safety
d) bulk modulusIn throttling process
a) W = 0
b)
H=0
c)
E=0
d) All above

______________
Set R
*SLRPK2*
S
SLR-PK 2
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 56

allowed.
SECTION I
15

i) Green Economizer
ii) Air Pre-heater
iii) Boiler.

13
m3 of
b) 0.336
Set R
SLR-PK 2
-4-
*SLRPK2*
below.
P
absorbing system.
4
4
SECTION II
a) Elasticity
b) Tensile Stress
15
3
3
3
3

13
5
4
3
3
3
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 2
*SLRPK2*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
allowed.
1.

Marks : 14


a) same direction
c) not necessary
d) none
a) Protective Layer
b) Binder
c) Slag
d) Flux
a) elastic limit
b) strain
c) factor of safety
d) bulk modulus
a) W = 0
b)
H=0
c)
E=0

d) All above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 2
-2-
*SLRPK2*


d) all of the above

a) Pelton turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
d) None
a) Chamfering
b) Knurling
c) Turning
d) Facing
a) expansion
c) combustion ratio
______________
Set S
*SLRPK2*
S
SLR-PK 2
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 56

allowed.
SECTION I
15

i) Green Economizer
ii) Air Pre-heater
iii) Boiler.

13
m3 of
b) 0.336
Set S
SLR-PK 2
-4-
*SLRPK2*
below.
P
absorbing system.
4
4
SECTION II
a) Elasticity
b) Tensile Stress
15
3
3
3
3

13
5
4
3
3
3
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 3
*SLRPK3*
S
Set
.

BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-4-2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Assume suitable data if necessary.

Figure to the right indicates full marks.
All questions are compulsory.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
1. Solve the following :

Choose the correct alternative :
Marks : 14
(114=14)
1) With the increase in temperature of the metals, the value of R

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same d) Becomes infinite
2) The resistance of a 40W, 230V bulb in the normal operating condition is
____________ .
a) 5.75
b) 33.06
c) 1322.5
d) 50
3) The correct expression for the leakage factor ( ) in a magnetic circuits is

= total flux/leakage flux
b)
= leakage flux/useful flux
a)
c)
= useful flux/total flux
d)
= total flux/useful flux
4) The value of magnetic field strength required to wipe out the residual flux
density is called as
a) Retentivity
b) Demagnetization
c) Coercive force
d) Hysteresis loop
5) The phasor rotates in ____________ direction.
a) Clockwise
b) Anticlockwise
c) Any direction
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 3
*SLRPK3*
-2-
6) In a series R-L-C circuit, the voltage read to resonance across R, L and C

are 50V, 70V and 70V respectively. Then the applied voltage is ________ V.
a) 70
b) 50
c) 120
d)
#
"
7) The admittance of a circuit is (0.1 + j0.8)S. The circuit is

a) Resistive
b) Capacitive
c) Inductive
d) None of the above
8) Synchronous speed of the three phase induction motor is given by the relation
a) 120 f/p
b) 120 p/f
c) S 120 f/p
d) (1 S) 120f/p
9) Transformer action requires a
a) Constant magnetic flux
b) Increasing magnetic flux
c) Alternating magnetic flux
d) Alternating electric flux
10) A 3-phase load is balanced if all the three phase have the same
a) Impedance
b) Power factor
c) Impedance and Power factor
11) Due to ____________ the flux density in the air gap of the magnetic circuit is
reduced.
a) Leakage Flux
b) Magnetic Fringing
c) Mutual Coupling
12) Single phase induction motor is not self-starting because
a) Torque is low
b) Torque developed is pulsating
c) Torque is maximum
13) What value of capacitance will give the same reactance as that of the
inductor having equal to 1H at 50 Hz ?
a) 1 F
b) 1F
c) 10F
d) 10 F
14) An immersion heater is rated 418 W. It should heat a litre of water from 10C
to 30C in nearly.
a) 100 sec.
b) 200 sec.
c) 144 sec.
d) 400 sec.
______________
Set P
*SLRPK3*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 3

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
SECTION I
2. Solve any four of the following :
(44=16)
a) Two wires A and B are connected in series at 0 degree Celsius and resistance
of B is 3.5 times that of A. The resistance temperature coefficient of A is
0.4% and that of combination is 0.1%. Find the resistance temperature
coefficient of B.
b) A resistance R connected in series with a parallel combination of two
resistances 12 and 8 ohm. Calculate R if the power dissipated is 70 W when
the applied voltage is 20V across the circuit.
c) A current was sent through a resistance wire of 10 ohms, which is fully
immersed in 2 Kg of water. At the end of 15 min, the rise in temp was observed
to be 60 degree C. Determine the value of current.
d) Derive the transformation of delta to star connected resistors. Also write the
equation for Y to delta connected resistors.
e) Define Ampere turns, reluctance, Fleming right hand rule, Lenzs law.
f) An alternating current varying sinusoidally with a frequency of 50 Hz has an
rms value of 20A. Write down the time equation for the instantaneous value
and find this value (i) 0.0025 second (ii) 0.0125 second after passing through
a + maximum value. At what time, measured from a positive maximum value,
will be the instantaneous current be 14.14 A ?
3. a) Define the self inductance. A coil of 1000 turns is wound on a laminated core
of steel having a cross section of 5 square cm. The core has an air gap of
2 mm cut at right angle. What value of current is required to have an air gap flux
density 0.5 T ? Permeability of steel may be taken as infinity. Determine the
coil inductance.
Set P
SLR-PK 3
-4-
*SLRPK3*
b) Find the current supplied by the source.
OR
b) State and derive the average value of an alternating quantity.
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) A resistance and inductance are connected in series across voltage v = 283

sin (314t). The current expression is found to be 4 sin (314t-pi/4). Find the
values of resistance, inductance and power factor.
b) A coil is connected in series with a non-inductive resistance of 30 ohm across
240V, 50 Hz supply. The reading of a voltmeter across the coil is 180V and
across the resistance is 130V. Calculate (i) Power consumed by the coil and
(ii) pf of the circuit.
c) A series RC circuit takes a power of 7000 W when connected to 200V, 50 Hz
supply. The voltage across the resistor is 130V. Calculate (i) R, (ii) I
(iii) Power factor, (iv) Z and (v) Also write the equation for v(t) and I(t).
d) A coil of 0.8 pf is connected in series with 110 micro farad capacitor. Supply
frequency is 50 Hz. The potential difference across the coil is found to be
equal to that across that capacitor. Calculate resistance and inductance of
the coil. Calculate the net power factor.
e) Write short note construction parts of DC motor.
f) Define active power, impedance, power factor and admittance.
Set P
*SLRPK3*
-5-
5. Solve any two :
SLR-PK 3
(62=12)
a) Three phase star connected load when supplied from a 400V, 50 Hz source
takes a line current of 10 A at 66.86 degree w.r.t. to its line voltage. Calculate
(i) Impedance (ii) pf and active power consumed. Draw the phasor diagram.
b) A 80 KVA, 3200/400 V, 1 phase, 50 Hz transformer has 111 turns on the
secondary winding. Calculate (i) Number of turns on primary winding,
(ii) Primary and secondary full load current, (iii) Cross sectional area of the
core. The maximum flux density is 1.2 Tesla.
c) Determine the average power delivered to each of three impedances in the
circuit shown in figure.
z1 = 6 j8, z2 = 2 + j14 and z3 = 6 j8.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 3
*SLRPK3*
S
Set
.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)


Marks : 14
(114=14)
a) 120 f/p
b) 120 p/f
c) S 120 f/p
d) (1 S) 120f/p
a) Impedance
b) Power factor
reduced.
a) Leakage Flux
c) Mutual Coupling
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 3
*SLRPK3*
-2-

a) Torque is low
a) 1 F
b) 1F
c) 10F
d) 10 F
to 30C in nearly.
a) 100 sec.
b) 200 sec.
c) 144 sec.
d) 400 sec.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
____________ .
a) 5.75
b) 33.06
c) 1322.5
d) 50
b)
a)
c)
d)
a) Retentivity
b) Demagnetization
c) Coercive force
d) Hysteresis loop
a) Clockwise
b) Anticlockwise
c) Any direction
d) None of these
a) 70
b) 50
c) 120
d)
#
"

a) Resistive
b) Capacitive
c) Inductive
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK3*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 3

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
SECTION I
(44=16)
coefficient of B.
coil inductance.
Set Q
SLR-PK 3
-4-
*SLRPK3*
OR
SECTION II
(44=16)

Set Q
*SLRPK3*
-5-
5. Solve any two :
SLR-PK 3
(62=12)
z1 = 6 j8, z2 = 2 + j14 and z3 = 6 j8.
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 3
*SLRPK3*
S
Set
.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14

(114=14)

a) Clockwise
b) Anticlockwise
c) Any direction
d) None of these
a) 70
b) 50
c) 120
d)
#
"

a) Resistive
b) Capacitive
c) Inductive
a) 120 f/p
b) 120 p/f
c) S 120 f/p
d) (1 S) 120f/p

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 3
*SLRPK3*
-2-
a) Impedance
b) Power factor
reduced.
a) Leakage Flux
c) Mutual Coupling
a) Torque is low
a) 1 F
b) 1F
c) 10F
d) 10 F
to 30C in nearly.
a) 100 sec.
b) 200 sec.
c) 144 sec.
d) 400 sec.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
____________ .
a) 5.75
b) 33.06
c) 1322.5
d) 50
b)
a)
c)
d)
a) Retentivity
b) Demagnetization
c) Coercive force
d) Hysteresis loop
______________
Set R
*SLRPK3*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 3

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
SECTION I
(44=16)
coefficient of B.
coil inductance.
Set R
SLR-PK 3
-4-
*SLRPK3*
OR
SECTION II
(44=16)

Set R
*SLRPK3*
-5-
5. Solve any two :
SLR-PK 3
(62=12)
z1 = 6 j8, z2 = 2 + j14 and z3 = 6 j8.
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 3
*SLRPK3*
S
Set
.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14

(114=14)
a) Impedance
b) Power factor
reduced.
a) Leakage Flux
c) Mutual Coupling
a) Torque is low
a) 1 F
b) 1F
c) 10F
d) 10 F
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 3
*SLRPK3*
-2-
to 30C in nearly.
a) 100 sec.
b) 200 sec.
c) 144 sec.
d) 400 sec.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
____________ .
a) 5.75
b) 33.06
c) 1322.5
d) 50

a)
c)

b)
d)

a) Retentivity
b) Demagnetization
c) Coercive force
d) Hysteresis loop
a) Clockwise
b) Anticlockwise
c) Any direction
d) None of these
a) 70
b) 50
c) 120
d)
#
"

a) Resistive
b) Capacitive
c) Inductive
a) 120 f/p
b) 120 p/f
c) S 120 f/p
d) (1 S) 120f/p
______________
Set S
*SLRPK3*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 3

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
SECTION I
(44=16)
coefficient of B.
coil inductance.
Set S
SLR-PK 3
-4-
*SLRPK3*
OR
SECTION II
(44=16)

Set S
*SLRPK3*
-5-
5. Solve any two :
SLR-PK 3
(62=12)
z1 = 6 j8, z2 = 2 + j14 and z3 = 6 j8.
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR- PK 4
*SLRPK4*
Seat
No.
Set

APPLIED MECHANICS
Day and Date : Thursday, 28-4-2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer

Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.
Marks : 14
(114 =14)
1) The ratio of static friction to dynamic friction is always

a) =1
b) <1
c) >1
d) None of these
2) Two forces can be in equilibrium only if they are

a) Equal in magnitude
b) Opposite in direction
c) Equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
3) If one end of a beam is fixed and other end is simply supported it is said to be
a) Propped cantilever beam
b) Overhanging beam
c) Cantilever beam
d) Simply supported beam
4) A framed structure of triangular shape is
a) Perfect
c) Difficult
b) Imperfect
d) Redundant
5) The M.I. of a rectangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis through its base is
given by
a) bh3/12
b) bh3/24
c) bh3/36
d) bh3/3
6) The moment of a force about any point is geometrically equal to __________ the area of the triangle
whose base is line representing the force and vertex is the point about which the moment is taken.
a) Half
b) Same
c) Twice
d) None of above
7) A framed structure is imperfect, if the number of members are _________ 2j-3.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) either b or c
8) The vehicle moving along a level circular path will exert pressure such that reaction on
a) Outer wheels will be more
b) Inner wheels will be more
c) Inner as well as outer wheels will be same
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 4
*SLRPK4*
-2-
9) The motion of bicycle wheel is

a) Translatory
c) Translatory and Rotary
b) Rotary
d) Curvilinear
10) If the linear velocity of a point on a rim of a wheel of 10 m in diameter, is 50 m/s, its angular velocity
will be
a) 20 rad/sec
b) 15 rad/sec
c) 10 rad/sec
d) 5 rad/sec
11) The motion of a moving car is given by a equation, s = t3 + 3t2 + 5 where s is distance travelled in
m in t seconds. The velocity of car after 2 secs, will be
a) 4 m/s
b) 8 m/s
c) 20 m/s
d) 22 m/s
12) When a lift is accelerating up, the weight of man standing on the floor of the lift is
a) Same as that when on ground
b) Greater than that on ground
c) Less than that on ground
d) Zero
13) The rate of doing work is known as
a) Potential energy
c) Power
b) Kinetic energy
d) None
14) During elastic impact, the relative velocity of two bodies after impacts is ________ the relative
velocity of the two bodies before impact.
a) Equal to
b) Equal and opposite to
c) Less than
d) Greater than
____________________
Set P
*SLRPK4*
-3-
SLR- PK 4
Seat
No.

APPLIED MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I.

2) Solve any three questions from Section II.
SECTION I
2. a) State and prove Law of Parallelogram of forces.
b) Forces acting along sides and at apices A and B of an equilateral triangle of side 5 m are as shown
in figure. A clockwise moment of 150 N-m acts about point C. Determine the magnitude and direction
of the resultant of the force system. Also locate the position of resultant force with respect to A.
3. a) Explain various types of supports for beams.
Set P
SLR- PK 4
-4-
*SLRPK4*
b) Two cylinders of 200 mm diameter each and weight 100 N each, rest in a horizontal channel having
vertical walls. The distance between the walls is 360 mm. Find the reactions at the points of contact A, B,
C and D as shown in figure.
6
4. a) State the assumptions for calculating forces in the members of a perfect frame.
2
b) Find the forces in the members AB, AD and ED by Method of Sections and forces in the members BC, BD and CD
by Method of Joints for the truss loaded and supported as shown in figure. Supports A and E are pinjointed.
7
5. a) State and prove perpendicular axis theorem.
Set P
*SLRPK4*
-5-
SLR- PK 4
b) Locate centroid of shaded area shown in figure. Determine the moment of inertia of the shaded area with
respect to its centroidal axes x-x and y-y. All dimensions are in mm.
SECTION II
6. a) What is the gravitational force ? How does it accelerate the body when :
i) Body is allowed to fall freely
ii) Body is projected upwards ?
b) The equation of motion of a particle moving along a straight line is given by :
s = 18 t + 3t2 2t3; where s is the total distance covered from starting point in meters at the end of
t seconds. Find (i) Velocity and acceleration at start (ii) The time when particle reaches maximum
velocity (iii) The maximum velocity of the particle.
7. a) Derive an expression for the maximum height and range of a projectile, projected with initial velocity
u m/s and angle of inclination .
b) A projectile is fired with an initial velocity 100 m/s from the top of building, 75 m high at an angle 30
with horizontal. Find (i) Horizontal distance of the point from the gun, where the projectile strikes the
ground. (ii) Greatest elevation attained by the projectile above the ground (iii) Striking velocity of the
projectile.
8.
7
2
a) Prove that tension in the cable supporting the lift, when lift is moving up is given by :
T = W 1+
9.
; where W = weight of a lift, a = uniform acceleration of the lift.
b) A flywheel of mass 5000 kg and Mass moment of Inertia 5000 kg-m2 looses its speed from 400 rpm
to 280 rpm in 2 minutes. Calculate (i) The retarding torque acting on it (ii) Change in the kinetic
energy during the above period (iii) Change in the angular momentum during that period.
a) What are various types of impact according to the line of impact ? Discuss any one of them.
b) A locomotive and train together have a mass of 200 t. The tractive resistance is 9.8 N per tonne
mass. The power of locomotive is such that the train can attain maximum speed of 30 km per hour
on a grade of 1 in 120. Determine (i) The power of locomotive (ii) The maximum speed train can
attain on straight level track, with the same tractive resistance.
____________
7
2
Set P
Set P
SLR- PK 4
*SLRPK4*
Seat
No.
Set

APPLIED MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)
d) None of these
a) Translatory
b) Rotary
d) Curvilinear
will be
a) 20 rad/sec
b) 15 rad/sec
c) 10 rad/sec
d) 5 rad/sec
a) 4 m/s
b) 8 m/s
c) 20 m/s
d) 22 m/s
d) Zero
a) Potential energy
c) Power
b) Kinetic energy
d) None
a) Equal to
c) Less than
d) Greater than
a) =1
b) <1
c) >1
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 4
*SLRPK4*
-2-

b) Overhanging beam
c) Cantilever beam
a) Perfect
c) Difficult
b) Imperfect
d) Redundant
12) The M.I.of a rectangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis through its base is given
by
a) bh3/12
b) bh3/24
c) bh3/36
d) bh3/3
a) Half
b) Same
c) Twice
d) None of above
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) either b or c
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK4*
-3-
SLR- PK 4
Seat
No.

APPLIED MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
Set Q
SLR- PK 4
-4-
*SLRPK4*
6
2
7
Set Q
*SLRPK4*
-5-
SLR- PK 4
SECTION II
ground. (ii) Greatest elevation attained by the projectile above the ground (iii) Striking velocity of
the projectile.
8.
7
2
a) Prove that tension in the cable supporting the lift, when lift is moving up is given by :
T = W 1+
9.
____________
7
2
Set Q
Set Q
SLR- PK 4
*SLRPK4*
Seat
No.
Set

APPLIED MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)
1) The M.I. of a rectangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis through its base is given by
a) bh3/12
b) bh3/24
c) bh3/36
d) bh3/3
a) Half
b) Same
c) Twice
d) None of above
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) either b or c
d) None of these
a) Translatory
b) Rotary
d) Curvilinear
will be
a) 20 rad/sec
b) 15 rad/sec
c) 10 rad/sec
d) 5 rad/sec
a) 4 m/s
b) 8 m/s
c) 20 m/s
d) 22 m/s
d) Zero
a) Potential energy
c) Power
b) Kinetic energy
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 4
*SLRPK4*
-2-
a) Equal to
c) Less than
d) Greater than
a) =1
b) <1
c) >1
d) None of these

b) Overhanging beam
c) Cantilever beam
a) Perfect
c) Difficult
b) Imperfect
d) Redundant
______________
Set R
*SLRPK4*
-3-
SLR- PK 4
Seat
No.

APPLIED MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
Set R
SLR- PK 4
-4-
*SLRPK4*
6
2
7
Set R
*SLRPK4*
-5-
SLR- PK 4
SECTION II
ground. (ii) Greatest elevation attained by the projectile above the ground (iii) Striking velocity of
the projectile.
7
2
8. a) Prove that tension in the cable supporting the lift, when lift is moving up is given by :
T = W 1+
9. a) What are various types of impact according to the line of impact ? Discuss any one of them.
7
2
____________
Set R
Set R
SLR- PK 4
*SLRPK4*
Seat
No.
Set

APPLIED MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)
will be
a) 20 rad/sec
b) 15 rad/sec
c) 10 rad/sec
d) 5 rad/sec
a) 4 m/s
b) 8 m/s
c) 20 m/s
d) 22 m/s
d) Zero
a) Potential energy
c) Power
b) Kinetic energy
d) None
a) Equal to
c) Less than
d) Greater than
a) =1
b) <1
c) >1
d) None of these

b) Overhanging beam
c) Cantilever beam
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 4
*SLRPK4*
-2-

a) Perfect
c) Difficult
b) Imperfect
d) Redundant
10) The M.I. of a rectangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis through its base is
given by
a) bh3/12
b) bh3/24
c) bh3/36
d) bh3/3
a) Half
b) Same
c) Twice
d) None of above
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) either b or c
d) None of these
a) Translatory
b) Rotary
d) Curvilinear
___________________
Set S
*SLRPK4*
-3-
SLR- PK 4
Seat
No.

APPLIED MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
Set S
SLR- PK 4
-4-
*SLRPK4*
6
2
7
Set S
*SLRPK4*
-5-
SLR- PK 4
SECTION II
ground. (ii) Greatest elevation attained by the projectile above the ground (iii) Striking velocity of the
projectile.
7
2
8. a) Prove that tension in the cable supporting the lift, when lift is moving up is given by :
T = W 1+
9.
____________
7
2
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 5
*SLRPK5*
S
F.E. (Part II) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

2) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
5) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.
Marks : 14
1. Choose the correct option :
14
1) For fourth order Runge-Kutta method, which of the following is correct ?

a)
b)
c)
K
2) Given
a) 1.1
d)
K
"
with y(0) = 1 and h = 0.1. By Eulers method the of y(0.1) is _________

b) 0.9
c) 0.95
d) 1
3) To find the value of numerical differentiation at the middle value of argument x, we use
____________
a) Newtons backward difference formula
b) Divided difference formula
c) Stirlings central difference formula
d) Newtons forward difference formula
4) If K is a constant, the curve whose subnormal is equal to the abscissa is _________
a) y2 x2 = K
b) x2 + y2 = K
c) y x = K
d) x + y = K
5) The orthogonal trajectories of a family of parabola ay = x2 is _________

a) Circle
b) Hyperbola
c) Ellipse
d) Cubical parabola
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 5
*SLRPK5*
-2-
6) The integrating factor of a differential equation

b) x + ex
a) x logx
is __________
N
c) xex
d) None of these
7) To solve the non-homogeneous differential equation (x y 2) dx (2x 2y 3) dy = 0

we shall put ___________
a) y = Vx
b) x y = V
c) x = X + h, y = Y + k
d) x + y = V
8) The value of
is
"
a)

b)

9)
"
"
d)

"
"
______________
c)

b)
a)
c)

d)
&
&
10) The equations of the asymptotes parallel to the x axis for the curve y2 (a2 + x2) = a2 x2 are
b) x = a
a) y = 0
c) y = a
d) y = x
11) The length of the arc of the curve

from r = r1 to r = r2 is given by ___________

H
H
a)
b)
@

@

@

c)
@

d)
@
O
=
12) For
by change the order of integration we get

y
a)
O
=
b)
y
13) The value of
c)

d)

O
=
is
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
14) The volume generated by the revolution of area bounded by the curves about y axis is
given by __________ (taken over proper limits).
a)
8
b)
8
c)
8
______________
d)
8
Set P
*SLRPK5*
S
SLR-PK 5
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 56
1) Figure to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
2. Solve any three from the following :

a) Sinx
b)
c)
d)
3. a) Find orthogonal trajectories of the curve
, where a is parameter.
a
b) If the intercept made by tangent to the curve at (x, y) on the X axis is

proportional to the ordinate of the point, then find the equation of the curve.
c) A body of mass m moves under gravity in a medium whose resistance is K times its
velocity. If the body is projected vertically upward with velocity V0, then show that the
time required to reach maximum height is

m

V

g

4. a) Using Picards method solve the differential equation

@
with y(0) = 1
upto third approximation. Also find y at x = 0.1.

b) Using Eulers method find the approximate value of y at x = 0.1, given that
@
with y(0) = 1 and step size h = 0.025.
c) Apply Runge Kutta method of fourth order to find an approximate value of y

at x = 1.1 in one step. Given that
@
with y(1) = 1.
Set P
SLR-PK 5
5. a) Find
*SLRPK5*
-4-
and
O
at x = 0.1 and at x = 0.6 from the following data.

O
x : 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

1
1.2
y : 0 0.12 0.48 1.10 2.00 3.20 4.72
b) Find the value of
@
at x = 10 from the following data

O
x :
3 5 11
27
34
y : 13 23 899 17315 35606
SECTION II
a) Evaluate
.
N
N
b) Evaluate
c) Evaluate

a) Trace the curve with full justification 9 ay2 = x (x 3a)2.
b) Trace the curve with full justification r = 3 cos 2 .
4
3
c) Find the length of the arc of the curve x = 1 cost
from t = 0 to t =

a) Evaluate
through out the area bounded by x = 0, y = x2 and x + y = 2 in the

O
first quadrant.

b) Evaluate
3
N
3
.
c) Change to polar and then evaluate
3
O

a) Find the total area enclosed by the lemniscate of Bernoulli r2 = a2 cos2 .
b) A lamina is bounded by y = x2 and y = x. If the density at any point is given by xy. Find the
mass of lamina.
revolves about the initial line.

c) The curve r = a
Find the volume generated.
OR
c) Find a surface area of solid generated by revolution of positive quadrant of circle
x2 + y2 = a2 about x axis.
_____________________
3
3
3
Set P
SLR-PK 5
*SLRPK5*
S

Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions :

Marks : 14
14
1) The value of
"
is
a)

b)

2)
"
"
d)

"
"
______________
c)

a)
b)
c)

d)
&
&
b) x = a
a) y = 0
c) y = a
d) y = x


H
H
a)
@

b)
@

@

c)
d)
@
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 5
*SLRPK5*
-2O
5) For

y
a)
O
=
b)
c)
O
=

6) The value of
d)
y
is
O
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
a)
8
b)
O
c)
8
d)
I

a)
b)
c)
K
9) Given
a) 1.1
d)
"

b) 0.9
c) 0.95
d) 1
____________
a) y2 x2 = K
b) x2 + y2 = K
c) y x = K
d) x + y = K

a) Circle
b) Hyperbola
c) Ellipse

@
a) x logx
b) x + ex
d) Cubical parabola
is __________
c) xex
d) None of these

a) y = Vx
c) x = X + h, y = Y + k
b) x y = V
d) x + y = V
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK5*
S
SLR-PK 5
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 56

SECTION I

a) Sinx
b)
c)
d)
a


m

V

g


@
with y(0) = 1

@

@
with y(1) = 1.
Set Q
SLR-PK 5
5. a) Find
*SLRPK5*
-4-
and
O

O
x : 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

1
1.2
y : 0 0.12 0.48 1.10 2.00 3.20 4.72
@

O
x :
3 5 11
27
34
y : 13 23 899 17315 35606
SECTION II
a) Evaluate
.
N
N
b) Evaluate
c) Evaluate

4
3
from t = 0 to t =

a) Evaluate

O
first quadrant.

b) Evaluate
3
N
3
.
3
O

mass of lamina.

c) The curve r = a
OR
_____________________
3
3
3
Set Q
SLR-PK 5
*SLRPK5*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
14

a) Circle
b) Hyperbola
c) Ellipse
d) Cubical parabola
b) x + ex
a) x logx
c) xex
is __________
d) None of these

a) y = Vx
b) x y = V
c) x = X + h, y = Y + k
d) x + y = V
4) The value of
"
is
a)

b)

5)
"
c)
"
"
d)
"
______________
a)
b)
c)
d)
&
&
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 5
*SLRPK5*
-2-
b) x = a
a) y = 0
c) y = a
d) y = x


H
H
a)
b)
@

@
d)
c)
@
@

O
=
8) For

y
a)
O
=
b)
c)
O
=

9) The value of
d)
y
is
O
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
a)
8
b)
O
c)
8
d)
I
a)
b)
c)
K
12) Given
a) 1.1
d)
"

b) 0.9
c) 0.95
d) 1
____________
a) y2 x2 = K
b) x2 + y2 = K
c) y x = K
d) x + y = K
______________
Set R
*SLRPK5*
S
SLR-PK 5
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 56

SECTION I

a) Sinx
b)
c)
d)
a


m

V

g


@
with y(0) = 1

@

@
with y(1) = 1.
Set R
SLR-PK 5
5. a) Find
*SLRPK5*
-4-
and
O

O
x : 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

1
1.2
y : 0 0.12 0.48 1.10 2.00 3.20 4.72
@

O
x :
3 5 11
27
34
y : 13 23 899 17315 35606
SECTION II
a) Evaluate
.
N
N
b) Evaluate
c) Evaluate

4
3
from t = 0 to t =

a) Evaluate

O
first quadrant.

b) Evaluate
3
N
3
.
3
O

mass of lamina.

c) The curve r = a
OR
_____________________
3
3
3
Set R
SLR-PK 5
*SLRPK5*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
14
b) x = a
a) y = 0
c) y = a
d) y = x


H
H
a)
b)
@

@

@

c)
@

d)
@
O
=
3) For

y
a)
O
=
b)
y
c)
4) The value of
d)
N

O
=
is
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
a)
8
b)
8
c)
8
d)
8
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 5
*SLRPK5*
-2-

a)
b)
c)
K
7) Given
@
d)
"

O
a) 1.1
b) 0.9
c) 0.95
d) 1
____________
a) y2 x2 = K
b) x2 + y2 = K
c) y x = K
d) x + y = K

a) Circle
b) Hyperbola
c) Ellipse

b) x + ex
a) x logx
d) Cubical parabola
N
c) xex
is __________
d) None of these

b) x y = V
a) y = Vx
c) x = X + h, y = Y + k
d) x + y = V
13) The value of
"
is
a)

b)

14)
"
c)

"
d)

"
______________
a)
"
b)
c)
d)
&
&
______________
Set S
*SLRPK5*
S
SLR-PK 5
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 56

SECTION I

a) Sinx
b)
c)
d)
a


m

V

g


@
with y(0) = 1

@

@
with y(1) = 1.
Set S
SLR-PK 5
5. a) Find
*SLRPK5*
-4-
and
O

O
x : 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

1
1.2
y : 0 0.12 0.48 1.10 2.00 3.20 4.72
@

O
x :
3 5 11
27
34
y : 13 23 899 17315 35606
SECTION II
a) Evaluate
.
N
N
b) Evaluate
c) Evaluate

4
3
from t = 0 to t =

a) Evaluate

O
first quadrant.

b) Evaluate
3
N
3
.
3
O

mass of lamina.

c) The curve r = a
OR
_____________________
3
3
3
Set S
SLR-PK 6
*SLRPK6*
S
Set
t
F.E. (Part II) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

BASIC CIVIL ENGINEERING
Day and Date : Friday, 6-5-2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30

minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
Marks : 14
(114=14)
1) Following sub-branch of Civil Engineering deals with water supply, sanitary

engineering and air pollution.
a) Environmental Engineering
b) Geotechnical Engineering
c) Transportation Engineering
d) Irrigation Engineering
2) To avoid accumulation of errors a surveyor shall follow the principle of
a) Working from whole to part
b) Working from part to whole
c) Locating a point with minimum two measurements from two known points
3) During the measurement of horizontal distance with a 30 m chain, the observed
distance is recorded as 300 m. Later on it was found that the chain used was
one link too short. The correct horizontal distance will be
a) 300.00 m
b) 299.00 m
c) 298.00 m
4) If Fore bearing of a line PQ is 100 and back bearing of line SP is 200, then
included angle at station P is
a) 300
b) 100
c) 260
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 6
-2-
*SLRPK6*
5) Reduced level of a station P is 500.000 m. The staff reading observed on

the station P is 4.000 m. If the staff reading on station Q is 3.000 m, then
reduced level of station Q will be
a) 500.000 m
b) 501.000 m
c) 502.000 m
d) 507.000 m
6) To get better accuracy of Global Positioning System, it requires access to
following no. of satellites
a) 1 no.
b) 2 no.
c) 3 no.
d) 4 no.
7) The source of the surface water is
a) Pond
b) Ocean
c) River
d) All of these
8) As per roominess principle of building planning, a desirable ratio of length to
breadth of a room is
a) 1.2 to 1.5
b) 1.6 to 3.0
c) 3.1 to 4.5
d) 4.6 to 6.0
9) The irrigation method providing the water for grass court is
a) Sprinkler
b) Drip
c) Furrow
d) Flooding
10) Rain water harvesting can be used for rain water flowing from
a) Building terrace only
b) Road side gutters only
c) Water from courtyard only
d) All the above
11) Reservoirs are used for storage of water of
a) Agriculture
b) Flood control
c) Drinking water
d) All the above
12) The roads are classified as per
a) Road material
b) Road width
c) Road location
d) All of these
13) The concrete band at _________ is essential for earthquake resistant buildings.
a) Plinth
b) Lintel
c) Both plinth and lintel
d) None of these
14) For better strength and workability, the water cement ratio should not exceed
a) 0.40 to 0.55
b) 0.55 to 0.70
c) 0.70 to 0.85
d) 0.85 to 1.0
______________
Set P
*SLRPK6*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 6

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
N.B. : 1) Q. No. 2 is compulsory in Section I. Solve any two

questions from Q. 3 to Q. 5.
2) Q. 6 is compulsory in Section II. Solve any two questions
from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
SECTION I
2. a) Write down characteristics of contour maps .
b) The following consecutive readings were taken on a 4 m level staff with
dumpy level.
3.865, 3.345, 2.930, 1.955, 0.865, 3.795, 2.635, 1.540, 1.925, 0.865 and 0.660.
The very first reading was taken on a point having RL 1768.975 m and
instrument was shifted after taking fourth and seventh reading.
Calculate R.L of all points using rise and fall method.
3. a) State about reduced bearings.

b) The following bearings were observed while running a closed traverse ABCDA.
Line
FB
AB
122
302
BC
67
246
CD
312
135
DA
202
21
1) Find out included angles.
2) At what station you suspect Local Attraction ?
3) Find out corrected bearings.
4. a) How Civil Engineering is important to Mechanical Engg. and Electrical

Engineering ?
b) The distance between two points measured by 20 m chain was 1340 m and
when measured by 30 m it was 1345 m. Later it was found that 20 m. chain
was one link too short. Find out error in 30 m chain.
5. a) Explain the systems of water supplying.
b) Describe with sketch chaining, ranging and offsetting.
7
4
5
4
5
Set P
SLR-PK 6
-4-
*SLRPK6*
SECTION II
6. a) Differentiate between load bearing structure and framed structure.
b) A residential plot is of size 20 m 20 m. It is proposed to construct Gf + 2
storey building with FSI 1.5.
Front and rear margins are 2.4 m while side margins are 1.2 m.
How much area will be built on each floor ?
7. a) State in short about safe bearing capacity of soil and compaction of soil.
b) Enlist principles of planning. Explain with sketch any two principles.
8. a) Write down uses of glass, aluminium and timber in Civil Engineering.
b) State different types and different grades of concrete.
9. a) Write down importance of Rain Water Harvesting.

b) Discuss the concept of Green house building.
4
5
6
3
6
4
5
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 6
*SLRPK6*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
Marks : 14
(114=14)

a) 1.2 to 1.5
b) 1.6 to 3.0
c) 3.1 to 4.5
d) 4.6 to 6.0
a) Sprinkler
b) Drip
c) Furrow
d) Flooding
d) All the above
a) Agriculture
b) Flood control
c) Drinking water
d) All the above
a) Road material
b) Road width
c) Road location
d) All of these
a) Plinth
b) Lintel
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 6
-2-
*SLRPK6*
a) 0.40 to 0.55
b) 0.55 to 0.70
c) 0.70 to 0.85
d) 0.85 to 1.0
a) 300.00 m
b) 299.00 m
c) 298.00 m
a) 300
b) 100
c) 260
d) None of these
a) 500.000 m
b) 501.000 m
c) 502.000 m
d) 507.000 m
a) 1 no.
b) 2 no.
c) 3 no.
d) 4 no.
a) Pond
b) Ocean
c) River
d) All of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK6*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 6

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
SECTION I
dumpy level.
3.865, 3.345, 2.930, 1.955, 0.865, 3.795, 2.635, 1.540, 1.925, 0.865 and 0.660.

Line
FB
AB
122
302
BC
67
246
CD
312
135
DA
202
21

Engineering ?
7
4
5
4
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 6
-4-
*SLRPK6*
SECTION II

4
5
6
3
6
4
5
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 6
*SLRPK6*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
Marks : 14
(114=14)

a) 500.000 m
b) 501.000 m
c) 502.000 m
d) 507.000 m
a) 1 no.
b) 2 no.
c) 3 no.
d) 4 no.
a) Pond
b) Ocean
c) River
d) All of these
a) 1.2 to 1.5
b) 1.6 to 3.0
c) 3.1 to 4.5
d) 4.6 to 6.0
a) Sprinkler
b) Drip
c) Furrow
d) Flooding
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 6
*SLRPK6*
-2-

a) Agriculture
b) Flood control
c) Drinking water
d) All the above
a) Road material
c) Road location
b) Road width
d) All of these

a) Plinth
b) Lintel
d) None of these
a) 0.40 to 0.55
b) 0.55 to 0.70
c) 0.70 to 0.85
d) 0.85 to 1.0
a) 300.00 m
b) 299.00 m
c) 298.00 m
a) 300
b) 100
c) 260
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK6*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 6

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
SECTION I
dumpy level.
3.865, 3.345, 2.930, 1.955, 0.865, 3.795, 2.635, 1.540, 1.925, 0.865 and 0.660.

Line
FB
AB
122
302
BC
67
246
CD
312
135
DA
202
21

Engineering ?
7
4
5
4
5
Set R
SLR-PK 6
-4-
*SLRPK6*
SECTION II

4
5
6
3
6
4
5
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 6
*SLRPK6*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
Marks : 14
(114=14)
d) All the above
a) Agriculture
b) Flood control
c) Drinking water
d) All the above
a) Road material
c) Road location
b) Road width
d) All of these

a) Plinth
b) Lintel
d) None of these
a) 0.40 to 0.55
b) 0.55 to 0.70
c) 0.70 to 0.85
d) 0.85 to 1.0
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 6
*SLRPK6*
-2-

a) 300.00 m
b) 299.00 m
c) 298.00 m
a) 300
b) 100
c) 260
d) None of these
a) 500.000 m
b) 501.000 m
c) 502.000 m
d) 507.000 m
a) 1 no.
b) 2 no.
c) 3 no.
d) 4 no.
a) Pond
c) River
b) Ocean
d) All of these

a) 1.2 to 1.5
b) 1.6 to 3.0
c) 3.1 to 4.5
d) 4.6 to 6.0
a) Sprinkler
b) Drip
c) Furrow
d) Flooding
______________
Set S
*SLRPK6*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 6

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
SECTION I
dumpy level.
3.865, 3.345, 2.930, 1.955, 0.865, 3.795, 2.635, 1.540, 1.925, 0.865 and 0.660.

Line
FB
AB
122
302
BC
67
246
CD
312
135
DA
202
21

Engineering ?
7
4
5
4
5
Set S
SLR-PK 6
-4-
*SLRPK6*
SECTION II

4
5
6
3
6
4
5
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 7
*SLRPK7*
Seat
No.
Set

BASIC ELECTRONICS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

minutes in Answer Book of Basic Electronics Section on
Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.
Marks : 14
(Basic Electronics)

1) The material used for LED is
a) GaAs
b) CdSe
7
c) Pbs
d) Cds
2) Thermocouple is a ___________ transducer and used for measurement of

_________
a) Passive, temperature
b) Active, light sensitivity
c) Active, displacement
d) Active, temperature
3) In bridge rectifier, PIV across any diode will be
Vm
V
a) 2 Vm
b) Vm
c)
d) m
2
2
4) To display the digit 7 in seven segment display then
a) segments a, b and c should be turned on and all other segments should be off
b) segments a, b and c should be off and all other segments should be
turned on
c) segments a, f and e should be turned on and all other segments should be off
d) segments a, f and e should be off and all other segments should be turned on
5) See back effect is observed in
a) LVDT
b) Strain gauge
c) RTD
d) Thermocouple
6) Thermistor and LDR are type of ___________ resistors.

a) fixed
b) variables
c) non linear
d) linear
7) The Boolean expression (A + AB) (A + A) is equal to
a) A
b) A(A + B)
c) A + B
d) all above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 7
*SLRPK7*
-2-
(Computer Programming)
8) .Struct emp
{
char name[20];
int age;
};
Variable of structure requires __________ bytes of memory
a) 22
b) 12
c) 1
d) 24
9) The parameters in the function definition are called as __________
a) actual
b) formal
c) optional
d) none of these
10) int x = 40;
main()
{
int x = 20;
printf(%d,x);
}
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
11) int i = 2
printf(%d%d,++i,++i); output of the program is
a) 4 3
b) 5 3
c) 4 4
d) error
d) 2 2
12) In flowchart input output statements are represented by the symbol

a)
b)
c)
13) Which of the following is not the library function

a) printf()
b) scanf()
c) for()
d)
d) getchar()
14) Structure element can be accessed through structure variable using a _______
operator.
a) Dot operator
b) arrow operator (>)
c) * operator
d) None
______________
Set P
*SLRPK7*
-3-
SLR-PK 7
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates maximum marks.

2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
(Basic Electronics)
28
2. Solve any four questions :

(44=16)
1) State and prove the Demorgans theorem.
2) Draw and explain seven segment common cathode LED display.
3) Explain selection parameters of transducer.
4) Explain basic construction of electrolytic capacitor with suitable diagram.
5) Describe principle of operation and construction of LDR with neat diagram.
3. Solve any two questions :
(26=12)
1) Prove that NAND and NOR are universal Getes.
2) Explain working of full wave bridge rectifier with associated waveforms. Define
following terms :
i) Rectification efficiency
ii) PIV.
3) Explain construction and working of linear variable differential transformer.
SECTION II
(Computer programming)
4. Attempt any four :
1) Find out output for following program.
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 3;
int *j;
j = &i;
printf(Address of i=%u\n,&i);
printf(Address of i=%u\n,j);
28
(45=20)
Set P
SLR-PK 7
2)
3)
4)
5)
-4-
*SLRPK7*
printf(Values of j=%u\n,j);
printf(Value of i=%d\n,*(&i));
printf(Value of i=%d\n,*j);
return 0;
}
Find the errors if any, rewrite the corrected program.
#include<stdio.h>
arr[]={A,B,C,D};
int i;
for(i=0;i<=3;i++)
printf(%d,arr[i]);
printf(\n);
return 0;
}
Find out the errors and rewrite modified the program.
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x = 10
if(x>=2);
then
printf(\n,x);
}
Explain call by value and call by reference with example.
Write a program to check the greatest of three numbers entered through
keyboard.
5. Attempt any two :

(24=8)
1) Differentiate between while and do-while with example.
2) Explain the following string handling function
a) strlen()
b) Strcmp()
3) Any number is entered through keyboard by the user. Write a program to
check whether that no. is present in the array of 10 elements. If it is, display
how many times it appears in the array ?
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 7
*SLRPK7*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(Basic Electronics)

7
Vm
V
a) 2 Vm
b) Vm
c)
d) m
2
2
turned on
a) LVDT
b) Strain gauge c) RTD
d) Thermocouple
a) fixed
b) variables
c) non linear
d) linear
a) A
b) A(A + B)
c) A + B
d) all above

a) GaAs
b) CdSe
c) Pbs
d) Cds
_________
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 7
*SLRPK7*
-2-
8) int x = 40;
main()
{
int x = 20;
printf(%d,x);
}
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
9) int i = 2
a) 4 3
b) 5 3
c) 4 4
d) error
d) 2 2

a)
b)
c)

a) printf()
b) scanf()
c) for()
d)
d) getchar()
operator.
a) Dot operator
c) * operator
d) None
13) .Struct emp
{
char name[20];
int age;
};
a) 22
b) 12
c) 1
d) 24
a) actual
b) formal
c) optional
d) none of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK7*
-3-
SLR-PK 7
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(Basic Electronics)
28

(44=16)
(26=12)
following terms :
ii) PIV.
SECTION II
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 3;
int *j;
j = &i;
28
(45=20)
Set Q
SLR-PK 7
2)
3)
4)
5)
-4-
*SLRPK7*
return 0;
}
#include<stdio.h>
arr[]={A,B,C,D};
int i;
for(i=0;i<=3;i++)
printf(%d,arr[i]);
printf(\n);
return 0;
}
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x = 10
if(x>=2);
then
printf(\n,x);
}
keyboard.

(24=8)
a) strlen()
b) Strcmp()
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 7
*SLRPK7*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(Basic Electronics)

a) LVDT
b) Strain gauge
7
c) RTD
d) Thermocouple

a) fixed
b) variables
c) non linear
d) linear
a) A
b) A(A + B)
c) A + B
d) all above
a) GaAs
b) CdSe
c) Pbs
d) Cds

_________
Vm
V
a) 2 Vm
b) Vm
c)
d) m
2
2
turned on
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 7
*SLRPK7*
-2-
a)
b)
c)

a) printf()
b) scanf()
c) for()
d)
d) getchar()
operator.
a) Dot operator
c) * operator
d) None
11) .Struct emp
{
char name[20];
int age;
};
a) 22
b) 12
c) 1
d) 24
a) actual
b) formal
c) optional
d) none of these
13) int x = 40;
main()
{
int x = 20;
printf(%d,x);
}
a) 20
14) int i = 2
b) 40
c) 60

a) 4 3
b) 5 3
c) 4 4
d) error
d) 2 2
______________
Set R
*SLRPK7*
-3-
SLR-PK 7
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(Basic Electronics)
28

(44=16)
(26=12)
following terms :
ii) PIV.
SECTION II
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 3;
int *j;
j = &i;
28
(45=20)
Set R
SLR-PK 7
2)
3)
4)
5)
-4-
*SLRPK7*
return 0;
}
#include<stdio.h>
arr[]={A,B,C,D};
int i;
for(i=0;i<=3;i++)
printf(%d,arr[i]);
printf(\n);
return 0;
}
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x = 10
if(x>=2);
then
printf(\n,x);
}
keyboard.

(24=8)
a) strlen()
b) Strcmp()
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 7
*SLRPK7*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(Basic Electronics)

7
turned on
a) LVDT
b) Strain gauge c) RTD
d) Thermocouple
a) fixed
b) variables
c) non linear
d) linear
a) A
b) A(A + B)
c) A + B
d) all above

a) GaAs
b) CdSe
c) Pbs
d) Cds
_________
Vm
a) 2 Vm
b) Vm
c)
2
d)
Vm
2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 7
*SLRPK7*
-2-
8) int i = 2

a) 4 3
b) 5 3
c) 4 4
d) 2 2
a)
b)
c)
d)

a) printf()
b) scanf()
c) for()
d) getchar()
operator.
a) Dot operator
c) * operator
d) None
12) .Struct emp
{
char name[20];
int age;
};
a) 22
b) 12
c) 1
d) 24
a) actual
b) formal
c) optional
d) none of these
14) int x = 40;
main()
{
int x = 20;
printf(%d,x);
}
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) error
______________
Set S
*SLRPK7*
-3-
SLR-PK 7
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(Basic Electronics)
28

(44=16)
(26=12)
following terms :
ii) PIV.
SECTION II
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 3;
int *j;
j = &i;
28
(45=20)
Set S
SLR-PK 7
2)
3)
4)
5)
-4-
*SLRPK7*
return 0;
}
#include<stdio.h>
arr[]={A,B,C,D};
int i;
for(i=0;i<=3;i++)
printf(%d,arr[i]);
printf(\n);
return 0;
}
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x = 10
if(x>=2);
then
printf(\n,x);
}
keyboard.

(24=8)
a) strlen()
b) Strcmp()
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 9
*SLRPK9*
Seat
No.
Set
F.E. (Part I/II) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
2) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary.
Constants : 1) Avogadros no., N = 6.02 10 2 6 /k.mol.
2) Velocity of light, c = 3 10 8 m/sec.
3) Charge of electron, e = 1.6 10 1 9 C.
Marks :14
SECTION I

1) Miller indices of the plane parallel to y and z axes are
a) (100)
b) (010)
c) (001)
d) (111)
2) In Braggs X-ray spectrometer, the crystal is used as ___________
a) Transmission grating
b) Reflection grating
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
3) Mass energy equation was proposed by
a) Newton
b) Madam Curie
c) C. V. Raman
d) Einstein
4) The absorption coefficient is measured in
a) WOU
b) m/s2
c) OWU
d) m2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 9
*SLRPK9*
-2-
5) The acoustic diffraction method is used to determine the

a) Wavelength of light
b) Resolving power of diffraction grating
c) Velocity of light
d) Wavelength of ultrasonic waves
6) At absolute temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ___________
a) A few electrons
b) Many holes
c) Many free electrons
d) No holes or free electrons
7) Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many
___________
a) Free electrons
b) Holes
c) Valence electrons
d) Bound electrons
SECTION II
8) In Fraunhoffer diffraction, the incident wave front should be
a) Elliptical
b) Cylindrical
c) Spherical
d) Plane
9) The half shade plate consists of a half wave plate of ____________ which
covers one half of the field of view while the other half is a _________ plate.
a) quartz, calcite
b) quartz, glass
c) calcite, tourmaline
d) glass, calcite
10) The helium-neon laser is a gas laser. It emits light at a wavelength of
__________ in a visible region.
a) 4000 A
b) 5890 A
c) 6328 A
d) 7800 A
11) The fractional refractive index change ( ) is given by ___________
a) = n1 n2/n1
b) = n1 n2
c) = n2 n1
d) = 2n2 n1/n1
12) Energy released per fission of a
a) 200 eV
c) 200 MeV
92
235
nucleus is nearly ____________
b) 20 eV
d) 20 MeV
13) The angle between X-axis and vector R has the value __________ for
Armchair CNT.
c) 0 to 90
d) 30
a) 0
b) 2
14) In total internal reflection phenomenon the light ray incident from ___________
a) Denser to rarer
b) Denser to denser
c) Rarer to rarer
d) Rarer to denser
______________
Set P
*SLRPK9*
-3-
SLR-PK 9
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary.

SECTION I
15
a) Explain applications of ultrasonic waves.
b) Explain the various requirements of a good auditorium.
c) Define Fermi level. Represent the position of Fermi level in :
1) P-type
2) N-type and
3) Intrinsic semiconductor.
d) A rod has length 1 mt when the rod is in a satellite moving with velocity 0.8c
relative to laboratory. What is the length of rod as determined by an observer :
1) In the laboratory, and
2) In the satellite.
e) Explain : Seven Crystal System with neat unit cells.
f) Explain : Time Dilation on the basis of relativity.
g) In a Hall coefficient experiment, a current of 0.25 A is send through a metal
strip having thickness 0.2 mm and width 5 mm. The Hall voltage is found to
be 0.15 mV, when a magnetic field of 0.2 wb/m2 is used. What is the carrier
concentration ? Also calculate Hall coefficient RH.
3. Derive the formula, m =
m0
1
v2
for the variation of mass with velocity according
c2
to the special theory of relativity.
OR
Discuss the various types of symmetry elements and symmetry operations
present in a cubic crystal.
Set P
SLR-PK 9
-4-
*SLRPK9*
4. Attempt any two of the following :
a) Discuss the classification of solids into conductors, semiconductors and

insulators on the basis of energy band theory.
b) State and explain the factors affecting the architectural acoustics and their
remedies.
c) Explain Bravias lattices with neat diagrams.
SECTION II
15
a) Explain Rayleighs criterion of resolution.

b) Explain positive and negative crystals.
c) Define the following terms :
i) Meta stable state,
ii) Pumping,
iii) Population inversion.
d) Discuss the advantages of optical fibers in communication.
e) Difference between fission reaction and fusion reaction.
f) What is the wavelength of light that is deviated in the first order through an
angle of 20 by a transmission grating having 6000 lines/cm ?
g) In an optical fiber, the core material has refractive index 1.6 and refractive
index of clad material is 1.3. What is the value of critical angle ? Also calculate
the value of acceptance angle.
6. Obtain the expression for acceptance angle, NA and fractional refractive index
change of an optical fiber.
a) Give the construction and working of Laurents half shade polarimeter.

b) Write a note on : Semiconductor laser.
c) Write a note on : Nuclear chain reaction.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 9
*SLRPK9*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
Marks :14
SECTION I

a) Newton
b) Madam Curie
c) C. V. Raman
d) Einstein
a) WOU
b) m/s2
c) OWU
d) m2
a) A few electrons
b) Many holes
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 9
-2-
*SLRPK9*

___________
a) Free electrons
b) Holes
d) Bound electrons
a) (100)
b) (010)
c) (001)
d) (111)
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
SECTION II
The helium-neon laser is a gas laser. It emits light at a wavelength of
a) 4000 A
b) 5890 A
c) 6328 A
d) 7800 A
The fractional refractive index change ( ) is given by ___________
a) = n1 n2/n1
b) = n1 n2
c) = n2 n1
d) = 2n2 n1/n1
235
Energy released per fission of a 92
a) 200 eV
b) 20 eV
c) 200 MeV
d) 20 MeV
The angle between X-axis and vector R has the value __________ for
Armchair CNT.
a) 0
b) 2
c) 0 to 90
d) 30
In total internal reflection phenomenon the light ray incident from ___________
a) Denser to rarer
b) Denser to denser
c) Rarer to rarer
d) Rarer to denser
In Fraunhoffer diffraction, the incident wave front should be
a) Elliptical
b) Cylindrical
c) Spherical
d) Plane
The half shade plate consists of a half wave plate of ____________ which
a) quartz, calcite
b) quartz, glass
d) glass, calcite
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK9*
-3-
SLR-PK 9
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
15
1) P-type
2) N-type and
m0
1
v2
c2
OR
Set Q
SLR-PK 9
-4-
*SLRPK9*

remedies.
SECTION II
15

ii) Pumping,

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 9
*SLRPK9*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
Marks :14
SECTION I

a) A few electrons
b) Many holes
___________
a) Free electrons
b) Holes
d) Bound electrons
a) (100)
b) (010)
c) (001)
d) (111)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 9
*SLRPK9*
-2-

c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Newton
b) Madam Curie
c) C. V. Raman
d) Einstein
a) WOU
b) m/s2
c) OWU
d) m2
SECTION II
a) 200 eV
c) 200 MeV
92
235
b) 20 eV
d) 20 MeV
Armchair CNT.
a) 0
b) 2
c) 0 to 90
d) 30
a) Denser to rarer
b) Denser to denser
c) Rarer to rarer
d) Rarer to denser
a) Elliptical
b) Cylindrical
c) Spherical
d) Plane
a) quartz, calcite
b) quartz, glass
d) glass, calcite
a) 4000 A
b) 5890 A
c) 6328 A
d) 7800 A
a) = n1 n2/n1
b) = n1 n2
c) = n2 n1
d) = 2n2 n1/n1
______________
Set R
*SLRPK9*
-3-
SLR-PK 9
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
15
1) P-type
2) N-type and
m0
1
v2
c2
OR
Set R
SLR-PK 9
-4-
*SLRPK9*

remedies.
SECTION II
15

ii) Pumping,

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 9
*SLRPK9*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
Marks :14
SECTION I

a) WOU
b) m/s2
c) OWU
d) m2
a) A few electrons
b) Many holes
___________
a) Free electrons
b) Holes
d) Bound electrons
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 9
*SLRPK9*
-2-

a) (100)
b) (010)
c) (001)
d) (111)
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Newton
b) Madam Curie
c) C. V. Raman
d) Einstein
SECTION II
a) = n1 n2/n1
b) = n1 n2
c) = n2 n1
d) = 2n2 n1/n1
a) 200 eV
c) 200 MeV
92
235
b) 20 eV
d) 20 MeV
Armchair CNT.
a) 0
b) 2
c) 0 to 90
d) 30
a) Denser to rarer
b) Denser to denser
c) Rarer to rarer
d) Rarer to denser
a) Elliptical
b) Cylindrical
c) Spherical
d) Plane
a) quartz, calcite
b) quartz, glass
d) glass, calcite
a) 4000 A
b) 5890 A
c) 6328 A
d) 7800 A
______________
Set S
*SLRPK9*
-3-
SLR-PK 9
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
15
1) P-type
2) N-type and
m0
1
v2
c2
OR
Set S
SLR-PK 9
-4-
*SLRPK9*

remedies.
SECTION II
15

ii) Pumping,

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 10
*SLRPK10*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes

Marks : 14
(141=14)
1) Hardness in water is caused by the presence of

A) Sodium chloride
B) Sodium carbonate
C) Calcium chloride
D) Potassium nitrate
2) The impurities present in natural water are
A) Suspended only
B) Colloidal only
C) Dissolved only
D) All of these
3) A system consisting of O2 and N2 gases is
A) One Phase system
B) Two Phase system
C) Three Phase system
D) None of these
4) At triple point of water system, the system is
A) Invariant
B) Univariant
C) Bivariant
D) Trivariant
5) A lubricant should possess high

A) Volatility
B) Acidity
D) None of these
C) Oiliness
6) When Graphite is mixed in oil it is called

A) Grease
B) Aquadag
C) Oil dag
D) Blended grease
7) Non volatile, film forming constituent of a paint is called

A) Drier
B) Pigment
C) Thinner
D) Drying oil
8) The nature of oxide film in iron is

A) Stable
B) Porous
D) Volatile
C) Unstable
9) Proximate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of

A) C, H, N, S and H2O
B) Moisture, volatile matter and ash
C) Carbon only
D) C and H only
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 10
*SLRPK10*
-2-
10) The calorific value of gaseous fuel is expressed as

A) Kcal/m3
B) Kcal/kg
C) Kcal/cm
D) Cal/g
11) The approximate composition of soda-lime glass is

A) Na2O.CaO.6 SiO2
B) K2O.CaO.6 SiO2
C) CaSiO3
D) Na2 SiO3
12) The commercial example of epoxy resin is

A) Feviquick
B) Polythene
C) Thiokol
D) Bisphenol
13) G-R-S rubber is an example of

A) Condensation polymerization
B) Natural rubber
C) Co-polymerization
D) None of these
14) The technic in which mass of substance is recorded continuously as temperature

increases linearly is
A) GLC
B) TGA
C) DSC
D) DTA
______________
Set P
*SLRPK10*
-3-
SLR-PK 10
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : i) Attempt all questions.

ii) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
iii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. A) Attempt any two :
a) How do you estimate the total hardness of water by EDTA method ?
b) With the help of phase rule, explain the water system.
c) A sample of water on analysis was found to contain the following impurities
in mg/L.
Impurities
Amount Mole.Wt.
Ca(HCO3)2 12.5
162
146
Mg(HCO3)2 9.80
CaSO4
2.35
136
Mgcl2
1.23
95
Calculate the temporary, Permanent of total hardness of water in mg/L.
B) Attempt any two :
a) Write a note on solid lubricants.
b) Define paint. State the characteristics of a good paint.
c) Explain the effects of nature of film formation on oxidation corrosion.

a) Explain Aerobic treatment of waste water by activated sludge process.
b) Write a note on disinfection of water by chlorine.
c) Select the lubricant for with suitable eg.
i) Delicate instrument
ii) Transformers
iii) Refrigeration.

a) Explain briefly the various factors influencing the rate of corrosion.
b) Explain the extreme pressure and Boundary lubrication method.
c) Mention Merits and Demerits of Phase rule.
Set P
SLR-PK 10
-4-
*SLRPK10*
SECTION II
a) Write the composition of port land cement with functions of each
component.
b) Distinguish between thermo softening and thermosetting plastics.
c) The following values were obtaining in boys calorimeter during calorific
value determination.
Volume of gas burnt = 0.25 m3 at STP
Wt. of water heated = 30 kg
temp. of inlet water = 27C
temp. of outlet water = 40C
Wt. of steam condensed = 0.015 kg
Latent heat of condensation of steam = 580 Kcal/kg
Calculate higher and lower calorific value.
a) Draw a neat labelled block diagram of TGA.
b) Explain vulcanization of rubber.
c) Explain characteristics of good fuel.
5. A) a) Define Fuel. How are they classified ?
b) Calculate molarity of solution containing 23.2 gm of Na2CO3 in 1500 ml
(Molecular wt. of Na2CO3 = 106 )
3
3
OR
5. A) a) Describe general method of manufacturing of glass.
b) The molecular wt. of polystyrene is 104000. Find its degree of
polymerization. (Mole.wt.of styrene = 104).
a) Explain injection method for moulding of plastic into articles.
b) Explain different purposes of making alloy.
c) Define and write formula of
i) Normality
ii) Molarity
iii) Molality
4
2
8
iv) Mole Fraction.

_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 10
*SLRPK10*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

A) Stable
B) Porous
(141=14)
C) Unstable
D) Volatile

C) Carbon only
D) C and H only
A) Kcal/m3
B) Kcal/kg
C) Kcal/cm
D) Cal/g

A) Na2O.CaO.6 SiO2
B) K2O.CaO.6 SiO2
C) CaSiO3
D) Na2 SiO3

A) Feviquick
B) Polythene
C) Thiokol
D) Bisphenol
B) Natural rubber
D) None of these

A) GLC
B) TGA
C) DSC
D) DTA
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 10
*SLRPK10*
-2-

A) Sodium chloride
B) Sodium carbonate
C) Calcium chloride
A) Suspended only
B) Colloidal only
C) Dissolved only
D) All of these
A) One Phase system
B) Two Phase system
D) None of these
A) Invariant
B) Univariant
C) Bivariant
D) Trivariant

A) Volatility
B) Acidity
D) None of these
C) Oiliness

A) Grease
B) Aquadag
C) Oil dag
D) Blended grease
14) Non volatile, film forming constituent of a paint is called

A) Drier
B) Pigment
C) Thinner
D) Drying oil
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK10*
-3-
SLR-PK 10
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
in mg/L.
Impurities
Amount Mole.Wt.
Ca(HCO3)2 12.5
162
146
Mg(HCO3)2 9.80
CaSO4
2.35
136
Mgcl2
1.23
95

ii) Transformers
iii) Refrigeration.

Set Q
SLR-PK 10
-4-
*SLRPK10*
SECTION II
component.
Volume of gas burnt = 0.25 m3 at STP.
3
3
OR
i) Normality
ii) Molarity
iii) Molality
4
2
8
iv) Mole Fraction.

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 10
*SLRPK10*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

A) Volatility
B) Acidity
(141=14)
C) Oiliness
D) None of these

A) Grease
B) Aquadag
C) Oil dag
D) Blended grease
3) Non volatile, film forming constituent of a point is called

A) Drier
B) Pigment
C) Thinner
D) Drying oil

A) Stable
B) Porous
D) Volatile
C) Unstable

C) Carbon only
D) C and H only
A) Kcal/m3
B) Kcal/kg
C) Kcal/cm
D) Cal/g

A) Na2O.CaO.6 SiO2
B) K2O.CaO.6 SiO2
C) CaSiO3
D) Na2 SiO3

A) Feviquick
B) Polythene
C) Thiokol
D) Bisphenol
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 10
*SLRPK10*
-2-

B) Natural rubber
D) None of these

A) GLC
B) TGA
C) DSC
D) DTA

A) Sodium chloride
B) Sodium carbonate
C) Calcium chloride
A) Suspended only
B) Colloidal only
C) Dissolved only
D) All of these
A) One Phase system
B) Two Phase system
D) None of these
A) Invariant
B) Univariant
C) Bivariant
D) Trivariant
______________
Set R
*SLRPK10*
-3-
SLR-PK 10
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
in mg/L.
Impurities
Amount Mole.Wt.
Ca(HCO3)2 12.5
162
146
Mg(HCO3)2 9.80
CaSO4
2.35
136
Mgcl2
1.23
95

ii) Transformers
iii) Refrigeration.

Set R
SLR-PK 10
-4-
*SLRPK10*
SECTION II
component.
3
3
OR
i) Normality
ii) Molarity
iii) Molality
4
2
8
iv) Mole Fraction.

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 10
*SLRPK10*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)

A) Kcal/m3
B) Kcal/kg
C) Kcal/cm
D) Cal/g

A) Na2O.CaO.6 SiO2
B) K2O.CaO.6 SiO2
C) CaSiO3
D) Na2 SiO3

A) Feviquick
B) Polythene
C) Thiokol
D) Bisphenol

B) Natural rubber
D) None of these

A) GLC
B) TGA
C) DSC
D) DTA

A) Sodium chloride
B) Sodium carbonate
C) Calcium chloride
A) Suspended only
B) Colloidal only
C) Dissolved only
D) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 10
*SLRPK10*
-2-

A) One Phase system
B) Two Phase system
D) None of these
A) Invariant
B) Univariant
C) Bivariant
A) Volatility
B) Acidity
C) Oiliness
D) Trivariant
D) None of these

A) Grease
B) Aquadag
C) Oil dag
D) Blended grease
12) Non volatile, film forming constituent of a point is called

A) Drier
B) Pigment
C) Thinner
D) Drying oil

A) Stable
B) Porous
D) Volatile
C) Unstable

C) Carbon only
D) C and H only
______________
Set S
*SLRPK10*
-3-
SLR-PK 10
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
in mg/L.
Impurities
Amount Mole.Wt.
Ca(HCO3)2 12.5
162
146
Mg(HCO3)2 9.80
CaSO4
2.35
136
Mgcl2
1.23
95

ii) Transformers
iii) Refrigeration.

Set S
SLR-PK 10
-4-
*SLRPK10*
SECTION II
component.
3
3
OR
i) Normality
ii) Molarity
iii) Molality
4
2
8
iv) Mole Fraction.

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 11
*SLRPK11*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

2) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Marks : 14

1) Admixture which cause early setting and hardening of concrete are called
a) Workability admixtures
b) Accelerators
c) Retarders
d) Air entrain agents
2) The specific surface of OPC is determined by
a) Le-Chatelier apparatus
b) Blain air permeability method
c) Autoclave method
d) Sieve analysis
3) An excess of free lime in Portland cement
a) Results in an increase in strength
c) Causes un-soundness in the product
b) Increase in initial setting time

d) Improve the quality of the product
4) Finer the cement

a) Higher is the rate of hydration
c) Faster development of strength
b) More is the surface area

d) All the above
5) Which one of the following is the correct range of fineness modulus of medium sand
usable in preparing cement mortar ?
a) 1.5 to 2.2
b) 2.6 to 2.9
c) 2.9 to 3.2
d) 5.5 to 6.5
6) If the slump of the concrete is 70mm, its workability is considered to be
a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low
7) The workability of concrete can be measured using slump, compaction factor and Veebee time. Consider the following statement for workability of concrete
1) As the slump increases, the Vee-bee time increases
2) As the slump increases, compaction factor increases
Which of the following is true ?
a) Both 1) and 2) are true
b) Both 1) and 2) are false
c) 1) is true 2) is false
d) 1) is false and 2) is true

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 11
*SLRPK11*
-2-
8) If P is failure load and D is diameter of specimen then compressive strength of concrete

(fc) is calculated by
a) fc =
4P
3P
b) fc =
c) fc =
2P
2
d) fc =
6P
D2
9) Shrinkage, which takes place before concrete has set is known as

a) Autogenous shrinkage
b) Drying shrinkage
c) Plastic shrinkage
d) Carbonation shrinkage
10) The presence of Tricalcium silicate in cement

a) Hydrates the cement rapidly
b) Generates less heat of hydration
c) Offer high resistance to sulphate attack
d) All the above
11) Too much fineness of cement
a) Results cracks in concrete
b) Generate greater heat
c) Develops later strength
d) All the above
12) The coarse aggregates which possess the property of good interlocking are
a) Rounded shape
b) Elongated shape
c) Angular shape
13) Some structural members subjected to long time sustained loads deforms
progressively with time, what is such phenomenon is called
a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Creep relaxation
d) Shrinkage
14) Match the sequence of determination of components of concrete mix as per Indian Standard
method of mix design and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
A) Cement Content
1) First step
B) Aggregate Content
2) Second step
C) Water Content
3) Third step
D) Water Cement Ratio
4) Fourth step
Code
A
a) 1
b) 3
c) 3
d) 1
______________
Set P
*SLRPK11*
-3-
SLR-PK 11
Seat
No.

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.

SECTION I
2. Write a short note on any seven. (4 marks each)
(74)
a) Wet Process of Manufacturing of Cement

b) Hydration of Cement
c) Portland Pozzolana Cement
d) Methods of curing concrete
e) Segregation and Bleeding
f) Retarders in concrete
g) Methods of compaction of concrete
h) Alkali aggregate reaction
i) Sulphate attack
j) Split and Flexural strength of concrete.
SECTION II
3. Write a step by step procedure of designing concrete mix by ACI method
(116)
OR
Design of M20 concrete mix as per IS:10262-2009.
(116)
1) Grade designation : M20

2) Type of cement : OPC 43 grade confirming to IS 8112
3) Maximum nominal size of aggregates : 20 mm
4) Minimum cement content : 320 kg/m3
Set P
SLR-PK 11
-4-
*SLRPK11*
5) Maximum water cement ratio : 0.55

6) Workability : 75 mm (slump)
7) Exposure condition : Mild
8) Degree of supervision : Good
9) Type of aggregate : Crushed angular aggregate
10) Maximum cement content : 450 kg/m3
11) Chemical admixture : Not recommended
12) Method of concrete placing-Manual (Pumping not required)
Test data for materials :
Cement used :
OPC 43 grade confirming to IS 8112
Specific gravity of cement : 3.15

Specific gravity of
Coarse aggregate :
2.68
Fine aggregate :
2.65
Water absorption
Coarse aggregate :
0.6%
Fine aggregate :
1%
Free (surface) moisture

Coarse aggregate :
Nil (absorbed moisture full)
Fine aggregate :
Nil
Sieve analysis
Coarse aggregate :
Conforming to Table 2 of IS : 383
Fine aggregate :
Conforming to Zone I of IS : 383
Assume tolerance factor :
1.64
Set P
*SLRPK11*
-5-
SLR-PK 11
Refer Fig.-1, Table 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Set P
SLR-PK 11
-6-
*SLRPK11*
Set P
*SLRPK11*
-7-
4. Write short note on any three :
SLR-PK 11
(34)
a) Light Weight Concrete

b) Creep and Shrinkage
c) Minimum and maximum cement content
d) Quality control of concrete
e) Chloride attack.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 11
*SLRPK11*
Seat
No.
Set
CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) fc =
4P
D2
b) fc =
3P
D2
c) fc =
2P
D2
d) fc =
6P
D2

b) Drying shrinkage

d) All the above
d) All the above
a) Rounded shape
b) Elongated shape
c) Angular shape

a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Creep relaxation
d) Shrinkage
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 11
*SLRPK11*
-2-
List-I
List-II
A) Cement Content
1) First step
2) Second step
C) Water Content
3) Third step
4) Fourth step
Code
A
a) 1
b) 3
c) 3
d) 1
b) Accelerators
c) Retarders
c) Autoclave method
d) Sieve analysis

11) Finer the cement


d) All the above
a) 1.5 to 2.2
b) 2.6 to 2.9
c) 2.9 to 3.2
d) 5.5 to 6.5
a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK11*
-3-
SLR-PK 11
Seat
No.

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(74)

i) Sulphate attack
SECTION II
(116)
OR
(116)

Set Q
SLR-PK 11
-4-
*SLRPK11*

Cement used :

Specific gravity of
Coarse aggregate :
2.68
Fine aggregate :
2.65
Water absorption
Coarse aggregate :
0.6%
Fine aggregate :
1%

Coarse aggregate :
Fine aggregate :
Nil
Sieve analysis
Coarse aggregate :
Fine aggregate :
1.64
Set Q
*SLRPK11*
-5-
SLR-PK 11
Set Q
SLR-PK 11
-6-
*SLRPK11*
Set Q
*SLRPK11*
-7-
SLR-PK 11
(34)

e) Chloride attack.
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 11
*SLRPK11*
Seat
No.
Set
CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) 1.5 to 2.2
b) 2.6 to 2.9
c) 2.9 to 3.2
d) 5.5 to 6.5
a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low

a) fc =
4P
D2
b) fc =
3P
D2
c) fc =
2P
D2
d) fc =
6P
D2

b) Drying shrinkage

c) Offer high resistance to sulphate attack d) All the above

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 11
*SLRPK11*
-2-

d) All the above
a) Rounded shape
b) Elongated shape
c) Angular shape

a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Creep relaxation
d) Shrinkage
List-I
List-II
A) Cement Content
1) First step
2) Second step
C) Water Content
3) Third step
4) Fourth step
Code
A
a) 1
b) 3
c) 3
d) 1
b) Accelerators
c) Retarders
c) Autoclave method
d) Sieve analysis

14) Finer the cement


d) All the above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK11*
-3-
SLR-PK 11
Seat
No.

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(74)

i) Sulphate attack
SECTION II
(116)
OR
(116)

Set R
SLR-PK 11
-4-
*SLRPK11*

Cement used :

Specific gravity of
Coarse aggregate :
2.68
Fine aggregate :
2.65
Water absorption
Coarse aggregate :
0.6%
Fine aggregate :
1%

Coarse aggregate :
Fine aggregate :
Nil
Sieve analysis
Coarse aggregate :
Fine aggregate :
1.64
Set R
*SLRPK11*
-5-
SLR-PK 11
Set R
SLR-PK 11
-6-
*SLRPK11*
Set R
*SLRPK11*
-7-
SLR-PK 11
(34)

e) Chloride attack.
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 11
*SLRPK11*
Seat
No.
Set
CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

d) All the above
d) All the above
a) Rounded shape
b) Elongated shape
c) Angular shape
a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Creep relaxation
d) Shrinkage
List-I
List-II
A) Cement Content
1) First step
2) Second step
C) Water Content
3) Third step
4) Fourth step
Code
A
B
C
D
a) 1
2
4
3
b) 3
2
4
1
c) 3
4
2
1
d) 1
4
2
3
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 11
*SLRPK11*
-2-
b) Accelerators
c) Retarders

c) Autoclave method
d) Sieve analysis

9) Finer the cement

d) All the above
a) 1.5 to 2.2
b) 2.6 to 2.9
c) 2.9 to 3.2
d) 5.5 to 6.5

a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low
a) fc =
4P
D2
b) fc =
3P
D2
c) fc =
2P
D2
d) fc =
6P
D2
b) Drying shrinkage
______________
Set S
*SLRPK11*
-3-
SLR-PK 11
Seat
No.

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(74)

i) Sulphate attack
SECTION II
(116)
OR
(116)

Set S
SLR-PK 11
-4-
*SLRPK11*

Cement used :

Specific gravity of
Coarse aggregate :
2.68
Fine aggregate :
2.65
Water absorption
Coarse aggregate :
0.6%
Fine aggregate :
1%

Coarse aggregate :
Fine aggregate :
Nil
Sieve analysis
Coarse aggregate :
Fine aggregate :
1.64
Set S
*SLRPK11*
-5-
SLR-PK 11
Set S
SLR-PK 11
-6-
*SLRPK11*
Set S
*SLRPK11*
-7-
SLR-PK 11
(34)

e) Chloride attack.
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 12
*SLRPK12*
S

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first

30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on
Top of Page.
Marks : 14
(141=14)
1) Change in length 1 of a body of cross sectional area A on application of axial

load P is,
a) PE/AI
b) PA/IE
c) PL/AE
d) AE/PI
2) The ratio between shear stress and strain is termed as,
a) Modulus of Elasticity
b) Modulus of rigidity
c) Modulus of Plasticity
d) Bulk Modulus
3) For a cantilever, the Bending moment at the fixed end is
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) None
4) At the neutral axis of the beam
a) Shear stress is zero
b) Bending stress is zero
c) Bending stress is maximum
d) None
5) Minimum stress in foundations of a dam/retaining wall is at
a) Toe
b) Heel
c) Mid point
d) Top
6) In transversely loaded cantilever the maximum tensile stress develops at
a) Top fibre
b) Bottom fibre c) Neutral axis
d) None
7) Coefficient of wind resistance for rectangular shape chimney is
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 1.5
d) 1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 12
*SLRPK12*
-2-
8) Shear stress is zero at the

a) Outermost fiber
c) Neither outermost nor central fiber
b) Central fiber
d) None
9) A shaft of length L is subject to a constant twisting moment T along its

length L, then angle through which one end of the bar will twist relative to
other will be
a)
b) T/GJ
c) GJ/TL
d) TL/GJ
10) The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner
diameter (d)
!
a)
b)
"
"
d)
"
"
c)
"
11) A flitched beam has

a) Common neutral axis and both materials bend independently
b) Common neutral axis and both materials has common R (Radius of
curvature)
c) Two neutral axis and both materials has common R (Radius of curvature)
d) Two neutral axis and both materials bend independently
12) In power transmission equation, P = 2 NT/601000
a) P is in kW and T is maximum torque
b) P is in NM/sec and T is maximum torque
c) P is in NM/sec and T is mean torque
d) P is in kW and T is mean torque
13) The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as
a) Resilience
b) Proof resilience
c) Modulus of resilience
d) Toughness
14) The stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load compared to when
it is applied gradually is
a) Same
b) Half
c) Two times
d) Four times
______________
Set P
*SLRPK12*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 12

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) In Section I, question No. 2 and in Section II, question

No. 6 is compulsory and solve any two from the
remaining three questions of Section I and Section II.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
10
1) Define :
i) Moment of Resistance
ii) Pure bending of beam.
2) Give conditions to avoid tension in the masonry of the dam at its base.
3) Explain the significance of point of contraflexure with suitable sketch.
4) Explain temperature stresses and strains.
5) Write a short note on Complementary Shear Stress.
6) Draw typical Shear force and Bending moment diagrams for a cantilever
beam of span L subjected to central point load P.
3. Draw SFD and BMD for the cantilever beam loaded as shown in fig.1.
9
Fig. 1
4. a) A timber beam is required to span 4 m, carrying a total uniform load
including its self weight equal to 40 kN. The safe allowable bending stress
is 8 N/mm2. Choose a suitable depth for the beam if the width is restricted
to 120 mm.
b) Give the assumptions made in theory of simple bending.
7
2
Set P
SLR-PK 12
-4-
*SLRPK12*
5. a) A vertical brick chimney of hollow square section is 600 mm600 mm

inside and 600 mm thick. The height of the chimney is 15 m. Find the
greatest allowable uniform wind pressure perpendicular to one face so as
not to cause tension at any edge. Assume density of
brick work = 20 kN/m3.
b) Draw kern of a section for
i) I shape
ii) Rectangular shape cross sections.
SECTION II
6. Draw typical sketch for variation in shear stress for following shapes.
Also show the maximum shear stress position and its magnitude.
10
1) Rectangle
2) T Section
3) L Section
4) Circular Section.
7. A timber beam 150 mm wide and 200 mm deep is to be reinforced by bolting on
two steel flitches each 150 mm by 15 mm in section. Find the moment of resistance
when the flitches are attached symmetrically at top and bottom. Allowable stress
in timber is 8 N/mm2. What is the maximum stress in steel ?
Take Esteel = 20Ewood.
8. a) Write expression for polar modulus.
b) A hollow shaft of 30 mm outside diameter and 15 mm inside diameter is

subjected to torque of 50 N-m. Find shear stress at outside and inside of
the shaft.
9. a) Define strain energy and write expression for strain energy due to gradually
applied load.
b) Calculate the bursting pressure for cold drawn seamless steel tubing of
60 mm inside diameter with 2 mm wall thickness. The ultimate strength of
steel is 380 N/mm2.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 12
*SLRPK12*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

carries one mark.
Top of Page.
Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) Outermost fiber
b) Central fiber
d) None
other will be
a)
b) T/GJ
c) GJ/TL
d) TL/GJ
diameter (d)
a)
b)
"
"
d)
"
"
c)
"
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 12
*SLRPK12*
-2-

curvature)
a) Resilience
b) Proof resilience
d) Toughness
a) Same
b) Half
c) Two times
d) Four times

load P is,
a) PE/AI
b) PA/IE
c) PL/AE
d) AE/PI
d) Bulk Modulus
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) None
d) None
a) Toe
b) Heel
c) Mid point
d) Top
a) Top fibre
d) None
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 1.5
d) 1
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK12*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 12

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 56

SECTION I
10
1) Define :
9
Fig. 1
to 120 mm.
7
2
Set Q
SLR-PK 12
-4-
*SLRPK12*

i) I shape
SECTION II
10
1) Rectangle
2) T Section
3) L Section

the shaft.
applied load.
steel is 380 N/mm2.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 12
*SLRPK12*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

carries one mark.
Top of Page.
Marks : 14

(141=14)
a) Toe
b) Heel
c) Mid point
d) Top
a) Top fibre
d) None
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 1.5
d) 1
a) Outermost fiber
b) Central fiber
d) None
other will be
b) T/GJ
a)
c) GJ/TL
d) TL/GJ
diameter (d)
a)
b)
"
"
d)
"
"
c)
"
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 12
*SLRPK12*
-2-

curvature)
a) Resilience
b) Proof resilience
d) Toughness
a) Same
b) Half
c) Two times
d) Four times

load P is,
a) PE/AI
b) PA/IE
c) PL/AE
d) AE/PI
d) Bulk Modulus
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) None
d) None
______________
Set R
*SLRPK12*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 12

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 56

SECTION I
10
1) Define :
9
Fig. 1
to 120 mm.
7
2
Set R
SLR-PK 12
-4-
*SLRPK12*

i) I shape
SECTION II
10
1) Rectangle
2) T Section
3) L Section

the shaft.
applied load.
steel is 380 N/mm2.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 12
*SLRPK12*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

carries one mark.
Top of Page.
Marks : 14
(141=14)
diameter (d)
!
a)
b)
"
"
d)
"
"
c)
"

curvature)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 12
-2-
*SLRPK12*

a) Resilience
b) Proof resilience
d) Toughness
a) Same
b) Half
c) Two times
d) Four times
load P is,
a) PE/AI
b) PA/IE
c) PL/AE
d) AE/PI
d) Bulk Modulus
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) None
d) None
a) Toe
b) Heel
c) Mid point
d) Top
a) Top fibre
d) None
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 1.5
d) 1
a) Outermost fiber
b) Central fiber
d) None
other will be
b) T/GJ
a)
c) GJ/TL
d) TL/GJ
T
______________
Set S
*SLRPK12*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 12

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 56

SECTION I
10
1) Define :
9
Fig. 1
to 120 mm.
7
2
Set S
SLR-PK 12
-4-
*SLRPK12*

i) I shape
SECTION II
10
1) Rectangle
2) T Section
3) L Section

the shaft.
applied load.
steel is 380 N/mm2.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
S
Set
t

SURVEYING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is objective multiple choice. Q. 2 and Q. 6 are

compulsory.
2) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
Marks : 14
1. Choose correct alternative :

(141=14)
1) Line of collimation need not be truly perpendicular to vertical axis in
a) dumpy level b) tilting level
c) auto level
d) all the above
2) Levelling deals with measurement in
a) horizontal plane
b) vertical plane
c) both horizontal and vertical plane
d) inclined plane
3) What will be the correction for refraction for a distance of 1 km ?
a) 0.0112 m
b) 0.0785 m
c) 11.2 m
d) 0.0112 km
4) Third rule is applied to
a) an open traverse for graphical adjustment
b) determine the effect of local attraction
c) a closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
d) none of the error
5) True bearing of a line is 15 and the magnetic declination at the place is 3 W.
Its magnetic bearing is
a) 3
b) 12
c) 18
d) 20
6) The operation of revolving the telescope in a horizontal plane about its
vertical axis is called
a) Swinging
b) Transiting
c) Face left
d) Face right
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
-2-
7) Proportional compass is used for measurement of

a) Included angle
b) Magnetic bearing
c) Redrawing with other scale
d) None of these
8) Telescopic alidade can measure
a) Horizontal angle
b) Vertical angle
c) Magnetic bearing
d) All of these
9) Tellurometer is an electronic distance measuring device that employs the
propagation of
a) Visible light wave
b) Radio wave
c) Both
d) None of these
10) Total station can be used for
a) Missing line measurement
b) Remote elevation measurement
c) Stake out
d) All of these
11) Determination of Plotted position of station occupied by plane table is
called
a) Traversing
b) Resection
c) Intersection
d) Radiation
12) Planimeter rests on
a) Anchor point
c) Wheel
b) Tracing point
d) All of these
13) For using Simpsons rule of area measurement the figure is divided into
a) Even number of strips
b) Odd number of strips
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
14) Irregular area of a closed figure may be computed by an instrument known as
a) Pantograph
b) Planimeter
c) Passometer
d) None of above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK13*
S
SLR-PK 13
-3-

SURVEYING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56
Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 is compulsory.

Answer any two questions out of Q. No. 3, 4, 5.
Make suitable assumptions if required but mention it
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) A dumpy level was set up exactly mid-way between two pegs A and B, 60 m
apart. The readings on staff when held on the peg A and B were 1.975 and 1.890
respectively. The instrument was then moved and set up 12 m from peg A. The
respective staff readings on A and B were 1.730 and 1.660. Calculate the staff
reading on A and B to give line of collimation exact horizontal.
6
b) Define :
i) Line of collimation
ii) Axis of telescope
iii) Axis of bubble tube and
iv) Vertical axis
4
3. a) The table below gives the lengths and bearings of the lines of a traverse
ABCDEA. Calculate the latitude, departure, closing error.
Line
Length (m)
Reduced Bearing
AB
362.55
N 33
BC
218.00
N 39
CD
163.22
S 10
DE
195.95
S 66
W
&

E
E

W
EA
278.53
S 32
b) How can the height of tower be determined when it is accessible in
trigonometric levelling ?
Set P
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
-4-
4. a) A closed traverse was conducted round an obstacle and the following

observations were made. Work out the missing quantities :
Line
Length (m)
WCB
AB
335
181
BC
?
90
CD
408
357
DE
828
?
b) Describe how you would measure vertical angle.
&
5. a) What is Box Sextant ? Explain in detail working of it.

b) Write a short note on :
i) Ghat Tracer
ii) Abney level
5
4
SECTION II
6. a) Explain in detail Modulation and Methods of modulation.
b) Explain the construction and working of Tellurometer.
4
6
7. a) Define :
i) Principle of plane table surveying.
ii) Orientation.
iii) Telescopic alidade (sketch and working)
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of plane tabling ?
8. a) Define :
i) Contour interval
ii) Horizontal Equivalent
iii) What is object of preparing contour map ?
b) Explain characteristics of contour lines with neat sketch.
9. a) The following offsets were taken from a chain line to a hedge at Regular
intervals of 5 m.
Offsets (m) : 2.72, 3.46, 5.23, 6.80, 4.86, 3.35, 3.00, 2.50, 1.60
Determine the area included between the chain line and hedge by
i) Mid-ordinate rule
ii) Average ordinate rule
iii) Trapezoidal rule
b) Draw neat sketch of planimeter (Mechanical) and state its various parts.
_____________________
5
4
Set P
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
S
Set
t

SURVEYING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

compulsory.

a) Horizontal angle
c) Magnetic bearing
Marks : 14
(141=14)
b) Vertical angle
d) All of these

propagation of
b) Radio wave
c) Both
d) None of these
c) Stake out
d) All of these
called
a) Traversing
b) Resection
c) Intersection
d) Radiation
a) Anchor point
b) Tracing point
c) Wheel
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 13
-2-
*SLRPK13*
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Pantograph
b) Planimeter
c) Passometer
d) None of above
c) auto level
d) all the above
a) horizontal plane
b) vertical plane
d) inclined plane
a) 0.0112 m
b) 0.0785 m
c) 11.2 m
d) 0.0112 km
a) 3
b) 12
c) 18
d) 20
a) Swinging
b) Transiting
c) Face left
d) Face right
a) Included angle
b) Magnetic bearing
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK13*
S
SLR-PK 13
-3-

SURVEYING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

clearly.
SECTION I
6
b) Define :
iv) Vertical axis
4
Line
Length (m)
Reduced Bearing
AB
362.55
N 33
BC
218.00
N 39
CD
163.22
S 10
DE
195.95
S 66
W
&

E
E

W
EA
278.53
S 32
Set Q
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
-4-

Line
Length (m)
WCB
AB
335
181
BC
?
90
CD
408
357
DE
828
?
&

i) Ghat Tracer
ii) Abney level
5
4
SECTION II
4
6
7. a) Define :
ii) Orientation.
8. a) Define :
i) Contour interval
intervals of 5 m.
Offsets (m) : 2.72, 3.46, 5.23, 6.80, 4.86, 3.35, 3.00, 2.50, 1.60
_____________________
5
4
Set Q
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
S
Set
t

SURVEYING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

compulsory.
Marks : 14
(141=14)
1) True bearing of a line is 15 and the magnetic declination at the place is 3 W. Its
magnetic bearing is
a) 3
b) 12
c) 18
d) 20
a) Swinging
b) Transiting
c) Face left
d) Face right
a) Included angle
b) Magnetic bearing
d) None of these
a) Horizontal angle
c) Magnetic bearing
b) Vertical angle
d) All of these

propagation of
b) Radio wave
c) Both
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
-2-

c) Stake out
d) All of these
called
a) Traversing
b) Resection
c) Intersection
d) Radiation
a) Anchor point
c) Wheel
b) Tracing point
d) All of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Pantograph
b) Planimeter
c) Passometer
d) None of above
c) auto level
d) all the above
a) horizontal plane
b) vertical plane
d) inclined plane
a) 0.0112 m
b) 0.0785 m
c) 11.2 m
d) 0.0112 km
______________
Set R
*SLRPK13*
S
SLR-PK 13
-3-

SURVEYING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

clearly.
SECTION I
6
b) Define :
iv) Vertical axis
4
Line
Length (m)
Reduced Bearing
AB
362.55
N 33
BC
218.00
N 39
CD
163.22
S 10
DE
195.95
S 66
W
&

E
E

W
EA
278.53
S 32
Set R
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
-4-

Line
Length (m)
WCB
AB
335
181
BC
?
90
CD
408
357
DE
828
?
&

i) Ghat Tracer
ii) Abney level
5
4
SECTION II
4
6
7. a) Define :
ii) Orientation.
8. a) Define :
i) Contour interval
intervals of 5 m.
Offsets (m) : 2.72, 3.46, 5.23, 6.80, 4.86, 3.35, 3.00, 2.50, 1.60
_____________________
5
4
Set R
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
S
Set
t

SURVEYING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

compulsory.
Marks : 14
(141=14)

c) Stake out
d) All of these
called
a) Traversing
b) Resection
c) Intersection
d) Radiation
a) Anchor point
c) Wheel
b) Tracing point
d) All of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Pantograph
b) Planimeter
c) Passometer
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 13
-2-
*SLRPK13*

c) auto level
d) all the above
a) horizontal plane
b) vertical plane
d) inclined plane
a) 0.0112 m
b) 0.0785 m
c) 11.2 m
d) 0.0112 km
a) 3
b) 12
c) 18
d) 20
a) Swinging
b) Transiting
c) Face left
d) Face right
a) Included angle
b) Magnetic bearing
d) None of these
a) Horizontal angle
b) Vertical angle
c) Magnetic bearing
d) All of these
propagation of
b) Radio wave
c) Both
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK13*
S
SLR-PK 13
-3-

SURVEYING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

clearly.
SECTION I
6
b) Define :
iv) Vertical axis
4
Line
Length (m)
Reduced Bearing
AB
362.55
N 33
BC
218.00
N 39
CD
163.22
S 10
DE
195.95
S 66
W
&

E
E

W
EA
278.53
S 32
Set S
SLR-PK 13
*SLRPK13*
-4-

Line
Length (m)
WCB
AB
335
181
BC
?
90
CD
408
357
DE
828
?
&

i) Ghat Tracer
ii) Abney level
5
4
SECTION II
4
6
7. a) Define :
ii) Orientation.
8. a) Define :
i) Contour interval
intervals of 5 m.
Offsets (m) : 2.72, 3.46, 5.23, 6.80, 4.86, 3.35, 3.00, 2.50, 1.60
_____________________
5
4
Set S
SLR-PK 14
*SLRPK14*
S
Set
t

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Section I to be written in answer book.

2) Section II to be drawn on half imperial drawing sheet.
Use both sides of the sheet.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
5) Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet.
Marks : 14
1. State whether following statements are True or False.

1) PCC means Plain Concrete Cement.
2) Modular brick is also called as IS brick.
3) Framed structure and load bearing structure are types of building based on
material used for construction.
4) Isolated footing is type of open footing.
5) Combined footing is provided for single column.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 14
-2-
*SLRPK14*
6) Through stone is stone stretcher.

7) If modular brick is cut along width in half then it is called as half bat.
8) Thickness of stretcher bond is more than header bond.
9) Holdfast are fixed on door shutters.
10) Pip window is provided on window shutters.
11) Winders can provided in staircase of public buildings.
12) Semicircular arch is one centered arch.
13) Skirting is provided to window sill.
14) A.G.I. sheet is lighter in weight than an A.C. sheet.
______________
Set P
*SLRPK14*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 14

Time :3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Section I to be written in answer book.
5) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any seven questions :
a) Write detailed requirements of good building stone.
b) Write a note on :
i) damp prevention
ii) ventilation of building
c) Draw proportionate isometric view of :
i) Standard Brick
ii) Queen Closure
iii) King Closure
iv) Quarter Queen Closure
(74=28)
d) Define foundation. Draw plan and section of any two types of foundation.
e) Compare stone masonry with BBM.
f) Design and draw a plan of spiral staircase to climb a height of 3 m. Steps are
fixed on central steel pole of diameter 10 cm.
g) Enlist types of brick bonds. Draw plan of stretcher bond and header bond for
alternate courses.
h) Write requirements of good staircase. Draw sketch of dog-legged staircase.
i) Enlist types of sloping roof. Draw isometric view of any 4 types.
j) Explain step-by-step procedure of providing BB Coba terrace water-proofing.
Set P
SLR-PK 14
-4-
*SLRPK14*
SECTION II
3. A) Draw to a scale of 1 : 10, detailed section, front elevation and sectional elevation
of framed T.W. double leaf, half Paneled and half glazed window. Use following
data (All dimensions are in mm)
14
a) Clear operating = 1200 1200
b) Wood section for frame = 100 60
c) Wood section for styles and rails = 100 40
d) Glass = 5 mm thick at top-side of shutter
e) Panel = 20 mm thick plywood
f) Show various fixtures at proper location.
OR
Draw to a scale of 1 : 10, detailed section, front elevation and sectional
elevation of framed T.W. single leaf, half paneled and half glazed window for
clear opening of size 800 mm 1000 mm. Glazed panel is divided into four
parts by providing sash bar of size 20 mm 20 mm. Use above data.
B) Design and draw to scale 1 : 30, plan and vertical section for Dog-legged R.C.C.
Stair for a residential building. Use following data
14
1) Storey height = 3000 mm
2) Width of flight = 1000 mm
3) Railing = 25 mm thick RCC Pardi
4) Reinforcement details not necessary
5) Write step by step calculation on sheet with pencil only.
OR
Design and draw to scale 1 : 30, plan and vertical section for double flight
straight R.C.C. Stair for a shopping complex. Use following data :
1) Height to be climbed = 3300 mm
3) Landing is roof slab of square room of size 2000 mm
4) Railing = 80 mm S.S. pipe railing
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 14
*SLRPK14*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

clearly.
Marks : 14

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 14
-2-
*SLRPK14*

______________
Set Q
*SLRPK14*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 14

Time :3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
i) damp prevention
i) Standard Brick
ii) Queen Closure
iii) King Closure
(74=28)
alternate courses.
Set Q
SLR-PK 14
-4-
*SLRPK14*
SECTION II
14
OR
14
OR
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 14
*SLRPK14*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

clearly.
Marks : 14

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 14
-2-
*SLRPK14*

______________
Set R
*SLRPK14*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 14

Time :3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
i) damp prevention
i) Standard Brick
ii) Queen Closure
iii) King Closure
(74=28)
alternate courses.
Set R
SLR-PK 14
-4-
*SLRPK14*
SECTION II
14
OR
14
OR
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 14
*SLRPK14*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

clearly.
Marks : 14

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 14
-2-
*SLRPK14*

______________
Set S
*SLRPK14*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 14

Time :3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
i) damp prevention
i) Standard Brick
ii) Queen Closure
iii) King Closure
(74=28)
alternate courses.
Set S
SLR-PK 14
-4-
*SLRPK14*
SECTION II
14
OR
14
OR
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
S
Set
t

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m
Max. Marks : 70

3) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory. Solve any two questions
from Q. 3 to Q. 5 and from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
5) Assume correct data, wherever necessary.
6) Use of non-programmable calculator is permitted.

1) The path followed by fluid particle in motion is called
a) Stream line
b) Path line
c) Streak line
Marks : 14
(141=14)
2) The flow in a river during the period of heavy rainfall is

a) Steady, non-uniform and 3-dimensional
b) Steady, uniform, 2-dimensional
c) Unsteady, uniform, 3-dimensional
d) Unsteady, non-uniform and 3-dimensional
3) In a steady flow the velocity
a) Does not change from place to place
b) At a given point does not change with time
c) May change its direction but magnitude remains unchanged
4) A floating body is in stable equilibrium when
a) The meta center is below its centre of gravity
b) The meta center is above its centre of gravity
c) The meta centric height is zero
d) Its centre of gravity is below the centre of buoyancy
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
-2-
5) The intensity of pressure P is related to specific weight w of liquid and

vertical depth, h of point by the equation
a) P = wh
b) h = Pw
c) P = wh2
d) P = wh3
6) Piezometer measures __________ pressure only.
a) Absolute
b) Gauge
c) Atmospheric
d) None of these
7) The pressure of a liquid on a surface will always act __________ to the

surface.
a) Parallel
b) Normal
c) 45
d) 60
8) Momentum thickness is given by

a)
b)
c)
7
7

9) Loss of head at entrance to a pipe is given as

a)
b)
L
c)
d)
v
10) Due to which of the following phenomena water hammer is caused

a) Incompressibility of liquid
b) Sudden opening of valve in a pipeline
c) The material of pipe being elastic
d) Sudden closure (partial or complete) of a valve in pipe flow
11) Loss of head due to sudden enlargement is given as
!
a)

b)
c)
d)

12) Darcy-Weisbach equation is used to find loss of head due to

a) Sudden enlargement
b) Sudden contraction
c) Friction
13) The flow is said to be turbulent when Reynolds number is
a) < 1000
b) = 2000
c) > 4000
d) Between 1000 to 4000
14) Coefficient of contraction (cc) is equal to
a)
b)
c) a
ac
d)
a
______________
Set P
*SLRPK15*
S
SLR-PK 15
-3-

FLUID MECHANICS I
Day and Date : Fridya, 29-4-2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory. Solve any two questions

SECTION I
2. a) Define :
i) Viscosity
iii) Surface tension
ii) Capillarity
iv) Vapour pressure
b) Calculate the viscosity of a liquid having kinematic viscosity 6 stokes and

specific gravity 1.9.
3. a) State and prove Pascals law.
b) The right limb of a simple U-tube manometer containing mercury is open to

the atmosphere. While the left limb is connected to a pipe in which a fluid of
sp. gr. 0.9 is flowing. The centre of pipe is 12 cm below the level of mercury
in the right limb. Find the pressure of fluid in the pipe if difference of mercury
level in two limbs is 20 cm.
4. a) Derive an expression for the depth of centre of pressure from free surface of
liquid of an inclined plane surface submerged in the fluid.
b) State and explain conditions of stability of a submerged body.
6
3
5. a) Define :
i) Stream line
ii) Rotational flow
iii) Uniform flow
b) The stream function for a 2-dimensional flow is given by
3
, calculate
the velocity at point P(2, 3). Find the velocity potential function .
6
Set P
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
-4-
SECTION II
6. a) Derive an expression for actual discharge through venturimeter. Draw a neat
sketch.
b) A 300 mm 150 mm venturimeter is provided in a vertical pipeline carrying

oil of specific gravity 0.9, flow being upward. The difference in elevation of the
throat section and entrance section of the venturimeter is 300 mm.The
differential U-tube mercury manometer shows a gauge deflection of 250 mm.
Calculate :
i) The discharge of oil and
ii) The difference between the entrance section and the throat section
Take the coefficient of meter as 0.98 and specific gravity of mercury as 13.6.
7. a) Using Hagen Poiselles equation obtain the expression for friction factor in terms
of Reynolds number.
6
b) What do you understand by Hydrodynamically smooth and rough boundaries ?
8. a) Define hydraulic gradient line and total energy line. Draw neat sketches.
b) Calculate discharge in each pipe of the network by Hardy cross method.

If hf = rQ2.
9. a) Explain the concept of equivalent length and equivalent diameter of pipe.
b) Obtain the values of
and
for the laminar boundary layer on flat plate, for
which the velocity distribution is

K
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
S
Set
t

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a)
b)
c)
7
7


a)
b)
L
c)
d)
v

!
a)

b)
c)
d)
C
C
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
-2-

c) Friction
a) < 1000
b) = 2000
c) > 4000
a)
b)
c) a
ac
d)
a

a) Stream line
b) Path line
c) Streak line
a) P = wh
b) h = Pw
c) P = wh2
d) P = wh3
a) Absolute
b) Gauge
c) Atmospheric d) None of these
surface.
a) Parallel
b) Normal
c) 45
d) 60
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK15*
S
SLR-PK 15
-3-

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. a) Define :
i) Viscosity
ii) Capillarity
iv) Vapour pressure


6
3
5. a) Define :
i) Stream line
ii) Rotational flow
iii) Uniform flow
3
, calculate
6
Set Q
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
-4-
SECTION II
sketch.

Calculate :
of Reynolds number.
6

If hf = rQ2.
and

K
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
S
Set
t

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

(141=14)
d) P = wh3
a) P = wh
b) h = Pw
c) P = wh2
a) Absolute
b) Gauge
c) Atmospheric
d) None of these

surface.
a) Parallel
b) Normal
c) 45
d) 60
a)
b)
c)
7
7


a)
b)
L
c)
d)
v
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
-2-

!
a)

b)
c)
d)


c) Friction
a) < 1000
b) = 2000
c) > 4000
a)
b)
c) a
ac
d)
a

a) Stream line
b) Path line
c) Streak line
______________
Set R
*SLRPK15*
S
SLR-PK 15
-3-

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. a) Define :
i) Viscosity
ii) Capillarity
iv) Vapour pressure


6
3
5. a) Define :
i) Stream line
ii) Rotational flow
iii) Uniform flow
3
, calculate
6
Set R
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
-4-
SECTION II
sketch.

Calculate :
of Reynolds number.
6

If hf = rQ2.
and

K
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
S
Set
t

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

(141=14)

!
a)

b)
c)
d)
C
C


c) Friction
a) < 1000
b) = 2000
c) > 4000
a)
b)
c) a
ac
d)
a
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
-2-

a) Stream line
b) Path line
c) Streak line
a) P = wh
b) h = Pw
c) P = wh2
d) P = wh3
a) Absolute
b) Gauge
c) Atmospheric d) None of these
surface.
a) Parallel
b) Normal
c) 45
d) 60
a)
b)
c)
7
7


a)
b)
L
c)
d)
v
______________
Set S
*SLRPK15*
S
SLR-PK 15
-3-

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. a) Define :
i) Viscosity
ii) Capillarity
iv) Vapour pressure


6
3
5. a) Define :
i) Stream line
ii) Rotational flow
iii) Uniform flow
3
, calculate
6
Set S
SLR-PK 15
*SLRPK15*
-4-
SECTION II
sketch.

Calculate :
of Reynolds number.
6

If hf = rQ2.
and

K
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 16
*SLRPK16*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Day and Date : Saturday, 30-4-2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Question number 01, 02 and 06 is compulsory.

2) Attempts any two questions from Q. No. 03 to 05 and
Q. No 07 to 09.
3) Draw neat and labeled diagram wherever necessary.
Marks : 14
14
1) The directed pressure plays predominant role in ____________ metamorphic

rocks.
a) Dynamo thermal
b) Thermal
c) Contact
d) Cataclastic
2) The rapid cooling of lava form___________texture.
a) Porphyritic
b) Coarse grain c) Glassy
d) Ophitic
3) Wavy undulations in the rock beds are called ___________

a) Unconformity b) Joints
c) Fault
d) Fold
4) The rock block present above the fault plane is called ___________
a) Foot wall
b) Hanging wall c) Heave
d) Throw
5) The hardness of Apatite mineral is ___________
a) One
b) Five
c) Six
d) Nine
6) Himalaya is ___________ type of mountain.

a) Relict
b) Volcanic
c) Fold
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 16
-2-
7) The radius of the earth is___________ kms.

a) 6371 km
b) 7163 km
c) 7613 km
*SLRPK16*
d) 631 km
8) A line joining points of equal intensity of an earthquake is termed as__________

a) Epicentral line
b) Isobash
c) Isoseismal line
d) Isochore
9) The slopping sides of a river valley upon which the sides of dam are keyed,
are called ___________
a) Abutment
b) Axis of dam c) Toe
d) Heel
10) Sound foundation rock is required for the construction of___________
a) Gravity dam
b) Arch dam
c) Buttress dam
d) Earth dam
11) In a multispan bridge piller like supports are constructed between the abutment
a) Piers
b) Span
c) Deck
d) None of these
12) Detached blocks of bed rock moves down the hill, it is called___________
a) Slump
b) Rock slide
c) Rock fall
d) Rock creep
13) The lining of a pressure tunnel is subjected to ___________
a) Internal hydrostatic pressure
b) External rock pressure
c) External hydraulic pressure
d) All of these
14) Pore spaces of the rock are partly filled with water and partly with air is
called ___________
a) Capillary fringe
b) Zone of saturation
c) Zone of aeration
d) Perched zone
______________
Set P
*SLRPK16*
-3-
SLR-PK 16
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

Q. No 07 to 09.
SECTION I
2. Write short notes any five :
10
1) Define rock
2) Core of earth
3) Pot holes
4) Define volcano
5) Laterite
6) Overlap.
3. a) Explain division of rocks.
b) Explain solid product of volcano.
4. a) Explain pyroxene group of mineral.
b) Explain Fold Mountain with example.

5. a) What is fault ? Explain any two types of fault.
b) Explain any two igneous structures.
4
5
4
Set P
SLR-PK 16
-4-
*SLRPK16*
SECTION II
10
1) What is perched water table ?

2) What is the use of seismograph ?
3) What is earthflow in landslide ?
4) What is core recovery ?
5) Arch bridge.
6) Tunnel lining.
7. a) Explain preventions of landslide.
b) Explain any two engineering properties of rock.
8. a) Explain requirements of good reservoir site.
5
4
5
b) Explain dam on folded strata.
9. a) Explain difficulties in tunneling.
b) Explain beam and suspension bridge.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 16
*SLRPK16*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Q. No 07 to 09.
Marks : 14
14

a) Epicentral line
b) Isobash
c) Isoseismal line
d) Isochore
a) Abutment
d) Heel
a) Gravity dam
b) Arch dam
c) Buttress dam
d) Earth dam
a) Piers
b) Span
c) Deck
d) None of these
a) Slump
b) Rock slide
c) Rock fall
d) Rock creep
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 16
*SLRPK16*
-2-

d) All of these
called ___________
a) Capillary fringe
c) Zone of aeration
d) Perched zone
rocks.
a) Dynamo thermal
b) Thermal
c) Contact
d) Cataclastic
a) Porphyritic
d) Ophitic

c) Fault
d) Fold
a) Foot wall
d) Throw
a) One
b) Five
c) Six
d) Nine

a) Relict
b) Volcanic
c) Fold
a) 6371 km
b) 7163 km
c) 7613 km
d) 631 km
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK16*
-3-
SLR-PK 16
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

Q. No 07 to 09.
SECTION I
10
1) Define rock
2) Core of earth
3) Pot holes
4) Define volcano
5) Laterite
6) Overlap.

4
5
4
Set Q
SLR-PK 16
-4-
*SLRPK16*
SECTION II
10

5) Arch bridge.
6) Tunnel lining.
5
4
5
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 16
*SLRPK16*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Q. No 07 to 09.
Marks : 14

a) One
b) Five
c) Six
14
d) Nine

a) Relict
b) Volcanic
c) Fold
a) 6371 km
b) 7163 km
c) 7613 km
d) 631 km

a) Epicentral line
b) Isobash
c) Isoseismal line
d) Isochore
a) Abutment
d) Heel
a) Gravity dam
b) Arch dam
c) Buttress dam
d) Earth dam
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 16
-2-
*SLRPK16*
a) Piers
b) Span
c) Deck
d) None of these
a) Slump
b) Rock slide
c) Rock fall
d) Rock creep
d) All of these
called ___________
a) Capillary fringe
c) Zone of aeration
d) Perched zone
rocks.
a) Dynamo thermal
b) Thermal
c) Contact
d) Cataclastic
a) Porphyritic
d) Ophitic

c) Fault
d) Fold
a) Foot wall
d) Throw
______________
Set R
*SLRPK16*
-3-
SLR-PK 16
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

Q. No 07 to 09.
SECTION I
10
1) Define rock
2) Core of earth
3) Pot holes
4) Define volcano
5) Laterite
6) Overlap.

4
5
4
Set R
SLR-PK 16
-4-
*SLRPK16*
SECTION II
10

5) Arch bridge.
6) Tunnel lining.
5
4
5
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 16
*SLRPK16*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Q. No 07 to 09.
Marks : 14
14

a) Gravity dam
b) Arch dam
c) Buttress dam
d) Earth dam
a) Piers
b) Span
c) Deck
d) None of these
a) Slump
b) Rock slide
c) Rock fall
d) Rock creep
d) All of these
called ___________
a) Capillary fringe
c) Zone of aeration
d) Perched zone
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 16
*SLRPK16*
-2-

rocks.
a) Dynamo thermal
b) Thermal
c) Contact
d) Cataclastic
a) Porphyritic
d) Ophitic

c) Fault
d) Fold
a) Foot wall
d) Throw
a) One
b) Five
c) Six
d) Nine

a) Relict
b) Volcanic
c) Fold
a) 6371 km
b) 7163 km
c) 7613 km
d) 631 km

a) Epicentral line
b) Isobash
c) Isoseismal line
d) Isochore
a) Abutment
d) Heel
______________
Set S
*SLRPK16*
-3-
SLR-PK 16
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

Q. No 07 to 09.
SECTION I
10
1) Define rock
2) Core of earth
3) Pot holes
4) Define volcano
5) Laterite
6) Overlap.

4
5
4
Set S
SLR-PK 16
-4-
*SLRPK16*
SECTION II
10

5) Arch bridge.
6) Tunnel lining.
5
4
5
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 17
*SLRPK17*
S
S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2016

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS II (New) (CGPA)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of
Page.
Marks : 14

14
1) Buckling of a long column occurs under
a) Axial load
b) Transverse load
c) Direct load
d) None
2) Principal planes do not carry
a) Normal stresses
b) Shear stresses
c) Bending stress
d) None of above
3) A long column with fixed ends can carry load ________ as compared to both
ends hinged.
a) 4 times
b) 8 times
c) 16 times
d) None
4) According to maximum principal stress theory, maximum principal stress is equal to
a) Allowable stress in tension
b) Allowable stress in compression
c) Allowable stress in shear
d) None
5) Maximum shear stress is equal to
a)
c)
b)
2
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 17
*SLRPK17*
-2-
6) Mohrs circle is a graphical method to find

a) Bending stresses
b) Bucking stresses
c) Maximum shear stresses
d) None
7) The equivalent bending moment under combined action of Bending Moment M
and Torque T is
a) M2 + T2
b) 1/2 (M2 + T2)
d) 1/2 (M + M2 + T2)
c) (M + M2 + T2)
8) Strain energy stored due to axial loading per unit volume of the member is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
9) Muller Breslaus principle is used to get

a) Influence line diagrams
b) Strain energy
c) Slope and deflection
d) Work done
10) A cantilever of span L, is subjected to external moment M at its free end. Slope at
the free end will be equal to
a) 2ML/EI
b) ML/2EI
c) ML/EI
d) EI/2M
11) Moment Area theorem is also known as
a) Newton-John theorem
b) Mohrs theorem
c) Mecaulays method
d) Castiglianos theorem
12) The deflection at any section of the given beam is equal to the _________ at the
corresponding section of the conjugate beam.
a) Axial force
b) Bending moment
c) Shear force
d) Twisting force
13) When the length of uniformly distributed loading is greater than the span of
beam, the absolute maximum bending moment occurs at the _____ of the span.
a) Centre
b) Left support
c) Right support
d) Quarter
14) Maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of span L, subjected to point
load W at center is equal to
b) WL3/12EI
a) WL3/4EI
c) WL3/16EI
d) WL3/48EI
______________
Set P
*SLRPK17*
S
SLR-PK 17
-3-

Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory, attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5
from Section I and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9 from Section II.
SECTION I
2. a) Differentiate between Rankines Theory and Eulers theory.
b) Using Eulers theory find the crippling load of a two hinged column of uniform
cross-section of diameter 300 mm and length 3.5 m. Hence find the safe load
the column can carry if E = 2105 N/mm2. Take factor of safety as 2.
3. Find the principal stresses if the bi-axial stress system at a point in a strained
material is
Find the position of
principal planes.
4. a) Define equivalent BM and equivalent Torque.
b) A solid circular shaft of diameter 120 mm carries B.M. and T.M. of magnitudes
35 KN-m and 25 KN-m respectively. Find the major principal stress induced
in the section. Where does it develop ?
5. a) Enlist different theories of Elastic Failure.
b) A Circular Bar is to withstand a bending Moment of 10 kN-m and torque of 25 kN-m.

Determine the dia of the bar if the yield stress of the material is 250 MPa and factor
of safety is 1.5. Use maximum shear stress theory and maximum principal
strain theory.
Set P
SLR-PK 17
-4-
*SLRPK17*
SECTION II
6. Find the deflection in horizontal and vertical direction at point A for the member
ABCD as shown in Fig.1. E = 200 kN/mm2. Use strain energy method.
10
Figure 1
7. A horizontal beam AB is simply supported at A and B, 6 m apart. The beam carries a
load of 10 kN on a bracket at C as shown in Fig.2. The bracket is at a distance of 4 m
from left end. If E = 200 kN/mm2 and I = 2107 mm4, determine deflection at
point C. Use Macaulays method.
Figure 2
8. Draw influence line diagrams for forces in following members of the through type
bridge truss shown in Fig.3. Each panel length = I1.
i) Top chord member U2-U3
ii) Vertical member U2-L2.
Figure 3
9. The load system as shown in Fig. 4, moves from left to right on a girder of
span 10 m. Find the absolute maximum bending moment for the girder.
Figure 4
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 17
*SLRPK17*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Page.
Marks : 14

14
a)
b)
c)
d)

b) Strain energy
d) Work done
a) 2ML/EI
b) ML/2EI
c) ML/EI
d) EI/2M
b) Mohrs theorem
c) Mecaulays method
a) Axial force
b) Bending moment
c) Shear force
d) Twisting force
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 17
*SLRPK17*
-2-
a) Centre
b) Left support
c) Right support
d) Quarter
a) WL3/4EI
b) WL3/12EI
d) WL3/48EI
c) WL3/16EI
a) Axial load
b) Transverse load
c) Direct load
d) None
a) Normal stresses
b) Shear stresses
c) Bending stress
d) None of above
ends hinged.
a) 4 times
b) 8 times
c) 16 times
d) None
d) None
a)
c)
b)
2
d) None

a) Bending stresses
b) Bucking stresses
d) None
and Torque T is
a) M2 + T2
b) 1/2 (M2 + T2)
d) 1/2 (M + M2 + T2)
c) (M + M2 + T2)
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK17*
S
SLR-PK 17
-3-

Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
material is
principal planes.

strain theory.
Set Q
SLR-PK 17
-4-
*SLRPK17*
SECTION II
10
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 17
*SLRPK17*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Page.
Marks : 14

a)
b)
2
c)
14
d) None
2

a) Bending stresses
b) Bucking stresses
d) None
and Torque T is
a) M2 + T2
b) 1/2 (M2 + T2)
c) (M + M2 + T2)
d) 1/2 (M + M2 + T2)
a)
b)
c)
d)

b) Strain energy
d) Work done
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 17
-2-
*SLRPK17*

a) 2ML/EI
b) ML/2EI
c) ML/EI
d) EI/2M
b) Mohrs theorem
c) Mecaulays method
a) Axial force
b) Bending moment
c) Shear force
d) Twisting force
a) Centre
b) Left support
c) Right support
d) Quarter
a) WL3/4EI
b) WL3/12EI
c) WL3/16EI
d) WL3/48EI
a) Axial load
b) Transverse load
c) Direct load
d) None
a) Normal stresses
b) Shear stresses
c) Bending stress
d) None of above
ends hinged.
a) 4 times
b) 8 times
c) 16 times
d) None
d) None
______________
Set R
*SLRPK17*
S
SLR-PK 17
-3-

Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
material is
principal planes.

strain theory.
Set R
SLR-PK 17
-4-
*SLRPK17*
SECTION II
10
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 17
*SLRPK17*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Page.
Marks : 14

14
a) 2ML/EI
b) ML/2EI
c) ML/EI
d) EI/2M
b) Mohrs theorem
c) Mecaulays method
a) Axial force
b) Bending moment
c) Shear force
d) Twisting force
a) Centre
b) Left support
c) Right support
d) Quarter
b) WL3/12EI
a) WL3/4EI
c) WL3/16EI
d) WL3/48EI
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 17
*SLRPK17*
-2-

a) Axial load
b) Transverse load
c) Direct load
d) None
a) Normal stresses
b) Shear stresses
c) Bending stress
d) None of above
ends hinged.
a) 4 times
b) 8 times
c) 16 times
d) None
d) None
a)
c)
b)
2
d) None
2

a) Bending stresses
b) Bucking stresses
d) None
and Torque T is
a) M2 + T2
b) 1/2 (M2 + T2)
d) 1/2 (M + M2 + T2)
c) (M + M2 + T2)
a)
b)
c)
d)

b) Strain energy
d) Work done
______________
Set S
*SLRPK17*
S
SLR-PK 17
-3-

Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
material is
principal planes.

strain theory.
Set S
SLR-PK 17
-4-
*SLRPK17*
SECTION II
10
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 18
*SLRPK18*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2016

SURVEYING II
Max. Marks :70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries 1 mark.

Marks : 14

1) The tacheometric method of contouring is particularly suitable
a) When a contour map of hill is required
b) When the area is not very extensive
c) In surveys of roads and railways
d) All of these
2) The angle by which the forward tangent deflects from the back tangents of a curve is
called
a) deflection angle
b) central angle
c) angle of intersection
d) none of these
3) The total length of curve is equal to
a) .R.
b)
.R.

90
c)
.R.

180
d)
.R.

360
4) A vertical curve is designed on the basis of the

a) radius of curve
b) minimum sight distance
c) change of gradient
d) none of these
5) The range measurements in GPS are made with
a) 3 L- band frequencies
b) 2C- band frequencies
c) 2L-band frequencies
d) 3C- band frequencies
6) The stadia diaphragm is provided for measuring
a) Elevation
b) Bearing
c) Horizontal distance
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 18
*SLRPK18*
-2-
7) An anallatic lens is provided to make the additive constant equal to

a) 100
b) 0
c) 90
d) 190
8) _________ and __________ are open source and free GIS software.
a) MapInfo, Arc GIS
b) OGIS, GRASS
c) MapInfo, QGIS
d) ArcGIS, QGIS
9) Objectives of GIS are
a) Maximize the efficiency of decision making and planning
b) Providing efficient means for data distribution and handling
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
10) The GPS is a network of following number of Navstar satellite
a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 24
11) The graphical elements of vector data structures are

a) point
b) arc
c) area
d) all of these
12) Which of the following is cant be achieved by remote sensing ?

a) Detection of forest fire
b) Detection of pollutants
c) Prevention of earthquakes
d) Land and crop use pattern
13) A passive sensor in RST uses which of the following sources of energy ?
a) Sun
b) Flashlight
c) Its ownsource
d) Moon
14) In a Route surveying the most suitable method of contouring is
a) by squares
b) by radial lines
c) by cross-sections
d) by tacheometer
______________
Set P
*SLRPK18*
SLR-PK 18
-3-
Seat
No.

SURVEYING II
Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

N.B. :
i) In Section I, Q. No. 2 and In Section II. Q. No. 9 is compulsory.

ii) Solve any two full questions from Q. No. 3 to Q. No. 5 in Section I
and Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 8 from Section II.
iii) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
iv) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any two (each 4 mark).
a) Write short note on substance bar.

b) Explain in brief compound curve and reverse curve.
c) What do you mean by absolute positioning and relative positioning in GPS ?
3. a) Write short note on Auto Reduction tacheometer.
b) The following observations were taken using a tacheometer fitted with an anallatic lens,
the staff being held vertically.
Inst. station
Height of
Axis
Stafff station
Vertical angle
Hair Readings
1.45
B.M.
0.98,1.54,2.100
1.45
1.57

6 12

+ 7 5

12 21
0.83,1.36,1.890
Remark
RL of BM =
384.25 m
1.890,2.480,3.070
Determine the distances PQ, QR and RLs of P, Q and R .

4. a) Derive an expression for an ideal transition curve.
b) Two tangents intersects at a chainage of 1000 m, the deflection angle being 30, Calculate
all the necessary data for setting out a circular curve of radius 200 m by the method of
offsets from the chord produced, taking a peg interval of 20 m.
Set P
SLR-PK 18
-4-
*SLRPK18*
5. a) Explain difference between relative positioning GPS and differential GPS.
b) Tabulate the data required for setting out a curve by the deflection angle method, consider
following information.
i) Angle of intersection = 145
ii) Chainage point of intersection = 1580 m
iii) Degree of curve = 5
iv) Least court of theodolite = 20
v) Peg interval = 30 m.
5
SECTION II
6. a) An object has an elevation of 400 m, above MSL, when the phtograph was taken to the
image of that point on the photograph is 4.86 cm, If the datum scale is 1/12000, and
focal length of camera is 24 cm. Determine the relief displacement of the point.
b) Write detailed note on Electromagnetic energy used for RST.
5
5
7. a) Describe briefly the following with respect to representation of geographical features.

i) point data
ii) Line data
iii) Axial data
b) What are the component subsystem of GIS ? Describe them briefly.

8. a) Explain project surveys carried out for culverts and Bridges.
b) Explain setting of project surveys for Building setout.
5
5
5
5
8
a) Explain in brief route surveying.

b) Explain raster and vector data structures.
c) Write detailed note on application of RST.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 18
*SLRPK18*
Seat
No.
Set

SURVEYING II
Max. Marks :70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Marks : 14

a) MapInfo, Arc GIS
b) OGIS, GRASS
c) MapInfo, QGIS
d) ArcGIS, QGIS

c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 24

a) point
b) arc
c) area
d) all of these


a) Sun
b) Flashlight
c) Its ownsource
d) Moon
a) by squares
b) by radial lines
d) by tacheometer
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 18
*SLRPK18*
-2-

d) All of these
called
a) deflection angle
b) central angle
d) none of these
a) .R.
b)
.R.

90
c)
.R.

180
d)
.R.

360

a) radius of curve
d) none of these
a) Elevation
b) Bearing
d) None of these
a) 100
b) 0
c) 90
d) 190
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK18*
SLR-PK 18
-3-
Seat
No.

SURVEYING II
Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

N.B. :

SECTION I

Inst. station
Height of
Axis
Stafff station
Vertical angle
Hair Readings
1.45
B.M.
0.98,1.54,2.100
1.45
1.57

6 12

+ 7 5

12 21
0.83,1.36,1.890
Remark
RL of BM =
384.25 m
1.890,2.480,3.070

Set Q
SLR-PK 18
-4-
*SLRPK18*
5
SECTION II
5
5

i) point data
ii) Line data
iii) Axial data

5
5
5
5
8

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 18
*SLRPK18*
Seat
No.
Set

SURVEYING II
Max. Marks :70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Marks : 14

a) Elevation
b) Bearing
d) None of these
a) 100
b) 0
c) 90
d) 190
a) MapInfo, Arc GIS
b) OGIS, GRASS
c) MapInfo, QGIS
d) ArcGIS, QGIS
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 24

a) point
b) arc
c) area
d) all of these

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 18
*SLRPK18*
-2-

a) Sun
b) Flashlight
c) Its ownsource
d) Moon
a) by squares
b) by radial lines
d) by tacheometer
d) All of these
called
a) deflection angle
b) central angle
d) none of these
a) .R.
b)
.R.

90
c)
.R.

180
d)
.R.

360

a) radius of curve
d) none of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK18*
SLR-PK 18
-3-
Seat
No.

SURVEYING II
Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

N.B. :

SECTION I

Inst. station
Height of
Axis
Stafff station
Vertical angle
Hair Readings
1.45
B.M.
0.98,1.54,2.100
1.45
1.57

6 12

+ 7 5

12 21
0.83,1.36,1.890
Remark
RL of BM =
384.25 m
1.890,2.480,3.070

Set R
SLR-PK 18
-4-
*SLRPK18*
5
SECTION II
5
5

i) point data
ii) Line data
iii) Axial data

5
5
5
5
8

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 18
*SLRPK18*
Seat
No.
Set

SURVEYING II
Max. Marks :70
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


Marks : 14

a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 24

a) point
b) arc
c) area
d) all of these

a) Sun
b) Flashlight
c) Its ownsource
d) Moon
a) by squares
b) by radial lines
d) by tacheometer
d) All of these
called
a) deflection angle
b) central angle
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 18
*SLRPK18*
-2-

a) .R.
b)
.R.

90
c)
.R.

180
d)
.R.

360

a) radius of curve
d) none of these
a) Elevation
b) Bearing
d) None of these
a) 100
b) 0
c) 90
d) 190
a) MapInfo, Arc GIS
b) OGIS, GRASS
c) MapInfo, QGIS
d) ArcGIS, QGIS
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK18*
SLR-PK 18
-3-
Seat
No.

SURVEYING II
Marks : 56
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

N.B. :

SECTION I

Inst. station
Height of
Axis
Stafff station
Vertical angle
Hair Readings
1.45
B.M.
0.98,1.54,2.100
1.45
1.57

6 12

+ 7 5

12 21
0.83,1.36,1.890
Remark
RL of BM =
384.25 m
1.890,2.480,3.070

Set S
SLR-PK 18
-4-
*SLRPK18*
5
SECTION II
5
5

i) point data
ii) Line data
iii) Axial data

5
5
5
5
8

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 19
*SKRPK19*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. Civil (Part II) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in the first 30 minutes

Marks : 14
1. Objective type question.

A) State whether following statements are correct or wrong. (Mention answer in
words as correct or wrong only.
(17=7)
1) The detached building means at least one wall is common.

2) The built up covered area measured at the floor level of the basement or
of any storey is called plinth area.
3) For the row type of building the minimum plot size less than 200 sq.m.
should be 60 percent ground coverage.
4) The height of all rooms for human habitation shall not be less than 2.75 m
measured from the surface of floor to lower point of ceiling.
5) The height of kitchen should be 2.75 m from floor to lower point of ceiling.
6) For the row type of building the minimum plot size should be 50 sq.m. 125 sq.m.
7) The area of a both room shall not be less than 1.8 sq.m.
B) MCQ type (mention answer in words only).
(17=7)
1) __________ refers to the effect produced by deriving the maximum benefit

from the minimum dimensions of a room.
a) Prospect
b) Roominess
c) Grouping
d) Flexibility
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 19
-2-
*SKRPK19*
2) In building permission process _________ is the last certificate issued by

municipal corporation sanctioning authority.
a) Occupancy certificate
b) Commencement certificate
c) Plinth checking certificate
d) Completion certificate
3) Completion certificate is issued
a) From municipal corporation to the architect
b) From municipal corporation to the owner
c) From architect to the municipal corporation
d) From architect to the owner
4) Building bye laws are laid
a) To prevent haphazard growth of city
b) To avoid air and noise pollution
c) To ensure proper light, ventilation, parking etc.
d) All of the above
5) In a residential building toilet and WC require minimum _________ air
change per hour.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
6) The liquid waste from kitchen, bathroom and wash basin etc is carried by
_________ pipe.
a) Waste pipe
b) Soil pipe
c) Vent pipe
d) Other
7) Dryer reduces the ________ of the paint.
a) Thickness
b) Elasticity
c) Spread
d) Workability
______________
Set P
*SKRPK19*
-3-
SLR-PK 19
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Figure on right indicate full marks.

2) All the question in Section I and Section II are compulsory.
3) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
4) Use answer book for Section II.
5) Use both sides of full imperial drawing sheet for Section I.
SECTION I
2. Design and draw a detailed floor plan of a single storied residential bungalow of
framed structure with following requirement.
1) Living room
15 sq.m. to 20 sq.m.
2) Kitchen
3) Bed room
9 sq.m. to 12 sq.m.
28
4) Master bed room 12 sq.m. to 16 sq.m.

5) W.C. and bath room of suitable dimension.
6) Assume and provide other essentials circulation area.
Draw to scale 1:50 mention dimensions.
1) Detailed plan
16
2) Standard section.
12
Set P
SLR-PK 19
-4-
*SKRPK19*
SECTION II
3. Attempt any four of the following :
(47=28)
1) Explain in brief with neat sketch Aspect and Circulation as principles of

planning.
2) Write a note on building bye laws of marginal open spaces, stair case and
projection in margin open spaces.
3) Write a note on modular planning.
4) Enlist all types of pointing and explain any four with sketches.
5) Explain in details defects in plasters.
6) Write a short note on Types of Paints.
Set P
SLR-PK 19
*SKRPK19*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14

(17=7)
(17=7)

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 19
*SKRPK19*
-2-

d) All of the above
change per hour.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
_________ pipe.
a) Waste pipe
b) Soil pipe
c) Vent pipe
d) Other
a) Thickness
b) Elasticity
c) Spread
d) Workability

a) Prospect
b) Roominess
c) Grouping
d) Flexibility
______________
Set Q
*SKRPK19*
-3-
SLR-PK 19
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
1) Living room
2) Kitchen
3) Bed room
9 sq.m. to 12 sq.m.
28

1) Detailed plan
16
12
Set Q
SLR-PK 19
-4-
*SKRPK19*
SECTION II
(47=28)

planning.
Set Q
SLR-PK 19
*SKRPK19*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14

(17=7)
(17=7)

change per hour.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 19
*SKRPK19*
-2-
_________ pipe.
a) Waste pipe
b) Soil pipe
c) Vent pipe
d) Other
a) Thickness
b) Elasticity
c) Spread
d) Workability

a) Prospect
b) Roominess
c) Grouping
d) Flexibility
d) All of the above
______________
Set R
*SKRPK19*
-3-
SLR-PK 19
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
1) Living room
2) Kitchen
3) Bed room
9 sq.m. to 12 sq.m.
28

1) Detailed plan
16
12
Set R
SLR-PK 19
-4-
*SKRPK19*
SECTION II
(47=28)

planning.
Set R
SLR-PK 19
*SKRPK19*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14

(17=7)
(17=7)

a) Thickness
b) Elasticity
c) Spread
d) Workability
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 19
-2-
*SKRPK19*

3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
a) Prospect
b) Roominess
c) Grouping
d) Flexibility
In building permission process _________ is the last certificate issued by
Completion certificate is issued
Building bye laws are laid
d) All of the above
In a residential building toilet and WC require minimum _________ air
change per hour.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
The liquid waste from kitchen, bathroom and wash basin etc is carried by
_________ pipe.
a) Waste pipe
b) Soil pipe
c) Vent pipe
d) Other
______________
Set S
*SKRPK19*
-3-
SLR-PK 19
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
1) Living room
2) Kitchen
3) Bed room
9 sq.m. to 12 sq.m.
28

1) Detailed plan
16
12
Set S
SLR-PK 19
-4-
*SKRPK19*
SECTION II
(47=28)

planning.
Set S
*SLRPK20*
SLR-PK 20S
-1-
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

FLUID MECHANICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) All questions from Section I are compulsory.

2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
3) Question No. 5 from Section II is compulsory and
solve any one question from Q. No. 6 and 7.
4) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3.
Top of Page.
Marks : 14

1) For most economical channel section a wetted perimeter must be
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Average
d) None
2) If the Froudes number is 6.5 then the jump is named as
a) Oscillating
b) Undular
c) Weak
d) Steady
3) In a hydraulic jump, energy loss is expressed as
a) (y 2 y1 )2 4y1y 2
b) (y 2 y1 )3 4y1y 2
c) (y 2 y 1 ) 4 y1y 2
d)
14
1
y 2 y 1 4 y 1y 2
4) An error of 1% in measurement of H will produce error in measurement of

dischrage [Q] over a rectangular notch
a) 1%
b) 1.5%
c) 2%
d) 2.5%
P.T.O.
Set P
SLR-PK 20
-2-
*SLRPK20*
5) Best side slope for most economical trapezoidal section is m =

a) 1 2
b) 1 4
c) 1 5
d) 1 3
6) Hydraulic jump is phenomenon of
a) GVF
b) RVF
c) Rotational flow
d) Irrotational flow
7) The force exerted by a jet of water on a stationary vertical plate in the
direction of motion of plate is given by
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
1
1
a) aV
b) aV 2
c) a 2 V
d) aV 3
The effective (or net) head at the turbine is
1
a) The sum of gross head plus head loss in penstock and the velocity head at
the turbine is exit
b) The difference between gross head minus the head loss in penstock
c) The difference between the gross head minus head loss in penstock and
velocity head at the turbine exit
d) The sum of gross head plus the head loss in penstock
Which of the following statements is a definition of the hydraulic efficiency of
the turbine ?
1
a) The ratio of power available at the shaft to that supplied to it by runner
b) The ratio of the power supplied by the runner to the power available at the
shaft
c) The ratio of power utilized by runner to that supplied by the water at entry to
the turbine
d) The ratio of power supplied by water at entry to the power utilized by runner
The power which appears in the expression for the specific speed is the
1
a) Shaft power
b) Water power
c) Power in to the turbine
Which of the following types of impeller is used for centrifugal pumps dealing
with muds ?
1
a) One-side shrouded
b) Two-side shrouded
c) Double section
d) Open
A centrifugal pump should be so installed above the water level in the sump
such that
1
a) The negative pressures are not allowed to develop in the impeller
b) The negative pressures do not reach as low a valve as the vapour pressure
c) Its height is more than 10.28 m at ordinary temperature of liquid
__________ is the ratio of the inertia force to the viscous force.
1
a) Froudes number
b) Reynolds number
c) Webers number
d) Machs number
Set P
______________
*SLRPK20*
-3-
SLR-PK 20S
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

2) Draw neat sketch wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Derive the expression for energy loss through hydraulic jump.
b) A rectangular channel carrying a discharge of 30 m3/sec having width 10 meters

and bed slope 1 in 5625 and Mannings n = 0.021. At a particular section the
depth of flow is 1.6 m. Determine how far upstream or downstream of this
section the depth of flow will be 2.0 meters. Use step method take one
step only.
c) Draw neat sketch of M2 and S1 water surface profile.

a) Derive the expression for discharge through rectangular notch with considering
velocity of approach.
b) In a rectangular channel a discharge of 1.0 m3/sec per meter width flows with
Froudes number 5, calculate the power lost per meter width of the channel
due to the jump.
c) A sharp crested rectangular weir of 1.0 meter height extends across a

rectangular channel of 3.0 m width. If the head of water over the weir is
0.50 m, calculate the rate of flow considering velocity of approach.
Take cd = 0.62.
4. a) Derive the expression for gradually varied flow. State the assumption made
for it.
b) Give the uses of hydraulic jump.

OR
Classify the hydraulic jump on the basis of Froudes number.
Set P
SLR-PK 20
-4-
*SLRPK20*
SECTION II
5. a) Derive an expression for the force exerted by the jet of water on a stationary
flat plate.
b) Determine the form of equation by Buckinghm method for the discharge Q

through triangular notch that depends upon the head over the crest H,
acceleration due to gravity, central angle and velocity of approach V.
6. a) How does centrifugal pump works ? Write an expression to calculate work

done by Impeller on the liquid.
b) Explain in detail multistage centrifugal pump.
7. a) Differentiate between Model and Prototype. Explain distorted and undistorted

model.
b) A pelton wheel is to be designed for following data :

Shaft power = 11,772 kW, Head = 400 m, Speed = 700 rpm,
Overall efficiency = 85%.
Jet dia. not to be exceed 1/6th of wheel dia. Calculate,
i) The wheel diameter
ii) The no. of jets required
iii) Diameter of jet.
8
_____________________
Set P
*SLRPK20*
-1-
SLR-PK 20S
Seat
No.
Set

FLUID MECHANICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Top of Page.
Marks : 14

14
1) The effective (or net) head at the turbine is
1
the turbine is exit
2) Which of the following statements is a definition of the hydraulic efficiency of
the turbine ?
1
shaft
the turbine
P.T.O.
Set Q
SLR-PK 20
*SLRPK20*
-2-
3) The power which appears in the expression for the specific speed is the
a) Shaft power
b) Water power
4) Which of the following types of impeller is used for centrifugal pumps dealing
with muds ?
c) Double section
d) Open
5) A centrifugal pump should be so installed above the water level in the sump
such that
6) __________ is the ratio of the inertia force to the viscous force.
a) Froudes number
b) Reynolds number
c) Webers number
d) Machs number
a) GVF
b) RVF
c) Rotational flow
a) aV
b) aV 2
c) a 2 V
d) aV 3
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Average
d) None
a) Oscillating
b) Undular
c) Weak
d) Steady
a) (y 2 y1 )2 4y1y 2
b) (y 2 y1 )3 4y1y 2
c) (y 2 y 1 ) 4 y1y 2
d)
b) 1 4
1
1
y 2 y1 4 y1y 2

a) 1%
b) 1.5%
c) 2%
d) 2.5%
a) 1 2
c) 1 5
______________
d)
2
1
Set Q
*SLRPK20*
-3-
SLR-PK 20S
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I

step only.

due to the jump.

Take cd = 0.62.
for it.

OR
Set Q
SLR-PK 20
-4-
*SLRPK20*
SECTION II
flat plate.



model.

8
_____________________
Set Q
*SLRPK20*
SLR-PK 20S
-1-
Seat
No.
Set

FLUID MECHANICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Top of Page.
Marks : 14

a) (y 2 y1 )2 4y1y 2
b) (y 2 y1 )3 4y1y 2
c) (y 2 y 1 ) 4 y1y 2
d)
14
1
y 2 y 1 4 y 1y 2

a) 1%
b) 1.5%
c) 2%
d) 2.5%
a) 1 2
b) 1 4
c) 1 5
d) 1 3
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Average
d) None
P.T.O.
Set R
SLR-PK 20
-2-
*SLRPK20*

a) Oscillating
b) Undular
c) Weak
d) Steady
the turbine ?
shaft
the turbine
a) Shaft power
b) Water power
with muds ?
c) Double section
d) Open
such that
a) Froudes number
b) Reynolds number
c) Webers number
d) Machs number
a) GVF
b) RVF
c) Rotational flow
b) aV 2
c) a 2 V
d) aV 3
a) aV
1
the turbine is exit
______________
Set R
*SLRPK20*
-3-
SLR-PK 20S
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I

step only.

due to the jump.

Take cd = 0.62.
for it.

OR
Set R
SLR-PK 20
-4-
*SLRPK20*
SECTION II
flat plate.



model.

8
_____________________
Set R
*SLRPK20*
-1-
SLR-PK 20S
Seat
No.
Set

FLUID MECHANICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Top of Page.
Marks : 14

14
1
a) Shaft power
b) Water power
with muds ?
1
c) Double section
d) Open
such that
1
1
a) Froudes number
b) Reynolds number
c) Webers number
d) Machs number
P.T.O.
Set
S
SLR-PK 20
*SLRPK20*
-2-

a) GVF
b) RVF
c) Rotational flow
b) aV 2
c) a 2 V
d) aV 3
a) aV
the turbine is exit
the turbine ?
shaft
the turbine
a) (y 2 y1 )2 4y1y 2
b) (y 2 y1 )3 4y1y 2
c) (y 2 y 1 ) 4 y1y 2
d)
y 2 y1 4 y1y 2

a) 1%
b) 1.5%
c) 2%
d) 2.5%
a) 1 2
b) 1 4
c) 1 5
d) 1 3
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Average
d) None
a) Oscillating
b) Undular
c) Weak
d) Steady
______________
Set S
*SLRPK20*
-3-
SLR-PK 20S
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I

step only.

due to the jump.

Take cd = 0.62.
for it.

OR
Set S
SLR-PK 20
-4-
*SLRPK20*
SECTION II
flat plate.



model.

8
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 21
*SLRPK21*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Part II) (Civil) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
1. Choose the correct alternative :
Marks : 14
(114=14)
1) Out of total water present on globe the saline water of oceans accounts for
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 97%
d) 97.2%
2) The Thiessen polygon is
a) Polygon obtained by joining adjoining rain gauge stations
b) Representative area used for weighing the observed station precipitation
c) Area used in construction of depth area curves
d) Descriptive term used for shape of hydrograph
3) The basic assumption of unit hydrograph theory are
a) Time invariance and linear response
b) Non-linear response and time invariance
c) Linear response and linear time variance
d) Non-linear variance and linear response
4) The flow-mass curve is an integral curve of
a) Hydrograph
b) Hyteograph
c) Flow duration curve
d) S-Curve
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 21
-2-
*SLRPK21*
5) Pick up the correct statement from the following

a) When rainfall rate is less than the infiltration capacity, the infiltration rate
is approximately equal to the rainfall rate
b) The actual infiltration rate at any time may be equal to or less than the
infiltration capacity
c) The actual prevailing rate of infiltration of water in the soil at any time, is
known as infiltration rate
d) All
6) A stream that provides water to the water table is called
a) Affluent
b) Effluent
c) Ephemeral
d) Influent
7) Water present in artesian aquifer is usually
a) At atmospheric pressure
b) Above atmospheric pressure
c) At 0.5 times the atmospheric pressure
d) At sub atmospheric pressure
8) In a field under furrow irrigation, furrows are referred to represent
a) Ridges on which crops are grown
b) Narrow ditches which carry irrigation water
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)
9) The crop among the following, which is expected to have the maximum duty, is
a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Cotton
10) The ratio of the water stored in the root zone of a crop, to the water actually
delivered to the crop in the field, is known as
a) Water conveyance efficiency
b) Water application efficiency
c) Water use efficiency
11) Permanent wilting point moisture content for a crop represent the
a) Hygroscopic water
b) Capillary water
c) Field capacity water
12) Frequency of irrigation is dependent upon the type of
a) Soil and crop
b) Soil and Climate
c) Soil, crop and climate
d) Soil, crop, climate and fertilizer
13) If the intensity of irrigation for Kharif is 45% and that for Rabi is 60%; then
the annual intensity of irrigation, is
a) 60%
b) 100%
c) 105%
d) None of them
14) A minor irrigation scheme, involves command area, equal to or less than
a) 100 hectares
b) 500 hectares
c) 1000 hectares
d) 2000 hectares
______________
Set P
*SLRPK21*
SLR-PK 21
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. a) Write a short note on Depth area duration curve and give its applications. 4
b) A precipitation station X was inoperative for some time during which a storm
occurred. The storm rainfall totals at the stations A, B, C surrounding
station X were respectively 6.60, 4.80 and 3.70 cm. The normal annual
precipitation amounts at stations X, A, B and C are 65.6, 72.6, 51.8 and
38.2 cm. Estimate the missing storm precipitation at station X.
5
3. a) What do you mean by runoff ? How it is generated ? Explain the different
factors affecting runoff.
b) Ordinates of 2-hour unit hydrograph are given as below. Using this data,
derive the ordinates of 6-hour unit hydrograph.
Time (hour)
10
12
14
16
18
20
22
Discharge
(cumec)
25
100
160
200
170
110
70
30
20
4
6
4. a) What do you mean by stream gauging ? What are the factors those are
considered for stream gauging site selection ?
b) Explain with a neat sketch, different components of a single peak storm
hydrograph. Elaborate the terms associated with it.
4
5
5. a) What do you mean by open well ? Enlist and explain factors considered for
design of open well.
b) A well with radius of 0.5 m, completely penetrates an unconfined aquifer of
thickness 50 m and hydraulic conductivity K = 30 m/day. The well is pumped
so that the water level in the well remains at 40 m above the bottom. Assuming
that pumping has essentially no effect on water table at radius of
500 m, what is steady state discharge ?
Set P
SLR-PK 21
*SLRPK21*
-4-
SECTION II
6. a) What do you mean by Inter-basin Transfer of water ? Elaborate its necessity
in India with respect availability of water resources in various river basins of
India.
b) Wheat is to be grown in a field having field capacity equal to 27% and permanent
wilting point is 13%. Find the equivalent depth of water stored in 80 cm soil
depth. Assume dry unit weight of soil as 14.53 kN/m3 and unit weight of water
as 9.81 kN/m3. If irrigation water is to be supplied when the average soil
moisture falls to 18%, find the water depth that needs to be applied to the
field. Assume that the field water application efficiency is equal to 80%.
7. a) Discuss with a neat sketch, layout and advantages of a typical drip irrigation
system. List the crops suitable for drip irrigation.
b) Table below gives a necessary data about the crops, their duty and area
under each crop, commanded by a canal, taking off from a storage reservoir.
Taking a time factor for a canal to be 13/20, calculate the discharge required
at the head of the canal. Also determine design discharge, if capacity factor
of a canal is 0.8.
Base
period
Area
(hectares)
Duty at the head of

canal (ha/cumec)
Sugarcane (yearly)
320
850
580
Overlap of sugarcane in
hot weather)
90
120
580
Wheat (Rabbi)
120
600
1600
Bajri (Kharif)
120
500
2000
Vegetable (Hot weather)
120
260
600
Crop
8. a) Classify Indian soils depending upon their origin and mineral contents. Discuss
their suitability for different crops.
b) List and discuss the canal revenue assessment methods, with advantages
and disadvantages of each.
9. a) What do you mean by Rainwater Harvesting ? Elaborate with a neat sketch,
Roof top rainwater harvesting practiced in urban areas.
b) What do you mean by Watershed management ? Describe its necessity for
soil and water conservation.
5
4
4
5
4
5
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 21
*SLRPK21*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)

c) Both a) and b)
a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Cotton
b) Capillary water
a) Soil and crop
b) Soil and Climate
a) 60%
b) 100%
c) 105%
d) None of them
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 21
-2-
*SLRPK21*

a) 100 hectares
b) 500 hectares
c) 1000 hectares
d) 2000 hectares
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 97%
d) 97.2%
a) Hydrograph
b) Hyteograph
d) S-Curve
d) All
a) Affluent
b) Effluent
c) Ephemeral
d) Influent
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK21*
SLR-PK 21
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
5
Time (hour)
10
12
14
16
18
20
22
Discharge
(cumec)
25
100
160
200
170
110
70
30
20
4
6
4
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 21
*SLRPK21*
-4-
SECTION II
India.
of a canal is 0.8.
Base
period
Area
(hectares)
Duty at the head of

canal (ha/cumec)
Sugarcane (yearly)
320
850
580
hot weather)
90
120
580
Wheat (Rabbi)
120
600
1600
Bajri (Kharif)
120
500
2000
120
260
600
Crop
5
4
4
5
4
5
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 21
*SLRPK21*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)

d) All
a) Affluent
b) Effluent
c) Ephemeral
d) Influent
c) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 21
-2-
*SLRPK21*
a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Cotton
b) Capillary water
a) Soil and crop
b) Soil and Climate
a) 60%
b) 100%
c) 105%
d) None of them
a) 100 hectares
b) 500 hectares
c) 1000 hectares
d) 2000 hectares
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 97%
d) 97.2%
a) Hydrograph
b) Hyteograph
d) S-Curve
______________
Set R
*SLRPK21*
SLR-PK 21
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
5
Time (hour)
10
12
14
16
18
20
22
Discharge
(cumec)
25
100
160
200
170
110
70
30
20
4
6
4
5
Set R
SLR-PK 21
*SLRPK21*
-4-
SECTION II
India.
of a canal is 0.8.
Base
period
Area
(hectares)
Duty at the head of

canal (ha/cumec)
Sugarcane (yearly)
320
850
580
hot weather)
90
120
580
Wheat (Rabbi)
120
600
1600
Bajri (Kharif)
120
500
2000
120
260
600
Crop
5
4
4
5
4
5
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 21
*SLRPK21*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)
b) Capillary water
a) Soil and crop
b) Soil and Climate
a) 60%
b) 100%
c) 105%
d) None of them
a) 100 hectares
b) 500 hectares
c) 1000 hectares
d) 2000 hectares
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 97%
d) 97.2%
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 21
-2-
*SLRPK21*

a) Hydrograph
b) Hyteograph
d) S-Curve
d) All
a) Affluent
b) Effluent
c) Ephemeral
d) Influent
c) Both a) and b)
a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Cotton
______________
Set S
*SLRPK21*
SLR-PK 21
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
5
Time (hour)
10
12
14
16
18
20
22
Discharge
(cumec)
25
100
160
200
170
110
70
30
20
4
6
4
5
Set S
SLR-PK 21
*SLRPK21*
-4-
SECTION II
India.
of a canal is 0.8.
Base
period
Area
(hectares)
Duty at the head of

canal (ha/cumec)
Sugarcane (yearly)
320
850
580
hot weather)
90
120
580
Wheat (Rabbi)
120
600
1600
Bajri (Kharif)
120
500
2000
120
260
600
Crop
5
4
4
5
4
5
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
S
Set
t

ENGG. MATHEMATICS III
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70
1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(141=14)
1) The general solution of the differential equation

@
a) aex
2) For
@
b) aex + bxex
"
is
c) aex + bxex
d) ae2x
, the particular integral is

N
a)
b)
c) 3e2x
d) c1ex + c2e3x
3) On putting x = ez in the equation (x2D2 xD + 1) y = 2 logx the equation transforms to

b) (D2 D + 1) y = 2ez
a) (D2 + 2D + 1) y = 2z
c) (D2 + D + 1) y = ez
d) (D2 2D + 1) y = 2z
4) Laplace transform of sin23t is

a)
b)
!
d)
I
&
c)
$
&
5)

a) te2t

b) te2t
c) e2t
d) e2t
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
-2-
6) Z = a (x + y) + c is the general solution of

a) pq = 1
b) p + q = 1
c) p + q = 0
d) p = q
7) The solution of 2p + 3q = 1 is
a)
(3x 2y, y 3z) = 0
c)
b)
(3x + 2y, y 3z) = 0

d) None of these
8) If f (x) is even function in the interval ( ,

series expansion of f (x) will contain
a) only cosine terms
c) only sine terms
9)
(3x + 2y, y + 3z) = 0

) and periodic with period 2

, then Fourier
b) both sine and cosine terms

d) only constant term
=
H
a)
b) 4

c) 6
d)

"
10) which of the following is true ?

a) div (grad
)=
c) curl (grad
)=
b) div (grad
d) curl (div
)=
)=
11) The probability density function of discrete random variable is given by

x:
p (x) :
0
K
1
3K
2
5K
3
4K
4
2K
then value of K is
a)
b)

c) 15

d) 3
12) The value of Karl Pearsons coefficient of correlation r lies between

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 1
d) 1 and 2
13) From a box containing 100 transistors out of which 20 are defective. If 10 transistors
are choosen at random then the probability that no transistor was defective is
a) 0.07
b) 0.11
c) 0.17
d) 0.99
14) Normal equations for fitting a straight line y = ax + b are
a)
y=a
xy = a
c)
y=a
x+b
x2 + b
b)
x3
x + nb
xy = a
x2
x2 + b
y=a
x+b
xy = na + b
x2
x3
d) None of these
x
Set P
*SLRPK22*
S
SLR-PK 22
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
(D2
excosx
2D + 2) y = x +
a) Solve :
2
b) Solve : (D + 4D + 3) y = exsinx
c) Solve : (D3 + 8) y = x4 + 2x + 1 + cosh2x
OR
+ 4) y = tan2x
(D2
c) Solve :
3
3
4
3. a) Solve : (2x + 3)2

@
(2x + 3)
O
12y = 6x
b) The differential equation of a beam uniformly loaded with one end fixed and
second subjected to a compressive force is given by
EI
@
+ py =
O
Wx2 where E, I, P and W are constants.

If y = 0 and
= 0 at x = 0, prove that y =

o
N

where n2
.
2
4. Attempt any three :
9

s
a) Find L
b) Evaluate
t cost dt, by using Laplace transform.

c) Find
L1
I
d) Find
L1
.
s

I

"
5. Solve the following partial diff. equations :
"
a)
y
p + zx3q = y4
z
b) p (1 + q2) = q (z a)
c)
given z (0, y) = 8e3y by the method of separation of variables.
Set P
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
-4-
SECTION II
10
a) Expand the function f (x) =

as Fourier series in the interval ( ,

N
b) Show that
).
"

= 0 where r =
and
r
c) If f (x) = x
=2 x
with period 2
7. a) Prove that
potential
then find Fourier series of f (x).
= (6xy + z3) i + (3x2 z) j + (3xz2 y) k is irrotational. Find a scaler

.
such that
3
b) Fit a Poisson distribution to following data

x:
0
1
2
3
4
f:
30
62
46
10
2
c) Find mean and standard deviation of normal distribution in which 7% of the items are
under 35 and 89% items are under 63 [for S.N.V Z, area under the curve between z = 0
and z = 1.48 is 0.43 and that between z = 0 and z = 1.23 is 0.39]
8. a) Fit second degree curve by using principle of least square for following data
x :
1
2
3
4
y : 1.7
1.8
2.3
3.2
b) Find value of K if
3
3
f (x) =
0
is probability density function.

c) The equations of two lines of regression are 6y = 5x + 90 and 15x = 8y + 130
find : i)
ii) coefficient of correlation
x
9. a) The following results were obtained from marks in applied mechanics and
engineering mathematics in an examination
Marks in
Marks in
Applied Mechanics
Engineering Maths
Mean
47.5
39.5
Standard
deviation
16.8
10.8
and r = 0.95. Find both regression equations.
b) Find the directional derivative of
= xy2 + yz2 + zx2 in the direction of tangent to curve x = t, y = t2, z = t3 at point (1, 1, 1)
c) A particle moves along the curve
= (t3 4t) i + (t2 + 4t) j + (8t2 3t3) K where t denote time, show that the magnitudes of
respectively.
acceleration along tangen and normal at time t = 2 are 16 and
______________
Set P
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70
1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(141=14)

c) only sine terms
2)

, then Fourier

=
H
a)
b) 4

c) 6
d)

"

a) div (grad
c) curl (grad
)=
)=
b) div (grad
d) curl (div
)=
)=

x:
p (x) :
0
K
1
3K
2
5K
3
4K
4
2K
then value of K is
a)
!
b)

c) 15

d) 3
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
-2-

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 1
d) 1 and 2
a) 0.07
b) 0.11
c) 0.17
d) 0.99
y=a
a)
x+b
xy = a
c)
y=a
x2 + b
b)
xy = na + b
a) aex
b) aex + bxex
"
x3
is
c) aex + bxex
d) ae2x
x2
x
9) For
x+b
d) None of these
x2 + b
y=a
x3
x + nb
xy = a
x2
a)
b)
c) 3e2x
d) c1ex + c2e3x

a) (D2 + 2D + 1) y = 2z
c) (D2 + D + 1) y = ez
b) (D2 D + 1) y = 2ez
d) (D2 2D + 1) y = 2z

a)
b)
!
d)
I
&
c)
$
&
12)

a) te2t
b) te2t

a) pq = 1
b) p + q = 1
c) e2t
d) e2t
c) p + q = 0
d) p = q

a)
c)
(3x 2y, y 3z) = 0

(3x + 2y, y 3z) = 0
b)
(3x + 2y, y + 3z) = 0
d) None of these
Set Q
*SLRPK22*
S
SLR-PK 22
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
(D2
excosx
2D + 2) y = x +
a) Solve :
2
OR
+ 4) y = tan2x
(D2
c) Solve :
3
3
4
3. a) Solve : (2x + 3)2

@
(2x + 3)
O
12y = 6x
EI
@
+ py =
O

If y = 0 and

o
N

where n2
.
2
9

s
a) Find L
b) Evaluate

c) Find
L1
I
d) Find
L1
.
s

I

"
"
a)
y
p + zx3q = y4
z
b) p (1 + q2) = q (z a)
c)
Set Q
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
-4-
SECTION II
10


N
b) Show that
).
"

= 0 where r =
and
r
c) If f (x) = x
=2 x
with period 2
7. a) Prove that
potential

.
such that
3

x:
0
1
2
3
4
f:
30
62
46
10
2
x :
1
2
3
4
y : 1.7
1.8
2.3
3.2
3
3
f (x) =
0

find : i)
x
Marks in
Marks in
Applied Mechanics
Engineering Maths
Mean
47.5
39.5
Standard
deviation
16.8
10.8
respectively.
______________
Set Q
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70
1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14

(141=14)
1)

a) te2t
b) te2t
c) e2t
d) e2t
c) p + q = 0
d) p = q

a) pq = 1
b) p + q = 1
(3x 2y, y 3z) = 0
a)
c)
b)
(3x + 2y, y 3z) = 0

5)
(3x + 2y, y + 3z) = 0
d) None of these

c) only sine terms

, then Fourier

=
H
a)
$
b) 4
c) 6
d)

"
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
-2-

a) div (grad
)=
c) curl (grad
)=
b) div (grad
d) curl (div
)=
)=

x:
p (x) :
0
K
1
3K
2
5K
3
4K
4
2K
then value of K is
a)
b)

c) 15

d) 3

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 1
d) 1 and 2
a) 0.07
b) 0.11
c) 0.17
d) 0.99
a)
y=a
x+b
xy = a
c)
y=a
x2 + b
b)
x3
y=a
x2 + b
a) aex
b) aex + bxex
a)
"
is
c) aex + bxex
d) ae2x

N
x3
x
x2
d) None of these
12) For
x+b
xy = na + b
x + nb
xy = a
x2
b)
c) 3e2x
d) c1ex + c2e3x

a) (D2 + 2D + 1) y = 2z
c) (D2 + D + 1) y = ez
b) (D2 D + 1) y = 2ez
d) (D2 2D + 1) y = 2z

a)
b)
!
d)
I
I
&
c)
$
&
Set R
*SLRPK22*
S
SLR-PK 22
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
(D2
excosx
2D + 2) y = x +
a) Solve :
2
OR
+ 4) y = tan2x
(D2
c) Solve :
3
3
4
3. a) Solve : (2x + 3)2

@
(2x + 3)
O
12y = 6x
EI
@
+ py =
O

If y = 0 and

o
N

where n2
.
2
9

s
a) Find L
b) Evaluate

c) Find
L1
I
d) Find
L1
.
s

I

"
"
a)
y
p + zx3q = y4
z
b) p (1 + q2) = q (z a)
c)
Set R
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
-4-
SECTION II
10


N
b) Show that
).
"

= 0 where r =
and
r
c) If f (x) = x
=2 x
with period 2
7. a) Prove that
potential

.
such that
3

x:
0
1
2
3
4
f:
30
62
46
10
2
x :
1
2
3
4
y : 1.7
1.8
2.3
3.2
3
3
f (x) =
0

find : i)
x
Marks in
Marks in
Applied Mechanics
Engineering Maths
Mean
47.5
39.5
Standard
deviation
16.8
10.8
respectively.
______________
Set R
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70
1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) div (grad ) =
c) curl (grad
)=
b) div (grad
d) curl (div
)=
)=

x:
0
1
2
3
4
p (x) :
K
3K
5K
4K
2K
then value of K is
a)
b)

c) 15

d) 3

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 1
d) 1 and 2
a) 0.07
b) 0.11
c) 0.17
d) 0.99

y=a
a)
xy = a
c)
y=a
x+b
x2 + b
b)
x3
x + nb
xy = a
x2
x2 + b
y=a
x+b
xy = na + b
x2
x3
d) None of these
x
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
-2-

a) aex
7) For
@
"
c) aex + bxex
is
d) ae2x
b) aex + bxex
a)
b)
c) 3e2x
d) c1ex + c2e3x

a) (D2 + 2D + 1) y = 2z
c) (D2 + D + 1) y = ez
b) (D2 D + 1) y = 2ez
d) (D2 2D + 1) y = 2z

a)
b)
!
d)
I
10)
&
1
&
c)
$

a) te2t
b) te2t

a) pq = 1
b) p + q = 1
c) e2t
d) e2t
c) p + q = 0
d) p = q

a)
(3x 2y, y 3z) = 0
c)
b)
(3x + 2y, y 3z) = 0

(3x + 2y, y + 3z) = 0
d) None of these

c) only sine terms
14)

, then Fourier

=
H
a)

b) 4
c) 6
d)

"
Set S
*SLRPK22*
S
SLR-PK 22
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
(D2
excosx
2D + 2) y = x +
a) Solve :
2
OR
+ 4) y = tan2x
(D2
c) Solve :
3
3
4
3. a) Solve : (2x + 3)2

@
(2x + 3)
O
12y = 6x
EI
@
+ py =
O

If y = 0 and

o
N

where n2
.
2
9

s
a) Find L
b) Evaluate

c) Find
L1
I
d) Find
L1
.
s

I

"
"
a)
y
p + zx3q = y4
z
b) p (1 + q2) = q (z a)
c)
Set S
SLR-PK 22
*SLRPK22*
-4-
SECTION II
10


N
b) Show that
).
"

= 0 where r =
and
r
c) If f (x) = x
=2 x
with period 2
7. a) Prove that
potential

.
such that
3

x:
0
1
2
3
4
f:
30
62
46
10
2
x :
1
2
3
4
y : 1.7
1.8
2.3
3.2
3
3
f (x) =
0

find : i)
x
Marks in
Marks in
Applied Mechanics
Engineering Maths
Mean
47.5
39.5
Standard
deviation
16.8
10.8
respectively.
______________
Set S
SLR-PK 23
*SLRPK23*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2016
DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) In a single unequal angle tie member, the leg preferred for making connection is the
a) longer leg
b) shorter leg
c) any of the two
d) longer if bolted, shorter if welded
2) If the diameter of the bolt is 20 mm, then the maximum number of bolts that can be
accommodated in one row in a 140 mm wide flat are
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 1
3) Tacking bolts should have pitch in line not exceeding, tension and compression members
respectively
a) 1000 mm, 600 mm
b) 600 mm, 1000 mm
c) 1200 mm, 500 mm
d) 500 mm, 1200 mm
4) Which of the following is not compression member ?
a) Strut
b) Tie
c) Rafter
d) Boom
5) Which are the conditions are satisfied in Kinematic or upper bound theorem ?
a) Equilibrium and yield conditions
b) Equilibrium and mechanism conditions
c) Equilibrium, mechanism and yield conditions
d) None
6) Strengths of a bolt in single shearing and in bearing are 34.25 kN, 75.75 kN respectively.
If the load in the member is 100 kN, the number of bolts required, is
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
7) Minimum pitch of bolts shall not be less than
a) 1.5 d
b) 2 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3 d
8) In plastic analysis, the shape factor for circular sections, is

a) 1.6
b) 1.697
c) 1.5
d) 1.597
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 23
*SLRPK23*
-2-
9) A simply supported beam of span L and constant plastic moment capacity Mp carries
uniformly distributed load throughout its span, then the load at collapse will be
a) 2 Mp/L
b) 4 Mp/L
c) 6 Mp/L
d) 8 Mp/L
10) Which of the following is not serviceability criteria ?
a) deflection
b) fire resistance
c) vibration
d) fatigue
11) As per IS 800, the purlins are classified as

a) Simply supported beams
b) Cantilever beams
c) Continuous beams
d) None
12) A beam is classified as low shear case when the factored shear force is less than
a) 0.4 Vd
b) 0.6 Vd
c) 0.8 Vd
d) 1.0 Vd
13) In built up beams the flange plates are curtailed to suit the ______ diagram of the beam.
a) Bending moment
b) Shear force
c) Thrust
d) None of these
14) Anchor bolts are provided in column bases to resist
a) Tension forces
b) Compression forces
c) Shear forces
d) None
15) Which of the following is not the design criteria for lattice (laced) column
a) buckling of the column as a whole
b) buckling of the component column
c) buckling of lacing member
d) buckling of individual rolled sections constituting column
16) The risk coefficient k, depends on
a) Mean probable life of structures
c) Both a and b
b) Basic wind speed

d) None
17) To minimize the total cost of roof truss, the ratio of the cost of the truss to the cost of purlin
shall be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
18) Web crippling generally occurs at the point where
a) deflection is maximum
b) concentrated loads act
c) shearing force is minimum
d) bending moment is maximum
19) How much percentage of force is transferred through the gusset plate and gusset angle
in gusset base design ?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
20) The thickness of base plate is decided in moment resisting base, based on
a) Bearing pressure distribution
b) Randomly
c) Safe bearing capacity of soil
d) None
______________
Set P
*SLRPK23*
-3-
SLR-PK 23
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) From Q. 2 to Q. 9 attempt any 3 questions from each Section.
2) If any data is missing, assume suitable data required for the design.
3) The figures to the right of each question indicate the full marks.
4) Steel table, original IS code book IS 800-2007 is allowed for Section I
and Section II but not allowed for MCQ.
SECTION I
2. a) What are the various design method ? Explain the salient features of limit state method.
b) What are the various types of rolled steel sections are used in steel structures ?
c) What are the various types of connections used in steel structures ?
d) What is shape factor ? Find the shape factor for circular section.
3. a) State the theorems of plastic analysis.
b) Find out the collapse load for a two span continuous beam ABCD of equal span length L
and simply supported at ends. The beam carries the two equal point loads of magnitudes
W at a distances of L/2 and L/3 from either simple supports A and D respectively.
4. Design a suitable angle section to carry tensile force of 250 kN. Use welded connection.
13
5. Design double angle section back to back of each side of gusset plate of size 8 mm thick for
continuous principal rafter of a truss to carry factored load of 250 kN. Centre to centre length
of member between centroids of connection is 2.5 m.
13
SECTION II
6. A simply supported steel joist of 4 m effective span is laterally supported throughout the span.
It carries factored uniformly distributed load of 15 kN/m, including self weight. Design the
beam with appropriate section using steel of grade Fe 410. Check for deflection and bearing
also.
13
Set P
SLR-PK 23
-4-
*SLRPK23*
7. Design a member in the principal rafter which is 1.265 m length. It has to carry a factored
compressive load of 100 kN and tensile load of 90 kN. Use Fe 410 steel. Use double angle
section.
13
8. Design a Built-up column 10 m long to carry factored axial load of 1080 kN. The column is
restrained in position but not in direction at both the ends. Provide single angle lacing system.
Assume steel of grade Fe 410, bolts of grade 4.6. Design the column with 2 channels placed
back-back.
14
9. A column ISHB 300@661.2 N/m carries an axial compressive factored load of 1700 kN.
Design a suitable bolted gusseted base. The base rests on a M 15 grade concrete pedestal.
Use 24 mm diameter bolts of grade 4.6 for making the connections.
13
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 23
*SLRPK23*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

c) Both a and b
b) Basic wind speed

d) None
shall be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
b) Randomly
d) None
a) longer leg
b) shorter leg
c) any of the two
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 1
respectively
a) 1000 mm, 600 mm
b) 600 mm, 1000 mm
c) 1200 mm, 500 mm
d) 500 mm, 1200 mm
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 23
*SLRPK23*
-2-

a) Strut
b) Tie
c) Rafter
d) Boom
d) None
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
a) 1.5 d
b) 2 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3 d

a) 1.6
b) 1.697
c) 1.5
d) 1.597
a) 2 Mp/L
b) 4 Mp/L
c) 6 Mp/L
d) 8 Mp/L
a) deflection
b) fire resistance
c) vibration
d) fatigue

b) Cantilever beams
c) Continuous beams
d) None
a) 0.4 Vd
b) 0.6 Vd
c) 0.8 Vd
d) 1.0 Vd
a) Bending moment
b) Shear force
c) Thrust
d) None of these
a) Tension forces
c) Shear forces
d) None
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK23*
-3-
SLR-PK 23
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
13
13
SECTION II
also.
13
Set Q
SLR-PK 23
-4-
*SLRPK23*
section.
13
back-back.
14
13
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 23
*SLRPK23*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

b) Cantilever beams
c) Continuous beams
d) None
a) 0.4 Vd
b) 0.6 Vd
c) 0.8 Vd
d) 1.0 Vd
a) Bending moment
b) Shear force
c) Thrust
d) None of these
a) Tension forces
c) Shear forces
d) None
c) Both a and b
b) Basic wind speed

d) None
shall be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 23
-2-
*SLRPK23*
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
b) Randomly
d) None
a) longer leg
b) shorter leg
c) any of the two
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 1
respectively
a) 1000 mm, 600 mm
b) 600 mm, 1000 mm
c) 1200 mm, 500 mm
d) 500 mm, 1200 mm
a) Strut
b) Tie
c) Rafter
d) Boom
d) None
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
a) 1.5 d
b) 2 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3 d

a) 1.6
b) 1.697
c) 1.5
d) 1.597
a) 2 Mp/L
b) 4 Mp/L
c) 6 Mp/L
d) 8 Mp/L
a) deflection
b) fire resistance
c) vibration
d) fatigue
______________
Set R
*SLRPK23*
-3-
SLR-PK 23
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
13
13
SECTION II
also.
13
Set R
SLR-PK 23
-4-
*SLRPK23*
section.
13
back-back.
14
13
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 23
*SLRPK23*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
a) 1.5 d
b) 2 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3 d

a) 1.6
b) 1.697
c) 1.5
d) 1.597
a) 2 Mp/L
b) 4 Mp/L
c) 6 Mp/L
d) 8 Mp/L
a) deflection
b) fire resistance
c) vibration
d) fatigue

b) Cantilever beams
c) Continuous beams
d) None
a) 0.4 Vd
b) 0.6 Vd
c) 0.8 Vd
d) 1.0 Vd
a) Bending moment
b) Shear force
c) Thrust
d) None of these
a) Tension forces
c) Shear forces
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 23
*SLRPK23*
-2-
c) Both a and b
b) Basic wind speed

d) None
shall be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
b) Randomly
d) None
a) longer leg
b) shorter leg
c) any of the two
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 1
respectively
a) 1000 mm, 600 mm
b) 600 mm, 1000 mm
c) 1200 mm, 500 mm
d) 500 mm, 1200 mm
a) Strut
b) Tie
c) Rafter
d) Boom
d) None
______________
Set S
*SLRPK23*
-3-
SLR-PK 23
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
13
13
SECTION II
also.
13
Set S
SLR-PK 23
-4-
*SLRPK23*
section.
13
back-back.
14
13
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 24
*SLRPK24*
Seat
No.
Set
GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING I

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Answer Book Page No. 3.
3) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Give the correct option for MCQ. Sr. No. 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each and Sr. No. 11 to 15
carry 2 marks each.
1) Water content of a soil can be determined by
a) Oven drying method
b) Sand bath method
c) Pycnometer method
d) All of these
2) The degree of saturation (s) of a partially saturated soil is
a) 1.0
b) zero
c) 0 < S < 1
d) >1
3) For 50% degree of consolidation, the time factor, Tv is

a) 1.1963
b) 0.5
c) 2.0
d) 0.1963
4) The quantity of seepage of water though soils is proportional to

a) Coefficient of permeability of soil
b) Total head loss through the soil
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
5) The coefficient of curvature is defined as
D60
a) D
10
D10
b)
D60
D230
c)
D10D60
2
D10
d)
D30D60
6) The critical hydraulic gradient may occur when

a) Flow is in upward direction
b) Seepage pressure is in upward direction
c) Effective pressure is zero
d) All of these
7) The passive coefficient of earth pressure is given by
a)
1 tan
1 + tan
b)
1+ tan
1 tan
c)
1 sin
1+ sin
d)
1+ sin
1 sin
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 24
*SLRPK24*
-2-
8) A clay layer is subjected to pressure in excess to its present overburden pressure,

it is said to be
a) Pre-consolidated soil
b) Pre-compressed soil
c) Under-consolidated
d) All of these
9) A total active earth pressure due to dry backfill with no surcharge, acts at H/3
above the base of the wall and is directly proportional to
b) H2
a) H
c)
d) H3
10) The shear strength of the soil

a) Is proportional to cohesion of soil
b) Is generally known as the strength of soil
c) Is proportional to the tangent of the angle of internal friction
d) All of these
11) A borrow soil has a dry density of 1.76 g/cm3. How many m3 of this soil will be
required to construct an embankment of 1003 with a dry density of 1.68 g/cm3 ?
a) 95 m3
b) 100 m3
c) 105 m3
d) 110 m3
12) A soil has a cohesion of 7 kN/m2, a friction angle of 18, unit weight of 16.5 kN/m3.
The depth of tension cracks will be
a) 2.6 m
b) 2.33 m
c) 1.98 m
d) 1.16 m
13) The angle between the directions of failure plane and major principal plane is
equal to
a) 90 +
b) 90 +
c) 45 +
d) 45
14) A clayey soil has an unconfined compressive strength of 40 kPa, then its cohesion
is
a) 80 kPa
b) 20 kPa
c) 40 kPa
d) None of these
15) A slope of e-log p curve for a soil mass gives
a) Coefficient of permeability
b) Coefficient of consolidation
c) Compression index
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK24*
-3-
SLR-PK 24
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) In Section II, Question No. 6 is compulsory, solve any
two from the remaining questions.
SECTION I
2. A) A sample of wet silty clay has a soil mass of 126 kg. The following data were
obtained from lab tests on the sample.
Wet density = 2.1 g/cm3, G = 2.7, = 15%.
Determine :
i) dry density
ii) porosity
iii) void ratio and
iv) degree of saturation.
B) Define :
i) Density of soil solids
ii) Submerged density and
iii) Plasticity index.
3. A) A constant head permeability test was carried out on a cylindrical sample of sand
10 cm diameter and 15 cm height. 160 cm3 of water was collected in 1.75 min,
under a head of 30 cm. Compute the coefficient of permeability in m/year and the
velocity of flow in m/sec.
B) Prove that kx =
1
(k1z1 + k1z1 + ... + knzn ) with usual notations.
z
4. A) The following results were obtained at failure in a series of triaxial tests on

specimens of soil. Determine the values of c and .
6
7
Cell Pressure (3 ) kPa Deviatric stress (d = 1 3 ) kPa

150
192
300
341
450
504
B) Discuss the limitations of box shear test.
6
Set P
SLR-PK 24
-4-
*SLRPK24*
5. Write short notes on any three :
14
i) Isobars due to point load

ii) Determination of shrinkage limit
iii) Exit gradient
iv) Determination of water content by pycnometer method.
SECTION II
6. Write short notes on any four :
i) Field compaction control
ii) Critical depth of an open cut in cohesive soil
iii) Differentiate between active and passive earth pressure
iv) Unconfined compression test on soils
v) Consolidation settlement.
16
7. A) A cohesive soil yields a maximum dry density of 1.8 g/cc at an OMC of 16% during
a standard Proctor test. If the value of G is 2.65, what is the degree of saturation ?
What will be the maximum dry density it can further be compacted to ?
B) Differentiate between standard and modified proctor test.
8
4
8. A) The time to reach 60% consolidation is 30 seconds for a sample of 1 cm thick,

tested in the laboratory under condition of double drainage. How many years will
the corresponding layer in nature require to reach the same degree of consolidation
if it is 10 m thick and drained on one side only ?
B) Explain the logarithm of time fitting method to find the coefficient of consolidation.
9. A) A retaining wall with soft saturated clay backfill is 7 m high. For the undrained
condition ( = 0) of the backfill, determine :
i) The maximum depth of tension crack
ii) The active force before tensile crack occurs, and
iii) The active force after development of tension crack.
Given = 0, = 16 kN/m3 and cu = 17 kN/m2.
B) Explain Rebhanns graphical method for determining the active earth pressure for
the case when = .
Set P
SLR-PK 24
*SLRPK24*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
carry 2 marks each.
a) H
b) H2
c)
d) H3

d) All of these
a)
1 tan
1 + tan
b)
1+ tan
1 tan
c)
1 sin
1+ sin
d)
1+ sin
1 sin

it is said to be
d) All of these
b) Sand bath method
d) All of these
a) 1.0
b) zero
c) 0 < S < 1
d) >1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 24
*SLRPK24*
-2-

D60
a) D
10
D230
c)
D10D60
D10
b)
D60
2
D10
d)
D30D60

d) All of these
a) 1.1963
b) 0.5
c) 2.0
d) 0.1963

c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
d) None of these
is
a) 80 kPa
b) 20 kPa
c) 40 kPa
d) None of these
a) 2.6 m
b) 2.33 m
c) 1.98 m
d) 1.16 m
a) 95 m3
b) 100 m3
c) 105 m3
d) 110 m3
equal to
a) 90 +
b) 90 +
c) 45 +
d) 45
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK24*
-3-
SLR-PK 24
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Wet density = 2.1 g/cm3, G = 2.7, = 15%.
Determine :
i) dry density
ii) porosity
iii) void ratio and
B) Define :
B) Prove that kx =
1
z

7
6
7

150
192
300
341
450
504
Set Q
SLR-PK 24
-4-
*SLRPK24*
14

iii) Exit gradient
SECTION II
16
8
4

the case when = .
Set Q
SLR-PK 24
*SLRPK24*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
carry 2 marks each.
a)
1 tan
1 + tan
b)
1+ tan
1 tan
c)
1 sin
1+ sin
d)
1+ sin
1 sin

it is said to be
d) All of these
D60
a) D
10
D10
b)
D60
D230
c)
D10D60
d)
2
D10
D30D60

d) All of these
a) H
b) H2
c)
d) H3
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 24
*SLRPK24*
-2-

d) All of these
a) 1.1963
b) 0.5
c) 2.0
d) 0.1963

c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
b) Sand bath method
d) All of these
a) 1.0
b) zero
c) 0 < S < 1
11)
d) >1
A soil has a cohesion of 7 kN/m2, a friction angle of 18, unit weight of 16.5 kN/m3.
a) 2.6 m
b) 2.33 m
c) 1.98 m
d) 1.16 m

d) None of these
a) 95 m3
b) 100 m3
c) 105 m3
d) 110 m3
equal to
a) 90 +
b) 90 +
c) 45 +
d) 45
is
a) 80 kPa
b) 20 kPa
c) 40 kPa
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK24*
-3-
SLR-PK 24
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Wet density = 2.1 g/cm3, G = 2.7, = 15%.
Determine :
i) dry density
ii) porosity
iii) void ratio and
B) Define :
B) Prove that kx =
1
z

7
6
7

150
192
300
341
450
504
Set R
SLR-PK 24
-4-
*SLRPK24*
14

iii) Exit gradient
SECTION II
16
8
4

the case when = .
Set R
SLR-PK 24
*SLRPK24*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
carry 2 marks each.
a) 1.1963
b) 0.5
c) 2.0
d) 0.1963

c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
b) Sand bath method
d) All of these
a) 1.0
b) zero
c) 0 < S < 1
d) >1
a) H
b) H2
c)
d) H3

d) All of these
a)
1 tan
1 + tan
b)
1+ tan
1 tan
c)
1 sin
1+ sin
d)
1+ sin
1 sin
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 24
*SLRPK24*
-2-

it is said to be
d) All of these
D60
a) D
10
D230
c)
D10D60
D10
b)
D60
2
D10
d)
D30D60

d) All of these
equal to
a) 90 +
b) 90 +
c) 45 +
d) 45
a) 95 m3
b) 100 m3
c) 105 m3
d) 110 m3
is
a) 80 kPa
b) 20 kPa
c) 40 kPa
d) None of these
d) None of these
a) 2.6 m
b) 2.33 m
c) 1.98 m
d) 1.16 m
______________
Set S
*SLRPK24*
-3-
SLR-PK 24
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Wet density = 2.1 g/cm3, G = 2.7, = 15%.
Determine :
i) dry density
ii) porosity
iii) void ratio and
B) Define :
B) Prove that kx =
1
z

7
6
7

150
192
300
341
450
504
Set S
SLR-PK 24
-4-
*SLRPK24*
14

iii) Exit gradient
SECTION II
16
8
4

the case when = .
Set S
SLR-PK 25
*SLRPK25*
Seat
No.
Set

BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

4) Figure on the right indicate full marks.
Marks : 20
1. State whether following statements is correct or incorrect ? (one mark each) :
20
1) Maximum acceptable noise level in class room and other teaching space due
to external source should be 40 dB.
2) For primary school number of student in per class room should be 60.
3) The maximum distance between the first row of student and the black board
is 2.4 m.
4) The riser of stair case step should in public building should range from 150 mm
to 180 mm.
5) For motor cycle the parking area should be 2 sq.m.
6) In one point perspective only two sides of object is of true dimension in
perspective view.
7) The vertical angle of vision should not be greater than 20.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 25
-2-
*SLRPK25*
8) Echo is dull sound.

9) The minimum clearance between the bed and the side wall is 300 mm.
10) Reverberation is desirable to add to the musical quality.
11) In one point perspective, only one side of object is true dimension in perspective
view.
12) The slope for floor of Auditorium/cinema theatre may be with an inclination of
18 to 20 from front side.
13) The desirable sound intensity inside a hotel room is less than 45 dB.
14) The plan of a cinema theatre should be such that the walls converge towards
the screen.
15) The desirable maximum distance between last row and the screen when no
sound reflectors are provided is 10m.
16) Passage/corridor width in Primary Health Centre range from 0.5 m to 1.0 m.
17) Height of counter in post office should range from 1.6 m to 1.8 m.
18) ICU in hospital means Intensive Care Unit.
19) Minimum width of a door opening in a school is 1.0 m.
20) The horizontal angle of vision should not be greater than 20.
______________
Set P
*SLRPK25*
-3-
SLR-PK 25
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80
Use both sides of full imperial drawing sheet for Section I.

Figure on the right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
Use answer book for Section II.
Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet.
SECTION I
2. A post office is proposed to construct and the following units should be

considered :
1) Entrance and moving space = 30 sq.m.
2) Public dealing counters = With height 1.2 m to 1.4 m and width 0.7 m to 0.95 m.
3) Post masters room = 15 sq.m.
4) Working area for other staff = 30 sq.m.
5) Post separation /sorting room = 30 sq.m.
6) Safe custody area for cash = 9.5 sq.m.
7) Lunch room = 12 sq.m.
8) Water and toilet should be provided as per norms.
The building is R.C.C. framed structure with single storey. Assume additional
data if required and mention it clearly.
a) Two entrances have to be provided : one main entrance for all the visitors
and one service entrance for employees.
b) Entrance to post master room should be such that it is easily accessible
by public as well as employees.
Draw :
1) A detailed plan (scale 1 : 100)
16
2) A section passing through a Toilet room. (scale 1 :100)
14
Set P
SLR-PK 25
*SLRPK25*
-4-
3. Draw perspective of the object shown below as per given data. Use scale of
1 : 100.
10
6m
SECTION II
4. Answer any five questions :
40
a) Explain the Aesthetic Components of Public buildings with neat sketches.
b) Write a note on : Rain Water Harvesting and Landscaping for Public buildings.
c) Explain in detail the fire load considerations for public buildings.
d) Explain salient features of a Green Building and its scope w.r.t. public buildings.
e) What are the common acoustic defects for public buildings and their remedial
measure ?
f) Discuss the common provisions required for the public building planning
and design.
g) Explain Sabines expression for Reverberation time and discuss the sound
reflections from flat, concave and convex surfaces with sketches.
h) Explain the important measures to be adopted to make the public building fire
resistant and sound insulating.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 25
*SLRPK25*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

is 2.4 m.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 25
-2-
*SLRPK25*
to 180 mm.
perspective view.
view.
the screen.
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK25*
-3-
SLR-PK 25
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

considered :
Draw :
16
14
Set Q
SLR-PK 25
*SLRPK25*
-4-
1 : 100.
10
6m
SECTION II
40
measure ?
and design.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 25
*SLRPK25*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20
view.
the screen.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 25
-2-
*SLRPK25*

is 2.4 m.
to 180 mm.
perspective view.
______________
Set R
*SLRPK25*
-3-
SLR-PK 25
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

considered :
Draw :
16
14
Set R
SLR-PK 25
*SLRPK25*
-4-
1 : 100.
10
6m
SECTION II
40
measure ?
and design.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 25
*SLRPK25*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

perspective view.
view.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 25
-2-
*SLRPK25*
the screen.
is 2.4 m.
to 180 mm.
______________
Set S
*SLRPK25*
-3-
SLR-PK 25
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

considered :
Draw :
16
14
Set S
SLR-PK 25
*SLRPK25*
-4-
1 : 100.
10
6m
SECTION II
40
measure ?
and design.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 26
*SLRPK26*
S
Set
t

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING I
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top
of Page.
3) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. question no.
2 to question no. 5.
clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer.
(201=20)
1) ________ in water is measured in terms of unit on cobalt scale.
a) Intensity of odor
b) Intensity of turbidity
c) Intensity of hardness
d) Intensity of color
2) ___________ is determined by titrating with standard EDTA solution using
Erichrome black T indicator.
a) Nitrates
b) Hardness
c) Chlorides
d) Turbidity
3) _____________ of coliform is defined as bacterial density by applying laws
of probabilities to available test data.
a) Plate count test
b) Presumptive test
c) MPN
d) E-coli index
4) Precipitation of non carbonate hardness is done by addition of
a) Soda ash
b) Lime
c) Zeolites
d) Sodium Chloride
5) The flocculant suspension of intermediate concentration holds the particle
with inter particle forces is known as
a) Hindered settling
b) Discrete settling
c) Zone settling
d) Compression settling
6) _____________ forces changes with the orientation of particles related to the
direction of settling.
a) Frictional drag
b) Displacement efficiency
c) Kinematic viscosity
d) Impeller
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 26
-2-
*SLRPK26*
7) In a ___________ type water flow into fine stream as small droplets that
comes into the contact with air.
a) Gravel bed aeration
b) Spray aeration
c) Air diffuser
d) Inclined apron aerator
8) _________ with iron salts is effective over a wider range of pH.
a) flocculation
b) adsorption
c) disinfection
d) coagulation
9) In __________ of filtration the organic impurities in water become food to
different micro-organisms residing in filter beds.
a) Biological action
b) Electrolyte action
c) Sedimentation action
d) Mechanical straining
10) __________ are capable of causing disease within living organisms on which
they subsist.
a) Mesophilic bacteria
b) Non-pathogenic bacteria
c) Pathogenic bacteria
d) Saprophytic bacteria
n
11) In equation of hf = kQ the value of n for Darcy Weisbach formula is
a) 2
b) 1.81
c) 1.7
d) 1.0
12) Check valve is also known as
a) Reflux valve
b) Non-return valve
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
13) Summits are the points of _________ pressure.
a) High
b) Low
c) Equal
d) None of these
2
14) Modulus of elasticity for steel pipe is ________ Kg/m .
b) 11.9 106
c) 8.5 107
d) 8.5 109
a) 11.9 108
15) Air relief valves are provided at the _________ along water pipe.
a) Summits
b) Sag
c) Mid-point
16) For well planned cities _________ type of distribution system is used.
a) Dead end
b) Grid-iron
c) Circular
d) Radial
17) In a pipe network ABCD (including common pipe AC) of 5 pipes, which of the
following statement is true ?
a) Correction is applied twice (Two times) to pipe AC
b) Only one correction is applied to pipe AC
c) No correction is applied to pipe AC
d) Correction is neglected for pipe AC
18) Corrosion is ______________ process.
a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrostatic
c) Electrodynamic
d) Electrochemical
19) Velocity of sound in water is _____________ m/sec.
a) 1431
b) 1432
c) 1433
d) 1436
20) Economic diameter of pumping main is given by
a) D = aQ
b) D = aQ2
c) D = aQ2/3
d) D = aQ
______________
Set P
*SLRPK26*
S
SLR-PK 26
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. question

no. 2 to question no. 5.
2) Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any
two questions from the remaining.
SECTION I
2. a) Draw a typical flow diagram of water treatment plant for a city and explain the
function of every unit in tabular form.
b) A settling tank is designed for an overflow rate of 3500 liters per m2 per hour.
What percentage of particles of diameter (a) 0.04 mm (b) 0.02 mm, will be
removed in the tank at 10 C. Take Ss = 2.65.
3. a) Describe various types of coagulants commonly used in water treatment.
b) Population of 5 decades are given below :

Y
'
"
&
'
"
'
"
'
"
'
&
Find out the population in year 2000 by geometrical increase method.

4. a) Explain with neat sketch working of rapid sand filter with respect to following
points :
i) Enclosure tank
ii) Filter media
iii) Base material
iv) Under drainage system.
b) Explain any five types of chlorination applied to water.
5
Set P
SLR-PK 26
-4-
*SLRPK26*
5. Write short note :

i) Zeolite process.
ii) Activated carbon treatment.
iii) Cascade aeration.
5
4
5
SECTION II
6. a) What is equivalent pipe ? Derive expression for length of equivalent pipe if

pipes are in series by using Hazen Williams equation.
b) Explain radial system with its advantages and disadvantages.
7. a) What is mass balancing capacity ? Explain any one method to calculate

balancing capacity of reservoir.
b) Find equivalent diameter of 4000 m long pipe for a network shown in figure
using
i) Darcys formula and

ii) Hazen Williams formula.
8. a) Enlist stresses in water distribution pipes. Explain any one in detail.
b) Design a thrust block for 1000 mm diameter main conveying water at location
where deviation angle is 45 in a horizontal plane. The subsoil has density of
1800 kg/m3, angle of internal friction is 30 and zero cohesion. Assume velocity
of flow 2 m/s. Unit weight of concrete 2400 kg/m3.
9. Write short notes on any three of the following :
i) Household piping system using direct supply.
ii) Grid iron system.
iii) Economic diameter of pumping main.
iv) Advantages of pressurized water supply system.
_____________________
8
5
5
4
4
Set P
SLR-PK 26
*SLRPK26*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.
clearly.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) Dead end
b) Grid-iron
c) Circular
d) Radial
a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrostatic
c) Electrodynamic
d) Electrochemical
a) 1431
b) 1432
c) 1433
d) 1436
a) D = aQ
b) D = aQ2
c) D = aQ2/3
d) D = aQ
a) Nitrates
b) Hardness
c) Chlorides
d) Turbidity
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 26
-2-
*SLRPK26*

a) Plate count test
b) Presumptive test
c) MPN
d) E-coli index
a) Soda ash
b) Lime
c) Zeolites
d) Sodium Chloride
c) Zone settling
a) Frictional drag
d) Impeller
b) Spray aeration
c) Air diffuser
a) flocculation
b) adsorption
c) disinfection
d) coagulation
they subsist.
n
a) 2
b) 1.81
c) 1.7
d) 1.0
a) Reflux valve
b) Non-return valve
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) High
b) Low
c) Equal
d) None of these
2
b) 11.9 106
c) 8.5 107
d) 8.5 109
a) 11.9 108
a) Summits
b) Sag
c) Mid-point
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK26*
S
SLR-PK 26
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

Y
'
"
&
'
"
'
"
'
"
'
&

points :
i) Enclosure tank
ii) Filter media
iii) Base material
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 26
-4-
*SLRPK26*

i) Zeolite process.
5
4
5
SECTION II


using

_____________________
8
5
5
4
4
Set Q
SLR-PK 26
*SLRPK26*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.
clearly.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
n
a) 2
b) 1.81
c) 1.7
d) 1.0
a) Reflux valve
b) Non-return valve
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) High
b) Low
c) Equal
d) None of these
2
b) 11.9 106
c) 8.5 107
d) 8.5 109
a) 11.9 108
a) Summits
b) Sag
c) Mid-point
a) Dead end
b) Grid-iron
c) Circular
d) Radial
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 26
-2-
*SLRPK26*

a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrostatic
c) Electrodynamic
d) Electrochemical
a) 1431
b) 1432
c) 1433
d) 1436
a) D = aQ
b) D = aQ2
c) D = aQ2/3
d) D = aQ
a) Nitrates
b) Hardness
c) Chlorides
d) Turbidity
a) Plate count test
b) Presumptive test
c) MPN
d) E-coli index
a) Soda ash
b) Lime
c) Zeolites
d) Sodium Chloride
c) Zone settling
a) Frictional drag
d) Impeller
b) Spray aeration
c) Air diffuser
a) flocculation
b) adsorption
c) disinfection
d) coagulation
they subsist.
______________
Set R
*SLRPK26*
S
SLR-PK 26
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

Y
'
"
&
'
"
'
"
'
"
'
&

points :
i) Enclosure tank
ii) Filter media
iii) Base material
5
Set R
SLR-PK 26
-4-
*SLRPK26*

i) Zeolite process.
5
4
5
SECTION II


using

_____________________
8
5
5
4
4
Set R
SLR-PK 26
*SLRPK26*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
one mark.
of Page.
clearly.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) Frictional drag
d) Impeller
b) Spray aeration
c) Air diffuser
a) flocculation
b) adsorption
c) disinfection
d) coagulation
they subsist.
n
a) 2
b) 1.81
c) 1.7
d) 1.0
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 26
-2-
*SLRPK26*

a) Reflux valve
b) Non-return valve
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) High
b) Low
c) Equal
d) None of these
2
b) 11.9 106
c) 8.5 107
d) 8.5 109
a) 11.9 108
a) Summits
b) Sag
c) Mid-point
a) Dead end
b) Grid-iron
c) Circular
d) Radial
a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrostatic
c) Electrodynamic
d) Electrochemical
a) 1431
b) 1432
c) 1433
d) 1436
c) D = aQ2/3
d) D = aQ
a) D = aQ
b) D = aQ2
a) Nitrates
b) Hardness
c) Chlorides
d) Turbidity
a) Plate count test
b) Presumptive test
c) MPN
d) E-coli index
a) Soda ash
b) Lime
c) Zeolites
d) Sodium Chloride
c) Zone settling
______________
Set S
*SLRPK26*
S
SLR-PK 26
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

Y
'
"
&
'
"
'
"
'
"
'
&

points :
i) Enclosure tank
ii) Filter media
iii) Base material
5
Set S
SLR-PK 26
-4-
*SLRPK26*

i) Zeolite process.
5
4
5
SECTION II


using

_____________________
8
5
5
4
4
Set S
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2016

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) Which of the following is/are found in Genetic Algorithm ?
a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Reproduction
d) All the above
2) Which of the following are disadvantages of simulation ?
a) inability to analyze large and complex real-world situations
b) time compression capability
c) could be disruptive by interfering with the real-world system
d) is not usually easily transferable to other problems
3) The first step in the monte Carlo simulation process is to
a) generate random numbers
b) set up cumulative probability distributions
c) establish random number intervals
d) simulate trials
4) Neural Networks are complex ______ with many parameters.
a) Linear functions
b) Nonlinear functions
c) Discrete functions
d) Exponential functions
5) A perceptron is a ___________.
a) Feed-forward neural network
b) Back-propagation algorithm
c) Back-tracking algorithm
d) Feed forward-backward algorithm
6) The relationship between stages of a dynamic programming problem is called a(n)
a) State
b) Random Variable
c) Node
d) Transformation
7) How the new states are generated in genetic algorithm ?
a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b and c
8) A strategy that yields a higher payoff no matter what the other players in the game choose
is known as a
a) prisoners strategy
b) dominated strategy
c) dominant strategy
d) nash strategy
9) A common assumption about the players in a game is that
a) neither player knows the payoff matrix
b) the players have different information about the payoff matrix
c) only one of the players pursues a rational strategy
d) the specific identity of the players is irrelevant to the play of the game
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 27
-2-
*SLRPK27*
10) The objective of the transportation problem is to

a) identify one origin that can satisfy total demand at the destinations and at the same
time minimize total shipping cost
b) minimize the number of origins used to satisfy total demand at the destination
c) minimize the number of shipments necessary to satisfy total demand at the destinations
d) minimize the cost of shipping products from several origins to several destinations
11) One disadvantage of using N-W-C rule to find initial solution to the transportation problem
is that
a) It is complicated to use
b) It does not take into account the cost of transportation
c) It leads to a degenerate initial solution
d) All of the above
12) EOQ is a (an) ________ inventory system.
a) periodic
b) continuous
c) optimal
d) economic
13) The linear programming model for a transportation problem has constraints for supply
at each _____ and _____ at each destination.
a) destination/source
b) source/destination
c) demand/source
d) source/demand
14) The Inventory carrying costs are also called as
a) procurement costs
b) set-up costs
c) storage costs
15) In a single-server queuing model, the average number customers in the queuing system
is calculated by dividing the arrival rate by
a) service rate
b) service time
c) service rate minus arrival rate
d) service rate plus arrival rate
16) ________ of a function is a value which is higher than all the values of the function.
a) Global minimum
b) Global maximum
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
17) If more than one states of nature exist and there is enough information available to assign
probability to each of the possible states then that decision is known as
a) Decision making under condition of certainty
b) Decision making under condition of Risk
c) Decision making under condition of Uncertainty
d) All of these
18) Which of the following criterion for decision making uses optimistic and pessimistic
decisions
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwitz
19) Games without a saddle point require player to play
a) mixed strategies
b) pure strategies
c) dominated strategies
d) none of these
20) A situation in which a decision maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a decision
and also knows the probability associated with each outcome is referred to as
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) Strategy
______________
Set P
*SLRPK27*
SLR-PK 27
-3-
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions :
1) Q.No. 1 and 2 are compulsory.

2) Attempt any two from Q.3 to Q.5.
3) Attempt any three from Q.6 to Q.9.
SECTION I
2. a) Dakota Furniture makes desks, tables and chairs. Each product needs the limited
resources of lumber, carpentry and finishing; as described in the table. At most 5 tables
can be sold per week. Maximize weekly revenue. Use simplex method.
Resource
Desk
Table
Chair
Max Avail
Lumber (board ft.)
48
Finishing hours
1.5
20
Carpentry hours
1.5
.5
Unlimited
unlimited
60
30
20
Max Demand
Price (($)
b) Convert the primal to is dual

max z =
60x1 + 30x2 + 20x3
s.t. 8x1 + 6x2 + x3 48

4x1 + 2x2 + 1.5x3 20
2x1 + 1.5x2 + 0.5x3 8
x1, x2, x3 0
Set P
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-4-
3. a) Power co. has three electric power plants that supply the needs of four cities. Each power
plant can supply the following numbers of kwh of electricity: plant 1, 35 million; plant 2, 50
million; and plant 3, 40 million. The peak power demands in these cities as follows (in
kwh): city 1, 45 million; city 2, 20 million; city 3, 30 million; city 4, 30 million. The costs of
sending 1 million kwh of electricity from plant to city is given in the table below. To minimize
the cost of meeting each citys peak power demand, formulate a balanced transportation
problem in a transportation tableau and represent the problem as a LP model. Determine
IBFS using Vogels Approximation method.
From
To
City 1
City 2
City 3
City 4
Plant 1
10
Plant 2
12
13
Plant 3
14
16
b) Explain single variable optimization with standard form.
4. a) Find optimal strategies of A and B in the following game. Also obtain value of
the game.
B's stratgies
B1
B2
B3
A's
A1
Strategies
A2
A3
b) Write a note on Monte Carlo Simulation.
5. Write short notes on :

a) Process of Dynamic Programming.
b) Arrivals at the telephone booth are considered to be Poisson with avg. time of 10 min
between two arrivals. The length of telephone call is assumed to be distributed exponentially
with mean 3 min. Find the average length of the
queue that is formed from time to time.
Set P
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*7
-5-
SECTION II
14
6. Perform ABC analysis using the following data :
Item
Units
Unit price (Rs.)
Item
Units
Unit price (Rs.)
700
5.00
6000
0.20
2400
3.00
300
3.50
150
10.00
30
8.00
60
22.00
10
2900
0.40
3800
1.50
11
1150
7.10
4000
0.5
12
410
6.20
7. Write notes on :
a) R chart
b) Quality circle.
8. Write notes on with suitable example :

a) Post disaster stage of disaster management.
b) Disaster Mitigation.

a) EOQ.
b) Safety stocks.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Global minimum
b) Global maximum c) Both a) and b)
d) None
d) All of these
decisions
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwitz
a) mixed strategies
b) pure strategies
d) none of these
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) Strategy
a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Reproduction
d) All the above
d) simulate trials
a) Linear functions
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-2-
a) State
b) Random Variable c) Node
d) Transformation
a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b and c
is known as a
d) nash strategy
b) minimize the number of origins used to satisfy total demand at the destinations
is that
d) All of the above
a) periodic
b) continuous
c) optimal
d) economic
c) demand/source
d) source/demand
b) set-up costs
c) storage costs
a) service rate
b) service time
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK27*
SLR-PK 27
-3-
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
Resource
Desk
Table
Chair
Max Avail
Lumber (board ft.)
48
Finishing hours
1.5
20
Carpentry hours
1.5
.5
Unlimited
unlimited
60
30
20
Max Demand
Price (($)

max z =
60x1 + 30x2 + 20x3
s.t. 8x1 + 6x2 + x3 48

4x1 + 2x2 + 1.5x3 20
2x1 + 1.5x2 + 0.5x3 8
x1, x2, x3 0
Set Q
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-4-
From
To
City 1
City 2
City 3
City 4
Plant 1
10
Plant 2
12
13
Plant 3
14
16
the game.
B's stratgies
B1
B2
B3
A's
A1
Strategies
A2
A3

Set Q
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-5-
SECTION II
14
Item
Units
Unit price (Rs.)
Item
Units
Unit price (Rs.)
700
5.00
6000
0.20
2400
3.00
300
3.50
150
10.00
30
8.00
60
22.00
10
2900
0.40
3800
1.50
11
1150
7.10
4000
0.5
12
410
6.20
7. Write notes on :
a) R chart
b) Quality circle.


a) EOQ.
b) Safety stocks.
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
is that
d) All of the above
a) periodic
b) continuous
c) optimal
d) economic
c) demand/source
d) source/demand
b) set-up costs
c) storage costs
a) service rate
b) service time
a) Global minimum
d) None
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-2-
decisions
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwitz
a) mixed strategies
b) pure strategies
d) none of these
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) Strategy
a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Reproduction
d) All the above

d) simulate trials
a) Linear functions
a) State
d) Transformation
a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b and c
is known as a
d) nash strategy
b) minimize the number of origins used to satisfy total demand at the destinations
______________
Set R
*SLRPK27*
SLR-PK 27
-3-
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
Resource
Desk
Table
Chair
Max Avail
Lumber (board ft.)
48
Finishing hours
1.5
20
Carpentry hours
1.5
.5
Unlimited
unlimited
60
30
20
Max Demand
Price (($)

max z =
60x1 + 30x2 + 20x3
s.t. 8x1 + 6x2 + x3 48

4x1 + 2x2 + 1.5x3 20
2x1 + 1.5x2 + 0.5x3 8
x1, x2, x3 0
Set R
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-4-
From
To
City 1
City 2
City 3
City 4
Plant 1
10
Plant 2
12
13
Plant 3
14
16
the game.
B's stratgies
B1
B2
B3
A's
A1
Strategies
A2
A3

Set R
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-5-
SECTION II
14
Item
Units
Unit price (Rs.)
Item
Units
Unit price (Rs.)
700
5.00
6000
0.20
2400
3.00
300
3.50
150
10.00
30
8.00
60
22.00
10
2900
0.40
3800
1.50
11
1150
7.10
4000
0.5
12
410
6.20
7. Write notes on :
a) R chart
b) Quality circle.


a) EOQ.
b) Safety stocks.
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) State
d) Transformation
a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b and c
is known as a
d) nash strategy
b) minimize the number of origins used to satisfy total demand at the destination
is that
d) All of the above
a) periodic
b) continuous
c) optimal
d) economic
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-2-
c) demand/source
d) source/demand
b) set-up costs
c) storage costs
a) service rate
b) service time
a) Global minimum
d) None
d) All of these
decisions
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwitz
a) mixed strategies
b) pure strategies
d) none of these
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) Strategy
a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Reproduction
d) All the above

d) simulate trials
a) Linear functions
______________
Set S
*SLRPK27*
SLR-PK 27
-3-
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
Resource
Desk
Table
Chair
Max Avail
Lumber (board ft.)
48
Finishing hours
1.5
20
Carpentry hours
1.5
.5
Unlimited
unlimited
60
30
20
Max Demand
Price (($)

max z =
60x1 + 30x2 + 20x3
s.t. 8x1 + 6x2 + x3 48

4x1 + 2x2 + 1.5x3 20
2x1 + 1.5x2 + 0.5x3 8
x1, x2, x3 0
Set S
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*
-4-
From
To
City 1
City 2
City 3
City 4
Plant 1
10
Plant 2
12
13
Plant 3
14
16
the game.
B's stratgies
B1
B2
B3
A's
A1
Strategies
A2
A3

Set S
SLR-PK 27
*SLRPK27*7
-5-
SECTION II
14
Item
Units
Unit price (Rs.)
Item
Units
Unit price (Rs.)
700
5.00
6000
0.20
2400
3.00
300
3.50
150
10.00
30
8.00
60
22.00
10
2900
0.40
3800
1.50
11
1150
7.10
4000
0.5
12
410
6.20
7. Write notes on :
a) R chart
b) Quality circle.


a) EOQ.
b) Safety stocks.
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
S

TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Attempt all questions.

1. Choose correct answer :
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Flexible pavements transfer load mainly from

a) Grain to grain contact of aggregate particles
b) Cohesion alone
c) The binder power of bituminous materials
d) The flexural strength of the surface courses
2) The position of base course in a flexible pavement is
a) Over the sub base
b) Below the sub base
c) Over the subgrade but below the sub base
d) Over the wearing course when renewal of surface is needed
3) In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at
a) 2.5 mm penetration
b) 5.0 mm penetration
c) 7.5 mm penetration
d) Both a) and b)
4) The aggregate impact value should not exceed ______________ percent for
aggregate to be used in wearing course of pavements.
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
5) Generally the specific gravity of bitumen is in the range of _____________
a) 0.97 to 1.02
b) 1.02 to 2.02
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.0
6) Marshall method of mix design is carried out to find
a) Optimum content of cement in %
b) Optimum content of filler material in %
c) Optimum content of aggregates in %
d) Optimum content of bitumen in %
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
-2-
7) Modulus of subgrade reaction (K) is given by

a) K = p/
b) K = /p
c) K =
.p
d) K = p. .0.125
8) _______________ code is used to design the rigid pavement.

a) IRC 37
b) IRC 58
c) IRC 57
d) IRC 38
9) The rotary intersection can efficiently handle up to
a) 500 vehicles per hour
b) 500 vehicles per day
c) 3000 vehicles per hour
d) 5000 vehicles per day
10) _______________ bars are used across the longitudinal joints of cement concrete
pavements.
a) Tie bars
b) Dowel bars
c) Tie bars and dowel bars
d) None of these
11) A vehicle travelling at 40 kmph was stopped within 1.8 seconds after the application
of the brakes. Then the average skid resistance is
a) 0.43
b) 0.53
c) 0.63
d) 0.73
12) When the speed of traffic flow becomes zero, then
a) Traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
b) Traffic density and traffic volume both attains maximum value
c) Traffic density and traffic volume both becomes zero
d) Traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains maximum value
13) If the ruling gradients is 1 in 20 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 76 m,
then the compensated grade should be
a) 3%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 6%
14) One of the following methods is used for tunneling in soft soils.
a) Fore poling method
b) Drift method
c) Full-face method
d) Heading and bench method
15) Thickness of the tunnel lining is determined by
a) T = 50 D
b) T = 82 D
c) T = 30 D
16) The velocity of water can be measured by

a) Anemo meter
b) Elco meter
c) Current meter
d) Thermo meter
17) One of the following is a shallow foundation

a) Pile foundation
b) Well foundation
c) Raft foundation
d) Under reamed piles
18) Wing walls and return walls are provided to retain
a) Earth on approaches
b) Track on approaches
c) Ballast
d) None of these
19) Freeboard is the difference between formation level and
a) HFL
b) Rail level
c) Bed level
d) Danger level
20) Enoscope technique is used to find out

a) Spot Speed of the vehicle
b) Delay of the vehicle
c) Traffic numbers
d) All the above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK28*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 28

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Attempt all questions.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any five (8 marks each) :
a) While aligning a hill road with ruling gradient of 6%, a horizontal curve of radius
60 m is encountered. Find the compensated gradient of the curve.
b) Discuss the factors affecting alignment of a highway.
c) What is camber ? State different types of camber with their values and also write
importance of camber.
d) How will carry out origin study and destination study ? Why ?
e) Write down different types of traffic signs and signals.
f) How will you carryout CBR test on sub-grade soil ? Explain your answer with
graph.
g) Write the application of flash and fire point test, ductility test on bituminous materials.
h) Discuss the points covered in Bombay plan and Nagpur plan for highway
development.
SECTION II
3. Solve any five (8 marks each) :
a) Find GI for the following data and explain how will you use it ?
1) Portion of material passing .074 mm sieve = 45
2) Liquid limit = 45
3) Plastic limit = 18.
Set P
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
-4-
b) The approx. cost of one pier and one super structure span for a multispan bridge
for various lengths of span are tabulated as
e
i
Determine economic span.

c) Explain sub-surface drainage system for roads.
d) How will you carry out highway maintenance ?
e) Discuss Afflux and Scour with respect to bridge.
f) Draw the diagram for abutment and pier, wingwall for bridges and state their
importance.
g) Explain different types of tunnel linings.
h) Describe any one method for tunneling in hard rock.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Anemo meter
b) Elco meter
c) Current meter
(201=20)
d) Thermo meter

a) Pile foundation
b) Well foundation
c) Raft foundation
c) Ballast
d) None of these
a) HFL
b) Rail level
c) Bed level
d) Danger level

c) Traffic numbers
d) All the above
b) Cohesion alone
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
-2-

d) Both a) and b)
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
a) 0.97 to 1.02
b) 1.02 to 2.02
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.0
a) K = p/
b) K = /p
c) K =
.p
d) K = p. .0.125

a) IRC 37
b) IRC 58
c) IRC 57
d) IRC 38
pavements.
a) Tie bars
b) Dowel bars
d) None of these
a) 0.43
b) 0.53
c) 0.63
d) 0.73
a) 3%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 6%
b) Drift method
c) Full-face method
a) T = 50 D
b) T = 82 D
c) T = 30 D
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK28*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 28

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
graph.
development.
SECTION II
Set Q
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
-4-
e
i

importance.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 0.43
b) 0.53
c) 0.63
d) 0.73
a) 3%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 6%
b) Drift method
c) Full-face method
a) T = 50 D
b) T = 82 D
c) T = 30 D

a) Anemo meter
b) Elco meter
c) Current meter
d) Thermo meter

a) Pile foundation
b) Well foundation
c) Raft foundation
c) Ballast
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
-2-

a) HFL
b) Rail level
c) Bed level
d) Danger level

c) Traffic numbers
d) All the above
b) Cohesion alone
d) Both a) and b)
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
a) 0.97 to 1.02
b) 1.02 to 2.02
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.0
a) K = p/
b) K = /p
c) K =
.p
d) K = p. .0.125

a) IRC 37
b) IRC 58
c) IRC 57
d) IRC 38
pavements.
a) Tie bars
b) Dowel bars
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK28*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 28

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
graph.
development.
SECTION II
Set R
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
-4-
e
i

importance.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) K = p/
b) K = /p
c) K =
.p
d) K = p. .0.125

a) IRC 37
b) IRC 58
c) IRC 57
d) IRC 38
pavements.
a) Tie bars
b) Dowel bars
d) None of these
a) 0.43
b) 0.53
c) 0.63
d) 0.73
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
-2-

a) 3%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 6%
b) Drift method
c) Full-face method
a) T = 50 D
b) T = 82 D
c) T = 30 D

a) Anemo meter
b) Elco meter
c) Current meter
d) Thermo meter

a) Pile foundation
b) Well foundation
c) Raft foundation
c) Ballast
d) None of these
a) HFL
b) Rail level
c) Bed level
d) Danger level

c) Traffic numbers
d) All the above
b) Cohesion alone
d) Both a) and b)
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
a) 0.97 to 1.02
b) 1.02 to 2.02
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.0
______________
Set S
*SLRPK28*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 28

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
graph.
development.
SECTION II
Set S
SLR-PK 28
*SLRPK28*
-4-
e
i

importance.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2016

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

forget to mention, Q.P. Set (A/B/C/D) on Top of Page.
Marks : 20
1. Write the correct option in front of each question.
(201=20)
1) The carryover factor for beam with far end fixed is

a) 1
b) 0.5
c) 1
1
d) 0.5
2) Strain energy of structure due to bending is given by

a)
M2
dx
EI
b)
2M2
dx
EI
c)
M2
dx
2EI
d)
M2
dx
4EI
3) The equation of parabolic arch is

a) y =
4hx
l
(l x )
b) y =
2hx
l
1
(l x )
c) y =
hx
l
(l x )
d)
1 .5 hx
l2
(l x )
4) A propped cantilever of span l carries UDL of W Kw/m throughout span. The value of
prop reaction is
a)
Wl
4
b)
Wl
3
c)
3Wl
8
d)
5Wl
8
5) The principal of super position is applicable when

a) Material obeys Hooks law
b) Deflection are linear functions of applied forces
c) Small deformations of structure
d) None of above
6) Which of following is not displacement method ?

a) Method of consistent deformation
b) Stiffness method
c) Moment distribution method
d) All the above
7) What is degree of kinematic Indeterminacy of figure given below ?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
-2-
8) Distribution factor of mentor A is
I, L
I, L
I, L
a) 0.4
b) 0.3
c) 0.7
d) 0.4
9) End moment for beam BA of shown in fig below
a) MBA = MFBA +
4EI
(2QA + QB)
L
b) MBA = MFBA +
2EI
(2QA + QB)
L
c) MBA = MFBA +
2EI
(QA + 2QB)
L
d) MBA = MFBA +
4EI
(QA + 2QB)
L
10) The flexibility matrix corresponding to figure given below

2
1
(EI = Constant)
L 4 1
L 4 1
L 3 2
b) 3EI
c) 6EI
3EI 2 4
1 2
1 2
11) Deflection at structure where load P is applied is given by
a)
a)
M M
P
EI
b)
M dx
P EI
c)
M dx
EI
M P
L 3 2
d) 2EI
2 4
1
d) None of above
12) End Rotation for beam with udl is

3
Wab (l + b)
Wl
Wl
b)
c)
6EIl
24EI
16EI
13) Fixed end moment for point load P at midspan is
a)
a)
PL
8
b)
PL
12
c)
Pab
L2
d) None of above
1
d) All the above
14) Reaction at support due to sinking of support is

6EI
12EI
6EI
4EI
a)
b)
c)
d)
2
3
2
L
L
L
L
15) Stiffness matrix is
a) Unsymmetric
b) Rectangular matrix
c) Symmetric matrix
d) All the above
16) Size of stiffness matrix is

a) Kinematic indeterminacy
c) Number of external forces
b) Static indeterminacy
d) None of above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK30*
SLR-PK 30
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
In Section I Q. 1 is compulsory and solve any two from remaining.

In Section II solve any three questions.
Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly.
Figure to right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any three :

(43=12)
a) Explain unit load method with example.
b) Explain difference between force method and displacement method.
c) Explain how to solve fixed beams with yielding support using consistent deformation
approach.
d) Derive flexibility matrix for following structure.
1
2
L
3. Draw SFD and BMD using consistent deformation method.
24 KN
4 KW/m
B
C
A
6m
2m
2m
14
4. Draw B.M.D. using energy method.

30 Kw/m
14
4m
3m
3m
5. a) Explain Maxwells reciprocal theorem.

b) Draw BMD using flexibility method.
10 Kw/m
B
A
4m
5m
10
Set P
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
-4-
SECTION II
6. Analyse following frame using moment distribution method draw BMD.
30
B
30
C
2
12 KN/m
12 KN/m
4m
14
4m
6m
7. Analyse the following beam using stiffness method.

300 KN
30 KN/m
B
13
A
6m
4m
8. Analyze following frame using stiffness method.

600
600
B
1
13
C
1.8
D
4.5
A
9. A) Draw ILD for RA of following continuous beam. Find values at every 1m interval.
B
C
A
5m
10
5m
B) Explain the Muller Breslan principal to draw ILD.

_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
I, L
I, L
I, L
a) 0.4
b) 0.3
c) 0.7
d) 0.4
4EI
a) MBA = MFBA +
(2QA + QB)
L
b) MBA = MFBA +
2EI
(2QA + 2QB)
L
2EI
(QA + 2QB)
c) MBA = MFBA +
L
d) MBA = MFBA +
4EI
(QA + 2QB)
L

2
1
(EI = Constant)
L 4 1
L 4 1
L 3 2
b) 3EI
c) 6EI
3EI 2 4
1 2
1 2
a)
a)
M M
P
EI
b)
M dx
P EI
c)
M dx
EI
M P
L 3 2
d) 2EI
2 4
1
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
-2-

3
Wab (l + b)
Wl
Wl
b)
c)
6EIl
24EI
16EI
a)
a)
PL
8
b)
PL
12
c)
Pab
d) None of above
1
d) All the above
L2

6EI
12EI
6EI
4EI
a)
b)
c)
d)
2
3
2
L
L
L
L
a) Unsymmetric
c) Symmetric matrix
d) All the above

d) None of above
a) 1
b) 0.5
c) 1
1
d) 0.5

a)
M2
dx
EI
b)
2M2
dx
EI
c)
M2
dx
2EI
d)
M2
dx
4EI

a) y =
4hx
l
(l x )
b) y =
2hx
l
(l x )
c) y =
hx
l
(l x )
d)
1 .5 hx
l2
(l x )
prop reaction is
a)
Wl
4
b)
Wl
3
c)
3Wl
8
d)
5Wl
8

d) None of above

b) Stiffness method
d) All the above
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
______________
d) 7
Set Q
*SLRPK30*
SLR-PK 30
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(43=12)
approach.
1
2
L
24 KN
4 KW/m
B
C
A
6m
2m
2m
14

30 Kw/m
14
4m
3m
3m

10 Kw/m
B
A
4m
5m
10
Set Q
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
-4-
SECTION II
30
B
30
C
2
12 KN/m
12 KN/m
4m
14
4m
6m

300 KN
30 KN/m
B
13
A
6m
4m

600
600
B
1
13
C
1.8
D
4.5
A
B
C
A
5m
10
5m

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

6EI
12EI
6EI
4EI
a)
b)
c)
d)
2
3
2
L
L
L
L
a) Unsymmetric
c) Symmetric matrix
d) All the above

d) None of above

a) 1
b) 0.5
c) 1
1
d) 0.5

a)
M2
dx
EI
b)
2M2
dx
EI
c)
M2
dx
2EI
d)
M2
dx
4EI

a) y =
4hx
l
(l x )
b) y =
2hx
l
1
(l x )
c) y =
hx
l
(l x )
d)
1 .5 hx
l2
(l x )
prop reaction is
a)
Wl
4
b)
Wl
3
c)
3Wl
8

d) None of above
d)
5Wl
8
1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
-2-

b) Stiffness method
d) All the above
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
I, L
I, L
I, L
a) 0.4
b) 0.3
c) 0.7
d) 0.4
a) MBA = MFBA +
4EI
(2QA + QB)
L
b) MBA = MFBA +
2EI
(2QA + QB)
L
c) MBA = MFBA +
2EI
(QA + 2QB)
L
d) MBA = MFBA +
4EI
(QA + 2QB)
L

2
1
(EI = Constant)
L 3 2
a)
3EI 2 4
L 4 1
b) 3EI
1 2
L 4 1
c) 6EI
1 2
L 3 2
d) 2EI
2 4

a)
M M
P
EI
b)
M dx
P EI
c)
M dx
EI
M P
1
d) None of above

3
Wab (l + b)
Wl
Wl
b)
c)
6EIl
24EI
16EI
a)
a)
PL
8
b)
PL
12
c)
Pab
L2
d) None of above
1
d) All the above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK30*
SLR-PK 30
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(43=12)
approach.
1
2
L
24 KN
4 KW/m
B
C
A
6m
2m
2m
14

30 Kw/m
14
4m
3m
3m

10 Kw/m
B
A
4m
5m
10
Set R
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
-4-
SECTION II
30
B
30
C
2
12 KN/m
12 KN/m
4m
14
4m
6m

300 KN
30 KN/m
B
13
A
6m
4m

600
600
B
1
13
C
1.8
D
4.5
A
B
C
A
5m
10
5m

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
prop reaction is
a)
Wl
4
b)
Wl
3
c)
3Wl
8
d)
5Wl
8

d) None of above

b) Stiffness method
d) All the above
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
I, L
I, L
I, L
a) 0.4
b) 0.3
c) 0.7
d) 0.4
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
-2-
a) MBA = MFBA +
4EI
(2QA + QB)
L
b) MBA = MFBA +
2EI
(2QA + QB)
L
c) MBA = MFBA +
2EI
(QA + 2QB)
L
d) MBA = MFBA +
4EI
(QA + 2QB)
L

2
1
(EI = Constant)
L 4 1
L 4 1
L 3 2
b) 3EI
c) 6EI
3EI 2 4
1 2
1 2
a)
a)
M M
P
EI
b)
M dx
P EI
c)
M dx
EI
M P
L 3 2
d) 2EI
2 4
1
d) None of above

3
Wab (l + b)
Wl
Wl
b)
c)
6EIl
24EI
16EI
a)
a)
PL
8
b)
PL
12
c)
Pab
d) None of above
1
d) All the above
L2

6EI
12EI
6EI
4EI
a)
b)
c)
d)
2
3
2
L
L
L
L
a) Unsymmetric
c) Symmetric matrix
d) All the above

d) None of above
a) 1
b) 0.5
c) 1
1
d) 0.5

a)
M2
dx
EI
b)
2M2
dx
EI
c)
M2
dx
2EI
d)
M2
dx
4EI

a) y =
4hx
l
(l x )
b) y =
2hx
l
(l x )
c) y =
______________
hx
l
(l x )
d)
1 .5 hx
l2
(l x )
Set S
*SLRPK30*
SLR-PK 30
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(43=12)
approach.
1
2
L
24 KN
4 KW/m
B
C
A
6m
2m
2m
14

30 Kw/m
14
4m
3m
3m

10 Kw/m
B
A
4m
5m
10
Set S
SLR-PK 30
*SLRPK30*
-4-
SECTION II
30
B
30
C
2
12 KN/m
12 KN/m
4m
14
4m
6m

300 KN
30 KN/m
B
13
A
6m
4m

600
600
B
1
13
C
1.8
D
4.5
A
B
C
A
5m
10
5m

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
S
Set
t

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 20 + 80 = 100
Instructions : 1) Figure to the right indicates full mark.

2) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Book Page No. 3.
4) Answer MCQ/objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to
mention, Q.P. Set (P/QR/S) on top of page.
1. The most common disturbing agent affecting the stability of soil slope is
a) mass of soil
b) seismic force
c) external load
d) seepage
2. For an undisturbed sampler the area ratio of the sampler should be

a) zero
b) 10% or less
c) 10-20%
b) Nylon
c) Polyster
1
d) more than 20%
3. The material used for manufacture of geotextile is

a) Polythene
Marks : 20
1
d) All above
4. Bearing capacity of a footing on sand depends on

a) Depth of footing
b) Width of footing
c) Position of water table
d) Undrained shear strength
5. Group efficiency of a pile group
a) will be always less than 100%

b) will be always greater than 100%
c) will be less than or more than 100%
d) will be more than 100% for cohesionless soil and less than 100% for cohesive soil
6. In the approximate analysis of a cantilever sheet pile wall, the point of rotation is about
a) the dredge level

b) top of the wall
c) below the dredge level but above the bottom of the wall
d) at the bottom of wall
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 31
-2-
*SLRPK31*
7. Taylors stability charts are based on the total stresses using the
a) Friction circle method
b) Method of slices
c)
= 0 analysis
8. The method of slices was first suggested by
a) Taylor
b) Bishop
c) Fellineous
d) Terzaghi
9. A shallow foundation is usually defined as a foundation which has
10.
11.
a) depth less than 0.6 m
b) depth less than its width
c) depth less than 1 m
The floating caisson is
a) Open at top closed at bottom
b) Closed at top open at bottom
c) Open at top and bottom
Following is Area ratio of two samplers

Sampler A 10.9%
Sampler B 21%
Which sampler is recommended ?
12.
13.
14.
15.
a) Sampler A
b) Sampler B
c) Any sampler
d) None of these
A pile of 0.5 m dia and length 10 m is embeded in a deposit of clay having c = 60 kN/m 2,
skin friction capacity (kN) of the pile for an adhesion factor of 0.6 is
a) 671
b) 565
c) 283
d) 106
= 10. The
2
A test plate 30 cm 30 cm resting on a sand settles by 10 mm under a certain loading intensity A footing
of 150 cm 200 cm resting on same sand deposit and loaded to same intensity settles by
a) 2 mm
b) 27.8 mm
c) 30.2 mm
d) 50 mm
Efficiency of a 3 3 (3 rows 3 column) pile group as per Felds rule will be

a) 93.85%
b) 81.25%
c) 66.67%
d) 72.22%
A finite slope of a cohesionless soil is safe as long as

a)
c) The soil is dry
b) There is no external load

d) The soil is wet
______________
Set P
*SLRPK31*
S
SLR-PK 31
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.

2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
1. A) Discuss the various factors that affects the bearing capacity of a shallow footing in detail.
B) Compute the safe bearing capacity of a square footing 1.5 m 1.5 m located at a depth of 1 m below
the ground level in a soil of average density 20 kN/m3,
= 20, Nc = 17.7, Nq = 7.4, and N = 5.

Assume FOS = 3. Also compute the reduction in safe bearing capacity of footing if water
table rises to ground level.
2. A) Write a note on the methods of proportioning of footings for equal settlement.
B) Derive the equation for the consolidation settlement under the footings.
3. A) Discuss the guidelines for the construciton of foundations in the expansive soil.
B) Write a note on following ground improvement technique.

1) sand drain
2) grouting
4. Write note on any four :
14
1) Split spoon sampler

2) Wash boring
3) Area ratio
4) Bore log
5) Undisturbed samplers.
SECTION II
5. A) Explain the conditions in which combined footing is preferred. Also explain the
principle of design of combined footing with suitable example.
B) Design a combined footing for two columns 30 cm 30 cm in size. Centre to centre distance
between the column is 5 m. The column adjacent to property line carries a load of 400 kN and other
column carries a load of 300 kN. Allowable bearing pressure is 100 kN/m2.
Set P
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
-4-
6. A) It is proposed to transfer the load of 3000 kN of a structure thorugh 10 m long bored piles in a deep
deposit of clay having undrained shear strength of 90 kN/m2. The design dia of pile is 400 mm. Estimate
the no. of piles required considering a FOS of 2.5. Also suggest the arrangement of piles.
8
B) Explain negative skin friction, where it develops.
7. A) Briefly explain the procedure adopted in well sinking and bringout the problems that are encountered
in open sinking.
B) Determine the FOS of embankement by the method of slices if slope is 1.5:1 (H;V) and height
is 12 m. The values of C and
,
are 50 kN/m2 and 25 respectively unit weight = 19 kN/m 3. Take
35 and slice width = 1.5 m.
8. A) What are different types of sheet pile walls ? Draw the sketches showing the pressure distribution
for various cases.
B) Determine the required depth of embedment for the cantilever sheet pile. Dredge level is 5 m below
G.L. soil properties above and below dredge level are same. Take
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 20 + 80 = 100

Book Page No. 3.
Marks : 20
1
a) the dredge level

b) top of the wall
c)
= 0 analysis
b) Method of slices
a) Taylor
b) Bishop
c) Fellineous
d) Terzaghi

5. The floating caisson is
a) mass of soil
b) seismic force
c) external load
d) seepage
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
-2-

a) zero
b) 10% or less
c) 10-20%
1
d) more than 20%

a) Polythene
b) Nylon
c) Polyster
1
d) All above
10.
a) Depth of footing
b) Width of footing
Group efficiency of a pile group

11.
a) 671
12.
13.
14.
b) 565
= 10. The
2
d) 106
a) 2 mm
b) 27.8 mm
c) 30.2 mm
d) 50 mm

a) 93.85%
b) 81.25%
c) 66.67%
d) 72.22%

a)
c) The soil is dry

15.
c) 283

d) The soil is wet

Sampler A 10.9%
Sampler B 21%
a) Sampler A
b) Sampler B
c) Any sampler
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK31*
S
SLR-PK 31
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
= 20, Nc = 17.7, Nq = 7.4, and N = 5.


1) sand drain
2) grouting
14

2) Wash boring
3) Area ratio
4) Bore log
SECTION II
Set Q
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
-4-
8
in open sinking.
,
for various cases.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 20 + 80 = 100

Book Page No. 3.
a) Taylor
b) Bishop
c) Fellineous
d) Terzaghi
a) mass of soil
b) seismic force
c) external load
d) seepage

a) zero
b) 10% or less
c) 10-20%
b) Nylon
c) Polyster
1
d) more than 20%

a) Polythene
Marks : 20
1
d) All above

a) Depth of footing
b) Width of footing
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
-2-

a) the dredge level

b) top of the wall
10.
Taylors stability charts are based on the total stresses using the
c)
11.
= 0 analysis
b) 27.8 mm
b) 81.25%
c) 66.67%
d) 50 mm
2
d) 72.22%

a)

c) The soil is dry

14.
c) 30.2 mm

a) 93.85%
13.
b) Method of slices
a) 2 mm
12.
d) The soil is wet

Sampler A 10.9%
Sampler B 21%
15.
a) Sampler A
b) Sampler B
c) Any sampler
d) None of these
a) 671
b) 565
c) 283
______________
= 10. The
2
d) 106
Set Q
*SLRPK31*
S
SLR-PK 31
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
= 20, Nc = 17.7, Nq = 7.4, and N = 5.


1) sand drain
2) grouting
14

2) Wash boring
3) Area ratio
4) Bore log
SECTION II
Set Q
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
-4-
8
in open sinking.
,
for various cases.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 20 + 80 = 100

Book Page No. 3.
a) mass of soil
b) seismic force
c) external load
d) seepage

a) zero
b) 10% or less
c) 10-20%
b) Nylon
c) Polyster
1
d) more than 20%

a) Polythene
Marks : 20
1
d) All above

a) Depth of footing
b) Width of footing

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
-2-
a) the dredge level

b) top of the wall
b) Method of slices
c)
= 0 analysis

a) Taylor
10.
11.
d) Terzaghi
1

b) 81.25%
c) 66.67%
d) 72.22%

a)

c) The soil is dry

13.
c) Fellineous
A shallow foundation is usually defined as a foundation which has
a) 93.85%
12.
b) Bishop
d) The soil is wet

Sampler A 10.9%
Sampler B 21%
14.
a) Sampler A
b) Sampler B
c) Any sampler
d) None of these
a) 671
15.
b) 565
c) 283
= 10. The
2
d) 106
a) 2 mm
b) 27.8 mm
c) 30.2 mm
______________
d) 50 mm
Set S
*SLRPK31*
S
SLR-PK 31
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
= 20, Nc = 17.7, Nq = 7.4, and N = 5.


1) sand drain
2) grouting
14

2) Wash boring
3) Area ratio
4) Bore log
SECTION II
Set S
SLR-PK 31
*SLRPK31*
-4-
8
in open sinking.
,
for various cases.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 32
*SLRPK32*
Seat
No.
Set
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) In absence of exact data the waste water flow is considered as _________ % of water
supply.
a) 70
b) 80
c) 90
d) 95
2) The waste stabilization pond may be _________
a) Aerobic
b) Anaerobic
c) Facultative
d) Any of above
3) __________ is used for determination of volatile solids.

a) Muffle furnace
b) Incubator
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
4) The term sloughing of biofilm is associated with _________
a) Aeration
b) Sedimentation
c) Trickling filter
d) None of these
5) Unit of SVI is _________
a) ml/gm
b) mm/gm
c) lit/kg
d) none of above
6) Purpose of grit chamber is, to _________

a) Remove heavy solids
b) Prevent the pipes from clogging due to heavy solids
c) Protect the pumps from abrasion, wear and tear
d) All of above
7) Which of the following is used to control velocity of flow in grit chamber ?
a) Sutro weir
b) Proportional flow weir
c) Parabolic grit chamber
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 32
*SLRPK32*
-2-
8) Pick out odd one from following.

Soak pit, Dispersion trench, Leaching cesspool, Screen chamber
a) Soak pit
b) Dispersion trench
c) Leaching cesspool
d) Screen chamber
9) _________ is observed in oxidation ponds.
a) Bacteria-algal symbiosis
b) COD-BOD symbiosis
c) Algae-protozoa symbiosis
d) None of these
10) Example/s of suspended growth treatment/s is/are ________
a) ASP
b) Trickling filter
c) Oxidation ditch
d) Both a) and c)
11) The variation of oxygen deficit with the distance along stream is depicted by the
a) Saturation
b) Temperature
c) Self-purification
d) Oxygen sag curve
12) Algae dies out, through fishes life may survive, in a river zone, called _______
a) Zone of degradation
b) Zone of active decomposition
c) Zone of recovery
d) None of these
13) The ratio of quantity of receiving water or effluent discharge is called ________
a) Reduction factor
b) Recirculation factor
c) Dilution factor
d) Self purification
14) DO level in the stream may be zero in the zone of ________
a) Clear water
b) Active decomposition
c) Recovery
d) Degradation
15) Which of the following is not a biodegradable waste ?
a) Food
b) Garden trimmings
c) Rubber
d) Plastic
16) _______ waste water treatment systems are installed at or near the point where the
waste water is generated.
a) Partially separate
b) Decentralized
c) Centralized
d) Combined
17) CO combines with haemoglobin to form _______
a) Epoxy-Haemoglobin
b) Pneumonia
c) Carboxy-Haemoglobin
d) Trioxy-Haemoglobin
18) ________ solves problem of air pollution but creates problem of water pollution.
a) Scrubbers
b) Bag house
c) Cyclone
d) ESP
19) The acid rains are caused by the pollutants
a) SO2 and O3
b) SO2 and O2
c) NOx and O3
20) Pick out the odd one
a) Windrow
b) Indore
c) Bangalore
d) NOx and O2
d) Pyrolysis
______________
Set P
*SLRPK32*
-3-
SLR-PK 32
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
1) Solve any three questions from Section-I i.e. Question no. 2 to Question
no. 5, Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section-II and solve any two
questions from remaining.
SECTION I
2. a) Draw a flow sheet for domestic waste water treatment plant with ASP as secondary
biological treatment. Mention function of each unit shown in your flow sheet.
b) Differentiate between Conservancy and water carriage system.
3. a) Design a circular PST for following data
7
6
5
i) Population = 60,000
ii) Water supply rate = 160 Ipcd
iii) Peak factor = 3
Assume suitable SOR and detention time.
b) What is SVI ? What is its unit ? How is it determined ? Derive relation for recirculation
ratio (r) by using concept of SVI.
4. a) Discuss operational problems in trickling filters.
b) A continuous flow completely stirred ASP is designed with following data
i) Flow rate = 2150
8
5
8
m3/day
ii) Influent BOD5 = 230 mg/Lit

iii) Effluent BOD5 = 20 mg/Lit
iv) MLSS = 2400 mg/Lit
v) MCRT = 10 days
vi) Y = 0.65 and kd = 0.05
Find :
a) Reactor volume
b) F/M ratio
c) Oxygen requirement.
Set P
SLR-PK 32
-4-
*SLRPK32*
5. Write short notes on following (any three) :
14
1) Types of sewer
2) Design of PST
3) Septic tank
4) Disposal of screening and grit.
SECTION II
6. a) Explain actions involved in self purification process.
b) Explain the principle and working of Electrostatic precipitator with neat sketch.
7. a) A river saturated with DO, has flow of 30 m3/sec., BOD of 3 mg/l and reoxygenation
constant of 0.3/day. It receives a waste water discharge of 2 m2/sec. having BOD of
210 mg/l, DO 4 mg/l and deoxygenation constant 0.13/day. Calculate DO deficit at the end
of 1 day and 2 day. Assume that temperature is 20C throughout and BOD is measured at
5 days. Take saturation DO at 20C is 9.17 mg/l.
b) Write comparison between centralized and decentralized waste water treatment.
8. a) Explain with neat sketch the operations involved in Mechanical composting.
b) Explain advantages and disadvantages of incineration.
8
6
8
6
9. Write short note on :

a) Zones of pollution in the streams.
b) Classification of Air Pollutants.
c) Indore method of composting.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 32
*SLRPK32*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

b) Decentralized
c) Centralized
d) Combined
b) Pneumonia
a) Scrubbers
b) Bag house
c) Cyclone
d) ESP
a) SO2 and O3
b) SO2 and O2
c) NOx and O3
a) Windrow
b) Indore
c) Bangalore
d) NOx and O2
d) Pyrolysis
supply.
a) 70
b) 80
c) 90
d) 95
a) Aerobic
b) Anaerobic
c) Facultative
d) Any of above

a) Muffle furnace
b) Incubator
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Aeration
b) Sedimentation
c) Trickling filter
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 32
*SLRPK32*
-2-
10) Unit of SVI is _________

a) ml/gm
b) mm/gm
c) lit/kg
d) none of above

d) All of above
a) Sutro weir
d) All of above
a) Soak pit
d) Screen chamber
d) None of these
a) ASP
b) Trickling filter
c) Oxidation ditch
d) Both a) and c)
a) Saturation
b) Temperature
d) Oxygen sag curve
c) Zone of recovery
d) None of these
a) Reduction factor
c) Dilution factor
a) Clear water
c) Recovery
d) Degradation
a) Food
b) Garden trimmings
c) Rubber
d) Plastic
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK32*
-3-
SLR-PK 32
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
SECTION I
7
6
5
i) Flow rate = 2150
8
5
8
m3/day

v) MCRT = 10 days
vi) Y = 0.65 and kd = 0.05
Find :
a) Reactor volume
b) F/M ratio
Set Q
SLR-PK 32
-4-
*SLRPK32*
14
1) Types of sewer
2) Design of PST
3) Septic tank
SECTION II
8
6
8
6

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 32
*SLRPK32*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Saturation
b) Temperature
d) Oxygen sag curve
c) Zone of recovery
d) None of these
a) Reduction factor
c) Dilution factor
a) Clear water
c) Recovery
d) Degradation
a) Food
b) Garden trimmings
c) Rubber
d) Plastic
b) Decentralized
c) Centralized
d) Combined
b) Pneumonia
a) Scrubbers
b) Bag house
c) Cyclone
d) ESP
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 32
*SLRPK32*
-2-

a) SO2 and O3
b) SO2 and O2
c) NOx and O3
a) Windrow
b) Indore
c) Bangalore
d) NOx and O2
d) Pyrolysis
supply.
a) 70
b) 80
c) 90
d) 95
a) Aerobic
b) Anaerobic
c) Facultative
d) Any of above

a) Muffle furnace
b) Incubator
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Aeration
b) Sedimentation
c) Trickling filter
d) None of these
15) Unit of SVI is _________
a) ml/gm
b) mm/gm
c) lit/kg
d) none of above

d) All of above
a) Sutro weir
d) All of above
a) Soak pit
d) Screen chamber
d) None of these
a) ASP
b) Trickling filter
c) Oxidation ditch
d) Both a) and c)
______________
Set R
*SLRPK32*
-3-
SLR-PK 32
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
no. 5,Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section-II and solve any two
SECTION I
7
6
5
i) Flow rate = 2150
8
5
8
m3/day

v) MCRT = 10 days
vi) Y = 0.65 and kd = 0.05
Find :
a) Reactor volume
b) F/M ratio
Set R
SLR-PK 32
-4-
*SLRPK32*
14
1) Types of sewer
2) Design of PST
3) Septic tank
SECTION II
8
6
8
6

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 32
*SLRPK32*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

d) All of above
a) Sutro weir
d) All of above
a) Soak pit
d) Screen chamber
d) None of these
a) ASP
b) Trickling filter
c) Oxidation ditch
d) Both a) and c)
a) Saturation
b) Temperature
d) Oxygen sag curve
c) Zone of recovery
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 32
*SLRPK32*
-2-

a) Reduction factor
c) Dilution factor
a) Clear water
c) Recovery
d) Degradation
a) Food
b) Garden trimmings
c) Rubber
d) Plastic
b) Decentralized
c) Centralized
d) Combined
b) Pneumonia
a) Scrubbers
b) Bag house
c) Cyclone
d) ESP
a) SO2 and O3
b) SO2 and O2
c) NOx and O3
a) Windrow
b) Indore
c) Bangalore
d) NOx and O2
d) Pyrolysis
supply.
a) 70
b) 80
c) 90
d) 95
a) Aerobic
b) Anaerobic
c) Facultative
d) Any of above

a) Muffle furnace
b) Incubator
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Aeration
b) Sedimentation
c) Trickling filter
d) None of these
20) Unit of SVI is _________
a) ml/gm
b) mm/gm
c) lit/kg
d) none of above
______________
Set S
*SLRPK32*
-3-
SLR-PK 32
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
SECTION I
7
6
5
i) Flow rate = 2150
8
5
8
m3/day

v) MCRT = 10 days
vi) Y = 0.65 and kd = 0.05
Find :
a) Reactor volume
b) F/M ratio
Set S
SLR-PK 32
-4-
*SLRPK32*
14
1) Types of sewer
2) Design of PST
3) Septic tank
SECTION II
8
6
8
6

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
2) Q. No. five is compulsory in Section I and solve any two
questions from Q. No. 2 to Q. 4.
3) Q. No nine is compulsory in Section II and solve
any two questions from Q. No. 6 to Q. No. 8.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative (1 mark each)

(201=20)
1) In MSP Entry Table view, the main working area of screen consist of
___________ parts.
a) Entry table
b) Gantt chart
c) Both a) and b) d) None
2) In MSP, Entry table will show
a) Listing of every task
b) Calculated details for each task
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
3) Sustaining cost and acquisition costs are required for
a) Network compression
b) Life cycle costing
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
4) MIS means
a) Management Internet System
b) Material Internet System
c) Material Informational System
d) None
5) Which of following network is easy to draw ?
a) AOA
b) AON
6) Which type of float is important in PERT ?
a) TF
b) FF
c) IF
d) None
7) For existing structure which of the following is used ?
a) Value engineering
b) Value Analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
-2-
8) Which of the following phase is important in value engineering ?

a) Information phase
b) Creative phase
c) Judgement phase
d) All the above
9) In which chart important events are shown ?
a) Bar chart
b) Milestone chart
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
10) Utility data curve consist of
a) Direct cost
b) Indirect cost
c) Total cost
11) Resource Allocation includes

a) Resource levelling
c) Both a) and b)
b) Resource smoothening
d) None
12) Probability factor is indicated by _____________ letter.

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) All the above
d) None
13) Taking review of progress of work is called as

b) Resource levelling
c) Updating
d) None
14) A person is interested to deposit money in bank with interest rate 8%. Out of
the following which he will select ?
a) Interest compounded monthly
b) Interest compounded quarterly
c) Interest compound biannually
d) Interest compounded annually
15) Mr. John has taken a loan from Bank. EMI will be decided using ________
factor.
a) USCAF
b) USCRF
c) USPWF
d) USSFF
16) MRP of an item is
a) Total cost of item
c) a+ b
b) Profit
d) None
17) Wide range of money is spread over a longer period, for economic comparison
which of the following will be used ?
a) EUAC
b) PW
c) Yield
d) Rate of return
18) In DCF technique which of the following method is not included ?
a) EUAC
b) Yield
c) Rate of return d) None
19) Prospective rate of return will be calculated in ____________ method.
a) EUAC
b) Yield
c) Rate of return d) All the above
20) If an item is sold before its life period, we will get ____________ value.
a) Scrap value
b) Salvage value c) Both a) and b) d) None
______________
Set P
*SLRPK33*
-3-
SLR-PK 33
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. No. five is compulsory in Section I and solve any

two questions from Q. No. 2 to Q. 4.
SECTION I
Attempt any two questions from Q. 2 to Q. 4. Q. No. 5 is compulsory.
2. a) Discuss importance of updating.
b) A project consist of following activities.
Preceding
Activity Activity
Duration
(days)
D, E
D, E
12
E, F
10
H, K
1) Draw network find out CP and PD.

2) Find free float and independent float for non critical activities.
10
Set P
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
-4-
3. a) State application of MSP and primiveria in civil engineering.
b) Carry out the resource levelling for the following project.
10
Activity
12
13
23
24
34
Dur (days)
Men required
15
20
30
25
10
4. a) Write in short about Bar Chart and Mile stone chart.
b) A PERT project consist of following activities.

Activities
10
Duration in days
Optimisstic Most likely Pessimistic
10 20
15
10 30
10
20 40
20 50
12
30 60
14
40 70
50 70
60 70
14
Draw the network find out CP and PD. If Z is 1.647, what will be the schedule
time of completion of project ?
5. Write short notes on (4 marks each) :
a) MIS
b) distribution curve
c) Network compression.
Set P
*SLRPK33*
SLR-PK 33
-5-
SECTION II
Solve any two questions from Q. 6 to Q. 8. Q. 9 is compulsory.
6. a) Compare the machines given below on the basis of PWM with i = 8%.
First cost
M/C P
M/C Q
` 29,000
` 37,000
` 4,000
` 5,000
Scrap value
Life
03 yrs.
10
05 yrs.
Annual Maintenance
` 3,000
` 3,500
Overhaul after 2 years
` 3,700
` 2,000
b) How much money would you be willing to pay now for a note that will yield
` 600/- per for 9 years with i = 07%.
7. a) Determine the capitalized cost of treatment plant costing `15 crores with
annual O/M cost equal to `1.5 crore with i = 15% and life is permanent.
b) Compare the following alternatives on the basis of EUAC method with

i = 15%.
10
Proposal A
Initial cost
Proposal B
` 3 lakhs
` 2 lakhs
Life in years
40 yrs.
20 yrs.
Scrap value
Nil
AOC
(Maintainence)
` 3,000
` 10,000
` 7,000
Set P
SLR-PK 33
-6-
*SLRPK33*
8. a) What is Life cycle costing ?
b) A plant hire firm buys a new large crawler tractor at a price of ` 4,350/-. In its
first year of use it is estimated that net receipts will be `1,200/- In each
succeeding year, it is estimated that income from fire of a tractor will reduce
by `100/-.
After ten years it is not expected to fetch more than `100/- on second hand
market. What is the rate of return on this investment ?
10
9. Write notes on (4 marks each) :

a) Value Engineering
b) Phases in value engineering
c) Types of life cycle costing.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20

c) a+ b
(201=20)
b) Profit
d) None
a) EUAC
b) PW
c) Yield
d) Rate of return
a) EUAC
b) Yield
a) EUAC
b) Yield
a) Scrap value
___________ parts.
a) Entry table
b) Gantt chart
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
-2-

c) Both a) and b)
d) None
9) MIS means
d) None
a) AOA
b) AON
a) TF
b) FF
c) IF
d) None
b) Value Analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
b) Creative phase
c) Judgement phase
d) All the above
a) Bar chart
b) Milestone chart
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
a) Direct cost
b) Indirect cost
c) Total cost

c) Both a) and b)
d) None

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) All the above
d) None

c) Updating
d) None
factor.
a) USCAF
b) USCRF
c) USPWF
d) USSFF
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK33*
-3-
SLR-PK 33
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Preceding
Activity Activity
Duration
(days)
D, E
D, E
12
E, F
10
H, K

10
Set Q
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
-4-
10
Activity
12
13
23
24
34
Dur (days)
Men required
15
20
30
25
10

Activities
10
Duration in days
10 20
15
10 30
10
20 40
20 50
12
30 60
14
40 70
50 70
60 70
14
a) MIS
Set Q
*SLRPK33*
SLR-PK 33
-5-
SECTION II
First cost
M/C P
M/C Q
` 29,000
` 37,000
` 4,000
` 5,000
Scrap value
Life
03 yrs.
10
05 yrs.
Annual Maintenance
` 3,000
` 3,500
` 3,700
` 2,000

i = 15%.
10
Proposal A
Initial cost
Proposal B
` 3 lakhs
` 2 lakhs
Life in years
40 yrs.
20 yrs.
Scrap value
Nil
AOC
(Maintainence)
` 3,000
` 10,000
` 7,000
Set Q
SLR-PK 33
-6-
*SLRPK33*
by `100/-.
10

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20

c) Both a) and b)
(201=20)
d) None

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) None

c) Updating
d) None
factor.
a) USCAF
b) USCRF
c) USPWF
d) USSFF
c) a+ b
b) Profit
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
-2-
a) EUAC
b) PW
c) Yield
d) Rate of return
a) EUAC
b) Yield
a) EUAC
b) Yield
a) Scrap value
___________ parts.
a) Entry table
b) Gantt chart
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
14) MIS means
d) None
a) AOA
b) AON
a) TF
b) FF
c) IF
d) None
b) Value Analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
b) Creative phase
c) Judgement phase
d) All the above
a) Bar chart
b) Milestone chart
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
a) Direct cost
b) Indirect cost
c) Total cost
d) All the above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK33*
-3-
SLR-PK 33
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Preceding
Activity Activity
Duration
(days)
D, E
D, E
12
E, F
10
H, K

10
Set R
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
-4-
10
Activity
12
13
23
24
34
Dur (days)
Men required
15
20
30
25
10

Activities
10
Duration in days
10 20
15
10 30
10
20 40
20 50
12
30 60
14
40 70
50 70
60 70
14
a) MIS
Set R
*SLRPK33*
SLR-PK 33
-5-
SECTION II
First cost
M/C P
M/C Q
` 29,000
` 37,000
` 4,000
` 5,000
Scrap value
Life
03 yrs.
10
05 yrs.
Annual Maintenance
` 3,000
` 3,500
` 3,700
` 2,000

i = 15%.
10
Proposal A
Initial cost
Proposal B
` 3 lakhs
` 2 lakhs
Life in years
40 yrs.
20 yrs.
Scrap value
Nil
AOC
(Maintainence)
` 3,000
` 10,000
` 7,000
Set R
SLR-PK 33
-6-
*SLRPK33*
by `100/-.
10

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20

a) TF
b) FF
c) IF
d) None
b) Value Analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
(201=20)

b) Creative phase
c) Judgement phase
d) All the above
a) Bar chart
b) Milestone chart
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
a) Direct cost
b) Indirect cost
c) Total cost

c) Both a) and b)
d) None

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) All the above
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
-2-

c) Updating
d) None
factor.
a) USCAF
b) USCRF
c) USPWF
d) USSFF
c) a+ b
b) Profit
d) None
a) EUAC
b) PW
c) Yield
d) Rate of return
a) EUAC
b) Yield
a) EUAC
b) Yield
a) Scrap value
___________ parts.
a) Entry table
b) Gantt chart
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
19) MIS means
d) None
a) AOA
b) AON
______________
Set S
*SLRPK33*
-3-
SLR-PK 33
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Preceding
Activity Activity
Duration
(days)
D, E
D, E
12
E, F
10
H, K

10
Set S
SLR-PK 33
*SLRPK33*
-4-
10
Activity
12
13
23
24
34
Dur (days)
Men required
15
20
30
25
10

Activities
10
Duration in days
10 20
15
10 30
10
20 40
20 50
12
30 60
14
40 70
50 70
60 70
14
a) MIS
Set S
*SLRPK33*
SLR-PK 33
-5-
SECTION II
First cost
M/C P
M/C Q
` 29,000
` 37,000
` 4,000
` 5,000
Scrap value
Life
03 yrs.
10
05 yrs.
Annual Maintenance
` 3,000
` 3,500
` 3,700
` 2,000

i = 15%.
10
Proposal A
Initial cost
Proposal B
` 3 lakhs
` 2 lakhs
Life in years
40 yrs.
20 yrs.
Scrap value
Nil
AOC
(Maintainence)
` 3,000
` 10,000
` 7,000
Set S
SLR-PK 33
-6-
*SLRPK33*
by `100/-.
10

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 34
*SLRPK34*
S
Set
T.E. (Civil Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2016

TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) For sleeper density of (n + 4) on straight length, the sleeper density on the curves will be
a) (n + 5)
b) (n + 4)
c) (n 3)
d) All the above
2) The loose ballast between the two adjacent sleepers is known as
a) Ballast crib
b) Boxing
c) Packing
3) Sub-grade (formation) is prepared to receive
a) Ballast, sleepers and rails
b) Ballast, sleepers and engine
c) Ballast, rails and wagons
d) All above
4) One of the following is not the Gauge used by Indian railways.
a) Broad Gauge 1676 mm
b) Meter Gauge 1000 mm
c) Standard Gauge 1451 mm
d) Narrow Gauge 762 mm
5) For broad gauge curve resistance = ___________ degree of curve weight of train.
a) 0.0004
b) 0.00045
c) 0.0005
d) 0.00054
6) The wheels are coned at a slope of
a) 1 in 20 i.e. 1 vertical to 20 horizontal
c) 1 in 32 i.e. 1 vertical to 32 horizontal
b) 1 in 20 i.e. 1 horizontal to 20 vertical

d) 1 in 32 i.e. 1 horizontal to 32 vertical
7) Cant is provided on curved rail track to

a) Introduce centripetal force
b) Ensure slower and safe movements of the trains
c) Provide equal distribution of wheel loads on both rails
d) All a), b) and c)
8) Recommended ruling gradients in plains are
a) 1 : 150
b) 1 : 200
c) 1 : 100
9) Speed of the train depends upon
a) Power of locomotive
c) Radius or curve
d) a) and b)
b) Gradient
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 34
*SLRPK34*
-2-
10) Check rails are provided at the curves to

a) Reduce the lateral wear on outer rail
b) Prevent the outer wheel flange from mounting the outer rail
c) Prevent the vehicles from derailment
d) All the above
11) For the hottest month the mean of average daily temperature is 40C and mean of the
maximum daily temp. is 50C. Then airport reference temperature is
a) 43.33C
b) 53.33C
c) 33.33C
d) 63.33C
12) The wind data such as direction, duration and intensity are graphically represented by a
diagram which is known as
a) Wind analysis diagram
b) Wind data diagram
c) Wind intensity diagram
13) For A, B and C types of airport, the longitudinal gradient of runway is
a) 1.5 percent
b) 2.0 percent
c) 2.5 percent
d) 3.0 percent
14) Where aircrafts wait for their turn to take-off, and where they are finally checked before
take-off, the location is known as
a) Taxiway
b) Apron
c) Holding Apron
d) Hangers
15) Location of exit taxiway depends upon
a) Number of exit taxiway exit speed an type of aircrafts
b) Topographical features, pilot variability
c) Both a) and b)
d) Only a)
16) The reason for displacing the threshold marking is due to
a) Small obstructions or a water course near the runway entrance
b) Increased in length of runway
c) Change in wind direction
d) Deceasing in the length of the runway
17) The aircraft landing direction indicator is in the form
a) Tee or Tetrahedron
b) Circle
c) Rectangle
d) Hexagon
18) To eliminate the black hole effect in runway lighting
a) Increase the intensity of runway lighting
b) Adopt the narrow gauge pattern of lighting
c) Adopt closer interval of lighting
d) None of these
19) VFR means
a) Visual Foul Rules
c) Visual Flight Rules
20) Visakhapatnam is a
a) Semi natural harbour
c) Natural harbour
b) Visual False Rules

d) Visual Fast Rules
b) Artificial harbour
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK34*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 34

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.

SECTION I
2. Answer any three questions (each carries 8 marks) :
a) Explain creep in rails. State effects of creep. Give remedial measures for the same.
b) With neat diagram explain coning of wheels on a level track and list the
disadvantages.
c) A curve of 5 is situated on a section of BG. If maximum permissible speed on the section
is 60 kmph, determine amount of equilibrium cant. If, for meeting the demand of slow
moving trains, cant deficiency amounting 7.6 cm is provided. Determine super elevation
needs to be provided.
d) What will be the allowable ruling gradient for a B.G. track on 4 curve, where ruling gradient
is 1 : 150 ?
8
8
8
8
3. Answer any two questions (each carries 8 marks) :

a) Draw a neat sketch of a right hand turnout and show various parts on it.
b) Explain the following with neat sketches :

1) Heel divergence
2) Switch angle
3) Actual nose of crossing
4) Throw of switch.
c) Why are signals required ? Discuss different types of signals.
SECTION II
4. Answer any two questions (8 marks each) :
(28=16)
a) Write a short notes on (i) Cross wind component (ii) Wind coverage (iii) Runway
orientation.
b) Enlist the various runway geometrics as recommended by ICAO. Discuss one in detail.
c) Design an exit taxiwway joining a runway and a parallel main taxiway. The total angle of
turn is 350 and the maximum turn-off speed is 80 kmph. Assume radius of entrance
curve = 731 m, runway width = 45 m, taxiway width = 22.5 m. Draw a neat sketch showing
all the design elements. Assume the separation clearance as 217.75 m.
Set P
SLR-PK 34
-4-
*SLRPK34*
(28=16)
a) What are the fenders ? Why are they used ? Describe various types of fenders with
sketches.
b) What are dolphins ? Describe their types.
c) Define wharf, quay and jetty.
6. Answer any one (8 marks each) :
(18=8)
a) Write a note on Wind Rose Diagram.

b) Why it is necessary to provide facilities like aprons, transit sheds and warehouses at
the ports ?
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 34
*SLRPK34*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

b) Circle
c) Rectangle
d) Hexagon
d) None of these
4) VFR means

c) Natural harbour
d) None of these
a) (n + 5)
b) (n + 4)
c) (n 3)
d) All the above
a) Ballast crib
b) Boxing
c) Packing
d) All above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 34
*SLRPK34*
-2-

a) 0.0004
b) 0.00045
c) 0.0005
d) 0.00054


a) 1 : 150
b) 1 : 200
c) 1 : 100
c) Radius or curve
d) a) and b)
b) Gradient

d) All the above
a) 43.33C
b) 53.33C
c) 33.33C
d) 63.33C
a) 1.5 percent
b) 2.0 percent
c) 2.5 percent
d) 3.0 percent
a) Taxiway
b) Apron
c) Holding Apron
d) Hangers
c) Both a) and b)
d) Only a)
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK34*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 34

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
disadvantages.
is 1 : 150 ?
8
8
8
8


1) Heel divergence
2) Switch angle
4) Throw of switch.
SECTION II
(28=16)
orientation.
Set Q
SLR-PK 34
-4-
*SLRPK34*
(28=16)
sketches.
(18=8)

the ports ?
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 34
*SLRPK34*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) 43.33C
b) 53.33C
c) 33.33C
d) 63.33C
a) 1.5 percent
b) 2.0 percent
c) 2.5 percent
d) 3.0 percent
a) Taxiway
b) Apron
c) Holding Apron
d) Hangers
c) Both a) and b)
d) Only a)
b) Circle
c) Rectangle
d) Hexagon
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 34
*SLRPK34*
-2-

d) None of these
9) VFR means

c) Natural harbour
d) None of these
a) (n + 5)
b) (n + 4)
c) (n 3)
d) All the above
a) Ballast crib
b) Boxing
c) Packing
d) All above
a) 0.0004
b) 0.00045
c) 0.0005
d) 0.00054


a) 1 : 150
b) 1 : 200
c) 1 : 100
c) Radius or curve
d) a) and b)
b) Gradient

d) All the above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK34*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 34

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
disadvantages.
is 1 : 150 ?
8
8
8
8


1) Heel divergence
2) Switch angle
4) Throw of switch.
SECTION II
(28=16)
orientation.
Set R
SLR-PK 34
-4-
*SLRPK34*
(28=16)
sketches.
(18=8)

the ports ?
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 34
*SLRPK34*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20



a) 1 : 150
b) 1 : 200
c) 1 : 100
c) Radius or curve
d) a) and b)
b) Gradient

d) All the above
a) 43.33C
b) 53.33C
c) 33.33C
d) 63.33C
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 34
*SLRPK34*
-2-

a) 1.5 percent
b) 2.0 percent
c) 2.5 percent
d) 3.0 percent
a) Taxiway
b) Apron
c) Holding Apron
d) Hangers
c) Both a) and b)
d) Only a)
b) Circle
c) Rectangle
d) Hexagon
d) None of these
14) VFR means

c) Natural harbour
d) None of these
a) (n + 5)
b) (n + 4)
c) (n 3)
d) All the above
a) Ballast crib
b) Boxing
c) Packing
d) All above
a) 0.0004
b) 0.00045
c) 0.0005
d) 0.00054
______________
Set S
*SLRPK34*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 34

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
disadvantages.
is 1 : 150 ?
8
8
8
8


1) Heel divergence
2) Switch angle
4) Throw of switch.
SECTION II
(28=16)
orientation.
Set S
SLR-PK 34
-4-
*SLRPK34*
(28=16)
sketches.
(18=8)

the ports ?
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
S
Set
t

PAVEMENT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN
Self-Learning (Technical)
Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) Figure on right indicates full marks.

Marks : 10
10

b) Cohesion alone
d) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
-2-
4) The aggregate impact value should not exceed ___________ percent for
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
5) Generally the specific gravity of bitumen is in the range of
a) 0.97 to 1.02
b) 1.02 to 2.02
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.0
a) K = p/
b) K = /p
d) K = p. .0.125
c) K = .p
8) __________ code is used to design the rigid pavement.

a) IRC-37
b) IRC-58
c) IRC-57
d) IRC-38
9) The materials used in construction of WBM roads are
a) Coarse aggregates, screenings and binding material
b) Coarse aggregates, screenings, binding material and bitumen
c) Coarse aggregates, screenings, binding material and cement
d) Coarse aggregates, screenings, binding material and lime
10) __________ bars are used across the longitudinal joints of cement concrete
pavements.
a) Tie bars
b) Dowel bars
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK35A*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 35A

Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
2. Answer any five questions (8 marks each) :
Marks : 40
(85=40)
a) Differentiate between flexible and rigid pavement.

b) Explain the ESWL and the concept in the determination of the equivalent
wheel load.
c) Explain the analysis of stresses in flexible pavement by single layer system
and two layer system.
d) The plate bearing tests were conducted with 30 cm plate diameter on soil
subgrade and over 15 cm base course. The pressures yielded at 0.5 cm
deflection are 1.25 kg/cm2 and 4.0 kg/cm2 respectively. Design the pavement
section for 4100 kg wheel load with tyre pressure of 5 kg/cm2 for an allowable
deflection of 0.5 cm using Burmisters approach (Use Figure-1).
e) Design a new flexible pavement using IRC-37 method for a two lane undivided
carriageway for below data :
Design CBR value of subgrade = 5.0%
Initial traffic on completion of construction = 300 cv per day
Average growth rate = 6.0% per year
Design life = 10 years
VDF value = 2.5
Lane distribution factor = 0.75, also calculate the each pavement layer
thickness using IRC-37 catalogue (Figure-2).
(Use Figure-2 and 3)
Set P
SLR-PK 35A
-4-
*SLRPK35A*
f) Draw a neat sketch (plan) of a rigid pavement showing the different joints, tie
bar and dowel bar. Briefly explain the function of dowel bar and tie bar.
g) What are the various types of failures in flexible pavement ? Explain the
causes.
Set P
*SLRPK35A*
-5-
SLR-PK 35A
Set P
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
-6-
PAVEMENT DESIGN CATALOGUE

PLATE 1 RECOMMENDED DESIGNS FOR TRAFFIC RANGE 1-10 msa
C
Figure-3
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
S
Set
t

Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

Marks : 10
10

pavements.
a) Tie bars
b) Dowel bars
d) None of these
a) K = p/
b) K = /p
c) K = .p
d) K = p. .0.125
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 35A
-2-
*SLRPK35A*

a) IRC-37
b) IRC-58
c) IRC-57
d) IRC-38
b) Cohesion alone
d) Both a) and b)
8) The aggregate impact value should not exceed _______ percent for aggregate
to be used in wearing course of pavements.
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
a) 0.97 to 1.02
b) 1.02 to 2.02
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.0
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK35A*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 35A

Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
(85=40)

wheel load.
VDF value = 2.5
Set Q
SLR-PK 35A
-4-
*SLRPK35A*
causes.
Set Q
*SLRPK35A*
-5-
SLR-PK 35A
Set Q
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
-6-

C
Figure-3
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
S
Set
t

Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

Marks : 10
10

a) 0.97 to 1.02
b) 1.02 to 2.02
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.0
pavements.
a) Tie bars
b) Dowel bars
P.T.O.
d) None of these
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
-2-

d) Both a) and b)
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
b) Cohesion alone
a) K = p/
b) K = /p
d) K = p. .0.125
c) K = .p

a) IRC-37
b) IRC-58
c) IRC-57
d) IRC-38
______________
Set R
*SLRPK35A*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 35A

Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
(85=40)

wheel load.
VDF value = 2.5
Set R
SLR-PK 35A
-4-
*SLRPK35A*
causes.
Set R
*SLRPK35A*
-5-
SLR-PK 35A
Set R
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
-6-

C
Figure-3
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
S
Set
t

Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

Marks : 10
10

d) Both a) and b)
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 10
a) 0.97 to 1.02
b) 1.02 to 2.02
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.0
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
-2-

a) K = p/
b) K = /p
c) K = .p
d) K = p. .0.125

a) IRC-37
b) IRC-58
c) IRC-57
d) IRC-38
pavements.
a) Tie bars
b) Dowel bars
d) None of these
b) Cohesion alone
______________
Set S
*SLRPK35A*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 35A

Time :3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
(85=40)

wheel load.
VDF value = 2.5
Set S
SLR-PK 35A
-4-
*SLRPK35A*
causes.
Set S
*SLRPK35A*
-5-
SLR-PK 35A
Set S
SLR-PK 35A
*SLRPK35A*
-6-

C
Figure-3
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 35C
*SLRPK35C*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. Civil (Part II) Examination, 2016
SELF LEARNING : (Technical) TQM AND MIS IN CIVIL ENGINEERING

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory.

3) Figures at right indicate full marks.
Marks : 10
1. Select the correct answer from the given options/alternatives :
10
1) __________ is needed to ensure quality before material is send to store or use.

a) Analysis
b) Inspection
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Measurement
2) For better management of supply chain, the organizations are linking the ___________
aspect to the various level of chain.
a) Strategic
b) Material
c) Quality
d) Process
3) In Six Sigma Approach, the Sigma stand for

a) Standard Deviation
b) Standard Value of Six
c) Variance
d) None of these
4) MSP means
a) Microsoft Primavera
b) Microsoft Project
c) Management System Project
d) None
5) MIS structure is based on

a) Management Activity
b) Population
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
6) The programmed decision is nothing but

a) Unstructured Decision
b) Structured Decision
c) Good Decision
d) Systematic Decision
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 35C
*SLRPK35C*
-2-
7) Total Quality Control done through

a) Quality Development
b) Quality Assurance
c) Quality Planning
d) TQM
8) The most important characteristics of hardware in a computer is

a) Speed and Size
b) Data and Size
c) Data and Speed
d) Memory
c) Information
d) Decision
9) COBOL is acronym for

a) Common Business Oriented Language
b) Center Business Oriented Language
c) Computer Based Oriented Language
d) None of above
10) ________ is result of processing data.
a) Action
b) Planning
______________
Set P
*SLRPK35C*
-3-
SLR-PK 35C
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
Instructions : 1) Attempt any four in Question No. 2 to Question No. 7.

2. Write a note on ISO : 9001.
3. Explain in detail importance of checklist in TQM.
4. Write a note on Kaizen in TQM.
5. Discuss the various categories of MIS and their role in decision making.
6. Write a note on Supply Chain Management in TQM.
7. Explain the checklist for Concreting Activity.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 35C
*SLRPK35C*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. Each question carries one mark.

Marks : 10
10

d) None of above
a) Action
b) Planning
c) Information
d) Decision

c) Quality Planning
d) TQM

a) Speed and Size
b) Data and Size
c) Data and Speed
d) Memory

a) Analysis
b) Inspection
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Measurement
a) Strategic
b) Material
c) Quality
d) Process
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 35C
*SLRPK35C*
-2-

c) Variance
d) None of these
8) MSP means
d) None

b) Population
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None

c) Good Decision
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK35C*
-3-
SLR-PK 35C
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40

_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 35C
*SLRPK35C*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory.Each question carries one mark.

Marks : 10
10

b) Population
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None

c) Good Decision

d) None of above
a) Action
b) Planning
c) Information
d) Decision

c) Variance
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 35C
*SLRPK35C*
-2-
6) MSP means
d) None

a) Analysis
b) Inspection
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Measurement
a) Strategic
b) Material
c) Quality
d) Process

c) Quality Planning
d) TQM

a) Speed and Size
b) Data and Size
c) Data and Speed
d) Memory
______________
Set R
*SLRPK35C*
-3-
SLR-PK 35C
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40

_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 35C
*SLRPK35C*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

Marks : 10
10

c) Variance
d) None of these
2) MSP means
d) None

b) Population
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None

c) Good Decision

c) Quality Planning
d) TQM

a) Speed and Size
b) Data and Size
c) Data and Speed
d) Memory
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 35C
*SLRPK35C*
-2-

d) None of above
a) Action
b) Planning
c) Information
d) Decision

a) Analysis
b) Inspection
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Measurement
a) Strategic
b) Material
c) Quality
d) Process
______________
Set S
*SLRPK35C*
-3-
SLR-PK 35C
Seat
No.

SELF LEARNING : (Technical TQM AND MIS IN CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40

_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 35D
*SLRPK35D*
Seat
No.

EARTHQUAKE RESISTANT NON ENGINEERED CONSTRUCTION
Self Learning (Technical Course)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) Solve any five questions.

3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it
clearly.
1. Explain the effects of an earthquake.
10
2. What are the causes of an earthquake ?
10
3. Explain the different magnitude scales to measure an earthquake.
10
4. What are the causes of damages due to earthquake in the stone masonry
construction ?
10
5. What is meant by strengthening ? Explain few strengthening features for walls.
10
6. Explain the significance of RC bands in masonry construction.
10
_____________
SLR-PK 35E
*SLRPK35E*
S

SELF LEARNING (TECHNICAL COURSE)
Geosynthetics and Reinforced Soil Structures
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) Solve any five questions.

2) Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly.
1. Explain in detail background of reinforced soil. Elaborate principles of reinforced
soil.
10
2. Enlist different tests for geosynthetics. Explain any one test in detail.
10
3. Explain how the slope stability can be increased by providing geosynthetics

elaborate with the help of neat sketch.
10
4. Write in detail about erosion control in foundation using geotextile.
10
5. Write a detail note on geosynthetic as separator in flexible pavements.
10
6. Write note on any two :
(25=10)
a) Different components of modern landfill.

b) Basal reinforcement for construction on soft clay soils.
c) Geo composites.
_____________________
SLR-PK 36
*SLRPK36*
S
B.E. (Civil) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2016

DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

2) IS 456-2000 is not allowed to refer while solving MCQ in First
30 Minutes.
3) Use of IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
Marks : 20
20
1) The nominal size of aggregate should usually be restricted to _________ mm

less minimum clear distance between main bars or _______________ mm less
than minimum covers to the reinforcement whichever is less.
a) 6mm, 5mm
b) 6mm, 6mm
c) 5mm, 5mm
d) 4mm, 5mm
2) For critical section for the two way shear in case of isolated footing at distance of
_______________ from face of column on all sides.
a) d
b) d/3
c) d/2
d) d/4
3) The minimum frequency of sampling of concrete of each grade for 30-50m3 shall be
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
4) A compression member may be considered as short when both the slenderness
ratio Iex/D and Iey/b are less than
a) 10
b) 12
c) 11
d) 13
5) The basic value of span to depth ratio for span up to 10m for simply supported
beam is
a) 20
b) 26
c) 7
d) 16
6) In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups
provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 8 legged
c) 10 legged
d) 12 legged
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 36
-2-
*SLRPK36*
7) Modulus of elasticity of concrete is given by ______________

a) 5000 fck
b) 5500 fck
c) 6000 fck
d) 4000 fck
8) Striping period for props to beams and arches spanning up to 6 m
a) 7 days
b) 14 days
c) 8 days
d) 21 days
9) The final deflection of beam due to all loads including all effective measured from
as cast level of supports or floor should not normally exceed
a) span/200
b) span/150
c) span/250
d) span/300
10) Design bond stress in limit state method for deformed bars in tension for M-20
grade concrete is ______________ N/sq mm.
a) 1.1
b) 1.3
c) 1.92
d) 1.4
11) The cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement, shall not be more than
_______________ % of the area.
a) 2
b) 6
c) 3
d) 1
12) Bars in a bundle shall terminate at different points spaced apart by not less than
_____________ times the bar diameter except for bundles stepping at a support.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 20
d) 40
13) Partial safety factor for the load is the ratio of ______________
a) Design load to characteristic load
b) Characteristic load to design load
c) Design strength to characteristic strength
d) Characteristic strength to design strength
14) The pitch of helical reinforcement shall not be more than ______________
a) 75 mm
b) 25 mm
c) 1/6 of core diameter of column
d) a) and b) both
15) _________________ number of specimen shall be made for each sample for
testing of 28 days strength.
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 12
16) The flexural strength of concrete is given by ____________
a) 0.6 fck
b) 0.5 fck
c) 0.7 fck
d) 0.8 fck
17) In reinforcement and plain concrete footings, the thickness at the edge shall not
be less than ___________ mm for footing on soil.
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 230 mm
18) The toe projection of foundation slabs is taken
a) as one third of the base
b) as one sixth of overall height of the wall
c) equal to heel slab
d) below ground surface
19) The diameter of the polygonal link or lateral ties shall not be less than _________
a) 1/4th diameter of larger longitudinal bar
b) 6 mm
c) lesser of a) and b)
d) maximum of a) and b)
20)
max for M20 concrete is _____________ N/mm2.
a) 2.5
b) 3.1
c) 2.8
d) 3.5
______________
Set P
*SLRPK36*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 36

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Solve any three questions from each Section.

Use of IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed.
Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.
Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Distinguish clearly between under reinforced and over reinforcement sections.
b) RCC beam 350 mm 500 mm is reinforced with 4 bars of 16 mm

with an
effective cover of 50 mm. The beam is simply supported over a span of 6 m. Find
maximum permissible udl on the beam. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel.
3. a) Write on bond and development length.
9
3
b) Determine the moment resistance of a doubly reinforcement beam 230 mm 500

mm, reinforcement with 6 bars of 16mm on compression side and 6 bars of 20 mm
on tension side. Effective cover is 50mm on both side. Use M20 concrete and
Fe415 steel.
10
4. a) Enlist necessary condition for R.C. beam to act as T-beam.
b) A T-beam slab floor has 125 mm thick slab forming part of T-beams which are of
10 m clear span. The end bearings are 450 mm thick. Spacing of T-beams is 3 m.
The live load on the floor is 3kN/m2. Design one of the T-beam using M20 concrete
and Fe415 steel.
10
5. a) When doubly reinforced section must be used ? Exemplify.
b) A rectangular beam is to be simply supported on supports of 230mm width. The

clear span of the beam is 6m. The beam is to be have width of 300 mm. The
characteristic superimposed load is 12kN/m. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
Design the beam.
10
Set P
SLR-PK 36
-4-
*SLRPK36*
SECTION II
6. Design a combined rectangular footing for two column A and B located 3.5m apart.
The size of the column are 450 mm 450 mm and 600 mm 600 mm. And the loads
on them is 1000 kN and 1200 kN respectively. The projection of footing parallel to the
length of the footing beyond the axis of the column. A is limited to 580 mm. The
safe bearing capacity of the soil is 280kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
14
OR
Design a footing of uniform thickness for a column 450 mm 450 mm carrying
load of 1350 kN. SBC of soil is 250 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
14
7. a) Design a rectangular beam section subjected to a working shear force of 60 kN,

torsional moment of 55 kN.m and bending moment of 80 kN.m. Use M25 concrete
and Fe500 steel.
10
b) Explain the effect of eccentricity of load on behaviour of columns.
8. Design a circular column provided with helical reinforcement subjected to a working

load of 1400 kN. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. The column has unsupported
length of 3.5 m with its both ends effectively held in position at both end, but not
restrained against rotation.
13
9. a) Explain with neat sketches the situations in which RCC structures are subjected to
torsion.
b) Design a column, 3.2 m long restrained in position and direction at both ends to
carry an axial load of 1250 kN. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
4
9
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 36
*SLRPK36*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

30 Minutes.
one mark.
Marks : 20

20
a) 0.6 fck
b) 0.5 fck
c) 0.7 fck
d) 0.8 fck
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 230 mm
b) 6 mm
5)
a) 2.5
b) 3.1
c) 2.8
d) 3.5

a) 6mm, 5mm
b) 6mm, 6mm
c) 5mm, 5mm
d) 4mm, 5mm
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 36
-2-
*SLRPK36*
a) d
b) d/3
c) d/2
d) d/4
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
a) 10
b) 12
c) 11
d) 13
beam is
a) 20
b) 26
c) 7
d) 16
provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 8 legged
c) 10 legged
d) 12 legged
a) 5000 fck
b) 5500 fck
c) 6000 fck
d) 4000 fck
a) 7 days
b) 14 days
c) 8 days
d) 21 days
a) span/200
b) span/150
c) span/250
d) span/300
a) 1.1
b) 1.3
c) 1.92
d) 1.4
_______________ % of the area.
a) 2
b) 6
c) 3
d) 1
a) 10
b) 30
c) 20
d) 40
a) 75 mm
b) 25 mm
d) a) and b) both
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 12
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK36*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 36

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

with an
9
3

Fe415 steel.
10
and Fe415 steel.
10

Design the beam.
10
Set Q
SLR-PK 36
-4-
*SLRPK36*
SECTION II
14
OR
14

and Fe500 steel.
10

13
torsion.
4
9
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 36
*SLRPK36*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

30 Minutes.
one mark.
Marks : 20

20
_______________ % of the area.
a) 2
b) 6
c) 3
d) 1
a) 10
b) 30
c) 20
d) 40
a) 75 mm
b) 25 mm
d) a) and b) both
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 12
a) 0.6 fck
b) 0.5 fck
c) 0.7 fck
d) 0.8 fck
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 36
-2-
*SLRPK36*
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 230 mm
b) 6 mm
10)
a) 2.5
b) 3.1
c) 2.8
d) 3.5

a) 6mm, 5mm
b) 6mm, 6mm
c) 5mm, 5mm
d) 4mm, 5mm
a) d
b) d/3
c) d/2
d) d/4
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
a) 10
b) 12
c) 11
d) 13
beam is
a) 20
b) 26
c) 7
d) 16
provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 8 legged
c) 10 legged
d) 12 legged
a) 5000 fck
b) 5500 fck
c) 6000 fck
d) 4000 fck
a) 7 days
b) 14 days
c) 8 days
d) 21 days
a) span/200
b) span/150
c) span/250
d) span/300
a) 1.1
b) 1.3
c) 1.92
d) 1.4
Set R
______________
*SLRPK36*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 36

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

with an
9
3

Fe415 steel.
10
and Fe415 steel.
10

Design the beam.
10
Set R
SLR-PK 36
-4-
*SLRPK36*
SECTION II
14
OR
14

and Fe500 steel.
10

13
torsion.
4
9
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 36
*SLRPK36*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

30 Minutes.
one mark.
Marks : 20
20

provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 8 legged
c) 10 legged
d) 12 legged
a) 5000 fck
b) 5500 fck
c) 6000 fck
d) 4000 fck
a) 7 days
b) 14 days
c) 8 days
d) 21 days
a) span/200
b) span/150
c) span/250
d) span/300
a) 1.1
b) 1.3
c) 1.92
d) 1.4
_______________ % of the area.
a) 2
b) 6
c) 3
d) 1
a) 10
b) 30
c) 20
d) 40
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 36
-2-
*SLRPK36*

a) 75 mm
b) 25 mm
d) a) and b) both
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 12
a) 0.6 fck
b) 0.5 fck
c) 0.7 fck
d) 0.8 fck
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 230 mm
b) 6 mm
15)
a) 2.5
b) 3.1
c) 2.8
d) 3.5
a) 6mm, 5mm
b) 6mm, 6mm
c) 5mm, 5mm
d) 4mm, 5mm
a) d
b) d/3
c) d/2
d) d/4
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
a) 10
b) 12
c) 11
d) 13
beam is
a) 20
b) 26
c) 7
d) 16
______________
Set S
*SLRPK36*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 36

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

with an
9
3

Fe415 steel.
10
and Fe415 steel.
10

Design the beam.
10
Set S
SLR-PK 36
-4-
*SLRPK36*
SECTION II
14
OR
14

and Fe500 steel.
10

13
torsion.
4
9
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 37
*SLRPK37*
S
B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2016

QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1.
Total Marks : 100
1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book

2) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.
Marks : 20
1) The total length of a cranked bar through a distance (d) at 45 in case of a beam of effective length L, is
a) L + 0.42 d
b) L + 2 0.42 d
c) L 0.42 d
d) L 2 0.4 d
2) While estimating a reinforced cement structure, the omitted cover of concrete is assumed
a) At the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar
b) In thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more
c) For reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar which is more
d) All the above
3) The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 sq. m. in plan area with a depth not exceeding 30 cm, is
termed as
a) Excavation
b) Surface dressing
c) Cutting
d) Surface excavation
4) Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
a) Dimensions are measured to the nearest 0.01 m
b) Areas are measured to the nearest 0.01 sq.m.
c) Cubic contents are measured to the nearest 0.1 cm m
d) Weights are measured to the nearest 0.001 tonnes
5) If tensile stress of a steel rod of diameter D is 1400 kg/cm2 and bond stress is 6 kg/cm2, the required bond
length of the rod is
a) 30 D
b) 40 D
c) 50 D
d) 53 D
e) 59 D
6) The measurement is not made in square metres in case of
a) D.P.C. (Damp Proof Course)
b) Form works
c) Concrete Jaffries
d) R.C. Chhajja
7) According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is
a) Length, breadth, height
b) Breadth, length, height
c) Height, length, breadth
d) None of these
8) The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based, is
a) The end sections are parallel planes
b) The mid-area of a pyramid is half the average area of the ends
c) The volume of the prismoidal is over-estimated and hence a prismoidal correction is applied
d) All the above
9) The cross-sections for a highway is taken at
a) Right angle to the centre line
b) 30 metres apart
c) Intermediate points having abrupt change in gradient
d) The starting end points of the curves
e) All the above
10) The detention period in a septic tank is assumed
a) 20 minutes
b) 25 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 40 minutes
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 37
*SLRPK37*
-2-
11) For 100 sq.m cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required, is
a) 0.90 m3
b) 0.94 m3
c) 0.98 m3
d) 1.00 m3
12) For the construction of buildings, the subheads of the estimate are
a) Earthwork, concretework, brickwork
b) Brickwork, stonework, roofing
c) Brickwork, flooring, woodwork, steelwork
d) Plastering or pointing, finishing, water supply and sanitarywork
e) All the above
13) The measurement is made for stonework in square metre in case of
a) Wall facing
b) Columns, lintels, copings
c) Buildingwork
d) Dressed stones in Chajjas
e) a) and d) of the above
14) The centre line method is specially adopted for estimating
a) Circular buildings
b) Hexagonal buildings
c) Octagonal buildings
d) Other geometrical shaped buildings
e) All the above
15) The value of A of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is
a) 25 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 45 cm
16) Referring of given figure, pick up the correct statement from the following
a)
b)
c)
d)
The total length of centre line of four walls is 20 m

Length of long wall out-to-out is 6.80 m
Length of short walls in-to-in is 3.20 m
All the above
17) Size, capacity and materials need be specified for

a) Bib-cocks
b) Stop-cocks
c) Ferrules
d) Ball valves
e) All the above
18) A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of 10 cm thick gravel.
The box cutting in road crust is
a) 500 m3
b) 1000 m3
c) 1500 m3
d) 2000 m3
19) The expected out turn for earthwork in excavation in ordinary soil per mazdoor per day is
a) 1.00 cum
b) 2.00 cum
c) 3.00 cum
d) 4.00 cum
20) Anti-siphonage pipe is connected to
a) Main soil pipe
c) Top of P trap W.C.
b) Bottom of P trap W.C.

d) Side of water closet
______________
Set P
*SLRPK37*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 37

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5 and any two out
of Q. 6 to Q. 8.
2.
Calculate the quantity of reinforcement required in R.C.C. beam shown in attached Drawing No. 11.2.
3.
A)
14
Prepare a preliminary estimate of a residential building project with a total plinth area of all the buildings
being 200 sq.m. The following information is given :
a) Plinth are rate : Rs. 30,000 per m2
b) Additional amount allowed for special architectural features : 1.5% of the building cost
c) Extra for water supply and sanitary fittings : 5% of building cost
d) Extra for building services = 7.50% of building cost
e) Contingencies : 2% of overall cost
f) Supervision charges = 7.5% of overall cost.
4.
B)
State the methods of approximate estimate, explain any one.
A)
Write the detailed specifications for
a) Concreting in R.C.C. beam in cement concrete grade M20

b) Providing and laying reinforcement bars in concrete beam.
5.
B)
Write note on Provisional quantities and Provisional sums.
A)
Carry out Rate analysis for the following items :

6.
7.
B)
Differentiate between long wall short wall and center line method.
A)
List various types of contract and explain Turnkey contract.
B)
What is Earnest Money Deposit and Security Deposit ?
A)
List various methods of valuation and describe Belting method of valuation of land with suitable example.
B)
Define :
1) Book value
2) Accommodation value
3) Speculation value
4) Scrap value
5) Potential value.
Set P
SLR-PK 37
8.
9.
-4-
*SLRPK37*
A)
A temporary shed has been constructed for Rs. 1,20,000. Assuming its salvage value at the end of 5 years
as Rs. 20,000, determine the depreciation and book value for each year by constant percentage method.
B)
Explain Easement Rights.
What do you mean by valuation ? What is its necessity ? List various methods of valuation and describe any three
of them giving examples.
14
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 37
*SLRPK37*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
a)
b)
c)
d)

All the above

a) Bib-cocks
b) Stop-cocks
c) Ferrules
d) Ball valves
e) All the above
a) 500 m3
b) 1000 m3
c) 1500 m3
d) 2000 m3
a) 1.00 cum
b) 2.00 cum
c) 3.00 cum
d) 4.00 cum
a) Main soil pipe

a) L + 0.42 d
b) L + 2 0.42 d
c) L 0.42 d
d) L 2 0.4 d
d) All the above
termed as
a) Excavation
b) Surface dressing
c) Cutting
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 37
*SLRPK37*
-2-
a) 30 D
b) 40 D
c) 50 D
d) 53 D
e) 59 D
b) Form works
d) R.C. Chhajja
d) None of these
d) All the above
b) 30 metres apart
e) All the above
a) 20 minutes
b) 25 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 40 minutes
b) 0.94 m3
c) 0.98 m3
d) 1.00 m3
a) 0.90 m3
e) All the above
a) Wall facing
c) Buildingwork
e) All the above
a) 25 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 45 cm
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK37*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 37

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
of Q. 6 to Q. 8.
2.
3.
A)
14
4.
B)
A)

5.
B)
A)

6.
7.
B)
A)
B)
A)
B)
Define :
1) Book value
4) Scrap value
5) Potential value.
Set Q
SLR-PK 37
8.
9.
-4-
*SLRPK37*
A)
B)
14
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 37
*SLRPK37*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
b) 0.94 m3
c) 0.98 m3
d) 1.00 m3
a) 0.90 m3
e) All the above
a) Wall facing
c) Buildingwork
e) All the above
a) 25 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 45 cm
a)
b)
c)
d)

All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 37
*SLRPK37*
-2-

a) Bib-cocks
b) Stop-cocks
c) Ferrules
d) Ball valves
e) All the above
a) 500 m3
b) 1000 m3
c) 1500 m3
d) 2000 m3
a) 1.00 cum
b) 2.00 cum
c) 3.00 cum
d) 4.00 cum
a) Main soil pipe

a) L + 0.42 d
b) L + 2 0.42 d
c) L 0.42 d
d) L 2 0.4 d
d) All the above
termed as
a) Excavation
b) Surface dressing
c) Cutting
a) 30 D
b) 40 D
c) 50 D
d) 53 D
e) 59 D
b) Form works
d) R.C. Chhajja
d) None of these
d) All the above
b) 30 metres apart
e) All the above
a) 20 minutes
b) 25 minutes
c) 30 minutes
______________
d) 40 minutes
Set R
*SLRPK37*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 37

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
of Q. 6 to Q. 8.
2.
3.
A)
14
4.
B)
A)

5.
B)
A)

6.
7.
B)
A)
B)
A)
B)
Define :
1) Book value
4) Scrap value
5) Potential value.
Set R
SLR-PK 37
8.
9.
-4-
*SLRPK37*
A)
B)
14
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 37
*SLRPK37*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

b) Form works
d) R.C. Chhajja
d) None of these
d) All the above
b) 30 metres apart
e) All the above
a) 20 minutes
b) 25 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 40 minutes
b) 0.94 m3
c) 0.98 m3
d) 1.00 m3
a) 0.90 m3
e) All the above
a) Wall facing
c) Buildingwork
e) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 37
*SLRPK37*
-2-
a) 25 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 45 cm
a)
b)
c)
d)

All the above

a) Bib-cocks
b) Stop-cocks
c) Ferrules
d) Ball valves
e) All the above
b) 1000 m3
c) 1500 m3
d) 2000 m3
a) 500 m3
a) 1.00 cum
b) 2.00 cum
c) 3.00 cum
d) 4.00 cum
a) Main soil pipe

a) L + 0.42 d
b) L + 2 0.42 d
c) L 0.42 d
d) L 2 0.4 d
d) All the above
termed as
a) Excavation
b) Surface dressing
c) Cutting
a) 30 D
b) 40 D
c) 50 D
d) 53 D
e) 59 D
______________
Set S
*SLRPK37*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 37

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
of Q. 6 to Q. 8.
2.
3.
A)
14
4.
B)
A)

5.
B)
A)

6.
7.
B)
A)
B)
A)
B)
Define :
1) Book value
4) Scrap value
5) Potential value.
Set S
SLR-PK 37
8.
9.
-4-
*SLRPK37*
A)
B)
14
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 38
*SLRPK38*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Civil) Part I Examination, 2016

EARTHQUAKE ENGG. (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries 2 marks.
Marks : 20

1) Choose the correct option from following statements :
a) Earthquake causes landslide
b) Landslide causes earthquake
c) a) and b) are wrong
d) a) and b) both are correct
2) Which of the following is not seismic wave of an earthquake ?
a) P-wave
b) S-wave
c) L-wave
d) Q-wave
3) What is the degree of freedom of two storied building ?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
4) ____________ is measure of energy released during an earthquake.

a) Magnitude
b) Intensity
c) Magnitude and intensity
d) Distance
5) The importance factor for power plant

a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 1.25
d) 2.0
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 38
-2-
*SLRPK38*
6) My + C + Ky = 0 is the differential equation for

a) Undamped free vibration
b) Damped free vibration
c) Undamped forced vibration
d) Damped forced vibration
7) The equation for force transmitted to foundation is
a) My + C = FT
b) My + K = FT
c) My + C = O
d) Cy + K = FT
8) Only 50% of live load on floor is considered in earthquake resistant analysis
a) If live load is more than 3 Kn/m2
b) If live load is less than 3 Kn/m2
c) If live load is equal to 3 Kn/m2
d) If live load is more than 4 Kn/m2
9) Local failure occurs in structure due to earthquake
a) When columns and beams are strong
b) When column is strong and beam is weak
c) When column is weak and beam is strong
d) When columns and beams are weak
10) The response reduction factor for ordinary reinforced concrete shear walls.
a) 3.0
b) 4.0
c) 5.0
d) 3.5
______________
Set P
*SLRPK38*
-3-
SLR-PK 38
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Use of only IS 1893 : 2002 is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the reservoir induced seismicity.
b) Write detailed note on internal structure of earth.
3. From first principle derive the governing differential equation for free vibration of
a Undamped SDOF system. Obtain the general solution of this differential equation.
Plot the graph if system is given initial displacement y0.
13
4. What do you force transmissibility ? Derive an expression for force transmissibility

to the foundation of a SDOF system subjected to harmonic force.
13
5. Explain the concept of Duhamels integral for damped systems. Derive its
expression for a damped system subjected to general dynamic loading.
13
Set P
SLR-PK 38
-4-
*SLRPK38*
SECTION II
6. It is proposed to construct a R.C.C. four storied residential building having plan
dimensions as shown in Fig. 1 in zone III with following data. Determine the
lateral forces and base shear. The all column sizes are 350 500 mm and beams
sizes are 300 450 mm. The slab thickness is 125 mm and thk. of walls is 230 mm.
The ht. of floor is 3.2 m and live load is 2.5 kN/m2. The type of frame is OMRF
and strata is hard.
14
7. a) Explain the concept of strong column and weak beam in design of buildings.
b) Discuss the main aspects of building configuration both in plan and elevation
for earthquake resistant design.
8. Explain the strengthening arrangement for masonry construction.
13
9. What is confining reinforcement ? Explain in detail with neat sketches where and
how the confining reinforcement is provided.
13
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 38
*SLRPK38*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) 3.0
b) 4.0
c) 5.0
d) 3.5

a) My + C = FT
b) My + K = FT
c) My + C = O
d) Cy + K = FT

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 38
*SLRPK38*
-2-

a) P-wave
b) S-wave
c) L-wave
d) Q-wave

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

a) Magnitude
b) Intensity
d) Distance

a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 1.25
d) 2.0

______________
Set Q
*SLRPK38*
-3-
SLR-PK 38
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
13

13
13
Set Q
SLR-PK 38
-4-
*SLRPK38*
SECTION II
and strata is hard.
14
13
13
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 38
*SLRPK38*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) 1.0
c) 1.25
b) 1.5
d) 2.0


a) 3.0
b) 4.0
c) 5.0
d) 3.5

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 38
*SLRPK38*
-2-

a) Magnitude
b) Intensity
d) Distance

a) P-wave
b) S-wave
c) L-wave
d) Q-wave

a) My + C = FT
b) My + K = FT
c) My + C = O
d) Cy + K = FT
______________
Set R
*SLRPK38*
-3-
SLR-PK 38
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
13

13
13
Set R
SLR-PK 38
-4-
*SLRPK38*
SECTION II
and strata is hard.
14
13
13
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 38
*SLRPK38*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

a) Magnitude
b) Intensity
d) Distance

a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 1.25
d) 2.0


a) My + C = FT
b) My + K = FT
c) My + C = O
d) Cy + K = FT
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 38
*SLRPK38*
-2-

a) 3.0
b) 4.0
c) 5.0
d) 3.5
a) P-wave
b) S-wave
c) L-wave
d) Q-wave
______________
Set S
*SLRPK38*
-3-
SLR-PK 38
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
13

13
13
Set S
SLR-PK 38
-4-
*SLRPK38*
SECTION II
and strata is hard.
14
13
13
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 39
*SLRPK39*
S

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1.
Max. Marks : 100
1) Question Number 1 consisting of objective type questions is compulsory.

2) Solve any three questions from Section I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5) and any three
questions from Section II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9).
3) Draw neat labelled sketches wherever necessary.
5) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page
No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.
a) Intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas susceptible to water logging
b) Extensive irrigation should be adopted in areas susceptible to water logging
c) Lift irrigation can help alleviate water-logging susceptibilities
2) Pick up the incorrect statement.
a) Moderately saline lands are represented by visible whitish deposits of salts on the top and upper
layers of soil
b) Na2, CO3 is the most harmful salt for causing salinity
c) A highly saline land is called an alkaline land or a black alkali
3) The repelling groynes which are largely constructed projecting from river embankments, as antierosion
works, are
a) Pointing upstream
b) Pointing downstream
c) Perpendicular to the bank
d) None of these
4) Which one among the following is a correct choice in relation to a weir ?
a) It is helpful in diverting excess water to a river from a canal
b) It does not cause any heading up of water on its upstream side
c) It stores water by raised counter-balanced gates
d) It increases the chances of floods in the upstream areas
5) Point out the correct meaning of piping, as applied to the design of barrages
a) It refers to a network of pipes laid below the hydraulic structure to remove the seeping water
b) It refers to the process of undermining of foundation and creation of hollows therein
c) It refers to the uplift force caused by seeping water on the floor of the hydraulic structure
6) The type of canal alignment, which involves maximum cross-drainage works, is a
a) Ridge canal
b) Contour canal
c) Side slope canal
d) All of the above
7) A hydel power project has been envisaged to serve the water supply and irrigation needs of the area at its
inception stage. The dam reservoir, so constructed, will be known as
a) Multiple reservoir
b) Single purpose reservoir
c) Both a) and b)
8) The maximum quantity of water that is estimated to remain available in a storage reservoir for supply, even
during worst dry periods, is known as its
a) Firm yield
b) Design yield
c) Reservoir yield
d) Primary yield
9) Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir is defined as
a) Total annual sediment inflow/reservoir capacity
b) Total sediment deposited in a given period/total sediment inflow in that period
c) Total annual sediment deposited in the reservoir/dead storage capacity of the reservoir
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 39
*SLRPK39*
-2-
10) The vertical downward earthquake acceleration,

a) Increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
c) Increase the uplift by 10%
= 0.1 g, acting on a gravity dam, will

b) Decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
11) The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam, which should not be allowed to exceed the
permissible value of about 3000 kN/m2, while analyzing fill reservoir case, is
a) The vertical maximum stress at the toe
b) The major principal stress at the toe
c) The shear stress at the toe
12) When the reservoir is full, the slope which is most likely to slide, is
a) The upstream slope
b) The downstream slope
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of them
13) Morning glory is the
a) Special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a dam of very small height
b) Special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a large dam project
c) Horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway across the body of a gravity dam, to carry the surplus
reservoir water to the downstream river
d) Horizontal tunnel constructed in the shaft spillway of an earthen dam through its foundation, to carry
the surplus reservoir water to the downstream river
14) The seepage discharge in an earthen dam, as collected by a horizontal blanket or a rock toe, can be
computed by
a) Plotting the flow net below the dam body
b) Plotting the flow net through the dam body
c) Both a) and b)
15) The one among the following, which helps to meet the downstream river water requirements in a dam
reservoir project is
a) Dam spillway
b) Dam galleries
c) Dam sluices
d) None of these
16) Presence of tail water in a gravity dam
a) Increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b) Increases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
c) Decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
d) Decreases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
17) A level crossing constructed at the junction of an irrigation canal and a natural drainage channel consists of
a) One regulator only
b) Two weirs only
c) One weir and two regulators
d) Two weirs and two regulators
18) Pondage requirement in a hydropower plant includes the need
a) To balance the varying demand
b) To compensate for wastage and spillage
c) To balance short time fluctuations in the flow
d) All of these
19) The only statement, which is incorrect in regard to hydropower, is
a) The system efficiency of a hydroplant is quite high
b) The installation cost of a hydroplant is very high
c) The running cost of a hydro power plant is very low
d) The hydraulic turbines takes a lot of time in being put off and on
20) Which of the following statement is false ?
a) Water can be withdrawn from any selected level of reservoir using dry intake towers
b) Intake towers have to be designed for worst combination of hydrostatic wind, earthquake and wave
forces
c) Dry intake towers are lighter in construction as compared to wet intake towers
______________
Set P
*SLRPK39*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 39

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5) and any three
SECTION I
2.
3.
a)
What are the main points to be considered while selecting a site for a gravity dam construction ?
b)
How would you fix the capacity of a dam reservoir at a particular river site, provided the inflow pattern and
demand pattern are known ? Explain the mass curve method which is used for this purpose.
Figure shows a section of a non-overflow portion of a gravity dam built of concrete. Unit weight of concrete is 23.5
kN/cubic meter. Allowable stress in concrete may be taken as 2500 kN/square meter. Neglecting earthquake
effects, determine : (i) Maximum vertical stresses at the toe and heel of the dam (ii) Major principal stress at toe
of the dam (iii) Intensity of shear stress on horizontal plane near the toe.
13
Set P
SLR-PK 39
4.
-4-
*SLRPK39*
a)
What are rockfill dams and what are their advantages over earthen dams ? Draw a neat sketch showing the
cross section of a rockfill dam.
b)
Explain how the following parameters affect design of an earth dam :
i) Optimum moisture content ;

ii) C and
5.
value of soil ; permeability of soil
iii) Sudden draw-down of the reservoir.
a)
What are the different kinds of spillways and how are they selected for individual conditions ?
b)
What is mean by a Dam sluice ? Why are such sluices necessary in dam construction ?
SECTION II
6.
7.
8.
9.
a)
Discuss briefly the causes of failure of hydraulic structures, founded on previous foundations.
b)
What is meant by river-training and what are the different objectives served by it ?
a)
Discuss the various types of cross drainage works used in canal systems. What considerations govern the
selection of the different types of works ?
b)
Write a detailed note on Financial justification for lining new canals.
a)
What are the two principal types of drainage systems necessary for draining irrigated tracts to avoid their
water-logging ? Discuss in details.
b)
Write a brief note on the use and types of turbines in a hydroelectric scheme.
a)
Define and differentiate between the following in connection with hydropower :

i) Firm and secondary power
ii) Load factor, utilization factor and plat factor.
b)
A runoff river plant on a stream has inflow of 20 cumec and head of 30 m with provision for pondage to meet
daily peak demand with a load factor of 60%. Determine the power generation capacity at 80% overall
efficiency. The plant runs as a peaking station for 3 hours and balance period in the day for average load.
What volume of pondage is required ?
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 39
*SLRPK39*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1.

b) Two weirs only
d) All of these
forces
layers of soil
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 39
*SLRPK39*
-2-
works, are
d) None of these
a) Ridge canal
b) Contour canal
c) Side slope canal
d) All of the above
c) Both a) and b)
a) Firm yield
b) Design yield
c) Reservoir yield
d) Primary yield

c) Both a) and b)
d) None of them
computed by
c) Both a) and b)
a) Dam spillway
b) Dam galleries
c) Dam sluices
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK39*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 39

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2.
3.
a)
b)
13
Set Q
SLR-PK 39
4.
-4-
*SLRPK39*
a)
b)

ii) C and
5.
a)
b)
SECTION II
6.
7.
8.
9.
a)
b)
a)
b)
a)
b)
a)

b)
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 39
*SLRPK39*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1.
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of them
computed by
c) Both a) and b)
a) Dam spillway
b) Dam galleries
c) Dam sluices
d) None of these
b) Two weirs only
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 39
-2-
*SLRPK39*

forces
layers of soil
works, are
d) None of these
a) Ridge canal
b) Contour canal
c) Side slope canal
d) All of the above
c) Both a) and b)
a) Firm yield
b) Design yield
c) Reservoir yield
d) Primary yield
a) Increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10% b) Decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
______________
Set R
*SLRPK39*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 39

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2.
3.
a)
b)
13
Set R
SLR-PK 39
4.
-4-
*SLRPK39*
a)
b)

ii) C and
5.
a)
b)
SECTION II
6.
7.
8.
9.
a)
b)
a)
b)
a)
b)
a)

b)
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 39
*SLRPK39*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1.

a) Ridge canal
b) Contour canal
c) Side slope canal
d) All of the above
c) Both a) and b)
a) Firm yield
b) Design yield
c) Reservoir yield
d) Primary yield

c) Both a) and b)
d) None of them
computed by
c) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 39
-2-
*SLRPK39*
a) Dam spillway
b) Dam galleries
c) Dam sluices
d) None of these
b) Two weirs only
d) All of these
forces
layers of soil
works, are
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK39*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 39

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2.
3.
a)
b)
13
Set S
SLR-PK 39
4.
-4-
*SLRPK39*
a)
b)

ii) C and
5.
a)
b)
SECTION II
6.
7.
8.
9.
a)
b)
a)
b)
a)
b)
a)

b)
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective I : OPEN CHANNEL AND RIVER HYDRAULICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) A Hydraulic Jump occurs when there is a break in a grade from

a) Mild slope to sleep slope
b) Sleep slope to mild slope
c) Sleep slope to sleeper slope
d) None
2) Froudes number is defined as the ratio of inertia force to
a) Gravity force
b) Pressure force
c) Viscous force
d) Surface-tension force
3) If the Froudes number is 1.5 then the Jump is said to be
a) weak jump
b) steady jump
c) undular jump
d) strong jump
4) The direct step method is

a) best suited for natural channel
b) accurate for all step sizes
c) most accurate to calculate super critical flow profile
d) best for artificial channel
5) Shields diagram is a plot of non dimensional shear stress c against
a) Reynolds number
c) Shear Reynolds number
b) Relative depth
d) Hydraulic radius
6) The momentum correction factor is expressed as

a)
1
3
V A
3
V dA
b)
1
V2 A
2
V dA
c)
1
VdA
VA
d) None
7) Specific force represents the sum of the pressure force and

a) Momentum flux per unit weight
b) Datum head
c) Momentum flux and datum head
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
-2-
8) The momentum equation in X- direction, when the flow in steady is fx =

a) 2 (Vx 2 Vx1)
b) (Vx 2 Vx1 )
c) (Vx 2 Vx1 )
d) None
9) Standard step method aims to solve

a) Differential equation of GVF
b) Differential energy equation
c) Momentum equation
d) Bernoullis equation
10) The difference between total head lien and piezometric head represents
a) velocity head
b) depth of flow
c) pressure head
d) elevation of bed of channel
11) The mean velocity in laceys regime channel is proportional to
a) R1 3
13
b) S0
12) River plains are mad of up of

a) Red soils
b) Black soils
d) S0
c) Sand
d) Alluvium
13) Extreme condition of the meanders is called as

a) cut-off
b) spurs
c) island
14) Rivers generally forms meanders in
a) delta stage of river
c) trough slope of river
23
2 3
c) R
d) none
b) boulder stage
d) none
15) Geometric similarity between model and prototype is the similarity of

a) motion
b) length
c) forces
d) none
16) A current meter measures the velocity of flow it is held
a) At bottom surface of channel
b) At the centroid of channel
c) At any point within cross-section
d) At the surface of channel
17) Silting of reservoir
a) reduces efficiency of dam
c) raises reservior water level
b) reduces storage capacity

d) None
18) Distorted models are required to prepare for

a) River models
b) Dam model
c) Harbour model
d) All
19) The Laceys equation for a regime channel consist of a set of x independent equation
relating to the flow; where x equal to
a) 1
b) 8
c) 2(2)
d) 4(4)
20) The dimension of shear stress is
a) ML1T2
b) ML1T1
c) ML2T2
d) ML1T2
______________
Set P
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

2) Draw neat sketchs wherever necessary.
SECTION I
(64=24)
a) Derive the equation for modified gradually varied flow (GVF). State the assumptions made
for it.
b) A 2.5 m wide rectangular channel has specific energy of 1.65 m. When carrying a discharge
of 7.00 m3/sec. Find the alternate depths and corresponding Froudes number.
c) Derive an equation for Cherys formula.
d) A flow of 5.0 m3/sec is passing at a depth of 1.6 m through a rectangular channel of 2.50 m
width. The kinetic energy correction factor is 1.20. What is the specific energy of flow ?
Also calculate the value of existing depth if = 1 is assume for alternate depth of flow.
e) Define Kinetic energy correction factor ( ) and momentum correction factor ( ) and
also write their expressions.
(82=16)
a) Derive an expression for the depth of flow after the jump in a rectangular channel in terms
of depth before the jump. Draw a neat sketch and show all details.
b) What do you understand by most economic section ? And show that in trapezoidal channel,
half of its top width is equal to length of one of sloping side and hydraulic mean depth (R)
is equal to half of depth of flow (y).
c) In a hydraulic jump, loss of energy is 4.00 m and pre jump Froudes number is 8.0. Determine
the discharge, conjugate depth of jump, percentage energy cost and post jump Froudes
number.
Set P
SLR-PK 40
-4-
*SLRPK40*
SECTION II
(64=24)
a) Draw a neat sketch of current meter and explain its working in detail.
b) Define similitude and what are its types ? Derive formula for Reynolds number.
c) Explain :
1) Threshold motion of the sediment.
2) Regime channel.
3) Meandering of River.
d) Explain with neat sketches & types of Spurs which are commonly used for controlling
and training Indian rivers ?
e) A 1:50 scale model of submarine was tested in wind-tunnel. If the velocity of the submarine
in sea-water is 10 m/s. Find the corresponding velocity of air in wind tunnel. Take Kinematic
viscosity of air 1.33 times of water. Also find the drag force on submarine if the force on
model is 10.0 N also take specific weight of sea water as 10 KN/m3 and of air 10 KN/m3.
(82=16)
a) What do you understand by River training work ? Explain its types. Also explain the
terms base load and suspended load. (Draw neat sketches)
b) Design a Regime channel by using Laceys theory from following data :
1) discharge 60 m3/sec
2) silt factor 1.15.
c) a) Derive Froudes model law and where it is used ?
b) Oil of kinematic viscosity 5105 m2/s is used in prototype in which both gravity and
viscous forces are important. What should be the viscosity of liquid used in
dynamically similar model of scale 1 : 9 ? Also find discharge ratio and time ratio for
this model.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

d) None
(201=20)

a) River models
b) Dam model
c) Harbour model
d) All
a) 1
b) 8
c) 2(2)
d) 4(4)
a) ML 1T2
b) ML1T1
c) ML2T2
d) ML1T2

d) None
a) Gravity force
b) Pressure force
c) Viscous force
a) weak jump
b) steady jump
c) undular jump
d) strong jump
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
-2-

a) Reynolds number
b) Relative depth
d) Hydraulic radius

a)
1
3
V A
3
V dA
b)
1
V2 A
2
V dA
c)
1
VdA
VA
d) None
b) Datum head
d) None
a) 2 (Vx 2 Vx1)
b) (Vx 2 Vx1 )
c) (Vx 2 Vx1 )
d) None

a) velocity head
b) depth of flow
c) pressure head
a) R1 3
13
b) S0

a) Red soils
b) Black soils
d) S0
c) Sand
d) Alluvium

a) cut-off
b) spurs
c) island
23
2 3
c) R
d) none
b) boulder stage
d) none

a) motion
b) length
c) forces
d) none
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK40*
-3-
SLR-PK 40
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
(64=24)
for it.
(82=16)
number.
Set Q
SLR-PK 40
-4-
*SLRPK40*
SECTION II
(64=24)
c) Explain :
2) Regime channel.
(82=16)
this model.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) R1 3
13
b) S0

a) Red soils
b) Black soils
d) S 0
c) Sand
d) Alluvium

a) cut-off
b) spurs
c) island
23
2 3
c) R
d) none
b) boulder stage
d) none

a) motion
b) length
c) forces
d) none

d) None

a) River models
b) Dam model
c) Harbour model
d) All
d) 4(4)
a) 1
b) 8
c) 2(2)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
-2-

a) ML1T2
b) ML1T1
c) ML2T2
d) ML1T2

d) None
a) Gravity force
b) Pressure force
c) Viscous force
a) weak jump
b) steady jump
c) undular jump
d) strong jump

a) Reynolds number
b) Relative depth
d) Hydraulic radius

a)
1
3
V A
3
V dA
b)
1
2
V A
2
V dA
c)
1
VdA
VA
d) None
b) Datum head
d) None
a) 2 (Vx 2 Vx1)
b) Q (Vx 2 Vx1)
c) Q (Vx 2 Vx1)
d) None

a) velocity head
b) depth of flow
c) pressure head
______________
Set R
*SLRPK40*
-3-
SLR-PK 40
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
(64=24)
for it.
(82=16)
number.
Set R
SLR-PK 40
-4-
*SLRPK40*
SECTION II
(64=24)
c) Explain :
2) Regime channel.
(82=16)
b) Oil of kinematic viscosity 5105 m2/s is used in prototype in which both gravity
and viscous forces are important. What should be the viscosity of liquid used in
this model.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a)
1
3
V A
3
V dA
b)
1
2
V A
2
V dA
c)
1
VdA
VA
d) None

b) Datum head
d) None
a) 2 (Vx2 Vx1)
b) (Vx 2 Vx1)
c) (Vx 2 Vx1 )
d) None

a) velocity head
b) depth of flow
c) pressure head
a) R1 3
13
b) S0
2 3
c) R
23
d) S 0
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 40
*SLRPK40*
-2-

a) Red soils
b) Black soils
c) Sand

a) cut-off
b) spurs
c) island
d) Alluvium
d) none
b) boulder stage
d) none

a) motion
b) length
c) forces
d) none

d) None

a) River models
b) Dam model
c) Harbour model
d) All
a) 1
b) 8
c) 2(2)
d) 4(4)

a) ML1T2
b) ML1T1
c) ML2T2
d) ML1T2

d) None
a) Gravity force
b) Pressure force
c) Viscous force
a) weak jump
b) steady jump
c) undular jump
d) strong jump

a) Reynolds number
b) Relative depth
d) Hydraulic radius
______________
Set S
*SLRPK40*
-3-
SLR-PK 40
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
(64=24)
for it.
(82=16)
number.
Set S
SLR-PK 40
-4-
*SLRPK40*
SECTION II
(64=24)
c) Explain :
2) Regime channel.
(82=16)
this model.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 41
*SLRPK41*
S
Set

AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL (Old) (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Assume suitable data whenever required.

Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. Write the correct option in your answer book :

1) _________ is a type of dry collector.
a) Cyclonic scrubber
c) Cyclone
b) Spray tower
d) Venturi scrubber
2) Which of the following is not a secondary pollutant ?

a) PAN
b) PBN
c) SO2
3) __________ contains bags hung in inverted position.

a) Gravity settler
b) Fabric filter
c) Cyclone
d) ESP
d) O3
4) _________ can give particulate removal efficiency up to 99.99%.

a) Gravity settling chamber
b) Cyclone separator
c) Scrubbers
d) ESP
5) In __________ trays are fixed to increase the efficiency.
a) Cyclone
b) ESP
c) Bag house filter
d) Gravity settling chamber
6) If stack is having cross sectional area of 4 sq. m. then no. of traverse points shall
be equal to
a) 4
b) 12
c) 20
d) 30
7) ___________ ratio plays important role in controlling auto exhaust emissions.
a) Air to fuel
b) Air to exhaust rate
c) Air to water
d) Air to filter
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 41
*SLRPK41*
-2-
8) Photochemical smog commonly occurs in highly __________ area.

a) Urbanized and motorized
b) Motorized and hilly
c) Rural and undeveloped
d) Hot and dry
9) For ambient air monitoring _________ is used.
a) High volume sampler or respirable dust sampler
b) Auto exhaust analyzer
c) Stack monitoring kit
d) All of the above
10) ________ inversion occurs at high altitudes.
a) Radiation
b) Subsidence
c) Combination of a) and b)
d) None of these
11) _________ injury/injuries are related to plants.
a) Epinasty
b) Chlorosis
c) Abscission
d) All of the above
12) Carbon monoxide is a __________ pollutant.

a) Human friendly b) Primary
c) Secondary
d) Volatile
13) Molecular mass of SO2 is _________ grams/mole.

a) 44
b) 64
c) 34
d) 28
14) The depletion of ozone in the outer atmosphere may result in increased
a) Heart attack cases
b) Skin cancer cases
c) Asthma cases
d) None of these
15) Dust reaching to alveolar region of lungs is of size
a) PM10
b) PM50
c) PM100
d) PM25
16) The maximum mixing depth is __________ from season to season.

a) Changes
b) Remains same
c) Always decreases
d) Cant conclude anything
17) _________ is sum of physical stack height and plume rise.
a) Plume length
b) Area of stack
c) Effective stack height
d) Wind speed
18) _______ technique of burning pollutant gases in open air causes air pollution.
a) Catalytic incineration
b) Flare
c) Recuperation
d) All of the above
19) When velocity of stack gas (Vg) is equal to velocity of suction (Vs) in stack gas
sampling probe then the condition is termed as
a) Under isokinetic sampling
b) Over isokinetic sampling
c) Isokinetic sampling
d) None of these
20) Humidity can be measured by using

a) Hydrometer
b) Hygroscope
c) Hygrometer
______________
d) Anemometer
Set P
*SLRPK41*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 41

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : Q. No. 5 is compulsory in Section I. Solve any two

questions from Q. No. 2 to Q. No. 4 and Q. No. 6 is
compulsory in Section II, solve any two questions from
Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
SECTION I
Q. No. 5 is compulsory. Solve any two questions from Q. No. 2 to Q. No. 4.
2. a) Give composition of clean air and define air pollution.
b) Give detailed classification of sources of air pollution.
3. a) Discuss effects of SO2 in presence of SPM on human health with the help
of tabular format.
b) If SO2, CO and NO2 are found out to be 1000 ppm, 600 ppm, 200 ppm and
CO2 300 ppm respectively in an air quality survey. What are concentrations
in g/m3 at 0 C and 1 atm. pressure ?
4. a) Discuss different meteorological factors affecting dispersion of air pollutants.
b) Give Gaussian dispersion model equation and explain meaning of each and
every term use in it.
14
i) Inversion conditions.
ii) Air pollution episodes.
iii) Plume rise.
iv) Greenhouse effect.
Set P
SLR-PK 41
-4-
*SLRPK41*
SECTION II
Q. no. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two questions from Q. no. 7 to Q. no. 9.
6. a) Give national ambient air quality standards for 5 major pollutants.
b) Explain stepwise procedure for determining concentration of SPM in ambient

air by using respirable dust sampler.
7. a) Explain working of ESP with neat sketch.
b) Explain with the help of neat sketch standard cyclone.
8. a) Explain recuperative incineration.
b) What is detail Isokinetic sampling ? Explain in detail with the help of figures.
7
5
9
5
9
14
1) Fabric filter
2) The Air Act.
3) Stack monitoring kit.
4) LA smog.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 41
*SLRPK41*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

a) Changes
b) Remains same
c) Always decreases
a) Plume length
b) Area of stack
d) Wind speed
b) Flare
c) Recuperation
d) All of the above
d) None of these

a) Hydrometer
b) Hygroscope
c) Hygrometer

c) Cyclone
b) Spray tower
d) Venturi scrubber

a) PAN
b) PBN
c) SO2
d) Anemometer
d) O3
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 41
*SLRPK41*
-2-

a) Gravity settler
b) Fabric filter
c) Cyclone
d) ESP
c) Scrubbers
d) ESP
a) Cyclone
b) ESP
c) Bag house filter
be equal to
a) 4
b) 12
c) 20
d) 30
a) Air to fuel
c) Air to water
d) Air to filter
d) Hot and dry
d) All of the above
a) Radiation
b) Subsidence
d) None of these
a) Epinasty
b) Chlorosis
c) Abscission
d) All of the above

c) Secondary
d) Volatile

a) 44
b) 64
c) 34
d) 28
c) Asthma cases
d) None of these
a) PM10
b) PM50
c) PM100
d) PM25
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK41*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 41

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
SECTION I
of tabular format.
14
iii) Plume rise.
Set Q
SLR-PK 41
-4-
*SLRPK41*
SECTION II

7
5
9
5
9
14
1) Fabric filter
2) The Air Act.
4) LA smog.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 41
*SLRPK41*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

a) Epinasty
b) Chlorosis
c) Abscission
d) All of the above

c) Secondary
d) Volatile

a) 44
b) 64
c) 34
d) 28

c) Asthma cases
d) None of these
a) PM10
b) PM50
c) PM100
d) PM25

a) Changes
b) Remains same
c) Always decreases
a) Plume length
b) Area of stack
d) Wind speed
b) Flare
c) Recuperation
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 41
*SLRPK41*
-2-
d) None of these

a) Hydrometer
b) Hygroscope
c) Hygrometer

c) Cyclone
b) Spray tower
d) Venturi scrubber

a) PAN
b) PBN
c) SO2

a) Gravity settler
b) Fabric filter
c) Cyclone
d) ESP
d) Anemometer
d) O3

c) Scrubbers
d) ESP
a) Cyclone
b) ESP
c) Bag house filter
be equal to
a) 4
b) 12
c) 20
d) 30
a) Air to fuel
c) Air to water
d) Air to filter
d) Hot and dry
d) All of the above
a) Radiation
b) Subsidence
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK41*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 41

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
SECTION I
of tabular format.
14
iii) Plume rise.
Set R
SLR-PK 41
-4-
*SLRPK41*
SECTION II

7
5
9
5
9
14
1) Fabric filter
2) The Air Act.
4) LA smog.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 41
*SLRPK41*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

be equal to
a) 4
b) 12
c) 20
d) 30
a) Air to fuel
c) Air to water
d) Air to filter
d) Hot and dry
d) All of the above
a) Radiation
b) Subsidence
d) None of these
a) Epinasty
b) Chlorosis
c) Abscission
d) All of the above

c) Secondary
d) Volatile
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 41
*SLRPK41*
-2-

a) 44
b) 64
c) 34
d) 28

c) Asthma cases
d) None of these
b) PM50
c) PM100
a) PM10
d) PM25

a) Changes
b) Remains same
c) Always decreases
a) Plume length
b) Area of stack
d) Wind speed
b) Flare
c) Recuperation
d) All of the above
d) None of these

a) Hydrometer
b) Hygroscope
c) Hygrometer

c) Cyclone
b) Spray tower
d) Venturi scrubber

a) PAN
b) PBN
c) SO2

a) Gravity settler
b) Fabric filter
c) Cyclone
d) ESP
d) Anemometer
d) O3

c) Scrubbers
d) ESP
a) Cyclone
b) ESP
c) Bag house filter
______________
Set S
*SLRPK41*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 41

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
SECTION I
of tabular format.
14
iii) Plume rise.
Set S
SLR-PK 41
-4-
*SLRPK41*
SECTION II

7
5
9
5
9
14
1) Fabric filter
2) The Air Act.
4) LA smog.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 42
*SLRPK42*
S
Set

Elective I : DESIGN OF FOUNDATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

2) Q. V is compulsory. Answer any two questions out of Q. II, Q. III
and Q. IV.
3) Answer any three questions out of Q. VI, Q. VII, Q. VIII and Q. IX.
5) Q. No. I is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
I.
Max. Marks : 100
Choose correct option :
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) If Poisons ratio of soil is increased then the initial settlement of soil will be
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Remain same
d) Do not depend on Poisons ratio
2) Ultimate capacity of footing by using plate load test in case of clayey soil is
a) Equal to ultimate capacity of plate
b) More than ultimate capacity of plate
c) Less than ultimate capacity of plate
d) None
3) If the cohesion for soil is 30 kPa and soil fail by local shear then reduced value of cohesion
for local shear CL is
a) 30 kPa
b) 45 kPa
c) 20 kPa
d) 10 kPa
4) In case of IS code method bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq, Nr for general shear failure in
cohesive soil are
a) 5.7, 5.14, 1.0
b) 5.14, 1.0, 0.0
c) 5.14, 5.7, 0.0
d) 1.0, 1.0, 1.0
5) When footing is subjected to eccentric load having eccentricity e in the direction of
length L then modified dimension of this footing is
a) L + e
b) L 2e
c) L e
d) L + 2e
6) Pressuremeter apparatus consist of
a) One guard cell and one measuring cell b) Two guard cell and one measuring cell
c) One guard cell and two measuring cell d) None
7) The foundation in which the weight of the building is approximately equal to the full weight
of soil including water excavated from site is called
a) Mat foundation
b) Floating foundation
c) Strap foundation
d) Pile foundation
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 42
*SLRPK42*
-2-
8) If a footing is subjected to vertical load of 1000 kN and horizontal load of

200 kN which method would you prefer to design this footing ?
a) Terzaghis
b) IS code
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
9) If the length of trapezoidal footing is 6.8 m, centroid of the resultant load from heavier
column load side is 2.65 m, smaller side of the footing is 1m, what would be the other side
of the footing ?
a) 5 m
b) 6 m
c) 7 m
d) 8 m
10) Which of the following foundation is deep foundation ?
a) Mat foundation
c) Strap foundation
d) Pile foundation
11) A pile is driven into clay. The diameter of the pile is 25 cm and 10 m deep. Unconfined
compressive strength of clay is 120 kN/m2. Bearing capacity factor is 9 and adhesion
factor is 0.75. What is the ultimate load carrying capacity of the pile ?
a) 360 kN
b) 380 kN
c) 400 kN
d) 420 kN
12) In case of well foundation, the grip length is defined as
a) length below top of the well cap to the cutting edge
b) length between bottom of well cap and cutting edge
c) depth of bottom of well to the minimum scour level
d) depth of bottom of well to the maximum scour level
13) Three piles are arranged in a triangular form, efficiency of pile group by Felds rule
a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
14) The bottom plug in well foundation is usually made up of
a) Brick Masonry
b) RCC
c) Cement concrete d) None
15) If the water is excluded from the caisson chamber by means of compressed air, then that
type of caisson foundation is called
a) Open Caisson
b) Box Caisson
c) Pneumatic Caisson
d) None
16) If the bulbs are provided in the construction of pile, then that type piles are called
a) Under reamed piles
b) Batter piles
c) Fender piles
d) None
17) In machine foundations, natural frequency of the foundation-soil system
a) Should be too large compared to the operating frequency of the machine
b) Should be too small compared to the operating frequency of the machine
c) Should be too large or too small compared to the operating frequency of the machine
d) None
18) Which of the following is not the deep foundation ?
a) Pile foundation
b) Well foundation c) Raft foundation
d) None
19) When the independent footings of two columns are connected by a beam, it is called
a) Strap footing
b) Wall footing
c) Strip footing
d) Spread footing
20) The piles are constructed by drilling holes in the ground to the required depth and then
filling the hole with concrete are called
a) Driven piles
b) Cast-in-situ piles c) Fender piles
d) Batter piles
______________
Set P
*SLRPK42*
S
SLR-PK 42
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

and Q. IV.
SECTION I
II.
a) List the assumptions made by Terzaghis in derivation of bearing capacity equation.
b) Determine factor of safety for a square footing of size 1.5 m carrying a load of 900 kN
which is located at a depth of 1.3 m below the ground in a soil having following properties
e = 0.55, G = 2.67, Sr = 50%, c = 8 kPa, = 30. Use Terzaghis analysis assuming general
shear failure for = 30 Terzaghis bearing capacity factors are Nc = 37.2, Nq = 22.5 and
Nr = 19.7.
III. a) What are the limitations of plate load test ?
b) Following observations were recorded by conducting plate load test on two different size
plates at a site.
Find the size of footing to carry a load of 900 kN at the same specified settlement of
25 mm.
IV. a) Explain the procedure for design of mat footing by rigid method.
b) Design a combined footing (geometry only) for two columns 300 mm 300 mm carrying
loads of 800 kN and 1200 kN. Take the allowable soil pressure as 250 kN/m2 and the
length of footing as 5 m. Projection beyond the face of column is available only 0.35 m for
both the columns.
Set P
SLR-PK 42
-4-
*SLRPK42*
V. Write short notes on following :
16
a) Standard penetration test.

b) Geotextiles.
c) Consolidation settlement.
d) Local shear failure.
SECTION II
VI. a) 200 mm diameter, 8 m long piles are used as foundation for a column in a uniform deposit
of medium clay with cohesion 50 kN/m2 and adhesion factor 0.9. There are 9 piles arranged
in square pattern of 3 3. For a group efficiency = 1, find the spacing between piles.
b) Explain pneumatic caisson with neat sketch.
VII. a) Explain negative skin friction in pile foundations.
6
4
b) Write short notes on under reamed piles.
c) Write short notes on Pier foundations.
VIII. a) Explain the types of Well Foundations with neat sketches.
IX.
b) Explain well sinking procedure.
a) Explain different types of machine foundations with neat sketches.
b) Explain 6 degrees of freedom of a block foundation with a neat sketch.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 42
*SLRPK42*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

and Q. IV.
I.
Max. Marks : 100
Marks : 20
(201=20)
b) Batter piles
c) Fender piles
d) None
d) None
a) Pile foundation
d) None
a) Strap footing
b) Wall footing
c) Strip footing
d) Spread footing
a) Driven piles
d) Batter piles
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Remain same
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 42
-2-
*SLRPK42*
a) 30 kPa
b) 45 kPa
c) 20 kPa
d) 10 kPa
cohesive soil are
a) 5.7, 5.14, 1.0
b) 5.14, 1.0, 0.0
c) 5.14, 5.7, 0.0
d) 1.0, 1.0, 1.0
a) L + e
b) L 2e
c) L e
d) L + 2e
a) Mat foundation
c) Strap foundation
d) Pile foundation
a) Terzaghis
b) IS code
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
of the footing ?
a) 5 m
b) 6 m
c) 7 m
d) 8 m
a) Mat foundation
c) Strap foundation
d) Pile foundation
a) 360 kN
b) 380 kN
c) 400 kN
d) 420 kN
a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
a) Brick Masonry
b) RCC
a) Open Caisson
b) Box Caisson
d) None
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK42*
S
SLR-PK 42
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

and Q. IV.
SECTION I
II.
Nr = 19.7.
plates at a site.
25 mm.
both the columns.
Set Q
SLR-PK 42
-4-
*SLRPK42*
16

b) Geotextiles.
SECTION II
6
4
IX.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 42
*SLRPK42*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

and Q. IV.
I.
Max. Marks : 100
Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 360 kN
b) 380 kN
c) 400 kN
d) 420 kN
a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
a) Brick Masonry
b) RCC
a) Open Caisson
b) Box Caisson
d) None
b) Batter piles
c) Fender piles
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 42
*SLRPK42*
-2-

d) None
a) Pile foundation
d) None
a) Strap footing
b) Wall footing
c) Strip footing
d) Spread footing
a) Driven piles
d) Batter piles
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Remain same
d) None
a) 30 kPa
b) 45 kPa
c) 20 kPa
d) 10 kPa
cohesive soil are
a) 5.7, 5.14, 1.0
b) 5.14, 1.0, 0.0
c) 5.14, 5.7, 0.0
d) 1.0, 1.0, 1.0
a) L + e
b) L 2e
c) L e
d) L + 2e
a) Mat foundation
c) Strap foundation
d) Pile foundation
a) Terzaghis
b) IS code
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
of the footing ?
a) 5 m
b) 6 m
c) 7 m
d) 8 m
a) Mat foundation
c) Strap foundation
d) Pile foundation
______________
Set R
*SLRPK42*
S
SLR-PK 42
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

and Q. IV.
SECTION I
II.
Nr = 19.7.
plates at a site.
25 mm.
both the columns.
Set R
SLR-PK 42
-4-
*SLRPK42*
16

b) Geotextiles.
SECTION II
6
4
IX.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 42
*SLRPK42*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :

and Q. IV.
I.
Max. Marks : 100
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Mat foundation
c) Strap foundation
d) Pile foundation
a) Terzaghis
b) IS code
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
of the footing ?
a) 5 m
b) 6 m
c) 7 m
d) 8 m
a) Mat foundation
c) Strap foundation
d) Pile foundation
a) 360 kN
b) 380 kN
c) 400 kN
d) 420 kN
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 42
-2-
*SLRPK42*

a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
a) Brick Masonry
b) RCC
a) Open Caisson
b) Box Caisson
d) None
b) Batter piles
c) Fender piles
d) None
d) None
a) Pile foundation
d) None
a) Strap footing
b) Wall footing
c) Strip footing
d) Spread footing
a) Driven piles
d) Batter piles
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Remain same
d) None
a) 30 kPa
b) 45 kPa
c) 20 kPa
d) 10 kPa
cohesive soil are
a) 5.7, 5.14, 1.0
b) 5.14, 1.0, 0.0
c) 5.14, 5.7, 0.0
d) 1.0, 1.0, 1.0
a) L + e
b) L 2e
c) L e
d) L + 2e
______________
Set S
*SLRPK42*
S
SLR-PK 42
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

and Q. IV.
SECTION I
II.
Nr = 19.7.
plates at a site.
25 mm.
both the columns.
Set S
SLR-PK 42
-4-
*SLRPK42*
16

b) Geotextiles.
SECTION II
6
4
IX.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 44
*SLRPK44*
Seat
No.
Set

MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) The work sampling technique is also called as
a) Method study
b) Ratio sampling
c) Activity sampling
d) None of these
2) The benefit of productivity for customers to reducing _________
a) Higher wages
b) Higher standard of living
c) Price of material
d) None of these
3) Method study is related to _____________
a) To improve effectiveness of workers
b) To improve method of production
c) To improve production and effectiveness
d) All of these
4) The aspects which are considered before selecting a job in method study are
a) Managerial aspect
b) Quality development aspect
c) Human reactions
d) All of these
5) Outline (Operation) process chart includes
a) Survey and records of overall processes
b) All the events
c) Activity of the operator
d) Activity of the left hand and right hand of an operator
6) Time study is a ___________
a) Productivity measurement system
b) Work measurement technique
c) Method study
d) Time Estimation
7) Standard Time = Allowance + ____________
a) Standard Method
b) Standard Procedure
c) Standard rating
d) Basic Time
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 44
-2-
*SLRPK44*
8) __________ is a method of Job Evaluation.

a) Employee Comparison Method
b) Checklist Method
c) Classification Method
d) All of these
9) Direct Incentive are __________
a) Paid to group of workers
b) Paid to an individual worker
c) Direct monetary payment
d) Social benefits
10) The successful application of work study is related to ___________
a) Relation between management and workers
b) Relation between employer and workers
c) Relation between workers representative and workers
d) All of these
11) A __________ of 95.45% signifies that the work study engineer is sure that 95.45%
of the times the random observation will represent the true facts.
a) Confidence level
b) Confidence area
c) Percentage of occurrence
d) Percentage of working time
12) n = Pq / p2 were q represents
a) Percentage of occurrence
b) Percentage of working time
c) Percentage of normal time
d) None of these
13) The PDCA cycle is
a) Produce, develop, create, action
b) Plan, develop, check, action
c) Produce, do, check, act
d) Plan, do, check, act
14) Juran Trilogy based on Quality planning, Quality Improvement and
a) Quality measurement
b) Quality control
c) Quality system
d) Quality cost
15) PDCA cycle is developed by
a) J. M. Juran
b) W. Edward Deming
c) Kaizen
d) None of these
16) _________ technique is the identification of materials, equipment, tools, data and
information are arranged systematically.
a) Seiko
b) Seiton
c) Seiso
d) None of these
17) If the part of the system fails, there is an alternate success path (Backup) is provided,
that is called as _________
a) Reliability
b) Redundancy
c) FMEA
d) POF
18) The symbols are used in FTA are grouped as Events, Gates and ______ symbols.
a) Main
b) Exclusive
c) Transfer
d) AND
19) The use of Value Engineering is
a) Balance the cost and performance b) Cost reduction technique
c) Prevent ever design of component d) All of these
20) The value analysis is applied to
a) Existing product
b) Development stage product
c) Specification of product
d) All of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK44*
-3-
SLR-PK 44
Seat
No.

(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
40 Marks
2. Attempt any five :

a) Enlist the steps in method study. Discuss in brief any one step.
b) Draw flow diagram for concreting of slab at first floor.
c) Explain in short Elements of TQM.
d) What is role of Work Specification in work study ?
e) How will you calculate standard time in work measurement ?
f) What is the role of trade union in Work Study ?

g) Write notes on (Solve any two) :
i) Kaizen
ii) PMTS
iii) Job Evaluation.
SECTION II
8
8
40 Marks

a) What is Random Sampling ? How it is carried out ?
b) How will you decide sample size in work sampling ?
c) Explain the use of Control Charts with respect to work sampling.
d) Discuss Value analysis as a cost reduction technique.
e) How creative thinking is helpful for value engineering ?
f) Write notes on Reliability Curves.

g) Write a note on Redundancy in Reliability Engineering.
8
8
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 44
*SLRPK44*
Seat
No.
Set

(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Seiko
b) Seiton
c) Seiso
d) None of these
a) Reliability
b) Redundancy
c) FMEA
d) POF
a) Main
b) Exclusive
c) Transfer
d) AND
a) Existing product
d) All of these
a) Method study
b) Ratio sampling
d) None of these
a) Higher wages
d) None of these
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 44
-2-
*SLRPK44*
c) Human reactions
d) All of these
b) All the events
11) Time study is a ___________
a) Productivity measurement system b) Work measurement technique
c) Method study
d) Time Estimation
a) Standard Method
c) Standard rating
d) Basic Time
b) Checklist Method
d) All of these
d) Social benefits
d) All of these
a) Confidence level
b) Confidence area
d) None of these
b) Quality control
c) Quality system
d) Quality cost
a) J. M. Juran
b) W. Edward Deming
c) Kaizen
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK44*
-3-
SLR-PK 44
Seat
No.

(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
40 Marks


i) Kaizen
ii) PMTS
SECTION II
8
8
40 Marks


8
8
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 44
*SLRPK44*
Seat
No.
Set

(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Confidence level
b) Confidence area
2
2) n = Pq / p were q represents
d) None of these
b) Quality control
c) Quality system
d) Quality cost
a) J. M. Juran
b) W. Edward Deming
c) Kaizen
d) None of these
a) Seiko
b) Seiton
c) Seiso
d) None of these
a) Reliability
b) Redundancy
c) FMEA
d) POF
a) Main
b) Exclusive
c) Transfer
d) AND
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 44
-2-
*SLRPK44*

a) Existing product
d) All of these
a) Method study
b) Ratio sampling
d) None of these
a) Higher wages
d) None of these
d) All of these
c) Human reactions
d) All of these
b) All the events
16) Time study is a ___________
a) Productivity measurement system b) Work measurement technique
c) Method study
d) Time Estimation
a) Standard Method
c) Standard rating
d) Basic Time
b) Checklist Method
d) All of these
d) Social benefits
d) All of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK44*
-3-
SLR-PK 44
Seat
No.

(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
40 Marks


i) Kaizen
ii) PMTS
SECTION II
8
8
40 Marks


8
8
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 44
*SLRPK44*
Seat
No.
Set

(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) Time study is a ___________
a) Productivity measurement system
c) Method study
(201=20)
b) Work measurement technique
d) Time Estimation

a) Standard Method
c) Standard rating
d) Basic Time
b) Checklist Method
d) All of these

d) Social benefits

d) All of these
a) Confidence level
b) Confidence area
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 44
-2-
*SLRPK44*

b) Quality control
c) Quality system
d) Quality cost
a) J. M. Juran
b) W. Edward Deming
c) Kaizen
d) None of these
a) Seiko
b) Seiton
c) Seiso
d) None of these
a) Reliability
b) Redundancy
c) FMEA
d) POF
a) Main
b) Exclusive
c) Transfer
d) AND
a) Existing product
d) All of these
a) Method study
b) Ratio sampling
d) None of these
a) Higher wages
d) None of these
d) All of these
c) Human reactions
d) All of these
b) All the events
______________
Set S
*SLRPK44*
-3-
SLR-PK 44
Seat
No.

(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
40 Marks


i) Kaizen
ii) PMTS
SECTION II
8
8
40 Marks


8
8
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 45
*SLRPK45*
Seat
No.
Set

(Elective I) : ADVANCED CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks :100

Marks : 20
Each MCQ carries two marks.

1. Testing of hardened concrete can be done by
a) Schmidts Rebound Hammer
c) Dynamic method
b) Penetration technique
d) All of these
2. Measurement of concrete workability is done by

a) Compacting factor test
b) Abrasion test
c) Soundness test
d) Setting time test
3. Fineness of cement is done by the sieve

a) 600
b) 300
c) 150
d) 90
4. Volume of one bag of cement is taken as

a) 35 liters
b) 70 liters
c) 35 m3
d) 70 m3
5. IS provision for concrete mix design is given in

a) IS : 4031-1968
b) IS : 383-1970
c) IS : 456-2000
d) IS : 10262-2009
6. If the slump of the concrete mix is 75 mm, its workability is considered to be

a) Low workability
b) Medium workability
c) High workability
d) Cannot say
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 45
*SLRPK45*
-2-
7. True slump shows characteristic of

a) homogenous material
c) segregation
b) non cohesive material

d) bleeding
8. To calculate tensile strength of concrete from the compressive strength, the

following formula may be used
a) 5000 fck
b) 0.7 fck
c) 200 KN/mm2
d) 0.27 fck
9. Which of the following is not a effect of creep ?

a) Due to creep there is a volume changes in concrete
b) Creep increases the deflection of structure with time
c) Creep will lead to buckling
d) It may cause cracking in interior of structure
10. For concrete mix pH value of water shall not be less than
a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9
______________
Set P
*SLRPK45*
-3-
SLR-PK 45
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
1. a) Distinguish between plasticizers and superplasticizers.
b) Classify the various concrete chemicals based on their use.
10
2. a) Describe the importance of curing.
b) Compare the relative merits and demerits of various workability tests.
3. a) Write in brief about relationship between strength and density of concrete.
b) Discuss the maturity of concrete. How is it measured ? What are its uses in
concrete industry ?
4. How can aggregate cause efflorescence in concrete ? How does the

maximum size of aggregate affect the workability of concrete with a given
water content ?
13
Set P
SLR-PK 45
-4-
*SLRPK45*
SECTION II
5. a) What is roller compacted concrete ?
b) Explain the design considerations of roller-compacted concrete.
10
6. How is the ready mixed concrete specified to satisfy the requirement in the
fresh and hardened state ?
13
7. a) On what factors the water content of mix is dependant ?
b) In mix proportioning, why is it desirable to use the minimum quantity of water ?

8. What are the advantages and disadvantages of revibration of concrete ?
9
13
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 45
*SLRPK45*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks :100

Marks : 20

a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9

c) segregation
d) bleeding

a) 5000 fck
b) 0.7 fck
c) 200 KN/mm2
d) 0.27 fck

c) Dynamic method
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 45
*SLRPK45*
-2-

c) Soundness test
b) Abrasion test

b) 300
c) 150
a) 600
d) 90

a) 35 liters
b) 70 liters
c) 35 m3
d) 70 m3

a) IS : 4031-1968
c) IS : 456-2000
b) IS : 383-1970
d) IS : 10262-2009
a) Low workability
c) High workability
d) Cannot say
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK45*
-3-
SLR-PK 45
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
10
concrete industry ?

water content ?
13
Set Q
SLR-PK 45
-4-
*SLRPK45*
SECTION II
10
13

9
13
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 45
*SLRPK45*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks :100

Marks : 20

a) IS : 4031-1968
b) IS : 383-1970
c) IS : 456-2000
d) IS : 10262-2009

a) Low workability
c) High workability
d) Cannot say

a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9

a) 600
b) 300
d) 90
c) 150
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 45
*SLRPK45*
-2-

a) 35 liters
b) 70 liters
c) 35 m3
d) 70 m3

c) Dynamic method
d) All of these

a) Compacting factor test b)
Abrasion test
c) Soundness test

a) homogenous materialb)non cohesive material
c) segregation
d) bleeding
a) 5000 fck
b) 0.7 fck
c) 200 KN/mm2
d) 0.27 fck
______________
Set R
*SLRPK45*
-3-
SLR-PK 45
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
10
concrete industry ?

water content ?
13
Set R
SLR-PK 45
-4-
*SLRPK45*
SECTION II
10
13

9
13
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 45
*SLRPK45*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks :100

Marks : 20

a) 600
b) 300
c) 150
d) 90
c) 35 m3
d) 70 m3

a) 35 liters
b) 70 liters

a) IS : 4031-1968
b) IS : 383-1970
c) IS : 456-2000
d) IS : 10262-2009

a) Low workability
c) High workability
d) Cannot say

c) segregation
d) bleeding

a) 5000 fck
b) 0.7 fck
c) 200 KN/mm2
d) 0.27 fck
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 45
*SLRPK45*
-2-

a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9

c) Dynamic method
d) All of these

c) Soundness test
b) Abrasion test
______________
Set S
*SLRPK45*
-3-
SLR-PK 45
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
10
concrete industry ?

water content ?
13
Set S
SLR-PK 45
-4-
*SLRPK45*
SECTION II
10
13

9
13
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 46
*SLRPK46*
S
Set
t
B.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2016

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1) Question No. I MCQ is compulsory and MCQ no. 1 to 8 carries

1 mark each and no. 9 to 14 carries 2 marks each.
2) IS 456-2000 is not allowed to refer while solving MCQ in
first 30 minutes.
3) Write the correct option of each question.
Marks : 20

I.
1) The neutral axis of a T-beam exists

a) Within the flange
c) Below the slab
b) At the bottom edge of the slab

d) All the above
2) The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than

a) 6 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 12 mm
3) A continuous beam results in
a) Structural integrity
c) Less deflection
b) Economical design
d) All of the above
4) The amount of reinforcement for main bars in a slab, is based upon

a) Minimum bending moment
b) Maximum shear force
c) Maximum bending moment
d) Minimum shear force
5) Design of a two way slab simply supported on edges and having no provision to
prevent the corners from lifting, is made by
a) Rankine formula
b) Rankine Grashoff formula
c) Marcus formula
d) Rankine-Marcus formula
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 46
-2-
*SLRPK46*
6) The percentage of minimum area of mild steel reinforcement in slabs, is _______ of gross
cross sectional area.
a) 0.10%
b) 0.20%
c) 0.15%
d) 0.18%
7) The pitch of the lateral ties should not be more than
a) 200 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 250 mm
d) 100 mm
8) If Mt > Mu then longitudinal reinforcement is also provided at
a) Tension face
b) Compression face
c) Side face
d) All of the above
9) An R.C.C. beam is of size 300 1000 mm. It is subjected to V = 150 kN.
M = 150 kNm and T = 30 kN-m at limiting conditions. Equivalent bending moment and
Equivalent shear force at ultimate loads are respectively.
a) 151 kN-m, 310 kN
b) 226.5 kN-m, 206 kN
c) 100.5 kN-m, 310 kN
d) 226.5 kN-m, 310 kN
10) The ultimate load carrying capacity of a circular section of 300 mm dia. with helical
reinforcement using one percentage of reinforcement and M20 concrete and Fe415 grade
steel is
a) 360 kN
b) 1000 kN
c) 100 kN
d) 794 kN
11) A T-beam roof section has thickness of slab 100 mm; width of rib 300 mm; depth of beam
500 mm; C/C distance of beams 3 m; effective span of beams 6 m; distance b/w points of
contra flexure 3.6 m. The effective flange width is
a) 3000 mm
b) 1900 mm
c) 1600 mm
d) 1500 mm
12) The limited steel for a singly reinforced beam with M15 and Fe415 in mm2 is _______
(b = 200 mm; d = 300 mm)
a) 234
b) 456
c) 432
d) 567
13) Factored load carrying capacity of a column of 300 mm 600 mm size with minimum
percentage of steel is _______ (M20 and Fe 415)
a) 1840 kN
b) 180 kN
c) 1829 kN
d) None
14) A singly reinforced beam is of width 200 mm. If the factored moment of resistance is
138 kN-m M20 and Fe415, the effective depth of beam is
a) 400 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 657 mm
d) 456 mm
______________
Set P
*SLRPK46*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 46

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
VIII.
IX.
Marks : 80
1) Solve any three questions from each Section.

2) Use of original IS 456 and non programmable calculator is allowed
while solving design problems.
SECTION I
A simply supported slab of corridor of a building has a clear span 3 m and is supported on
beams 230 mm width. Design the slab, if it is to carry a live load of 4kN/m2. Use M20
concrete and Fe415 steel.
An R.C.C. beam having 300 mm 450 mm section, the beam is reinforced with 4-20 mm dia.
bars in tension and 2-20 mm dia. bars are placed at a 50 mm from top in the compression
zone. Find the factored moment of resistance of the beam. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.
Design the rectangular beam resting on 300 mm wide wall with a clear span of 6 m. The
superimposed load on the beam is 12 kN/m. Effective cover to reinforcement is taken as 50 mm.
Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
A floor consist of 150 mm thick slab monolithically constructed with 300 mm wide beams
spaced at 3.6 m centre to centre. The effective span of beam is
5 m. The slab is subjected to a superimposed load of 4 kN/m2. Design an intermediate
beam for flexure. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel.
SECTION II
A R.C.C. three span continuous beam is having each span 6 m. The live load on the slab is
3.5 kN/m2. Assume the thickness of slab as 120 mm. Design the continuous beam using
M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.
Design the reinforcement required for a beam size 300 mm 600 mm subjected to a bending
moment 100 kNm, shear force 66 kN and torsional moment of 34 kNm. Use M20 concrete
and Fe415 steel.
a) A reinforced concrete column of 3 m long with effectively held in position at both ends,
restrained against rotation at one end, carries an axial load of 1500 kN. Design the
column using M20 concrete and Fe500 steel.
b) A column has size 300 mm 400 mm has effective length of 3.6 m and is subjected to a
factored axial load 1000 kN and a factored uniaxial moment of 140 kN-m about the major
axis. Design the column using M25 concrete and Fe500 steel. By providing the steel on
two sides only. Refer Fig. No. 1. Assume the distance between extreme fibre and centre
of reinforcement as 40 mm.
Design a circular column with helical reinforcement to carry an axial load of 1600 kN. The
column has length of 3.2 m effectively held in position and restrained against rotation in both
ends. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.
13
13
13
14
14
13
13
Set P
SLR-PK 46
-4-
*SLRPK46*
Compression with bending Reinforcement Distributed Equally on Two Sides.
Fig. No. 1
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 46
*SLRPK46*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

first 30 minutes.
Marks : 20

I.

a) Rankine formula
c) Marcus formula
a) 0.10%
b) 0.20%
c) 0.15%
d) 0.18%
a) 200 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 250 mm
d) 100 mm
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 46
*SLRPK46*
-2-

a) Tension face
b) Compression face
c) Side face
d) All of the above
c) Below the slab

d) All the above

a) 6 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 12 mm
c) Less deflection
d) All of the above
(b = 200 mm; d = 300 mm)
a) 234
b) 456
c) 432
d) 567
a) 1840 kN
b) 180 kN
c) 1829 kN
d) None
a) 400 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 657 mm
d) 456 mm
a) 151 kN-m, 310 kN
b) 226.5 kN-m, 206 kN
c) 100.5 kN-m, 310 kN
d) 226.5 kN-m, 310 kN
steel is
a) 360 kN
b) 1000 kN
c) 100 kN
d) 794 kN
a) 3000 mm
b) 1900 mm
c) 1600 mm
d) 1500 mm
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK46*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 46

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
VIII.
IX.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
SECTION II
and Fe415 steel.
13
13
13
14
14
13
13
Set Q
SLR-PK 46
-4-
*SLRPK46*
Fig. No. 1
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 46
*SLRPK46*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

first 30 minutes.
Marks : 20

I.

a) 200 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 250 mm
d) 100 mm
a) Tension face
b) Compression face
c) Side face
d) All of the above
c) Below the slab

d) All the above

a) 6 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 12 mm
c) Less deflection
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 46
-2-
*SLRPK46*

a) Rankine formula
c) Marcus formula
a) 0.10%
b) 0.20%
c) 0.15%
d) 0.18%
a) 400 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 657 mm
d) 456 mm
a) 151 kN-m, 310 kN
b) 226.5 kN-m, 206 kN
c) 100.5 kN-m, 310 kN
d) 226.5 kN-m, 310 kN
steel is
a) 360 kN
b) 1000 kN
c) 100 kN
d) 794 kN
a) 3000 mm
b) 1900 mm
c) 1600 mm
d) 1500 mm
(b = 200 mm; d = 300 mm)
a) 234
b) 456
c) 432
d) 567
a) 1840 kN
b) 180 kN
c) 1829 kN
d) None
______________
Set R
*SLRPK46*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 46

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
VIII.
IX.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
SECTION II
and Fe415 steel.
13
13
13
14
14
13
13
Set R
SLR-PK 46
-4-
*SLRPK46*
Fig. No. 1
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 46
*SLRPK46*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

first 30 minutes.
Marks : 20

I.

c) Less deflection
d) All of the above

a) Rankine formula
c) Marcus formula
a) 0.10%
b) 0.20%
c) 0.15%
d) 0.18%
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 46
*SLRPK46*
-2-

a) 200 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 250 mm
d) 100 mm
a) Tension face
b) Compression face
c) Side face
d) All of the above
c) Below the slab

d) All the above

a) 6 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 12 mm
a) 3000 mm
b) 1900 mm
c) 1600 mm
d) 1500 mm
(b = 200 mm; d = 300 mm)
a) 234
b) 456
c) 432
d) 567
a) 1840 kN
b) 180 kN
c) 1829 kN
d) None
a) 400 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 657 mm
d) 456 mm
a) 151 kN-m, 310 kN
b) 226.5 kN-m, 206 kN
c) 100.5 kN-m, 310 kN
d) 226.5 kN-m, 310 kN
steel is
a) 360 kN
b) 1000 kN
c) 100 kN
d) 794 kN
______________
Set S
*SLRPK46*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 46

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
VIII.
IX.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
SECTION II
and Fe415 steel.
13
13
13
14
14
13
13
Set S
SLR-PK 46
-4-
*SLRPK46*
Fig. No. 1
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 47
*SLRPK47*
S
Set
.

QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory ; attempt any two out of

Q. 3 to Q. 5 and any two out of Q. 6 to Q. 8.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) In two envelop method, the envelop I contain

a) Eligibility documents
b) Technical documents
c) Financial documents
d) a) and b)
2) For R.C.C. overhead tank after its serviceability period shall have
a) Scrap value
b) Salvage value
c) Potential value
d) Distress value
3) If IS bricks are used for half brick thick wall having length 3300 mm and height
3000 mm, the number of bricks required shall be
a) 500
b) 495
c) 4950
d) None of these
4) In bill of quantities of RCC slab if thickness is not specified, quantity shall be
measured and paid for
a) M3
b) M2
c) M
d) None of these
5) The unit of measurement of A.C. pipe is
a) Meter
b) Square meter c) Cubic meter
d) None of these
6) For R.C.C. beam having size 10000 mm 200 mm 450 mm size, the quantity of
material in m3 will be
a) 0.90
b) 0.45
c) 0.20
d) None of these
7) For a road bridge having estimated cost of 50 crores tender notice is published on
1st Nov. 2011. Tenders are accepted on 1st Dec. 2011, then the price escalation
clause can be operated from
a) 1st Nov. 2012
b) 1st Dec. 2012 c) 1st Dec. 2011 d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 47
*SLRPK47*
-2-
8) If net income from property is Rs. 5,000/year, and years purchase is 15, then
capitalized value is
a) Rs. 75,000
b) Rs. 7,50,000
c) Rs. 7,500
d) None of these
9) Mode of measurement and payment for down-take PVC pipe having 100 mm dia. is
a) Kg
b) Numbers
c) Per meter run
d) None of these
10) If wages are paid weekly, the muster roll can be maintained in
a) Single copy
b) In duplicate
c) In triplicate
d) None of these
11) A brick wall in elevation 10000 mm long and 8300 mm height is to be plastered
externally, if plaster thickness is 25 mm the measurement written shall be
a) 10.05 mL, 8.3 mH
b) 10mL, 8.45 mL
c) 10.00 mL, 8.3 mH
12) External dimensions of a godown are 10000 6000 mm a pitched roof is provided
with a slope of 2.5 h to 1.0 verticle. If the roof is to project 600 mm in plan only on a
longer side the area of GI sheets measured and paid of shall be
a) 77.6 m2
b) 80 m2
c) 60 m2
d) None of these
13) Mode of the measurement and payment for well sinking for road bridge
foundation is
a) BHP hour/KW hour
b) Lumpsum
3
c) m of water pumped out
d) Both a) and b)
14) In UCR masonry wall thickness is 450 mm and number of headers is X, if wall
thickness is 900 mm, number of headers required shall be
a) X
b) 0.5 X
c) 2X
d) 3X
15) In a roadwork if formation width is 6000 mm and side slopes 2 horizontal 1 vertical
are provided if average height of bank work is 1000 mm, then for 100m length of
the road earth work in banking in m3 will be
a) 1200
b) 120
c) 1000
d) None of these
16) In UCR masonry wall thickness is 450 mm and number of headers is
a) X
b) 0.5 X
c) 2X
17) If UCR masonry
a) 8
. If wall
d) 3X
10m3 is
to be constructed quantity of rubble required in m3 will be

b) 10
c) 12
d) None of these
18) In the above problem if wall thickness is 500 mm and height of masonry is 2000 mm
the number of headers required will be
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) None of these
19) If rest of conditions are satisfied then the contract is legal only if
a) It is oral
b) It is written
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) The parties are minor
b) The parties are adult
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK47*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 47

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2. Estimate the quantities of following items of RCC staircase from the plan and
Section Fig. 2 (a) and (b). Prepare measurement sheet.
a) RCC work in waist slab, landings, handrail and newal posts.
b) Brickwork in steps.
14
Set P
SLR-PK 47
-4-
*SLRPK47*
3. a) Prepare a preliminary estimate of a residential building project with a total plinth

area of all the buildings being 36,00,000 m2. The following information is given :
a) Plinth area rate : Rs. 500 per m2.
b) Additional amount allowed for special architectural features : 1.5% of the
building cost.
c) Extra for water supply and sanitary fittings : 5% of building cost.
d) Extra for building services = 7.50% of building cost.
e) Contingencies : 2% of overall cost.
b) What are overhead charges relevant to civil engineering ?
4. A) Write the detailed specifications for :
a) Painting in new building.
b) Earthwork in roads.
8
5
8
B) Write note on provisional quantities and provisional sums.
5. A) Calculate the unit rate per m3 by performing Rate analysis for the following
items.
a) RCC M20 in isolated column footing.
b) 20 mm external plastering 1 : 4.
B) Differentiate between long wall, short wall and center line method.
6. A) List various types of contract and explain BOT contract.

B) What is EMD and security deposit ? What is its significance in Tender
Documents ?
8
5
7. A) List various methods of valuation and describe Belting method of valuation of

land with suitable example.
B) Define :
1) Book value
5) Potential value.
8
5
4) Scrap value
8. A) Calculate the depreciation based on sinking fund method for a building having
a life of 60 years and age of 15 years at 7%.
B) Explain Easement Rights.
8
5
9. A) A 25 year old property is fetching an annual rent of Rs. 4,500. The full life of building
was estimated as 80 years. Municipal tax is 6% of rental income. The water and
sanitary charges are paid at Rs. 50 and Rs. 115 every year. A repair charge of
building is 15% of rental income. The rate of interest for sinking fund is 5% and that
for capitalization is 7%. After full life replacement of building will cost Rs. 75,000.
Cost of land at present is 12,500 and scrap value of building after useful life is
Rs. 1,500. Determine value of property.
B) Distinguish between Revised estimates and Supplementary estimates.

_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 47
*SLRPK47*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) X
b) 0.5 X
c) 2X
2) If UCR masonry
a) 8
. If wall
d) 3X
10m3 is

b) 10
c) 12
d) None of these
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) None of these
a) It is oral
b) It is written
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
d) a) and b)
a) Scrap value
b) Salvage value
c) Potential value
d) Distress value
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 47
-2-
*SLRPK47*
a) 500
b) 495
c) 4950
d) None of these
a) M3
b) M2
c) M
d) None of these
a) Meter
d) None of these
a) 0.90
b) 0.45
c) 0.20
d) None of these
a) 1st Nov. 2012
a) Rs. 75,000
b) Rs. 7,50,000
c) Rs. 7,500
d) None of these
a) Kg
b) Numbers
c) Per meter run
d) None of these
a) Single copy
b) In duplicate
c) In triplicate
d) None of these
a) 10.05 mL, 8.3 mH
b) 10mL, 8.45 mL
c) 10.00 mL, 8.3 mH
a) 77.6 m2
b) 80 m2
c) 60 m2
d) None of these
foundation is
a) BHP hour/KW hour
b) Lumpsum
3
d) Both a) and b)
a) X
b) 0.5 X
c) 2X
d) 3X
a) 1200
b) 120
c) 1000
d) None of these
Set Q
______________
*SLRPK47*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 47

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

14
Set Q
SLR-PK 47
-4-
*SLRPK47*

building cost.
8
5
8
items.

Documents ?
8
5

B) Define :
1) Book value
5) Potential value.
8
5
4) Scrap value
8
5

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 47
*SLRPK47*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) 10.05 mL, 8.3 mH
b) 10mL, 8.45 mL
c) 10.00 mL, 8.3 mH
a) 77.6 m2
b) 80 m2
c) 60 m2
d) None of these
foundation is
a) BHP hour/KW hour
b) Lumpsum
c) m3 of water pumped out
d) Both a) and b)
a) X
b) 0.5 X
c) 2X
d) 3X
a) 1200
b) 120
c) 1000
d) None of these
a) X
b) 0.5 X
c) 2X
d) 3X
. If wall
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 47
*SLRPK47*
-2-
7) If UCR masonry 10m3 is to be constructed quantity of rubble required in m3 will be

a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) None of these
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) None of these
a) It is oral
b) It is written
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
d) a) and b)
a) Scrap value
b) Salvage value
c) Potential value
d) Distress value
a) 500
b) 495
c) 4950
d) None of these
a) M3
b) M2
c) M
d) None of these
a) Meter
d) None of these
a) 0.90
b) 0.45
c) 0.20
d) None of these
a) 1st Nov. 2012
a) Rs. 75,000
b) Rs. 7,50,000
c) Rs. 7,500
d) None of these
a) Kg
b) Numbers
c) Per meter run
d) None of these
a) Single copy
b) In duplicate
c) In triplicate
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK47*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 47

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

14
Set R
SLR-PK 47
-4-
*SLRPK47*

building cost.
8
5
8
items.

Documents ?
8
5

B) Define :
1) Book value
5) Potential value.
8
5
4) Scrap value
8
5

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 47
*SLRPK47*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 0.90
b) 0.45
c) 0.20
d) None of these
a) 1st Nov. 2012
a) Rs. 75,000
b) Rs. 7,50,000
c) Rs. 7,500
d) None of these
a) Kg
b) Numbers
c) Per meter run
d) None of these
a) Single copy
b) In duplicate
c) In triplicate
d) None of these
a) 10.05 mL, 8.3 mH
b) 10mL, 8.45 mL
c) 10.00 mL, 8.3 mH
a) 77.6 m2
b) 80 m2
c) 60 m2
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 47
*SLRPK47*
-2-
foundation is
a) BHP hour/KW hour
b) Lumpsum
3
d) Both a) and b)
a) X
b) 0.5 X
c) 2X
d) 3X
a) 1200
b) 120
c) 1000
d) None of these
a) X
b) 0.5 X
c) 2X
12) If UCR masonry
a) 8
. If wall
d) 3X
10m3 is

b) 10
c) 12
d) None of these
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) None of these
a) It is oral
b) It is written
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
d) a) and b)
a) Scrap value
b) Salvage value
c) Potential value
d) Distress value
a) 500
b) 495
c) 4950
d) None of these
a) M3
b) M2
c) M
d) None of these
a) Meter
______________
d) None of these
Set S
*SLRPK47*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 47

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

14
Set S
SLR-PK 47
-4-
*SLRPK47*

building cost.
8
5
8
items.

Documents ?
8
5

B) Define :
1) Book value
5) Potential value.
8
5
4) Scrap value
8
5

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 48
*SKRPK48*
Seat
No.
Set

EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

in Answer Book Page No. 3.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative. MCQ 1 to 10 carries one mark each and
MCQ 11 to 15 carry two marks each :
1) The S-waves (secondary or shear waves) travel through
a) Solids only
b) Both solids and fluids
c) Fluids only
d) Gases
2) Out of the many effects of earthquakes, IS-1893 2002 addresses only
a) Liquefaction of the soil strata
b) Landslides due to earthquake
c) Inertia forces on structure
d) Flood caused by earthquake
3) The response steadily decreases when the frequency ratio is
a) < 1
b) > 1
c) = 1
d) = 2
4) The transmissibility is zero at the frequency ratio ( / n ) equal to
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 2
d) 2
5) The response is greatly affected by damping in the region
a) / n < 0.5
b) / n > 1.5
c) / n = 0
d) / n = 1
6) The steady-state motion depends predominantly on

a) Natural frequency
b) Damped natural frequency
c) Excitation frequency
d) Undamped frequency
7) At resonance, the transmissibility is dependent only on
a) Frequency ratio
b) Damping ratio
d) Stiffness frequency
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 48
*SKRPK48*
-2-
8) In the equation of motion, for dynamic equilibrium, the inertial force is

proportional to
a) Displacement
b) Velocity
c) Acceleration
d) Energy
9) Damping ratio is the ratio of
a) Coulomb damping to viscous damping
b) System damping to critical damping
c) Natural damping to excitation damping
d) Viscous damping to Coulomb damping
10) ____ is the building structure which has least lateral force resistance.
a) Ordinary moment-resisting RCC frame
b) Special moment-resisting RCC frame
c) Shear wall structure
d) Skeletal structure
11) The slenderness ratio of masonry is the ratio of
a) Length of wall to height of wall
b) Length of wall to thickness
c) Height of wall to area of cross-section
d) Thickness to length of wall
12) The large slenderness ratio in the case of unreinforced masonry
a) Increases the stability
b) Decreases the stability
c) Increases the strength
d) Decreases the strength
13) The importance factor for a school building is
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 1.25
d) 2
14) The acceleration response spectrum in IS-1893 2002 is for the damping of
a) 2%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 10%
15) The zone factor for zone III is
a) 0.16
b) 0.36
c) 0.24
d) 0.10
______________
Set P
*SKRPK48*
-3-
SLR-PK 48
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Figures to right indicate full marks.
Use of only IS 1893 is allowed.
Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Discuss the main characteristics of seismic waves.
b) What is meant by the focus and epicentre of an earthquake ? Name the two
kinds of body waves and explain how they differ.
3. a) What do you understand by multiple elastic forces in series and parallel ?
10
4
b) A rod made of an elastic material with modulus of elasticity E, having crosssectional area and length L is fixed on top, carrying a mass m at its lower
end. Derive the equation governing longitudinal motion of the system ignore
mass of the rod and measure displacement, x, from the static equilibrium
position.
4. What do you mean by force transmissibility ? Derive an expression for force

transmissibility to the foundation of a SDOF system subjected to harmonic force.
13
5. a) Explain the concept of Duhamels integral for damped systems. Derive its
expression.
b) What is combined spectrum ? What are its characteristics ?
8
Set P
SLR-PK 48
-4-
*SKRPK48*
SECTION II
6. It is proposed to construct a R.C.C. four storied commercial building having plan
dimensions as shown in Fig. 1 in zone IV with following data. Determine the
sizes are 250 450 mm. The slab thickness is 140 mm and thk. Of walls is 230 mm. The
ht. Of floor is 3.2 m and Live load is 2.5 kN/m2 IS 13920 will be used. The
strata is hard.
14
Figure No. 1 Q. 6
7. a) Define Storey drift and Soft storey.
b) What are the two seismic design requirements an engineer has to account for
the analysis and design of earthquake-resistant building ? Discuss briefly
how these are incorporated to achieve the objective.
8. a) Explain the significance of ductility in eqrthquake resistant buildings.
b) State and discuss briefly the considerations for achieving adequate ductility in
the buildings.
9. a) Write a note on categories of masonry buildings.
b) Discuss the behaviour of the following masonry walls in seismic regions.
i) Unreinforced masonry walls
7
4
9
ii) Reinforced masonry walls.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 48
*SKRPK48*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
a) Frequency ratio
b) Damping ratio
proportional to
a) Displacement
b) Velocity
c) Acceleration
d) Energy
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 48
*SKRPK48*
-2-

a) Solids only
c) Fluids only
d) Gases
a) < 1
b) > 1
c) = 1
d) = 2
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 2
d) 2
a) / n < 0.5
b) / n > 1.5 c) / n = 0
d) / n = 1
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 1.25
d) 2
a) 2%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 10%
a) 0.16
b) 0.36
c) 0.24
d) 0.10

______________
Set Q
*SKRPK48*
-3-
SLR-PK 48
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
10
4
position.

13
expression.
8
Set Q
SLR-PK 48
-4-
*SKRPK48*
SECTION II
strata is hard.
14
Figure No. 1 Q. 6
the buildings.
7
4
9
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 48
*SKRPK48*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
proportional to
a) Displacement
b) Velocity
c) Acceleration
d) Energy
a) Solids only
c) Fluids only
d) Gases
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 48
-2-
*SKRPK48*

a) < 1
b) > 1
c) = 1
d) = 2
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 2
d) 2
a) / n < 0.5
b) / n > 1.5 c) / n = 0
d) / n = 1
a) Frequency ratio
b) Damping ratio
a) 2%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 10%
a) 0.16
b) 0.36
c) 0.24
d) 0.10
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 1.25
d) 2
______________
Set R
*SKRPK48*
-3-
SLR-PK 48
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
10
4
position.

13
expression.
8
Set R
SLR-PK 48
-4-
*SKRPK48*
SECTION II
strata is hard.
14
Figure No. 1 Q. 6
the buildings.
7
4
9
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 48
*SKRPK48*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 2
d) 2
a) / n < 0.5
b) / n > 1.5
c) / n = 0
d) / n = 1

a) Frequency ratio
b) Damping ratio
proportional to
a) Displacement
b) Velocity
c) Acceleration
d) Energy
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 48
-2-
*SKRPK48*
a) Solids only
c) Fluids only
d) Gases
a) < 1
b) > 1
c) = 1
d) = 2
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 1.25
d) 2
a) 2%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 10%
a) 0.16
b) 0.36
c) 0.24
d) 0.10
______________
Set S
*SKRPK48*
-3-
SLR-PK 48
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
10
4
position.

13
expression.
8
Set S
SLR-PK 48
-4-
*SKRPK48*
SECTION II
strata is hard.
14
Figure No. 1 Q. 6
the buildings.
7
4
9
_____________________
Set S
*SLRPK49*
-1-
SLR-PK
49
SLR-PK
49
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
2) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary.
Marks : 20
1. Multiple Choice Type Questions :

(120=20)
1) The surcharge storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored between
a) Minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b) Minimum and normal reservoir levels
c) Normal and maximum reservoir levels
2) Average yield of a storage reservoir is the arithmetic average of its
a) Firm yields over a long period
b) Secondary yields over a long period
c) Firm and secondary yields over a long period
a) (Total annual sediment inflow)/(Reservoir capacity)
b) (Total sediment deposited in a given period)/(Total sediment inflow in that period)
c) (Total annual sediment deposited in the reservoir)/(Dead storage capacity of the reservoir)
4) Acceleration due to earthquake y = 0.1 g, acting on a gravity dam, will
5) A gravity dam is subjected to hydro dynamic pressure, caused by
a) The rising waters of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
b) The rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds
c) The increase in water pressure, momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake, acting
towards the reservoir
d) The increase in water pressure, momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake, acting
towards the dam
6) In order to economise on the provided section of a concrete gravity dam, attempts are made to
reduce the uplift, by
a) Providing drainage gallery to collect seepage water
b) Constructing cut-off under upstream face
c) Pressure grouting in dam foundation
d) All the above methods
P.T.O.
Set
P
SLR-PK 49
-2-
*SLRPK49*
7) The most preferred soil for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type of an earthen dam, is
a) Highly impervious clay
b) Highly pervious gravel
c) Coarse sand
d) Clay mixed with fine sand
8) The effective length of an ogee spillway will be different from its actual length, in case of
a) Gated spillway
b) Ungated spillway
c) Both gated as well as ungated spillway
d) None of these
9) When the crest of an ogee spillway is designed to be in accordance with the lower nappe of a free falling
water jet over a duly ventilated sharp crested weir, then theoretically
a) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be zero (i.e. atmospheric pressure)
b) The pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only
c) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative
d) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be positive
10) The discharge passing over an ogee spillway, per unit length of its apex line, is proportional to
a) H
b) H2
c) H1/2
d) H3/2
Where H is the head over the apex of its crest.
11) A ridge canal is also called a
a) Watershed canal
b) Contour canal
c) Side slope canal
d) None of them
12) Unlined irrigation canals, when aligned on curvilinear routes in plan, will have to be pitched on
a) Both sides
b) Concave side only c) Convex side only
13) Which among the following is not true about Asphaltic concrete lining ?
a) It is fairly cheap
b) It is flexible and readily confirms to subgrade
c) It permits certain type of weed growth
d) It decreases the rugosity coefficient to increase channel efficiency
14) Water-logging of cropped land leads to reduced crop yields, due to
a) Ill-aeration of root zone, causing lack of oxygen to plants
b) Growth of water-loving plants interfering with the sown crop
c) Surrounding of the root zone by the resultant saline water, which extracts the good water from plant
roots by osmosis
d) All of the above
15) Pinpoint the incorrect statement
a) Guide-bunds are constructed to guide the river flow through a smaller width
b) Guide bunds are generally extended downstream of the hydraulic structure, in a length of about twice
their upstream length
c) Guide banks prevent the out-flanking of the hydraulic structure by the changing river course
d) Aggrading rivers can be best controlled by soil conservation measures, including construction of check
dams on their tributaries
17) Khoslas safe exit gradient for design of weirs will be the lowest for the soil type is
a) Fine sand
b) Coarse sand
c) Shingle and gravels
d) None of them
18) The gated regulator, which is constructed in the parent canal near the site of an offtaking canal, is called a
a) Canal head regulator
b) Distributary head regulator
c) Cross regulator
a) The system efficiency of a hydro plant is quite high
b) The installation cost of hydro plant is very high
20) The minimum power, which a hydro-power plant can generated throughout the year, is called
a) Power plant capacity
b) Power plant load
c) Firm power
d) Water power
______________
Set P
*SLRPK49*
-3-
SLR-PK
49
SLR-PK
49
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. a) How would you fix the capacity of a dam reservoir at a particular river site, provided the inflow pattern
and demand pattern are known ? Explain the mass curve method which is used for this purpose.
b) Discuss briefly and with necessary neat sketches, the demand patterns for the following two types
of reservoirs : (i) Single purpose conservation reservoir and (ii) Single purpose flood control reservoir. 8
3. Figure shows the section of a gravity dam (non-overflow section) built of concrete. Calculate the maximum
vertical stress at the heel and toe of the dam, when water level at Maximum water level. Assume unit
weight of concrete as 23.5 kN/m3. Neglect earthquake forces.
13
Set P
SLR-PK 49
-4-
*SLRPK49*
4. a) What is meant by the term low gravity dam ? Determine the dimensions of the elementary profile
of a low gravity dam.
b) Discuss with neat sketches, the profile of variable radius arch dam.
5. a) What are the precautions that you would take while constructing an earth dam ? Explain the Swedish
slip circle method of analyzing the stability of an earth dam slopes.
b) Enumerate the important types of spillway gates. Describe with a neat sketch the construction and
working of Tainter gate.
SECTION II
6. a) Discuss briefly the causes of failure of hydraulic structures, founded on previous foundations.
b) State under what circumstances you will recommend the use of the following cross drainage
structures :
i) Syphon
ii) Aqueduct.
7. a) What is meant by waterlogging ? What are its ill effects ? Describe some anti-water-logging measures
with suitable sketches :
b) Write short notes :
i) High water, low water and mean water training.
ii) Groynes, their types of uses.
8. a) Describe Water-shed canals and Contour canal in canal irrigation system.
b) Enumerate the different types of lining materials, and discuss the factors which are responsible for
selecting a particular material in a particular project.
9. a) What are the principal components of a hydro-electric scheme ? Discuss the utility of each
component.
b) A runoff river hydroelectric power station is proposed across a river at a site where a net head of
30 m is available on turbine. The river carries a sustained minimum flow of 40 cumec in dry weather,
and sufficient pondage is provided to supply daily peak load of demand with a load factor of 73%.
Assuming the plant efficiency to be 60%, determine the maximum generating capacity of the generator
to be installed at the power house. If the daily load pattern indicates 20 hours average load and
4 hours peak load, determine the pondage to be provided to supply daily demand.
_____________________
Set P
*SLRPK49*
-1-
SLR-PK
49
SLR-PK
49
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Marks : 20

(120=20)
a) Fine sand
b) Coarse sand
d) None of them
c) Cross regulator
b) Power plant load
c) Firm power
d) Water power
P.T.O.
Set
Q
SLR-PK 49
-2-
*SLRPK49*

towards the dam
c) Coarse sand
a) Gated spillway
b) Ungated spillway
d) None of these
a) H
b) H2
c) H1/2
d) H3/2
a) Watershed canal
b) Contour canal
c) Side slope canal
d) None of them
a) Both sides
roots by osmosis
d) All of the above
Set Q
______________
*SLRPK49*
-3-
SLR-PK
49
SLR-PK
49
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
13
Set Q
SLR-PK 49
-4-
*SLRPK49*
SECTION II
structures :
i) Syphon
ii) Aqueduct.
component.
_____________________
Set Q
*SLRPK49*
-1-
SLR-PK
49
SLR-PK
49
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Marks : 20

(120=20)
a) Watershed canal
b) Contour canal
c) Side slope canal
d) None of them
a) Both sides
roots by osmosis
d) All of the above
a) Fine sand
b) Coarse sand
d) None of them
P.T.O.
Set R
SLR-PK 49
-2-
*SLRPK49*
c) Cross regulator
b) Power plant load
c) Firm power
d) Water power
towards the dam
c) Coarse sand
a) Gated spillway
b) Ungated spillway
d) None of these
a) H
b) H2
c) H1/2
d) H3/2
______________
Set R
*SLRPK49*
-3-
SLR-PK
49
SLR-PK
49
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
13
Set R
SLR-PK 49
-4-
*SLRPK49*
SECTION II
structures :
i) Syphon
ii) Aqueduct.
component.
_____________________
Set R
*SLRPK49*
-1-
SLR-PK
49
SLR-PK
49
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Marks : 20

(120=20)
c) Coarse sand
a) Gated spillway
b) Ungated spillway
d) None of these
a) H
b) H2
c) H1/2
d) H3/2
a) Watershed canal
b) Contour canal
c) Side slope canal
d) None of them
a) Both sides
P.T.O.
Set
S
SLR-PK 49
-2-
*SLRPK49*

roots by osmosis
d) All of the above
a) Fine sand
b) Coarse sand
d) None of them
c) Cross regulator
b) Power plant load
c) Firm power
d) Water power
towards the dam
______________
Set S
*SLRPK49*
-3-
SLR-PK
49
SLR-PK
49
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
13
Set S
SLR-PK 49
-4-
*SLRPK49*
SECTION II
structures :
i) Syphon
ii) Aqueduct.
component.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20
1) The momentum correction factor is given as

a)
1
V
V
A
dA
b)
1
V
V
A
dA
c)
1
VA
VdA
d)
1
VA
dA
2) The difference between total head line and piezometric head represents
a) Pressure head
b) Elevation of bed of the channel
c) Velocity head
d) depth of flow
3) A flood wave while passing down a river section protected by embankment spills over the
embankment at certain location, the flow is known as
a) Steady GVF
b) Unsteady SVF c) Unsteady RVF
d) Steady SVF
4) In the uniform flow in a channel of small bed slope the HGL
a) essentially coincides with a free surface
b) coincides with bed
c) below free surface
d) above free surface
5) The flow in open channel may be characterized as when
a) Re > 2000
b) Re < 500
c) Re > 4000
d) 500 < Re > 2000
6) The momentum equation in X direction, when the flow is steady is fx =

a) ( vx 2 vx1)
b) 2 (vx 2 vx1) c) ( vx 2 vx1)
d) none
7) Steady flow in open channel exists when the

a) flow is uniform
b) does not change with time
c) channel bed is not curved
d) channel is friction less
8) A rectangular channel carries certain flow for which the alternate depths are 3 m and 1 m.
The critical depth for this flow is
(2)
a) 0.65
b) 2.65
c) 1.33
d) 1.65
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
-2-
9) The specific force is constant

a) in all frictionless channel irrespective of magnitude
b) in all horizontal channel of any shape
c) in horizontal frictionless channel of any shape
d) in any open channel
a) Bernoullis equation
c) Differential energy equation of GVF
b) Differential equation of GVF

d) Momentum equation
11) Hydraulic jump occurs when there is break in grade from a

a) mild slope to steep slope
b) steep slope to steeper slope
c) steep slope to mild slope
d) none
12) Shields diagram is a plot of non dimensional shear stress IC against
a) Shear Reynolds number
b) Relative depth
c) Reynolds number
d) Hydraulic radius
13) The Lacey equation for a regime channel consist of a set of x independent equation
relating to the flow where x equal to
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 8
14) River plains are made up of
a) Red soils
b) Black soils
c) Alluvium
15) If the Froudes number is 4.8 the jump is classified as

a) strong jump
b) steady jump
c) oscillating jump
d) None
d) undular jump
16) The mean velocity in Laceys regime channel is proportional to

a) R
1
3
b) R
c) S 0
1
2
17) Froudes number is defined as the ratios of inertia force to

a) gravity force
b) viscous force
c) pressure force
18) Rivers generally form meanders in
a) trough slope of river
c) boulder stage
d) S 0
1
3
d) elastic force
b) delta stage of river

d) none
19) Dynamic similarity between model and prototype is the similarity of

a) motion
b) length
c) forces
d) none
______________
Set P
*SLRPK50*
-3-
SLR-PK 50
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Draw figures wherever necessary.

2) All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
24
a) Find the rate of flow and conveyance K for rectangular channel 8 m wide for uniform flow
at a depth of 1.5 m. The bed slope of channel is 1 : 1000 take C = 55. Also write whether
the flow is rapid or tranquil.
b) What do you understand by most economical section of open channel and prove for
trapezoidal channel, half of top width = length of one of sloping side ?
c) Derive the equation for Cherys formula.
d) Explain the concept of specific energy and critical depth. (Draw neat figure)
e) An overflow spillway 40 m high. At the design energy head of 3.0 m over the spillway, find
the sequent depths and energy loss in hydraulic jump formed on a horizontal apron at the
toe of spillway. Neglect energy loss due to flow over spillway face. (Assume Cd = 0.74)
16
a) Derive the differential equation for gradually varied flow in open channel which is an
expression of variation of depth from point to point. State the assumptions made for it.
b) What is meant by Hydraulic Jump ? Derive the expression for it and also classify on the
basis of Froudes number.
c) A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular channel the depths before and after jump are 0.5 m
and 3.0 m. Find critical depth and power lost per unit width of channel.
SECTION II
24
a) Explain the terms :

1) Regime channel
2) Bed load
3) Suspended load
4) Laceys silt factor.
b) Draw a neat sketch of current meter and explain its working in detail.
Set P
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
-4-
c) What is meant by meandering of river and what are its causes ? How does the increasing
river length due to meandering is counter acted in nature ?
d) Define similitude and find suitable scale for a model of spillway if maximum discharge
available in the laboratory is 10 lps and prototype discharge is 168 m3/sec.
e) Discuss the mechanism involved in sediment transport and shields method for design of
channel.
16
a) Design a canal by Laceys theory to convey 40

alluvial soil of median size = 0.6 mm.
m3/s
of water. The canal is to be cut in an
b) 1) Derive Reynolds model law and give the example where it can be used.
2) A model of water meter is tested in 100 mm pipe. The discharge was 45 lit/sec and
pressure difference is 0.11 N/mm2. What will be the discharge in a pipe of 500 mm
and what will be the pressure ?
c) 1) What do you understand by river training works ? Explain its types.
2) Explain (any two) :
a) Cut-offs
b) Spurs
c) Threshold motion of sediment.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) R
1
3
b) R
c) S 0
1
2

a) gravity force
b) viscous force
c) pressure force
c) boulder stage
d) S 0
1
3
d) elastic force

d) none

a) motion
b) length
c) forces
d) none
a)
1
V
V
A
dA
b)
1
V
V
A
dA
c)
1
VA
VdA
d)
1
VA
dA
a) Pressure head
c) Velocity head
d) depth of flow
a) Steady GVF
d) Steady SVF
a) Re > 2000
b) Re < 500
c) Re > 4000
d) 500 < Re > 2000

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
-2-

a) (vx 2 vx1)
b) 2 (vx 2 vx1) c) ( vx 2 vx1)
d) none

a) flow is uniform
(2)
a) 0.65
b) 2.65
c) 1.33
d) 1.65


d) none
b) Relative depth
c) Reynolds number
d) Hydraulic radius
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 8
a) Red soils
b) Black soils
c) Alluvium

a) strong jump
b) steady jump
c) oscillating jump
______________
d) None
d) undular jump
Set Q
*SLRPK50*
-3-
SLR-PK 50
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
24
16
SECTION II
24

1) Regime channel
2) Bed load
3) Suspended load
Set Q
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
-4-
channel.
16

m3/s
a) Cut-offs
b) Spurs
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

d) none
b) Relative depth
c) Reynolds number
d) Hydraulic radius
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 8
a) Red soils
b) Black soils
c) Alluvium

a) strong jump
b) steady jump
c) oscillating jump
d) None
d) undular jump

a) R
1
3
b) R
c) S 0
1
2

a) gravity force
b) viscous force
c) pressure force
c) boulder stage
d) S 0
1
3
d) elastic force

d) none

a) motion
b) length
c) forces
d) none
a)
1
V
V
A
dA
b)
1
V
V
A
dA
c)
1
VA
VdA
d)
1
VA 2
dA
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 50
-2-
*SLRPK50*
a) Pressure head
c) Velocity head
d) depth of flow
a) Steady GVF
d) Steady SVF
a) Re > 2000
b) Re < 500
c) Re > 4000
d) 500 < Re > 2000

a) (vx 2 vx 1)
b) 2 (vx 2 vx1) c) ( vx 2 vx1)
d) none

a) flow is uniform
(2)
a) 0.65
b) 2.65
c) 1.33
d) 1.65
______________
Set R
*SLRPK50*
-3-
SLR-PK 50
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
24
16
SECTION II
24

1) Regime channel
2) Bed load
3) Suspended load
Set R
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
-4-
channel.
16

m3/s
a) Cut-offs
b) Spurs
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) ( vx 2 vx 1)
b) 2 (vx 2 vx1) c) ( vx 2 vx1)
d) none

a) flow is uniform
(2)
a) 0.65
b) 2.65
c) 1.33
d) 1.65


d) none
b) Relative depth
c) Reynolds number
d) Hydraulic radius
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 8
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
-2-

a) Red soils
b) Black soils
c) Alluvium

a) strong jump
b) steady jump
c) oscillating jump
d) None
d) undular jump

a) R
1
3
b) R
c) S 0
1
2

a) gravity force
b) viscous force
c) pressure force
c) boulder stage
d) S 0
1
3
d) elastic force

d) none

a) motion
b) length
c) forces
d) none
a)
1
V
V
A
dA
b)
1
V
V
A
dA
c)
1
VA
VdA
d)
1
VA
dA
a) Pressure head
c) Velocity head
d) depth of flow
a) Steady GVF
d) Steady SVF
a) Re > 2000
b) Re < 500
c) Re > 4000
______________
d) 500 < Re > 2000
Set S
*SLRPK50*
-3-
SLR-PK 50
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
24
16
SECTION II
24

1) Regime channel
2) Bed load
3) Suspended load
Set S
SLR-PK 50
*SLRPK50*
-4-
channel.
16

m3/s
a) Cut-offs
b) Spurs
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
S
Set
.

Elective I : AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries one
mark.
Marks : 20
1. Write the correct option in your answer sheet.

1) Cyclone separator is a type of
a) Stack
b) Dry collector c) Wet collector
20
d) Filter
2) Gravity settling chamber is very efficient in removing particles having size

greater than ______ .
a) 0.1
b) 20
c) 50
d) 500
3) One of the important factors in bag house design is

a) Thickness of bag
b) Thickness to diameter ratio
c) Height to diameter ratio
d) Air to cloth ratio
4) The discharge electrode in ESP is ________ charged electrode.
a) Positively
b) Neutral
c) Negatively
d) None of these
5) Heat can be recovered from exhaust gas in case of _______ incineration.
a) Thermal
b) Catalytic
c) Flare
d) Recuperation
6) The term RPM10 indicates particles having size _______ than 10 .
a) Equal to
b) Greater than c) Less than
d) None of these
7) Construction equipments are examples of _______ sources.

a) Off road or on-road
b) On road
c) Both a) and b)
d) Stationary
8) Formation and destruction of ozone in the atmosphere can be explained by
________ reactions.
a) Hofmann
b) Chapman
c) Dobson
d) Hudson
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
-2-
9) ________ of following is/are secondary pollutants.

a) Ozone
b) PAN
c) PBN
10) Weather patterns are largely determined in the
a) Stratosphere
b) Mesosphere c) Troposphere
d) All of the above

d) Biosphere
11) ________ stability table is used for determination of sigma y and sigma z
values.
a) Warner
b) Pasquill
c) Turner
12) ________ changes from place to place.
a) DALR
b) ELR
c) WALR
d) All of the above
13) ________ stability condition corresponds to unstable condition.

a) Super adiabatic b) Sub adiabatic c) Neutral
d) All of the above
14) Loss of chlorophyll in tree leaves is called as
a) Epinasty
b) Abscission
c) Necrosis
d) Chlorosis
15) Hb present in blood has 200 times more affinity towards ______ than O2.
b) CO
c) SO2
d) O3
a) CO2
16) ______ measurement helps us to plot actual temperature profile (i.e. ELR) of
the atmosphere.
a) Wi-fi
b) Radiosonde c) Ultrasonic
d) Infrared
17) Meteorology is science of
a) Hexosphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Atmosphere
d) All of the above
18) ________ is most dangerous plume as far as ground level concentration is

concerned.
a) Fanning
b) Fumigation
c) Neutral
d) Looping
19) When velocity of suction in stack gas sampling probe (Vs) is less than velocity
of stack gas (Vg) i.e. Vs < Vg then the condition is termed as
a) Isokinetic sampling
b) Over Isokinetic sampling
c) Under Isokinetic sampling
d) None of these
a) Hydrometer
b) Hygroscope c) Hygrometer
______________
d) Anemometer
Set P
*SLRPK51*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 51

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and Q. No. 6 is

compulsory in Section II. Solve any two questions from
Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
2) Assume suitable data whenever required.
SECTION I
2. a) Industrialization and urbanization are main causes of air pollution. Justify
above statement.
b) Give detailed classification of sources of Air Pollution.
5
8
3. a) Define the terms :

5
i) Necrosis
ii) Chlorosis
iii) Epinasty
iv) Abscission
v) Smoke
b) Determine the effective stack height given by following data :
8
i) Physical stack height = 203 m
ii) Inner dia. of stack = 1.07 m
iii) Air temp. = 13 C
iv) Barometric pressure = 1000 m bar
v) Stack gas velocity = 9.14 m/s
vi) Stack gas temperature = 149 C
vii) Wind velocity at stack top = 5 m/s.
4. a) Give Gaussian dispersion model equation for cases listed below :
6
C(x, y, z, H), C(x, y, 0, H), C(x, 0, 0, H) and C(x, 0, 0, 0).
Also explain meaning of each and every term used in it.
b) A thermal power plant burns coal at the rate of 6 tonnes/hr. and discharges
the fuel gas though a stack having effective height of 80 m. The coal has
sulphur content of 4%. The wind speed at stack top is 6.5 m/s. The atmospheric
stability class is C. For this class at downwind distance of 2000 m the
constants
and
are 280 and 170 respectively.
7
Find :
i) the concentration of sulphur dioxide at ground level at 3000 m downwind
i.e. C(x, 0, 0, H) and
ii) the concentration of sulphur dioxide at ground level at 3000 m downwind
and 400 m crosswind distance i.e C(x, y, 0, H).
Set P
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
-4-
14
i) Plume behaviour
ii) Heat island effect
iii) Wind velocity profile and Deacons power law.
iv) Ozone depletion.
SECTION II
6. a) Give general equation for determining efficiency of two particulate control
equipment arranged in series. Calculate the overall efficiency of a particulate
control system composed of cyclone (75% efficient) followed by an ESP
(95% efficient).
b) Explain in detail Iso-kinetic sampling with neat sketches.
7. a) Explain working of baghouse filter with neat sketch.
b) An air stream with a flow rate of 7 m3/sec is passed through a cyclone of
standard proportions. The dia. of cyclone is 2 m. = 2.1 105 kg/m-sec.
Determine the removal efficiency for a particle with a density of 1500 kg/m3
and a dia. of 10 . Tale Ne = 5 turns.
5
7
5
8. a) Draw a neat labelled sketch for Settling chamber with trays. Also write equation
for dpmin for settling chamber with trays.
b) What is indoor pollution ? What are major indoor pollutants ? How will you
control indoor pollution ?
1) Sampling train
2) Flare
3) Standard cyclone
4) Any two methods used to calculate air pollution indices.
9
6
8
14
_________________
Set P
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

mark.
Marks : 20
20

the atmosphere.
a) Wi-fi
d) Infrared
a) Hexosphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Atmosphere
d) All of the above

concerned.
a) Fanning
b) Fumigation
c) Neutral
d) Looping
d) None of these
a) Hydrometer
d) Anemometer

a) Stack
d) Filter

a) 0.1
b) 20
c) 50
d) 500
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
-2-

a) Thickness of bag
a) Positively
b) Neutral
c) Negatively
d) None of these
a) Thermal
b) Catalytic
c) Flare
d) Recuperation
a) Equal to
d) None of these

b) On road
c) Both a) and b)
d) Stationary
________ reactions.
a) Hofmann
b) Chapman
c) Dobson
d) Hudson
a) Ozone
b) PAN
c) PBN
d) All of the above

a) Stratosphere
d) Biosphere
values.
a) Warner
b) Pasquill
c) Turner
a) DALR
b) ELR
c) WALR
d) All of the above

d) All of the above
a) Epinasty
b) Abscission
c) Necrosis
d) Chlorosis
b) CO
c) SO2
d) O3
a) CO2
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK51*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 51

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
SECTION I
above statement.
5
8

5
i) Necrosis
ii) Chlorosis
iii) Epinasty
iv) Abscission
v) Smoke
8
6
constants
and
7
Find :
i.e. C(x, 0, 0, H) and
Set Q
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
-4-
14
i) Plume behaviour
SECTION II
(95% efficient).
5
7
5
1) Sampling train
2) Flare
3) Standard cyclone
9
6
8
14
_________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

mark.
Marks : 20
20

values.
a) Warner
b) Pasquill
c) Turner
a) DALR
b) ELR
c) WALR
d) All of the above

d) All of the above
a) Epinasty
b) Abscission
c) Necrosis
d) Chlorosis
b) CO
c) SO2
d) O3
a) CO2
the atmosphere.
a) Wi-fi
d) Infrared
a) Hexosphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Atmosphere
d) All of the above

concerned.
a) Fanning
b) Fumigation
c) Neutral
d) Looping
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
-2-
d) None of these
a) Hydrometer
d) Anemometer

a) Stack
d) Filter
a) 0.1
b) 20
c) 50
d) 500

a) Thickness of bag
a) Positively
b) Neutral
c) Negatively
d) None of these
a) Thermal
b) Catalytic
c) Flare
d) Recuperation
a) Equal to
d) None of these

b) On road
c) Both a) and b)
d) Stationary
________ reactions.
a) Hofmann
b) Chapman
c) Dobson
d) Hudson
a) Ozone
b) PAN
c) PBN
a) Stratosphere
______________
d) All of the above

d) Biosphere
Set R
*SLRPK51*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 51

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
SECTION I
above statement.
5
8

5
i) Necrosis
ii) Chlorosis
iii) Epinasty
iv) Abscission
v) Smoke
8
6
constants
and
7
Find :
i.e. C(x, 0, 0, H) and
Set R
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
-4-
14
i) Plume behaviour
SECTION II
(95% efficient).
5
7
5
1) Sampling train
2) Flare
3) Standard cyclone
9
6
8
14
_________________
Set R
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

mark.
Marks : 20
20

a) Equal to
d) None of these

b) On road
c) Both a) and b)
d) Stationary
________ reactions.
a) Hofmann
b) Chapman
c) Dobson
d) Hudson
a) Ozone
b) PAN
c) PBN
d) All of the above

a) Stratosphere
d) Biosphere

values.
a) Warner
b) Pasquill
c) Turner
a) DALR
b) ELR
c) WALR
d) All of the above

d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
-2-

a) Epinasty
b) Abscission
c) Necrosis
d) Chlorosis
b) CO
c) SO2
d) O3
a) CO2
the atmosphere.
a) Wi-fi
d) Infrared
a) Hexosphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Atmosphere
d) All of the above

concerned.
a) Fanning
b) Fumigation
c) Neutral
d) Looping
d) None of these
a) Hydrometer
d) Anemometer

a) Stack
d) Filter
a) 0.1
b) 20
c) 50
d) 500

a) Thickness of bag
a) Positively
b) Neutral
c) Negatively
d) None of these
a) Thermal
b) Catalytic
c) Flare
d) Recuperation
______________
Set S
*SLRPK51*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 51

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9.
SECTION I
above statement.
5
8

5
i) Necrosis
ii) Chlorosis
iii) Epinasty
iv) Abscission
v) Smoke
8
6
constants
and
7
Find :
i.e. C(x, 0, 0, H) and
Set S
SLR-PK 51
*SLRPK51*
-4-
14
i) Plume behaviour
SECTION II
(95% efficient).
5
7
5
1) Sampling train
2) Flare
3) Standard cyclone
9
6
8
14
_________________
Set S
SLR-PK 52
*SLRPK52*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 5 in Section I and Q. No. 9 in Section II is compulsory.

Answer any two questions from remaining in each Section.
2) Make suitable assumption if necessary and mention it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Give the correct option for following MCQ. Sr. No. 1 to 10 carries 1 marks each
and Sr. No. 11 to 15 carriers 2 marks each :
1) Sand drains are provided
a) to accelerate the consolidation process
b) to increase the rate of gain of shear strength
c) in saturated clays
d) for all of these
2) Magnification factor is the ratio of
a) dynamic force to static force
b) static force to dynamic force
c) dynamic force to static deflection d) static force to static deflection
3) A vibrating system is said to be over damped when
a) C < 2mn
b)
C
K
<
2m
m
c) C > 2mn
d)
C
K
=
2m
m
4) Allowable bearing pressure for a foundation depends upon

a) allowable settlement only
b) ultimate bearing capacity of soil only
c) both allowable settlement and ultimate bearing capacity
d) none of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 52
-2-
*SLRPK52*
5) Choose the correct net safe bearing capacity equation for a square footing
if a foundation goes to a depth Df, the factor of safety is F and B is the
width of the footing
1
1
a) [1.3 CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.4 BN ] b) [1.3 CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.5 BN ]
F
F
1
c) [CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.4 BN ]
d) none of these
F
6) Load resisted by pile along its shaft is called
a) bearing load b) skin friction c) negative skin friction
d) uplift
7) In a plate-load test, the load is applied in one of the following increments of load
b) 1/20th
c) 1/10th
d) 1/5th
a) 1/30th
8) In case of relatively hard leveled bed of river which type of caisson foundation is
preferred
a) open
b) pneumatic
c) box
d) none
9) Negative skin friction is the
a) additional load due to compression of fill
b) load reduction due to compression of fill
c) additional load due to expansion of soil
d) load reduction due to expansion of soil
10) In a pile load test, the safe load is taken as
a) 2/3 the final load at which the total settlement attains a value of 12 mm
b) 1/2 the final load at which the settlement equals 10% of pile diameter
c) the smaller of a) and b)
d) the greater of a) and b)
11) In SPT, we terminate the test for no. of blows which are obtained to drive the
required 30 cm
a) 70 blows
b) 80 blows
c) 90 blows
d) 100 blows
12) Surface area of pile having square cross section of size 0.5 m and 10 m
embedded in soil is
a) 10 sq. m
b) 50 sq. m
c) 20 sq. m
d) 25 sq. m
13) A soil sample has external diameter as 7 cm and wall thickness of 2.5 mm.
The area ratio in percentage will be
a) 12.88
b) 18.22
c) 15.97
d) 16.85
14) Three piles are arranged in triangular form; efficiency of this pile group by Felds rule is
a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
15) In shallow foundation if Rw1 = 1 and Rw2 = 0.5 than where the water table lies
a) at base of footing
b) below the footing
c) at the ground level
d) any where at the mid
______________
Set P
*SLRPK52*
SLR-PK 52
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. A) Explain General Shear Failure and Local Shear Failure. How do you ascertain
whether a foundation soil is likely to fail in General shear failure or local shear
failure ?
B) A plate load test was performed on a uniform deposit of sand and the following
observations were recorded.
Load (kN/m2)
50
100
200
300
400
500
600
Settlement (mm)
4.5
8.5
16
31.3
50
74
104
Size of plate was 20 20 cm. Plot load settlement curve and determine the
load on a footing of size 1.5 1.5 m can carry safely if the settlement is not to
exceed 25 mm.
3. A) Write a note on strap footing.

B) Two reinforced column 800 800 mm and 600 600 mm in size carry axial
load of 2850 kN and 1700 kN respectively. The columns are spaced 2.8 m
apart. The available space by side of 1700 kN column is 1.3 m only from
centre of column. The SBC of soil is 250 kN/m2. Use M-20 concrete and
Fe-415 steel. Design combined trapezoidal footing (Geometry only)
4. A) Describe conventional method of design of raft foundation.
B) Write in details about the guidelines for the construction of foundations in the
expansive soil.
Set P
SLR-PK 52
-4-
*SLRPK52*
5. Write a note on any four :

a) Split spoon sampler.
b) What is RQD ? Write in detail.
c) Requirement of CNS soil.
d) Spacing of bore holes.
e) Split spoon sampler.
16
SECTION II
6. A) When do you use strap footing and strip footing ? Explain how strap footing is
designed.
B) A square group of 9 piles was driven into a soft clay extending to a large
depth. The diameter and length of the piles were 30 cm and 9 cm
respectively. If the unconfined compressive strength of clay is 90kN/m2 and
the spacing is 90 cm centre to centre. What is the capacity of group ?
Assume FOS 2.5 and adhesion factor 0.75.
7. A) Explain various methods of under pinning and shoring.
B) Describe the load transfer mechanism in case of drilled pier.
8. A) What do you understand by scour depth and grip length ? What is its importance
in well foundation ?
B) Show Yawing, Rocking and pitching with neat sketch.
C) Discuss the criteria for satisfactory performance of machine foundation.
9. Write a short note on any four :
16
a) Pile group efficiency

b) Types of machine foundation
c) Caisson disease
d) Rock socketing
e) Criteria for satisfactory performance of machine foundation.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 52
*SLRPK52*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
d) uplift
b) 1/20th
c) 1/10th
d) 1/5th
a) 1/30th
preferred
a) open
b) pneumatic
c) box
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 52
*SLRPK52*
-2-

d) for all of these
a) C < 2mn
b)
C
K
<
2m
m
c) C > 2mn
d)
C
K
=
2m
m

d) none of above
1
1
F
F
1
c) [CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.4 BN ]
d) none of these
F
embedded in soil is
a) 10 sq. m
b) 50 sq. m
c) 20 sq. m
d) 25 sq. m
a) 12.88
b) 18.22
c) 15.97
d) 16.85
a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
required 30 cm
a) 70 blows
b) 80 blows
c) 90 blows
d) 100 blows
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK52*
SLR-PK 52
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
failure ?
Load (kN/m2)
50
100
200
300
400
500
600
Settlement (mm)
4.5
8.5
16
31.3
50
74
104
exceed 25 mm.

expansive soil.
Set Q
SLR-PK 52
-4-
*SLRPK52*

16
SECTION II
designed.
16

c) Caisson disease
d) Rock socketing
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 52
*SLRPK52*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
preferred
a) open
b) pneumatic
c) box
d) none
d) for all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 52
*SLRPK52*
-2-

a) C < 2mn
b)
C
K
<
2m
m
c) C > 2mn
d)
C
K
=
2m
m

d) none of above
1
1
F
F
1
c) [CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.4 BN ]
d) none of these
F
d) uplift
b) 1/20th
c) 1/10th
d) 1/5th
a) 1/30th
a) 12.88
b) 18.22
c) 15.97
d) 16.85
a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
required 30 cm
a) 70 blows
b) 80 blows
c) 90 blows
d) 100 blows
embedded in soil is
a) 10 sq. m
b) 50 sq. m
c) 20 sq. m
d) 25 sq. m
______________
Set R
*SLRPK52*
SLR-PK 52
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
failure ?
Load (kN/m2)
50
100
200
300
400
500
600
Settlement (mm)
4.5
8.5
16
31.3
50
74
104
exceed 25 mm.

expansive soil.
Set R
SLR-PK 52
-4-
*SLRPK52*

16
SECTION II
designed.
16

c) Caisson disease
d) Rock socketing
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 52
*SLRPK52*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
d) for all of these
a) C < 2mn
b)
C
K
<
2m
m
c) C > 2mn
d)
C
K
=
2m
m
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 52
-2-
*SLRPK52*

d) none of above
1
1
F
F
1
c) [CNc + Df (Nq 1) + 0.4 BN ]
d) none of these
F
d) uplift
b) 1/20th
c) 1/10th
d) 1/5th
a) 1/30th
preferred
a) open
b) pneumatic
c) box
d) none
a) 33.33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 87.5%
required 30 cm
a) 70 blows
b) 80 blows
c) 90 blows
d) 100 blows
embedded in soil is
a) 10 sq. m
b) 50 sq. m
c) 20 sq. m
d) 25 sq. m
a) 12.88
b) 18.22
c) 15.97
d) 16.85
______________
Set S
*SLRPK52*
SLR-PK 52
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
failure ?
Load (kN/m2)
50
100
200
300
400
500
600
Settlement (mm)
4.5
8.5
16
31.3
50
74
104
exceed 25 mm.

expansive soil.
Set S
SLR-PK 52
-4-
*SLRPK52*

16
SECTION II
designed.
16

c) Caisson disease
d) Rock socketing
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 53
*SLLRPK53*
Seat
No.
Set

ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Elective I) (New)
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
iii) Use of IS 456 and IS 3370.
iv) Assume suitable data if necessary.
v) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) For Simply Supported condition the maximum radial moment coefficient for circular slab
at centre is
a) 5/64
b) 2/16
c) 3/16
d) 1/16
2) For a flat slab the maximum value of ratio of larger span to thickness for mild steel is
a) 32
b) 40
c) 35
d) 30
3) The widen portion provided on flat slab to reduce the punching shear is called as
a) Column cap
b) Column drop
c) Column Head
d) All of these
4) While designing a combined footing there is restriction of space on both sides of column
then which type of footing is used ?
a) Rectangular combined footing
b) Stap footing
c) Trapezoidal combined footing
d) Raft footing
5) The lateral reinforcement in the body of pile is provided at ___________ % of gross volume.
a) 0.12
b) 0.15
c) 0.6
d) 0.2
6) For a circular slab radial moment per unit length is given by M =

a) M = C1qR0.5
b) M = C1qR3
c) M = C1qR4
d) M = C1qR2
7) In case of water tanks the permissible shear stress for M25 grade concrete is
___________ c N/mm2.
a) 1
b) 1.2
c) 1.25
d) 1.7
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 53
*SLRPK53*
-2-
8) For design of water tanks the permissible stress in bending tension in mild steel bars is
for is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 115
b) 140
c) 150
d) 230
9) The floor of the underground water tanks are designed for ____________ pressure, for
the full tank condition.
a) Uplift
b) Water
c) Earth
d) All of these
10) In case of water tank for concrete permissible stress in bending tension for grade of M20
concrete is ______________ N/mm2.
a) 1.8
b) 2.5
c) 2.8
d) 1.7
11) The maximum B.M. coefficient for circular simply supported slab subjected to udl over
entire surface at centre shall be
a) 3/16
b) 2/16
c) 1/16
d) 0
12) The analysis should be used for design of over head water tank
a) Structural analysis
b) Staging analysis
c) Surface analysis
d) All of these
13) The minimum thickness of member for direct tension for mild steel and M20 concrete
should be taken as ______________
a) T/1465
b) T/1377
c) T/1682
d) T/1260
14) The minimum thickness of member for direct tension for HYSD and M25 concrete should
be taken as
a) T/1465
b) T/1377
c) T/1682
d) T/1423
15) As per IS 4562000 recommendation in case of grid slab, width of beams should not be
less than _____________ mm.
a) 65 mm
b) 80 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 70 mm
16) In water tanks the compressive (permissible) stress column subjected to direct load is
______________ N/mm2 for HYSD bars.
a) 115
b) 125
c) 175
d) 150
17) Middle strip in flat slab means the design strip bounded on each of its opposite sides by
a) pannel
b) columnstrip
c) drop
d) column heads
18) The minimum spacing of piles shall be __________ to _________ tin diameter of the pile.
a) 2 to 3
b) 2.5 to 3
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 1 to 1.5
19) Rectangular footing is required in following situations.
a) If loaded footing of columns overlap
b) Columns may be near to property line
c) S.B.C. of soil being less
d) All a, b and c
20) In ____________ analysis entire cross section of the member is utilised.
a) Elastic analysis
b) Plastic analysis
c) Both a and b
______________
Set P
*SLRPK53*
-3-
SLR-PK 53
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
Marks : 80
Answer any two questions from each Section.

Use of IS 456 and IS 3370.
SECTION I
2. Design the interior panel of a flat slab 6 m 6 m in size, for a super imposed load of 4 kN/m2,
column size 500 mm 500 mm. Provide with suitable drop. Use M20 grade of concrete and
Fe 415 steel.
20
3. Design a pile under column transmitting on axial load of 800 kN. The pile is to be driven to
hard stratum is vailable to depth 8 m. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel.
20
4. a) Design combined rectangular footing for two columns A and B carrying loads of 600 kN
and 800 kN respectively. Column A is 400 mm 400 mm in size and column B is
500 mm 500 mm in size. The centre to centre spacing of the columns is 3.4 m. The
property line is 0.8 m from centre of column carrying 600 kN load. The safe bearing
capacity of soil may be taken as 200 kN/m2. Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe 415
Steel.
b) Explain the significance of raft foundation.
15
Set P
SLR-PK 53
-4-
*SLRPK53*
SECTION II
5. A circular water tank of capacity 700000 lit. is resting on ground. The depth of tank is limited to
5 m. A free board of 300 mm may be provided the wall and base slab is casting integrally.
Design the water tank using IS code method. Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe 415 steel.
Draw reinforcement detail.
20
6. Design an underground water tank of internal dimensions 6 m 3 m 3 m soil surrounding the

tank always remains the dry. The tank should be provided with a roof slab soil weight is
16 kN/m3. Use M20 concrete and mild steel.
20
7. A rectangular water tank 7 m long, 6 m wide and 5 m high has its walls rigidly jointed at the
critical edges. Design the tank by approximate method, it is supported an all sides under the
wall. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe 415 Steel.
20
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 53
*SLLRPK53*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 115
b) 125
c) 175
d) 150
a) pannel
b) columnstrip
c) drop
d) column heads
a) 2 to 3
b) 2.5 to 3
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 1 to 1.5

d) All a, b and c

a) Elastic analysis
b) Plastic analysis
c) Both a and b
at centre is
a) 5/64
b) 2/16
c) 3/16
d) 1/16
a) 32
b) 40
c) 35
d) 30
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 53
-2-
*SLRPK53*
a) Column cap
b) Column drop
c) Column Head
d) All of these
b) Stap footing
d) Raft footing
a) 0.12
b) 0.15
c) 0.6
d) 0.2
b) M = C1qR3
a) M = C1qR0.5
c) M = C1qR4
d) M = C1qR2
___________ c N/mm2.
a) 1
b) 1.2
c) 1.25
d) 1.7
for is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 115
b) 140
c) 150
d) 230
a) Uplift
b) Water
c) Earth
d) All of these
concrete is ______________ N/mm2.
a) 1.8
b) 2.5
c) 2.8
d) 1.7
a) 3/16
b) 2/16
c) 1/16
d) 0
b) Staging analysis
c) Surface analysis
d) All of these
a) T/1465
b) T/1377
c) T/1682
d) T/1260
be taken as
a) T/1465
b) T/1377
c) T/1682
d) T/1423
less than _____________ mm.
a) 65 mm
b) 80 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 70 mm
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK53*
-3-
SLR-PK 53
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Fe 415 steel.
20
20
Steel.
15
Set Q
SLR-PK 53
-4-
*SLRPK53*
SECTION II
20

20
20
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 53
*SLLRPK53*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 3/16
b) 2/16
c) 1/16
d) 0
c) Surface analysis
b) Staging analysis
d) All of these
a) T/1465
b) T/1377
c) T/1682
d) T/1260
be taken as
a) T/1465
b) T/1377
c) T/1682
d) T/1423
less than _____________ mm.
a) 65 mm
b) 80 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 70 mm
a) 115
b) 125
c) 175
d) 150
a) pannel
b) columnstrip
c) drop
d) column heads
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 53
-2-
*SLRPK53*
a) 2 to 3
b) 2.5 to 3
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 1 to 1.5
d) All a, b and c
a) Elastic analysis
b) Plastic analysis
c) Both a and b
at centre is
a) 5/64
b) 2/16
c) 3/16
d) 1/16
a) 32
b) 40
c) 35
d) 30
a) Column cap
b) Column drop
c) Column Head
d) All of these
b) Stap footing
d) Raft footing
a) 0.12
b) 0.15
c) 0.6
d) 0.2
a) M = C1qR0.5
b) M = C1qR3
c) M = C1qR4
d) M = C1qR2
___________ c N/mm2.
a) 1
b) 1.2
c) 1.25
d) 1.7
for is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 115
b) 140
c) 150
d) 230
a) Uplift
b) Water
c) Earth
d) All of these
concrete is ______________ N/mm2.
a) 1.8
b) 2.5
c) 2.8
d) 1.7
______________
Set R
*SLRPK53*
-3-
SLR-PK 53
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Fe 415 steel.
20
20
Steel.
15
Set R
SLR-PK 53
-4-
*SLRPK53*
SECTION II
20

20
20
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 53
*SLLRPK53*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) M = C1qR0.5
b) M = C1qR3
c) M = C1qR4
d) M = C1qR2
___________ c N/mm2.
a) 1
b) 1.2
c) 1.25
d) 1.7
for is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 115
b) 140
c) 150
d) 230
a) Uplift
b) Water
c) Earth
d) All of these
concrete is ______________ N/mm2.
a) 1.8
b) 2.5
c) 2.8
d) 1.7
a) 3/16
b) 2/16
c) 1/16
d) 0
b) Staging analysis
c) Surface analysis
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 53
-2-
*SLRPK53*
a) T/1465
b) T/1377
c) T/1682
d) T/1260
be taken as
a) T/1465
b) T/1377
c) T/1682
d) T/1423
less than _____________ mm.
a) 65 mm
b) 80 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 70 mm
a) 115
b) 125
c) 175
d) 150
a) pannel
b) columnstrip
c) drop
d) column heads
a) 2 to 3
b) 2.5 to 3
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 1 to 1.5
d) All a, b and c
a) Elastic analysis
b) Plastic analysis
c) Both a and b
at centre is
a) 5/64
b) 2/16
c) 3/16
d) 1/16
a) 32
b) 40
c) 35
d) 30
a) Column cap
b) Column drop
c) Column Head
d) All of these
b) Stap footing
d) Raft footing
a) 0.12
b) 0.15
c) 0.6
d) 0.2
______________
Set S
*SLRPK53*
-3-
SLR-PK 53
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Fe 415 steel.
20
20
Steel.
15
Set S
SLR-PK 53
-4-
*SLRPK53*
SECTION II
20

20
20
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 54
*SLRPK54*
S
Set
t

MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
5) Answer MCQ/objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on top of page.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternatives (one mark each) :
20
1) Time study is not

a) Method study b) Motion study c) Both a) and b) d) None
2) Time study involves determination of
a) Basic time
b) Allowances
c) Normal time
d) All the above
3) Method study invented by
a) Gilberth
b) Taylor
c) Mayo
d) None
4) Work sampling is also called as

a) Random sampling
b) Activity sampling
c) Ratio sampling
d) None
5) The aspect which are considered before selecting a job in method study are
a) Quality development aspect
b) Human reactions
c) Managerial aspects
d) None
6) Which of the following scientist play important role in work study ?
a) Taylor
b) Deming
c) Gilberth
d) None
7) Work study includes
a) Method study b) Time study
c) Scientific study d) Only a) and b)
8) Value Engineering and value analysis are
a) different
b) same
c) both a) and b) d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 54
*SLRPK54*
-2-

a) Kaizen
b) Taylor
10) PDCA cycle is
a) Plan, develop, check and action
c) Both a) and b)
11) Work sampling includes
c) Percentage of idle time
12) Direct incentives are
a) Direct monetary payment
c) Paid to individual worker
c) Mayo
d) None
b) Plan, do, check, act

d) None
d) All the above
b) Paid to group of workers
d) None
13) __________ is applied to existing product.

a) Value analysis
b) Value Engineering
c) Both a) and b)
d) Value
a) Balance cost and performance
b) Cost reduction technique
c) Prevent bad design of component d) All the above
15) If the Part of system fails, there is an alternative success path (Backup) is
provided, it is called as
a) Redundancy
b) Reliability
c) POF
d) FEMA
16) The symbols used in FTA are grouped as __________ symbols.
a) Events
b) Transfer
c) Gates
d) All the above
17) Reliability is function of
a) Conditions of use
c) Both a) and b)
b) Time
d) None
18) Classification method is method of

a) Job Evaluation b) Merit Rating
19) O Represents
a) Storage
c) Inspection
b) Operation
d) Temporary storage
20) Method study procedure consists of the following six steps

a) SRCDIM
b) CSRDMI
c) SCRDIM
d) None
______________
Set P
*SLRPK54*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 54

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Discuss with Civil Engg. example the process of critical examination.
b) Explain the importance of method study and time study in Civil Engg.
9
5
3. a) What is the role of Work Specification in work study ?

b) Explain in short Elements of TQM.
8
5
4. a) Draw the flow process chart (Man type) for concreting of Bridge girder.
b) Write a note on Analytical Estimating.
8
5
5. a) Discuss the different types of Allowances used for calculating standard time. 8
b) Explain 5 S Techniques.
5
SECTION II
6. a) What is reliability and its area of application ?
b) What is failure in reliability analysis ?
9
5
7. a) How will you determine confidence level in work sampling ?

b) Write in short purpose, principle and use of work sampling.
8
5
8. a) How value Engineering is different from value analysis ?

b) Write in short on Types of Values.
8
5
9. a) Comment on Reliability Design.

b) Write in short about FEMA.
8
5
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 54
*SLRPK54*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
Marks : 20
20

a) Events
b) Transfer
c) Gates
d) All the above
b) Time
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
4) O Represents
a) Storage
b) Operation
c) Inspection
a) SRCDIM
b) CSRDMI
c) SCRDIM
d) None
a) Method study
b) Motion study c) Both a) and b) d) None

a) Basic time
b) Allowances
c) Normal time
a) Gilberth
b) Taylor
c) Mayo
d) All the above

d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 54
*SLRPK54*
-2-

a) Random sampling
c) Ratio sampling
d) None
b) Human reactions
d) None
a) Taylor
b) Deming
c) Gilberth
d) None

a) different
b) same
a) Kaizen
b) Taylor
c) Mayo
d) None
15) PDCA cycle is
c) Both a) and b)

d) None
d) All the above
d) None

a) Value analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) Value
a) Redundancy
b) Reliability
c) POF
d) FEMA
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK54*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 54

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
9
5

8
5
8
5
5
SECTION II
9
5

8
5

8
5

8
5
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 54
*SLRPK54*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
Marks : 20

20

d) All the above
d) None

a) Value analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) Value
a) Redundancy
b) Reliability
c) POF
d) FEMA
a) Events
b) Transfer
c) Gates
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 54
*SLRPK54*
-2-
c) Both a) and b)
b) Time
d) None

9) O Represents
a) Storage
c) Inspection
b) Operation

a) SRCDIM
b) CSRDMI
c) SCRDIM
d) None
a) Method study b) Motion study c) Both a) and b) d) None
a) Basic time
b) Allowances
c) Normal time
d) All the above
a) Gilberth
b) Taylor
c) Mayo

a) Random sampling
c) Ratio sampling
d) None
d) None
b) Human reactions
d) None
a) Taylor
b) Deming
c) Gilberth
d) None
a) different
b) same
a) Kaizen
b) Taylor
c) Mayo
d) None
20) PDCA cycle is
a) Plan, develop, check and action b) Plan, do, check, act
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
______________
Set R
*SLRPK54*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 54

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
9
5

8
5
8
5
5
SECTION II
9
5

8
5

8
5

8
5
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 54
*SLRPK54*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
Marks : 20
20

a) Taylor
b) Deming
c) Gilberth
d) None

a) different
b) same
a) Kaizen
b) Taylor
c) Mayo
5) PDCA cycle is
c) Both a) and b)

d) None


d) All the above


d) None
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 54
*SLRPK54*
-2-

a) Value analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) Value
a) Redundancy
b) Reliability
c) POF
d) FEMA
a) Events
b) Transfer
c) Gates
d) All the above
c) Both a) and b)
b) Time
d) None
14) O Represents
a) Storage
b) Operation
c) Inspection
a) SRCDIM
b) CSRDMI
c) SCRDIM
d) None
a) Method study
b) Motion study c) Both a) and b) d) None

a) Basic time
b) Allowances
c) Normal time
a) Gilberth
b) Taylor
c) Mayo
a) Random sampling
c) Ratio sampling
d) All the above

d) None
d) None
b) Human reactions
d) None
______________
Set S
*SLRPK54*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 54

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
9
5

8
5
8
5
5
SECTION II
9
5

8
5

8
5

8
5
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 59
*SLRPK59*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Civil) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2016

DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note :
Total Marks : 100

3) Write the correct option for each question.
4) While solving MCQ IS 456-2000 and IS 1343 is not allowed.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) Yield Line Theory result in
a) Elastic solution
b) Upper bound solution
c) Lower bound solution
d) Unique solution
2) The safe stress in steel at service is _____________ fck.
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
3) High strength of concrete is necessary for prestressed concrete work because
a) Large prestressing force is applied b) High bond stress is required
c) Bursting stress is more
d) All of above
4) The concept used for analysis of prestressed concrete section is
a) Stress concept
b) Load balancing concept
c) Strength concept
d) All of the above
5) The prestressed concrete beam is suitable for
a) Large spans
b) Both large spans and short spans
c) Short spans
d) None of these
6) In prestresses concrete section _____________ section is effective.
a) Above N.A.
b) Partially above and below
c) Below N.A.
d) Entire section
7) From limiting deflection point of view, use of high strength steel in RC beam
results in
a) Reduction in depth
b) Increase in depth
c) No change in depth
d) Increase in width
8) In design of P.S.C. beam section, the no. of fundamental stress conditions to be
considered are
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 59
-2-
*SLRPK59*
9) The safe stress in concrete at service is _____________ fck.

a) 0.3
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.5
10) If C is creep coefficient, f is original prestress in concrete, m is modular ratio, E is
Youngs modulus of steel and e is shrinkage strain, the combined effect of creep
and shrinkage is
a) (1 C)mf eE b) (C 1)mf eE c) (C 1)mf + eE d) (1 C)mf + eE
11) The safe stress in concrete at transfer is _____________ fck.
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
12) Torsion resisting capacity of a given RC section
a) Decreases with decrease in stirrup section
b) Decreases with increase in longitudinal bars
c) Does not depend upon stirrups and longitudinal steel
d) Increase with increase in longitudinal steel
13) The number of treads in a flight is equal to
a) Risers in the flight
b) Risers minus one
c) Risers plus one
d) None of these
14) For stairs spanning horizontally, the minimum waist provided is
a) 4 m
b) 8 m
c) 6 m
d) 12 m
15) Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than
a) 3 m
b) 4 m
c) 5 m
d) 6 m
16) The effective span of a simply supported slab, is characteristic strength is equal to
a) The effective span of a simply supported slab, is
b) Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of
the wall
c) Clear span plus effective depth of the slab
d) None of these
17) The permissible tensile stress in concrete is _____________ fck.
a) 0.125
b) 0.129
c) 0.126
d) 0.127
18) In case of pre-tensioned RC beam
a) Shrinkage of concrete is of order 3104
b) Relaxation of steel can be ignored
c) Only one wire can be stretched at a time
d) Even mild steel can be used for prestressing
19) The stability of retaining wall is checked for which of the following condition ?
a) Overturning about toe
b) Overturning about heal
c) Both of above
d) None of these
20) How is the deflection in RC beam controlled as per IS 456 ?
a) By using large aspect ratio
b) By using small modular ratio
c) By using controlling span to depth ratio
d) By moderating water cement ratio
______________
Set P
*SLRPK59*
-3-
SLR-PK 59
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Note :

2) Use of IS 456 and non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Draw neat sketchs where required and assume suitable
data if required and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. Design a three span continuous beam rectangular beam of span of 5.2 m each to
carry a dead load of 16 kN/m and live load of 8 kN/m. The beam is supported by
columns. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. Sketch the reinforcement details.
13
3. Design the stem slab of a counter fort retaining wall, if the height of wall above the
ground level is 4.8 m. SBC of soil is 250 kN/m2, angle of internal friction is 30 and unit
weight of back fill soil 18 kN/m2. Keep spacing of counter fort as 3 m. Coefficient of
friction between soil and concrete is 0.5. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.
14
4. Design the dog-legged type staircase for a residential building using following data
floor to floor height = 3 m, No. of flight per floor = 2, size of steps = 150 mm riser and
230 mm trade, live load is 3 kN/m2 and assume width of stair is 1.5 m. Use M20 concrete
and Fe415 steel.
13
5. a) Sketch the details of reinforcement of the slab.
b) Design a reinforced concrete slab for a room of clear dimension 4.5 m 5.5 m. The
slab is supported all around on the wall of width 200 mm. The slab has to carry a
live load of 3 kN/m2 and floor finish 1 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
Assume corners are held down.
10
Set P
SLR-PK 59
-4-
*SLRPK59*
SECTION II
6. A PSC beam 350 mm 600 mm is subjected to an effective pre-stressing force of
1100 kN along the longitudinal centroidal axis. Design the end block by Guyons
method.
13
7. A pre-stressed concrete beam 500 mm 750 mm in section has a span 8 m and is
subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 17.50 kN/m including the self wt. of the
beam. The prestressing tendons are located at the lower third pt. of the section and
provide an effective stresses in concrete for the mid span section. Solve by following
methods : stress concept method, strength concept method, load balancing concept.
Take prestressing force 1000 kN.
13
8. Design PSC I Section beam for the following span = 18 m, superimposed
load = 35 kN/m, cube strength of concrete at 28 days is 35 kN/m2, safe stress in
12
concrete at transfer = 0.5 fck, allowable tensile stress in concrete is 0.279 ( fck) ,
safe stress in steel is 1000 MPa, total loss of stress 20%, ultimate stress in
steel 1100 MPa.
14
9. A PSC beam of 250 mm 450 mm is provided with 10 m. The beam is prestressed by

steel wires of area 450 mm2 provided at a uniform eccentricity of 80 mm with an initial
prestress of 1200 N/mm2. Determine the percentage loss of stress in the wires of the
beam is post tensioned. Es = 2.1105 N/mm2, Ec = 3.5105 N /mm2, Relaxation loss
percentage = 5%, esh = Es = 1.9 104, creep strain 25106 N/mm2 of stress anchorage
slip = 1.25 mm, friction coefficient = 0.00015/m.
13
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 59
*SLRPK59*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note :
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
the wall
d) None of these
a) 0.125
b) 0.129
c) 0.126
d) 0.127
c) Both of above
d) None of these
a) Elastic solution
d) Unique solution
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 59
-2-
*SLRPK59*

a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
d) All of above
a) Stress concept
c) Strength concept
d) All of the above
a) Large spans
c) Short spans
d) None of these
a) Above N.A.
c) Below N.A.
d) Entire section
results in
considered are
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
a) 0.3
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.5
and shrinkage is
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
b) Risers minus one
c) Risers plus one
d) None of these
a) 4 m
b) 8 m
c) 6 m
d) 12 m
a) 3 m
b) 4 m
c) 5 m
d) 6 m
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK59*
-3-
SLR-PK 59
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Note :

SECTION I
13
14
and Fe415 steel.
13
10
Set Q
SLR-PK 59
-4-
*SLRPK59*
SECTION II
method.
13
13
12
steel 1100 MPa.
14

13
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 59
*SLRPK59*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note :
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
b) Risers minus one
c) Risers plus one
d) None of these
a) 4 m
b) 8 m
c) 6 m
d) 12 m
a) 3 m
b) 4 m
c) 5 m
d) 6 m
the wall
d) None of these
a) 0.125
b) 0.129
c) 0.126
d) 0.127
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 59
-2-
*SLRPK59*

c) Both of above
d) None of these
a) Elastic solution
d) Unique solution
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
d) All of above
a) Stress concept
c) Strength concept
d) All of the above
a) Large spans
c) Short spans
d) None of these
a) Above N.A.
c) Below N.A.
d) Entire section
results in
considered are
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
a) 0.3
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.5
and shrinkage is
______________
Set R
*SLRPK59*
-3-
SLR-PK 59
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Note :

SECTION I
13
14
and Fe415 steel.
13
10
Set R
SLR-PK 59
-4-
*SLRPK59*
SECTION II
method.
13
13
12
steel 1100 MPa.
14

13
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 59
*SLRPK59*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note :
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Above N.A.
c) Below N.A.
d) Entire section
results in
considered are
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
a) 0.3
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.5
and shrinkage is
a) (1 C)mf eE
b) (C 1)mf eE c) (C 1)mf + eE d) (1 C)mf + eE
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 59
-2-
*SLRPK59*

b) Risers minus one
c) Risers plus one
d) None of these
a) 4 m
b) 8 m
c) 6 m
d) 12 m
a) 3 m
b) 4 m
c) 5 m
d) 6 m
the wall
d) None of these
a) 0.125
b) 0.129
c) 0.126
d) 0.127
c) Both of above
d) None of these
a) Elastic solution
d) Unique solution
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
d) All of above
a) Stress concept
c) Strength concept
d) All of the above
a) Large spans
c) Short spans
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK59*
-3-
SLR-PK 59
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Note :

SECTION I
13
14
and Fe415 steel.
13
10
Set S
SLR-PK 59
-4-
*SLRPK59*
SECTION II
method.
13
13
12
steel 1100 MPa.
14

13
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 60
*SLRPK60*
Seat
No.
Set

CONSTRUCTION PRACTICES AND TOWN PLANNING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

4) Figures on right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it.
Marks : 20
1. A) Fill in the gaps with correct words :
10
1) __________ mixers are used for RMC construction work on site.

2) __________ is self-sufficient machine which can dig, load, haul and discharge
material in uniform thickness.
3) __________ is the most commonly used equipment for earth movement.
4) For Road construction, the purpose of drum dryer is to heat and dry the
__________ of the asphalt mix.
5) Clam shell is a part of __________ equipment.
6) __________ Cranes are capable of travelling on public roads.
7) __________ are used to press soil particles together for earth compaction.
8) __________ means removal of material in thin layers.
9) The functioning of Pneumatic tired rollers is based on __________ action.
10) __________ are hauling equipment for horizontal movement of materials.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 60
*SLRPK60*
-2-
B) Match A group items with B group items :

A
10
B
1) Industrial zone
Concept of garden city
2) Lewis Mumford
Beauty-convenience-environment and health
3) Necropolis
Land use classification
4) Ebenezer Howard
Six stages in town growth
5) Surveying before planning
Town at its worst stage
6) Lead to lack to social life
Diagnosis before treatment
7) Vertical growth
Ribbon development
8) Chandigarh city
Town growth according to direction
9) Development Plan
Town planned city
10) Objects of town planning
Form of planning
______________
Set P
*SLRPK60*
-3-
SLR-PK 60
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(Construction Practices)
2. Attempt any five questions :
(58=40)
a) Explain in general about the operating cost of construction equipments.

b) What are the types of precast system and discuss the main features of prefabricated
construction ?
c) Explain the soil compacting equipments.
d) Explain the clamshell and its component parts.
e) Explain the importance of safety in construction industry and discuss safety
measures during work on height.
f) Explain the important keys to successful earthwork operations.
g) Explain the conceptual planning of new project with special reference to equipment
planning process.
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
(58=40)
a) Why town planning is necessary ? Describe in brief the objects of Town Planning.
b) Explain the necessity and advantages of zoning.
c) Explain the role of town planning in view of smart city development of Solapur city.
d) Discuss the need and significance of Integrated Rural Development Approach.
e) Compare advantages and disadvantages of horizontal and vertical growth pattern.
f) Mention six stages in growth of town suggested by Lewis Mumford.
g) Explain Geddesian Triad by Sir Patrick Geddes.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 60
*SLRPK60*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
10


P.T.O.
SLR-PK 60
*SLRPK60*
-2-

A
10
B
2) Vertical growth
Ribbon development
3) Chandigarh city
4) Development Plan
Town planned city
Form of planning
6) Industrial zone
7) Lewis Mumford
8) Necropolis
9) Ebenezer Howard
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK60*
-3-
SLR-PK 60
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(58=40)

construction ?
planning process.
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
(58=40)
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 60
*SLRPK60*
Seat
No.
Set

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 20
1. A) Match A group items with B group items :

A
10
B
2) Vertical growth
Ribbon development
3) Chandigarh city
4) Development Plan
Town planned city
Form of planning
6) Industrial zone
7) Lewis Mumford
8) Necropolis
9) Ebenezer Howard

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 60
-2-
*SLRPK60*
B) Fill in the gaps with correct words :
10


______________
Set R
*SLRPK60*
-3-
SLR-PK 60
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(58=40)

construction ?
planning process.
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
(58=40)
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 60
*SLRPK60*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
10

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 60
*SLRPK60*
-2-

A
10
B
1) Ebenezer Howard
4) Vertical growth
Ribbon development
5) Chandigarh city
6) Development Plan
Town planned city
Form of planning
8) Industrial zone
9) Lewis Mumford
10) Necropolis
______________
Set S
*SLRPK60*
-3-
SLR-PK 60
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(58=40)

construction ?
planning process.
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
(58=40)
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Civil) Part II (Old) Examination, 2016

Elective II
GROUND IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUES
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

3) The maximum mark to each question is mentioned in the right side of
each question.
Marks : 20
1. Attempt all the questions.

1) In mechanical modification of soil
a) Density of soil is decreased
c) Density is increased
(201=20)
b) Volume of the soil is increased
d) None
2) Which method of improvement is not suitable in populated areas ?

a) RIC
b) DDC
c) VC
d) Blasting
3) Purpose of dewatering during construction is
a) Reduce lateral load on sheeting and bracing
b) Increase lateral load on sheeting and bracing
c) Increase liquefaction potential
d) None
4) Which of the following is not a permanent dewatering method ?
a) Diaphragm wall
b) Grouting
c) Slurry trench cutoff
d) Electroosmosis
5) Diameter of vibroflot is
a) 0.2 m
b) 1 m
c) 0.75 m
d) 0.3 0.5 m
6) In case of uniformly graded sand due to vibroflotation its volume approximately reduce by
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
7) Backfill material in case of vibroflotation will be rejected when suitability number is
a) 0 10
b) 10 20
c) 20 30
d) > 50
8) Which is not the method of construction of stone column ?
a) Dry top feed
b) Dry bottom feed
c) Wet top feed
d) Wet bottom feed
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
-2-
9) Ultimate bearing capacity of stone column is given by
{
}
qa = K a {r + 4Cu}
a) qa = Kp r + 0.4Cu
b) qa = Kp r + 4Cu
c)
d) none
10) Which parameter is required to compute reduction in settlement using stone column by
Greenwoods method.
a) angle of internal friction of column material
b) stress ratio
c) underained strength of soil surrounding the column
d) All above parameters
11) For external stability of RE wall it should be safe against
a) Sliding
b) Overturning
c) Bearing
d) All
12) The materials used in the manufacture of geosynthetics are primarily synthetic polymers
generally derived from
a) Rubber
b) Fiberglass
c) Crude petroleum oils
d) Jute
13) If a geosynthetic allows for adequate fluid flow with limited migration of soil particles
across its plane over a projected service lifetime of the application under consideration,
this function of geosynthetic is called
a) Separation
b) Filtration
c) Drainage
d) Protection
14) The thickness of a geotextile is measured at a specified normal compressive stress,
generally equal to
a) 2.0 kPa for 5 s
b) 2.0 kPa for 10 s
c) 20.0 kPa for 5 s
15) For rapid impact compaction weight of ram is
a) 30 kN
b) 40 kN
c) 50 kN
d) 60 kN
16) In case of deep dynamic compaction depth of compaction is

a) 2 m
b) 5 m
c) 10 m
d) n mH
17) Mass of tamper used in case of deep dynamic compaction is

a) 50 100 kN
b) 100 kN 200 kN
c) 150 250 kN
d) 150 400 kN
18) Sodium silicate is
a) suspension grout
c) chemical grout
b) cementitious grout
d) none
19) Capacity of grout to remain in its own state without segregation till it reaches its destination
will be judged by
a) Groutability
b) Stability
c) Permanence
d) Setting time
20) Filling the joints or fracture by grout is
a) Intrusion grouting
b) Jet grouting
c) Chemical grouting
d) Fracture grouting
______________
Set P
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
Seat
No.

Elective II
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m

Instructions :
1) From Section I, Q. 2 is compulsory. Attempt any 2 in the remaining

questions.
2) From Section II, Q.6 is compulsory. Attempt any 2 in the remaining
questions.
each question.
SECTION I
2. Write a note on any three :

a) Objective of ground improvement technique.
b) Blasting method of ground improvement.
c) Difference between standard compaction and modified compaction.
d) Prefabricated vertical drain.
e) Vacuum method of dewatering.
(43=12)
3. a) What are the factors affecting selection of ground improvement ? Write in detail.
b) What are the different types of specifications for compaction control ?
c) How does grain size distribution help in deciding about compatibility for vibrocompaction ?
4. a) With neat sketch explain various methods of construction for the stone column. Discuss
merits and demerits of these methods.
b) With a neat sketch explain well point system of dewatering.
c) Derive the relationship for stress co-efficient in case of stone column.
5. a) Design PVD system for a site from the following site details.
Thickness of Clayey strata 12 m
Drain size to be used 18020 mm
Clayey strata has permeable boundary both at top and bottom.
Time available for consolidation 15 months
Co-efficient of vertical consolidation 4.92104 cm2/sec.
b) Write in detail about dewatering technique in cohesive soil.
c) How do you decide the filter material for PVD system ?
Set P
SLR-PK 61
-4-
*SLRPK61*
SECTION II
6. Write note on any three :
(43=12)
a) Purpose of soil stabilization.

b) Mechanism of reinforced earth.
c) Grout Monitoring.
d) Tests for geotextiles.
e) Methods of slope stabilization.
7. a) Describe different steps involved in the process of soil stabilization using cement as
additive.
b) What are the ideal requirements of grout ?
c) List the different functions that the geotextiles are intended to perform.
8. a) Explain the construction procedure in detail for using the geotextiles as reinforcement in
the construction of embankment.
b) With a neat sketch explain various methods of grouting.
c) Discuss the different forms of Geogrid.
9. a) What are the possible modes of failure of reinforced earth wall ? How do you ensure
safety of RE wall against all these modes of failure.
b) What is soil stabilization ? What are the different methods ?
c) Why slope fails ? Explain with neat sketch.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective II
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m

Instructions :

each question.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) 2 m
b) 5 m
c) 10 m
d) n mH

a) 50 100 kN
b) 100 kN 200 kN
c) 150 250 kN
d) 150 400 kN
a) suspension grout
c) chemical grout
d) none
will be judged by
a) Groutability
b) Stability
c) Permanence
d) Setting time
b) Jet grouting


d) None

a) RIC
b) DDC
c) VC
d) Blasting
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
-2-

a) Diaphragm wall
b) Grouting
d) Electroosmosis
a) 0.2 m
b) 1 m
c) 0.75 m
d) 0.3 0.5 m
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
a) 0 10
b) 10 20
c) 20 30
d) > 50
a) Dry top feed
b) Dry bottom feed
c) Wet top feed
d) Wet bottom feed
b) qa = Kp r + 4Cu
d) none
c) qa = K a r + 4Cu
Greenwoods method.
b) stress ratio
a) Sliding
b) Overturning
c) Bearing
d) All
a) Rubber
b) Fiberglass
d) Jute
a) Separation
b) Filtration
c) Drainage
d) Protection
generally equal to
a) 2.0 kPa for 5 s
b) 2.0 kPa for 10 s
c) 20.0 kPa for 5 s
a) 30 kN
b) 40 kN
c) 50 kN
______________
d) 60 kN
Set Q
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
Seat
No.

Elective II
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m

Instructions :

questions.
questions.
each question.
SECTION I

(43=12)
Set Q
SLR-PK 61
-4-
*SLRPK61*
SECTION II
(43=12)

additive.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective II
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

each question.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Sliding
b) Overturning
c) Bearing
d) All
a) Rubber
b) Fiberglass
d) Jute
a) Separation
b) Filtration
c) Drainage
d) Protection
generally equal to
a) 2.0 kPa for 5 s
b) 2.0 kPa for 10 s
c) 20.0 kPa for 5 s
a) 30 kN
b) 40 kN
c) 50 kN
d) 60 kN

a) 2 m
b) 5 m
c) 10 m
d) n mH

a) 50 100 kN
b) 100 kN 200 kN
c) 150 250 kN
d) 150 400 kN
a) suspension grout
c) chemical grout
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
-2-
will be judged by
a) Groutability
b) Stability
c) Permanence
d) Setting time
b) Jet grouting


d) None

a) RIC
b) DDC
c) VC
d) Blasting
d) None
a) Diaphragm wall
b) Grouting
d) Electroosmosis
a) 0.2 m
b) 1 m
c) 0.75 m
d) 0.3 0.5 m
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
a) 0 10
b) 10 20
c) 20 30
d) > 50
a) Dry top feed
b) Dry bottom feed
c) Wet top feed
d) Wet bottom feed
b) qa = Kp r + 4Cu
d) none
c) qa = K a r + 4Cu
Greenwoods method.
b) stress ratio
______________
Set R
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
Seat
No.

Elective II
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m

Instructions :

questions.
questions.
each question.
SECTION I

(43=12)
Set R
SLR-PK 61
-4-
*SLRPK61*
SECTION II
(43=12)

additive.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective II
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

each question.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
a) 0 10
b) 10 20
c) 20 30
d) > 50
a) Dry top feed
b) Dry bottom feed
c) Wet top feed
d) Wet bottom feed
{
}
qa = K a {r + 4Cu}
a) qa = K p r + 0.4Cu
b) qa = Kp r + 4Cu
c)
d) none

Greenwoods method.
b) stress ratio
a) Sliding
b) Overturning
c) Bearing
d) All
a) Rubber
b) Fiberglass
d) Jute
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
-2-
a) Separation
b) Filtration
c) Drainage
d) Protection
generally equal to
a) 2.0 kPa for 5 s
b) 2.0 kPa for 10 s
c) 20.0 kPa for 5 s
a) 30 kN
b) 40 kN
c) 50 kN
d) 60 kN

a) 2 m
b) 5 m
c) 10 m
d) n mH

a) 50 100 kN
b) 100 kN 200 kN
c) 150 250 kN
d) 150 400 kN
a) suspension grout
c) chemical grout
d) none
will be judged by
a) Groutability
b) Stability
c) Permanence
d) Setting time
b) Jet grouting


d) None

a) RIC
b) DDC
c) VC
d) Blasting
d) None
a) Diaphragm wall
b) Grouting
d) Electroosmosis
a) 0.2 m
b) 1 m
c) 0.75 m
______________
d) 0.3 0.5 m
Set S
SLR-PK 61
*SLRPK61*
Seat
No.

Elective II
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m

Instructions :

questions.
questions.
each question.
SECTION I

(43=12)
Set S
SLR-PK 61
-4-
*SLRPK61*
SECTION II
(43=12)

additive.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 62
*SLRPK62*
S
Set
.
B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2016

TRAFFIC ENGINEERING AND CONTROL (Elective II) (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

2) Assume any missing data suitably.
one mark.
Marks : 20
I. 1) The prime idea of drawing the condition diagram is

(201=20)
a) To interpret the cause of accident b) To find out the cost of accident
c) To decrease the rate of accident d) To locate the accident spot
2) Symbol used to show rear end collision,
a)
b)
c)
d)
3) Hazard markers are placed at

a) Front of abutments
c) Front of any fixed objects
b) Front of parapet wall of structure

d) All the above
4) STOP sign should be placed at

a) Through roads or main roads
c) Horizontal curves
b) Cross roads or minor roads

d) Vertical curves
5) The maximum length allowed for tractor and trailer combination vehicle is
a) 18 m
b) 20 m
c) 16 m
d) 12 m
a) Spot speed of the vehicle
c) Traffic numbers
d) All the above
7) The area under the parking accumulation curve during a specified period is called
a) Parking load
b) Parking index
c) Parking volume
d) Parking turn-over
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 62
-2-
*SLRPK62*
8) The most popular pictorial representation of O.D. data is by

a) O-D matrix
b) Desire lines c) Cordon lines d) All the above
9) The maximum number of vehicles can be parked in
a) Parallel parking b) 30 parking
c) 90 parking
d) 45 parking
10) Background color of cautionary/warning signs is
a) White
b) Red
c) Blue
d) Green
11) The type of sign boards are placed near school are
a) Sound Horn
b) Horn Prohibited c) School Ahead d) Both b) and c)
12) Two solid yellow line marking at center of road indicates
a) No passing allowed on both side
b) Passing allowed on one side
c) Passing allowed on both side
d) Passing allowed only for left side vehicle
13) Process of joining the traffic coming from different approaches and going to
a common destination into a single stream is called
a) Diverging
b) Weaving
c) Merging
d) Crossing
14) _________ intersections allows the traffic to cross at different levels.
a) At grade
b) Grade separated
c) 3-Leg
d) 4-Leg
15) Length of the vehicle affects
a) Width of the traffic lane
b) Extra width of pavement and minimum turning radius
c) Width of shoulder and parking facilities
d) Clearances to be provided under structures such as under bridges etc.
16) Which of the following method is preferred for collecting origin and destination
data, where traffic is heavy and moves continuously.
a) Tag on car method
b) License plate method
c) Home interview method
d) Return post car method
17) Equivalent factor of Passenger Car Unit (PCU) for a passenger car is
a) 1.0
b) 2.0
c) 0.5
d) 10
18) On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of
conflict points is
a) 6
b) 11
c) 18
d) 24
19) Which of the following is indicated by warning sign
a) Left hand curve
b) Sound horn
c) Speed limit
d) Overtaking prohibited
20) When the width of the street are limited, generally preferred parking system is
a) Parallel parking
b) 45 angle parking
c) 65 angle parking
d) 90 angle parking
Set P
______________
*SLRPK62*
S
SLR-PK 62
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
II. Answer any two full questions (each carry 20 marks).
2) a) List the various objectives of traffic engineering.
6
b) Describe the visual aspects of road users affecting the highway design.
6
c) List and explain the different types of resistances to motion of a vehicle.
8
3) a) Explain the terms (i) Design hourly volume (ii) Design vehicle (iii) Spot
speeds.
6
b) A vehicle moving at 40 kmph speed was stopped by applying the brake
and the length of skid mark was 12.2 m. If the average skid resistance of
the pavement is known to be 0.7. Determine the brake efficiency of the
test vehicle.
4
c) The consolidated data collected from speed and delay studies by floating
car method on a stretch of urban road of length 3.5 km, running
North-South are given below. Determine the average value of (i) Traffic volume
(ii) Journey speed (iii) Running speed of the traffic along each direction. 10
T
Set P
SLR-PK 62
-4-
*SLRPK62*
4) a) Discuss the various types of parking with neat sketches.

b) Outline causes of accidents and suggest remedial measures for prevention.
c) Explain with neat sketches, condition and collision diagram.
8
8
4
SECTION II
III. Answer any two full questions (each carry 20 marks).
5) a) Describe the main functions of traffic control devices.
6
b) Write a note on regulation of speed.
6
c) With neat sketch explain the different types of mandatory signs.
8
6) a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of traffic signals.
6
b) Write a note on lighting layouts for highway and intersections.
6
c) Explain the various types of traffic signals and their functions.
8
7) a) List the different types of automatic equipments used in traffic volume
studies. Explain any one in detail.
8
b) Explain (i) Bump integrator (ii) Floating car method (iii) Road side interview
method.
12
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 62
*SLRPK62*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
I. 1) Which of the following method is preferred for collecting origin and destination
a) 1.0
b) 2.0
c) 0.5
d) 10
conflict points is
a) 6
b) 11
c) 18
d) 24
a) Left hand curve
b) Sound horn
c) Speed limit
a) Parallel parking
b) 45 angle parking
c) 65 angle parking
d) 90 angle parking
6) The prime idea of drawing the condition diagram is
a)
b)
c)
d)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 62
-2-
*SLRPK62*

d) All the above
d) Vertical curves
a) 18 m
b) 20 m
c) 16 m
d) 12 m
c) Traffic numbers
d) All the above
a) Parking load
b) Parking index
c) Parking volume
a) O-D matrix
c) 90 parking
d) 45 parking
a) White
b) Red
c) Blue
d) Green
a) Sound Horn
a) Diverging
b) Weaving
c) Merging
d) Crossing
a) At grade
b) Grade separated
c) 3-Leg
d) 4-Leg
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK62*
S
SLR-PK 62
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
6
6
8
speeds.
6
test vehicle.
4
T
Set Q
SLR-PK 62
-4-
*SLRPK62*

8
8
4
SECTION II
6
6
8
6
6
8
8
method.
12
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 62
*SLRPK62*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
I. 1) The type of sign boards are placed near school are

a) Sound Horn

a) Diverging
b) Weaving
c) Merging
d) Crossing
a) At grade
b) Grade separated
c) 3-Leg
d) 4-Leg
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 62
*SLRPK62*
-2-

a) 1.0
b) 2.0
c) 0.5
d) 10
conflict points is
a) 6
b) 11
c) 18
d) 24
a) Left hand curve
b) Sound horn
c) Speed limit
a) Parallel parking
b) 45 angle parking
c) 65 angle parking
d) 90 angle parking
a)
b)
c)
d)

d) All the above
d) Vertical curves
a) 18 m
b) 20 m
c) 16 m
d) 12 m
c) Traffic numbers
d) All the above
a) Parking load
b) Parking index
c) Parking volume
a) O-D matrix
c) 90 parking
a) White
b) Red
c) Blue
______________
d) 45 parking
d) Green
Set R
*SLRPK62*
S
SLR-PK 62
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
6
6
8
speeds.
6
test vehicle.
4
T
Set R
SLR-PK 62
-4-
*SLRPK62*

8
8
4
SECTION II
6
6
8
6
6
8
8
method.
12
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 62
*SLRPK62*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
I. 1) Enoscope technique is used to find out

c) Traffic numbers
d) All the above
a) Parking load
b) Parking index
c) Parking volume
a) O-D matrix
c) 90 parking
a) White
b) Red
c) Blue
d) 45 parking
d) Green

a) Sound Horn
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 62
-2-
*SLRPK62*
a) Diverging
b) Weaving
c) Merging
d) Crossing
a) At grade
b) Grade separated
c) 3-Leg
d) 4-Leg
a) 1.0
b) 2.0
c) 0.5
d) 10
conflict points is
a) 6
b) 11
c) 18
d) 24
a) Left hand curve
b) Sound horn
c) Speed limit
a) Parallel parking
b) 45 angle parking
c) 65 angle parking
d) 90 angle parking
b)
c)
d)
a)
d) All the above
d) Vertical curves
a) 18 m
b) 20 m
c) 16 m
d) 12 m
Set S
______________
*SLRPK62*
S
SLR-PK 62
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
6
6
8
speeds.
6
test vehicle.
4
T
Set S
SLR-PK 62
-4-
*SLRPK62*

8
8
4
SECTION II
6
6
8
6
6
8
8
method.
12
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 63
*SLRPK63*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective II : SOLID AND HAZARDOUS AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question

No. 2 to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in
Section II and solve any two questions from the remaining.
clearly.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
(102=20)
1) Recovery of energy in the form of heat is obtained from

a) Combustion process
b) Sanitary land filling
c) Anaerobic process
d) None of these
2) Mechanical size reduction operation includes
a) Shredding
b) Grinding
c) Milling
d) All of above
3) The pyrolysis process of SWM is
a) Endothermic
c) Heterothermic
b) Exothermic
d) None of these
4) Substances that emit ionizing radiation are defined as

a) Hazardous waste
b) Biological wastes
c) Flammable wastes
d) Radioactive wastes
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 63
*SLRPK63*
-2-
5) Explosive waste may not exist in

a) Solid form
c) Solid, liquid and gaseous form
b) Liquid form
d) None of above
6) Which of the following is not a problem with landfills ?

a) Incomplete decomposition
b) Methane production
c) Settling
d) Increasing runoff into lakes and stream
7) The Biomedical Waste Management Act were enacted in
a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
8) The anaerobic method of mechanical composting is
a) Indore method
b) Mangalore method
c) Bangalore method
d) None of these
9) Stoichiometric amount of air for combustion of solid waste means
a) Amount of oxygen required for burning
b) Amount of carbon required for burning
c) Amount of sulphur required for burning
d) None of these
10) The corresponding concentration of gas in leachate can be computed using
Henrys law
a) Cs = K s P
b) Cs = K s K t
c) Cs = t 60
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK63*
SLR-PK 63
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Estimate the moisture content of solid waste sample of 100 kg using the
following data :
Sr. No. Component
% by mass
% by Moisture content
1
2
Food waste
Paper
15
38
70
08
Cardboards
05
05
4
5
Plastic
Grass
12
12
02
55
Wood
09
04
Metals
15
04
b) Explain the functional element of municipal solid waste management with

flow diagram.
3. a) Write the importance of processing of solid waste before it can be subjected

to composting.
b) Write the different types of composting and explain any one in details.
7
Set P
SLR-PK 63
-4-
*SLRPK63*
4. a) Write in brief Municipal Solid Waste (Management and Handling) Rule.
b) Explain in brief the different factors affecting incineration.
c) Write short note on pyrolysis and its products.
5. a) Explain with figure the different types of magnetic separation.
b) Write the use of different industrial waste.
SECTION II
Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve any two questions from the
remaining.
6. a) Explain in detail qualitative estimation of damages.
b) Write a note on Risk Management.
c) Explain in brief how will you minimize the damage due to manmade hazard.
7. a) Explain the different points to be considered in maintaining of sanitary land

filling site.
b) Explain the different techniques used to control of contamination of ground

water.
8. a) Define hazardous waste. Explain in details natural and manmade hazards.
b) Write the site selection criteria for sanitary landfilling.

9. a) Explain in details any hazard episode.
b) Write a detailed note on Waste Minimization.
7
6
7
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 63
*SLRPK63*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

clearly.
Marks : 20
(102=20)

d) None of these
Henrys law
a) Cs = K s P
b) Cs = K s K t
c) Cs = t 60
d) None of these

a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 63
*SLRPK63*
-2-

a) Indore method
b) Mangalore method
c) Bangalore method
d) None of these
d) None of these
a) Shredding
b) Grinding
c) Milling
d) All of above
a) Endothermic
c) Heterothermic
b) Exothermic
d) None of these

a) Hazardous waste
c) Flammable wastes
a) Solid form
b) Liquid form
d) None of above

c) Settling
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK63*
SLR-PK 63
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

clearly.
SECTION I
following data :
Sr. No. Component
% by mass
1
2
Food waste
Paper
15
38
70
08
Cardboards
05
05
4
5
Plastic
Grass
12
12
02
55
Wood
09
04
Metals
15
04

flow diagram.

to composting.
7
Set Q
SLR-PK 63
-4-
*SLRPK63*
SECTION II
remaining.

filling site.

water.

7
6
7
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 63
*SLRPK63*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

clearly.
Marks : 20

a) Solid form
(102=20)
b) Liquid form
d) None of above

c) Settling
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 63
*SLRPK63*
-2-

Henrys law
a) Cs = K s P
b) Cs = K s K t
c) Cs = t 60
d) None of these

a) Endothermic
c) Heterothermic
b) Exothermic
d) None of these

a) Hazardous waste
c) Flammable wastes
d) None of these
a) Shredding
b) Grinding
c) Milling
d) All of above
a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
a) Indore method
b) Mangalore method
c) Bangalore method
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK63*
SLR-PK 63
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

clearly.
SECTION I
following data :
Sr. No. Component
% by mass
1
2
Food waste
Paper
15
38
70
08
Cardboards
05
05
4
5
Plastic
Grass
12
12
02
55
Wood
09
04
Metals
15
04

flow diagram.

to composting.
7
Set R
SLR-PK 63
-4-
*SLRPK63*
SECTION II
remaining.

filling site.

water.

7
6
7
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 63
*SLRPK63*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

clearly.
Marks : 20

a) Endothermic
c) Heterothermic
(102=20)
b) Exothermic
d) None of these

a) Hazardous waste
c) Flammable wastes
a) Solid form
b) Liquid form
d) None of above

c) Settling
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 63
*SLRPK63*
-2-

a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
a) Indore method
b) Mangalore method
c) Bangalore method
d) None of these
d) None of these
Henrys law
a) Cs = K s P
b) Cs = K s K t
c) Cs = t 60
d) None of these

d) None of these
a) Shredding
b) Grinding
c) Milling
d) All of above
______________
Set S
*SLRPK63*
SLR-PK 63
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

clearly.
SECTION I
following data :
Sr. No. Component
% by mass
1
2
Food waste
Paper
15
38
70
08
Cardboards
05
05
4
5
Plastic
Grass
12
12
02
55
Wood
09
04
Metals
15
04

flow diagram.

to composting.
7
Set S
SLR-PK 63
-4-
*SLRPK63*
SECTION II
remaining.

filling site.

water.

7
6
7
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 64
*SLRPK64*
S
Set

Elective II : DESIGN OF BRIDGES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Marks : 20
1. Give the correct option for the following questions :
(120=20)
1) Culvert is the type of bridge whose span is

a) Between 6 m 60 m
b) Above 60 m
c) Less than 6 m
d) None of these
2) For small bridges, with open foundations, the economical span is approximately
equal to ___________ times height of Pier.
a) 2.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.0
d) 1.5
3) Pigeauds method is most useful when K is more than
a) 0.44
b) 0.50
c) 0.55
d) 0.60
4) For spans greater than 9 m, impact factor for wheeled vehicle is

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 15%
5) The ground contact length of the track of IRC class AA loading is
a) 3.6 m
b) 4.57 m
c) 3.5 m
d) None of these
6) Impact force for IRC class A and B is given by
a)
b)
B
c)
d) None of these
A
7) Total load of class AA wheeled is

a) 700 kN
b) 400 kN
c) 554 kN
d) 332 kN
8) Braking force is assumed to act along the line parallel to roadway and
____________ above it.
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 1.8 m
d) 2.0 m
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 64
-2-
*SLRPK64*
9) Solid deck slab is adopted for spans

a) More than 8 m
b) More than 20 m
c) Less than 8 m
d) Between 10-25 m
10) Aqueduct is the classification of bridge according to
a) Material
b) Function
c) Type of super structure
d) Inter-span relationship
11) Following is not the function of the pier cap or abutment cap
a) Provides immediate bearing surface for the support of the super structure at
pier and abutment location
b) Disperses the strip load from bearing to the substructure evenly
c) Prevent rain water from dripping down the sides and ends of the pier
d) Resist all horizontal forces acting on bridges
12) In case of urban site, suitable pier is
a) Cellular pier
b) Trestle pier
c) Inboard pier
d) Hammerhead pier
13) Following is not type of Expansion bearing
a) Sliding plate beam
b) Steel roller-cum-rocker bearing
c) Elastomeric bearing
d) Rocker bearing
14) Two span girder requires
a) Fixed bearing at central support and expansion bearing at the two abutments
b) Fixed bearing at all supports
c) Expansion bearing on all supports
d) Expansion bearing at central support and fixed bearing at the two abutments
15) In case of curved bridges, suitable bearing is
a) Fixed bearing
b) Expansion bearing
c) Rocker bearing
d) Steel hinge
16) According to bridge code, all abutments to be designed for a live load surcharge
of height of earth fill is
a) 1 m
b) 1.2 m
c) 1.4 m
d) 1.6 m
17) Expansion bearing allow
a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
c) Both rotation as well as translation
d) Restrict rotation as well as translation
18) For Road Bridge minimum required grip length is specified as
a) the maximum scour depth
b) 1/3 the maximum scour depth
c) 2/3 the maximum scour depth
d) Equal to the maximum scour depth
19) The minimum height of Kerb may be taken as _______ above the road level.
a) 250 mm
b) 225 mm
c) 600 mm
d) 300 mm
20) Out of the following which cross section of the bridge pier is found to be economical ?
a) Circular c/s
b) Rectangular c/s
c) Square c/s
d) Cant say
______________
Set P
*SLRPK64*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 64

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions each from Section I and Section II.
SECTION I
2. Answer the following :
(3.54=14)
A) What are the characteristics of an ideal site for a major bridge across a river ?
B) What are the basic components of bridge structure ? Explain with the help of sketch.
C) What are the requirements of bar sizes and spacing to ensure crack control in
concrete ?
D) Write a note on Courbons theory.
3. Design a solid deck slab for Two lane bridge with following data :
a) Effective span 8 m
b) Carriage way width 9 m
c) Kerb 600 275 on both sides
d) Live load IRC Class AA Tracked
e) Wearing coat 100 mm thick
f) Use M-30 concrete and Fe 415 steel
g) Use = 2.6
13
4. A RCC T beam type bridge having deck slab of 220 mm thick, wearing coat of 80 mm thick,
three longitudinal girders and five cross girders. Design longitudinal girders for following
additional data.
a) Carriage way width 7.5 m
b) Span of bridge 14 m
c) Live load IRC class A two lane
d) Kerb 600 mm wide, 400 mm deep
e) Web thickness for longitudinal and cross girder 300 mm
f) Longitudinal girder spacing 275 mm
g) Use M-30 concrete and Fe-415 steel.
13
A) Explain the Pigeauds theory for the analysis of slab panels. What are the limitations
of this theory ?
B) What is economic span ? How it is calculated ? Derive the equation for the same.
7
6
Set P
SLR-PK 64
-4-
*SLRPK64*
SECTION II
6. Verify the adequacy of pier for the following data :
Top width of pier 1.7 m, Height of pier upto springing level 12 m, C/C distance of
bearing 1 m, Side batter 1 : 14, HFL 1.2 m below the bearing level, Span of
bridge 15 m, Reaction due to D.L. from each span = 210 kN, Live load IRC class AA
tracked, Material of pier = M 20 concrete.
13
7. Verify the suitability of abutment as shown in the Fig 7.1. Use following data : Density
of soil 17.5 kN/m3, Friction angle of soil () = 32, Coefficient of friction 0.6, Live
load IRC class AA tracked.
13
Fig. 7.1
8. A) Design a elastomeric unreinforced bearing pad for following data
Vertical load (sustained) = 196 kN
Vertical load (dynamic) = 46 kN
Horizontal force = 56 kN
Modulus of rigidity of elastomer 1 N/mm2
Coefficient of friction = 0.3.
B) Write a note on Inspection of bridges.
9. Write a note on following (Any four) :
a) Erection methods for bridges.
b) Well foundation.
c) Expansion joints.
d) Types of bearing.
e) Reinforced earth retaining wall.
_____________________
8
5
(3.54=14)
Set P
SLR-PK 64
*SLRPK64*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(120=20)
a) 1 m
b) 1.2 m
c) 1.4 m
d) 1.6 m
a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
a) 250 mm
b) 225 mm
c) 600 mm
d) 300 mm
a) Circular c/s
b) Rectangular c/s
c) Square c/s
d) Cant say
a) Between 6 m 60 m
b) Above 60 m
c) Less than 6 m
d) None of these
a) 2.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.0
d) 1.5
a) 0.44
b) 0.50
c) 0.55
d) 0.60
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 64
*SLRPK64*
-2-

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 15%
a) 3.6 m
b) 4.57 m
c) 3.5 m
d) None of these
a)
b)
B
c)
d) None of these
A

a) 700 kN
b) 400 kN
c) 554 kN
d) 332 kN
____________ above it.
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 1.8 m
d) 2.0 m
a) More than 8 m
c) Less than 8 m
b) More than 20 m
d) Between 10-25 m

a) Material
b) Function
a) Cellular pier
c) Inboard pier
b) Trestle pier
d) Hammerhead pier

d) Rocker bearing
a) Fixed bearing
c) Rocker bearing
d) Steel hinge
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK64*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 64

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(3.54=14)
concrete ?
g) Use = 2.6
13
additional data.
13
of this theory ?
7
6
Set Q
SLR-PK 64
-4-
*SLRPK64*
SECTION II
13
13
Fig. 7.1
b) Well foundation.
_____________________
8
5
(3.54=14)
Set Q
SLR-PK 64
*SLRPK64*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)

a) Cellular pier
c) Inboard pier
b) Trestle pier
d) Hammerhead pier

d) Rocker bearing
a) Fixed bearing
c) Rocker bearing
d) Steel hinge
a) 1 m
b) 1.2 m
c) 1.4 m
d) 1.6 m
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 64
*SLRPK64*
-2-

a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
a) 250 mm
b) 225 mm
c) 600 mm
d) 300 mm
a) Circular c/s
b) Rectangular c/s
c) Square c/s
d) Cant say
a) Between 6 m 60 m
b) Above 60 m
c) Less than 6 m
d) None of these
a) 2.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.0
d) 1.5
a) 0.44
b) 0.50
c) 0.55
d) 0.60
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 15%
a) 3.6 m
b) 4.57 m
c) 3.5 m
d) None of these
a)
b)
B
c)
d) None of these
A

a) 700 kN
b) 400 kN
c) 554 kN
d) 332 kN
____________ above it.
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 1.8 m
d) 2.0 m
a) More than 8 m
c) Less than 8 m
b) More than 20 m
d) Between 10-25 m

a) Material
b) Function
______________
Set R
*SLRPK64*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 64

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(3.54=14)
concrete ?
g) Use = 2.6
13
additional data.
13
of this theory ?
7
6
Set R
SLR-PK 64
-4-
*SLRPK64*
SECTION II
13
13
Fig. 7.1
b) Well foundation.
_____________________
8
5
(3.54=14)
Set R
SLR-PK 64
*SLRPK64*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)

a)
b)
B
c)
d) None of these
A

a) 700 kN
b) 400 kN
c) 554 kN
d) 332 kN
____________ above it.
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 1.8 m
d) 2.0 m
a) More than 8 m
c) Less than 8 m
b) More than 20 m
d) Between 10-25 m

a) Material
b) Function
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 64
-2-
*SLRPK64*

a) Cellular pier
b) Trestle pier
c) Inboard pier
d) Hammerhead pier
d) Rocker bearing
a) Fixed bearing
c) Rocker bearing
d) Steel hinge
a) 1 m
b) 1.2 m
c) 1.4 m
d) 1.6 m
a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
a) 250 mm
b) 225 mm
c) 600 mm
d) 300 mm
a) Circular c/s
b) Rectangular c/s
c) Square c/s
d) Cant say
a) Between 6 m 60 m
b) Above 60 m
c) Less than 6 m
d) None of these
a) 2.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.0
d) 1.5
a) 0.44
b) 0.50
c) 0.55
d) 0.60
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 15%
a) 3.6 m
b) 4.57 m
c) 3.5 m
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK64*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 64

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(3.54=14)
concrete ?
g) Use = 2.6
13
additional data.
13
of this theory ?
7
6
Set S
SLR-PK 64
-4-
*SLRPK64*
SECTION II
13
13
Fig. 7.1
b) Well foundation.
_____________________
8
5
(3.54=14)
Set S
SLR-PK 65
*SLRPK65*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective II : INFRASTRUCTURAL ENGINEERING (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries two mark.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer. Each MCQ question carries two marks :
(102=20)
1) Which of the following is not role of Government in Public Private Partnership ?

a) Ensure transparency
b) Ensure value for money
c) Expertise and innovation
d) Identify needs in terms of output
2) Which of the following is role of private sector in Public Private Partnership ?
a) Access to private finance
b) Sufficient return to investors
c) Providing the facility and service d) All of the above
3) What is meant by the term BOO ?
a) Build Operate Own
c) Build Opt Operate
b) Build Own Operate

d) Building Own Operate
4) Which of the following is correct term for DBFM ?

a) Design Build Finance Maintain
b) Design Building Finance Maintain
c) Design Build Finance Manage
d) Develop Build Finance Manage
5) Which of the following is benefit for Private sector of Public Private
Partnership ?
a) Innovative solutions
b) Export opportunities
c) Construction management
d) Sharing the assets
6) Which of the following is not risk in Infrastructure ?
a) Demand risk
b) Economic risk
c) Agricultural risk
d) Political risk
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 65
-2-
*SLRPK65*
7) Which of the following is not principle of Public Private Partnership ?

a) Ownership by stakeholder
b) Joint venture
c) Simplicity in usage and management
d) Flexibility
8) Which of following is not the principle aspect of sustainable development ?
a) Energy
b) Environmental
c) Social
d) Economic
9) Which of the following is not one of the key challenges for sustainability ?
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste
d) Rural development
10) What is meant by the term OBA contract ?
a) Output Based Assistance
b) Output Build Aid
c) Operate Build Assistance
d) Output Based Aid
______________
Set P
*SLRPK65*
-3-
SLR-PK 65
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and any three
questions from Section II.
2) Assume necessary data if required and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the term Life Cycle Costing (LCC).
b) Give the list and explain major issues in Railway sector.
10
3. a) What are the benefits of a Public Private Partnership ?
b) In what circumstances should a Public Private Partnership be considered ?

4. a) Draw a neat diagram for model of public private partnership.
b) What are the role and responsibilities of Private agencies in Public Private
Partnership ?
5. a) Enlist the project planning activities.
b) Enlist and explain the potential application of DBOF and state its potential
strengths and weakness.
9
4
9
4
9
SECTION II
6. a) Write a short note on Project closure activities.
b) Draw and explain a schematic diagram of work flow of five phase project
management.
4
10
Set P
SLR-PK 65
-4-
*SLRPK65*
7. a) Write a note on BOT (Toll) model.
b) Explain the BOT (Annuity) model.
8. a) Write in brief on Risk Management in Public Private Partnership.
b) Explain the role of asset management in risk reduction.
9. a) Write short note on technology and innovation.
b) What are the main advantages of adopting sustainability principles for building
and infrastructure ?
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 65
*SLRPK65*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(102=20)
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste

b) Output Build Aid
d) Output Based Aid

b) Joint venture
d) Flexibility
a) Energy
b) Environmental
c) Social
d) Economic


P.T.O.
SLR-PK 65
*SLRPK65*
-2-



Partnership ?
a) Demand risk
b) Economic risk
d) Political risk
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK65*
-3-
SLR-PK 65
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

Partnership ?
9
4
9
4
9
SECTION II
management.
4
10
Set Q
SLR-PK 65
-4-
*SLRPK65*
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 65
*SLRPK65*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(102=20)
1) Which of the following is benefit for Private sector of Public Private Partnership ?

a) Demand risk
b) Economic risk
d) Political risk
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste

b) Output Build Aid
d) Output Based Aid



P.T.O.
SLR-PK 65
-2-
*SLRPK65*

b) Joint venture
d) Flexibility
a) Energy
b) Environmental
c) Social
d) Economic
______________
Set R
*SLRPK65*
-3-
SLR-PK 65
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

Partnership ?
9
4
9
4
9
SECTION II
management.
4
10
Set R
SLR-PK 65
-4-
*SLRPK65*
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 65
*SLRPK65*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(102=20)



Partnership ?

a) Demand risk
b) Economic risk
d) Political risk

b) Joint venture
d) Flexibility
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 65
-2-
*SLRPK65*

a) Energy
b) Environmental
c) Social
d) Economic
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste
b) Output Build Aid
d) Output Based Aid
______________
Set S
*SLRPK65*
-3-
SLR-PK 65
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

Partnership ?
9
4
9
4
9
SECTION II
management.
4
10
Set S
SLR-PK 65
-4-
*SLRPK65*
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 66
*SLRPK66*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective III : ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. Chooe the correct option :
20
1) In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups

provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 12 legged
c) 8 legged
d) 10 legged
2) For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum
negative to maximum positive radial moment, is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
3) Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as
a) drop panel
b) capital
c) column head
d) none of these
4) According to I.S. : 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles
at its edges, is kept less than
a) 20 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 50 cm
5) A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %
6) The advantage of a concrete pile over a timber pile, is
a) no decay due to termites
b) no restriction on length
c) higher bearing capacity
d) all the above
7) In water tank, for Fe250 the permissible tensile stress in the reinforcement near the
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
8) The weight of a foundation is assumed as
a) 5 % of wall weight
b) 7 % of wall weight
c) 10 % of wall weight
d) 12 % of wall weight
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 66
*SLRPK66*
-2-
9) A pile of length L carrying a uniformly distributed load W per metre length is

suspended at two points, the maximum, B.M. at the centre of the pile or at the
points of suspension, is
a)
WL
8
b)
WL
c)
24
10) On piles, the drop must be at least

a) 80 cm
b) 100 cm
WL
47
c) 120 cm
d)
WL
26
d) 140 cm
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 205 N/mm2
d) 190 N/mm2
12) The diameter of the column head support a flat slab, is generally kept
a) 0.25 times the diameter of the column
b) 4.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
c) 0.25 times the span length
d) none of these
13) A foundation is called shallow if its depth, is
a) one-fourth of its width
b) three-fourth of its width
c) half of its width
d) equal to its width
14) The minimum thickness of a flat slab is taken
a) L/32 for end panels without drops
b) L/36 for interior panels without drop
c) L/36 for end panels without drops
d) All the above
15) The self-weight of the footing is
a) not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
b) also considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
c) not considered for calculating the area of the footing
d) both b and c
16) In water tank, for Fe500 the permissible tensile stress in the reinforcement away
from water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 245 N/mm2
c) 205 N/mm2
d) 190 N/mm2
17) The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is
a) one-fourth the width of the panel
b) radius of the column
c) half the width of the panel
d) none of these
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
19) A foundation rests on
a) base of the foundation
c) foundation soil
b) subgrade
d) both (b) and (c)
from water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
______________
Set P
*SLRPK66*
-3-
SLR-PK 66
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :
i) Answer any two questions from each Section.

ii) Use of IS 456 and IS 3370 Part IV are allowed.
iii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iv) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Design a reinforced concrete combined footing for two columns A and B located 3.5 m
apart. The size of column are 400 mm 400 mm and 600 mm 600 mm. The loads
acting on the columns are 900 kN and 1100 kN respectively. The maximum length of
the footing is restricted to 6 m only. The safe bearing capacity of soil may be taken as
250 kN/m2. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe415 steel.
20
3. An R.C. column 450 mm 450 mm carrying a load of 750 kN is supported on three

piles 450 mm 450 mm in section. The centre to centre distance between the pile is
1.5 m. Design a suitable pile cap. Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe500 steel.
20
4. a) A circular slab is to be provided for 5.5 m diameter hall. The live load on the slab is
2000 N/m2. Design the simply supported circular slab. Assume fixity at the support.
Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe415 steel.
12
b) Sketch the reinforcement details for grid slab.
SECTION II
5. A rectangular water tank 5 m 4 m 2.5 m deep rest on firm ground. Design the tank by
IS code method. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe415 steel.
20
Set P
SLR-PK 66
-4-
*SLRPK66*
6. Design an underground water tank 4.2 m 10 m 3 m deep. The subsoil consists of

sand having angle of repose of 30 and saturated unit weight of 18 kN/m3. The water
table is likely to rise up to ground level. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe415 steel.
Take unit weight of water as 9.81 kN/m3.
20
7. Design a circular water tank with fixed base for capacity of 4 lakh litres. The depth of
water is to be 4 m including a free board of 200 mm. Use M25 grade of concrete and
Fe500 steel. The tank is free at top and rest on the ground. Take unit weight of water as
9.8 kN/m3.
20
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 66
*SLRPK66*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20
from water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 245 N/mm2
c) 205 N/mm2
d) 190 N/mm2
d) none of these
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
c) foundation soil
b) subgrade
d) both (b) and (c)
from water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 12 legged
c) 8 legged
d) 10 legged
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) drop panel
b) capital
c) column head
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 66
*SLRPK66*
-2-
a) 20 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 50 cm
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %
d) all the above
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a)
WL
8
b)
WL
c)
24

a) 80 cm
b) 100 cm
WL
47
c) 120 cm
d)
WL
26
d) 140 cm
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 205 N/mm2
d) 190 N/mm2
d) none of these
d) All the above
d) both b and c
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK66*
-3-
SLR-PK 66
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
20

20
12
SECTION II
20
Set Q
SLR-PK 66
-4-
*SLRPK66*

20
9.8 kN/m3.
20
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 66
*SLRPK66*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 205 N/mm2
d) 190 N/mm2
d) none of these
d) All the above
d) both b and c
from water face is
b) 245 N/mm2
c) 205 N/mm2
d) 190 N/mm2
a) 125 N/mm2
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 66
*SLRPK66*
-2-
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
c) foundation soil
b) subgrade
d) both (b) and (c)
from water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 12 legged
c) 8 legged
d) 10 legged
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) drop panel
b) capital
c) column head
d) none of these
a) 20 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 50 cm
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %
d) all the above
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a)
WL
8
b)
WL
c)
24

a) 80 cm
b) 100 cm
WL
47
c) 120 cm
d)
WL
26
d) 140 cm
______________
Set R
*SLRPK66*
-3-
SLR-PK 66
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
20

20
12
SECTION II
20
Set R
SLR-PK 66
-4-
*SLRPK66*

20
9.8 kN/m3.
20
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 66
*SLRPK66*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

d) all the above
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a)
WL
8
b)
WL
24

a) 80 cm
b) 100 cm
c)
WL
47
c) 120 cm
d)
WL
26
d) 140 cm
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 205 N/mm2
d) 190 N/mm2
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 66
*SLRPK66*
-2-

d) All the above
d) both b and c
from water face is
b) 245 N/mm2
c) 205 N/mm2
d) 190 N/mm2
a) 125 N/mm2
d) none of these
water face is
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 125 N/mm2
c) foundation soil
b) subgrade
d) both (b) and (c)
from water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
provided are
a) 6 legged
b) 12 legged
c) 8 legged
d) 10 legged
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) drop panel
b) capital
c) column head
d) none of these
a) 20 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 50 cm
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %
______________
Set S
*SLRPK66*
-3-
SLR-PK 66
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
20

20
12
SECTION II
20
Set S
SLR-PK 66
-4-
*SLRPK66*

20
9.8 kN/m3.
20
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 67
*SLRPK67*
S

INDUSTRIAL WASTE TREATMENT (Elective III)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question No. 2
to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II
and solve any two questions from the remaining.
clearly.
one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) Adsorption is a process of removal of ______________ organics using fixed bed
of activated carbon column.
a) Volatile
b) Non biodegradable
c) Non volatile
d) Biodegradable
2) The substrate removal in ____________ is directly related to the surface area of
filter media.
a) Trickling filters
b) Activated carbon filter
c) Dual media filter
d) Membrane filter
3) The end products of anaerobic digestion are _________
a) Methane and oxygen
b) Methane and ammonia
c) Methane and carbon dioxide
d) Carbon dioxide and ammonia
4) The minimum recommended diameter of sewers, is ___________
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 15 cm
5) For the survival of fish in a river stream, the minimum dissolved oxygen is
prescribed ____________
a) 5 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 2 ppm
d) 3 ppm
6) In _______________ process the flow of ionic substances is initiated by providing
electrical potential between two electrodes.
a) Electrodialysis
b) Chemical oxidation
c) Adsorption
d) Ion exchange
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 67
-2-
*SLRPK67*
7) The cellulosic fiber separated from black liquor is partially dewatered in ______
a) Digestor
b) Separator
c) Beater
d) Decker
8) ________________ is meant for reduction of volume and the organic content of
sludge.
a) Thickening
b) Conditioning
c) Incineration
d) Digestion
9) _____________ is exposure of waste in increasing the concentration of initial
microbiological population.
a) Pickling
b) Scrubbing
c) Metabolism
d) Acclimatization
10) Desizing and scouring operation is of ________ industry.
a) Sugar
b) Textile
c) Tannery
d) Pulp and paper
11) ______________ is a process in which clarified juice is treated by passing sulphur
gas.
a) Sulphitation
b) Clarification
c) Crystallization d) Coagulation
12) Yeast sludge containing rich in proteins, carbohydrates vitamins are treated
separately for _____________
a) Segregation
b) Recycle
c) Byproduct recovery
d) High efficiency
13) ____________ is suggested for removal of strong colour in pulp and paper
industry.
a) Lime treatment
b) Biological treatment
c) Chemical recovery
d) Sedimentation
14) The degree of treatment of the acidic or alkaline waste is determined _________
a) Toxicity
b) Hardness
c) pH
d) Organic wastes
15) The intensity of microbial activities is reflected by ___________
a) Chemical oxygen demand
b) Biological oxygen demand
c) Dissolved oxygen
d) Nitrogenous oxygen demand
16) The _____________ phase of microorganisms are forced to oxidize for energy.
a) Endogenous growth
b) Log growth
c) Declining growth
d) All of above
17) In a tannery industry hides are limed with a paste of lime and _________
a) Hydrogen sulphide
b) Calcium sulphide
c) Nitrogen sulphide
d) Sodium sulphide
18) Addition of sodium sulphate to concentrated black liquor result in formation of
________
a) Green liquor
b) White liquor
c) Spent liquor
d) Lime mud
19) The milk waste becomes acidic due to composition of _______________ under
anaerobic condition.
a) Glucose
b) Lactose
c) Sucrose
d) Carbohydrates
20) Thermal reduction process involves burning and ___________
a) Absorbance
b) Precipitation
c) Oxidation
d) Steaming
______________
Set P
*SLRPK67*
S
SLR-PK 67
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question No. 2
to Question No. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain any one physio-chemical process treatment for removal of dissolved
inorganic material.
b) Explain the pollutant characteristics of industrial wastes.
3. a) Explain the actions involved in self purification of streams.
b) The data of sewage and stream flow is given below :

Parameter
Sewage
Stream
Discharge (m3/s)
90
950
DO (mg/l)
9.3 saturated
230
BOD5 (mg/l)
The deoxygenation constant (K) is 0.2/day, average velocity of flow is 0.18 m/s
and self purification constant is 3.25. Find DO deficit.
4. a) Explain in short In Plant Control Measures.
b) Explain various methods of neutralization of alkaline wastes.
6
7

I) Population equivalent.
II) By product recovery.
Set P
SLR-PK 67
-4-
*SLRPK67*
SECTION II
Instruction : Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II and solve
any two questions from the remaining.
6. a) Explain with flow diagram Massive Lime Treatment in pulp and paper industry.
b) Explain the effects of sugar mill waste on receiving streams.
7
5
7. Give the characteristics of wastewater, draw the wastewater treatment flow diagram
and explain in detail.
a) Distillery industry.
b) Dairy industry.
8. Draw manufacturing process flow diagram, indicate the sources wastes and explain
in detail.
a) Pulp and paper.
b) Tannery industry.
14
I) Operation and maintenance requirement.

II) Minimal national standards.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 67
*SLRPK67*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
clearly.
one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
b) Log growth
c) Declining growth
d) All of above
b) Calcium sulphide
d) Sodium sulphide
________
a) Green liquor
b) White liquor
c) Spent liquor
d) Lime mud
a) Glucose
b) Lactose
c) Sucrose
d) Carbohydrates
a) Absorbance
b) Precipitation
c) Oxidation
d) Steaming
a) Volatile
c) Non volatile
d) Biodegradable
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 67
-2-
*SLRPK67*

filter media.
d) Membrane filter
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 15 cm
a) 5 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 2 ppm
d) 3 ppm
a) Electrodialysis
c) Adsorption
d) Ion exchange
a) Digestor
b) Separator
c) Beater
d) Decker
sludge.
a) Thickening
b) Conditioning
c) Incineration
d) Digestion
a) Pickling
b) Scrubbing
c) Metabolism
d) Acclimatization
a) Sugar
b) Textile
c) Tannery
d) Pulp and paper
gas.
a) Sulphitation
b) Clarification
a) Segregation
b) Recycle
d) High efficiency
industry.
a) Lime treatment
d) Sedimentation
a) Toxicity
b) Hardness
c) pH
d) Organic wastes
c) Dissolved oxygen
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK67*
S
SLR-PK 67
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I
inorganic material.

Parameter
Sewage
Stream
Discharge (m3/s)
90
950
DO (mg/l)
9.3 saturated
230
BOD5 (mg/l)
6
7

Set Q
SLR-PK 67
-4-
*SLRPK67*
SECTION II
7
5
b) Dairy industry.
in detail.
a) Pulp and paper.
14

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 67
*SLRPK67*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
clearly.
one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
gas.
a) Sulphitation
b) Clarification
a) Segregation
b) Recycle
d) High efficiency
industry.
a) Lime treatment
d) Sedimentation
a) Toxicity
b) Hardness
c) pH
d) Organic wastes
c) Dissolved oxygen
b) Log growth
c) Declining growth
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 67
-2-
*SLRPK67*
b) Calcium sulphide
d) Sodium sulphide
________
a) Green liquor
b) White liquor
c) Spent liquor
d) Lime mud
a) Glucose
b) Lactose
c) Sucrose
d) Carbohydrates
a) Absorbance
b) Precipitation
c) Oxidation
d) Steaming
a) Volatile
c) Non volatile
d) Biodegradable
filter media.
d) Membrane filter
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 15 cm
a) 5 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 2 ppm
d) 3 ppm
a) Electrodialysis
c) Adsorption
d) Ion exchange
a) Digestor
b) Separator
c) Beater
d) Decker
sludge.
a) Thickening
b) Conditioning
c) Incineration
d) Digestion
a) Pickling
b) Scrubbing
c) Metabolism
d) Acclimatization
a) Sugar
b) Textile
c) Tannery
d) Pulp and paper
______________
Set R
*SLRPK67*
S
SLR-PK 67
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I
inorganic material.

Parameter
Sewage
Stream
Discharge (m3/s)
90
950
DO (mg/l)
9.3 saturated
230
BOD5 (mg/l)
6
7

Set R
SLR-PK 67
-4-
*SLRPK67*
SECTION II
7
5
b) Dairy industry.
in detail.
a) Pulp and paper.
14

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 67
*SLRPK67*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
clearly.
one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Electrodialysis
c) Adsorption
d) Ion exchange
a) Digestor
b) Separator
c) Beater
d) Decker
sludge.
a) Thickening
b) Conditioning
c) Incineration
d) Digestion
a) Pickling
b) Scrubbing
c) Metabolism
d) Acclimatization
a) Sugar
b) Textile
c) Tannery
d) Pulp and paper
gas.
a) Sulphitation
b) Clarification
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 67
-2-
*SLRPK67*

a) Segregation
b) Recycle
d) High efficiency
industry.
a) Lime treatment
d) Sedimentation
a) Toxicity
b) Hardness
c) pH
d) Organic wastes
c) Dissolved oxygen
b) Log growth
c) Declining growth
d) All of above
b) Calcium sulphide
d) Sodium sulphide
________
a) Green liquor
b) White liquor
c) Spent liquor
d) Lime mud
a) Glucose
b) Lactose
c) Sucrose
d) Carbohydrates
a) Absorbance
b) Precipitation
c) Oxidation
d) Steaming
a) Volatile
c) Non volatile
d) Biodegradable
filter media.
d) Membrane filter
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 15 cm
a) 5 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 2 ppm
d) 3 ppm
______________
Set S
*SLRPK67*
S
SLR-PK 67
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I
inorganic material.

Parameter
Sewage
Stream
Discharge (m3/s)
90
950
DO (mg/l)
9.3 saturated
230
BOD5 (mg/l)
6
7

Set S
SLR-PK 67
-4-
*SLRPK67*
SECTION II
7
5
b) Dairy industry.
in detail.
a) Pulp and paper.
14

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 68
*SLRPK68*
S
Set
t

Elective III : WATER POWER ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Question Number 1 consisting of objective type questions is compulsory.

6) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on Top of Page.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1.
1) Fossil fuels are used in

a) a nuclear-power plant
c) a hydro-power plant
b) as ordinary thermal-power plant

d) none of them
2) Identify the correct statement in regard to hydro-power

a) hydro-power stations are generally labour oriented
b) gestation period for hydro-power plant is usually small
c) the hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
d) in a hydro-power scheme, the firm power is usually high, as compared to total power
3) The minimum power, which a hydro-power plant can generate throughout the year, is called
b) Power plant load
c) Firm power
d) Water power
4) Pondage requirement in a hydro-power plant includes the need
a) to balance the varying demand
b) to compensate for wastage and spillage
c) to balance short time fluctuations in the flow
d) all of these
5) Demand factor is defined as
a) average load/maximum load
c) connected load/maximum demand
b) maximum demand/connected load

d) average load x maximum load
6) The area under a load curve gives

a) average demand
c) maximum demand
b) energy consumed
7) Load curve helps in deciding

a) total installed capacity of the plant
c) operating schedule of generating units
b) sizes of the generating units

d) all of the above
8) Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load plant ?

a) It should run at high speed
b) It should produce high voltage
c) It should be small in size
d) It should be capable of starting quickly
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 68
*SLRPK68*
-2-
9) You have to select turbines for a hydro-power plant, having 150 m head of stored water behind
the dam. The water in the reservoir is clear, and load on the power house is not likely to fluctuate
much. Which type of turbines will you generally recommend ?
a) Peltons turbines
b) Francis turbines
c) Kaplan turbines
d) None of these
10) In a reaction turbine, like a Francis turbine or Kaplan turbine
a) The potential head of water is totally changed into kinetic head
b) The potential head of water is partially changed into kinetic head
c) The potential head of water is not at all changed into kinetic head
d) All of the above are possible
11) An impulse turbine like Peltons turbine, is
a) an open body exposed to atmosphere
b) a closed body not exposed to atmosphere
c) a partially open and partially closed
d) none of these
a) power plant capacity b) power plant load
c) firm power
d) water power
13) The only statement, which is incorrect in regard to hydro-power, is
a) the system efficiency of a hydro-plant is quite high
b) the installation cost of a hydro-plant is very high
c) the running cost of a hydro-power plant is very low
d) the hydraulic turbines takes a lot of time in being put off and on
14) Cavitation will take place if the pressure of the flowing fluid at any point is
a) Equal to vapour pressure of the fluid
b) Less than the vapour pressure of the fluid
c) More than the vapour pressure of the fluid
15) A draft tube is used with
a) Pelton wheel only
c) Francis and Kaplan turbines
b) Francis turbine only

d) Any turbines
16) Regulation of a Pelton turbine is done by changing

a) Head available at nozzle
b) Area of nozzle
c) Velocity of flow from nozzle
d) Blade angle
17) The use of draft tube in a reaction turbine helps to
a) increase the flow rate
b) provide safety to turbine
c) transport water to downstream without eddies
d) reconvert the residual kinetic energy to pressure energy
18) The effective head at a turbine is
a) Gross head-head loss in penstock
b) Gross head-head loss in penstock-velocity head at turbine exit
c) Gross head-velocity head at turbine exit
19) The specific speed of a Francis turbine ranges between
a) 50-250
b) 70-350
c) 80-400
d) 100-700
20) Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
a) Peak load plant
b) Base load plant
c) Nuclear-power plant
d) Hydro-electric plant
______________
Set P
*SLRPK68*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 68

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. a) What do you understand by non-conventional sources of power generation ? What is the scope of
these sources in India ?
b)
What are the different factors to be considered while selecting the site for hydro-electric power plant ?
3. a) What do you understand by trashrack in water conductor system ? Briefly mention various design
considerations for trashracks.
b)
A runoff river plant on a stream has inflow 20 cumec and net head 30 m with provision for pondage
to meet daily peak demand with a load factor of 60%. Determine the power generation capacity of
the plant at 80% overall efficiency. If the plant runs as peaking station for 3 hours and balance
period in the day for average load, what amount of pondage is required ?
4. a) Discuss various types of penstocks used in a hydroelectric power project. Which one is the most
economical in your opinion ?
b)
Draw sketch showing the forces acting on an anchor block for a penstock in a curve. How do we
compute the base width required for anchor block ?
5. a) What are the functions of surge tank and forebay in hydro-power scheme ?
b)
6
7
6
Describe different types of surge tanks. How will you differentiate differential type with that of simple
surge tank ?
SECTION II
6. a) Draw a neat sketch of a power house and describe the main features of sub-structure and super
structure.
b)
Describe the advantages and disadvantages of underground power stations compared with over
ground power stations.
6
7
Set P
SLR-PK 68
-4-
*SLRPK68*
7. a) Discuss the differences between Pelton, Francis and Kaplan turbines and types of power plants
they are suitable for.
b)
What do you mean by specific speed of a turbine ? What are the advantages and disadvantages of
very low specific speeds in reaction turbine ?
8. a) Discuss with a typical sketch, components and working of a pumped storage hydropower generation
plant.
b)
What are base load and peak load plants ? For what type of conditions hydroelectric power is most
suitable ?
9. a) How are the ocean tides generated ? How reservoirs can be planned for power generation using
ocean tides ? State the limitations of the tidal power generation.
b)
7
6
At a power plant a Pelton wheel turbine generates 1500 kW at a head of 300 m. Number of jets is 3.
Assume overall efficiency 80% and exit blade angle 165. Velocity of water in the jet is 95% of
theoretical velocity, coefficient of discharge is 0.98 and speed ratio is 0.46. Determine the discharge
of water in cumec and required size of the jet.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 68
*SLRPK68*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1.

b) Area of nozzle
d) Blade angle
a) 50-250
b) 70-350
c) 80-400
d) 100-700

a) Peak load plant
b) Base load plant

d) none of them

b) Power plant load
c) Firm power
d) Water power
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 68
*SLRPK68*
-2-

d) all of these


a) average demand
c) maximum demand
b) energy consumed


d) all of the above
a) Peltons turbines
b) Francis turbines
c) Kaplan turbines
d) None of these
d) none of these
c) firm power
d) water power

d) Any turbines
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK68*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 68

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
b)
b)
b)
b)
6
7
6
surge tank ?
SECTION II
structure.
b)
6
7
Set Q
SLR-PK 68
-4-
*SLRPK68*
b)
plant.
b)
suitable ?
b)
7
6
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 68
*SLRPK68*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1.

d) none of these
c) firm power
d) water power

d) Any turbines

b) Area of nozzle
d) Blade angle
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 68
*SLRPK68*
-2-

a) 50-250
b) 70-350
c) 80-400
d) 100-700
a) Peak load plant
b) Base load plant

d) none of them

b) Power plant load
c) Firm power
d) Water power
d) all of these


a) average demand
c) maximum demand
b) energy consumed


d) all of the above
a) Peltons turbines
b) Francis turbines
c) Kaplan turbines
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK68*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 68

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
b)
b)
b)
b)
6
7
6
surge tank ?
SECTION II
structure.
b)
6
7
Set R
SLR-PK 68
-4-
*SLRPK68*
b)
plant.
b)
suitable ?
b)
7
6
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 68
*SLRPK68*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1.

a) average demand
c) maximum demand
b) energy consumed


d) all of the above

a) Peltons turbines
b) Francis turbines
c) Kaplan turbines
d) None of these
d) none of these
c) firm power
d) water power
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 68
*SLRPK68*
-2-


d) Any turbines

b) Area of nozzle
d) Blade angle
a) 50-250
b) 70-350
c) 80-400
d) 100-700
a) Peak load plant
b) Base load plant

d) none of them

b) Power plant load
c) Firm power
d) Water power
d) all of these

______________
Set S
*SLRPK68*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 68

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
b)
b)
b)
b)
6
7
6
surge tank ?
SECTION II
structure.
b)
6
7
Set S
SLR-PK 68
-4-
*SLRPK68*
b)
plant.
b)
suitable ?
b)
7
6
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 69
*SLR-PK-69*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Part II) (Civil) (Old) Examination, 2016

Elective III : ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : a) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

b) Solve any three questions from each Section I and Section II.
c) Assume additional data if required and state it clearly.
d) Figures on the right indicate full marks.
e) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont
forget to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q /R/S) on Top of Page.

Marks : 20
PART I

(120=20)
1) The need-hierarchy theory of motivation is given by
a) Maslow
b) Herzberg
c) Vroom
d) McGregor
2) Devaluation means
a) To reduce the value of home currency in other currency
b) To appreciate the value of home currency
c) To issue new currency in place of old currency
d) None of these
3) The marketing concerns require both fixed capital and
a) Working capital b) Share capital c) Long term capital d) Flexible capital
4) External environment of business is
a) Physical
b) Demographic c) Economic
d) All of these
5) Communication can be
a) Oral
b) Written
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
6) In Maslows need hierarchy theory, which of the following is not high order need ?
a) Safety
b) Social
c) Esteem
d) Self actualization
7) Grapewine is the term used in relation to
a) Formal communication
b) Informal communication
c) Horizontal communication
d) Vertical communication
8) Exim bank can be described as a
a) Non banking financing company
b) Commercial company
c) Non banking non financial company d) Scheduled bank
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 69
-2-
*SLR-PK-69*
9) Working capital can be used for the purchase of

a) Machinery
b) Goodwill
c) Land and building
d) Raw material
10) Working capital is represented by
a) Current liabilities
b) Current assets Current liabilities
c) Total assets Current liabilities d) Cash in hand + Stock in trade
11) Following is the one which does not affect the working capital of a firm.
a) Cash
b) Corporate tax
c) Current liabilities
d) None of these
12) SWOT analysis is analytical tool for having
a) Comparative advantage
b) Competitive advantage
c) Comprehension of current overall situation of the firm
d) None of these
13) The first commandment in marketing is
a) Know the customer
b) Know the product
c) Know the markets
d) Know the price
14) KVIC (Kahdi and Village Industry Commission) was established in
a) Third plan
b) Fourth plan
c) Second plan
d) First plan
15) Closed economy is that economy in which
a) Only export takes place
b) Money supply is fully controlled
c) Deficit financing takes place
d) Neither import nor export takes place
16) Limited company is a company in which
a) Share holders possess the ownership limited to their paid up capital
b) In which shares are issued
c) A company of government ownership
d) A registered company
17) Which direct tax gives maximum net revenue to the government ?
a) Corporate tax b) Income tax
c) Wealth tax
d) Gift tax
18) Ethics are necessary in marketing because
a) To avoid intervention by the government
b) To get recognition from the society
c) To build brand image
d) a) and b) only
19) Corporate tax is imposed by
a) State Government
b) Local Government
c) Central Government
d) Both State and Central Government
20) Entrepreneur is a person who
a) Initiate business
b) Invests capital
c) Manage the business
d) All of these
______________
Set P
*SLR-PK-69*
-3-
SLR-PK 69
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : a) Solve any three questions from each Section I and
Section II.
b) Assume additional data if required and state it clearly.
c) Figures on the right indicate full marks.
PART II
Answer any three questions from each Section.
Section I
2. a) Define the term Entrepreneur. Discuss the concept of entrepreneurship.
Discuss the reasons for entrepreneurial failure.
b) Discuss in detail the need for entrepreneurship.
3. Explain the following in detail :

a) State Financial Corporations (SFC).
b) Industrial Development Bank of India.
4. Being a civil engineer you want to start your own business unit. Write in detail
whom to approach for what for starting a small scale industry.
13
5. What do you mean by project feasibility ? Explain in detail all the components of
project feasibility.
13
Set P
SLR-PK 69
-4-
*SLR-PK-69*
Section II
6. What do you mean by taxation ? Explain the principles of taxation. Discuss in
detail the various types of taxation.
14
7. a) Define Break Even Point. Explain the concept of BEP with the help of graphical
and analytical method. Write the limitations of it.
b) Write a note on ratio analysis with its significance.
8. Give the standard format of project report that includes all the contents.
9. a) Define the term Communication. Explain the elements of communication.
Explain the various forms of communications.
b) Write a note on goal setting theory.
9
4
13
8
5
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 69
*SLR-PK-69*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100


Marks : 20
PART I

(120=20)
c) Wealth tax
d) Gift tax
d) a) and b) only
a) State Government
b) Local Government
b) Invests capital
d) All of these
a) Maslow
b) Herzberg
c) Vroom
d) McGregor
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 69
-2-
*SLR-PK-69*
d) None of these
a) Physical
d) All of these
a) Oral
b) Written
a) Safety
b) Social
c) Esteem
a) Machinery
b) Goodwill
d) Raw material
a) Cash
b) Corporate tax
d) None of these
d) None of these
b) Know the product
c) Know the markets
d) Know the price
a) Third plan
b) Fourth plan
c) Second plan
d) First plan
______________
Set Q
*SLR-PK-69*
-3-
SLR-PK 69
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Section II.
PART II
Section I

13
13
Set Q
SLR-PK 69
-4-
*SLR-PK-69*
Section II
14
9
4
13
8
5
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 69
*SLR-PK-69*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100


Marks : 20
PART I

(120=20)
a) Cash
b) Corporate tax
d) None of these
d) None of these
b) Know the product
c) Know the markets
d) Know the price
a) Third plan
b) Fourth plan
c) Second plan
d) First plan
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 69
-2-
*SLR-PK-69*

c) Wealth tax
d) Gift tax
d) a) and b) only
a) State Government
b) Local Government
b) Invests capital
d) All of these
a) Maslow
b) Herzberg
c) Vroom
d) McGregor
d) None of these
a) Physical
d) All of these
a) Oral
b) Written
a) Safety
b) Social
c) Esteem
a) Machinery
b) Goodwill
d) Raw material
______________
Set R
*SLR-PK-69*
-3-
SLR-PK 69
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Section II.
PART II
Section I

13
13
Set R
SLR-PK 69
-4-
*SLR-PK-69*
Section II
14
9
4
13
8
5
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 69
*SLR-PK-69*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100


Marks : 20
PART I

(120=20)
a) Safety
b) Social
c) Esteem
a) Machinery
b) Goodwill
d) Raw material
a) Cash
b) Corporate tax
d) None of these
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 69
-2-
*SLR-PK-69*

b) Know the product
c) Know the markets
d) Know the price
a) Third plan
b) Fourth plan
c) Second plan
d) First plan
c) Wealth tax
d) Gift tax
d) a) and b) only
a) State Government
b) Local Government
b) Invests capital
d) All of these
a) Maslow
b) Herzberg
c) Vroom
d) McGregor
d) None of these
a) Physical
d) All of these
a) Oral
b) Written
______________
Set S
*SLR-PK-69*
-3-
SLR-PK 69
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Section II.
PART II
Section I

13
13
Set S
SLR-PK 69
-4-
*SLR-PK-69*
Section II
14
9
4
13
8
5
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 70
*SLRPK70*
Seat
No.
Set

OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES (Elective III) (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) The unconstrained optimization is a type of
a) Non linear programming problem
b) Linear programming problem
c) Competitive model
d) Sequencing model
2) _________ model is a representation of reality through the use of a model or other
device which will react in the same manner as reality under a given set of conditions.
a) Queuing model
b) Inventory model
c) Simulation model
3) Linear programming deals with the optimization of a function of variable is known
as ____________
a) Subjective function
b) Objective function
c) Constraints
d) All of these
4) The vogels approximation method is also called as
a) Row Minima Method
b) Least Cost Method
c) Penalty Method
d) None
5) In simplex method the elimination of all infeasible basic solutions are achieved
by starting with a basic solution which is ____________
a) Negative
b) Non Negative c) Less than 1
d) All of these
6) In artificial variables techniques, the artificial variables are added to the constraints
of __________
b) and = type
a) and = type
c) , and = type
d) All of these
7) One disadvantage of using NWC rule to find initial solution to the transportation
problem is that __________
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 70
-2-
*SLRPK70*
8) Which of the following characteristics apply to queuing system ?

a) Customer population
b) Arrival process
c) Both a) and b)
9) A linear programming problem in which some or all of the variables must take non
negative integer values is commonly referred to as __________
a) Mathematical model
b) Simulation model
c) Integer model
d) None
10) O.R. was used in industry firstly by _______________
a) British Industries
b) U. S. Industries
c) Indian Industries
d) Japanese Industries
11) Which of the following criteria for decision making uses optimistic and pessimistic
decisions ?
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwicz
12) The shortest acyclic route network problems can be solved by __________
a) Arithmetic method
b) Graphical method
c) Statistical method
d) Simulation method
13) Monte Carlo simulation used
a) Sampling Technique
b) Decision Technique
c) Mathematical Technique
d) Both a) and b)
14) If more than one states of nature exist and there is enough information available to
assign probability to each of the possible states then that decision is known as
__________
b) Decision making under condition of risk
c) Decision making under condition of uncertainty
d) All of these
15) _________ of a function is a value which is higher than all the values of the function.
a) Global Minima
b) Global Maximum
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
16) If either the objective function and/or one or more of the constraints are non linear
in X (x1, x2, ...., xn) then problem is called as __________
a) Statistical problem
b) Simulation problem
c) Replacement problem
d) Non Linear Programming Problem
17) For a continuous and differentiable function a stationary point at which slope of
the function is
a) 0
b) 45
c) 90
d) 135
18) A function is said to have local minima at x = x*, for all values of h close to zero, if
a) f(x*) f(x* + h) b) f(x*) f(x* + h) c) f(x*) f(x)
d) f(x*) f(x)
19) The maximization or minimization of a quantity is the
a) Goal of management science
b) Decision of decision analysis
c) Constraint of operation research
d) Objective of linear programming
20) The return function in a DP model depends on
a) Stages
b) States
c) Alternatives
d) All of the above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK70*
SLR-PK 70
-3-
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Note : All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. Define optimization. State the necessary and sufficient conditions for the minimum or
maximum of an unconstrained function of several variables.
3. A firm produces three products. These products are processed on three different
machines. The time required to manufacture one unit of each of three products and
the daily capacity of the three products and the daily capacity of the three machines
are given in the table below :
Time per unit (Minute)
Machine
Product 1 Product 2 Product 3
Machine
Capacity
(min/day)
M1
440
M2
470
M3
430
It is required to determine the daily number of units to be manufactured for each product.
The product per unit for product 1, 2 and 3 is Rs. 4, 3 and 6 respectively. It is assumed
that all the amounts produced are consumed in the market. Formulate the mathematical
model that will maximize daily profit.
Set P
SLR-PK 70
-4-
*SLRPK70*
4. Solve by graphical method :

Maximize Z = X1 + 3X2
subject to ;
X1 + 4X2 10
X1 + 4X2 12
X1 X2 2
Where X, Y 0.
5. Use simplex method to solve the following problem :
Maximize Z = 4X1 + 8X2

Subject to
8X1 + 10X2 11000
4X1 + 10X2 9000
12X1 + 6X2 12000.
6. Consider the pipe network shown in the following figure which gives information about
capacities of flow of oil in both ways between different pairs of locations. Formulate
the maximum flow of oil from the location 1 to the location 5 using linear programming
model.
Set P
*SLRPK70*
SLR-PK 70
-5-
SECTION II
7. Obtain the initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem. The
cell entries represent the unit transportation cost.
Destination
Source
Supply
300
400
500
Demand
250
350
400
200
8. Answer any two :

a) Standard format of optimization problem
b) Types of optimization problem
c) Explain application of optimization techniques
d) Discuss in detail sensitivity analysis.
(72=14)
9. Determine the value of the game and optimal strategies for player P and Q.
Player Q
Player P
10. If annual demand is 10000 units, order cost is Rs. 300/ order, carrying cost is
Rs. 4/unit/year. Calculate EOQ, total cost, minimum value of total cost, no. of orders
per year and reorder period. Assume continuous demand and instantaneous
replenishment.
11. Solve the LPP using integer programming :
Maximize Z = 3X1 + X2
Subject to
2X1 X2 6
3X1 + 9X2 45
Where X1, X2 0, X1 and X2 are integers.
8
10
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 70
*SLRPK70*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
the function is
a) 0
b) 45
c) 90
d) 135
d) f(x*) f(x)
a) Stages
b) States
c) Alternatives
d) All of the above
d) Sequencing model
a) Queuing model
b) Inventory model
c) Simulation model
as ____________
c) Constraints
d) All of these
c) Penalty Method
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 70
-2-
*SLRPK70*
a) Negative
d) All of these
of __________
a) and = type
b) and = type
c) , and = type
d) All of these
d) All of these
b) Arrival process
c) Both a) and b)
b) Simulation model
c) Integer model
d) None
b) U. S. Industries
decisions ?
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwicz
b) Graphical method
d) Both a) and b)
__________
d) All of these
a) Global Minima
b) Global Maximum
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK70*
SLR-PK 70
-3-
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
Machine
Machine
Capacity
(min/day)
M1
440
M2
470
M3
430
Set Q
SLR-PK 70
-4-
*SLRPK70*

subject to ;
X1 + 4X2 10
X1 + 4X2 12
X1 X2 2
Where X, Y 0.

Subject to
8X1 + 10X2 11000
4X1 + 10X2 9000
12X1 + 6X2 12000.
model.
Set Q
*SLRPK70*
SLR-PK 70
-5-
SECTION II
Destination
Source
Supply
300
400
500
Demand
250
350
400
200
8. Answer any two :

(72=14)
Player Q
Player P
replenishment.
Subject to
2X1 X2 6
3X1 + 9X2 45
8
10
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 70
*SLRPK70*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
decisions ?
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwicz
b) Graphical method
d) Both a) and b)
__________
d) All of these
a) Global Minima
b) Global Maximum
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
the function is
a) 0
b) 45
c) 90
d) 135
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 70
-2-
*SLRPK70*
d) f(x*) f(x)
a) Stages
b) States
c) Alternatives
d) All of the above
d) Sequencing model
a) Queuing model
b) Inventory model
c) Simulation model
as ____________
c) Constraints
d) All of these
c) Penalty Method
d) None
a) Negative
d) All of these
of __________
a) and = type
b) and = type
c) , and = type
d) All of these
d) All of these
b) Arrival process
c) Both a) and b)
b) Simulation model
c) Integer model
d) None
b) U. S. Industries
______________
Set R
*SLRPK70*
SLR-PK 70
-3-
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
Machine
Machine
Capacity
(min/day)
M1
440
M2
470
M3
430
Set R
SLR-PK 70
-4-
*SLRPK70*

subject to ;
X1 + 4X2 10
X1 + 4X2 12
X1 X2 2
Where X, Y 0.

Subject to
8X1 + 10X2 11000
4X1 + 10X2 9000
12X1 + 6X2 12000.
model.
Set R
*SLRPK70*
SLR-PK 70
-5-
SECTION II
Destination
Source
Supply
300
400
500
Demand
250
350
400
200
8. Answer any two :

(72=14)
Player Q
Player P
replenishment.
Subject to
2X1 X2 6
3X1 + 9X2 45
8
10
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 70
*SLRPK70*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
of __________
b) and = type
a) and = type
c) , and = type
d) All of these
d) All of these
b) Arrival process
c) Both a) and b)
b) Simulation model
c) Integer model
d) None
b) U. S. Industries
decisions ?
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwicz
b) Graphical method
d) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 70
-2-
*SLRPK70*
__________
d) All of these
a) Global Minima
b) Global Maximum
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
the function is
a) 0
b) 45
c) 90
d) 135
d) f(x*) f(x)
a) Stages
b) States
c) Alternatives
d) All of the above
d) Sequencing model
a) Queuing model
b) Inventory model
c) Simulation model
as ____________
c) Constraints
d) All of these
c) Penalty Method
d) None
a) Negative
d) All of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK70*
SLR-PK 70
-3-
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
Machine
Machine
Capacity
(min/day)
M1
440
M2
470
M3
430
Set S
SLR-PK 70
-4-
*SLRPK70*

subject to ;
X1 + 4X2 10
X1 + 4X2 12
X1 X2 2
Where X, Y 0.

Subject to
8X1 + 10X2 11000
4X1 + 10X2 9000
12X1 + 6X2 12000.
model.
Set S
*SLRPK70*
SLR-PK 70
-5-
SECTION II
Destination
Source
Supply
300
400
500
Demand
250
350
400
200
8. Answer any two :

(72=14)
Player Q
Player P
replenishment.
Subject to
2X1 X2 6
3X1 + 9X2 45
8
10
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 71
*SLRPK71*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. Civil (Part II) Examination, 2016

Elective III : DISASTER MANAGEMENT (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1) As the magnitude of natural disasters increases their frequency of occurrence _________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Unpredictable, it could be any of them
2) As the magnitude of natural disaster increases their return period (recurrence interval) _________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
3) Which two natural hazards have caused the most damage both in terms of loss of life and monetary
losses over the past 50 years on a global scale ?
a) Hurricanes and volcanoes
b) Hurricanes and Floods
c) Hurricanes and earthquakes
d) Hurricanes and tornadoes
4) Which of the following factors helps determine whether a volcanic eruption will be violent or relatively
peaceful ?
a) The ease with which dissolved gas escapes from the magma
b) Temperature of magma
c) Composition of the magma
d) All of the above
5) The main process that causes volcanoes to explode violently is ________. Volcanoes
a) Hot convection currents in the asthenosphere that push magma upward
b) Density differences within the magma that force part of the magma upward
c) A decrease in pressure triggering rapid expansion of the gases in a magma
d) Chemically volatile substances that explode within the volcano vents
6) Which of the following hazards to humans are related to volcanic eruptions ?
a) Burial by volcanic-generated mudflows
b) Tsunami
c) Being struck by pyroclastic debris
d) All of the above
7) Urbanization usually results in an increase in flood frequency because _______
a) Speeding the passage of flood waters
b) Reducing bank erosion
c) Slowing down river velocity so as to reduce damage
d) Rainfall is greater in urban areas than in rural areas
8) Channelization of streams is designed to reduce flooding by _________
d) Increase the meandering of streams
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 71
-2-
*SLRPK71*
9) Dams are designed to reduce flooding by _________

a) Protecting river banks from erosion
b) Providing storage for flood water
c) Increasing the down stream velocity of flood water
d) Trapping sediment behind the dam so it cant be deposited down stream
10) These include actions taken to return to normal once an emergency occurs
a) Mitigation
b) Preparedness
c) Response
d) Recovery
11) Following safety standards in selecting building materials is an example of this type of activity
a) Mitigation
b) Preparedness
c) Response
d) Recovery
12) The point at which a fault first ruptures in the earth is called the
a) Hypocenter
b) Hypicenter
c) Hypercenter
d) Epicenter
13) Which of the following is not true for P waves ?
a) They have a push-pull or compression-extension motion
b) They have the greatest velocity of all seismic waves
c) They can move through solids, liquids and gases
d) Their velocity depends only on density and resistance to shearing of materials
14) Which of the following is true for S waves ?
a) They move by shaking the earth at right angles to the direction of advance
b) They arrive at seismic stations later than P waves
c) They can move only through solids
d) All of the above
15) All of the following are TRUE about disasters EXCEPT
a) A disaster may have a known and gradual onset
b) A disaster may be domestic or international
c) A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins
d) A disaster always receives widespread media coverage
16) The Mercalli intensity is useful because
a) It is the only method of assessing the energy of an earthquake
b) It allows us to assess the magnitude of historical earthquakes for which there are no instrumented
records and thus estimate recurrence intervals for major earthquakes
c) It helps determine the magnitude of small or distant earthquakes for which the Richter scale is
inadequate it helps determine the magnitude of small or distant earthquakes for which the Richter
scale is inadequate
d) It predicts the next major earthquake
17) A drought is defined as _________
a) A desert region of low rainfall
b) A time of abnormally low rainfall
c) A famine condition
d) A lack of water
18) Atmospheric pressure in the center of a tropical cyclone is ________________
a) Very high because of converging winds
b) Very high because of sinking warm air
c) Very low because of rising warm air
d) Very low because of dense sinking air
19) Cyclones that come ashore in Bangladesh cause extensive loss of human life because __________
a) They are a different type of storm than hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean
b) The country is poor and people are not aware of cyclones
c) Buildings are poorly built and winds can easily destroy them
d) Much of the population lives very close to sea level and cannot evacuate
20) Which ocean does not commonly experience tropical cyclones ?
a) North Atlantic
b) South Atlantic
c) Western Pacific
d) Eastern Pacific
______________
Set P
*SLRPK71*
-3-
SLR-PK 71
Seat
No.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q.3 to Q. 5 and any
two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain Environmental Disaster Risk Reduction using Ecosystem approach.
b) Explain the concept of Environmental hazard. What is environmental stress ?

3. a) What are the causes of Landslides ?
5
5
b) What are hazardous effects of volcanic eruptions ?

4. a) Write about mitigation of Cyclones.
8
8
b) Explain about one of the recent flood hazards in India.

5. a) Explain factors and causes of soil Erosion.
5
8
b) Write a note on population explosion.
SECTION II
6. a) Explain Pre-Disaster Risk stage in Disaster Management.
b) What are the immediate relief measures to disaster affected people ?

7. a) Explain the role of Meteorological observatory in Disaster mitigation.
5
5
b) What are programs of disaster research run by ICSU ?

8. a) Explain role of Panchayats in Disaster mitigation.
8
5
b) Explain about Environmental legislations in India.

9. a) Provide the details of disasters in Hills in India.
8
8
b) Write a note on community involvement in disaster preparedness.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 71
*SLRPK71*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

scale is inadequate

d) A lack of water

a) North Atlantic
b) South Atlantic
c) Western Pacific
d) Eastern Pacific

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 71
-2-
*SLRPK71*
peaceful ?
d) All of the above
b) Tsunami
d) All of the above
a) Mitigation
b) Preparedness
c) Response
d) Recovery
a) Mitigation
b) Preparedness
c) Response
d) Recovery
a) Hypocenter
b) Hypicenter
c) Hypercenter
d) Epicenter
d) All of the above
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK71*
-3-
SLR-PK 71
Seat
No.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I

5
5

8
8

5
8
SECTION II

5
5

8
5

8
8
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 71
*SLRPK71*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
a) Mitigation
b) Preparedness
c) Response
d) Recovery
a) Hypocenter
b) Hypicenter
c) Hypercenter
d) Epicenter
d) All of the above
scale is inadequate
d) A lack of water
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 71
-2-
*SLRPK71*
a) North Atlantic
b) South Atlantic
c) Western Pacific
d) Eastern Pacific
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
peaceful ?
d) All of the above
b) Tsunami
d) All of the above
a) Mitigation
b) Preparedness
c) Response
d) Recovery
______________
Set R
*SLRPK71*
-3-
SLR-PK 71
Seat
No.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I

5
5

8
8

5
8
SECTION II

5
5

8
5

8
8
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 71
*SLRPK71*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
b) Tsunami
d) All of the above
a) Mitigation
b) Preparedness
c) Response
d) Recovery
a) Mitigation
b) Preparedness
c) Response
d) Recovery
a) Hypocenter
b) Hypicenter
c) Hypercenter
d) Epicenter
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 71
-2-
*SLRPK71*

scale is inadequate
d) A lack of water
a) North Atlantic
b) South Atlantic
c) Western Pacific
d) Eastern Pacific
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
peaceful ?
d) All of the above
______________
Set S
*SLRPK71*
-3-
SLR-PK 71
Seat
No.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I

5
5

8
8

5
8
SECTION II

5
5

8
5

8
8
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 72
*SLRPK72*
S
Set
t
B.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2016

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1) Question No. 1 MCQ is compulsory and to be solved in 30 min.

In Q. no. 1,16 is having 2 marks.
3) While solving MCQ IS 456-2000 IS 3370 and IS 1343 are not allowed.
Marks : 20
I. Choose the correct option :

1) A square pad type footing 3.5 m in size is designed to support a square column of 400 mm
size. The effective depth of the footing is 560 mm. The safe bearing pressure below the
footing is 122.4 kPa based on ultimate loads. For two way shear the design shear force and
nomimal shear stress respectively are
a) 550 kN, 0.97 MPa
b) 425 kN, 0.22 MPa
c) 1390 kN, 0.64 MPa
d) 2980 kN, 0.97 MPa
2) If R and T are rise and tread of a stair spanning horizontally, the steps are supported by
a wall on one side and by a stringer beam on the other side, the steps are designed as
beams of width
a) R + T
b) T R
c) R2 + T2
d) R T
3) A pre-stressed concrete member
a) is made of concrete
b) is stressed after casting
c) is made of reinforced concrete
d) possesses internal stresses
c) Both of above
d) None of these
5) The thickness of base slab of a retaining wall generally provided, is
a) one half of the width of the stem at the bottom
b) width of the stem at the bottom
c) one fourth of the width of the steam at the bottom
d) twice the width of the steam at the bottom
6) If C is creep coefficient, f is original prestress in concrete, m is modular ratio, E is Youngs
modulus of steel and e is shrinkage strain, the combined effect of creep and shrinkage is
a) (1 C)mf eE
b) (C 1)mf + eE
c) (C 1)mf eE
d) (1 C)mf + eE
7) If T and R are tread and rise respectively of a stair, then
a) 2R + T = 60
b) R + 2T = 60
c) 2R + T = 30
d) R + 2T = 30
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 72
-2-
*SLRPK72*
8) The minimum head room over a stair must be

a) 200 cm
b) 205 cm
c) 210 cm
d) 230 cm
a) 4 m
b) 5 m
c) 6 m
d) 8 m
11) The system in which high tensile alloy steel bars (silica manganese steel) are used as
prestressing tendons, is known as
a) Freyssinet system
b) Magnel-Blaton system
c) C.C.L. standard system
d) Lee-McCall system
a) Large prestressing force is applied
b) Bursting stress is more
c) High bond stress is required
d) All of above
13) A pre-stressed concrete member is preferred because
a) its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress
b) large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted
c) removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage
d) all the above
14) As per IS : 1343, total shrinkage for a pretensioned beam, is
a) 3.0 102
b) 3.0 103
c) 3.0 104
d) 3.5 105
15) In water tank, for Fe250 the permissible tensile stress in the reinforcement near the water
face is
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 125 N/mm2
16) If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN is designed by
load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the
central dip of the cable profile should be
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 300 mm
d) 400 mm
17) Post tensioning system
a) was widely used in earlier days
b) is not economical and hence not generally used
c) is economical for large spans and is adopted now a days
d) none of these
a) 5% of wall weight
b) 7% of wall weight
c) 10% of wall weight
d) 12% of wall weight
19) In water tank, for Fe250 the permissible tensile stress in the reinforcement away from
water face is
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 125 N/mm2
______________
Set P
*SLRPK72*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 72

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

2) Use of IS 456, IS 1343 and IS 3370 part IV and non-programmable
calculator are allowed.
3) Draw neat sketchs where required and assume suitable data
if required and state it clearly.
SECTION I
II. Design the stem slab of a cantilever retaining wall, if the overall height of wall is 4.5 m. SBC of
soil is 180 kN/m2, angle of repose of the soil is 30 and unit weight of soil 18 kN/m2, super
imposed load due to traffic is 10000 N/m2, width of the slab base is 3.5 m, toe projection is 0.8 m.
14
III. An open rectangular tank 4 m 3 m 2.5 m deep rests on firm ground is free at top and
bottom as well as vertical edges are fixed. Design the water tank. Use M25 concrete and
Fe500 steel. Assume the free board of 300 mm. Solve by IS code method.
13
IV. A square column 400 mm 400 mm carries an axial load of 1450 kN. Design square footing
to support the column. The SBC of soil is 180 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
13
V. Design the dog-legged type staircase for a residential building using following data floor to
floor height = 3.2 m, No. of flight per floor = 2, size of steps = 175 mm riser and 250 mm trade,
live load is 3 kN/m2 and assume width of stair is 1.0 m. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
The staircase is supported on wall of width 300 mm at the end of the landing.
13
SECTION II
VI. A rectangular PSC beam has span of 16 m, supports a distributed load of 20 kN/m excluding
self weight. Determine the suitable dimension of the beam section and calculate the area and
the position of tendons. Given the permissible stress in concrete and steel 14 N/mm2 and
1025 N/mm2.
14
Set P
SLR-PK 72
-4-
*SLRPK72*
VII. A prestressed concrete beam 400 mm 600 mm in section has a span 8 m and is subjected
to a uniformly distributed load of 17 kN/m including the self wt. of the beam. The prestressing
tendons are located at lower third point of the section and provide an effective stresses in
concrete for the mid span section. Solve by following methods : stress concept method, strain
concept method, load balancing concept. Take prestressing force of 1100 kN.
13
VIII. A prestressed concrete beam 250 wide and 650 mm deep is subjected to an effective
prestressing force of 1345 kN along the longitudinal centroidal axis. The cable may be assumed
to be symmetrically placed over mild steel anchor plate in an area 150 mm 350 mm. Design
the end block by IS code method,
13
IX. A pretensioned concrete beam 300 mm 600 mm has a span of 12 m. The beam is prestressed
by steel wires of area 350 mm2 provided at a uniform eccentricity of 60 mm with an initial
prestress of 1200 N/mm2. Determine the percentage loss of stress in the wires. Take Es =
210 kN/mm2, Ec = 35 kN/mm2, ultimate creep strain = 45 106 mm/mm per N/mm2. Shrinkage
of concrete = 300 106 relaxation of steel stress = 5% of the initial stress.
13
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 72
*SLRPK72*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

In Q. no. 1,12 is having 2 marks.
Marks : 20

a) (1 C)mf eE
b) (C 1)mf + eE
c) (C 1)mf eE
d) (1 C)mf + eE
a) 2R + T = 60
b) R + 2T = 60
c) 2R + T = 30
d) R + 2T = 30
a) 200 cm
b) 205 cm
c) 210 cm
d) 230 cm
a) 4 m
b) 5 m
c) 6 m
d) 8 m
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 72
-2-
*SLRPK72*

d) all the above
a) 3.0 102
b) 3.0 103
c) 3.0 104
d) 3.5 105
face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 300 mm
d) 400 mm
d) none of these
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 550 kN, 0.97 MPa
b) 425 kN, 0.22 MPa
c) 1390 kN, 0.64 MPa
d) 2980 kN, 0.97 MPa
beams of width
a) R + T
b) T R
c) R2 + T2
d) R T
c) Both of above
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK72*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 72

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
14
13
13
13
SECTION II
1025 N/mm2.
14
Set Q
SLR-PK 72
-4-
*SLRPK72*
13
13
13
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 72
*SLRPK72*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

In Q. no. 1, 7 is having 2 marks.
Marks : 20

a) 4 m
b) 5 m
c) 6 m
d) 8 m
d) All of above
d) all the above
b) 3.0 103
c) 3.0 104
d) 3.5 105
a) 3.0 102
face is
b) 150 N/mm2
a) 125 N/mm2
2
c) 115 N/mm
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 300 mm
d) 400 mm
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 72
-2-
*SLRPK72*

d) none of these
water face is
a) 125 N/mm2
b) 150 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 550 kN, 0.97 MPa
b) 425 kN, 0.22 MPa
c) 1390 kN, 0.64 MPa
d) 2980 kN, 0.97 MPa
beams of width
a) R + T
b) T R
c) R2 + T2
d) R T
c) Both of above
d) None of these
a) (1 C)mf eE
b) (C 1)mf + eE
c) (C 1)mf eE
d) (1 C)mf + eE
a) 2R + T = 60
b) R + 2T = 60
c) 2R + T = 30
d) R + 2T = 30
a) 200 cm
b) 205 cm
c) 210 cm
d) 230 cm
______________
Set R
*SLRPK72*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 72

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
14
13
13
13
SECTION II
1025 N/mm2.
14
Set R
SLR-PK 72
-4-
*SLRPK72*
13
13
13
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 72
*SLRPK72*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

In Q. no. 1, 2 is having 2 marks.
Marks : 20

face is
b) 150 N/mm2
a) 125 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 300 mm
d) 400 mm
d) none of these
water face is
b) 150 N/mm2
a) 125 N/mm2
c) 115 N/mm2
d) 145 N/mm2
a) 550 kN, 0.97 MPa
b) 425 kN, 0.22 MPa
c) 1390 kN, 0.64 MPa
d) 2980 kN, 0.97 MPa
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 72
-2-
*SLRPK72*
beams of width
a) R + T
b) T R
c) R2 + T2
d) R T
c) Both of above
d) None of these
a) (1 C)mf eE
b) (C 1)mf + eE
c) (C 1)mf eE
d) (1 C)mf + eE
a) 2R + T = 60
b) R + 2T = 60
c) 2R + T = 30
d) R + 2T = 30
a) 200 cm
b) 205 cm
c) 210 cm
d) 230 cm
a) 4 m
b) 5 m
c) 6 m
d) 8 m
d) All of above
d) all the above
a) 3.0 102
b) 3.0 103
c) 3.0 104
d) 3.5 105
______________
Set S
*SLRPK72*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 72

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
14
13
13
13
SECTION II
1025 N/mm2.
14
Set S
SLR-PK 72
-4-
*SLRPK72*
13
13
13
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 73
*SLRPK73*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

A Group
10
B Group
1) Objective of town planning
______________
2) Parks and Gardens
______________
3) Lewis Mumford
______________
4) Nonprofit making use of land
______________
5) Ebenezer Howard
______________
6) Multidisciplinary field
______________
7) Lead to lack of social life
______________
8) Horizontal growth
______________
9) Magarpatta city, Pune
______________
10) The form of planning
______________
B Group :
Concept of garden city ; beauty-convenience-environment and health ; recreational
spaces ; six stages in town growth ; roads-parks-grounds ; town planning ;
ribbon development ; town growth according to direction ; town planning scheme ;
regional planning.
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 73
-2-
*SLRPK73*
B) Select the most appropriate option for the given statements :
10
1) Which one of the following is not an excavating type of equipment ?

2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
a) Bulldozer
b) Clam shell
c) Scraper
d) Dump truck
The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is
a) smooth wheeled roller
b) vibratory roller
c) sheep foot roller
d) tampers
For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation
equipment used is
a) hoe
b) shovel
c) dragline
d) none of these
The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is
a) kneading
b) pressing
c) tamping
d) vibration
Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a
rubber tyred vehicle ?
a) concrete
b) loose sand
c) asphalt
d) firm earth
In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional
cast-in-situ items for a large scale projects.
a) Yes, because of heavier handling cost
b) Yes, because of very high order of quality control for the factory made
component
c) No, because of repetitive manufacture of a number of elements
d) No, because of savings in site labour
Batching refers to
a) Controlling the total quantity of each batch
b) Weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing
c) Controlling the quantity of each material into each batch
d) Adjusting the water to be added in each batch
Workplace related injuries, illnesses and deaths impose costs upon
a) employers
b) employees
c) the community
d) all of these
The key element of a fire safety management system is
a) maintenance plan
b) training plan
c) fire action plan
d) none of these
The Final Technical Authority of a project is
a) Executive Engineer
b) Chief Engineer
c) Assistant Engineer
d) Deputy Engineer
______________
Set P
*SLRPK73*
-3-
SLR-PK 73
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Use single answer book for both the Sections.

Figures on right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it.
SECTION I

(58=40)
a) Discuss the important stages in the lifecycle of construction projects.
b) Explain the selection criterias of construction equipments.
c) Explain the factors affecting economic life of equipments.
d) Explain the main features of prefabricated construction and types of precast
system.
e) What is dragline ? State its limitations.
f) Explain Construction Safety Rules.
g) Explain the concept and equipments used for Compaction of earth.
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
(58=40)
a) Describe the objects of traffic management.
b) Discuss the principles of village planning.
c) Why town planning is necessary ?
d) Explain the advantages of zoning and state the necessity of Planning laws
and legislation.
e) Enlist the factors contributing to road aesthetics.
f) What is ribbon development ? What are its disadvantages ?
g) Discuss the important provisions of MRTP Act 1966 with proper description.
h) Explain the relevance of town planning in view of smart city development of
Solapur city.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 73
*SLRPK73*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. A) Select the most appropriate option for the given statements :
10
1) The key element of a fire safety management system is

a) maintenance plan
b) training plan
c) fire action plan
d) none of these
2) The Final Technical Authority of a project is

b) Chief Engineer
d) Deputy Engineer
3) Batching refers to
4) Workplace related injuries, illnesses and deaths impose costs upon
a) employers
b) employees
c) the community
d) all of these

a) Bulldozer
b) Clam shell
c) Scraper
d) Dump truck
6) The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is

b) vibratory roller
d) tampers
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 73
*SLRPK73*
-2-
7) For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation
equipment used is
a) hoe
b) shovel
c) dragline
d) none of these
8) The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is
a) kneading
b) pressing
c) tamping
d) vibration
9) Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a
a) concrete
b) loose sand
c) asphalt
d) firm earth
10) In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional
component
10
A Group
B Group
______________
2)
3)
4)
5)
Parks and Gardens

Lewis Mumford
Nonprofit making use of land
Ebenezer Howard
______________
______________
______________
______________
6)
7)
8)
9)
Multidisciplinary field
Lead to lack of social life
Horizontal growth
Magarpatta city, Pune
______________
______________
______________
______________
______________
B Group :
regional planning.
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK73*
-3-
SLR-PK 73
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(58=40)
system.
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
(58=40)
and legislation.
Solapur city.
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 73
*SLRPK73*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

A Group
10
B Group
______________
______________
3) Lewis Mumford
______________
______________
5) Ebenezer Howard
______________
______________
______________
______________
______________
______________
B Group :
regional planning.
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 73
-2-
*SLRPK73*
B) Select the most appropriate option for the given statements :
10
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)

a) concrete
b) loose sand
c) asphalt
d) firm earth
In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional
component
The key element of a fire safety management system is
a) maintenance plan
b) training plan
c) fire action plan
d) none of these
The Final Technical Authority of a project is
b) Chief Engineer
d) Deputy Engineer
Which one of the following is not an excavating type of equipment ?
a) Bulldozer
b) Clam shell
c) Scraper
d) Dump truck
The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is
b) vibratory roller
d) tampers
For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation
equipment used is
a) hoe
b) shovel
c) dragline
d) none of these
The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is
a) kneading
b) pressing
c) tamping
d) vibration
Batching refers to
Workplace related injuries, illnesses and deaths impose costs upon
a) employers
b) employees
c) the community
d) all of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK73*
-3-
SLR-PK 73
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(58=40)
system.
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
(58=40)
and legislation.
Solapur city.
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 73
*SLRPK73*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. A) Select the most appropriate option for the given statements :
10
1) For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation
equipment used is
a) hoe
b) shovel
c) dragline
d) none of these
2) The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is

a) kneading
b) pressing
c) tamping
d) vibration
a) concrete
b) loose sand
c) asphalt
d) firm earth
4) In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional

component
5) Batching refers to
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 73
*SLRPK73*
-2-

a) Bulldozer
b) Clam shell
c) Scraper
d) Dump truck
7) The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is

b) vibratory roller
d) tampers
8) Workplace related injuries, illnesses and deaths impose costs upon
a) employers
b) employees
c) the community
d) all of these
9) The key element of a fire safety management system is
a) maintenance plan
b) training plan
c) fire action plan
d) none of these
10) The Final Technical Authority of a project is
b) Chief Engineer
d) Deputy Engineer
A Group
10
B Group
______________
______________
3) Lewis Mumford
______________
______________
5) Ebenezer Howard
______________
______________
______________
______________
______________
______________
B Group :
regional planning.
______________
Set S
*SLRPK73*
-3-
SLR-PK 73
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(58=40)
system.
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
(58=40)
and legislation.
Solapur city.
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 75
*SLRPK75*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective II : GROUND IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUES (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
1) Which is not an objective of ground improvement ?
a) Increase strength
b) Increase strain
c) Reduce erodibility
d) Reduce compressibility
Marks : 20
(201=20)
2) Which one is not the aim of mechanical modification ?

a) Reduce durability
b) Reduce permeability
c) Reduce compressibility
d) Reduce liquefaction
3) To ensure discharge capacity of drain not to hamper maximum longitudinal
strain at failure should be limited to
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) None
4) Which of following is not a temporary dewatering method ?
a) Sheetpiling
b) Well point system
c) Deep bored well
d) Vacuum method
5) Vibroflotation cannot be used when clay content is
a) 0%
b) <2%
c) <3%
d) <7.5%
6) In dry method of stone column construction
a) Heat is circulated through the column to remove water
b) Stones to be used for construction are made dry
c) Vibroflot is inserted in to the ground using compressed air
d) None
a) Dry top feed
b) Dry bottom feed
c) Wet top feed
d) Wet bottom feed
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 75
*SLRPK75*
-2-
8) By vibro compaction hydraulic conductivity of soil get reduced

a) 100 fold
b) 500 fold
c) 100 200 fold d) 2 50 fold
9) Vibroflot is inserted into the ground by
a) Hammering it
b) Lifting it and dropping it
c) Pushing it
d) Jetting
10) Stone column is a column
a) Used to support stones
b) Made from boulders
c) Used to support slabs
d) Used to improve soil
11) Earth reinforcements is done for the following purpose
a) Filtration and drainage
b) Separation
c) Erosion control
d) All of these
12) Usually compaction method in granular soils is effective for
a) Shallow depths
b) Great depths
c) Very great depths
d) None of these
13) Providing drainage in slope stabilization increases
a) Effective stress
b) Decreases pore water pressure
c) Increases stability
d) All of these
14) Slope stabilization can be done by
a) Anchoring
b) Micro-piling c) Soil nailing
d) All of these
15) The following technique is used for lowering the water table.
a) Wick drains
b) Sand drains
c) Stone columns
d) All of these
16) Smooth wheel rollers are more suitable for
a) Silts
b) Well graded sands
c) Clays
d) None of these
17) The demerit of preloading method of ground improvement is
a) Not suitable for gravelly soils
b) Not suitable for clayey soils
c) Takes more time
d) All the above
18) Vibro-replacement method reduces
a) The liquefaction potential
c) The shear strength of the soil
b) The compacted density

d) All of these
19) The different methods of grouting are

a) Jet grouting
b) Chemical grouting
c) Compaction grouting
d) All of these
20) Lime stabilization is most commonly used for
a) All types of soils
b) Coarse grains soils
c) Fine grained soils
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK75*
-3-
SLR-PK 75
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m.to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
Answer any three :
(43=12)
a) Vibro compaction process.

b) Factors affecting selection of ground improvement.
c) Explain with neat sketch installation of PVD in a soil.
d) Blasting method of ground improvement.
e) Difference between standard compaction and modified compaction.
3. a) How does grain size distribution help in deciding about compatibility for
vibrocompaction ?
b) Compare sand drain and prefabricated vertical drain.
c) What are the factors affecting selection of ground improvement technique ?
4. a) With neat sketch explain various methods of construction for the stone column.
Discuss merits and demerits of these methods.
5. a) What are the various equipments used for shallow compaction ? What are
their characteristics ?
b) Why do we install sand drains along with preload ? Explain with a neat sketch.
c) What are the different types of specifications for compaction control ?
4
Set P
SLR-PK 75
-4-
*SLRPK75*
SECTION II
Answer any three :
6. a) What are different methods of earth reinforcement techniques ?
b) Describe the benefits of geosynthetics in pavements.
7. a) Explain the concept of micro-piling and soil nailing used in slope stability.
b) Describe the different compaction techniques available and their suitability

for different types of soils.
8. a) List the different admixtures/chemicals/materials used for chemical modification

of soils.
b) Briefly discuss the cement stabilization method of ground improvement.

9. a) What are the basic requirements of grouts ?
b) Briefly explain the grouting methods used in the field.
7
5
8
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 75
*SLRPK75*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
a) Silts
c) Clays
d) None of these
Marks : 20
(201=20)

c) Takes more time
d) All the above
d) All of these
a) Jet grouting
d) All of these
d) None of these
b) Increase strain
d) Reduce liquefaction potential
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 75
-2-
*SLRPK75*

a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) None
a) Sheetpiling
c) Deep bored well
d) Vacuum method
a) 0%
b) < 2%
c) < 3%
d) < 7.5%
d) None
a) Dry top feed
b) Dry bottom feed
c) Wet top feed
d) Wet bottom feed
a) 100 fold
b) 500 fold
c) 100 200 fold d) 2 50 fold
a) Hammering it
c) Pushing it
d) Jetting
b) Separation
c) Erosion control
d) All of these
a) Shallow depths
b) Great depths
d) None of these
a) Effective stress
d) All of these
a) Anchoring
d) All of these
a) Wick drains
b) Sand drains
c) Stone columns
d) All of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK75*
-3-
SLR-PK 75
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
Answer any three :
(43=12)

vibrocompaction ?
4
Set Q
SLR-PK 75
-4-
*SLRPK75*
SECTION II
Answer any three :


of soils.

7
5
8
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 75
*SLRPK75*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
b) Separation
c) Erosion control
d) All of these
a) Shallow depths
b) Great depths
d) None of these
a) Effective stress
d) All of these
a) Anchoring
d) All of these
a) Wick drains
b) Sand drains
c) Stone columns
d) All of these
a) Silts
c) Clays
d) None of these
c) Takes more time
d) All the above
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 75
*SLRPK75*
-2-

a) Jet grouting
d) All of these
d) None of these
b) Increase strain
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) None
a) Sheetpiling
c) Deep bored well
d) Vacuum method
a) 0%
b) < 2%
c) < 3%
d) < 7.5%
d) None
a) Dry top feed
b) Dry bottom feed
c) Wet top feed
d) Wet bottom feed
a) 100 fold
b) 500 fold
c) 100 200 fold d) 2 50 fold
a) Hammering it
c) Pushing it
d) Jetting

______________
Set R
*SLRPK75*
-3-
SLR-PK 75
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
Answer any three :
(43=12)

vibrocompaction ?
4
Set R
SLR-PK 75
-4-
*SLRPK75*
SECTION II
Answer any three :


of soils.

7
5
8
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 75
*SLRPK75*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
d) None
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Dry top feed
b) Dry bottom feed
c) Wet top feed
d) Wet bottom feed
a) 100 fold
b) 500 fold
c) 100 200 fold d) 2 50 fold
a) Hammering it
c) Pushing it
d) Jetting
b) Separation
c) Erosion control
d) All of these
a) Shallow depths
b) Great depths
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 75
*SLRPK75*
-2-

a) Effective stress
d) All of these
a) Anchoring
b) Micro-piling
c) Soil nailing
d) All of these
a) Wick drains
b) Sand drains
c) Stone columns
d) All of these
a) Silts
c) Clays
d) None of these
c) Takes more time
d) All the above
a) Jet grouting

d) All of these
d) All of these

d) None of these
b) Increase strain
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) None
a) Sheetpiling
c) Deep bored well
d) Vacuum method
a) 0%
b) < 2%
c) < 3%
d) < 7.5%
______________
Set S
*SLRPK75*
-3-
SLR-PK 75
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
Answer any three :
(43=12)

vibrocompaction ?
4
Set S
SLR-PK 75
-4-
*SLRPK75*
SECTION II
Answer any three :


of soils.

7
5
8
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Part II) (Civil) Examination, 2016
TRAFFIC ENGINEERING AND CONTROL (Elective II) (New)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Answer book Page No. 3. Each question carries one mark.
2) Figure on right indicates full marks.
Marks : 20
20
30th
hourly volume means

1) The
a) Hourly volume that will be exceeded only 29 times in a year
b) Hourly volume that will be exceeded only 30 times in a year
c) Hourly volume that will be exceeded only 70 times in a year
2) Cumulative speed distribution curve is usually adopted for geometric design of highway.
The percentile speed adopted for geometric design is
b) 90th percentile
c) 98th percentile
d) 99.9th percentile
a) 85th percentile
3) With increasing the value of speed, the volume
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increase up to certain limit and thereafter decreases
d) Initially decreases and thereafter increases
4) Spot speed is the
a) Instantaneous speed of vehicle at a specified location or section
b) Average speed of the vehicle at a specified location or section
c) Effective speed of the vehicle at a specified location or section
d) Normal speed of the vehicle at a specified location or section
5) In intrusive technology, the equipments are placed at
a) At or below the ground surface
b) At or above the road surface
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
6) The curve delineation can be done using
a) Cat eyes
b) Delineators
c) Chevron sign
d) All the above
7) License plate or vehicle number method is classified under

a) Speed and delay survey
b) Origin and destination survey
c) Spot speed study
d) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
-2-
8) As the speed increases beyond optimum speed, the capacity is

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Constant
9) The STOP sign board will be in ____________ shape.
a) Octagonal
b) Circle
c) Triangle
d) Rectangle
10) Skid resistance of the pavement surface is measured by
a) Portable skid resistance tester
b) Bump Integrator
c) Photometer
d) Pedometer
11) In the conditions diagram. The features shown in the diagram are
a) Property lines
b) Street lighting
c) Traffic signs, signals and markings
d) All the above
12) End of speed limit is a
a) Regulator sign
b) Warning sign
c) Informatory sign
13) As per IRC the maximum width of a vehicle is

a) 1.75 m
b) 2.20 m
c) 2.44 m
d) None of these
d) 3.12 m
14) A part of the signal cycle allocated to a traffic movement or a combination of a traffic
movement is called
a) Cycle
b) Phase
c) Amber
d) None of these
15) The principle of linking the adjacent signals to secure maximum flow is called
a) Continuous flow signals
b) Signal co-ordination
c) Signal control
d) Automatic signal
16) The traffic manoeuvre means
a) Diverging
b) Merging
c) Crossing
17) The area of most acute vision of a driver is a cone of

a) 3
b) 10
c) 15
d) All of these
d) 20
18) The basic requirement of any sign board are

a) High visibility during day and night
b) Lettering or symbols of adequate size
c) Signs should be placed at closer intervals
d) Both a) and b)
19) The weight of the vehicle affects the design of
a) Camber and gradient of a road
b) Pavement thickness
c) Cross drainage works and tunnels
d) Permissible speed of vehicle
20) Pneumatic road tubes are used in
a) Traffic volume count survey
b) Spot speed study
c) Both a) and b)
d) Orgin and destination study
______________
Set P
*SLR-PK-76*
-3-
SLR-PK 76
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

PART A
2. Answer any three questions (each carry 8 marks) :
(38)
a) Discuss briefly the various factors which affect the road user characteristics and their
effects in traffic performance.
b) List and explain the factors which affect the vehicle characteristics.
c) List out the different types of traffic studies and explain any one in detail.
d) Spot speed studies were carried out at a certain stretch of a highway with mixed traffic
flow and the consolidated data collected are given below :
Speed
Range,
kmph
No. of
vehicles
observed
Speed
Range,
kmph
No. of
vehicles
observed
0 to 10
12
50 to 60
255
10 to 20
18
60 to 70
119
20 to 30
68
70 to 80
43
30 to 40
89
80 to 90
33
40 to 50
204
90 to 100
Determine :
i) The upper and lower speed limit values for installing regulation signs
ii) The design speed for checking the geometric design elements of the highway.
3. Answer any two questions (each carry 8 marks) :
(28)
a) Briefly mention how road side interview method of O and D studies is carried out ? What
are the advantages and limitations of this method of study ?
b) Discuss the various types of parking, their advantages and disadvantages.
c) A vehicle of weight 2.0 tonne skids through a distance equal to 40 m before colliding with
another parked vehicle of weight 1.0 tonne. After collision both the vehicles skid through
a distance equal to 12 m before stopping. Compute the initial speed of the moving vehicle.
Assume average coefficient of friction as 0.5.
Set P
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
-4-
PART B
(38)
a) Write a short note on :

i) Regulation on driver
ii) Regulation on speed
b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of one way street.
c) Explain with neat sketch different types of warning signs.
d) Calculate the spacing between the lighting units to produce a lux equal to 6.0 from the
following data :
Width of road = 15 m
Mounting Height = 7.5 m
Lamp size = 6000 lumen
Luminaire Type = II, (Use Figure 1 to solve this problem)
(28)

i) PCU
ii) LOS
b) Write a short note on intrusive technology equipments of ATMS.

c) Mention the application of
a) Black-spot maps
b) Collision diagram
c) Condition diagram
Set P
_____________________
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Diverging
b) Merging
20
c) Crossing

a) 3
b) 10
c) 15
d) All of these
d) 20

d) Both a) and b)
c) Both a) and b)
b) Spot speed study

6) The 30th hourly volume means

b) 90th percentile
c) 98th percentile
a) 85th percentile
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
-2-

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Cat eyes
b) Delineators
c) Chevron sign
d) All the above

c) Spot speed study
d) Both a) and b)
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Constant
a) Octagonal
b) Circle
c) Triangle
d) Rectangle
b) Bump Integrator
c) Photometer
d) Pedometer
a) Property lines
b) Street lighting
d) All the above
a) Regulator sign
b) Warning sign
c) Informatory sign

a) 1.75 m
b) 2.20 m
c) 2.44 m
d) None of these
d) 3.12 m
movement is called
a) Cycle
b) Phase
c) Amber
d) None of these
c) Signal control
d) Automatic signal
______________
Set Q
*SLR-PK-76*
-3-
SLR-PK 76
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

PART A
(38)
Speed
Range,
kmph
No. of
vehicles
observed
Speed
Range,
kmph
No. of
vehicles
observed
0 to 10
12
50 to 60
255
10 to 20
18
60 to 70
119
20 to 30
68
70 to 80
43
30 to 40
89
80 to 90
33
40 to 50
204
90 to 100
Determine :
(28)
Set Q
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
-4-
PART B
(38)

following data :
(28)

i) PCU
ii) LOS

a) Black-spot maps
Set Q
_____________________
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) Property lines
b) Street lighting
d) All the above
a) Regulator sign
b) Warning sign
c) Informatory sign

a) 1.75 m
b) 2.20 m
c) 2.44 m
d) None of these
d) 3.12 m

movement is called
a) Cycle
b) Phase
c) Amber
d) None of these
c) Signal control
d) Automatic signal
a) Diverging
b) Merging
c) Crossing

a) 3
b) 10
c) 15
d) All of these
d) 20

d) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
-2-

c) Both a) and b)
b) Spot speed study


a) 85th percentile
b) 90th percentile
c) 98th percentile
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Cat eyes
b) Delineators
c) Chevron sign
d) All the above

c) Spot speed study
d) Both a) and b)
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Constant
a) Octagonal
b) Circle
c) Triangle
d) Rectangle
b) Bump Integrator
c) Photometer
d) Pedometer
______________
Set R
*SLR-PK-76*
-3-
SLR-PK 76
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

PART A
(38)
Speed
Range,
kmph
No. of
vehicles
observed
Speed
Range,
kmph
No. of
vehicles
observed
0 to 10
12
50 to 60
255
10 to 20
18
60 to 70
119
20 to 30
68
70 to 80
43
30 to 40
89
80 to 90
33
40 to 50
204
90 to 100
Determine :
(28)
Set R
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
-4-
PART B
(38)

following data :
(28)

i) PCU
ii) LOS

a) Black-spot maps
Set R
_____________________
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Cat eyes
b) Delineators
20
c) Chevron sign
d) All the above

c) Spot speed study
d) Both a) and b)
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Constant
a) Octagonal
b) Circle
c) Triangle
d) Rectangle
b) Bump Integrator
c) Photometer
d) Pedometer
a) Property lines
b) Street lighting
d) All the above
a) Regulator sign
b) Warning sign
c) Informatory sign

a) 1.75 m
b) 2.20 m
c) 2.44 m
d) None of these
d) 3.12 m

movement is called
a) Cycle
b) Phase
c) Amber
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
-2-
c) Signal control
d) Automatic signal
a) Diverging
b) Merging
c) Crossing

a) 3
b) 10
c) 15
d) All of these
d) 20

d) Both a) and b)
c) Both a) and b)
b) Spot speed study


b) 90th percentile
c) 98th percentile
a) 85th percentile
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLR-PK-76*
-3-
SLR-PK 76
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

PART A
(38)
Speed
Range,
kmph
No. of
vehicles
observed
Speed
Range,
kmph
No. of
vehicles
observed
0 to 10
12
50 to 60
255
10 to 20
18
60 to 70
119
20 to 30
68
70 to 80
43
30 to 40
89
80 to 90
33
40 to 50
204
90 to 100
Determine :
(28)
Set S
SLR-PK 76
*SLR-PK-76*
-4-
PART B
(38)

following data :
(28)

i) PCU
ii) LOS

a) Black-spot maps
Set S
_____________________
SLR-PK 77
*SLRPK77*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective II : INFRASTRUCTURAL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries two marks.
of Page.
Marks : 20
(102=20)
1) What is meant by contract type O and M ?

a) Operation and Maintenance
b) Own and Maintenance
c) Operate and Manage
d) Own and Manage
2) Which of the following is correct term for DBFMO ?
a) Design Build Finance Maintain Own
b) Design Build Finance Maintain Operate
c) Design Build Finance Manage Operate
d) Design Build Finance Manage Own
b) Joint venture
d) Flexibility
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
P.T.O.
SLR -PK 77
*SLRPK77*
-2-

Partnership ?
6) Which of the following is suitable as VGF scheme ?
a) Viability Gap Funding Scheme
b) Viability Gap Finance Scheme
c) Volatile Gap Funding Scheme
d) Volatile Growth Funding Scheme
7) How many contributing factors are considered for Risk Emergence ?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

a) Energy
b) Environmental
c) Social
d) Economic
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste
d) Rural Development

b) Output Build Aid
d) Output Based Aid
______________
Set P
*SLRPK77*
-3-
SLR-PK 77
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
1. a) Explain the term Design Build Finance Maintain (DBFM).
b) State the major problems with the transport sector in India.
10
2. a) What are the Disadvantages of Public Private Partnership ?
b) Explain the challenges in privatization of water supply.
3. a) Explain in brief output based aid contracts.
b) What are the points to be considered in Public Private Partnership to protect

the public interest ?
4. a) Draw a schematic diagram for project management execution activities.
b) Explain in detail project management execution activities.
9
4
9
SECTION II
5. a) Write a short note on project closure activities.
management.
4
9
9
Set P
SLR -PK 77
-4-
*SLRPK77*
7. a) Write in brief on Risk management in Public Private Partnership.
10
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 77
*SLRPK77*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

of Page.
Marks : 20
(102=20)

a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

a) Energy
b) Environmental
c) Social
d) Economic
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste

b) Output Build Aid
d) Output Based Aid
d) Own and Manage
P.T.O.
SLR -PK 77
-2-
*SLRPK77*

b) Joint venture
d) Flexibility
8)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Partnership ?
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK77*
-3-
SLR-PK 77
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

9
4
9
SECTION II
management.
4
9
9
Set Q
SLR -PK 77
-4-
*SLRPK77*
10
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 77
*SLRPK77*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

of Page.
Marks : 20
(102=20)
1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Partnership ?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
P.T.O.
SLR -PK 77
*SLRPK77*
-2-

a) Energy
b) Environmental
c) Social
d) Economic
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste

b) Output Build Aid
d) Output Based Aid
d) Own and Manage
b) Joint venture
d) Flexibility
______________
Set R
*SLRPK77*
-3-
SLR-PK 77
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

9
4
9
SECTION II
management.
4
9
9
Set R
SLR -PK 77
-4-
*SLRPK77*
10
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 77
*SLRPK77*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

of Page.
Marks : 20
(102=20)

a) Energy
b) Environmental
c) Social
d) Economic
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste

b) Output Build Aid
d) Output Based Aid
d) Own and Manage
P.T.O.
SLR -PK 77
*SLRPK77*
-2-

b) Joint venture
d) Flexibility
7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Partnership ?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
______________
Set S
*SLRPK77*
-3-
SLR-PK 77
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

9
4
9
SECTION II
management.
4
9
9
Set S
SLR -PK 77
-4-
*SLRPK77*
10
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 79
*SLRPK79*
S
Set
t

Elective II
SOLID AND HAZARDOUS & WASTE MANAGEMENT
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

clearly.
3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first
carries two marks.
of Page.
Marks : 20

1) Mechanical grinders are used for
a) Reducing size
c) Reducing temperature
b) Reducing volume
d) None of these

d) None of these
3) Leachate is coloured liquid that comes out of
a) Septic tank
b) Sanitary land fills
c) Aerated lagoons
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 79
-2-
*SLRPK79*
4) What is recovered in the magnetic separation ?

a) Ferrous materials
b) Non-ferrous materials
c) Heat
d) None of these
5) The final functional element in solid waste management system is
a) Transfer and transportation
b) Collection
c) Processing and recovery
d) Disposal
6) Composting process is affected due to
a) Temperature
b) Moisture content
c) C/N ratio
d) All of above
7) Household hazardous waste includes batteries and
a) Radioactive waste
b) Food waste
c) Leachate
d) Nail polish
8) Characteristics of hazardous waste includes
a) Ignitibility and Corrosivity
b) Reactivity and Toxicity
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of above
9) Important aspect in the implementation of sanitary land fills includes
a) Site selection
b) Land filling methods
c) Movement and control of land fill and leachate
d) All of above
10) The Biomedical Waste Management Act was enacted in
a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
______________
Set P
*SLRPK79*
S
SLR-PK 79
-3-

Elective II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

no. 2 to Question no. 5 Question no. 6 is compulsory in
Section II and solve any two questions from the
remaining.
clearly.
SECTION I
2. A) Estimate the moisture content of solid waste sample of 100 kg using the
following data :
%
B) Explain the functional elements of municipal solid waste management with

flow diagram.
3. A) Explain theory of composting in brief.

B) Distinguish between Indore method and Bangalore method of composting.
6
7
Set P
SLR-PK 79
-4-
*SLRPK79*
4. A) Write in brief MSW (Management and Handling) Rule.

B) Write advantages and disadvantages of Incineration treatment.
C) Write short note on Pyrolysis and its products.
5
4
4
5. A) State and explain briefly the various methods of handling and processing of
solid waste.
B) Write the use of different industrial waste.
SECTION II
6. A) Define Hazardous waste. Explain in brief characteristics of Hazardous waste.
B) Write a note on Risk Assessment and Management.
7. A) Draw a cross section of sanitary land fill and explain its essential component.
B) Write site selection criteria for sanitary land filling.
8. A) Write a note on waste minimization and resource recovery.
B) Explain natural and manmade hazards with examples.
7
6
7
6
9. A) Explain in detail any one hazard episode.
B) Write a note on Leachate and its control.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 79
*SLRPK79*
S
Set
t

Elective II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

clearly.
carries two marks.
of Page.
Marks : 20

a) Site selection
d) All of above
a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
b) Food waste
c) Leachate
d) Nail polish
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 79
a) Reducing size
*SLRPK79*
-2-
b) Reducing volume
d) None of these

d) None of these
a) Septic tank
c) Aerated lagoons
d) None of these
c) Heat
d) None of these
b) Collection
d) Disposal
a) Temperature
b) Moisture content
c) C/N ratio
d) All of above
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK79*
S
SLR-PK 79
-3-

Elective II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

remaining.
clearly.
SECTION I
following data :
%

flow diagram.

6
7
Set Q
SLR-PK 79
-4-
*SLRPK79*

5
4
4
solid waste.
SECTION II
7
6
7
6
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 79
*SLRPK79*
S
Set
t

Elective II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

clearly.
carries two marks.
of Page.
Marks : 20

b) Collection
d) Disposal
a) Temperature
b) Moisture content
c) C/N ratio
d) All of above
a) Site selection
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 79
*SLRPK79*
-2-

a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
a) Septic tank
c) Aerated lagoons
d) None of these
c) Heat
d) None of these
a) Reducing size
b) Reducing volume
d) None of these

d) None of these
b) Food waste
c) Leachate
d) Nail polish
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK79*
S
SLR-PK 79
-3-

Elective II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

remaining.
clearly.
SECTION I
following data :
%

flow diagram.

6
7
Set R
SLR-PK 79
-4-
*SLRPK79*

5
4
4
solid waste.
SECTION II
7
6
7
6
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 79
*SLRPK79*
S
Set
t

Elective II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

clearly.
carries two marks.
of Page.
Marks : 20

a) Septic tank
c) Aerated lagoons
d) None of these
c) Heat
d) None of these
b) Collection
d) Disposal
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 79
*SLRPK79*
-2-

a) Temperature
b) Moisture content
c) C/N ratio
d) All of above
b) Food waste
c) Leachate
d) Nail polish
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of above
a) Site selection
d) All of above
a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
a) Reducing size
b) Reducing volume
d) None of these

d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK79*
S
SLR-PK 79
-3-

Elective II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

remaining.
clearly.
SECTION I
following data :
%

flow diagram.

6
7
Set S
SLR-PK 79
-4-
*SLRPK79*

5
4
4
solid waste.
SECTION II
7
6
7
6
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 82
*SLRPK82*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Total load in case of IRC 70R tracked loading is

a) 700 kN
b) 710 kN
c) 1000 kN
d) 554 kN

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 15%
3) __________ is the minimum grade of concrete for pre-stressed concrete bridges.

a) M-30
b) M-20
c) M-40
d) M-25
4) The minimum width of carriage way for a single lane bridge is
a) 4.25 m
b) 6 m
c) 10 m
d) 7.5 m

a) Between 6 m-60 m b) Above 60 m
c) Less than 6 m
d) None of these
6) For small bridges, with open foundations, the economical span is approximately equal to
__________ times height of pier.
a) 2.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.0
d) 1.5
7) T-Beam bridges are most commonly adopted in the span of
a) 5-8 m
b) 10-25 m
c) 30-50 m
d) None of these

a) 0.44
b) 0.50
c) 0.55
d) 0.60
9) Pigeauds theory is used to calculate

a) Bending moment
c) Effective span
b) Load factor
d) Impact factor
10) Permissible direct compressive stress for M-20 concrete is

a) 3.8 MPa
b) 5.0 MPa
c) 7 MPa
d) 6.2 MPa
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 82
*SLRPK82*
-2-

a) Cellular pier
b) Trestle pier
c) Inboard pier
12) Fixed bearing allow

a) Rotation only
c) Both rotational as well as translation
b) Translation only
d) Hammerhead pier

a) Fixed bearing
c) Rocker bearing
d) Steel hinge
d) Rocker bearing
15) Span is called as economical span when
a) Cost of substructure should be equal to cost of superstructure
b) Cost of substructure should be greater than cost of superstructure
c) Cost of substructure should be less than cost of superstructure
d) Does not depend on cost
16) The pier cap or abutment cap should be of ________ concrete.
a) M 20 grade
b) M 25 grade
c) M 30 grade
d) Any one of these
17) For steel bridges having span greater than 9 m impact factor for IRC class AA and 70 R
tracked loading is equal to
a) 20%
b) 15%
c) 10%
d) 5%
18) For R.C.C. bridges having span upto 12 m, for IRC class AA and 70 R wheeled loading
impact factor is equal to
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 25%
19) For IRC class A loading maximum axle load is ________ kN.
a) 112 kN
b) 108 kN
c) 114 kN
20) For IRC class B loading maximum axle load is _________ kN.
a) 16 kN
b) 41 kN
c) 52 kN
______________
d) 120 kN
d) 68 kN
Set P
*SLRPK82*
-3-
SLR-PK 82
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(3.54=14)
B) What is the significance of the impact factor and how it is estimated ?
C) What are the requirements of bar sizes and spacing to ensure crack control in concrete ?
D) List three methods for load distribution among the longitudinal girders of a T beam bridge.
Explain briefly any one.
3. Design a solid deck slab for two lane bridge with following data :
a) Effective span 7.0 m
c) Kerb 600 300 on both side
d) Live load IRC Class A (Two lane)
f) Use M-25 concrete and Fe-415 steel
g) Use D = 2.704.
13
additional data,
a) Carriage way width 9 m
c) Live Load IRC class A two Lane
e) Web thickness for Longitudinal and cross girder 300 mm
f) Longitudinal Girder spacing 3.0 m
13

A) Explain IRC class B loading.
B) Write a note on Pigeudes theory.
5
8
Set P
SLR-PK 82
-4-
*SLRPK82*
SECTION II
Top width of pier 1.8 m, Height of pier upto springing level 10 m, C/C distance of bearing 1 m,
Side batter 1 : 14, HFL 1.5 m below the bearing level, Span of bridge 18 m, Self weight of
the superstructure = 200 kN/m, Live load IRC class AA tracked, Material of pier = M20 concrete. 13
7. Verify the suitability of abutment as shown in the fig 1. Use following data Density of soil 18 kN/m3,
Friction angle of soil (O) = 30.
Coefficient of friction 0.5, Live load IRC class AA tracked.
13
.
Vertical load (sustained) = 178 kN,
Vertical load (dynamic) = 58 kN,
Modulus of rigidity of elastomer 1.1 N/mm2
B) Write a note on Reinforced Earth Abutment.
9. Write a note on following (any four) :
a) Cantilever method of construction
b) Types of bridge pier with their suitability
c) Expansion joints
d) Function of Approach slab
e) Importance of bridge inspection.
8
5
(3.54=14)
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 82
*SLRPK82*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) M 20 grade
b) M 25 grade
c) M 30 grade
(201=20)
d) Any one of these
a) 20%
b) 15%
c) 10%
d) 5%
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 25%
a) 112 kN
b) 108 kN
c) 114 kN
d) 120 kN

a) 16 kN
b) 41 kN
c) 52 kN
d) 68 kN

a) 700 kN
b) 710 kN
c) 1000 kN
d) 554 kN

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 15%

a) M-30
b) M-20
c) M-40
d) M-25
a) 4.25 m
b) 6 m
c) 10 m
c) Less than 6 m
d) 7.5 m
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 82
*SLRPK82*
-2-
a) 2.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.0
d) 1.5
a) 5-8 m
b) 10-25 m
c) 30-50 m
d) None of these

a) 0.44
b) 0.50
c) 0.55
d) 0.60

a) Bending moment
c) Effective span
b) Load factor
d) Impact factor

a) 3.8 MPa
b) 5.0 MPa
c) 7 MPa
d) 6.2 MPa

a) Cellular pier
b) Trestle pier
c) Inboard pier
d) Hammerhead pier

a) Rotation only
b) Translation only

a) Fixed bearing
c) Rocker bearing
d) Steel hinge
d) Rocker bearing
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK82*
-3-
SLR-PK 82
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(3.54=14)
g) Use D = 2.704.
13
additional data,
13

5
8
Set Q
SLR-PK 82
-4-
*SLRPK82*
SECTION II
13
.
c) Expansion joints
8
5
(3.54=14)
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 82
*SLRPK82*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Cellular pier
b) Trestle pier
c) Inboard pier

a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
d) Hammerhead pier

a) Fixed bearing
c) Rocker bearing
d) Steel hinge
d) Rocker bearing
a) M 20 grade
b) M 25 grade
c) M 30 grade
d) Any one of these
a) 20%
b) 15%
c) 10%
d) 5%
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 25%
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 82
*SLRPK82*
-2-

a) 112 kN
b) 108 kN
c) 114 kN
d) 120 kN
a) 16 kN
b) 41 kN
c) 52 kN
d) 68 kN

a) 700 kN
b) 710 kN
c) 1000 kN
d) 554 kN
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 15%
a) M-30
b) M-20
c) M-40
d) M-25
a) 4.25 m
b) 6 m
c) 10 m
d) 7.5 m

c) Less than 6 m
d) None of these
a) 2.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.0
d) 1.5
a) 5-8 m
b) 10-25 m
c) 30-50 m
d) None of these

a) 0.44
b) 0.50
c) 0.55
d) 0.60

a) Bending moment
c) Effective span
b) Load factor
d) Impact factor

a) 3.8 MPa
b) 5.0 MPa
c) 7 MPa
______________
d) 6.2 MPa
Set R
*SLRPK82*
-3-
SLR-PK 82
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(3.54=14)
g) Use D = 2.704.
13
additional data,
13

5
8
Set R
SLR-PK 82
-4-
*SLRPK82*
SECTION II
13
.
c) Expansion joints
8
5
(3.54=14)
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 82
*SLRPK82*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 2.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.0
d) 1.5
a) 5-8 m
b) 10-25 m
c) 30-50 m
d) None of these

a) 0.44
b) 0.50
c) 0.55
d) 0.60

a) Bending moment
c) Effective span
b) Load factor
d) Impact factor

a) 3.8 MPa
b) 5.0 MPa
c) 7 MPa
d) 6.2 MPa

a) Cellular pier
b) Trestle pier
c) Inboard pier
d) Hammerhead pier

a) Rotation only
b) Translation only

a) Fixed bearing
c) Rocker bearing
d) Steel hinge
d) Rocker bearing
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 82
*SLRPK82*
-2-

a) M 20 grade
b) M 25 grade
c) M 30 grade
d) Any one of these
a) 20%
b) 15%
c) 10%
d) 5%
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 25%
a) 112 kN
b) 108 kN
c) 114 kN
d) 120 kN
a) 16 kN
b) 41 kN
c) 52 kN
d) 68 kN

a) 700 kN
b) 710 kN
c) 1000 kN
d) 554 kN
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 15%
a) M-30
b) M-20
c) M-40
d) M-25
a) 4.25 m
b) 6 m
c) 10 m
c) Less than 6 m
______________
d) 7.5 m
d) None of these
Set S
*SLRPK82*
-3-
SLR-PK 82
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(3.54=14)
g) Use D = 2.704.
13
additional data,
13

5
8
Set S
SLR-PK 82
-4-
*SLRPK82*
SECTION II
13
.
c) Expansion joints
8
5
(3.54=14)
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 83
*SLRPK83*
Seat
No.
Set
Elective III : ADVANCED DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

3) Figures to the right indicates the full marks.
4) Use of non programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary and clearly mention it.
Marks : 20

i) The load factor in plastic design/ultimate strength design can be approximately equal to
a) Ratio of ultimate load to the working load
b) Ratio of plastic load to working load
c) Ratio of limit load to working load
d) Ratio of over load to admissible load
ii) The shape factor of a section can be defined as

a) Ratio of plastic moment capacity of a section to a yield moment
b) Moment of inertia/yield stress
c) Radius of gyration multiplied by the area
iii) The design criterion for plastic design of beams is

a) Mp Mu
b) Mp (load factor X Mu)
c) Z Fyp Mu
iv) The moment curvature relation of plastic hinge is

a) Linear with inclination
b) Bilinear
c) Constant curvature for all moments
d) Constant moment with increasing curvatures
v) In case of number of plastic hinges at failure is less than (r + 1), where r is the degree
of redundancy of the structure, then the type of structure is
a) Complete collapse
b) Over complete collapse
c) Partial collapse
d) Elastic collapse
1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 83
*SLRPK83*
-2-
vi) A rocker bearing

a) Permit horizontal movement
c) Does not allow rotation
b) Permit rotation
vii) The maximum bearing stress in light gauge steel section is given by
a) 1.0 Fy
b) 1.2 Fy
c) 2.1 Fy
d) 3.1 Fy
viii) The approximate method used in the analysis of multi-storey buildings for lateral loads
a) Portal method
b) Cantilever method
c) Factor method
d) All of the above
ix) The assumption of point of contraflexure occurs at the centre of each beam and column
is applicable for
a) Portal method
c) Factor method
d) Both a and b
e) All a, b and c
x) The shape factor for triangular section is

a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 2.34
d) 1.27
xi) The collapse load for propped cantilever subjected to central point load is
a) Wc = [4Mp/L]
b) Wc = [6Mp/L]
c) Wc = [8Mp/L]
d) Wc = [5.5Mp/L]
e) None of the above
xii) The collapse load for fixed beam subjected to central point load is
a) Wc = [4Mp/L]
b) Wc = [6Mp/L]
c) Wc = [8Mp/L]
d) Wc = [5.5Mp/L]
xiii) In limit state method of design of tension members subjected to axial loads the
minimum strength is minimum of following
a) Due to yielding of gross section
b) Rupture of net section
c) Failure due to block shear
d) All of the above
xiv) The maximum slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as tie in a roof truss or
bracketing system but subjected to possible reversal of stress resulting from the action
of wind load or earthquake forces
a) 180
b) 250
c) 350
d) 400
xv) Determine the shape factor of I section having flanges 14016 mm and web thickness
8.9 mm. The overall depth is 400 mm.
a) 1.1488
b) 1.8844
c) 1.4848
d) 1.4188
______________
Set P
*SLRPK83*
-3-
SLR-PK 83
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. An open web girder bridge consists of two pratt trusses of type shown in fig. 1. The span of
truss is 24 m c/c of bearings. The bridge supports an equivalent uniformly distributed live
load of 175 KN/m. The dead load transmitted to each truss is 15 KN/m. Draw the influence
line diagrams for members U2U3, U2L3, U4L4 and L2L3. And design U2U3 by assuming
impact factor to be 15%.
20
3. Determine the shear forces and end moments in columns and beams of a building frame with
moment resistant joint as show in fig. 2 by portal method. Also determine the axial forces in
the columns.
20
Set P
SLR-PK 83
-4-
*SLRPK83*
4. Two channels 200 mm 80 mm run with bent lips are connected with webs to act as column
as shown in fig. 3. The thickness of plate is 2.5 mm and depth of lips is 25 mm. Determine the
safe load carrying capacity if the effective length of the column is 4 m. Take Fy = 235 N/mm2
and E = 2105 N/mm2.
20
SECTION II
5. A continuous beam carries the load shown in fig. 4. Design the beam if the yield stress is
equal to 250 N/mm2.
20
6. A portal frame is loaded upto collapse as shown in fig. 5. Find the plastic moment of resistance
if it is of uniform section throughout. Also plot the bending moment diagram.
20
7. a) An encased beam consisting of I joist has an effective span of 9 m and carries UDL of
32 KN/m, inclusive of self weight. The ends of the beam are restrained against torsion with
no restraints provided laterally anywhere. Design the encased beam.
Take fy = 250 N/mm2.
10
b) A cased column to carry an axial load of 1000 KN. The effective length of column is 3.50 m
and steel is of 250 Mpa.
10
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 83
*SLRPK83*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

i) The moment curvature relation of plastic hinge is
b) Bilinear
ii) In case of number of plastic hinges at failure is less than (r + 1), where r is the degree
c) Partial collapse
d) Elastic collapse
iii) A rocker bearing

b) Permit rotation
iv) The maximum bearing stress in light gauge steel section is given by
a) 1.0 Fy
b) 1.2 Fy
c) 2.1 Fy
d) 3.1 Fy
v) The approximate method used in the analysis of multi-storey buildings for lateral loads
a) Portal method
c) Factor method
d) All of the above
vi) The assumption of point of contraflexure occurs at the centre of each beam and column
is applicable for
a) Portal method
c) Factor method
d) Both a and b
e) All a, b and c
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 83
*SLRPK83*
-2-
vii) The shape factor for triangular section is

a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 2.34
d) 1.27
viii) The collapse load for propped cantilever subjected to central point load is
a) Wc = [4Mp/L]
b) Wc = [6Mp/L]
c) Wc = [8Mp/L]
d) Wc = [5.5Mp/L]
ix) The collapse load for fixed beam subjected to central point load is
a) Wc = [4Mp/L]
b) Wc = [6Mp/L]
c) Wc = [8Mp/L]
d) Wc = [5.5Mp/L]
x) In limit state method of design of tension members subjected to axial loads the
d) All of the above
xi) The maximum slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as tie in a roof truss or
a) 180
b) 250
c) 350
d) 400
xii) Determine the shape factor of I section having flanges 14016 mm and web thickness
a) 1.1488
b) 1.8844
c) 1.4848
d) 1.4188
xiii) The load factor in plastic design/ultimate strength design can be approximately equal to
xiv) The shape factor of a section can be defined as

xv) The design criterion for plastic design of beams is

a) Mp Mu
c) Z Fyp Mu
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK83*
-3-
SLR-PK 83
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
20
the columns.
20
Set Q
SLR-PK 83
-4-
*SLRPK83*
and E = 2105 N/mm2.
20
SECTION II
equal to 250 N/mm2.
20
20
10
10
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 83
*SLRPK83*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

i) The approximate method used in the analysis of multi-storey buildings for lateral loads
a) Portal method
c) Factor method
d) All of the above
ii) The assumption of point of contraflexure occurs at the centre of each beam and column
is applicable for
a) Portal method
c) Factor method
d) Both a and b
e) All a, b and c
c) 2.34
d) 1.27
iii) The shape factor for triangular section is

a) 1.5
b) 1.7
iv) The collapse load for propped cantilever subjected to central point load is
a) Wc = [4Mp/L]
b) Wc = [6Mp/L]
c) Wc = [8Mp/L]
d) Wc = [5.5Mp/L]
v) The collapse load for fixed beam subjected to central point load is
a) Wc = [4Mp/L]
b) Wc = [6Mp/L]
c) Wc = [8Mp/L]
d) Wc = [5.5Mp/L]
vi) In limit state method of design of tension members subjected to axial loads the
d) All of the above
1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 83
*SLRPK83*
-2-
vii) The maximum slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as tie in a roof truss or
a) 180
b) 250
c) 350
d) 400
viii) Determine the shape factor of I section having flanges 14016 mm and web thickness
a) 1.1488
b) 1.8844
c) 1.4848
d) 1.4188
ix) The load factor in plastic design/ultimate strength design can be approximately equal to
x) The shape factor of a section can be defined as

xi) The design criterion for plastic design of beams is

a) Mp Mu
c) Z Fyp Mu
xii) The moment curvature relation of plastic hinge is

b) Bilinear
xiii) In case of number of plastic hinges at failure is less than (r + 1), where r is the degree
c) Partial collapse
d) Elastic collapse
xiv) A rocker bearing

b) Permit rotation
xv) The maximum bearing stress in light gauge steel section is given by
a) 1.0 Fy
b) 1.2 Fy
c) 2.1 Fy
d) 3.1 Fy
______________
Set R
*SLRPK83*
-3-
SLR-PK 83
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
20
the columns.
20
Set R
SLR-PK 83
-4-
*SLRPK83*
and E = 2105 N/mm2.
20
SECTION II
equal to 250 N/mm2.
20
20
10
10
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 83
*SLRPK83*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

i) The collapse load for fixed beam subjected to central point load is
a) Wc = [4Mp/L]
b) Wc = [6Mp/L]
c) Wc = [8Mp/L]
d) Wc = [5.5Mp/L]
ii) In limit state method of design of tension members subjected to axial loads the
d) All of the above
iii) The maximum slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as tie in a roof truss or
a) 180
b) 250
c) 350
d) 400
iv) Determine the shape factor of I section having flanges 14016 mm and web thickness
a) 1.1488
b) 1.8844
c) 1.4848
d) 1.4188
v) The load factor in plastic design/ultimate strength design can be approximately equal to
1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 83
*SLRPK83*
-2-
vi) The shape factor of a section can be defined as

vii) The design criterion for plastic design of beams is

a) Mp Mu
c) Z Fyp Mu
viii) The moment curvature relation of plastic hinge is

b) Bilinear
ix) In case of number of plastic hinges at failure is less than (r + 1), where r is the degree
c) Partial collapse
d) Elastic collapse
x) A rocker bearing
b) Permit rotation
xi) The maximum bearing stress in light gauge steel section is given by
a) 1.0 Fy
b) 1.2 Fy
c) 2.1 Fy
d) 3.1 Fy
xii) The approximate method used in the analysis of multi-storey buildings for lateral loads
a) Portal method
c) Factor method
d) All of the above
xiii) The assumption of point of contraflexure occurs at the centre of each beam and column
is applicable for
a) Portal method
c) Factor method
d) Both a and b
e) All a, b and c
xiv) The shape factor for triangular section is

a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 2.34
d) 1.27
xv) The collapse load for propped cantilever subjected to central point load is
a) Wc = [4Mp/L]
b) Wc = [6Mp/L]
c) Wc = [8Mp/L]
d) Wc = [5.5Mp/L]
______________
Set S
*SLRPK83*
-3-
SLR-PK 83
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
20
the columns.
20
Set S
SLR-PK 83
-4-
*SLRPK83*
and E = 2105 N/mm2.
20
SECTION II
equal to 250 N/mm2.
20
20
10
10
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 84
*SLRPK84*
S

Elective III : INDUSTRIAL WASTE TREATMENT
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Marks : 20
20
1) For a conventional sludge digesters detention period of _________ is provided.

a) 20 to 30 minutes
b) 30 to 90 days
c) 4 to 6 hrs.
d) 1 to 2 days
2) _______ are used to improve settling and separation of coagulated substance.
a) Alum
b) Precipitation
c) Activated carbon
d) Polyelectrolytes
3) _________ wastes are highly corrosive for metallic and concrete structures also
to aquatic life.
a) Organic
b) Alkaline
c) Acidic
d) Oil and Grease
4) Organic substance deplete the ________ content of the receiving streams.
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
5) Reaeration constant varies with _________ for effluent waste.
a) Temperature
b) Ultimate BOD c) BOD
d) DO saturation
6) The minimum recommended diameter of sewers, is
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 15 cm
7) Phosphate removal in _________ is accomplished by Chemical precipitation.

a) Equalization tank
b) Sedimentation tank
c) Aeration tank
d) Detritus tank
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 84
-2-
*SLRPK84*
8) pH determines __________ degree of treatment in the waste effluent.

a) Hardness
b) Acidic or alkaline
c) Chlorides
d) Organic wastes
9) In ________ process the flow of ionic substances is initiated by providing electrical
potential between two electrodes.
a) Electrodialysis
c) Adsorption
d) Ion exchange
10) The cellulosic fiber separated from black liquor is partially dewatered in
a) Digester
b) Separator
c) Beater
d) Decker
11) The Fibrous residue of sugar mill house is known as
a) Molasses
b) Bagasses
c) Biogas
d) Lignin
12) Adsorption is a process of removal of _________ organics using fixed bed of

activated carbon column.
a) Non-biodegradable
b) Biodegradable
c) Volatile
d) Mixed liquor suspended
13) The treatability of an industrial waste is assessed by conducting laboratory test on
a) N/P ratio
b) BOD/COD ratio
c) BOD/SS ratio
d) COD/pH ratio
14) The ___________ phase of microorganisms are forced to oxidize for energy.
b) Log growth
c) Declining growth
d) All of the above
15) In a sugar mill the clarified juice is bleached by __________ process.
a) Coagulation
b) Dechlorination c) Aeration
d) Sulphitation
16) Addition of __________ to Kraft process results information of white liquor.
a) Ferric chloride
b) Polyelectrolyte
c) Lime
d) Alum
17) _________ is manufacturing process of pulp and paper industry.
a) Slashing and Desizing
b) Beater and Jordan Sugar
c) Clarification
d) Deliming
18) _________ reduces the volume of organic content of sludge.
a) Thickening
b) Conditioning
c) Digestion
d) Incineration
19) ________ from brewery industries are treated by By-product recovery.
a) Carbohydrates and proteins
b) Lactose
c) Vitamins
d) Glucose
20) The end products of anaerobic digestion are
a) Methane and Oxygen
b) Methane and Ammonia
c) Methane and Carbon dioxide
d) Carbon dioxide and Ammonia
______________
Set P
*SLRPK84*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 84

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. a) Explain lime treatment for neutralization for acidic waste.
b) Explain the actions involved in self purification of streams.
3. a) 100 cumecs of sewage in a city is discharged in a river which is fully saturated

with oxygen and flows at minimum rate of 1250 cumecs with a minimum velocity of
0.15 m/sec. if the 5-day BOD of sewage is 260 mg/l, find out where critical DO will
occur in river. Assume coefficient of purification (fs) of river as 4.0 and coefficient of
DO as 0.11 and ultimate BOD as 125% of 5 day BOD of the mixture of sewage and
river stream.
b) Explain pollutants characteristics of industrial wastes.
4. a) Explain by-product recovery from wastewater.
b) Explain various methods of waste strength reduction. Explain any one in detail.
9
5
6
7

I) Overview of industrial waste treatment
II) Effluent standards.
Set P
SLR-PK 84
-4-
*SLRPK84*
SECTION II
6. a) Explain various factors affecting the selection of treatment process of industrial
wastes. Mention different alternatives for disposal of industrial wastes.
b) Mention the typical industries and their toxic chemicals generated.
in detail.
a) Pulp and paper industry
b) Cotton textile industry.
a) Sugar industry
b) Distillery industry.
14
I) Economic aspect of water pollution control.

II) Massive lime treatment.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 84
*SLRPK84*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Marks : 20

a) Ferric chloride
b) Polyelectrolyte
c) Lime
d) Alum
c) Clarification
d) Deliming
a) Thickening
b) Conditioning
c) Digestion
d) Incineration
b) Lactose
c) Vitamins
d) Glucose
a) 20 to 30 minutes
b) 30 to 90 days
c) 4 to 6 hrs.
d) 1 to 2 days
a) Alum
b) Precipitation
c) Activated carbon
d) Polyelectrolytes
20
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 84
-2-
*SLRPK84*
to aquatic life.
a) Organic
b) Alkaline
c) Acidic
d) Oil and Grease
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
a) Temperature
d) DO saturation
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 15 cm

c) Aeration tank
d) Detritus tank
a) Hardness
c) Chlorides
d) Organic wastes
a) Electrodialysis
c) Adsorption
d) Ion exchange
a) Digester
b) Separator
c) Beater
d) Decker
a) Molasses
b) Bagasses
c) Biogas
d) Lignin

b) Biodegradable
c) Volatile
a) N/P ratio
b) BOD/COD ratio
c) BOD/SS ratio
d) COD/pH ratio
b) Log growth
c) Declining growth
d) All of the above
a) Coagulation
d) Sulphitation
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK84*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 84

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I

river stream.
9
5

Set Q
SLR-PK 84
-4-
*SLRPK84*
SECTION II
in detail.
a) Sugar industry
14

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 84
*SLRPK84*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Marks : 20

20
a) Molasses
b) Bagasses
c) Biogas
d) Lignin
b) Biodegradable
c) Volatile
a) N/P ratio
b) BOD/COD ratio
c) BOD/SS ratio
d) COD/pH ratio
b) Log growth
c) Declining growth
d) All of the above
a) Coagulation
d) Sulphitation
a) Ferric chloride
b) Polyelectrolyte
c) Lime
d) Alum
c) Clarification
d) Deliming
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 84
-2-
*SLRPK84*

a) Thickening
b) Conditioning
c) Digestion
d) Incineration
b) Lactose
c) Vitamins
d) Glucose
a) 20 to 30 minutes
b) 30 to 90 days
c) 4 to 6 hrs.
d) 1 to 2 days
a) Alum
b) Precipitation
c) Activated carbon
d) Polyelectrolytes
to aquatic life.
a) Organic
b) Alkaline
c) Acidic
d) Oil and Grease
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
a) Temperature
d) DO saturation
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 15 cm

c) Aeration tank
d) Detritus tank
a) Hardness
c) Chlorides
d) Organic wastes
a) Electrodialysis
c) Adsorption
d) Ion exchange
a) Digester
b) Separator
c) Beater
d) Decker
______________
Set R
*SLRPK84*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 84

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I

river stream.
9
5

Set R
SLR-PK 84
-4-
*SLRPK84*
SECTION II
in detail.
a) Sugar industry
14

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 84
*SLRPK84*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Marks : 20

20
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 15 cm
c) Aeration tank
d) Detritus tank
a) Hardness
c) Chlorides
d) Organic wastes
a) Electrodialysis
c) Adsorption
d) Ion exchange
a) Digester
b) Separator
c) Beater
d) Decker
a) Molasses
b) Bagasses
c) Biogas
d) Lignin
b) Biodegradable
c) Volatile
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 84
-2-
*SLRPK84*

a) N/P ratio
b) BOD/COD ratio
c) BOD/SS ratio
d) COD/pH ratio
b) Log growth
c) Declining growth
d) All of the above
a) Coagulation
d) Sulphitation
a) Ferric chloride
b) Polyelectrolyte
c) Lime
d) Alum
c) Clarification
d) Deliming
a) Thickening
b) Conditioning
c) Digestion
d) Incineration
b) Lactose
c) Vitamins
d) Glucose
a) 20 to 30 minutes
b) 30 to 90 days
c) 4 to 6 hrs.
d) 1 to 2 days
a) Alum
b) Precipitation
c) Activated carbon
d) Polyelectrolytes
to aquatic life.
a) Organic
b) Alkaline
c) Acidic
d) Oil and Grease
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
a) Temperature
d) DO saturation
______________
Set S
*SLRPK84*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 84

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I

river stream.
9
5
6
7

Set S
SLR-PK 84
-4-
*SLRPK84*
SECTION II
in detail.
a) Sugar industry
14

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 85
*SLRPK85*
S
Set
t

(Elective III) WATER POWER ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) The load factor for the peak day of the year determines the required
a) Water storage
b) Pondage
c) Generating capacity
d) None
a) Base load plant
b) Peak load plant
c) Nuclear power plant
d) Hydroelectric plant
3) The expected useful life of a hydroelectric power plant is
a) 15 years
b) 30 years
c) 60 years
d) 100 years
4) Sediment trop efficiency is low for reservoir with

a) Large capacity in flow ratio
b) Small capacity in flow ratio
c) Medium capacity in flow ratio
d) None
5) During load shedding
a) Some loads are switched off
c) System voltage is reduced
b) System power factor is changed

d) System frequency is reduced
6) Indicate type of turbine suitable for specific speed of 1000 rpm and head 50 m.
a) Francis
b) Pelton
c) Kaplan
d) Bulb
7) Unit power of turbine is
a)
2
b)
c)
2
d)
2
0
0
8) In Kaplan runner the number of blades is generally of the order of

a) 1-2
b) 3-6
c) 16-24
d) 12-16
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 85
-2-
*SLRPK85*
9) The pumped storage scheme is employed to supply power

a) During the peak hours
b) During the off-peak hours
c) System base load
d) None
10) The draft tube is provided to
a) Reduce the effect of water hammer
b) Raise the water surface of the stream
c) To create an artificial head
d) None
11) Deflectors are provided in
a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Propeller turbine
12) Pumped storage schemes are used to improve
a) Load factor
b) Power factor
c) Plant capacity factor
d) None
13) On what factors does the selection of a water turbine depend ?
a) Speed
b) Nature of load c) Working head d) All
14) Storage requirement can be determined from
a) Flow duration curve
b) Mass-curve
c) Hydrograph
d) Both (b) and (c)
15) For harnessing low variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with reaction
and adjustable vanes is
a) Pelton
b) Francis
c) Impeller
d) Kaplan
16) The function of surge tank is to
a) Produce surge in pipeline
b) Supply water at constant pressure
c) Relieve water hammer pressure in the penstock
d) None
17) The specific speeds of Pelton wheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines are in
a) Increasing order
b) Decreasing order
c) Neither increasing nor decreasing order
d) None
18) The flow through penstocks and pressure conduits is generally
a) Laminar
b) Transitional
c) Turbulent
d) Both (a) and (b)
19) A turbine is called reaction turbine if at the inlet of turbine the total energy is
a) Pressure
b) Kinetic and pressure
c) Kinetic
d) None
20) Jet ratio m is defined as the ratio of
a) Diameter of jet of water to diameter of pelton wheel
b) Velocity of vane to velocity of jet of water
c) Velocity of flow to velocity of jet of water
d) Diameter of pelton wheel to diameter of jet
______________
Set P
*SLRPK85*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 85

Day and Date :Thursday, 12-5-2016
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Que. No. 2 to 5 from Section I
and any three questions from Que. No. 6 to 9 from Section II.
2) Draw neat labelled Sketches necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) What are the various objectives of planning for water power development ?
b) How do you classify the hydroelectric schemes based on the operating head ?
Give suitable examples.
3. a) Define the mass-curve and explain its use in the design of dam capacity and
spillway capacity.
b) Three turbo generators each of capacity 10,000 kW has been installed at the hydal
power station. During a certain period of load ,the load on plant varies from
12000 kW to 25000 kW. Calculate (i) Installed capacity (ii) Load factor (iii) Plant factor
(iv) Utilisation factor.
4. a) The 95% dependable discharge of river is 20 m3/sec. If the head utilised is 25 m,
calculate :
1) Theoretical hp and kW
2) The approximate actual amount of power outputs
3) Total yearly developable energy
4) The actual capacity that may be installed to utilise all average flow and
corresponding energy.
b) Mention briefly the salient features of radial gates. Why they preferred for spillway
control ?
7
7
5. a) What are Base load and Peak load plants ? For what type of conditions,
hydroelectric power is very much useful ?
b) Discuss briefly, various types of hydraulic valves used in the penstock.
Set P
SLR-PK 85
-4-
*SLRPK85*
SECTION II
6. a) Which factors are considered in deciding the setting of Pelton wheel in horizontal
and vertical plane ? Discuss the advantage of one over other.
b) A power canal bed width 15 m, assumed in rectangular in shape and steady state
depth of flow of 3.0 m. The canal supplies water to a power house with three turbines,
each turbine rated at a discharge of 30 m3/s. If the load in the power house is
suddenly thrown off so that two of the turbines have to be shut down, what would
be the height of the surge in the canal ?
7. a) What do you understand by pump storage plant ? What are the advantages and
disadvantages of this power plant ? Where can such schemes to be applied ?
b) A closed cycle-pumped storage plant, with a gross head of 350 m, has a head race
tunnel of 4.0 m diameter and 700 m long . The flow velocity is 7.0 m/sec. and
friction factor f = 0.020. The overall efficiencies of pumping and generation are
86% and 89% respectively. Estimate the plant efficiency.
8. a) What do you understand by the term specific speed of a turbine ? What information
does it give and how it is made use in practice ? State how the reaction turbine
depends on specific speed.
b) What are the different types of draft tubes ? Sketch any two of them and state which
one of them gives maximum efficiency.
9. a) Explain with sketches the various methods of tidal power generation. State the
limitations of each method.
b) Write short notes on any two :
1) Tail race
2) Trash rack
3) Losses in intakes.
7
6
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 85
*SLRPK85*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)

d) None
a) Increasing order
b) Decreasing order
d) None
a) Laminar
b) Transitional
c) Turbulent
d) Both (a) and (b)
a) Pressure
c) Kinetic
d) None
a) Water storage
b) Pondage
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 85
*SLRPK85*
-2-

a) Base load plant
b) Peak load plant
a) 15 years
b) 30 years
c) 60 years
d) 100 years

d) None

a) Francis
b) Pelton
c) Kaplan
d) Bulb
a)
2
b)
c)
2
d)
2
0
0
0
0

a) 1-2
b) 3-6
c) 16-24
d) 12-16
c) System base load
d) None
d) None
a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
a) Load factor
b) Power factor
d) None
a) Speed
b) Mass-curve
c) Hydrograph
d) Both (b) and (c)
a) Pelton
b) Francis
c) Impeller
d) Kaplan
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK85*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 85

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
spillway capacity.
calculate :
control ?
7
7
Set Q
SLR-PK 85
-4-
*SLRPK85*
SECTION II
1) Tail race
2) Trash rack
7
6
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 85
*SLRPK85*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)

a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
a) Load factor
b) Power factor
d) None
a) Speed
b) Mass-curve
c) Hydrograph
d) Both (b) and (c)
a) Pelton
b) Francis
c) Impeller
d) Kaplan
d) None
a) Increasing order
b) Decreasing order
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 85
*SLRPK85*
-2-

a) Laminar
b) Transitional
c) Turbulent
d) Both (a) and (b)
a) Pressure
c) Kinetic
d) None
a) Water storage
b) Pondage
d) None
a) Base load plant
b) Peak load plant
a) 15 years
b) 30 years
c) 60 years
d) 100 years

d) None

a) Francis
b) Pelton
c) Kaplan
d) Bulb
a)
2
b)
c)
2
d)
2
0
0

a) 1-2
b) 3-6
c) 16-24
d) 12-16
c) System base load
d) None
d) None
______________
Set R
*SLRPK85*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 85

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
spillway capacity.
calculate :
control ?
7
7
Set R
SLR-PK 85
-4-
*SLRPK85*
SECTION II
1) Tail race
2) Trash rack
7
6
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 85
*SLRPK85*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
a) Francis
b) Pelton
c) Kaplan
d) Bulb
a)
2
b)
c)
2
d)
2
0
0

a) 1-2
b) 3-6
c) 16-24
d) 12-16
c) System base load
d) None
d) None
a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
a) Load factor
b) Power factor
d) None
a) Speed
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 85
*SLRPK85*
-2-

b) Mass-curve
c) Hydrograph
d) Both (b) and (c)
a) Pelton
b) Francis
c) Impeller
d) Kaplan
d) None
a) Increasing order
b) Decreasing order
d) None
a) Laminar
b) Transitional
c) Turbulent
d) Both (a) and (b)
a) Pressure
c) Kinetic
d) None
a) Water storage
b) Pondage
d) None
a) Base load plant
b) Peak load plant
a) 15 years
b) 30 years
c) 60 years
d) 100 years

d) None
______________
Set S
*SLRPK85*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 85

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
spillway capacity.
calculate :
control ?
7
7
Set S
SLR-PK 85
-4-
*SLRPK85*
SECTION II
1) Tail race
2) Trash rack
7
6
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 86
*SLRPK86*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective III : ADVANCED CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

of Page.
Marks : 20
(102=20)
1) Which of the following is/are deleterious material in aggregate ?

a) Coal
b) Shale
c) Clay lumps
d) All the above
2) If sea water is used for preparing concrete
a) It will cause efflorescence
b) It may corrode the reinforcement
c) It reduces the ultimate strength
d) All the above
3) If the slump of the concrete mix is 75 mm, its workability is considered to be
a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low
4) For RCC slab the slump of the concrete should be
a) 50 100 mm
b) 25 100 mm
c) 25 mm 50 mm
d) 0 25 mm
5) The workability of the concrete by slump test is expressed as
a) Mm2/h
b) Mm/h
c) Mm
d) Mm3/h
6) Admixtures could not be used to
a) Accelerate initial setting of concrete
b) Increase the strength of concrete
c) Improve workability
d) Reduce shrinkage
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 86
-2-
*SLRPK86*
7) For concrete mix pH value of water shall not be less than

a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9
8) The characteristic strength of concrete is defined as the strength of the
concrete below which not more than ________ of the test result are expected
to fall.
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 0%
9) The approximate value of the total shrinkage strain of concrete may be taken
as
a) 3.0
b) 0.3
c) 0.003
d) 0.0003
10) Which of the following is not a effect of creep ?
______________
Set P
*SLRPK86*
-3-
SLR-PK 86
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
1. a) Is there any relation between the cementing properties and heat of hydration
of cement ?
b) How can the heat of hydration of cement be reduced ?
10
2. a) What is the difference between an additive and an admixture ?
b) Explain how an additive and an admixture affecting the properties of concrete.
3. a) Compare internal and external vibration of concrete.
b) What is the influence of mixing time on the strength of concrete ?
4. Explain in detail Fiber reinforced concrete and its properties.
13
SECTION II
5. a) Comment on the relation between the maximum aggregate size and the pipe
diameter.
b) What are the special requirements for mix proportions of concrete which is to
be pumped ?
6. a) How is the performance of a mixer assessed ?
b) What are the two main categories of ready-mixed concrete ?
10
4
9
Set P
SLR-PK 86
-4-
*SLRPK86*
7. a) Which are the properties of concrete are influenced by water/cement ratio.
b) What is minimum and maximum water content ? How it affect on strength of

concrete ?
8. a) Comment on the statement that concrete is not a brittle material.
b) Why and when non destructive testing of concrete is required ? Which

properties of concrete can be evaluated by NDT ?
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 86
*SLRPK86*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

of Page.
Marks : 20
(102=20)

a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9
to fall.
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 0%
as
a) 3.0
b) 0.3
c) 0.003
d) 0.0003
a) Coal
b) Shale
c) Clay lumps
d) All the above
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 86
-2-
*SLRPK86*

a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low
a) 50 100 mm
b) 25 100 mm
c) 25 mm 50 mm
d) 0 25 mm
a) Mm2/h
b) Mm/h
c) Mm
d) Mm3/h
d) Reduce shrinkage
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK86*
-3-
SLR-PK 86
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
of cement ?
10

9
4
13
SECTION II
diameter.
be pumped ?
10
4
9
Set Q
SLR-PK 86
-4-
*SLRPK86*

concrete ?

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 86
*SLRPK86*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

of Page.
Marks : 20
(102=20)

a) 50 100 mm
b) 25 100 mm
c) 25 mm 50 mm
d) 0 25 mm
a) Mm2/h
b) Mm/h
c) Mm
d) Mm3/h
d) Reduce shrinkage
a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9
to fall.
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 0%
as
a) 3.0
b) 0.3
c) 0.003
d) 0.0003
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 86
-2-
*SLRPK86*

a) Coal
b) Shale
c) Clay lumps
d) All the above
d) All the above
a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low
______________
Set R
*SLRPK86*
-3-
SLR-PK 86
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
of cement ?
10
13
SECTION II
diameter.
be pumped ?
10
4
9
Set R
SLR-PK 86
-4-
*SLRPK86*

concrete ?

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 86
*SLRPK86*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

of Page.
Marks : 20
(102=20)

to fall.
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 0%
as
a) 3.0
b) 0.3
c) 0.003
d) 0.0003
a) Coal
b) Shale
c) Clay lumps
d) All the above
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 86
-2-
*SLRPK86*

a) Very high
b) High
c) Medium
d) Low
a) 50 100 mm
b) 25 100 mm
c) 25 mm 50 mm
d) 0 25 mm
a) Mm2/h
b) Mm/h
c) Mm
d) Mm3/h
d) Reduce shrinkage
a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9
______________
Set S
*SLRPK86*
-3-
SLR-PK 86
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
of cement ?
10
13
SECTION II
diameter.
be pumped ?
10
4
9
Set S
SLR-PK 86
-4-
*SLRPK86*

concrete ?

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 90
*SLRPK90*
S
Set
.

Elective III : OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

1.
Marks : 20
Select the correct option/options :
(201=20)

a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Reproduction
d) All the above

a) Inability to analyze large and complex real-world situations
b) Time compression capability
c) Could be disruptive by interfering with the real-world system
d) Is not usually easily transferable to other problems
3) The first step in the Monte Carlo simulation process is to
a) Generate random numbers
b) Set up cumulative probability distributions
c) Establish random number intervals
d) Simulate trials
4) Neural networks are complex ______________ with many parameters.
a) Linear functions
b) Non-linear functions
5) A perceptron is a
d) Feed-forward-backward algorithm
6) The relationship between stages of a dynamic programming problem is called as

a) State
b) Random variable c) Node
d) Transformation
a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b) and c)
is known as a
a) Prisoners strategy
b) Dominated strategy
c) Dominant strategy
d) Nash strategy
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 90
-2-
*SLRPK90*

a) Neither player knows the payoff matrix
b) The players have different information about the payoff matrix
c) Only one of the players pursues a rational strategy
d) The specific identity of the players is irrelevant to the play of the game
a) Identify one origin that can satisfy total demand at the destinations and at the same
b) Minimize the number of origins used to satisfy total demand at the destinations
c) Minimize the number of shipments necessary to satisfy total demand at the destinations
d) Minimize the cost of shipping products from several origins to several destinations
is that
d) All of the above
12) EOQ is a (an) _____________ inventory system.
a) Periodic
b) Continuous
c) Optimal
d) Economic
13) The linear programming model for a transportation problem has constraints for supply at
each ____________ and _____________ at each destination.
a) Destination/source b) Source/destination c) Demand/source d) Source/demand
14) The inventory carrying costs are also called as
a) Procurement costs b) Set-up costs
c) Storage costs
d) None of above
15) The problem which deals with the distribution of goods from several sources to several
destinations is the
a) Maximal flow problem
b) Transportation problem
c) Assignment problem
d) Shortest-route problem
16) ___________ of a function is a value which is higher than all the values of the function.
a) Global minimum
d) None
probability to each of the possible states than that decision is known as
d) All of these
decisions ?
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwitz
a) Mixed strategies
b) Pure strategies
c) Dominated strategies
d) None of these
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) Strategy
______________
Set P
*SLRPK90*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 90

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 80
Q. 2 is compulsory. Attempt any two from Q. 3 to Q. 5.

Attempt any three from Q. 6 to Q. 9 from Section II.
A graph paper may be used for the graphical method.
Figures to right indicate marks.
Make suitable assumptions only if needed but mention them clearly.
SECTION I
2.
a) Explain use of operation research in Civil Engineering.

b) Explain basic components of an optimization problem.
c) Write the steps to summarize the general procedure used to formulate and solve optimization
problems.
3.
Solve the following using Big M method :

Minimise Y + 2X
Subject to
X + Y > = 20
2X + 5Y > = 70
7X + 3Y > = 84
4.
A firm owns facilities at three places. It has manufacturing plants at three places A, B and C
with daily output of 500, 300 and 200 units of an item respectively. It has warehouses at
places P, Q, R and S with daily requirements of 180, 150, 350 and 320 units respectively.
Per unit shipping charges for different routes are given below.
T
&
8
12
4
4
"
The firm wants to send the outputs from various plants to warehouses involving
minimum transportation cost. How should it route the product so as to achieve the
objective ?
a) Use Northwest corner method for initial solution.
b) Test the optimality using MODI method.
6
6
Set P
SLR-PK 90
5.
*SLRPK90*
-4-
a) Convert the primal to its dual

Max Z = 60X1 + 30X2 + 20X3
S.T.
8X1 + 6X2 + X3
48
4X1 + 2X2 + 1.5 X3
20
2X1 + 1.5 X2 + 0.5 X3
X1, X2, X3
8
0.
b) Dakota Furniture makes desks, tables and chairs. Each product needs the limited resources
of lumber, carpentry and finishing ; as described in the table. At most 5 tables can be sold
per week. Maximize weekly revenue.
x
a
8
)
SECTION II
6.
a) Find the optimal strategies of A and B in the following game. Also obtain the value of the
game.
'
&
10
!
"
$
b) Explain the use of decision tree with example.
Set P
*SLRPK90*
7.
-5-
SLR-PK 90
A company produces 2000 TV sets in a year for which it needs equal number of tubes. Each
tube costs Rs. 10 and cost to hold a tube in stock for a year is Rs. 2.40. The cost for placing
the order is Rs. 150 which is not related to its size. Assuming no. of working days in year as
250, and lead time of 15 days, determine EOQ, Reorder level, Annual total variable inventory
cost, inventory cycle, no. of orders and Rupee value of EOQ and Rupee
value of average inventory.
13
8. a)
A traveller wants to go City B from City A. He is required to break journey thrice with
options available at each exchange point indicated by Circle for changing mode of transport.
Nodes are numbered for convenience only but travel time in hours are mentioned above
arrows indicating direction of travel.
Determine the route from A to B with minimum travel time. Solve using dynamic programming.
9
9.
b) What is artificial neural network technique.
a) Solve the Integer Programming Problem using cutting planes.

Maximise Z = 200X1+ 300X2
Subjected to 2X1 + 4X2
17
3X1 + 3X2
X1, X2
15
0 and integer.
b) What are applications of simulation ?
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 90
*SLRPK90*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

1.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Global minimum
d) None
d) All of these
decisions ?
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwitz
a) Mixed strategies
b) Pure strategies
d) None of these
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) Strategy
a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Reproduction
d) All the above
d) Simulate trials
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 90
*SLRPK90*
-2-

a) Linear functions

a) State
d) Transformation
a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b) and c)
is known as a
d) Nash strategy
is that
d) All of the above
a) Periodic
b) Continuous
c) Optimal
d) Economic
c) Storage costs
d) None of above
destinations is the
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK90*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 90

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.

problems.
3.

Minimise Y + 2X
Subject to
X + Y > = 20
2X + 5Y > = 70
7X + 3Y > = 84
4.
T
&
8
12
4
4
"
objective ?
6
6
Set Q
SLR-PK 90
5.
*SLRPK90*
-4-

Max Z = 60X1 + 30X2 + 20X3
S.T.
8X1 + 6X2 + X3
48
4X1 + 2X2 + 1.5 X3
20
2X1 + 1.5 X2 + 0.5 X3
X1, X2, X3
8
0.
x
a
8
)
SECTION II
6.
game.
'
&
10
!
"
$
Set Q
*SLRPK90*
7.
-5-
SLR-PK 90
13
8. a)
9
9.

17
3X1 + 3X2
X1, X2
15
0 and integer.
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 90
*SLRPK90*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

1.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
is that
d) All of the above
a) Periodic
b) Continuous
c) Optimal
d) Economic
c) Storage costs
d) None of above
destinations is the
a) Global minimum
d) None
d) All of these
decisions ?
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwitz
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 90
-2-
*SLRPK90*

a) Mixed strategies
b) Pure strategies
d) None of these
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) Strategy
a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Reproduction
d) All the above
d) Simulate trials
a) Linear functions
a) State
d) Transformation
a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b) and c)
is known as a
d) Nash strategy
______________
Set R
*SLRPK90*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 90

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.

problems.
3.

Minimise Y + 2X
Subject to
X + Y > = 20
2X + 5Y > = 70
7X + 3Y > = 84
4.
T
&
8
12
4
4
"
objective ?
6
6
Set R
SLR-PK 90
5.
*SLRPK90*
-4-

Max Z = 60X1 + 30X2 + 20X3
S.T.
8X1 + 6X2 + X3
48
4X1 + 2X2 + 1.5 X3
20
2X1 + 1.5 X2 + 0.5 X3
X1, X2, X3
8
0.
x
a
8
)
SECTION II
6.
game.
'
&
10
!
"
$
Set R
*SLRPK90*
7.
-5-
SLR-PK 90
13
8. a)
9
9.

17
3X1 + 3X2
X1, X2
15
0 and integer.
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 90
*SLRPK90*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

1.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) State
d) Transformation
a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b) and c)
is known as a
d) Nash strategy
is that
d) All of the above
a) Periodic
b) Continuous
c) Optimal
d) Economic
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 90
-2-
*SLRPK90*
c) Storage costs
d) None of above
destinations is the
a) Global minimum
d) None
d) All of these
decisions ?
a) Minimax
b) Maximin
c) Laplace
d) Hurwitz
a) Mixed strategies
b) Pure strategies
d) None of these
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) Strategy
a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Reproduction
d) All the above
d) Simulate trials
a) Linear functions
______________
Set S
*SLRPK90*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 90

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.

problems.
3.

Minimise Y + 2X
Subject to
X + Y > = 20
2X + 5Y > = 70
7X + 3Y > = 84
4.
T
&
8
12
4
4
"
objective ?
6
6
Set S
SLR-PK 90
5.
*SLRPK90*
-4-

Max Z = 60X1 + 30X2 + 20X3
S.T.
8X1 + 6X2 + X3
48
4X1 + 2X2 + 1.5 X3
20
2X1 + 1.5 X2 + 0.5 X3
X1, X2, X3
8
0.
x
a
8
)
SECTION II
6.
game.
'
&
10
!
"
$
Set S
*SLRPK90*
7.
-5-
SLR-PK 90
13
8. a)
9
9.

17
3X1 + 3X2
X1, X2
15
0 and integer.
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 91
*SKRPK91*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective III : DISASTER MANAGEMENT (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Responsibility for securing the scene, preserving life and treating the wounded is
the responsibility of
a) First responders
b) Mental health professionals
c) Social workers who specialize in crisis management
d) All citizens
2) There are nine tasks in the disaster management. All of the following are tasks of
this model EXCEPT
a) Assess secondary social problems such as health epidemics, displaced
persons
b) Counsel those who have suffered trauma and bereavement
c) Control rumors, provide accurate information
d) Provide security, prevent looting, protect person and property
3) Which one of the following theories of disaster management informs organizational
readiness and response in a disaster ?
a) Hobfolls theory of Conservation of resources
b) The problem-solving task model
c) Structure-functional theory
d) Theory of traumatogenic forces
4) With reference to the classification of natural disasters, consider the following
statements :
1. Broadly, natural disasters can be classified under four categories, atmospheric,
terrestrial, aquatic and biological.
2. Bird flu, dengue are example of aquatic disaster
3. India has experienced all the four kind of natural disaster.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 91
-2-
*SKRPK91*
5) Tropical cyclones are intense low pressure areas confined to the area lying
between
a) 30 degree north and 30 degree south
b) 50 degree north and 50 degree south
c) 50 degree north and 30 degree south
d) 5 degree north and 5 degree south
6) Which one among these is not an essential condition for emergence of Tropical
Cyclone ?
a) Peninsular landmass
b) Strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre
c) Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous
latent heat
d) Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of
latent heat
7) With reference to flood consider the following statements :
1. National Programme of Flood Management was launched in 1954.
2. Disturbances along the natural drainage channels and colonisation of floodplains and river-beds are some of the human activities that play an important
role in increasing the intensity, magnitude and gravity of floods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
8) Which of these is/are flood prevention and mitigation strategy ?
1. Construction of flood protection embankments
2. Depopulating the flood plains
3. Afforestation
4. Decongesting river channels
Select the correct option using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9) As the magnitude of natural disasters increases their frequency of occurrence
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) varies over time
10) The primary goal of a disaster preparedness plan is
a) to protect the population
b) to protect valuable resources
c) to keep communications lines open
d) to protect environmental health personnel
Set P
*SKRPK91*
-3-
SLR-PK 91
11) Priority environmental health concerns during a natural disaster are providing
victims with
a) food, radio, water, portable generator
b) food, fuel, refrigeration, shelter
c) water, food, shelter, sanitation
d) water, heat, clothing, medicine
12) Disaster management is aimed ultimately at
a) resettling people in the closest unaffected urban area
b) collecting valuable data for future management objectives
c) strengthening sewage and drinking water treatment facilities to resist the impact
of a future disaster
d) incorporating needed reforms into community government structure
13) The most valuable information to have on hand in case a disaster strikes is
a) phone numbers and addresses of local, national and international aid societies
b) knowledge of which areas are likely to be hardest hit and resources and services
available in and around these areas
c) first aid manuals, maps and emergency operations manuals
d) addresses of all hospitals and clinics throughout the country
14) Educating the public on what to expect in the event of a disaster and what
emergency steps to take
a) would lull the population into a false sense of security
b) is an unwise use of time and money
c) would increase the likelihood of survival
d) could cause unnecessary panic and disorientation
15) Relocation of disaster victims in camps
a) is the preferred way to provide essential services to disaster victims
b) can result in secondary health emergencies
c) usually represents the most efficient use of scarce resources
d) should never be attempted
16) Once an area has been singled out as requiring priority intervention following a
disaster, attention should turn next to
a) determining high risk factors based on relative incidence of disease
b) instituting short-term rehabilitation measures
c) ranking the needs for essential lifeline services in order of priority and providing
the requisite manpower
d) conducting technical surveys to evaluate and plan the restoration of lifeline
services
Set P
SLR-PK 91
*SKRPK91*
-4-
17) Predisaster environmental health measures are intended to reduce or eliminate

environmental health hazards, caused or aggravated in a disaster, by
a) developing evacuation strategies, coordinating transport and distribution of
emergency supplies and developing a public education program
b) developing an emergency operations plan, establishing an immunization
program and adopting routine measures to protect lifeline services
c) developing a public education program, conducting epidemiologic surveys and
coordinating transport and stock piling of emergency relief supplies
d) developing an emergency operations action plan, adopting routine measures
to protect lifeline services and developing a public education program
18) The primary cause of food and water contamination after a disaster is
a) damage to civil engineering structures, such as dams, pipelines, etc.
b) large-scale looting of public and private facilities
c) difficulty in maintaining standards of personal hygiene
d) interruption of inspection and monitoring activities
19) Emergency environmental health control measures are carried out
a) during phase two of a disaster
b) as soon as a warning is received
c) after the rescue and accommodation of displaced persons
d) only by qualified environmental health specialists
20) All emergency, consolidation and short-term rehabilitation measures should be
carries out within the occurrence of a disaster
a) three days
b) three weeks
c) three months
d) six months
______________
Set P
*SKRPK91*
-5-
SLR-PK 91
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 is compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5.

SECTION I
2. a) Explain the ecosystem approach.
16
b) What are the causes of volcanism ?

c) What are the causes of landslide ?
d) What are environmental hazards ?
3. Write notes (on any three) :
12
a) Different flood control measures.

b) Various species at risk.
c) Global sedimentation problems.
d) Causes of soil erosion.
12
a) Structure and nature of cyclone.

b) Mined land reclamation.
c) Principles of disaster preparedness.
d) Response and recovery in emergency stage.
12
a) Hazard zonation maps and its preparation.

b) Socio-economic rehabilitation.
c) Physical and social infrastructure in post disaster stage.
d) Disaster mitigation.
Set P
SLR-PK 91
-6-
*SKRPK91*
SECTION II
6. Write notes on :
16
a) Structured and non structured mitigation.

b) Relation between disaster and development.
c) Role of media in disaster research.
d) Disaster management cell.
12
a) Role and responsibility of District Magistrate in prevention of disaster.

b) National agencies involved in disaster management.
c) United Nations Disaster Management Cell.
d) Education on disaster management.
12
a) Military and paramilitary forces in disaster management.

b) IGBP and its role.
c) Sustainable development in disaster mitigation.
d) Adjustment to natural hazards.
Set P
SLR-PK 91
*SKRPK91*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
services
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 91
*SKRPK91*
-2-

a) three days
b) three weeks
c) three months
d) six months
a) First responders
d) All citizens
this model EXCEPT
persons
statements :
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Set Q
*SKRPK91*
-3-
SLR-PK 91
between
Cyclone ?
latent heat
latent heat
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Afforestation
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) varies over time
Set Q
SLR-PK 91
-4-
*SKRPK91*
victims with
______________
Set Q
*SKRPK91*
-5-
SLR-PK 91
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
16

12

12

12

Set Q
SLR-PK 91
-6-
*SKRPK91*
SECTION II
6. Write notes on :
16

12

12

Set Q
SLR-PK 91
*SKRPK91*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

victims with
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 91
-2-
*SKRPK91*

services
Set R
*SKRPK91*
-3-
SLR-PK 91

a) three days
b) three weeks
c) three months
d) six months
a) First responders
d) All citizens
this model EXCEPT
persons
statements :
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
between
Set R
SLR-PK 91
-4-
*SKRPK91*
Cyclone ?
latent heat
latent heat
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Afforestation
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) varies over time
______________
Set R
*SKRPK91*
-5-
SLR-PK 91
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
16

12

12

12

Set R
SLR-PK 91
-6-
*SKRPK91*
SECTION II
6. Write notes on :
16

12

12

Set R
SLR-PK 91
*SKRPK91*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
Cyclone ?
latent heat
latent heat
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Afforestation
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 91
-2-
*SKRPK91*

a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) varies over time
victims with
Set S
*SKRPK91*
SLR-PK 91
-3-
services
a) three days
b) three weeks
c) three months
d) six months
Set S
SLR-PK 91
-4-
*SKRPK91*
a) First responders
d) All citizens
this model EXCEPT
persons
statements :
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
between
______________
Set S
*SKRPK91*
-5-
SLR-PK 91
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
16

12

12

12

Set S
SLR-PK 91
-6-
*SKRPK91*
SECTION II
6. Write notes on :
16

12

12

Set S
SLR-PK 92
*SLRPK92*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

3) All the sub-questions in Q. No. 1 are compulsory for one mark
each and every question has only one correct answer.
4) Answer cannot be changed once it is marked.
Marks : 14

1) If bulk modulus of a material is equal to its modulus of rigidity, its Poissons ratio is
a) 0.125
b) 0.5
c) 0.25
d) 0.75
2) If a metallic rod free at both the ends is heated, the thermal stress induced would
be
a) compressive
b) shear
c) zero
d) tensile
3) If diameter of a shaft is doubled, the power transmitted P can be increased to
a) 16P
b) 2P
c) 4P
d) 8P
4) For a cantilever carrying U.V.L., the shape of the B.M.D. is
a) triangular
b) cubic
c) parabolic
d) rectangular
5) The maximum B.M. for a simply supported beam of length l carrying U.D.L. of w/m
on its entire length is given by
c) wl2/8
d) wl2/3
a) wl/4
b) wl2/2
6) If a body is subjected to a simple shear stress only, the principal stresses are
a) both tensile
b) both compressive
c) zero
d) one tensile and another compressive
7) If 1 and 2 are the maximum and minimum principal stresses respectively, then
the diameter of Mohrs circle is
a) 1 2
b)
( 1 2 )
c)
( 1 + 2 )
d) 1 + 2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 92
*SLRPK92*
-2-
8) For a cantilever subjected to bending, the bending stress is

a) compressive maximum at the topmost fibre
b) compressive maximum at the bottommost fibre
c) zero at the topmost fibre
d) zero at the bottommost fibre
9) The section modulus for a beam with a square section of side S is given by
b) S3/4
c) S4/6
d) S3/6
a) S3/12
10) For a cantilever of length l carrying a point load W at its free end, the maximum
deflection is given by
a) Wl3/3EI
b) Wl3/16EI
c) Wl2/2EI
d) Wl3/48El
11) For a simply supported beam carrying a U.D.L. on its entire span, the slope is
a) zero at the supports
b) maximum at the centre
c) zero at the centre
d) same as the deflection
12) For a column of length l with both ends fixed, the equivalent length is given by
a) l
b) 2l
c) l / 2
d) l/2
13) A column will buckle under minimum load if its

a) both the ends are hinged
b) one end is fixed and the other end is free
c) both the ends are fixed
d) one end is fixed and the other end is hinged
14) Strain energy per unit volume stored in a circular shaft subjected to torsion is
given by
a) 2 / 2E
b) 2 / 2G
c) 2 / 4G
d) 2 / 4
______________
Set P
*SLRPK92*
-3-
SLR-PK 92
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56
Solve any two questions from each Section.

Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
Figures to right indicates full marks.
Assume additional suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Two vertical rods, one of Steel and the other of Copper are rigidly fixed at top and
a 50 cm apart. The diameter and the length of each rod are 2 m and 4 cm
respectively. A cross-bar fixed to the rods at the lower ends carries a load of 5 kN
such that the cross-bar remains horizontal even after loading. Determine the stress
in each rod and the position of the load on the cross-bar.
Take E for Steel = 200 GPa and E for Copper = 100 GPa.
b) A rectangular block is subjected to the perpendicular tensile stresses of 110 MPa

and 47 MPa alongwith a simple shear stress of 63 MPa acting on these planes.
Determine the direction and magnitude of principal stresses and the magnitude of
maximum shear stress.
3. a) An overhanging beam ABC, 6 m long is supported at A and B 4m apart. It carries

a U.D.L. of 2 kN/m on its entire span alongwith a point load of 2 kN at its free end
C. Draw S.F. and B.M. diagrams and locate all the important points.
b) Show that every simple shear stress is always accompanied by a complementary

shear stress acting on the planes normal to it.
4. a) A composite shaft consists of a Copper rod of 30 mm diameter enclosed in a steel

tube of external diameter 50 mm and 10 mm thick. The shaft is subjected to a
torque of 1 kNm. Determine the shear stress induced in both the materials if modulus
of rigidity of Steel is twice that of Copper.
b) At a point in a strained material, the stresses acting on perpendicular planes are

600 Mpa and 300 Mpa both tensile. A shear stress of 450 Mpa also acts such that
it tends to rotate the element anticlockwise when associated with the plane of
major stress. Determine the normal and tangential stresses acting on a plane equally
inclined to both the given planes.
Set P
SLR-PK 92
-4-
*SLRPK92*
SECTION II
5. a) A beam has a T-Section with the flange (200 50) mm and the web (200 50) mm
and it is subjected to a vertical shear force of 200 kN. Determine the intensity of
maximum shear stress and draw the shear stress distribution diagram.
b) A beam 3 m long is simply supported at its ends and it carries a point load at the
centre. If the slope at the ends is not to exceed 1, determine the maximum deflection
of the beam.
6. a) State the assumptions made in the theory of simple bending of beams.
b) Define the following terms for axially loaded columns.

i) Equivalent length
ii) Slenderness ratio
c) A column has an I-Section with overall depth 400 mm and the flanges 200 mm
long with the flanges and the web 20 mm thick. It is 6 m long with both the ends
fixed. Determine Eulers crippling load for the column if Youngs modulus for the
material of the column is 200 Gpa.
7. a) A Copper bar fixed at the top end with 12 mm diameter gets stretched by 1 mm
under a gradual load of 4 kN. What stress would be induced in the bar if a weight of
500 N falls through 80 mm on the collar rigidly attached at its bottom end ? Take
Youngs modulus for Copper as 100 Gpa.
b) A cantilever beam 120 mm wide and 150 mm deep carries a U.D.L. of 10 kN/m on its
entire span of 2.4 m. Calculate the maximum slope and deflection.
Take E = 180 Gpa.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 92
*SLRPK92*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

b) S3/4
c) S4/6
d) S3/6
a) S3/12
a) Wl3/3EI
b) Wl3/16EI
c) Wl2/2EI
d) Wl3/48El
a) l
b) 2l
c) l / 2
d) l/2

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 92
*SLRPK92*
-2-
given by
a) 2 / 2E
b) 2 / 2G
c) 2 / 4G
d) 2 / 4
a) 0.125
b) 0.5
c) 0.25
d) 0.75
be
a) compressive
b) shear
c) zero
d) tensile
a) 16P
b) 2P
c) 4P
d) 8P
a) triangular
b) cubic
c) parabolic
d) rectangular
a) wl/4
b) wl2/2
c) wl2/8
d) wl2/3
a) both tensile
b) both compressive
c) zero
a) 1 2
b)
( 1 2 )
c)
( 1 + 2 )
d) 1 + 2
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK92*
-3-
SLR-PK 92
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

SECTION I





Set Q
SLR-PK 92
-4-
*SLRPK92*
SECTION II
of the beam.

Take E = 180 Gpa.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 92
*SLRPK92*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) wl/4
b) wl2/2
c) wl2/8
d) wl2/3
a) both tensile
b) both compressive
c) zero
a) 1 2
b)
( 1 2 )
c)
( 1 + 2 )
d) 1 + 2

a) S3/12
b) S3/4
c) S4/6
d) S3/6
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 92
*SLRPK92*
-2-
a) Wl3/3EI
b) Wl3/16EI
c) Wl2/2EI
d) Wl3/48El
a) l
b) 2l
c) l / 2
d) l/2

given by
a) 2 / 2E
b) 2 / 2G
c) 2 / 4G
d) 2 / 4
a) 0.125
b) 0.5
c) 0.25
d) 0.75
be
a) compressive
b) shear
c) zero
d) tensile
a) 16P
b) 2P
c) 4P
d) 8P
a) triangular
b) cubic
c) parabolic
d) rectangular
______________
Set R
*SLRPK92*
-3-
SLR-PK 92
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

SECTION I





Set R
SLR-PK 92
-4-
*SLRPK92*
SECTION II
of the beam.

Take E = 180 Gpa.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 92
*SLRPK92*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

b) Wl3/16EI
c) Wl2/2EI
d) Wl3/48El
a) Wl3/3EI
a) l
b) 2l
c) l / 2
d) l/2

given by
a) 2 / 2E
b) 2 / 2G
c) 2 / 4G
d) 2 / 4
a) 0.125
b) 0.5
c) 0.25
d) 0.75
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 92
*SLRPK92*
-2-
be
a) compressive
b) shear
c) zero
d) tensile
a) 16P
b) 2P
c) 4P
d) 8P
a) triangular
b) cubic
c) parabolic
d) rectangular
a) wl/4
b) wl2/2
c) wl2/8
d) wl2/3
a) both tensile
b) both compressive
c) zero
a) 1 2
b)
( 1 2 )
c)
( 1 + 2 )
d) 1 + 2

a) S3/12
b) S3/4
c) S4/6
d) S3/6
______________
Set S
*SLRPK92*
-3-
SLR-PK 92
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

SECTION I





Set S
SLR-PK 92
-4-
*SLRPK92*
SECTION II
of the beam.

Take E = 180 Gpa.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 93
*SLRPK93*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) Use of steam stables and mollier diagram is allowed.

2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
4) Out of remaining questions solve any two questions from
each Section.
Marks : 14
14
1) The Rankine cycle as compared with to Carnot cycle has ______ work ratio.
A) High
B) Low
C) Equal
D) Half
2) A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising
its pressure, is called
A) Fusible plug
B) Stop valve
C) Superheater
D) Economiser
3) In boiler, various heat losses take. The biggest loss is due to
A) Moisture in fuel
B) Dry flue gases
C) Steam formation
D) Unburnt carbon
4) Reversible adiabatic process has
A) ds = 0
C) ds < 0
B) ds > 0
D) ds = dh
5) Kelvin-Planks law deals with

A) Conversion of work
C) Conversion of mass
B) Conversion of heat
D) Conversion of heat into work
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 93
*SLRPK93*
-2-
6) Non flow energy equation for reversible process is

A) dQ = du + pdv
B) dv = dQ + pdu
C) dp = dQ + udv
D) du = dQ + pdv
7) Entropy of water at 0C is assumed to be
A) 1
B) 0
C) 1
8) Delaval turbine is
A) Impulse reaction turbine
C) Multi rotor impulse turbine
D) 10
B) Reaction turbine
D) Single rotor impulse turbine
9) The compounding of turbines is done in order to

A) Reduce the speed of rotor
B) Improve efficiency
C) Reduce exit losses
D) All of above
10) The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called
A) Condenser efficiency
B) Vacuum efficiency
C) Nozzle efficiency
D) Evaporator efficiency
11) Effect of friction in nozzle __________ dryness fraction of steam.
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) No change
D) None of above
12) The pressure during Suction stroke is ____________ atmospheric pressure.
A) Equal to
B) Less than
C) More
D) Higher
13) The volume of air sucked by compressor during suction stroke is called
A) Free air delivery
B) Compressor capacity
C) Swept volume
D) Clearance volume
14) The smallest section of nozzle is called
A) Opening
B) Penstock
C) Divergent section
D) Throat
______________
Set P
*SLRPK93*
-3-
SLR-PK 93
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

each Section.
SECTION I
2. A) Make comparison between water tube and fire tube boiler.
B) Calculate standard heat of reaction for the following reaction at 298.15 k for
the reaction
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) 4 NO (g) + 6H2O (g).

Enthalpies of formation for
NH3 (g) = 45.72 KJ/mol, NO (g) = 90.43 KJ/mol, Water (g) = 242 KJ/mol,
O2 (g) = 0 KJ/mol.
3. A) Dry saturated steam 10 bar is supplied to turbine working on Rankine cycle.

It is exhausted at 0.5 bar. Calculate :
i) Rankine efficiency
ii) Specific steam consumption.
B) A Carnot engine works between temperature limit of 825C and 125C.

The engine receives 3600 KJ of heat per minute. Determine power of engine
and amount of heat rejected to sink per second.
4. A) Explain charging of cylinder with appropriate derivation.

B) State Kelvin-Plank and Clausius statements of second law of thermodynamics
and show how they are equivalent to each other.
7
7
Set P
SLR-PK 93
-4-
*SLRPK93*
SECTION II
5. a) Discuss supersaturated or metastable expansion of steam in steam nozzles.
b) The following data relates to single stage impulse turbine:
5
5
Steam velocity = 600 m/s

Blade speed = 250 m/s
Nozzle angle = 20
Blade outlet angle = 25. Neglecting friction. calculate work developed by the
turbine for a steam feed rate of 20 kg/sec. Also calculate axial thrust on the
bearing.
c) Explain construction and working of low level Jet Condenser with sketch.
6. a) Explain construction and working of forced draft and induced draft cooling
towers. Give their merits and demerits.
b) With velocity triangles and various sketches, explain the difference between
impulse and reaction turbine.
c) In a steam nozzle steam expands from 4 bar to 1 bar. The initial velocity of
steam is 60 m/s and initial temperature is 200C. Draw a sketch on Mollier
diagram for this process and compute exit velocity if nozzle efficiency is 92%. 5
7. a) Following data relate to performance test of a single-acting 14 cm 10 cm
reciprocating compressor :
Suction pressure = 1 bar
Suction temperature = 20C
Discharge pressure = 6 bar
Discharge temperature = 180C
Speed of compressor = 1200 rpm
Shaft power = 6.25 Kw
Mass of air delivered = 1.7 Kg/min.
Calculate :
a) The actual volumetric efficiency
b) The indicated power
c) The isothermal efficiency
d) The mechanical efficiency.
b) Explain the need of multistaging in a reciprocating compressor with a
suitable diagram.
c) Derive an expression for volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating

compressor with usual notations.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 93
*SLRPK93*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

each Section.
Marks : 14

14
B) Reaction turbine

D) All of above
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) No change
D) None of above
A) Equal to
B) Less than
C) More
D) Higher
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 93
*SLRPK93*
-2-

C) Swept volume
D) Clearance volume
A) Opening
B) Penstock
D) Throat
A) High
B) Low
C) Equal
D) Half
A) Fusible plug
B) Stop valve
C) Superheater
D) Economiser
A) Moisture in fuel
B) Dry flue gases
C) Steam formation
D) Unburnt carbon
A) ds = 0
C) ds < 0
B) ds > 0
D) ds = dh


A) dQ = du + pdv
B) dv = dQ + pdu
C) dp = dQ + udv
D) du = dQ + pdv
A) 1
B) 0
C) 1
D) 10
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK93*
-3-
SLR-PK 93
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

each Section.
SECTION I
the reaction
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) 4 NO (g) + 6H2O (g).

O2 (g) = 0 KJ/mol.



7
7
Set Q
SLR-PK 93
-4-
*SLRPK93*
SECTION II
5
5

Nozzle angle = 20
bearing.
Calculate :
suitable diagram.

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 93
*SLRPK93*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

each Section.
Marks : 14

14

A) dQ = du + pdv
B) dv = dQ + pdu
C) dp = dQ + udv
D) du = dQ + pdv
A) 1
B) 0
C) 1
D) 10
B) Reaction turbine

D) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 93
-2-
*SLRPK93*

A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) No change
D) None of above
A) Equal to
B) Less than
C) More
D) Higher
C) Swept volume
D) Clearance volume
A) Opening
B) Penstock
D) Throat
A) High
B) Low
C) Equal
D) Half
A) Fusible plug
B) Stop valve
C) Superheater
D) Economiser
A) Moisture in fuel
B) Dry flue gases
C) Steam formation
D) Unburnt carbon
A) ds = 0
B) ds > 0
C) ds < 0
D) ds = dh
______________
Set R
*SLRPK93*
-3-
SLR-PK 93
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

each Section.
SECTION I
the reaction
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) 4 NO (g) + 6H2O (g).

O2 (g) = 0 KJ/mol.



7
7
Set R
SLR-PK 93
-4-
*SLRPK93*
SECTION II
5
5

Nozzle angle = 20
bearing.
Calculate :
suitable diagram.

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 93
*SLRPK93*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

each Section.
Marks : 14
14

A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) No change
D) None of above
A) Equal to
B) Less than
C) More
D) Higher
C) Swept volume
D) Clearance volume
A) Opening
B) Penstock
D) Throat
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 93
*SLRPK93*
-2-
A) High
B) Low
C) Equal
D) Half
A) Fusible plug
B) Stop valve
C) Superheater
D) Economiser
A) Moisture in fuel
B) Dry flue gases
C) Steam formation
D) Unburnt carbon
A) ds = 0
C) ds < 0
B) ds > 0
D) ds = dh

A) dQ = du + pdv
B) dv = dQ + pdu
C) dp = dQ + udv
D) du = dQ + pdv
A) 1
B) 0
C) 1
D) 10
B) Reaction turbine

D) All of above
______________
Set S
*SLRPK93*
-3-
SLR-PK 93
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

each Section.
SECTION I
the reaction
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) 4 NO (g) + 6H2O (g).

O2 (g) = 0 KJ/mol.



7
7
Set S
SLR-PK 93
-4-
*SLRPK93*
SECTION II
5
5

Nozzle angle = 20
bearing.
Calculate :
suitable diagram.

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 94
*SLRPK94*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Mechanical) Part I (CGPA) Examination, 2016
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Attempt any three question from each Section.

Use of calculator and statistical tables are allowed.
Marks : 14
(114=14)
1) The complete solution of (D3 + 3 D2 + 3 D + 1) y = 0 is
2)
a) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3) x
b) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2)x
c) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2) ex
d) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2) ex
1
2
D +9
a)
cos 3 x is equal to __________

x
sin 3x
6
3) The P.I. of
x2
b)
d2y
dx 2
a) e2x 2
+x
x
sin 3x
6
dy
dx
c)
4) The general solution of (1 +
x)2
c) (log x)2 2
d2 y
2
+ (1 + x )
dx
a) C1 cos log (1 + x) + C2 sin log (1 + x)
c) (C1 + C2x) ex
5) The solution of the equation
c) Z = ax + (1
2
a ) y+c
d)
x
sin 3x
3
+ y = (logx)2 is __________
b) ex 2
a) Z = ax + ay + c
x
cos 3x
3
p+
d) log x 2
dy
+ y = 0 is y = _____________
dx
b) C1 cos x + C2 sin x
d) None of these
q = 1 is ___________
b) Z = ax + a2y + c
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 94
*SLRPK94*
-2-
6) If r = x i + yj + z k , then curl r = __________

a) 3
b) 2
c) 0
d) 1
7) If = x2 + y + z, then grad at (1, 1, 1) = ___________

a) i + j + k
b) 2i + j + k
d) i + 2j + k
c) i + j + 2 k
8) Consider the following statements :

i) The mean of Binomial distribution is 15 and Std. deviation is 5
ii) The mean of Poisson distribution is 2 and Std. deviation is 2. Then
a) (i) is false, (ii) is true
b) (i) is true, (ii) is false
c) Both (i) and (ii) are true
d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
9) A discrete probability distribution is given by

x:
P(x) :
Total
1
Then P(x 1 ) = ________
1
2
2
8
b)
c)
d)
3
9
3
9
10) The weights of 4000 students are found to be normally distributed with mean
50 kg and Std. deviation 5 kg, then the probability that a student selected at random
will have weight greater than 50 is
a)
a) 1
b) 0.5
11) The value of
3z 2 + 7z + 1
z +1
a) 2 i
c) 0
d) None of these
dz where C is the circle | z | =
1
is
2
c) i
d)
b) 0
i
2
12) Which of the following are Cauchy Riemann equations ?

a) Ux = Vy , Uy = Vx
b) Ux = Vy , Uy = Vx
c) Ux = Vy , Uy = Vx
d) Ux = Vx , Uy = Vy
13) The standard error is the __________ of the sampling distribution of statistic.
a) Mean
b) Variance
c) Standard deviation
d) None
14) The following mistakes per page were found in book

No. of mistakes :
Pages: 211
a) 0.59
90
19
2
0 Then is
b) 0.069
c) 0.81
______________
d) 0.79
Set P
*SLRPK94*
-3-
SLR-PK 94
Seat
No.

Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three question from each Section.
2) Use of calculator and statistical tables are allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve
d2 y
dx 2
+3
dy
+ 2y = 4cos2x.
dx
b) Solve (D3 + 8) y = x4 + 2x + 1.
c) Solve (D2 + 4) y = x sin x.
3. a) Solve
x2
d2 y
dx
2x
dy
1
+ 2y = 2 .
dx
x
OR
a) Solve (1 + x)2
b) Solve
d2 y
dx
+4
d2 y
dx
+ (1+ x)
dy
+ y = 4 cos/log (1 + x).
dx
dy
+ 3y = ex ; subject to the conditions y (0) = 1 = y (0).
dx
4
5
Set P
SLR-PK 94
-4-
*SLRPK94*
4. a) Prove that
is irrotational, where
r and r are there usual meaning.
b) Find the directional derivative of the function = x2 y2 + 2z2 at the point

P(1, 2, 3) in the direction of the line PQ, where Q is the point (5, 0, 4).
c) A particle moves along the curve x = et , y = 2 cos3t, z = 2 sin3t. Find the

velocity and acceleration vector and the magnitude of velocity and
acceleration at t = 0.
5. a) Solve z2 (p2 + q2) = x2 + y2.
b) Solve the following equation by the method of separation of variables.
u
u
= 4 , where u(0, y) = 8 e3y .
x
y
c) Solve x(y z) p + y (z x) q = z (x y).
SECTION II
6. a) In a room, there are three lamp-sockets. A bag contains 6 working and 4 nonworking bulbs. Three bulbs are selected at random and fitted in the sockets.
Find the probability that there will be some light in the room.
b) An insurance company found that only 0.01 percent of the population is involved
in a certain type of accident each year. If its 1000 policy-holders were randomly
selected from the population.
What is the probability that more than two of its clients are involved in such an
accident next year ?
c) Random samples of 125 persons each have been drawn from two big cities
A and B. The mean income and the standard deviation for the sample from city
A are Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 100 respectively and for the sample from city B, the mean
and standard deviation are Rs. 2,050 and Rs. 200 respectively.
Is there a significant difference in per capita income of the two cities (at 5%
significance level) ? Assume the distribution of income to be normal for each
day. [Critical value for 5% L.O.S. for two tailed test is 1.96.]
7. a) Out of 64 offsprings of a certain cross between guinea pigs, 34 were red, 10 were
black and 20 were white. According to generic model these numbers should be in
the ratio 9 : 3 : 4. Use 2 test to check whether the data are
consistent with the model.
[Critical value of 2 for 2dof, 5% L.O.S. is 5.99].
Set P
*SLRPK94*
-5-
SLR-PK 94
b) In a random sample of 10 bolts produced by a machine the mean length of bolts

is 0.53 mm and Std. deviation 0.03 m.m. Can we claim from this that machine is
in proper working order if in the past it produced bolts of length 0.50 m.m.
Use 0.05 level of significance.
[Critical value of t at 9 dof, two tailed test for 5% L.O.S. is 2.26].

c) In a distribution which is exactly normal, 7% of the items are under 35 and
89% items are under 63.
Find the mean and Std. deviation of distribution.

(Area is 0.43 from z = 0 to z = 1.48
Area is 0.39 from z = 0 to z = 1.23)
8.
a) Evaluate
z dz from z = 0 to z = 4 + 2i where C is
i) the line from z = o to z = 2i and then the line from z = 2i to z = 4 + 2i.

b) Evaluate
e 2z
(z + 1)4 dz
where C is the circle | z 1 | = 3.
c) A stenographer claims that she can take dictation at the rate of 120 words per
minute. Can we reject her claim on the basis of 100 trials in which she
demonstrates a mean of 116 words with a standard deviation of 15 words !
Use 5% L.O.S.
[Critical value for two-tailed test at 5% L.O.S. is 1.96].

9. a) Show that u(x, y) = e2xy sin (x2 y2) is harmonic function.
b) In sample 400 parts manufactured by a factory the number of defective parts

was found to be 30. The company, however, claimed that atmost 5%
of their product is defective. Is the claim tenable ?
[Critical value at 5% one tailed test is 1.645].

c) Two independent samples of sizes 16 and 9 gave the data as x 1 = 110,
1= 25, x 2 = 120, 2 = 30. If 1 and 2 are Std. deviations of the two populations.
Test hypothesis that 1 = 2 at 5% L.O.S. (State assumption you make if any).
[Critical value of t for 23 dof two tailed test at 5% L.O.S. is 2.069.].
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 94
*SLRPK94*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(114=14)


x:
P(x) :
a)
b)
Total
1
Then P(x 1 ) = ________

c)
d)
3
9
3
9
a) 1
b) 0.5
4) The value of
a) 2 i
3z 2 + 7z + 1
z +1
b) 0
c) 0
d) None of these
1
is
2
c) i
d)
i
2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 94
*SLRPK94*
-2-


a) Mean
b) Variance
d) None

No. of mistakes :
Pages: 211
90
19
2
0 Then is
a) 0.59
b) 0.069
c) 0.81
d) 0.79
3
2
8) The complete solution of (D + 3 D + 3 D + 1) y = 0 is
b) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2)x
a) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3) x
d) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2) ex
c) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2) ex
9)
1
2
D +9
a)

x
6
sin 3x
10) The P.I. of
x2
b)
d2y
dx
a) e2x 2
+x
x
6
dy
dx
sin 3x
c)
cos 3x
d)
x
3
sin 3x
+ y = (logx)2 is __________
b) ex 2
11) The general solution of (1 + x)2
c) (log x)2 2
d2 y
+ (1 + x )
dx 2
c) (C1 + C2x) ex
p+
d) log x 2
dy
+ y = 0 is y = _____________
dx
d) None of these
q = 1 is ___________
b) Z = ax + a2y + c
a) Z = ax + ay + c
c) Z = ax + (1
2
a ) y+c
d) None of these
13) If r = x i + yj + z k , then curl

r = __________
a) 3
b) 2
c) 0
d) 1

a) i + j + k
b) 2i + j + k
c) i + j + 2 k
______________
d) i + 2j + k
Set Q
*SLRPK94*
-3-
SLR-PK 94
Seat
No.

Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Solve
d2 y
dx 2
+3
dy
+ 2y = 4cos2x.
dx
b) Solve (D3 + 8) y = x4 + 2x + 1.
3. a) Solve
x2
d2 y
dx
2x
dy
1
+ 2y = 2 .
dx
x
OR
a) Solve (1 + x)2
b) Solve
d2 y
dx
+4
d2 y
dx
+ (1+ x)
dy
+ y = 4 cos/log (1 + x).
dx
dy
dx
4
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 94
-4-
*SLRPK94*
4. a) Prove that


5. a) Solve z2 (p2 + q2) = x2 + y2.
u
u
= 4 , where u(0, y) = 8 e3y .
x
y
SECTION II
Set Q
*SLRPK94*
-5-
SLR-PK 94



(Area is 0.43 from z = 0 to z = 1.48
Area is 0.39 from z = 0 to z = 1.23)
8.
a) Evaluate

b) Evaluate
e 2z
(z + 1)4 dz
Use 5% L.O.S.



_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 94
*SLRPK94*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(114=14)
p+
q = 1 is ___________
b) Z = ax + a2y + c
a) Z = ax + ay + c
c) Z = ax + (1
2
a ) y+c
d) None of these

a) 3
b) 2
c) 0
d) 1

a) i + j + k
b) 2i + j + k
c) i + j + 2 k
d) i + 2j + k


x:
P(x) :
a)
1
3
3
b)
2
9
Total
1
Then P(x 1 ) = ________

c)
2
3
d)
8
9
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 94
*SLRPK94*
-2-
a) 1
b) 0.5
7) The value of
c) 0
3z 2 + 7z + 1
z +1
a) 2 i
d) None of these
1
is
2
c) i
d)
b) 0
i
2


a) Mean
b) Variance
d) None

No. of mistakes :
Pages: 211
90
19
2
0 Then is
a) 0.59
b) 0.069
c) 0.81
d) 0.79
a) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3) x
b) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2)x
d) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2) ex
c) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2) ex
12)
1
2
D +9
a)

x
sin 3x
6
13) The P.I. of x2

a) e2x 2
b)
d2y
dx
+x
x
sin 3x
6
dy
dx
c)
x
cos 3x
3
d)
x
sin 3x
3
+ y = (logx)2 is __________
b) ex 2
x)2
c) (log x)2 2
d2 y
+ (1 + x )
dx 2
c) (C1 + C2x) ex
d) log x 2
dy
+ y = 0 is y = _____________
dx
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK94*
-3-
SLR-PK 94
Seat
No.

Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Solve
d2 y
dx 2
+3
dy
+ 2y = 4cos2x.
dx
b) Solve (D3 + 8) y = x4 + 2x + 1.
3. a) Solve
x2
d2 y
dx
2x
dy
1
+ 2y = 2 .
dx
x
OR
a) Solve (1 + x)2
b) Solve
d2 y
dx
+4
d2 y
dx
+ (1+ x)
dy
+ y = 4 cos/log (1 + x).
dx
dy
dx
4
5
Set R
SLR-PK 94
-4-
*SLRPK94*
4. a) Prove that


5. a) Solve z2 (p2 + q2) = x2 + y2.
u
u
= 4 , where u(0, y) = 8 e3y .
x
y
SECTION II
Set R
*SLRPK94*
-5-
SLR-PK 94



(Area is 0.43 from z = 0 to z = 1.48
Area is 0.39 from z = 0 to z = 1.23)
8.
a) Evaluate

b) Evaluate
e 2z
(z + 1)4 dz
Use 5% L.O.S.



_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 94
*SLRPK94*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(114=14)
a) 1
b) 0.5
2) The value of
3z 2 + 7z + 1
z +1
a) 2 i
c) 0
d) None of these
1
is
2
c) i
d)
b) 0
i
2


a) Mean
b) Variance
d) None

No. of mistakes :
Pages: 211
a) 0.59
90
19
2
0 Then is
b) 0.069
c) 0.81
d) 0.79
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 94
*SLRPK94*
-2-
7)
a) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3) x
b) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2)x
c) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2) ex
d) y = (C1 + C2 x + C3 x2) ex
1
2
D +9
a)

x
6
sin 3x
8) The P.I. of
x2
b)
d2y
dx
+x
a) e2x 2
x
6
dy
dx
sin 3x
c)
cos 3x
d)
x
3
sin 3x
+ y = (logx)2 is __________
b) ex 2
x)2
c) (log x)2 2
d2 y
+ (1 + x )
p+
d) log x 2
dy
+ y = 0 is y = _____________
dx
d) None of these
dx
c) (C1 + C2x) ex
q = 1 is ___________
b) Z = ax + a2y + c
a) Z = ax + ay + c
c) Z = ax + (1
2
a ) y+c
d) None of these

a) 3
b) 2
c) 0
d) 1

a) i + j + k
b) 2i + j + k
c) i + j + 2 k
d) i + 2j + k


x:
P(x) :
a)
1
3
3
b)
2
9
Total
1
Then P(x 1 ) = ________

c)
2
3
______________
d)
8
9
Set S
*SLRPK94*
-3-
SLR-PK 94
Seat
No.

Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Solve
d2 y
dx 2
+3
dy
+ 2y = 4cos2x.
dx
b) Solve (D3 + 8) y = x4 + 2x + 1.
3. a) Solve
x2
d2 y
dx
2x
dy
1
+ 2y = 2 .
dx
x
OR
a) Solve (1 + x)2
b) Solve
d2 y
dx
+4
d2 y
dx
+ (1+ x)
dy
+ y = 4 cos/log (1 + x).
dx
dy
dx
4
5
Set S
SLR-PK 94
-4-
*SLRPK94*
4. a) Prove that


5. a) Solve z2 (p2 + q2) = x2 + y2.
u
u
= 4 , where u(0, y) = 8 e3y .
x
y
SECTION II
Set S
*SLRPK94*
-5-
SLR-PK 94



(Area is 0.43 from z = 0 to z = 1.48
Area is 0.39 from z = 0 to z = 1.23)
8.
a) Evaluate

b) Evaluate
e 2z
(z + 1)4 dz
Use 5% L.O.S.



_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 95
*SLRPK95*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

3) All the answers must write in the answer sheet.
4) Only correct answer will be given full marks. There is no
negative marking for any question.
Marks : 14
1. Objective type questions (1 mark each) :
(114=14)
1) The chips are minimum at the initial and maximum when cut terminates in
a) Down Milling
b) Form Milling
c) Side Milling
d) Conventional Milling
2) The accessories used for drilling for long work pieces in lathe machine
a) Lathe Mandrels
b) Lathe Centres
c) Steady rest
d) Lathe dogs
3) The coolant used in the grinding machine to provide
a) To remove the heat
b) To remove the powder
c) Clean the grinding wheel
d) All of these
4) The Tapping is a operation which
a) Clean predrilled hole
c) Internal thread
b) Enlarge predrilled hole

d) Form external thread
5) Splined shaft can be easy manufactured in

a) Lathe Machine
b) Shaping Machine
c) Grinding Machine
d) Broaching Machine
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 95
*SLRPK95*
-2-
6) In simple indexing method one complete rotation of spindle makes _______ rotation
of index crank.
a) 24
b) 40
c) 20
d) 30
7) The components manufactured in injection moulding process in made up of
a) Mild Steel
b) Cast Iron
c) Plastic
d) Aluminium
8) The End mill cutter in Vertical Milling Machine is held in
a) Tool post
b) Arbor
c) Drill Chuck
d) Adaptor
9) In the given statement M20 2.5 mm the 2.5 indicates
a) Depth of thread
b) Pitch of thread
c) Root dia of thread
d) Major dia of thread
10) In the Lathe machine a long Hollow shaft is supported by
a) Lathe Dogs
b) Lathe Centres
c) Steady Rest
d) Lathe Mandrels
11) The gear shaving is the process of
a) Gear generation
c) Gear forging
b) Gear finishing
d) Gear casting
12) The grinding of flat surfaces can be accomplished in

a) Cylindrical grinding M/C
b) Centreless grinding M/C
c) Surface grinding M/C
d) Hand grinder
13) Automatic feeding on the lathe machine is provided through
a) Apron Mechanism
b) Back gear Mechanism
c) Tumbler Mechanism
d) Half nut Mechanism
14) Electrolyte fluid is used in
a) USM
b) ECM
c) EDM
d) AJM
______________
Set P
*SLRPK95*
-3-
SLR-PK 95
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

2) Draw the neat sketches wherever necessary. Assume suitable
data if required.
SECTION I
1. a) Draw the neat sketch of Centre Lathe Machine and explain its parts.
b) List the different accessories used in lathe machine. Explain in brief any one.
2. a) Explain construction and working principles of shaper machine with its parts.
b) Draw the neat sketch of Pillar type drilling machine and explain working principles
and its parts.
3. a) Write the difference between capstan and turret lathe machine.
b) Explain Electro Chemical Machining (ECM) process with its working principles,
advantages and disadvantages.
(33=9)
a) Turret indexing mechanism of capstan and turret lathe.

b) Drilling machine operations.
c) Classification of manufacturing process.
d) Slotting Machine.
SECTION II
5. a) Explain with neat sketch column and knee type milling machine.
b) Sketch, write functions and working of Dividing Head attachment used in gear
cutting operations.
6. a) Name the operations that may be performed by broaching.
b) Explain in brief the Jig boring Machine.
5
4
4
5
Set P
SLR-PK 95
-4-
*SLRPK95*
7. a) To Mill 77 Teeth on Spur Gear, set the dividing head by compounding indexing
method.
Indexing plate
Plate No. 1 : 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20
Plate No. 2 : 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33
Plate No. 3 : 37, 39, 41, 43, 47, 49
b) Explain with sketch centrless grinding machine.
4
5
10
a) Gear Hobbing
b) Dressing and truing of Grinding wheel
c) Various Milling operations
d) Boring bar and tools
e) Types of CNC machines.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 95
*SLRPK95*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)

a) Tool post
b) Arbor
c) Drill Chuck
d) Adaptor
a) Depth of thread
b) Pitch of thread
a) Lathe Dogs
b) Lathe Centres
c) Steady Rest
d) Lathe Mandrels
a) Gear generation
c) Gear forging
b) Gear finishing
d) Gear casting

d) Hand grinder
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 95
*SLRPK95*
-2-

a) Apron Mechanism
a) USM
b) ECM
c) EDM
d) AJM
a) Down Milling
b) Form Milling
c) Side Milling
a) Lathe Mandrels
b) Lathe Centres
c) Steady rest
d) Lathe dogs
d) All of these
c) Internal thread


a) Lathe Machine
b) Shaping Machine
c) Grinding Machine
of index crank.
a) 24
b) 40
c) 20
d) 30
a) Mild Steel
b) Cast Iron
c) Plastic
d) Aluminium
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK95*
-3-
SLR-PK 95
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

data if required.
SECTION I
and its parts.
(33=9)

SECTION II
cutting operations.
5
4
4
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 95
-4-
*SLRPK95*
method.
Indexing plate
Plate No. 1 : 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20
Plate No. 2 : 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33
Plate No. 3 : 37, 39, 41, 43, 47, 49
4
5
10
a) Gear Hobbing
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 95
*SLRPK95*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)

a) Lathe Machine
b) Shaping Machine
c) Grinding Machine
of index crank.
a) 24
b) 40
c) 20
d) 30
a) Mild Steel
b) Cast Iron
c) Plastic
d) Aluminium
a) Tool post
b) Arbor
c) Drill Chuck
d) Adaptor
a) Depth of thread
b) Pitch of thread
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 95
*SLRPK95*
-2-

a) Lathe Dogs
b) Lathe Centres
c) Steady Rest
d) Lathe Mandrels
a) Gear generation
c) Gear forging
b) Gear finishing
d) Gear casting

d) Hand grinder
a) Apron Mechanism
a) USM
b) ECM
c) EDM
d) AJM
a) Down Milling
b) Form Milling
c) Side Milling
a) Lathe Mandrels
b) Lathe Centres
c) Steady rest
d) Lathe dogs
d) All of these
c) Internal thread

______________
Set R
*SLRPK95*
-3-
SLR-PK 95
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

data if required.
SECTION I
and its parts.
(33=9)

SECTION II
cutting operations.
5
4
4
5
Set R
SLR-PK 95
-4-
*SLRPK95*
method.
Indexing plate
Plate No. 1 : 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20
Plate No. 2 : 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33
Plate No. 3 : 37, 39, 41, 43, 47, 49
4
5
10
a) Gear Hobbing
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 95
*SLRPK95*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)

a) Lathe Dogs
b) Lathe Centres
c) Steady Rest
d) Lathe Mandrels
a) Gear generation
c) Gear forging
b) Gear finishing
d) Gear casting

d) Hand grinder
a) Apron Mechanism
a) USM
b) ECM
c) EDM
d) AJM
a) Down Milling
b) Form Milling
c) Side Milling
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 95
*SLRPK95*
-2-
a) Lathe Mandrels
b) Lathe Centres
c) Steady rest
d) Lathe dogs

d) All of these

c) Internal thread


a) Lathe Machine
b) Shaping Machine
c) Grinding Machine
of index crank.
a) 24
b) 40
c) 20
d) 30
a) Mild Steel
b) Cast Iron
c) Plastic
d) Aluminium
a) Tool post
b) Arbor
c) Drill Chuck
d) Adaptor
a) Depth of thread
b) Pitch of thread
______________
Set S
*SLRPK95*
-3-
SLR-PK 95
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

data if required.
SECTION I
and its parts.
(33=9)

SECTION II
cutting operations.
5
4
4
5
Set S
SLR-PK 95
-4-
*SLRPK95*
method.
Indexing plate
Plate No. 1 : 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20
Plate No. 2 : 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33
Plate No. 3 : 37, 39, 41, 43, 47, 49
4
5
10
a) Gear Hobbing
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 96
*SLRPK96*
S
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

2) Only first angle method of projection should be used.
30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3.
Marks : 14
1. Type 1 : Match the Pairs :
Type 2 : Identify the correct or incorrect statement.
1) A hole whose upper deviation is zero is called as basic hole.

2) The size across flats in hexagonal nut is 1.5D + 3.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 96
*SLRPK96*
-2-
Type 3 : Multiple correct answer type questions.
1) Which of the following limit systems shows clearance fit ?

a)
35H8m6
b)
40H7g6
c)
50H8d6
d)
25H7p6
2) Which of the following geometrical tolerances are related geometrical

tolerances ?
a) Co-axiality
b) Cylindricity
c) Ovality
d) Symmetry
Type 4 : Single correct answer type questions :
1) Included angle for knuckle thread is

a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 55
2) An Oldhams coupling connects two shafts, when they are

a) Intersecting
c) Co-axial
b) Parallel
d) All the above
3) Which of the following is smallest sheet size ?

a) A4
b) A3
c) A2
d) A0
4) Which of the following bolts are used in machine tools having T-slots ?
a) Square headed
c) T-headed
b) Cup headed
d) Rag foundation bolts
5) To get true shape and size of inclined surface which of the following is used ?
a) Isometric view
b) Orthographic view
c) Auxiliary view
d) Perspective view
______________
Set P
*SLRPK96*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 96

MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 56
Retain all the constructional details.

Assume suitable dimensions whenever necessary.
Q.No. 6 is compulsory question.
Attempt any three questions out of Q.No. 2 to Q.No. 5.
Whenever necessary, refer the tolerance table, provided
with the question paper.
2. A) Draw BIS conventions of the following :

a) Spline Shaft.
b) Bearing.
c) Packaging and insulating material.
d) Leaf spring with eye and with centre band.
B) Draw free hand sketches of the following (any one) :
a) Socket and spigot (Cotter joint) joint.
b) Fast and loose pulleys.
3. A) Draw free hand sketches of the following :
a) Buttress Thread.
b) Wing Nut.
c) Cup headed bolt.
d) Single riveted lap joint.
B) Draw BIS conventions of the following (any one) :
a) Spur gear assembly.
b) Offset section.
11
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
11
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
Set P
SLR-PK 96
-4-
*SLRPK96*
4. Following figure shows incomplete F.V., top view and partial auxiliary view :
11
a) Redraw the given views

b) Complete the front view
Give all dimensions.
Set P
*SLRPK96*
-5-
SLR-PK 96
11
A) Differentiate between shaft basis system and hole basis system.
B) Redraw the given figure and indicate the mentioned parameters on it.
i) Axis of
40 extension is perpendicular to B within 0.02 mm.
ii) Surface A is flat within 0.01 mm.

iii) Position of
10 holes is fixed within 0.02 mm.
iv) Surface B is milled to achieve Ra value of 25 microns.
Set P
SLR-PK 96
-6-
*SLRPK96*
6. Following Figure shows the details of a milling machine tail-stock. Draw its
assembly showing :
1) Front View.
2) Side View.
3) Prepare Bill of Material (Parts List).
________________
23
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 96
*SLRPK96*
S

MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
1. Type 1 : Single correct answer type questions :

a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 55

a) Intersecting
b) Parallel
c) Co-axial
d) All the above

a) A4
b) A3
c) A2
d) A0
a) Square headed
c) T-headed
b) Cup headed
a) Isometric view
c) Auxiliary view
d) Perspective view
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 96
*SLRPK96*
-2-
Type 2 : Match the Pairs :


b) 40H7g6
a) 35H8m6
c)
50H8d6
d)
25H7p6

tolerances ?
a) Co-axiality
c) Ovality
b) Cylindricity
d) Symmetry
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK96*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 96

MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 56


a) Spline Shaft.
b) Bearing.
a) Buttress Thread.
b) Wing Nut.
c) Cup headed bolt.
b) Offset section.
11
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
11
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
Set Q
SLR-PK 96
-4-
*SLRPK96*
11

Set Q
*SLRPK96*
-5-
SLR-PK 96
11
i) Axis of

iii) Position of
Set Q
SLR-PK 96
-6-
*SLRPK96*
assembly showing :
1) Front View.
2) Side View.
________________
23
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 96
*SLRPK96*
S

MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
1. Type 1 : Multiple correct answer type questions.

b) 40H7g6
c) 50H8d6
d)
a) 35H8m6
25H7p6

tolerances ?
a) Co-axiality
b) Cylindricity
c) Ovality
d) Symmetry

a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 55

a) Intersecting
c) Co-axial
b) Parallel
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 96
*SLRPK96*
-2-

a) A4
b) A3
c) A2
d) A0
a) Square headed
c) T-headed
b) Cup headed
a) Isometric view
c) Auxiliary view
d) Perspective view

______________
Set R
*SLRPK96*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 96

MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 56


a) Spline Shaft.
b) Bearing.
a) Buttress Thread.
b) Wing Nut.
c) Cup headed bolt.
b) Offset section.
11
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
11
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
Set R
SLR-PK 96
-4-
*SLRPK96*
11

Set R
*SLRPK96*
-5-
SLR-PK 96
11
i) Axis of

iii) Position of
Set R
SLR-PK 96
-6-
*SLRPK96*
assembly showing :
1) Front View.
2) Side View.
________________
23
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 96
*SLRPK96*
S

MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
1. Type 1 : Identify the correct or incorrect statement.


a)
c)
35H8m6
50H8d6
b)
d)
40H7g6
25H7p6

tolerances ?
a) Co-axiality
b) Cylindricity
c) Ovality
d) Symmetry
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 96
*SLRPK96*
-2-

a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 55

a) Intersecting
c) Co-axial
b) Parallel
d) All the above

a) A4
b) A3
c) A2
d) A0
a) Square headed
c) T-headed
b) Cup headed
a) Isometric view
c) Auxiliary view
d) Perspective view
______________
Set S
*SLRPK96*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 96

MACHINE DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 56


a) Spline Shaft.
b) Bearing.
a) Buttress Thread.
b) Wing Nut.
c) Cup headed bolt.
b) Offset section.
11
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
11
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
Set S
SLR-PK 96
-4-
*SLRPK96*
11

Set S
*SLRPK96*
-5-
SLR-PK 96
11
i) Axis of

iii) Position of
Set S
SLR-PK 96
-6-
*SLRPK96*
assembly showing :
1) Front View.
2) Side View.
________________
23
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
S
Set
.
S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
1. Solve the following MCQ. Each carries one mark.
14
1) Equilibrium is called ______________ if a body does not return to its original

position from the slightly displaced angular position and heels farther away,
when given a small angular displacement.
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Neutral
d) None of these
2) The specific gravity of water is taken as
a) 1
b) 1000
c) 0.1
d) 10
3) Stream lines, path lines and streak lines are identical in

a) Turbulent flow
b) Compressible flow
c) Steady flow
d) Highly viscous flow
4) The co-efficient of velocity (Cv) for an orifice is
N
a)
"
b)
N
"
c)
"

N
"
5) In which of the following measuring devices Bernoullis equation is used ?

a) Venturimeter
b) Orifice meter c) Pitot tube
d) All of the above
6) Bernoullis equation of the form (p/w + v2/2g + z = constant) represents total
energy per unit.
a) Mass
b) Weight
c) Volume
d) Specific weight
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
-2-
7) In laminar flow the pressure drop per unit length of pipe ( p/L) is given as
a)
!
b)
c)

K
8) Loss of head at entrance of a pipe is given as

a) (0.5 V2)/2g
b) V2/2g
c) V/2g
9) Loss of head due to sudden contraction is given as
d) None of these
a)
b)

c)
d)
C
+
+
C

?
10) ____________ determine the friction factor for turbulent flow in a rough pipe.
a) Reynolds number and relative roughness
b) Froude number and mach number
c) Mach number and relative roughness
d) Froude number and relative roughness
11) How can the separation of boundary prevented ?
a) Providing the bypass in the slotted wing
b) Providing small divergence in a diffuser
c) Suction of the slow moving fluid by a suction slot
d) All of these
12) The displacement thickness is given by which of the following relation ?
a)
b)
K

K

c)
13) The pressure drag depends upon

a) The separation of boundary layer and the size of the wake
b) The shear stresses generated on the body surface
c) The boundary layer formation
d) The characteristics of the oncoming flow
14) Which of the following conditions/requirements is necessary to induce lift on
an object ?
a) The object should be so shaped that there are zones of high and low
velocities resulting in pressure difference between upper side and bottom
side of the object
b) The object should be symmetrical and the axis of the symmetry be aligned
parallel to the flow direction
c) The shape of the object should be so designed that the pressure distribution
over its surface is symmetrical
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK97*
S
SLR-PK 97
-3-

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Derive an expression for the depth of centre of pressure from free surface
of liquid of a vertical plane surface submerged in the liquid.
b) Check whether the stream function = 2xy is irrotational and if so, determine
the corresponding potential function ( ).
c) With neat sketch explain the conditions of the equilibrium for submerged
bodies.
3. a) Define and explain the following terms :

i) Stream line
ii) Path line
iii) Streak line
b) Derive Eulers equation of motion along a streamline for an ideal fluid stating
clearly the assumptions made. Also deduce Bernoullis equation from it.
c) An oil of specific gravity 0.8 is flowing through a venturimeter having inlet
diameter of 20 cm and throat diameter of 10 cm. The oil-mercury differential
manometer shows reading of 25 cm. Calculate the discharge of oil through
horizontal venturimeter. Take Cd = 0.98.
5
4
5
4. a) Prove that velocity distribution for viscous flow between two parallel plates
when both plates are fixed across a section is parabolic in nature. Also
prove that maximum velocity is equal to one and half times the average
velocity.
5
b) A fire bridage man is holding a fire stream nozzle of 50 mm diameter and is
situated at a distance of 1.5 m above ground level. The jet issues out with a
velocity of 13 m/s which strikes the window. A building wall which is 7.5 m
height form the ground for extinguishing the fire in the building. Building wall
is 5 m away from bridage vehicle. Find the angle/ angles and also calculate
the amount of water falling on window.
5
Set P
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
-4-
c) The velocity potential function ( ) is given by an expression

= xy3/3 x2 + x3y/3 + y2.
Find the velocity components in x and y direction. Show the represents a
possible case of flow.
SECTION II
5. a) Obtain Darcy-Weishbach equation for flow through the pipe for obtaining
friction head loss.
b) A syphon of diameter 200 mm connects two reservoirs having a difference in
elevation of 15 m. The total length of the syphon is 600 m and the summit is 4 m
above the water level in the upper reservoir. If the separation takes place at
2.8 m of water absolute, find the maximum length of syphon from upper
reservoir to the summit. Take f = .004 and atmospheric pressure = 10.3 m of
water.
c) What do you mean by equivalent pipe ? Obtain an expression of Dupits
equation.
6. a) Derive an expression for power transmission through pipes. What is the
condition for maximum transmission of power ?
b) Find the displacement thickness, the momentum thickness and energy
thickness for the velocity distribution in the boundary layer given by
K
5
4
5
,
O
where u is the velocity at a distance y from the plate and u = U at y = ,

.
where = boundary layer thickness. Also calculate the value of
c) Define following terms (1) Displacement thickness (2) Momentum thickness

(3) Energy thickness (4) Boundary layer thickness.
7. a) Obtain an expression for drag and life on stationary solid body.

b) A kite of 60 cm 60 cm weighing 2.943 N assumed an angle of 10 to the
horizontal. If the pull on string is 29.43 N when the wind is flowing at a speed
of 40 km/hr. Find corresponding co-efficient of drag and lift. Density of air is
1.25 kg/m3.
c) Write a short note on different models and softwares of CFD.
5
4
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
S
Set
.

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
b) V2/2g
c) V/2g
a) (0.5 V2)/2g
14
d) None of these
a)
b)

c)
d)
C
C
+
C
?
d) All of these
a)
b)
K

K

c)

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
-2-

an object ?
side of the object
d) None of these
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Neutral
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 1000
c) 0.1
d) 10
a) Turbulent flow
c) Steady flow
N
a)
"
b)
N
"
c)
"

N
"

a) Venturimeter
d) All of the above
energy per unit.
a) Mass
b) Weight
c) Volume
d) Specific weight
a)
!
b)
c)
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK97*
S
SLR-PK 97
-3-

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
bodies.

i) Stream line
ii) Path line
iii) Streak line
5
4
5
velocity.
5
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
-4-

= xy3/3 x2 + x3y/3 + y2.
SECTION II
friction head loss.
water.
equation.
K
5
4
5
,
O

.


1.25 kg/m3.
5
4
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
S
Set
.

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
14

a) Venturimeter
d) All of the above
energy per unit.
a) Mass
b) Weight
c) Volume
d) Specific weight
a)
!
b)
c)

K

a) (0.5 V2)/2g
b) V2/2g
c) V/2g
d) None of these
a)
b)

8

c)
d)
C
C
+
C
?
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
-2-

d) All of these
a)
b)
K

K

c)

an object ?
side of the object
d) None of these
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Neutral
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 1000
c) 0.1
d) 10
a) Turbulent flow
c) Steady flow
N
a)
"
b)
N
"
c)
"

N
"
______________
Set R
*SLRPK97*
S
SLR-PK 97
-3-

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
bodies.

i) Stream line
ii) Path line
iii) Streak line
5
4
5
velocity.
5
5
Set R
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
-4-

= xy3/3 x2 + x3y/3 + y2.
SECTION II
friction head loss.
water.
equation.
K
5
4
5
,
O

.


1.25 kg/m3.
5
4
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
S
Set
.

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
14
d) All of these
a)
b)
K

K

c)

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 97
-2*SLRPK97*
an object ?
side of the object
d) None of these
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Neutral
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 1000
c) 0.1
d) 10
a) Turbulent flow
c) Steady flow
N
a)
"
b)
N
"
c)
"

N
"

a) Venturimeter
d) All of the above
energy per unit.
a) Mass
b) Weight
c) Volume
d) Specific weight
a)
!
b)
c)

K

a) (0.5 V2)/2g
b) V2/2g
c) V/2g
d) None of these
a)
b)

8

c)
d)

+
C
C
C
?
______________
Set S
*SLRPK97*
S
SLR-PK 97
-3-

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
bodies.

i) Stream line
ii) Path line
iii) Streak line
5
4
5
velocity.
5
5
Set S
SLR-PK 97
*SLRPK97*
-4-

= xy3/3 x2 + x3y/3 + y2.
SECTION II
friction head loss.
water.
equation.
K
5
4
5
,
O

.


1.25 kg/m3.
5
4
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 98
*SLRPK98*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) (New) (CGPA)
Examination, 2016
THEORY OF MACHINES I

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
1. Choose the correct answers :

1) In a 4 bar linkage, if the lengths of shortest, longest and the other two links are denoted by s, l, p
and q, then it would result in Grashofs linkage provided that
a) 1 + p < s + q
b) 1 + s < p + q
c) 1 + p = s + q
d) None of these
2) The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degrees of freedom (n) is equal to
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 1
3) Coriolis component is considered if
a) The point considered moves on a path that rotates
b) The point considered moves along a path that is stationary
c) The point considered moves along a circular path
d) The point considered moves in any curvilinear path
4) The locus of instantaneous center of a moving body relative to a fixed body is known as
a) Space centrode
b) Body centrode
c) Moving centrode
d) None of above
5) When crank rotates with uniform speed, it has
a) Only radial acceleration
c) Only coriolis acceleration
b) Only tangential acceleration

d) None of above
6) Peaucelliers mechanism has

a) Turning pairs
c) Spherical pairs
b) Sliding pairs
d) None of above
7) In a dynamically-equivalent system, a uniformly distributed mass is divided into _______ point

masses.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
8) Path described by the trace point is known as the
a) Pitch curve
b) Pitch circle
c) Prime circle
d) Prime curve
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 98
*SLRPK98*
-2-
9) In its simplest form, a cam-follower mechanism consists of

a) Three links
b) Two links
c) One link
d) Four links
10) The frictional torque for the same diameter in a conical bearing is ______ than in a flat bearing.
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) may be more or less
11) In a self-locking brake, the force required to apply the brake is
a) minimum
b) zero
c) maximum
d) None
12) The height of a Watt governor is

a) g / 3
b) 2 / g
c) 2 g
d) g /
13) If the controlling force of a spring-controlled governor is expressed as a.r + b, where r is the
radius of rotation and a and b are constants, it is a/an _____ governor.
a) Isochronous
b) Centrifugal
c) Dead-weight
d) Inertia
14) For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with
a) Uniform velocity
b) Simple harmonic motion
c) Uniform acceleration and retardation
d) Cycloidal motion
______________
Set P
*SLRPK98*
-3-
SLR-PK 98
Seat
No.
Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 56

Figures to the right indicates full marks.
Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Define the following :
i) Link
ii) Kinematic pair
iii) Kinematic chain
iv) Mechanism
v) Inversion of the mechanism
vi) Degree of freedom.
b) A mechanism, as shown in Fig. II(b), has the following dimensions :
O1A = 60 mm; AB = 180 mm ; O2B = 100 mm ; O2C = 180 mm and CD = 270 mm. The crank O1A
rotates clockwise at a uniform speed of 120 r.p.m. The block D moves in vertical guides. Find by
instantaneous centre method, the velocity of D and the angular velocity of CD.
Fig. II (b)
3. a) Fig. III (a) shows the mechanism of a radial valve gear. The crank OA turns uniformly at 150 r.p.m. and is
pinned at A to rod AB. The point C in the rod is guided in the circular path with D as centre and DC as
radius. The dimensions of various links are :
OA = 150 mm ; AB = 550 mm ; AC = 450 mm ; DC = 500 mm; BE = 350 mm.
Determine velocity and acceleration of the ram E for the given position of the mechanism.
10
All dimensions in mm.

Fig. III (a)
b) Prove that Peaucellier mechanism is a exact straight line mechanism.
Set P
SLR-PK 98
-4-
*SLRPK98*
4. a) Two shafts are connected by a Hookes joint. The driving shaft revolves uniformly at 500 r.p.m. If the
total permissible variation in speed of a driven shaft is not to exceed 6% of the mean speed, find the
greatest permissible angle between the centre lines of the shafts. Also determine the maximum and
minimum speed of the driven shaft.
6
b) A vertical single cylinder engine has a cylinder diameter of 250 mm and stroke length of 450 mm.
The reciprocating parts have a mass of 180 Kg. The connecting rod is four times the crank radius.
The crank rotates at a speed of 360 rpm when the crank has turned 45 from top dead center. The
net pressure on the piston is 1.05 MPa. Calculate effective turning moment on the crankshaft for this
position.
8
5. a)
b)
6. a)
b)
SECTION II
A cam operating a roller follower of diameter 16 mm has the following data :
a) Follower moves outwards through 40 mm during 60 of cam rotation.
b) Follower dwells for the next 45
c) Follower returns to its original position during next 90.
d) Follower dwells for the rest of the rotation.
The displacement of the follower is to take place with simple harmonic motion during the outstroke
and by cycloidal motion during return stroke. The least radius of the cam is 50 mm. Draw the profile
of the cam when the axis of the follower is offset by 20 mm towards right from the cam axis.
Define the following :
i) Sensitiveness of Governor
ii) Isochronous Governor
iii) Height of Governor
iv) Stability of Governor
v) Hunting of Governor
vi) Radius of rotation of Governor.
Derive an expression for torque transmitted by flat pivot bearing considering uniform pressure and
uniform wear.
Fig. VI(b) shows a double block brake used for a wheel diameter of 500 mm. The angle of contact is
90 and the coefficient of friction is 0.3. The force applied by the spring on each arm is 5 KN.
Determine the brake torque on the wheel.

Fig. VI (b)
7. a) Two railway coaches are coupled with a turn-buckle with right and left handed threads having single
start square threads. The pitch and mean diameter of the threads are 8 mm and 30 mm respectively.
What will be the work done in bringing the two coaches closer through a distance of 160 mm against
a steady load of 2 KN ? Determine also, the efficiency. Take = 0.12 .
b) A loaded porter governor has four links each 25 cm long. Two revolving masses each weighting
30 N and a central dead weight weighing 200 N. All the links are attached to the respective sleeves
at a distances of 4 cm from the governor axis. The masses revolve at a radius of 15 cm at minimum
speed and 20 cm at maximum speed. Determine the range of speed.
6
8
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 98
*SLRPK98*
Seat
No.
Set
Examination, 2016

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) Pitch curve
b) Pitch circle
c) Prime circle
d) Prime curve
a) Three links
b) Two links
c) One link
d) Four links
a) more
b) less
c) equal
a) minimum
b) zero
c) maximum
d) None

a) g / 3
b) 2 / g
c) 2 g
d) g /

a) Isochronous
b) Centrifugal
c) Dead-weight
d) Inertia
a) Uniform velocity
d) Cycloidal motion
a) 1 + p < s + q
b) 1 + s < p + q
c) 1 + p = s + q
d) None of these
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 98
*SLRPK98*
-2-

a) Space centrode
b) Body centrode
c) Moving centrode
d) None of above

d) None of above

a) Turning pairs
c) Spherical pairs
b) Sliding pairs
d) None of above
masses.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK98*
-3-
SLR-PK 98
Seat
No.
Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 56

SECTION I
i) Link
ii) Kinematic pair
iv) Mechanism
Fig. II (b)
10

Fig. III (a)
Set Q
SLR-PK 98
-4-
*SLRPK98*
6
position.
8
5. a)
b)
6. a)
b)
SECTION II
uniform wear.

Fig. VI (b)
6
8
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 98
*SLRPK98*
Seat
No.
Set
Examination, 2016

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14


d) None of above

a) Turning pairs
c) Spherical pairs
b) Sliding pairs
d) None of above

masses.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
a) Pitch curve
b) Pitch circle
c) Prime circle
d) Prime curve
a) Three links
b) Two links
c) One link
d) Four links
a) more
b) less
c) equal
a) minimum
b) zero
c) maximum
d) None

a) g / 3
b) 2 / g
d) g /
c) 2 g

a) Isochronous
b) Centrifugal
c) Dead-weight
d) Inertia
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 98
-2-
*SLRPK98*
a) Uniform velocity
d) Cycloidal motion
a) 1 + p < s + q
b) 1 + s < p + q
c) 1 + p = s + q
d) None of these
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 1
a) Space centrode
b) Body centrode
c) Moving centrode
d) None of above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK98*
-3-
SLR-PK 98
Seat
No.
Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 56

SECTION I
i) Link
ii) Kinematic pair
iv) Mechanism
Fig. II (b)
10

Fig. III (a)
Set R
SLR-PK 98
-4-
*SLRPK98*
6
position.
8
5. a)
b)
6. a)
b)
SECTION II
uniform wear.

Fig. VI (b)
6
8
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 98
*SLRPK98*
Seat
No.
Set
Examination, 2016

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) more
b) less
c) equal
a) minimum
b) zero
c) maximum
d) None

a) g / 3
b) 2 / g
c) 2 g
d) g /

a) Isochronous
b) Centrifugal
c) Dead-weight
d) Inertia
a) Uniform velocity
d) Cycloidal motion
a) 1 + p < s + q
b) 1 + s < p + q
c) 1 + p = s + q
d) None of these
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 98
*SLRPK98*
-2-
a) Space centrode
b) Body centrode
c) Moving centrode
d) None of above

d) None of above

a) Turning pairs
c) Spherical pairs
b) Sliding pairs
d) None of above
masses.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
a) Pitch curve
b) Pitch circle
c) Prime circle
d) Prime curve
a) Three links
b) Two links
c) One link
d) Four links
______________
Set S
*SLRPK98*
-3-
SLR-PK 98
Seat
No.
Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 56

SECTION I
i) Link
ii) Kinematic pair
iv) Mechanism
Fig. II (b)
10

Fig. III (a)
Set S
SLR-PK 98
-4-
*SLRPK98*
6
position.
8
5. a)
b)
6. a)
b)
SECTION II
uniform wear.

Fig. VI (b)
6
8
_____________________
Set S
SLR- PK 99
*SLRPK99*
Seat
No.
Set

Examination, 2016
MANUFACTURING PROCESSES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

3) There will be two types of multiple choice questions MCQ
with only one answer correct and MCQs with more than
one answer correct.
Marks : 14
1. A) MCQ with only one correct answer . (1 mark each)
(18=8)
1) Permanent mould casting is used for manufacturing of

a) Carburetor body of two wheeler
b) Turbine Blades
c) Electric motor body

d) Six cylinder engine body
2) ____________ refractory coating is used in Direct arc furnace.
a) Magnesite
b) Fire clay
c) Graphite
d) None of above
3) In ___________ process, the molten metal is poured and allowed to solidify,
while mold is rotating.
a) Die casting
b) Sand molding
c) Permanent mold casting

d) Centrifugal casting
4) The purpose of adding wood flour or saw dust is to improve/provide
a) Moldability
b) Dry strength
c) Collapsibility
d) Scope for expansion of sand grains

P.T.O.
SLR- PK 99
*SLRPK99*
-2-
5) In cold working process

a) Good surface finish is obtained
b) Scaling occurs
c) Close tolerance is difficult to achieve
d) All the above
6) Following is the backward type extrusion
a) Hydro static extrusion
b) Impact extrusion
c) Direct
d) None of above
7) The arc of the welding is hidden in case of
a) SMAW
b) TIG
c) MIG
d) All above
8) Aluminum sections bar can be manufactured by
a) Extrusion
b) Closed die forging
c) Rod drawing
d) Open die forging
B) MCQ with more than one answer correct. (2 marks each)
(23=6)
1) Effective gating system __________

a) Solidify at the earliest
b) Shall provide greater yield
c) Increase turbulence of metal
d) Provides directional solidification
2) Following points are true for Thermosetting plastics :
a) More load carrying capacity
b) Reversible
c) Used for electrical switches
d) Less load carrying capacity
3) ___________ process is carried out below recrystalization temperature.

a) Rolling of tubes
c) Tube drawing
b) Tube extrusion
d) Impact extrusion
______________
Set P
*SLRPK99*
-3-
SLR- PK 99
Seat
No.

Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.

2) Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Assume additional suitable data wherever necessary and
mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Enlist various pattern materials and explain the advantage and limitations
of wood as a pattern material.
b) Explain following terms :
i) Master pattern
ii) Gang core box.
c) Explain the significance of casting process and also point out limitations of
casting process.
5
4
3. a) What are the ingredients of green molding sand ? What are its additives ?
Explain.
b) What are steps in shell molding process and what are its advantages ?
c) Compare between open riser and blind riser.
4. a) Explain classification of Induction furnace. Also explain its principle of

operation.
b) Explain the process of Injection molding of plastics with neat sketch.
c) Explain various stages in fettling and cleaning of casting.
Set P
SLR- PK 99
-4-
*SLRPK99*
SECTION II
5. a) Give classification of plastic deformation (forming) processes.
b) Compare between open die forging and closed die forging.
c) Explain the process of hot rolling of ingots to blooms. Which type of mill is
preferred for it ?
d) Explain the process of tube rolling.
6. a) Explain the process of Indirect extrusion with neat sketch. What are its advantages
and limitations ?
6
b) Explain the process of single pass wire drawing with neat sketch.
c) Explain the process of tube extrusion with neat sketch.
7. a) Explain various gas welding equipments with neat sketch.
b) Explain the process of submerged arc welding with neat sketch, with its
application.
c) Compare between soldering and brazing.
_____________________
Set P
SLR- PK 99
*SLRPK99*
Seat
No.
Set

Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one answer correct.
Marks : 14
(18=8)

a) SMAW
b) TIG
c) MIG
d) All above
a) Extrusion
c) Rod drawing
d) Open die forging
b) Turbine Blades

a) Magnesite
b) Fire clay
c) Graphite
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 99
*SLRPK99*
-2-

b) Scaling occurs
d) All the above
b) Impact extrusion
c) Direct
d) None of above
a) Die casting
b) Sand molding

a) Moldability
b) Dry strength
c) Collapsibility
(23=6)

a) Rolling of tubes
c) Tube drawing
b) Tube extrusion
d) Impact extrusion

b) Reversible
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK99*
-3-
SLR- PK 99
Seat
No.

Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m
Marks : 56

mention it clearly.
SECTION I
i) Master pattern
ii) Gang core box.
casting process.
5
4
Explain.

operation.
Set Q
SLR- PK 99
-4-
*SLRPK99*
SECTION II
preferred for it ?
and limitations ?
6
application.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR- PK 99
*SLRPK99*
Seat
No.
Set

Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one answer correct.
Marks : 14

(18=8)
a) Die casting
b) Sand molding

a) Moldability
b) Dry strength
c) Collapsibility
a) SMAW
b) TIG
c) MIG
d) All above
a) Extrusion
c) Rod drawing
d) Open die forging
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 99
*SLRPK99*
-2-

b) Scaling occurs
d) All the above
b) Impact extrusion
c) Direct
d) None of above
b) Turbine Blades

a) Magnesite
b) Fire clay
c) Graphite
d) None of above
(23=6)

b) Reversible

a) Rolling of tubes
b) Tube extrusion
c) Tube drawing
d) Impact extrusion

______________
Set R
*SLRPK99*
-3-
SLR- PK 99
Seat
No.

Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m
Marks : 56

mention it clearly.
SECTION I
i) Master pattern
ii) Gang core box.
casting process.
5
4
Explain.

operation.
Set R
SLR- PK 99
-4-
*SLRPK99*
SECTION II
preferred for it ?
and limitations ?
6
application.
_____________________
Set R
SLR- PK 99
*SLRPK99*
Seat
No.
Set

Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one answer correct.
Marks : 14
1. A) MCQ with more than one correct answer . (2 marks each)
(23=6)

b) Reversible

a) Rolling of tubes
b) Tube extrusion
c) Tube drawing
d) Impact extrusion
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 99
*SLRPK99*
-2-
B) MCQ with only one answer correct. (1 mark each)

(18=8)

b) Scaling occurs
d) All the above
b) Impact extrusion
c) Direct
d) None of above

a) Magnesite
b) Fire clay
c) Graphite
d) None of above

b) Turbine Blades

a) SMAW
b) TIG
c) MIG
d) All above
a) Extrusion
c) Rod drawing
d) Open die forging

a) Moldability
b) Dry strength
c) Collapsibility

a) Die casting
b) Sand molding
______________
Set S
*SLRPK99*
-3-
SLR- PK 99
Seat
No.

Examination, 2016
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m
Marks : 56

mention it clearly.
SECTION I
i) Master pattern
ii) Gang core box.
casting process.
5
4
Explain.

operation.
Set S
SLR- PK 99
-4-
*SLRPK99*
SECTION II
preferred for it ?
and limitations ?
6
application.
_____________________
Set S
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
S
Set
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2016

NUMERICAL METHODS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Marks : 14
14
1) In solving algebraic and Transcendental equation, which of the following method convergence
quadratically ?
a) Regula Falsi method
b) Newtons Raphson method
c) Bisection method
d) Muller method
2) The interval in which a positive real root of the equation x3 2x 5 = 0 lies is
a) (2, 3)
b) (0, 1)
c) (1, 2)
d) (3, 4)
3) In solving simultaneous linear equations, which of the following method is not a direct method ?
a) Factorization method
b) Gauss Jordan method
c) Gauss Elimination method
d) Jacobis method
4) The process of estimating the value of y = f(x), that lies inside the range of the known base points
x0, x1, x2,...,xn is called
a) Extrapolation
b) Intrapolation
c) Least square principle
d) None of these
N
5) Given the table :

O
The quadratic polynomial by Lagranges formula is

a)
N
b)
N
c) 3x x2
d)
6) The equations of lines of regression are x + 2y = 5 and 2x + 3y = 8, then mean

a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 5
and
O
are
d) 1 and 2
7) Gauss-Seidal method converges only if the coefficient matrix A of the system of simultaneous
equation AX = B is
a) Diagonally dominant
b) Upper triangular
c) Singular matrix
d) Non-singular matrix
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
-2-
8) For the data

t:
f(t) :
0
0
the value of
B
0.5
0.25
1
1
1.5
2.25
2
4
by Simpsons one-third rule is

J
a) 2.66668
b) 2.66667
c) 2.66669
d) None of these
9) Gaussian quadrature formula for n = 3 is

=
a)
&
#
!
'
'
b)
#
&
B
B

!
'
'

c)
&
#
!

B
'
'
d) None of these
10) The finite difference approximation to the third order derivative
a)
at x = xi is
(yi+2 2yi+1 + 2yi1 yi2)
b)

O
(yi+2 2yi+1 + 2yi1 yi2)
c)

(yi+2 4yi+1 + 6yi 4yi1 + yi2)
d) None of these
11) In solving a set of simultaneous ordinary differential equations
= x + z,
= x y2, y(0) = 2,
z(0) = 1, by Picards method, the first approximation for y is

a) 2 + x
N
b) 2 + x +
c) 2 x
N
d) 2 + x +
N
12) Ui, j + 1 =

[ui+1,j + Ui1,j] is called ___________ recurrence relation.
a) Bendre Schmidt
c) Crank-Nicholson
13) Uxx + 3 Uxy + Uyy = 0 is classified as
a) a elliptic equation
c) a hyperbolic equation
b) Poissons
d) None of these
b) a parabolic equation
d) none of these
14) The general second order PDE in two independent variables is given by
Auxx + Buxy + Cuyy + Dux + Euy + Fu = G, where A, B, C, D, E and F are functions of x and y or
constants. The equation is parabolic if
a) B2 4 AC > 0
b) 4 AC = B2
2
c) B 4 AC < 0
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK100*
S
SLR- PK 100
-3-

NUMERICAL METHODS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
a) Find a greatest positive real root of the equation x3 9x + 1 = 0 by Newtons Raphson method correct
to three decimal places.
b) Find a positive real root of the equation xlog10x = 1.2 by Regula Falsi method correct to three
decimal places.
c) The following results were obtained from the marks in Applied Mechanics and Engineering
Mathematics in an examination
Marks in
Marks in
Appl. Mech (x)
Engg. Maths(y)
Mean
Standard Deviation
47.5
16.8
39.5
10.8
and coefficient of correlation between x and y is 0.95. Find both the equations of the lines of
regression. Also estimate the value of y for x = 30.
3. a) Solve the system of linear simultaneous equations by Gauss-Seidal method correct to four decimal
places 28 x + 4y z = 32, x + 3y + 10z = 24, 2x + 17y + 4z = 35.
b) Attempt any one from the following :
4
5
i) Find numerically largest eigen value and corresponding eigen vector of the following matrix by
power method. (Take five iterations).
#
. Taking

as initial eigen vector.
"
ii) Solve the following simultaneous linear equations by Factorization method x + y + z =1,
4x + 3y z = 6, 3x + 5y + 3z = 4.
a) Fit a geometric curve y = a . xb by least square principle to the following data :
x:
y:
0.5
4.5
12.5
Set P
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
-4-
b) Find the polynomial f(x) for the following data, using Newtons divided difference formula.
x:
f(x) :
21
15
12
c) Obtain the coefficient of correlation between x and y from the following data. N = 20,
x2 = 900, y = 70, y2 = 800, xy = 700.
x = 80,

a) Perform two iterations of Newtons Raphson method to solve system of non-linear equations
x2 + y2 = 1 and x + y = xy starting with x0 = 0.5, y0 = 1 as initial approximation.
b) Using Lagranges interpolation formula, fit a polynomial to the following data.

x:
y:
12
and hence find y at x = 1.
4
SECTION II
6. Attempt any three from the following :

a) Evaluate
f
(33=9)
dx dy by Trapezoidal rule for the following data.

)
x
O
"
b) Evaluate the following integral, using Gauss three point formula
dx.
"

N
c) Find
dx using Simpsons
A
rd

rule. (Take h = 1).
!
d) Evaluate
using Weddles rule by taking h = 1/6.
Set P
*SLRPK100*
SLR- PK 100
-5-
7. a) Solve the differential equation
= 1 + xz,
d
@
= xy for x = 0.3, using fourth order Runge-Kutta

z
method. Initial values are x = 0, y = 0, z = 1 . (Take h = 0.3).
b) Using the finite difference method, solve the boundary value problem.
"
+ 81 y = 729 x2, y (0) =

O

O

O

= 0 use n = 3.
"
8. a) Using Crank-Nicholson scheme, solve Uxx = 16ut, 0 < x < 1, t > 0 given u (x, 0) = 0, u (0, t) = 0,
u(1,t) = 100 t. Compute u for one step in t direction taking h =

"
b) Using Bendre-Schmidts method, find the values of u (x, t) satisfying the parabolic equation
=2
K
and the boundary conditions u (0, t) = 0, u (6, t) = 18, u (x, 0) =

K
for five time steps
having h = 1.
9. a) Evaluate
using Rombergs method by taking h = 0.5 and 0.25.

N
"
b) Solve Uxx + Uyy = 0 for the square mesh with boundary values as shown in figure below. (Take five
iterations).
K
K
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
S
Set

NUMERICAL METHODS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14

1) For the data
t:
f(t) :
14
0
0
the value of
B
0.5
0.25
1
1
1.5
2.25
2
4

J
a) 2.66668
b) 2.66667
c) 2.66669
d) None of these

=
a)
&

#
!

'
'
b)
#
&
B
B

!
'
'

c)
&
#
!

B
'
'
d) None of these
a)

O
at x = xi is
(yi+2 2yi+1 + 2yi1 yi2)
b)
(yi+2 2yi+1 + 2yi1 yi2)
c)

(yi+2 4yi+1 + 6yi 4yi1 + yi2)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
-2-
= x + z,
d
@
= x y2, y(0) = 2,
z

a) 2 + x
b) 2 + x +
N
c) 2 x
N
d) 2 + x +
N
5) Ui, j + 1 =

a) Bendre Schmidt
c) Crank-Nicholson
b) Poissons
d) None of these

d) none of these

a) B2 4 AC > 0
b) 4 AC = B2
2
c) B 4 AC < 0
d) None of these
quadratically ?
c) Bisection method
d) Muller method
a) (2, 3)
b) (0, 1)
c) (1, 2)
d) (3, 4)
d) Jacobis method
a) Extrapolation
b) Intrapolation
d) None of these
N


a)
N
b)
N
c) 3x x2
d)

a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 5
and
O
are
d) 1 and 2
equation AX = B is
b) Upper triangular
c) Singular matrix
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK100*
S
SLR- PK 100
-3-

NUMERICAL METHODS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
decimal places.
Marks in
Marks in
Appl. Mech (x)
Engg. Maths(y)
Mean
Standard Deviation
47.5
16.8
39.5
10.8
4
5
#
. Taking

"
4x + 3y z = 6, 3x + 5y + 3z = 4.
x:
y:
0.5
4.5
12.5
Set Q
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
-4-
x:
f(x) :
21
15
12
x2 = 900, y = 70, y2 = 800, xy = 700.
x = 80,


x:
y:
12
4
SECTION II

a) Evaluate
f
(33=9)

)
x
O
"
dx.
"

N
c) Find
dx using Simpsons
A
rd

rule. (Take h = 1).
!
d) Evaluate
Set Q
*SLRPK100*
SLR- PK 100
-5-
= 1 + xz,
d
@

z
"
+ 81 y = 729 x2, y (0) =

O

O

O

= 0 use n = 3.
"

"
=2
K

K
for five time steps
having h = 1.
9. a) Evaluate

N
"
iterations).
K
K
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
S
Set

NUMERICAL METHODS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14

N
14


a)
b)
c) 3x x2
d)

a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 5
and
O
are
d) 1 and 2
equation AX = B is
b) Upper triangular
c) Singular matrix
4) For the data
t:
f(t) :
0
0
the value of
B
0.5
0.25

1
1
1.5
2.25
2
4

J
a) 2.66668
b) 2.66667
c) 2.66669
d) None of these

=
a)
&
#
!
'
'

b)
#
&
B
B

N

!
'
'

c)
&
#
!

B
'
'
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
-2-

a)
at x = xi is
(yi+2 2yi+1 + 2yi1 yi2)
b)
(yi+2 2yi+1 + 2yi1 yi2)
c)

(yi+2 4yi+1 + 6yi 4yi1 + yi2)
d) None of these
= x + z,
= x y2, y(0) = 2,

a) 2 + x
N
b) 2 + x +
c) 2 x
N
d) 2 + x +
N
8) Ui, j + 1 =

a) Bendre Schmidt
c) Crank-Nicholson
b) Poissons
d) None of these

d) none of these
a) B2 4 AC > 0
b) 4 AC = B2
2
c) B 4 AC < 0
d) None of these
quadratically ?
c) Bisection method
d) Muller method
a) (2, 3)
b) (0, 1)
c) (1, 2)
d) (3, 4)
d) Jacobis method
a) Extrapolation
b) Intrapolation
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK100*
S
SLR- PK 100
-3-

NUMERICAL METHODS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
decimal places.
Marks in
Marks in
Appl. Mech (x)
Engg. Maths(y)
Mean
Standard Deviation
47.5
16.8
39.5
10.8
4
5
#
. Taking

"
4x + 3y z = 6, 3x + 5y + 3z = 4.
x:
y:
0.5
4.5
12.5
Set R
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
-4-
x:
f(x) :
21
15
12
x2 = 900, y = 70, y2 = 800, xy = 700.
x = 80,


x:
y:
12
4
SECTION II

a) Evaluate
f
(33=9)

)
x
O
"
dx.
"

N
c) Find
dx using Simpsons
A
rd

rule. (Take h = 1).
!
d) Evaluate
Set R
*SLRPK100*
SLR- PK 100
-5-
= 1 + xz,
d
@

z
"
+ 81 y = 729 x2, y (0) =

O

O

O

= 0 use n = 3.
"

"
=2
K

K
for five time steps
having h = 1.
9. a) Evaluate

N
"
iterations).
K
K
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
S
Set

NUMERICAL METHODS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
14

a)
at x = xi is
(yi+2 2yi+1 + 2yi1 yi2)
b)
(yi+2 2yi+1 + 2yi1 yi2)
c)

(yi+2 4yi+1 + 6yi 4yi1 + yi2)
d) None of these
= x + z,
= x y2, y(0) = 2,

a) 2 + x
N
b) 2 + x +
c) 2 x
N
d) 2 + x +
N
3) Ui, j + 1 =

a) Bendre Schmidt
c) Crank-Nicholson
b) Poissons
d) None of these
d) none of these

a) B2 4 AC > 0
b) 4 AC = B2
2
c) B 4 AC < 0
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
-2-
quadratically ?
c) Bisection method
d) Muller method
a) (2, 3)
b) (0, 1)
c) (1, 2)
d) (3, 4)
d) Jacobis method
a) Extrapolation
b) Intrapolation
d) None of these
N


a)
b)
c) 3x x2
d)

a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 5
and
O
are
d) 1 and 2
equation AX = B is
b) Upper triangular
c) Singular matrix
13) For the data
t:
f(t) :
0
0
the value of
B
0.5
0.25
1
1
1.5
2.25
2
4

J
a) 2.66668
b) 2.66667
c) 2.66669
d) None of these

=
a)
&
#
!
'
'
b)
#
&
B
B
'
'

c)
&
#
!

B
'
'
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK100*
S
SLR- PK 100
-3-

NUMERICAL METHODS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
decimal places.
Marks in
Marks in
Appl. Mech (x)
Engg. Maths(y)
Mean
Standard Deviation
47.5
16.8
39.5
10.8
4
5
#
. Taking

"
4x + 3y z = 6, 3x + 5y + 3z = 4.
x:
y:
0.5
4.5
12.5
Set S
SLR- PK 100
*SLRPK100*
-4-
x:
f(x) :
21
15
12
x2 = 900, y = 70, y2 = 800, xy = 700.
x = 80,


x:
y:
12
4
SECTION II

a) Evaluate
f
(33=9)

)
x
O
"
dx.
"

N
c) Find
dx using Simpsons
A
rd

rule. (Take h = 1).
!
d) Evaluate
Set S
*SLRPK100*
SLR- PK 100
-5-
= 1 + xz,
d
@

z
"
+ 81 y = 729 x2, y (0) =

O

O

O

= 0 use n = 3.
"

"
=2
K

K
for five time steps
having h = 1.
9. a) Evaluate

N
"
iterations).
K
K
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 101
*SLRPK101*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
Separate answer books for each Section.
Marks : 14
(141=14)
1) The direction of rotation of dc shunt motor can be reversed by interchanging

a) the supply terminals
b) the field terminals
c) the armature terminals only
d) either field or armature terminals
2) The mechanical power developed by the armature of a d.c. motor is equal to
a) armature current back e.m.f
b) power input minus loss
c) power output efficiency
d) power output plus iron losses
3) An induction motor is analogous to
a) DC motor
b) Transformer
c) Synchronous motor
d) DC generator
4) A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of
960 r.p.m. on full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will
be
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.03
d) 0.04
5) A universal motor is one which
a) is available universally
b) can be marked internationally
c) can be operated either on dc or ac supply
d) runs at dangerously high speed on no-load
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 101
*SLRPK101*
-2-
6) Two phase servomotors are used in

a) Control system
b) Driving centrifugal pumps
c) Electrical traction
d) Home appliance
7) Heat transfer by condition will not occur when
a) bodies are kept in vacuum
b) bodies are immersed in water
c) bodies are exposed to thermal radiations
d) temperatures of the two bodies are identical
8) The welding electric circuit is
a) Never earthed
c) Trough cables only
9) Op-amp integrator uses
a) Capacitor as feedback element
c) Inductor as feedback element
10) CMRR of an ideal op-amp is
a) Infinite
b) Very high
b) Always earthed
d) None
b) Resistor as feedback element
d) A simple wire as feedback element
c) Low
11) Asynchronous counters are known as

a) ripple counters
b)
c) decade counters
d)
12) The output of NOR gate is high
a) when the all inputs are high
b)
c) when one or more inputs are low d)
13) The number of I/O pins of 8051 is
a) 16
b) 32
d) Very low
multiple clock counters

modulus counters
when the all inputs are low
when one or more inputs are high
c) 8
d) 4
14) If E A pin of 8051 microcontroller is low, all instructions are fetched from
___________ memory.
a) external
b) internal
c) both a) and b) d) none
______________
Set P
*SLRPK101*
-3-
SLR-PK 101
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

SECTION I

(44=16)
a) Select the motor for following applications. Assign the reason for selecting
the motor :
i) Lathe machine
ii) Lifts
iii) Vacuum cleaner
iv) Printer.
b) Explain torque-slip characteristics of three phase induction motor.
c) With neat sketch explain the working of AC servomotor.
d) What are the different modes of heat transfer ? Explain each in detail.
e) Compare cage and wound 3-phase induction with reference to construction,
performance and application.
f) With neat sketch and circuit diagram the working of DOL starter to start
3-phase induction motor.
(26=12)
a) Write a short note on flux control method for control the speed of dc shunt
motor and solve the following.
A dc machine has following details : poles = 4, flux per pole = 58.7 mwb,
armature winding = wave, no. of slots = 48, conductors per slot = 3, armature
resistance = 0.2 ohm, when the machine was connected t to 400 V supplies, it
run as motor at speed of 1050 rpm. Calculate the value of back emf and hence
find the value of the armature torque developed by the motor.
Set P
SLR-PK 101
-4-
*SLRPK101*
b) Write notes on :
i) Brushless DC motor
ii) Linear Induction Motor.
c) With neat diagram explain resistance heating.
100 kg of tin to be smelt during an hour in a smelting furnace. Determine
suitable rating of furnace, if smelting temperature of tin is 235C, specific
heat 0.055, latent heat of liquidification 13.3 Kcal/Kg. Take the initial
temperature of metal as 35C.
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) Explain working of basic 4-bit register with D flip-flop. (Draw diagram and
waveforms only).
b) Explain with neat circuit diagram op-amp as adder and sub-stractor.
c) Explain characteristics of an ideal op-amp.
d) Explain the similarities and differences between microprocessor and
microcontroller.
e) Explain memory organization of 8051 micro controller.
f) Explain the working of successive approximation A/D converter.
(26=12)
a) Explain different types of flip-flop circuit in detail.

b) What is need of digital to analog converter ? Discuss different types of DAC.
c) Explain in detail architecture of microcontroller 8051.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 101
*SLRPK101*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 14

a) Never earthed
a) Infinite
b) Very high
(141=14)
b) Always earthed
d) None
c) Low
d) Very low

a) ripple counters
b) multiple clock counters
c) decade counters
d) modulus counters
b) when the all inputs are low
c) when one or more inputs are low
d) when one or more inputs are high
a) 16
b) 32
c) 8
d) 4
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 101
-2-
*SLRPK101*

___________ memory.
a) external
b) internal
a) DC motor
b) Transformer
d) DC generator
be
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.03
d) 0.04
a) Control system
d) Home appliance
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK101*
-3-
SLR-PK 101
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

SECTION I

(44=16)
the motor :
i) Lathe machine
ii) Lifts
iii) Vacuum cleaner
iv) Printer.
(26=12)
Set Q
SLR-PK 101
-4-
*SLRPK101*
b) Write notes on :
SECTION II
(44=16)
waveforms only).
microcontroller.
(26=12)

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 101
*SLRPK101*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) Control system
d) Home appliance
a) Never earthed
b) Always earthed
d) None


P.T.O.
SLR-PK 101
*SLRPK101*
-2-

a) Infinite
b) Very high
c) Low
d) Very low

a) ripple counters
b) multiple clock counters
c) decade counters
d) modulus counters
c) when one or more inputs are low
a) 16
b) 32
b) when the all inputs are low

d) when one or more inputs are high
c) 8
d) 4
___________ memory.
a) external
b) internal
a) DC motor
b) Transformer
d) DC generator
be
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.03
d) 0.04
______________
Set R
*SLRPK101*
-3-
SLR-PK 101
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

SECTION I

(44=16)
the motor :
i) Lathe machine
ii) Lifts
iii) Vacuum cleaner
iv) Printer.
(26=12)
Set R
SLR-PK 101
-4-
*SLRPK101*
b) Write notes on :
SECTION II
(44=16)
waveforms only).
microcontroller.
(26=12)

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 101
*SLRPK101*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 14

a) Infinite
b) Very high
(141=14)
c) Low

a) ripple counters
b)
c) decade counters
d)
b)
c) when one or more inputs are low d)
a) 16
b) 32
d) Very low
multiple clock counters

modulus counters
when the all inputs are low
when one or more inputs are high
c) 8
d) 4

___________ memory.
a) external
b) internal
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 101
*SLRPK101*
-2-

a) DC motor
b) Transformer
d) DC generator
be
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.03
d) 0.04
a) Control system
d) Home appliance
a) Never earthed
b) Always earthed
d) None
______________
Set S
*SLRPK101*
-3-
SLR-PK 101
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 56

SECTION I

(44=16)
the motor :
i) Lathe machine
ii) Lifts
iii) Vacuum cleaner
iv) Printer.
(26=12)
Set S
SLR-PK 101
-4-
*SLRPK101*
b) Write notes on :
SECTION II
(44=16)
waveforms only).
microcontroller.
(26=12)

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
S
T.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2016

THEORY OF MACHINE II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

3) Solve any 3 questions from Section I and solve any 3 questions
from Section II.
Marks : 20
20
1) Interference occurs in case of

a) cycloidal profile teeth
c) in both of them
b) involute profile teeth

2) The normal pitch in helical gear is given by

b) Pc.sin
a) Pc.cot
c) P c.cos
3) The angle between the line of action and common tangent at the pitch point is known as
a) Pressure angle
b) Helix angle
c) Spiral angle
4) In a simple gear train, if the number of idle gears is odd, then the motion of driven gear will
a) be opposite as that of driving gear
b) be same as that of driving gear
c) depend upon the number of teeth on the driving gear
5) In a clock mechanism, the gear train used to connect minute hand to hour hand, is
a) epicyclic gear train
b) simple gear train
c) compound gear train
d) reverted gear train
6) The propeller of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end
and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The gyroscopic couple tends to
a) raise the nose and dip the tail
b) dip the nose and raise the tail
c) turns towards starboard side
d) turns towards port side
7) A disc is spinning with an angular velocity
rad/s about the axis of spin. The couple
applied to the disc causing precession will be
a)
1
b)
c)
1

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
-2-
8) When the pitching of a ship is downward, the effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be
a) to raise the stern and lower the bow
b) to move the ship towards star-board
c) to raise the bow and lower the stern
d) to move the ship towards port side
9) The maximum fluctuation of energy is the
a) sum of maximum and minimum energy
b) ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle
c) ratio of the maximum energy and minimum energy
d) difference between the maximum and minimum energy
10) Ratio of the maximum fluctuation of energy to the, ______________ is called coefficient
of fluctuation of energy.
a) work done per cycle
b) minimum fluctuation of energy
c) mean resisting torque
d) all of these
11) For static balancing involves balancing of
a) couple
b) forces
c) both a) and b)
d) masses
12) Unbalanced force due to reciprocating mass

a) varies in both magnitude and direction
b) varies in direction only
c) varies in magnitude only
d) constant in both magnitude and direction
13) When the angle of inclination of the crank with the line of stroke is 0 or 180, the
primary unbalanced force is
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) average
14) When a body vibrates under the influence of external force, it is said to have
a) free vibrations
b) under-damped vibrations
c) damped vibrations
d) forced vibrations
15) Time taken by a vibrating body to complete one cycle, is known as
a) frequency
b) damping
c) period
d) resonance
16) In under damped vibrating system, the natural logarithm of the amplitude reduction factor
is known as
a) logarithmic decrement
b) critical damping co-efficient
c) damping factor
d) magnification factor
17) Critical damping depends upon
a) mass only
c) natural frequency only
b) mass and stiffness

18) Ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to static
force, is known as
a) damping factor
c) magnification factor
d) logarithmic decrement
19) The ratio of the force transmitted (FT) to the force applied (F) is known as the ____________
of the spring support.
a) transmissibility ratio
b) magnification factor
c) damping factor
d) none of these
20) At node point amplitude of torsional vibration is
a) maximum
b) zero
c) minimum
______________
d) none of these
Set P
*SLRPK102*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 102

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

from Section II.
SECTION I
2. A) Explain law of gearing.
B) Fig. shows a epicyclic gear train. Pinion A has 15 teeth and is rigidly fixed to motor shaft.
The wheel B has 20 teeth and gears with A and also with annular fixed wheel E. Pinion C
has 15 teeth and is integral with B i.e., B and C are compound gears. Gear C meshes with
annular wheel D which is keyed to machine shaft. The arm rotates about he same shaft
on which A is fixed and carries a compound wheel BC. If the motor runs at 1000 rpm, find
speed of machine shaft. Find torque exerted on machine shaft if motor develops a torque
of 100 Nm.
Set P
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
-4-
3. A) The mass of turbine rotor of ship is 20 tonnes and has radius of gyration of 0.60 m. its speed
is 2000 rpm. The ship pitches 6 above and 6 below the horizontal position. A complete
oscillation takes 30 sec. and the motion is simple harmonic. Determine the following :
a) Maximum gyroscopic couple
b) Maximum angular acceleration of ship during pitching
c) The direction in which the bow will tend to turn when rising, if the rotation of the rotor is
clockwise when looking from left.
B) Explain coefficient of fluctuation of speed and coefficient of fluctuation of energy. Define

coefficient of steadiness.
4. A) A multi cylinder engine has to run at 600 rpm. On drawing TMD to the scale of
1mm = 250 Nm and 1 mm = 3 the areas above and below the torque line in mm2 are : +160,
172, +168, 191, +197, 162. The speed is to be kept within
1% of mean speed of
engine. Calculate necessary moment of inertia of flywheel. Determine suitable dimensions

of rectangular flywheel rim if breadth is twice its thickness. The density of Cl is 7250 kg/m3
and its Hoops stress is 6 MPa. Assume that rim contributes 92% of flywheel
effect.
B) Explain the tabular method to find the speed of an epicyclic gear train.
5. A) A pair of spiral gear is required to connect two shafts 175 mm apart. The shaft angle being
70. The velocity ratio is to be 1.5 : 1. The faster wheel having 80 teeth and pitch circle
diameter of 100 mm. Find spiral angle for each wheel. If torque on faster wheel is 75 Nm.
Find axial thrust on each shaft neglecting friction.
B) Explain the gyroscopic effect on a two wheeler negotiating a turn. Define the angle of heel. 5
SECTION II
6. An air compressor has four vertical cylinders 1, 2, 3 and 4 inline and driving cranks at 90
intervals reach their uppermost positions in this order. The cranks are of 150 mm radius, the
connecting rods 500 mm long and cylinder centre line 400 mm apart. The mass of the
reciprocating parts for each cylinder is 22.5 kg and the speed of rotation is 400 rpm. Show that
there are no out of balance primary and secondary forces and determine the corresponding
couples. The central plane of the machine may be taken as reference plane.
13
Set P
*SLRPK102*
-5-
SLR-PK 102
7. a) Find the natural frequency of the system as shown in figure (7 a) :
Fig. 7 a)
Given : K1 = K2 = 1500 N/m

K3 = 2000 N/m
M = 5 kg
b) Define :
i) Free vibrations
ii) Damped vibrations
iii) Forced vibrations.
c) Derive an expression for natural frequency of longitudinal vibration of helical spring.
8. a) The disc of a torsional pendulum has a moment of inertia of 600 kgcm2 and is immersed in
a viscous fluid. The brass shaft attached to it is of 10 cm diameter and 40 cm long. When
the pendulum is vibrating, the observed amplitudes on the same side of the rest position
for successive cycles are 9, 6 and 4. Determine :
a) Logarithmic decrement
b) Damping torque at unit velocity
c) Periodic time of vibration.
b) Explain balancing of several masses rotating in same plane.
8
5
Set P
SLR-PK 102
-6-
*SLRPK102*
9. a) A shaft shown in Figure 9 a) carries two masses. The mass A is 300 kg with radius of
gyration of 0.75 m and mass B is 500 kg with a radius of gyration of 0.9 m. Determine the
frequency of torsional vibrations.
Fig. 9 a)
b) Explain vibration isolation and transmissibility.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

from Section II.
Marks : 20
20
is known as
c) damping factor
a) mass only

force, is known as
a) damping factor
c) damping factor
d) none of these
a) maximum
b) zero
c)
b)
c) in both of them
d)
a) Pc.cot
b)
c) P c.cos
d)
minimum
d) none of these
involute profile teeth

none of the above
Pc.sin
None of the above
a) Pressure angle
b) Helix angle
c) Spiral angle
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
-2-
a)
1
b)
c)
1
d) all of these
a) couple
b) forces
c) both a) and b)
d) masses

a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) average
a) free vibrations
a) frequency
b) damping
c) period
d) resonance
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK102*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 102

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

from Section II.
SECTION I
of 100 Nm.
Set Q
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
-4-

1% of mean speed of

effect.
SECTION II
13
Set Q
*SLRPK102*
-5-
SLR-PK 102
Fig. 7 a)
Given : K1 = K2 = 1500 N/m

K3 = 2000 N/m
M = 5 kg
b) Define :
i) Free vibrations
8
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 102
-6-
*SLRPK102*
Fig. 9 a)
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

from Section II.
Marks : 20

a) couple
b) forces
20
c) both a) and b)
d) masses

a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) average
a) free vibrations
a) frequency
b) damping
c) period
d) resonance
is known as
c) damping factor
a) mass only

force, is known as
a) damping factor
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
-2-
c) damping factor
d) none of these
a) maximum
b) zero
c) minimum
c) in both of them
d) none of these


a) Pc.cot
b) Pc.sin
c) Pc.cos
a) Pressure angle
b) Helix angle
c) Spiral angle
a)
1
b)
c)
1
d) all of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK102*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 102

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

from Section II.
SECTION I
of 100 Nm.
Set R
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
-4-

1% of mean speed of

effect.
SECTION II
13
Set R
*SLRPK102*
-5-
SLR-PK 102
Fig. 7 a)
Given : K1 = K2 = 1500 N/m

K3 = 2000 N/m
M = 5 kg
b) Define :
i) Free vibrations
8
5
Set R
SLR-PK 102
-6-
*SLRPK102*
Fig. 9 a)
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

from Section II.
Marks : 20

20
a)
1
b)
c)
1
d) all of these
a) couple
b) forces
c) both a) and b)
d) masses
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
-2-
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) average
a) free vibrations
a) frequency
b) damping
c) period
d) resonance
is known as
c) damping factor
a) mass only

force, is known as
a) damping factor
c) damping factor
d) none of these
a) maximum
b) zero
c) minimum
c) in both of them
d) none of these


a) Pc.cot
b) Pc.sin
c) Pc.cos
a) Pressure angle
b) Helix angle
c) Spiral angle
______________
Set S
*SLRPK102*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 102

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

from Section II.
SECTION I
of 100 Nm.
Set S
SLR-PK 102
*SLRPK102*
-4-

1% of mean speed of

effect.
SECTION II
13
Set S
*SLRPK102*
-5-
SLR-PK 102
Fig. 7 a)
Given : K1 = K2 = 1500 N/m

K3 = 2000 N/m
M = 5 kg
b) Define :
i) Free vibrations
8
5
Set S
SLR-PK 102
-6-
*SLRPK102*
Fig. 9 a)
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 103
*SLRPK103*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2016

HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

3) Out of remaining questions, attempt any two questions from
each Section.
4) Assume suitable data if required.
Marks : 20
1. Single Answer Questions.
1) In a heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 180C and leaves at 160C. The
cooling fluid enters at 30C and leaves at 110C. The capacity ratio of heat
exchanger is
a) 0.2
b) 0.33
c) 12.5
d) 0.25
2) For grey surface
a) emissivity is constant
b) absorptivity equal to reflectivity
c) emissivity equal to transmissivity d) reflectivity equals emissivity
3) The law governing the distribution of radiant energy over wavelength for a
black body at fixed temperature is referred as
a) Wiens law
b) Plancks law c) Kirchoffs law d) Lamberts law
4) All the followings are units of thermal conductivity except
a) kcal/m-hr-C
b) kJ/m-hr-K
c) W/m-s-K
d) cal/cm-s-C
5) Which of the following forms of water have the highest value of thermal
conductivity ?
a) Boiling water
b) Steam
c) Solid ice
d) Melting ice
6) The steady state temperature distribution in a very large thin plate with uniform
surface temperatures will be
a) Linear
b) Hyperbolic
c) Parabolic
d) Logarithmic
7) In the lumped parameter model, the temperature variation with time is
a) Linear
b) Hyperbolic
c) Exponential
d) Logarithmic
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 103
-2-
*SLRPK103*
8) Lumped parameter analysis for transient heat conduction is essentially for

a) Bi < 0.1
b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5
c) 1 < Bi < 10
d) Bi number is infinity
9) Absorptivity of a body equals to emissivity
a) for a polished body
b) under thermal equilibrium
c) at one particular temperature
d) at shorter wavelength
10) The free convection heat transfer is significantly affected by
a) Reynolds number
b) Grashoff number
c) Stanton number
11) Value of Prandlt number for air is
a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 0.7
d) 1.1
12) Heat conduction in gases due to
a) Motion of electrons
b) Elastic impact of molecules
c) Mixing motion different layers of gas
d) Electromagnetic waves
13) Indicates the metal with highest thermal conductivity
a) Steel
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Saw dust
14) For s finned surface, it is considered appropriate that area of cross section
be
a) Reduced along length
b) Increased along length
c) Maintained along length
d) None
15) The velocity profile for fully developed flow in a tube is
a) Hyperbolic
b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Exponential
16) Thermal conductivity of solid metals _____ with rise in temperature.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same d) Unpredictable
17) The overall heat transfer co-efficient is used in case of
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Conduction and convection
18) Why baffles are provided in heat exchangers ?
a) To reduce heat transfer rate
b) To improve heat transfer rate
c) To remove dirt
d) To reduce vibration
19) Fins are provided on surface to
a) To increase temperature gradient
b) To increase heat transfer co-efficient
c) To increase heat transfer area
d) All of these
20) Which one of dimensionless number has a significant role in forced convection ?
a) Stanton
b) Reynolds
c) Grashoff
d) None
______________
Set P
*SLRPK103*
-3-
SLR-PK 103
Seat
No.

Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-4-2016aturday, 9-5-2015
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m..00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Attempt any two questions from each Section.

Assume suitable data if required.
SECTION I
2. A) Derive an expression for critical radius of sphere.
B) A current of 200 A is passed through a nichrome wire of 3 mm diameter and

1 m long (k = 19 W/mK) the resistivity of steel is 70 cm. The wire is
submerged in liquid 110C and experienced convective heat transfer
coefficient of 4 kW/m2K. Calculate centre line temperature of wire.
C) Explain in detail modes of heat transfer with their governing laws.
3. A) Derive an expression for temperature distribution and heat flow rate through
a pin fin considering uniform cross section with finite length and fin tip is
insulated.
B) Consider a rectangular plate 0.2 m 0.4 m is maintained at uniform temperature

of 80C. It is placed in atmospheric air at 24C. Compare heat transfer rates
from that plates for the cases when the vertical height is a) 0.2 m b) 0.4 m.
The properties of air at 325 Kelvin are,
k air = 0.02814 W/mC, = 1.822 105 m2/s, Pr = 0.703 and
= 1/325 = 3.077 103/K Nu = 0.59 (Gr.Pr)1/4.
C) Air at velocity of 3 m/s and 20C flows over a flat plate along its length. The
length, width and thickness of plate are 100 cm, 50 cm and 2 cm, respectively.
The top surface of the plate is maintained at 100C. Calculate the heat lost by
the plate and temperature of bottom surface of the plate for the steady state
conditions. The thermal conductivity of the plate may be taken as 23 w/mK.
The thermo physical properties at 60C of air as follows.
kf = 0.02894 W/mC, = 1.06 kg/m3, Cp = 1.005 kJ/kgK, = 18.97 106 m2/s,
Pr = 0.696 Nu = 0.664(ReL)1/2(Pr)1/3.
Set P
SLR-PK 103
-4-
*SLRPK103*
4. A) Define Nusselt, Prandtl and Reynolds number, also give their significance.
B) Derive an expression for temperature distribution for a body subjected to

heating or cooling, for lumped heat capacity analysis.
C) Determine the heat loss from a very long 25 mm diameter copper rod (k = 380W/mC)
extends horizontally from a plane heated wall at 120C. The temperature of
the surrounding air is 25C and the convective heat transfer co-efficient is
9 W/m2C.
SECTION II
5. A) Derive an expression for LMTD of counter flow heat exchanger.
B) Heat oil with capacity rate of 2500 W/K flows through a double pipe heat
exchanger. It enters at 360C and leaves at 300C. Cold fluid enters at 30C
and leaves at 200C. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 800 W/m2K,
determine the heat exchanger area required for parallel and counter flow.
C) State and explain Weins law and derive it from Plancks law.
6. A) Two parallel plates at temperature 800C and 250C have emissivities of 0.5
and 0.9 respectively. A radiation shield with emissivity of 0.05 is placed
between the plates. Calculate heat transfer by radiation per unit area with and
without shield. (Take = 5.678 108 W/m2K4).
B) Explain the classifications of heat exchanger.
7
6
C) Find the percentage reduction in heat transfer with a polished aluminium

radiation shield with emissivity 0.05 when placed between two very large
parallel plates with emissivities of 0.5 and 0.3.
7. A) Differentiate heat and mass transfer in detail with examples.
B) Explain with neat sketch boiling curve and its different regimes.
C) Write a short on finite difference methods for solving conduction and convection
problems.
7
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 103
*SLRPK103*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

each Section.
Marks : 20
a) Decreases
b) Increases
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
c) To remove dirt
d) All of these
a) Stanton
b) Reynolds
c) Grashoff
d) None
exchanger is
a) 0.2
b) 0.33
c) 12.5
d) 0.25
7) For grey surface
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 103
-2-
*SLRPK103*
a) Wiens law
a) kcal/m-hr-C
b) kJ/m-hr-K
c) W/m-s-K
d) cal/cm-s-C
conductivity ?
a) Boiling water
b) Steam
c) Solid ice
d) Melting ice
a) Linear
b) Hyperbolic
c) Parabolic
d) Logarithmic
a) Linear
b) Hyperbolic
c) Exponential
d) Logarithmic
a) Bi < 0.1
b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5
c) 1 < Bi < 10
a) Reynolds number
b) Grashoff number
c) Stanton number
a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 0.7
d) 1.1
a) Steel
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Saw dust
be
d) None
a) Hyperbolic
b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Exponential
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK103*
-3-
SLR-PK 103
Seat
No.

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

insulated.

k air = 0.02814 W/mC, = 1.822 105 m2/s, Pr = 0.703 and
= 1/325 = 3.077 103/K Nu = 0.59 (Gr.Pr)1/4.
Pr = 0.696 Nu = 0.664(ReL)1/2(Pr)1/3.
Set Q
SLR-PK 103
-4-
*SLRPK103*

9 W/m2C.
SECTION II
7
6

problems.
7
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 103
*SLRPK103*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

each Section.
Marks : 20
a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 0.7
d) 1.1
a) Steel
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Saw dust
be
d) None
a) Hyperbolic
b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Exponential
a) Decreases
b) Increases
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 103
-2-
*SLRPK103*

c) To remove dirt
d) All of these
a) Stanton
b) Reynolds
c) Grashoff
d) None
exchanger is
a) 0.2
b) 0.33
c) 12.5
d) 0.25
12) For grey surface
a) Wiens law
a) kcal/m-hr-C
b) kJ/m-hr-K
c) W/m-s-K
d) cal/cm-s-C
conductivity ?
a) Boiling water
b) Steam
c) Solid ice
d) Melting ice
a) Linear
b) Hyperbolic
c) Parabolic
d) Logarithmic
a) Linear
b) Hyperbolic
c) Exponential
d) Logarithmic
a) Bi < 0.1
b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5
c) 1 < Bi < 10
a) Reynolds number
b) Grashoff number
c) Stanton number
______________
Set R
*SLRPK103*
-3-
SLR-PK 103
Seat
No.

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

insulated.

k air = 0.02814 W/mC, = 1.822 105 m2/s, Pr = 0.703 and
= 1/325 = 3.077 103/K Nu = 0.59 (Gr.Pr)1/4.
Pr = 0.696 Nu = 0.664(ReL)1/2(Pr)1/3.
Set R
SLR-PK 103
-4-
*SLRPK103*

9 W/m2C.
SECTION II
7
6

problems.
7
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 103
*SLRPK103*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

each Section.
Marks : 20
a) Linear
b) Hyperbolic
c) Parabolic
d) Logarithmic
a) Linear
b) Hyperbolic
c) Exponential
d) Logarithmic
a) Bi < 0.1
b) 0.1 < Bi < 0.5
c) 1 < Bi < 10
a) Reynolds number
b) Grashoff number
c) Stanton number
a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 0.7
d) 1.1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 103
-2-
*SLRPK103*

a) Steel
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Saw dust
be
d) None
a) Hyperbolic
b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Exponential
a) Decreases
b) Increases
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
c) To remove dirt
d) All of these
a) Stanton
b) Reynolds
c) Grashoff
d) None
exchanger is
a) 0.2
b) 0.33
c) 12.5
d) 0.25
17) For grey surface
a) Wiens law
a) kcal/m-hr-C
b) kJ/m-hr-K
c) W/m-s-K
d) cal/cm-s-C
conductivity ?
a) Boiling water
b) Steam
c) Solid ice
d) Melting ice
______________
Set S
*SLRPK103*
-3-
SLR-PK 103
Seat
No.

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

insulated.

k air = 0.02814 W/mC, = 1.822 105 m2/s, Pr = 0.703 and
= 1/325 = 3.077 103/K Nu = 0.59 (Gr.Pr)1/4.
Pr = 0.696 Nu = 0.664(ReL)1/2(Pr)1/3.
Set S
SLR-PK 103
-4-
*SLRPK103*

9 W/m2C.
SECTION II
7
6

problems.
7
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 104
*SLRPK104*
Seat
No.
Set

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. Type I : MCQ with only one answer correct :

1) Tin is having _____________ structure.
a) BCC
b) BCT
c) FCC
(110=10)
d) HCP
2) Which of the following alloy is having best casting properties ?

a) Eutectic alloy
b) Eutectoid alloy
c) Peritectic alloy
d) Solid solution alloy
3) Which of the following alloy is zero freezing range ?
a) Eutectic
b) Peritectic
c) Monotectic
d) Eutectoid
4) Which of the following element is austenite stabilizer, when added to steels ?
a) Silicon
b) Manganese
c) Chromium
d) Cobalt
5) Al-Si alloys are given ___________ treatment.
a) Modification
b) Solution
c) Stabling
d) Malleablizing
6) Which of the following is called sub critical annealing ?
a) Full annealing
b) Spherodising annealing
c) Isothermal annealing
d) Stress relief annealing
7) To measure hardness of hardened and tempered steel, which of the following
hardness test is recommended ?
a) Rockwell
b) Brinell
c) Shores Schleroscope
d) Vickers
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 104
-2-
*SLRPK104*
8) Which of the following test measures behavior of material under constant

load ?
a) Impact test
b) Creep test
c) Fatigue test
d) Tensile test
9) Which of the following treatment is based on isothermal transformation of
austenite ?
a) Annealing
b) Normalising
c) Patenting
d) Tempering
10) To produce of powders of Zinc and Cadmium which of the following method
is used ?
a) Atomisation
b) Reduction
c) Cabonyl method
d) Condensation from metal vapours
Type II : MCQ with more than one answer correct :
(25=10)
1) Which of the following phases present in Fe-Fe3C diagram have BCC structure ?
a) Ferrite
b) Austenite
c) Cementite
d) Delta iron
2) Which of the following steels essentially contain Tungsten as an alloying
element ?
a) HSLA steel
b) HSS steel
c) Hot working tool steel
d) Water hardening steels
3) Which of the following steels are oil hardened ?
a) HCHC Steels
b) HSLA steel
c) Hadfield Mn steel
d) HSS steel
4) Which of the following methods of powder manufacture are regarded as
mechanical methods of Powder mfg. ?
a) Reduction
b) Carbonyl
c) Atomisation
d) Milling
5) Which of the following alloys are hardened by precipitation hardening ?
a) Beryllium bronze
b) Tin bronze
c) Al Bronze
d) Duralumin
______________
Set P
*SLRPK104*
-3-
SLR-PK 104
Seat
No.

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Give the classification of Metallic Materials in detail.
b) Draw Fe-Fe3C equilibrium diagram, label all the constituents, temperatures
and explain importance of A1 and A3 temperature.
3. a) Explain Composition Properties and Applications of (any three) :

i) Hadfield Mn Steel
ii) Ferritic Stainless steel
iii) HSS
iv) Naval Brass.
b) Give composition, properties and applications of Gray Cast iron. Why it is

innoculated ?
4. a) Differentiate clearly between :
i) -Brass - Brass
ii) Malleable CI SG Iron
iii) Substitutional Interstitial Solid solution.
b) Explain the modification treatment given to Al-Si system with its effect.
4
9
5. Write notes on (any three) :

a) Solder materials
b) Specifications of steel
c) Lever arm principle
d) Tin Bronze with microstructure.
5
Set P
SLR-PK 104
-4-
*SLRPK104*
SECTION II
6. a) Draw TT T diagram for eutectoid steel and explain its significance. Explain
the characteristics of Martensitic transformation.
b) Explain the objectives of normalizing heat treatment. Compare normalizing

with Annealing.
7. a) Attempt the following questions (any 3) :

i) Explain the significance of Hardenability ? Which factors improve
Hardenability ?
ii) Differentiate clearly between Charpy and Izod impact test.
iii) Explain Vickers hardness Test in brief.
iv) Compare between Carburizing and Nitriding.
b) Explain with neat sketch, Ultrasonic test of NDT in brief.
8. a) What is Powder metallurgy ? What are its advantages ? Explain the steps in
Powder metallurgy ?
b) Draw the self explanatory sketches of the following (any 2) :
i) Stress-strain curve for MS and Cast iron.
ii) Set up for dye penetrant test.
iii) Flow chart for manufacturing of sintered Friction Material.
8
6
9. Write a short note on (any 3) :

a) Tempering
b) Eddy Current test
c) Flame Hardening
d) Factors affecting the fatigue phenomenon.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 104
*SLRPK104*
Seat
No.
Set

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(110=10)

a) Full annealing
a) Rockwell
b) Brinell
d) Vickers
load ?
a) Impact test
b) Creep test
c) Fatigue test
d) Tensile test
austenite ?
a) Annealing
b) Normalising
c) Patenting
d) Tempering
is used ?
a) Atomisation
b) Reduction
c) Cabonyl method
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 104
-2-

a) BCC
b) BCT
c) FCC
*SLRPK104*
d) HCP

a) Eutectic alloy
b) Eutectoid alloy
c) Peritectic alloy
a) Eutectic
b) Peritectic
c) Monotectic
d) Eutectoid
a) Silicon
b) Manganese
c) Chromium
d) Cobalt
a) Modification
b) Solution
c) Stabling
d) Malleablizing
(25=10)

element ?
a) HSLA steel
b) HSS steel
a) HCHC Steels
b) HSLA steel
d) HSS steel
a) Reduction
b) Carbonyl
c) Atomisation
d) Milling
a) Beryllium bronze
b) Tin bronze
c) Al Bronze
d) Duralumin
a) Ferrite
b) Austenite
c) Cementite
d) Delta iron
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK104*
-3-
SLR-PK 104
Seat
No.

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I

iii) HSS
iv) Naval Brass.

innoculated ?
i) -Brass - Brass
4
9

a) Solder materials
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 104
-4-
*SLRPK104*
SECTION II

with Annealing.

Hardenability ?
Powder metallurgy ?
8
6

a) Tempering
c) Flame Hardening
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 104
*SLRPK104*
Seat
No.
Set

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(110=10)

a) Silicon
b) Manganese
c) Chromium
d) Cobalt
a) Modification
b) Solution
c) Stabling
d) Malleablizing
a) Full annealing
a) Rockwell
b) Brinell
d) Vickers
load ?
a) Impact test
b) Creep test
c) Fatigue test
d) Tensile test
austenite ?
a) Annealing
b) Normalising
c) Patenting
d) Tempering
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 104
-2-
*SLRPK104*

is used ?
a) Atomisation
b) Reduction
c) Cabonyl method
a) BCC
b) BCT
c) FCC
d) HCP

a) Eutectic alloy
b) Eutectoid alloy
c) Peritectic alloy
a) Eutectic
b) Peritectic
c) Monotectic
d) Eutectoid
(25=10)

a) HCHC Steels
b) HSLA steel
d) HSS steel
a) Reduction
b) Carbonyl
c) Atomisation
d) Milling
a) Beryllium bronze
b) Tin bronze
c) Al Bronze
d) Duralumin
a) Ferrite
b) Austenite
c) Cementite
d) Delta iron
element ?
a) HSLA steel
b) HSS steel
______________
Set R
*SLRPK104*
-3-
SLR-PK 104
Seat
No.

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I

iii) HSS
iv) Naval Brass.

innoculated ?
i) -Brass - Brass
4
9

a) Solder materials
5
Set R
SLR-PK 104
-4-
*SLRPK104*
SECTION II

with Annealing.

Hardenability ?
Powder metallurgy ?
8
6

a) Tempering
c) Flame Hardening
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 104
*SLRPK104*
Seat
No.
Set

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(110=10)

is used ?
a) Atomisation
b) Reduction
c) Cabonyl method
a) BCC
b) BCT
c) FCC
d) HCP

a) Eutectic alloy
b) Eutectoid alloy
c) Peritectic alloy
a) Eutectic
b) Peritectic
c) Monotectic
d) Eutectoid
a) Silicon
b) Manganese
c) Chromium
d) Cobalt
a) Modification
b) Solution
c) Stabling
d) Malleablizing
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 104
-2-
*SLRPK104*

a) Full annealing
a) Rockwell
b) Brinell
d) Vickers
load ?
a) Impact test
b) Creep test
c) Fatigue test
d) Tensile test
austenite ?
a) Annealing
b) Normalising
c) Patenting
d) Tempering
(25=10)

a) Reduction
b) Carbonyl
c) Atomisation
d) Milling
a) Beryllium bronze
b) Tin bronze
c) Al Bronze
d) Duralumin
a) Ferrite
b) Austenite
c) Cementite
d) Delta iron
element ?
a) HSLA steel
b) HSS steel
a) HCHC Steels
b) HSLA steel
d) HSS steel
______________
Set S
*SLRPK104*
-3-
SLR-PK 104
Seat
No.

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I

iii) HSS
iv) Naval Brass.

innoculated ?
i) -Brass - Brass
4
9

a) Solder materials
5
Set S
SLR-PK 104
-4-
*SLRPK104*
SECTION II

with Annealing.

Hardenability ?
Powder metallurgy ?
8
6

a) Tempering
c) Flame Hardening
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 105
*SLRPK105*
Seat
No.
Set
Professional Elective I
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention its clearly.
1. I)
Marks : 20
Match the pairs :
List (i)
List (ii)
a) Lathe feed motion
p) Translatory motion of work piece
b) Drilling drive motion
q) Rotary
c) Milling feed motion
r) Intermittent translator motion to cutting tool
d) Planning drive motion
s) Rotary motion of drill
e) Grinding drive motion
t) Reciprocating motion of cutting tool
f) Power Hack-Saw
u) Translatory motion of cutting tool
II) Single Correct Answer Question :
14
A) When large force is require to, the type of control used is

a) Knobs and switches
b) Levers and wheels
c) Push buttons
B) Which of the following screw thread is used for transmitting power in either direction ?
a) square thread
b) trapezoidal thread
c) buttress thread
d) a) and b)
C) Which of the following material has maximum strength ?

a) gray cast iron
b) plain carbon steel
c) alloy steel
d) aluminium alloy
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 105
-2-
*SLRPK105*
D) A self-locking screw has

a) fine threads
b) coarse threads
c) two nuts
d) coefficient of friction more than tangent of load angle
E) Ergonomic deals with
a) design of controls
b) design of displays
c) energy expenditure in hand and foot operations
d) all the three
F) The job of industrial designer is
a) to carry out detail stress analysis of the product
b) to design industrial product like cranes and hoists
c) to create aesthetically forms and shapes for the products
G) The meaning of orange colour is
a) the component is hot
b) the component is cold
c) the component is safe
d) there is possible danger

______________
Set P
*SLRPK105*
-3-
SLR-PK 105
Seat
No.

MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) What are the general requirements of Machine Tool Design ?
b) What are commonly used bed sections and wall arrangement and what are their applications
in machine tool ?
c) Explain with neat sketch hydraulic stepless regulations in gear and feed drives.
3. a) Enlist working and auxiliary motion in machine tool.
6
6
8
b) It is necessary to design variable steeped gear box for machine tool having six feeds
ranging from 120 rpm to 11000 rpm, derive having A.C. Synchronous motor of 8 Kwatts. 12
i) Draw the best speed ray diagram.
ii) Calculate the gear ratios and draw structure diagram.
iii) Find out the size of pulley on the input shaft if motor rpm is 1480.
iv) Make a layout of gear box.
4. a) What are different types of guide-ways in machine tool and explain their functions ?
b) What are commonly used column sections in machine tool and what are their applications ? 6
c) Explain effect of stiffness arrangement on bending and torsional stiffness of open type
structure.
Set P
SLR-PK 105
-4-
*SLRPK105*
SECTION II
5. a) What is function of spindle unit in machine tool and with neat sketches explain different
spindle ends with remarks and their applications ?
10
b) Explain different types of material used for spindles in machine tool.
c) Enlist values of compliances for different machine tools.
6. a) A single-row deep groove ball bearing No. 6002 is subjected to an axial thrust load of 1000 N
and radial load of 2200 N find the expected life that 50% of the bearings will complete
under this condition.
From bearing table : C0 = 2500 N, C = 5590 N
12
b) What are functions, requirements and classification of control systems of machine tools ?
7. a) What are the new trends and developments in machine tool design ?
b) With neat sketch explain manual control system in machine tool.
c) How ergonomic considerations are applied to design push button and knob in machine
tool ?
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 105
*SLRPK105*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

1. I)
Marks : 20
Single Correct Answer Question :
14
A) A self-locking screw has

a) fine threads
b) coarse threads
c) two nuts
B) Ergonomic deals with
d) all the three
C) The job of industrial designer is
D) The meaning of orange colour is

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 105
*SLRPK105*
-2-
E) When large force is require to, the type of control used is

c) Push buttons
F) Which of the following screw thread is used for transmitting power in either direction ?
a) square thread
c) buttress thread
d) a) and b)
G) Which of the following material has maximum strength ?

a) gray cast iron
c) alloy steel
d) aluminium alloy
II) Match the pairs :
List (i)
List (ii)
q) Rotary
f) Power Hack-Saw

______________
Set Q
*SLRPK105*
-3-
SLR-PK 105
Seat
No.

MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
in machine tool ?
6
6
8
structure.
Set Q
SLR-PK 105
-4-
*SLRPK105*
SECTION II
10
12
tool ?
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 105
*SLRPK105*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

1. I)
Marks : 20
Match the pairs :
List (i)
List (ii)
q) Rotary
f) Power Hack-Saw
II) Single Correct Answer Question :
14
A) Which of the following material has maximum strength ?

a) gray cast iron
c) alloy steel
d) aluminium alloy
B) A self-locking screw has

a) fine threads
b) coarse threads
c) two nuts
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 105
-2-
*SLRPK105*
C) Ergonomic deals with

d) all the three
D) The job of industrial designer is
E) The meaning of orange colour is
F) When large force is require to, the type of control used is

c) Push buttons
G) Which of the following screw thread is used for transmitting power in either direction ?
a) square thread
c) buttress thread
d) a) and b)
______________
Set R
*SLRPK105*
-3-
SLR-PK 105
Seat
No.

MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
in machine tool ?
6
6
8
structure.
Set R
SLR-PK 105
-4-
*SLRPK105*
SECTION II
10
12
tool ?
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 105
*SLRPK105*
Seat
No.
Set
MACHINE TOOL DESIGN

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

1. I)
Marks : 20
Single Correct Answer Question :
14
A) Ergonomic deals with

d) all the three
B) The job of industrial designer is
C) The meaning of orange colour is
D) When large force is require to, the type of control used is

c) Push buttons
E) Which of the following screw thread is used for transmitting power in either direction ?
a) square thread
c) buttress thread
d) a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 105
*SLRPK105*
-2-
F) Which of the following material has maximum strength ?

a) gray cast iron
c) alloy steel
d) aluminium alloy
G) A self-locking screw has

a) fine threads
b) coarse threads
c) two nuts
List (i)
List (ii)
q) Rotary
f) Power Hack-Saw

______________
Set S
*SLRPK105*
-3-
SLR-PK 105
Seat
No.

MACHINE TOOL DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
in machine tool ?
6
6
8
structure.
Set S
SLR-PK 105
-4-
*SLRPK105*
SECTION II
10
12
tool ?
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 106
*SLRPK106*
S
Set
t

FLUID MACHINERY AND FLUID POWER
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book
2) Answer MCQ/ objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on top of page.
3) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 5 are compulsory. Solve any one question from each Section out
of remaining questions.
1. 1 to 20 with single correct answers :
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used

A) to prevent air to enter the turbine
B) to run the turbine full
C) to transport water to downstream
D) to increase the head of water by an amount equal to the height of the runner outlet above the tail race
2) A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the pressure rise in the impeller is equal to the
A) velocity head
B) manometric head
C) kinetic head
D) static head
3) A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of 100 meters while running at 200 r.p.m. and discharging
2500 litres of water per second. The unit speed of the wheel is
A) 20 r.p.m.
B) 10 r.p.m.
C) 40 r.p.m.
D) 80 r.p.m.
4) The flow ratio of Francis turbine is defined as the ratio of the
A) velocity of flow at inlet to the theroretical jet velocity
B) theoretical velocity of jet to the velocity of flow at inlet
C) velocity of runner at inlet to the velocity of flow at inlet
D) None of above
5) The depth of the bucket for a Pelton wheel is generally ___________ the diameter of jet.
A) equal to
B) 1. 2 times
C) 1. 8 times
D) double
6) Which of the following statement is wrong ?
A) The reaction turbines are used for low head and high discharge
B) The angle of taper on draft tube is less than 8
C) An impulse turbine is generally fitted slightly above the tail race
D) A Francis turbine is an impulse turbine
7) The cavitation in reaction turbines is avoided, to a great extent by
A) providing highly polished blades to the runner
B) installing the turbine below the tail race level
C) using stainless steel runner of the turbine
D) all of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 106
*SLRPK106*
-2-
8) A turbine develops 10000 kW under a head of 25 meters at 135 r.p.m. Its specific speed is
A) 175.4 r.p.m.
B) 215.5 r.p.m.
C) 241.5 r.p.m.
D) 275.4 r.p.m.
9) Intercooling in gas turbines
A) increases net output but decreases thermal efficiency
B) decreases net output but increases thermal efficiency
C) decreases net output and thermal efficiency both
D) increases net output and thermal efficiency both
10) Reheating in a gas turbine
A) decreases the thermal efficiency
B) increases turbine work
C) increases compressor work
D) increases thermal efficiency
11) In which of these pumps, swash plate is replaced by cylinder block ?
A) bent axis piston pump
B) radial piston pump
C) axial piston pump
D) none of these
12) How does cushioning affect the speed of the piston when the cylinder is cushioned at extreme end ?
A) cushioning decreases the speed of piston near the extreme ends of the cylinder
B) cushioning increases the speed of piston near the extreme ends of the cylinder
C) cushioning increases the speed of piston at the beginning of the stroke in the cylinder
D) cushioning decreases the speed of piston at the beginning of the stroke in the cylinder
13) Which of the following is a gas charged accumulator ?
A) bladder type
B) spring loaded accumulator
C) weighted accumulator
D) all the above
14) Intensifier used in pneumatic systems has output pressure
A) less than input pressure
B) more than input pressure
C) same as input pressure
D) none of the above
15) What is the difference between pressure relief valve and pressure reducing valve ?
A) pressure reducing valve is connected between pump and tank line while pressure relief valve is
connected between DCV and branch circuit
B) pressure relief valve is always normally opened
C) pressure reducing valve is connected between DCV and branch circuit while pressure relief valve is
connected between pump and tank
16) What does the numbers in 4/2 valve mean ?
A) 4 positions and 2 ways
C) 2 ways and 2 positions
B) 4 ways and 2 positions

D) 5 positions and 3 ways
17) Why are bleed off circuits used ?

A) bleed off circuit is used to restrict the flow of fluid into the hydraulic cylinder
B) bleed off circuit is used to restrict the flow of fluid out of the hydraulic cylinder
C) bleed off circuits are used to reduce the speed of actuator
D) all the above
18) What is the function of sequence valve used in hydraulic circuits ?
A) sequence valves are used to perform number of operations one after the other after the set pressure is
reached
B) sequence valves are used to perform number of operations continuously before the set pressure is
reached
C) sequence valves after reaching set pressure oil is flown to the tank
D) all the above
19) Which of the following is an element of time delay valve ?
A) flow control valve
B) direction control valve
C) both a) and b)
20) Air motors are ___________ efficient than electric motors.
A) more
B) less
C) equally
______________
D) none of these
Set P
*SLRPK106*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 106

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 5 are compulsory.

Slove any one question from each Section out of remaining questions.
Use of non-programmable calculator is permitted.
SECTION I
2.
Solve any five :
(54=20)
A) With the help of neat diagram explain construction and working of a Pelton wheel turbine.
B) Which points should be consider while selecting right type of hydraulic turbine for hydroelectric power plant ?
C) What are the effects of cavitation ? Give necessary precautions against cavitation.
D) Derive derivation for specific speed of centrifugal pump.
E) Derive expression for minimum starting speed for starting a centrifugal pump.
F) Write a note on gas turbine fuels.
G) Draw inlet and outlet velocity triangle for Francis trubine.
3.
A)
A Kalpan turbine produces 7000 kW under a net of 35 m with an overall efficiency of 90%. Taking value of
speedratio as 1.6, flow ratio as 0.5 and the hub diameter is 0.35 times outer diameter. Find diameter and speed
of turbine.
B) A pelton wheel has to designed for following specification :

Power to be developed = 6000 kW
Net head available = 300 m
Speed = 550 rpm

Ratio of jet diameter to wheel diameter =

Overall efficiency = 85%

Velocity coefficient = 0.98
Speed ratio = 0.46
Find
i) The number of jets
ii) Diameter of jet
iii) Diameter of wheel
iv) Quantity of Water required
C) Derive Eulers equation for work done for rotodynamic machines.
7
6
Set P
SLR-PK 106
4.
-4-
*SLRPK106*
A)
Explain in detail unit quantities.
B)
The impeller of centrifugal pump having external and internal diameters 500 mm and 250 mm respectively,
width at outlet 50 mm and running at 1000 r.p.m. work against head of 40 m. The velocity of flow through
impeller is constant and equal to 2.5m/s. The vanes are set back at an angle of 40 at outlet. Determine :
i) Inlet vane angle
ii) Work done by impeller on water per second
iii) Manometric efficiency.
C) Explain with neat sketch methods for improvement of thermal efficiency of open cycle gas turbine plant.
SECTION II
5.
Attempt any five of the following :
(54=20)
a) Draw symbols of directly operated and pilot operated hydraulic pressure relief valve and directly operated
and pilot operated pressure reducing valve.
b) Explain Meter-out circuit with neat sketch.
c) Compare hydraulic system with pneumatic system.
d) Explain selection criteria of air compressor.
e) Compare air motor with electric motor.
f) Explain advantages and limitations of fluid power.
g) Draw neat sketch of filter unit.
6.
7.
a) Explain construction and working of pressure sequence valve.
b) Explain with neat sketch Re-generative circuit.
c) What is intensifier and expalin different types of intensifier ?
a) Explain pneumatic brake system in automobiles.
b) Explain with neat sketch vane type pump.
c) Explain with neat sketch 4/2 DCV in pneumatics.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 106
*SLRPK106*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 20

(120=20)

D) all the above
reached
reached
D) all the above
C) both a) and b)
A) more
B) less
C) equally
D) none of these

A) velocity head
B) manometric head
C) kinetic head
D) static head
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 106
-2-
*SLRPK106*
A) 20 r.p.m.
B) 10 r.p.m.
C) 40 r.p.m.
D) 80 r.p.m.
D) None of above
A) equal to
B) 1. 2 times
C) 1. 8 times
D) double
D) all of above
A) 175.4 r.p.m.
B) 215.5 r.p.m.
C) 241.5 r.p.m.
D) 275.4 r.p.m.
D) none of these
A) bladder type
D) all the above
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK106*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 106

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
Solve any five :
(54=20)
3.
A)
of turbine.

Speed = 550 rpm



Speed ratio = 0.46
Find
ii) Diameter of jet
7
6
Set Q
SLR-PK 106
4.
-4-
*SLRPK106*
A)
B)
i) Inlet vane angle
SECTION II
5.
(54=20)
6.
7.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 106
*SLRPK106*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 20
(120=20)

D) none of these
A) bladder type
D) all the above


D) all the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 106
-2-
*SLRPK106*

reached
reached
D) all the above
C) both a) and b)
A) more
B) less
C) equally
D) none of these

A) velocity head
B) manometric head
C) kinetic head
D) static head
A) 20 r.p.m.
B) 10 r.p.m.
C) 40 r.p.m.
D) 80 r.p.m.
D) None of above
A) equal to
B) 1. 2 times
C) 1. 8 times
D) double
D) all of above
A) 175.4 r.p.m.
B) 215.5 r.p.m.
C) 241.5 r.p.m.
D) 275.4 r.p.m.
______________
Set R
*SLRPK106*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 106

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
Solve any five :
(54=20)
3.
A)
of turbine.

Speed = 550 rpm



Speed ratio = 0.46
Find
ii) Diameter of jet
7
6
Set R
SLR-PK 106
4.
-4-
*SLRPK106*
A)
B)
i) Inlet vane angle
SECTION II
5.
(54=20)
6.
7.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 106
*SLRPK106*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Marks : 20
(120=20)

D) all of above
A) 175.4 r.p.m.
B) 215.5 r.p.m.
C) 241.5 r.p.m.
D) 275.4 r.p.m.
D) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 106
*SLRPK106*
-2-

A) bladder type
D) all the above


D) all the above
reached
reached
D) all the above
C) both a) and b)
A) more
B) less
C) equally
D) none of these

A) velocity head
B) manometric head
C) kinetic head
D) static head
A) 20 r.p.m.
B) 10 r.p.m.
C) 40 r.p.m.
D) 80 r.p.m.
D) None of above
A) equal to
B) 1. 2 times
C) 1. 8 times
D) double
______________
Set S
*SLRPK106*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 106

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
Solve any five :
(54=20)
3.
A)
of turbine.

Speed = 550 rpm



Speed ratio = 0.46
Find
ii) Diameter of jet
7
6
Set S
SLR-PK 106
4.
-4-
*SLRPK106*
A)
B)
i) Inlet vane angle
SECTION II
5.
(54=20)
6.
7.
_____________________
Set S
SLR- PK 107
*SLRPK107*
Seat
No.
Set

MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEM
(Professional Elective I)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) Material handling consists of movement of material from
a) one machine to another
b) one shop to another shop
c) stores to shop
d) all of the above
2) The equipment used to handle materials at a single location so that, it is in the
correct position for Machining ____________
a) Transport equipment
b) Storage equipment
c) Positioning equipment
d) None of these
3) ___________ Conveyor is used to transport flat bottoms materials.
a) Belt conveyor
b) Roller conveyor
c) Chain conveyor
4) Conveyors are used for __________ type industry.
a) Process layout
b) Line layout
c) Fixed layout
5) __________ equipments are worked on counterbalanced principle.
a) Gravity Conveyor
b) Fork lift Trucks
c) Picking Robot
d) Warehouse Trolley
6) A good plant layout ensures _________
a) Maximum Material handling
b) Minimum material handling
c) Exact MH
d) None of these
7) In AGV system _________ path on the floor used for guidance.
a) Fixed
b) Variable
c) Physical guide d) None of these
8) For automation, flow of __________ materials are required.
a) Low volume
b) Medium volume
c) High volume
d) All of these
9) Hoisting equipments works in conjection with ________ and workstation cranes.
a) Roller
b) Industries trucks
c) Elevator
d) Overhead crane
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 107
*SLRPK107*
-2-
10) Economy in material handling can be achieved by

a) maximizing distance and time of travel
b) minimizing distance and time of travel
c) manual material handling
d) all of the above
11) ______ common fork lift truck accidents are considered in material handling system.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) One
d) Ten
12) OSHA stands for
a) Occupational Safety and Human Administration
b) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c) Occupational Safety and House Administration
d) None of these
13) Storage equipment used for ______ or _______ material over a period of time.
a) catching or stocking
b) holding or buffering
c) storing or hanging
d) all of these
14) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
15) A diagram showing the path followed by men and materials while performing a
task is known as
a) cross diagram
b) flow process chart
c) travel chart
d) flow diagram
16) Assembly chart show ___________
a) Lay out of the product
b) Sequence in which component are assembled
c) Figure component
d) None of these
17) __________ types of restrictions are considered in manual material handling.
a) Physical
b) Financial
c) Ethical
d) All of these
18) Equipment evaluation sheet consists of equipment characteristics, utilization and
_________
a) Safety
b) Vendor characteristics
c) Flexibility
d) Unit load
19) The material handling equation consists of, the material characteristics, the move
requirement, and _____________
a) The method capabilities
b) Human capabilities
c) Load
d) Gravity
20) Procedure chart gives the information about __________
a) Inventory
b) Inspection
c) Communication
d) Material requirement
______________
Set P
*SLRPK107*
-3-
SLR-PK 107
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Draw neat diagram where necessary.
3) Solve any two questions in each Section.
SECTION I
2. a) Describe the general characteristics of conveyors and explain with Figure and
any two types of conveyors.
b) Define material handling system and explain its objectives and benefits.
7
7
c) Material handling does not take part directly in value addition of the product but it is
the significant element of manufacturing cost. Justify the above statement.
6
3. a) Explain diff. types of material handling principles applied to plant layout.
b) Explain any three types of storing equipments.
c) Explain any three types of industrial trucks.
4. Write a short notes (any three) :
20
a) Material handling in CIMS.
b) Hoisting Equipments.
c) Automated Guided Vehicles (AGV).
d) Containerization and Palletisation.
Set P
SLR-PK 107
-4-
*SLRPK107*
SECTION II
5. a) Describe different activities at the receiving and shipping functions to improve
the efficiency of MHS.
b) Describe with figures types of flow patterns for material handling.
c) Explain with Figure Procedure chart.
6. a) Explain different factors affecting on selection of material handling equipment.
b) Explain with figure material handling equation.
c) Explain in detail choice of material handling equipments.

a) Material handling safety and training.
b) String Diagram.
c) Equipment evaluation sheet.
d) Selection of material handling equipment in Sugar plant.
_____________________
Set P
SLR- PK 107
*SLRPK107*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

c) Figure component
d) None of these
a) Physical
b) Financial
c) Ethical
d) All of these
_________
a) Safety
c) Flexibility
d) Unit load
c) Load
d) Gravity
a) Inventory
b) Inspection
c) Communication
c) stores to shop
d) all of the above
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 107
*SLRPK107*
-2-

a) Belt conveyor
b) Roller conveyor
c) Chain conveyor
a) Process layout
b) Line layout
c) Fixed layout
a) Gravity Conveyor
b) Fork lift Trucks
c) Picking Robot
c) Exact MH
d) None of these
a) Fixed
b) Variable
a) Low volume
b) Medium volume
c) High volume
d) All of these
a) Roller
c) Elevator
d) Overhead crane
d) all of the above
a) Five
b) Seven
c) One
d) Ten
17) OSHA stands for
d) None of these
d) all of these
19) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
task is known as
a) cross diagram
c) travel chart
d) flow diagram
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK107*
-3-
SLR-PK 107
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
7
7
6
20
Set Q
SLR-PK 107
-4-
*SLRPK107*
SECTION II

b) String Diagram.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR- PK 107
*SLRPK107*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) Five
b) Seven
c) One
d) Ten
2) OSHA stands for
d) None of these
d) all of these
4) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
task is known as
a) cross diagram
c) travel chart
d) flow diagram
c) Figure component
d) None of these
a) Physical
b) Financial
c) Ethical
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 107
-2-
*SLRPK107*

_________
a) Safety
c) Flexibility
d) Unit load
c) Load
d) Gravity
a) Inventory
b) Inspection
c) Communication
c) stores to shop
d) all of the above
d) None of these
a) Belt conveyor
b) Roller conveyor
c) Chain conveyor
a) Process layout
b) Line layout
c) Fixed layout
a) Gravity Conveyor
b) Fork lift Trucks
c) Picking Robot
c) Exact MH
d) None of these
a) Fixed
b) Variable
a) Low volume
b) Medium volume
c) High volume
d) All of these
a) Roller
c) Elevator
d) Overhead crane
d) all of the above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK107*
-3-
SLR-PK 107
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
7
7
6
20
Set R
SLR-PK 107
-4-
*SLRPK107*
SECTION II

b) String Diagram.
_____________________
Set R
SLR- PK 107
*SLRPK107*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
c) Exact MH
d) None of these
a) Fixed
b) Variable
a) Low volume
b) Medium volume
c) High volume
d) All of these
a) Roller
c) Elevator
d) Overhead crane
d) all of the above
a) Five
b) Seven
c) One
d) Ten
7) OSHA stands for
d) None of these
d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 107
9) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
*SLRPK107*
-2-
c) Inspection
d) Movement
task is known as
a) cross diagram
c) travel chart
d) flow diagram
c) Figure component
d) None of these
a) Physical
b) Financial
c) Ethical
d) All of these
______
a) Safety
c) Flexibility
d) Unit load
c) Load
d) Gravity
a) Inventory
b) Inspection
c) Communication
c) stores to shop
d) all of the above
d) None of these
a) Belt conveyor
b) Roller conveyor
c) Chain conveyor
a) Process layout
b) Line layout
c) Fixed layout
a) Gravity Conveyor
b) Fork lift Trucks
c) Picking Robot
Set S
*SLRPK107*
-3-
SLR-PK 107
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
7
7
6
20
Set S
SLR-PK 107
-4-
*SLRPK107*
SECTION II

b) String Diagram.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 108
*SLR-PK-108*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory and of objective type questions. It

should be solve in first 30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3.
2) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
3) Assume suitable data and assumptions, if required and
mention it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Objective type Questions :

A) Match the appropriate pairs :
Column I
Column II
A) Bolted joint
p) Tight in shaft and loose in hub
B) Welded joint
q) Tight in both shaft and hub
C) Feather key
r) Segmented cross-section
D) Saddle key
s) Permanent joint
t) Temporary joint
B) Single correct answers :
1) Guests theory is used for
a) Brittle materials
c) Elastic materials
(81=8)
b) Ductile materials
d) Plastic materials
2) The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

a) Elastic limit
b) Youngs modulus
c) Ultimate tensile strength
d) Endurance limit
3) Which of the following riveted butt joints with double straps should have
the highest efficiency as per Indian Boiler Regulations ?
a) Single riveted
b) Double riveted
c) Triple riveted
d) Quadruple riveted
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 108
-2-
*SLR-PK-108*
4) Which of the following cotter joint is used to connect strap end of a

connecting rod ?
a) Socket and spigot cotter joint b) Sleeve and cotter joint
c) Gib and cotter joint
d) None of these
5) A key made from a cylindrical disc having segmental cross-section, is
known as
a) Feather key
b) Gib head key
c) Woodruff key
d) Flat saddle key
6) Two shafts will have equal strength, if
a) Diameter of both the shafts is same
b) Angle of twist of both the shafts is same
c) Material of both the shafts is same
d) Twisting moment of both the shafts is same
7) The method of manufacturing usually adopted for levers is
a) Casting
b) Fabrication
c) Forging
d) Machining
8) The included angle for the V-belt is usually
a) 20 30
b) 30 40
c) 40 60
d) 60 80
C) Multiple correct answers :
(42=8)
1) Terms related to shaft design are

a) Bending stress
b) Torsional shear stress
c) Bending stress and Torsional shear stress
d) Bending pressure
2) Material of spring is
a) Carbon steel
c) Cast iron
b) Aluminium
d) Music wire
3) Fatigue design can be obtained for

a) Finite life
b) Intermediate life
c) Infinite life
d) Average life
4) The usual proportions for width and thickness of the key are
a) d/8
b) d/6
c) d/4
d) d/2
______________
Set P
*SLR-PK-108*
-3-
SLR-PK 108
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Define the factor of safety. What are the factors on which the magnitude of
factor of safety depends ?
b) Explain the meaning of the following term :

i) 40 Cr 4
ii) 30 Ni 16 Cr 5
iii) 25 C 12 S 14
iv) Fe 200
v) Fe E 250
c) Explain design procedure of Socket and Spigot cotter joint with necessary
sketches.
10
3. a) A knuckle joint is required to withstand a tensile load of 150 kN. Design the
joint, if the permissible stresses are
Tensile stress (6t) = 75 N/mm2
Shear stress (6s) = 60 N/mm2
Crushing stress (6c) = 150 N/mm2.
10
Set P
SLR-PK 108
-4-
*SLR-PK-108*
b) A V-belt drive is required for a 15 kW, 1440 r.p.m. electric motor, which
drives a centrifugal pump running at 360 r.p.m. for a service of 24 hr. per day
from space considerations. The centre distance should be approximately 1m.
Determine :
1) Belt specifications
2) Number of belts
3) Correct centre distance
4) Pulley diameters. Use data sheet supplied with questions paper.
10
4. a) A transmission shaft of cold drawn steel 27Mn2 (Sut = 500 N/mm 2 and
Syt = 300 N/mm 2) is subjected to fluctuating torque which varies from100N-mm to +400 N-mm. The factor of safety is 2 and expected reliability is
90 percentage. Neglecting the effect of stress concentration, Determine the
diameter of the shaft.
Assume the distortion energy theory of failure.
10
b) Explain design for finite and infinite life under reversed stresses.
c) What are the various causes of stress concentration ? Discuss the different
methods of reducing the effect of stress concentration.
SECTION II
5. a) What are design considerations for forging ?
b) Discuss the merits and demerits of solid shaft and hollow shaft.
c) The shaft and flange of a marine engine are to be designed for flange coupling,
in which the flanged on the end of the shaft. The following particulars are to
considered in the design.
Power of engine = 3 MW
Speed of engine = 100 rpm
Permissible Shear stress in bolt and shaft = 60 Mpa
No. of bolts = 8
P.C.D. of bolts = 1.6x diameter of Shaft
Find :
1) Diameter of shaft
2) Diameter of bolts
3) Thickness of flange
4) Diameter of flange.
10
Set P
*SLR-PK-108*
-5-
SLR-PK 108
6. a) Explain the different stresses induced in helical spring.
b) Explain design with non-metals.
c) A railway wagon of mass 20 tonnes is moving with a velocity of 2m/s. It is

brought to rest by a buffer consisting of two helical compression spring of
diameter 300 mm. The maximum deflection of spring is 250 mm. The
permissible shear stress for the spring wire is 600 Mpa.
Design the springs for buffer.
7. a) Compare welded and riveted joint.
10
5
b) Explain following terms of springs :

a) Free length
b) Active coils
c) Spring index
d) Spring rate.
c) A bracket is riveted to a column by 6 rivets of equal size as shown in Fig.

It carries a load of 60 kN at a distance of 200 mm from the column. If the
maximum shear stress in the rivet is limited to 150 N/mm2, find the diameter of
rivets.
10
Set P
SLR-PK 108
-6-
*SLR-PK-108*
Set P
*SLR-PK-108*
-7-
SLR-PK 108
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 108
*SLR-PK-108*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

mention it clearly.
Marks : 20

A) Single correct answers :
(81=8)

known as
a) Feather key
b) Gib head key
c) Woodruff key
d) Flat saddle key
a) Casting
b) Fabrication
c) Forging
d) Machining
a) 20 30
b) 30 40
c) 40 60
d) 60 80
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 108
-2-
*SLR-PK-108*

a) Elastic limit
b) Youngs modulus
d) Endurance limit
a) Single riveted
b) Double riveted
c) Triple riveted
connecting rod ?
d) None of these
B) Multiple correct answers :
a) Carbon steel
c) Cast iron
(42=8)
b) Aluminium
d) Music wire

a) Finite life
c) Infinite life
d) Average life
a) d/8
b) d/6
c) d/4
d) d/2
a) Bending stress
d) Bending pressure
C) Match the appropriate pairs :
Column I
Column II
A) Bolted joint
B) Welded joint
C) Feather key
D) Saddle key
s) Permanent joint
t) Temporary joint
______________
Set Q
*SLR-PK-108*
-3-
SLR-PK 108
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
mention it clearly.
SECTION I

i) 40 Cr 4
ii) 30 Ni 16 Cr 5
iii) 25 C 12 S 14
iv) Fe 200
v) Fe E 250
sketches.
10
10
Set Q
SLR-PK 108
-4-
*SLR-PK-108*
Determine :
2) Number of belts
10
10
SECTION II
No. of bolts = 8
Find :
10
Set Q
*SLR-PK-108*
-5-
SLR-PK 108

10
5

a) Free length
b) Active coils
c) Spring index
d) Spring rate.

rivets.
10
Set Q
SLR-PK 108
-6-
*SLR-PK-108*
Set Q
*SLR-PK-108*
-7-
SLR-PK 108
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 108
*SLR-PK-108*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

mention it clearly.
Marks : 20

A) Multiple correct answers :
(42=8)

a) Finite life
c) Infinite life
d) Average life
a) d/8
b) d/6
c) d/4
d) d/2

a) Bending stress
d) Bending pressure
a) Carbon steel
c) Cast iron
b) Aluminium
d) Music wire
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 108
-2-
B) Match the appropriate pairs :

Column I
Column II
A) Bolted joint
B) Welded joint
C) Feather key
D) Saddle key
s) Permanent joint
t) Temporary joint
*SLR-PK-108*
4
C) Single correct answers :

(81=8)
a) Casting
b) Fabrication
c) Forging
d) Machining
a) 20 30
b) 30 40
c) 40 60
d) 60 80
a) Elastic limit
b) Youngs modulus
d) Endurance limit
a) Single riveted
b) Double riveted
c) Triple riveted
connecting rod ?
d) None of these
known as
a) Feather key
b) Gib head key
c) Woodruff key
d) Flat saddle key
______________
Set R
*SLR-PK-108*
-3-
SLR-PK 108
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
mention it clearly.
SECTION I

i) 40 Cr 4
ii) 30 Ni 16 Cr 5
iii) 25 C 12 S 14
iv) Fe 200
v) Fe E 250
sketches.
10
10
Set R
SLR-PK 108
-4-
*SLR-PK-108*
Determine :
2) Number of belts
10
10
SECTION II
No. of bolts = 8
Find :
10
Set R
*SLR-PK-108*
-5-
SLR-PK 108

10
5

a) Free length
b) Active coils
c) Spring index
d) Spring rate.

rivets.
10
Set R
SLR-PK 108
-6-
*SLR-PK-108*
Set R
*SLR-PK-108*
-7-
SLR-PK 108
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 108
*SLR-PK-108*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

mention it clearly.
Marks : 20

A) Match the appropriate pairs :
Column I
Column II
A) Bolted joint
B) Welded joint
C) Feather key
D) Saddle key
s) Permanent joint
t) Temporary joint
B) Single correct answers :
(81=8)
a) Single riveted
b) Double riveted
c) Triple riveted
connecting rod ?
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 108
-2-
*SLR-PK-108*

known as
a) Feather key
b) Gib head key
c) Woodruff key
d) Flat saddle key
a) Casting
b) Fabrication
c) Forging
d) Machining
a) 20 30
b) 30 40
c) 40 60
d) 60 80
a) Elastic limit
b) Youngs modulus
d) Endurance limit
C) Multiple correct answers :
a) d/8
b) d/6
c) d/4
d) d/2
a) Bending stress
d) Bending pressure
a) Carbon steel
b) Aluminium
c) Cast iron
d) Music wire
a) Finite life
c) Infinite life
d) Average life
______________
(42=8)
Set S
*SLR-PK-108*
-3-
SLR-PK 108
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
mention it clearly.
SECTION I

i) 40 Cr 4
ii) 30 Ni 16 Cr 5
iii) 25 C 12 S 14
iv) Fe 200
v) Fe E 250
sketches.
10
10
Set S
SLR-PK 108
-4-
*SLR-PK-108*
Determine :
2) Number of belts
10
10
SECTION II
No. of bolts = 8
Find :
10
Set S
*SLR-PK-108*
-5-
SLR-PK 108

10
5

a) Free length
b) Active coils
c) Spring index
d) Spring rate.

rivets.
10
Set S
SLR-PK 108
-6-
*SLR-PK-108*
Set S
*SLR-PK-108*
-7-
SLR-PK 108
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 114
*SLRPK114*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2016

METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
PART A

Type 1 : Matrix Match Type (one mark each) :
i)
Column I
Column II
a) Measurement of angle
p) Solex Pneumatic gauge
b) Screw thread measurement
q) Sine instrument
c) Comparators
r) Floating carriage micrometre

s) Clinometer
ii)
Column I
Column II
a) Resolution
p) Gradual departure of the instrument

output from the calibrated value
b) Drift
q) Smallest increment in measurand

that can be detected
c) Precision
r) Conformance to the expected value

s) The ability of the device to give
identical input with repeated
measurement
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 114
*SLRPK114*
-2-
Type 2 : Assertion and Reasoning type (two marks) :

iii) Statement 1 : In limits and fits system basic shaft system is one whose
lower deviation is zero.
Statement 2 : In limits and fits system basic shaft system is one whose
upper deviation is zero.
OR
iv) Statement 1 : LVDT is a self-generating type of transducer.
Statement 2 : LVDT is used for displacement measurement.
Type 3 : Multiple correct answer type (two marks each) :
v) As per the Taylors principle of gauging
A) Go-gauge should be full form of gauging
B) Go gauge should check all the related dimensions simultaneously
C) No-gauge should be full form gauge
D) No-Go gauge should check only one dimension at a time
vi) The best size wire for measuring the effective diameter of thread is _________
A) Psec /2
B) Pcos /2
C) Psec
vii) The dynamic characteristics of the instrument are

A) Measuring lag B) Fidelity
C) Overshoot
D) P/2cos
D) Resolution
viii) Electrical resistance strain gauges are used to measure

A) Static strain
B) Force
C) Dynamic strain
D) Torque
Type 4 : Straight objective type (one mark each) :
ix) Airy points of supports are
A) 0.577 L apart B) 0.554L apart C) 0.5L apart
D) 0.58L apart
x) Wear allowance is provided on ____________

A) Height Gauge
B) No-Go gauge
C) Vernier depth gauge
D) Go-gauge
xi) Following liquids can be used for temperature measurement below freezing
point of mercury.
A) Mercury
B) Pentane
C) Methane
D) None of above
xii) Tachometers are used to measure
A) Time
B) Displacement
C) Angular velocity
D) None of above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK114*
-3-
SLR-PK 114
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Questions 2 and 7 are compulsory.

2) Answer any two questions from remaining questions of
each Section.
4) Answer briefly and to the point preferably using simple
sketches.
PART B
SECTION I
2. A) Distinguish clearly between Line and End standards.
B) Design a Go and Not-Go ring gauge for inspecting 35 f8 shaft. Fundamental

deviation for shaft f = 5.5D0.41. Consider gauge tolerance and wear allowance
10% each.
10
C) Solve any one of the following :
i) Sketch the setup illustrating use of Sine Centre and write the appropriate
formula for the unknown angle.
ii) Derive the expression for effective diameter of a screw thread while using
2 wire method.
3. A) Describe the working of a dial gauge with neat sketch.
B) Distinguish between shaft basis and hole basis systems of obtaining fits.
4. A) Explain Vernier principle of measurement. In case of Vernier bevel protractor

calculate the least count if there are 12 divisions on Vernier scale.
B) Write a short note on Profile projector.
Set P
SLR-PK 114
-4-
*SLRPK114*
5. A) Explain Taylors principle of gauge design.

B) Explain the principle of pneumatic comparator.
5
5
6. A) Describe the basic elements of spur gear measurement with sketch.
B) Describe M-87 set of slip gauges and select minimum number of slip
gauges for a dimension 74.6985.
SECTION II
7. A) Explain the function of each element in the generalized measurement system.
Give suitable example.
10
B) Solve any two of the following :
i) Distinguish between RTD and Thermistor.
ii) Explain with neat sketch working of Photoelectric pick-up.
iii) Derive the expression for Gauge factor of resistance strain gauge.
8. A) Explain the meaning of measuring lag, Threshold and Resolution.
B) Enumerate different types of mechanical transducers.
9. Explain with neat sketch McLeod gauge. Also explain the expression for the
unknown pressure.
10. A) Explain the equation for the flow rate with respect to Rotameter.
B) Describe the working of Drag cup type tachometer.
11. A) Describe the working of Proving ring.
B) Draw schematic sketch and circuit diagram of LVDT.
5
5
5
5
5
10
5
5
5
5
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 114
*SLRPK114*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
PART A
i) Airy points of supports are
D) 0.58L apart
ii) Wear allowance is provided on ____________

A) Height Gauge
B) No-Go gauge
D) Go-gauge
iii) Following liquids can be used for temperature measurement below freezing
point of mercury.
A) Mercury
B) Pentane
C) Methane
D) None of above
iv) Tachometers are used to measure
A) Time
C) Angular velocity
B) Displacement
D) None of above

v)
Column I
c) Comparators
p)
q)
r)
s)
Column II
Solex Pneumatic gauge
Sine instrument
Floating carriage micrometre
Clinometer
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 114
vi)
*SLRPK114*
-2-
Column I
Column II
a) Resolution

b) Drift

c) Precision

measurement

vii) Statement 1 : In limits and fits system basic shaft system is one whose
OR
viii) Statement 1 : LVDT is a self-generating type of transducer.
ix) As per the Taylors principle of gauging
x) The best size wire for measuring the effective diameter of thread is _________
A) Psec /2
B) Pcos /2
C) Psec
xi) The dynamic characteristics of the instrument are

C) Overshoot
D) P/2cos
D) Resolution
xii) Electrical resistance strain gauges are used to measure

A) Static strain
B) Force
C) Dynamic strain
D) Torque
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK114*
-3-
SLR-PK 114
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

each Section.
sketches.
PART B
SECTION I

10% each.
10
2 wire method.

Set Q
SLR-PK 114
-4-
*SLRPK114*

5
5
SECTION II
10
unknown pressure.
5
5
5
5
5
10
5
5
5
5
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 114
*SLRPK114*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
PART A

i) As per the Taylors principle of gauging
ii) The best size wire for measuring the effective diameter of thread is _________
A) Psec /2
B) Pcos /2
C) Psec
iii) The dynamic characteristics of the instrument are

C) Overshoot
D) P/2cos
D) Resolution
iv) Electrical resistance strain gauges are used to measure

A) Static strain
B) Force
C) Dynamic strain
D) Torque
v) Airy points of supports are
D) 0.58L apart
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 114
*SLRPK114*
-2-
vi) Wear allowance is provided on ____________

A) Height Gauge
B) No-Go gauge
D) Go-gauge
vii) Following liquids can be used for temperature measurement below freezing
point of mercury.
A) Mercury
B) Pentane
C) Methane
D) None of above
viii) Tachometers are used to measure
A) Time
C) Angular velocity
B) Displacement
D) None of above

ix)
Column I
Column II
q) Sine instrument
c) Comparators

s) Clinometer
x)
Column I
Column II
a) Resolution

b) Drift

c) Precision

measurement

xi) Statement 1 : In limits and fits system basic shaft system is one whose
OR
xii) Statement 1 : LVDT is a self-generating type of transducer.
______________
Set R
*SLRPK114*
-3-
SLR-PK 114
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

each Section.
sketches.
PART B
SECTION I

10% each.
10
2 wire method.

Set R
SLR-PK 114
-4-
*SLRPK114*

5
5
SECTION II
10
unknown pressure.
5
5
5
5
5
10
5
5
5
5
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 114
*SLRPK114*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
PART A

i) Statement 1 : In limits and fits system basic shaft system is one whose
OR
ii) Statement 1 : LVDT is a self-generating type of transducer.
iii) As per the Taylors principle of gauging
iv) The best size wire for measuring the effective diameter of thread is _________
A) Psec /2
B) Pcos /2
C) Psec
D) P/2cos
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 114
*SLRPK114*
-2-
v) The dynamic characteristics of the instrument are

C) Overshoot
D) Resolution
vi) Electrical resistance strain gauges are used to measure

A) Static strain
B) Force
C) Dynamic strain
D) Torque
vii) Airy points of supports are
D) 0.58L apart
viii) Wear allowance is provided on ____________

A) Height Gauge
B) No-Go gauge
D) Go-gauge
ix) Following liquids can be used for temperature measurement below freezing
point of mercury.
A) Mercury
B) Pentane
C) Methane
D) None of above
x) Tachometers are used to measure
A) Time
C) Angular velocity
B) Displacement
D) None of above

xi)
Column I
Column II
q) Sine instrument
c) Comparators

s) Clinometer
xii)
Column I
Column II
a) Resolution

b) Drift

c) Precision

measurement
______________
Set S
*SLRPK114*
-3-
SLR-PK 114
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

each Section.
sketches.
PART B
SECTION I

10% each.
10
2 wire method.

Set S
SLR-PK 114
-4-
*SLRPK114*

5
5
SECTION II
10
unknown pressure.
5
5
5
5
5
10
5
5
5
5
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 115
*SLRPK115*
S
Set
t
T.E. Mechanical (Part II) Examination, 2016

INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 20
20
1) The normal range of compression ratio for Otto cycle is

a) 6 to 10
b) 2 to 4
c) 7 to 10
2) Piston compression rings are generally made of
a) Low carbon steel
b) High carbon steel
c) Aluminum
d) Chromium
3) The air standard Otto cycle consists of
a) Two constant volume and two isentropic processes
b) Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
c) Two constant pressure and two constant volumes
4) In an actual SI engine the pumping loss with respect to speed
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) Nothing to do with speed
5) The throttle valve controls the supply of
a) Air only
c) Air fuel mixture
b) Fuel only
6) In carburetor lean mixture is required during

a) Idling
b) Starting
c) Accelerating
d) Cruising
7) The cylinder temperature after compression in a diesel engine is

a) 200c
b) 450c
c) 900c
d) 1000c
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 115
*SLRPK115*
-2-
8) Main advantage of Pintaux nozzle is

a) Better cold starting performance
b) Ability to distribute the fuel
c) Good penetration
d) Good atomization
9) In ignition system excessive contact breaker gap result in
a) Advanced timing
b) Increased dwell
c) Rapid burning of points
d) All of the above
10) The purpose of thermostat is to keep the engine
a) Hot
b) Cool
c) At desired temperature
11) Detonation in SI engine occurs due to
a) Preignition of the charge before the spark
b) Sudden ignition of the charge before the spark
c) Auto ignition of the charge after the spark in struck
12) In CI engine Knocking tendency increases with
a) Increase in compression ratio
b) Increasing inlet temperature of air
c) Decrease in compression ratio
d) Increasing coolant water temperature
13) HUCR is the compression ratio at which
a) Fuel can be used with detonation
b) Fuel can be used without detonation
c) An engine gives maximum thermal efficiency
14) Mechanical efficiency of an automobile engine usually varies in the range
a) 50-60%
b) 60-70%
c) 70-90%
d) More than 90%
15) If N is the rpm, number of power strokes per minute in a four stroke engine is
a) 2 N
b) N/2
c) N
d) 4 N
16) From the engine indicator diagram, we obtain
a) IMEP
b) BMEP
c) Mechanical
d) Relative efficiency
17) The octane number of Iso-octane is
a) 0
b) 10
c) 80
18) The ignition temperature of diesel fuel is about

a) 300c
b) 400c
c) 600c
19) L-MPFI system uses
a) Port injection
c) Direct injection
d) 100
d) 800c
b) Manifold injection
d) Throttle body injection
20) Anti-Knock characteristics of alcohol when compared to gasoline is

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
______________
Set P
*SLRPK115*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 115

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Discuss the following losses which occur in an actual engine
I) Pumping losses
II) Exhaust losses
III) Time losses
b) Explain selection of IC Engine for power generation and agriculture application.
c) Derive an equation for air fuel ratio for carburetor using exact method.
3. a) The following data relate to 4 stroke petrol engine :
Capacity of the petrol engine = 1489 c.c.

The volumetric efficiency = 75%
The air fuel ratio = 13 : 1
Theoretical air speed at throat = 85 m/s
The co-efficient of discharge for venture = 0.82
The co-efficient of discharge of the main petrol jet = 0.65
The specific gravity of fuel = 0.74
Nozzle lip = 6 mm
Atmospheric pressure and temperature = 1.013 bar and 20C respectively,
An allowance should be made for emulsion tube, the diameter of which can be taken as
2/5 of the choke diameter. Calculate the sizes of a suitable throat and main jet.
b) Explain two stroke engine with figure and also mention advantages of two stroke engine
over four stroke engine.
c) State and explain requirement of an air fuel ratio for petrol engine from no load to full load.
6
6
Set P
SLR-PK 115
-4-
*SLRPK115*
4. a) Fuel injection in single cylinder, 4 stroke CI engine running at 650 rpm takes place through a
single orifice nozzle and occupies 28 of crank travel. The fuel consumption of the engine
2.2 kg/hr and the fuel used has a specific gravity of 0.875. If the injection pressure is 150 bar
and the combustion chamber pressure is 32 bar, estimate the volume of fuel injected per
cycle and the diameter of orifice. Take the coefficient of discharge of orifice = 0.88.
b) Classify lubrication system of IC Engine. Explain pressure lubrication with figure.
c) Discuss the requirements of an injection system and explain distributor type injection
system.
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the influence of the engine design and operating variables on detonation in SI
Engines.
b) Explain the requirement of combustion chambers used in CI Engines.
c) Compare the abnormal combustion in SI Engines and CI Engines.
6. a) Enlist the different methods for measuring frictional power and describe Morse test.
b) An engine of 3.68 kW brake power is used for water pumping. Its indicated thermal
efficiency is 0.30 and mechanical efficiency is 0.80. The calorific value of fuel used is
42 MJ/kg and specific gravity is 0.875. Calculate the indicated and brake specific fuel
consumption of the engine.
c) Write short notes on :
i) Electronic Engine Management

ii) Thermodynamic cycle for super charged engines.
7. a) What is Octane Number ? Explain the importance of HUCR with respect to performance
rating of SI Engines.
b) Discuss the use of biodiesel as an alternative fuel for IC Engines.
i) Hydrocarbon emission in engines

ii) Catalytic converter
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 115
*SLRPK115*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 20
20

a) IMEP
b) BMEP
c) Mechanical
a) 0
b) 10
c) 80

a) 300c
b) 400c
c) 600c
a) Port injection
c) Direct injection
d) 100
d) 800c

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
a) 6 to 10
b) 2 to 4
c) 7 to 10
a) Low carbon steel
c) Aluminum
d) Chromium
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 115
*SLRPK115*
-2-

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
a) Air only
c) Air fuel mixture
b) Fuel only

a) Idling
b) Starting
c) Accelerating
d) Cruising

a) 200c
b) 450c
c) 900c
d) 1000c

c) Good penetration

d) Good atomization

a) Advanced timing
b) Increased dwell
d) All of the above
a) Hot
b) Cool
a) 50-60%
b) 60-70%
c) 70-90%
d) More than 90%
a) 2 N
b) N/2
c) N
d) 4 N
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK115*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 115

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
I) Pumping losses
II) Exhaust losses
III) Time losses

Nozzle lip = 6 mm
6
6
Set Q
SLR-PK 115
-4-
*SLRPK115*
system.
SECTION II
Engines.


_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 115
*SLRPK115*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 20
20

a) 50-60%
b) 60-70%
c) 70-90%
d) More than 90%
a) 2 N
b) N/2
c) N
d) 4 N
a) IMEP
b) BMEP
c) Mechanical
a) 0
b) 10
c) 80
d) 100
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 115
*SLRPK115*
-2-

a) 300c
b) 400c
c) 600c
a) Port injection
c) Direct injection
d) 800c

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
a) 6 to 10
b) 2 to 4
c) 7 to 10
a) Low carbon steel
c) Aluminum
d) Chromium
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
a) Air only
c) Air fuel mixture
b) Fuel only

a) Idling
b) Starting
c) Accelerating
d) Cruising

a) 200c
b) 450c
c) 900c
d) 1000c

c) Good penetration
d) Good atomization
a) Advanced timing
b) Increased dwell
d) All of the above
a) Hot
b) Cool
______________
Set R
*SLRPK115*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 115

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
I) Pumping losses
II) Exhaust losses
III) Time losses

Nozzle lip = 6 mm
6
6
Set R
SLR-PK 115
-4-
*SLRPK115*
system.
SECTION II
Engines.


_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 115
*SLRPK115*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 20
20

a) Idling
b) Starting
c) Accelerating
d) Cruising

a) 200c
b) 450c
c) 900c
d) 1000c

c) Good penetration

d) Good atomization

a) Advanced timing
b) Increased dwell
d) All of the above
a) Hot
b) Cool
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 115
*SLRPK115*
-2-

a) 50-60%
b) 60-70%
c) 70-90%
d) More than 90%
a) 2 N
b) N/2
c) N
d) 4 N
a) IMEP
b) BMEP
c) Mechanical
a) 0
b) 10
c) 80

a) 300c
b) 400c
c) 600c
a) Port injection
c) Direct injection
d) 100
d) 800c

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
a) 6 to 10
b) 2 to 4
c) 7 to 10
a) Low carbon steel
c) Aluminum
d) Chromium
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
a) Air only
c) Air fuel mixture
b) Fuel only
______________
Set S
*SLRPK115*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 115

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
I) Pumping losses
II) Exhaust losses
III) Time losses

Nozzle lip = 6 mm
6
6
Set S
SLR-PK 115
-4-
*SLRPK115*
system.
SECTION II
Engines.


_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 116
*SLRPK116*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2016

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first

2) Answer any three questions from Section I.
3) Q. No. 6 is compulsory from Section II and solve
any two from remaining.
Marks : 20
1. MCQ/Objective Type Question

Type I : (Match correct pair type question)
This is straight forward matching of column I with Column II. Here is only one
matching (No multiple answers) Partial marking will be given.
Match the pair :
1) NC
A) Central computer with bulk memory
2) CNC
B) Preparatory code
3) DNC
C) Hardwired system
4) DXF
D) Development of microprocessor
5) G 21
E) Neutral file format

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 116
-2-
*SLRPK116*
Type II : (Select proper answer type question)
10
Select a proper answer given from three alternatives available.

1) G 90 preparatory code is used for
A) Absolute presetting
B) Absolute co-ordinate setting
C) Metric unit setting
2) Miscellaneous function used for Coolant off is
A) M 07
B) M 09
C) M 08
3) CADIAN is ______________ software.
A) CAD
B) CAM
C) CAE
4) Windowing transformation means
A) Window to viewport transformation
B) Geometric transformation
C) Vertices transformation
5) Common language developed for computer assisted part programming is
A) WAF
B) MDI
C) APT
Type III :
Select a proper answer given from two alternatives which is True/False.
1) Calculation of physical properties such as volume, surface area, center of
gravity, M.I. etc. is possible using solid modelling.
A) True
B) False
2) Tab sequential and Fixed block formats are more suitable than Word Address
Format.
A) True
B) False
3) Scaling is zoom in and zoom out of an object and any portion of an object
between the edges.
A) True
B) False
4) Milling operation is an example of Contouring NC.
A) True
B) False
5) In coordinate transformation, vertices of the object are transformed by shifting
Coordinate system
A) True
B) False
______________
Set P
*SLRPK116*
-3-
SLR-PK 116
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Note : 1) Answer any three questions from Section I.

SECTION I
2. a) What is CAD/CAM ? Discuss the concept of integration of CAD to CAM.
b) Discuss Standardization in Graphics Software.
3. a) What are the various functions of Graphics Package ?

b) What do you mean by Homogeneous Transformation system ? State its
significance.
c) Scale the quadrilateral ABCD with co-ordinates A(2, 5), B(7, 10), C(10, 2)
and D(12, 8) by 2 units in X direction and 2 units in Y direction.
5
3
6
4. a) Write important of curves in Graphics packages. What are various properties

of B Spline and Bezier curves ?
b) What are the various schemes for Solid Modelling ? Explain CSG scheme.
c) Develop Matrix equation for Bezier Polynomial.
5. Write short notes on (any four) :
14
a) Types of modeling.
b) CAPP and its types.
c) History of CAD/CAM.
d) Future of using CAD/CAM.
e) Types of Graphics terminals.
f) Rapid prototyping.
Set P
SLR-PK 116
-4-
*SLRPK116*
SECTION II
6. a) Write manual part program to machine a component as shown in fig. Assume
cutting speed as 500 rpm and feed rate of 0.5 mm/revolution. Assume that
the face is not to be machined.
Work material : Aluminium
Work size : 30 90 mm Tool matl : HSS
b) Explain tool magazine in machining centres.
7. a) Describe EIA standards of parameter of Punched Tape with neat sketch.
b) Explain Subroutines and Do Loop in Part Programming.
c) Compare CNC and DNC Machine Tools.
8. a) What are the basic components of an NC system ? Explain with neat sketch. 7
b) Explain Tool length and Cutter Radius Compensation in Part Programming.
9. a) What is Part Programming ? Explain the procedure associated with NC part

Programming.
b) Explain Adaptive control.
c) Explain Drives used for Table movement in a NC/CNC.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 116
*SLRPK116*
Seat
No.
Set

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

Type I : (Select proper answer type question)
10

A) WAF
B) MDI
C) APT
A) M 07
B) M 09
C) M 08
A) CAD
B) CAM
C) CAE

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 116
-2-
*SLRPK116*
Type II :

Coordinate system
A) True
B) False

A) True
B) False
Format.
A) True
B) False
between the edges.
A) True
B) False

A) True
B) False
Type III : (Match correct pair type question)
Match the pair :
1) NC
2) CNC
B) Preparatory code
3) DNC
C) Hardwired system
4) DXF
5) G 21
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK116*
-3-
SLR-PK 116
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

significance.
5
3
6

14
Set Q
SLR-PK 116
-4-
*SLRPK116*
SECTION II
Programming.
6
6
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 116
*SLRPK116*
Seat
No.
Set

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

Type I :
A) True
B) False

Coordinate system
A) True
B) False
A) True
B) False
Format.
A) True
B) False
between the edges.
A) True
B) False
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 116
*SLRPK116*
-2-
Type II : (Match correct pair type question)
Match the pair :
1) NC
2) CNC
B) Preparatory code
3) DNC
C) Hardwired system
4) DXF
5) G 21
Type III : (Select proper answer type question)
10

A) WAF
B) MDI
C) APT

A) M 07
B) M 09
C) M 08

A) CAD
B) CAM
C) CAE
______________
Set R
*SLRPK116*
-3-
SLR-PK 116
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

significance.
5
3
6

14
Set R
SLR-PK 116
-4-
*SLRPK116*
SECTION II
Programming.
6
6
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 116
*SLRPK116*
Seat
No.
Set

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

Type I : (Match correct pair type question)
Match the pair :
1) NC
2) CNC
B) Preparatory code
3) DNC
C) Hardwired system
4) DXF
5) G 21

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 116
*SLRPK116*
-2-
Type II : (Select proper answer type question)
10

A) CAD
B) CAM
C) CAE

A) WAF
B) MDI
C) APT
A) M 07
B) M 09
C) M 08
Type III :
between the edges.
A) True
B) False
A) True
B) False

Coordinate system
A) True
B) False

A) True
B) False
Format.
A) True
B) False
______________
Set S
*SLRPK116*
-3-
SLR-PK 116
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM
Day and Date :
Time :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

significance.
5
3
6

14
Set S
SLR-PK 116
-4-
*SLRPK116*
SECTION II

Programming.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. I) Match the pairs :
List (i)
List (ii)
A) Inner race is rotating and
P) Worm gears
outer race is stationary

B) Material handling equipment
Q) Deep groove ball bearing
C) Antifriction bearing
R) Race rotation factor is 1.2
D) Thick film lubrication
S) Hydrostatic bearings
E) High load carrying capacity
T) Hydrodynamic bearings
U) Race rotation factor is 1
II) Multiple correct answers objective questions :
A) Objective of optimum design can be

a) Maximisation of weight
b) Maximisation of life
c) Minimisation of spaces
d) Minimisation of cost
B) The wear strength of helical gear tooth depends upon

a) Pressure angle
b) Face width
c) helix angle
d) Permissible bending stresses
C) Dimensionless parameters used in design of hydrodynamic bearings are

a) Sommerfeld number
b) Flow variable
c) Raimondis number
d) Bearing creep
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
-2-
D) The pre-stressing of the cylinder will

a) Increase the pressure capacity
b) Improve the volume capacity
c) Improve the endurance strength
d) Removing the residual stresses
III) Single correct answer type objective questions :
A) The property of material to yield and adopt its shape to that of journal is called as
a) Adoptability
b) Embeddability
c) Conformability
d) Softness
B) Spur gears are generally used for velocity for ratio

a) 100 : 1
b) 10 : 1
c) 6 : 1
d) 60 : 1
C) The effective length of root is required in the analysis of

a) Spur gears
b) Helical gears
c) Worm gears
d) Bevel gears
D) In thick film lubrication

a) There is no metal to metal contact
b) There is partial metal to metal contact
c) There is full metal to metal contact
E) If Z and Z are the actual and virtual number of teeth for a bevel gear with E as pitch
angle then,
a) Z = Z/sin E
b) Z = Z/cos E
c) Z = Z/tan E
d) Z = Z/cos2 E
F) Dynamic load acting on a gear depends upon

a) Tooth error
b) Number of teeth
c) Speed
d) All of the above
G) If the length to diameter ratio is 1, it is a

a) Long bearing
b) Short bearing
c) Square bearing
d) Medium bearing
______________
Set P
*SLRPK117*
-3-
SLR-PK 117
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) What are the various types of gear tooth failures ? State their causes and
remedies.
b) Explain the terms adequate design and optimum design by suitable examples.
c) A pair of spur gears with 20 pressure angle consists of a 18 teeth pinion meshing with a
54 teeth gear. The module and face width are 2.5 and 25 mm respectively. The gears are
machined to meet the specifications of Grade 8 and heat treated to a surface hardness of
265 BHN.
Take : For Grade 8,
c = 16.0 + 1.25 (m + 0.25 d ) in microns.
Determine : 1) The optimum speed for maximum power transmitting capacity.
2) The maximum power transmitted by the gears at the above speed.
5
5
10
3. a) Explain various equations used in the optimum design.

b) A left hand helical pinion having 21 teeth rotating at 750 r.p.m. transmits 7.5 kW power to
a right hand 40 teeth gear. The normal module is 6 mm and the normal pressure angle is 20.
The helix angle is 23. Determine the components of forces acting on meshing teeth of
pinion and gear.
c) A pair of parallel helical gears consists of a 22 teeth pinion meshing with 45 teeth gear.
The helix angle is 25 and the normal pressure angle is 20. The normal module is 3.5 mm.
Calculate :
i) The transverse module;
ii) The transverse pressure angle;
iii) The axial pitch;
iv) The pitch circle diameters of the pinion and the gear; and
v) The centre distance.
4. a) What is pre-stressing in pressure vessels ? Explain various methods of pre-stressing
the vessels.
b) A pressure vessel, subjected to a design pressure of 0.75 MPa, consists of a cylindrical
shell with 2 m inside diameter and 10 mm thickness. An opening of inner diameter 300 mm
and wall thickness 10 mm is provided in the shell. The corrosion allowance is 2 mm and
the weld joint efficiency is taken as 0.85. The extension of the opening inside the shell is
15 mm. The yield strength of the material used for the shell and the opening is 210 N/mm2.
Whether reinforcing pad is required ? If required, design the pad of a 10 mm thick plate for
the opening.
10
5
8
12
Set P
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
-4-
SECTION II
5. a) Derive the expression for equivalent number of teeth for straight teeth bevel gears.
b) What is the procedure for selection of rolling contact bearings from the manufacturers
catalogue.
c) A pair of straight teeth bevel gears consists of 24 teeth pinion meshing with 48 teeth gear.
The module at the larger end is 5 mm and the facewidth is 40 mm. The gears are made of
cast iron (Sut = 220 N/mm2). The pressure angle is 20. The pinion rotates at 500 rpm and
the service factor is 1.5. Assume velocity factor to account for dynamic load. Calculate :
i) The static load that the gear can transmit with a factor of safety of 1.5 for bending
consideration.
ii) The rated power the gear can transmit
6 Y = 0.484 2.87/z
6 v
6. a) What is the importance of normal of thermal consideration in design of worm gears
and derive the expression for a safe power transmission capacity ?
b) What are the materials used for sliding contact bearing ?
c) A 5 kW power at 720 rpm is supplied to the worm shaft. The number of starts for the
threads of worm are 4. The diametral quotient is supplied 10. The worm wheel has 30 teeth
with 8 mm module. The normal pressure angle is 20. Calculate the efficiency of the worm
gear drive and power lost in friction. The coefficient of friction may be taken as 0.030. If
the effective area of gear box is 2 m2 and if it operates in still air with a heat transfer coefficient
of 15 W/m2 C, what will be the temperature rise of lubricating oil above atmospheric
temperature.
Use C v
7. a) Explain the working of hydrodynamic journal bearing.
Q
rcnsl
0.631
12.8
3.59
0.6
0.264
5.79
3.99
0.4
0.121
3.22
4.33
ho
c
0.2
0.8
0.4
0.6
r
f
c
10
5
5
10
5
b) Following data is given for a 360 hydrodynamic journal bearing

Radical load = 9 kN
Journal speed = 1500 rpm
Journal diameter = 80 mm
Bearing length = 80
Eccentricity ratio = 0.4
Radial clearance = 0.040 mm
Calculate :
i) Minimum oil film thickness
ii) Viscosity of oil
iii) Coefficient of friction
iv) Flow of lubricant.
Use following table with usual notations
10
ns = revolutions per second
c) A taper roller bearing is subjected to a radical force of 3000 N and an axial force of 1200 N.
The values of X and Y factors are 0.4 and 1.5 respectively. The shaft is rotating at 1000 rpm.
If the dynamic capacity of bearing is 22.9 kN, calculate the rated life of bearing in hours.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. I) Multiple correct answers objective questions :


a) Pressure angle
b) Face width
c) helix angle

b) Flow variable
c) Raimondis number
d) Bearing creep

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
-2-
List (i)
List (ii)
P) Worm gears

A) If Z and Z are the actual and virtual number of teeth for a bevel gear with E as pitch
angle then,
a) Z = Z/sin E
b) Z = Z/cos E
c) Z = Z/tan E
d) Z = Z/cos2 E
B) Dynamic load acting on a gear depends upon

a) Tooth error
b) Number of teeth
c) Speed
d) All of the above
C) If the length to diameter ratio is 1, it is a

a) Long bearing
b) Short bearing
c) Square bearing
d) Medium bearing
D) The property of material to yield and adopt its shape to that of journal is called as
a) Adoptability
b) Embeddability
c) Conformability
d) Softness
E) Spur gears are generally used for velocity for ratio

a) 100 : 1
b) 10 : 1
c) 6 : 1
d) 60 : 1
F) The effective length of root is required in the analysis of

a) Spur gears
b) Helical gears
c) Worm gears
d) Bevel gears
G) In thick film lubrication

______________
Set Q
*SLRPK117*
-3-
SLR-PK 117
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
remedies.
265 BHN.
Take : For Grade 8,
c = 16.0 + 1.25 (m + 0.25 d ) in microns.
5
5
10

pinion and gear.
Calculate :
the vessels.
the opening.
10
5
8
12
Set Q
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
-4-
SECTION II
catalogue.
consideration.
6 Y = 0.484 2.87/z
6 v
temperature.
Use C v
Q
rcnsl
0.631
12.8
3.59
0.6
0.264
5.79
3.99
0.4
0.121
3.22
4.33
ho
c
0.2
0.8
0.4
0.6
r
f
c
10
5
5
10
5

Radical load = 9 kN
Bearing length = 80
Calculate :
10
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. I) Match the pairs :
List (i)
List (ii)
P) Worm gears

II) Single correct answer type objective questions :
A) If Z and Z are the actual and virtual number of teeth for a bevel gear with E as pitch
angle then,
a) Z = Z/sin E
b) Z = Z/cos E
c) Z = Z/tan E
d) Z = Z/cos2 E
B) Dynamic load acting on a gear depends upon

a) Tooth error
b) Number of teeth
c) Speed
d) All of the above
C) If the length to diameter ratio is 1, it is a

a) Long bearing
b) Short bearing
c) Square bearing
d) Medium bearing
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
-2-
D) The property of material to yield and adopt its shape to that of journal is called as
a) Adoptability
b) Embeddability
c) Conformability
d) Softness
E) Spur gears are generally used for velocity for ratio

a) 100 : 1
b) 10 : 1
c) 6 : 1
d) 60 : 1
F) The effective length of root is required in the analysis of

a) Spur gears
b) Helical gears
c) Worm gears
d) Bevel gears
G) In thick film lubrication

III) Multiple correct answers objective questions :


a) Pressure angle
b) Face width
c) helix angle

b) Flow variable
c) Raimondis number
d) Bearing creep

______________
Set R
*SLRPK117*
-3-
SLR-PK 117
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
remedies.
265 BHN.
Take : For Grade 8,
c = 16.0 + 1.25 (m + 0.25 d ) in microns.
5
5
10

pinion and gear.
Calculate :
the vessels.
the opening.
10
5
8
12
Set R
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
-4-
SECTION II
catalogue.
consideration.
6 Y = 0.484 2.87/z
6 v
temperature.
Use C v
Q
rcnsl
0.631
12.8
3.59
0.6
0.264
5.79
3.99
0.4
0.121
3.22
4.33
ho
c
0.2
0.8
0.4
0.6
r
f
c
10
5
5
10
5

Radical load = 9 kN
Bearing length = 80
Calculate :
10
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
Seat
No.
Set

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. I) Multiple correct answers objective questions :


a) Pressure angle
b) Face width
c) helix angle

b) Flow variable
c) Raimondis number
d) Bearing creep

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
-2-
List (i)
List (ii)
P) Worm gears

A) In thick film lubrication

B) If Z and Z are the actual and virtual number of teeth for a bevel gear with E as pitch
angle then,
a) Z = Z/sin E
b) Z = Z/cos E
c) Z = Z/tan E
d) Z = Z/cos2 E
C) Dynamic load acting on a gear depends upon

a) Tooth error
b) Number of teeth
c) Speed
d) All of the above
D) If the length to diameter ratio is 1, it is a

a) Long bearing
b) Short bearing
c) Square bearing
d) Medium bearing
E) The property of material to yield and adopt its shape to that of journal is called as
a) Adoptability
b) Embeddability
c) Conformability
d) Softness
F) Spur gears are generally used for velocity for ratio

a) 100 : 1
b) 10 : 1
c) 6 : 1
d) 60 : 1
G) The effective length of root is required in the analysis of

a) Spur gears
b) Helical gears
c) Worm gears
d) Bevel gears
______________
Set S
*SLRPK117*
-3-
SLR-PK 117
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
remedies.
265 BHN.
Take : For Grade 8,
c = 16.0 + 1.25 (m + 0.25 d ) in microns.
5
5
10

pinion and gear.
Calculate :
the vessels.
the opening.
10
5
8
12
Set S
SLR-PK 117
*SLRPK117*
-4-
SECTION II
catalogue.
consideration.
6 Y = 0.484 2.87/z
6 v
temperature.
Use C v
Q
rcnsl
0.631
12.8
3.59
0.6
0.264
5.79
3.99
0.4
0.121
3.22
4.33
ho
c
0.2
0.8
0.4
0.6
r
f
c
10
5
5
10
5

Radical load = 9 kN
Bearing length = 80
Calculate :
10
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 118
*SLRPK118*
Seat
No.
Set
EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Professional Elective II)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

3) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. A) Match the pairs :

Column (1)
(41=4)
Column (2)
a) Foil strain gauges
p. Stress optic law
b) Zero order fringe
q. Seen as black in white light
c) Photoelastic analysis
r. Prepared by etching process
d) Polariser
s. Unique axis for passing light

t. Seen as coloured in white light
B) Match the pairs :

Column (1)
(41=4)
Column (2)
a) Pressure Measurement
p. Coarse balance
b) Load Measurement
q. Slip ring
c) Torque Measurement
r. Proving Ring
d) Direct series or shunt balance
s. Strain gauge on diaphragm

t. Fine Balance
C) Solve Multiple Correct Answers.
(42=8)
i) Separation methods are

a) Tardys
b) Babinet Soleil
c) Shear Difference
d) Electrical Analogy
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 118
*SLRPK118*
-2-
ii) Semi-conductor strain gauges can be of following types

a) P-type
b) Electrical resistance
c) N-type
d) Elleptical
iii) Following are the bridge balancing methods

a) series
b) differential series
c) shunt
d) differential shunt
iv) Compensation methods are

a) Tardys
b) Babinet Soleil
c) Shear Difference
D) Solve classical objectives.
(41=4)
i) Maximum Shear stress is half of

a) 1 2
b) 1 + 2
c) 1 2 = 0
d) 1 2
ii) Output voltage in case of four arm sensitive bridge as compared with one arm
sensitive is
a) Same
b) Double
c) Tripple
d) Four times (quadruplicated)
iii) White light contains light if

a) Single wavelength
b) Different wavelength
c) Zero wavelength
d) None
iv) Strain gauges directly measures

a) stress
b) strain
c) temperature
d) none
______________
Set P
*SLRPK118*
-3-
SLR-PK 118
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions :1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
SECTION I
2. a) Differentiate between Plain and Circular Polariscope.
b) Derive the expression for the light intensity seen through analyzer when the
stressed model is kept in the light field circular polariscope.
10
c) Explain the Babinet Soleil Compensator method for determination of fractional

fringe order.
3. a) Explain the properties of different photo elastic materials.
b) A loaded two dimensional photo elastic model of 6 mm thickness is observed in

circular polariscope. The isochromatics fringe pattern revealed that the point of
interest lies between 4th and 5th order fringe. On rotation of analyzer through 30,
the 5th order fringe passed through the point of interest. Calculate the fractional
fringe order and maximum shear stress, if material fringe value is 14.5 N/mm.
c) Derive an expression for determination of material fringe, value for rectangular

beam of thickness h and depth w subjected to pure bending.
4. a) Explain the followings.
i) Method based on Hookes Law

ii) Electrical Analogy Method.
b) Write short notes on scaling of model results o prototype.
c) Explain how to determine exact fringe order (N) and the principal stress difference
at a given point of interest.
Set P
SLR-PK 118
-4-
*SLRPK118*
SECTION II
5. a) The strain readings as measured by a three element rectangular rosette at a point
in the stressed body are as follows : a = 400 micro-strain, b = 550 micro-strain,
and c = 150 micro-strain. Determine the maximum principal strain direction, the
principal stresses and the maximum shear stress. Take E = 210 GPa and = 0.3. 12
b) Explain bonding of strain gauges and moisture proofing.
6. a) Define transverse sensitivity of a strain gauge. Derive the expression for transverse
sensitivity of a strain gauge.
b) Explain various ways of initial balance of Whetstones bridge.
c) Explain ideal properties of grid and backing material used in strain gauges.
7. a) Explain Moir fringe method. What are the merit and demerit ?
b) Explain the measurement of stresses at large number of location using strain

gauges.
c) Explain different configuration of Wheatstone bridge circuit.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 118
*SLRPK118*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. A) Match the pairs :
(41=4)
Column (1)
Column (2)
p. Coarse balance
b) Load Measurement
q. Slip ring
r. Proving Ring

t. Fine Balance
(41=4)
Column (1)
Column (2)
p. Stress optic law
d) Polariser

C) Solve classical objectives.
(41=4)

a) 1 2
b) 1 + 2
c) 1 2 = 0
d) 1 2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 118
*SLRPK118*
-2-
sensitive is
a) Same
b) Double
c) Tripple

c) Zero wavelength
d) None

a) stress
b) strain
c) temperature
d) none
D) Solve Multiple Correct Answers.
(42=8)

a) Tardys
b) Babinet Soleil
c) Shear Difference

a) P-type
c) N-type
d) Elleptical

a) series
c) shunt

a) Tardys
b) Babinet Soleil
c) Shear Difference
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK118*
-3-
SLR-PK 118
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

fringe order.



Set Q
SLR-PK 118
-4-
*SLRPK118*
SECTION II

gauges.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 118
*SLRPK118*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. A) Solve Multiple Correct Answers.
(42=8)

a) Tardys
c) Shear Difference
b) Babinet Soleil

a) P-type
c) N-type
d) Elleptical
a) series
c) shunt
a) Tardys
c) Shear Difference
b) Babinet Soleil
B) Solve classical objectives.
(41=4)

a) 1 2
b) 1 + 2
c) 1 2 = 0
d) 1 2
sensitive is
a) Same
b) Double
c) Tripple

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 118
*SLRPK118*
-2-

c) Zero wavelength
d) None

a) stress
b) strain
c) temperature
d) none
C) Match the pairs :
(41=4)
Column (1)
Column (2)
p. Stress optic law
d) Polariser

D) Match the pairs :
(41=4)
Column (1)
Column (2)
p. Coarse balance
b) Load Measurement
q. Slip ring
r. Proving Ring

t. Fine Balance
______________
Set R
*SLRPK118*
-3-
SLR-PK 118
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

fringe order.



Set R
SLR-PK 118
-4-
*SLRPK118*
SECTION II

gauges.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 118
*SLRPK118*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. A) Solve classical objectives.
(41=4)

a) 1 2
b) 1 + 2
c) 1 2 = 0
d) 1 2
sensitive is
a) Same
b) Double
c) Tripple

c) Zero wavelength
d) None

a) stress
b) strain
c) temperature
d) none
B) Solve Multiple Correct Answers.
(42=8)

a) Tardys
b) Babinet Soleil
c) Shear Difference

a) P-type
c) N-type
d) Elleptical
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 118
*SLRPK118*
-2-

a) series
c) shunt

a) Tardys
b) Babinet Soleil
c) Shear Difference
C) Match the pairs :
(41=4)
Column (1)
Column (2)
p. Coarse balance
b) Load Measurement
q. Slip ring
r. Proving Ring

t. Fine Balance
D) Match the pairs :

Column (1)
(41=4)
Column (2)
p. Stress optic law
d) Polariser

______________
Set S
*SLRPK118*
-3-
SLR-PK 118
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
10

fringe order.



Set S
SLR-PK 118
-4-
*SLRPK118*
SECTION II

gauges.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 119
*SLRPK119*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Part II) (Mechanical) Examination, 2016

POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING
(Professional Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes

ii) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Marks : 20

1) For economical and better operation of a power plant ________ load is always
desirable.
A) Variable
B) Oscillating
C) Constant magnitude
D) Alternating
2) The average load factor of thermal power plants in India is
A) 100%
B) 80 to 95%
C) 50 to 60%
D) 20 to 30%
3) The pump storage plant essentially consists of a
A) Single basin
B) Head and a tail water pond
C) Bottom small reservoir
D) Pressure amplifier
4) From the area under the load curve we can come to know
A) Approximate load
B) Constant increase in power
C) Steady decrease in power
D) Total energy consumption
5) The highest point on the load curve represents
A) Maximum time
B) Maximum demand
C) Maximum concrete load
D) KVA rating of generators
6) A curve showing the variation of load on a power station with respect to time
is known as
A) Load curve
B) Load duration curve
C) Performance curve
D) Flow chart
7) Low utilization factor for a power plant indicates that
A) Plant is under maintenance
B) Plant is used for base load only
C) Plant is used for stand by purpose only
D) Plant is used for peak load as well as base load
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 119
*SLRPK119*
-2-
8) The standard frequency for electric power supply in India is

A) 1 Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 440 Hz
D) 220 Hz
9) In Hopkinson demand rate or two part tariff the demand rate or fixed charges are
A) Depends upon the energy consumed
B) Depends upon the maximum demand
C) Both A) and B)
D) None of the above
10) For a power plant, the cost of labour is considerd as ______ cost.
A) fixed
B) variable
C) progressive
D) major
11) Flat plate collector absorbs
A) Direct Radiation
B) Diffuse Radiation
C) Direct and Diffuse Both
12) Max. Wind energy available is proportional to
A) Square of the diameter of the rotor
B) Air density
C) Cube of the wind velocity
D) All of the above
13) Geothermal plant is suitable for
A) Base load power
C) Both A) and B)
14) A geothermal field may yield
A) Hot water
C) Dry steam
B) Peak load power

B) Wet steam
D) All of the above
15) The value of solar constant observed by world radiation center

A) 1361 W/m2
B) 1363 W/m2
C) 1367 W/m2
D) 1367 KW/m2
16) Pyrheliometer is used to measure
A) Beam radiation
B)
C) Global radiation
D)
17) Zenith angle is complementary angle of
A) Latitude
B)
C) Hour Angle
D)
18) Tides are caused because of
A) Sun
B) Mars
Diffuse radiation
All of the above
Surface Azimuth Angle
Sun Altitude Angle
C) Moon
D) Ocean Depth
19) The sun subtends on the earth an angle of

A) 30
B) 32
C) 25
D) 35
20) The objective of Energy Audit is to
A) Spend Energy
B) Conduct formal survey
C) Save energy
D) Promote energy usage
______________
Set P
*SLRPK119*
-3-
SLR-PK 119
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section.

ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Make suitable assumption if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Which are the key organizations working under ministry of power ? Explain
any one of them.
b) Explain effect of variable load on power plant design and operation with load
curve.
c) The peak load on a power plant is 30 MW. The loads having maximum demands
of 15 MW, 10 MW, 5 MW and 7 MW are connected to the power station. The
capacity of the power station is 40 MW and annual load factor is 50%. Find :
i) Average load on power plant
ii) Energy supplied per year
iii) Demand factor
iv) Diversity factor.
3. a) What do you mean by Base Load and Peak Load power plant and explain the
requirements of Peak load power plant ?
b) Explain Pump storage power plant with neat sketch.
6
6
7
6
c) The annual cost of operating 30 MW gas turbine power plant as base load are
as follows :
7
Plant cost = 10 crore, Interest and Insurance = 13 % Depreciation = 5%
Plant maintenance cost = 50 Lac Fuel cost = 7 crore Lubricating oil cost = 25 Lac
Labour cost = 75 Lac Max. demand = 25 MW Load factor = 0.75
Profit expected = 5 Paise/Kwh
Determine cost of electricity generated considering the profit (excluding plant cost).
Set P
SLR-PK 119
-4-
*SLRPK119*
4. Write short note on any four :
(45=20)
a) Selection of site for Thermal Power Station and Hydro Power Station.
b) Impact of energy sources on environment
c) Tariff methods
d) Compressed air storage plant
e) Load curve and Load duration curve.
SECTION II
i) Altitude Angle
ii) Incident Angle
iii) Latitude Angle
iv) Hour Angle
v) Declination Angle.
b) Explain with neat sketch Pyrheliometer.
c) Explain solar radiation outside and at the earth surface.
6. a) Explain the working of a wind mill by drawing a clear sketch of all its basic
parts. Also briefly comment on the various rotors and its characteristics.
b) A 10 m/s wind is at 1 standard atmospheric pressure and 15C temperature .

Calculate a) The total power density in the wind stream. b) The maximum
obtainable power density. c) A reasonably obtainable power density, all in w/m2.
d) The total power (in kw) produced if the turbine diameter is 120 m, and
e) The torque, if the turbine were operating at 40 r/min and maximum efficiency.
Assume n = 40% reasonable power density.
c) Write short note on liquid dominated type geothermal system.
(45=20)
a) Single basin system of a Tidal plant.

b) Write short note on Duties and Responsibilities of Energy Manager.
c) Objective of energy audit and the procedure of energy audit.
d) Energy conservation in Industrial sector.
e) Ocean thermal energy conversion.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 119
*SLRPK119*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100


A) Beam radiation
C) Global radiation
Marks : 20
B) Diffuse radiation
D) All of the above

A) Latitude
B) Surface Azimuth Angle
C) Hour Angle
D) Sun Altitude Angle
A) Sun
B) Mars
C) Moon
A) 30
B) 32
C) 25
A) Spend Energy
C) Save energy
D) Ocean Depth
D) 35

desirable.
A) Variable
B) Oscillating
D) Alternating
A) 100%
B) 80 to 95%
C) 50 to 60%
D) 20 to 30%
A) Single basin
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 119
-2-
*SLRPK119*
A) Approximate load
A) Maximum time
B) Maximum demand
is known as
A) Load curve
D) Flow chart
A) 1 Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 440 Hz
D) 220 Hz
C) Both A) and B)
A) fixed
B) variable
C) progressive
D) major
A) Direct Radiation
B) Air density
D) All of the above
A) Base load power
B) Peak load power
C) Both A) and B)
A) Hot water
B) Wet steam
C) Dry steam
D) All of the above
A) 1361 W/m2
B) 1363 W/m2
C) 1367 W/m2
D) 1367 KW/m2
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK119*
-3-
SLR-PK 119
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
any one of them.
curve.
iii) Demand factor
6
6
7
6
as follows :
7
Set Q
SLR-PK 119
-4-
*SLRPK119*
(45=20)
c) Tariff methods
SECTION II
i) Altitude Angle
ii) Incident Angle
iii) Latitude Angle
iv) Hour Angle

(45=20)

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 119
*SLRPK119*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100


A) Direct Radiation
Marks : 20

B) Air density
D) All of the above
A) Base load power
B) Peak load power
C) Both A) and B)
A) Hot water
C) Dry steam
B) Wet steam
D) All of the above

A) 1361 W/m2
B) 1363 W/m2
C) 1367 W/m2
D) 1367 KW/m2
A) Beam radiation
C) Global radiation
D) All of the above
A) Latitude
C) Hour Angle
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 119
-2-
*SLRPK119*

A) Sun
B) Mars
C) Moon
D) Ocean Depth
A) 30
B) 32
C) 25
D) 35
A) Spend Energy
C) Save energy
desirable.
A) Variable
B) Oscillating
D) Alternating
A) 100%
B) 80 to 95%
C) 50 to 60%
D) 20 to 30%
A) Single basin
A) Approximate load
A) Maximum time
B) Maximum demand
is known as
A) Load curve
D) Flow chart
A) 1 Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 440 Hz
D) 220 Hz
C) Both A) and B)
A) fixed
B) variable
C) progressive
D) major
______________
Set R
*SLRPK119*
-3-
SLR-PK 119
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
any one of them.
curve.
iii) Demand factor
6
6
7
6
as follows :
7
Set R
SLR-PK 119
-4-
*SLRPK119*
(45=20)
c) Tariff methods
SECTION II
i) Altitude Angle
ii) Incident Angle
iii) Latitude Angle
iv) Hour Angle

(45=20)

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 119
*SLRPK119*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

is known as
A) Load curve
D) Flow chart
A) 1 Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 440 Hz
D) 220 Hz
C) Both A) and B)
A) fixed
B) variable
C) progressive
D) major
A) Direct Radiation
B) Air density
D) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 119
-2-
*SLRPK119*

A) Base load power
B) Peak load power
C) Both A) and B)
A) Hot water
B) Wet steam
C) Dry steam
D) All of the above
B) 1363 W/m2
C) 1367 W/m2
D) 1367 KW/m2
A) 1361 W/m2
A) Beam radiation
C) Global radiation
D) All of the above
A) Latitude
C) Hour Angle
A) Sun
B) Mars
C) Moon
D) Ocean Depth
A) 30
B) 32
C) 25
D) 35
A) Spend Energy
C) Save energy
desirable.
A) Variable
B) Oscillating
D) Alternating
A) 100%
B) 80 to 95%
C) 50 to 60%
D) 20 to 30%
A) Single basin
A) Approximate load
A) Maximum time
B) Maximum demand
______________
Set S
*SLRPK119*
-3-
SLR-PK 119
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
any one of them.
curve.
iii) Demand factor
6
6
7
6
as follows :
7
Set S
SLR-PK 119
-4-
*SLRPK119*
(45=20)
c) Tariff methods
SECTION II
i) Altitude Angle
ii) Incident Angle
iii) Latitude Angle
iv) Hour Angle

(45=20)

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 120
*SLRPK120*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2016

MECHANICAL VIBRATION
Professional Elective II
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
3) Solve any three questions from each Section I and
Section II.
5) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) In a harmonic motion the maximum velocity is

a) Directly proportional to the amplitude
b) Inversely proportional to the amplitude
c) Directly proportional to square of amplitude
d) Independent of amplitude
2) In an undamped single degree of freedom system with spring stiffness K and mass M, the
natural frequency is
a)
K M
b)
M K
c) K/M
d) None
3) A system is said to be over damped if damping factor for the system is

a) More than one
b) Equal to one
c) Less than one
d) Equal to zero
4) Forced Vibration vibrate at
a) Natural frequency of system
c) Both a) and b)
b) Frequency of external excitation

d) None
5) The resultant stiffness of two springs in parallel as compared to individual stiffness of

any of two springs
a) is more
b) is less
c) is equal
d) None of above
6) The number of natural frequencies in a two rotor system is
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Two
d) Four
7) In case of steady state forced vibration at resonance the amplitude of vibration is

a) Inversely proportional to damping
b) Inversely proportional to damping ratio
c) Inversely proportional to resonant
d) Directly proportional to resonant frequency
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 120
*SLRPK120*
-2-
8) A two DOF vibration system, which has two natural frequencies, when disturbed will
vibrate with
a) Its lower frequency
b) Its higher frequency
c) Both the natural frequencies
d) Any of two natural frequencies
9) The unit of viscous damping coefficient
a) N-m/sec
b) m/N-sec
c) N-sec/m
d) N-m-sec
10) The equivalent stiffness of spring connected in parallel having stiffness k1 and k2 can be
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2)
b) k1 + k2
c) (1/k1) (1/k2)
d) none
11) Main properties of vibrating system
a) Mass and stiffness
c) Stiffness and damping
b) Mass, stiffness and damping

d) None of these
12) Accelerometer is designed with

a) Low frequency
c) Zero frequency
b) High frequency
d) None
13) If spring of stiffness K units is cut into 3 equal pieces, then stiffness of each spring
a) K/3
b) K
c) 3K
d) 5K
14) Natural frequency of accelerometer is normally of the order
a) 4 Hz
b) 100 Hz
c) between 100 Hz and 1000 Hz
d) Above 10 kHz
15) Each term in the equation of motion of linear system involves displacement, velocity and
acceleration of
a) First degree
b) Second degree
c) Zero degree
d) None
16) In case of nonlinear vibration frequency of system
a) is constant
b) is not constant
c) cannot be predicted
d) None
17) Effect of damping on the natural frequency of system is to
a) Reduce it considerably
b) Increase it considerably
c) Reduce it marginally
d) Increase it marginally
18) Each outcome of an experiment, in case of random process is
a) Sample point
b) Sample function
c) Sample space
d) None
19) The instrument that measures the displacement of vibrating body is called a
a) Seismometer
b) Transducer
c) Accelerometer
d) None
20) When frequency of external excitation force is equal to natural frequency of vibration then
a) Amplitude of vibration is zero
b) Amplitude of vibration is small
c) Amplitude of vibration is very large
d) None
______________
Set P
*SLRPK120*
-3-
SLR-PK 120
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

Section II.
SECTION I
2. a) Define following terms (any four) :
i) Damping factor
ii) Simple Harmonic Motion
iii) Resonance
iv) Degree of Freedom
v) Natural frequency and mode shape.
b) State the difference between viscous damping and Coulomb damping.
3. a) Explain Critical speed of shaft.
5
5
b) Discuss various ways to derive equation of motion for single degree of freedom
systems.
c) Explain steps involved in vibration analysis.
5
4
4. a) Set up differential equation for motion of two degree vibration system and
hence derive the frequency equation and obtain natural frequencies of system.
Set P
SLR-PK 120
-4-
*SLRPK120*
b) A circular cylinder of mass m and radius r is connected spring of stiffness k on an

inclined plane as shown in figure 1. If it is free to roll on the rough surface which is
horizontal without slipping determine its natural frequency.
5. a) Derive governing equation of motion for multi-degree vibration system and

determine natural frequency of system.
b) Explain in short different types of vibrations.
8
5
SECTION II
6. a) Explain in brief probability distribution and probability density function.
b) Explain FFT analyzer in brief.
c) Write a short note on vibration isolation.
7. a) Explain Nonlinear Vibration with example.
b) Write a short note on Accelerometer.
8. a) What is dynamic vibration absorber and show that its natural frequency should
be equal to frequency of applied force ?
b) Explain in brief random variable and random process in random vibration.
9. Write a short note on (attempt any two) :
8
5
14
a) Vibration Measuring Instruments

b) Vibration Exciter
c) Signal Analysis.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 120
*SLRPK120*
Seat
No.
Set

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Section II.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) is constant
b) is not constant
d) None
a) Sample point
b) Sample function
c) Sample space
d) None
a) Seismometer
b) Transducer
c) Accelerometer
d) None
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 120
*SLRPK120*
-2-
a)
K M
b)
M K
c) K/M
d) None

a) More than one
b) Equal to one
c) Less than one
d) Equal to zero
c) Both a) and b)

d) None
any of two springs
a) is more
b) is less
c) is equal
d) None of above
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Two
d) Four
vibrate with
a) N-m/sec
b) m/N-sec
c) N-sec/m
d) N-m-sec
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2)
b) k1 + k2
c) (1/k1) (1/k2)
d) none

d) None of these

a) Low frequency
c) Zero frequency
b) High frequency
d) None
a) K/3
b) K
c) 3K
d) 5K
a) 4 Hz
b) 100 Hz
d) Above 10 kHz
acceleration of
a) First degree
b) Second degree
c) Zero degree
d) None
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK120*
-3-
SLR-PK 120
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

Section II.
SECTION I
i) Damping factor
iii) Resonance
5
5
systems.
5
4
Set Q
SLR-PK 120
-4-
*SLRPK120*


8
5
SECTION II
8
5
14

c) Signal Analysis.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 120
*SLRPK120*
Seat
No.
Set

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Section II.
Marks : 20
(201=20)


d) None of these

a) Low frequency
c) Zero frequency
b) High frequency
d) None
a) K/3
b) K
c) 3K
d) 5K
a) 4 Hz
b) 100 Hz
d) Above 10 kHz
acceleration of
a) First degree
b) Second degree
c) Zero degree
d) None
a) is constant
b) is not constant
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 120
*SLRPK120*
-2-

a) Sample point
b) Sample function
c) Sample space
d) None
a) Seismometer
b) Transducer
c) Accelerometer
d) None
d) None
a)
K M
b)
M K
c) K/M
d) None
a) More than one
b) Equal to one
c) Less than one
d) Equal to zero
c) Both a) and b)

d) None
any of two springs
a) is more
b) is less
c) is equal
d) None of above
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Two
d) Four
vibrate with
a) N-m/sec
b) m/N-sec
c) N-sec/m
d) N-m-sec
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2)
b) k1 + k2
c) (1/k1) (1/k2)
d) none
______________
Set R
*SLRPK120*
-3-
SLR-PK 120
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

Section II.
SECTION I
i) Damping factor
iii) Resonance
5
5
systems.
5
4
Set R
SLR-PK 120
-4-
*SLRPK120*


8
5
SECTION II
8
5
14

c) Signal Analysis.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 120
*SLRPK120*
Seat
No.
Set

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Section II.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Two
d) Four

vibrate with
a) N-m/sec
b) m/N-sec
c) N-sec/m
d) N-m-sec
written as
a) (1/k1) + (1/k2)
b) k1 + k2
c) (1/k1) (1/k2)
d) none

d) None of these

a) Low frequency
c) Zero frequency
b) High frequency
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 120
*SLRPK120*
-2-
a) K/3
b) K
c) 3K
d) 5K
a) 4 Hz
b) 100 Hz
d) Above 10 kHz
acceleration of
a) First degree
b) Second degree
c) Zero degree
d) None
a) is constant
b) is not constant
d) None
a) Sample point
b) Sample function
c) Sample space
d) None
a) Seismometer
b) Transducer
c) Accelerometer
d) None
d) None
a)
K M
b)
M K
c) K/M
d) None
a) More than one
b) Equal to one
c) Less than one
d) Equal to zero
c) Both a) and b)

d) None
any of two springs
a) is more
b) is less
c) is equal
d) None of above
______________
Set S
*SLRPK120*
-3-
SLR-PK 120
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

Section II.
SECTION I
i) Damping factor
iii) Resonance
5
5
systems.
5
4
Set S
SLR-PK 120
-4-
*SLRPK120*


8
5
SECTION II
8
5
14

c) Signal Analysis.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
S
Set
t

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1) Q. No. 2 and 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two questions out of

Q. No. 3, 4 and 5 from Section I and attempt any two questions out
of Q. No. 7, 8 and 9 from Section II.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. A) Single correct answer type questions :
(101=10)
1) Blank size D in deep drawing is calculated based on

a) Radius on die
b) Product diameter and height
c) Die thickness
2) During punching clearance is given on
a) Die block cavity
c) Punch and die block
b) Punch
3) Following is the combined cutting and bending operation along a line in work material
a) Notching
b) Lancing
c) Piercing
d) Embossing
4) Crater wear is predominant in
a) Carbon tool steel
b) Tungsten carbide tools
c) HSS tools
d) Ceramic tools
5) Thrust force on tool will increase with increase in
a) Side cutting edge angle
b) Tool nose radius
c) Rake angle
d) End cutting edge angle
6) Which of the following represents drawing ratio ?
a) d/D
b) D/d
c) h/d
d) h/D
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
-2-
7) The relation between the tool life (T) in minutes and cutting speed (V) in mm/min is
a) Vn = CT
b) VTn = C
c) (Vn/T) = C
d) (V/Tn) = C
8) Tool signature consists of _______ elements of geometry.
a) Two
b) Four
c) Five
d) Seven
9) Twist drill is generally provided with _______ number of major cutting edges.
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six
10) In blanking operation the clearance is provided on
a) 50% on punch and 50% on die
b) On die
c) On die or on punch (designers choice)
d) On punch
B. Multiple choice correct answer type questions :
(25=10)
1) The drawing pressure in drawing die depends upon

a) Diameter of product
b) Thickness of product
c) Press capacity
d) Radius of punch
2) Tool dynamometer is employed to measure
a) Cutting force
b) Thrust force
c) Shear force
d) Frictional force
3) The chip thickness ratio depends upon
a) Chip thickness
b) Speed of machine
c) Uncut chip thickness
d) All of the above
4) The shear angle in metal cutting depends upon
a) Uncut chip thickness
b) Chip thickness
c) Rake angle
d) Relief angle
5) Jig is employed for
a) Facing
c) Drilling
b) Reaming
d) Spot facing
______________
Set P
*SLRPK121*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 121

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions :

SECTION I
2. Design the press tool for production of component in Fig. I. Giving following details.
i) Cutting Force
ii) Clearance between die and punch
iii) Strip Layout
iv) Design of die and other various elements. Draw two view of press tool out of one should
be sectional view.
20
Fig. I
Material C40 steel

Shear Strength 400 N/mm2
Material thickness = 3 mm
OR
Design the drawing tool for production of component in Fig. II and determine the following :
i) Blank size
ii) No. of Draws
iii) % Reduction
iv) Blank holding force
v) Punch and die size
vi) Drawing force
vii) Press capacity.
Fig. II
Material M.S.
Thickness = 0.8 mm
Draw a view of drawing tool showing all the details.
20
Yield stress = 470 N/mm2.
Set P
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
-4-
3. a) The following data related to the orthogonal cutting of a component.

Feed Force = 900 N
Cutting Force = 1800 N
Chip thickness ratio = 0.26
Rake angle = 12
Determine : i) Shear angle and Shear force
ii) Coefficient of friction
b) Explain various types of tool wear.
5
5
4. a) Derive following relation for shear angle.

= tan1(rcos /1 rsin ).
b) What are the characteristics of ideal cutting tool materials ?
5
5
5. Write note on (any two) :

a) Cutting fluids
b) Types of chips c) Tool dynamometer d) Bending dies.
10
SECTION II
6. Design and draw milling fixture for slot 6 28 mm for the component in Fig. III.
OR
Design a drill jig for two holes having diameter of
shown in Fig. III.
24 mm and
20
40 mm for the component
20
Fig. III
7. a) How long it will take a fixture costing Rs. 4,000 to pay for itself, if by its use, it saves
30 paise per piece over the previous method. The parts made per year are 5000 and
made in 5 batches. Cost of each set up is Rs. 50/- Take I = 10%, T = 5%, M = 10%, burden
applied on labour = 50%.
b) Explain tool signature as per American System.
5
5
8. a) Discuss Economic lot size.

b) Discuss nomenclature of Reamer.
5
5
9. Write short notes any two :

a) Locating elements
b) Causes for machine tool replacement.
c) The concept and types of depreciation.
_____________________
10
Set P
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
S
Set
t

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(101=10)

a) d/D
b) D/d
c) h/d
d) h/D
c) (Vn/T) = C
d) (V/Tn) = C
a) Vn = CT
b) VTn = C
a) Two
b) Four
c) Five
d) Seven
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six
b) On die
d) On punch
a) Radius on die
c) Die thickness
a) Die block cavity
b) Punch
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
-2-
a) Notching
b) Lancing
c) Piercing
d) Embossing
c) HSS tools
d) Ceramic tools
b) Tool nose radius
c) Rake angle
(25=10)

a) Cutting force
b) Thrust force
c) Shear force
d) Frictional force
a) Chip thickness
b) Speed of machine
d) All of the above
b) Chip thickness
c) Rake angle
d) Relief angle
a) Facing
c) Drilling
b) Reaming
d) Spot facing

c) Press capacity
d) Radius of punch
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK121*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 121

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions :

SECTION I
i) Cutting Force
iii) Strip Layout
be sectional view.
20
Fig. I
Material C40 steel

OR
i) Blank size
ii) No. of Draws
iii) % Reduction
vi) Drawing force
Fig. II
Material M.S.
Thickness = 0.8 mm
20
Set Q
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
-4-

Feed Force = 900 N
Rake angle = 12
5
5

5
5

a) Cutting fluids
10
SECTION II
OR
shown in Fig. III.
24 mm and
20
20
Fig. III
5
5

5
5

_____________________
10
Set Q
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
S
Set
t

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(101=10)

a) Two
b) Four
c) Five
d) Seven
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six
b) On die
d) On punch
a) Radius on die
c) Die thickness
a) Die block cavity
b) Punch
a) Notching
b) Lancing
c) Piercing
d) Embossing
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
-2-

c) HSS tools
d) Ceramic tools
b) Tool nose radius
c) Rake angle
a) d/D
b) D/d
c) h/d
d) h/D
c) (Vn/T) = C
d) (V/Tn) = C
a) Vn = CT
b) VTn = C
(25=10)

a) Chip thickness
b) Speed of machine
d) All of the above
b) Chip thickness
c) Rake angle
d) Relief angle
a) Facing
c) Drilling
b) Reaming
d) Spot facing

c) Press capacity
d) Radius of punch
a) Cutting force
b) Thrust force
c) Shear force
d) Frictional force
______________
Set R
*SLRPK121*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 121

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions :

SECTION I
i) Cutting Force
iii) Strip Layout
be sectional view.
20
Fig. I
Material C40 steel

OR
i) Blank size
ii) No. of Draws
iii) % Reduction
vi) Drawing force
Fig. II
Material M.S.
Thickness = 0.8 mm
20
Set R
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
-4-

Feed Force = 900 N
Rake angle = 12
5
5

5
5

a) Cutting fluids
10
SECTION II
OR
shown in Fig. III.
24 mm and
20
20
Fig. III
5
5

5
5

_____________________
10
Set R
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
S
Set
t

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(101=10)

b) On die
d) On punch
a) Radius on die
c) Die thickness
a) Die block cavity
b) Punch
a) Notching
b) Lancing
c) Piercing
d) Embossing
c) HSS tools
d) Ceramic tools
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
-2-

b) Tool nose radius
c) Rake angle
a) d/D
b) D/d
c) h/d
d) h/D
a) Vn = CT
b) VTn = C
c) (Vn/T) = C
d) (V/Tn) = C
a) Two
b) Four
c) Five
d) Seven
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six
(25=10)

b) Chip thickness
c) Rake angle
d) Relief angle
a) Facing
c) Drilling
b) Reaming
d) Spot facing

c) Press capacity
d) Radius of punch
a) Cutting force
b) Thrust force
c) Shear force
d) Frictional force
a) Chip thickness
b) Speed of machine
d) All of the above
______________
Set S
*SLRPK121*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 121

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions :

SECTION I
i) Cutting Force
iii) Strip Layout
be sectional view.
20
Fig. I
Material C40 steel

OR
i) Blank size
ii) No. of Draws
iii) % Reduction
vi) Drawing force
Fig. II
Material M.S.
Thickness = 0.8 mm
20
Set S
SLR-PK 121
*SLRPK121*
-4-

Feed Force = 900 N
Rake angle = 12
5
5

5
5

a) Cutting fluids
10
SECTION II
OR
shown in Fig. III.
24 mm and
20
20
Fig. III
5
5

5
5

_____________________
10
Set S
*SLR-PK-122/505*
SLR-PK 122/505
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mechanical Engg.) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2016

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 20

1) The rotational speed of cam shaft with respect to crankshaft is
a) half
b) double
c) equal
d) four times
20
2) Which is the most effective alternative fuel for IC Engine in rural area ?
a) CNG
b) Biogas
c) Alcohol
d) Hydrogen
3) Normal range of compression ratio for Otto cycle is
a) 2-4
b) 6-10
c) Greater than 10 d) None of above
4) Dissociation of CO2 and H2O takes place above
a) 200C and 400C
b) 1000C and 1300C
c) 600C and 800C
d) None of above
5) The choke is closed when engine is
a) Accelerating
b) Hot
c) Cold
d) Idling
6) Pintaux nozzle
a) is a type of single hole nozzle
b) is a type of pintle nozzle
c) has an auxiliary hole drilled in the nozzle body d) all of above
7) In D-MPFI system
a) Manifold vacuum is sensed and fuel injected just above inlet port
b) Air entering the engine is sensed and fuel injected in manifold
c) Manifold vacuum is sensed and fuel injected in manifold
d) Air entering the engine is sensed and fuel injected just above inlet port
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 122/505
-2-
*SLR-PK-122/505*
8) Supercharging increases the power output by increasing

a) Charge temperature
b) Charge pressure
c) Speed of engine
d) Quantity of fuel admitted
9) Two stroke S.I. Engines
a) Are light in weight comparatively
b) Are simple in construction
c) Have uniform torque output at crankshaft d) All of above
10) Intake charge in diesel engine consist of
a) Air alone
b) Air and fuel mixture
c) Air, fuel and oil mixture
d) Air and oil mixture
11) In I.C. Engines, the power developed inside the cylinder is known as
a) Brake horse power
b) Indicated horse power
c) Pumping power
d) None of these
12) The process in which the violent sound pulsations within the cylinder of an
I.C. engines are produced, is called
a) Scavenging
b) Detonation
c) Supercharging d) Polymerization
13) Fuel having maximum resistance to detonation in SI engine is
a) Benzene
b) Toluene
c) Iso-octane
d) n-heptane
14) Ratio of volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the Swept volume of the
piston, is called
a) Volumetric efficiency
b) Mechanical efficiency
c) Overall efficiency
15) Higher the temperature required to ignite diesel fuel
a) Higher the octane number
b) Higher the cetane number
c) Lower the octane number
d) Lower the cetane number
16) Fuel of octane rating 85 matches the antiknock qualities of a mixture consisting of
a) 85% petrol + 15% diesel
b) 15% petrol + 85% diesel
c) 85% heptane + 15% octane
d) 85% octane + 15% heptane
17) For cetane number an arbitrary number of 0 (zero) has been assigned to
a) n-heptane
b) Hexadecane
d) 2, 2, 4 trimethyl pentane
c) methyl naphthalene
18) The method of determination of indicated power of a multi cylinder SI engine
is by the use of
a) Morse test
b) Prony brake test
c) Motoring test
d) None of these
19) The major pollutant emitted form exhaust due to incomplete combustion is
b) H2O
c) CO
d) None of above
a) CO2
20) At high compression ratio in CI engine
a) An engine operates smoothly
b) An engine operates safely
c) Detonation first becomes audible d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLR-PK-122/505*
-3-
SLR-PK 122/505
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Discuss the effect of the following on the fuel air cycle analysis.
1) Variation of specific heat with temperature

2) Dissociation of gases.
b) Sketch and explain the timing diagram for
a) 4 stroke SI engine
b) 2 stroke CI engine
c) Compare Diesel Cycle with Otto cycle.
3. a) Why altitude compensation is required in carburetors and how it is achieved ?

Explain any two methods with neat diagram.
10
b) A simple jet carburetor is required to supply 5 kg of air and 0.5 kg of fuel per
minute. The fuel specific gravity is 0.75. The air is initially at 1 bar and 300K.
Calculate the throat diameter of the choke for a flow velocity of 100 m/s.
Velocity coefficient is 0.8. If the pressure drops across the fuel metering
orifice is 0.8 of that of the choke. Calculate the orifice diameter assuming
Cdf = 0.6, = 1.4 and Cp = 1005 J/kgK.
10
4. a) Discuss spray formation, atomization and penetration.
b) List the advantages and limitations of supercharging.
c) Explain the selection of the I.C. Engine type for following applications.
1) Aircraft
2) Ship
3) Two wheeler
4) Power generation.
Set P
SLR-PK 122/505
-4-
*SLR-PK-122/505*
SECTION II
5. a) Explain HUCR. What are the basic requirements of good combustion chamber ?
b) Explain how to control detonation in the SI engine ? Also state various effects
of detonation in the SI engine.
c) What is Cetane number ? What is its importance in CI engine ?
6. a) What is delay period ? Explain effect of various operating factor on delay period.
b) Explain various abnormal combustion in the CI engine.
c) Explain catalytic converter with figure.
7. a) Explain any one method of determining Brake Power of Engine.
b) The air flow to four cylinder four stroke petrol engine is measured by means
of a 7.5 cm diameter sharp edge orifice, Cd = 0.6. During a test on the engine
following data were recorded
Bore = 11 cm, stroke = 13 cm, Engine speed = 2250 rpm, Brake power = 36 kW,
fuel consumption = 10.5 kg/h, calorific value of fuel = 42000 kJ/kg, pressure
drop across the orifice = 4.1 cm of water. Atmospheric temperature and
pressure are 15C and 1.013 bar. Calculate :
i) Thermal efficiency on brake power basis.
ii) Brake mean effective pressure
iii) Volumetric efficiency based on free air condition.
10
c) Explain need of alternative fuels and list the commonly used alternative fuels. 5
_____________________
Set P
*SLR-PK-122/505*
SLR-PK 122/505
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 20

20
a) n-heptane
b) Hexadecane
is by the use of
a) Morse test
b) Prony brake test
c) Motoring test
d) None of these
b) H2O
c) CO
d) None of above
a) CO2
a) half
b) double
c) equal
d) four times
a) CNG
b) Biogas
c) Alcohol
d) Hydrogen
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 122/505
-2-
*SLR-PK-122/505*

a) 2-4
b) 6-10
a) 200C and 400C
b) 1000C and 1300C
c) 600C and 800C
d) None of above
a) Accelerating
b) Hot
c) Cold
d) Idling
11) Pintaux nozzle
12) In D-MPFI system
b) Charge pressure
c) Speed of engine
a) Air alone
c) Pumping power
d) None of these
a) Scavenging
b) Detonation
a) Benzene
b) Toluene
c) Iso-octane
d) n-heptane
piston, is called
______________
Set Q
*SLR-PK-122/505*
-3-
SLR-PK 122/505
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I


10
Cdf = 0.6, = 1.4 and Cp = 1005 J/kgK.
10
1) Aircraft
2) Ship
3) Two wheeler
Set Q
SLR-PK 122/505
-4-
*SLR-PK-122/505*
SECTION II
10
_____________________
Set Q
*SLR-PK-122/505*
SLR-PK 122/505
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 20

20
c) Pumping power
d) None of these
a) Scavenging
b) Detonation
a) Benzene
b) Toluene
c) Iso-octane
d) n-heptane
piston, is called
a) n-heptane
b) Hexadecane
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 122/505
-2-
*SLR-PK-122/505*

is by the use of
a) Morse test
b) Prony brake test
c) Motoring test
d) None of these
b) H2O
c) CO
d) None of above
a) CO2
a) half
b) double
c) equal
d) four times
a) CNG
b) Biogas
c) Alcohol
d) Hydrogen
a) 2-4
b) 6-10
a) 200C and 400C
b) 1000C and 1300C
c) 600C and 800C
d) None of above
a) Accelerating
b) Hot
c) Cold
d) Idling
16) Pintaux nozzle
17) In D-MPFI system
b) Charge pressure
c) Speed of engine
a) Air alone
______________
Set R
*SLR-PK-122/505*
-3-
SLR-PK 122/505
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I


10
Cdf = 0.6, = 1.4 and Cp = 1005 J/kgK.
10
1) Aircraft
2) Ship
3) Two wheeler
Set R
SLR-PK 122/505
-4-
*SLR-PK-122/505*
SECTION II
10
_____________________
Set R
*SLR-PK-122/505*
SLR-PK 122/505
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Marks : 20

20
1) Pintaux nozzle
2) In D-MPFI system
b) Charge pressure
c) Speed of engine
a) Air alone
c) Pumping power
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 122/505
-2-
*SLR-PK-122/505*
a) Scavenging
b) Detonation
a) Benzene
b) Toluene
c) Iso-octane
d) n-heptane
piston, is called
a) n-heptane
b) Hexadecane
is by the use of
a) Morse test
b) Prony brake test
c) Motoring test
d) None of these
b) H2O
c) CO
d) None of above
a) CO2
a) half
b) double
c) equal
d) four times
a) CNG
b) Biogas
c) Alcohol
d) Hydrogen
a) 2-4
b) 6-10
a) 200C and 400C
b) 1000C and 1300C
c) 600C and 800C
d) None of above
a) Accelerating
b) Hot
c) Cold
______________
d) Idling
Set S
*SLR-PK-122/505*
-3-
SLR-PK 122/505
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I


10
Cdf = 0.6, = 1.4 and Cp = 1005 J/kgK.
10
1) Aircraft
2) Ship
3) Two wheeler
Set S
SLR-PK 122/505
-4-
*SLR-PK-122/505*
SECTION II
10
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2016
OPERATIONS RESEARCH

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks :100

Page No. 3.
1.
Marks : 20
Type 1 Questions.
(One mark each)
Choose the correct answer.

1) In Simplex technique, the conversion of solution is
a) from bad to worse
b) from worse to bad
c) from good to bad
2) In OR models, physical model is an example of

a) Analogue model
b) Iconic model
c) Symbolic model
d) Descriptive model
3) In case of assignment problems, during the final stage of allocation, if all the rows and columns are having
two or more zeros during the allocation the problem has
a) No solution
b) Unique solution
c) Multiple solutions
d) None of these
4) The degeneracy in transportation problems occur if number of independent allocations made is

a) Equal to (m + n 1)
b) Equal to (m + n)
c) Greater than (m + n 1)
d) Less than (m + n 1)
5) The dynamic programming problem can be divided into a sequence of smaller sub-problems called as
a) Branches
b) Steps
c) Stages
d) All of above
6) In games theory, different courses of action available for a player are called as
a) Strategies
b) Opinions
c) Judgements
d) Moves
7) Expected value criterion refers to decision making under

a) conditions of certainty
b) conditions of uncertainty
c) conditions of risk
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
-2-
8) In a PERT/CPM network, sometimes dummy activities are introduced to

a) Prevent cycling in the network
b) Maintain network logic of precedence
c) Avoid crossing of activities in the network
d) Have an activity with zero duration of time
9) Which of the following criterion is also called as weighted average criterion ?
a) Laplace criterion
b) Hurwitz criterion
c) Minimax criterion
d) Maximin criterion
10) Operations research can be applied in
2.
a) Manufacturing Industries
b) Agriculture
c) LIC
d) All of the above
Type 2 Questions.
(2 marks each 5 questions = 10 marks)
1) In case of travelling salesman problem, all the diagonal elements representing movement from same
source to destination may be assigned a value of _____________ during matrix calculations.
a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinity
d) None of these
2) In PERT, if the optimistic time and pessimistic time of an activity are 2 days and 14 days, then variance of the
activity will be
a) One day
b) Four days
c) Two days
d) Twelve days
c) 5
d) 3
3) The saddle point of the given game is

0 1 3
5 3 5
a) 0
b) 5
4) Which of these criteria comes under conditions of uncertainty ?

a) Hurwitz and Laplace
b) Expected value and EOL
c) Hurwitz and EOL
d) None of these
5) In a LPP if all constraints are having greater than or equal sign, then for maximization objective solution
is
a) Feasible solution
b) Unbound solution
c) No solution
d) b) and c)
______________
Set P
*SLRPK123*
SLR-PK 123
-3-
Seat
No.

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Answer any three question from Section I and Section II.
2) Figures to right indicates full marks.
2.
a)
b)
SECTION I
Explain Different OR models.
Solve the following Linear Programming Problem by Graphical Method.
5
8
Max. Z =15X1 + 10X2

Subject to
360
180
5X2 200
X1, X2 0
4X1 + 6X2
3X1
3.
a)
Explain Sensitivity analysis in LPP.
b)
Four jobs has to be assigned to four workers. Find out optimum assignment which will result in total
minimum cost. The cell entries are in hundreds of rupees.
Workers
Jobs
4.
II
III
IV
26
17
11
13
28
26
38
19
18
15
19
26
24
10
a)
Explain in brief procedure for solving maximization assignment problems and assignment with restriction.
b)
Find out IBFS of Transportation Problem by using VAM method.
Warehouse
FACTORY
W1
W2
W3
W4
CAPACITY
Factory
Warehouse Demand
F1
13
50
F2
13
11
10
70
F3
14
10
13
30
F4
11
13
50
25
35
105
20
Set P
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
-4-
5.
Write a note on any two of the following.

a) Dynamic Programming
b) Duality in LPP
c) MODI method in Transportation.
6.
a)
(72=14)
SECTION II
Solve the following game using principle of dominance.
Palyer B
12
Player A
7.
8.
9.
b)
a)
b)
a)
Explain in detail with suitable example, the graphical method in games theory.
A project is compared of eleven activities, time estimates are :
Activity
To
Tp
Tm (days)
1 2
17
1 3
10
60
20
1 4
15
10
25
50
110
65
26
30
50
40
36
50
90
55
37
47
40
68
48
58
15
10
68
20
52
27
78
30
50
40
1) Draw the network.

2) Determine the critical path.
3) What is the probability of finishing project in 125 days ?
Compare between PERT and CPM.
A fleet owner finds from his past records that the costs per year of equipment whose purchase price
Rs. 50,000 are as given below.
Year
Running cost (Rs.) :
15,000
16,000
18,000
21,000
25,000
29,000
34,000
40,000
Resale value (Rs.) :
35,000
25,000
17,000
12,000
10,000
5,000
4,000
4,000
10
3
Determine at what age is the replacement due ?
b)
Discuss the concept of minimum spanning tree problem, with suitable example.
a)
What is the concept of decision making under conditions of risk and uncertainty ?
b)
Discuss the various cases under network flow models with importance of each.
7
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
Seat
No.
Set
OPERATIONS RESEARCH

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Page No. 3.
1.
Marks : 20
Type 1 Questions.
(One mark each)


b) Agriculture
c) LIC
d) All of the above

d) none of these

c) from good to bad

a) Analogue model
b) Iconic model
c) Symbolic model
a) Branches
b) Steps
c) Stages
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
-2-
a) Strategies
b) Opinions
c) Judgements
d) Moves
a) No solution
b) Unique solution
d) None of these
2.
b) Equal to (m + n)
Type 2 Questions.
is
b) Unbound solution
c) No solution
d) b) and c)

c) Hurwitz and EOL
d) None of these
activity will be
a) One day
b) Four days
c) Two days
d) Twelve days
a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinity
d) None of these
c) 5
d) 3

0 1 3
5 3 5
a) 0
b) 5
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK123*
SLR-PK 123
-3-
Seat
No.

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from Section I and Section II.
2.
a)
b)
SECTION I
5
8
Max. Z =15X1 + 10X2

Subject to
360
180
5X2 200
X1, X2 0
4X1 + 6X2
3X1
3.
a)
b)
Workers
Jobs
4.
II
III
IV
26
17
11
13
28
26
38
19
18
15
19
26
24
10
a)
b)
Warehouse
FACTORY
W1
W2
W3
W4
CAPACITY
Factory
Warehouse Demand
F1
13
50
F2
13
11
10
70
F3
14
10
13
30
F4
11
13
50
25
35
105
20
Set Q
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
-4-
5.

b) Duality in LPP
6.
a)
(72=14)
SECTION II
Palyer B
12
Player A
7.
8.
9.
b)
a)
b)
a)
Activity
To
Tp
Tm (days)
1 2
17
1 3
10
60
20
1 4
15
10
25
50
110
65
26
30
50
40
36
50
90
55
37
47
40
68
48
58
15
10
68
20
52
27
78
30
50
40

Year
15,000
16,000
18,000
21,000
25,000
29,000
34,000
40,000
35,000
25,000
17,000
12,000
10,000
5,000
4,000
4,000
10
3
b)
a)
b)
7
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
Seat
No.
Set
OPERATIONS RESEARCH

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks :100

Page No. 3.
1.
Marks : 20
Type 1 Questions.
(One mark each)

d) none of these

a) Branches
b) Steps
c) Stages
d) All of above
a) Strategies
b) Opinions
c) Judgements
d) Moves


b) Agriculture
c) LIC
d) All of the above
a) No solution
b) Unique solution
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
-2-

b) Equal to (m + n)

c) from good to bad
2.
a) Analogue model
b) Iconic model
c) Symbolic model
Type 2 Questions.
activity will be
a) One day
b) Four days
c) Two days
d) Twelve days
is
b) Unbound solution
c) No solution
d) b) and c)
a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinity
d) None of these
c) 5
d) 3

0 1 3
5 3 5
a) 0
b) 5

c) Hurwitz and EOL
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK123*
SLR-PK 123
-3-
Seat
No.

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
2.
a)
b)
SECTION I
5
8
Max. Z =15X1 + 10X2

Subject to
360
180
5X2 200
X1, X2 0
4X1 + 6X2
3X1
3.
a)
b)
Workers
Jobs
4.
II
III
IV
26
17
11
13
28
26
38
19
18
15
19
26
24
10
a)
b)
Warehouse
FACTORY
W1
W2
W3
W4
CAPACITY
Factory
Warehouse Demand
F1
13
50
F2
13
11
10
70
F3
14
10
13
30
F4
11
13
50
25
35
105
20
Set R
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
-4-
5.

b) Duality in LPP
6.
a)
(72=14)
SECTION II
Palyer B
12
Player A
7.
8.
9.
b)
a)
b)
a)
Activity
To
Tp
Tm (days)
1 2
17
1 3
10
60
20
1 4
15
10
25
50
110
65
26
30
50
40
36
50
90
55
37
47
40
68
48
58
15
10
68
20
52
27
78
30
50
40

Year
15,000
16,000
18,000
21,000
25,000
29,000
34,000
40,000
35,000
25,000
17,000
12,000
10,000
5,000
4,000
4,000
10
3
b)
a)
b)
7
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
Seat
No.
Set
OPERATIONS RESEARCH

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks :100

Page No. 3.
1.
Marks : 20
Type 1 Questions.
(One mark each)

a) No solution
b) Unique solution
d) None of these

b) Equal to (m + n)

c) from good to bad

a) Analogue model
b) Iconic model
c) Symbolic model

b) Agriculture
c) LIC
d) All of the above


d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
-2-

a) Branches
b) Steps
c) Stages
d) All of above
a) Strategies
2.
b) Opinions
c) Judgements
Type 2 Questions.
d) Moves

0 1 3
5 3 5
a) 0
b) 5
c) 5
d) 3
a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinity
d) None of these

c) Hurwitz and EOL
d) None of these
is
b) Unbound solution
c) No solution
d) b) and c)
activity will be
a) One day
b) Four days
c) Two days
d) Twelve days
______________
Set S
*SLRPK123*
SLR-PK 123
-3-
Seat
No.

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
2.
a)
b)
SECTION I
5
8
Max. Z =15X1 + 10X2

Subject to
360
180
5X2 200
X1, X2 0
4X1 + 6X2
3X1
3.
a)
b)
Workers
Jobs
4.
II
III
IV
26
17
11
13
28
26
38
19
18
15
19
26
24
10
a)
b)
Warehouse
FACTORY
W1
W2
W3
W4
CAPACITY
Factory
Warehouse Demand
F1
13
50
F2
13
11
10
70
F3
14
10
13
30
F4
11
13
50
25
35
105
20
Set S
SLR-PK 123
*SLRPK123*
-4-
5.

b) Duality in LPP
6.
a)
(72=14)
SECTION II
Palyer B
12
Player A
7.
8.
9.
b)
a)
b)
a)
Activity
To
Tp
Tm (days)
1 2
17
1 3
10
60
20
1 4
15
10
25
50
110
65
26
30
50
40
36
50
90
55
37
47
40
68
48
58
15
10
68
20
52
27
78
30
50
40

Year
15,000
16,000
18,000
21,000
25,000
29,000
34,000
40,000
35,000
25,000
17,000
12,000
10,000
5,000
4,000
4,000
10
3
b)
a)
b)
7
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2016
FINITE ELEMENT METHODS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Note : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

3) Figures/Sketches are to drawn with Pencil.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer of the following :

1) A truss element has ___________ at each node.
a) 4 DOFs
b) 2 DOFs
c) 3 DOFs
d) 1 DOFs
2) Plate with hole comes under which of simplification through symmetry

a) Axial symmetry
b) Planner symmetry
c) Cyclic symmetry
d) Repetitive symmetry
3) The term
a) Stress
AE
L
Represents
b) Strain
c) Stiffness
d) All the above
4) The element equation cannot be solved without

a) Boundary conditions
b) Linear static conditions
c) Post processing conditions
d) None of these
5) The material property matrix is represented by
a) [K]
b) [B]
c) [D]
d) [N]
6) Stress analysis of spur gear can be conveniently done using software

a) Pro E
b) Ansys
c) Autocad
d) Catia
7) Finite element analysis deals with
a) Approximate numerical solution
c) Differential equations
b) Boundary value problem

d) All the above
8) If the accuracy of the mesh is improved using a higher order polynomial then it is called
a) h-refinement
b) p-refinement
c) hp-refinement
d) r-refinement
9) If the no. of nodes increases
a) Accuracy decreases
c) Accuracy remains same
b) Accuracy increases
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
-2-
10) Simplex elements the nodes are

a) Located at the corners of elements
c) Located at internal
b) Located at middle of elements

d) None of these
11) In general the finite element analysis to converge, its interpolation function must satisfy
a) Completeness condition
b) Continuity condition
c) Both i and ii
d) None of these
12) Choose the correct interpolation function for a three node complex 1-Dimensional element
a) u = a1 + a2x
b) u = a1 + a2x + a3x2
c) u = a1 + a2x + a3y
d) u = a1 + a2x3
13) Which aspect ratio is usually recommended ?
a) Less than 3
b) 1.5 3
c) 5 and greater
d) None of these
14) After incorporating the boundary conditions the method used by most commercial software
for solving unknowns is
a) Gauss elimination
b) Cholesky decomposition
c) Wave front method
d) None of these
15) An element in which the order of the geometry interpolation function is higher than the
order of the displacement interpolation function is called
a) Superparametric element
b) Subparametric element
c) Isoparametric element
d) None of these
16) Which of the element consumes lesser computation memory ?
a) Simplex element
b) Complex element
c) Complex and multiplex element
d) None of these
17) Multiplex elements are those elements which
a) Have higher order interpolation polynomials
b) Have sides parallel to coordinate system
c) Have sides parallel to coordinate system and use higher order polynomials
d) Have polynomials with only linear and constant terms
18) If L1 is the natural coordinate of node i, then the value of L1 on the element joining nodes
j and k (Triangualr element) is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 0.5
19) The variational method involves the concept of minimization of
a) Kinetic energy
b) Strain energy
c) Potential energy
20) If mesh density increases
a) Accuracy of result increases
c) Accuracy remains usual
d) None of these
b) Accuracy of result decreases

d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK125*
-3-
SLR-PK 125
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Note : 1) Answer any 2 (Two) full questions from each Section. Each question
carries equal marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Find the Global stiffness matrix, nodal displacements Stresses and strains for the given 1D
model.
A1 = 20 mm2
A2 = 10 mm2
E = 2 105 N/mm2
b) Explain with neat sketches the simplification through symmetry.
c) Explain in detail geometrical approximations in discritization of the problem.
3. a) State and explain properties of global stiffness matrix.

b) Integrate the following using local integration.
7
6
i) L Ni N3j dx
ii) A Ni Nj dA
iii) V Ni3 N4j dV
c) Explain with suitable example the procedure involved in Finite Element Analysis.
4. a) Explain [D] matrix and [B] matrix of stiffness matrix.
7
6
b) Explain the variational formulation and discuss the weighted residual method.
c) Explain in detail the two dimensional elasticity.
Set P
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
-4-
SECTION II
5.
a) The stiffness matrices and force vectors for 2-D thermal elements given in the figure.
Assemble the terms to produce the system equation.
Node
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3 )
16
5 2 1
6 3 1
20

= 2 10 2, K (2 ) = 3 12 4 F(1) = F ( 3) = 24 F ( 2) = 10

1 2 6
1 4 6
16
24
[ K ]= [ K ]
6.
(1)
Element
[ ]
{ }{ }
{ }
b) Discuss the elimination method and penalty method used for assembling stiffness
matrices.
c) Explain 1D and 2D numerical integration method with example.
a) Explain the convergence criteria for isoparametric element.
b) Differentiate linear FEA and Non linear FEA.
c) Discuss model validity and accuracy with regards to geometry, material and loading
conditions.
20
a) Mesh design and mesh refinement

b) Geometric and material nonlinearity
c) Buckling analysis
d) Dynamic problems.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Simplex element
b) Complex element
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 0.5
a) Kinetic energy
b) Strain energy
c) Potential energy
d) None of these

d) None of these

a) 4 DOFs
b) 2 DOFs
c) 3 DOFs
d) 1 DOFs

a) Axial symmetry
b) Planner symmetry
c) Cyclic symmetry
8) The term
a) Stress
AE
L
Represents
b) Strain
c) Stiffness
d) All the above

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
-2-

d) None of these
a) [K]
b) [B]
c) [D]
d) [N]
a) Pro E
b) Ansys
c) Autocad
d) Catia

d) All the above
a) h-refinement
b) p-refinement
c) hp-refinement
d) r-refinement
d) None of these


d) None of these
c) Both i and ii
d) None of these
a) u = a1 + a2x
b) u = a1 + a2x + a3x2
c) u = a1 + a2x + a3y
d) u = a1 + a2x3
a) Less than 3
b) 1.5 3
c) 5 and greater
d) None of these
d) None of these
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK125*
-3-
SLR-PK 125
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
model.
A1 = 20 mm2
A2 = 10 mm2
E = 2 105 N/mm2

7
6
i) L Ni N3j dx
ii) A Ni Nj dA
iii) V Ni3 N4j dV
7
6
Set Q
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
-4-
SECTION II
5.
Node
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3 )
16
5 2 1
6 3 1
20

= 2 10 2, K (2 ) = 3 12 4 F(1) = F ( 3) = 24 F ( 2) = 10

1 2 6
1 4 6
16
24
[ K ]= [ K ]
6.
(1)
Element
[ ]
{ }{ }
{ }
matrices.
conditions.
20

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

c) Both i and ii
d) None of these
b) u = a1 + a2x + a3x2
a) u = a1 + a2x
c) u = a1 + a2x + a3y
d) u = a1 + a2x3
a) Less than 3
b) 1.5 3
c) 5 and greater
d) None of these
d) None of these
d) None of these
a) Simplex element
b) Complex element
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
-2-
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 0.5
a) Kinetic energy
b) Strain energy
c) Potential energy
d) None of these

d) None of these

a) 4 DOFs
b) 2 DOFs
c) 3 DOFs
d) 1 DOFs
a) Axial symmetry
b) Planner symmetry
c) Cyclic symmetry
13) The term
AE
a) Stress
Represents
b) Strain
c) Stiffness
d) All the above

d) None of these
a) [K]
b) [B]
c) [D]
d) [N]
a) Pro E
b) Ansys
c) Autocad
d) Catia

d) All the above
a) h-refinement
b) p-refinement
c) hp-refinement
d) r-refinement
d) None of these


d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK125*
-3-
SLR-PK 125
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
model.
A1 = 20 mm2
A2 = 10 mm2
E = 2 105 N/mm2

7
6
i) L Ni N3j dx
ii) A Ni Nj dA
iii) V Ni3 N4j dV
7
6
Set R
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
-4-
SECTION II
5.
Node
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3 )
16
5 2 1
6 3 1
20

= 2 10 2, K (2 ) = 3 12 4 F(1) = F ( 3) = 24 F ( 2) = 10

1 2 6
1 4 6
16
24
[ K ]= [ K ]
6.
(1)
Element
[ ]
{ }{ }
{ }
matrices.
conditions.
20

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Pro E
b) Ansys
c) Autocad
d) Catia

d) All the above
a) h-refinement
b) p-refinement
c) hp-refinement
d) r-refinement
d) None of these


d) None of these
c) Both i and ii
d) None of these
b) u = a1 + a2x + a3x2
a) u = a1 + a2x
c) u = a1 + a2x + a3y
d) u = a1 + a2x3
a) Less than 3
b) 1.5 3
c) 5 and greater
d) None of these
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
-2-
d) None of these
a) Simplex element
b) Complex element
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 0.5
a) Kinetic energy
b) Strain energy
c) Potential energy
d) None of these

d) None of these

a) 4 DOFs
b) 2 DOFs
c) 3 DOFs
d) 1 DOFs
a) Axial symmetry
b) Planner symmetry
c) Cyclic symmetry
18) The term
AE
a) Stress
Represents
b) Strain
c) Stiffness
d) All the above

d) None of these
a) [K]
b) [B]
c) [D]
______________
d) [N]
Set S
*SLRPK125*
-3-
SLR-PK 125
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
model.
A1 = 20 mm2
A2 = 10 mm2
E = 2 105 N/mm2

7
6
i) L Ni N3j dx
ii) A Ni Nj dA
iii) V Ni3 N4j dV
7
6
Set S
SLR-PK 125
*SLRPK125*
-4-
SECTION II
5.
Node
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3 )
16
5 2 1
6 3 1
20

= 2 10 2, K (2 ) = 3 12 4 F(1) = F ( 3) = 24 F ( 2) = 10

1 2 6
1 4 6
16
24
[ K ]= [ K ]
6.
(1)
Element
[ ]
{ }{ }
{ }
matrices.
conditions.
20

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 126
*SLRPK126*
Seat
No.
Set

EXPERIMENTAL STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

1. A) Match the pairs

Column (1)
Marks : 20
(41= 4)
Column (2)
a) Oblique incidence
b) P-Type Strain Gauge
p) Prism
q) Resistance increases with increase
tensile strain
c) N-Type Strain Gauge
r) Resistance decreases with increase

in tensile strain
d) Light field circular polariscope s) Full order fringe

t) Half order fringe
u) Laplace equation
B) Match the appropriate pairs
(41= 4)
Column (1)
Column (2)
a) Brittle Coating
b) Moire Fringes
p) Threshold Strain
q) Grating of dark and light bands
c) 2 Arm sensitive Bridge
r) e0 =
d) 4 Arm sensitive Bridge
s) e 0 = E sK
1
EsK
2
t) Photoelasticity
u) Strain gauge
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 126
*SLRPK126*
-2-
C) Solve Multiple correct answers
(42=8)
1) The resistance of electrical resistance strain gauge is

a) Directly proportional to specific resistance
b) Inversely proportional to cross sectional area
c) Directly proportional to cross sectional area
d) Directly proportional to length
2) Which of the following are types of commercial strain indicators ?
a) Null balance b) Direct reading c) Bending type
3) Fringes seen through analyzer can be
a) Isoclinics
b) Isochromatics c) Moire
d) Torsion type
d) None
4) The approaches of moire fringe analysis are

a) Principal stress
b) Principal strain
c) Displacement field
d) geometric
D) Solve classical objectives :
(41= 4)
1) Gauge factor is defined as ratio of

a) applied strain to resistance change per unit of initial resistance
b) lateral strain to the linear strain
c) resistance change per unit of initial resistance to applied strain
d) stress to youngs modulus
2) A strain gauge transducer using proving ring measures
a) Pressure
b) Temperature c) Torsion
d) Load
3) Light from a source that emits a continuous spectrum with nearly equal
energy for every wavelength is
a) Monochromatic light
c) Both a and b
b) White light
d) None of these
4) Threshold strain refers to following analysis technique

a) Strain gauge
c) Brittle coating
b) Photoelasticity
d) Moire
______________
Set P
*SLRPK126*
-3-
SLR-PK 126
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
2) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention it
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain in brief :
i) Isoclinics
ii) Birefringence
iii) Isochromatics
iv) Polarization of light.
8
stressed model is kept in the dark field circular polariscope.
12
b) A cricular disc made of photo elastic material is used for calibration. The disc
diameter is 80 mm and its thickness is 6 mm. It is subjected to equal and
opposite compressive loads of 250 N along the vertical diameter. The observed
fringe order at the disc center and two other points 8 mm and 15 mm along
the horizontal diameter is 0.42, 0.35 and 0.3 respectively. Calculate the
average value of the maternal fringe constant.
c) Derive an expression for determination of material fringe of tensile specimen. 6

4. a) What is the purpose of electrical analogy method ? Explain the method.
b) Explain the significances of Material Fringe Value.
c) Write short notes on scaling of model results to prototype.
Set P
SLR-PK 126
-4-
*SLRPK126*
SECTION II
5. a) Discuss calibration of Brittle coatings.
10
b) Discuss how strain gauge can be used for simple tension test. Discuss
difficulties or limitations if any.
10
6. a) What are the desired properties of strain gauge grid material ? Discuss backing
and adhesives used.
b) The strain readings as measured by an equiangular rosette at a point in the

stressed body are as follows :
a =500 m/m, b = 380 m/m, and c = 200 m/m, determine the maximum
principal strain direction, the principal stresses, principal strains and the
maximum shear stress. Take E = 210 GPa and =0.286.
12
7. a) Derive the expression for the output voltage of a two arm and four arm sensitive
Wheatstones bridge subjected to compressive and tensile linear strains.
Comment on the output.
10
b) Explain in detail the deflection and null balancing.
10
_______________
Set P
SLR-PK 126
*SLRPK126*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. A) Match the appropriate pairs
(41= 4)
Column (1)
a) Brittle Coating
b) Moire Fringes
Column (2)
p) Threshold Strain
r) e0 =
s) e 0 = E sK
1
EsK
2
t) Photoelasticity
u) Strain gauge
B) Match the pairs
Column (1)
(41= 4)
Column (2)
p) Prism
tensile strain

in tensile strain

u) Laplace equation
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 126
*SLRPK126*
-2-
C) Solve classical objectives :
(41= 4)

a) Pressure
d) Load
b) White light
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) Strain gauge
b) Photoelasticity
c) Brittle coating
d) Moire
D) Solve Multiple correct answers
(42=8)

a) Null balance
b) Direct reading c) Bending type

a) Isoclinics
d) Torsion type
d) None

a) Principal stress
b) Principal strain
d) geometric
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK126*
-3-
SLR-PK 126
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I
i) Isoclinics
ii) Birefringence
iii) Isochromatics
8
12

Set Q
SLR-PK 126
-4-
*SLRPK126*
SECTION II
10
10
and adhesives used.

12
10
10
_______________
Set Q
SLR-PK 126
*SLRPK126*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. A) Solve Multiple correct answers

(42=8)

a) Null balance
b) Direct reading c) Bending type

a) Isoclinics
d) Torsion type
d) None

a) Principal stress
b) Principal strain
d) geometric
B) Solve classical objectives :
(41= 4)

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 126
*SLRPK126*
-2-

a) Pressure
d) Load
b) White light
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) Strain gauge
b) Photoelasticity
c) Brittle coating
d) Moire
C) Match the pairs

Column (1)
(41= 4)
Column (2)
p) Prism

tensile strain
in tensile strain

u) Laplace equation
D) Match the appropriate pairs
(41= 4)
Column (1)
Column (2)
a) Brittle Coating
b) Moire Fringes
p) Threshold Strain
r) e0 =
s) e 0 = E sK
1
E sK
2
t) Photoelasticity
u) Strain gauge
______________
Set R
*SLRPK126*
-3-
SLR-PK 126
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I
i) Isoclinics
ii) Birefringence
iii) Isochromatics
8
12

Set R
SLR-PK 126
-4-
*SLRPK126*
SECTION II
10
10
and adhesives used.

12
10
10
_______________
Set R
SLR-PK 126
*SLRPK126*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. A) Solve classical objectives :

(41= 4)

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Torsion
d) Load
b) White light
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

a) Strain gauge
b) Photoelasticity
c) Brittle coating
d) Moire
B) Solve Multiple correct answers
(42=8)

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 126
*SLRPK126*
-2-

a) Null balance b) Direct reading c) Bending type
a) Isoclinics
d) Torsion type
d) None

a) Principal stress
b) Principal strain
d) geometric
C) Match the appropriate pairs
(41= 4)
Column (1)
Column (2)
a) Brittle Coating
b) Moire Fringes
p) Threshold Strain
r) e0 =
s) e 0 = E sK
1
E sK
2
t) Photoelasticity
u) Strain gauge
D) Match the pairs
Column (1)
(41= 4)
Column (2)
p) Prism

tensile strain
in tensile strain

u) Laplace equation
______________
Set S
*SLRPK126*
-3-
SLR-PK 126
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
clearly.
SECTION I
i) Isoclinics
ii) Birefringence
iii) Isochromatics
8
12

Set S
SLR-PK 126
-4-
*SLRPK126*
SECTION II
10
10
and adhesives used.

12
10
10
_______________
Set S
SLR-PK 127
*SLRPK127*
Seat
No.
Set

Elective I : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data whenever necessary and state it clearly.

4) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.
5) Attempt any 2 questions from Q. 3, Q. 4, Q. 5 and 2 questions from
Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
Marks : 20
1. a) MCQ with more than one answer correct (Marks 2 each) :
(25=10)
1) Operation routing is a
a) Plan for inspection of w/p
b) Part print
c) Tool routing
d) Instruction for making w/p
2) Which of the following are inputs to process planning ?

a) Manufacturing resources
b) Design drawing
c) M/c settings
d) Tool description
3) Elimination of operation can be accomplished by

a) Changing product design
b) Changing basic process
c) Changing tooling
d) Changing the principle process
4) In planning stage of benchmarking following steps are involved

a) Identification of what is to be bench marked
b) Identification of comparative components
c) Determination of current performance gaps
d) Developing the action plan
5) Which of the following departments employ process pictures ?
a) Prod. Dept.
b) Tool Design Dept.
c) Inspection Dept.
d) Cleaning Dept.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 127
-2-
*SLRPK127*
b) MCQ with one answer correct (Mark 1 each) :

1) Match the pair :
(14=4)
4
a) Cleaning
p) Supporting operations
b) Metal cutting
q) Auxiliary operations
c) Casting
r) Secondary operation
d) Packaging
s) Principal process operation

t) Basic process operation
2) Match the pairs :
a) Product engineer
1) Mfg. specification
b) Process engineer
2) Process Picture
3) Match the pair :
a) Investment cost
p) Material and labour costs
b) Operating cost
q) Cost of dies, jigs, fixtures
c) Intangible cost
r) Down time cost
4) Inter changeability is related to
a) Transition fit
b) Interference fit
c) Clearance fit
d) Press fit
______________
Set P
*SLRPK127*
-3-
SLR-PK 127
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Attempt any 2 questions from Q. 3, Q. 4, Q. 5 and 2 questions
from Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
SECTION I
2. Prepare a process plan for manufacturing the components in Fig. 1 w.r.to the data
supplied there in along following lines :
a) Sequence of operations indicating machine selected, holding method, machining
parameters per set up.
b) Gauges and or inspection method and instrument.
c) Tool specification as per ISO or any STD.
20
3. a) Explain duties and responsibilities of process engineer in an organization.
b) What is the procedure followed to carry out feasibility study ?
5
5
4. a) Explain the qualifying and requalifying operation.

b) What are the different reasons for which procurement of equipment becomes
essential in any organization ?
5. Write short notes on (any two) :

a) Work piece control
b) Tolerance charts
c) Selective assembly.
(25=10)
SECTION II
6. Draw process picture sheet for any 4 operations planned for the manufacture of
component in Fig. 1 w.r.to sequence. Use standard notations and symbols for locating,
supporting, holding and material removal.
20
7. a) Discuss the cost factors in machine selection.
b) What are the conditions those must prevail before process engineer so that he/she
can suggest and installation of SPM ?
5
5
Set P
SLR-PK 127
-4-
*SLRPK127*
8. a) What are the different condition which may cause a process engineer to suggest
the selection and installation of SPM ?
b) What are the disadvantages of combining the operation ?
9. Write a note on (any two) :
5
5
(25=10)
a) CAPP
b) APMs and application
c) Machine selection for processing in existing workshop.
Fig. I for Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6

NAME : LEVER HUB
QTY : TOTAL = 10,000
PER DAY = 500
MATERIAL = M.S.
CORNERS ROUNDED TO 4 MM.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 127
*SLRPK127*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
Marks : 20
(25=10)

a) Prod. Dept.
c) Inspection Dept.
d) Cleaning Dept.
b) Part print
c) Tool routing

b) Design drawing
c) M/c settings
d) Tool description

c) Changing tooling

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 127
-2-
*SLRPK127*

(14=4)
1
a) Transition fit
b) Interference fit
c) Clearance fit
d) Press fit
2) Match the pair :
a) Investment cost
b) Operating cost
c) Intangible cost
r) Down time cost
3) Match the pair :
a) Cleaning
b) Metal cutting
c) Casting
d) Packaging


a) Product engineer
b) Process engineer
2
2) Process Picture
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK127*
-3-
SLR-PK 127
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

from Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
SECTION I
20
5
5


b) Tolerance charts
(25=10)
SECTION II
20
5
5
Set Q
SLR-PK 127
-4-
*SLRPK127*
5
5
(25=10)
a) CAPP

NAME : LEVER HUB
PER DAY = 500
MATERIAL = M.S.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 127
*SLRPK127*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
Marks : 20
(25=10)

b) Design drawing
c) M/c settings
d) Tool description

c) Changing tooling

a) Prod. Dept.
c) Inspection Dept.
d) Cleaning Dept.
b) Part print
c) Tool routing

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 127
-2-
*SLRPK127*

1) Match the pair :
(14=4)
3
a) Investment cost
b) Operating cost
c) Intangible cost
r) Down time cost
a) Transition fit
b) Interference fit
c) Clearance fit
d) Press fit
a) Product engineer
b) Process engineer
2) Process Picture
4) Match the pair :
a) Cleaning
b) Metal cutting
c) Casting
d) Packaging

______________
Set R
*SLRPK127*
-3-
SLR-PK 127
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

from Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
SECTION I
20
5
5


b) Tolerance charts
(25=10)
SECTION II
20
5
5
Set R
SLR-PK 127
-4-
*SLRPK127*
5
5
(25=10)
a) CAPP

NAME : LEVER HUB
PER DAY = 500
MATERIAL = M.S.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 127
*SLRPK127*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
Marks : 20
(25=10)

c) Changing tooling

a) Prod. Dept.
c) Inspection Dept.
d) Cleaning Dept.
b) Part print
c) Tool routing

b) Design drawing
c) M/c settings
d) Tool description
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 127
-2-
*SLRPK127*

(14=4)
2
a) Product engineer
b) Process engineer
2) Process Picture
2) Match the pair :
a) Cleaning
b) Metal cutting
c) Casting
d) Packaging

a) Transition fit
b) Interference fit
c) Clearance fit
d) Press fit
4) Match the pair :
a) Investment cost
b) Operating cost
c) Intangible cost
r) Down time cost

______________
Set S
*SLRPK127*
-3-
SLR-PK 127
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

from Q. 7, Q. 8, Q. 9.
SECTION I
20
5
5


b) Tolerance charts
(25=10)
SECTION II
20
5
5
Set S
SLR-PK 127
-4-
*SLRPK127*
5
5
(25=10)
a) CAPP

NAME : LEVER HUB
PER DAY = 500
MATERIAL = M.S.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
S
Set
t
B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2016

AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

1.
Marks : 20
1) Traffic signals used for controlling the traffic across cross roads is a
a) Closed loop control system
c) Open loop control system
(201=20)
b) System
d) None of these
2) Any physical system has got parameters and variables to establish analogy between two systems
we need
a) Analogous variables
b) Analogous parameters
c) Boundary condition
d) Both a) and b)
3) For modelling a fluid system with incompressible fluid ________ flow rate is considered and with
compressible fluid ________ flow rate is considered.
a) Volume, mass
b) Mass, volume
c) Mass, mass
d) Volume, volume
4) For establishing direct analogy mechanical elements in series and electrical elements in ________
are considered.
a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Series as well as parallel
d) None of these
5) The time constant of any system depends on

a) System variables
b) System parameters c) Both a) and b)
d) Type of the system
6) In hydraulic governing system non linearity appears due to the presence of

a) Governer
b) DC valve
c) Lever
d) Hydraulic cylinder
7) For multi input system shown in Figure 1, the output C of the system is obtained by using
Fig. 1
a) Linearization
c) Principle of superposition
b) Division
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-2-
8) The output of system in Fig.1 is

/
a)
/
b)
c)
d)
9) The controller lines in steady state characteristics are vertical for

a) Derivative mode
b) Proportional mode
c) On-off mode
d) Integral mode
10) In steady state characteristics

c
a) Vertical spacing
represents
b) Horizontal spacing c) Controller line slope d) Load line slope
11) Reset action is the feature of

a) P-control
b) D-control
c) I-control
d) On/off control
12) A stable system is represented if its Rouths array

a) Has a row of all zero terms
b) Has two sign charges in the first column
c) Has all positive terms in the first column
d) Has all negative terms in the first column
13) State space method is preferred for

a) Linear systems
c) Open loop systems
b) Non-linear and complex systems

d) Manually controlled systems
14) Derivative Time is given by

b) Kp.Kd
a) Kp/Kd
c) Kd.e
d) Kd/Kp
15) If a system has two zeros at the origin, then the phase angle contribution by them is
a) 180
b) 180
c) 90
d) 90
16) A branch of Root Locus always starts from
a) the origin
b) the zero
c) the pole
d) x-axis
17) In Bode-Plots, phase margin is calculated at

a) Phase cross-over frequency
c) Any frequency
b) Corner frequency
d) Gain cross-over frequency
18) Angles of arrival in Root-Locus if a system has

a) All real zeros
b) Complex conjugate zeros
c) Complex conjugate poles
d) All real poles
19) Angle condition is used to determine

a) The value of K for a point on Root Locus
b) The breakaway points in Root Locus
c) The existence of a point on the Root Locus
d) The centroid of asymptotes of Root Locus
20) Every simple pole contributes which of the following values of slope to magnitude plot ?
a) 20 db/decade
b) 40 db/decade
c) 20 db/decade
______________
d) 40 db/decade
Set P
*SLRPK128*
S
SLR-PK 128
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80

Use of non-programmable calculators is allowed.
Assume any additional data if necessary and state it clearly.
Use university graph papers and semi log papers if needed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain manual and automatic control system in detail.

b) For a mechanical system shown in figure (2b) of find relation between :
i) F and x
ii) F and y
6
7
iii) x and y
Fig. 2b
3. a) Explain hydraulic servometer in detail and obtain its transfer function.
b) For an electrical circuit shown in Figure (3b) determine relation between input voltage V1
and output voltage V2.
7
6
Fig. 3b
Set P
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-4-
5
4. a) Find the transfer function
for system shown in Figure (4a) :

4
5
Fig. 4a
b) A chord length subtended by angle is given by

L
where R is radius of circle.

n
Determine the equation for the variation I in the length due to change r in the radius and
of the angle. For Ri = 10 and i= 60, What is approximate value of L when
change
R = 12 and
=63? Also determine percentage error using this approximation.
5. a) Block diagram for a flow control system is shown in figure (5a). At the reference operating point
Vi = Ci = 100, Mi = 25 and Ui = 50 with V held fixed at reference value (V = Vi = 100). Calculate the
change C in the controlled variable when U changes from its reference value Ui = 50 to 70. What is
new value of C ? Also draw load line at Ui = 50 and controller line at Vi = 100.
8
U
0.1
1.0
+
1
Fig. 5a
b) Explain mechanical system in series and parallel in detail.
Set P
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-5-
SECTION II
6. a) A system has a characteristic equation S6 + 6S5 + 10S4 + 12S3 + 13S2 18S 24 =0.
Check whether it has symmetrically placed roots about the origin.
b) What do you mean by breakaway points in Root Locus ? State the general predictions to
identify the breakaway points on the real axis.
7. a) For a unity feedback system,

S

S

4

S

2
and comment on system stability.
b) Discuss advantages and limitations of P, I and D control actions.

8. a)
For a unity feedback system with
sketch the complete Root Locus

K
G
S
sketch Bode plots

0

1

S

S
b) Explain the Integral Control action with necessary equations. What do you mean by integral
time ?
9. a) Obtain state space representation using series programming and also draw a computer
diagram for a feedback control system with
b) Define following terms in Bode plots :

i) Gain crossover frequency
ii) Phase crossover frequency
iii) Gain margin
iv) Phase margin
v) Corner frequency.
5
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

1.
Marks : 20

a) the origin
b) the zero
(201=20)
c) the pole
d) x-axis

c) Any frequency
b) Corner frequency

a) All real zeros

d) All real poles

a) 20 db/decade
b) 40 db/decade
c) 20 db/decade
d) 40 db/decade
b) System
d) None of these
we need
d) Both a) and b)
a) Volume, mass
b) Mass, volume
c) Mass, mass
d) Volume, volume
are considered.
a) Parallel
b) Series
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-2-

a) System variables
a) Governer
b) DC valve
c) Lever
Fig. 1
a) Linearization
b) Division
d) None of these

/
a)
/
b)

c)
d)
a) Derivative mode
c) On-off mode
d) Integral mode

c
a) Vertical spacing
represents

a) P-control
b) D-control
c) I-control
d) On/off control

a) Linear systems


a) Kp/Kd
b) Kp.Kd
c) Kd.e
d) Kd/Kp
a) 180
b) 180
c) 90
d) 90
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK128*
S
SLR-PK 128
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

i) F and x
ii) F and y
6
7
iii) x and y
Fig. 2b
7
6
Fig. 3b
Set Q
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-4-
5

4
5
Fig. 4a

L

n
change
R = 12 and
8
U
0.1
1.0
+
1
Fig. 5a
Set Q
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-5-
SECTION II

S

S

4

S

2

8. a)

K
G
S
5
sketch Bode plots

1

S

1

S
time ?

iii) Gain margin
iv) Phase margin
5
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

1.
Marks : 20

a) P-control
b) D-control
(201=20)
c) I-control
d) On/off control

a) Linear systems


a) Kp/Kd
b) Kp.Kd
c) Kd.e
d) Kd/Kp
a) 180
b) 180
c) 90
d) 90
a) the origin
b) the zero
c) the pole

b) Corner frequency
c) Any frequency
d) x-axis

a) All real zeros
d) All real poles

a) 20 db/decade
b) 40 db/decade
c) 20 db/decade
d) 40 db/decade
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-2-
b) System
d) None of these
we need
d) Both a) and b)
a) Volume, mass
b) Mass, volume
c) Mass, mass
d) Volume, volume
are considered.
a) Parallel
b) Series
d) None of these
a) System variables
a) Governer
b) DC valve
c) Lever
Fig. 1
a) Linearization
b) Division
d) None of these

/
a)
/
b)
c)
d)
a) Derivative mode
c) On-off mode
d) Integral mode

c
a) Vertical spacing
represents
______________
Set R
*SLRPK128*
S
SLR-PK 128
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

i) F and x
ii) F and y
6
7
iii) x and y
Fig. 2b
7
6
Fig. 3b
Set R
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-4-
5

4
5
Fig. 4a

L

n
change
R = 12 and
8
U
0.1
1.0
+
1
Fig. 5a
Set R
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-5-
SECTION II

S

S

4

S

2

8. a)

K
G
S
5
sketch Bode plots

1

S

1

S
time ?

iii) Gain margin
iv) Phase margin
5
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

1.
Marks : 20

a) Governer
b) DC valve
c) Lever
(201=20)
Fig. 1
a) Linearization
b) Division
d) None of these

/
a)
/
b)
c)
d)

a) Derivative mode
c) On-off mode
d) Integral mode

c
a) Vertical spacing
represents

a) P-control
b) D-control
c) I-control
d) On/off control
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-2-



a) Linear systems


a) Kp/Kd
b) Kp.Kd
c) Kd.e
d) Kd/Kp
a) 180
b) 180
c) 90
d) 90
a) the origin
b) the zero
c) the pole
d) x-axis

c) Any frequency
b) Corner frequency

a) All real zeros
d) All real poles

a) 20 db/decade
b) 40 db/decade
c) 20 db/decade
d) 40 db/decade
b) System
d) None of these
we need
d) Both a) and b)
a) Volume, mass
b) Mass, volume
c) Mass, mass
d) Volume, volume
are considered.
a) Parallel
b) Series
d) None of these

a) System variables
______________
Set S
*SLRPK128*
S
SLR-PK 128
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

i) F and x
ii) F and y
6
7
iii) x and y
Fig. 2b
7
6
Fig. 3b
Set S
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-4-
5

4
5
Fig. 4a

L

n
change
R = 12 and
8
U
0.1
1.0
+
1
Fig. 5a
Set S
SLR-PK 128
*SLRPK128*
-5-
SECTION II

S

S

4

S

2

8. a)

K

S
sketch Bode plots

0

1

S

S
time ?

iii) Gain margin
iv) Phase margin
5
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 129
*SLRPK129*
S
Set
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2016

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1) Choose appropriate answer.

Book Page No. 3.
1.
Marks : 20
Type I questions (One mark each) :

1) In Simples technique, the conversion of solution is from
a) bad to worse
b) worse to bad
c) good to bad
d) best to worst
2) OR is defined as Art of winning war without actually fighting by

a) Mr. T. L. Satty
b) Mr. Ackoff and Arnoff
c) O.R. Society of India
d) Mr. Author Clark
3) The degeneracy in transportation problem occurs if independent allocations made are
a) equal to (m + n 1)
b) less than (m + n + 1)
c) less than (m + n 1)
d) greater than (m + n 1)
4) In a balanced assignment problem always demand and supply units are
a) Zero and One
b) One and One
c) One and Zero
d) Zero and Zero
5) The dynamic programming problem can be divided into a sequence of smaller sub problems
called as
a) Branches
b) Steps
c) Stages
d) All of these
6) Group replacement policy is not suitable for
a) Large number of identical items
c) High cost items
b) Low cost items

d) Items that fail suddenly
7) In a two person zero sum game, if there exists no saddle point, then both the players play with
a) pure strategy
b) infinite strategies
c) mixed strategy
d) none of these
8) Operations research involves
a) Qualitative managerial skills
c) Operational management skills
b) Operational managerial skills

d) Quantitative managerial skills
9) In a project network, the critical path

a) may be the shortest path
c) may be longest path
b) is the longest path

d) is the shortest path
10) Which of the following costs are associated with inventory ?

a) holding cost
b) order cost
c) shortage cost
d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 129
*SLRPK129*
-2-
Type II questions (Two marks each) :

1) In unbalanced transportation problem when supply is more than demand, then
a) dummy destination is added
b) dummy source is added
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
2) When money value is changing with time is 10%, the discount factor for the fourth year is
a) 0.751
b) 0.909
c) 0.683
d) 0.826
"

3) The value of the game whose payoff matrix is
a) 9/5
b) 7/2
is
c) 10/3
d) 5/9
4) For a given level of safety stock and EOQ ordering, Re order level for inventory item
a) depends on the rate of consumption
b) depends on lead time
c) is independent of the rate of consumption
d) both a) and b)
5) In a LPP if all the constraints are having greater or equal sign, then for maximization objective, the
solution is
b) No solution
c) Unbound solution
d) All of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK129*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 129

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
i) Solve any two questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2.
a) Explain in brief the various phases in O.R.
b) Solve the following L.P.P. using simplex method.
12
Max. Z = 3X1 + 2X2 + 5X3
Subjected to the constraints,

X1 + 2X2 + X3
3X1 + 2X3
X1 + 4X2
430
460
420
Where, X1, X2, X3
3.
0.
c) Explain Duality in L.P.P. with suitable example.
a) Explain the Bellmans principle used in dynamic programming.
b) Profits expected in rupees through each machine if assigned to a particular job are tabulated below :
J
10
&
"
&
&
&
"
'
"
&
&
&
&
'
What is the optimum assignment of machines to the jobs ?

c) What is degeneracy in transportation problem ? How it is resolved ?
Set P
SLR-PK 129
4.
*SLRPK129*
-4-
a) Explain the significance of slack, surplus and artificial variables in L.P.P.

b) Determine the minimum transportation cost in rupees by using IBFS by VAM for the following
transportation problem.
D
10
"
&
"
&
"
c) Explain in brief the models in O.R.
5
SECTION II
5.
a) Solve following game using principle of dominance :

P
b) Solve the game by graphical method whose payoff matrix is

&
c) What is inventory ? Describe the inventory carrying costs.

6.
7.
a) Different time estimates of the activities for a certain project are mentioned below. (Time in weeks).
10
Activity
: 1-2
1-6
2-3
2-4
3-5
4-5
6-7
5-8
7-8
Optimistic time
:
3
2
6
2
5
3
3
1
4
Most likely time
:
6
5
12
5
11
6
9
4
19
Pessimistic time
: 15
14
30
8
17
15
27
7
28
I) Draw the project network and determine the expected project duration.
II) Find the variance on critical path.
III) What is the probability of completion of project in expected duration ?
b) The demand of an item in a store is 18000 units per year. The purchase price of the item is Rs. 5 per
unit and its carrying cost is Rs. 1.2 per unit per year and the ordering cost is Rs. 400 per order. The
shortage cost is Rs. 5 per unit per year. Find the EOQ and the corresponding number orders per
year, the maximum inventory, maximum shortage quantity.
6
c) Differentiate between PERT and CPM.
a) Write down the steps in decision making process. Explain regret or opportunity loss.
b) A machine owner finds from his past records that the costs per year of maintaining a machine whose
purchase price is Rs. 6,100 and its scrap value is 100 are as given below.
Y
"
"
'
&
Determine at what year is a replacement due.

(1) Project (2) Saddle point (3) EVC (4) Money value (5) Pure strategy (6) Economic order quantity.
_____________________
7
6
Set P
SLR-PK 129
*SLRPK129*
S
Set

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Book Page No. 3.
1.
Marks : 20

c) High cost items
b) Low cost items

a) pure strategy
c) mixed strategy
d) none of these




a) holding cost
b) order cost
c) shortage cost
d) all of these

a) bad to worse
b) worse to bad
c) good to bad
d) best to worst

a) Mr. T. L. Satty
d) Mr. Author Clark
a) Zero and One
b) One and One
c) One and Zero
d) Zero and Zero
called as
a) Branches
b) Steps
c) Stages
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 129
*SLRPK129*
-2-

a) 0.751
b) 0.909
c) 0.683
d) 0.826
"

a) 9/5
b) 7/2
is
c) 10/3
d) 5/9
d) both a) and b)
solution is
b) No solution
c) Unbound solution
d) All of these
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK129*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 129

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
12
Max. Z = 3X1 + 2X2 + 5X3

X1 + 2X2 + X3
3X1 + 2X3
X1 + 4X2
430
460
420
Where, X1, X2, X3
3.
0.
J
10
&
"
&
&
&
"
'
"
&
&
&
&
'

Set Q
SLR-PK 129
4.
*SLRPK129*
-4-

D
10
"
&
"
&
"
5
SECTION II
5.

P

&

6.
7.
10
Activity
: 1-2
1-6
2-3
2-4
3-5
4-5
6-7
5-8
7-8
Optimistic time
:
3
2
6
2
5
3
3
1
4
Most likely time
:
6
5
12
5
11
6
9
4
19
Pessimistic time
: 15
14
30
8
17
15
27
7
28
6
Y
"
"
'
&

_____________________
7
6
Set Q
SLR-PK 129
*SLRPK129*
S
Set

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Book Page No. 3.
1.
Marks : 20





a) holding cost
b) order cost
c) shortage cost
d) all of these

a) bad to worse
b) worse to bad
c) good to bad
d) best to worst

a) Mr. T. L. Satty
d) Mr. Author Clark
a) Zero and One
b) One and One
c) One and Zero
d) Zero and Zero
called as
a) Branches
b) Steps
c) Stages
d) All of these
c) High cost items
b) Low cost items

a) pure strategy
c) mixed strategy
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 129
*SLRPK129*
-2-

"

a) 9/5
b) 7/2
is
c) 10/3
d) 5/9
d) both a) and b)
solution is
b) No solution
c) Unbound solution
d) All of these
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
a) 0.751
b) 0.909
c) 0.683
d) 0.826
______________
Set R
*SLRPK129*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 129

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
12
Max. Z = 3X1 + 2X2 + 5X3

X1 + 2X2 + X3
3X1 + 2X3
X1 + 4X2
430
460
420
Where, X1, X2, X3
3.
0.
J
10
&
"
&
&
&
"
'
"
&
&
&
&
'

Set R
SLR-PK 129
4.
*SLRPK129*
-4-

D
10
"
&
"
&
"
5
SECTION II
5.

P

&

6.
7.
10
Activity
: 1-2
1-6
2-3
2-4
3-5
4-5
6-7
5-8
7-8
Optimistic time
:
3
2
6
2
5
3
3
1
4
Most likely time
:
6
5
12
5
11
6
9
4
19
Pessimistic time
: 15
14
30
8
17
15
27
7
28
6
Y
"
"
'
&

_____________________
7
6
Set R
SLR-PK 129
*SLRPK129*
S
Set

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Book Page No. 3.
1.
Marks : 20

a) holding cost
b) order cost
c) shortage cost
d) all of these

a) bad to worse
b) worse to bad
c) good to bad
d) best to worst

a) Mr. T. L. Satty
d) Mr. Author Clark
a) Zero and One
b) One and One
c) One and Zero
d) Zero and Zero
called as
a) Branches
b) Steps
c) Stages
d) All of these
c) High cost items
b) Low cost items

a) pure strategy
c) mixed strategy
d) none of these

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 129
*SLRPK129*
-2-

d) both a) and b)
solution is
b) No solution
c) Unbound solution
d) All of these
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
a) 0.751
b) 0.909
c) 0.683
d) 0.826
"

a) 9/5
b) 7/2
is
c) 10/3
d) 5/9
______________
Set S
*SLRPK129*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 129

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
12
Max. Z = 3X1 + 2X2 + 5X3

X1 + 2X2 + X3
3X1 + 2X3
X1 + 4X2
430
460
420
Where, X1, X2, X3
3.
0.
J
10
&
"
&
&
&
"
'
"
&
&
&
&
'

Set S
SLR-PK 129
4.
*SLRPK129*
-4-

D
10
"
&
"
&
"
5
SECTION II
5.

P

&

6.
7.
10
Activity
: 1-2
1-6
2-3
2-4
3-5
4-5
6-7
5-8
7-8
Optimistic time
:
3
2
6
2
5
3
3
1
4
Most likely time
:
6
5
12
5
11
6
9
4
19
Pessimistic time
: 15
14
30
8
17
15
27
7
28
6
Y
"
"
'
&

_____________________
7
6
Set S
SLR-PK 130
*SLRPK130*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2016

REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
i) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer

iii) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
v) Use of steam tables, Psychrometry chart and non-programmable
calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) When water for cooling is used in two stage compression, it

a) Reduces the work done in H.P. compressor
b) Reduces the volume handled by H.P. compressor
c) Requires smaller stroke in H.P. compressor
d) All of the above
2) The refrigerant used in vapour absorption system is
a) Ammonia
b) Water
c) R-12
d) Aqua-ammonia
3) A Boot Strap air cooling system comprises

a) Two heat exchangers
c) Three heat exchangers
b) One heat exchangers

d) It works without heat exchanger
4) Electrolux refrigerator is called a

a) Single fluid absorption system
c) Three fluid absorption system
b) Two fluid absorption system

5) In Lithium-bromide absorption system

a) Lithium bromide is used as refrigerator and water as absorbent
b) Water is used as refrigerant and Lithium bromide as absorbent
c) Ammonia is used as refrigerant and Lithium bromide as absorbent
6) In aqua-ammonia and Li-Br-water absorption refrigeration systems, the refrigerants used are
a) Water and water
b) Water and Li-Br
d) NH3 and water
c) NH3 and Li-Br
7) The refrigerant R-714 stands for
b) SO2
a) CO2
c) NH3
d) Methyl chloride
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 130
*SLRPK130*
-2-
8) Low boiling point refrigerant is suited for

a) Axial flow compressor
c) Centrifugal compressor
b) Reciprocating compressor
d) Screw type compressor
9) The purpose of flash chamber in refrigeration system is

a) To reduce the size of evaporator
b) To reduce pressure losses in evaporator
c) To improve overall heat transfer coefficient
d) All of the above
10) A multipressure system uses
a) Different refrigerants for different stages
b) Different refrigerants with different compressors
c) Single refrigerant with number of compressors same as number of stages
11) During sensible heating, the DBT of moist air
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
12) The R.H. during heating and humidification may

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) May increase or decrease
13) Bypass factor of a heating coil decreases with
a) Increase in fin spacing and increase in rows
b) Increase in fin spacing and decrease in rows
c) Decrease in fin spacing and increase in rows
d) Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in rows
14) Static regain method of duct designing ducts as compared to equal friction method
a) Reduces the cost of sheet metal for duct
b) Increases the cost of sheet metal for duct
c) Increases balancing problem
d) Increasing the problem of maintaining pressure at the supply terminals
15) The COP of a Cascade system is
a) Lower than low temperature system of cascade
b) Lower than high temperature system of cascade
c) Lower than low temperature as well as high temperature system
d) None of these
16) The human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the body is equal to
a) Heat dissipated to the surrounding
b) Heat stored in the body
c) Sum of a) and b)
d) Differentiate between a) and b)
17) The temperature at which, the vapour starts condensing out of air is known as
a) DPT
b) WBT
c) DBT
18) The sling-psychrometer measures
a) DBT
b) WBT
c) DPT
d) DBT and WBT
19) The condensation of moisture from the air starts when its temperature falls below
a) WBT
b) DBT
c) DPT
d) Any of the above
20) The ET depends upon
a) DBT
c) DBT and WBT
b) WBT
d) DBT, WBT and air velocity
______________
Set P
*SLRPK130*
-3-
SLR-PK 130
Seat
No.

Max. Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : i) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
ii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iii) Use of steam tables, Psychrometry chart and non-programmable
SECTION I
2. a) An air refrigeration used for food storage provides 25 TR. The temperature of air entering
the compressor is 7C and the temperature at exit of cooler is 27C. Find
1) C.O.P. of the cycle;
2) Power per tonne of refrigeration required by the compressor.
The quantity of air circulated in the system is 3000 kg/h. The compression and expansion
both follows the law PV1.3 = constant and take = 1.4; and Cp = 1 kJ/kg K for air.
b) Describe the simple aqua-ammonia vapour absorption system with the help of a neat
diagram.
c) Classify secondary refrigerants. Explain any one in detail.
3. a) Explain with schematic diagram the compound compression with flash intercooling with single
expansion valve along the flow line to evaporator. Show the process on p-h diagram.
b) Describe with neat sketch a Regenerative air refrigeration system.
c) Discuss the advantages of vapour absorption refrigeration system over vapour compression
refrigeration system.
6
(54=20)
a) Alternative refrigerants
b) Actual vapour compression cycle
c) Effect on Ozone Depletion
d) Electrolux refrigerator.
Set P
SLR-PK 130
-4-
*SLRPK130*
SECTION II
5. a) Moist air at 32C DBT and 50% RH enters a cooling coil at 10,000 m3/hr. It is desired to that
the air leaving the coil has a DBT of 20C and WBT of 18C determine the following :
i) Mean effective surface temperature of the coil
ii) BPF of the coil
iii) Sensible heat factor of the coil
iv) Total heat rejected per kg of air
v) Mass of water vapour condensed.
b) Define the following terms :

i) Relative humidity
ii) Degree of saturation
iii) WBT.
c) With the help of schematic diagram explain working of air washer. Show the range of
Psychrometric process with air washer on Psychrometric chart.
6. a) Given for the air conditioning of a room :

Indoor conditions : 26C DBT and 19C
Outside conditions : 35C DBT land 27C WBT
Room sensible heat gain = 11.1 kW
Room latent heat gain = 3.9 kW
The conditioned air supplied to the room is 50 cm and 25% fresh air and 75% recirculated
air determine :
i) The DBT and WBT of supply air.
ii) The DBT and WBT of mixed air before entering the cooling coil.
iii) The Apparatus Dew Point (ADP) and bypass factor of the coil.
iv) The refrigeration load on the cooling coil.
b) Describe the various components of cooling load estimation.
7. a) Explain with the help of neat diagram the simple Linde system for liquefaction of air.
12
8
8
b) Explain the different methods of duct design.
c) What do you understand by effective temperature ? Explain the factors affecting it.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 130
*SLRPK130*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
c) Sum of a) and b)
a) DPT
b) WBT
c) DBT
a) DBT
b) WBT
c) DPT
d) DBT and WBT
a) WBT
b) DBT
c) DPT
d) Any of the above
a) DBT
c) DBT and WBT
b) WBT

d) All of the above
a) Ammonia
b) Water
c) R-12
d) Aqua-ammonia

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 130
*SLRPK130*
-2-


a) Water and water
b) Water and Li-Br
d) NH3 and water
c) NH3 and Li-Br
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) NH3

d) Methyl chloride

d) All of the above
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK130*
-3-
SLR-PK 130
Seat
No.

Max. Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
diagram.
6
(54=20)
Set Q
SLR-PK 130
-4-
*SLRPK130*
SECTION II
ii) BPF of the coil

iii) WBT.

air determine :
12
8
8
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 130
*SLRPK130*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
(120=20)

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) None of these
c) Sum of a) and b)
a) DPT
b) WBT
c) DBT
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 130
*SLRPK130*
-2-

a) DBT
b) WBT
c) DPT
d) DBT and WBT
a) WBT
b) DBT
c) DPT
d) Any of the above
a) DBT
c) DBT and WBT
b) WBT

d) All of the above
a) Ammonia
b) Water
c) R-12
d) Aqua-ammonia





a) Water and water
b) Water and Li-Br
c) NH3 and Li-Br
d) NH3 and water
b) SO2
a) CO2
c) NH3

d) Methyl chloride

d) All of the above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK130*
-3-
SLR-PK 130
Seat
No.

Max. Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
diagram.
6
(54=20)
Set R
SLR-PK 130
-4-
*SLRPK130*
SECTION II
ii) BPF of the coil

iii) WBT.

air determine :
12
8
8
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 130
*SLRPK130*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
a) Water and water
b) Water and Li-Br
d) NH3 and water
c) NH3 and Li-Br
b) SO2
a) CO2
c) NH3

d) Methyl chloride

d) All of the above
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 130
*SLRPK130*
-2-

d) None of these
c) Sum of a) and b)
a) DPT
b) WBT
c) DBT
a) DBT
b) WBT
c) DPT
d) DBT and WBT
a) WBT
b) DBT
c) DPT
d) Any of the above
a) DBT
c) DBT and WBT
b) WBT

d) All of the above
a) Ammonia
b) Water
c) R-12
d) Aqua-ammonia





______________
Set S
*SLRPK130*
-3-
SLR-PK 130
Seat
No.

Max. Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
diagram.
6
(54=20)
Set S
SLR-PK 130
-4-
*SLRPK130*
SECTION II
ii) BPF of the coil

iii) WBT.

air determine :
12
8
8
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 131
*SLRPK131*
S
Set
t
B.E. (Mech.) Part I (New) Examination, 2016

Professional Elective 3
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
carries one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) __________ method is used to NVH analysis.
a) FDM
b) FVM
c) BEM
d) None of these
2) FDM gives _________ solution.
a) Piecewise
b) Pointwise
c) Both a) and b) d) Continuous
3) In __________ method residue is made zero at n points.
a) Galerkin
b) Least square c) Sub domain
d) Collocation
4) In variational approach to get element formulation we requires
a) Function
b) Functional
c) Integral value d) None of these
5) Order of interpolation function is ____________ the order of shape function.
a) same as
b) greater than c) less than
d) none of these
6) For beam element __________ type of DOF are present at the nodes.
a) Translation
b) Rotational
c) Translational and rotational
d) None of these
7) For constant strain triangular element shape function are ________ over the
element.
a) Linear
b) Quadratic
c) Cubic
d) Parabolic
8) For linear quadrilateral element interpolation function is
b) T = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4z
a) T = a1 + a2x + a3x2
d) None of these
c) T = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4xy
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 131
-2-
*SLRPK131*
9) Polynomials are preferred as interpolation function because

a) They are easy to mathematically manipulate
b) Accuracy of solution can be improved by adding higher order terms
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
10) A plane truss member is one dimensional in
a) Local Co-ordinate System
b) Global Co-ordinate System
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
11) For linear three dimensional element for elasticity problem size of element
stiffness matrix is
a) 8 8
b) 16 16
c) 4 4
d) 12 12
12) To evaluate shape function of three dimensional element _________ is needed.
a) area
b) surface area c) density
d) volume
13) For two dimensional problem __________ number of natural co-ordinates
are needed.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
14) For element shown in figure below, A1 = 20, A2 = 30, A3 = 40 the natural
co-ordinate L1 is
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
a) 0.33
b) 0.22
c) 0.44
d) 1
Improving the accuracy of solution by increasing number of elements is
a) p-h refinement b) h-refinement c) p-refinement d) none of these
Meshing is ________ phase activity.
a) Preprocessing b) Solution
c) Postprocessing d) Solver
Modal analysis is
a) Steady state problem
b) Case of shock-spectrum analysis
c) Eigen value problem
d) Case of buckling analysis
Type of loading for harmonic analysis is
a) Linear
b) Static
c) Sinusoidal
d) All of these
Transient thermal analysis is easy to solve than elasticity transient problem
because
a) Temperature is DOF
b) Temperature is scalar quantity
c) Boundary conditions are simple d) None of these
Which of the following is CAE software ?
a) Ansys
b) CATIA
c) Hypermesh
d) Auto CAD
______________
Set P
*SLRPK131*
S
SLR-PK 131
-3-

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain general FEM procedure in detail.
b) Differentiate FEM and FDM in detail.
c) Consider the following boundary value problem
with u(0) = 0 and

@
at x = 1. Solve this equation by
Galerkin method and also find u(0.5). Take quadratic approximation for u.
3. a) Write a short note on collocation method.
b) For two dimensional constant strain triangular element, derive the equation
for its shape function.
c) Find the shape functions of element shown in figure (3-c)
Figure3(c)
The co-ordinates of the nodes are, 2(3, 3), 5(2, 1) and 6(4, 1)
8
Set P
SLR-PK 131
-4-
*SLRPK131*
4. a) Consider the bar element shown in figure (4-a) determine the nodal
displacements, stresses in each section and reaction forces. For Section (1) 7
A1 = 2400 mm2, L1 = 300 mm, E1 = 70 109 N/m2.
For Section (2)
A2 = 600 mm2, L2 = 400 mm, E2 = 200 109 N/m2.
The applied force F is 20 kN.
Figure(4-a)
b) A two member truss is shown in figure (4-b). The cross section area of each
member is 200 mm2 and modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. Determine
deflections, stresses and reactions in each member.
Figure(4-b)
c) Write a short note on beam element.
Set P
*SLRPK131*
-5-
SLR-PK 131
SECTION II
5. a) Derive the equation of shape functions for tetrahedral element.
b) Derive an element equation for tetrahedral element with different loading

condition.
c) For triangular element shown in figure (5-c) find out displacement of point p.
The co-ordinates of node 1, 2 and 3 are (10, 10), (70, 35) and (25, 75)
respectively.
The displacement vector is

{0.01, 0.04, 0.03, 0.02, 0.02, 0.05}T.
The co-ordinates of point p are (40, 40).
Figure(5-c)
6. a) Explain isoparametric triangular element in detail. Derive its shape functions
and write the procedure of shape function transformation from natural
co-ordinate system to global co-ordinate system.
b) Write a short note on mesh refinement.
c) Explain element distortion in detail.
7. a) Write a short note on modal analysis.
b) Explain material non-linearity in detail.
c) Explain model validity in detail.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 131
*SLRPK131*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
carries one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) Meshing is ________ phase activity.
2) Modal analysis is
3) Type of loading for harmonic analysis is
a) Linear
b) Static
c) Sinusoidal
d) All of these
4) Transient thermal analysis is easy to solve than elasticity transient problem
because
5) Which of the following is CAE software ?
a) Ansys
b) CATIA
c) Hypermesh
d) Auto CAD
a) FDM
b) FVM
c) BEM
d) None of these
a) Piecewise
b) Pointwise
a) Galerkin
d) Collocation
a) Function
b) Functional
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 131
-2-
*SLRPK131*

a) same as
d) none of these
a) Translation
b) Rotational
d) None of these
element.
a) Linear
b) Quadratic
c) Cubic
d) Parabolic
b) T = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4z
a) T = a1 + a2x + a3x2
d) None of these
c) T = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4xy
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
stiffness matrix is
a) 8 8
b) 16 16
c) 4 4
d) 12 12
a) area
d) volume
are needed.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
co-ordinate L1 is
a) 0.33
b) 0.22
c) 0.44
d) 1
20) Improving the accuracy of solution by increasing number of elements is
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK131*
S
SLR-PK 131
-3-

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
with u(0) = 0 and

@
Figure3(c)
8
Set Q
SLR-PK 131
-4-
*SLRPK131*
A1 = 2400 mm2, L1 = 300 mm, E1 = 70 109 N/m2.
For Section (2)
A2 = 600 mm2, L2 = 400 mm, E2 = 200 109 N/m2.
Figure(4-a)
Figure(4-b)
Set Q
*SLRPK131*
-5-
SLR-PK 131
SECTION II

condition.
respectively.

{0.01, 0.04, 0.03, 0.02, 0.02, 0.05}T.
Figure(5-c)
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 131
*SLRPK131*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
carries one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
stiffness matrix is
a) 8 8
b) 16 16
c) 4 4
d) 12 12
a) area
d) volume
are needed.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
co-ordinate L1 is
a) 0.33
b) 0.22
c) 0.44
d) 1
5) Improving the accuracy of solution by increasing number of elements is
6) Meshing is ________ phase activity.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 131
-2-
*SLRPK131*
7) Modal analysis is
8) Type of loading for harmonic analysis is
a) Linear
b) Static
c) Sinusoidal
d) All of these
9) Transient thermal analysis is easy to solve than elasticity transient problem
because
10) Which of the following is CAE software ?
a) Ansys
b) CATIA
c) Hypermesh
d) Auto CAD
a) FDM
b) FVM
c) BEM
d) None of these
a) Piecewise
b) Pointwise
a) Galerkin
d) Collocation
a) Function
b) Functional
a) same as
d) none of these
a) Translation
b) Rotational
d) None of these
element.
a) Linear
b) Quadratic
c) Cubic
d) Parabolic
b) T = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4z
a) T = a1 + a2x + a3x2
d) None of these
c) T = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4xy
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK131*
S
SLR-PK 131
-3-

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
with u(0) = 0 and

@
Figure3(c)
8
Set R
SLR-PK 131
-4-
*SLRPK131*
A1 = 2400 mm2, L1 = 300 mm, E1 = 70 109 N/m2.
For Section (2)
A2 = 600 mm2, L2 = 400 mm, E2 = 200 109 N/m2.
Figure(4-a)
Figure(4-b)
Set R
*SLRPK131*
-5-
SLR-PK 131
SECTION II

condition.
respectively.

{0.01, 0.04, 0.03, 0.02, 0.02, 0.05}T.
Figure(5-c)
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 131
*SLRPK131*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
carries one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Translation
b) Rotational
d) None of these
element.
a) Linear
b) Quadratic
c) Cubic
d) Parabolic
b) T = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4z
a) T = a1 + a2x + a3x2
d) None of these
c) T = a1 + a2x + a3y + a4xy
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
stiffness matrix is
a) 8 8
b) 16 16
c) 4 4
d) 12 12
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 131
-2-
*SLRPK131*

a) area
d) volume
are needed.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
co-ordinate L1 is
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
a) 0.33
b) 0.22
c) 0.44
d) 1
Improving the accuracy of solution by increasing number of elements is
Meshing is ________ phase activity.
Modal analysis is
Type of loading for harmonic analysis is
a) Linear
b) Static
c) Sinusoidal
d) All of these
Transient thermal analysis is easy to solve than elasticity transient problem
because
Which of the following is CAE software ?
a) Ansys
b) CATIA
c) Hypermesh
d) Auto CAD
__________ method is used to NVH analysis.
a) FDM
b) FVM
c) BEM
d) None of these
FDM gives _________ solution.
a) Piecewise
b) Pointwise
In __________ method residue is made zero at n points.
a) Galerkin
d) Collocation
In variational approach to get element formulation we requires
a) Function
b) Functional
Order of interpolation function is ____________ the order of shape function.
a) same as
d) none of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK131*
S
SLR-PK 131
-3-

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
with u(0) = 0 and

@
Figure3(c)
8
Set S
SLR-PK 131
-4-
*SLRPK131*
A1 = 2400 mm2, L1 = 300 mm, E1 = 70 109 N/m2.
For Section (2)
A2 = 600 mm2, L2 = 400 mm, E2 = 200 109 N/m2.
Figure(4-a)
Figure(4-b)
Set S
*SLRPK131*
-5-
SLR-PK 131
SECTION II

condition.
respectively.

{0.01, 0.04, 0.03, 0.02, 0.02, 0.05}T.
Figure(5-c)
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 132
*SLRPK132*
Seat
No.
Set
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Professional Elective 3)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) Air resistance expressed as
a) Kr.W
b) W/G
(120=20)
c) Ka.A.V2
d) None of these
2) The function of charging system is to generate, regulate and supply _________ energy
for charging battery.
a) Electrical
b) Mechanical
c) Chemical
d) None of these
3) Type of reflector used in automobile head lamp is
a) Spherical
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) None of these
4) The cooling system of automobile engine is most simple when the engine is placed at the
a) front
b) centre
c) rear on the left
d) rear on the right
5) Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce
a) torsional vibrations
b) vehicle speed
c) jerky starts
6) Clutch facings are usually attached to the plate by
a) steel rivets
b) brass rivets
c) aluminium screws d) steel screws
7) By using synchronizing device, the two involved adjacent gears have their speeds
a) increased
b) reduced
c) equalized
d) unequalized
8) The component of the torque converter that redirects the flow of oil to impeller is
a) turbine
b) impeller
c) stator
d) freewheel
9) The smaller gears inside the differential casing are
a) pinion gears
b) sun gears
c) side gears
10) The type of rear axle used on trucks is
a) semi-floating
c) three-quarter floating
d) ring gears
b) fully-floating
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 132
*SLRPK132*
-2-
11) Shock absorber in an automobile is used to

a) absorb the energy
b) dissipate the energy
c) release the energy
d) increase the energy
12) The included angle is the sum of the
a) camber and castor
c) camber and S.A.I
b) castor and S.A.1.

d) camber and toe-in
13) Another name for the steering link rod is

a) track rod
b) tie rod
c) drag link
14) Component of the wheel cylinder which seals the brake fluid is
a) piston
b) spring
c) dust cover
d) pitman
d) cup
15) Intake port in the master cylinder allows brake fluid to flow
a) into the reservoir
b) through the fluid check valve
c) around the recessed section of piston d) all of the above
16) The example of a hatchback is
a) Maruti 800
c) Ambassador Nova
b) Swift Dzire
d) Honda City
17) The most effective section against bending is

a) rectangular bar
b) round bar
c) round hollow tube
d) square hollow section
18) The charging voltage at the start of the engine is ________ than when the engine is
running on load.
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same
d) All of the above
19) The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
a) Manometer
b) A mechanical gauge
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
20) In a tractor the springs provided for the rear wheels are
a) Helical springs
b) Leaf springs
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) No springs are provided
______________
Set P
*SLRPK132*
-3-
SLR-PK 132
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Figure in right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain in detail the front engine front wheel drive arrangement with a neat sketch and
write its advantages and disadvantages.
b) Discuss various requirements of clutch and explain single plate clutch with a neat sketch.
c) Write short notes on safety devices used in automobiles.
3. a) Explain with neat sketch the working of synchromesh gear box.
b) Explain the necessity of a differential in automobiles. Also explain its working with a neat
sketch.
c) Write short notes on any one :
i) Torque converter
ii) Types of wheels.
8
4
4. a) The coefficient of rolling resistance for a truck weighing 62293.5 N is 0.018 and the
coefficient of air resistance is 0.0276 in the formula R = kW + KaAV2, where A is m2
frontal area and V is the speed in km/hr. The transmission efficiency in top gear of 6.2:1 is
90% and that in the second gear of 15:1 is 80%. The frontal area is 5.574 m2. If the truck
has to have a maximum speed of 88 km/hr in top gear calculate,
i) The engine brake power required.
ii) The engine speed if the driving wheels have an effective diameter of 0.8125 m.
iii) The maximum grade the truck can negotiate at above engine speed in second gear
and
iv) The maximum drawbar pull available on level at the above engine speed in second
gear.
12
b) Write short notes on any one :

i) Electric fuel gauge.
ii) Electric horn.
c) Define tractive effort, traction, gradiability and drawbar pull.
Set P
SLR-PK 132
-4-
*SLRPK132*
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the different steering mechanisms in detail with neat sketches.
b) Explain with a neat figure steering system layout and explain its working and function of
different components.
i) Wheel alignment.
ii) Under steering and over steering.
8
4
6. a) A motor car has a wheel base of 2.64 m the height of its C.G. above the ground is 0.61 m
and it is 1.2 m in front of the rear axle. If the car is travelling at 40 km/hr on a level track,
considering coefficient of friction between tyre and road as 0.6, determine the minimum
distance in which the car may be stopped, when
i) The rear wheels are braked.
ii) The front wheels are braked.
iii) All wheels are braked.
10
b) Explain about air brakes system with a neat diagram and explain types of air springs
used.
c) Write a short note on any one :

i) Antilock braking system.
ii) Dynamic weight transfer.
7. a) Explain Hotch-kiss and Torque tube drive with neat sketches.
b) What is the function of shock absorber in automobiles ? Explain the telescopic shock
absorber with neat sketch.
c) Explain the construction and working of fuel cell and enlist its types.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 132
*SLRPK132*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Maruti 800
c) Ambassador Nova
(120=20)
b) Swift Dzire
d) Honda City

a) rectangular bar
b) round bar
running on load.
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same
d) All of the above
a) Manometer
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
a) Helical springs
b) Leaf springs
a) Kr.W
b) W/G
c) Ka.A.V2
d) None of these
a) Electrical
b) Mechanical
c) Chemical
d) None of these
a) Spherical
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 132
*SLRPK132*
-2-
a) front
b) centre
c) rear on the left
b) vehicle speed
c) jerky starts
a) steel rivets
b) brass rivets
a) increased
b) reduced
c) equalized
d) unequalized
a) turbine
b) impeller
c) stator
d) freewheel
a) pinion gears
b) sun gears
c) side gears
a) semi-floating
d) ring gears
b) fully-floating
d) none of these

c) camber and S.A.I


a) track rod
b) tie rod
c) drag link
a) piston
b) spring
c) dust cover
d) pitman
d) cup
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK132*
-3-
SLR-PK 132
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
sketch.
i) Torque converter
8
4
and
gear.
12

ii) Electric horn.
Set Q
SLR-PK 132
-4-
*SLRPK132*
SECTION II
i) Wheel alignment.
8
4
10
used.

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 132
*SLRPK132*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)

c) camber and S.A.I


a) track rod
b) tie rod
c) drag link

a) piston
b) spring
c) dust cover
d) pitman
d) cup

a) Maruti 800
c) Ambassador Nova
b) Swift Dzire
d) Honda City

a) rectangular bar
b) round bar
running on load.
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 132
*SLRPK132*
-2-

a) Manometer
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
a) Helical springs
b) Leaf springs
a) Kr.W
b) W/G
c) Ka.A.V2
d) None of these
a) Electrical
b) Mechanical
c) Chemical
d) None of these
a) Spherical
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) None of these
a) front
b) centre
c) rear on the left
b) vehicle speed
c) jerky starts
a) steel rivets
b) brass rivets
a) increased
b) reduced
c) equalized
d) unequalized
a) turbine
b) impeller
c) stator
d) freewheel
a) pinion gears
b) sun gears
c) side gears
d) ring gears

a) semi-floating
b) fully-floating
d) none of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK132*
-3-
SLR-PK 132
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
sketch.
i) Torque converter
8
4
and
gear.
12

ii) Electric horn.
Set R
SLR-PK 132
-4-
*SLRPK132*
SECTION II
i) Wheel alignment.
8
4
10
used.

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 132
*SLRPK132*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)

a) steel rivets
b) brass rivets
a) increased
b) reduced
c) equalized
d) unequalized
a) turbine
b) impeller
c) stator
d) freewheel
a) pinion gears
b) sun gears
c) side gears
a) semi-floating
d) ring gears
b) fully-floating
d) none of these

c) camber and S.A.I


a) track rod
b) tie rod
c) drag link

a) piston
b) spring
c) dust cover
d) pitman
d) cup
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 132
*SLRPK132*
-2-
a) Maruti 800
c) Ambassador Nova
b) Swift Dzire
d) Honda City

a) rectangular bar
b) round bar
running on load.
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same
d) All of the above
a) Manometer
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
a) Helical springs
b) Leaf springs
a) Kr.W
b) W/G
c) Ka.A.V2
d) None of these
a) Electrical
b) Mechanical
c) Chemical
d) None of these
a) Spherical
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) None of these
a) front
b) centre
c) rear on the left
b) vehicle speed
c) jerky starts
______________
Set S
*SLRPK132*
-3-
SLR-PK 132
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
sketch.
i) Torque converter
8
4
and
gear.
12

ii) Electric horn.
Set S
SLR-PK 132
-4-
*SLRPK132*
SECTION II
i) Wheel alignment.
8
4
10
used.

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 133
*SLRPK133*
Seat
No.
Set

Professional Elective III : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

3) Assume suitable data whenever necessary and state it
clearly.
4) Q.No. 2 and Q.No. 6 are compulsory.
5) Attempt any 2 questions from Q. 3, Q. 4, Q.5 and 2 questions
from Q.7, Q.8, Q.9.
Type -I : MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) :
Marks : 20
(25=10)
1) Which of the following are the causes of tolerance stack ?

a) Product design
b) Method of processing and gauging
c) Basic processing operation
d) Machine used
2) Which of the following are responsibilities of process engineer ?
a) Selecting tolerances and limits
b) Selecting the correct process
c) To establish necessary controls to meet design specifications economically
d) To produce functional part
3) Which of the following factors are related to managerial feasibility ?
a) Market sales price and profit margin
b) Warranty aspects
c) Marketing network
d) Feasibility to compete with present competitors
a) Changing the basic process
b) Changing the product design
c) Changing the operation sequence
d) Changing the tooling
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 133
*SLRPK133*
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5) The selection of a suitable process can be made on the basis of

a) Volume of production
b) Rate of the product
c) Material of the product
d) Economy
Type -II : MCQ with one answer correct (1 mark each) :
(15=5)
1) Which of the following process is used to manufacture products with controlled

porosity ?
a) Casting
b) Metal forming
c) Welding
d) Powder metallurgy
2) In process picture sheet, locator is considered as
a) Triangle
b) Pyramid
c) Cone
d) Cube
3) Which of the following can be categorized as specific tooling ?
a) Jigs and fixture
b) Gages
c) SPM
d) Micro-base tool
4) Standard time of each operation is decided by
a) Production engineer
b) Product engineer
c) Process engineer
d) Methods engineer
5) Qualifying operation is associated with
a) Basic process operation
b) Principle process operation
c) Auxiliary process
d) Supplementary process operation
Type -III
A) Match the pairs :
a) SPM
b) Standard M/C
a) Rolling of ingots to blooms
b) Machining of castings in automobile industry
c) Production of marine gearbox
______________
(12=2)
p) Job Production
q) Mass production
(13=3)
p) Job Production
q) Mass Production
r) Batch Production
Set P
*SLRPK133*
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SLR-PK 133
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

from Q.7, Q.8, Q.9.
SECTION I
2. Prepare a process plan for manufacturing the components in fig. 1 w.r.to the
data supplied therein along following lines.
20
a) Sequence of operations indicating machine selected, holding method,
machining parameters per set up.
3. a) Explain the interaction between product and process engineers of a company. 5
b) What do you understand by part print analysis ?
5
4. a) Explain procedure to understand feasibility.
b) Explain design tolerance stack.
5. Write a short note on (any two) :
a) Factors affecting machining accuracy.
b) Documents released by process engineering dept.
c) Combination of operation.
5
5
(25=10)
SECTION II
component in Fig. 1 w.r.to sequence. Use standard notations and symbols for
locating, supporting, holding and material removal.
20
5
b) What are the conditions those must prevail before process engineer so that
he/she can suggest and installation of SPM ?
5
Set P
SLR-PK 133
*SLRPK133*
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8. a) What are the different condition which may cause a process engineer to
suggest the selection and installation of SPM ?
a) CAPP.
b) APMs and application.
5
5
(25=10)
15
25
20
10 Hz
180
60
120
2 Holes
Fig. I
60
140
180
Plate
For Q.No. 2 and Q. No. 6
Qty : 1200 Pieces per Batch

Material : Mild steel
All Dimensions are in mm
Tolerances on machined
surfaces are 0.1
# Machining all over
Set P
_____________________
SLR-PK 133
*SLRPK133*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

clearly.
from Q.7, Q.8, Q.9.
Type -I
a) SPM
b) Standard M/C
Marks : 20
p) Job Production
q) Mass production
p) Job Production
q) Mass Production
r) Batch Production
(12=2)
(13=3)
Type -II : MCQ with one answer correct (1 mark each) :

(15=5)
b) Product engineer
c) Process engineer
d) Methods engineer
porosity ?
a) Casting
b) Metal forming
c) Welding
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 133
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a) Triangle
b) Pyramid
c) Cone
*SLRPK133*
d) Cube

a) Jigs and fixture
b) Gages
c) SPM
d) Micro-base tool
Type -III : MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) :
(25=10)

d) Economy
a) Product design
d) Machine used
b) Warranty aspects
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK133*
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SLR-PK 133
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

from Q.7, Q.8, Q.9.
SECTION I
20
5
5
5
(25=10)
SECTION II
20
5
5
Set Q
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*SLRPK133*
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a) CAPP.
5
5
(25=10)
15
25
20
10 Hz
180
60
120
2 Holes
Fig. I
60

180
surfaces are 0.1
Plate
Set Q
_____________________
140
SLR-PK 133
*SLRPK133*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

clearly.
from Q.7, Q.8, Q.9.
Marks : 20
Type -I : MCQ with one answer correct (1 mark each) :
(15=5)

b) Product engineer
c) Process engineer
d) Methods engineer
porosity ?
a) Casting
b) Metal forming
c) Welding
a) Triangle
b) Pyramid
c) Cone
d) Cube

a) Jigs and fixture
b) Gages
c) SPM
d) Micro-base tool
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 133
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*SLRPK133*
Type -II
a) SPM
b) Standard M/C
(12=2)
p) Job Production
q) Mass production
(13=3)
p) Job Production
q) Mass Production
r) Batch Production
Type -III : MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) :
(25=10)

a) Product design
d) Machine used
b) Warranty aspects
d) Economy
______________
Set R
*SLRPK133*
-3-
SLR-PK 133
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

from Q.7, Q.8, Q.9.
SECTION I
20
5
5
5
(25=10)
SECTION II
20
5
5
Set R
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*SLRPK133*
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a) CAPP.
5
5
(25=10)
15
25
20
10 Hz
180
60
120
2 Holes
Fig. I
60

180
surfaces are 0.1
Plate
Set R
_____________________
140
SLR-PK 133
*SLRPK133*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

clearly.
from Q.7, Q.8, Q.9.
Marks : 20
Type -I : MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) :
(25=10)
d) Economy
a) Product design
d) Machine used
b) Warranty aspects
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 133
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*SLRPK133*
Type -II
a) SPM
b) Standard M/C
(13=3)
p) Job Production
q) Mass Production
r) Batch Production
(12=2)
p) Job Production
q) Mass production
Type -III : MCQ with one answer correct (1 mark each) :
(15=5)

b) Product engineer
c) Process engineer
d) Methods engineer
porosity ?
a) Casting
b) Metal forming
c) Welding
a) Triangle
b) Pyramid
c) Cone
d) Cube
a) Jigs and fixture
b) Gages
c) SPM
d) Micro-base tool
______________
Set S
*SLRPK133*
-3-
SLR-PK 133
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

from Q.7, Q.8, Q.9.
SECTION I
20
5
5
5
(25=10)
SECTION II
20
5
5
Set S
SLR-PK 133
*SLRPK133*
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a) CAPP.
5
5
(25=10)
15
25
20
10 Hz
180
60
120
2 Holes
Fig.
I
60
140
180
Plate

surfaces are 0.1

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 134
*SLRPK134*
S
Set
t

Elective I : INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Solve any two questions from the Section I and II.

Draw neat diagram where necessary.
Wherever needed presume suitable assumptions and data.
Question No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes
1. Choose the correct answer (one mark each) :
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) An industrial robot has been defined as a ________ multifunctional manipulator

designed to move material, parts, tools or specialized devices through various
programmed motions for the performance of a variety of tasks.
a) Reprogrammable
b) Programmable
c) Mechanical
d) Mechatronic
2) With flexible automation, different products can be made at the same time on the
_________ manufacturing system.
a) Different
b) Same
c) Fixable
d) None of these
3) Hydraulic drive is generally associated with ________ robots.
a) Smaller
b) Medium
c) Larger
d) None of these
4) Pneumatic drive is generally reserved for ___________ robots that possess fewer
degrees of freedom.
a) Smaller
b) Medium
c) Larger
d) None of these
5) Stepper motor with 50 teeth on the rotor and 40 teeth on the stator will result in a
__________ step angle with 200 steps per revolution.
a) 90 degree
b) 1.8 degree
c) 180 degree
d) None of these
6) Going from joint space to world space is called the _______ transformation.
a) Forward
b) Reverse
c) Forward/reverse
7) In a binary image the gray level values are divided into ________ categories.
a) Two
b) Four
c) Eight
P.T.O.
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8) Sampling rate should be at least _________ the highest frequency in the video
signal.
a) Twice
b) Thrice
c) Four times
9) The disadvantages of the hydraulic drive system requires _______ space required
by the robot.
a) Lower floor
b) No floor
c) More floor
d) None of these
10) The digitized image is subjected to image processing and analysis for data
_______ and interpretation of the image.
a) Reduction
b) Manupulation c) Expanding
d) None of these
11) The minimum degrees of freedom required for pick and a place robot is/are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
12) Digitizing the image intensity amplitude is called
a) Quantization
b) Sampling
c) Framing
d) Both a) and b)
13) The points at which image brightness changes sharply are typically organized
into a set of curved line segments termed
a) Point
b) Corner
c) Centre
d) Edge
14) Process of robot programming includes
a) Teaching the task to be performed
b) Storing the program
c) Executing the program
d) All of the above
15) Which of the following is a second order edge detector ?
a) Canny
b) LoG
c) Sobel
d) Prewitt
16) If a robot can alter its own trajectory in response to external conditions, it is using
________ control.
a) Open loop
b) Closed loop
c) Mixed loop
d) All of the above
17) The term UGV stands for
a) Unmanned Group Vehicles
c) Unknown Group Vehicle
b) Universal Ground Vehicle

d) Unmanned Ground Vehicle
18) The minimum number of wheels required for good static and dynamic balance
(in both X and Y directions) is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
19) The degree of mobility of a typical automobile is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
20) Which of the following is online robot programming ?
a) PI
b) PD
c) PID
______________
d) 3
d) ID
Set P
*SLRPK134*
S
SLR-PK 134
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from the Section I and II.
3) Wherever needed presume suitable assumptions and data.
SECTION I
2. a) What is the definition of industrial robotics ? Explain following industrial automation.
1) Fixed automation
2) Programmable automation
3) Flexible automation.
b) What are different types of configuration and work envelops of robot ?
c) What are different types of drives are used for robotics ?
3. a) Explain the construction and working of stepper motor. List its advantage,
disadvantage and application.
b) What are the different types Sensors used in robotics ?
6
6
c) Determine forward kinematics solution for 2DOF planer robot.

The length of 1st link is L1 = 10 cm
The length of 2nd link is L2 = 15 cm
The joint angle is
and
4. Write a short notes on (Each 5 marks) :

i) Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) control for D.C. Motors.
ii) Types of magnetic grippers.
iii) Repeatability.
iv) Robot specifications.
(54=20)
Set P
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*SLRPK134*
SECTION II
5. a) What is adaptive control in robotics ? Explain it with neat block diagram.
b) Which are the different robot programming languages used in robotics and
explain any three in detail.
c) What are the key issues associated with locomotion in mobile robots ?
6. a) Explain the three basic types of robot work cell in robotics.
b) Explain general robot control architecture with neat block diagram.
c) Define the term Machine vision and explain its functions in robotics.

a) Mobile robots.
b) Role of robot in material transfer operations.
c) Camera calibration in robotics.
d) AGV Robots.
(54=20)
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 134
*SLRPK134*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
(120=20)
________ control.
a) Open loop
b) Closed loop
c) Mixed loop
d) All of the above

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

a) PI
b) PD
c) PID
d) ID

a) Reprogrammable
b) Programmable
c) Mechanical
d) Mechatronic
a) Different
b) Same
c) Fixable
d) None of these
P.T.O.
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*SLRPK134*

a) Smaller
b) Medium
c) Larger
d) None of these
degrees of freedom.
a) Smaller
b) Medium
c) Larger
d) None of these
a) 90 degree
b) 1.8 degree
c) 180 degree
d) None of these
a) Forward
b) Reverse
c) Forward/reverse
a) Two
b) Four
c) Eight
signal.
a) Twice
b) Thrice
c) Four times
by the robot.
a) Lower floor
b) No floor
c) More floor
d) None of these
a) Reduction
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) Quantization
b) Sampling
c) Framing
d) Both a) and b)
a) Point
b) Corner
c) Centre
d) Edge
d) All of the above
a) Canny
b) LoG
c) Sobel
______________
d) Prewitt
Set Q
*SLRPK134*
S
SLR-PK 134
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
1) Fixed automation
6
6

The joint angle is
and

iii) Repeatability.
(54=20)
Set Q
SLR-PK 134
-4-
*SLRPK134*
SECTION II

a) Mobile robots.
d) AGV Robots.
(54=20)
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 134
*SLRPK134*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
(120=20)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) Quantization
b) Sampling
c) Framing
d) Both a) and b)
a) Point
b) Corner
c) Centre
d) Edge
d) All of the above
a) Canny
b) LoG
c) Sobel
d) Prewitt
________ control.
a) Open loop
b) Closed loop
c) Mixed loop
d) All of the above

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 134
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*SLRPK134*
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
a) PI
b) PD
c) PID
d) 3
d) ID

a) Reprogrammable
b) Programmable
c) Mechanical
d) Mechatronic
a) Different
b) Same
c) Fixable
d) None of these
a) Smaller
b) Medium
c) Larger
d) None of these
degrees of freedom.
a) Smaller
b) Medium
c) Larger
d) None of these
a) 90 degree
b) 1.8 degree
c) 180 degree
d) None of these
a) Forward
b) Reverse
c) Forward/reverse
a) Two
b) Four
c) Eight
signal.
a) Twice
b) Thrice
c) Four times
by the robot.
a) Lower floor
b) No floor
c) More floor
d) None of these
a) Reduction
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK134*
S
SLR-PK 134
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
1) Fixed automation
6
6

The joint angle is
and

iii) Repeatability.
(54=20)
Set R
SLR-PK 134
-4-
*SLRPK134*
SECTION II

a) Mobile robots.
d) AGV Robots.
(54=20)
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 134
*SLRPK134*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
(120=20)
a) Forward
b) Reverse
c) Forward/reverse
a) Two
b) Four
c) Eight
signal.
a) Twice
b) Thrice
c) Four times
by the robot.
a) Lower floor
b) No floor
c) More floor
d) None of these
a) Reduction
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) Quantization
b) Sampling
c) Framing
d) Both a) and b)
a) Point
b) Corner
c) Centre
d) Edge
P.T.O.
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*SLRPK134*
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d) All of the above
a) Canny
b) LoG
c) Sobel
d) Prewitt
________ control.
a) Open loop
b) Closed loop
c) Mixed loop
d) All of the above

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

a) PI
b) PD
c) PID
d) ID

a) Reprogrammable
b) Programmable
c) Mechanical
d) Mechatronic
a) Different
b) Same
c) Fixable
d) None of these
a) Smaller
b) Medium
c) Larger
d) None of these
degrees of freedom.
a) Smaller
b) Medium
c) Larger
d) None of these
a) 90 degree
b) 1.8 degree
c) 180 degree
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK134*
S
SLR-PK 134
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
1) Fixed automation
6
6

The joint angle is
and

iii) Repeatability.
(54=20)
Set S
SLR-PK 134
-4-
*SLRPK134*
SECTION II

a) Mobile robots.
d) AGV Robots.
(54=20)
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 135
*SLRPK135*
S
Set
t

SUGAR ENGINEERING
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1) Q. 1 contains multiple choice type questions and is compulsory.

Choose the most appropriate answer.
2) Answer any two questions from each Section.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Shredder is used for

a) Cut the cane into fine pieces
b) Equalizing the cane
c) Complete the preparation and disintegration of cane
2) Area of the feeder table
a) 2R/3
b) 3R/2
c) 2L/3
3) The purpose of the Messchart grooves

a) Filtration of juice
c) Improvement of juice extraction
b) Improving the feeding of the bagasse

d) Pressurized feeding to the mill
d) 0.25L
4) Mill sanitation is required for

a) To extract the maximum amount of juice b) Weighing of juice
c) To prevent the fermentation of juice
d) Heating of juice
5) Mill setting depends upon
a) pH value of juice
c) desired rate of crushing
b) size of the trash plate

6) Juice clarifier is used for

a) Heating of juice
c) Settling of mud
b) Sulphitation of juice
7) If condensate water from juice heater is not removed

a) Entrainment increases
b) Heater starts vibrating
c) Water gets evaporated
d) Formation of conglomerates
P.T.O.
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*SLRPK135*
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8) Vapour cell is used for

a) To give vapors to pan
b) To give vapors to evaporators
c) To give vapors to evaporator and pan
d) All the above
9) This roller is used for first mill in case of top roller
a) Underfeed roller
b) Lime roller
c) Messchart roller
d) Lotus roller
10) The vacuum in the last evaporator body of multiple effect evaporator
a) 200 to 250 mm
b) 600 to 625 mm
c) 400 to 500 mm
11) In vacuum pan for formation of sugar crystal
a) State of conglomerate is important
b) State of super saturation of mother liquid is important
c) State of evaporation is important
12) In India the massecuite boiling scheme preferred is
a) Two massecuite boiling scheme
b) Three massecuite boiling scheme
c) Three and half boiling scheme
d) Four massecuite scheme
13) Sucrose molecules from the bulk of solution will be transported to the crystal face is
due to
a) Metastable process
b) Diffusion process
c) Labile process
14) Batch type centrifugal machine is used for curing
a) A massecuite
b) C massecuite c) D massecuite
d) All the above
15) The problem associated with continuous machine

a) Conglomerates
b) False grain
c) Crystal breakage
d) Uniform crystal
16) Factor affecting the centrifugal machine performance
a) Ploughing operation
b) Grain size
c) Temperature of massecuite
17) Ploughing operation of centrifugal machine carried out at
a) 200-300 rpm
b) 1400-1500 rpm c) 50 rpm
d) 700-750 rpm
18) In rotary dryer hot air and sugar flows in the

a) Same direction
b) Bottom direction
c) Counter current direction
d) All the above
19) Sugar starts detoriates if safety factor
a) Higher than 0.33
c) Higher than 100
b) Lower than 0.25

20) In this water treatment bacteria utilizes the oxygen to degrade the organic matter
a) Anaerobic type
b) Screening type
c) Aerobic type
d) Sanitation type
______________
Set P
*SLRPK135*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 135

SUGAR ENGINEERING
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Explain cane shredder with neat sketch.

b) Discuss three roller crusher mill with neat sketch.
c) Why mill imbibition is required ? Explain compound mill imbibitions.
7
7
6
3. a) Why juice filtration is required ? Explain Douch state mine screen with near sketch.
b) Discuss measurement of weighing of juice. Explain lever and counterweight weighing
machine.
c) How scale formed in the evaporator tubes are removed ?

a) Cane kicker
b) Messchart grooves on rollers
c) Mill sanitation
d) Long tube vertical falling film evaporator.
e) Entrainment catchers.
7
6
(45=20)
SECTION II
5. a) Discuss three masscuite boiling scheme in the pan boiling.
b) Explain batch type centrifugal machine with neat sketch.
c) Discuss fluidized bed dryer with neat sketch.
7
7
6
6. a) Explain construction and working of vacuum pan with neat sketch.

b) Discuss slurry preparation methods in vacuum pan.
c) How SO2 and CO2 in the flue gas are monitored and controlled ?
7
7
6

a) Automation of centrifugal machine operation.
b) Sugar grader
c) Sugar storage in Godowns
d) Vertical crystallizer
e) Methods of graining.
_____________________
(45=20)
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 135
*SLRPK135*
S
Set
t

SUGAR ENGINEERING
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

b) Grain size
a) 200-300 rpm
b) 1400-1500 rpm c) 50 rpm
d) 700-750 rpm

a) Same direction
b) Bottom direction
d) All the above
a) Higher than 0.33
c) Higher than 100
b) Lower than 0.25

a) Anaerobic type
b) Screening type
c) Aerobic type
d) Sanitation type
a) 2R/3
b) 3R/2
c) 2L/3
d) 0.25L
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 135
*SLRPK135*
-2-



d) Heating of juice


a) Heating of juice
c) Settling of mud

d) All the above
a) Underfeed roller
b) Lime roller
c) Messchart roller
d) Lotus roller
a) 200 to 250 mm
b) 600 to 625 mm
c) 400 to 500 mm
due to
c) Labile process
a) A massecuite
d) All the above

a) Conglomerates
b) False grain
c) Crystal breakage
d) Uniform crystal
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK135*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 135

SUGAR ENGINEERING
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
7
6
machine.

a) Cane kicker
c) Mill sanitation
7
6
(45=20)
SECTION II
7
7
6

7
7
6

b) Sugar grader
_____________________
(45=20)
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 135
*SLRPK135*
S
Set
t

SUGAR ENGINEERING
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

due to
c) Labile process
a) A massecuite
d) All the above

a) Conglomerates
b) False grain
c) Crystal breakage
d) Uniform crystal
b) Grain size
a) 200-300 rpm
b) 1400-1500 rpm c) 50 rpm
d) 700-750 rpm
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 135
*SLRPK135*
-2-

a) Same direction
b) Bottom direction
d) All the above
a) Higher than 0.33
c) Higher than 100
b) Lower than 0.25

a) Anaerobic type
b) Screening type
c) Aerobic type
d) Sanitation type
a) 2R/3
b) 3R/2
c) 2L/3


d) 0.25L

d) Heating of juice


a) Heating of juice
c) Settling of mud

d) All the above
a) Underfeed roller
b) Lime roller
c) Messchart roller
d) Lotus roller
a) 200 to 250 mm
b) 600 to 625 mm
c) 400 to 500 mm
______________
Set R
*SLRPK135*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 135

SUGAR ENGINEERING
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
7
6
machine.

a) Cane kicker
c) Mill sanitation
7
6
(45=20)
SECTION II
7
7
6

7
7
6

b) Sugar grader
_____________________
(45=20)
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 135
*SLRPK135*
S
Set
t

SUGAR ENGINEERING
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Heating of juice
c) Settling of mud
(201=20)

d) All the above
a) Underfeed roller
b) Lime roller
c) Messchart roller
d) Lotus roller

a) 200 to 250 mm
b) 600 to 625 mm
c) 400 to 500 mm
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 135
*SLRPK135*
-2-

due to
c) Labile process
a) A massecuite
d) All the above

a) Conglomerates
b) False grain
c) Crystal breakage
d) Uniform crystal
b) Grain size
a) 200-300 rpm
b) 1400-1500 rpm c) 50 rpm
d) 700-750 rpm

a) Same direction
b) Bottom direction
d) All the above
a) Higher than 0.33
c) Higher than 100
b) Lower than 0.25

a) Anaerobic type
b) Screening type
c) Aerobic type
d) Sanitation type
a) 2R/3
b) 3R/2
c) 2L/3


d) 0.25L

d) Heating of juice

______________
Set S
*SLRPK135*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 135

SUGAR ENGINEERING
(Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
7
6
machine.

a) Cane kicker
c) Mill sanitation
7
6
(45=20)
SECTION II
7
7
6

7
7
6

b) Sugar grader
_____________________
(45=20)
Set S
Set S
SLR- PK 136
*SLRPK136*
Seat
No.
Set

TEXTILE ENGINEERING (Elective 1)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator, steam table,
psychometric chart is allowed.
1) 30 Tex = . . . . . English count.
A) 19.7
B) 197
Marks : 20
(201=20)
C) 177
2) Wool fibre belongs to

A) Synthetic fibre B) Plant fibre
C) Animal fibre
3) Individualization of fibre takes place in
A) Blow Room
B) Carding
C) Draw Frame
4) Twist in the yarn increases
A) Length of yarn
C) Hairiness of yarn
D) 17.7
D) Mineral fibre
D) Combing
B) Elongation of yarn
D) Strength of yarn
5) Dobby Mechanism is used for producing

A) Designs having warp way repeat upto 24 ends
B) Designs having weft way repeat upto 24 picks
C) Designs having warp way repeat upto 400 ends
D) Designs having weft way repeat upto 400 ends
6) Drop Box mechanism has maximum weft way colour capacity
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 136
7) Bleaching process
A) Removes dust from fabric
C) Improves whiteness of fabric
*SLRPK136*
-2-
B) Improves air permeability

D) Removes size paste
8) Which following drive will have minimum belt slippage ?

A) Flat Belt
B) Rope Belt
C) Vee Belt
D) Toothed Belt
9) Clutch drive is used on
A) Plain Loom
B) Power Loom C) Auto Loom
10) The threads parallel to selvedge are called as
A) Warp
B) Weft
C) Tex
D) HandLoom
D) Denier
11) Tick the correct statement from the following.

A) Warp crimp is generally more than weft crimp
B) Weft crimp is generally more than warp crimp
C) Warp and weft crimp are generally same
D) No general crimp trend is found in a fabric
12) Preventive maintenance will
A) Reduce brake downs
B) Increase cost of production
C) Reduce the efficiency of the machine
D) Increase the burden on maintenance department
13) In which shuttleless weaving technology water is used for picking ?
A) Projectile
B) Air jet
C) Water jet
D) Multiphase
14) Which machine removes the objectionable faults ?
A) Winding
B) Warping
C) Sizing
D) Drawing-in
15) Localized dyeing means

A) Finishing
B) Printing
C) Mercerizing
D) Bleaching
16) In which of the following process of fabric forming yarn is not used ?
A) Weaving
B) Non woven
C) Knitting
D) Braiding
17) Which type of bearing is used in modern draw frame top rollers ?
A) Ball Bearing
B) Roller Bearing C) Bush Bearing D) Needle Bearing
18) The process which removes the seeds from cotton is known as
A) Pressing
B) Ginning
C) Combing
D) Warping
19) Fabric formation is done with the help of yarn loops in the
A) Weaving Process
B) Knitting Process
C) Nonwoven Process
D) Braiding Process
20) A true selvedge fabric is produced on
A) Plain loom
B) Rapier loom C) Air jet loom
______________
D) Water jet loom

Set P
*SLRPK136*
-3-
SLR- PK 136
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Give the process flow chart for combed yarn with their objectives.
b) Classify the different types of textile fibres.
c) The weight of cotton yarn on ring bobbin of 30 Ne is 70 grams. What will be
the length of yarn in meters ?
8
7
3. a) Explain the weaving processes involved in producing warp way stripe fabric.
b) With a line diagram explain the working principle of any shedding mechanism.
c) Differentiate the weaving and knitting.
7
5
4. a) Explain any two processes carried out in wet processing of fabric.
b) Explain the twisting mechanism in ring frame.
c) Calculate the production of a loom per shift of 8 hours running at 150 rpm and
producing fabric of 20 picks per cm and efficiency of 80%.
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the different types of gear drives used in textile industry.

b) What is the function of the clutch ? What are its types ? Explain any one
used in textile industry.
c) Why lubrication is necessary for machines ? What are different types of
lubricants ?
8
7
5
Set P
SLR- PK 136
-4-
*SLRPK136*
6. a) List and explain types of maintenance practices used in textile industry.
b) Explain the different types of bearings used in textile industry.
c) What is the object of brake motion on a plain loom ?
7. a) What are the limitations of the shuttle looms ?
b) Explain the principle of rapier weaving technology.
c) Compare the shuttle and shuttleless weaving machines.
_____________________
Set P
SLR- PK 136
*SLRPK136*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

A) Weaving
B) Non woven
C) Knitting
D) Braiding
A) Ball Bearing
A) Pressing
B) Ginning
C) Combing
D) Warping
A) Weaving Process
B) Knitting Process
C) Nonwoven Process
D) Braiding Process
A) Plain loom
A) 19.7
B) 197
C) 177
C) Animal fibre
D) Water jet loom

D) 17.7
D) Mineral fibre
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 136
-2-
*SLRPK136*

A) Blow Room
B) Carding
C) Draw Frame D) Combing
A) Length of yarn
D) Strength of yarn
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
A) Flat Belt
B) Rope Belt
C) Vee Belt
D) Toothed Belt
A) Plain Loom
D) HandLoom
A) Warp
B) Weft
C) Tex
D) Denier
A) Projectile
B) Air jet
C) Water jet
D) Multiphase
A) Winding
B) Warping
C) Sizing
D) Drawing-in
A) Finishing
B) Printing
C) Mercerizing
D) Bleaching
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK136*
-3-
SLR- PK 136
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
8
7
7
5
SECTION II

lubricants ?
8
7
5
Set Q
SLR- PK 136
-4-
*SLRPK136*
_____________________
Set Q
SLR- PK 136
*SLRPK136*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

A) Projectile
B) Air jet
C) Water jet
D) Multiphase
A) Winding
B) Warping
C) Sizing
D) Drawing-in

A) Finishing
B) Printing
D) Bleaching
C) Mercerizing
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 136
-2-
*SLRPK136*

A) Weaving
B) Non woven
C) Knitting
D) Braiding
A) Ball Bearing
A) Pressing
B) Ginning
C) Combing
D) Warping
A) Weaving Process
B) Knitting Process
C) Nonwoven Process
D) Braiding Process
A) Plain loom
D) Water jet loom
A) 19.7
B) 197
C) 177
D) 17.7
C) Animal fibre
D) Mineral fibre
A) Blow Room
B) Carding
A) Length of yarn
D) Strength of yarn
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
A) Flat Belt
B) Rope Belt
C) Vee Belt
D) Toothed Belt
A) Plain Loom
D) HandLoom
A) Warp
B) Weft
C) Tex
D) Denier
______________
Set R
*SLRPK136*
-3-
SLR- PK 136
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
8
7
7
5
SECTION II

lubricants ?
8
7
5
Set R
SLR- PK 136
-4-
*SLRPK136*
_____________________
Set R
SLR- PK 136
*SLRPK136*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
A) Flat Belt
B) Rope Belt
C) Vee Belt
D) Toothed Belt
A) Plain Loom
A) Warp
B) Weft
C) Tex
D) HandLoom
D) Denier
P.T.O.
SLR- PK 136
-2-
*SLRPK136*

A) Projectile
B) Air jet
C) Water jet
D) Multiphase
A) Winding
B) Warping
C) Sizing
D) Drawing-in
A) Finishing
B) Printing
C) Mercerizing
D) Bleaching
A) Weaving
B) Non woven
C) Knitting
D) Braiding
A) Ball Bearing
A) Pressing
B) Ginning
C) Combing
D) Warping
A) Weaving Process
B) Knitting Process
C) Nonwoven Process
D) Braiding Process
A) Plain loom
D) Water jet loom
A) 19.7
B) 197
C) 177
D) 17.7
C) Animal fibre
D) Mineral fibre
A) Blow Room
B) Carding
A) Length of yarn
D) Strength of yarn
______________
Set S
*SLRPK136*
-3-
SLR- PK 136
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
8
7
7
5
SECTION II

lubricants ?
8
7
5
Set S
SLR- PK 136
-4-
*SLRPK136*
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 137
*SLR-PK-137*
Seat
No.
Set

ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

2) Answer any two full questions from each Section.
4) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them
clearly.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) In which phase of the entrepreneurship development, the provision of

infrastructure facilities is concerned with ?
a) Support phase
b) Initial phase
c) Development phase
d) Maturity phase
2) The social factor that affects the growth of entrepreneurship is
a) Greater risk involved in business
b) Prestige acquisition
c) Lack of skilled labor
d) Customs and traditions
3) The important social consideration for a project is
a) Prevention of environmental damage b) Promotion of employment
c) Introduction of import substitution
d) Development of the local area
4) The repaying capacity of an entrepreneur can be ascertained by means of
a) Cash flow statement
b) Debt service coverage ratio
c) Projected Balance Sheet
d) Profitability ratio
5) Sales revenue variable cost = ?
a) Contribution
b) Total Cost
c) Profit
6) The main function of SIDO is

a) Co-ordination
c) Extension
b) Industrial development
d) All
d) Breakeven point
7) The maximum amount of generator subsidy is

a) Rs. 5 lakh
b) Rs. 2 lakh
c) Rs. 1 lakh
d) Rs. 10 lakh
8) The person who creates an enterprise is called

a) Managers
b) Leaders
c) Owners
d) Entrepreneur
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 137
*SLR-PK-137*
-2-
9) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an entrepreneur ?

a) Creativity
b) Innovation
c) Aggressive
d) Self-Confidence
10) Which of the following is not a function of an entrepreneur ?
a) Risk and uncertainty bearing
b) Arranging finance
c) Staffing
d) Altering the Government System
11) Which of the following entrepreneur is cautious and skeptic about bringing any
change in their modus operandi or enterprises ?
a) Fabian entrepreneur
b) Imitative entrepreneur
c) Drone entrepreneur
d) Innovative entrepreneur
12) How many stages are involved in the entrepreneurial process ?
a) Four
b) Six
c) Five
d) Seven
13) MSMED stands to
a) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development
b) Mini, Small and Medium Enterprises Development
c) Micro, Small and Medium Entrepreneurship Development
14) Which of the following is an internal factor that influences entrepreneurs ?
a) Technological Capacity
b) Political Interference
c) Social Environment
d) Economic Conditions
15) Which of the following is an economic barrier to an entrepreneur ?
a) Emotional Blocks
b) Labor
c) Lack of sustained motivation
d) Lack of Vision
16) ___________ calls for obtaining a number of clearances and approvals for land
acquisition, pollution control and safety for setting up an enterprise.
a) Selecting the location
b) Setting up infrastructure
c) Naming and registering the enterprise d) Fulfilling the regulatory requirements
17) Which of the following is not considered while selecting the region ?
a) Availability of raw materials
b) Proximity to the product market
c) Price of land
d) Law and order
18) Managerial Bottleneck arises due to
a) Lack of Managerial Capacity
c) Adequate Managerial Resources
b) Lack of Infrastructure
d) Inadequate Managerial Resources
19) Which of the following sector is termed as priority sector ?

a) Large Scale Sector
b) Tiny Enterprise Sector
c) Medium Enterprise Sector
d) Small Scale Sector
20) SIDBI stands for
a) Small Industries Development Bank of India
b) Small Institution Development Bank of India
c) Small Industries Development Board of India
d) Small Institutional Development Board of India
______________
Set P
*SLR-PK-137*
-3-
SLR-PK 137
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Answer any two full questions from each Section.
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Discuss Corporate Entrepreneurship.
10
b) Explain concept of Entrepreneur.
10
3. a) Explain factors affecting entrepreneur.

b) Explain importance of entrepreneurship.
4. a) What are the objectives of EDP ?
b) Write a note on options available to entrepreneur as franchisee.
5. a) Discuss characteristics and qualities of entrepreneur.
b) Write note on Mergers Acquisition.
10
10
10
10
10
10
Set P
SLR-PK 137
-4-
*SLR-PK-137*
SECTION II
6. a) How do you define SMEs and enlist characteristics for the same.
b) What are sources of finance for SMEs ?
7. a) Discuss in brief contents of project report.
b) Discuss ideal operational plan.
8. a) Write a note on SWOT Analysis.
b) Discuss marketing problem faced by entrepreneur and how to manage it ?
9. Write a note on :
10
10
10
10
10
10
20
a) Economic oriented appraisal

b) Financial Appraisal.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 137
*SLR-PK-137*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

clearly.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
c) Price of land
d) Law and order

5) SIDBI stands for
a) Support phase
b) Initial phase
d) Maturity phase
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 137
*SLR-PK-137*
-2-

a) Contribution
b) Total Cost
c) Profit

a) Co-ordination
c) Extension
d) All
d) Breakeven point

a) Rs. 5 lakh
b) Rs. 2 lakh
c) Rs. 1 lakh
d) Rs. 10 lakh

a) Managers
b) Leaders
c) Owners
d) Entrepreneur

a) Creativity
b) Innovation
c) Aggressive
d) Self-Confidence
c) Staffing
a) Four
b) Six
c) Five
d) Seven
18) MSMED stands to
a) Emotional Blocks
b) Labor
d) Lack of Vision
______________
Set Q
*SLR-PK-137*
-3-
SLR-PK 137
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

clearly.
SECTION I
10
10

10
10
10
10
10
10
Set Q
SLR-PK 137
-4-
*SLR-PK-137*
SECTION II
10
10
10
10
10
10
20

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 137
*SLR-PK-137*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

clearly.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
a) Four
b) Six
c) Five
d) Seven
3) MSMED stands to
a) Emotional Blocks
b) Labor
d) Lack of Vision
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 137
*SLR-PK-137*
-2-

c) Price of land
d) Law and order

a) Support phase
b) Initial phase
d) Maturity phase
a) Contribution
b) Total Cost
c) Profit

a) Co-ordination
c) Extension
d) All
d) Breakeven point

a) Rs. 5 lakh
b) Rs. 2 lakh
c) Rs. 1 lakh
d) Rs. 10 lakh

a) Managers
b) Leaders
c) Owners
d) Entrepreneur

a) Creativity
b) Innovation
c) Aggressive
d) Self-Confidence
c) Staffing
______________
Set R
*SLR-PK-137*
-3-
SLR-PK 137
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

clearly.
SECTION I
10
10

10
10
10
10
10
10
Set R
SLR-PK 137
-4-
*SLR-PK-137*
SECTION II
10
10
10
10
10
10
20

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 137
*SLR-PK-137*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

clearly.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
a) Co-ordination
c) Extension
d) All
a) Rs. 5 lakh
b) Rs. 2 lakh
c) Rs. 1 lakh
d) Rs. 10 lakh
a) Managers
b) Leaders
c) Owners
d) Entrepreneur
a) Creativity
b) Innovation
c) Aggressive
d) Self-Confidence
c) Staffing
a) Four
b) Six
c) Five
d) Seven
8) MSMED stands to
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 137
*SLR-PK-137*
-2-

a) Emotional Blocks
b) Labor
d) Lack of Vision
c) Price of land
d) Law and order

a) Support phase
b) Initial phase
d) Maturity phase
a) Contribution
b) Total Cost
c) Profit
______________
d) Breakeven point
Set S
*SLR-PK-137*
-3-
SLR-PK 137
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

clearly.
SECTION I
10
10

10
10
10
10
10
10
Set S
SLR-PK 137
-4-
*SLR-PK-137*
SECTION II
10
10
10
10
10
10
20

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 138
*SLRPK138*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2016

REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

iii) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
iv) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
v) Use of psychrometric chart and steam table is allowed.
Marks : 20

1) The relative C.O.P. is equal to
a) Actual C.O.P. theoretical C.O.P.
c) Theoretical C.O.P./actual C.O.P.
b) Actual C.O.P./theoretical C.O.P.

2) The C.O.P. of a heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle is equal to

b) (T1 T2)/(T1)
c) (T2)/(T1 T2)
d) (T1 T2)/(T2)
a) (T1)/(T1 T2)
3) The Bell-Coleman refrigeration cycle uses __________ as the working fluid.
c) H 2
d) Ammonia
a) Air
b) CO 2
4) Air refrigeration cycle is used in
a) Domestic refrigerators
c) Commercial refrigerator
b) Gas liquification
d) All of the above
5) In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid

a) Before entering the compressor
b) Before passing through the condenser
c) After passing through the condenser
d) After passing through the expansion valve
6) In a refrigeration cycle, the sub-cooling ___________ C.O.P.
a) Increases
b) First decreases then increases
c) Decreases
d) First increases then decreases
7) Which is the most distinguishing feature of absorption type refrigerator ?
a) Quieter operation
b) Higher C.O.P.
c) Small size for the same refrigerating machine
d) Only low grade of energy in the form of heat used
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 138
-2-
*SLRPK138*
8) _________ machines can be used to obtain refrigeration at a places where there is no

electricity.
a) Vapour absorption
b) Vapour compression
c) Air refrigeration
d) Steam jet refrigeration
9) The material of pipelines for a system using Freon as refrigerant should be
a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Steel
d) Brass
10) A refrigerant with highest critical pressure is
a) Carbon di-oxide
b) Ammonia
c) Freon 12
d) Freon 22
11) During sensible heating of moist air, enthalpy

a) Increases
b) Increases first then decreases
c) Decreases first then increases
d) Decreases
12) The vapour pressure, during sensible heating of moist air
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Unpredictable
d) Remains constant
13) Wet bulb depression represents the difference between ____________ temperature
and __________ temperature.
a) Adiabatic saturation, dew point
b) Dew point, saturation
c) Dry bulb, dew point
d) Dry bulb, wet bulb
14) In a psychrometric chart, the vertical lines parallel to the ordinate indicate
a) Specific humidity
b) Wet bulb temperature
c) Dew point temperature
d) Dry bulb temperature
15) Air conditioner of an auditorium, as compared to cold storage plant, requires air at
__________ relative humidity and ________ temperature.
a) Low, low
b) Low, high
c) High, low
d) High, high
16) _________ of sizing the ducts is usually adopted for very simple systems.
a) Velocity reduction method
b) Equal friction method
c) Static regain method
d) Static velocity method
17) Supply air state of cooling coil with a bypass factor X lies at
a) Intersection of RSHF line with saturation curve
b) Intersection of GSHF line with saturation curve
c) Point dividing RSHF line in proportion of X and 1 X
d) Intersection of RSHF line with GSHF
18) Room sensible heat = 50000 kJ/h; room latent heat = 50000 kJ/h. Then the room sensible
heat factor is equal to
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 0.75
d) 0
19) The wet bulb temperature during evaporative cooling process
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Increases
d) Unpredictable
20) In the spray humidification process, the total heat
a) Decreases
b) Remains same
c) Increases
d) Decreases first then increases
______________
Set P
*SLRPK138*
SLR-PK 138
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section

SECTION I
2. a) What are the desirable properties of refrigerant ?
b) Explain the need of multievaporator system and analyze any one arrangement.
c) Explain with the help of neat diagram the electrolux refrigeration system.
3. a) With neat explain the working cycle of Bell Coleman cycle.
b) 28 tonnes of ice from and at 0C is produced per day in an ammonia refrigerator. The
temperature range in the compressor is from 25C to 15C. The vapour is dry and
saturated at the end of compression and an expansion valve is used. There is no liquid
subcooling. Assuming actual COP of 62% of theoretical, calculate the power required to
drive the compressor. Following properties of ammonia are given :
Temperature 0C
Enthalpy (KJ/kg)
Entropy (kJ/kg-K)
Liquid
Vapor
Liquid
Vapor
25
298.9
1465.84
1.1242
5.0391
15
112.34
1426.54
0.4572
5.5490
Take latent of Ice = 335 kJ/kg.

12
(54=20)
i) Types of compressor.
ii) Need of refrigeration in aircrafts.
iii) Actual vapor compression cycle.
iv) Enthalpy concentration chart.
Set P
SLR-PK 138
-4-
*SLRPK138*
SECTION II
5. a) The reading from sling psychrometer are as follows :
12
DBT = 30C
WBT = 20C
Barometric reading = 740 mm of hg
Using steam stable determine;
1) DPT
2) Relative humidity
3) Sp. Humidity
4) Degree of saturation
5) Vapour density
6) Enthalpy of mixture per kg of dry air.
b) Define following term :
i) Bypass factor
ii) ADP
iii) Relative humidity
iv) Thermodynamic wet bulb temperature.
(24=8)
6. a) The amount of air supplied to an air conditioned hall is 300 m3/min. the atmospheric conditions
are 35C DBT and 55% RH. The required conditions are 20C DBT and 60% RH. Find out
the sensible heat and latent heat removed from the air per minute. Also find Sensible Heat
Factor for the system (SHF).
(43=12)
1) Heating load
2) RSHF
3) GSHF.
7. a) Develop an expression for equivalent diameter of rectangular duct.
b) Explain the equal friction method of duct design.
c) Draw a layout of duct system for theaters. Describe the working of it.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 138
*SLRPK138*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 0.75
d) 0
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Increases
d) Unpredictable
a) Decreases
b) Remains same
c) Increases


b) (T1 T2)/(T1)
c) (T2)/(T1 T2)
d) (T1 T2)/(T2)
a) (T1)/(T1 T2)
c) H 2
d) Ammonia
a) Air
b) CO 2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 138
*SLRPK138*
-2-
d) All of the above

a) Increases
c) Decreases
b) Higher C.O.P.
electricity.
a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Steel
d) Brass
a) Carbon di-oxide
b) Ammonia
c) Freon 12
d) Freon 22

a) Increases
d) Decreases
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Unpredictable
d) Remains constant
a) Low, low
b) Low, high
c) High, low
d) High, high
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK138*
SLR-PK 138
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Temperature 0C
Enthalpy (KJ/kg)
Entropy (kJ/kg-K)
Liquid
Vapor
Liquid
Vapor
25
298.9
1465.84
1.1242
5.0391
15
112.34
1426.54
0.4572
5.5490

12
(54=20)
Set Q
SLR-PK 138
-4-
*SLRPK138*
SECTION II
12
DBT = 30C
WBT = 20C
1) DPT
3) Sp. Humidity
5) Vapour density
i) Bypass factor
ii) ADP
(24=8)
(43=12)
1) Heating load
2) RSHF
3) GSHF.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 138
*SLRPK138*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Increases
d) Decreases
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Unpredictable
d) Remains constant
a) Low, low
b) Low, high
c) High, low
d) High, high
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 138
*SLRPK138*
-2-
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 0.75
d) 0
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Increases
d) Unpredictable
a) Decreases
b) Remains same
c) Increases

b) (T1 T2)/(T1)
c) (T2)/(T1 T2)
d) (T1 T2)/(T2)
a) (T1)/(T1 T2)
c) H 2
d) Ammonia
a) Air
b) CO 2
d) All of the above

a) Increases
c) Decreases
b) Higher C.O.P.
electricity.
a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Steel
d) Brass
a) Carbon di-oxide
b) Ammonia
c) Freon 12
______________
d) Freon 22
Set R
*SLRPK138*
SLR-PK 138
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Temperature 0C
Enthalpy (KJ/kg)
Entropy (kJ/kg-K)
Liquid
Vapor
Liquid
Vapor
25
298.9
1465.84
1.1242
5.0391
15
112.34
1426.54
0.4572
5.5490

12
(54=20)
Set R
SLR-PK 138
-4-
*SLRPK138*
SECTION II
12
DBT = 30C
WBT = 20C
1) DPT
3) Sp. Humidity
5) Vapour density
i) Bypass factor
ii) ADP
(24=8)
(43=12)
1) Heating load
2) RSHF
3) GSHF.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 138
*SLRPK138*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Increases
c) Decreases
b) Higher C.O.P.
electricity.
a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Steel
d) Brass
a) Carbon di-oxide
b) Ammonia
c) Freon 12
d) Freon 22

a) Increases
d) Decreases
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Unpredictable
d) Remains constant
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 138
*SLRPK138*
-2-

a) Low, low
b) Low, high
c) High, low
d) High, high
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 0.75
d) 0
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Increases
d) Unpredictable
a) Decreases
b) Remains same
c) Increases

a) (T1)/(T1 T2)
b) (T1 T2)/(T1)
c) (T2)/(T1 T2)
d) (T1 T2)/(T2)
a) Air
b) CO 2
c) H 2
d) Ammonia
d) All of the above

______________
Set S
*SLRPK138*
SLR-PK 138
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Temperature 0C
Enthalpy (KJ/kg)
Entropy (kJ/kg-K)
Liquid
Vapor
Liquid
Vapor
25
298.9
1465.84
1.1242
5.0391
15
112.34
1426.54
0.4572
5.5490

12
(54=20)
Set S
SLR-PK 138
-4-
*SLRPK138*
SECTION II
12
DBT = 30C
WBT = 20C
1) DPT
3) Sp. Humidity
5) Vapour density
i) Bypass factor
ii) ADP
(24=8)
(43=12)
1) Heating load
2) RSHF
3) GSHF.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 139
*SLRPK139*
S
Set
t
B.E. Mechanical (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2016

INDUSTRIAL AND QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I.
2) Attempt any three questions from Section II.
one mark.
Marks : 20
1. Conventional MCQ :
(201=20)
1) ________ funds are required to meet the working capital needs like investment in
the inventories, debtors, bank balance, cash on hand, marketable security etc.
a) Long term
b) Short term
c) Middle term
d) Fixed
st
2) In a double sampling plan if the 1 sample is neither good enough nor bad
enough then the decision on acceptance or rejection is based on the evidence of
a) Last two combined
b) First and last combined
c) First and second sample combined
d) First three combined
3) The items are subjected to ________ test must be inspected by sampling
inspection.
a) Quality
b) Destructive
c) Production
d) Single
4) A physical or chemical property or any other requirements used to define the
nature of the product is termed as
a) Quality properties
b) Material properties
c) Quality characteristics
d) Quality specifications
5) ____________ is ability of individual or group to induce or influence the
beliefs or action of other person or group.
a) Power
b) Authority
c) Post
d) Leadership
6) Close control close supervision is advantage of
a) Narrow span
b) Wide span
c) Close span
d) Open span
7) Quality is defined as the ______________ for use.
a) Fitness
b) Standard
c) Requirement d) Availability
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 139
-2*SLRPK139*
8) The probability of rejecting a good lot which otherwise would have been
accepted is called as
a) Rework
b) Consumers risk
c) Producers risk
d) OK good
9) __________ involves establishing the amount of work to be done and the
time when each element of work will start.
a) Planning
b) Routing
c) Scheduling
d) Organising
10) The effective organisation structure for any organisation is
a) Line Organisation
b) Staff Organisation
c) Line and Staff Organisation
d) Tailor made Organisation
11) AQL stands for
a) Average Quality Level
b) Acceptance Quality Level
c) Average Quality Limit
d) Acceptance Quality Limit
12) LTPD stands for
a) Lot Tolerance Perfect Defective b) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective
c) Lot Tolerable Percent Defective d) Lot Tolerance Piece Defective
13) Which motivational theory considers mainly the Hierarchy of needs ?
a) X theory
b) Y theory
c) Maslow theory d) Taylor theory
14) _________ is the variation in specifications for the same function use.
a) Deviations
b) Grade
c) Difference
d) Fluctuations
15) The basic objective of quality control in any organisation is to
a) Quality development, quality maintenance and quality improvement
activities in organisation
b) Achieve optimum cost
c) Achieve customers satisfaction
d) Achieve all the above
16) __________ may be polluted by industrial waste such as packing.
a) Land
b) Water
c) Society
d) Air
17) The number of items in a lot is called as
a) Test quantity
b) Sample size
c) Batch size
d) Lot size
18) For identification of vital few for the given data, the tool used is
a) Cause-Effect diagram
b) Scatter diagram
c) Pareto analysis
d) Check sheet
19) The quality of design is concerned with the __________ for the manufacture
of the product.
a) Exactness of specification
b) Fitness of specification
c) Correctness of specification
d) Tightness of specification
20) The quality depends upon ___________ of a person in a given situation.
a) Vision
b) Perspective
c) Standard of Situation
d) Thinking
______________
Set P
*SLRPK139*
S
SLR-PK 139
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Explain the system approach to management process.
b) Write note on social responsibilities and ethics in management.
6
7
3. a) Differentiate between narrow span and wide span.

b) Explain decision making process with types of decision.
6
7
4. a) Explain communication process and barriers in communication.

b) Explain Maslows theory and McGregors theory.
6
8
5. a) Explain sources of finance and classification of finance.

b) What is delegation of authority ? Write guidelines to overcome weak delegation.
6
7
SECTION II
6. a) Write a note on quality of design and quality of conformance.
b) Name any three quality gurus and their contribution in quality.
6
7
7. a) Explain Cause Effect diagram, Scatter diagram and Pareto analysis.

b) Write a note on continuous process improvement cycle and Jurans Trilogy.
6
7
8. a) Write a note on and R chart.

b) Compare Pareto Diagram and Histogram and draw the suitable diagram with
following data :
"
"
9. a) Explain actual and ideal OC curve for a sampling plan. Also explain all concepts
such as producers risk, consumers risk, AQL, LTPD, AOQL etc.
b) What is acceptance sampling ? Explain sampling plans and types of sampling
plans.
_____________________
7
6
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 139
*SLRPK139*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) Land
b) Water
c) Society
d) Air
a) Test quantity
b) Sample size
c) Batch size
d) Lot size
b) Scatter diagram
c) Pareto analysis
d) Check sheet
of the product.
a) Vision
b) Perspective
d) Thinking
a) Long term
b) Short term
c) Middle term
d) Fixed
st
c) First and second sample combined d) First three combined
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 139
-2*SLRPK139*
inspection.
a) Quality
b) Destructive
c) Production
d) Single
a) Power
b) Authority
c) Post
d) Leadership
a) Narrow span
b) Wide span
c) Close span
d) Open span
a) Fitness
b) Standard
a) Rework
b) Consumers risk
c) Producers risk
d) OK good
a) Planning
b) Routing
c) Scheduling
d) Organising
16) AQL stands for
17) LTPD stands for
a) X theory
b) Y theory
a) Deviations
b) Grade
c) Difference
d) Fluctuations
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK139*
S
SLR-PK 139
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
6
7

6
7

6
8

6
7
SECTION II
6
7

6
7

following data :
"
"
plans.
_____________________
7
6
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 139
*SLRPK139*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) AQL stands for
2) LTPD stands for
a) X theory
b) Y theory
a) Deviations
b) Grade
c) Difference
d) Fluctuations
a) Land
b) Water
c) Society
d) Air
a) Test quantity
b) Sample size c) Batch size
d) Lot size
b) Scatter diagram
c) Pareto analysis
d) Check sheet
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 139
-2*SLRPK139*
of the product.
a) Vision
b) Perspective
d) Thinking
a) Long term
b) Short term
c) Middle term
d) Fixed
st
c) First and second sample combined
d) First three combined
inspection.
a) Quality
b) Destructive
c) Production
d) Single
a) Power
b) Authority
c) Post
d) Leadership
a) Narrow span
b) Wide span
c) Close span
d) Open span
a) Fitness
b) Standard
a) Rework
b) Consumers risk
c) Producers risk
d) OK good
a) Planning
b) Routing
c) Scheduling
d) Organising
______________
Set R
*SLRPK139*
S
SLR-PK 139
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
6
7

6
7

6
8

6
7
SECTION II
6
7

6
7

following data :
"
"
plans.
_____________________
7
6
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 139
*SLRPK139*
S
Set
t

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) Narrow span
b) Wide span
c) Close span
d) Open span
a) Fitness
b) Standard
a) Rework
b) Consumers risk
c) Producers risk
d) OK good
a) Planning
b) Routing
c) Scheduling
d) Organising
6) AQL stands for
7) LTPD stands for
a) X theory
b) Y theory
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 139
-2*SLRPK139*
a) Deviations
b) Grade
c) Difference
d) Fluctuations
a) Land
b) Water
c) Society
d) Air
a) Test quantity
b) Sample size
c) Batch size
d) Lot size
b) Scatter diagram
c) Pareto analysis
d) Check sheet
of the product.
a) Vision
b) Perspective
d) Thinking
a) Long term
b) Short term
c) Middle term
d) Fixed
st
c) First and second sample combined d) First three combined
inspection.
a) Quality
b) Destructive
c) Production
d) Single
a) Power
b) Authority
c) Post
d) Leadership
______________
Set S
*SLRPK139*
S
SLR-PK 139
-3-

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
6
7

6
7

6
8

6
7
SECTION II
6
7

6
7

following data :
"
"
plans.
_____________________
7
6
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 140
*SLRPK140*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2016

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

4) Use of Scientific calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) Wheatstone bridge can be used
a) To convert voltage change to resistance change
b) To convert current change to temperature change
c) To convert electrical resistance change to voltage change
2) In PLC internal relays are used for
a) Sequencing of output
b) Latching of output
c) Preparation of ladder diagram
d) Programs with multiple input conditions
3) In signal conditioning signal processor performs the function
a) Controlling
b) Regulation
c) Amplification
d) Recording
4) Interfacing is required for
a) Code conversion
b) Data acquisition
c) Fault finding
d) Both b) and c)
5) A relay consist of
a) Inverter
b) Coil and iron core
c) Feedback analyser
6) Decimal equivalent of the binary number (11111)2 is
a) (30)10
b) (31)10
c) (40)10
d) (42)10
7) Squirrel cage induction motor is
a) DC motor
b) AC motor
c) Stepper motor d) AC and DC
8) EEPROM memory data can be erased by
a) Using ultraviolet rays
b) Applying relatively high voltage
c) Using PSEN pin
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 140
-2-
*SLRPK140*
9) In LVDT output voltage is proportional to

a) Linear voltage
b) Torque
c) Linear displacement
d) Temperature
10) Protocol governs
a) Memory of data
b) Sinking of output
c) Inversion of data
d) Data format
11) In microcontroller the function of the ALE pin
a) Read signal pin external memory
b) Provide output pulse for latching lower order of the address during access to
external memory
c) Reset the microcontroller
12) In NC machine for positioning of work table following motor is used
a) AC motor
b) DC motor
13) The properties of an ideal OP-amp are
a) It should have zero input impedance
b) It should have high input impedance
c) It should have zero open loop gain
d) It should have very low gain
14) The most commonly used crystal frequency for 8051 microcontroller
a) 12 MHz
b) 9 MHz
c) 7 MHz
d) 15 MHz
15) In distributed communication system
a) Hierarchy of computer according to the task they are carried out
b) Each computer system carries out similar task to all other comport system
c) Central computer control the entire plant
16) In this proximity sensor, as target approaches the face of the sensor, oscillator
amplitude
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same d) None of these
17) Karnugh map is used
a) To obtain the truth table
b) To convert code
c) To produce simplified Boolean expression
d) To obtain various graphs
18) Octal equivalent of decimal number (0.6875)10 is
a) (0.55)8
b) (0.53)8
c) (0.54)8
d) (0.56)8
19) This network topology is used in telephone system
a) Tree
b) Star
c) Ring
d) Bus
20) PLC program is written in
a) PLC diagram
b) Multiplexure diagram
c) Ladder diagram
______________
Set P
*SLRPK140*
-3-
SLR-PK 140
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Explain how a modern washing machine works. State clearly the different sensors
and actuators used and their functions. Support your explanation with help of
schematics.
b) Discuss Dynamic characteristics of measurement systems.
c) Discuss construction and working of stepper motor. List its advantages, limitations
and applications.
3. a) Simplify the Boolean function using Karnaugh map. Draw the circuit diagram of
the simplified function
F(a, b, c, d) = (0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14).
b) Define signal conditioning. State some of the signal conditioning devices and
explain the device Multiplexer.
c) Explain with the help of sketch any two temperature sensors.
(45=20)
a) Multiplexing and de-multiplexing

b) Sensors for motion and displacement
c) Direction control valve
d) Cams and Gears
e) ADCs and DACs.
Set P
SLR-PK 140
-4-
*SLRPK140*
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the architecture of a 8051 microcontroller with neat sketch.
b) Discuss with neat sketch latching contact in PLC.
c) Discuss various network topologies.
6. a) Draw the ladder diagram and truth table for logic functions AND, OR, NAND,
NOR.
b) Draw a ladder diagram of a system using a PLC, which can be used to control the
movement of piston in a cylinder so that when switch is momentarily pressed, the
piston moves in one direction and when a second switch is momentarily pressed,
the piston moves in other direction. You might consider using a 4/2 solenoidcontrolled valve.
c) What do you mean by communication protocols ?
(54=20)
a) Advantages and disadvantages of PLC

b) Intercommunication OSI model
c) Types of joints used in robots
d) Artificial intelligence in mechatronics
e) Sensors for automation.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 140
*SLRPK140*
Seat
No.
Set

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
amplitude
a) Decreases
b) Increases
b) To convert code
a) (0.55)8
b) (0.53)8
c) (0.54)8
d) (0.56)8
a) Tree
b) Star
c) Ring
d) Bus
a) PLC diagram
c) Ladder diagram
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 140
-2-
*SLRPK140*

a) Controlling
b) Regulation
c) Amplification
d) Recording
a) Code conversion
b) Data acquisition
c) Fault finding
d) Both b) and c)
a) Inverter
a) (30)10
b) (31)10
c) (40)10
d) (42)10
a) DC motor
b) AC motor
c) Using PSEN pin
a) Linear voltage
b) Torque
d) Temperature
a) Memory of data
d) Data format
external memory
a) AC motor
b) DC motor
a) 12 MHz
b) 9 MHz
c) 7 MHz
d) 15 MHz
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK140*
-3-
SLR-PK 140
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
schematics.
and applications.
F(a, b, c, d) = (0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14).
(45=20)

d) Cams and Gears
e) ADCs and DACs.
Set Q
SLR-PK 140
-4-
*SLRPK140*
SECTION II
NOR.
(54=20)

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 140
*SLRPK140*
Seat
No.
Set

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
external memory
a) AC motor
b) DC motor
a) 12 MHz
b) 9 MHz
c) 7 MHz
d) 15 MHz
amplitude
a) Decreases
b) Increases
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 140
-2-
*SLRPK140*

b) To convert code
a) (0.55)8
b) (0.53)8
c) (0.54)8
d) (0.56)8
a) Tree
b) Star
c) Ring
d) Bus
a) PLC diagram
c) Ladder diagram
a) Controlling
b) Regulation
c) Amplification
d) Recording
a) Code conversion
b) Data acquisition
c) Fault finding
d) Both b) and c)
a) Inverter
a) (30)10
b) (31)10
c) (40)10
d) (42)10
a) DC motor
b) AC motor
c) Using PSEN pin
a) Linear voltage
b) Torque
d) Temperature
a) Memory of data
d) Data format
______________
Set R
*SLRPK140*
-3-
SLR-PK 140
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
schematics.
and applications.
F(a, b, c, d) = (0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14).
(45=20)

d) Cams and Gears
e) ADCs and DACs.
Set R
SLR-PK 140
-4-
*SLRPK140*
SECTION II
NOR.
(54=20)

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 140
*SLRPK140*
Seat
No.
Set

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) (30)10
b) (31)10
c) (40)10
d) (42)10

a) DC motor
b) AC motor
d) AC and DC
c) Stepper motor

c) Using PSEN pin
a) Linear voltage
b) Torque
d) Temperature
5) Protocol governs
a) Memory of data
d) Data format

external memory
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 140
-2-
*SLRPK140*

a) AC motor
b) DC motor
a) 12 MHz
b) 9 MHz
c) 7 MHz
d) 15 MHz
amplitude
a) Decreases
b) Increases
b) To convert code
a) (0.55)8
b) (0.53)8
c) (0.54)8
d) (0.56)8
a) Tree
b) Star
c) Ring
d) Bus
a) PLC diagram
c) Ladder diagram
a) Controlling
b) Regulation
c) Amplification
d) Recording
a) Code conversion
b) Data acquisition
c) Fault finding
d) Both b) and c)
a) Inverter
______________
Set S
*SLRPK140*
-3-
SLR-PK 140
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
schematics.
and applications.
F(a, b, c, d) = (0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14).
(45=20)

d) Cams and Gears
e) ADCs and DACs.
Set S
SLR-PK 140
-4-
*SLRPK140*
SECTION II
NOR.
(54=20)

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 141
*SLRPK141*
S

AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Figure to the right indicate full marks.

carries one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) None of above
2) Increase in torque in a vehicle is obtained by

a) Decreasing speed
b) Decreasing power
c) Decreasing fuel consumption
d) All of above
3) Advantage of using front engine rear wheel drive are
a) Balanced weight distribution
b) Easy steering
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
4) A two piece propeller shaft requires
a) One universal joint
c) The shaft to be solid
b) A central support bearing

d) None of above
5) The inner end of axle shaft is splined to

a) Sun gear
b) Planet pinion
c) Crown wheel
d) Differential cage
6) The crown wheel and pinion assembly is called as
a) Differential
b) Rear axle
c) Cage
d) Final drive
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 141
*SLRPK141*
-2-
7) The gear rack in rack and pinion steering gear is attached to

a) Panhard rod
b) Pitman arm
c) Radius rod
d) Tie rod
8) The gas used in modern shock absorber is
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
9) Cornering force multiplied by pneumatic trail is called as

a) Self righting torque
b) Cornering power
c) Slip
d) Castor trial
10) The steering ratio of manual steering of cars is approximately
a) 5
b) 15
c) 50
d) 100
11) Hand brakes generally are attached to
a) Rear wheels
b) Front wheels c) Differential
d) None of above
12) Bleeding of brakes generally remove from the system

a) Air
b) Excess fluid c) Vacuum
d) Water
13) The negative plate of the lead acid battery has

a) Pb
b) PbO2
c) PbSO4
d) H2SO4
14) Automobile starting motors are

a) Series wound
c) Series shunt wound
b) Shunt wound
d) None of above
15) The smallest gears inside the differential casing are

a) Ring gears
b) Sun gears
c) Side gears
d) Pinion gears

a) Manometer
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
17) In an alternator, the magnetic field is produced by
a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Regulator
d) Converter
18) The function of a shackle in a leaf spring is

a) Pivoting the spring end
b) Allow spring length to change
c) Control sidesway
d) Control rear torque
19) Type of clutch used in two wheelers is
a) Single plate clutch
b) Multiple clutch
c) Dry clutch
d) None of above
20) The purpose of using recirculating ball type of steering gear is to reduce
a) Operational friction
b) Operation cost
c) Toe out
d) None of above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK141*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 141

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Write short note on :
i) Four wheel drive

ii) Automobile chassis components.
b) Prepare layout of an electric powered vehicle with their advantages and its
disadvantages over conventional vehicle.
c) Define the terms traction and tractive effort and draw bar pull.
3. a) Where and why do we use multiple clutches ? Explain the constructional

feature and working of multiplate wet clutch for scooter.
b) Classify automobile gear boxes. Describe with a neat sketch sliding mesh
gear box.
4. a) Write short notes on :
10
10
8
i) Epicyclic gear box

ii) Propeller shaft and universal joint.
b) For typical motor car the road resistance is given by 23N per 1000N, the air
resistance by expression 0.0827V2, transmission efficiency 88% in top
speed, car weighs 19934N when fully loaded. Calculate :
12
a) The brake power in KW required for a top speed of 144 km/hr.
Set P
SLR-PK 141
-4-
*SLRPK141*
b) The acceleration in m/s2 at 48 km/hr, assuming the torque at 48 km/hr in

top gear 25% more than at 144 km/hr.
c) The BP in KW required for driving the car up a gradient of 1 in 5 at 48 km/hr,
transmission efficiency 80% in bottom gear. The resistance being N and V
the speed in km/hr and g, acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2.
SECTION II
5. a) What are the different types of steering gear boxes ? Explain re-circulating
ball type steering gear box.
b) Explain the terms :
8
4
i) Under-steer and over-steer

ii) Toe-in and Toe-out.
c) Explain working of a hydraulic braking system with neat sketch.
6. a) Write short notes on Leaf spring and coil springs.
8
8
b) Write in detail functions and requirements of automobile suspension

system.
c) Write short notes on Torque tube drive.
7. a) Discuss with diagram the electrical charging system of an automobile and

compare d. c. generator with alternator.
b) Differentiate between two wheeler and three wheeler layouts.
Battery charging circuit.

_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 141
*SLRPK141*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Manometer
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Regulator
d) Converter

c) Control sidesway
b) Multiple clutch
c) Dry clutch
d) None of above
b) Operation cost
c) Toe out
d) None of above
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 141
*SLRPK141*
-2-

a) Decreasing speed
b) Decreasing power
d) All of above
b) Easy steering
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above

d) None of above

a) Sun gear
b) Planet pinion
c) Crown wheel
a) Differential
b) Rear axle
c) Cage
d) Final drive
a) Panhard rod
b) Pitman arm
c) Radius rod
d) Tie rod
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide

b) Cornering power
c) Slip
d) Castor trial
a) 5
b) 15
c) 50
d) 100
a) Rear wheels
d) None of above

a) Air
d) Water

a) Pb
b) PbO2
c) PbSO4
d) H2SO4

a) Series wound
b) Shunt wound
d) None of above

a) Ring gears
b) Sun gears
c) Side gears
______________
d) Pinion gears
Set Q
*SLRPK141*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 141

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
i) Four wheel drive


gear box.
10
10
8

12
Set Q
SLR-PK 141
-4-
*SLRPK141*

SECTION II
8
4

8
8

system.


_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 141
*SLRPK141*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Rear wheels
d) None of above

a) Air
d) Water

a) Pb
b) PbO2
c) PbSO4
d) H2SO4

a) Series wound
b) Shunt wound
d) None of above

a) Ring gears
b) Sun gears
c) Side gears
d) Pinion gears

a) Manometer
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Regulator
d) Converter
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 141
*SLRPK141*
-2-

c) Control sidesway
b) Multiple clutch
c) Dry clutch
d) None of above
b) Operation cost
c) Toe out
d) None of above
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) None of above

a) Decreasing speed
b) Decreasing power
d) All of above
b) Easy steering
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above

d) None of above

a) Sun gear
b) Planet pinion
c) Crown wheel
a) Differential
b) Rear axle
c) Cage
d) Final drive
a) Panhard rod
b) Pitman arm
c) Radius rod
d) Tie rod
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide

b) Cornering power
c) Slip
d) Castor trial
a) 5
b) 15
c) 50
d) 100
______________
Set R
*SLRPK141*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 141

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
i) Four wheel drive


gear box.
10
10
8

12
Set R
SLR-PK 141
-4-
*SLRPK141*

SECTION II
8
4

8
8

system.


_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 141
*SLRPK141*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

carries one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 20

a) Differential
b) Rear axle
c) Cage
(201=20)
d) Final drive

a) Panhard rod
b) Pitman arm
c) Radius rod
d) Tie rod
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide

b) Cornering power
c) Slip
d) Castor trial
a) 5
b) 15
c) 50
d) 100
a) Rear wheels
d) None of above

a) Air
d) Water

a) Pb
b) PbO2
c) PbSO4
d) H2SO4
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 141
*SLRPK141*
-2-

a) Series wound
b) Shunt wound
d) None of above

a) Ring gears
b) Sun gears
c) Side gears
d) Pinion gears

a) Manometer
c) Hydrometer
d) Psychrometer
a) Stator
b) Rotor
c) Regulator
d) Converter

c) Control sidesway
b) Multiple clutch
c) Dry clutch
d) None of above
b) Operation cost
c) Toe out
d) None of above
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) None of above

a) Decreasing speed
b) Decreasing power
d) All of above
b) Easy steering
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above

d) None of above

a) Sun gear
b) Planet pinion
c) Crown wheel
______________
Set S
*SLRPK141*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 141

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
i) Four wheel drive


gear box.
10
10
8

12
Set S
SLR-PK 141
-4-
*SLRPK141*

SECTION II
8
4

8
8

system.


_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 142
*SLRPK142*
Seat
No.
Set
PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT (Elective II)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) The correct sequence of operations in production planning and control is
a) Routing-Scheduling-Dispatching-Follow up
b) Scheduling-Routing-Dispatching-Follow up
c) Dispatching-Routing-Scheduling-Follow up
d) Routing-Scheduling-Follow up-Dispatching
2) The transit time consist of
a) Time taken by raw material from machine to machine
b) Time consumed in moving the work between various departments
c) Time taken by a worker to machine a component
3) In ABC analysis C stands for
a) Components having high cost and high usage
b) Components having low cost and low usage
c) Components having high cost and low usage
d) Components having low cost and high usage
4) Determining start and finish times for waiting jobs by assigning them to earliest available
time slot at the work centre is known as
a) Backward scheduling
b) Forward scheduling
c) General scheduling
d) None of above
5) Which of the following is not a forecasting technique ?
a) Judgemental
b) Time series
c) Time horizon
d) Associative
6) Production planning and control means

a) Preplanning and routing
c) Expediting
b) Scheduling and dispatching

d) All of above
7) Delphi method is used for

a) Judgemental forecast
c) Associative model
b) Time series forecast

d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 142
*SLRPK142*
-2-
8) Re-ordering level is calculated as

a) Maximum consumption rate Maximum re-order period
b) Minimum consumption rate Minimum re-order period
c) Maximum consumption rate Minimum re-order period
d) Minimum consumption rate Maximum re-order period
9) Buffer stock is the level of stock
a) Half of the actual stock
b) At which the ordering process should start
c) Minimum stock level below which actual stock should not fall
d) Maximum stock in inventory
10) JIT is a philosophy of
a) Variability increase
c) Re-engineering for breakthrough
b) Waste Reduction
d) Push production
11) Gantt chart is used for

a) Routing
b) Sequencing
c) Scheduling
d) Dispatching
12) The length of time between placing an order and receipt of material is called as
a) Lead time
b) Order time
c) Cycle time
d) Process time
13) Which of the following is not an inventory ?
a) Machines
b) Raw material
c) Finished products
d) Consumable tools
14) OEE in TPM means
a) Overall Engine Effectiveness
c) Overall Equipment Efficiency
b) Overall Engine Emission

d) None of these
15) The following classes of costs are usually involved in inventory decisions except
a) Cost of ordering
b) Carrying cost
c) Cost of shortages
d) Machining cost
16) Services are
a) Tangible
b) Intangible
17) Regression analysis is a

a) Delphi model
c) Causal model
c) Both of above
d) None of above
b) Group technique
d) Time series model
18) Mean rate of consumption during lead time (R) multiplied by mean lead time (L) is equal to
a) Reserve stock
b) Buffer stock
c) Other stock
d) None of above
19) Pareto principle is used in
a) ABC analysis
b) XYZ analysis
c) SDE analysis
d) None of above
20) The sequence of a typical manufacturing supply chain is

a) Storage-Supplier-manufacturing-storage-distributor-retailer-customer
b) Supplier-Storage-manufacturing-storage-distributor-retailer-customer
c) Supplier-Storage-manufacturing-distributor-storage-retailer-customer
d) Supplier-Storage-manufacturing-storage-retailer-distributor-customer
______________
Set P
*SLRPK142*
-3-
SLR-PK 142
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

N.B. : Solve any two questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2.
a) Give the typical organizations structure for production management.
b) Give the characteristic feature of the following types of productions.
a) Batch production
b) Mass production.
c) Explain the various interrelationships between the following functional area.
1) Production management-marketing-finance-personnel
3.
4.
a) Compares production planning with production control.
b) What is sales forecasting explain the need for sales forecasting ?
c) What are seasonal variations why they are important for sales forecasting ?
a) What information is essential for efficient working of PPC ?
b) Explain the long-term and short-term capacity strategies.
c) What are the variables associated with aggregate planning ?
SECTION II
5.
a) Explain how MRP differs from inventory control system.
b) Explain in brief various material handling equipment.
c) Explain the various types of maintenance in brief.
Set P
SLR-PK 142
6.
-4-
*SLRPK142*
a) What are inventories why does it is essential to keep inventories ?
b) Define the following :
a) Re-order point
b) Lead time
c) Minimum level
d) Maximum level.
c) Explain in brief about supply chain management.
7. Write short notes on (five marks each) :
7
20
1) JIT.
2) Reliability.
3) CIM.
4) EOQ.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 142
*SLRPK142*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) Services are
a) Tangible
b) Intangible
a) Delphi model
c) Causal model
c) Both of above
d) None of above
b) Group technique
a) Reserve stock
b) Buffer stock
c) Other stock
d) None of above
a) ABC analysis
b) XYZ analysis
c) SDE analysis
d) None of above

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 142
*SLRPK142*
-2-

d) None of above
a) Judgemental
b) Time series
c) Time horizon
d) Associative

c) Expediting

d) All of above


d) All of the above

b) Waste Reduction
d) Push production

a) Routing
b) Sequencing
c) Scheduling
d) Dispatching
a) Lead time
b) Order time
c) Cycle time
d) Process time
a) Machines
b) Raw material
d) Consumable tools
19) OEE in TPM means

d) None of these
a) Cost of ordering
b) Carrying cost
d) Machining cost
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK142*
-3-
SLR-PK 142
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2.
a) Batch production
b) Mass production.
3.
4.
SECTION II
5.
Set Q
SLR-PK 142
6.
-4-
*SLRPK142*
a) Re-order point
b) Lead time
c) Minimum level
d) Maximum level.
7
20
1) JIT.
2) Reliability.
3) CIM.
4) EOQ.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 142
*SLRPK142*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Routing
b) Sequencing
c) Scheduling
d) Dispatching
a) Lead time
b) Order time
c) Cycle time
d) Process time
a) Machines
b) Raw material
d) Consumable tools
4) OEE in TPM means

d) None of these
a) Cost of ordering
b) Carrying cost
d) Machining cost
6) Services are
a) Tangible
b) Intangible
a) Delphi model
c) Causal model
c) Both of above
d) None of above
b) Group technique
a) Reserve stock
b) Buffer stock
c) Other stock
d) None of above
a) ABC analysis
b) XYZ analysis
c) SDE analysis
d) None of above

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 142
*SLRPK142*
-2-

d) None of above
a) Judgemental
b) Time series
c) Time horizon
d) Associative

c) Expediting

d) All of above


d) All of the above

b) Waste Reduction
d) Push production
______________
Set R
*SLRPK142*
-3-
SLR-PK 142
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2.
a) Batch production
b) Mass production.
3.
4.
SECTION II
5.
Set R
SLR-PK 142
6.
-4-
*SLRPK142*
a) Re-order point
b) Lead time
c) Minimum level
d) Maximum level.
7
20
1) JIT.
2) Reliability.
3) CIM.
4) EOQ.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 142
*SLRPK142*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

c) Expediting

d) All of above


d) All of the above

b) Waste Reduction
d) Push production

a) Routing
b) Sequencing
c) Scheduling
d) Dispatching
a) Lead time
b) Order time
c) Cycle time
d) Process time
a) Machines
b) Raw material
d) Consumable tools
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 142
*SLRPK142*
-2-
9) OEE in TPM means


d) None of these
a) Cost of ordering
b) Carrying cost
d) Machining cost
11) Services are
a) Tangible
b) Intangible

a) Delphi model
c) Causal model
c) Both of above
d) None of above
b) Group technique
a) Reserve stock
b) Buffer stock
c) Other stock
d) None of above
a) ABC analysis
b) XYZ analysis
c) SDE analysis
d) None of above

d) None of above
a) Judgemental
b) Time series
c) Time horizon
d) Associative
______________
Set S
*SLRPK142*
-3-
SLR-PK 142
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2.
a) Batch production
b) Mass production.
3.
4.
SECTION II
5.
Set S
SLR-PK 142
6.
-4-
*SLRPK142*
a) Re-order point
b) Lead time
c) Minimum level
d) Maximum level.
7
20
1) JIT.
2) Reliability.
3) CIM.
4) EOQ.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 143
*SLRPK143*
S
Set
.

MATERIAL HANDLING SYSTEMS (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201)
1) The main objective of the material handling system is to __________ material movement.
a) Medium
b) Maximum
c) Reduce
d) Light movement
2) The equipment used to move material from on location to another is called as
a) Positioning equipment
b) Transport equipment
c) Storage equipment
3) Flat belt conveyor are characterized by
a) Bulk + On-Floor + No Accumulation
b) Unit + Overhead + Accumulation
c) Unit + On-Floor + No Accumulation
d) Bulk + Overhead + No Accumulation
4) __________ conveyors vibrates at a lower frequency and larger amplitude in order to
convey larger objects.
a) Screw
b) Oscillating
c) Magnetic
d) None of these
5) Cranes are used to move material over __________ paths.
a) Fixed
b) Diverted
c) Variable
6) A good plant layout ensures
a) Maximum material handling
c) Exact MH
d) None of these

d) None of these
7) __________ conveyors, slope of gravity movement depends on weight of the material.

a) Chute conveyor
b) Wheel conveyor
c) Roller conveyor
d) Chain conveyor
a) Low volume
b) Medium volume
c) High volume
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 143
*SLRPK143*
-2-
9) Hoisting equipments works in conjection with __________ and workstation cranes.

a) Roller
b) Industrial trucks
c) Elevator
d) Overhead crane
a) Maximizing distance and time of travel
b) Minimizing distance and time of travel
c) Manual material handling
d) All of the above
11) __________ common fork lift truck accidents are considered in material handling system.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) One
d) Ten
12) OSHA stands for
d) None of these
13) Storage equipment used for __________ or __________ material over a period of time.
a) Catching or stocking
b) Holding or buffering
c) Storing or hanging
d) All of these
14) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
15) A diagram showing the path followed by men and materials while performing a task is
known as
a) Cross diagram
b) Flow process chart
c) Travel chart
d) Flow diagram
16) There are three basic characteristics of material handling, picking up the load, transporting
the load and
a) Catching the load
b) Rush the load
c) Setting the load down
d) Up the load
17) Flow diagram, is used to study
a) Bottleneck
c) M/c maintenance
b) Sequence of operations
d) Operator skill
18) If the degree of mechanization is increased to a high level, the total of the capital investment
and operating cost of the equipment will
a) Low
b) Raise
c) No effect
19) As the distance or time factor increases, the cost per unit of product handled
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) None of these
20) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
______________
d) Movement
Set P
*SLRPK143*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 143

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
3.
a) Explain objective and significance of material handling system in industry.
b) Explain any three types of hoisting equipments.
c) Explain any three types of mobile equipments.
a) Define material handling system and explain its principles.
b) Describe the general characteristics of conveyors and explain with figure any two types
of conveyors.
c) Material handling does not take part directly in value addition of the product but it is the
significant element of manufacturing cost. Justify the above statement.
20
a) Unit load containerization and palletisation.
b) Effect of material handling on productivity.
c) Types of cranes (any three).
d) Industrial Robots.
7
SECTION II
5.
a) Explain in brief procedure for selection of material handling equipment.
c) Explain different types of material handling systems.
Set P
SLR-PK 143
6.
-4-
*SLRPK143*
a) Describe different activities at the receiving and shipping functions to improve the efficiency
of MHS.
b) Describe with figure types of flow patterns for material handling.
c) Explain with figure string diagram.
20
a) Equipment evaluation sheet.
b) Procedure chart.
c) Flow diagram.
d) Selection of material handling equipment in casting manufacturing industry.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 143
*SLRPK143*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201)
the load and
b) Rush the load
d) Up the load
a) Bottleneck
c) M/c maintenance
d) Operator skill
a) Low
b) Raise
c) No effect
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) None of these
5) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
a) Medium
b) Maximum
c) Reduce
d) Light movement

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 143
*SLRPK143*
-2-

a) Screw
b) Oscillating
c) Magnetic
d) None of these
a) Fixed
b) Diverted
c) Variable
c) Exact MH
d) None of these

d) None of these
a) Chute conveyor
b) Wheel conveyor
c) Roller conveyor
d) Chain conveyor
a) Low volume
b) Medium volume
c) High volume
d) All of these
a) Roller
c) Elevator
d) Overhead crane
d) All of the above
a) Five
b) Seven
c) One
d) Ten
17) OSHA stands for
d) None of these
d) All of these
19) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
known as
a) Cross diagram
c) Travel chart
d) Flow diagram
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK143*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 143

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
3.
of conveyors.
20
7
SECTION II
5.
Set Q
SLR-PK 143
6.
-4-
*SLRPK143*
of MHS.
20
b) Procedure chart.
c) Flow diagram.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 143
*SLRPK143*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201)
a) Five
b) Seven
c) One
d) Ten
2) OSHA stands for
d) None of these
d) All of these
4) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
known as
a) Cross diagram
c) Travel chart
d) Flow diagram
the load and
b) Rush the load
d) Up the load
a) Bottleneck
c) M/c maintenance
d) Operator skill
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 143
*SLRPK143*
-2-
a) Low
b) Raise
c) No effect
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) None of these
10) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
a) Medium
b) Maximum
c) Reduce
d) Light movement
a) Screw
b) Oscillating
c) Magnetic
d) None of these
a) Fixed
b) Diverted
c) Variable
c) Exact MH
d) None of these

d) None of these
a) Chute conveyor
b) Wheel conveyor
c) Roller conveyor
d) Chain conveyor
a) Low volume
b) Medium volume
c) High volume
d) All of these
a) Roller
c) Elevator
d) Overhead crane
a) Maximizing distance and time of travel b) Minimizing distance and time of travel
d) All of the above
Set R
______________
*SLRPK143*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 143

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
3.
of conveyors.
20
7
SECTION II
5.
Set R
SLR-PK 143
6.
-4-
*SLRPK143*
of MHS.
20
b) Procedure chart.
c) Flow diagram.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 143
*SLRPK143*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

c) Exact MH
(201)
d) None of these

a) Chute conveyor
b) Wheel conveyor
c) Roller conveyor
d) Chain conveyor
a) Low volume
b) Medium volume
c) High volume
d) All of these
a) Roller
c) Elevator
d) Overhead crane
d) All of the above
a) Five
b) Seven
c) One
d) Ten
7) OSHA stands for
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 143
*SLRPK143*
-2-
d) All of these
9) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
known as
a) Cross diagram
c) Travel chart
d) Flow diagram
the load and
b) Rush the load
d) Up the load
a) Bottleneck
c) M/c maintenance
d) Operator skill
a) Low
b) Raise
c) No effect
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) None of these
15) Symbol
represents for
a) Operation
b) Store
c) Inspection
d) Movement
a) Medium
b) Maximum
c) Reduce
d) Light movement

a) Screw
b) Oscillating
c) Magnetic
d) None of these
a) Fixed
b) Diverted
c) Variable
______________
d) None of these
Set S
*SLRPK143*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 143

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
3.
of conveyors.
20
7
SECTION II
5.
Set S
SLR-PK 143
6.
-4-
*SLRPK143*
of MHS.
20
b) Procedure chart.
c) Flow diagram.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 144
*SLRPK144*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2016

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

3) Solve objectives on answer sheet separately provided with
obj. que. paper only.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) At the _______, the conceptual and design abilities and human skills are
especially valuable
A) Middle management level
B) Top management level
C) Lower management level
D) All levels
2) __________ is the ability of individual or groups to induce or influence the
beliefs or action of other persons or groups.
A) Power
B) Authority
C) Post
D) Leadership
3) Under Theory _________ average human being learn, under proper conditions,
not only to accept responsibility but also to seek it.
A) W
B) X
C) Y
D) Z
4) _________ managers are the Country club manager in grid type.
A) 1.9
B) 1.1
C) 9.1
D) 9.9
5) _________ is any paid form of non personnel presentation and promotion of
goods and services or ideas by an identified sponsored
A) Marketing
B) Selling
C) Advertising
D) None of above
6) Figurehead role, leader role, liaison role are ___________ managerial roles.
A) Interpersonal B) Informational C) Decision
D) Leading
7) _________ is defined as the discipline dealing with what is good and bad
and with moral duty and obligation
A) Rule
B) Organisation culture
C) Protocol
D) Ethics
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 144
-2-
*SLRPK144*
8) __________ involves the introduction of new employees to the enterprise, its

function, tasks and people
A) scheduling
B) recruiting
C) orienting
D) probation
9) If _______, then this could results in frustration of subordinates.
A) Power> Responsibility
B) Power < Responsibility
C) Power = Responsibility
D) Power> Authority
10) __________ attempts to make a job more varied by removing the dullness
associated with performing repetitive operations.
A) Job enlargement
B) Job enrichment
C) Job training
D) Job variation
11) In any sampling plan if c is the acceptance number then the rejection number is
A) c
B) c 1
C) c + 2
D) c + 1
12) In double sampling plan second sample is taken when the number of defective
A) exceeds c1 but doesnt exceeds c2 B) doesnt exceeds c1
C) exceeds both c1 and c2
D) exceeds c2
13) The producers risk is denoted by
B)
C)
D)
A)
14) Quality is defined as the ___________ for use.
A) Fitness
B) Standard
C) Requirement D) Availability
15) AQL stands for
A) Average Quality Level
B) Acceptable Quality Level
C) Acceptable Quality Limit
D) Average Quality Limit
16) In double sampling plan C2 is the acceptance number for the
A) First and last combined
B) First and second sample combined
C) Last two combined
D) First three combined
17) The larger the sample size and acceptance number ________ is the slope of
OC curve
A) Straight
B) Curve
C) Steeper
D) Horizontal
18) The probability of accepting a bad lot which otherwise would have been rejected
is called as
A) Rework
B) Consumers risk
C) Producers risk
D) OK goods
19) The number of items in a sample is called as
A) Lot size
B) Batch size
C) Sample size D) Test quantity
20) The success of sampling inspection depends upon
A) Lot size
B) Sample size
C) Acceptance number
D) All
______________
Set P
*SLRPK144*
-3-
SLR-PK 144
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. A) Differentiate between narrow span and wide span.
B) Explain system approach to management process.
3. A) Explain leadership behavior and styles.
B) Explain selection process in detail.
4. A) Explain Maslows theory and McGregors theory.
B) Define capital and explain sources of finance.
5. A) Explain barriers in communications.
B) What is channel of distribution ? Explain channel of distribution for domestic

goods and industrial goods.
SECTION II
6. A) Write note on supplier partnership.
B) Write a note on X-R chart.
7. A) Explain actual and ideal OC curve for a sampling plan. Also explain all
concepts such as producers risk, consumers risk, AQL, LTPD, AOQL etc.
B) Explain cause and effect diagram, scatter diagram and pareto analysis.
6
Set P
SLR-PK 144
-4-
*SLRPK144*
8. A) Name any three quality gurus and their contribution in quality.

B) Write short note on six sigma.
6
7
9. A) A double sampling plan is as follows :

a) Select a sample of 2 from a lot of 20. If both article inspected bare good,
accept the lot, if both are defective, reject the lot. If 1 is good and 1
defective, take the second sample of one article.
b) If the article in the second sample is good, accept the lot. If it is defective
reject the lot. If a lot of 25% defective is submitted, what is the probability
of acceptance ?
8
B) Write note on Taguchis quality engineering.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 144
*SLRPK144*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

OC curve
A) Straight
B) Curve
C) Steeper
D) Horizontal
is called as
A) Rework
B) Consumers risk
C) Producers risk
D) OK goods
A) Lot size
B) Batch size
C) Sample size
D) Test quantity

A) Lot size
B) Sample size
D) All
especially valuable
D) All levels
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 144
-2-
*SLRPK144*

A) Power
B) Authority
C) Post
D) Leadership
A) W
B) X
C) Y
D) Z
A) 1.9
B) 1.1
C) 9.1
D) 9.9
A) Marketing
B) Selling
C) Advertising
D) None of above
D) Leading
A) Rule
C) Protocol
D) Ethics
A) scheduling
B) recruiting
C) orienting
D) probation
D) Power> Authority
A) Job enlargement
B) Job enrichment
C) Job training
D) Job variation
A) c
B) c 1
C) c + 2
D) c + 1
D) exceeds c2
B)
C)
D)
A)
A) Fitness
B) Standard
20) AQL stands for
Set Q
______________
*SLRPK144*
-3-
SLR-PK 144
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

SECTION II
6
Set Q
SLR-PK 144
-4-
*SLRPK144*

6
7

of acceptance ?
8
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 144
*SLRPK144*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
A) c
B) c 1
C) c + 2
D) c + 1
D) exceeds c2
B)
A)
C)

A) Fitness
B) Standard
C) Requirement
5) AQL stands for
D)
D) Availability


OC curve
A) Straight
B) Curve
C) Steeper
D) Horizontal
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 144
-2-
*SLRPK144*
is called as
A) Rework
B) Consumers risk
C) Producers risk
D) OK goods
A) Lot size
B) Batch size
A) Lot size
B) Sample size
D) All
especially valuable
D) All levels
A) Power
B) Authority
C) Post
D) Leadership
A) W
B) X
C) Y
D) Z
A) 1.9
B) 1.1
C) 9.1
D) 9.9
A) Marketing
B) Selling
C) Advertising
D) None of above
D) Leading
A) Rule
C) Protocol
D) Ethics
A) scheduling
B) recruiting
C) orienting
D) probation
D) Power> Authority
A) Job enlargement
B) Job enrichment
Set R
C) Job training
D) Job variation
______________
*SLRPK144*
-3-
SLR-PK 144
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

SECTION II
6
Set R
SLR-PK 144
-4-
*SLRPK144*

6
7

of acceptance ?
8
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 144
*SLRPK144*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
D) Leading
A) Rule
C) Protocol
D) Ethics
A) scheduling
B) recruiting
C) orienting
D) probation
D) Power> Authority
A) Job enlargement
B) Job enrichment
C) Job training
D) Job variation
A) c
B) c 1
C) c + 2
D) c + 1
D) exceeds c2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 144
-2-
*SLRPK144*

B)
C)
D)
A)
A) Fitness
B) Standard
10) AQL stands for
OC curve
A) Straight
B) Curve
C) Steeper
D) Horizontal
is called as
A) Rework
B) Consumers risk
C) Producers risk
D) OK goods
A) Lot size
B) Batch size
A) Lot size
B) Sample size
D) All
especially valuable
D) All levels
A) Power
B) Authority
C) Post
D) Leadership
A) W
B) X
C) Y
D) Z
A) 1.9
B) 1.1
C) 9.1
D) 9.9
A) Marketing
B) Selling
C) Advertising
D) None of above
______________
Set S
*SLRPK144*
-3-
SLR-PK 144
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

SECTION II
6
Set S
SLR-PK 144
-4-
*SLRPK144*

6
7

of acceptance ?
8
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 145
*SLRPK145*
S
Set
.
B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2016

INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. 1) Vehicle manufacturing assembly line is an example of

a) Product layout
b) Process layout
c) Fixed layout
d) Manual layout
2) An assembly activity is represented on a operation process chart by the symbol

a)
b)
c)
d)
3) The standard time of an operation while conducting a time study is

a) Mean observed time + allowance
b) Normal time + allowance
c) Mean observed time Rating + allowance
d) Normal time Rating + allowance
4) Job evaluation is the method of determining the

a) Relative values of a job
b) Workers performance of a job
c) Worth of the machine
d) Value of overall production
5) Micromotion study is the

a) Enlarged view of motion study
b) Analysis of one stage of motion study
c) Subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
d) Motion study with micro seconds as units
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 145
*SLRPK145*
-2-
6) A chart used to review the overall sequence of an operation by focusing either the
movement of operators or materials is called
a) SIMO chart
c) Gantt chart
d) NEMA chart
7) Match list I with II :
1)
2)
3)
4)
I
SIMO chart
Flow process chart
Operation process chart
Two handed process chart
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
II
Design of work station
Birds eye view of whole process
Time and distance moved
Group of therbligs
Activity of team members
8) Multiple answer question two marks each :

i) Objective of a good plant layout is
a) Effective space utilization
b) Reduced process inventory
c) Better supervision and control
d) Worker satisfaction
ii) Select the wrong statement from the following
a) Stop-watch is the basic tool in work study
b) Bar chart are suitable for minor work
c) Material handling in Automobile industry is done by overhead cranes
d) In time study normal time is more than standard time
iii) Consider the following situations
1) Loads are uniform
2) Materials move relatively continuously
3) Movement rate is variable
4) Routes do not vary
For material transportation conveyors are used when the prevailing conditions
include
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
iv) A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of

1) Motion study
2) Time study
3) Job enrichment
4) Job enlargement
An optimal sequence would consist of
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 1, 3, 4
c) 3, 1, 2, 4
d) 3, 4, 1, 2
v) Stages in job analysis
a) Job identification
b) Job information collection
c) Qualification requirements
d) Chemical and physical properties material
_____________
Set P
*SLRPK145*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 145

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any two from each Section.

2) Figure to the right carry full marks.
3) Draw appropriate diagrams whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Discuss the scope and objectives of Industrial Engineering.
b) What is the relationship between work study and production with productivity ?
c) What are therbligs ? When it is used ? What are the advantages of micro-motion
study ?
6
7
3. a) How the environmental factors affect the man-machine system ?

b) Critical examination forms the basis for methods improvements explain.
c) Explain the significance and applications of the operation process chart and flow
process chart.
7
7
4. a) Explain in brief about design of workplace condition.

b) What are types of control in use ?
c) Write short note on Anthropometry.
7
6
7
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the principle techniques of work measurement and their application.
b) Why it is necessary to give allowances ? What are different types of allowances ?
c) What is work sampling ? What are its merits and limitations ?
7
7
6
6. a) Compare product layout and process layout with one example.

b) What are different types of material handling equipment ? Explain in brief about
selection of its.
c) What do you know about Group Technology Layout ? Explain with one example.
7
6
7
7. a) List and explain various methods of merit rating.

b) Explain in brief about job analysis, job description and specification.
c) Write short notes on predetermined motion time study.
6
7
7
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 145
*SLRPK145*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. 1) Job evaluation is the method of determining the


1)
2)
3)
4)
I
SIMO chart
Flow process chart
4
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
II
Group of therbligs

a) SIMO chart
c) Gantt chart
d) NEMA chart
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 145
*SLRPK145*
-2-
5) Vehicle manufacturing assembly line is an example of

a) Product layout
b) Process layout
c) Fixed layout
d) Manual layout
a)
b)
c)
d)


i) Consider the following situations
include
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
ii) A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of

1) Motion study
2) Time study
3) Job enrichment
4) Job enlargement
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 1, 3, 4
c) 3, 1, 2, 4
d) 3, 4, 1, 2
iii) Stages in job analysis
iv) Objective of a good plant layout is
v) Select the wrong statement from the following
_____________
Set Q
*SLRPK145*
S
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
study ?
6
7

process chart.
7
7

7
6
7
SECTION II
7
7
6

selection of its.
7
6
7

6
7
7
_____________________
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Set Q
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S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. 1) Match list I with II :

1)
2)
3)
4)
I
SIMO chart
Flow process chart
4
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
II
Group of therbligs

a) SIMO chart
c) Gantt chart
d) NEMA chart

a) Product layout
b) Process layout
c) Fixed layout
d) Manual layout
a)
b)
c)
d)
P.T.O.
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7) Job evaluation is the method of determining the


i) Stages in job analysis
ii) Objective of a good plant layout is
iii) Select the wrong statement from the following
iv) Consider the following situations
include
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
v) A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of

1) Motion study
2) Time study
3) Job enrichment
4) Job enlargement
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 1, 3, 4
c) 3, 1, 2, 4
d) 3, 4, 1, 2
_____________
Set R
*SLRPK145*
S
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
study ?
6
7

process chart.
7
7

7
6
7
SECTION II
7
7
6

selection of its.
7
6
7

6
7
7
_____________________
Set R
Set R
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*SLRPK145*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. 1) Job evaluation is the method of determining the


a) SIMO chart
c) Gantt chart
d) NEMA chart
1)
2)
3)
4)
I
SIMO chart
Flow process chart
4
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
II
Group of therbligs
P.T.O.
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a) Product layout
b) Process layout
c) Fixed layout
d) Manual layout
a)
b)
c)
d)


i) A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of
1) Motion study
2) Time study
3) Job enrichment
4) Job enlargement
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 1, 3, 4
c) 3, 1, 2, 4
d) 3, 4, 1, 2
ii) Stages in job analysis
iii) Objective of a good plant layout is
iv) Select the wrong statement from the following
v) Consider the following situations
include
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
_____________
d) 2, 3, 4
Set S
*SLRPK145*
S
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
study ?
6
7

process chart.
7
7

7
6
7
SECTION II
7
7
6

selection of its.
7
6
7

6
7
7
_____________________
Set S
Set S
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Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2016

MECHATRONICS (Professional Elective IV)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80

Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) In the OSI model, the __________ layer is responsible for routing packets with in or
across networks.
a) physical
b) application
c) network
d) transport
2) In ________ serial transmission the transmitter and receiver have a common clock signal.
a) synchronous
b) parallel
c) asymmetric
d) asynchronous
3) ______ defines how the information is to be communicated which includes synchronization,
control and error handling.
a) Semantics
b) Blabbering
c) Syntax
d) Timing
4) The Controller Area Network protocol was developed by
a) IBM
b) Robert Bosch Gmbh
c) Boeing Comp Services
d) Dassault Systems
5) Which of the following are used for protection in a signal conditioning circuit ?
a) Triode, pentode, cathode
b) Zener diode, optioisolater, optocoupler
c) Diode, cathode, triode
6) There are four ladder diagrams labelled A, B, C and D. Which one of these represents
NAND logic ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
P.T.O.
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7) A transistor output channel from a PLC

1) Is used only DC switching.
2) Is isolated from the output load by an optocoupler.
Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F) and thus which option
best describes the two statements ?
a) (1) T and (2) F
b) (1) F and (2) T c) (1) F and (2) F
d) (1) T and (2) T
8) The advantages of PLCs over conventional microcontrollers are
a) PLCs are more rugged
b) Programming using ladder logic
c) Allow interfacing of devices of different voltage levels easily
d) All of the above
9) A buffer amplifier has gain of
a) infinity
b) unity
c) zero
d) dependent upon the circuit parameters
10) Filters that transmit all frequencies below a defined cut-off frequency are known as
a) low pass filters
b) high pass filters
c) band pass filters
d) all pass filters
11) The 8051 has ______ bytes of program memory and ______ bytes of data memory.
a) 4096, 128
b) 128, 4096
c) 2048, 4096
d) 4096, 2048
12) The unique feature of the parallel ports on the 8051 is that
a) they are bit addressable
b) can work as both input and output ports
c) both (a) and (b)
d) 8051 has no parallel port, only serial ports
13) The clock frequency and the supply voltage for the 8085 A processors is
a) 5 MHz and + 12 V
b) 5 MHz and + 5 V
c) 3 MHz and 12 V
d) 3 MHz and + 5 V
14) The 16 bit registers in the 8085 are the _________ and ________.
a) A register and B register
b) B register and C register
c) Stack Pointer and Program counter
d) H register and L register
15) When it comes to positioning accuracy which of the following actuators is the preferred
choice ?
a) Electric
b) Hydraulic
c) Mechanical
d) Pneumatic
16) Fluid power systems are preffered for continuous control because
a) they allows linear movements at high speeds over longer lengths
b) maintains system under load with excessive use of control devices
c) they have higher bandwidth
d) all of the above
17) A smart sensor can do which of the following ?
a) Compensate errors
b) Adjust for non-linearity
c) Automatic calibration
d) All of the above
18) The time constant is a measure of inertia of the sensor and is _____ of the response time.
a) 99%
b) 63.2%
c) 36.8%
d) 95%
19) Throttle position sensor used in the automobile is typically a
a) potentiometer
b) tachometer
c) strain gauge sensor
d) odometer
20) A major advantage of the Hall Effect sensors is that
a) its immune to environmental contaminants
b) its immune to heat
c) its immune to nuclear radiation
______________
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Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 60
Instructions : 1) The first question from each Section (Question No. 2 & Question
No. 6) is compulsory.
2) Solve any two of the remaining three questions from each Section.
3) Support your answers with neat sketches wherever required.
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) What are the key elements of a mechatronic system ?

b) Discuss five static characteristics of sensors.
c) What do you understand by the term signal conditioning ?
d) State the 8051 architecture.
e) Discuss in brief working of an automatic camera as a metachromatic system.
f) Discuss in brief ADC and DAC.
3.
4.
5.
a) Discuss any two flow sensors and list their advantages, possible limitations and applications.
b) What are the different types of signal filters ?
a) Discuss classification of actuators with regards to a mechatronic system.
b) Define the following terms with regards to the 8085 microprocessor : Accumulator,
Temporary Registers,Program Counter and Stack pointer.
a) Using the case of a typical washing machine as an example, explain how you will
interfacesensors and actuators to the 8051 microcontroller.
b) Discuss in brief working of an automobile Antilock Brake System as a mechatronic system.
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SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Sketch the internal architecture of a typical PLC.

b) Define the following with regards to networking and communication : Bit rate, Baud Rate,
Syntax, Semantics, Timing Control.
c) What is Artificial Intelligence ? List major applications of Fuzzy Logic.
d) Discuss the role of mechatronics in Industrial Automation.
e) Discuss role of mechatronics in Robotics.
f) Sketch ladder diagrams for latch delay-off timer, delay-on timer and latch circuit.
7. a) Draw ladder diagram for the following task. A pump is switched on for a period of
100 seconds to pump a chemical in to a tank and then switched off. A heater is then started
to heat the chemical for 50 seconds. The heater is then switched and another pump is
switched on for 100 seconds to pump the chemical out to another tank.
b) Compare serial and parallel communication techniques .
8. a) Discuss the role of mechatronics in Automotive systems.
6
4
6
b) Draw ladder diagram for a circuit used to switch on a motor and then after a delay of
20 seconds start a pump. When the motor is switched off there must be a delay of 10 seconds
before the pump is switched off.
4
9. a) What are Artificial Neural Networks ? List its applications.
b) Discuss in brief LAN, WAN, MAN.
6
4
_____________________
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Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80

Marks : 20

(201=20)
d) all of the above
d) All of the above
a) 99%
b) 63.2%
c) 36.8%
d) 95%
a) potentiometer
b) tachometer
d) odometer
across networks.
a) physical
b) application
c) network
d) transport
a) synchronous
b) parallel
c) asymmetric
d) asynchronous
a) Semantics
b) Blabbering
c) Syntax
d) Timing
a) IBM
d) Dassault Systems
P.T.O.
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NAND logic ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
12) A transistor output channel from a PLC

a) (1) T and (2) F
b) (1) F and (2) T c) (1) F and (2) F
d) (1) T and (2) T
13) The advantages of PLCs over conventional microcontrollers are
d) All of the above
14) A buffer amplifier has gain of
a) infinity
b) unity
c) zero
15) Filters that transmit all frequencies below a defined cut-off frequency are known as
a) low pass filters
d) all pass filters
a) 4096, 128
b) 128, 4096
c) 2048, 4096
d) 4096, 2048
c) both (a) and (b)
a) 5 MHz and + 12 V
b) 5 MHz and + 5 V
c) 3 MHz and 12 V
d) 3 MHz and + 5 V
choice ?
a) Electric
b) Hydraulic
c) Mechanical
d) Pneumatic
______________
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Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 60
SECTION I
(45=20)

3.
4.
5.
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SECTION II
(45=20)

6
4
6
4
6
4
_____________________
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*SLRPK146*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80

Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) 4096, 128
b) 128, 4096
c) 2048, 4096
d) 4096, 2048
c) both (a) and (b)
a) 5 MHz and + 12 V
b) 5 MHz and + 5 V
c) 3 MHz and 12 V
d) 3 MHz and + 5 V
choice ?
a) Electric
b) Hydraulic
c) Mechanical
d) Pneumatic
d) all of the above
d) All of the above
a) 99%
b) 63.2%
c) 36.8%
d) 95%
a) potentiometer
b) tachometer
d) odometer
P.T.O.
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across networks.
a) physical
b) application
c) network
d) transport
a) synchronous
b) parallel
c) asymmetric
d) asynchronous
a) Semantics
b) Blabbering
c) Syntax
d) Timing
a) IBM
d) Dassault Systems
NAND logic ?
17)
18)
19)
20)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
A transistor output channel from a PLC
a) (1) T and (2) F
b) (1) F and (2) T c) (1) F and (2) F
d) (1) T and (2) T
The advantages of PLCs over conventional microcontrollers are
d) All of the above
A buffer amplifier has gain of
a) infinity
b) unity
c) zero
Filters that transmit all frequencies below a defined cut-off frequency are known as
a) low pass filters
d) all pass filters
______________
Set R
*SLRPK146*
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Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 60
SECTION I
(45=20)

3.
4.
5.
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SECTION II
(45=20)

6
4
4
6
4
_____________________
Set R
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*SLRPK146*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80

Marks : 20

(201=20)
NAND logic ?
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
A transistor output channel from a PLC
a) (1) T and (2) F
b) (1) F and (2) T c) (1) F and (2) F
d) (1) T and (2) T
The advantages of PLCs over conventional microcontrollers are
d) All of the above
A buffer amplifier has gain of
a) infinity
b) unity
c) zero
Filters that transmit all frequencies below a defined cut-off frequency are known as
a) low pass filters
d) all pass filters
The 8051 has ______ bytes of program memory and ______ bytes of data memory.
a) 4096, 128
b) 128, 4096
c) 2048, 4096
d) 4096, 2048
P.T.O.
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c) both (a) and (b)
a) 5 MHz and + 12 V
b) 5 MHz and + 5 V
c) 3 MHz and 12 V
d) 3 MHz and + 5 V
choice ?
a) Electric
b) Hydraulic
c) Mechanical
d) Pneumatic
d) all of the above
d) All of the above
a) 99%
b) 63.2%
c) 36.8%
d) 95%
a) potentiometer
b) tachometer
d) odometer
across networks.
a) physical
b) application
c) network
d) transport
a) synchronous
b) parallel
c) asymmetric
d) asynchronous
a) Semantics
b) Blabbering
c) Syntax
d) Timing
a) IBM
d) Dassault Systems
______________
Set S
*SLRPK146*
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Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 60
SECTION I
(45=20)

3.
4.
5.
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SECTION II
(45=20)

6
4
6
4
6
4
_____________________
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Professional Elective IV
COMPUTATIONAL FLUID DYNAMICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first
carries one mark.
Page.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) Conversion of resulting integral equation into a system of algebraic equation is known as
a) Grid generation
b) Pre-processing c) Discretization d) Post-processing
2) Measure advantage of the CFD over the experimental analysis is
a) It required less work
b) It required less space
c) It provides compensative information in the region of interest
d) It required more time
3) Lax Wendroff technique is
a) Explicit finite difference method
b) Implicit finite difference method
c) All of the above
4) The equation is obtained from the finite control volume fixed in space is called as
a) Conservation form of governing equation
b) Non conservation form
d) Energy equation
5) The boundary condition is used for one dimensional conduction problem is
a) Neumann boundary condition
b) Type II boundary condition
c) Dirichlet boundary condition
d) None of above
6) 2 D heat transfer finite difference formulation of an interior node is obtained by the
temperature of the ______________ nearest neighbors of the node.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
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7) Finite volume method is a sub domain method with piecewise definition of the field
variable in the neighborhood of chosen
a) Control element
b) Control volume c) Control nodes d) All of the above
8) Finite difference solution of transient heat transfer problems requires discretization in
a) Time as well as space
b) Time
c) Space
d) None of above
9) Which of the following graph is 2D and represent variation of one dependent variable
Vs another dependent variable ?
a) Contour plot
b) XY plot
c) Vector plot
d) Streamline plot
10) Many of different categories of different plot can be combined into a single plot called
as
a) Contour plot
b) Vector plot
c) Mesh plot
d) Composite plot
11) The technique used for solution of elliptical partial differential equation is
a) Lax Wendroff technique
b) Relaxation technique
c) Maccormacks technique
d) ADI technique
12) SIMPLE stands for _______________ for Pressure-Linked Equations.
a) Semi-Implicit method
b) Simple-implicit method
c) None of above
d) All of above
13) The K- model focuses on the mechanisms that affect the turbulent
a) Potential energy b) Kinetic energy c) Pressure energy d) All of above
14) The K- model is
a) Two equation model
b) One equation model
c) Three equation model
d) Four equation model
15) The equation obtained from the finite control volume moving with fluid, either in
integral or partial differential form is called as
b) Momentum equation
c) Non conservation form of governing equation
d) Energy equation
16) Physical principle of continuity equation is
a) Mass is conserved
b) Energy is transferred
c) Energy is created
d) Moment and couple are formed at respective points
17) Which are the forces acting on fluid element in momentum equation ?
a) Body force and surface force
b) Tension and compression force
c) Tension and shear force
18) Physical principle of energy equation is
b) Energy is created
c) Energy is conserved
d) Newtons 2nd law
19) In forward difference scheme use information at the
a) Right of grid point
b) Left of grid point
c) Bottom of grid point
d) Top of grid point
20) The system which calculates the state of system at a lateral time from the state of
system at the current time is known as
a) Implicit approach
b) Explicit approach
c) Current approach
d) Lateral approach
______________
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Derive the continuity equation of an infinitesimally small element fixed in space.

7
b) What is computational fluid dynamics ? Explain how it can be used as a design tool. 6
c) What is an explicit approach ? Explain with the help of example.
7
3. a) What is FDM ? Consider steady two dimensional heat transfer in a long solid bar
of a square cross section is given in the Figure 1. The measured temperature at
selected points of the outer surfaces are as shown. The thermal conductivity of the
body K = 20 W/mC and there is no heat generation. Using the FDM with a mesh
size of x = y = 1 cm determine the temperatures at the indicated points in the
medium.
10
Figure 1
b) Consider a large plane wall of thickness L = 0.4 m Thermal Conductivity
K = 2.3 W/mC and the left side of the wall is maintained at a constant temperature
of 80C while the right side loses heat by convection to the surrounding air
T =15C with a heat transfer of h = 24 W/m2C. Assuming steady one dimensional
heat transfer and taking the nodal spacing to be 0.1 m, A = 20 m2.
i) Obtain the finite difference formulation for all nodes.
ii) Determine the nodal temperatures by solving those equations.
10
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4. a) Write a short note on models of the flow.
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b) Consider a large uranium plate of thickness L = 4 cm, K = 28 W/mC, and

= 12.5 106m2/s, that is initially at a uniform temperature of 200C. Heat is
generated uniformly in the plate at a constant rate of (e) = 5 106 W/m3. At time
t = 0, one side of the plate is brought into contact with iced water and is maintained
at 0C at all times while the other side is subjected to convection to an environment
at T = 30C with a heat transfer coefficient h = 45 W/m2C, as shown in Fig.
below considering a total of three equally spaced node in the medium, two at the
boundaries and one at the middle, estimate the exposed surface temperature of
the plate 2.5 min. after the start of cooling using the explicit method.
10
c) Explain grid independence test.
SECTION II
5. a) Give the Assumptions of boundary layer theory.
b) Explain the SIMPLE algorithm steps of Patankar and Spalding.
c) Compare FVM with FDM.
6. a) Write short note on FDM.
b) Give advantages and limitations of CFD.
c) Give hierarchy of flow equations.
d) Define Laminar flow and Turbulent flow. Give two examples of each.
7. a) Write short note on k-w model.
b) Explain the Mac Cormacks techniques with its advantages and disadvantages.
c) Explain different plots of computer graphics.
_____________________
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

carries one mark.
Page.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
d) Newtons 2nd law
c) Current approach
d) Lateral approach
a) Grid generation
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c) All of the above
d) Energy equation
d) None of above
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
a) Control element
b) Time
c) Space
d) None of above
a) Contour plot
b) XY plot
c) Vector plot
d) Streamline plot
as
a) Contour plot
b) Vector plot
c) Mesh plot
d) Composite plot
d) ADI technique
c) None of above
d) All of above
19) The K- model is
d) Energy equation
Set Q
______________
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S
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147
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
7
medium.
10
Figure 1
10
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10
SECTION II
_____________________
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S
-1-
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147
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147

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

carries one mark.
Page.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
d) ADI technique
c) None of above
d) All of above
4) The K- model is
d) Energy equation
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d) Newtons 2nd law
c) Current approach
d) Lateral approach
a) Grid generation
c) All of the above
d) Energy equation
d) None of above
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
a) Control element
b) Time
c) Space
d) None of above
a) Contour plot
b) XY plot
c) Vector plot
d) Streamline plot
as
a) Contour plot
b) Vector plot
c) Mesh plot
d) Composite plot
______________
Set R
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S
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
7
medium.
10
Figure 1
10
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10
SECTION II
_____________________
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S
-1-
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147
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Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

carries one mark.
Page.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
a) Control element
b) Time
c) Space
d) None of above
a) Contour plot
b) XY plot
c) Vector plot
d) Streamline plot
as
a) Contour plot
b) Vector plot
c) Mesh plot
d) Composite plot
d) ADI technique
P.T.O.
Set S
SLR-PK 147
-2-
*SLRPK147*

c) None of above
d) All of above
9) The K- model is
d) Energy equation
d) Newtons 2nd law
c) Current approach
d) Lateral approach
a) Grid generation
c) All of the above
d) Energy equation
d) None of above
Set S
______________
*SLRPK147*
S
-3-
SLR-PK
147
SLR-PK
147

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
7
medium.
10
Figure 1
10
Set S
-4-
*SLRPK147*
SLR-PK 147

10
SECTION II
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 148
*SLRPK148*
Seat
No.
Set

PRODUCTION AND OPERATION MANAGEMENT
(Professional Elective IV)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

2) Solve any two questions from each Section.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Manufacturing of a cold drink is

a) Job type production
c) Continuous type production
b) Batch type production

2) MRP means
a) Material Release Point
c) Material Recording Point
b) Material Reorder Plan

d) None of these

a) Delphi model
c) Causal model
b) Group technique
5) Bill of material is a subsequence of

a) MPS
c) Routing
b) Line balancing
d) None of these

c) Expediting

d) All of above
7) Long term forecasting considers a period of

a) One year or less
b) One to three years
c) More than three years
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 148
*SLRPK148*
-2-
8) Penalty cost is included in

a) Shortage cost
b) Ordering cost
c) Holding cost
d) None of these

a) Maximum consumption rate x Maximum re-order period
b) Minimum consumption rate x Minimum re-order period
c) Maximum consumption rate x Minimum re-order period
d) Minimum consumption rate x Maximum re-order period
11) JIT is targeted for
a) Average inventory
c) High inventory
b) Zero inventory
d) None of above
a) Lead time
b) Order time
c) Cycle time
d) Process time
a) Machines
b) Raw material
d) Consumable tools
14) Dispatch in manufacturing system means
a) Dispatch of sales order
b) Dispatch of finish product
c) Dispatch of mails
d) Dispatch of work orders through shop floor
a) Cost of ordering
b) Carrying cost
d) Machining cost
16) Services are
a) Tangible
c) Both of above
b) Intangible
d) None of above
d) None of above
a) Reserve stock
b) Buffer stock
c) Other stock
d) None of above
19) The prime input of aggregate planning is
a) Active forecasting
c) Demand forecasting
b) Passive forecasting

a) Routing
b) Sequencing
c) Scheduling
______________
d) Dispatching
Set P
*SLRPK148*
SLR-PK 148
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B . : Solve any two questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Explain the objective and scope of production management in detail.
b) Explain in detail aggregate planning.
c) Explain make to stock and make to order production.
3. a) The following data gives the sales of the company for various years. Fit the straight line,
forecast the sales for the year 2016 and 2017.
Years 2007
Sales
13
2008 2009
20
20
2010
2011
2012
28
30
32
2013 2014 2015

33
38
43
b) Explain exponential smoothening method of forecasting.
c) Compare production planning with production control.
4. a) Five jobs are to be processed on two machines M1 and M2 in the order M1M2 processing
time in hours are given below.
Job
01 02
03 04 05
Machine
M1
05
01
09 03 10
Machine
M2
02
06
07 08 04
Find out the optimum sequence and total elapsed time.
b) What are the functions and objectives of scheduling ?
c) Explain the factors affecting investment decisions in detail.
Set P
SLR-PK 148
-4-
*SLRPK148*
SECTION II
5. a) ABC corporation has got a demand for particular part at 10,000 units per year. The cost
per unit is Rs. 2 and it costs Rs. 36 to place an order and to process the delivery. The
inventory carrying cost is estimated at 9 percent of average inventory investment.
Determine
i) EOQ
ii) Optimum numbers of orders to be placed per annum
iii) Minimum total cost of inventory per annum.
b) Explain in brief the inputs to MRP processor.
c) Explain various costs associated with inventory.
6. a) Explain how total productive maintenance differ from conventional Breakdown maintenance.
b) Explain the need and functions of maintenance department.
c) Explain in detail the term JIT.
7. Write notes on (any four : five marks each) :
20
i) ABC Analysis
ii) Value Engineering
iii) Phases of value analysis
iv) Kanban System
v) Six Sigma.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 148
*SLRPK148*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) Services are
a) Tangible
c) Both of above
(120=20)
b) Intangible
d) None of above
d) None of above
a) Reserve stock
b) Buffer stock
c) Other stock
d) None of above

a) Routing
b) Sequencing
c) Scheduling


7) MRP means

d) None of these
d) Dispatching

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 148
*SLRPK148*
-2-
a) Delphi model
c) Causal model
b) Group technique

a) MPS
c) Routing
b) Line balancing
d) None of these

c) Expediting

d) All of above

a) One year or less
d) None of these
a) Shortage cost
b) Ordering cost
c) Holding cost
d) None of these

c) High inventory
b) Zero inventory
d) None of above
a) Lead time
b) Order time
c) Cycle time
d) Process time
a) Machines
b) Raw material
d) Consumable tools
a) Cost of ordering
b) Carrying cost
d) Machining cost
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK148*
SLR-PK 148
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Years 2007
Sales
13
2008 2009
20
20
2010
2011
2012
28
30
32
2013 2014 2015

33
38
43
Job
01 02
03 04 05
Machine
M1
05
01
09 03 10
Machine
M2
02
06
07 08 04
Set Q
SLR-PK 148
-4-
*SLRPK148*
SECTION II
Determine
i) EOQ
20
i) ABC Analysis
iv) Kanban System
v) Six Sigma.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 148
*SLRPK148*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

c) High inventory
(120=20)
b) Zero inventory
d) None of above
a) Lead time
b) Order time
c) Cycle time
d) Process time
a) Machines
b) Raw material
d) Consumable tools
a) Cost of ordering
b) Carrying cost
d) Machining cost
6) Services are
a) Tangible
c) Both of above
b) Intangible
d) None of above
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 148
*SLRPK148*
-2-
a) Reserve stock
b) Buffer stock
c) Other stock
d) None of above

a) Routing
b) Sequencing
c) Scheduling


12) MRP means


d) None of these
d) Dispatching

a) Delphi model
c) Causal model
b) Group technique

a) MPS
c) Routing
b) Line balancing
d) None of these

c) Expediting

d) All of above

a) One year or less
d) None of these
a) Shortage cost
b) Ordering cost
c) Holding cost
d) None of these

______________
Set R
*SLRPK148*
SLR-PK 148
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Years 2007
Sales
13
2008 2009
20
20
2010
2011
2012
28
30
32
2013 2014 2015

33
38
43
Job
01 02
03 04 05
Machine
M1
05
01
09 03 10
Machine
M2
02
06
07 08 04
Set R
SLR-PK 148
-4-
*SLRPK148*
SECTION II
Determine
i) EOQ
20
i) ABC Analysis
iv) Kanban System
v) Six Sigma.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 148
*SLRPK148*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

c) Expediting
(120=20)
d) All of above

a) One year or less
d) None of these
a) Shortage cost
b) Ordering cost
c) Holding cost
d) None of these

c) High inventory
b) Zero inventory
d) None of above
a) Lead time
b) Order time
c) Cycle time
d) Process time
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 148
*SLRPK148*
-2-

a) Machines
b) Raw material
d) Consumable tools
a) Cost of ordering
b) Carrying cost
d) Machining cost
11) Services are
a) Tangible
c) Both of above
b) Intangible
d) None of above
d) None of above
a) Reserve stock
b) Buffer stock
c) Other stock
d) None of above

a) Routing
b) Sequencing
c) Scheduling


17) MRP means


d) None of these
d) Dispatching

a) Delphi model
c) Causal model
b) Group technique

a) MPS
c) Routing
b) Line balancing
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK148*
SLR-PK 148
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
Years 2007
Sales
13
2008 2009
20
20
2010
2011
2012
28
30
32
2013 2014 2015

33
38
43
Job
01 02
03 04 05
Machine
M1
05
01
09 03 10
Machine
M2
02
06
07 08 04
Set S
SLR-PK 148
-4-
*SLRPK148*
SECTION II
Determine
i) EOQ
20
i) ABC Analysis
iv) Kanban System
v) Six Sigma.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 150
*SLRPK150*
S
B.E. (Part II) (Mechanical) (New) Examination, 2016

AGRO MACHINE ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.

2) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary and mention
them clearly.
30 minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
of Page.
6) Use of non programmable single memory calculator is
allowed.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) Which of the following cylinder is generally used in the combine harvester ?
a) Peg tooth
b) Hammer mill c) Rasp-bar
d) Angle bar
2) Which of the following factor affect the strength of the bond between the
grain and the panicles ?
a) Moisture content of grain
b) Type and variety of crop
c) Ripening phase of grain
d) All of these
3) Which one of the following is the component of hammer mill thresher ?
a) Beater
b) Cylinder
c) Concave
d) All of these
4) The soil is tilled in the case of double action harrow
a) Twice
b) Once
c) Thrice
d) None
5) Harrow is generally used for
a) Sowing
b) Ploughing
c) Pulverisation d) None
6) Which of the following is the most effective method of weed control ?
a) Manual
b) Animal operated
c) Tractor operated
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 150
-2-
*SLRPK150*
7) Duster is used to apply insecticides in the field which is in form of

a) Dust
b) Liquid
c) Granular dust d) Coarse granule
8) Sprayers and dusters must be operated
a) In the direction of
b) Against the wind
c) In any direction
d) During the mid wind day
9) During threshing grains are separated from
a) Panicles
b) Cobs
c) Pods
d) All
10) Which of the following is the primary tillage implement ?
a) Mould plough b) Subsoiler
c) Disc plough
d) All of these
11) Which of the shares has detachable points ?
a) Slip nose share b) Slip share
c) Shin share
d) None
12) Disc plough cuts the furrow due to
a) Sliding
b) Rolling
c) Both
d) None of these
13) Harvesting of crop at an appropriate stage of maturity minimizes the
a) Field losses
b) Machine losses
c) Labor losses
d) None
14) The process of detaching the grains from ear head of the plant is known as
a) Threshing
b) Mowing
c) Cutting
d) None
15) Origin place for olpad thresher is
a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra c) MP
d) None
16) Which one of the following is the power source for syndicator type thresher ?
a) Prime mover
b) Man
c) Animal
d) None
17) High volume and high pressure sprayers are classified as
a) Hydraulic
b) Hydro pneumatic
c) Blower
d) Air blast sprayer
18) Cleaning of sprayer is highly essential
a) Before starting use
b) After a day of use
c) In every week
d) In every month
19)
a)
b)
c)
d)
grain and the clod ?
d) All of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK150*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 150

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Make suitable assumption if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
a) Explain the need of mechanization in farming with mechanization policy.
b) Explain the difference between the mould board plough and disc plough.
c) Calculate the size of tractor to pull a four-bottomed 35 cm MB length through

a depth of 10 cm. the soil resistance is 0.5 kg/cm2. The speed of the tractor
is 6 km/hr.

a) Explain the construction of mould board plough with neat sketch.
b) Explain with neat sketch Rotavators.
c) Explain forces acting on disc plough.

a) Explain the yokes and harness used for animal draught.
b) Explain classification of weeder according to power source.
c) Explain different types of discs used in disc harrow.
6
Set P
SLR-PK 150
-4-
*SLRPK150*
SECTION II
a) Explain with neat sketch rotary tiller.
b) Explain different types of harrows with neat sketch.
c) What are the different types of furrow opening devices used in seed drill.

a) Explain with neat sketch spring cultivator.
b) A fluted feed seed drill has 8 furrow openers of single disc type. The furrow
openers are spaced 25 cm apart and the main drive wheel has a diameter of
120 cm. How many turns of main drive wheel would occur when the seed
drill has covered one hector of area.
c) Differentiate between seed drill and planter.

a) Explain the working principle of reapers, movers and binders.
b) Explain different dusters used for dusting.
c) What is sub soiling ? Why it is necessary ?
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 150
*SLRPK150*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

them clearly.
carries one mark.
of Page.
allowed.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Prime mover
b) Man
c) Animal
d) None
a) Hydraulic
b) Hydro pneumatic
c) Blower
c) In every week
d) In every month
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 150
-2-
*SLRPK150*

a) Peg tooth
d) Angle bar
d) All of these
a) Beater
b) Cylinder
c) Concave
d) All of these
a) Twice
b) Once
c) Thrice
d) None
a) Sowing
b) Ploughing
a) Manual
b) Animal operated
c) Tractor operated
d) None
a) Dust
b) Liquid
b) Against the wind
c) In any direction
a) Panicles
b) Cobs
c) Pods
d) All
c) Disc plough
d) All of these
c) Shin share
d) None
a) Sliding
b) Rolling
c) Both
d) None of these
a) Field losses
b) Machine losses
c) Labor losses
d) None
a) Threshing
b) Mowing
c) Cutting
d) None
a) Gujarat
d) None
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK150*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 150

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

is 6 km/hr.


6
Set Q
SLR-PK 150
-4-
*SLRPK150*
SECTION II


_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 150
*SLRPK150*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

them clearly.
carries one mark.
of Page.
allowed.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
c) Shin share
d) None
a) Sliding
b) Rolling
c) Both
d) None of these
a) Field losses
b) Machine losses
c) Labor losses
d) None
a) Threshing
b) Mowing
c) Cutting
d) None
a) Gujarat
d) None
a) Prime mover
b) Man
c) Animal
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 150
-2-
*SLRPK150*

a) Hydraulic
b) Hydro pneumatic
c) Blower
c) In every week
d) In every month
9)
a)
b)
c)
d)
grain and the clod
d) All of these
a) Peg tooth
d) Angle bar
d) All of these
a) Beater
b) Cylinder
c) Concave
d) All of these
a) Twice
b) Once
c) Thrice
d) None
a) Sowing
b) Ploughing
a) Manual
b) Animal operated
c) Tractor operated
d) None
a) Dust
b) Liquid
b) Against the wind
c) In any direction
a) Panicles
b) Cobs
c) Pods
d) All
c) Disc plough
d) All of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK150*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 150

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

is 6 km/hr.


6
Set R
SLR-PK 150
-4-
*SLRPK150*
SECTION II


_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 150
*SLRPK150*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

them clearly.
carries one mark.
of Page.
allowed.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Manual
b) Animal operated
c) Tractor operated
d) None
a) Dust
b) Liquid
b) Against the wind
c) In any direction
a) Panicles
b) Cobs
c) Pods
d) All
a) Mould plough
b) Subsoiler
c) Disc plough
d) All of these
c) Shin share
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 150
-2-
*SLRPK150*

a) Sliding
b) Rolling
c) Both
d) None of these
a) Field losses
b) Machine losses
c) Labor losses
d) None
a) Threshing
b) Mowing
c) Cutting
d) None
a) Gujarat
d) None
a) Prime mover
b) Man
c) Animal
d) None
a) Hydraulic
b) Hydro pneumatic
c) Blower
c) In every week
d) In every month
14)
a)
b)
c)
d)
d) All of these
a) Peg tooth
d) Angle bar
d) All of these
a) Beater
b) Cylinder
c) Concave
d) All of these
a) Twice
b) Once
c) Thrice
d) None
a) Sowing
b) Ploughing
______________
Set S
*SLRPK150*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 150

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I

is 6 km/hr.


6
Set S
SLR-PK 150
-4-
*SLRPK150*
SECTION II


_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 151
*SLRPK151*
Seat
No.
Set

PLASTIC ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

2) Attempt any 3 questions from Q. 2, Q. 3, Q. 4, Q. 5 and 3
questions from to Q. 6, Q. 7, Q. 8 Q. 9.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Generally polymers are very_____________ in weight with significant degrees
of strength.
a) Heavy
b) Light
c) Both a) and b) d) None of above
2) ____________ are mixed with plastics to improve their flow characteristics
and decrease their brittleness.
a) Stabilizers
b) Colourants
c) Plasticizers
d) Fillers
3) Plasticizers are considered ____________solvents.
a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
4) Transfer molding process combines the principle of____________and transfer
of polymer charge.
a) Injection
b) Compression
c) Blow
d) Rotation
5) The rotational molding is ____________ plastic forming process.
a) High temperature
b) Low pressure Low temperature, high pressure
d) High temperature, low pressure
6) Which of the welding process is used for thermoplastics ?
a) Hot gas welding
b) Induction heating
c) Heated tool
d) All of the above
7) In ____________welding method, the workpieces to be joined are irradiated
with a steam of neutrons.
a) Infrared
b) Nuclear
c) Hot gas
d) Heated tool
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 151
*SLRPK151*
-2-
8) What should be the draft for Nylon material ?

a) 0 1/4
b) 0 1/8
c) 0 1/2
d) 0 1/3
9) The rib thickness should be between ___________ of wall thickness.

a) 30% and 40%
b) 40% and 60%
c) 50% and 60%
d) 60% and 80%
10) The properties of the polymer will also depend on the ___________ available
for cooling.
a) Colour
b) Rate
c) Both colour and rate
d) None of above
11) Polymers have very___________thermal conductivity.
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very high
12)
a)
c)
b)
d)
13) It is the___________ operation that sets the shape of thermoplastics.

a) Heating
b) Cutting
c) Grinding
d) Cooling
14) In injection molding melt temperatures are of the order of___________for
low-density polymers materials.
a) 160 190C
b) 120 170C c) 110 160C
d) 100 150C
15) It is the __________ operation that sets the shape of thermoplastics.
a) Heating
b) Cutting
c) Grinding
d) Cooling
16) A biodegradable polymer should
a) Contained hydrophilic group
c) Group contain only C C
b) Contain hydrophobic
d) Contain aromatic group
17) An example of biodegradable polymer is

a) PHBV
b) PVC
c) Polyethylene
d) Polyacetylene
18) A biodegradable polymer is one which
a) Can be synthesized by biologicalroute
b) Is degradable by action of microorganism
c) Is not degradable by action of microorganism
d) None of these
19) In compression molding, for phenolic materials suitable pressure range is
_________kg/cm2.
a) 100 to 158
b) 158 to 211
c) 211 to 258
d) 250 to 300
20) Bulk factor is the ratio of volume of loose plastic powder to the
a) Actual cavity volume
b) Volume of the molding
c) Volume of loose plastic powder
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK151*
-3-
SLR-PK 151
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) What are plastics ? Classify along with its respective practical applications.
b) Write a note on polymerisation in plastics.
3. a) Explain the compression moulding method for plastics.

b) Write a note on high frequency induction welding for plastics.
7
6
4. a) Explain with a neat sketch a rotational moulding process for plastics.

b) Explain the hot tool welding for plastic along with its advantages and
applications.
5. a) Discuss on Wall thickness as a key area in moulded plastic part design.
b) Plastic Part Design :

Design the plastic part for the assembly. A walking stick of a weight 1 kg having a
leg support require plastic bottom support bush to restrict scratches, noise, skidding
etc. Pipe of leg is Dia, 25 mm and bush is fitted with screw (Dia. 4 mm) to its bottom
flat end as shown in fig.
Suggest suitable manufacturing methods for plastic part. Assume suitable mould
material, plastic part material and its necessary relative quantitative data. Draw a
sketch of final part design.
Sketch : Q. 5 b)
Set P
SLR-PK 151
-4-
*SLRPK151*
SECTION II
6. a) Explain in detail types of mould used in compression moulding.
b) Design a compression mould for the component shown in figure. Which is made up
of melamine material. Take k = 2, compression pressure = 90kg/cm2,
density = 1.79 g/cm2.
Fig. 6 b)
7. a) Explain in detail cold runner system used in injection mould die.
b) Enlist different parameters to decide single or multi cavity mould in injection

moulding.
c) Draw neat self-explanatory sketch of different types of layout of runner systems

used in injection moulding process.
8. a) Explain any one type of cooling of plastic injection moulding.
b) Water entering at 40C to the cooling system provided to mould is leaving at 60C.
If the total heat absorbed per hour is 20000 kJ, then find out the amount
of water circulated per hour (k = 30.5).
c) Explain advanced plastics used in packaging industries.
9. Attempt the following questions :

a) Draw sketch of transfer moulding.
b) Enlist different types of runner used in injection moulding.
c) Advanced plastics used in transportation.
_____________________
Set P
*SLRPK151*
SLR-PK 151
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) PHBV
b) PVC
c) Polyethylene
d) Polyacetylene
d) None of these
_________kg/cm2.
a) 100 to 158
b) 158 to 211
c) 211 to 258
d) 250 to 300
d) None of these
of strength.
a) Heavy
b) Light
a) Stabilizers
b) Colourants
c) Plasticizers
d) Fillers
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 151
*SLRPK151*
-2-

a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
of polymer charge.
a) Injection
b) Compression
c) Blow
d) Rotation
a) High temperature
a) Hot gas welding
c) Heated tool
d) All of the above
a) Infrared
b) Nuclear
c) Hot gas
d) Heated tool
a) 0 1/4
b) 0 1/8
c) 0 1/2
d) 0 1/3

a) 30% and 40%
b) 40% and 60%
c) 50% and 60%
d) 60% and 80%
for cooling.
a) Colour
b) Rate
d) None of above
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very high
17)
a)
c)
b)
d)

a) Heating
b) Cutting
c) Grinding
d) Cooling
a) 160 190C
b) 120 170C c) 110 160C
d) 100 150C
a) Heating
b) Cutting
c) Grinding
d) Cooling
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK151*
-3-
SLR-PK 151
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
6

applications.

Sketch : Q. 5 b)
Set Q
SLR-PK 151
-4-
*SLRPK151*
SECTION II
Fig. 6 b)

moulding.


_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 151
*SLRPK151*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very high
2)
a)
c)
b)
d)

a) Heating
b) Cutting
c) Grinding
d) Cooling
a) 160 190C
b) 120 170C c) 110 160C
d) 100 150C
a) Heating
b) Cutting
c) Grinding
d) Cooling

a) PHBV
b) PVC
c) Polyethylene
d) Polyacetylene
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 151
*SLRPK151*
-2-

_________kg/cm2.
a) 100 to 158
b) 158 to 211
c) 211 to 258
d) 250 to 300
d) None of these
of strength.
a) Heavy
b) Light
a) Stabilizers
b) Colourants
c) Plasticizers
d) Fillers
a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
of polymer charge.
a) Injection
b) Compression
c) Blow
d) Rotation
a) High temperature
a) Hot gas welding
c) Heated tool
d) All of the above
a) Infrared
b) Nuclear
c) Hot gas
d) Heated tool
a) 0 1/4
b) 0 1/8
c) 0 1/2
d) 0 1/3

a) 30% and 40%
b) 40% and 60%
c) 50% and 60%
d) 60% and 80%
for cooling.
a) Colour
b) Rate
d) None of above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK151*
-3-
SLR-PK 151
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
6

applications.

Sketch : Q. 5 b)
Set R
SLR-PK 151
-4-
*SLRPK151*
SECTION II
Fig. 6 b)

moulding.


_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 151
*SLRPK151*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) Hot gas welding
c) Heated tool
d) All of the above
a) Infrared
b) Nuclear
c) Hot gas
d) Heated tool
a) 0 1/4
b) 0 1/8
c) 0 1/2
d) 0 1/3

a) 30% and 40%
b) 40% and 60%
c) 50% and 60%
d) 60% and 80%
for cooling.
a) Colour
b) Rate
d) None of above
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very high
7)
a)
c)
b)
d)

a) Heating
b) Cutting
c) Grinding
d) Cooling
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 151
*SLRPK151*
-2-

a) 160 190C
b) 120 170C c) 110 160C
d) 100 150C
a) Heating
b) Cutting
c) Grinding
d) Cooling

a) PHBV
b) PVC
c) Polyethylene
d) Polyacetylene
d) None of these
_________kg/cm2.
a) 100 to 158
b) 158 to 211
c) 211 to 258
d) 250 to 300
d) None of these
of strength.
a) Heavy
b) Light
a) Stabilizers
b) Colourants
c) Plasticizers
d) Fillers
a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
of polymer charge.
a) Injection
b) Compression
c) Blow
d) Rotation
a) High temperature
______________
Set S
*SLRPK151*
-3-
SLR-PK 151
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I

7
6

applications.

Sketch : Q. 5 b)
Set S
SLR-PK 151
-4-
*SLRPK151*
SECTION II
Fig. 6 b)

moulding.


_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 152
*SLRPK152*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2016

Elective II : ECONOMICS FOR ENGINEERS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

2) No negative or partial marking.
4) Draw the graph wherever necessary.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternatives :
20
1) When total utility is maximum, marginal utility Is

a) Greater than one b) Zero
c) One
d) Infinity
2) A good is said to be luxury, when the income elasticity of demand is

a) Greater than one
b) Equal to one
c) Zero
d) Less than one but more than zero
3) If the cross-price elasticity between goods A and B is negative, we know the goods are
a) Inferior goods
b) Complementary
c) Inelastic
d) Substitutes
4) Expansion of demand is due to
a) Extension in price
c) Fall in the price of the commodity
b) Extension in supply
d) Increase in income
5) If the price of vegetable sandwich rises from Rs. 06 per piece to Rs. 12 per price, as a
result of which the daily sales decreases from 800 to 400 pieces per day. The price
elasticity if demand can be estimated as
a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 3.0
d) 2.5
6) Which of the following is an example of variable cost of production ?
a) Cost of buildings
b) Acquiring copy-rights of the products
c) Salaries of top-level manager
d) Salaries of temporary staff
7) The shape of a short run total product curve reflects the operation of
a) Law of diminishing marginal utility
b) Law of diminishing returns
c) Law of returns to scale
d) Law of demand
8) When a proportionate change in input combination causes the same proportionate change
in output, the returns to scale is said to exhibit.
a) Increasing returns
b) Decreasing returns
c) Constant returns
d) Negative returns
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 152
*SLRPK152*
-2-
9) Maximum point on the average product curve is reached when

a) Marginal product is zero
b) Marginal product is maximum
c) Marginal product is minimum
d) Marginal product equals average product
10) Average revenue is
a) Total revenue divided by the number of units sold
b) Revenue earned by all the units of the output
c) Revenue earned by the average sized firm in the industry
d) Net addition made to the total revenue by selling one more unit of a commodity
11) ____________ is the first phase in project life cycle stages.
a) Planning
b) Initiation
c) Execution
d) None of these
12) ____________ is the technique used to compare the total costs of a project with its benefit.
a) Cost Benefit Analysis
b) Cost Effectiveness Analysis
c) Risk Management
d) Cash Flow Analysis
13) ____________ is inevitable in a business organization when undertaking projects.
a) Profit Maximization
b) Risk
c) Wealth Maximization
d) None of these
14) ____________ is the tangible fixed asset of the company.
a) Plant and Machinery
b) Goodwill
c) Patent
d) Royalty
15) __________ represents the return of your invested capital over an investments life span.
a) Estimation of life of fixed assets
c) Capital Recovery
d) Payback period
16) Cash from ____________ activities are included in cash flow statement.
a) Operating Activities
b) Financial Activities
c) Investment Activities
d) All of the above
17) ____________ is a form of economic analysis that compares the relative cost and effects
of two or more course of action.
c) Risk Management
18) Input output analysis may be described as a mathematical study of ____________ structure
of an economy.
a) Mechanical
b) Production
c) Economics
d) Engineering
19) The various production sectors are mutually
a) Interdependent
b) Independent
c) Exclusive
d) Inclusive
20) Entrepreneurs frequently form new businesses on the basis of

a) Based on sales
b) Team efforts
c) Unique product idea
d) Depends on promotion
______________
Set P
*SLRPK152*
-3-
SLR-PK 152
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) No negative or partial marking.

SECTION I
2. What is elasticity ? Explain various concepts of elasticity and discuss the practical significance
of the concepts in decision making.
3. a) Consider following demand and supply function. Qd = 200 2P, Qs = 20 + 4P.
14
5
i) What are the equilibrium price and quantity ?

ii) What would be effect on price and quantity sold if supply shift Qs1 = 50 + 4P and the
demand remains constant.
b) Time value of money.
c) Internal economies of scale.
4. What is break-even point ? Calculate break-even output from given data and discuss the
importance of break-even point. (TFC Rs. 600, Price Rs. 6 and AVC Rs. 4.5).
13
5. Explain the terms Total Cost (T. C.), Average Cost (A.C.), and Marginal Cost (M.C.) with the
suitable examples. Why does long run average cost curve is U shaped ?
13
SECTION II
6. a) Explain the various phases of project life cycle.
b) Write a short note on cash flow statement.
c) State effects of inflation on capital.
7. a) Explain factors considered for project selection.
b) Discuss determination of economic life of Asset.
c) Short note on replacement of existing Assets.
Set P
SLR-PK 152
-4-
*SLRPK152*
8. a) Short note on cost benefit analysis.
b) Short note on capital recovery.
c) Short note on risk management.
9. a) Discuss economic make or buy decision.
b) Explain material selection process.
c) Short note on elementary economic analysis.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 152
*SLRPK152*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

d) All of the above
c) Risk Management
of an economy.
a) Mechanical
b) Production
c) Economics
d) Engineering
a) Interdependent
b) Independent
c) Exclusive
d) Inclusive

a) Based on sales
b) Team efforts
c) One
d) Infinity

a) Greater than one
b) Equal to one
c) Zero
a) Inferior goods
b) Complementary
c) Inelastic
d) Substitutes
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 152
*SLRPK152*
-2-

a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 3.0
d) 2.5
d) Law of demand
c) Constant returns
d) Negative returns
a) Planning
b) Initiation
c) Execution
d) None of these
c) Risk Management
b) Risk
d) None of these
b) Goodwill
c) Patent
d) Royalty
c) Capital Recovery
d) Payback period
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK152*
-3-
SLR-PK 152
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
14
5

13
13
SECTION II
Set Q
SLR-PK 152
-4-
*SLRPK152*
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 152
*SLRPK152*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Planning
b) Initiation
c) Execution
20
d) None of these
c) Risk Management
b) Risk
d) None of these
b) Goodwill
c) Patent
d) Royalty
c) Capital Recovery
d) Payback period
d) All of the above
c) Risk Management
of an economy.
a) Mechanical
b) Production
c) Economics
d) Engineering
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 152
*SLRPK152*
-2-

a) Interdependent
b) Independent
c) Exclusive
d) Inclusive

a) Based on sales
b) Team efforts
c) One
d) Infinity

a) Greater than one
b) Equal to one
c) Zero
a) Inferior goods
b) Complementary
c) Inelastic
d) Substitutes
a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 3.0
d) 2.5
d) Law of demand
c) Constant returns
d) Negative returns
______________
Set R
*SLRPK152*
-3-
SLR-PK 152
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
14
5

13
13
SECTION II
Set R
SLR-PK 152
-4-
*SLRPK152*
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 152
*SLRPK152*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

d) Law of demand
c) Constant returns
d) Negative returns
a) Planning
b) Initiation
c) Execution
d) None of these
c) Risk Management
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 152
*SLRPK152*
-2-

b) Risk
d) None of these
b) Goodwill
c) Patent
d) Royalty
c) Capital Recovery
d) Payback period
d) All of the above
c) Risk Management
of an economy.
a) Mechanical
b) Production
c) Economics
d) Engineering
a) Interdependent
b) Independent
c) Exclusive
d) Inclusive

a) Based on sales
b) Team efforts

c) One
d) Infinity

a) Greater than one
b) Equal to one
c) Zero
a) Inferior goods
b) Complementary
c) Inelastic
d) Substitutes
a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 3.0
d) 2.5
______________
Set S
*SLRPK152*
-3-
SLR-PK 152
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
14
5

13
13
SECTION II
Set S
SLR-PK 152
-4-
*SLRPK152*
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. Electronics (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

1) The complete solution of (D4 2D3 + D2) y = 0 is
b) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
a) y = C1 + C2x + (C3 + C4x)ex
c) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2 + C4x3)ex d) None of these
2)
1
X is equal to
D+a
a)
Xe
ax
dx
b)
Xe
ax
dx
c) e ax X eax dx
d) e ax X e ax dx
3) The solution of pq=1 is

a) Z = ax + by + c
c) Z = ax +
b) Z = ax +
1
y+c
b
1
y+c
a
d) Z = ax + ay + c
st
4) The value of the integral e sint dt is
1
a) 2
s 1
b)
1
s + 22
2
c)
1
s 22
2
d)
1
s +1
2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 153
5) The Laplace transform of e2t t
a)
*SLR-PK-153*
-2-
3/2
3
(s 2)
b)
is
5/2
5
(s 2)
c)
1
3
(s 2)
d)
1
5
(s 2)
=
s+2
6) L1
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t cosh 5t
s2 + s
7) L 3 =
s
a) 1 + t
b) e2t cosh 25t c) e2t cosh 5t
d) e2t sinh 5t
b) t + t2
d) t2
c) t2 + 1
8) The conditions for expansion of a function in a Fourier series are known as

___________ conditions.
a) Harmonic
b) Riemann
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets
9) In the cosine series expansion of sin x in (0, ) the constant term =
1
2
b)
c)
d)
a)
2
2
10) If u = x + y + z and v = x + y then u. v =
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
11) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t, y = t2, z = t3 at t = 1 is
i+ j+k
i jk
i 2 j + 3k
i + 2 j + 3k
a)
b)
c)
d)
3
3
14
14
12) If z {f(k)} = F(z) then z{f(k n)} =
a) zkF(z)
b) zkF(z)
c) zn F(z)
d) znF(z)
1 , k = 0
then z{s(k)} =
13) If s(k) =
0 , Otherwise
a) 0
b) 1
c) z
d) 1z
14) The Fourier cosine integral form of f(x) is
a)
b) cos wx f(s) cos wsds dw

0
f(s) cosws ds
0
2
cos
wx
f
(
s
)
cos
wsds
dw
c)
0
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLR-PK-153*
SLR-PK 153
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 + 1) y = sinx sin2x.
b) Solve (D3 D2 6D)x = 1 + t2.
d2 y
dy
e4 x
8
+
16
y
=
.
c) Solve
dx
dx 2
x2
3. a) Find L t 1 sin t .
b) If f(t) =
kt
, 0 < t < T and f(t + T) = f(t), then find L{f(t)}.
T
c) Find the Laplace transform of tH(t 4) + t2 (t 4) .
4s + 5
.
(s + 1)2 (s + 2)
4. a) Find the inverse Laplace transform of
2
b) Find L1tan 1 .
5
c) Using Laplace transform method, solve y + 2y + y = 3te t , given that y = 4,

y = 2 at t = 0.
4
OR
s2
by convolution theorem.
c) Find L 2
2
2
2
(s + a )(s + b )
1
4
Set P
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
-4-
5. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
b) Solve x2(y z)p + y2 (z x) q = z2 (x y).
c) Solve x2p2 + y2q2 = z.
3
SECTION II
a) Find the angle between the curves x = t, y = t2, z = t3 and x = t2, z = t4 at t = 1.

b) Find the directional derivative of = x2yz2 at (1, 1, 1) along the curve x = et,
y = 2 sin t + 1, z = t cost at t = 0.
c) Prove that (rn. r ) = (n + 3).rn.
d) Show that the velocity given by v = (y + z) i + (z + x) j + (x + y) k is
irrotational and find its scalar potential.
4k
7. a) Find z-transform of xk =
3k
, k<0
, k0
1
b) Find z1
3 , | z | < 5.
(z 5)
c) Find z {2k cos k} , k 0.
8. a) Obtain half range cosine series for

1
f(x) =
x
,
,
0 x1
.
1 x 2
Set P
*SLR-PK-153*
SLR-PK 153
-5-
0
b) Find Fourier expansion of f(x) =
x
x 0
0x
and f(x + 2 ) = f(x).
2 1 1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ...... .
Hence deduce that
8 1 3
5
OR
x
b) Expand f(x) =
0
0 < x <1
1< x < 2
1
9. a) Express the function f(x) =
0
evaluate
with period 2 into a Fourier series.
for | x | < 1
for | x | > 1
as Fourier integral. Hence
sin w cos wx
dw .
w
2 ,
b) Find the Fourier transform of f(x) =
0 ,
3
|x|<a
|x|>a
1 s
e ax
and hence, evaluate tan
c) Find the Fourier sine transform of f(x) =
a
x
0
sinsds.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) Harmonic
b) Riemann
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets
1
2
b)
c)
d)
a)
2
2
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
i+ j+k
i jk
i 2 j + 3k
i + 2 j + 3k
a)
b)
c)
d)
3
3
14
14
a) zkF(z)
b) zkF(z)
c) zn F(z)
d) znF(z)
1 , k = 0
then z{s(k)} =
6) If s(k) =
0 , Otherwise
a) 0
b) 1
c) z
d) 1z
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
-2-
a)

0
f(s) cosws ds
0
2
cos
wx
f
(
s
)
cos
wsds
dw
c)
0
d) None of these

a) y = C1 + C2x + (C3 + C4x)ex
b) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
9)
1
X is equal to
D+a
a)
Xe
ax
dx
b)
Xe
ax
dx
c) e ax X eax dx
d) e ax X e ax dx

a) Z = ax + by + c
c) Z = ax +
b) Z = ax +
1
y+c
b
1
y+c
a
d) Z = ax + ay + c
st
0
1
a) 2
s 1
b)
1
s + 22

a)
3/2
3
(s 2)
b)
c)
5/2
5
(s 2)
1
s 22
d)
1
s +1
2
is
c)
1
3
(s 2)
d)
1
5
(s 2)
=
s+2
13) L1
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t cosh 5t
s2 + s
14) L1 3 =
s
a) 1 + t
d) e2t sinh 5t
b) t + t2
c) t2 + 1
______________
d) t2
Set Q
*SLR-PK-153*
SLR-PK 153
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
b) Solve (D3 D2 6D)x = 1 + t2.
d2 y
dy
e4 x
8
+
16
y
=
.
c) Solve
dx
dx 2
x2
b) If f(t) =
kt
T
4s + 5
.
(s + 1)2 (s + 2)
2
b) Find L1tan 1 .
5

y = 2 at t = 0.
4
OR
s2
c) Find L 2
2
2
2
(s + a )(s + b )
1
4
Set Q
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
-4-
5. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
3
SECTION II

y = 2 sin t + 1, z = t cost at t = 0.
4k
3k
, k<0
, k0
1
b) Find z1
3 , | z | < 5.
(z 5)

1
f(x) =
x
,
,
0 x1
.
1 x 2
Set Q
*SLR-PK-153*
SLR-PK 153
-5-
0
x
x 0
0x
and f(x + 2 ) = f(x).
2 1 1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ...... .
Hence deduce that
8 1 3
5
OR
x
b) Expand f(x) =
0
0 < x <1
1< x < 2
1
0
evaluate
for | x | < 1
for | x | > 1
sin w cos wx
dw .
w
2 ,
0 ,
3
|x|<a
|x|>a
1 s
e ax
a
x
0
sinsds.
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a)
3/2
3
(s 2)
b)
5/2
5
(s 2)
is
c)
1
3
(s 2)
d)
1
5
(s 2)
=
s+2
2) L1
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t cosh 5t
d) e2t sinh 5t
s2 + s
3) L1 3 =
s
a) 1 + t
b) t + t2
c) t2 + 1
d) t2
a) Harmonic
b) Riemann
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets

1
2
b)
c)
d)
a)
2
2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
-2-
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
t2,
7) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t, y =

z=
i+ j+k
i 2 j + 3k
i + 2 j + 3k
a)
b)
c)
3
14
14
a) zkF(z)
b) zkF(z)
c) zn F(z)
t3 at
t = 1 is
i jk
d)
3
d) znF(z)
1 , k = 0
then z{s(k)} =
9) If s(k) =
0 , Otherwise
a) 0
b) 1
d) 1z
c) z
a) f(s) cosws ds

0
c) cos wx f(s) cos wsds dw

0
d) None of these

a) y = C1 + C2x + (C3 + C4x)ex
b) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
12)
1
X is equal to
D+a
a)
Xe
ax
dx
b)
Xe
ax
dx
c) e ax X eax dx
d) e ax X e ax dx

a) Z = ax + by + c
c) Z = ax +
b) Z = ax +
1
y+c
b
1
y+c
a
d) Z = ax + ay + c
st
a)
1
s 1
2
b)
1
1
c) 2
2
s +2
s 22
______________
2
d)
1
s +1
2
Set R
*SLR-PK-153*
SLR-PK 153
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
b) Solve (D3 D2 6D)x = 1 + t2.
d2 y
dy
e4 x
8
+
16
y
=
.
c) Solve
dx
dx 2
x2
b) If f(t) =
kt
T
4s + 5
.
(s + 1)2 (s + 2)
2
b) Find L1tan 1 .
5

y = 2 at t = 0.
4
OR
s2
c) Find L 2
2
2
2
(s + a )(s + b )
1
4
Set R
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
-4-
5. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
3
SECTION II

y = 2 sin t + 1, z = t cost at t = 0.
4k
3k
, k<0
, k0
1
b) Find z1
3 , | z | < 5.
(z 5)

1
f(x) =
x
,
,
0 x1
.
1 x 2
Set R
*SLR-PK-153*
SLR-PK 153
-5-
0
x
x 0
0x
and f(x + 2 ) = f(x).
2 1 1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ...... .
Hence deduce that
8 1 3
5
OR
x
b) Expand f(x) =
0
0 < x <1
1< x < 2
1
0
evaluate
for | x | < 1
for | x | > 1
sin w cos wx
dw .
w
2 ,
0 ,
3
|x|<a
|x|>a
1 s
e ax
a
x
0
sinsds.
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
i+ j+k
i jk
i 2 j + 3k
i + 2 j + 3k
a)
b)
c)
d)
3
3
14
14
a) zkF(z)
b) zkF(z)
c) zn F(z)
d) znF(z)
1 , k = 0
then z{s(k)} =
4) If s(k) =
0 , Otherwise
a) 0
b) 1
c) z
d) 1z
a)
f(s) cosws ds
0
2
cos
wx
f
(
s
)
cos
wsds
dw
c)
0
0

0
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
-2-

a) y = C1 + C2x + (C3 + C4x)ex
b) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
7)
1
X is equal to
D+a
a)
Xe
ax
dx
b)
Xe
ax
dx
c) e ax X eax dx
d) e ax X e ax dx

a) Z = ax + by + c
c) Z = ax +
b) Z = ax +
1
y+c
b
1
y+c
a
d) Z = ax + ay + c
st
0
1
1
b) 2
s 1
s + 22
3
10) The Laplace transform of e2t t 2 is
a)
a)
3/2
3
(s 2)
b)
5/2
5
(s 2)
c)
c)
1
s 22
d)
1
3
(s 2)
d)
1
s +1
2
1
5
(s 2)
=
s+2
11) L1
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t cosh 5t
s2 + s
12) L 3 =
s
a) 1 + t
d) e2t sinh 5t
b) t + t2
d) t2
c) t2 + 1
a) Harmonic
b) Riemann
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets
1
2
b)
c)
d)
a)
2
2
______________
Set S
*SLR-PK-153*
SLR-PK 153
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
b) Solve (D3 D2 6D)x = 1 + t2.
d2 y
dy
e4 x
8
+
16
y
=
.
c) Solve
dx
dx 2
x2
b) If f(t) =
kt
T
4s + 5
.
(s + 1)2 (s + 2)
2
b) Find L1tan 1 .
5

y = 2 at t = 0.
4
OR
s2
c) Find L 2
2
2
2
(s + a )(s + b )
1
4
Set S
SLR-PK 153
*SLR-PK-153*
-4-
5. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
3
SECTION II

y = 2 sin t + 1, z = t cost at t = 0.
4k
3k
, k<0
, k0
1
b) Find z1
3 , | z | < 5.
(z 5)

1
f(x) =
x
,
,
0 x1
.
1 x 2
Set S
*SLR-PK-153*
SLR-PK 153
-5-
0
x
x 0
0x
and f(x + 2 ) = f(x).
2 1 1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ...... .
Hence deduce that
8 1 3
5
OR
x
b) Expand f(x) =
0
0 < x <1
1< x < 2
1
0
evaluate
for | x | < 1
for | x | > 1
sin w cos wx
dw .
w
2 ,
0 ,
3
|x|<a
|x|>a
1 s
e ax
a
x
0
sinsds.
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 154
*SLRPK154*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

30 minutes in Answer Book Page No. 3. Each question carries
one mark.
of Page.
5) Use of data sheet is allowed.
Marks : 14

1) The capacitance which exists in a forward biased junction is _______
capacitance.
a) Diffusion
b) Storage
c) Transition
d) Both a) and b)
2) The RMS value of quadraplur circuit is 12V, the dc output voltage will be
approximately
a) 67.88
b) 48
c) 48 2
3) Consider following circuit, type of circuit is
d) Both a) and c)
a) Shunt Positive Clipper

b) Shunt Negative Clipper
c) Shunt Positive Clamper
d) Shunt Negative Clamper
4) To avoid back emf in LC filter _________ is used.
a) L-filter
b) C-Filter
c) Bleeder resistor
d) Bleeder capacitor
5) The PIV rating of half wave rectifier with C-filter is __________
a) Vm
b) 3Vm
c) 2Vm
d) 4Vm
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 154
-2-
*SLRPK154*
6) The reverse saturation current gets double at every ________ rise in

temperature.
a) 20C
b) 10C
c) 30C
d) 15C
7) The Load line gets shifted above and below parallel in ________ load line.
a) AC
b) DC
c) Shunt
d) none
8) FETs are having faster on and off times due to __________
a) Absence of barrier potential
b) Presence of threshold voltage
c) Larger inter electrode capacitances
d) Absence of storage charges as they are unipolar
9) For voltage amplification MOSFET is operated in ________ region.
a) ohmic
b) saturation
c) cut-off
d) both a) and c)
10) Voltage-divider bias provides :
a) Stable Q point
b) Q point variation with change in gain
c) Q point variation with change in IC
d) Unstable Q point
11) The d.c. load line of a transistor circuit
a) Is a graph between IC and VCE
b) Is a graph between IC and IB
c) Is a graph between IB and VBE
d) Is a curved line
12) The main use of common collector amplifier is as
a) Power Amplifier
b) Voltage Amplifier
c) Impedance Matching
d) Low input impedance circuit
13) Which of the following components are used for bias compensation in
transistorized circuit ?
a) Resistors
b) Diodes
c) Thermistors
d) Both b) and c)
14) In an astable multivibrator has C1=C2=1000pF and R1=R2=20K then
frequency of oscillation is
a) 36.23KHz
b) 3.625KHz
c) 0.3625KHz
d) 362.5KHz
______________
Set P
*SLRPK154*
-3-
SLR-PK 154
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Answer any 4 :
(44=16)
1) What is dynamic resistance of diode ? Derive an expression of dynamic

resistance of diode.
2) Compare between different filter (any 4 points).
3) Explain the working of voltage quadraplur circuit.
4) Explain significance of bleeder resistor.
5) Explain breakdown mechanism of Zener diode.
3. Answer any 2 :
(26=12)
1) A bridge rectifier is directly operated on the single phase AC supply voltage

of 230V, 60 Hz. If RL = 100 and diode forward resistance is 1 . Calculate
following :
i) Avg. load voltage
ii) DC output power
iii) Rectifier efficiency.
2) Explain the operation of combinational clipper and draw transfer curve.
3) Derive expression for CLC( ) filter
a) RMS value of ripple voltage
b) Ripple Factor.
Set P
SLR-PK 154
-4-
*SLRPK154*
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) Explain early effect and punch through effect in BJT.

b) Explain switching characteristics of transistor during turn on and turn off process.
c) Draw equivalent circuit of CE configuration in terms of h parameters and
drive expression for current gain and voltage gain.
d) Define stability factor S. Derive the general expression for stability factor of
biasing circuits.
e) Explain working of Bistable multivibrator using transistor.
(26=12)
a) Explain construction, working and drain characteristics of N channel JFET.

b) Design a single stage CE amplifier for peak output voltage of 4V at 4K
load, bandwidth = 20Hz to 2MHz. Use Vcc = 12V, source resistance = 600 ,
stability factor of 12, use Transistor BC147B hfe = 220, hie = 4.5K .
c) Explain working of astable multivibrator. Derive an expression frequency of
oscillation. Sketch associated waveforms.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 154
*SLRPK154*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14

a) ohmic
b) saturation
c) cut-off
d) both a) and c)
a) Stable Q point
d) Unstable Q point
d) Is a curved line
a) Power Amplifier
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 154
-2-
*SLRPK154*

a) Resistors
b) Diodes
c) Thermistors
d) Both b) and c)
a) 36.23KHz
b) 3.625KHz
c) 0.3625KHz
d) 362.5KHz
capacitance.
a) Diffusion
b) Storage
c) Transition
d) Both a) and b)
approximately
a) 67.88
b) 48
c) 48 2
d) Both a) and c)

a) L-filter
b) C-Filter
c) Bleeder resistor
a) Vm
b) 3Vm
c) 2Vm
d) 4Vm
temperature.
a) 20C
b) 10C
c) 30C
d) 15C
a) AC
b) DC
c) Shunt
d) none
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK154*
-3-
SLR-PK 154
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Answer any 4 :
(44=16)

3. Answer any 2 :
(26=12)

following :
ii) DC output power
b) Ripple Factor.
Set Q
SLR-PK 154
-4-
*SLRPK154*
SECTION II
(44=16)

biasing circuits.
(26=12)

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 154
*SLRPK154*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14

a) Stable Q point
d) Unstable Q point
d) Is a curved line
a) Power Amplifier
a) Resistors
b) Diodes
c) Thermistors
d) Both b) and c)
a) 36.23KHz
b) 3.625KHz
c) 0.3625KHz
d) 362.5KHz
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 154
*SLRPK154*
-2-

capacitance.
a) Diffusion
b) Storage
c) Transition
d) Both a) and b)
approximately
a) 67.88
b) 48
c) 48 2

d) Both a) and c)


a) L-filter
b) C-Filter
c) Bleeder resistor
a) Vm
b) 3Vm
c) 2Vm
d) 4Vm
temperature.
a) 20C
b) 10C
c) 30C
d) 15C
a) AC
b) DC
c) Shunt
d) none
a) ohmic
b) saturation
c) cut-off
d) both a) and c)
______________
Set S
*SLRPK154*
-3-
SLR-PK 154
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Answer any 4 :
(44=16)

3. Answer any 2 :
(26=12)

following :
ii) DC output power
b) Ripple Factor.
Set S
SLR-PK 154
-4-
*SLRPK154*
SECTION II
(44=16)

biasing circuits.
(26=12)

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 154
*SLRPK154*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14

a) Vm
b) 3Vm
c) 2Vm
d) 4Vm
temperature.
a) 20C
b) 10C
c) 30C
d) 15C
a) AC
b) DC
c) Shunt
d) none
a) ohmic
b) saturation
c) cut-off
d) both a) and c)
a) Stable Q point
d) Unstable Q point
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 154
*SLRPK154*
-2-

d) Is a curved line
a) Power Amplifier
a) Resistors
b) Diodes
c) Thermistors
d) Both b) and c)
a) 36.23KHz
b) 3.625KHz
c) 0.3625KHz
d) 362.5KHz
capacitance.
a) Diffusion
b) Storage
c) Transition
d) Both a) and b)
approximately
a) 67.88
b) 48
c) 48 2

d) Both a) and c)


a) L-filter
b) C-Filter
c) Bleeder resistor
______________
Set R
*SLRPK154*
-3-
SLR-PK 154
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Answer any 4 :
(44=16)

3. Answer any 2 :
(26=12)

following :
ii) DC output power
b) Ripple Factor.
Set R
SLR-PK 154
-4-
*SLRPK154*
SECTION II
(44=16)

biasing circuits.
(26=12)

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
Seat
No.
Set
NETWORK THEORY AND ANALYSIS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Total Marks : 70

4) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
Marks : 14
(114=14)
1) Maximum power is transferred when load impedance is equal to

a) Source impedance
b) Half of the source impedance
c) Equal to zero
2) Mesh analysis is based on
a) Kirchhoffs current law
c) Both
b) Kirchhoffs voltage law

3) What is the total impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance ?

b) Equal to Xc
c) Equal to R
d) Zero
a) Equal to XL
4) In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency,
a) I leads Vs
b) I lags behind Vs
c) I is in phase with Vs
d) Not fixed
5) If the lower cut-off frequency is 2400 Hz and the upper cut-off frequency is 2800 Hz,
what is the band width ?
a) 400 Hz
b) 2800 Hz
c) 2400 Hz
d) 5200 Hz
6) The number of possible combinations generated by four variables taken two at a time in a
two port network are
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Six
7) What is the driving point impedance at port 1-1 with port 2-2 open circuited for the network
shown in fig. 1 ?
a) 4 ohm
b) 3 ohm
c) 5 ohm
d) 2.2 ohm
Fig. 1
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
-2-
8) Cascade connection of LPF with cut-off frequency f1 and HPF with cut-off frequency f2
gives band pass filter if
a) F1 < f2
b) f1 > f2
c) f1 = f2
9) A capacitor does not allow sudden changes in
a) Currents
b) Voltages
c) Both currents and voltages
d) Neither of two
10) The time constant of series RC circuit is
a) 1/RC
b) R/C
c) RC
d) e RC
11) For driving point function N(s) = P(s)/Q(s), coefficients of P(s) and Q(s) must be
a) Real and negative b) Complex
c) Real and positive d) None of these
12) Transient current in RLC circuit is oscillatory when
a) R = 2 L / C
b) R = 0
c) R > 2 L/C
d) R < 2 L / C
c) 6.686
d) 8.686
13) Attenuation of 1neper = ___________ dB.

a) 6.868
b) 8.886
14) Relation between Z0T and Z0 is

a) Z0 = Z1Z2 / Z0T
c) Z 0 = Z1 / Z 2 Z 0 T
b) Z0 = Z0T / Z1Z2
d) Z0 = none of the above

______________
Set P
*SLRPK155*
-3-
SLR-PK 155
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Answer any four :
(44=16)
a) State and explain Millmans theorem.

b) Calculate the current I flowing through the 5 ohm resistor in the circuit shown in Fig. 2 by
using Nortons theorem.
Fig. 2
c) Two impedance Z1 = 20 + j10 and Z2 = 10 j30 are connected in parallel and this
combination is connected in series with Z3 = 30 + jX. Find the value of X which will produce
resonance.
d) A series RLC circuit has a quality factor of 10 at 200 rad/sec. The current flowing through
the circuit at resonance is 0.5 A and the supply voltage is 10 V. The total impedance of the
circuit is 40 ohm. Find the circuit constants.
e) Find the inverse transmission parameters for the network shown in Fig. 3.
Fig. 3
Set P
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
-4-
3. Answer any two :

(62=12)
a) The hybrid parameters of a two port network shown in Fig. 4 are h11 = 1K, h12 = 0.003,
h21 = 100, h22 = 50 . Find V2 and Z parameters of the network.
Fig. 4
b) A voltage v(t) = 10 sin t is applied to a series RLC circuit. At the resonant frequency of
the circuit, the voltage across the capacitor is found to be 500 V. Moreover, the bandwidth
is known to be 400 rad/sec and the impedance at resonance is 100 ohm. Find the resonant
frequency. Also find the values of L and C of the circuit.
c) Determine the current I1, I2 and I3 of the circuit shown in Fig. 5 using mesh analysis.
Fig. 5
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) Design a -type attenuator to give 20 dB attenuation and to have a characteristic
impedance of 100 ohm.
b) Design high pass -section filter with a cut-off frequency of 1 KHz with a terminated
design impedance of 800 ohm.
c) Write necessary condition for transfer functions.
d) For the given denominator polynomial of a network function, verify the stability of the
network by using Routh criteria.
Q(s) = S3 + S2 + 3S + 8
e) A series RL circuit with R = 30 ohm and L = 15 H has constant voltage V = 60 V applied at t = 0
as shown in Fig. 6. Determine the voltage across resistor and the voltage across the inductor.
Fig. 6
5. Answer any 2 :
(62=12)
a) Explain DC response of series RC circuit.
b) Design an m-derived low pass filter having cut-off frequency of 1.5 KHz with nominal
impedance of 500 ohm and resonant frequency is 1600 Hz.
c) For the given network function, draw the pole zero diagram and hence obtain the time
domain response i(t) I (s) =
5s
(s + 1) (s 2 + 4s + 8)
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)
a) F1 < f2
b) f1 > f2
c) f1 = f2
a) Currents
b) Voltages
d) Neither of two
a) 1/RC
b) R/C
c) RC
d) e RC
a) R = 2 L / C
b) R = 0
c) R > 2 L/C
d) R < 2 L / C
c) 6.686
d) 8.686

a) 6.868
b) 8.886

a) Z0 = Z1Z2 / Z0T
b) Z0 = Z0T / Z1Z2
c) Z 0 = Z1 / Z 2 Z 0 T

a) Source impedance
c) Equal to zero
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 155
c) Both
*SLRPK155*
-2-


b) Equal to Xc
c) Equal to R
d) Zero
a) Equal to XL
a) I leads Vs
b) I lags behind Vs
d) Not fixed
a) 400 Hz
b) 2800 Hz
c) 2400 Hz
d) 5200 Hz
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Six
shown in fig. 1 ?
a) 4 ohm
b) 3 ohm
c) 5 ohm
d) 2.2 ohm
Fig. 1
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK155*
-3-
SLR-PK 155
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)

Fig. 2
resonance.
Fig. 3
Set Q
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
-4-
3. Answer any two :

(62=12)
Fig. 4
Fig. 5
SECTION II
(44=16)
Q(s) = S3 + S2 + 3S + 8
Fig. 6
5. Answer any 2 :
(62=12)
5s
(s + 1) (s 2 + 4s + 8)
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(114=14)
a) 400 Hz
b) 2800 Hz
c) 2400 Hz
d) 5200 Hz
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Six
shown in fig. 1 ?
a) 4 ohm
b) 3 ohm
c) 5 ohm
d) 2.2 ohm
Fig. 1
a) F1 < f2
b) f1 > f2
c) f1 = f2
a) Currents
b) Voltages
d) Neither of two
a) 1/RC
b) R/C
c) RC
d) e RC
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
-2-
a) R = 2 L / C
b) R = 0
c) R > 2 L/C
d) R < 2 L / C
c) 6.686
d) 8.686

a) 6.868
b) 8.886

a) Z0 = Z1Z2 / Z0T
b) Z0 = Z0T / Z1Z2
c) Z 0 = Z1 / Z 2 Z 0 T
a) Source impedance
c) Equal to zero
c) Both


a) Equal to XL
b) Equal to Xc
c) Equal to R
d) Zero

a) I leads Vs
b) I lags behind Vs
d) Not fixed
______________
Set R
*SLRPK155*
-3-
SLR-PK 155
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)

Fig. 2
resonance.
Fig. 3
Set R
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
-4-
3. Answer any two :

(62=12)
Fig. 4
Fig. 5
SECTION II
(44=16)
Q(s) = S3 + S2 + 3S + 8
Fig. 6
5. Answer any 2 :
(62=12)
5s
(s + 1) (s 2 + 4s + 8)
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Total Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) 1/RC
b) R/C
(114=14)
c) RC
d) e RC
a) R = 2 L / C
b) R = 0
c) R > 2 L/C
d) R < 2 L / C
c) 6.686
d) 8.686

a) 6.868
b) 8.886

a) Z0 = Z1Z2 / Z0T
b) Z0 = Z0T / Z1Z2
c) Z 0 = Z1 / Z 2 Z 0 T

a) Source impedance
c) Equal to zero
c) Both


b) Equal to Xc
c) Equal to R
d) Zero
a) Equal to XL

a) I leads Vs
b) I lags behind Vs
d) Not fixed
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 155
-2-
*SLRPK155*
a) 400 Hz
b) 2800 Hz
c) 2400 Hz
d) 5200 Hz
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Six
shown in fig. 1 ?
a) 4 ohm
b) 3 ohm
c) 5 ohm
d) 2.2 ohm
Fig. 1
a) F1 < f2
b) f1 > f2
c) f1 = f2
a) Currents
b) Voltages
d) Neither of two
______________
Set S
*SLRPK155*
-3-
SLR-PK 155
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)

Fig. 2
resonance.
Fig. 3
Set S
SLR-PK 155
*SLRPK155*
-4-
3. Answer any two :

(62=12)
Fig. 4
Fig. 5
SECTION II
(44=16)
Q(s) = S3 + S2 + 3S + 8
Fig. 6
5. Answer any 2 :
(62=12)
5s
(s + 1) (s 2 + 4s + 8)
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 156
*SLRPK156*
S
Set
.
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
Marks : 14
(141=14)
1) The NOR-NOR realization is equivalent to

a) AND-OR Realization
b) OR-AND Realization
c) AND-OR-NOT Realization
d) AND-AND Realization
2) The given gray number is 1111, its equivalent binary number is
a) 1000
b) 1001
c) 1010
d) 0111
3) __________ code is an example of non-weighted codes.
a) BCD
b) 84-2-1
c) Gray
d) 5441
4) The statement x(x + y) = x * y represent
a) Associative law
b) DeMorgans theorems
c) Distributive law
d) Commutative law
5) The given Excess 3 number is 0111, its equivalent binary number is
a) 0100
b) 0011
c) 1010
d) 1001
6) The logic expression : Y =
a) Y =
c) Y =
m (2, 4, 6, 7) is equivalent to
m (1, 2, 6, 7)
b) Y =
M (0, 1, 3, 5)
d) Y =
M(2, 4, 6, 7)
m (0, 1, 3, 5)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 156
*SLRPK156*
-2-
7) The logic expression Z = ABC + AB + AC is in __________ form.

a) Standard SOP
b) POS
c) Standard POS
d) SOP
8) How many flip-flops are required to build a binary counter circuit to count
from 0 to 4095 ?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 9
d) 12
9) What is the frequency of pulses at the output of the circuit ?
Clock signal (16 KHz)
a) 125 Hz
b) 62.5 Hz
Output (Q4)
c) 2 KHz
d) 31.25 Hz
10) The race around condition occurs in

a) JK Flip-flop
b) D Flip-flop
c) SR Flip-flop
11) A flip-flop has two outputs which are
a) always zero
b) always one
c) always complementary
12) In a decade counter following states will never occur.
a) 0111 to 1111
b) 1010 to 1111
c) 1001 to 1111
d) 1000 to 1111
13) A negative edge-triggered flip-flop changes state on the ___________ of the
clock pulse.
a) High to low transition
b) Low to high transition
c) Negative level
14) The output Q of JK flip-flop is 0. It changes to 1 when a clock pulse is
applied. The input J and K are respectively
a) 1 and X
b) 0 and X
c) X and 0
d) X and 1
______________
Set P
*SLRPK156*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 156

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

SECTION I
(44=16)
a) What is a hamming code ? Explain with one example. What is the limitation of
the hamming code when it comes to detection and correction of bit errors ?
b) Subtract (1010)2 from (1111)2 using rs complement and (r 1)s complement
arithmetic.
c) Optimize the following Boolean functions by means of a K-map.
F(A, B, C, D) = m(2, 3, 6, 7, 12, 13, 14).
d) Prove that a full subtractor can be designed using two half-subtractors and
one OR gate.
e) Design a 16 : 1 multiplexer using only 4 : 1 multiplexers. Explain the operation
with truth table.
3. a) Design a combinational circuit with three inputs and one output using NAND
gate circuits. The output is 1 when the binary value of the inputs is less
than 3. The output is 0 otherwise.
6
b) Attempt any one.
(61=6)
i) Consider the combinational circuit shown. Analyze the circuit to obtain
the simplified Boolean expressions for output F and G in terms of the input
variables.
ii) Briefly describe propagation delay, power dissipation, speed-power product,

fan-in, fan-out and noise margin parameters, with particular reference to
their significance as regards the suitability of the logic family for a given
application.
Set P
SLR-PK 156
-4-
*SLRPK156*
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) Construct a JK flip-flop using NAND gates. Tabulate the characteristic table

and derive the characteristic equation for JK flip-flop.
b) Design a 3 bit twisted ring counter using D flip-flop. What is the mod of the
counter ?
c) What are different types of shift register ? Explain SIPO shift register.
d) Design a D flip-flop using T flip-flop.
e) Distinguish between a Programmable Logic Array (PLA) device and a
Programmable Array Logic (PAL) device in terms of architecture and capability
to implement Boolean functions.
5. a) Design a BCD synchronous counter using T flip-flop. Draw neat circuit
diagram and waveforms.
b) Attempt any one :
6
(61=6)
i) A data (D) flip-flop has two operations clear to 0, and set to 1, when
input D is 0 and 1 respectively. Design a D flip-flop using JK flip-flop.
Also derive the characteristic equation, tabulate the characteristic table,
and the excitation table for the D flip-flop.
ii) Explain Melay machine with example. Also compare Moore and Mealy
machine.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 156
*SLRPK156*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(141=14)
from 0 to 4095 ?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 9
d) 12
a) 125 Hz
b) 62.5 Hz
Output (Q4)
c) 2 KHz
d) 31.25 Hz

a) JK Flip-flop
b) D Flip-flop
c) SR Flip-flop
a) always zero
b) always one
a) 0111 to 1111
b) 1010 to 1111
c) 1001 to 1111
d) 1000 to 1111
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 156
*SLRPK156*
-2-

clock pulse.
c) Negative level
a) 1 and X
b) 0 and X
c) X and 0
d) X and 1
a) 1000
b) 1001
c) 1010
d) 0111
a) BCD
b) 84-2-1
c) Gray
d) 5441
a) Associative law
c) Distributive law
d) Commutative law
a) 0100
b) 0011
c) 1010
d) 1001
a) Y =
c) Y =
m (1, 2, 6, 7)
b) Y =
M (0, 1, 3, 5)
d) Y =
M(2, 4, 6, 7)
m (0, 1, 3, 5)

a) Standard SOP
b) POS
c) Standard POS
d) SOP
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK156*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 156

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
arithmetic.
F(A, B, C, D) = m(2, 3, 6, 7, 12, 13, 14).
one OR gate.
with truth table.
6
b) Attempt any one.
(61=6)
variables.

application.
Set Q
SLR-PK 156
-4-
*SLRPK156*
SECTION II
(44=16)

counter ?
6
(61=6)
machine.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 156
*SLRPK156*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) 0100
b) 0011
c) 1010
d) 1001
a) Y =
c) Y =
m (1, 2, 6, 7)
b) Y =
M (0, 1, 3, 5)
d) Y =
M(2, 4, 6, 7)
m (0, 1, 3, 5)

a) Standard SOP
b) POS
c) Standard POS
d) SOP
from 0 to 4095 ?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 9
d) 12
a) 125 Hz
b) 62.5 Hz
c) 2 KHz
Output (Q4)
d) 31.25 Hz
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 156
-2-
*SLRPK156*

a) JK Flip-flop
b) D Flip-flop
c) SR Flip-flop
a) always zero
b) always one
a) 0111 to 1111
b) 1010 to 1111
c) 1001 to 1111
d) 1000 to 1111
clock pulse.
c) Negative level
a) 1 and X
b) 0 and X
c) X and 0
d) X and 1
a) 1000
b) 1001
c) 1010
d) 0111
a) BCD
b) 84-2-1
c) Gray
d) 5441
a) Associative law
c) Distributive law
d) Commutative law
______________
Set R
*SLRPK156*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 156

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
arithmetic.
F(A, B, C, D) = m(2, 3, 6, 7, 12, 13, 14).
one OR gate.
with truth table.
6
b) Attempt any one.
(61=6)
variables.

application.
Set R
SLR-PK 156
-4-
*SLRPK156*
SECTION II
(44=16)

counter ?
6
(61=6)
machine.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 156
*SLRPK156*
S
Set
.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) JK Flip-flop
b) D Flip-flop
c) SR Flip-flop
a) always zero
b) always one
a) 0111 to 1111
b) 1010 to 1111
c) 1001 to 1111
d) 1000 to 1111
clock pulse.
c) Negative level
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 156
*SLRPK156*
-2-

a) 1 and X
b) 0 and X
c) X and 0
d) X and 1
a) 1000
b) 1001
c) 1010
d) 0111
a) BCD
b) 84-2-1
c) Gray
d) 5441
a) Associative law
c) Distributive law
d) Commutative law
a) 0100
b) 0011
c) 1010
d) 1001
a) Y =
c) Y =
m (1, 2, 6, 7)
b) Y =
M (0, 1, 3, 5)
d) Y =
M(2, 4, 6, 7)
m (0, 1, 3, 5)

a) Standard SOP
b) POS
c) Standard POS
d) SOP
from 0 to 4095 ?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 9
d) 12
a) 125 Hz
b) 62.5 Hz
c) 2 KHz
______________
Output (Q4)
d) 31.25 Hz
Set S
*SLRPK156*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 156

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
arithmetic.
F(A, B, C, D) = m(2, 3, 6, 7, 12, 13, 14).
one OR gate.
with truth table.
6
b) Attempt any one.
(61=6)
variables.

application.
Set S
SLR-PK 156
-4-
*SLRPK156*
SECTION II
(44=16)

counter ?
6
(61=6)
machine.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 157
*SLRPK157*
Seat
No.
Set

DATA STRUCTURES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
14
1) If the items 10, 20, 30 and 40 are inserted in the stack in the given ascending
order, and then afterwards pop operation is performed, which item is deleted first ?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
2) If the characters D, C, B, A are placed in a queue (in that order),
and then removed one at a time, in what order will they be removed ?
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCAB
d) DCBA
3) If in a linked list, address of first node is 1020 then what will be the address
of node at 5th position ?
a) 1028
b) 1036
c) 1038
d) None of these
4) An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is known as
a) Stack
b) Recursion
c) Graph
d) Traversal algorithm
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 157
-2-
*SLRPK157*
5) Consider stack is implemented using array

#define max 10
struct stack
{
int arr[max];
int top=-1;
};
In this implementation of stack, maximum value of top which cannot cause
overflow will be
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) Any other
6) The another name of deque is
a) Dividend queue
b) Distributed queue
c) Double ended queue
d) Design queue
7) When new element is added in the middle of singly linked list, then
a) Only elements that appear after the new element and before need to be moved
b) No need to move element
c) Only elements that appear before the new element need to be moved
d) Only elements that appear after the new element need to be moved
8) Partition and exchange sort is
a) Quick sort
b) Tree sort
c) Heap sort
d) Bubble sort
9) If a node having two children is deleted from a binary tree, it is replaced by its
a) Inorder predecessor
b) Inorder successor
c) Preorder predecessor
d) None of these
10) The time complexity of linear search algorithm over an array of n elements is
a) O(log2n)
b) O(n)
c) O(nlog2n)
d) O(n2)
11) Suppose data array contains 10,000 elements. Using the binary search algorithm,
one requires only about n comparisons to find the location of an item in the
data, then n is ?
a) 60
b) 45
c) 20
d) None of these
12) In a graph if e = [u, v], then u and v are called
a) End points of e
b) Adjacent nodes
c) Neighbours
d) All of the above
13) A binary search tree is traversed in the following order recursively : right,
root, left. The output sequence will be in
a) Ascending order
b) Bitomic sequence
c) Descending order
d) No specific order
14) Depth first traversal of an undirected graph is roughly analogous to
a) Inorder traversal
b) Preorder traversal
c) Postorder traversal
d) All of the above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK157*
-3-
SLR-PK 157
Seat
No.

DATA STRUCTURES
Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(44=16)
1) What is a stack ? Write the C function for push operation for a stack.
2) What is avail list ? Explain the algorithm for getnode and freenode using
diagram.
3) Evaluate the following postfix expression : 5 4 6 + * 4 9 3 / + * .
4) Define queue. Explain the different operations performed on a simple queue.
5) Explain the insertion algorithm for an ordered singly linked list.
(26=12)
1) Write C program to implement circular linked list for Josephus problem.

2) Write a C program to implement simple queue using array.
3) Write the general algorithm for recursion. Also explain why dynamic storage
allocation is used for implementing recursion using flowchart.
Set P
SLR-PK 157
-4-
*SLRPK157*
SECTION II
(44=16)
1) Write a C program to search an element in an array using binary search method.

2) Explain the different methods of tree traversal.
3) Write a C program to sort an array of 5 elements using selection sort.
4) Explain any four types of graph with diagram.
5) Elaborate how to delete a key from a binary search tree.
(26=12)
1) What are the graph traversal methods ? Explain any one traversal method
with flowchart.
2) The following sequence gives the postorder and inorder traversal of binary
tree :
Postorder : DFEBGLJKHCA
Inorder : DBFEAGCLJHK
Construct the binary tree. Show the intermediate steps.
3) What is hash collision ? Justify how closed hashing technique is used to
resolve has clashes.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 157
*SLRPK157*
Seat
No.
Set

DATA STRUCTURES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

14
a) Quick sort
b) Tree sort
c) Heap sort
d) Bubble sort
d) None of these
a) O(log2n)
b) O(n)
c) O(nlog2n)
d) O(n2)
data, then n is ?
a) 60
b) 45
c) 20
d) None of these
a) End points of e
b) Adjacent nodes
c) Neighbours
d) All of the above
a) Ascending order
b) Bitomic sequence
c) Descending order
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 157
-2-
*SLRPK157*

d) All of the above
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCAB
d) DCBA
a) 1028
b) 1036
c) 1038
d) None of these
a) Stack
b) Recursion
c) Graph
#define max 10
struct stack
{
int arr[max];
int top=-1;
};
overflow will be
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) Any other
a) Dividend queue
d) Design queue
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK157*
-3-
SLR-PK 157
Seat
No.

DATA STRUCTURES
Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(44=16)
diagram.
(26=12)

Set Q
SLR-PK 157
-4-
*SLRPK157*
SECTION II
(44=16)

(26=12)
with flowchart.
tree :
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 157
*SLRPK157*
Seat
No.
Set

DATA STRUCTURES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

14
#define max 10
struct stack
{
int arr[max];
int top=-1;
};
overflow will be
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) Any other
a) Dividend queue
d) Design queue
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 157
-2-
*SLRPK157*

a) Quick sort
b) Tree sort
c) Heap sort
d) Bubble sort
d) None of these
a) O(log2n)
b) O(n)
c) O(nlog2n)
d) O(n2)
data, then n is ?
a) 60
b) 45
c) 20
d) None of these
a) End points of e
b) Adjacent nodes
c) Neighbours
d) All of the above
a) Ascending order
b) Bitomic sequence
c) Descending order
d) All of the above
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCAB
d) DCBA
a) 1028
b) 1036
c) 1038
d) None of these
a) Stack
b) Recursion
c) Graph
______________
Set R
*SLRPK157*
-3-
SLR-PK 157
Seat
No.

DATA STRUCTURES
Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(44=16)
diagram.
(26=12)

Set R
SLR-PK 157
-4-
*SLRPK157*
SECTION II
(44=16)

(26=12)
with flowchart.
tree :
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 157
*SLRPK157*
Seat
No.
Set

DATA STRUCTURES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

14
b) O(n)
c) O(nlog2n)
d) O(n2)
a) O(log2n)
data, then n is ?
a) 60
b) 45
c) 20
d) None of these
a) End points of e
b) Adjacent nodes
c) Neighbours
d) All of the above
a) Ascending order
b) Bitomic sequence
c) Descending order
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 157
-2-
*SLRPK157*
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCAB
d) DCBA
a) 1028
b) 1036
c) 1038
d) None of these
a) Stack
b) Recursion
c) Graph
#define max 10
struct stack
{
int arr[max];
int top=-1;
};
overflow will be
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) Any other
a) Dividend queue
d) Design queue
a) Quick sort
b) Tree sort
c) Heap sort
d) Bubble sort
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK157*
-3-
SLR-PK 157
Seat
No.

DATA STRUCTURES
Marks : 56
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(44=16)
diagram.
(26=12)

Set S
SLR-PK 157
-4-
*SLRPK157*
SECTION II
(44=16)

(26=12)
with flowchart.
tree :
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 158
*SLRPK158*
S
Set
t
S.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
1. Choose correct option :
(141=14)
1) Swinburns test is
a) No load test
c) S.C. test
b) O.C. test
2) HVDC transmission is advantageous in comparison with HVAC because

a) dc is unidirectional
b) dc is represented by polarities
c) in dc magnitude is constant
d) in dc minimum conductors are required
3) An universal motor is modification of
a) dc shunt motor
c) dc compound motor
b) dc series motor
4) The lagging power factor is due to _________ load.

a) Inductive
b) Resistive
c) Capacitive
d) Conductive
5) In case of d.c. shunt motor torque is proportional to

a) I a
b) I2a
c) Ia/2
d) Va
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 158
*SLRPK158*
-2-
6) The synchronous speed of 4 pole three phase induction motor is 1500 rpm
then frequency of the ac supply is ________ Hz.
a) 60
b) 150
c) 50
d) 100
7) In T-T connection main transformer is having __________ % tapping on both

primary and secondary winding.
a) 86.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 76.8
8) The dc series motor should never be switched ON at no load because

a) The field current is zero
b) The machine does not pick up
c) The speed becomes dangerously high
d) It will take too long to accelerate
9) The rotor gross output Pm of 3 ph. I.M. is
a) sP2
b) P2
a) Delta-delta
b) V - V
c) P2/s
d) (1 s)P2
10) Which of the following connections is best suited for 3 ph., 4 wire service ?
c) Star - delta
d) Delta - star
11) The back emf of a 230 V d.c. motor with armature resistance 1
30 (Amp) is
a) 200 V
b) 230 V
c) 260 V
d) 180 V
and Ia
12) In star-delta starter used for three phase I.M. at starting the voltage applied
to motor stator winding is _________ times line voltage.
a) 0.4
b) 0.577
c) 1.717
d) 0.5
13) According to the principle of operation of a single phase induction motor the
air gap flux is
a) Stationary
c) Synchronously rotating
b) Pulsating
d) Changing
14) Power factor =

a) KW/KVAR
b) KVA/KW
c) KVA/KVAR
______________
d) KW/KVA
Set P
*SLRPK158*
S
SLR-PK 158
-3-

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
a) Derive the relation for active power in terms of two wattmeter reading.
b) The following readings are obtained when doing brake load test on d.c. shunt
motor spring balance reading 10 kg and 35 kg, N = 950 (rpm), V = 200 (volt),
Imotor = 30 (amp) and diameter of the brake drum = 40 cm. Calculate output
power and the efficiency.
c) Draw neat diagram and write important features of linear induction motor.
d) Explain electrical braking for d.c. shunt motor.
e) Two wattmeter indicate 12 kw and 4 kw respectively, when connected to
measure the input power to a three phase balanced inductive load. Calculate :
i) Input power
ii) Power factor when later reading is taken by reversing current coil
connection.
3. a) Draw neat diagram and discuss how speed control is achieved by Ward Leonard
voltage control method.
b) A 2 pole dc series motor runs at 707 (rpm) when taking 100 (Amp) at
85 (Volt) and with field coils in series. Ra = 0.04 and Rse = 0.03 . If field
coils are connected in parallel and load torque remains constant, find speed
of the motor.
(62=12)
OR
c) Explain with neat diagram 3-point starter used for d.c. shunt motor.
Set P
SLR-PK 158
-4-
*SLRPK158*
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) When one transformer from delta-delta bank is disabled can we provide three
phase power supply ? Explain.
b) Write equation for starting torque. Derive the condition for maximum starting
torque.
c) What are the causes of low power factor ? With neat diagram explain one
power factor improvement method.
d) Write short on DOL starter.
e) In the case of 8-pole induction motor, the supply frequency was 50 Hz and
the motor speed was 735 rpm. Then calculate i) synchronous speed and
ii) slip speed.
(62=12)
a) 746 KW, three phase, 50 Hz, 16 pole three phase induction motor has stand
still per phase rotor impedance is (0.02 + j 0.15) ohm. Full load torque is
obtained at 360 rpm.
Calculate :
i) The speed of maximum torque
ii) The ratio of Tm to Tf
iii) The rotor resistance to be added to get maximum torque.

b) Draw and explain star-delta 3-phase transformer connection.
A three phase, 50 (Hz) transformer has delta connected primary and star
connected secondary, the line voltages being 22 (kv) and 400 (v) respectively.
The primary line current is 5 (Amp). Determine transformation ratio, primary
and secondary phase current.
c) Compare group drive and individual drive.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 158
*SLRPK158*
S
Set
t

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) sP2
b) P2
c) P2/s
d) (1 s)P2
a) Delta-delta
b) V - V
c) Star - delta
d) Delta - star
30 (Amp) is
a) 200 V
b) 230 V
c) 260 V
d) 180 V
and Ia
a) 0.4
b) 0.577
c) 1.717
d) 0.5
air gap flux is
a) Stationary
b) Pulsating
d) Changing
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 158
*SLRPK158*
-2-
7) Power factor =
a) KW/KVAR
b) KVA/KW
c) KVA/KVAR
d) KW/KVA
a) No load test
c) S.C. test
b) O.C. test

a) dc shunt motor
b) dc series motor

a) Inductive
b) Resistive
c) Capacitive
d) Conductive

a) Ia
b) I2a
c) Ia/2
d) Va
a) 60
b) 150
c) 50
d) 100

a) 86.6
b) 50
c) 100
______________
d) 76.8
Set Q
*SLRPK158*
S
SLR-PK 158
-3-

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
i) Input power
connection.
of the motor.
(62=12)
OR
Set Q
SLR-PK 158
-4-
*SLRPK158*
SECTION II
(44=16)
torque.
ii) slip speed.
(62=12)
Calculate :

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 158
*SLRPK158*
S
Set
t

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) I a
b) I2a
c) Ia/2
d) Va
a) 60
b) 150
c) 50
d) 100
a) 86.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 76.8

b) P2
c) P2/s
a) sP2
d) (1 s)P2
a) Delta-delta
b) V - V
c) Star - delta
d) Delta - star
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 158
*SLRPK158*
-2-

30 (Amp) is
a) 200 V
b) 230 V
c) 260 V
and Ia
d) 180 V
a) 0.4
b) 0.577
c) 1.717
d) 0.5

air gap flux is
a) Stationary
b) Pulsating
d) Changing
10) Power factor =

a) KW/KVAR
b) KVA/KW

a) No load test
c) KVA/KVAR
d) KW/KVA
b) O.C. test
c) S.C. test

a) dc shunt motor
b) dc series motor

a) Inductive
c) Capacitive
b) Resistive
d) Conductive
______________
Set R
*SLRPK158*
S
SLR-PK 158
-3-

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
i) Input power
connection.
of the motor.
(62=12)
OR
Set R
SLR-PK 158
-4-
*SLRPK158*
SECTION II
(44=16)
torque.
ii) slip speed.
(62=12)
Calculate :

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 158
*SLRPK158*
S
Set
t

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)
a) Delta-delta
b) V - V
c) Star - delta
d) Delta - star

30 (Amp) is
a) 200 V
b) 230 V
c) 260 V
and Ia
d) 180 V
a) 0.4
b) 0.577
c) 1.717
d) 0.5
air gap flux is
a) Stationary
b) Pulsating
d) Changing
5) Power factor =
a) KW/KVAR
b) KVA/KW
c) KVA/KVAR
d) KW/KVA
a) No load test
b) O.C. test
c) S.C. test

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 158
*SLRPK158*
-2-

a) dc shunt motor
b) dc series motor

a) Inductive
b) Resistive
c) Capacitive
d) Conductive

a) Ia
b) I2a
c) Ia/2
d) Va
a) 60
b) 150
c) 50
d) 100

a) 86.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 76.8

a) sP2
b) P2
c) P2/s
______________
d) (1 s)P2
Set S
*SLRPK158*
S
SLR-PK 158
-3-

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
i) Input power
connection.
of the motor.
(62=12)
OR
Set S
SLR-PK 158
-4-
*SLRPK158*
SECTION II
(44=16)
torque.
ii) slip speed.
(62=12)
Calculate :

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 159
*SLRPK159*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)
1) An amplifier has following critical frequencies : 50 Hz, 1.2 KHz, 12 KHz and 20 KHz.
Then Bandwidth is
a) 11950 Hz
b) 18800 Hz
c) 19950 Hz
d) 10800 Hz
2) Direct coupled amplifier is especially used for amplifying
a) high frequency signal
b) very low frequency signal
c) dc signal
d) both b and c
3) Distortion with feedback is
a) D f =
D
(1+ KAv)
b) D f =
1+ KAv
D
c) Df = D (1 + KAv) d) D f =
D
(1+ KAvf)
4) Emitter follower is an example of _________ circuit.

a) Voltage series feedback
b) Current series feedback
c) Current shunt feedback
d) Both b and c
5) The upper 3 dB frequency for n identical stages is given by
1
a) fH(n) = fH 2 n + 1
b) fH(n) = fH 2 n 1
c) fH(n) = fH 1 2 n
6) The efficiency of Class A power amplifier is

a) 78.5%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) fH(n) =
fH
1
2n +1
d) 78.5% to 100%
7) Class AB power amplifier is generally used for

a) tuned amplifier
b) to eliminate cross over distortion
c) impedance matching
8) The percentage change in output voltage for given change in input voltage is
a) Load regulation
b) Thermal regulation
c) Line regulation
d) Line and load regulation
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 159
*SLRPK159*
-2-
9) Input capacitor for IC regulator is required

a) To reduce output voltage
c) To minimize inductive effect
b) To improve transient response

d) Both b and c
10) A three terminal monolithic IC regulator can be used as

a) An adjustable O/P voltage regulator alone
b) An adjustable O/P voltage regulator and current regulator
c) As a current regulator and a power switch
d) As a current regulator alone
11) In monostable multivibrator if pulse width = 10 Sec., C = 100 f then R =
a) 91 K
b) 50 K
c) 75 K
d) 100 K
12) For linear ramp generator application using IC 555 _________________ is used.
a) Monostable multivibrator
b) Astable multivibrator
c) Schmitt trigger
d) Bistable multivibrator
13) The Pin no. 1, 2, 3 for LM 317 regulator are _______________ respectively.
a) Vin, Vout, Iadj
b) Iadj, Vin, Vout
c) Iadj, Vout, Vin
d) Vin, Iadj, Vout
14) The frequency determining components in Wien bridge oscillators are R = 20 K and
C = 0.01 F. The frequency of oscillation is
a) 795.77 Hz
b) 795.77 KHz
c) 795.77 MHz
d) none of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK159*
-3-
SLR-PK 159
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.

2) Use of electronic component data sheet is allowed.
SECTION I
(44=16)
1) Compare the effect of voltage series, voltage shunt, current series and current shunt
feedback on following amplifier characteristics.
i) Voltage gain
ii) Input resistance
iii) Output resistance
iv) Bandwidth
2) An amplifier has midband gain of 125 and bandwidth 250 KHz. If 4% of negative feedback
is introduced. Calculate new bandwidth and gain. If bandwidth is restricted to 1 MHz.
Calculate feedback factor.
3) Derive an expression for Ai, Avf, Rif for Emitter follower circuit.
4) What is meant by power amplifier ? Differentiate between voltage amplifier and power
amplifier.
5) Discuss how to determine frequency response in multistage amplifier.
(62=12)
1) Explain working of Class B push pull amplifier with suitable waveforms. Derive an
expression for its maximum efficiency and power dissipation.
2) Why do you cascade the amplifiers ? Explain working of two stage direct coupled amplifier.
Derive an expression for voltage gain using AC equivalent circuit. Compare different
coupled amplifiers.
3) Design a two stage RC coupled voltage series feedback amplifier to meet the following
specification AVF = 100, RL = 5 k , Rs = 400 , output voltage = 5 Vpp with supply
voltage of 12 V, 3 dB Bandwidth = 20 Hz to 50 KHz. Use BC 147B = 330, hie = 4.5 k .
Set P
SLR-PK 159
-4-
*SLRPK159*
SECTION II
(44=16)
1) Explain different protection circuits in IC regulators.

2) Design a power on delay for 15 seconds using IC 555.
3) Design a constant current source using IC 7912 to source the current from 100 to 200 mA
for maximum o/p voltage of 21 V.
4) List the features and parameters of IC 74121.
5) Explain working of VCO (V to F converter) using IC 555.
5. Answer any two :
(26=12)
1) Design a dual tracking regulator using three terminal adjustable IC voltage regulators for
following specification :
i) Vo = 11 V to 22 V
ii) Io = 1.1 A
iii) Vin = 33 V, use R1 = 240 , Iadj = 100 A.
2) Design a transistorized series voltage regulator for 20 V at 1 A, At Vin = 30 V (Assume
necessary data).
3) Explain working of Hartly Oscillator. Derive an expression for frequency of oscillation
and minimum gain of sustained oscillation.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 159
*SLRPK159*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)
a) Load regulation
c) Line regulation

d) Both b and c

a) 91 K
b) 50 K
c) 75 K
d) 100 K
c) Schmitt trigger
a) Vin, Vout, Iadj
b) Iadj, Vin, Vout
c) Iadj, Vout, Vin
d) Vin, Iadj, Vout
a) 795.77 Hz
b) 795.77 KHz
c) 795.77 MHz
d) none of these
Then Bandwidth is
a) 11950 Hz
b) 18800 Hz
c) 19950 Hz
d) 10800 Hz
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 159
*SLRPK159*
-2-

c) dc signal
d) both b and c
a) D f =
D
(1+ KAv )
b) D f =
1+ KAv
D
c) Df = D (1 + KAv) d) D f =
D
(1+ KAvf)

d) Both b and c
1
a) fH(n) = fH 2 n + 1
b) fH(n) = fH 2 n 1
c) fH(n) = fH 1 2 n

a) 78.5%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) fH(n) =
fH
1
2n +1
d) 78.5% to 100%

a) tuned amplifier
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK159*
-3-
SLR-PK 159
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
i) Voltage gain
iv) Bandwidth
amplifier.
(62=12)
coupled amplifiers.
Set Q
SLR-PK 159
-4-
*SLRPK159*
SECTION II
(44=16)

5. Answer any two :
(26=12)
i) Vo = 11 V to 22 V
ii) Io = 1.1 A
necessary data).
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 159
*SLRPK159*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)

1
a) fH(n) = fH 2 n + 1
b) fH(n) = fH 2 n 1
c) fH(n) = fH 1 2 n

a) 78.5%
b) 25%
c) 50%
fH
d) fH(n) =
2n +1
d) 78.5% to 100%

a) tuned amplifier
a) Load regulation
c) Line regulation

d) Both b and c

a) 91 K
b) 50 K
c) 75 K
d) 100 K

c) Schmitt trigger
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 159
-2-
*SLRPK159*

a) Vin, Vout, Iadj
b) Iadj, Vin, Vout
c) Iadj, Vout, Vin
d) Vin, Iadj, Vout
a) 795.77 Hz
b) 795.77 KHz
c) 795.77 MHz
d) none of these
Then Bandwidth is
a) 11950 Hz
b) 18800 Hz
c) 19950 Hz
d) 10800 Hz
c) dc signal
d) both b and c
a) D f =
D
(1+ KAv )
b) D f =
1+ KAv
D
c) Df = D (1 + KAv) d) D f =
D
(1+ KAvf)

d) Both b and c
______________
Set R
*SLRPK159*
-3-
SLR-PK 159
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
i) Voltage gain
iv) Bandwidth
amplifier.
(62=12)
coupled amplifiers.
Set R
SLR-PK 159
-4-
*SLRPK159*
SECTION II
(44=16)

5. Answer any two :
(26=12)
i) Vo = 11 V to 22 V
ii) Io = 1.1 A
necessary data).
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 159
*SLRPK159*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) 91 K
b) 50 K
c) 75 K
d) 100 K
c) Schmitt trigger
a) Vin, Vout, Iadj
b) Iadj, Vin, Vout
c) Iadj, Vout, Vin
d) Vin, Iadj, Vout
a) 795.77 Hz
b) 795.77 KHz
c) 795.77 MHz
d) none of these
Then Bandwidth is
a) 11950 Hz
b) 18800 Hz
c) 19950 Hz
d) 10800 Hz
c) dc signal
d) both b and c
a) D f =
D
(1+ KAv)
b) D f =
1+ KAv
D
c) Df = D (1 + KAv) d) D f =
D
(1+ KAvf)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 159
*SLRPK159*
-2-

d) Both b and c
1
a) fH(n) = fH 2 n + 1
b) fH(n) = fH 2 n 1
c) fH(n) = fH 1 2 n

a) 78.5%
b) 25%
c) 50%
fH
d) fH(n) =
2n +1
d) 78.5% to 100%

a) tuned amplifier
a) Load regulation
c) Line regulation

d) Both b and c
______________
Set S
*SLRPK159*
-3-
SLR-PK 159
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(44=16)
i) Voltage gain
iv) Bandwidth
amplifier.
(62=12)
coupled amplifiers.
Set S
SLR-PK 159
-4-
*SLRPK159*
SECTION II
(44=16)

5. Answer any two :
(26=12)
i) Vo = 11 V to 22 V
ii) Io = 1.1 A
necessary data).
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 160
*SLRPK160*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2016
ANALOG COMMUNICATION

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
1. Select suitable option.
(141=14)
1) Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires the minimum transmitted power
and minimum channel bandwidth ?
a) VSB
b) SSB
c) DSB-SC
d) AM
2) A carrier is amplitude modulated by 4 signals of 10 kHz, 15 kHz, 20 kHz and 25 kHz.
What is the bandwidth of the modulated signal ?
a) 25 kHz
b) 50 kHz
c) 70 kHz
d) 140 kHz
3) The minimum input voltage that produces specified SNR at the output of the IF section is
known as
a) Selectivity of the receiver
b) Noise figure of the receiver
c) Image rejection of the receiver
d) Sensitivity of the receiver
4) The output of a SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 kHz sine wave modulating
tone is
a) A 3.8485 MHz sine wave
b) A 3.85 MHz sine wave
c) 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine waves
d) 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine waves
5) A modulator circuit performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs ?
a) Multiplication
b) Addition
c) Division
d) Square root
6) The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and
0.3. The percentage of modulation is
a) 10.7 percent
b) 41.4 percent
c) 80.6 percent
d) 93.3 percent
7) In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the
a) Carrier
b) Modulating signal
c) Sidebands
d) Envelope
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 160
*SLRPK160*
-2-
8) In FM for a given frequency deviation, the modulation index varies

a) Inversely as the modulating frequency
b) Directly as the modulating frequency
c) Independent of the changes in modulating signal
9) A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by
a) Converting the PM to FM
b) Pre amplifying the whole audio band
c) Boosting the bass frequencies
d) Amplifying the higher audio frequencies
10) In an FM signal, the power
a) Increases as M.I. increases
c) Increases as M.I. decreases
b) Reduces as M.I. increases

d) Remain constant when M.I. increases
11) Noise is primarily a variation in

a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) None of these
12) _________ is the amount of voltage induced in wave by an electromagnetic wave.

a) Receive voltage
b) Magnetic induction
c) Field strength
d) Power density
13) Factor that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna is
a) Transmission line length and height of antenna
b) The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects
c) Constant for all antennas since it is physical
d) Sunspot activity and the time of day
14) ________________ determines the number of sideband components in FM.
a) Carrier frequency
b) Modulation frequency
c) Modulation index
d) Deviation ratio
______________
Set P
*SLRPK160*
-3-
SLR-PK 160
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(34=12)
1) What are the elements of communication system ? Explain with a typical block diagram.
2) An audio signal described as 30 sin (2 2500t) modulates a carrier which is described as
65 sin (2 250000t).
a) Sketch audio and carrier signal.
b) What is frequency of audio and carrier signal ?
c) Calculate modulation index.
d) Determine bandwidth and frequencies of LSB and USB.
3) Derive an equation for total power in AM wave in terms of carrier power.
4) How a constant intermediate frequency is achieved in superheterodyne receiver ?
(28=16)
1) Design a block schematic for suppression of lower sideband using phase shift SSB
technique.
2) An AM transmitter radiates 9 kW of power when the carrier is un-modulated and 10.125 kW
when carrier is modulated. Find modulation depth. Now, if another sine wave,
corresponding to 40% modulation depth is transmitted simultaneously, then calculate the
total power radiated.
3) With a circuit schematic explain separately excited mixer used in superheterodyne
receiver.
Set P
SLR-PK 160
-4-
*SLRPK160*
SECTION II
(34=12)
1) Define noise. What are its sources ?

2) Compare frequency and amplitude modulation techniques.
3) Classify switching systems used in telephony.
4) With suitable circuit schematic, explain working of reactance modulator for FM generation.
(28=16)
1) Draw circuit diagram of Foster Seeley discriminator. Explain its working and state
limitations of the circuit.
2) How crossbar switching is efficient then strowger switching ? Explain crossbar
switching in detail.
3) Explain the effect of cascade connection on signal to noise ratio.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 160
*SLRPK160*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)



a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) None of these

a) Receive voltage
c) Field strength
d) Power density
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 160
-2-
*SLRPK160*

c) Modulation index
d) Deviation ratio
a) VSB
b) SSB
c) DSB-SC
d) AM
a) 25 kHz
b) 50 kHz
c) 70 kHz
d) 140 kHz
known as
tone is
a) Multiplication
b) Addition
c) Division
d) Square root
a) 10.7 percent
b) 41.4 percent
c) 80.6 percent
d) 93.3 percent
a) Carrier
c) Sidebands
d) Envelope
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK160*
-3-
SLR-PK 160
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(34=12)
65 sin (2 250000t).
(28=16)
technique.
receiver.
Set Q
SLR-PK 160
-4-
*SLRPK160*
SECTION II
(34=12)

(28=16)
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 160
*SLRPK160*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) Multiplication
b) Addition
c) Division
d) Square root
a) 10.7 percent
b) 41.4 percent
c) 80.6 percent
d) 93.3 percent
a) Carrier
c) Sidebands
d) Envelope


a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 160
-2-
*SLRPK160*

a) Receive voltage
c) Field strength
d) Power density
c) Modulation index
d) Deviation ratio
a) VSB
b) SSB
c) DSB-SC
d) AM
a) 25 kHz
b) 50 kHz
c) 70 kHz
d) 140 kHz
known as
tone is
______________
Set R
*SLRPK160*
-3-
SLR-PK 160
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(34=12)
65 sin (2 250000t).
(28=16)
technique.
receiver.
Set R
SLR-PK 160
-4-
*SLRPK160*
SECTION II
(34=12)

(28=16)
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 160
*SLRPK160*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14
(141=14)



a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) None of these

a) Receive voltage
c) Field strength
d) Power density
c) Modulation index
d) Deviation ratio
a) VSB
b) SSB
c) DSB-SC
d) AM
a) 25 kHz
b) 50 kHz
c) 70 kHz
d) 140 kHz
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 160
-2-
*SLRPK160*
known as
tone is
a) Multiplication
b) Addition
c) Division
d) Square root
a) 10.7 percent
b) 41.4 percent
c) 80.6 percent
d) 93.3 percent
a) Carrier
c) Sidebands
d) Envelope
______________
Set S
*SLRPK160*
-3-
SLR-PK 160
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
(34=12)
65 sin (2 250000t).
(28=16)
technique.
receiver.
Set S
SLR-PK 160
-4-
*SLRPK160*
SECTION II
(34=12)

(28=16)
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 161
*SLRPK161*
S

LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30
minutes in Answer book Page No. 3. Each question
carries one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
1. Select suitable option :
(114=14)
1) For a Wein Bridge Oscillator to generate 965 Hz signal, if C = 0.05

then R is
a) 12 K
2) If
b) 24 K
c) 3.3 K
d) 50 K
F,
pot
we are talking about a

a) first order filter

c) third order filter
b) second order filter

d) phase shift oscillator
3) A negative clipper with zero reference voltage is

a) zero crossing detector
b) positive half wave rectifier
c) negative half wave rectifier
d) full wave rectifier
4) For a VCO NS/SE 566, the initial voltage Vc at pin 5 must be in the range
A(+V) VC + V. In this equation, A is
a) 3/4
b) 4/3
c) + V
d) V
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 161
*SLRPK161*
-2-
5) For a 741 when input signal frequency is varied from DC to 1 MHz, phase
angle of output is varied from 0 to
a) 0
b) 45
c) + 90
d) 90
6) _____________ are also called as DC inserter/restorer.
a) Clippers
b) Clampers
c) Schmitt trigger
d) Precision rectifiers
7) For 741C with f0 = 5 Hz and A = 2,00,000 open loop gain at 50 Hz is _______ dB.
a) 106
b) 103
c) 86
d) 66
8) Make odd man out : SE/NE 560, 564, 565, 566.
a) 560
b) 564
c) 565
d) 566
9) Higher the value of ____________ in dB, the lower is the change in input
offset voltage due to change in supply voltage.
a) CMRR
b) CVRR
c) Voltage drift
d) Thermal drift
10) Output offset voltage changes with
a) Temperature
c) Supply voltage
b) Time
d) All of these
11) A negative half wave rectifier uses _______________ in feedback loop.

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) No component (short)
d) None of above
12) Which of below is an open loop application ?
a) Widow detector
b) Zero crossing detector
c) Voltage comparator
d) All of above
13) High Pass Filter is designed by interchanging _____________ and
__________ of low pass filter.
a) R1 and R2
b) R and C
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of a) and b)
14) Bode plot is used for
a) Feedback analysis
c) CMRR calculations
b) Thermal drift calculations

d) Stability analysis
______________
Set P
*SLRPK161*
S
SLR-PK 161
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Solve any two :
(62=12)
a) For below circuit derive expression for voltage gain (exact and ideal).
b) Derive an expression for closed loop gain of an op amp as a function of

frequency.
c) Sketch and discuss summing, scaling and averaging amplifiers using
op amp.
3. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) A typical 741 has open loop gain of 200000, input resistance of 2M , output
resistance of 75 , break frequency of 5 Hz, supply voltage of 15V and
13V. This 741 op amp is connected as a non
output voltage swing of
inverting amplifier with R1 = 1K and Rf = 10 K . Calculate : gain, input
resistance, output resistance and bandwidth after feedback.
b) Evaluate all possible causes for total output offset voltage.
Set P
SLR-PK 161
-4-
*SLRPK161*
c) Evaluate multistage roll off rate of an op amp.

d) Show how an op amp can be used as an integrator.
e) Show how an op amp can be used as an I to V converter.
SECTION II
4. Solve any two :
(62=12)
a) For circuit below derive for output voltage and sketch its output for a sinusoidal
input.
b) Draw and explain third order low pass Butterworth filter. Discuss design
procedure and comment on component selection.
c) Explain application of PLL NE/SE 565 as a frequency multiplier. With suitable
example comment on center frequency, capture range and lock range of this
frequency multiplier.
5. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Discuss flash type ADC.

b) Show how an antilog amplifier can be designed using Op Amp.
c) Show how 1408 can be used as a DAC with unipolar range.
d) Sketch and explain narrow band pass filter.
e) Sketch and explain sawtooth wave generator.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 161
*SLRPK161*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

carries one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
(114=14)

a) 560
b) 564
c) 565
d) 566
a) CMRR
b) CVRR
c) Voltage drift
d) Thermal drift
a) Temperature
c) Supply voltage
b) Time
d) All of these

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
d) None of above
a) Widow detector
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 161
*SLRPK161*
-2-

a) R1 and R2
b) R and C
c) Both a) and b)


then R is
a) 12 K
9) If
b) 24 K
c) 3.3 K
d) 50 K
F,
pot




a) 3/4
b) 4/3
c) + V
d) V
a) 0
b) 45
c) + 90
d) 90
a) Clippers
b) Clampers
c) Schmitt trigger
a) 106
b) 103
c) 86
d) 66
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK161*
S
SLR-PK 161
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Solve any two :
(62=12)

frequency.
op amp.
3. Solve any four :
(44=16)
Set Q
SLR-PK 161
-4-
*SLRPK161*

SECTION II
4. Solve any two :
(62=12)
input.
5. Solve any four :
(44=16)

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 161
*SLRPK161*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

carries one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
(114=14)
a) 0
b) 45
c) + 90
d) 90
a) Clippers
b) Clampers
c) Schmitt trigger
a) 106
b) 103
c) 86
d) 66
a) 560
b) 564
c) 565
d) 566
a) CMRR
b) CVRR
c) Voltage drift
d) Thermal drift
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 161
*SLRPK161*
-2-

a) Temperature
c) Supply voltage
b) Time
d) All of these

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
d) None of above
a) Widow detector
d) All of above
a) R1 and R2
b) R and C
c) Both a) and b)


then R is
a) 12 K
12) If
b) 24 K
c) 3.3 K
d) 50 K
F,
pot




a) 3/4
b) 4/3
c) + V
d) V
______________
Set R
*SLRPK161*
S
SLR-PK 161
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Solve any two :
(62=12)

frequency.
op amp.
3. Solve any four :
(44=16)
Set R
SLR-PK 161
-4-
*SLRPK161*

SECTION II
4. Solve any two :
(62=12)
input.
5. Solve any four :
(44=16)

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 161
*SLRPK161*
S

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

carries one mark.
of Page.

a) Temperature
c) Supply voltage
Marks : 14
(114=14)
b) Time
d) All of these

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
d) None of above
a) Widow detector
d) All of above
a) R1 and R2
b) R and C
c) Both a) and b)

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 161
*SLRPK161*
-2-

then R is
a) 12 K
7) If
b) 24 K
c) 3.3 K
d) 50 K
F,
pot




a) 3/4
b) 4/3
c) + V
d) V
a) 0
b) 45
c) + 90
d) 90
a) Clippers
b) Clampers
c) Schmitt trigger
a) 106
b) 103
c) 86
d) 66
a) 560
b) 564
c) 565
d) 566
a) CMRR
b) CVRR
c) Voltage drift
d) Thermal drift
______________
Set S
*SLRPK161*
S
SLR-PK 161
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
2. Solve any two :
(62=12)

frequency.
op amp.
3. Solve any four :
(44=16)
Set S
SLR-PK 161
-4-
*SLRPK161*

SECTION II
4. Solve any two :
(62=12)
input.
5. Solve any four :
(44=16)

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
S
Set
t
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2016

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (New CGPA)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

2) Answer MCQ/objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention,
4) Assume suitable data if required and state the assumptions.
1.
Marks : 14
Choose the correct option :
(141=14)
1) The system with input output relation y(t) = x(t) + x(t 100) is
a) Linear
b) Casual
c) Linear and casual
d) None
2) Fourier transform of unity is
a)
c)
b)
d) Unit step signal

3) A discrete time LTI system is casual if

a) h[n] = 0 for n = 0
c) h[n] = 0 for n
0
4) Fourier transform of
@
b) h[n] = 0 for n < 0

d) h[n] = 0 for n > 0
is
a)
x
b)
)
c)
j
5) The signal u(t) u(t 10) is

a) Periodic
c) Causal
d)
b) A periodic
d) A periodic and causal
6) The output of LTI system with input x(t) = u(t 2) and impulse response h(t) =
a) u(t)
b) u(t 3)
c) u(t 4)
d)
(t 3)
(t 1) is
7) If x[n] = {1, 2, 3} and h[n] = {3,4,5} and y[n] = x[n] *h[n], the length of y[n] is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 3
8) Which of the following is the method used for reconstruction of signal from its samples ?
a) Zero order hold
b) Linear interpolation
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
-2-
9) If x(n) is casual finite duration sequence the ROC of X(z) is

a) Entire z plane except z =
b) Entire z plane except z = 0
c) Entire z plane except z = 0 and z =
d) Entire z plane
10) A coin is tossed three times, the probability that tail shows at least once is
a) 7/8
b) 1/8
c) 3/8
d) 1/3
11) The second order central moment of a random variable is known as
a) Mean square value
b) Variance
d) Expected value
12) What is the Nyquist frequency for the signal
x(t) = 3 cos 50
a) 50Hz
c) 200Hz
t + 10 sin 300
t cos 100
t?
b) 100Hz
d) 300Hz
13) The probability of an event B under the condition the event A has already occurred is known as
a) Probability
b) Conditional probability
c) Joint probability
d) Both b) and c)
14) CDF function is
a) Decreasing
c) Constant
b) Non decreasing
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK162*
S
SLR-PK 162
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
Solve any four of the following :
(44=16)
a) Sketch and label following signals

i) u(t 1)
ii) u(t + 3)
iii) u(t + 2) u(t 3)
iv)
(t)
(t 1)
b) Obtain and sketch the even and odd parts of the continuous time signal x(t) shown below
c) For the following system described by input output relationship, determine whether the corresponding
system is linear, time invariant or both.
y[n] = x[n+1] x[n 1]
d) Consider the continuous time LTI system with the impulse response given below. Determine whether the
system is memory less, causal and /or stable. Justify your answer.
h(t) = e2t u (t + 3)
e) Explain how a periodic signal can be expressed in terms of linear combination of harmonically related
complex exponentials.
f) Derive the expression for Fourier transform of an a periodic signal x(t).
3.
Solve any two of the following :
(26=12)
a) Compute convolution sum of y[n] = x[n] *h[n] of the following signals

x[n] =
h[n] =
,
Sketch the output.

b) Represent the following signal x(t) using Exponential Fourier series. Sketch and label magnitude.
x(t) = e2t

and is periodic with period 2.
c) Obtain the Fourier transform of following signals

i)
Sketch the magnitude.
ii) x(t) =
Set P
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
-4SECTION II
4.
(44=16)
a) Write short note on Aliasing : The effect of under sampling.

b) Consider an LTI system with the system function
Obtain the impulse response h(t) of the system if the system is causal, state the region of convergence of the
system.
c) Define Spectral density and state its properties.
d) State the axioms of probability. Explain the concept of conditional probability with suitable example.
e) The analog signal given below is sampled at 600 samples per second
x(t) = 2 sin (480 t) + 3 sin (720
t)
calculate i) Nyquist sampling rate and ii) the frequencies in radians in the resulting discrete signal x[n].
5.
(26=12)
a) State and explain sampling theorem.

b) Consider a random variable whose PDF is as below obtain mean, mean square value and variance of
the random variable.
f
Obtain its
i) Expected value
ii) Mean square value
iii) Variance
c) ADT LTI system is characterized by transfer function.
Specify the ROC and determine h(n) for following cases.

i) The system is causal
ii) The system is stable
iii) The system is non causal
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

1.
Marks : 14
(141=14)
a) Zero order hold
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
d) Entire z plane
a) 7/8
b) 1/8
c) 3/8
d) 1/3
b) Variance
d) Expected value
x(t) = 3 cos 50
a) 50Hz
c) 200Hz
t + 10 sin 300
t cos 100
t?
b) 100Hz
d) 300Hz
a) Probability
d) Both b) and c)
7) CDF function is
a) Decreasing
c) Constant
b) Non decreasing
d) None of these
a) Linear
b) Casual
d) None
a)
c)
b)
d) Unit step signal
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
-2-

a) h[n] = 0 for n = 0
c) h[n] = 0 for n 0

@
b) h[n] = 0 for n < 0

d) h[n] = 0 for n > 0
is
a)
x
b)
)
c)
j

a) Periodic
c) Causal
d)
b) A periodic
a) u(t)
b) u(t 3)
c) u(t 4)
d)
(t 3)
(t 1) is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 3
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK162*
S
SLR-PK 162
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
(44=16)

i) u(t 1)
ii) u(t + 3)
iii) u(t + 2) u(t 3)
iv)
(t)
(t 1)
y[n] = x[n+1] x[n 1]
h(t) = e2t u (t + 3)
3.
(26=12)

x[n] =
h[n] =
,
Sketch the output.

x(t) = e2t


i)
ii) x(t) =
Set Q
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
-4SECTION II
4.
(44=16)

system.
x(t) = 2 sin (480 t) + 3 sin (720
t)
5.
(26=12)

f
Obtain its
i) Expected value
iii) Variance

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

1.
Marks : 14
(141=14)

a) Periodic
c) Causal
b) A periodic
a) u(t)
b) u(t 3)
c) u(t 4)
d)
(t 3)
(t 1) is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 3
a) Zero order hold
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
d) Entire z plane
a) 7/8
b) 1/8
c) 3/8
d) 1/3
b) Variance
d) Expected value
x(t) = 3 cos 50
a) 50Hz
c) 200Hz
t + 10 sin 300
t cos 100
t?
b) 100Hz
d) 300Hz
a) Probability
d) Both b) and c)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
-2-
10) CDF function is

a) Decreasing
c) Constant
b) Non decreasing
d) None of these
a) Linear
b) Casual
d) None
a)
c)
b)
d) Unit step signal


a) h[n] = 0 for n = 0
c) h[n] = 0 for n 0

@
b) h[n] = 0 for n < 0

d) h[n] = 0 for n > 0
is
a)
x
b)
)
c)
j
d)
______________
Set R
*SLRPK162*
S
SLR-PK 162
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
(44=16)

i) u(t 1)
ii) u(t + 3)
iii) u(t + 2) u(t 3)
iv)
(t)
(t 1)
y[n] = x[n+1] x[n 1]
h(t) = e2t u (t + 3)
3.
(26=12)

x[n] =
h[n] =
,
Sketch the output.

x(t) = e2t


i)
ii) x(t) =
Set R
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
-4SECTION II
4.
(44=16)

system.
x(t) = 2 sin (480 t) + 3 sin (720
t)
5.
(26=12)

f
Obtain its
i) Expected value
iii) Variance

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

1.
Marks : 14
(141=14)
a) 7/8
b) 1/8
c) 3/8
d) 1/3
b) Variance
d) Expected value
x(t) = 3 cos 50
a) 50Hz
c) 200Hz
t + 10 sin 300
t cos 100
t?
b) 100Hz
d) 300Hz
a) Probability
d) Both b) and c)
5) CDF function is
a) Decreasing
c) Constant
b) Non decreasing
d) None of these
a) Linear
b) Casual
d) None
a)
c)
b)
d) Unit step signal


a) h[n] = 0 for n = 0
0
c) h[n] = 0 for n
b) h[n] = 0 for n < 0

d) h[n] = 0 for n > 0
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
-2-
@
is
a)
x
b)
)
c)
j
d)
)

a) Periodic
c) Causal
b) A periodic
a) u(t)
b) u(t 3)
c) u(t 4)
d)
(t 3)
(t 1) is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 3
a) Zero order hold
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
d) Entire z plane
______________
Set S
*SLRPK162*
S
SLR-PK 162
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 56

SECTION I
2.
(44=16)

i) u(t 1)
ii) u(t + 3)
iii) u(t + 2) u(t 3)
iv)
(t)
(t 1)
y[n] = x[n+1] x[n 1]
h(t) = e2t u (t + 3)
3.
(26=12)

x[n] =
h[n] =
,
Sketch the output.

x(t) = e2t


i)
ii) x(t) =
Set S
SLR-PK 162
*SLRPK162*
-4SECTION II
4.
(44=16)

system.
x(t) = 2 sin (480 t) + 3 sin (720
t)
5.
(26=12)

f
Obtain its
i) Expected value
iii) Variance

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 163
*SLRPK163*
S
Set
t
T.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2016

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)

Assume data, if necessary.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer Book
5) Answer objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget to mention, Q.P. Set
(P/Q/R/S) on top of page.
1.
1)
Marks : 20
Damped frequency of II order system is given by

a)
20
b)
c)
d)
n
d
2) Lag compensator reduces

a) Band width
b) Rise time
c) Transient response
d) All above
.
3) In I order system, when unit step input is applied, response having max. value __________ at t
a) Zero
b) Unity
c) Infinity
d) None of these
4) Settling time for 2% tolerance is

"
a)
b)
c)
d)
5) Synchro transmitter receiver unit is a

a) 2
A.C. device
b) 3
c) D.C. device
d) 1
6) In Laplace transform, ratio of output to input is called

a) Transfer function
b) Efficiency
A.C. device
A.C. voltage device
c) Amplification factor
d) Gain
can be replaced by
7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 163
*SLRPK163*
-2-
8) The transfer function of given network is

a)
b) RCS + 1
c)
d)
5
9) Higher accuracy is provided by __________ system.

a) Open loop
b) Closed loop
10) Example of digital position control system is
a) Stepper motor
11) For following transfer function
b) D.C. Series motor
d) Cant say
c) D.C. shunt motor
d) 1
A.C. motor
the root locus consists of __________ asymptotes.

K
c) Both (a) and (b)
a) 1
b) 2
12) In type three system there are
a) Three pole at origin
c) Two poles at origin
13) Lag compensator increases
a) Settling time
b) Rise time
14) __________ is not frequency response parameter.
a) Gain margin
b) Phase margin
15) The closed loop transfer function of linear time invariant
then the system is
a) Absolutely stable
b) Unstable
16) Lead compensation is used to
a) Improve phase margin
c) Decreases damping of system
c) 3
d) 4
b) One pole at origin

d) None of these
d) All of above
d) Mr
c) M p
system has multiple poles with negative real part,
c) Marginable stable
d) None of these
b) Decreases bandwidth
d) None of these
is
17) The phase over frequency is the point on frequency axis of the system at which the phase plot of G
touching to __________ line.
a) 180
b) + 180
c) 0
d) None of these
18) In Bode plot, the system is stable when
a) Both GM and PM are + ve
b) Both GM and PM are ve
c) GM is + ve and PM is ve
d) GM is ve and PM is + ve
19) Polar plot is plot of
a) Magnitude of transfer function verses frequency
b) Magnitude of transfer function verses log frequency
c) Magnitude of transfer function verses phase angle
d) None of these
(
20) For a system with transfer function
a) 5
b) 1
the pole is

c)
d) 0.2
______________
Set P
*SLRPK163*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 163

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks.

2) Assume data, if necessary.
SECTION I
2.
Solve any four :
(64=24)
a) Find Transfer function of given block diagram.
b) Derive the relation for rise time of II order system.

c) Determine steady state error to unit step and unit parabolic input for unity feedback system whose transfer

function is
/
.
"
d) Find the transfer function of given circuit
e) Explain D.C. servomotor (armature controlled) and derive the transfer function for the same.
Set P
SLR-PK 163
3.
a)
*SLRPK163*
-4-
For unity feedback control system whose open loop transfer function is
and H(S) = 1 calculate
I) damping factor
II) damping frequency
III) rise time
IV) peak time
V) settling time
VI) peak overshoot
VII) natural frequency
VIII)
b) Solve any one :
I) Explain what is meant by controller, need of controllers, controller types with suitable examples.
II) Explain what is compensator, need of compensators, types of compensators with suitable examples.
SECTION II
4.
Solve any four :
(46=24)
a) Using Rouths criterion determine the stability of system given by following characteristic equation
S3 + 5S2 + 6S + 30 = 0.
b) Derive transfer function of lead compensator.
c) Find the forced sinusoidal response of the system
r(t) = 8cos (2t + 30).

d) What is Bode plot ? Explain the steps to sketch Bode plot.
e) Explain Hurwitz method for determining stability of the system.
5.
Solve any two :
(28=16)
a) State and explain the rules for construction of root locus.

b) Sketch the Bode plot and determine the gain cross over frequency and phase cross over frequency for
the system
&
.
c) Draw polar plot for feedback control system whose open loop transfer function is given as

.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 163
*SLRPK163*
S
Set
t

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)

1.
1)
Marks : 20
Lead compensation is used to
20
d) None of these
a) 180
b) + 180
c) 0
is
d) None of these


d) None of these
a) 5
the pole is

b) 1
c)
d) 0.2
6) Damped frequency of II order system is given by

a)
b)
)
c)
d)
n
d

a) Band width
b) Rise time
d) All above
.
a) Zero
b) Unity
c) Infinity
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 163
*SLRPK163*
-2-

"
a)
b)
c)
d)

a) 2
A.C. device
b) 3
c) D.C. device
d) 1

b) Efficiency
12)
A.C. device
A.C. voltage device

d) Gain
can be replaced by
a)
b)
c)
d)
4

a)
4
b) RCS + 1
+
c)
d)
5
4


a) Open loop
b) Closed loop
a) Stepper motor
17)
18)
19)
20)
d) Cant say
c) D.C. shunt motor
d) 1
A.C. motor

K
c) Both (a) and (b)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
In type three system there are
a) Three poles at origin
d) None of these
Lag compensator increases
a) Settling time
b) Rise time
d) All of above
__________ is not frequency response parameter.
a) Gain margin
b) Phase margin
c) M p
d) Mr
The closed loop transfer function of linear time invariant system has multiple poles with negative real part,
then the system is
b) Unstable
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK163*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 163

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
Solve any four :
(64=24)


function is
/
.
"
Set Q
SLR-PK 163
3.
a)
*SLRPK163*
-4-
I) damping factor
III) rise time
IV) peak time
V) settling time
VI) peak overshoot
VIII)
b) Solve any one :
SECTION II
4.
Solve any four :
(46=24)
S3 + 5S2 + 6S + 30 = 0.
r(t) = 8cos (2t + 30).

5.
Solve any two :
(28=16)

the system
&
.

.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 163
*SLRPK163*
S
Set
t

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)

1.
1)
For following transfer function

K
Marks : 20
20
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
d) None of these
a) Settling time
b) Rise time
d) All of above
a) Gain margin
b) Phase margin
c) M p
d) Mr
5) The closed loop transfer function of linear time invariant system has multiple poles with negative real part,
then the system is
b) Unstable
d) None of these
d) None of these
is
a) 180
b) + 180
c) 0
d) None of these
(
d) None of these
a) 5
b) 1
the pole is

c)
d) 0.2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 163
*SLRPK163*
-2-

a)
b)
)
c)
d)

n
d

a) Band width
b) Rise time
d) All above
.
a) Zero
b) Unity
c) Infinity
d) None of these

"
a)
b)
c)
d)

a) 2
A.C. device
b) 3
c) D.C. device
d) 1

b) Efficiency
17)
A.C. device
A.C. voltage device

d) Gain
can be replaced by
a)
b)
c)
d)
4

a)
4
b) RCS + 1
+
c)
d)
5
4


a) Open loop
b) Closed loop
a) Stepper motor
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Cant say
c) D.C. shunt motor
d) 1
A.C. motor
______________
Set R
*SLRPK163*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 163

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
Solve any four :
(64=24)


function is
/
.
"
Set R
SLR-PK 163
3.
a)
*SLRPK163*
-4-
I) damping factor
III) rise time
IV) peak time
V) settling time
VI) peak overshoot
VIII)
b) Solve any one :
SECTION II
4.
Solve any four :
(46=24)
S3 + 5S2 + 6S + 30 = 0.
r(t) = 8cos (2t + 30).

5.
Solve any two :
(28=16)

the system
&
.

.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 163
*SLRPK163*
S
Set
t

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)

1.
1)
Marks : 20
In Laplace transform, ratio of output to input is called

20
b) Efficiency
d) Gain
can be replaced by
2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
4

a)
b) RCS + 1
4
c)
d)
5

a) Open loop
b) Closed loop
a) Stepper motor
a) 1
b) 2
d) Cant say
c) D.C. shunt motor
d) 1
A.C. motor

K
c) Both (a) and (b)
c) 3
d) 4
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 163
*SLRPK163*
-2-

d) None of these
a) Settling time
b) Rise time
d) All of above
d) Mr
a) Gain margin
b) Phase margin
c) M p
10) The closed loop transfer function of linear time invariant system has multiple poles with negative real part,
then the system is
b) Unstable
d) None of these
d) None of these
is
a) 180
b) + 180
c) 0
d) None of these
d) None of these
(
a) 5
b) 1
the pole is

d) 0.2
c)

a)
b)
)
c)
d)

n
d

a) Band width
b) Rise time
d) All above
.
a) Zero
b) Unity
c) Infinity
d) None of these

"
a)
b)
c)
d)

a) 2
A.C. device
c) D.C. device
b) 3
d) 1
A.C. device
A.C. voltage device
______________
Set S
*SLRPK163*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 163

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2.
Solve any four :
(64=24)


function is
/
.
"
Set S
SLR-PK 163
3.
a)
*SLRPK163*
-4-
I) damping factor
III) rise time
IV) peak time
V) settling time
VI) peak overshoot
VIII)
b) Solve any one :
SECTION II
4.
Solve any four :
(46=24)
S3 + 5S2 + 6S + 30 = 0.
r(t) = 8cos (2t + 30).

5.
Solve any two :
(28=16)

the system
&
.

.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Part I) (Electronics Engineering) Examination, 2016

DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. Choose correct option.
(201=20)
1) Z-Transform reduces to Fourier transform when it is evaluated on

a) A half circle
b) Z circle
c) Unit circle
d) Imaginary circle
2) The convolution sum of two sequences x(n) = {3, 2, 1, 2} and h(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2} is
a) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 4, 4}
b) y(n) = {3, 0, 3, 12, 9, 4, 4}
c) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 1, 4}
d) y(n) = {3, 8, 2, 1, 9, 4, 5}
3) Which of the filter realization is not recommended for practical applications ?
a) direct form I and direct form II
b) parallel form
c) cascaded form
d) lattice form
4) The number of multipliers required for realization of FIR system is reduced if we
choose
a) Direct form
b) Cascade form
c) Parallel form
d) Linear phase realization
5) Overlap and save algorithm uses overlap for
a) Output sequences
b) Input sequences
c) Both input and output sequences
d) None of the input
6) DFT of a impulse function is
a) [n]
b) [n 1]
c) 1
7) The value of the twiddle factor W411 is

a) j
c) 0.707 + j 0.707
b) 1
d) j
d) None
8) With signal x(n) = {2, 4, 3, 1, 8}, if x1(n) = x((n 3))5 then x1(n) will be
a) {3, 1, 8, 2, 4}
b) { 1, 8, 2, 4, 3} c) {4, 3, 1, 8, 2} d) {2, 4, 3, 1, 8}
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
-2-
9) Consider the signal x3 is an N point circular convolution between x1 = [1, 2, 3, 4]

and x2 = [1, 2, 3]. With which of the following value of N the result will not be equal
to linear convolution between x1 and x2 ?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
10) Consider the signal x1(n) whose DFTs is X1(k) = {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}. Now
if x2(n) = x1(( n))4, the DFT X2(k) will be
a) {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}
b) {14, 2 2j, 2, 2 + 2 j}
c) {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}
11) FIR Filter is also known as
a) Cascade filter structure
c) ARMA filter
b) Transversal filter
d) AR filters
12) IIR filter design is based on

a) analog filter design
c) digital filter design
b) DT filter design
d) none
13) For BLT method we execute pre-warping using the equation

b) WA = tan (WDT/4)
a) WA = tan (WDT/2)
c) WA = tan (WDT/3)
d) jWA = tan (WDT/2)
14) The selected frequency points in frequency sampling method are
a) Fourier Transform Coefficient
b) DTFT Coefficient
c) DFT Coefficient
d) None
15) The fixed point Digital signal processor are
a) cheaper
b) smaller
c) less power consuming
d) all of the above
16) Gibbs Phenomenon occur due to
a) Window method
c) Linear phase
b) Truncation of infinite Fourier series

d) None
17) Texas Instruments TMS 320C5X processor is

a) Floating point DSP
b) Fixed point DSP
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
18) Which of the following is true for FIR filters ?
a) They have linear phase
b) Are always stable
c) They are all zero filters
d) All above a, b and c
19) The impulse invariance method uses the transformation
a) Z = e sT
b) Z = esT
20) The impulse response of ideal filter is

a) Causal
c) Non-causal and finite
c) Z = eT
d) Z =ejwT
b) Non-causal
d) None
______________
Set P
*SLRPK164*
SLR-PK 164
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the followings :
(45=20)
a) Find 4 point DFT of the sequence x(n) = {3, 6, 5, 4} using direct computation.
b) Compare cascade and parallel realizations.
c) Compute linear convolution of the signals x1[n] = {2, 1, 2} and x2[n] = {1, 2, 4, 3}
using circular convolution.
d) State and prove circular time reversal property of DFT of a DT signal.

e) Obtain the cascade realization of the system characterized by transfer function
H(z) =
2(z+ 2)
.
z(z 0.1) (z + 0.5) (z + 0.4)
3. Attempt any two of the followings :
(210=20)
a) Differentiate between overlap add and overlap save method. Compute the
convolution of following using overlap and add algorithm
x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, 2, 4}.
b) List out the similarities and differences between DIT and DIF algorithms. Find IDFT
of the sequence X(k) = {4, 1 j2.414, 0, 1 j0.414, 0, 1 + j0.414, 0, 1 + j2.414} using
DIF.
c) Determine circular convolution of following using DFT & IDFT operations
x1(n) = {3, 4, 2, 4} and x2(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2}.
Set P
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
-4-
SECTION II
24
a) Draw and explain VLIW architecture with advantages and disadvantages.

b) Explain the frequency sampling method of designing FIR filter.
c) Explain finite word length effect in designing FIR filters.
d) Explain the applications of DSP in Audio processing.
e) Differentiate between FIR and IIR filters.
16
a) Apply Bilinear transformation to find H(z) if H(s) =
1
with T = 0.1 Sec.
(s + 1)2
b) Explain the applications of DSP in image processing and biomedical field.

c) Design a FIR digital filter to approximate an ideal LPF with band pass gain of unit,
cut-off frequency of 850 Hz and working at sampling frequency Fs = 5000 Hz. The
length of impulse response must be 5. Use rectangular window.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Window method
c) Linear phase

d) None

b) Fixed point DSP
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) Z = e sT
b) Z = esT

a) Causal
c) Z = eT
d) Z =ejwT
b) Non-causal
d) None

a) A half circle
b) Z circle
c) Unit circle
d) Imaginary circle
a) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 4, 4}
b) y(n) = {3, 0, 3, 12, 9, 4, 4}
c) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 1, 4}
d) y(n) = {3, 8, 2, 1, 9, 4, 5}
b) parallel form
c) cascaded form
d) lattice form
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
-2-

choose
a) Direct form
b) Cascade form
c) Parallel form
10 Overlap and save algorithm uses overlap for
a) Output sequences
b) Input sequences
a) [n]
b) [n 1]
c) 1

a) j
c) 0.707 + j 0.707
b) 1
d) j
d) None
a) {3, 1, 8, 2, 4}
b) { 1, 8, 2, 4, 3} c) {4, 3, 1, 8, 2} d) {2, 4, 3, 1, 8}
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
a) {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}
b) {14, 2 2j, 2, 2 + 2 j}
c) {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}
c) ARMA filter
d) AR filters

b) DT filter design
d) none

b) WA = tan (WDT/4)
a) WA = tan (WDT/2)
c) WA = tan (WDT/3)
b) DTFT Coefficient
c) DFT Coefficient
d) None
a) cheaper
b) smaller
d) all of the above
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK164*
SLR-PK 164
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)

H(z) =
2(z+ 2)
.
z(z 0.1) (z + 0.5) (z + 0.4)
(210=20)
x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, 2, 4}.
DIF.
x1(n) = {3, 4, 2, 4} and x2(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2}.
Set Q
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
-4-
SECTION II
24

16
1
with T = 0.1 Sec.
(s + 1)2

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

c) ARMA filter
d) AR filters

b) DT filter design
d) none

a) WA = tan (WDT/2)
b) WA = tan (WDT/4)
c) WA = tan (WDT/3)
b) DTFT Coefficient
c) DFT Coefficient
d) None
a) cheaper
b) smaller
d) all of the above
a) Window method
c) Linear phase

d) None

b) Fixed point DSP
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
-2-

a) Z = e sT
b) Z = esT

a) Causal
c) Z = eT
d) Z =ejwT
b) Non-causal
d) None

a) A half circle
b) Z circle
c) Unit circle
d) Imaginary circle
a) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 4, 4}
b) y(n) = {3, 0, 3, 12, 9, 4, 4}
c) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 1, 4}
d) y(n) = {3, 8, 2, 1, 9, 4, 5}
b) parallel form
c) cascaded form
d) lattice form
choose
a) Direct form
b) Cascade form
c) Parallel form
a) Output sequences
b) Input sequences
a) [n]
b) [n 1]
c) 1

a) j
c) 0.707 + j 0.707
b) 1
d) j
d) None
a) {3, 1, 8, 2, 4}
b) { 1, 8, 2, 4, 3} c) {4, 3, 1, 8, 2} d) {2, 4, 3, 1, 8}
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
a) {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}
b) {14, 2 2j, 2, 2 + 2 j}
c) {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}
______________
Set R
*SLRPK164*
SLR-PK 164
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)

H(z) =
2(z+ 2)
.
z(z 0.1) (z + 0.5) (z + 0.4)
(210=20)
x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, 2, 4}.
DIF.
x1(n) = {3, 4, 2, 4} and x2(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2}.
Set R
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
-4-
SECTION II
24

16
1
with T = 0.1 Sec.
(s + 1)2

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) [n]
b) [n 1]
c) 1

a) j
c) 0.707 + j 0.707
b) 1
d) j
d) None
a) {3, 1, 8, 2, 4}
b) { 1, 8, 2, 4, 3} c) {4, 3, 1, 8, 2} d) {2, 4, 3, 1, 8}
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
a) {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}
b) {14, 2 2j, 2, 2 + 2 j}
c) {14, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j}
c) ARMA filter
d) AR filters

b) DT filter design
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
-2-

a) WA = tan (WDT/2)
b) WA = tan (WDT/4)
c) WA = tan (WDT/3)
b) DTFT Coefficient
c) DFT Coefficient
d) None
a) cheaper
b) smaller
d) all of the above
a) Window method
c) Linear phase

d) None

b) Fixed point DSP
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) Z = e sT
b) Z = esT

a) Causal
c) Z = eT
d) Z =ejwT
b) Non-causal
d) None

a) A half circle
b) Z circle
c) Unit circle
d) Imaginary circle
a) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 4, 4}
b) y(n) = {3, 0, 3, 12, 9, 4, 4}
c) y(n) = {3, 8, 8, 12, 9, 1, 4}
d) y(n) = {3, 8, 2, 1, 9, 4, 5}
b) parallel form
c) cascaded form
d) lattice form
choose
a) Direct form
b) Cascade form
c) Parallel form
a) Output sequences
b) Input sequences
______________
Set S
*SLRPK164*
SLR-PK 164
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)

H(z) =
2(z+ 2)
.
z(z 0.1) (z + 0.5) (z + 0.4)
(210=20)
x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, 2, 4}.
DIF.
x1(n) = {3, 4, 2, 4} and x2(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2}.
Set S
SLR-PK 164
*SLRPK164*
-4-
SECTION II
24

16
1
with T = 0.1 Sec.
(s + 1)2

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 165
*SLRPK165*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2016

MICROPROCESSORS AND INTERFACING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

1) Single stepping is useful for
a) I/O interfacing
c) wait state
Marks : 20
(201=20)
b) debugging
d) slower memory interfacing
2) Which stack is used in 8085 ?

a) FIFO
b) LIFO
c) Random access
d) None of above
3) Addressing in which the instructions contains the address of the data to the
operated on is known as
a) immediate addressing
b) implied addressing
c) register addressing
d) direct addressing
4) What is the addressing mode used in instruction MOV M, C ?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Indexed
d) Immediate
5) In the following interrupts which is the non-vectored interrupt ?
a) TRAP
b) INTR
c) RST 7.5
d) RST 6.5
6) The instruction LXI H, 9000 requires ______________ T-states.
a) 13
b) 7
c) 10
d) 18
7) DAA stands for
a) Decimal adjust accumulator
c) Decimal adjust address
b) Direct adjust address

d) Direct adjust accumulator
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 165
*SLRPK165*
-2-
8) The memory map of a 2 KB memory begins at the location 4000 H. What is

the last location on the chip ?
a) 43FFH
b) 4FFFH
c) 47FFH
d) 7FFFH
9) Serial input data of 8085 can be loaded into bit 7 of the accumulator by
a) executing a RIM instruction
b) executing RST1
c) using TRAP
10) Shadow Address will exist in
a) absolute decoding
b) linear decoding
c) partial decoding
11) IO mode, mode 1 uses ______________ for handshaking signals.
a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C
d) Port D
12) ______________ can be used as an output port.
a) Buffer
b) Latch
c) Decoder
d) Encoder
13) For DAC 0808, the output __________ is proportional to input digital count.
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Voltage and current
14) What is RIM ?
a) Read Interrupt Mask
b) Read Interrupt Memory
c) Read Input Memory
15) Control register and Status register of 8251 are having the ______________
address and are ______________ respectively.
a) Different, read and write
b) Different, write and read
c) Same, write and read
d) Same, read and write
16) RS 232 standard is defined for
a) Parallel communication
c) Both a) and b)
17) The data bus buffer is controlled by
a) control word register
c) data bus
b) Serial communication
b) read/write control logic
d) none
18) In 8251 control word register, if SC1 = 0 and SC0 = 1, then the counter selected is
a) counter 0
b) counter 1
c) counter 2
d) none
19) Which of the following is not a mode of data transmission ?
a) simplex
b) duplex
c) semi duplex
d) half duplex
20) In an 8085 based system, the maximum number of input output devices
can be connected using I/O mapped I/O method is
a) 64
b) 512
c) 256
d) 65536
______________
Set P
*SLRPK165*
-3-
SLR-PK 165
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain the function of READY, HOLD, HLDA, ALE and X1 and X2 pins of 8085.
b) Explain the following instruction :
DAA, LDA, SHLD, JNZ, CMP, XCHG.
c) Write a program to find smallest number from a given array of 10 elements.
d) What is subroutine ? What is its use ? Explain CALL and RET instructions.
e) Write a program for division of two 8-bit hex numbers.
3. Answer any two :
(210=20)
a) Design a 8085 microprocessor based system with 4 KB EPROM having a

word length of 8-bits with the starting address of 0000H and two 2KB RAMs
having word lengths of 8-bits each with starting address of 4000H and 800h
respectively.
b) What is interrupt ? What is its use ? Explain interrupt structure in 8085.
c) Write a program :
i) to convert 8 bit hex number to BCD
ii) to convert 8 bit BCD number to hex.
Set P
SLR-PK 165
-4-
*SLRPK165*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Interface one switch and one LED to the 8085 through 8255 and write a
program to turn on LED when switch is closed.
b) Explain mode of operations of 8253.
c) Explain dual slope ADC.
d) Write a program to transfer the contents of register B through SOD pin of 8085.
e) Explain bidirectional I/O mode operation of 8255.
5. Answer any two :
(210=20)
a) Interface stepper motor to 8085. Write a program to run stepper motor. How
will you change the direction of motor ?
b) Interface DAC to 8085 and write a program :
i) to generate triangular wave
ii) saw tooth wave.
c) Interface two digit seven segment display to 8085 and write a program to
display BCD numbers from 00 to 99.
________________
Set P
SLR-PK 165
*SLRPK165*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

c) Both a) and b)
Marks : 20
(201=20)

c) data bus
d) none
a) counter 0
b) counter 1
c) counter 2
d) none
a) simplex
b) duplex
c) semi duplex
d) half duplex
a) 64
b) 512
c) 256
d) 65536
a) I/O interfacing
b) debugging
c) wait state
a) FIFO
c) Random access
b) LIFO
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 165
*SLRPK165*
-2-
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Indexed
d) Immediate
a) TRAP
b) INTR
c) RST 7.5
d) RST 6.5
a) 13
b) 7
c) 10
d) 18
12) DAA stands for

a) 43FFH
b) 4FFFH
c) 47FFH
d) 7FFFH
b) executing RST1
c) using TRAP
c) partial decoding
b) linear decoding

a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C
d) Port D
a) Buffer
b) Latch
c) Decoder
d) Encoder
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
19) What is RIM ?
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK165*
-3-
SLR-PK 165
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(45=20)
3. Answer any two :
(210=20)

respectively.
Set Q
SLR-PK 165
-4-
*SLRPK165*
SECTION II
(45=20)
5. Answer any two :
(210=20)
ii) saw tooth wave.
________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 165
*SLRPK165*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C
d) Port D
(201=20)

a) Buffer
b) Latch
c) Decoder
d) Encoder
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
4) What is RIM ?

c) Both a) and b)
c) data bus

d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 165
*SLRPK165*
-2-
a) counter 0
b) counter 1
c) counter 2
d) none
a) simplex
b) duplex
c) semi duplex
d) half duplex
a) 64
b) 512
c) 256
d) 65536
a) I/O interfacing
b) debugging
c) wait state
a) FIFO
c) Random access
b) LIFO
d) None of above
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Indexed
d) Immediate
a) TRAP
b) INTR
c) RST 7.5
d) RST 6.5
a) 13
b) 7
c) 10
d) 18
17) DAA stands for
a) 43FFH
b) 4FFFH
c) 47FFH
d) 7FFFH
b) executing RST1
c) using TRAP
b) linear decoding
c) partial decoding
______________
Set R
*SLRPK165*
-3-
SLR-PK 165
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(45=20)
3. Answer any two :
(210=20)

respectively.
Set R
SLR-PK 165
-4-
*SLRPK165*
SECTION II
(45=20)
5. Answer any two :
(210=20)
ii) saw tooth wave.
________________
Set R
SLR-PK 165
*SLRPK165*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) 13
b) 7
c) 10
d) 18
2) DAA stands for
a) 43FFH
b) 4FFFH
c) 47FFH
d) 7FFFH
b) executing RST1
c) using TRAP
b) linear decoding
c) partial decoding
a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C
d) Port D
a) Buffer
b) Latch
c) Decoder
d) Encoder
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 165
-2-
9) What is RIM ?
*SLRPK165*
c) Both a) and b)
c) data bus
d) none
a) counter 0
b) counter 1
c) counter 2
d) none
a) simplex
b) duplex
c) semi duplex
d) half duplex
a) 64
b) 512
c) 256
d) 65536
a) I/O interfacing
c) wait state
b) debugging

a) FIFO
b) LIFO
c) Random access
d) None of above
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Indexed
d) Immediate
a) TRAP
b) INTR
c) RST 7.5
d) RST 6.5
______________
Set S
*SLRPK165*
-3-
SLR-PK 165
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(45=20)
3. Answer any two :
(210=20)

respectively.
Set S
SLR-PK 165
-4-
*SLRPK165*
SECTION II
(45=20)
5. Answer any two :
(210=20)
ii) saw tooth wave.
________________
Set S
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
S
Set
t
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2016

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) If antenna directivity and antenna gain are equal, then antenna efficiency is
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
2) A unit vector has its magnitude as
a) 0
c)
b) 1
d) None of these
3) Relation between potential V and electric field

a) E = V
b) E = V
c) V = E
d)
V= E
4) Gradient of scalar field is expressed as

a) Outward flux of a vector field per unit volume as the volume about the point tends to zero
b) Gradient of divergence of a vector field minus the curl of the vector field
c) Circulation of a vector field per unit area as the area tends to zero
d) Maximum rate of increase of scalar function at appoint
5) If two vectors are orthogonal, then their scalar product is
a) 1
b) 0
c)
d) 100
6) The vector product obeys the _________ law.

a) Commutative
b) Associative
c) Distributive
d) Parallelogram
is
7) Spherical coordinate system,
a) Angle of elevation
c) Distant from the origin to the point
b) Azimuthal angle
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
-2-
8) Gradient represents the _________ of maximum space rate of increase of a scalar field.
a) Magnitude
b) Direction
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
9) Wave attenuation is given as
a)
b)
N
c)
N
d)
N
10) In the case of a perfect dielectric medium, phase constant ________ as conductivity
increases.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) None of these
11) Lorentz force equation comprises __________ and ___________ forces.
a) Electric, magnetic
b) Mechanical, chemical
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
12) Magnetic dipole moment is a product of
a) Current and area
c) Current, area and its direction
b) Area and its direction

d) None of these
13) For those surfaces where surface charge density is ________ normal component of
electric flux density is continuous.
a) Infinity
b) Unity
c) Zero
d) None of these
14) Emf is closed _______ integral of non-conservational electric field that is generated by
battery.
a) Line
b) Surface
c) Volume
d) None of these
15) For a good conductor
a)
b)
c)
d)
16) Poynting Vector

a)
is obtained as
b)
c)
17) Curl measures

a) Rate of change of vector
c) Both a) and b)
d)
b) Circular rotation
d) None of these
18) Transmission lines facilitate _________ propagation of energy.

a) Guided
b) Unguided
c) None of these
d) Cannot say
19) Standing wave ratio S is given as

a)
1
b)
|
c)
d)
20) Absolute permeability ( ) is given by _______ henry/metre.

a) 4 1012
b) 4 107
c) 8.854 1012
______________
d) 8.854 107
Set P
*SLRPK166*
S
SLR-PK 166
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
a) Find the area of cylinder surface with height 2 m and radius 1 m.
b) State and prove Coulombs law.
c) Uniform charge distribution
at (2 , 1, 4).
16
1 = 20 n c/m is distributed along x = 2 m, y = 4 m. Find

d) Given point P1(0, 0, 2), P2(4, 2, 0); L = 2 az

e) Explain Boundary conditions for Electric field.
A-m, calculate H.
24
a) Derive the expression for electric field intensity due to finite long line charge.
b) Given that D = (10X3/3)ax (C/m2), evaluate both sides of the divergence theorem for the
volume of a cube 2 m on the edge, centered at origin and with edges parallel to the axis.
c) Given
E
and
find work
done in moving 2 C charge along this path if the location of path is

b) PB(1, 1, 1)
c) PC(0.7, 2, 0.3)
a) PA(0, 2, 5)
d) Derive point from of Amperes law and show that stroke theorem relate line to surface.
SECTION II
16
a) Derive the wave equation for electric field and magnetic field in Lossless medium.
b) State the value for
and
for good conductor.
c) Derive the transmission line equation stating with field theory.

d) Define Directive Gain and Directivity of antenna.
e) Explain Antenna Efficiency and give its significance.
Set P
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
-4-
24
a) Derive the expression for radiation fields of current element.

b) A lossless 50 transmission line is terminated in 35 + j65 . Find
i) Voltage reflection coefficient.
ii) VSWR.
iii) Impedance at 0.35 from load.
iv) Shortest length of line for which impedance is purely resistive.
v) The value of this resistance.
c) State and derive poynting theorem and give its significance.

d) Derive the equation for attenuation constant and phase shift constant for conducting
media.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Poynting Vector
a)
is obtained as
b)
c)
2) Curl measures
c) Both a) and b)
d)
d) None of these

a) Guided
b) Unguided
c) None of these
d) Cannot say

a)
1
b)
c)
d)

a) 4 1012
b) 4 107
c) 8.854 1012
d) 8.854 107
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
a) 0
c)
b) 1
d) None of these

a) E = V
b) E = V
c) V =
d)
V=
E
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
-2-

a) 1
b) 0
c)
d) 100

a) Commutative
b) Associative
c) Distributive
d) Parallelogram
is
b) Azimuthal angle
d) All of these
a) Magnitude
b) Direction
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a)
b)
N
c)
N
d)
N
increases.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) None of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Current and area

d) None of these
a) Infinity
b) Unity
c) Zero
d) None of these
battery.
a) Line
b) Surface
c) Volume
d) None of these
a)
b)
c)
d)
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK166*
S
SLR-PK 166
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
at (2 , 1, 4).
16


A-m, calculate H.
24
c) Given
E
and
find work

b) PB(1, 1, 1)
c) PC(0.7, 2, 0.3)
a) PA(0, 2, 5)
SECTION II
16
and
for good conductor.

Set Q
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
-4-
24

ii) VSWR.

media.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
(201=20)

c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Current and area

d) None of these
a) Infinity
b) Unity
c) Zero
d) None of these
battery.
a) Line
b) Surface
c) Volume
d) None of these
a)
b)
c)
d)
6) Poynting Vector
a)
is obtained as
b)
c)
7) Curl measures
c) Both a) and b)
d)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
-2-

a) Guided
b) Unguided
c) None of these
d) Cannot say

a)
1
b)
c)
d)
|

a) 4 1012
b) 4 107
c) 8.854 1012
d) 8.854 107
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
a) 0
c)
b) 1
d) None of these

a) E = V
b) E = V
c) V =
d)
V=

a) 1
b) 0
c)
d) 100

a) Commutative
b) Associative
c) Distributive
d) Parallelogram
is
b) Azimuthal angle
d) All of these
a) Magnitude
b) Direction
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a)
b)
c)
d)
increases.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK166*
S
SLR-PK 166
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
at (2 , 1, 4).
16


A-m, calculate H.
24
c) Given
E
and
find work

b) PB(1, 1, 1)
c) PC(0.7, 2, 0.3)
a) PA(0, 2, 5)
SECTION II
16
and
for good conductor.

Set R
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
-4-
24

ii) VSWR.

media.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
S
Set
t

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Commutative
b) Associative
c) Distributive
is
d) Parallelogram
b) Azimuthal angle
d) All of these
a) Magnitude
b) Direction
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a)
b)
c)
d)

increases.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) None of these
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Current and area

d) None of these
a) Infinity
b) Unity
c) Zero
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
-2-

battery.
a) Line
b) Surface
c) Volume
d) None of these
a)
b)
c)
+
d)
11) Poynting Vector

a)
is obtained as
b)
c)
12) Curl measures

c) Both a) and b)
d)
d) None of these

a) Guided
b) Unguided
c) None of these
d) Cannot say

a)
1
b)
c)
d)
|

a) 4 1012
b) 4 107
c) 8.854 1012
d) 8.854 107
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
a) 0
c)
b) 1
d) None of these

a) E = V
b) E =
c) V =
d)
V=
V

a) 1
b) 0
c)
______________
d) 100
Set S
*SLRPK166*
S
SLR-PK 166
-3-

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
at (2 , 1, 4).
16


A-m, calculate H.
24
c) Given
E
and
find work

b) PB(1, 1, 1)
c) PC(0.7, 2, 0.3)
a) PA(0, 2, 5)
SECTION II
16
and
for good conductor.

Set S
SLR-PK 166
*SLRPK166*
-4-
24

ii) VSWR.

media.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 167
*SLRPK167*
Seat
No.
Set

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND MANAGEMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

5) Assume suitable examples and case study to support your answer.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Which one is not a basic component of IS ?

a) Software
b) Database
c) Planning
2) PDA is an example of
a) TPS
c) Productivity system
d) People
b) MIS
d) Enterprise system
3) Which of the following describes e-commerce ?

a) Doing business electronically
b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods
d) All of the above
4) Tactical decisions are taken by
a) Middle managers
c) Low-level managers
b) Support staff
d) Clerical staff
5) If a consumer has to pay to multiple persons, then it is done through third party called
as
a) Barter
b) Shareholder
c) Consolidator
6) The person who has interest in the project is called
a) Developer
b) Customer
c) Stake holder
d) All of the above
7) Document plan and agreement is done at which step of project planning ?

a) Step 5
b) Step 6
c) Step 7
d) Step 8
8) Activities can be organized in different ways and we call these as
a) Planning
b) Process model c) SDLC
d) Network
9) For taking decisions data must be
a) Very accurate
c) Processed correctly
b) Massive
d) Collected from diverse sources
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 167
*SLRPK167*
-2-
10) Tactical information is needed for

a) Day to day operations
c) Long range planning
b) Meet government requirements

d) Short range planning
11) Organizations are divided into departments because

a) It is convenient to do so
b) Each department can be assigned a specific functional responsibility
c) It provides opportunities for promotion
d) It is done by every organization
12) Online transaction processing is used because
a) It is efficient
b) Disk is used for storing files
c) It can handle random queries
d) Transactions occur in batches
13) Limited scope for iteration is in fact one of the strengths of
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) V-process
14) Step-5 of project planning is
a) Identify activity risk
b) Analyze project characteristics
c) Allocation of resources
d) Estimate effort for each activity
15) The word process is
a) System in action
c) Execution of tasks
b) Execution of activities
16) C2C auction follows ________ auction.

a) Forward
c) Both forward and reverse
b) Reverse
17) Producing an activity plan for a project is to

a) Produce a time cash flow forecast
b) Workout the plan
c) Assign resources at any time when required
18) Filling weekly time sheet is a part of
a) Partial reporting
c) Risk reporting
b) Partial completion reporting

d) Task reporting
19) Which is called classical model to observe progress reporting ?

a) Ball chart
b) Slip chart
c) Gantt chart
20) The circle in ball chart indicates
a) Start date of activities
c) Activities
d) Time line chart
b) End date of activities

d) Both a and b
______________
Set P
*SLRPK167*
-3-
SLR-PK 167
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
a) What is information system ? Explain its components.

b) Define e-commerce and distinguish it from e-business. List benefits of e-commerce.
c) What is a client/server system ? Explain with an example.
d) What does a code of ethics contain ?
e) Describe entity-relationship modeling.
(28=16)
a) Describe how business architecture, IT architecture and information infrastructure are

interrelated.
b) With suitable diagram explain basic EC structure in an organization.
c) Review the steps of the data life cycle and explain them.
SECTION II
(46=24)
a) Compare V-process and waterfall process model.

b) Elaborate reporting methods for project progress analysis.
c) Explain project plan, method and methodologies.
Set P
SLR-PK 167
-4-
*SLRPK167*
d) Explain group making in an organization.

e) Discuss objectives of activity planning.
(28=16)
a) What are the major pressures in the business environment ?

b) Explain in detail various stages of software development life cycle.
c) How earliest and latest dates are calculated using forward pass and backward pass ?
Explain with neat diagram.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 167
*SLRPK167*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Forward
(201=20)
b) Reverse

b) Workout the plan
c) Risk reporting

d) Task reporting

a) Ball chart
b) Slip chart
c) Gantt chart
c) Activities

d) Both a and b

a) Software
b) Database
c) Planning
a) TPS
d) Time line chart
d) People
b) MIS
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 167
*SLRPK167*
-2-

b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods
d) All of the above
a) Middle managers
b) Support staff
d) Clerical staff
as
a) Barter
b) Shareholder
c) Consolidator
a) Developer
b) Customer
c) Stake holder
d) All of the above
a) Step 5
b) Step 6
c) Step 7
d) Step 8
a) Planning
d) Network
a) Very accurate
b) Massive



a) It is efficient
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) V-process
a) System in action
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK167*
-3-
SLR-PK 167
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)

(28=16)

interrelated.
SECTION II
(46=24)

Set Q
SLR-PK 167
-4-
*SLRPK167*

(28=16)

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 167
*SLRPK167*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) It is efficient
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) V-process
a) System in action

a) Forward
b) Reverse
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 167
*SLRPK167*
-2-

b) Workout the plan
c) Risk reporting

d) Task reporting

a) Ball chart
b) Slip chart
c) Gantt chart
c) Activities

d) Both a and b

a) Software
b) Database
c) Planning
a) TPS
d) Time line chart
d) People
b) MIS

b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods
d) All of the above
a) Middle managers
b) Support staff
d) Clerical staff
as
a) Barter
b) Shareholder
c) Consolidator
a) Developer
b) Customer
c) Stake holder
d) All of the above
a) Step 5
b) Step 6
c) Step 7
d) Step 8
a) Planning
d) Network
a) Very accurate
b) Massive


______________
Set R
*SLRPK167*
-3-
SLR-PK 167
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)

(28=16)

interrelated.
SECTION II
(46=24)

Set R
SLR-PK 167
-4-
*SLRPK167*

(28=16)

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 167
*SLRPK167*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Developer
b) Customer
c) Stake holder
d) All of the above

a) Step 5
b) Step 6
c) Step 7
d) Step 8
a) Planning
d) Network
a) Very accurate
b) Massive



a) It is efficient
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) V-process
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 167
*SLRPK167*
-2-

a) System in action

a) Forward
b) Reverse

b) Workout the plan
c) Risk reporting

d) Task reporting

a) Ball chart
b) Slip chart
c) Gantt chart
c) Activities

d) Both a and b

a) Software
b) Database
c) Planning
a) TPS
d) Time line chart
d) People
b) MIS

b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods
d) All of the above
a) Middle managers
b) Support staff
d) Clerical staff
as
a) Barter
b) Shareholder
c) Consolidator
______________
Set S
*SLRPK167*
-3-
SLR-PK 167
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)

(28=16)

interrelated.
SECTION II
(46=24)

Set S
SLR-PK 167
-4-
*SLRPK167*

(28=16)

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 169
*SLRPK169*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2016

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Day and Date :Tuesday, 3-5-2016
Total Marks :100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
Marks : 20

1) I/O redirection.
A) Implies changing the name of file
B) Can be employed to use an existing file as input file for a program
C) Implies connection 2 program through a pipe
2) Thrashing
A) Always occurs on large computers
B) Is a natural consequence of virtual memory system
C) Can always be avoided by swapping
D) Can be caused by poor paging algorithm
3) A high paging rate
A) May cause high I/O rate
B) Keeps the system well running
C) Too much processor activity
D) Always creates a slow system
4) Which of the following page replacement algorithm suffers from Beldys anomaly ?
A) Optimal replacement
B) LRU
C) FIFO
D) Both A & C
5) Resource allocation graph is used
A) to represent the dead lock
C) to avoid the dead locks
B) to detect the dead lock

D) to prevent the dead lock
6) A process is said to be in _________ state if it was waiting for an event that

will never occure.
A) Safe
B) Unsafe
C) Starvation
D) Dead lock
7) Which of the following information does not contained in inode structure
A) The file size
B) The name of the owner of the file
C) The access permissions for the file
D) The file frames
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 169
-2-
*SLRPK169*
8) File which are linked have as many inodes as are the links.
A) True
B) False
9) Which directory under the root contains the information on devices ?
A) /usr/bin
B) /usr/sbin
C) /usr/peripherals/dev
D) /etc/dev
10) Which of the following gives the control of the CPU to the process selected by short term
scheduler ?
A) Interrupt
B) Scheduler
C) DMA
D) Dispatcher
11) Process are classified into different groups in
A) SJF scheduling algorithm
B) RR scheduling algorithm
C) Priority scheduling algorithm
D) Multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
12) What is shell ?
A) Hardware component
B) Command interpreter
C) Part in compiler
D) Tool in CPU scheduling
13) When computer is switched on, its operating system software has to stay in
A) Primary memory
B) Secondary memory
C) Floppy disk
D) Magnetic tape
14) What is the name given to all programs inside the computer which makes it useful ?
A) Application software
B) System software
C) Firmware
D) Share ware
15) Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called
A) frames
B) pages
C) backing store
D) none of these
16) I/O hardware contains
A) bus
B) controller
C) I/O port and its registers
D) all of the mentioned
17) If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing
in their critical section. This condition is called
A) mutual exclusion
B) critical exclusion
C) synchronous exclusion
D) asynchronous exclusion
18) In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed,
the process goes from the running state to the
A) Blocked state
B) Ready state
C) Suspended state
D) Terminated state
19) Operating system is
A) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
B) system service provider to the application programs
C) link to interface the hardware and application programs
20) To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the
A) system calls
B) thread
C) library
D) assembly instructions
______________
Set P
*SLRPK169*
SLR-PK 169
-3-
Seat
No.

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four.
(64=24)
1) Explain Inter-process communication using Message Passing.

2) Explain PCB.
3) What are the important aspects of a real-time system ?
4) Analyze bounded buffer problem as classical problems of synchronization.
5) Describe analytically round robin scheduling algorithm.
(82= 16)
1) Consider the following set of processes with the length of CPU burst time given in the
milliseconds. Calculate Average Turnaround Time and Average Waiting Time for FCFS
and SJF scheduling Algorithm.
Process
Arrival Time
Burst Time
P1
P2
P3
P4
P5
2) Define and state deadlock with example and explain how to prevent deadlock ?
3) Explain Petersons Algorithm for Critical Section Problem.
Set P
SLR-PK 169
-4-
*SLRPK169*
SECTION II
(64=24)
1) Define logical memory and physical memory. Explain Virtual Memory with neat diagram.
2) Explain file protection methods in file system.
3) Write a short note on fragmentation.
4) Explain direct memory access.
5) Explain different directory operations in brief.
(8 2=16)
1) How many page fault occur for following reference string with 4 page frames 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
3, 4, 1, 6, 7, 8, 1, 9, 7, 8, 9, 5, 4, 5
i) FIFO
ii) LRU
iii) Optimal
Which one having minimum number of page faults ? Draw appropriate diagrams.
2) Define paging ? Explain paging hardware implementation.
3) What is inode ? Explain File and Directory Management of Unix Operating System.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 169
*SLRPK169*
Seat
No.
Set

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Total Marks :100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 20

A) bus
B) controller
A) mutual exclusion
A) Blocked state
B) Ready state
C) Suspended state
D) Terminated state
A) system calls
B) thread
C) library
6) I/O redirection.
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 169
-2-
*SLRPK169*
7) Thrashing
B) LRU
C) FIFO
D) Both A & C
will never occure.
A) Safe
B) Unsafe
C) Starvation
D) Dead lock
A) The file size
D) The file frames
A) True
B) False
A) /usr/bin
B) /usr/sbin
D) /etc/dev
scheduler ?
A) Interrupt
B) Scheduler
C) DMA
D) Dispatcher
17) What is shell ?
C) Part in compiler
A) Primary memory
B) Secondary memory
C) Floppy disk
D) Magnetic tape
B) System software
C) Firmware
D) Share ware
A) frames
B) pages
C) backing store
D) none of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK169*
SLR-PK 169
-3-
Seat
No.

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(64=24)

2) Explain PCB.
(82= 16)
Process
Arrival Time
Burst Time
P1
P2
P3
P4
P5
Set Q
SLR-PK 169
-4-
*SLRPK169*
SECTION II
(64=24)
(8 2=16)
3, 4, 1, 6, 7, 8, 1, 9, 7, 8, 9, 5, 4, 5
i) FIFO
ii) LRU
iii) Optimal
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 169
*SLRPK169*
Seat
No.
Set

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Total Marks :100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 20

2) What is shell ?
C) Part in compiler
A) Primary memory
B) Secondary memory
C) Floppy disk
D) Magnetic tape
B) System software
C) Firmware
D) Share ware
A) frames
B) pages
C) backing store
D) none of these
A) bus
B) controller
A) mutual exclusion
A) Blocked state
B) Ready state
C) Suspended state
D) Terminated state
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 169
*SLRPK169*
-2-
A) system calls
B) thread
C) library
11) I/O redirection.
12) Thrashing
B) LRU
C) FIFO
D) Both A & C

will never occure.
A) Safe
B) Unsafe
C) Starvation
D) Dead lock
A) The file size
D) The file frames
A) True
B) False
A) /usr/bin
B) /usr/sbin
D) /etc/dev
scheduler ?
A) Interrupt
B) Scheduler
C) DMA
D) Dispatcher
______________
Set R
*SLRPK169*
SLR-PK 169
-3-
Seat
No.

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(64=24)

2) Explain PCB.
(82= 16)
Process
Arrival Time
Burst Time
P1
P2
P3
P4
P5
Set R
SLR-PK 169
-4-
*SLRPK169*
SECTION II
(64=24)
(8 2=16)
3, 4, 1, 6, 7, 8, 1, 9, 7, 8, 9, 5, 4, 5
i) FIFO
ii) LRU
iii) Optimal
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 169
*SLRPK169*
Seat
No.
Set

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Total Marks :100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Marks : 20

will never occure.
A) Safe
B) Unsafe
C) Starvation
D) Dead lock
A) The file size
D) The file frames
A) True
B) False
A) /usr/bin
B) /usr/sbin
D) /etc/dev
scheduler ?
A) Interrupt
B) Scheduler
C) DMA
D) Dispatcher
7) What is shell ?
C) Part in compiler
A) Primary memory
B) Secondary memory
C) Floppy disk
D) Magnetic tape
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 169
*SLRPK169*
-2-
B) System software
C) Firmware
D) Share ware
A) frames
B) pages
C) backing store
D) none of these
A) bus
B) controller
A) mutual exclusion
A) Blocked state
B) Ready state
C) Suspended state
D) Terminated state
A) system calls
B) thread
C) library
16) I/O redirection.
17) Thrashing
B) LRU
C) FIFO
D) Both A & C

______________
Set S
*SLRPK169*
SLR-PK 169
-3-
Seat
No.

OPERATING SYSTEMS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(64=24)

2) Explain PCB.
(82= 16)
Process
Arrival Time
Burst Time
P1
P2
P3
P4
P5
Set S
SLR-PK 169
-4-
*SLRPK169*
SECTION II
(64=24)
(8 2=16)
3, 4, 1, 6, 7, 8, 1, 9, 7, 8, 9, 5, 4, 5
i) FIFO
ii) LRU
iii) Optimal
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 170
*SLRPK170*
S
Set
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) Part II Examination, 2016

DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

1) Following is not a disadvantage of digital communication
a) Binary coding
b) Critical synchronization requirement
c) Quantization noise
d) Presence of Jitter
2) Companding is used to
a) Eliminate quantizing noise in PCM
b) Allow amplitude limiting in the PCM receivers
c) Improve S/N ratio for small signals in PCM
d) Overcome impulse noise in PCM receiver
3) Nit-is a unit of information when base of the logarithm is
a) 2
b) 10
c) natural
4) PPM is a
a) Linear modulation technique
c) Digital modulation technique
d) none of these
b) Analog modulation technique

d) None of these
5) Rather than sending the absolute value of each sample, it is possible to achieve
a smaller transmission bit-rate by sending the difference between consecutive
samples. This is known as
a) Delta modulation
b) Delta-sigma modulation
c) Adaptive delta modulation
d) Differential PCM
6) The __________ noise occurs when the step size is too large relative to the local
slope characteristics of the input waveform.
a) Granular noise
b) Gaussian noise
c) Random noise
d) Shot noise
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 170
*SLRPK170*
-2-
7) Reversible or lossless coding is a type of coding for which the exact data can be
recovered after decoding. This type of coding is used by
a) PCM encoding
b) Huffman encoding
c) Run-length encoding
d) Both b) and c)
8) The error represented by the difference between the original and quantized signals
set a fundamental limitation to the performance of PCM systems known as
a) dynamic range
b) quantization noise
c) detection-error
d) correction-error
9) The use of non-uniform quantization leads to
a) reduction in transmission bandwidth
b) increase in maximum SNR
c) increase in SNR for signal levels
d) simplification of quantization process
10) If two sets are overlapping; P(A + B) =
a) P(A) + P(B)
c) P(A) + P(B) P(AB)
b) P(A) P(B/A)
11) Early late gate is an approach which approximates

a) Frame synchronization
b) Correlater
c) Optimum filter
d) MAP
12) Design principle of matched filter is to have maximum _________ at a sampling
time T.
a) Power
b) PSD
c) SNR
d) All of the above
13) Addition of an even parity bit is an example of __________ code.
a) block
b) cyclic
c) convolution
14) Synchronous demodulator is an example of _________ detection.
a) Coherent
b) Non coherent c) Noisy
15) Non coherent FSK demodulator uses
a) Square law device
c) Envelope detector
b) LPF
d) All of the above
16) Hamming distance of 5 bits can correct _________ bit errors.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
17) A rate efficiency of a (n, k) block code is
a) k/n
b) n/k
c) n-k
d) k-n
18) Total power in sidebands of ASK is

b) A2/4
a) A2/2
c) A2/8
d) A2
19) Encoder of convolution code uses

a) shift register
b) mod 2 adders
c) switches
d) all of the above
20) _________ code is an example of prefix for frame synchronization.

a) PLL
b) Comma
c) PN
d) PIN
______________
Set P
*SLRPK170*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 170

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
16
a) Give the basic difference between Analog and Digital communication.
b) With suitable example explain different line code.
c) What is meant by ISI ? How it is reduced ?
d) The probabilities of five possible outcomes of an experiment are given as 1/2, 1/4,
1/8, 1/16, 1/16. Determine the entropy and information rate if there are 16 outcomes
per second.
e) With suitable diagram explain DPCM modulator.
24
a) With suitable diagram explain midread and midrise quantization.

b) Consider a binary input, output channel shown below :
Find H(X), H(Y), H(X|Y), H(Y|X) and H(XY)

c) A discrete memoryless source has an alphabet of seven symbols with probabilities
0.3, 0.20, 0.16, 0.14, 0.10, 0.02, 0.08 resp. Compute Huffman code for this source;
calculate entropy, average codeword length and variance of this code.
d) With suitable diagram explain ADM transmitter and receiver.
Set P
SLR-PK 170
-4-
*SLRPK170*
SECTION II
16
a) Compare ARQ and FEC.

b) Draw block diagram of syndrome decoder linear block code.
c) Find the systematic (7, 4) cyclic code for message [0 1 1 1] and g(x) = 1 + x + x3.
d) Explain decoding of a convolution code.
e) Explain optimum receiver.
24
a) The parity check matrix of a particular (7, 4) linear block code is given by,

i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
Find the generator matrix (G).

List all the code vectors.
What is the minimum distance between the code vectors ?
How many errors can be detected ? How many error can be correct ?
b) With suitable example explain decoding and encoding for DPSK.

c) For a BFSK explain modulator and incoherent detector.
d) With suitable diagram, explain PLL based symbol synchronization.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 170
*SLRPK170*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) k/n
b) n/k
c) n-k
d) k-n

a) A2/2
b) A2/4
c) A2/8
d) A2

a) shift register
b) mod 2 adders
c) switches
d) all of the above

a) PLL
b) Comma
c) PN
d) PIN
a) Binary coding
a) 2
b) 10
c) natural
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 170
*SLRPK170*
-2-
9) PPM is a

d) None of these
a) Delta modulation
d) Differential PCM
a) Granular noise
b) Gaussian noise
c) Random noise
d) Shot noise
a) PCM encoding
b) Huffman encoding
d) Both b) and c)
a) dynamic range
c) detection-error
d) correction-error
a) P(A) + P(B)
b) P(A) P(B/A)

b) Correlater
c) Optimum filter
d) MAP
time T.
a) Power
b) PSD
c) SNR
d) All of the above
a) block
b) cyclic
c) convolution
a) Coherent
b) LPF
d) All of the above
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK170*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 170

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
16
per second.
24


Set Q
SLR-PK 170
-4-
*SLRPK170*
SECTION II
16

24

i)
ii)
iii)
iv)


_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 170
*SLRPK170*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

b) Correlater
c) Optimum filter
d) MAP
time T.
a) Power
b) PSD
c) SNR
d) All of the above
a) block
b) cyclic
c) convolution
a) Coherent
b) LPF
d) All of the above

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) k/n
b) n/k
c) n-k
d) k-n

b) A2/4
a) A2/2
c) A2/8
d) A2

a) shift register
b) mod 2 adders
c) switches
d) all of the above

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 170
*SLRPK170*
-2-

a) PLL
b) Comma
c) PN
d) PIN
a) Binary coding
a) 2
b) 10
c) natural
14) PPM is a
d) none of these

d) None of these
a) Delta modulation
d) Differential PCM
a) Granular noise
b) Gaussian noise
c) Random noise
d) Shot noise
a) PCM encoding
b) Huffman encoding
d) Both b) and c)
a) dynamic range
c) detection-error
d) correction-error
a) P(A) + P(B)
b) P(A) P(B/A)
______________
Set R
*SLRPK170*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 170

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
16
per second.
24


Set R
SLR-PK 170
-4-
*SLRPK170*
SECTION II
16

24

i)
ii)
iii)
iv)


_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 170
*SLRPK170*
S
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

a) Granular noise
b) Gaussian noise
c) Random noise
d) Shot noise
a) PCM encoding
b) Huffman encoding
d) Both b) and c)
a) dynamic range
c) detection-error
d) correction-error
a) P(A) + P(B)
b) P(A) P(B/A)

b) Correlater
c) Optimum filter
d) MAP
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 170
*SLRPK170*
-2-

time T.
a) Power
b) PSD
c) SNR
d) All of the above
a) block
b) cyclic
c) convolution
a) Coherent
b) LPF
d) All of the above

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) k/n
b) n/k
c) n-k
d) k-n

a) A2/2
b) A2/4
c) A2/8
d) A2

a) shift register
b) mod 2 adders
c) switches
d) all of the above

a) PLL
b) Comma
c) PN
d) PIN
a) Binary coding
a) 2
b) 10
c) natural
19) PPM is a
d) none of these

d) None of these
a) Delta modulation
d) Differential PCM
______________
Set S
*SLRPK170*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 170

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
16
per second.
24


Set S
SLR-PK 170
-4-
*SLRPK170*
SECTION II
16

24

i)
ii)
iii)
iv)


_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 171
*SLRPK171*
S

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
1. 1) The assembler of 8051 requires ___________ extension file as an input.
a) hex
b) asm
c) obj
d) bin
2) In 8051, serial communication mode 0, the baud rate will be
a) variable
b) fosc/164
c) fosc/32
d) fosc/12
3) Which of the following signal(s) of 8051 must be used in accessing external
data RAM ?
a) RD
b) WR
c) PSEN
d) Both a) and b)
4) ACALL instruction of 8051 is _________ byte instruction.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
5) In microcontroller and LCD interface which line will instruct the LCD that
Microcontroller is sending the command ?
a) DB0
b) RW
c) EN
d) RS
6) In 8051 an Timer 1 interrupt vector address is of
a) 000Bh
b) 001Bh
c) 0013h
d) 0023h
7) In 8051 an external interrupt 1 vector address is of
a) 000BH
b) 001BH
c) 0013H
d) 0023H
8) In modes 2 and 3, if __________ bit of SCON bit is set will causes enable
multiprocessor communication.
a) SM1
b) TB8
c) SM2
d) SM0
9) When 8051 is powered up, stack begin at
a) 07h
b) 70h
c) 08h
d) 80h
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 171
-2-
*SLRPK171*
10) To 8051, one can interface maximum

a) 16K program and 16K Data memory
b) 64K program and 64K Data memory
c) 16K program and 32K Data memory
d) 32K program and 32K Data memory
11) Timer 0 of the PIC 16F877 is ________ bit, accessed as ________
a) 8, timer/counter
b) 16, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
12) Operating CCP2 module in PWM mode, PWM period can be set by writing to
_________ register.
a) PR1
b) TMR2
c) PR2
d) CCP1RL
13) An instruction using the _________ register actually accesses the register
pointed by the ________
a) FSR, INDF
b) INDF, FSR
c) FSR, W
d) INDF, W
14) In PIC 16F877 the Timer 1 module increments on every __________ edge of
the external clock input.
a) Falling
b) Rising
c) Falling/rising
15) In PIC 16F877 __________ port can be configured as parallel slave port.
a) PORT A
b) PORT C
c) PORT D
d) PORT E
16) If IRP bit of STATUS register is cleared, then _________ will gets selected.
a) Bank 0
b) Bank 1
c) Bank 2 or 3
d) Bank 0 or 1
17) What is the address of the last location of on-chip flash program memory for
PIC 16F877 ?
a) 0FFF h
b) 1FFF h
c) FFFF h
d) 7FFF h
18) Program memory in PIC 16F877
a) 8k and there are 8-bits at each address
b) 4k and there are 8-bits at each address
c) 8k and there are 14-bits at each address
d) 4k and there are 8-bits at each address
19) Timer 2 of the PIC 16F877 is __________ bit, accessed as ________
a) 8, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
20) The PIC16F87X family has an __________ wide hardware stack.
a) 8-level deep 13-bit
b) 8-level deep 14-bit
c) 8-level deep 8-bit
d) 13-level deep 13-bit
______________
Set P
*SLRPK171*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 171

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain the addressing modes in 8051 with suitable example.

b) Explain the different modes in serial interface of 8051.
c) Write 8051 assembly program to add two 32 bit numbers.
d) A switch is connected to P1.7. Write a program to send FFh to P2 when
switch is closed else send 00h to P2.
e) Explain the use of TMOD and TCON registers in 8051.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Draw and explain interfacing of ADC 0808/09 to 8051. Write a program to

covert analog voltage on channel 1 to digital.
b) Explain interrupt sources in 8051 with their priority, vector addresses. How
to change the interrupt priority ?
c) Draw and explain interfacing of 8K 8 Data ROM to 8051. Write a assembly
program to read 30 bytes starting at 1000h in external ROM.
Set P
SLR-PK 171
-4-
*SLRPK171*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(64=24)
a) List out CPU registers in PIC 16F877. Explain their uses.

b) What is the use of WDT and BOR ?
c) With block diagram explain Timer-1 module used in PIC microcontroller.
d) Explain I2C communication IN PIC.
e) Explain the capture mode using Timer-1 in PIC 16F877.
5. Solve any two :
(82=16)
a) Draw and explain interfacing of LCD to PIC 16F877. Write a program to

display NO on LCD.
b) Explain PWM mode of CCP1 module in PIC. Write a program to setup the
PWM operation. (Assume suitable values for Period and duty cycle)
c) Explain the operation of parallel slave port in PIC 16F877.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 171
*SLRPK171*
S

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
1. 1) If IRP bit of STATUS register is cleared, then _________ will gets selected.
a) Bank 0
b) Bank 1
c) Bank 2 or 3
d) Bank 0 or 1
PIC 16F877 ?
a) 0FFF h
b) 1FFF h
c) FFFF h
d) 7FFF h
a) 8, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
6) The assembler of 8051 requires ___________ extension file as an input.
a) hex
b) asm
c) obj
d) bin
a) variable
b) fosc/164
c) fosc/32
d) fosc/12
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 171
-2-
*SLRPK171*

data RAM ?
a) RD
b) WR
c) PSEN
d) Both a) and b)
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
a) DB0
b) RW
c) EN
d) RS
a) 000Bh
b) 001Bh
c) 0013h
d) 0023h
a) 000BH
b) 001BH
c) 0013H
d) 0023H
a) SM1
b) TB8
c) SM2
d) SM0
a) 07h
b) 70h
c) 08h
d) 80h
a) 8, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
_________ register.
a) PR1
b) TMR2
c) PR2
d) CCP1RL
a) FSR, INDF
b) INDF, FSR
c) FSR, W
d) INDF, W
a) Falling
b) Rising
c) Falling/rising
a) PORT A
b) PORT C
c) PORT D
d) PORT E
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK171*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 171

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)

3. Solve any two :
(102=20)

Set Q
SLR-PK 171
-4-
*SLRPK171*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(64=24)

5. Solve any two :
(82=16)

display NO on LCD.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 171
*SLRPK171*
S

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
Marks : 20
1. 1) Timer 0 of the PIC 16F877 is ________ bit, accessed as ________

a) 8, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
_________ register.
a) PR1
b) TMR2
c) PR2
d) CCP1RL
a) FSR, INDF
b) INDF, FSR
c) FSR, W
d) INDF, W
a) Falling
b) Rising
c) Falling/rising
a) PORT A
b) PORT C
c) PORT D
d) PORT E
a) Bank 0
b) Bank 1
c) Bank 2 or 3
d) Bank 0 or 1
PIC 16F877 ?
a) 0FFF h
b) 1FFF h
c) FFFF h
d) 7FFF h
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 171
-2-
*SLRPK171*

a) 8, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
a) hex
b) asm
c) obj
d) bin
a) variable
b) fosc/164
c) fosc/32
d) fosc/12
data RAM ?
a) RD
b) WR
c) PSEN
d) Both a) and b)
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
a) DB0
b) RW
c) EN
d) RS
a) 000Bh
b) 001Bh
c) 0013h
d) 0023h
a) 000BH
b) 001BH
c) 0013H
d) 0023H
a) SM1
b) TB8
c) SM2
d) SM0
a) 07h
b) 70h
c) 08h
d) 80h
______________
Set R
*SLRPK171*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 171

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)

3. Solve any two :
(102=20)

Set R
SLR-PK 171
-4-
*SLRPK171*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(64=24)

5. Solve any two :
(82=16)

display NO on LCD.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 171
*SLRPK171*
S

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

one mark.
1. 1) In 8051 an Timer 1 interrupt vector address is of

a) 000Bh
b) 001Bh
c) 0013h
a) 000BH
b) 001BH
c) 0013H
Marks : 20
d) 0023h
d) 0023H
a) SM1
b) TB8
c) SM2
d) SM0
a) 07h
b) 70h
c) 08h
d) 80h
a) 8, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
_________ register.
a) PR1
b) TMR2
c) PR2
d) CCP1RL
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 171
-2-
*SLRPK171*

a) FSR, INDF
b) INDF, FSR
c) FSR, W
d) INDF, W
a) Falling
b) Rising
c) Falling/rising
a) PORT A
b) PORT C
c) PORT D
d) PORT E
a) Bank 0
b) Bank 1
c) Bank 2 or 3
d) Bank 0 or 1
PIC 16F877 ?
a) 0FFF h
b) 1FFF h
c) FFFF h
d) 7FFF h
a) 8, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
a) hex
b) asm
c) obj
d) bin
a) variable
b) fosc/164
c) fosc/32
d) fosc/12
data RAM ?
a) RD
b) WR
c) PSEN
d) Both a) and b)
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
a) DB0
b) RW
c) EN
d) RS
______________
Set S
*SLRPK171*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 171

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)

3. Solve any two :
(102=20)

Set S
SLR-PK 171
-4-
*SLRPK171*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(64=24)

5. Solve any two :
(82=16)

display NO on LCD.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 172
*SLRPK172*
Seat
No.
Set

INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201 = 20)
1) The average ON state current of SCR is 20 A for resistive load. If inductance of 100 mH
is included in load then the average ON state current would be
a) More than 20 A
b) Less than 20 A
c) 15 A
d) 20 A
2) Thyristor is a semiconductor switch which is
a) unilateral and latching
b) bilateral and astable
c) unilateral and latchproof
d) bilateral and bistable
3) IGBT is a device which has
a) input characteristics of MOSFET and output characteristics of BJT
b) output characteristics of MOSFET and input characteristics of BJT
c) both input and output characteristics of MOSFET
d) both input and output characteristics of BJT
4) MOSFETs are suitable for
a) Low voltage switching
c) Low power
b) High voltage switching

d) None
5) Single phase full converter with highly inductive load is _____ quadrant converter.
a) Single
b) Two
c) Four
d) Both a and b
6) A free wheeling diode is placed across DC load
a) to prevent reversal of load voltage
b) divert load current away from source
c) both a and b
d) none of above
7) A single phase fully controlled bridge converter supplies on Inductive load. If = 0
then voltage dc voltage is
a) Vm
b)
2Vm
c)
Vm
2
d) 0.95 Vm
8) A thyristor X has rated gate current of 2 ampere and thyristor Y has rated gate current of
100 mA
a) X is GTO and Y is conventional SCR b) X is conventional SCR and Y is GTO
c) X and Y both are conventional SCR
d) X and Y both are GTO
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 172
*SLRPK172*
-2-
9) In SCR
a) gate current is directly proportional to forward break over voltage
b) as gate current is raised forward break over voltage reduces
c) gate current has to kept ON for continuously conduction
d) forward break over voltage is low in forward blocking state
10) The ON state drop of IGBT is
a) Less than MOSFET
c) Equal to MOSFET
b) Greater than MOSFET

d) both b and c
11) In induction heating change in frequency affects the

a) Rate of heating
b) Depth of penetration of heat
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
12) In RC full wave triggering circuit range of firing angle control is
a) 0 to 180
b) 0 to 90
c) 90 to 180
d) 0 to 360
13) Induction heating can be employed for heating the objects of ______ materials.
a) Only non conducting
b) Only conducting
c) Both a and b
d) Plastic
14) An UJT has VBB = 24 V and interbase resistance RB1 = 4 RB2, then intrinsic stand off
ratio is
a) 1/4
b) 5/4
c) 4/5
d) 1/5
15) Which of the following PNPN device has a terminal for synchronization purpose ?
a) LSCR
b) SUS
c) TRIAC
d) DIAC
16) In solid state stabilizer output voltage is controlled
a) By varying conduction angle of power device
b) By changing transformer
c) By changing supply voltage
d) None of above
17) In _____, the heating is uniform throughout workpiece.
a) Dielectric heating
c) Resistance heating
d) Infrared heating
18) In CVT
a) Working principle based on ferro resonance
b) Capacitor is connected across secondary winding
c) Capacitor is connected in series with secondary winding
d) Capacitor is connected across primary winding
19) In flyback converter energy stored in transformer primary
a) during time when transistor is off
b) during time when transistor is on
c) during time when core is saturates
d) none of above
20) Which of the following method will turn SCS off ?
a) Applying negative pulse to anode gate
b) Applying positive pulse to anode gate
c) Applying positive pulse to cathode gate
d) Above all
______________
Set P
*SLRPK172*
-3-
SLR-PK 172
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Derive an expression for Avg voltage and RMS load voltage for fully controlled
bridge converter with inductive load. Sketch associated waveforms for = 30 .
2) A single phase semiconverter is to supply dc power to load of 20 . If converter is
supplied by 350V AC, single phase, 100 Hz and output voltage across load is to
40% of maximum dc voltage. What is firing angle to be maintained for converter.
3) Why thyristor is called latching device ? Explain thyristors gate characteristics.
4) What is forced commutation ? Explain operation of Class B resonant pulse
commutation circuit with associated waveforms.
5) Draw parasitic model of Power MOSFET. Explain why reverse blocking capability
of thyristor is very poor.
(210=20)
1) What is necessity of snubber circuit ? Describe design consideration of snubber

network for dc circuits.
2) Explain operation of dual converter with circulating current mode. Derive an
expression for circulating current of Single phase dual converter.
3) Draw structural diagram of GTO. Explain what are different modification are made
in ordinary SCR to improve turn off performance. Compare GTO, Thyristor and
IGBT.
Set P
SLR-PK 172
-4-
*SLRPK172*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) With help of block diagram explain triggering scheme for single phase controlled
rectifier.
2) Explain equivalent circuit and VI Characteristics of SUS and SBS.
3) With suitable diagram explain working of ON line UPS.
4) Explain principle of Buck-Boost control in servo controlled voltage stabilizer.
5) With suitable circuit diagram explain working of proximity detector system.
(210=20)
1) What is non isolated SMPS ? Explain working of buck boost switching regulator
and derive expression for its duty cycle. Sketch associated waveforms.
2) Explain principle of induction heating. Enlist merits of induction heating. Describe
any two applications.
3) Explain equivalent circuit and VI Characteristics of UJT. Explain working of an
oscillator employing UJT. Drive an expression for frequency of triggering.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 172
*SLRPK172*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201 = 20)

d) None of above
d) Infrared heating
3) In CVT
d) none of above
d) Above all
a) More than 20 A
b) Less than 20 A
c) 15 A
d) 20 A
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 172
*SLRPK172*
-2-

c) Low power

d) None
a) Single
b) Two
c) Four
d) Both a and b
c) both a and b
d) none of above
a) Vm
b)
2Vm
c)
Vm
2
d) 0.95 Vm
100 mA
14) In SCR
a) Less than MOSFET
c) Equal to MOSFET

d) both b and c

a) Rate of heating
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
a) 0 to 180
b) 0 to 90
c) 90 to 180
d) 0 to 360
b) Only conducting
c) Both a and b
d) Plastic
ratio is
a) 1/4
b) 5/4
c) 4/5
d) 1/5
a) LSCR
b) SUS
c) TRIAC
d) DIAC
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK172*
-3-
SLR-PK 172
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
(210=20)

IGBT.
Set Q
SLR-PK 172
-4-
*SLRPK172*
SECTION II
(45=20)
rectifier.
(210=20)
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 172
*SLRPK172*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201 = 20)
a) Rate of heating
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
a) 0 to 180
b) 0 to 90
c) 90 to 180
d) 0 to 360
b) Only conducting
c) Both a and b
d) Plastic
ratio is
a) 1/4
b) 5/4
c) 4/5
d) 1/5
a) LSCR
b) SUS
c) TRIAC
d) DIAC
d) None of above
d) Infrared heating
8) In CVT
d) none of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 172
*SLRPK172*
-2-

d) Above all
a) More than 20 A
b) Less than 20 A
c) 15 A
d) 20 A
c) Low power

d) None
a) Single
b) Two
c) Four
d) Both a and b
c) both a and b
d) none of above
Vm
a) Vm
c)
d) 0.95 Vm
b) 2Vm
2
100 mA
19) In SCR
a) Less than MOSFET
c) Equal to MOSFET

d) both b and c
______________
Set R
*SLRPK172*
-3-
SLR-PK 172
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
(210=20)

IGBT.
Set R
SLR-PK 172
-4-
*SLRPK172*
SECTION II
(45=20)
rectifier.
(210=20)
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 172
*SLRPK172*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201 = 20)

c) both a and b
d) none of above
a) Vm
b)
2Vm
c)
Vm
2
d) 0.95 Vm
100 mA
a) X is GTO and Y is conventional SCR
b) X is conventional SCR and Y is GTO
4) In SCR
a) Less than MOSFET
c) Equal to MOSFET

d) both b and c

a) Rate of heating
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
a) 0 to 180
b) 0 to 90
c) 90 to 180
d) 0 to 360
b) Only conducting
c) Both a and b
d) Plastic
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 172
*SLRPK172*
-2-
ratio is
a) 1/4
b) 5/4
c) 4/5
d) 1/5
a) LSCR
b) SUS
c) TRIAC
d) DIAC
d) None of above
d) Infrared heating
13) In CVT
d) none of above
d) Above all
a) More than 20 A
b) Less than 20 A
c) 15 A
d) 20 A
c) Low power

d) None
a) Single
b) Two
c) Four
d) Both a and b
______________
Set S
*SLRPK172*
-3-
SLR-PK 172
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
(210=20)

IGBT.
Set S
SLR-PK 172
-4-
*SLRPK172*
SECTION II
(45=20)
rectifier.
(210=20)
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 173
*SLRPK173*
Seat
No.
Set
T.E. (Part II) (Electronics Engineering) Examination, 2016

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) A common way of modeling a sequential logic in VHDL uses __________
a) Process
b) Architecture
c) Port map statements
d) When else statements
2) If A = 101 and B = 001 and C = A and B, then C will be __________
a) 001
b) 110
c) 101001
d) 010110
3) The value of __________ port can only be read within the entity.
a) out
b) buffer
c) in
d) inout
4) For creating multiple instances of a component which of the following VHDL
construct is very useful __________
a) Generic
b) Loop
c) If then
d) Generate
5) Which of the following VHDL constructs are not synthesizable ?
a) Wait for 5 ns, b) If
c) Case
d) All above
6) The VHDL statement to suspend process and to wait for an event to occur on
signal clock for a time interval of 20 ns is __________
a) wait on clock until time = 20 ns
b) wait on clock until time > 20 ns
c) wait on clock for 20 ns
d) none of these
7) ___________ delay models the delays often found in switching circuits.
a) transport
b) Inertial
c) Delta
d) None of these
8) In which of the following the ordering of the statements is not important ?
a) Sequential statements
b) Process statements
c) Concurrent statements
d) Loop statements
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 173
-2-
*SLRPK173*
9) Assuming the left operand as BIT vector 10011101 rol 3 gives __________
a) 11101100
b) 11101111
c) 10011000
d) 00010011
10) In VHDL data type STD_ULOGIC the symbol X represents __________
a) Dont care
b) Uninitialized
c) Forcing unknown
d) None of these
11) Build in self test is used for ____________
a) Testing components
b) Testing flip-flops
c) Testing memory
d) None of above
12) Noise Margin of CMOS Inverter is a function of ____________
a) W/L of CMOS b) n / p
c) tox
d) all of above
13) Transmission gate in CMOS is also called as ____________
a) Pass gate
b) Fail gate
c) Pull-up gate
d) Pull-down gate
14) Under steady state condition power dissipated in CMOS circuit is __________
c) 0.1 w
d) none of above
a) 0 w
b) 10 w
15) The translation of RTL description to Boolean equivalent description is _______
a) Not user controllable
b) User controllable
c) Technology dependent
d) None of above
16) Synthesis means ________
a) Checking Correctness of the design
b) Conversion of the design to actual component
c) Implement design into target technology
d) None of above
17) To check the functional correctness of the design, ___________ can be done.
a) Simulation
b) Synthesis
c) Translate
d) Filter
18) CPLD contains several PAL type Simple Programmable Logic Devices called
______________
a) Macro Cells
b) Microcells
c) AND-OR Arrays
d) Fuse Link Array
19) The Ability to Tolerate noise without affecting the correct operation of circuit
is known as ___________
a) Dynamic Power Dissipation
b) Noise Margin
c) Static Power Dissipation
d) None of above
20) Path sensitizing method is used for deriving the test set for __________
a) Combinational circuit
b) Sequential circuit
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK173*
-3-
SLR-PK 173
Seat
No.

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
a) Explain in brief different shift operators in VHDL.
b) Write VHDL code for 3 : 8 decoder with active high enable.
c) Write a test bench for 4 : 1 Multiplexer.
d) What device does the following code represent ? Explain.
process (clk)
begin
if RST = 1 then Qtmp : = 0;
elseif clkevent and clk = 0 then
if T = 1 then
Qtmp : = not Qtmp;
end if;
end if;
Q < = Qtmp;
end process;
e) Explain following VHDL constructs with suitable application :
i) Generics
ii) Generate statement.
f) Draw the timing diagram illustrating A, B and C if the following concurrent
statements are executed
B <= 0, 1 after 10 ns, 0 after 15 ns, 1 after 20 ns, 0 after 25 ns,
1 after 30 ns, 0 after 40 ns;
A <= transport B after 5 ns ;
C <= B after 8 ns;
Set P
SLR-PK 173
-4-
*SLRPK173*
(28=16)
a) Derive the state table/diagram for an Moore FSM that has an input w and an
output z. The machine has to generate z = 1 when the previous four values of w
were 1011 ; otherwise, z = 0. Overlapping input patterns are allowed. Write
VHDL code for the FSM described above.
b) Explain functions and procedures in VHDL. Write a procedure addvec which
adds two 4 bit inputs and a carry and returns a 4 bit number and a carry
output.
c) Write behavioural VHDL code for 2 input NAND gate. Also write a test bench
to test the circuit.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Design CMOS gate for f = x1 + x 2 + x 3 .

b) Explain Place and Route process of EDA tools.
c) Draw and explain CMOS 3 input NOR gate.
d) Write a short note on Design for Testability.
e) Differentiate between CPLD and FPGA.
f) Describe the simulation steps in RTL simulation.
(83=24)
a) Draw and explain Spartan 4000 FPGA architecture.

b) What do you mean by synthesis ? What are the inputs and outputs of
synthesis ? What are the constraints involved ?
c) Explain the following characteristics of digital circuits :
i) Power dissipation
ii) Noise margin
iii) Fan in
iv) Fan out.
d) Draw and explain the schematic arrangement for testing sequential circuits.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 173
*SLRPK173*
Seat
No.
Set

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
d) None of above
a) Simulation
b) Synthesis
c) Translate
d) Filter
______________
a) Macro Cells
b) Microcells
c) AND-OR Arrays
d) Fuse Link Array
is known as ___________
b) Noise Margin
d) None of above
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Process
b) Architecture
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 173
-2-
*SLRPK173*

a) 001
b) 110
c) 101001
d) 010110
a) out
b) buffer
c) in
d) inout
a) Generic
b) Loop
c) If then
d) Generate
c) Case
d) All above
d) none of these
a) transport
b) Inertial
c) Delta
d) None of these
d) Loop statements
a) 11101100
b) 11101111
c) 10011000
d) 00010011
a) Dont care
b) Uninitialized
c) Forcing unknown
d) None of these
c) Testing memory
d) None of above
c) tox
d) all of above
a) Pass gate
b) Fail gate
c) Pull-up gate
d) Pull-down gate
c) 0.1 w
d) none of above
a) 0 w
b) 10 w
d) None of above
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK173*
-3-
SLR-PK 173
Seat
No.

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
process (clk)
begin
if T = 1 then
Qtmp : = not Qtmp;
end if;
end if;
Q < = Qtmp;
end process;
i) Generics
C <= B after 8 ns;
Set Q
SLR-PK 173
-4-
*SLRPK173*
(28=16)
output.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(44=16)

(83=24)

ii) Noise margin
iii) Fan in
iv) Fan out.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 173
*SLRPK173*
Seat
No.
Set

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

c) Testing memory
d) None of above
Marks : 20
(201=20)

c) tox
d) all of above
a) Pass gate
b) Fail gate
c) Pull-up gate
d) Pull-down gate
a) 0 w
b) 10 w
c) 0.1 w
d) none of above
d) None of above
d) None of above
a) Simulation
b) Synthesis
c) Translate
d) Filter
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 173
-2-
*SLRPK173*
______________
a) Macro Cells
b) Microcells
c) AND-OR Arrays
d) Fuse Link Array
is known as ___________
b) Noise Margin
d) None of above
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Process
b) Architecture
a) 001
b) 110
c) 101001
d) 010110
a) out
b) buffer
c) in
d) inout
a) Generic
b) Loop
c) If then
d) Generate
c) Case
d) All above
d) none of these
a) transport
b) Inertial
c) Delta
d) None of these
d) Loop statements
a) 11101100
b) 11101111
c) 10011000
d) 00010011
a) Dont care
b) Uninitialized
c) Forcing unknown
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK173*
-3-
SLR-PK 173
Seat
No.

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
process (clk)
begin
if T = 1 then
Qtmp : = not Qtmp;
end if;
end if;
Q < = Qtmp;
end process;
i) Generics
C <= B after 8 ns;
Set R
SLR-PK 173
-4-
*SLRPK173*
(28=16)
output.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(44=16)

(83=24)

ii) Noise margin
iii) Fan in
iv) Fan out.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 173
*SLRPK173*
Seat
No.
Set

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

(201=20)
d) none of these
a) transport
b) Inertial
c) Delta
d) None of these
d) Loop statements
a) 11101100
b) 11101111
c) 10011000
d) 00010011
a) Dont care
b) Uninitialized
c) Forcing unknown
d) None of these
c) Testing memory
d) None of above
c) tox
d) all of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 173
-2-
*SLRPK173*

a) Pass gate
b) Fail gate
c) Pull-up gate
d) Pull-down gate
a) 0 w
b) 10 w
c) 0.1 w
d) none of above
d) None of above
d) None of above
a) Simulation
b) Synthesis
c) Translate
d) Filter
______________
a) Macro Cells
b) Microcells
c) AND-OR Arrays
d) Fuse Link Array
is known as ___________
b) Noise Margin
d) None of above
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Process
b) Architecture
a) 001
b) 110
c) 101001
d) 010110
a) out
b) buffer
c) in
d) inout
a) Generic
b) Loop
c) If then
d) Generate
c) Case
d) All above
______________
Set S
*SLRPK173*
-3-
SLR-PK 173
Seat
No.

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
process (clk)
begin
if T = 1 then
Qtmp : = not Qtmp;
end if;
end if;
Q < = Qtmp;
end process;
i) Generics
C <= B after 8 ns;
Set S
SLR-PK 173
-4-
*SLRPK173*
(28=16)
output.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(44=16)

(83=24)

ii) Noise margin
iii) Fan in
iv) Fan out.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 174 A
*SLRPK174A*
S
Set
t
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2016

AUTOMOTIVE ELECTRONICS
(Technical Self Learning Module III)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

3) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer
Marks : 10
(101=10)
1) The function of an alternator in an automobile is to

A) convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
B) partly convert engine power into electric power
C) continually recharge the battery
D) supply electric power
2) A Traction Control System (TCS) in automobiles controls the
A) vibrations on the steering wheel
B) engine power during acceleration
C) stopping distance in case of emergency
D) torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface
3) The firing order for an in-line four cylinder I.C. engine is
A) 1-2-3-4
B) 1-2-4-3
C) 1-3-2-4
D) 1-3-4-2
4) A component, which makes use of the magnetic effect of an electric current
in a vehicle electrical system is
A) an ignition warning light
B) an alternator rotor
C) a fuel tank unit
D) an oil pressure gauge
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174 A
-2-
*SLRPK174A*
5) The purpose of a rectifier in an alternator is to

A) change AC to DC voltage
B) control alternator output current
C) change DC to AC voltage
D) control alternator output voltage
6) Star and Delta are types of
A) rotor winding
B) stator winding
C) field winding
D) regulator winding
7) The main advantage of using Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) in vehicle lighting is
A) the variety of colours available
B) that they produce whiter light
C) their long life
D) all of the above
8) When checking an NTC type temperature sensor, Technician A says
remember resistance increases as temperature increases. Technician B says
remember resistance decreases as temperature increases. Who is right ?
A) A only
B) B only
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
9) The instrument which uses pulses from the ignition primary circuit is a
A) speedometer
B) tachometer
C) ammeter
D) odometer
10) Backlighting of a Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) is used in order to
A) be able to read the display
B) prevent DC electroluminescence
C) display the light in a forward biased direction
D) increase vacuum fluorescence
______________
Set P
*SLRPK174A*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 174 A

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
SECTION I
(43=12)
1) Explain working principles, characteristics, limitations of temperature sensing

system related to automobile.
2) What are the basic components of petrol, diesel and gas engines ? Specify
their significance.
3) What are the sensors used in automobiles for anti-collision and velocity
sensing ? Explain one in detail along with its limitations.
4) Explain instrumentation amplifiers, comparators, level shifting and filters used
in automobile electronics.
3. Attempt any one :
(81=8)
1) Explain in detail alternators and battery charging, system in the automobile in
detail.
2) Discuss torque sensing and vibration sensing system in automobile in detail.
SECTION II
(43=12)
1) What is actuator ? Explain hydraulic actuators and pneumatic actuators related

to automobiles.
2) Draw basic drive circuits for solenoid valve and explain.
3) Explain transmission control system related to automobile engine.
4) What are the recent trends in automotive diagnostics system ?
(81=8)
1) What is anti-lock braking system ? Draw block diagram of ABS and

describe its working.
2) Describe neatly CAN protocol used in automobiles.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 174 A
*SLRPK174A*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

Marks : 10
(101=10)
A) speedometer
B) tachometer
C) ammeter
D) odometer
C) their long life
D) all of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174 A
-2-
*SLRPK174A*

A) A only
B) B only
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
A) 1-2-3-4
B) 1-2-4-3
C) 1-3-2-4
D) 1-3-4-2
C) a fuel tank unit
A) rotor winding
B) stator winding
C) field winding
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK174A*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 174 A

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
SECTION I
(43=12)

their significance.
(81=8)
detail.
SECTION II
(43=12)

to automobiles.
(81=8)

_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 174 A
*SLRPK174A*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

Marks : 10
(101=10)

A) rotor winding
B) stator winding
C) field winding
A) speedometer
B) tachometer
C) ammeter
D) odometer
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174 A
-2-
*SLRPK174A*

A) 1-2-3-4
B) 1-2-4-3
C) 1-3-2-4
D) 1-3-4-2
C) a fuel tank unit
C) their long life
D) all of the above
A) A only
B) B only
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
______________
Set R
*SLRPK174A*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 174 A

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
SECTION I
(43=12)

their significance.
(81=8)
detail.
SECTION II
(43=12)

to automobiles.
(81=8)

_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 174 A
*SLRPK174A*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

Marks : 10
(101=10)

A) 1-2-3-4
B) 1-2-4-3
C) 1-3-2-4
D) 1-3-4-2
C) a fuel tank unit
A) rotor winding
B) stator winding
C) field winding
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174 A
-2-
*SLRPK174A*
C) their long life
D) all of the above
A) A only
B) B only
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
A) speedometer
B) tachometer
C) ammeter
D) odometer
______________
Set S
*SLRPK174A*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 174 A

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
SECTION I
(43=12)

their significance.
(81=8)
detail.
SECTION II
(43=12)

to automobiles.
(81=8)

_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 174B
*SLRPK174B*
Seat
No.

Technical Self Learning
Module I : ROBOTICS
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Figures of right side indicate maximum marks.
2) Use suitable data if required.
3) Following questions include Section I and II.
SECTION I
1. Solve any four :
20
a) What is different classification of Robot ?

b) Explain with neat sketch Servo Controlled Robot.
c) List the problems encountered for robot in arc welding.
d) What is the function of sensor ? Give its classification.
e) List the types of grippers.
SECTION II
30
a) Explain classification of robot by Control Methods.

b) What is segmentation ? Explain these holding techniques in brief.
c) Compare stationary robot with mobile robot based on application, construction,
speed and capacity.
d) Explain in short principle of power and signal transmission to the end effectors.
SLR-PK 174C
*SLRPK174C*
S
Set
t

ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION
Self Learning Module II (Technical)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in Answer
of Page.
Marks : 10
(101=10)
1) Dynamic response consists of

a) two parts, one steady state and the other transient state response
b) only transient state response
c) only steady state response
d) steady state and transient frequency response
2) The smallest change in a measured variable to which an instrument will
respond is
a) accuracy
b) resolution
c) precision
d) expected value
3) The universal counter uses __________, which are selected and controlled
by single functional switch.
a) Logic gates
b) OpAmps
c) Registers
d) Transistors
4) Which of below is the first building block of frequency measurement ?
a) gate
b) display
c) counter
d) schmitt trigger
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174C
-2-
*SLRPK174C*
5) A logic analyzer is used when we need

a) to see small voltage changes in the signal
b) high time interval accuracy
c) to see the relationship of many signals at a time
d) to measure rise time of the signal
6) _________ analyzer is best for vibration analysis.
a) Spectrum analyzer
b) Vector analyzer
c) FFT analyzer
d) DSO
7) ___________ DAS is slow and the BCD has to be changed into binary coding
for digital equipment.
a) single channel
b) multi-channel
c) both (a) and (b)
8) Universal counter cannot measure
a) duty cycle
b) time
c) period
d) distortion
9) _________ recorders are used for fast varying signals.
a) Strip chart
b) X-Y
c) Magnetic
10) Multipoint recorders
a) Record single parameter multiple times
b) Record multiple parameters using one pen for each input parameter
c) Record multiple parameters using one single pen for all input parameters
d) Record none of the above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK174C*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 174C

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
SECTION I

(43=12)
a) State the classification of standards.
b) Define signal interference. Also explain capacitive and inductive interference.
c) Describe the basic structure of LED and LCD.
d) For the given data, calculate
i) arithmetic mean and
ii) deviation of each value
X
"
(81=8)
a) Describe in detail types of error. Give examples of each.

b) With a neat schematic, illustrate working principle of digital pH meter.
c) Write a short note on internal noise.
SECTION II
(43=12)
a) Draw and explain working of filter bank analyzer.
b) Discuss in brief self testing of smart sensors.
c) What is meant by spectrum analysis ? Compare it with time domain analysis.
d) Explain the significance of ADC in Data Acquisition System.
(81=8)
a) Explain ultrasonic sensor transmission system. Draw and explain working
of equivalent circuit of its transmitter.
b) Explain in detail, logic timing analyzer.
c) With neat block diagram, explain data logging system.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 174C
*SLRPK174C*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

of Page.
Marks : 10
(101=10)

a) Strip chart
b) X-Y
c) Magnetic
a) single channel
b) multi-channel
c) both (a) and (b)
a) duty cycle
c) period
b) time
d) distortion
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174C
-2-
*SLRPK174C*

respond is
a) accuracy
b) resolution
c) precision
d) expected value
a) Logic gates
b) OpAmps
c) Registers
d) Transistors
a) gate
b) display
c) counter
d) schmitt trigger
b) Vector analyzer
c) FFT analyzer
d) DSO
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK174C*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 174C

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
SECTION I

(43=12)
X
"
(81=8)

SECTION II
(43=12)
(81=8)
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 174C
*SLRPK174C*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

of Page.
Marks : 10
(101=10)

b) Vector analyzer
c) FFT analyzer
d) DSO
a) Strip chart
b) X-Y
c) Magnetic
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174C
-2-
*SLRPK174C*
a) Logic gates
b) OpAmps
c) Registers
d) Transistors
a) gate
b) display
c) counter
d) schmitt trigger
respond is
a) accuracy
b) resolution
c) precision
d) expected value
a) single channel
b) multi-channel
c) both (a) and (b)
a) duty cycle
b) time
c) period
______________
d) distortion
Set R
*SLRPK174C*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 174C

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
SECTION I

(43=12)
X
"
(81=8)

SECTION II
(43=12)
(81=8)
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 174C
*SLRPK174C*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

of Page.
Marks : 10
(101=10)
a) Logic gates
b) OpAmps
c) Registers
d) Transistors
a) gate
b) display
c) counter
d) schmitt trigger
b) Vector analyzer
c) FFT analyzer
d) DSO
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174C
*SLRPK174C*
-2-
a) single channel
b) multi-channel
c) both (a) and (b)
a) duty cycle
b) time
c) period
d) distortion

a) Strip chart
b) X-Y
c) Magnetic
respond is
a) accuracy
b) resolution
c) precision
d) expected value
______________
Set S
*SLRPK174C*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 174C

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
SECTION I

(43=12)
X
"
(81=8)

SECTION II
(43=12)
(81=8)
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 174D
*SLRPK174D*
Seat
No.
Set

Technical Self Learning Module II
PROGRAMMING IN VISUAL BASIC .NET
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 10
1.
I) The Button control can be activated

A) Programmatically through the click event
B) By clicking the button with the mouse
C) With the forms Default Button property
D) Both a and b
II) Which does the solution explorer not display ?
A) Form Properties
B) Reference Folder
C) Form File
D) Assemble File
III) Which is an example of Visual Basic Objects ?

A) Control objects
B) ASP.NET
C) ADO.NET
D) All of the above
IV) Which of the following access modifier specifies that an attribute at the beginning
of a source file applies to the current assembly module ?
A) In
B) Iterator
C) Key
D) Module
V) Which of the following keyword of VB.NET is used to throw an exception when

a problem shows up ?
A) Try
B) Catch
C) Finally
D) Throw
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174D
*SLRPK174D*
-2-
VI) Which of the following access modifier specifies that an argument is passed in
such a way that the called procedure or property cannot change the value of a
variable underlying the argument in the calling code ?
A) ByRef
B) ByVal
C) Default
D) Friend
VII) Which of the following access modifier specifies that the type is covariant ?
A) NotOverridable
B) Optional
C) Out
D) Overloads
VIII) Which of the following statement declares and defines one or more constants ?
A) Dim
B) Const
C) Enum
D) Class
IX) Which of the following operator uses short-circuit evaluation to conditionally return
one of two values ?
A) If
B) Await
C) GetType
D) Function Expression
X) Which of the following property of Array class in VB.NET checks whether the Array
has a fixed size ?
A) IsFixedSize
B) IsStatic
C) Length
______________
Set P
*SLRPK174D*
-3-
SLR-PK 174D
Seat
No.

Marks : 40
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Attempt all the questions.
2. Draw appropriate diagrams and discuss the various components of the .NET platform
and the architecture of .NET framework.
10
3. A) Write a note on messagebox, msgbox and inputbox with example.
10
OR
B) Explain multiple catch blocks in structured error handling with a program.
4. Attempt any four questions :
10
20
1) Explain access modifiers supported in VB.net.

2) Explain string functions with example.
3) Explain CLR and its component.
4) Differentiate function and subroutine.
5) Write a program to current display date and time.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 174D
*SLRPK174D*
Seat
No.
Set

Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 10
1.
I) Which of the following operator uses short-circuit evaluation to conditionally return

one of two values ?
A) If
B) Await
C) GetType
II) Which of the following property of Array class in VB.NET checks whether the Array
has a fixed size ?
A) IsFixedSize
B) IsStatic
C) Length
III) Which of the following access modifier specifies that the type is covariant ?
A) NotOverridable
B) Optional
C) Out
D) Overloads
IV) Which of the following statement declares and defines one or more constants ?
A) Dim
B) Const
C) Enum
D) Class
V) The Button control can be activated

D) Both a and b
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174D
*SLRPK174D*
-2-
VI) Which does the solution explorer not display ?

A) Form Properties
B) Reference Folder
C) Form File
D) Assemble File
VII) Which is an example of Visual Basic Objects ?

A) Control objects
B) ASP.NET
C) ADO.NET
D) All of the above
VIII) Which of the following access modifier specifies that an attribute at the beginning
A) In
B) Iterator
C) Key
D) Module
IX) Which of the following keyword of VB.NET is used to throw an exception when
A) Try
B) Catch
C) Finally
D) Throw
X) Which of the following access modifier specifies that an argument is passed in

A) ByRef
B) ByVal
C) Default
D) Friend
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK174D*
-3-
SLR-PK 174D
Seat
No.

Marks : 40
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

10
10
OR
10
20

_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 174D
*SLRPK174D*
Seat
No.
Set

Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 10
1.
I) Which of the following keyword of VB.NET is used to throw an exception when a

problem shows up ?
A) Try
B) Catch
C) Finally
D) Throw
II) Which of the following access modifier specifies that an argument is passed in
A) ByRef
B) ByVal
C) Default
D) Friend
III) Which of the following operator uses short-circuit evaluation to conditionally return
one of two values ?
A) If
B) Await
C) GetType
IV) Which of the following property of Array class in VB.NET checks whether the Array
has a fixed size ?
A) IsFixedSize
B) IsStatic
C) Length
V) Which is an example of Visual Basic Objects ?

A) Control objects
B) ASP.NET
C) ADO.NET
D) All of the above

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174D
*SLRPK174D*
-2-
VI) Which of the following access modifier specifies that an attribute at the beginning
A) In
B) Iterator
C) Key
D) Module
VII) The Button control can be activated

D) Both a and b
VIII) Which does the solution explorer not display ?
A) Form Properties
B) Reference Folder
C) Form File
D) Assemble File
IX) Which of the following access modifier specifies that the type is covariant ?
A) NotOverridable
B) Optional
C) Out
D) Overloads
X) Which of the following statement declares and defines one or more constants ?
A) Dim
B) Const
C) Enum
D) Class
______________
Set R
*SLRPK174D*
-3-
SLR-PK 174D
Seat
No.

Marks : 40
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

10
10
OR
10
20

_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 174D
*SLRPK174D*
Seat
No.
Set

Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Marks : 10
1.
I) Which is an example of Visual Basic Objects ?

A) Control objects
B) ASP.NET
C) ADO.NET
D) All of the above
II) Which of the following access modifier specifies that an attribute at the beginning
A) In
B) Iterator
C) Key
D) Module
III) Which of the following keyword of VB.NET is used to throw an exception when
A) Try
B) Catch
C) Finally
D) Throw
IV) Which of the following access modifier specifies that an argument is passed in
A) ByRef
B) ByVal
C) Default
D) Friend
V) Which of the following access modifier specifies that the type is covariant ?
A) NotOverridable
B) Optional
C) Out
D) Overloads
VI) Which of the following statement declares and defines one or more constants ?
A) Dim
B) Const
C) Enum
D) Class
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 174D
*SLRPK174D*
-2-
VII) Which of the following operator uses short-circuit evaluation to conditionally return
one of two values ?
A) If
B) Await
C) GetType
VIII) Which of the following property of Array class in VB.NET checks whether the Array
has a fixed size ?
A) IsFixedSize
B) IsStatic
C) Length
IX) The Button control can be activated

D) Both a and b
X) Which does the solution explorer not display ?
A) Form Properties
B) Reference Folder
C) Form File
D) Assemble File
______________
Set S
*SLRPK174D*
-3-
SLR-PK 174D
Seat
No.

Marks : 40
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

10
10
OR
10
20

_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 175
*SLRPK175*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2016
POWER ELECTRONICS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

5) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) A converter which can operate as 6-pulse converter is a

a) 3-phase half wave
b) 3-phase full-converter
c) 1-phase semiconverter
d) Both a & c
2) In single phase fully controlled converter with resistive load RMS value of output voltage
a)
Vm
b)
Vm
(1 cos D )
S
c) 0.707 Vm
d) Both a & c
3) A six pulse thyristorized fully controlled rectifier is connected to a 3O 440 V, 60 Hz ac source.

Output ripple frequency will be
a) 120 Hz
b) 180 Hz
c) 240 Hz
4) In single phase fully controlled bridge converter with inductive load if

voltage is
a) 2
Vm
S
b) 0.636 Vm
c)
Vm
d) 360 Hz
D = 90 then average dc
d) 0
5) In ________ chopper load current is always negative and load voltage is positive.
a) Class C
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Both a & b
6) A step up chopper has input voltage of 200 V and output voltage of 600 V, duty cycle of chopper is
a) 0.0667
b) 0.667
c) 66.7%
d) Both b & c
7) The commutating components of Jones Chopper are L & C then highest permissible turn off time is
a)
LC
b) LC
c)
L
C
d)
L
C
8) In three phase full converter PIV across any thyristor is

a)
2 VLine
b)
3 VLine
c) 1.22 Vm
d) Both a & b
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 175
*SLRPK175*
-2-
9) In thyristor dc chopper _________ type of commutation results in best performance.

a) Natural commutation
b) Current commutation
c) Load commutation
d) Voltage commutation
10) A three phase full converter operating with three phase 410 V, 50 Hz. The IL is continuous & ripple
free is equal to 120 A. output RMS current is
a) 69.28 A
b) 40
c) 240
d) 120
11) In _________ inverter output frequency is independent of commutating component but depends
upon triggering frequency of thyristors.
a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Improved series inverter
d) Both b & c
12) A single phase bridge inverter has dc input voltage Vs = 50 V. Then amplitude of square wave is
a) 50 V
b) 25 V
c) 100 V
d) 50 /
c) 36 SCRs
d) 18 SCRs
13) Using PWM control method

a) Lower order harmonics can be minimized
b) Higher order harmonics can be increased
c) Both a & b
d) Input voltage is controlled
14) A three phase 6-pulse cycloconverter uses
a) 6 SCRs
b) 12 SCRs
15) In three phase 180 conduction mode

a) At any instant of time three thyristors are ON
b) Triplen harmonics are absent
c) No possibility of short circuit
d) Both a & b
16) Power factor can be corrected by
a) Overexcited synchronous motor
b) Capacitive power factor corrector
c) Static VAR compensator
d) All above
17) The number of thyristors required for single phase midpoint cycloconverters and three phase three
pulse cycloconverters
a) 8, 36
b) 8, 6
c) 4, 18
d) 8, 18
18) A cycloconverters is a
a) Frequency changer
b) Phase angle changer
c) Amplitude changer
d) Both b & c
19) Speed control of DC motor can be obtained from

a) Chopper
b) Controlled rectifier
c) Inverter
d) Both a & b
20) In armature voltage control method using dc choppers if chopping frequency increases, then motor
speed
a) Decreases
c) Remains constant
b) Increases
d) Independent of chopping frequency
______________
Set P
*SLRPK175*
SLR-PK 175
-3-
Seat
No.

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
1) Explain working of Class D chopper with suitable circuit diagram.

2) What is dual converter ? Differentiate between two mode of dual converter.
3) Explain principle of step down chopper circuit. Derive an expression for output voltage in terms of
duty cycle. Sketch associated waveforms.
4) Explain the working of single phase half wave controlled rectifier with RLE load and freewheeling
diode. Sketch associated waveform for D = 30.
5) A three phase semiconverter is operated from 3M 400 V, 50 Hz mains supply and delivers power to
sufficiently large inductive load having resistance of 10 : . If it is required that average output
voltage should be 50% of maximum possible output. Calculate
a) Firing angle
b) I dc
c) Ratings of SCRs.
(28=16)
1) Explain microcontroller based firing scheme for three phase controlled rectifier with flow chart.
2) Explain working of Morgans chopper circuit with associated voltage and current waveform.
3) Explain operation of three phase fully controlled bridge converter with inductive load. Derive an
expression for average load voltage. Sketch associated waveforms for D = 0.
SECTION II
(46=24)
1) Explain operation of single phase half bridge IGBT based voltage source inverter with inductive
load. Sketch associated waveforms.
2) Explain harmonics reduction techniques using transformer connection.
3) Explain working of single phase midpoint cycloconverter with resistive load. The frequency is
fo/fs = 1/4. Sketch associated waveforms.
4) Explain working of three phase PWM inverter for AC drives.
5) Explain various schemes of speed control of dc motor.
Set P
SLR-PK 175
-4-
*SLRPK175*
(28=16)
1) What is power factor corrector ? Explain different methods for improvement of power factor
corrector.
2) With neat circuit diagram and appropriate waveforms explain working of series resonant inverter
with highly inductive load.
3) Explain operation of microcontroller based four quadrant AC drive with help suitable block diagram
and flow chart.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 175
*SLRPK175*
Seat
No.
Set
POWER ELECTRONICS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

d) All above
a) 8, 36
b) 8, 6
c) 4, 18
d) 8, 18
d) Both b & c

a) Chopper
c) Inverter
d) Both a & b
speed
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant

d) Both a & c
a)
Vm
2
b)
Vm
(1 cos D )
S
c) 0.707 Vm
d) Both a & c

a) 120 Hz
b) 180 Hz
c) 240 Hz
d) 360 Hz
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 175
*SLRPK175*
-2-

voltage is
a) 2
Vm
S
b) 0.636 Vm
c)
Vm
d) 0
a) Class C
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Both a & b
a) 0.0667
b) 0.667
c) 66.7%
d) Both b & c
a)
LC
b) LC
c)
L
C
d)
L
C

a)
2 VLine
b)
c) 1.22 Vm
3 VLine
d) Both a & b

c) Load commutation
a) 69.28 A
b) 40
c) 240
d) 120
a) Parallel
b) Series
d) Both b & c
a) 50 V
b) 25 V
c) 100 V
d) 50 /
c) 36 SCRs
d) 18 SCRs

c) Both a & b
a) 6 SCRs
b) 12 SCRs

d) Both a & b
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK175*
SLR-PK 175
-3-
Seat
No.

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)

a) Firing angle
b) I dc
c) Ratings of SCRs.
(28=16)
SECTION II
(46=24)
Set Q
SLR-PK 175
-4-
*SLRPK175*
(28=16)
corrector.
and flow chart.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 175
*SLRPK175*
Seat
No.
Set
POWER ELECTRONICS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Parallel
b) Series
d) Both b & c
a) 50 V
b) 25 V
c) 100 V
d) 50 /
c) 36 SCRs
d) 18 SCRs

c) Both a & b
a) 6 SCRs
b) 12 SCRs

d) Both a & b
d) All above
a) 8, 36
b) 8, 6
c) 4, 18
d) 8, 18
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 175
*SLRPK175*
-2-
d) Both b & c

a) Chopper
c) Inverter
d) Both a & b
speed
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant

d) Both a & c
a)
Vm
b)
Vm
(1 cos D )
S
c) 0.707 Vm
d) Both a & c
13) A six pulse thyristorized fully controlled rectifier is connected to a 3 O 440 V, 60 Hz ac source.
a) 120 Hz
b) 180 Hz
c) 240 Hz
voltage is
a) 2
Vm
S
b) 0.636 Vm
c)
d) 360 Hz
Vm
d) 0
a) Class C
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Both a & b
a) 0.0667
b) 0.667
c) 66.7%
d) Both b & c
a)
LC
b) LC
c)
L
C
d)
L
C

a)
2 VLine
b)
3 VLine
c) 1.22 Vm
d) Both a & b

c) Load commutation
a) 69.28 A
b) 40
c) 240
______________
d) 120
Set R
*SLRPK175*
SLR-PK 175
-3-
Seat
No.

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)

a) Firing angle
b) I dc
c) Ratings of SCRs.
(28=16)
SECTION II
(46=24)
Set R
SLR-PK 175
-4-
*SLRPK175*
(28=16)
corrector.
and flow chart.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 175
*SLRPK175*
Seat
No.
Set
POWER ELECTRONICS

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 0.0667
b) 0.667
c) 66.7%
d) Both b & c
a)
LC
b) LC
c)
L
C
d)
L
C

a)
2 VLine
b)
3 VLine
c) 1.22 Vm
d) Both a & b

c) Load commutation
a) 69.28 A
b) 40
c) 240
d) 120

a) Parallel
b) Series
d) Both b & c
a) 50 V
b) 25 V
c) 100 V
d) 50 /

c) Both a & b
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 175
*SLRPK175*
-2-

a) 6 SCRs
b) 12 SCRs
c) 36 SCRs
d) 18 SCRs

d) Both a & b
d) All above
a) 8, 36
b) 8, 6
c) 4, 18
d) 8, 18
d) Both b & c

a) Chopper
c) Inverter
d) Both a & b
speed
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant

d) Both a & c
a)
Vm
2
b)
Vm
(1 cos D )
S
c) 0.707 Vm
d) Both a & c
a) 120 Hz
b) 180 Hz
c) 240 Hz
voltage is
a) 2
Vm
S
b) 0.636 Vm
c)
Vm
d) 360 Hz
d) 0
a) Class C
b) Class A
c) Class B
______________
d) Both a & b
Set S
*SLRPK175*
SLR-PK 175
-3-
Seat
No.

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)

a) Firing angle
b) I dc
c) Ratings of SCRs.
(28=16)
SECTION II
(46=24)
Set S
SLR-PK 175
-4-
*SLRPK175*
(28=16)
corrector.
and flow chart.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 176
*SLRPK176*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2016
COMPUTER NETWORKS (Old)

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. Choose correct option. (Each correct answer carries one mark)

1) Layer one of the OSI model is
a) Application
b) Physical
c) Transport
20
d) Network
2) Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device
a) Router
b) MODEM
c) Bridge
d) Repeater
3) Carrier is
a) One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of
devices
b) A continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second
signal
c) The condition when two or more sections attempt to use the same channel at the
same time
d) A collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications
service among stations attached to the network
4) The highest data rate is provided by the transmission medium
a) Coaxial cable
b) Microwave
c) Optical fiber
d) Twisted pairs
5) What is the name of the algorithm used in CSMA/CD networks in order to avoid
repeated collisions ?
a) Collision avoidance
b) Crash prevent
c) Exponential back-off
d) Exponential collisions
6) Which of the following does not have a Data-Link Layer ?
a) Router
b) Bridge
c) Repeater
d) Switch
7) Ethernet address is of ___________________ bytes.

a) 4 Bytes
b) 8 Bytes
c) 6 Bytes
d) 48 Bytes
8) What is the purpose of preamble bits in an Ethernet frame ?

a) Pre-bit counting
b) Synchronization
c) Error checking
d) Destination address
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 176
*SLRPK176*
-2-
9) Which of the following does represent 10001000 in Manchester coding ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10) What is the nominal bit rate of fast Ethernet ?

a) 1 MBps
b) 1000 MBps
c) 100 MBps
d) 10 GBps
11) Which one of the following is incorrect ?

a) Full-duplex means simultaneous transmission and reception
b) Simplex device cannot talk back
c) On a dedicated link there can only be two devices
d) Half-duplex means only half of the cable is duplex
12) The default mask for class A IP address is
a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 0.0.0.255
13) ______________ is a process of obtaining netid from IP address.
a) Masking
b) Netting
c) Sub netting
d) None of the mentioned
14) The maximum data enclosed in an Ethernet frame is
a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1500 bytes
d) 64 Kbytes
15) What is a broadcast IP address ?

a) IP address of a broadcasting host
b) IP address with all hosts bits set to zero
c) IP address with all network bits set to 1
d) IP address with all host bits set to 1
16) A dedicated physical link between two hosts is said to be
a) Simplex link
b) Duplex link
c) Point to point link d) Shared link
17) UDP uses ___________ to calculate checksum.
a) Source port address
b) Destination port address
c) Pseudo header
d) All above
18) In class B IP address _____________ bits are reserved to address hosts.
a) 12 bits
b) 16 bits
c) 24 bits
d) 8 bits
19) A packet with TTL = 0, is _____________ by the router.
a) Stored in buffer
b) Forwarded to next router
c) Discarded
20) Which of the following is not an example of forward error correction method ?
a) Parity check
b) Block parity check
c) CRC
d) Hamming code method
______________
Set P
*SLRPK176*
-3-
SLR-PK 176
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
1) List guided and unguided transmission mediums and explain each shortly.
2) Draw and explain EIA 232 D interface.
3) What are the causes of errors in information during information communication ? Discuss
various error detection techniques.
4) What are the limitations of HDLC ? Explain additional features of HDLC.
5) What are the drawbacks of static channel allocation ? Explain binary countdown protocol
for dynamic channel allocation.
3. Answer any two :
(28=16)
1) Draw layer diagram of OSI reference layer model and explain different issues handled
during data communication in each layer.
2) What is token ? Draw frame format of IEEE 802.4 LAN and explain its working. What is
logical ring maintenance in case of IEEE 802.4 LAN ?
3) Why stop_ and_ wait flow control protocol is not suitable for long distance communication ?
Explain sliding window flow control mechanism in detail. Derive the expression for finding
link utilization efficiency in case of sliding window flow control mechanism.
SECTION II
(46=24)
1) What are the advantages of UDP over TCP in data communication ? Draw the header
format of UDP and explain each field in detail.
2) What is netid and hostid ? How does the netid and hostid are different than network and
host addresses ? Find netid and network addresses of 4.23.145.90 and 227.34.78.7 IP
addresses. What is the purpose of subnetting ?
Set P
SLR-PK 176
-4-
*SLRPK176*
3) What is DNS ? Explain DNS name space and address mapping related to DNS.
4) Explain FTP neatly. What is the default port number used for FTP server in FTP session ?
5) Explain different devices used in computer networking.
5. Answer any two :
(28=16)
1) Draw the IP header format and explain each field in detail.

2) Compare between datagram and virtual circuit subnets. What is congestion over
network ? Explain leaky bucket algorithm for congestion control.
3) What is the drawback of shortest path routing algorithm ? Explain flow based routing
algorithm neatly.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 176
*SLRPK176*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) Simplex link
b) Duplex link
c) Pseudo header
d) All above
a) 12 bits
b) 16 bits
c) 24 bits
d) 8 bits
a) Stored in buffer
c) Discarded
a) Parity check
c) CRC
a) Application
b) Physical
c) Transport
d) Network
a) Router
b) MODEM
c) Bridge
d) Repeater
8) Carrier is
devices
signal
same time
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 176
*SLRPK176*
-2-

a) Coaxial cable
b) Microwave
c) Optical fiber
d) Twisted pairs
b) Crash prevent
a) Router
b) Bridge
c) Repeater
d) Switch

a) 4 Bytes
b) 8 Bytes
c) 6 Bytes
d) 48 Bytes

a) Pre-bit counting
b) Synchronization
c) Error checking
a)
b)
c)
d)

a) 1 MBps
b) 1000 MBps
c) 100 MBps
d) 10 GBps

a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 0.0.0.255
a) Masking
b) Netting
c) Sub netting
a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1500 bytes
d) 64 Kbytes

______________
Set Q
*SLRPK176*
-3-
SLR-PK 176
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
3. Answer any two :
(28=16)
SECTION II
(46=24)
Set Q
SLR-PK 176
-4-
*SLRPK176*
5. Answer any two :
(28=16)

algorithm neatly.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 176
*SLRPK176*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 0.0.0.255
a) Masking
b) Netting
c) Sub netting
a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1500 bytes
d) 64 Kbytes

a) Simplex link
b) Duplex link
c) Pseudo header
d) All above
a) 12 bits
b) 16 bits
c) 24 bits
d) 8 bits
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 176
*SLRPK176*
-2-

a) Stored in buffer
c) Discarded
a) Parity check
c) CRC
a) Application
b) Physical
c) Transport
d) Network
a) Router
b) MODEM
c) Bridge
d) Repeater
13) Carrier is
devices
signal
same time
a) Coaxial cable
b) Microwave
c) Optical fiber
d) Twisted pairs
b) Crash prevent
a) Router
b) Bridge
c) Repeater
d) Switch

a) 4 Bytes
b) 8 Bytes
c) 6 Bytes
d) 48 Bytes

a) Pre-bit counting
b) Synchronization
c) Error checking
a)
b)
c)
d)

a) 1 MBps
b) 1000 MBps
c) 100 MBps
______________
d) 10 GBps
Set R
*SLRPK176*
-3-
SLR-PK 176
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
3. Answer any two :
(28=16)
SECTION II
(46=24)
Set R
SLR-PK 176
-4-
*SLRPK176*
5. Answer any two :
(28=16)

algorithm neatly.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 176
*SLRPK176*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) Router
b) Bridge
c) Repeater
d) Switch

a) 4 Bytes
b) 8 Bytes
c) 6 Bytes
d) 48 Bytes

a) Pre-bit counting
b) Synchronization
c) Error checking
a)
b)
c)
d)

a) 1 MBps
b) 1000 MBps
c) 100 MBps
d) 10 GBps

a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 0.0.0.255
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 176
*SLRPK176*
-2-

a) Masking
b) Netting
c) Sub netting
a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1500 bytes
d) 64 Kbytes

a) Simplex link
b) Duplex link
c) Pseudo header
d) All above
a) 12 bits
b) 16 bits
c) 24 bits
d) 8 bits
a) Stored in buffer
c) Discarded
a) Parity check
c) CRC
a) Application
b) Physical
c) Transport
d) Network
a) Router
b) MODEM
c) Bridge
d) Repeater
18) Carrier is
devices
signal
same time
a) Coaxial cable
b) Microwave
c) Optical fiber
d) Twisted pairs
b) Crash prevent
______________
Set S
*SLRPK176*
-3-
SLR-PK 176
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
3. Answer any two :
(28=16)
SECTION II
(46=24)
Set S
SLR-PK 176
-4-
*SLRPK176*
5. Answer any two :
(28=16)

algorithm neatly.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 177
*SLRPK177*
S
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2016

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

1) For a GSM 900 system, Uplink Frequency = _________ MHz + Channel
Number *0.2 MHz.
a) 890
b) 935
c) 45
d) none of above
2) In a typical MAC if a station sense the carrier and start sending immediately
if the medium is idle, it follows
a) p persistent CSMA
b) l persistent CSMA
c) non persistent CSMA
d) CSMA/CA
3) In a GSM system, mobile stations and base station subsystems forms
a) NSS
b) RSS
c) OSS
d) GSMSS
4) Universal Frequency Reuse is a property of
a) GSM
b) CDMA
c) Both GSM and CDMA
d) None of above
5) A too large handoff threshold ( ) causes
a) unnecessary too many handoff
b) call drop
c) fading
d) dwell time handoff
6) How to combat co channel interference ?
a) by increasing signal power
b) by increasing distance between co channels
c) by increasing number of clusters
d) none of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 177
*SLRPK177*
-2-
7) A center excited cell uses _________ antenna.

a) Omnidirectional
b) Sector directional
c) Yagi
d) Dipole
8) In ARFCN, letter A means
a) Asynchronous b) Auto
c) Adaptive
d) Absolute
9) A GSM superframe consists of __________ multiframes.

a) 51
b) 26
c) 1236
d) 2,715,648
10) Maximum paging channels on a forward CDMA link are
a) 0
b) 1
c) 7
d) 8
11) The main advantages(s) of infra red technology
a) simple
b) cheap
c) no license
d) all of above
12) In IEEE 802.11 network, different BSS are connected by

a) AP
b) STA
c) DSS
d) All of above
13) In 802.11 network protocol stack, PMD and PLCP are the sublayers of
a) PHY
b) DLC
c) MAC
d) LLC
14) A network mobility supporting ATM switch is
a) EMAS
b) NMAS
c) RS
d) ACT
15) Which of the below is not a signal processing block in a PHY layer of a
HiperLAN2 ?
a) OFDM
b) Decimator
c) OFDM
d) Mapping
16) Which of below is a standard for WPANs ?
a) IEEE 802.11
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.15
d) WATM
17) Which of the below is low power mode of Bluetooth device ?
a) Park
b) Hold
c) Sniff
d) All of above
18) In a mobile IP, a tunnel usually ends at
a) HA
b) FA
c) CN
d) Router
19) A DHCP protocol is based on ________ model.
a) Agent discovery
b) Agent solicitation
c) Client server
d) All of above
20) Frame control filed in IEEE 802.11 MAC data frame is of _____ bytes.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
______________
Set P
*SLRPK177*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 177

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(210=20)
a) With suitable example show how cell splitting can improves capacity in a
cellular system.
b) With suitable diagram explain signal processing in a GSM system.
c) With suitable block diagram explain forward CDMA channels signal processing.
3. Solve any four :
a) Write short notes on DSSS transmitter and receiver.
b) Write short notes on classical ALOHA.
c) Draw the frame structure of GSM.
d) Discuss role of VLR in GSM security.
e) With suitable examples explain mobility and wireless connectivity.
(45=20)
SECTION II
a) Compare infrastructure network and Adhoc network.
b) Explain Protocol architecture of IEEE 802.11.
c) Explain the concept of tunneling and encapsulation for mobile IP.
5. Solve any four :
a) What are the services of WATM ?
b) Write a note on DHCP.
c) Explain snooping TCP.
d) Compare HiperLAN2 and Bluetooth.
e) Draw and explain in short-a generic WATM reference model.
(210=20)
(45=20)
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 177
*SLRPK177*
S
Set

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

a) IEEE 802.11
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.15
d) WATM
a) Park
b) Hold
c) Sniff
d) All of above
a) HA
b) FA
c) CN
d) Router

a) Agent discovery
c) Client server
d) All of above
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
Number *0.2 MHz.
a) 890
b) 935
c) 45
d) none of above
d) CSMA/CA
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 177
-2-
*SLRPK177*

a) NSS
b) RSS
c) OSS
d) GSMSS
a) GSM
b) CDMA
d) None of above
b) call drop
c) fading
d) none of above

a) Omnidirectional
c) Yagi
d) Dipole
c) Adaptive
d) Absolute
a) 51
b) 26
c) 1236
d) 2,715,648
a) 0
b) 1
c) 7
d) 8
a) simple
b) cheap
c) no license
d) all of above
a) AP
b) STA
c) DSS
d) All of above
a) PHY
b) DLC
c) MAC
d) LLC
a) EMAS
b) NMAS
c) RS
d) ACT
HiperLAN2 ?
a) OFDM
b) Decimator
c) OFDM
d) Mapping
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK177*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 177

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(210=20)
cellular system.
3. Solve any four :
(45=20)
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(210=20)
(45=20)
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 177
*SLRPK177*
S
Set

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

a) simple
b) cheap
c) no license
d) all of above
a) AP
b) STA
c) DSS
d) All of above
a) PHY
b) DLC
c) MAC
d) LLC
a) EMAS
b) NMAS
c) RS
d) ACT
HiperLAN2 ?
a) OFDM
b) Decimator
c) OFDM
d) Mapping
a) IEEE 802.11
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.15
d) WATM

a) Park
b) Hold
c) Sniff
d) All of above
a) HA
b) FA
c) CN
d) Router
a) Agent discovery
c) Client server
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 177
-2-
*SLRPK177*
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
Number *0.2 MHz.
a) 890
b) 935
c) 45
d) none of above
d) CSMA/CA
a) NSS
b) RSS
c) OSS
d) GSMSS
a) GSM
b) CDMA
d) None of above
b) call drop
c) fading
d) none of above

a) Omnidirectional
c) Yagi
d) Dipole
c) Adaptive
d) Absolute
a) 51
b) 26
c) 1236
d) 2,715,648
a) 0
b) 1
c) 7
d) 8
______________
Set R
*SLRPK177*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 177

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(210=20)
cellular system.
3. Solve any four :
(45=20)
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(210=20)
(45=20)
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 177
*SLRPK177*
S
Set

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

d) none of above
a) Omnidirectional
c) Yagi
d) Dipole
c) Adaptive
d) Absolute

a) 51
b) 26
c) 1236
d) 2,715,648
a) 0
b) 1
c) 7
d) 8
a) simple
b) cheap
c) no license
d) all of above

a) AP
b) STA
c) DSS
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 177
*SLRPK177*
-2-
a) PHY
b) DLC
c) MAC
d) LLC
a) EMAS
b) NMAS
c) RS
d) ACT
HiperLAN2 ?
a) OFDM
b) Decimator
c) OFDM
d) Mapping
a) IEEE 802.11
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.15
d) WATM
a) Park
b) Hold
c) Sniff
d) All of above
a) HA
b) FA
c) CN
d) Router
a) Agent discovery
c) Client server
d) All of above
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
Number *0.2 MHz.
a) 890
b) 935
c) 45
d) none of above
d) CSMA/CA
a) NSS
b) RSS
c) OSS
d) GSMSS
a) GSM
b) CDMA
d) None of above
b) call drop
c) fading
______________
Set S
*SLRPK177*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 177

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(210=20)
cellular system.
3. Solve any four :
(45=20)
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(210=20)
(45=20)
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 178
*SLRPK178*
S


Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1
1) A 0-100 V voltmeter has 200 scale divisions which can be read to /2 divisions.
Determine the resolution of the meter in volt.
a) 0.25 V
b) 0.025 V
c) 2 V
d) 2.5 V
2) A set of readings has a wide range and therefore it has
a) Low precision
b) High precision c) Low accuracy d) High accuracy
3) The consistency in measurement is called
a) Accuracy
b) Resolution
c) Precision
d) Expected value
4) A first order thermometer has a time constant of 50 s. It is subjected to a sinusoidal
input cycling at 0.002 Hz. The time tag of the instrument is
a) 50 s
b) 44.6 s
c) 500 s
d) 0.01 s
5) A 1 mA ammeter has a resistance of 100 . It is to be converted to a 1A
ammeter. The value of shunt resistance is
a) 0.001
b) 0.1001
c) 100000
d) 100
6) A dArsonval movement is rated at 50 A. Its sensitivity is
a) 20000 /V
b) 200000 /V
c) 3600 /V
d) none
7) Which meter has the highest accuracy in the prescribed limit of frequency range ?
a) PMMC
b) Moving iron
c) Electrodynamometer
d) Rectifier
8) In a series type of ohmmeter the zero adjustment should be done
a) By changing the value of series resistance
b) By changing the value of shunt resistance connected across the meter
movement
c) By changing both series as well as the shunt resistance
d) By changing the battery voltage
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 178
*SLRPK178*
-2-
9) The switching time of LED is of the order of

a) 1 s
b) 1 ms
c) 1 s
d) 1 ns
10) An LCD requires a power of _____________ to light up one segment of a seven
segmented display system.
a) 20 W
b) 20 mW
c) 20 W
d) 20 nW
11) In a conventional counter if counting register counts upto 1500 and the frequency
displayed is 150 kHz then the selected gate time is
a) 1 ms
b) 10 ms
c) 1 s
d) 10 s
12) In a digital frequency meter, the Schmitt trigger is used for
a) Converting sinusoidal waveforms into rectangular pulses
b) Scaling of sinusoidal waveforms
c) Providing time base
13) A triangular waveshape is obtained
a) By integrating a square wave
b) By differentiating a sine wave
c) By differentiating a square wave
d) By integrating a sine wave
14) A voltage controlled oscillator is an instrument
a) Whose frequency is dependent upon amplitude of input signal
b) Whose frequency is independent of amplitude of input signal
c) Whose frequency is dependent upon frequency of input signal
15) At frequency of oscillation, the feedback factor , in Wien Bridge oscillator
a) is real
b) is imaginary
c) is complex
d) does not change
a) To see small voltage changes in the signal
b) High time interval accuracy
c) To see the relationship of many signals at a time
d) To measure rise time of the signal
17) Intermodulation distortion
a) occurs due to nonlinearity of device
b) is same as harmonic distortion
c) is same as signal top noise ratio
d) cannot be measured
18) Data acquisition generally relates to the process of collecting the input data in
____________ form as rapidly and accurately as possible.
a) Digital
b) Analog
c) Digital and Analog
19) In Q = P/E, Q is quality, P is performance and E is
a) Error
b) Estimation
c) Result
d) Customers satisfaction
20) ISO for model for quality assurance in final inspection and test is
a) 9001 : 1994
b) 9002 : 1994
c) 9003 : 1994
d) 9003 : 1993
______________
Set P
*SLRPK178*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 178


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain LCD display with neat diagram. Give its advantages and disadvantages.
b) Derive the equation of dynamic response for 1st and 2nd order measuring
instrument.
c) What is the role of input conditioning circuit in electronic counters ?
d) Draw circuit for series type of ohmmeter and derive equations for R1 and R2.
e) Describe steps to design AF generators.
a) Explain AWG. What are the methods used to modify waveforms ?
b) What is systematic error ? Describe each one with suitable examples.
c) With the suitable diagram explain voltage to time conversion of DVM.
(210=20)
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Compare the FFT analyzer with the superheterodyne spectrum analyzer.

b) What steps are taken to reduce hum and noise in the analyzer ?
c) How is the target systems interfaced with the logic analyzer ?
d) With suitable diagram explain single channel DAS.
e) What is quality ? How is it managed ?
(210=20)
a) Draw the block diagram of logic analyzer and explain its types.
b) Explain data logger with suitable diagram.
c) With suitable diagram explain quality cost and its variation with defects.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 178
*SLRPK178*
S


Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) Digital
b) Analog
a) Error
b) Estimation
c) Result
a) 9001 : 1994
b) 9002 : 1994
c) 9003 : 1994
d) 9003 : 1993
6) A 0-100 V voltmeter has 200 scale divisions which can be read to 1/2 divisions.
a) 0.25 V
b) 0.025 V
c) 2 V
d) 2.5 V
a) Low precision
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 178
*SLRPK178*
-2-

a) Accuracy
b) Resolution
c) Precision
d) Expected value
a) 50 s
b) 44.6 s
c) 500 s
d) 0.01 s
b) 0.1001
c) 100000
d) 100
a) 0.001
a) 20000 /V
b) 200000 /V
c) 3600 /V
d) none
a) PMMC
b) Moving iron
d) Rectifier
movement
a) 1 s
b) 1 ms
c) 1 s
d) 1 ns
a) 20 W
b) 20 mW
c) 20 W
d) 20 nW
d) 10 s
a) 1 ms
b) 10 ms
c) 1 s
a) is real
b) is imaginary
c) is complex
d) does not change
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK178*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 178


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
instrument.
(210=20)
SECTION II
(45=20)

(210=20)
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 178
*SLRPK178*
S


Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
d) 10 s
a) 1 ms
b) 10 ms
c) 1 s
a) is real
b) is imaginary
c) is complex
d) does not change
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 178
*SLRPK178*
-2-
a) Digital
b) Analog
a) Error
b) Estimation
c) Result
a) 9001 : 1994
b) 9002 : 1994
c) 9003 : 1994
d) 9003 : 1993
a) 0.25 V
b) 0.025 V
c) 2 V
d) 2.5 V
a) Low precision
a) Accuracy
b) Resolution
c) Precision
d) Expected value
a) 50 s
b) 44.6 s
c) 500 s
d) 0.01 s
a) 0.001
b) 0.1001
c) 100000
d) 100
a) 20000 /V
b) 200000 /V
c) 3600 /V
d) none
a) PMMC
b) Moving iron
d) Rectifier
movement
a) 1 s
b) 1 ms
c) 1 s
d) 1 ns
a) 20 W
b) 20 mW
c) 20 W
d) 20 nW
______________
Set R
*SLRPK178*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 178


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
instrument.
(210=20)
SECTION II
(45=20)

(210=20)
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 178
*SLRPK178*
S


Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
one mark.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) 20000 /V
b) 200000 /V
c) 3600 /V
d) none
a) PMMC
b) Moving iron
d) Rectifier
movement
a) 1 s
b) 1 ms
c) 1 s
d) 1 ns
a) 20 W
b) 20 mW
c) 20 W
d) 20 nW
a) 1 ms
b) 10 ms
c) 1 s
d) 10 s
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 178
*SLRPK178*
-2-

a) is real
b) is imaginary
c) is complex
d) does not change
a) Digital
b) Analog
a) Error
b) Estimation
c) Result
a) 9001 : 1994
b) 9002 : 1994
c) 9003 : 1994
d) 9003 : 1993
a) 0.25 V
b) 0.025 V
c) 2 V
d) 2.5 V
a) Low precision
a) Accuracy
b) Resolution
c) Precision
d) Expected value
a) 50 s
b) 44.6 s
c) 500 s
d) 0.01 s
a) 0.001
b) 0.1001
c) 100000
d) 100
______________
Set S
*SLRPK178*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 178


Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
instrument.
(210=20)
SECTION II
(45=20)

(210=20)
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 179
*SLRPK179*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2016

MECHATRONICS (Elective I) (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
I) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in

II) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
III) All questions are compulsory.
IV) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
Marks : 20
1. Choose correct alternatives :
20
1) The variable frequency drive is suitable for

a) DC Servo motor
b) DC Series Motor
c) AC Motor
d) DC Shunt Motor
2) The device which provides maximum Isolation is
a) Pulse Transformer
b) Normal Transformer
c) Opto isolator
3) In PID which parameter is responsible for Oscillation ?
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO
4) The basic element of ON/OFF controller is

a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
d) Differential Amplifier
5) In PID which parameter is responsible for Maximum Overshoot ?
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO
6) Proportional band of a controller is defined as the range of
a) Measured variable to the set variable
b) Air output as the measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
c) Measured variables through which the air output varies from maximum to
minimum
7) Proportional band of the controller is expressed as
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
d) Range of control variables
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 179
*SLRPK179*
-2-
8) The term reset control refers to

a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative
9) The integral control

a) Increases the steady state errors
c) Increases the noise and stability
b) Decreases the steady state error

d) Decreases the damping coefficient
10) In a proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater

increases the offset will
a) Increase
b) Reduce
c) Remain uneffected
11) When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional
band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
12) The number of operational amplifiers require for designing of electronics PID
controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
13) Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state
response ?
a) Proportional action
b) Proportional + Integral action
c) Proportional + Differential action
d) Proportional + Integral + Differential action
14) In a PID controller, the offset has increased, the integral time constant has to be
_____________ so as to reduce offset.
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
15) In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased, the derivative time constant has
to be ____________ so as to reduce the overshoots.
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
16) For electric traction which drive is most suitable
a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
17) Actuators are interfaced with which card of PLC ?
a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
d) Power supply
18) Which sensor is self generating type ?

a) Thermocouple b) RTD
c) PT 100
d) Thermostat
19) Execution time of PLC depends on

a) Memory size
c) Power supply used for PLC
b) Ladder size
d) Number of I/O
20) The number of I/Os for micro PLC are

a) More than 8
b) Less than 4
c) More than 16
d) More than 32
______________
Set P
*SLRPK179*
-3-
SLR-PK 179
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :
I) All questions are compulsory.

II) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
15
a) Compare ON/OFF and Proportional Controller.

b) What different methods of motor control ? Explain any one in detail.
c) What are different blocks of PLC ? How PLC is interfaced with machine ?
d) Write short note on Interpolation.
3. Solve any two :
15
a) Explain Chopper as a DC drive with suitable.

b) Convert 0 to 250C into 4MA to 20 MA.
c) Draw ladder diagram for washing machine with suitable symbols.
4. Design analog On-OFF controller for following specification.
10
i) Process variable range 0 to 1200C

ii) Set point maintained at 500C
iii) Use J type thermocouple with sensitivity 51 micro V/C.
iv) Dead band +/ 1%
v) Assume suitable data.
Set P
SLR-PK 179
-4-
*SLRPK179*
SECTION II
5. Write short note any three :
15
a) Analog Sensor
b) MEMS
c) Industrial robot
d) Interfacing of actuators with system.
6. Solve any two :
15
a) Explain with neat diagram How Pneumatic Power Systems Works ?

b) What is proximity sensor ? Explain with example.
c) Compare analog sensors and digital sensors with examples.
7. Explain different components of Electromechanical system.
10
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 179
*SLRPK179*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
d) Power supply

c) PT 100
d) Thermostat

a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
d) Number of I/O

a) More than 8
b) Less than 4
c) More than 16
d) More than 32

a) DC Servo motor
b) DC Series Motor
c) AC Motor
d) DC Shunt Motor
c) Opto isolator
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO

a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 179
*SLRPK179*
-2-

a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO
minimum
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative



a) Increase
b) Reduce
band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
response ?
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK179*
-3-
SLR-PK 179
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
15

3. Solve any two :
15

10

iv) Dead band +/ 1%
Set Q
SLR-PK 179
-4-
*SLRPK179*
SECTION II
15
a) Analog Sensor
b) MEMS
c) Industrial robot
6. Solve any two :
15

10
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 179
*SLRPK179*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
response ?
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 179
*SLRPK179*
-2-

a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
d) Power supply

c) PT 100
d) Thermostat

a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
d) Number of I/O

a) More than 8
b) Less than 4
c) More than 16
d) More than 32

a) DC Servo motor
b) DC Series Motor
c) AC Motor
d) DC Shunt Motor
c) Opto isolator
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO

a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO
minimum
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative



a) Increase
b) Reduce
______________
Set R
*SLRPK179*
-3-
SLR-PK 179
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
15

3. Solve any two :
15

10

iv) Dead band +/ 1%
Set R
SLR-PK 179
-4-
*SLRPK179*
SECTION II
15
a) Analog Sensor
b) MEMS
c) Industrial robot
6. Solve any two :
15

10
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 179
*SLRPK179*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

minimum
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative



a) Increase
b) Reduce
band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 179
*SLRPK179*
-2-

controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
response ?
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
d) Power supply

c) PT 100
d) Thermostat

a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
d) Number of I/O

a) More than 8
b) Less than 4
c) More than 16
d) More than 32

a) DC Servo motor
b) DC Series Motor
c) AC Motor
d) DC Shunt Motor
c) Opto isolator
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO

a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO
______________
Set S
*SLRPK179*
-3-
SLR-PK 179
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
15

3. Solve any two :
15

10

iv) Dead band +/ 1%
Set S
SLR-PK 179
-4-
*SLRPK179*
SECTION II
15
a) Analog Sensor
b) MEMS
c) Industrial robot
6. Solve any two :
15

10
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 180
*SLRPK180*
S

Elective I : IMAGE PROCESSING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

1) What is image ?
A) Picture
B) Matrix of pixel
C) Collection of pixel
D) All of these
2) _________ in an image crisis typically from electrical or electromechanical interface doing image
acquisition.
A) Low contrast
B) Periodic noise
C) Salt noise
D) None of these
3) An image is considered to be a function of a (x, y) where a represents
A) Height of image
B) Width of image
C) Amplitude of image
D) Resolution of image
4) The 4 bit image has __________ gray levels.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16
5) The city block distance between P and Q is defined as __________ where (x, y) and (s, t) are
co-ordinates of P and D respectively.
A)
C)
B)
N
D) None of these
6) When an image of size N N with 256 gray levels is displayed with 16 gray levels it introduces the
effect of
A) Checker bound pattern
B) False contouring
C) Darkness
D) None of these
7) The range of values spanned by the gray level is called _________ if image.
A) Spread
B) Histogram
C) Dynamic range
D) Region
8) Which is the image processing technique used to improve the quality of image for human viewing ?
A) Compression
B) Restoration
C) Enhancement
D) Analysis
9) A biometrics may be
A) Fingerprint images
B) Satellite images
C) Computer vision
D) None
10) The initial step in any image processing technique is
A) Masking
B) Normalization
C) Image acquisition D) Segmentation
11) Frequency domain refers
A) Its processing techniques are based on modifying the Fourier transform of an image
B) Its processing techniques are based on modifying the Laplace transform of an image
C) A) and B)
D) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 180
*SLRPK180*
-2-
12) Smoothing spatial filters are used for

A) Blurring
B) Noise reduction
C) A) and B)
D) None
13) __________ should be serious consideration prior to the use of derivatives in applications where
noise is likely to be present.
A) Image smoothing
B) Image compression
C) Image enhancement
14) What is spatial resolution ?
A) Its the largest discernible detail in an image
B) Its the smallest discernible detail in an image
C) A) and B)
D) None
15) Image negatives a gray level transformation is defined as
A) s = L I r
B) s = L r
C) s = r I L
D) None
16) Below figure shows
A) Euler number (E) : E = 0

C) Euler number (E) : E = 1
B) Euler number (E) : E = 1

17) This is a
A) Prewitt edge detection gradient mask

C) Roberts edge detection gradient mask
B) Sobel edge detection gradient mask

18) Region-based segmentation (Unseeded region growing)

A) Disadvantage : slow speed
B) Disadvantage : high speed
C) Disadvantage : slow capture
19) Why we focus on a boundary ?
A) The boundary is a good representation of an object shape and also requires a few memory
B) The boundary is a poor representation of an object shape and also requires a few memory
C) The boundary is a good representation of an object shape and also requires a high memory
20) ____________ represent an object boundary by a connected sequence of straight line segments of
specified length and direction.
A) Hex codes
B) Chain codes
C) Binary codes
______________
Set P
*SLRPK180*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 180

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :
20
a) Define 4 and 8 neighbours of pixels.

b) What are separable image transforms ?
c) Explain histogram.
d) Name the different types of derivatives filters.
e) What is contrast stretching ?
3. Attempt any 2 :
20
a) Consider the image segment shown : 3 1 2 1 (q) 2 2 0 2 1 2 1 1 (p) 1 0 1 2 1. Let V = {0, 1} and
compute the lengths of shortest 4-path, 8-path, m-path between p and q.
b) Differentiate between spatial domain enhancement and frequency domain enhancement.
c) Explain discrete cosine transform and its properties.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :
a) What is a signature ?
20
b) What is global, local and dynamic or adaptive threshold ?

c) Explain region growing.
d) Describe Fourier descriptors.
e) What are different Compression Methods ?
5. Attempt any 2 :
20
a) With the mathematical formulation explain the various regional descriptors.

b) Explain with block diagram the lossless predictive coding model used in image compression.
c) Illustrate with suitable examples how are gradient operators used for detection of edges in medical
images.
________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 180
*SLRPK180*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20



2) This is a



P.T.O.
SLR-PK 180
*SLRPK180*
-2-

A) Hex codes
B) Chain codes
C) Binary codes
6) What is image ?
A) Picture
B) Matrix of pixel
D) All of these
acquisition.
A) Low contrast
B) Periodic noise
C) Salt noise
D) None of these
A) Height of image
B) Width of image
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16
A)
C)
B)

D) None of these
effect of
B) False contouring
C) Darkness
D) None of these
A) Spread
B) Histogram
C) Dynamic range
D) Region
A) Compression
B) Restoration
C) Enhancement
D) Analysis
A) Fingerprint images B) Satellite images
C) Computer vision
D) None
A) Masking
B) Normalization
C) A) and B)
D) None
A) Blurring
B) Noise reduction
C) A) and B)
D) None
A) Image smoothing
C) A) and B)
D) None
A) s = L I r
B) s = L r
C) s = r I L
______________
D) None
Set Q
*SLRPK180*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 180

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :
20

3. Attempt any 2 :
20
SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :
20

5. Attempt any 2 :
20

images.
________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 180
*SLRPK180*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

C) A) and B)
D) None
A) Blurring
B) Noise reduction
C) A) and B)
D) None
A) Image smoothing
C) A) and B)
D) None
A) s = L I r
B) s = L r
C) s = r I L
D) None


P.T.O.
SLR-PK 180
*SLRPK180*
-2-
7) This is a



A) Hex codes
B) Chain codes
C) Binary codes
11) What is image ?
A) Picture
B) Matrix of pixel
D) All of these
acquisition.
A) Low contrast
B) Periodic noise
C) Salt noise
D) None of these
A) Height of image
B) Width of image
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16
A)
C)
B)
N
D) None of these
effect of
B) False contouring
C) Darkness
D) None of these
A) Spread
B) Histogram
C) Dynamic range
D) Region
A) Compression
B) Restoration
C) Enhancement
D) Analysis
A) Fingerprint images B) Satellite images
C) Computer vision
D) None
A) Masking
B) Normalization
______________
Set R
*SLRPK180*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 180

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :
20

3. Attempt any 2 :
20
SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :
20

5. Attempt any 2 :
20

images.
________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 180
*SLRPK180*
S

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

effect of
B) False contouring
C) Darkness
D) None of these
A) Spread
B) Histogram
C) Dynamic range
D) Region
A) Compression
B) Restoration
C) Enhancement
D) Analysis
A) Fingerprint images
B) Satellite images
C) Computer vision
D) None
A) Masking
B) Normalization
C) A) and B)
D) None
A) Blurring
B) Noise reduction
C) A) and B)
D) None
A) Image smoothing
C) A) and B)
D) None
A) s = L I r
B) s = L r
C) s = r I L
D) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 180
*SLRPK180*
-2-


12) This is a



A) Hex codes
B) Chain codes
C) Binary codes
16) What is image ?
A) Picture
B) Matrix of pixel
D) All of these
acquisition.
A) Low contrast
B) Periodic noise
C) Salt noise
D) None of these
A) Height of image
B) Width of image
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16
A)
C)

B)
N
D) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK180*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 180

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :
20

3. Attempt any 2 :
20
SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :
20

5. Attempt any 2 :
20

images.
________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 181
*SLRPK181*
S
Set
t
B.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2016

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) In three phase controlled bridge rectifier with resistive load at a firing angle of alpha = 30. The
average value of current flowing in the load is 20 A, if a very large inductance is connected in the
load circuit, then the average value of current will
a) Become less than 20 A
b) Remains 20 A

c) Greater than 20 A
d)
!
2) In six pulse converter if LS is source inductance then output dc voltage due to overlap angle is
a)
b) 6fLSIdc
d
S
c)
d)
d
S
3) A converter which can operate as both 3-pulse and 6-pulse converter is a

d) 3-phase full-converter
4) Class C chopper
a) Formed by combining Class A and B chopper b) Load current is always positive
c) Load voltage is positive or negative
d) Both b) and c)
5) Morgans chopper
a) Is an example of load commutation
c) Is an example of current commutation
b) Is an example of voltage commutation

d) Both a) and b)
6) In three phase fully controlled converter average maximum output voltage for continuous conduction
mode is
a)
3
b)
m
c)
3
d)
m
7) The fundamental rms phase voltage delivered by cycloconverter is

a)
b)
m
c)
d)
m

s

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 181
*SLRPK181*
-2-
8) The number of SCRs required for single phase midpoint cycloconverter and three phase to single
phase 3-pulse cycloconveter is
a) 4, 6
b) 4, 18 SCRs
c) 4, 36
d) 8, 12
9) The power electronic converter shown in the above figure has a single-pole double throw switch.
The pole P of the switch is connected alternately to throws A and B. The converter shown is a
a) Step down chopper
b) Half-wave rectifier c) Step-up chopper
d) Full-wave rectifier
b)
d)
10) In Morgans chopper tON =

a)
c)
C
C
l
11) In single phase bridge inverter if peak reverse blocking voltage is 150 V then input dc voltage is
a) 300 V
b) 150 V
c) 150/
d) 75 V
12) In three phase bridge inverter with fundamental output frequency of 50 Hz, then frequencies of other
components in the output voltage wave, in Hz, would be
a) 50, 250, 350, 550, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350
d) 50 Hz
13) Variable voltage and variable frequency supply for speed control of induction motor is made available using
a) Cycloconverter
b) Inverter
c) Rectifier
d) Both a) and b)
14) In armature voltage control method using dc choppers if chopping frequency increases, then motor speed
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
15) In half bridge series resonant inverter
a) Power flow from DC source is continuous
b) Power flow from DC source is discontinuous
c) Firing of one thyristor results turning off of other conducting thyristor
d) Both a) and c)
16) Variable speed control using stator voltage control are normally
a) Open loop system
b) Closed loop system c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
17) The single phase half bridge inverter has resistive load of 5
100 V. Then rms value of output voltage is
a) 67.88
b) 70.71
c) 50
d) 100
and center tapped dc input voltage is
18) In _______ inverter output frequency is dependents of commutating component and load parameters.
a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Modified parallel inverter
d) Both a) and c)
19) In single pulse modulation of PWM inverter, nth harmonic can be eliminated if pulse width is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
n

n
20) Power factor of synchronous motor can be leading by adjusting its

a) Speed
b) Supply voltage
c) Excitation
______________
d) Supply frequency
Set P
*SLRPK181*
S
SLR-PK 181
-3-

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(46=24)
1) Explain working of step-down chopper. Derive an expression for output voltage in terms of duty
cycle and effective input resistance.
2) Describe the effect of source inductance on the performance of three phase full controlled rectifier.
3) What is cyclomultiplier ? Explain working of single phase cyclomultiplier. Sketch associated
waveforms.
4) Explain the working of current commutated chopper with circuit diagram and necessary waveforms.
5) A three phase to single phase 3 pulse cycloconverter is supplied from delta star transformer with per
phase turns ratio of 3 : 1. The supply voltage 450 V, 50 Hz. The RL load have R = 3 , wL = 2 ,
firing angle = 13. Calculate
a) Fundamental RMS output voltage

b) RMS output current
c) Output power
3. Solve any two :
(28=16)
1) Describe voltage commutated chopper with associated voltage and current waveform as a function
of time.
2) Derive an expression for average output voltage and RMS voltage for three phase half wave controlled
converter for discontinuous conduction mode. Draw neat waveform for = 60, assuming purely
resistive load.
3) Explain operation of three phase dual converter. Derive an expression for circulating current and
sketch associated waveforms.
Set P
SLR-PK 181
-4-
*SLRPK181*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(46=24)
1) With suitable block diagram describe working of closed loop control of induction motor using volts
hertz control method.
2) Explain working of three phase cycloconverter drive.
3) The single phase full bridge inverter is operated from 60 V battery and is supplying power to resistive
load of 12 . Determine
i) Fundamental output voltage
ii) First five harmonics of output voltage waveform
iii) Fundamental power consumed by load
iv) RMS power consumed by load.
4) Why voltage control is essential in inverter circuit ? Explain voltage control methods by controlling
dc input voltage.
5) With neat circuit diagram and appropriate waveforms explain working of parallel inverter employing
feedback diodes.
5. Solve any two :
(28=16)
1) Draw and explain block schematic of microcontroller based four quadrant DC drive system. Also
draw and explain suitable flow chart for same scheme.
2) What is power factor ? Why it is necessary to maintain power factor to 1. Explain different
methods for improvement of power factor corrector.
3) State need of reduction of harmonics in inverters. Explain different harmonic reduction technique.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 181
*SLRPK181*
S
Set
t

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Open loop system
a) 67.88
b) 70.71
c) 50
d) None of above

d) 100
a) Parallel
b) Series
d) Both a) and c)
a)
b)
c)
d)
n
n
n

a) Speed
b) Supply voltage
c) Excitation
d) Supply frequency
b) Remains 20 A
d)
!
a)
1
b) 6fLSIdc
c)
3
d)

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 181
*SLRPK181*
-2-
9) Class C chopper
d) Both b) and c)
10) Morgans chopper

d) Both a) and b)
mode is
a)
3
b)
m
c)
3
d)
m

a)
b)
m
c)
d)
m

a) 4, 6
b) 4, 18 SCRs
c) 4, 36
d) 8, 12
b)
d)

a)
c)
C
C
l
a) 300 V
b) 150 V
c) 150/
d) 75 V
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350
d) 50 Hz
a) Cycloconverter
b) Inverter
c) Rectifier
d) Both a) and b)
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) Both a) and c)
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK181*
S
SLR-PK 181
-3-

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(46=24)
waveforms.

c) Output power
3. Solve any two :
(28=16)
of time.
resistive load.
Set Q
SLR-PK 181
-4-
*SLRPK181*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(46=24)
dc input voltage.
feedback diodes.
5. Solve any two :
(28=16)
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 181
*SLRPK181*
S
Set
t

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 300 V
b) 150 V
d) 75 V
c) 150/
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350
d) 50 Hz
a) Cycloconverter
b) Inverter
c) Rectifier
d) Both a) and b)
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) Both a) and c)
a) Open loop system
d) None of above

a) 67.88
b) 70.71
c) 50
d) 100
a) Parallel
b) Series
d) Both a) and c)
a)
b)
c)
d)
n

n
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 181
*SLRPK181*
-2-

a) Speed
b) Supply voltage
c) Excitation
d) Supply frequency
b) Remains 20 A

d)
!
a)
b) 6fLSIdc
d
S
c)
d)
d
S
14) Class C chopper
d) Both b) and c)
15) Morgans chopper

d) Both a) and b)
mode is
a)
3
b)
m
c)
3
d)
m

a)
b)
m
c)
d)
m
c

a) 4, 6
b) 4, 18 SCRs
c) 4, 36
d) 8, 12
b)
d)

a)
c)
C
C
l
______________
Set R
*SLRPK181*
S
SLR-PK 181
-3-

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(46=24)
waveforms.

c) Output power
3. Solve any two :
(28=16)
of time.
resistive load.
Set R
SLR-PK 181
-4-
*SLRPK181*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(46=24)
dc input voltage.
feedback diodes.
5. Solve any two :
(28=16)
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 181
*SLRPK181*
S
Set
t

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
mode is
a)
3
b)
m
c)
3
d)
m

a)
b)
m
c)
d)
m
c

s

a) 4, 6
b) 4, 18 SCRs
c) 4, 36
d) 8, 12
b)
d)
5) In Morgans chopper t ON =
a)
c)
C
C
l
a) 300 V
b) 150 V
c) 150/
d) 75 V
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 181
*SLRPK181*
-2-
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350
d) 50 Hz
a) Cycloconverter
b) Inverter
c) Rectifier
d) Both a) and b)
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) Both a) and c)
a) Open loop system
d) None of above
a) 67.88
b) 70.71
c) 50
d) 100

a) Parallel
b) Series
d) Both a) and c)
a)
b)
c)
d)
n

n

a) Speed
b) Supply voltage
c) Excitation
d) Supply frequency
b) Remains 20 A
d)
!
a)
1
b) 6fLSIdc
c)
3
d)
19) Class C chopper
d) Both b) and c)
20) Morgans chopper
d) Both a) and b)
______________
Set S
*SLRPK181*
S
SLR-PK 181
-3-

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(46=24)
waveforms.

c) Output power
3. Solve any two :
(28=16)
of time.
resistive load.
Set S
SLR-PK 181
-4-
*SLRPK181*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(46=24)
dc input voltage.
feedback diodes.
5. Solve any two :
(28=16)
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 182
*SLRPK182*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2016

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
1. MCQ, each correct option carries one mark.

(201=20)
1) A simple parity-check code can detect ______ errors.
A) an even-number of
B) two
C) no errors
D) an odd-number of
2) Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ______ Mbps.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10000
3) ________ is the most widely used local area network protocol.
A) IEEE 802.4
B) IEEE 802.5
C) Ethernet
D) IEEE 802.11
4) How many Hamming bits are required for 8 bit message ?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
5) An encryption is _______ layer issue.
A) application
B) presentation
C) transport
6) If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the
highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to
the Nyquist theorem ?
A) 1000 samples/s
B) 1200 samples/s
C) 500 samples/s
D) 600 samples/s
7) In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte.
A) Synchronous
B) Asynchronous
C) Parallel
D) None of above
8) In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5 and 6 are received successfully, the
receiver may send an ACK ______ to the sender.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) any of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 182
*SLRPK182*
-2-
9) A _______ connects two or more LANs of same/different types together.

A) Repeater
B) Bridge
C) Router
D) Gateway
10) _______ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits.
A) Line coding
B) Scrambler
C) Block coding D) None of above
11) The default mask of IP address 192.168.1.5 is _______
A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.255.0 C) 255.0.0.0
D) 0.0.0.0
12) In IP header if first 4 bits are 0100, it means IP version _____.
A) 100
B) 4
C) 6
13) The TCP header length is _______.
A) 20 bytes
C) 20 to 60 byte
B) 60 bytes
D) depend on data in packet
14) The logical and port address together in the Internet is called ______
addresses.
A) socket
B) host
C) server
15) An ARP request is normally ______.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
16) If ICMP message is parameter problem then it means ____.
A) IP packet is lost
B) IP header contain wrong information
C) IP packet is on wrong path
17) In shortest path routing, shortest path may be ______.
A) less delay path
B) short distance path
C) least cost path
D) all of the above
18) In software defined networking control information and data are ______.
A) mixed
B) decoupled
C) overlapped
19) DHCP provides ______ IP address assignment to the host.
A) manual
B) automatic
C) critical
20) _______ network instruction is used to check IP address of a computer.
A) Ping
B) Trace route
C) Ipconfig
_____________
Set P
*SLRPK182*
-3-
SLR-PK 182
Seat
No.

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Draw block diagram of MODEM and describe functioning of each block neatly.
2) Draw IEEE 802.4 MAC sub-layer and discuss. How IEEE 802.4 LAN functions ?
3) What are different types of error corrections and detection mechanism ? Find
Hamming code word for ASCII message 1011011 which uses even parity
during transmission.
4) What is GO_Back_N and Selective Reject mechanism for error control in
case of sliding window flow control protocol ?
5) List various networking devices. Explain working of transparent and spanning
tree bridge.
3. Answer any two :
(210=20)
1) What are the limitations of Stop_and _Wait flow control ? Explain functioning
of sliding window flow control and various parameters associated with it.
Calculate the link utilization efficiency if a transmitter works at 64 kbps,
frame size of 512 bytes for window sizes 7 and 15 respectively. Consider
propagation time of 270 mS over communication channel.
2) What are the issues considered during designing of layers in layered reference
model ? Explain issues handled in network, transport and data link layer of
OSI model.
3) Draw and explain frame format of IEEE 802.3 LAN. Compare performance of
IEEE 802.3, IEEE 802.4 and IEEE 803.5 LANs.
Set P
SLR-PK 182
-4-
*SLRPK182*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) What is three way handshake in case of TCP ? Discuss connection

establishment and connection release process in TCP.
2) Draw UDP header format and explain each field. How UDP checksum is
calculated ?
3) What are different layers in software defined networking architecture ? Discuss
software defined networking in detail.
4) What are URG, PSH and RST flags in TCP ? What is the difference between
URG and PSH flag handling ?
5) Draw ARP header format and explain each field in detail.
5. Answer any two :
(210=20)
1) Draw IP header format and explain significance of each field in detail.

2) What are static and dynamic routing algorithms ? Discuss working principle
of flow based routing.
3) What is socket ? Draw flowchart and step by step implementation of TCP
client and TCP server.
Describe functioning of ping, ipconfig network commands.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 182
*SLRPK182*
Seat
No.
Set

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

A) less delay path
C) least cost path
D) all of the above
A) mixed
B) decoupled
C) overlapped
A) manual
B) automatic
C) critical
A) Ping
B) Trace route
C) Ipconfig
B) two
C) no errors
D) an odd-number of
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 182
-2-
*SLRPK182*

A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10000
A) IEEE 802.4
B) IEEE 802.5
C) Ethernet
D) IEEE 802.11
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
A) application
B) presentation
C) transport
A) 1000 samples/s
B) 1200 samples/s
C) 500 samples/s
D) 600 samples/s
A) Synchronous
B) Asynchronous
C) Parallel
D) None of above
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) any of the above
A) Repeater
B) Bridge
C) Router
D) Gateway
A) Line coding
B) Scrambler
A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.255.0 C) 255.0.0.0
D) 0.0.0.0
A) 100
B) 4
C) 6
A) 20 bytes
B) 60 bytes
C) 20 to 60 byte
addresses.
A) socket
B) host
C) server
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
_____________
Set Q
*SLRPK182*
-3-
SLR-PK 182
Seat
No.

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
tree bridge.
3. Answer any two :
(210=20)
OSI model.
Set Q
SLR-PK 182
-4-
*SLRPK182*
SECTION II
(45=20)

calculated ?
5. Answer any two :
(210=20)

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 182
*SLRPK182*
Seat
No.
Set

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.255.0 C) 255.0.0.0
D) 0.0.0.0
A) 100
B) 4
C) 6
A) 20 bytes
C) 20 to 60 byte
B) 60 bytes
addresses.
A) socket
B) host
C) server
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 182
-2-
*SLRPK182*

A) less delay path
C) least cost path
D) all of the above
A) mixed
B) decoupled
C) overlapped
A) manual
B) automatic
C) critical
A) Ping
B) Trace route
C) Ipconfig
B) two
C) no errors
D) an odd-number of
A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10000
A) IEEE 802.4
B) IEEE 802.5
C) Ethernet
D) IEEE 802.11
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
A) application
B) presentation
C) transport
A) 1000 samples/s
B) 1200 samples/s
C) 500 samples/s
D) 600 samples/s
A) Synchronous
B) Asynchronous
C) Parallel
D) None of above
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) any of the above
A) Repeater
B) Bridge
C) Router
D) Gateway
A) Line coding
B) Scrambler
_____________
Set R
*SLRPK182*
-3-
SLR-PK 182
Seat
No.

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
tree bridge.
3. Answer any two :
(210=20)
OSI model.
Set R
SLR-PK 182
-4-
*SLRPK182*
SECTION II
(45=20)

calculated ?
5. Answer any two :
(210=20)

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 182
*SLRPK182*
Seat
No.
Set

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
A) 1000 samples/s
B) 1200 samples/s
C) 500 samples/s
D) 600 samples/s
A) Synchronous
B) Asynchronous
C) Parallel
D) None of above
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) any of the above
A) Repeater
B) Bridge
C) Router
D) Gateway
A) Line coding
B) Scrambler
A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.255.0 C) 255.0.0.0
D) 0.0.0.0
A) 100
B) 4
C) 6
A) 20 bytes
B) 60 bytes
C) 20 to 60 byte
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 182
-2-
*SLRPK182*
addresses.
A) socket
B) host
C) server
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
A) less delay path
C) least cost path
D) all of the above
A) mixed
B) decoupled
C) overlapped
A) manual
B) automatic
C) critical
A) Ping
B) Trace route
C) Ipconfig
B) two
C) no errors
D) an odd-number of
A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10000
A) IEEE 802.4
B) IEEE 802.5
C) Ethernet
D) IEEE 802.11
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
A) application
B) presentation
C) transport
_____________
Set S
*SLRPK182*
-3-
SLR-PK 182
Seat
No.

COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45 = 20)
tree bridge.
3. Answer any two :
(210 = 20)
OSI model.
Set S
SLR-PK 182
-4-
*SLRPK182*
SECTION II
(45 = 20)

calculated ?
5. Answer any two :
(210 = 20)

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 183
*SLR-PK-183*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (New) (Part I) Examination, 2016

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) RFCOMM in a Bluetooth Protocol Stack is a ___________ Interface.
a) Host Controller
b) Link Control
c) Serial Line
d) Radio Frequency
2) A CDMA phone is an example of ___________ device.
a) Mobile
b) Wireless
c) Mobile and Wireless
d) ad hoc
3) Find odd man out from group AMPS, UMTS, CDMA, BPRN
a) AMPS
b) UMTS
c) CDMA
d) BPRN
a) AP
b) STA
c) DSS
d) All of above
5) Frame control filed in IEEE 802.11 MAC data frame is of ________ bytes.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
a) HA
b) FA
c) CN
d) Router
7) If N is cluster size, 1/N is
a) Frequency reuse factor
c) No of channels
b) Capacity
d) None of above
8) A too large handoff threshold () causes

a) Unnecessary too many handoff
b) Call drop
c) Fading
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 183
*SLR-PK-183*
-2-
9) HLR and VLR data bases are maintained by

a) NSS
b) RSS
c) AUC
10) Modulation scheme used in GSM is
a) QPSK
b) 16 QAM
c) GMSK
d) All of above
d) 0.3 GMSK
11) In a FHSS time spent on each channel is _________ time.

a) dwell
b) channel
c) hop
d) stay in
12) In a GSM frame time slot, out of 577 S, guard space is _________ S.
a) 28
b) 14.8
c) 30.5
d) 32.4
13) Which of below is true for a Walsh Code ?
a) They are orthogonal
b) They are used in CDMA
c) Their inner product with self is maximum
d) All of above
14) _________ range covers maximum geographical range of all.
a) Transmission b) Detection
c) Interference
d) Handover
15) Training sequence and Equalization are solutions for _________ interference.
a) Inter symbol
b) Co channel
c) Adjacent channel
d) Noise
16) The main advantage(s) of infra red technology
a) Simple
b) Cheap
c) No license
d) All of above
a) PHY
b) DLC
c) MAC
d) LLC
18) In a GSM system, handover between BTS belonging to the same BSC are
handled by
a) BTS
b) BSC
c) BTS
d) Mobile station
19) The smallest inter frame spacing in MAC of 802.11 is
a) DIFS
b) PIFS
c) SIFS
d) QIFS
20) Take odd man out : tunneling, encapsulation, decapsulation, registration

a) Tunneling
b) Encapsulation c) Decapsulation d) Registration
______________
Set P
*SLR-PK-183*
-3-
SLR-PK 183
Seat
No.

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Compare slotted ALOHA and classic ALOHA.
10
b) Derive an expression for S/I ratio and N (cluster size). With suitable example
explain how this expression is used by a design engineer to plan cellular
architecture.
10
OR
c) With suitable diagram explain GSM time frame of 4.615 ms and a time slot of
10
577 S.
3. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Describe different Dedicated Control Channels in GSM.

b) With suitable diagram and example create/generate a PN sequence using
linear shift registers.
c) Compare CDMA and GSM for technical features and market (commercial)
features.
d) Compare fixed and dynamic channel assignment strategy in cellular
communication.
e) Sketch and discuss FHSS transmitter.
Set P
SLR-PK 183
-4-
*SLR-PK-183*
SECTION II
4. a) Elaborate radio transmission with FHSS PHY specifications and frame
structure for IEEE 802.11.
10
b) Justify use of frequency hopping is used at PHY of Bluetooth ? What are the
advantages achieved (in Bluetooth and not in general) because of frequency
hopping ?
10
OR
c) With suitable example and signal diagram, explain optimization in mobile IP. 10
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) What is tunneling ? Why it is required ?

b) With suitable example explain concept of Scatternet.
c) Show how power of nodes is managed in an infrastructure architecture of
IEEE 802.11 network.
d) Review any two application scenario of WiMax.
e) Examine different features of Bluetooth standard.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 183
*SLR-PK-183*
Seat
No.
Set

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

a) Simple
b) Cheap
c) No license
Marks : 20
(201=20)
d) All of above
a) PHY
b) DLC
c) MAC
d) LLC
handled by
a) BTS
b) BSC
c) BTS
d) Mobile station
a) DIFS
b) PIFS
c) SIFS
d) QIFS

a) Tunneling
a) Host Controller
b) Link Control
c) Serial Line
d) Radio Frequency
a) Mobile
b) Wireless
d) ad hoc
a) AMPS
b) UMTS
c) CDMA
d) BPRN
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 183
-2-
*SLR-PK-183*

a) AP
b) STA
c) DSS
d) All of above
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
a) HA
b) FA
c) CN
d) Router
b) Capacity
c) No of channels
d) None of above
b) Call drop
c) Fading
a) NSS
b) RSS
c) AUC
d) All of above

a) QPSK
b) 16 QAM
c) GMSK
d) 0.3 GMSK
a) dwell
b) channel
c) hop
d) stay in
a) 28
b) 14.8
c) 30.5
d) 32.4
d) All of above
c) Interference
d) Handover
a) Inter symbol
b) Co channel
c) Adjacent channel
d) Noise
______________
Set Q
*SLR-PK-183*
-3-
SLR-PK 183
Seat
No.

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
10
architecture.
10
OR
10
577 S.
3. Solve any four :
(45=20)

features.
communication.
Set Q
SLR-PK 183
-4-
*SLR-PK-183*
SECTION II
10
hopping ?
10
OR
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 183
*SLR-PK-183*
Seat
No.
Set

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) dwell
b) channel
c) hop
d) stay in
a) 28
b) 14.8
c) 30.5
d) 32.4
d) All of above
c) Interference
d) Handover
a) Inter symbol
b) Co channel
c) Adjacent channel
d) Noise
a) Simple
b) Cheap
c) No license
d) All of above
a) PHY
b) DLC
c) MAC
d) LLC
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 183
-2-
*SLR-PK-183*
handled by
a) BTS
b) BSC
c) BTS
d) Mobile station
a) DIFS
b) PIFS
c) SIFS
d) QIFS

a) Tunneling
a) Host Controller
b) Link Control
c) Serial Line
d) Radio Frequency
a) Mobile
b) Wireless
d) ad hoc
a) AMPS
b) UMTS
c) CDMA
d) BPRN
a) AP
b) STA
c) DSS
d) All of above
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
a) HA
b) FA
c) CN
d) Router
b) Capacity
c) No of channels
d) None of above
b) Call drop
c) Fading
a) NSS
b) RSS
c) AUC
a) QPSK
b) 16 QAM
c) GMSK
d) All of above
d) 0.3 GMSK
______________
Set R
*SLR-PK-183*
-3-
SLR-PK 183
Seat
No.

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
10
architecture.
10
OR
10
577 S.
3. Solve any four :
(45=20)

features.
communication.
Set R
SLR-PK 183
-4-
*SLR-PK-183*
SECTION II
10
hopping ?
10
OR
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 183
*SLR-PK-183*
Seat
No.
Set

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

(201=20)
a) HA
b) FA
c) CN
d) Router
b) Capacity
c) No of channels
d) None of above
b) Call drop
c) Fading
a) NSS
b) RSS
c) AUC
d) All of above
a) QPSK
b) 16 QAM
c) GMSK
d) 0.3 GMSK
a) dwell
b) channel
c) hop
d) stay in
a) 28
b) 14.8
c) 30.5
d) 32.4
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 183
-2-
*SLR-PK-183*

c) Interference
d) Handover
a) Inter symbol
b) Co channel
c) Adjacent channel
d) Noise
a) Simple
b) Cheap
c) No license
d) All of above
a) PHY
b) DLC
c) MAC
d) LLC
handled by
a) BTS
b) BSC
c) BTS
d) Mobile station
a) DIFS
b) PIFS
c) SIFS
d) QIFS
a) Tunneling
a) Host Controller
b) Link Control
c) Serial Line
d) Radio Frequency
a) Mobile
b) Wireless
d) ad hoc
a) AMPS
b) UMTS
c) CDMA
d) BPRN
a) AP
b) STA
c) DSS
d) All of above
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
______________
Set S
*SLR-PK-183*
-3-
SLR-PK 183
Seat
No.

MOBILE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
10
architecture.
10
OR
10
577 S.
3. Solve any four :
(45=20)

features.
communication.
Set S
SLR-PK 183
-4-
*SLR-PK-183*
SECTION II
10
hopping ?
10
OR
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 184
*SLRPK184*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2016
ELECTRONIC SYSTEM DESIGN

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

5) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks for that question.
Marks : 20
1. Select correct alternatives from the following :

1) In the circuit shown in the figure, uses an ideal OPAMP working with +5V and 5V power
supplies. The output voltage Vo is
a) +5V
b) 5V
c) +1V
d) 1V
2) Fuses are divided into three categories such as fast blow, slow blow and time delay
depending on
a) Current rating
b) Voltage rating
c) Response time to over current
d) Voltage and current rating
3) In the circuit shown in the fig., LED will be ON if Vi is
a) >10V
b) <10V
c) >5V
d) <5V
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 184
*SLRPK184*
-2-
4) What is the feedback factor of following circuit ?
a) 9
100
b) 9
c) 1
10
d)
1
100
5) What is the output of following circuit ?
a) 58V
b) 5.8V
c) .58V
6) Which of the following is self generating transducer ?

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) Thermocouple
d) None of these
d) LM335
7) The circuit shown below uses

b) Voltage shunt feedback

d) Current series feedback
a) 4.5 V
b) 4.5 mV
9) The main features of MOV is

a) Low cost device
c) No precise control of voltage
10) TO3 package species
a) Transistor outline package
c) Optical package
c) 4.5 V
d) None of these
b) High current capacity

d) All of these
b) Small outline package
d) J-lead package
______________
Set P
*SLRPK184*
-3-
SLR-PK 184
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Figures of right hand side indicates maximum marks for that
question.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
a) Compare centralized power and distributed power architecture with suitable diagram.
b) The power consumption of SMPS is less prove it mathematically.
c) What is Spectrum Analyzer ? Explain how its useful for product testing ?
d) Draw the circuit diagram of four channel switching and multiplexing logic.
e) What is instrumentation amplifier ? Draw the circuit diagram of it.
3. Design the following electronic product along with all component values.
20
The output voltage of the power supply is (12V) and rated current is ( 2A). This power
supply is activated from Battery of +12V, 150 AH (input).
Design the SMPS will all components values and indication for Input ON, Output ON, Lower
Load, Input reverse along with protection circuit.
Assume suitable values of Input/Output variation for protection circuit design. Draw final circuit
and BOM.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
20
a) What are different types of standards ? Give listing of standard developing organizations.
b) Draw circuit diagram of PWM using OPAMP and prepare bill of material.
Set P
SLR-PK 184
-4-
*SLRPK184*
c) Write short note structured programming.

d) What is software testing ? What is the different method of software testing ?
e) What are PCB design rules ? Explain the specific care to be taken for noise while PCB
designs.
20
a) What is design stages of hardware product ? Explain design stages of any electronic
product.
b) Give in detail algorithm for software product development process. Explain with any
suitable example.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 184
*SLRPK184*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) Low cost device

d) All of these

c) Optical package

d) J-lead package


a) 4.5 V
b) 4.5 mV
c) 4.5 V
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 184
*SLRPK184*
-2-
a) +5V
b) 5V
c) +1V
d) 1V
depending on
a) Current rating
b) Voltage rating
a) >10V
b) <10V
c) >5V
d) <5V
a) 9
100
b) 9
10
c) 1
9
d)
1
100
c) .58V
d) None of these
a) 58V
b) 5.8V

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) Thermocouple
______________
d) LM335
Set Q
*SLRPK184*
-3-
SLR-PK 184
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

question.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
20
and BOM.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
20
Set Q
SLR-PK 184
-4-
*SLRPK184*

designs.
20
product.
suitable example.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 184
*SLRPK184*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) 58V
b) 5.8V
c) .58V

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) Thermocouple
d) None of these
d) LM335

a) Low cost device

d) All of these

c) Optical package

d) J-lead package
a) >10V
b) <10V
c) >5V
d) <5V
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 184
*SLRPK184*
-2-
a) 9
100
b) 9
10
c) 1
9
d)
1
100
a) +5V
b) 5V
c) +1V
d) 1V
depending on
a) Current rating
b) Voltage rating


a) 4.5 V
b) 4.5 mV
c) 4.5 V
______________
d) None of these
Set R
*SLRPK184*
-3-
SLR-PK 184
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

question.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
20
and BOM.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
20
Set R
SLR-PK 184
-4-
*SLRPK184*

designs.
20
product.
suitable example.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 184
*SLRPK184*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

a) >10V
b) <10V
c) >5V
d) <5V
a) 9
100
b) 9
10
c) 1
d)
1
100
a) 58V
b) 5.8V
c) .58V
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 184
*SLRPK184*
-2-

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) Thermocouple
d) LM335


a) 4.5 V
b) 4.5 mV
c) 4.5 V
d) None of these

a) Low cost device

d) All of these

c) Optical package

d) J-lead package
a) +5V
b) 5V
c) +1V
d) 1V
depending on
a) Current rating
b) Voltage rating
______________
Set S
*SLRPK184*
-3-
SLR-PK 184
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

question.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
20
and BOM.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
20
Set S
SLR-PK 184
-4-
*SLRPK184*

designs.
20
product.
suitable example.
_____________________
Set S
*SLRPK186*
SLR-PK 186
Seat
No.
Set

Elective I : MECHATRONICS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) A sensor, for an input of 4V gives a digital output of a word of 8 bits. Resolution is
a) 4/8 V
b) 8/4 V
c) 4/28 V
d) 28/4 V
2) The difference of the reference input and the actual output signal is called _______
a) Error signal
b) Controlling signal
c) Actuating signal
d) Transfer function
3) A counter that starts from a specified number and increments up to maximum count is
a) Down counter
b) Cascading counter
c) Up counter
d) Reset counter
4) The output of the ladder diagram is true when
a) X0 and X3 are OFF and X2 and X1 are ON

b) X0 and X2 are ON and X1 and X3 are OFF
c) X0, X2 and X3 are OFF and X1 is ON
d) X0, X1 and X3 are OFF and X2 is ON
5) Actuators are interfaced with ________ card of the PLC.
a) Memory
b) Input
c) Output
d) Power
6) In PID controller ________ parameter is responsible for maximum overshoot.
a) KP
b) PO
c) KD
d) KI
7) With two-step control, the controller,
i) The controller variable will tend to oscillate about the set value.
ii) The output of the controller is proportional to the error.
a) Both i) and ii) are true
b) ii) is true
c) i) is true
d) Both i) and ii) are false
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 186
-2-
*SLRPK186*
8) The ladder diagram shown below is for __________ gate.
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
a) AND
b) NOR
c) OR
d) NAND
The variable frequency drive is suitable for ________ motor.
a) DC servo
b) DC series
c) AC
d) DC shunt
Execution time of PLC depends upon __________
a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
c) Power supply d) Number of I/O
_______ is used to control the operations of electro-mechanical devices especially
in tough and hazardous industrial environments.
a) Microprocessor
b) PLC
c) Microcountroller
______ is process, which makes it possible to selectively remove the deposited
films or parts of the substrate in order to obtain desired patterns.
a) Etching
b) Implantation
c) Doping
d) Evaporation
In ________ strain gauges, an electrical charge is induced in response to a
mechanical strain.
a) Piezo-electric
b) RTD
c) Piezo-resistive d) None of the above
________ converts the physical quantity such as the force or displacement into
an equivalent electrical signal in the form of voltage or current.
a) Sensors
b) Actuators
c) Transducers
d) Amplifiers
The device which provides maximum isolation is ________
a) Opto-isolator
b) Pulse transformer
c) Normal transformer
The 2s complement representation of signed number 2 is
a) 00000010
b) 11111110
c) 11111101
d) None of these
A PLC can be programmed using _________
a) Ladder diagram
b) Sequential Function Chart
c) Functional block diagram
d) All of above
Closed loop control systems are
i) More stable than open loop systems.
ii) More complex to design than open loop systems.
b) i) is true and ii) is false
c) i) is false and ii) is true
For optical encoders the ________ code is preferred over the binary code.
a) Gray
b) ASCII
c) BCD
d) Excess 3
For precise measurement, strain gauge must have the following properties
a) High gauge factor
b) Low temperature coefficient
c) High resistance
d) All of the above
______________
Set P
*SLRPK186*
-3-
SLR-PK 186
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
a) Define mechatronics. List some of the application of Mechatronics.
b) What are the advantages of PLC over a relay control system ?
c) Explain digital logic control with a block diagram.
d) Explain chopper as a DC drive with neat diagram and waveforms.
e) Explain in detail the ladder diagram programming of a PLC.
(54=20)
(102=20)
a) Draw and explain the ladder diagram and the equivalent PLC instruction and truth
table of AND, OR, NAND and NOR gates.
b) Derive a mathematical model for PI controller. Explain electronic proportional
integral (PI) controller with necessary circuit diagrams.
c) Develop a programmable ladder for motor control with two switches (A, B). When
either of two, normally open, switches has to be closed for a coil to be energized
and operate an actuator.
SECTION II
(54=20)
a) Compare the bulk micromachining and surface micromachining fabrication

processes for MEMS devices.
b) What is impurity doping ? Explain ion implantation doping of semiconductors.
c) List the advantages of LIGA fabrication process for MEMS devices.
d) What is wafer bonding ? Explain in detail fusion bonding technique.
e) Draw and explain block diagram of typical MEMS system.
Set P
SLR-PK 186
-4-
*SLRPK186*
(102=20)
a) What are the different stages in designing a mechatronics system ? Explain in

detail.
b) Explain in detail bulk micromachining fabrication process for MEMS devices.
c) What is the working principle of pneumatic actuation system ? Explain with a
neat sketch.
_____________________
Set P
*SLRPK186*
SLR-PK 186
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) The 2s complement representation of signed number 2 is
a) 00000010
b) 11111110
c) 11111101
d) None of these
2) A PLC can be programmed using _________
a) Ladder diagram
d) All of above
3) Closed loop control systems are
4) For optical encoders the ________ code is preferred over the binary code.
a) Gray
b) ASCII
c) BCD
d) Excess 3
5) For precise measurement, strain gauge must have the following properties
c) High resistance
d) All of the above
a) 4/8 V
b) 8/4 V
c) 4/28 V
d) 28/4 V
a) Error signal
c) Actuating signal
a) Down counter
c) Up counter
d) Reset counter
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 186
-2-
*SLRPK186*
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)

Actuators are interfaced with ________ card of the PLC.
a) Memory
b) Input
c) Output
d) Power
In PID controller ________ parameter is responsible for maximum overshoot.
a) KP
b) PO
c) KD
d) KI
With two-step control, the controller,
b) ii) is true
c) i) is true
The ladder diagram shown below is for __________ gate.
a) AND
b) NOR
c) OR
d) NAND
a) DC servo
b) DC series
c) AC
d) DC shunt
a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
a) Microprocessor
b) PLC
c) Microcountroller
a) Etching
b) Implantation
c) Doping
d) Evaporation
In ________ strain gauges, an electrical charge is induced in response to a
mechanical strain.
a) Piezo-electric
b) RTD
________ converts the physical quantity such as the force or displacement into
a) Sensors
b) Actuators
c) Transducers
d) Amplifiers
The device which provides maximum isolation is ________
a) Opto-isolator
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK186*
-3-
SLR-PK 186
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
(102=20)
SECTION II
(54=20)

Set Q
SLR-PK 186
-4-
*SLRPK186*
(102=20)

detail.
neat sketch.
_____________________
Set Q
*SLRPK186*
SLR-PK 186
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) _______ is used to control the operations of electro-mechanical devices especially
a) Microprocessor
b) PLC
c) Microcountroller
2) ______ is process, which makes it possible to selectively remove the deposited
a) Etching
b) Implantation
c) Doping
d) Evaporation
3) In ________ strain gauges, an electrical charge is induced in response to a
mechanical strain.
a) Piezo-electric
b) RTD
4) ________ converts the physical quantity such as the force or displacement into
a) Sensors
b) Actuators
c) Transducers
d) Amplifiers
5) The device which provides maximum isolation is ________
a) Opto-isolator
a) 00000010
b) 11111110
c) 11111101
d) None of these
a) Ladder diagram
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 186
-2-
*SLRPK186*
a) Gray
b) ASCII
c) BCD
d) Excess 3
c) High resistance
d) All of the above
a) 4/8 V
b) 8/4 V
c) 4/28 V
d) 28/4 V
a) Error signal
c) Actuating signal
a) Down counter
c) Up counter
d) Reset counter
15)
16)
17)
18)

Actuators are interfaced with ________ card of the PLC.
a) Memory
b) Input
c) Output
d) Power
In PID controller ________ parameter is responsible for maximum overshoot.
a) KP
b) PO
c) KD
d) KI
With two-step control, the controller,
b) ii) is true
c) i) is true
The ladder diagram shown below is for __________ gate.
a) AND
b) NOR
c) OR
d) NAND
19) The variable frequency drive is suitable for ________ motor.
a) DC servo
b) DC series
c) AC
d) DC shunt
20) Execution time of PLC depends upon __________
a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
______________
Set R
*SLRPK186*
-3-
SLR-PK 186
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
(102=20)
SECTION II
(54=20)

Set R
SLR-PK 186
-4-
*SLRPK186*
(102=20)

detail.
neat sketch.
_____________________
Set R
*SLRPK186*
SLR-PK 186
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) In PID controller ________ parameter is responsible for maximum overshoot.
a) KP
b) PO
c) KD
d) KI
2) With two-step control, the controller,
b) ii) is true
c) i) is true
3) The ladder diagram shown below is for __________ gate.
4)
5)
6)
7)
a) AND
b) NOR
c) OR
d) NAND
a) DC servo
b) DC series
c) AC
d) DC shunt
a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
a) Microprocessor
b) PLC
c) Microcountroller
a) Etching
b) Implantation
c) Doping
d) Evaporation
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 186
-2-
*SLRPK186*
8) In ________ strain gauges, an electrical charge is induced in response to a

mechanical strain.
a) Piezo-electric
b) RTD
9) ________ converts the physical quantity such as the force or displacement into
a) Sensors
b) Actuators
c) Transducers
d) Amplifiers
10) The device which provides maximum isolation is ________
a) Opto-isolator
a) 00000010
b) 11111110
c) 11111101
d) None of these
a) Ladder diagram
d) All of above
a) Gray
b) ASCII
c) BCD
d) Excess 3
c) High resistance
d) All of the above
a) 4/8 V
b) 8/4 V
c) 4/28 V
d) 28/4 V
a) Error signal
c) Actuating signal
a) Down counter
c) Up counter
d) Reset counter

20) Actuators are interfaced with ________ card of the PLC.
a) Memory
b) Input
c) Output
______________
d) Power
Set S
*SLRPK186*
-3-
SLR-PK 186
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
(102=20)
SECTION II
(54=20)

Set S
SLR-PK 186
-4-
*SLRPK186*
(102=20)

detail.
neat sketch.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 187
*SLRPK187*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20
1) A continuous image is digitized at __________ points.

a) Random
b) Vertex
c) Contour
d) Sampling
2) Images quantized with insufficient brightness levels will lead to the occurrence of
a) Pixilation
b) Blurring
c) False Contours
3) What is the tool used in tasks such as zooming, shrinking, rotating, etc. ?
a) Sampling
b) Interpolation
c) Filters
4) The type of interpolation where the intensity of the four neighbouring pixels is used to
obtain intensity a new location is called
a) Cubic interpolation
b) Nearest neighbor interpolation
c) Bilinear interpolation
d) Bicubic interpolation
5) For edge detection we use
a) First derivative
c) Third derivative
b) Second derivative
d) Both a) and b)
6) Histogram equalization make image intensity changes

a) Low
b) High
c) Visible
d) Invisible
7) For line detection we use mask that is

a) Gaussian
b) Laplacian
d) Butterworth
c) Ideal
8) The process of extracting information from the image is called as

a) Image enhancement
b) Image restoration
c) Image analysis
d) Image compression
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 187
*SLRPK187*
-2-
9) Basic steps for filtering in the frequency domain

a) Fourier transform
b) Filter function
c) Inverse Fourier transform
d) All of these
a) Blurring
c) a) and b)
b) Noise reduction
d) None

a) s = L 1 r
b) s = L r
c) s = r 1 L
d) None
12) ________ should stop when the objects of interest in an application have been isolated.
a) Segmentation
b) Fragment
c) Addition
d) None of above
13) What kind of information we can use for image representation and description ?
a) Boundary, shape
b) Region
c) Texture
d) All of above
14) A chain code : 10103322
a) The first difference = 3133030
c) The first difference = 3100030
b) The first difference = 3130030

d) None of above
15) Region-based segmentation (seeded region growing)

a) Advantage : with edge connectivity
b) Advantage : with loose connectivity
c) Advantage : With good connectivity
d) None of above
16) Dilation-Morphological image operation technique is used to
a) Shrink brighter areas of the image
b) Diminishes intensity variation over the image
c) Expands brighter areas of the image
d) Scales pixel intensity uniformly
17) Which is a fundamental task in image processing used to match two or more pictures ?
a) Registration
b) Segmentation
c) Computer vision
d) Image differencing
18) What algorithm is used in fingerprint technology ?
a) Intensity based algorithm
b) Pattern based algorithm
c) Feature based algorithm
d) Recognition algorithm
19) Giving one period of the periodic convolution is called
a) Periodic convolution
b) Aperiodic convolution
c) Correlation
d) Circular convolution
20) Fourier transform of two continuous functions, that are inverse of each other is called
a) Fourier series pair
b) Fourier transform pair
c) Fourier series
d) Fourier transform
______________
Set P
*SLRPK187*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 187

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

a) Write a note on intensity level slicing.
b) What is geometric transformation ?
c) Explain singular value decomposition and specify its properties.
d) What is adjacency and different types of adjacency ?
(46=24)
3. Solve any two :

(28=16)
a) Explain Fourier transform. Discrete and continuous and give properties of Fourier transform.
b) Explain different techniques to sharpen the image in frequency domain.
c) Specify the objective of image enhancement technique. What is meant by histogram
equalization ?
SECTION II
a) What is image segmentation ? Explain line detection technique.
b) What is edge linking ? How to achieve this using local processing method.
c) What is data compression and state its types ?
d) What is the need of image compression ?
e) Explain texture and statistical texture description.
(46=24)

(28=16)
a) Explain Hough transform based edge linking.
b) With suitable example explain Fourier descriptor. What are its advantages over other
descriptor ?
c) Explain region splitting and merging technique for image segmentation.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 187
*SLRPK187*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) s = L 1 r
b) s = L r
c) s = r 1 L
d) None
a) Segmentation
b) Fragment
c) Addition
d) None of above
a) Boundary, shape
b) Region
c) Texture
d) All of above
4) A chain code : 10103322

d) None of above

d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 187
*SLRPK187*
-2-
a) Registration
b) Segmentation
c) Computer vision
c) Correlation
c) Fourier series
a) Random
b) Vertex
c) Contour
d) Sampling
a) Pixilation
b) Blurring
c) False Contours
a) Sampling
b) Interpolation
c) Filters
a) First derivative
c) Third derivative
d) Both a) and b)

a) Low
b) High
c) Visible
d) Invisible

a) Gaussian
b) Laplacian
d) Butterworth
c) Ideal

c) Image analysis
b) Filter function
d) All of these
a) Blurring
b) Noise reduction
c) a) and b)
______________
d) None
Set R
*SLRPK187*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 187

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(46=24)
3. Solve any two :

(28=16)
equalization ?
SECTION II
(46=24)

(28=16)
descriptor ?
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 187
*SLRPK187*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) Registration
b) Segmentation
c) Computer vision
c) Correlation
c) Fourier series
a) Random
b) Vertex
c) Contour
d) Sampling
a) Pixilation
b) Blurring
c) False Contours
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 187
*SLRPK187*
-2-
a) Sampling
b) Interpolation
c) Filters
a) First derivative
c) Third derivative
d) Both a) and b)

a) Low
b) High
c) Visible
d) Invisible

a) Gaussian
b) Laplacian
d) Butterworth
c) Ideal

c) Image analysis
b) Filter function
d) All of these
a) Blurring
c) a) and b)
b) Noise reduction
d) None

a) s = L 1 r
b) s = L r
c) s = r 1 L
d) None
a) Segmentation
b) Fragment
c) Addition
d) None of above
a) Boundary, shape
b) Region
c) Texture
d) All of above
19) A chain code : 10103322

d) None of above

d) None of above
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK187*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 187

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(46=24)
3. Solve any two :

(28=16)
equalization ?
SECTION II
(46=24)

(28=16)
descriptor ?
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 187
*SLRPK187*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) Low
b) High
c) Visible
d) Invisible

a) Gaussian
b) Laplacian
d) Butterworth
c) Ideal

c) Image analysis
b) Filter function
d) All of these
a) Blurring
c) a) and b)
b) Noise reduction
d) None

a) s = L 1 r
b) s = L r
c) s = r 1 L
d) None
a) Segmentation
b) Fragment
c) Addition
d) None of above
a) Boundary, shape
b) Region
c) Texture
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 187
*SLRPK187*
-2-
9) A chain code : 10103322


d) None of above

d) None of above
a) Registration
b) Segmentation
c) Computer vision
c) Correlation
c) Fourier series
a) Random
b) Vertex
c) Contour
d) Sampling
a) Pixilation
b) Blurring
c) False Contours
a) Sampling
b) Interpolation
c) Filters
a) First derivative
c) Third derivative
d) Both a) and b)
______________
Set S
*SLRPK187*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 187

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(46=24)
3. Solve any two :

(28=16)
equalization ?
SECTION II
(46=24)

(28=16)
descriptor ?
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 188
*SLRPK188*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2016

ADVANCED COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

20
1) The modes in the reflex Klystron
a) give same frequency but different transit time
b) are caused by spurious frequency modulation
c) are just for theoretical consideration
d) result from excessive transit time across resonator gap
2) If Pi is incident power Pf is forward power Pb is back power then coupling factor
(c) is given by
a) c = 10log 10Pi/Pf
b) c = 20log 19Pi/Pf
c) c = 10log 10Pf/Pi
d) c = 10log 10Pi/Pb
3) Directivity of directional coupler is measure of
a) how much incident power is being sampled
b) how well directional coupler distinguishes between forward and reverse
travelling power
c) both a and b
d) none
4) Magic Tee is used as
a) duplexer
b) mixer
c) isolator
d) both a and c
5) Wave guides can carry
a) TE mode
b) TM mode
c) Mixed mode
d) All
6) Reflective attenuation comes into being when the frequency of the wave is
a) <cut off frequency
b) > cut off frequency
c) both
d) none
7) A reflex Klystron functions as
a) Microwave Oscillator
b) Amplifier
c) Phase shifter
d) Both amplifier and phase shifter
8) A space between two cavities in two cavity Klystron is
a) Drift space
b) Free space
c) Running space
d) Normal space
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 188
-2-
*SLRPK188*
9) Magnetron is an
a) Amplifier
b) Oscillator
c) Phase shifter
d) Both phase shifter and amplifier
10) TWT is
a) Oscillator
b) Tuned Amplifier
c) Wide band Amplifier
d) Both amplifier and Oscillator
11) In Reflex Klystron oscillator the focussing electrode is at a high potential
a) True
b) False
12) The directive gain of a transmitting antenna is proportional to
a) proportional to wavelength
b) inversely proportional to wavelength
c) Proportional to square of wavelength
d) inversely proportional to square of wavelength
13) In a TWT the axial component of electric field advances along the tube
a) at a velocity that is almost equal to speed of light
b) at a velocity that is a small fraction of speed of light
c) at a velocity that is about 50% of speed of light
d) at a velocity that may be even more than speed of light
14) In a backward wave oscillator the wave
a) travelling along the line winds itself back and forth
b) processes only in forward direction
c) processes only in backward direction
d) either a or c
15) Which of the following is not the factor affecting range of radar ?
a) Transmitter power
b) Frequency
c) Temperature
d) Target cross-sectional area
16) The location of target includes _______, _________ and _________ parameter.
a) Range, angle and velocity
b) Range, temperature and velocity
c) Temperature, angle and velocity
d) Range, angle and temperature
17) Transponder converts _____ frequency to _______ frequency.
a) Uplink, downlink
b) Downlink, uplink
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
18) Tracking system is used
a) To collect data from different sensors and sends to the control earth station
b) For the determination of the current orbit and position of the space craft
c) For making changes in altitude and orbit correction
d) For controlling communication system
19) In a circular orbit the speed if revolution is ___ while in elliptical orbit it depends
on _________ of the satellite above the earth.
a) Variable, height
b) Constant, width
c) Constant, height
d) Increases, height
20) The time taken for a satellite to complete one orbit is called _______ period.
a) Perigee
b) Apogee
c) Sideread
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK188*
-3-
SLR-PK 188
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(38=24)
a) Explain construction and working of TWT (Travelling Wave Tube). State its
performance parameters.
b) Draw block diagram of Pulse radar system and explain working of each block.
c) Explain construction and working of mode magnetron. State its performance
parameters.
d) Draw and explain working of directional coupler. Derive the scattering matrix of a
directional coupler.
(44=16)
a) What is the Microwave frequency range ? State its applications.

b) Explain Phased Array Radar and Planar Array Radar.
c) Explain why oscillations are sustained in Gunn diode.
d) Write a note on FM-CM Radar.
e) Explain construction and working of IMPATT diode.
Set P
SLR-PK 188
-4-
*SLRPK188*
SECTION II
(38=24)
a) With suitable block diagrams explain earth station.

b) Describe construction and the operating principles of the semiconductor junction
laser.
c) Derive the expression for up-link and down-link design.
d) Explain working of DBS-TV receiver.
(44=16)
a) Difference between the pre assignment and demand assignment multiple

access system.
b) List the application and benefits of fiber optic cables.
c) Explain bending losses in optical fiber.
d) Explain single conversion and double conversion transponder system.
e) Explain the procedure of locating the satellite in the orbit.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 188
*SLRPK188*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

20
a) Uplink, downlink
b) Downlink, uplink
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Variable, height
b) Constant, width
c) Constant, height
a) Perigee
b) Apogee
c) Sideread
d) None of these
(c) is given by
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 188
-2-
*SLRPK188*

travelling power
c) both a and b
d) none
a) duplexer
b) mixer
c) isolator
d) both a and c
a) TE mode
b) TM mode
c) Mixed mode
d) All
c) both
d) none
b) Amplifier
c) Phase shifter
a) Drift space
b) Free space
c) Running space
d) Normal space
14) Magnetron is an
a) Amplifier
b) Oscillator
c) Phase shifter
15) TWT is
a) Oscillator
b) Tuned Amplifier
a) True
b) False
d) either a or c
b) Frequency
c) Temperature
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK188*
-3-
SLR-PK 188
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(38=24)
parameters.
(44=16)

Set Q
SLR-PK 188
-4-
*SLRPK188*
SECTION II
(38=24)

laser.
(44=16)

access system.
_____________________
Set Q
*SLRPK188*
Seat
No.
SLR-PK 188
Set

Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 20
20
a) True
b) False
d) either a or c
b) Frequency
c) Temperature
a) Uplink, downlink
b) Downlink, uplink
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 188
*SLRPK188*
-2-
a) Variable, height
b) Constant, width
c) Constant, height
a) Perigee
b) Apogee
c) Sideread
d) None of these
(c) is given by
travelling power
c) both a and b
d) none
a) duplexer
b) mixer
c) isolator
d) both a and c
a) TE mode
b) TM mode
c) Mixed mode
d) All
c) both
d) none
b) Amplifier
c) Phase shifter
a) Drift space
b) Free space
c) Running space
d) Normal space
19) Magnetron is an
a) Amplifier
c) Phase shifter
20) TWT is
a) Oscillator
b) Oscillator
b) Tuned Amplifier
______________
Set R
*SLRPK188*
-3-
SLR-PK 188
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(38=24)
parameters.
(44=16)

Set R
SLR-PK 188
-4-
*SLRPK188*
SECTION II
(38=24)

laser.
(44=16)

access system.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 188
*SLRPK188*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

c) both
d) none
b) Amplifier
c) Phase shifter
a) Drift space
b) Free space
c) Running space
d) Normal space
4) Magnetron is an
a) Amplifier
b) Oscillator
c) Phase shifter
5) TWT is
a) Oscillator
b) Tuned Amplifier
a) True
b) False
20
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 188
-2-
*SLRPK188*

d) either a or c
b) Frequency
c) Temperature
a) Uplink, downlink
b) Downlink, uplink
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) Variable, height
b) Constant, width
c) Constant, height
a) Perigee
b) Apogee
c) Sideread
d) None of these
(c) is given by
travelling power
c) both a and b
d) none
a) duplexer
b) mixer
c) isolator
d) both a and c
a) TE mode
b) TM mode
c) Mixed mode
d) All
______________
Set S
*SLRPK188*
-3-
SLR-PK 188
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(38=24)
parameters.
(44=16)

Set S
SLR-PK 188
-4-
*SLRPK188*
SECTION II
(38=24)

laser.
(44=16)

access system.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 189
*SLRPK189*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2016

AUDIO VIDEO ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

1) In lateral grooves, depth of the groove
a) Varies
c) a) and b) both
20
b) Remains constant
d) None
2) The front porch is kept ahead of the line sync pulse

a) To black out the line before the sync initiates the fly-back
b) To blank out the transient oscillations in the horizontal deflection
c) To allow the video signal to settle to a constant amplitude before the line sync
is initiated
d) None
3) The electronic tuner used in TV receiver uses ________
a) Silicon diode
b) Varactor diode
c) Germanium diode
d) High switching diode
4) The typical input impedance of TV receiver is
a) 50
b) 75
c) 175
d) 300
5) The ________ antenna is widely used with television receivers for locations of
40 to 60 km from the transmitter.
a) Turnstile
b) Loop
c) Ferrite
d) Yagi
6) Addition of two complementary equal intensity colours in television would appear
to human eye as
a) White
b) Black
c) Unsaturated white or black
d) Grey
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 189
*SLRPK189*
-2-
7) As per CCIR-B standard horizontal sweep oscillator frequency is equal to

a) 50 Hz
b) 15625 Hz
c) 25 Hz
d) 240 Hz
8) Highest video frequency of scanning, for PAL system is
a) 625 MHz
b) 8 MHz
c) 4.75 MHz
d) 5 MHz
9) Process of demagnetizing the iron and steel parts of picture tube mounting is known as
a) Convergence
b) Purity
c) Degaussing
d) Pincushion
10) A colour subcarrier is so chosen that
a) It is an odd multiple of the half line frequency
b) It is the multiple of line frequency
c) It gives the least annoying interference dot pattern
d) b) and c)
11) In PAL system, phase of R-Y signal is changed every alternate line by ________
a) 90
b) 180
c) 270
d) 360
12) In PAL system, _________ polar modulation is used.
a) AM
b) FM
c) Positive
13) Chroma signals in PAL consist of
a) I and Q signals
c) U and V signals
d) Negative
b) R-Y and B-Y signals

d) R and B signals
14) The type of AGC used in TV receiver is

a) Simple AGC
b) Delayed AGC c) Keyed AGC
d) b) and c) both
15) The problem of _______ errors has been successfully overcome in the PAL system.
a) Differential phase
b) Brightness
c) Contrast
d) Colour
16) Slotted aperture mask is used in
a) Trintron
c) Shadow mask tube
b) PIL tubes
d) a) and b)
17) Ident pulses are generated in _______ system.

a) NTSC
b) PAL
c) SECAM
d) Both a) and b)
18) The number of active lines in a raster is

a) 480
b) 625
c) 585
d) 602
19) A trintron employs

a) Three in-line cathode beams
c) Three separate electron guns
b) A common electron gun

d) a) and b)
20) The aspect ratio used in TV system is

a) 1 : 2
b) 3 : 4
c) 4 : 3
d) 16 : 9
______________
Set P
*SLRPK189*
-3-
SLR-PK 189
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(44=16)
a) How interlaced error is measured ? Sketch line details of 1st and 2nd field.
b) Define multimedia. What are its elements ? What are its applications ?
c) Why are front and back porch intervals provided before and after the horizontal
sync pulse ?
d) Define and compare luminance and chrominance signal of TV transmitter.
e) Explain different distortions observed in tape mechanism.
(38=24)
a) Describe with the help of the neat diagram, tape transport mechanism. Explain the
function of capstan, pinch roller, tape guides and spools.
b) Why is compression essential in multimedia applications ? Explain MPEG in detail.
c) Explain with neat diagram working principle of Image Orthicon camera tube. List
the characteristics of camera tube.
d) With block diagram, explain functions of each block of mono-chrome TV receiver.
Set P
SLR-PK 189
-4-
*SLRPK189*
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) Explain additive and subtractive colour mixing.

b) Describe PIL picture tube with neat diagram.
c) What are the drawbacks of NTSC system ? How those are removed in PAL
system ?
d) What is phase discriminator ? How does it work ?
e) What is AGC ? What are different types of AGC ?
(38=24)
a) Explain PAL encoder with neat diagram.

b) Give elements of cable TV network. Explain block converter used in cable TV.
c) Explain working of Remote control used in TV receivers.
d) Explain in detail, working of vertical and horizontal deflection systems in TV
receivers.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 189
*SLRPK189*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20

a) Trintron
c) Shadow mask tube
20
b) PIL tubes
d) a) and b)

a) NTSC
b) PAL
c) SECAM
d) Both a) and b)

a) 480
b) 625
c) 585
d) 602

d) a) and b)

a) 1 : 2
b) 3 : 4
c) 4 : 3

a) Varies
c) a) and b) both
b) Remains constant
d) None
d) 16 : 9

is initiated
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 189
*SLRPK189*
-2-

a) Silicon diode
b) Varactor diode
c) Germanium diode
a) 50
b) 75
c) 175
d) 300
a) Turnstile
b) Loop
c) Ferrite
d) Yagi
to human eye as
a) White
b) Black
d) Grey
a) 50 Hz
b) 15625 Hz
c) 25 Hz
d) 240 Hz
a) 625 MHz
b) 8 MHz
c) 4.75 MHz
d) 5 MHz
a) Convergence
b) Purity
c) Degaussing
d) Pincushion
d) b) and c)
a) 90
b) 180
c) 270
d) 360
a) AM
b) FM
c) Positive
a) I and Q signals
c) U and V signals
d) Negative

d) R and B signals

a) Simple AGC
d) b) and c) both
b) Brightness
c) Contrast
d) Colour
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK189*
-3-
SLR-PK 189
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(44=16)
sync pulse ?
(38=24)
Set Q
SLR-PK 189
-4-
*SLRPK189*
SECTION II
(44=16)

system ?
(38=24)

receivers.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 189
*SLRPK189*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
20
a) 90
b) 180
c) 270
d) 360
a) AM
b) FM
c) Positive
a) I and Q signals
c) U and V signals
d) Negative

d) R and B signals

a) Simple AGC
d) b) and c) both
b) Brightness
c) Contrast
d) Colour
a) Trintron
c) Shadow mask tube
b) PIL tubes
d) a) and b)

a) NTSC
b) PAL
c) SECAM
d) Both a) and b)

a) 480
b) 625
c) 585
d) 602

d) a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 189
*SLRPK189*
-2-

a) 1 : 2
b) 3 : 4
c) 4 : 3

a) Varies
c) a) and b) both
b) Remains constant
d) None
d) 16 : 9
is initiated
d) None
a) Silicon diode
b) Varactor diode
c) Germanium diode
a) 50
b) 75
c) 175
d) 300
a) Turnstile
b) Loop
c) Ferrite
d) Yagi
to human eye as
a) White
b) Black
d) Grey
a) 50 Hz
b) 15625 Hz
c) 25 Hz
d) 240 Hz
a) 625 MHz
b) 8 MHz
c) 4.75 MHz
d) 5 MHz
a) Convergence
b) Purity
c) Degaussing
d) Pincushion
d) b) and c)
______________
Set R
*SLRPK189*
-3-
SLR-PK 189
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(44=16)
sync pulse ?
(38=24)
Set R
SLR-PK 189
-4-
*SLRPK189*
SECTION II
(44=16)

system ?
(38=24)

receivers.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 189
*SLRPK189*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Marks : 20
20

to human eye as
a) White
b) Black
d) Grey
a) 50 Hz
b) 15625 Hz
c) 25 Hz
d) 240 Hz
a) 625 MHz
b) 8 MHz
c) 4.75 MHz
d) 5 MHz
a) Convergence
b) Purity
c) Degaussing
d) Pincushion
d) b) and c)
a) 90
b) 180
c) 270
d) 360
a) AM
b) FM
c) Positive
a) I and Q signals
c) U and V signals
d) Negative

d) R and B signals
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 189
*SLRPK189*
-2-

a) Simple AGC
d) b) and c) both
b) Brightness
c) Contrast
d) Colour
a) Trintron
c) Shadow mask tube
b) PIL tubes
d) a) and b)

a) NTSC
b) PAL
c) SECAM
d) Both a) and b)

a) 480
b) 625
c) 585
d) 602


d) a) and b)

a) 1 : 2
b) 3 : 4
c) 4 : 3

a) Varies
c) a) and b) both
b) Remains constant
d) None
d) 16 : 9
is initiated
d) None
a) Silicon diode
b) Varactor diode
c) Germanium diode
a) 50
b) 75
c) 175
d) 300
a) Turnstile
b) Loop
c) Ferrite
d) Yagi
______________
Set S
*SLRPK189*
-3-
SLR-PK 189
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(44=16)
sync pulse ?
(38=24)
Set S
SLR-PK 189
-4-
*SLRPK189*
SECTION II
(44=16)

system ?
(38=24)

receivers.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 190
*SLRPK190*
S
Set
t
B.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (Old) Examination, 2016

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1. 1) ARM7 architecture support total ____________ interrupt sources.

a) 20
b) 30
c) 32
d) 10
2) LPC2148s maximum operating frequency is ___________ MHz.
a) 100
b) 80
c) 50
d) 60
3) The ___________ directive aligns the current location to a specified boundary
by padding with zeros.
a) ALIGN
b) AREA
c) END
d) DCD
4) Let r0 = 0 02020202 and r1=0 00009000. What will be the content of r1
after execution of instruction LDR r0, [r1], #4 ?
a) 0 00009000
b) 0 02020202
c) 0 00009004
d) 0 00008ffb
5) The ARM register _____________ is called link register.
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
6) ___________ vector is used when the processor cannot decode an instruction.
a) Undefined
b) Abort
c) Reset
d) Data abort
7) Let r5 = 5 and r7 = 8. What will be the content of r7 after execution of instruction
MOV r7, r5, LSL #2 ?
a) 20
b) 14
c) 5
d) 8
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 190
*SLRPK190*
-2-
8) In ARM _________ exception is having the lowest priority.

a) Reset
b) Supervisor c) System
d) Undefined instruction
9) In ARM7TDMI-S, D stands for
a) Debug
b) Divider
c) Difference
10) In LPC2148 ___________ pin select register is used to configure port pins
P1.1 to P1.31.
a) PINSEL2
b) PINSEL0
c) IODIR2
d) IOSET0
11) TCB stands for
a) Task Control Block
c) Task Communication Block
b) Task Condition Block

12) A ______________ is software for controlling, receiving and sending a byte

or stream of bytes from or to device.
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor d) Device Driver
13) 12C master can address ___________ other slaves at an instance.
a) 7
b) 11
c) 127
14) The CAN protocol has the __________ feature/s.
a) Multimaster
b) Message transmission
c) Communication speed
d) All of above
15) At which layer of the OSI model does the MODBUS messaging protocol
reside ?
a) Layer 5
b) Layer 6
c) Layer 7
16) Using USB up to _______devices may be connected to a single host controller.
a) 2
b) 64
c) 127
d) 256
17) CAN stands for
a) Controller Area Network
c) Control Area Network
b) Cascaded Area Network

d) Communication Area Network
18) The SPI bus can operate with a _____________ master device/s and with
__________ slave device/s.
a) Single, one
b) Single, one or more
c) Two, single
d) Two, two
19) SDA and SCL signal lines are used in ___________ communication.
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) I2C
20) USB cable has ___________ wires.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
______________
d) 4
Set P
*SLRPK190*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 190

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(64=24)
a) Explain LDM and STM instruction in detail.
b) Write an ARM ASM code to find largest number from a series of 16 bit numbers.
c) Write a short note on Device drivers.
d) Explain different addressing modes of ARM7 in detail.
e) Discuss recent trends in embedded systems.
3. Solve any two :
(82=16)
a) Explain interrupt servicing mechanisms in detail.
b) Explain design metrics used in development of an embedded system.
c) What is an exception ? Explain vector addresses and vector table.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) Define Task. Explain its states.
b) Write a short note on Semaphore.
c) Draw and explain Bluetooth protocol stack.
d) Explain embedded communication using SPI.
e) Draw and explain interfacing of LCD with ARM 21xx.
(64=24)
5. Solve any two :

(82=16)
a) Interface seven LEDs with LPC2148. Draw a neat schematic diagram and
write an embedded C program to turn ON and OFF the LEDs one by one.
(Use port pins P0.10 to P0.17).
b) Explain embedded system used in Smart Cards.
c) Explain three alternatives for RTOS to respond the interrupt.
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 190
*SLRPK190*
S
Set
t

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1. 1) Using USB up to _______devices may be connected to a single host controller.

a) 2
b) 64
c) 127
d) 256
2) CAN stands for

a) Single, one
c) Two, single
d) Two, two
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) I2C
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 4
6) ARM7 architecture support total ____________ interrupt sources.

a) 20
b) 30
c) 32
d) 10
a) 100
b) 80
c) 50
d) 60
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 190
*SLRPK190*
-2-

a) ALIGN
b) AREA
c) END
d) DCD
a) 0 00009000
b) 0 02020202
c) 0 00009004
d) 0 00008ffb
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
a) Undefined
b) Abort
c) Reset
d) Data abort
a) 20
b) 14
c) 5
d) 8
a) Reset
a) Debug
b) Divider
c) Difference
P1.1 to P1.31.
a) PINSEL2
b) PINSEL0
c) IODIR2
d) IOSET0
16) TCB stands for


a) Kernel
b) Shell
a) 7
b) 11
c) 127
a) Multimaster
d) All of above
reside ?
a) Layer 5
b) Layer 6
c) Layer 7
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK190*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 190

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(64=24)
3. Solve any two :
(82=16)
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(64=24)
5. Solve any two :

(82=16)
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 190
*SLRPK190*
S
Set
t

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1. 1) TCB stands for



a) Kernel
b) Shell
a) 7
b) 11
c) 127
a) Multimaster
d) All of above
reside ?
a) Layer 5
b) Layer 6
c) Layer 7
a) 2
b) 64
c) 127
d) 256
7) CAN stands for

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 190
*SLRPK190*
-2-
a) Single, one
c) Two, single
d) Two, two
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) I2C
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 4

a) 20
b) 30
c) 32
d) 10
a) 100
b) 80
c) 50
d) 60
a) ALIGN
b) AREA
c) END
d) DCD
a) 0 00009000
b) 0 02020202
c) 0 00009004
d) 0 00008ffb
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
a) Undefined
b) Abort
c) Reset
d) Data abort
a) 20
b) 14
c) 5
d) 8
a) Reset
a) Debug
b) Divider
c) Difference
P1.1 to P1.31.
a) PINSEL2
b) PINSEL0
c) IODIR2
d) IOSET0
______________
Set R
*SLRPK190*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 190

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(64=24)
3. Solve any two :
(82=16)
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(64=24)
5. Solve any two :

(82=16)
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 190
*SLRPK190*
S
Set
t

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1. 1) ___________ vector is used when the processor cannot decode an instruction.

a) Undefined
b) Abort
c) Reset
d) Data abort
a) 20
b) 14
c) 5
d) 8
a) Reset
a) Debug
b) Divider
c) Difference

P1.1 to P1.31.
a) PINSEL2
b) PINSEL0
c) IODIR2
d) IOSET0
6) TCB stands for


a) Kernel
b) Shell
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 190
*SLRPK190*
-2-

a) 7
b) 11
c) 127
a) Multimaster
d) All of above
reside ?
a) Layer 5
b) Layer 6
c) Layer 7
a) 2
b) 64
c) 127
d) 256
12) CAN stands for

a) Single, one
c) Two, single
d) Two, two
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) I2C
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 4

a) 20
b) 30
c) 32
d) 10
a) 100
b) 80
c) 50
d) 60
a) ALIGN
b) AREA
c) END
d) DCD
a) 0 00009000
b) 0 02020202
c) 0 00009004
d) 0 00008ffb
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
______________
Set S
*SLRPK190*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 190

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(64=24)
3. Solve any two :
(82=16)
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(64=24)
5. Solve any two :

(82=16)
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 191
*SLRPK191*
Seat
No.
Set

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION (Elective II) (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) The three levels involved in X.25 are ___________ level, link level and packet level.
a) transport
b) application
c) physical
d) session
2) Multiplexing of virtual circuits takes place at _________ layer
a) physical
b) data link
c) network
d) all of these
3) In X.25, A host connected at 56kbps and communicating with numerous remote

sites can be linked with cheaper __________ lines.
a) 18.2 kbps
b) 19.2 kbps
c) 20.2 kbps
d) 22.2 kbps
4) The interface between two functional groups is called
a) functional point
b) pointers
c) indicators
d) reference point
5) Maximum packet sizes in X.25 vary from
a) 64 bytes to 128 bytes
c) 64 bytes to 256 bytes
b) 64 bytes to 4096 bytes

d) 32 bytes to 64 bytes
6) In ___________ approach, the calling party uses address of called party

during call establishment procedure.
a) single stage
b) two stage
c) both a and b
d) none of these
7) Frame relay indicates network congestion using two flags namely __________ bits in
data frames.
a) Forward Explicit Congestion Notification (FECN)
b) Backward Explicit Congestion Notification (BECN)
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 191
*SLRPK191*
-2-
8) The maximum length of ISDN sub address is __________ digits.

a) 40
b) 55
c) 15
d) 12
9) The D channel in ISDN can support __________ calls.

a) voice
b) data
c) both a and b
d) none of these
10) I.400 series recommendations specify

a) User network interface
c) TE and TA
b) Network and Network

d) All above
11) Cell relay is data transmission services that uses _________ for transmission.
a) Data chunk of variable size
b) Data chunk of same size
c) Data packet
12) __________ is an interactive information retrieval service.
a) videotex
b) telephony
c) teletax
d) all above
13) In cell relay, the logical channels are represented as

a) Virtual Channel (VCs)
b) Virtual Paths (VPs)
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
14) The line coding technique used in B-ISDN is ___________
a) Binary coding
b) Manchester type coding
c) Coded mark inversion
d) None of these
15) In case of SONET system, the path between two successive optical transmitter/receiver
is called a
a) section
b) line
c) path
d) network
16) STS-1 frame format used in SONET or SDH uses ______ to specify line overheads.
a) 3 octets
b) 6 octets
c) 1 octet
d) 90 octets
17) The VPI field in ATM cell format at Network-Network interface uses ____ bits to define
routing information.
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16
18) ATM layer undertakes ________ function.
a) Cell multiplexing and cell de-multiplexing
b) VPI and VCI translation
c) Cell header generation and extraction
d) All above
19) In generic flow control mechanism, when Transmit flag is set to zero indicates
a) cell can be transmitted over uncontrolled connection
b) can be transmitted over controlled connection
c) no cell is permitted over both controlled and uncontrolled connections
20) Class A service in AAL protocol is specified to handle _________ bit rate.
a) constant
b) variable
c) unspecified
______________
Set P
*SLRPK191*
-3-
SLR-PK 191
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Compare between circuit and packet switching techniques for data transfer.
2) What is the purpose of control signals in the case of circuit switched networks ? Discuss
various ways of sending control signals in circuit switched networks.
3) Explain various principles of ISDN.
4) List different channels available for data transfer in case of ISDN. Explain various channel
structures in ISDN.
5) Draw and describe ISDN address structure.
3. Solve following questions :
(210=20)
1) Draw user network interface in case of ISDN and explain it in detail. What is multi-framing
in ISDN ? Discuss multi-framing in detail.
2) What is difference between frame relay and frame switching ? Draw and discuss protocol
architecture at UNI in case of frame relay.
OR
Draw and explain LAPE frame format. What is extended address in frame relay ? Draw
various address formats in frame relay.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Draw and explain B-ISDN architectural reference model.

2) How error in the ATM header is controlled ? Explain it in detail.
3) Which are the different AAL services ? Specify different features and protocols associated
with them.
Set P
SLR-PK 191
-4-
*SLRPK191*
4) Explain various ATM service categories.

5) How an ATM cell is processed in ATM switch ? Discuss need of buffers in ATM switches.
Specify different ATM switch types with reference to associated buffer.
(210=20)
1) Compare the synchronous and asynchronous mode of data transfer. Draw and explain
in detail the ATM cell format at user network interface (UNI) and network to network
interface (NNI).
2) Explain in detail AAL protocol.
3) Explain different broadband services in detail.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 191
*SLRPK191*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 3 octets
b) 6 octets
c) 1 octet
d) 90 octets
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16
d) All above
a) constant
b) variable
c) unspecified
a) transport
b) application
c) physical
d) session
a) physical
b) data link
c) network
d) all of these

a) 18.2 kbps
b) 19.2 kbps
c) 20.2 kbps
d) 22.2 kbps
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 191
*SLRPK191*
-2-

a) functional point
b) pointers
c) indicators
d) reference point

a) single stage
b) two stage
c) both a and b
d) none of these
data frames.
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) 40
b) 55
c) 15
d) 12

a) voice
b) data
c) both a and b
d) none of these

c) TE and TA

d) All above
c) Data packet
a) videotex
b) telephony
c) teletax
d) all above

c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) Binary coding
d) None of these
is called a
a) section
b) line
c) path
d) network
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK191*
-3-
SLR-PK 191
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
structures in ISDN.
(210=20)
OR
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)

with them.
Set Q
SLR-PK 191
-4-
*SLRPK191*

(210=20)
interface (NNI).
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 191
*SLRPK191*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
c) Data packet
a) videotex
b) telephony
c) teletax
d) all above

c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) Binary coding
d) None of these
is called a
a) section
b) line
c) path
d) network
a) 3 octets
b) 6 octets
c) 1 octet
d) 90 octets
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16
d) All above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 191
*SLRPK191*
-2-
a) constant
b) variable
c) unspecified
a) transport
b) application
c) physical
d) session
a) physical
b) data link
c) network
d) all of these
a) 18.2 kbps
b) 19.2 kbps
c) 20.2 kbps
d) 22.2 kbps
a) functional point
b) pointers
c) indicators
d) reference point

a) single stage
b) two stage
c) both a and b
d) none of these
data frames.
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) 40
b) 55
c) 15
d) 12

a) voice
b) data
c) both a and b
d) none of these

c) TE and TA

d) All above
______________
Set R
*SLRPK191*
-3-
SLR-PK 191
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
structures in ISDN.
(210=20)
OR
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)

with them.
Set R
SLR-PK 191
-4-
*SLRPK191*

(210=20)
interface (NNI).
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 191
*SLRPK191*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) single stage
b) two stage
c) both a and b
d) none of these
data frames.
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
a) 40
b) 55
c) 15
d) 12

a) voice
b) data
c) both a and b
d) none of these

c) TE and TA

d) All above
c) Data packet
a) videotex
b) telephony
c) teletax
d) all above

c) Both a and b
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 191
*SLRPK191*
-2-

a) Binary coding
d) None of these
is called a
a) section
b) line
c) path
d) network
a) 3 octets
b) 6 octets
c) 1 octet
d) 90 octets
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16
d) All above
a) constant
b) variable
c) unspecified
a) transport
b) application
c) physical
d) session
a) physical
b) data link
c) network
d) all of these
18) In X.25, A host connected at 56kbps and communicating with numerous remote s i t e s
can be linked with cheaper __________ lines.
a) 18.2 kbps
b) 19.2 kbps
c) 20.2 kbps
d) 22.2 kbps
a) functional point
b) pointers
c) indicators
d) reference point

______________
Set S
*SLRPK191*
-3-
SLR-PK 191
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
structures in ISDN.
(210=20)
OR
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)

with them.
Set S
SLR-PK 191
-4-
*SLRPK191*

(210=20)
interface (NNI).
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 192
*SLRPK192*
S
Set
t

PLC AND INDUSTRIAL CONTROLLERS (Elective II)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100
i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
iii) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes in
iv) Answer MCQ/Objective type questions on Page No. 3 only.
Marks : 20
1. Select correct alternatives :
(201=20)
1) The word address in PLC not includes

a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT
d) Rack number
2) The device which provides maximum isolation is

c) Opto isolator
3) In PID which parameter is responsible for oscillation ?
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO

a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
d) Differential amplifier
5) Which sensor is semiconductor sensor ?
a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM335
d) Thermocouple

c) Measured variables through which the air output varies from maximum to minimum
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 192
*SLRPK192*
-2-

a) Increases the steady state error

10) In a proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater increases
the offset will
a) Increase
b) Reduce
band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
12) The number of operational amplifiers require for designing of electronic PID
controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
response ?
14) In a PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has to be
________ so as to reduce offset.
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
15) In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased. The derivative time constant
has to be _______ so as to reduce the overshoots.
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
17) Actuators are interfaced with which card of PLC
a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
d) Power supply

c) PT100
d) Thermostat

a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
d) Number of /O

a) More than 8
b) Less than 4
c) More than 16
______________
d) More than 32
Set P
*SLRPK192*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 192

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

a) What is SCAN in PLC ? Explain with suitable diagram.
b) Draw and explain current to voltage converter for grounded input.
c) What are different components in PLC ?
d) State advantages of PLCs over Hard Wired Relay.
15
3. Solve any two :
15
a) Develop physical and programmable ladder for induction motor control with
following interlocks.
i) Motor should run when START PB is pushed
ii) Motor should run in reverse direction when limit switch (LS1) becomes NC.
iii) Over current trip with thermal overload.
b) Develop and draw ladder diagram for washing machine.
c) What are the different specifications of PLC ? Explain two in detail.
4. Develop a ladder diagram for controlling an air conditioner from any of the three
locations.
10
SECTION II
15
a) Elaborate the selection of grounded load converter and floating load converter.
b) Design converter for conversion of 0V to 5V into 4MA to 20 MA using floating load.
c) Explain Data Acquisition System (DAS) using microcontroller.
d) Explain with neat sketch why the current range is 4 MA to 20 MA. Why it is started
from 4 MA instead of ZERO ?
Set P
SLR-PK 192
-4-
*SLRPK192*
6. Solve any two :
15
a) What are different components of robotic system ?

b) Explain different types of flow sensors.
c) Design 2 Channel Data Acquisition System with following specification :
Channel 1 :
i) Temp.Range-0 to 200C
ii) Sensor-RTD-PT 100
Channel 2 :
ii) Sensor-LM35
7. Design analog proportional derivative controller for following specification.
10

ii) Set point-200C to 250C
iii) Use R type thermocouple with sensitivity 40 micro V/C
iv) Proportional band 50%
v) Derivative constant 2.5
vi) Assume suitable data.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 192
*SLRPK192*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
d) Power supply

c) PT100
d) Thermostat

a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
d) Number of /O

a) More than 8
b) Less than 4
c) More than 16

a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT
d) More than 32
d) Rack number

c) Opto isolator
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO

a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 192
*SLRPK192*
-2-

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM335
d) Thermocouple

a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative


the offset will
a) Increase
b) Reduce
band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
response ?
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK192*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 192

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

15
3. Solve any two :
15
locations.
10
SECTION II
15
Set Q
SLR-PK 192
-4-
*SLRPK192*
6. Solve any two :
15

Channel 1 :
Channel 2 :
ii) Sensor-LM35
10

_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 192
*SLRPK192*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
response ?
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 192
*SLRPK192*
-2-

a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
d) Power supply

c) PT100
d) Thermostat

a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
d) Number of /O

a) More than 8
b) Less than 4
c) More than 16

a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT
d) More than 32
d) Rack number

c) Opto isolator
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO

a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM335
d) Thermocouple

a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative


the offset will
a) Increase
b) Reduce
______________
Set R
*SLRPK192*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 192

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

15
3. Solve any two :
15
locations.
10
SECTION II
15
Set R
SLR-PK 192
-4-
*SLRPK192*
6. Solve any two :
15

Channel 1 :
Channel 2 :
ii) Sensor-LM35
10

_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 192
*SLRPK192*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative



the offset will
a) Increase
b) Reduce
band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 192
*SLRPK192*
-2-
response ?
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
a) Two quadrant
b) Four quadrant
c) Single quadrant
d) None of these
a) Memory card
b) Output card
c) Input card
d) Power supply

c) PT100
d) Thermostat

a) Memory size
b) Ladder size
d) Number of /O

a) More than 8
b) Less than 4
c) More than 16

a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT
d) More than 32
d) Rack number

c) Opto isolator
a) KP
b) KD
c) KI
d) PO

a) Amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Oscillator
a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM335
______________
d) Thermocouple
Set S
*SLRPK192*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 192

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

15
3. Solve any two :
15
locations.
10
SECTION II
15
Set S
SLR-PK 192
-4-
*SLRPK192*
6. Solve any two :
15

Channel 1 :
Channel 2 :
ii) Sensor-LM35
10

_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 193
*SLRPk193*
Seat
No.
Set

ADVANCED COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

1) An isolator makes use of _________ twisted.
a) 45
b) 90
20
2) Voltage reflection coefficient is a ratio of ______ to the ________

a) Reflected voltage, incident voltage b) Incident voltage, reflected voltage
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
3) A microwave junction is supposed to be matched at all ports if in the S Matrix
a) all the diagonal elements are zero
b) all the diagonal elements are equal but not zero
c) all the diagonal elements are complex
d) is Hermitian
4) Waveguides are pressuised above normal atmospheric pressure for
a) increasing their power handling capacity
b) improving the conductivity of their walls
c) preventing higher order modes from propagating
d) varying the wave impedance
5) In TM both electric and magnetic field are
a) E = 0 H = 0
b) E 0 H = 0 c) E = 0 H 0
d) E 0 H 0
6) In the given magnetic field B, the radius of the path of electron is given by
mv
vB
eV
G
a) R =
b) R =
c) R =
d) None
eB
em
m
7) The efficiency of Reflex klystron is ______ than two cavity klystron.
a) More
b) Equal
c) Less
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 193
-2-
*SLRPk193*
8) What MESFET stands for

a) Metaloxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
b) Metal Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
c) Metal Electron Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
d) Magnetic Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
9) Pulse radar systems contain
a) Trigger source
b) Duplexer
c) Pulse modulator
d) All the above
b) Temperature
c) Frequency
11) ______ is one of the most important elements in an optical fiber link.
a) Cabled fiber
b) Optical Amplifiers
c) Photo-detectors
d) Light sources
12) One of the principle characteristics of an optical fiber is _________ as a
function of wavelength.
a) Transmission
b) Communication
c) Attenuation
d) Amplification
13) The technology of combining a number of wavelength on to the same fiber is
known as
a) EDFA
b) ATM
c) ISDN
d) WDM
14) The maximum distance between earth satellite in an elliptical orbit is
a) Posigrade
b) Retrograde
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
15) Collection of data from different sensors and sending them to earth station is
done by
a) Telemetry
b) Tracking
c) Frequency translator
d) Propulsion sub-system
16) Solar radiation falling on geo-stationary satellite has intensity of
b) 4.21 kW/m
c) 1.39 kW/m2
d) 1.39 kW/m
a) 4.21 kW/m2
17) Which system is used in tracking ?
a) Rectangular system
b) Triangular system
c) Elliptical system
d) None
18) The 3 axes of satellite are
a) Pitch, roll and yaw
b) Pitch, map and roll
c) Pitch, map and yaw
19) To prevent excessive signal attenuation and noise in atmosphere, satellite
angle of elevation should be less than
a) 6 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 45 degree
d) 5 degree
20) Transponder converts _________ frequency to ________ frequency.
a) Uplink, downlink
b) Downlink, uplink
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPk193*
-3-
SLR-PK 193
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(38=24)
a) Realize construction and working of TWT (Traveling Wave Tube). State its
b) Draw block diagram of MTI radar system and explain its working principal.
c) Realize construction and working of IMPATT and TRAPATT diode.
d) Derive the equation for velocity modulations and bunching processes in
klystron.
(44=16)
a) With suitable diagram explain working of lsolator.
b) State and explain any three limitations of conversation devices over high
frequency.
c) State the Scattering Matrix for E-Plane Tee junction.
d) Write a note on FM-CW radar.
e) Derive radar range equation.
SECTION II
(38=24)
a) With suitable block diagrams explain telemetry, tracking and command (TT&C)
subsystem of satellite.
b) Derive the expression for up-link and down link design.
c) Realize construction and working of edge emitting double hertojuncation LED.
d) Describe working of DBS-TV receiver.
Set P
SLR-PK 193
-4-
*SLRPk193*
(44=16
a) Derive numerical aperture for step index fiber.

b) Compare between TDMA, FDMA and DAMA.
c) Discuss bending losses in optical fiber.
d) Describe single conversion and double conversion transponder system.
e) Show and explain angle of inclination and angle of elevation in satellite with
neat diagram.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 193
*SLRPk193*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

20
a) 4.21 kW/m2
b) 4.21 kW/m
c) 1.39 kW/m2
d) 1.39 kW/m
d) None
a) 6 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 45 degree
d) 5 degree
a) Uplink, downlink
b) Downlink, uplink
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) 45
b) 90
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
d) is Hermitian
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 193
-2-
*SLRPk193*

a) E = 0 H = 0
b) E 0 H = 0 c) E = 0 H 0
d) E 0 H 0
mv
vB
eV
G
a) R =
b) R =
c) R =
d) None
eB
em
m
a) More
b) Equal
c) Less
d) None
a) Trigger source
b) Duplexer
c) Pulse modulator
d) All the above
b) Temperature
c) Frequency
a) Cabled fiber
c) Photo-detectors
d) Light sources
a) Transmission
b) Communication
c) Attenuation
d) Amplification
known as
a) EDFA
b) ATM
c) ISDN
d) WDM
a) Posigrade
b) Retrograde
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
done by
a) Telemetry
b) Tracking
______________
Set Q
*SLRPk193*
-3-
SLR-PK 193
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(38=24)
klystron.
(44=16)
frequency.
SECTION II
(38=24)
Set Q
SLR-PK 193
-4-
*SLRPk193*
(44=16)

neat diagram.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 193
*SLRPk193*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

20
a) Cabled fiber
c) Photo-detectors
d) Light sources
a) Transmission
b) Communication
c) Attenuation
d) Amplification
known as
a) EDFA
b) ATM
c) ISDN
d) WDM
a) Posigrade
b) Retrograde
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
done by
a) Telemetry
b) Tracking
b) 4.21 kW/m
c) 1.39 kW/m2
d) 1.39 kW/m
a) 4.21 kW/m2
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 193
-2-
*SLRPk193*

a) 6 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 45 degree
d) 5 degree
a) Uplink, downlink
b) Downlink, uplink
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) 45
b) 90
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
d) is Hermitian
d) E 0 H 0
a) E = 0 H = 0
b) E 0 H = 0 c) E = 0 H 0
eV
mv
vB
G
a) R =
b) R =
c) R =
d) None
m
eB
em
a) More
b) Equal
c) Less
d) None
a) Trigger source
b) Duplexer
c) Pulse modulator
d) All the above
b) Temperature
c) Frequency
______________
Set R
*SLRPk193*
-3-
SLR-PK 193
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(38=24)
klystron.
(44=16)
frequency.
SECTION II
(38=24)
Set R
SLR-PK 193
-4-
*SLRPk193*
(44=16)

neat diagram.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 193
*SLRPk193*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20

mv
vB
eV
G
a) R =
b) R =
c) R =
d) None
eB
em
m
a) More
b) Equal
c) Less
d) None
20

a) Trigger source
b) Duplexer
c) Pulse modulator
d) All the above
b) Temperature
c) Frequency
a) Cabled fiber
c) Photo-detectors
d) Light sources
a) Transmission
b) Communication
c) Attenuation
d) Amplification
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 193
-2-
*SLRPk193*

known as
a) EDFA
b) ATM
c) ISDN
d) WDM
a) Posigrade
b) Retrograde
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
done by
a) Telemetry
b) Tracking
b) 4.21 kW/m
c) 1.39 kW/m2
d) 1.39 kW/m
a) 4.21 kW/m2
d) None
a) 6 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 45 degree
d) 5 degree
a) Uplink, downlink
b) Downlink, uplink
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
a) 45
b) 90
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
d) is Hermitian
a) E = 0 H = 0
b) E 0 H = 0 c) E = 0 H 0
______________
d) E 0 H 0
Set S
*SLRPk193*
-3-
SLR-PK 193
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(38=24)
klystron.
(44=16)
frequency.
SECTION II
(38=24)
Set S
SLR-PK 193
-4-
*SLRPk193*
(44=16)

neat diagram.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 194
*SLRPK194*
S
Set
t
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) Part II (New) Examination, 2016

AUDIO VIDEO SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) In Audio and Video Compression, each frame is divided into small grids, called
picture elements or
a) Frame
b) Packets
c) Pixels
d) Mega Pixels
2) Images made up of thousands of pixels are called
a) Bitmap
b) Vector
c) Story boards
d) Graphics
3) Microphones are electro-acoustic transducers which convert

a) Acoustic energy to electrical energy
b) Electrical energy to acoustic energy
c) Acoustic energy to mechanical energy
d) Mechanical energy to acoustic energy
4) Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG 2), was designed for high-quality DVD
with a data rate of
a) 3 to 6 Mbps
b) 4 to 6 Mbps
c) 5 to 6 Mbps
d) 6 to 6 Mbps
5) The unit of sound pressure used for rating microphones is
a) Decibel
b) Bar
c) Watt
d) Pascal
6) Concave surface may be provided to act as

a) Absorbers
b) Reflectors
c) Insulators
7) The coefficient of absorption of an open window is taken as
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 1.5
8) Rooms and enclosures may have
a) A single resonance
c) Two resonances
b) Several resonances
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 194
-2-
*SLRPK194*
9) Fax provides _________ transmission of almost any documentary material.

a) Slow
b) Very slow
c) Fast
d) Very fast
10) In Audio and Video Compression, term RBG expresses
a) Red, Blue, Green
b) Red, Black, Grey
c) Rate, Bit, Giga bit
d) Red, Bluish, Greyish
11) PIL tubes with slotted aperture mask are now most common because
a) They ensure better purity of colour b) They are self-convergent
c) They are easier to manufacture
d) None
12) The two new signals generated in SECAM system are
a) U and V
b) R and B
c) DB and DR
d) (BY) and (RY)
13) Compared to progressive scanning, the interlacing technique reduces

bandwidth because
a) The picture scanning rate is increased
b) The picture scanning rate is reduced
c) The effective picture scanning rate is kept same while pixel scanning rate
is halved
d) b) and c) both
14) VSB modulation is preferred for TV transmission because

a) it is less critical than SSB modulation
b) it avoids phase distortion problems at low frequencies
c) it reduces bandwidth required to half
d) b) and c)
15) The equation of I-signal for NTSC colour system is
a) 0.60R 0.28G 0.32B
b) 0.60R + 0.28G + 0.32B
c) 0.60R 0.32G 0.28B
d) 0.60R + 0.32G + 0.28B
16) In delta gun picture tube the ratio of electrons passing through the holes to those
reaching the shadow mask is only about ________%.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
17) The standard video IF (Intermediate Frequency) adopted by PAL system is
a) 38.9 MHz
b) 33.4 MHz
c) 40.4 MHz
d) 42.4 MHz
18) The two new signals generated in PAL system are
a) (B Y) and (R Y)
b) R and B
c) I and Q
d) U and V
19) The width to height ratio used in standard TV is called
a) Aspect ratio
b) White ratio
c) Brightness ratio
d) None
20) The effect of producing too large displacement of the central beam in picture tube
is known as
a) Comma effect
b) Eddy effect
c) Pincushion effect
d) Astigmatism effect
______________
Set P
*SLRPK194*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 194

AUDIO VIDEO SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m
Marks : 80
SECTION I

1) Why is compression essential in multimedia applications ?
2) Define reverberation and the need of reverberation.
3) Define different units used to measure sound signals.
4) Explain lossless compression algorithm for JPEG.
5) State Sabins equation and give significance of absorption coefficient.
(44=16)

(38=24)
1) Describe GIF File format in detail.
2) What is real time video ? How coding of real time video is carried out ? Explain the
techniques used for video compression.
3) Explain the key difference between lossless and lossy compression.
4) Explain the working principle of Xerography with suitable block diagram.
SECTION II
(44=16)
1) Compare NTSC and PAL colour television standards.
2) Why are front and back porch intervals provided before and after the horizontal
sync pulse ?
3) List out significant features of HDTV over standard TV.
4) Give significance of chromaticity diagram.
5) How is purity and convergence related to colour receiver ?
(38=24)
1) Explain the concept of frequency interleaving. How it is used to transmit
colour information in television system ?

2) Explain PAL encoder with neat diagram.
3) Draw block diagram of digital TV and explain its working in detail.
4) How satellite communication is used in television systems ? List features
and applications of satellite TV system.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 194
*SLRPK194*
S
Set
t

AUDIO VIDEO SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
a) 38.9 MHz
b) 33.4 MHz
c) 40.4 MHz
d) 42.4 MHz
a) (B Y) and (R Y)
b) R and B
c) I and Q
d) U and V
a) Aspect ratio
b) White ratio
c) Brightness ratio d) None
is known as
b) Eddy effect
a) Comma effect
picture elements or
a) Frame
b) Packets
c) Pixels
d) Mega Pixels
a) Bitmap
b) Vector
c) Story boards
d) Graphics
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 194
*SLRPK194*
-2-
with a data rate of
a) 3 to 6 Mbps
b) 4 to 6 Mbps
c) 5 to 6 Mbps
d) 6 to 6 Mbps
a) Decibel
b) Bar
c) Watt
d) Pascal

a) Absorbers
b) Reflectors
c) Insulators
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 1.5
c) Two resonances

a) Slow
b) Very slow
c) Fast
d) Very fast
a) Red, Blue, Green
b) Red, Black, Grey
d) None
a) U and V
b) R and B
c) DB and DR
d) (BY) and (RY)

bandwidth because
is halved
d) b) and c) both

d) b) and c)
a) 0.60R 0.28G 0.32B
b) 0.60R + 0.28G + 0.32B
c) 0.60R 0.32G 0.28B
d) 0.60R + 0.32G + 0.28B
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK194*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 194

AUDIO VIDEO SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m
Marks : 80
SECTION I

(44=16)

(38=24)
SECTION II
(44=16)
sync pulse ?
(38=24)

_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 194
*SLRPK194*
S
Set
t

AUDIO VIDEO SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
d) None
a) U and V
b) R and B
c) DB and DR
d) (BY) and (RY)

bandwidth because
is halved
d) b) and c) both

d) b) and c)
a) 0.60R 0.28G 0.32B
b) 0.60R + 0.28G + 0.32B
c) 0.60R 0.32G 0.28B
d) 0.60R + 0.32G + 0.28B
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 194
*SLRPK194*
-2-

a) 38.9 MHz
b) 33.4 MHz
c) 40.4 MHz
d) 42.4 MHz
a) (B Y) and (R Y)
b) R and B
c) I and Q
d) U and V
a) Aspect ratio
b) White ratio
c) Brightness ratio d) None
is known as
b) Eddy effect
a) Comma effect
picture elements or
a) Frame
b) Packets
c) Pixels
d) Mega Pixels
a) Bitmap
b) Vector
c) Story boards
d) Graphics

with a data rate of
a) 3 to 6 Mbps
b) 4 to 6 Mbps
c) 5 to 6 Mbps
d) 6 to 6 Mbps
a) Decibel
b) Bar
c) Watt
d) Pascal

a) Absorbers
b) Reflectors
c) Insulators
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 1.5
c) Two resonances

a) Slow
b) Very slow
c) Fast
d) Very fast
a) Red, Blue, Green
b) Red, Black, Grey
______________
Set R
*SLRPK194*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 194

AUDIO VIDEO SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m
Marks : 80
SECTION I

(44=16)

(38=24)
SECTION II
(44=16)
sync pulse ?
(38=24)

_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 194
*SLRPK194*
S
Set
t

AUDIO VIDEO SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Absorbers
b) Reflectors
c) Insulators
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 1.5
c) Two resonances
a) Slow
b) Very slow
c) Fast
d) Very fast
a) Red, Blue, Green
b) Red, Black, Grey
d) None
a) U and V
b) R and B
c) DB and DR
d) (BY) and (RY)
bandwidth because
is halved
d) b) and c) both
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 194
*SLRPK194*
-2-

d) b) and c)
a) 0.60R 0.28G 0.32B
b) 0.60R + 0.28G + 0.32B
c) 0.60R 0.32G 0.28B
d) 0.60R + 0.32G + 0.28B
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
a) 38.9 MHz
b) 33.4 MHz
c) 40.4 MHz
d) 42.4 MHz
a) (B Y) and (R Y)
b) R and B
c) I and Q
d) U and V
a) Aspect ratio
b) White ratio
c) Brightness ratio
d) None
is known as
a) Comma effect
b) Eddy effect
picture elements or
a) Frame
b) Packets
c) Pixels
d) Mega Pixels
a) Bitmap
b) Vector
c) Story boards
d) Graphics

with a data rate of
a) 3 to 6 Mbps
b) 4 to 6 Mbps
c) 5 to 6 Mbps
d) 6 to 6 Mbps
a) Decibel
b) Bar
c) Watt
______________
d) Pascal
Set S
*SLRPK194*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 194

AUDIO VIDEO SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m
Marks : 80
SECTION I

(44=16)

(38=24)
SECTION II
(44=16)
sync pulse ?
(38=24)

_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 195
*SLRPK195*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2016

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

(201= 20)
1. Objective questions.
1) Let r0 = 0 00000000 and r1= 0 00000005. What will be the content of r0 after execution
of instruction ADD r0, r1,r1,LSL#1 ?
a) 0 00000000
b) 0 00000005
c) 0 0000000a
d) 0 0000000f
2) _________ is the debug hardware built into the processor that allows breakpoints and
watch points to be set.
a) JTAG
b) EmbeddedICE
c) Boundary scan
3) SDA and SCL signal lines are used in __________ communication.
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) 12 C
4) In LPC2148 to force logic 1on port pin P0.26, _________ register is used.
a) IOSET0
b) IOSET1
c) IOCLR0
d) IOCLR1
5) LPC2148 has on-chip___________ KB flash memory and __________ KB SRAM.
a) 30, 16
b) 128, 32
c) 512, 40
d) 256, 40
6) In ARM7 core architecture register __________ is used as stack pointer.
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
7) In ARM __________exception is having the highest priority.
a) Reset
b) Supervisor
c) System
d) Interrupt request
8) The ARM processor enters _____________ mode when there is a failed attempt to access
memory.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 195
*SLRPK195*
-2-
9) In ARM7TDMI-S T stands for

a) Transfer
b) Transmission
c) Thumb
d) Token
10) __________ mode is a special version of user mode that allows full read-write access to
the cpsr.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
11) __________ software allows the system activities to be divided into multiple independent
elements called tasks.
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor
d) Device Driver
12) Binary, Mutual exclusion, Counting are the types of __________
a) Queues
b) Pipes
c) Semaphores
d) Mailboxes
13) Which of the following C/OS-II services is used to delete task ?

a) OSTaskCreate() b) OSTaskDel()
c) OSTaskResume()
d) OSSemTask()
14) Inter task communication can be done through _________

a) mailboxes
b) queues
c) pipes
d) all of above
15) In ________ OS, the response time is very critical.

a) Multitasking
b) Batch
c) Online
d) Real-time
16) For real time operating systems, interrupt latency should be

a) Minimal
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) Dependent on the scheduling
17) cos - II can manage upto _________ tasks.
a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 256
18) A task is said to be in __________ state when it requires the occurrence of an event.
a) Waiting
b) Running
c) Ready
d) Dormant
19) A _________ is a situation in which two tasks are each unknowingly waiting for resources
held by each other.
a) Priority Inversion b) Deadlock
c) Pending
d) Dormant
20) Information about a task is maintained in a _________
a) Stack
b) Translation Look aside Buffer
c) Task Control Block
d) Task Condition Block
______________
Set P
*SLRPK195*
-3-
SLR-PK 195
Seat
No.

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
(64=24)
a) Discuss recent trends in embedded systems.

b) Classify and review different operating modes of ARM7 with examples.
c) List and elaborate the nomenclature used for ARM processors.
d) What is an exception ? Explain vector addresses and vector table.
e) Write an ARM ASM code to find total positive numbers from a series of 16 bit numbers.
3. Solve any two :
(82= 16)
a) Sketch and elaborate programmers model for ARM7 core in detail.

b) List and discuss different assembler directives used in writing ARM assembly code with
examples.
c) Design an embedded system to interface a stepper motor with LPC2148. The motor is
connected to port pins P0.2, P0.3, P0.4, and P0.5. Write an embedded C program to rotate
motor in clockwise direction continuously.
Set P
SLR-PK 195
-4-
*SLRPK195*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four.
(64= 24)
a) How to use mailox as binary semaphore ? Explain by using pseudo code.

b) What is preemptive kernel ? Elaborate in detail with example and proper diagram.
c) Discuss the operation and significance of the cos -II API functions, OSTaskCreate() and
OSTaskDel().
d) Discuss various types of semaphore in detail.
e) List down the types of priority-based kernels. Elaborate them with example.
5. Solve any two :
(82= 16)
a) Define is a task ? Sketch state transition diagram and discuss different task states in
detail.
b) Elaborate with examples various inter-task/process communication tools like mailbox and
message queue used in RTOS environment.
c) Sketch the block diagram of smart card reader and discuss it working.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 195
*SLRPK195*
Seat
No.
Set

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

(201= 20)
a) Minimal
b) Maximum
c) Zero
a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 256

a) Waiting
b) Running
c) Ready
d) Dormant
held by each other.
a) Priority Inversion
b) Deadlock
c) Pending
d) Dormant
a) Stack
a) 0 00000000
b) 0 00000005
c) 0 0000000a
d) 0 0000000f
a) JTAG
b) EmbeddedICE
c) Boundary scan
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) 12 C
P.T.O.
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*SLRPK195*
-2-
a) IOSET0
b) IOSET1
c) IOCLR0
d) IOCLR1
a) 30, 16
b) 128, 32
c) 512, 40
d) 256, 40
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
a) Reset
b) Supervisor
c) System
memory.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
a) Transfer
b) Transmission
c) Thumb
d) Token
the cpsr.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor
d) Device Driver
a) Queues
b) Pipes
c) Semaphores
d) Mailboxes

a) OSTaskCreate()
b) OSTaskDel()
c) OSTaskResume()
d) OSSemTask()

a) mailboxes
b) queues
c) pipes
d) all of above

a) Multitasking
b) Batch
c) Online
d) Real-time
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK195*
-3-
SLR-PK 195
Seat
No.

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
(64=24)

3. Solve any two :
(82= 16)

examples.
Set Q
SLR-PK 195
-4-
*SLRPK195*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four.
(64= 24)

OSTaskDel().
5. Solve any two :
(82= 16)
detail.
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 195
*SLRPK195*
Seat
No.
Set

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

(201= 20)
1) __________ software allows the system activities to be divided into multiple
independent
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor
d) Device Driver

a) Queues
b) Pipes
c) Semaphores
d) Mailboxes

a) OSTaskCreate()
b) OSTaskDel()
c) OSTaskResume()
d) OSSemTask()

a) mailboxes
b) queues
c) pipes
d) all of above

a) Multitasking
b) Batch
c) Online
d) Real-time

a) Minimal
b) Maximum
c) Zero

a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 256

a) Waiting
b) Running
c) Ready
d) Dormant
held by each other.
b) Deadlock
c) Pending
d) Dormant
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 195
*SLRPK195*
-2-

a) Stack
a) 0 00000000
b) 0 00000005
c) 0 0000000a
d) 0 0000000f
a) JTAG
b) EmbeddedICE
c) Boundary scan
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) 12 C
a) IOSET0
b) IOSET1
c) IOCLR0
d) IOCLR1
a) 30, 16
b) 128, 32
c) 512, 40
d) 256, 40
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
a) Reset
b) Supervisor
c) System
memory.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
a) Transfer
b) Transmission
c) Thumb
d) Token
the cpsr.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
______________
Set R
*SLRPK195*
-3-
SLR-PK 195
Seat
No.

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
(64=24)

3. Solve any two :
(82= 16)

examples.
Set R
SLR-PK 195
-4-
*SLRPK195*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four.
(64= 24)

OSTaskDel().
5. Solve any two :
(82= 16)
detail.
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 195
*SLRPK195*
Seat
No.
Set

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

(201= 20)
a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
a) Reset
b) Supervisor
c) System
memory.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
a) Transfer
b) Transmission
c) Thumb
d) Token
the cpsr.
a) Supervisor
b) System
c) Undefined
d) Abort
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor
d) Device Driver
a) Queues
b) Pipes
c) Semaphores
a) OSTaskCreate()
b) OSTaskDel()
c) OSTaskResume()

a) mailboxes
b) queues
c) pipes
d) Mailboxes
d) OSSemTask()
d) all of above
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 195
-2-

a) Multitasking
b) Batch
c) Online
*SLRPK195*
d) Real-time

a) Minimal
b) Maximum
c) Zero
a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 256
a) Waiting
b) Running
c) Ready
d) Dormant
held by each other.
b) Deadlock
c) Pending
d) Dormant
a) Stack
a) 0 00000000
b) 0 00000005
c) 0 0000000a
d) 0 0000000f
a) JTAG
b) EmbeddedICE
c) Boundary scan
a) SPI
b) CAN
c) MODBUS
d) 12 C
a) IOSET0
b) IOSET1
c) IOCLR0
d) IOCLR1
a) 30, 16
b) 128, 32
c) 512, 40
d) 256, 40
______________
Set S
*SLRPK195*
-3-
SLR-PK 195
Seat
No.

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
(64=24)

3. Solve any two :
(82= 16)

examples.
Set S
SLR-PK 195
-4-
*SLRPK195*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four.
(64= 24)

OSTaskDel().
5. Solve any two :
(82= 16)
detail.
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 196
*SLRPK196*
S
Set
t

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION (Elective II) (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 .pm.
Instructions :

2) Answer objective type questions on Page No. 3 only. Dont forget
to mention, Q.P. Set (P/Q/R/S) on top of page.
1.
Max. Marks : 100
1) ISDN is a
a) Packet switched network
c) Both of the mentioned
Marks : 20
(201=20)
b) Circuit switched telephone network

2) ATM uses the

a) Asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) Asynchronous time division multiplexing
c) Asynchronous space division multiplexing
3) An ATM cell has the payload field of
a) 32 bytes
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
4) Frame relay has only

a) Physical layer
c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Data link layer

d) 128 bytes
5) Why is ATM the goal for future networking ?

a) It is efficient for data transfer
b) Its the only technology suitable for transmission of digital television
c) It allows the integration of voice, data and video into one network
d) It creates an error free network
6) Based on X.25 rules, _________ logical channel can be set on a single physical line in X.25
a) 256
b) 16
c) 4096
d) 2556
7) The channel grouping in X.25 are known as
a) Logical Channel Group Number (LCGN) b) Logical Channel Number (LCN)
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
8) A X.25 protocol uses
a) Store and forward method
c) Store and stop method
b) Stop and wait method

d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 196
*SLRPK196*
-2-
9) Frame relay indicates network congestion using _________ bit in data frames.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
10) In cell relay these logical channels are represented as
a) Virtual Channels (VCs)
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
11) Data traffic in ATM tend to be
a) Continuous
c) Discontinuous
b) Bursty
d) None of these
12) ATM can support

a) Different speeds
b) Different traffic types
c) Quality of service attached to applications
d) All of these
13) Narrow band ISDN is a digital service where the transport speeds are _________ or less.
a) 1.533 Mbps
b) 1.544 Mbps
c) 1.555 Mbps
d) 1.552 Mbps
14) The B-channel in ISDN is capable of carrying
a) Voice
b) Data
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
15) PRI is popularly referred to as _________ due to the number of channels as per CCITT.
a) 20+D
b) 30+D
c) 40+D
d) 50+D
16) At optical source, signal is changed from an electronic form into an
a) Optical station
b) Optical form
c) Optical solution
d) Optical data
17) A regenerator is a repeater that takes a received
a) Optical station
b) Optical system c) Optical solution
d) Optical signal
18) A _________ is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS multiplexers.
a) Line
b) Path
c) Section
19) What is the type of network in which the topology change from time to time ?
a) Wi-Fi
b) Cell network
c) LAN
d) MANET
20) ABR stands for
a) Average Bit Rate
c) Available Byte Rate
b) Available Bit Rate

c) Average Byte Rate
______________
Set P
*SLRPK196*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 196

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 .pm.
Instructions :
Marks : 80
1) Figures to the right full marks.

SECTION I

(45=20)
1) List X.25 services. What are packet assembler and packet disassembler ? Describe in
brief X.25 session establishment.
2) Discuss generic flow control related to ATM communication.
3) Draw ATM protocol architecture and discuss various issues handled in each layer.
4) How error control is implemented in ATM ? Discuss HEC operation at ATM receiver.
5) Why congestion control tools available for packet networks are inadequate for ATM ?
Explain latency effect and cell delay variation related to ATM.
(210=20)
1) What are the advantages of frame relay ? Draw frame format for LAPF core protocol and
explain importance of each field. How congestion is controlled in frame relay ?
2) Draw ATM cell formate at UNI and NNI and describe in detail.
3) What are the classes of AAL protocols ? How they are classified ? Explain AAL type 1
service in detail.
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Define the terms information rate, throughput, call blocking probability, switch delay and
cell loss probability related to ATM switch.
2) Draw the format of ISDN addressing and explain importance of each field.
3) Describe call setup procedure in ISDN.
4) What are the different applications of MANET ?
5) What are various IEEE 802.16 services ?
(210=20)
1) Draw the functional diagram of an ATM switch and explain its working in detail. What is
the need of buffers in ATM switches ? Discuss aspects of performance of ATM switch
related to placement of buffer.
2) What is multi framing and multiplexing in ISDN ? Draw frame structure at reference
points S and T for ISDN basic rate and explain.
3) Draw diagram showing user network interface (UNI) related to ISDN and explain it in detail.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 196
*SLRPK196*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 .pm.
Instructions :

1.
Max. Marks : 100
Marks : 20
(201=20)

a) Optical station
b) Optical form
c) Optical solution
d) Optical data
a) Optical station
d) Optical signal
a) Line
b) Path
c) Section
a) Wi-Fi
b) Cell network
c) LAN
d) MANET
5) ABR stands for
a) Average Bit Rate

6) ISDN is a

7) ATM uses the

a) 32 bytes
c) 64 bytes
b) 48 bytes
d) 128 bytes

a) Physical layer
c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Data link layer

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 196
*SLRPK196*
-2-

a) 256
b) 16
c) 4096
d) 2556
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these

d) None of these
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
a) Continuous
c) Discontinuous
b) Bursty
d) None of these
17) ATM can support

a) Different speeds
d) All of these
a) 1.533 Mbps
b) 1.544 Mbps
c) 1.555 Mbps
d) 1.552 Mbps
a) Voice
b) Data
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
a) 20+D
b) 30+D
c) 40+D
d) 50+D
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK196*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 196

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 .pm.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(45=20)
(210=20)
service in detail.
SECTION II
(45=20)
(210=20)
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 196
*SLRPK196*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 .pm.
Instructions :

1.
Max. Marks : 100

a) Continuous
c) Discontinuous
Marks : 20
(201=20)
b) Bursty
d) None of these
2) ATM can support

a) Different speeds
d) All of these
a) 1.533 Mbps
b) 1.544 Mbps
c) 1.555 Mbps
d) 1.552 Mbps
a) Voice
b) Data
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
a) 20+D
b) 30+D
c) 40+D
d) 50+D
a) Optical station
b) Optical form
c) Optical solution
d) Optical data
a) Optical station
d) Optical signal
a) Line
b) Path
c) Section
a) Wi-Fi
b) Cell network
c) LAN
d) MANET
10) ABR stands for
a) Average Bit Rate

P.T.O.
SLR-PK 196
*SLRPK196*
-2-
11) ISDN is a

12) ATM uses the

a) 32 bytes
c) 64 bytes
b) 48 bytes
d) 128 bytes

a) Physical layer
c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Data link layer


a) 256
b) 16
c) 4096
d) 2556
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these

d) None of these
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK196*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 196

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 .pm.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(45=20)
(210=20)
service in detail.
SECTION II
(45=20)
(210=20)
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 196
*SLRPK196*
S
Set
t

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 .pm.
Instructions :
1.
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
(201=20)
a) 256
b) 16
c) 4096
d) 2556
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these

d) None of these
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
a) Continuous
c) Discontinuous
b) Bursty
d) None of these
7) ATM can support

a) Different speeds
d) All of these
a) 1.533 Mbps
b) 1.544 Mbps
c) 1.555 Mbps
d) 1.552 Mbps
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 196
*SLRPK196*
-2-

a) Voice
b) Data
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
a) 20+D
b) 30+D
c) 40+D
d) 50+D
a) Optical station
b) Optical form
c) Optical solution
d) Optical data
a) Optical station
d) Optical signal
a) Line
b) Path
c) Section
a) Wi-Fi
b) Cell network
c) LAN
d) MANET
15) ABR stands for
a) Average Bit Rate

16) ISDN is a

17) ATM uses the

a) 32 bytes
c) 64 bytes
b) 48 bytes
d) 128 bytes

a) Physical layer
c) Both (a) and (b)
b) Data link layer


______________
Set S
*SLRPK196*
S
-3-
SLR-PK 196

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 .pm.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION I

(45=20)
(210=20)
service in detail.
SECTION II
(45=20)
(210=20)
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 198
*SLRPK198*
Seat
No.
Set
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2016

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

3) All the questions are compulsory.
4) Figures of right hand side indicate maximum marks.
Marks : 20
20
1) Which device provides maximum isolation ?

a) Pulse transformer
b) Normal transformer
c) Opto isolator
2) Word address in PLC not includes
a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT
d) Rack number
c) 0.0039 /C
d) None of these
3) PT100 has sensitivity of

a) 51V / C
b) 40 V / C
4) Micro PLC stands for

a) I/O upto 4
c) I/O between 4 to 8
b) I/O upto 8
d) I/O between 8 to 16
5) Dead band in a controller is

a) Increases the accuracy
c) Decreases the linearity
b) Decreases the accuracy

d) None of these
6) Which sensor is self generating type sensor ?

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM35
d) None of these
7) Which sensor is semiconductor type sensor ?

a) PT 100
b) Thermocouple c) RTD
d) LM 335
8) Ladder diagram shown below is
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) XOR
d) XNOR
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 198
9) Scan time in PLC depends upon
a) SMPS
c) Number of rows in ladder
10) PLC is universal controller
a) Yes
b) No
*SLRPK198*
-2-
b) Linear power supply

d) None of these
c) Both
d) None of these
11) When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional band ?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) None of these
12) The number of operational amplifiers require for designing of electric PID controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
13) Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state response ?
14) In a PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has to be _________
so as to reduce offset.
a) Reduced
b) Reduced to 0
c) Increased
d) None of these
15) In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased. The derivative time constant has to be
___________ so as to reduce the overshoots.
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to 0
16) Proportional band of the controller is defined as range of
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative
19) The integral controller


d) None of these
20) In a proportional temperature controller, if the quality under the heater increases
the offset will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain un affected
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLRPK198*
SLR-PK 198
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION 1
2. Solve any four :

a) Explain SMPS for PLC.
b) Write a note on word address for PLC.
c) What are different I/O modules in PLC.
d) Define PLC. What are different blocks of PLC ?
e) What is programming language used in PLC ? Explain with examples.
20
3. Solve any two :
20
a) Develop a ladder diagram for an elevator shown in figure. The platform carries something
to UP position when UP button is pushed, and when DOWN button is pushed the platform
carries something to DOWN position.
Narrative statements :
1) When the START button is pushed the platform is driven to the down position ?
2) When the STOP button is pushed, the platform is halted at, whatever position it
occupies at that time ?
3) When UP button is pushed, the platform, if not in downward motion driven to the
UP position ?
4) When the DOWN button, the flat form, if it not in upward motion, is driven to the
DOWN position ?
Ls1
Start
Stop
up
down
Ls2
Fig. Q3. a)
Set P
SLR-PK 198
-4-
*SLRPK198*
b) Develop a ladder diagram for preparing ice in a factory. Narrative statements :

1) Fill the tank with water.
2) Start the compressor.
3) Ensure that the ice has been ready or not.
4) Wait for 1 minute.
5) Open the door.
c) Develop a ladder diagram to start and stop the motor using START, STOP
push buttons (PB). Represent the solution as per
a) Physical ladder
b) Programmable ladder.
SECTION 2
4. Solve any four :
20
a) Write a short note on semiconductor sensors.

b) Write a short note on control values.
c) Design converter for conversion of 4mA to 20mA into 3v to + 3v using grounded input.
d) Write a note on Hydraulic Actuation System.
e) Write a note on Flow sensors.
5. Solve any two :
20
a) Design analog proportional controller for following specification :

a) Process variable range 0 to 1100C
b) Set point maintained at 450C
c) Use E type thermocouple with sensitivity 7 micro V/C
d) Proportional band 60%
e) Assume suitable data.
b) Explain Data Acquisition System (DAS) in detail.
c) Design analog proportional integral derivative controller for following specification :
b) Set point 300C to 400C
c) RTD PT 100
e) Integral constant 2.5
f) Derivative constant 2
g) Assume suitable data.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 198
*SLRPK198*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative


d) None of these

the offset will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
d) None of these
c) Opto isolator
a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT
d) Rack number
c) 0.0039 /C
d) None of these

a) 51V / C
b) 40 V / C
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 198
*SLRPK198*
-2-

a) I/O upto 4
b) I/O upto 8


d) None of these

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM35
d) None of these

a) PT 100
d) LM 335
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) XOR
d) XNOR

a) SMPS

d) None of these

a) Yes
b) No
c) Both
d) None of these
a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
a) Reduced
b) Reduced to 0
c) Increased
d) None of these
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to 0
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK198*
SLR-PK 198
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION 1
2. Solve any four :

20
3. Solve any two :
20
UP position ?
DOWN position ?
Ls1
Start
Stop
up
down
Ls2
Fig. Q3. a)
Set Q
SLR-PK 198
-4-
*SLRPK198*

5) Open the door.
a) Physical ladder
SECTION 2
4. Solve any four :
20

5. Solve any two :
20

c) RTD PT 100
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 198
*SLRPK198*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
a) Reduced
b) Reduced to 0
c) Increased
d) None of these
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to 0
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 198
*SLRPK198*
-2-

a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative


d) None of these
the offset will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
d) None of these
c) Opto isolator
a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT
d) Rack number
c) 0.0039 /C
d) None of these

a) 51V / C
b) 40 V / C

a) I/O upto 4
b) I/O upto 8


d) None of these

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM35
d) None of these

a) PT 100
d) LM 335
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) XOR
d) XNOR

a) SMPS

d) None of these

a) Yes
b) No
c) Both
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK198*
SLR-PK 198
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION 1
2. Solve any four :

20
3. Solve any two :
20
UP position ?
DOWN position ?
Ls1
Start
Stop
up
down
Ls2
Fig. Q3. a)
Set R
SLR-PK 198
-4-
*SLRPK198*

5) Open the door.
a) Physical ladder
SECTION 2
4. Solve any four :
20

5. Solve any two :
20

c) RTD PT 100
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 198
*SLRPK198*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 100

Marks : 20
20

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM35
d) None of these

a) PT 100
d) LM 335
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) XOR
d) XNOR

a) SMPS

d) None of these

a) Yes
b) No
c) Both
d) None of these

a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) None of these
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 198
*SLRPK198*
-2-
a) Reduced
b) Reduced to 0
c) Increased
d) None of these
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to 0
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative


d) None of these
the offset will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
d) None of these
c) Opto isolator
a) SMPS
b) INPUT
c) OUTPUT
d) Rack number
c) 0.0039 /C
d) None of these

a) 51V / C
b) 40 V / C

a) I/O upto 4
b) I/O upto 8
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK198*
SLR-PK 198
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Marks : 80

SECTION 1
2. Solve any four :

20
3. Solve any two :
20
UP position ?
DOWN position ?
Ls1
Start
Stop
up
down
Ls2
Fig. Q3. a)
Set S
SLR-PK 198
-4-
*SLRPK198*

5) Open the door.
a) Physical ladder
SECTION 2
4. Solve any four :
20

5. Solve any two :
20

c) RTD PT 100
_____________________
Set S
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. E&TC (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

b) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
a) y = C1 + C2x + (C3 + C4x)ex
2)
1
X is equal to
D+a
a)
Xe
ax
dx
b)
Xe
ax
dx
c) e ax X eax dx
d) e ax X e ax dx

a) Z = ax + by + c
c) Z = ax +
b) Z = ax +
1
y+c
b
1
y+c
a
d) Z = ax + ay + c
st
1
a) 2
s 1
b)
1
s + 22
2
c)
1
s 22
2
d)
1
s +1
2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 199
a)
*SLR-PK-199*
-2-
3/2
3
(s 2)
b)
is
5/2
5
(s 2)
c)
1
3
(s 2)
d)
1
5
(s 2)
=
s+2
6) L1
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t cosh 5t
s2 + s
7) L 3 =
s
a) 1 + t
d) e2t sinh 5t
b) t + t2
d) t2
c) t2 + 1

a) Harmonic
b) Riemann
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets
1
2
b)
c)
d)
a)
2
2
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
i+ j+k
i jk
i 2 j + 3k
i + 2 j + 3k
a)
b)
c)
d)
3
3
14
14
a) zkF(z)
b) zkF(z)
c) zn F(z)
d) znF(z)
1 , k = 0
then z{s(k)} =
13) If s(k) =
0 , Otherwise
a) 0
b) 1
c) z
d) 1z
a)

0
f(s) cosws ds
0
2
cos
wx
f
(
s
)
cos
wsds
dw
c)
0
d) None of these
______________
Set P
*SLR-PK-199*
SLR-PK 199
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
b) Solve (D3 D2 6D)x = 1 + t2.
d2 y
dy
e4 x
8
+
16
y
=
.
c) Solve
dx
dx 2
x2
b) If f(t) =
kt
T
4s + 5
.
(s + 1)2 (s + 2)
2
b) Find L1tan 1 .
5

y = 2 at t = 0.
4
OR
s2
c) Find L 2
2
2
2
(s + a )(s + b )
1
4
Set P
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
-4-
5. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
3
SECTION II

y = 2 sin t + 1, z = t cost at t = 0.
4k
3k
, k<0
, k0
1
b) Find z1
3 , | z | < 5.
(z 5)

1
f(x) =
x
,
,
0 x1
.
1 x 2
Set P
*SLR-PK-199*
SLR-PK 199
-5-
0
x
x 0
0x
and f(x + 2 ) = f(x).
2 1 1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ...... .
Hence deduce that
8 1 3
5
OR
x
b) Expand f(x) =
0
0 < x <1
1< x < 2
1
0
evaluate
for | x | < 1
for | x | > 1
sin w cos wx
dw .
w
2 ,
0 ,
3
|x|<a
|x|>a
1 s
e ax
a
x
0
sinsds.
_____________________
Set P
Set P
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) Harmonic
b) Riemann
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets
1
2
b)
c)
d)
a)
2
2
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
i+ j+k
i jk
i 2 j + 3k
i + 2 j + 3k
a)
b)
c)
d)
3
3
14
14
a) zkF(z)
b) zkF(z)
c) zn F(z)
d) znF(z)
1 , k = 0
then z{s(k)} =
6) If s(k) =
0 , Otherwise
a) 0
b) 1
c) z
d) 1z
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
-2-
a)

0
f(s) cosws ds
0
2
cos
wx
f
(
s
)
cos
wsds
dw
c)
0
d) None of these

a) y = C1 + C2x + (C3 + C4x)ex
b) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
9)
1
X is equal to
D+a
a)
Xe
ax
dx
b)
Xe
ax
dx
c) e ax X eax dx
d) e ax X e ax dx

a) Z = ax + by + c
c) Z = ax +
b) Z = ax +
1
y+c
b
1
y+c
a
d) Z = ax + ay + c
st
0
1
a) 2
s 1
b)
1
s + 22

a)
3/2
3
(s 2)
b)
c)
5/2
5
(s 2)
1
s 22
d)
1
s +1
2
is
c)
1
3
(s 2)
d)
1
5
(s 2)
=
s+2
13) L1
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t cosh 5t
s2 + s
14) L1 3 =
s
a) 1 + t
d) e2t sinh 5t
b) t + t2
d) t2
c) t2 + 1
______________
Set Q
*SLR-PK-199*
SLR-PK 199
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
b) Solve (D3 D2 6D)x = 1 + t2.
d2 y
dy
e4 x
8
+
16
y
=
.
c) Solve
dx
dx 2
x2
b) If f(t) =
kt
T
4s + 5
.
(s + 1)2 (s + 2)
2
b) Find L1tan 1 .
5

y = 2 at t = 0.
4
OR
s2
c) Find L 2
2
2
2
(s + a )(s + b )
1
4
Set Q
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
-4-
5. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
3
SECTION II

y = 2 sin t + 1, z = t cost at t = 0.
4k
3k
, k<0
, k0
1
b) Find z1
3 , | z | < 5.
(z 5)

1
f(x) =
x
,
,
0 x1
.
1 x 2
Set Q
*SLR-PK-199*
SLR-PK 199
-5-
0
x
x 0
0x
and f(x + 2 ) = f(x).
2 1 1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ...... .
Hence deduce that
8 1 3
5
OR
x
b) Expand f(x) =
0
0 < x <1
1< x < 2
1
0
evaluate
for | x | < 1
for | x | > 1
sin w cos wx
dw .
w
2 ,
0 ,
3
|x|<a
|x|>a
1 s
e ax
a
x
0
sinsds.
_____________________
Set Q
Set Q
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a)
3/2
3
(s 2)
b)
5/2
5
(s 2)
is
c)
1
3
(s 2)
d)
1
5
(s 2)
=
s+2
2) L1
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t cosh 5t
d) e2t sinh 5t
s2 + s
3) L1 3 =
s
a) 1 + t
b) t + t2
c) t2 + 1
d) t2
a) Harmonic
b) Riemann
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets

1
2
b)
c)
d)
a)
2
2
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
-2-
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
t2,
7) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t, y =

z=
i+ j+k
i 2 j + 3k
i + 2 j + 3k
a)
b)
c)
3
14
14
a) zkF(z)
b) zkF(z)
c) zn F(z)
t3 at
t = 1 is
i jk
d)
3
d) znF(z)
1 , k = 0
then z{s(k)} =
9) If s(k) =
0 , Otherwise
a) 0
b) 1
d) 1z
c) z
a) f(s) cosws ds

0
c) cos wx f(s) cos wsds dw

0
d) None of these

a) y = C1 + C2x + (C3 + C4x)ex
b) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
12)
1
X is equal to
D+a
a)
Xe
ax
dx
b)
Xe
ax
dx
c) e ax X eax dx
d) e ax X e ax dx

a) Z = ax + by + c
c) Z = ax +
b) Z = ax +
1
y+c
b
1
y+c
a
d) Z = ax + ay + c
st
a)
1
s 1
2
b)
1
1
c) 2
2
s +2
s 22
______________
2
d)
1
s +1
2
Set R
*SLR-PK-199*
SLR-PK 199
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
b) Solve (D3 D2 6D)x = 1 + t2.
d2 y
dy
e4 x
8
+
16
y
=
.
c) Solve
dx
dx 2
x2
b) If f(t) =
kt
T
4s + 5
.
(s + 1)2 (s + 2)
2
b) Find L1tan 1 .
5

y = 2 at t = 0.
4
OR
s2
c) Find L 2
2
2
2
(s + a )(s + b )
1
4
Set R
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
-4-
5. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
3
SECTION II

y = 2 sin t + 1, z = t cost at t = 0.
4k
3k
, k<0
, k0
1
b) Find z1
3 , | z | < 5.
(z 5)

1
f(x) =
x
,
,
0 x1
.
1 x 2
Set R
*SLR-PK-199*
SLR-PK 199
-5-
0
x
x 0
0x
and f(x + 2 ) = f(x).
2 1 1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ...... .
Hence deduce that
8 1 3
5
OR
x
b) Expand f(x) =
0
0 < x <1
1< x < 2
1
0
evaluate
for | x | < 1
for | x | > 1
sin w cos wx
dw .
w
2 ,
0 ,
3
|x|<a
|x|>a
1 s
e ax
a
x
0
sinsds.
_____________________
Set R
Set R
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
Seat
No.
Set

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

Marks : 14

a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
i+ j+k
i jk
i 2 j + 3k
i + 2 j + 3k
a)
b)
c)
d)
3
3
14
14
a) zkF(z)
b) zkF(z)
c) zn F(z)
d) znF(z)
1 , k = 0
then z{s(k)} =
4) If s(k) =
0 , Otherwise
a) 0
b) 1
c) z
d) 1z
a)
f(s) cosws ds
0
2
cos
wx
f
(
s
)
cos
wsds
dw
c)
0
0

0
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
-2-

a) y = C1 + C2x + (C3 + C4x)ex
b) y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
7)
1
X is equal to
D+a
a)
Xe
ax
dx
b)
Xe
ax
dx
c) e ax X eax dx
d) e ax X e ax dx

a) Z = ax + by + c
c) Z = ax +
b) Z = ax +
1
y+c
b
1
y+c
a
d) Z = ax + ay + c
st
0
1
1
b) 2
s 1
s + 22
3
10) The Laplace transform of e2t t 2 is
a)
a)
3/2
3
(s 2)
b)
5/2
5
(s 2)
c)
c)
1
s 22
d)
1
3
(s 2)
d)
1
s +1
2
1
5
(s 2)
=
s+2
11) L1
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t cosh 5t
s2 + s
12) L 3 =
s
a) 1 + t
d) e2t sinh 5t
b) t + t2
d) t2
c) t2 + 1
a) Harmonic
b) Riemann
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets
1
2
b)
c)
d)
a)
2
2
______________
Set S
*SLR-PK-199*
SLR-PK 199
-3-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56

SECTION I
b) Solve (D3 D2 6D)x = 1 + t2.
d2 y
dy
e4 x
8
+
16
y
=
.
c) Solve
dx
dx 2
x2
b) If f(t) =
kt
T
4s + 5
.
(s + 1)2 (s + 2)
2
b) Find L1tan 1 .
5

y = 2 at t = 0.
4
OR
s2
c) Find L 2
2
2
2
(s + a )(s + b )
1
4
Set S
SLR-PK 199
*SLR-PK-199*
-4-
5. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
3
SECTION II

y = 2 sin t + 1, z = t cost at t = 0.
4k
3k
, k<0
, k0
1
b) Find z1
3 , | z | < 5.
(z 5)

1
f(x) =
x
,
,
0 x1
.
1 x 2
Set S
*SLR-PK-199*
SLR-PK 199
-5-
0
x
x 0
0x
and f(x + 2 ) = f(x).
2 1 1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ...... .
Hence deduce that
8 1 3
5
OR
x
b) Expand f(x) =
0
0 < x <1
1< x < 2
1
0
evaluate
for | x | < 1
for | x | > 1
sin w cos wx
dw .
w
2 ,
0 ,
3
|x|<a
|x|>a
1 s
e ax
a
x
0
sinsds.
_____________________
Set S
Set S
SLR-PK 200
*SLRPK200*
Seat
No.
Set
S.E. (Part I) E&TC (CGPA) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
1. Select the appropriate option :

1) Input resistance of JFET amplifier is
a) High
b) Same as CE
c) Very low
d) Very large
14
2) Following capacitor will affect on low frequency response of RC coupled

amplifier
a) CE (emitter by pass capacitor)
b) CC (coupling capacitor)
c) Junction capacitor
d) a) and b)
3) Which of the following term is bias independent ?
a) B
b) IC
c) IB
d) IE
4) Thermal Stability factor is defined as
IE
a) I
B
IC
b) I
ICO
IE
c) I
C
d) None of these
5) The term Early effect is associated with _________

a) Transistor
b) Transformer
c) Zener Diode
d) Rectifier
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 200
-2-
*SLRPK200*
6) If = 0.98 then will be ____________

a) 16
b) 68
c) 49
d) 100
7) Output of RC coupled single stage CE amplifier is __________ of input signal.
a) 180 Out of phase
b) In phase
c) 90 out of phase
d) None of these
8) A capacitors are used in ___________ to load diode Clamper circuits.
a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Shunt
d) None of these
9) Ripple factor is ___________ Proportional to RL for inductor filter and its
___________ Proportional to RL for capacitor filter respectively.
a) Directly, directly
b) Directly, inversely
c) Inversely, directly
d) Inversely, Inversely
10) Zener diode in breakdown region is used as
a) Delay circuit
b) Frequency divider by 2 circuit
c) Current regulator
d) Voltage regulator
11) Assuming diodes be ideal, its forward DC resistance will be
a) 5 K
b) 20 K
c) 10 K
d) None of above
12) For fixed load and variable input voltage in zener regulators, Vi(min) is limited by
a) Iz(min)
b) Vz
c) Iz(max)
d) None
13) In clamper circuits series capacitors are working as ___________
a) Voltage bias
b) Current bias
c) Isolators
d) Impedance
14) The load and line regulation of ideal power supply must be
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Large
d) None
______________
Set P
*SLRPK200*
-3-
SLR-PK 200
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)
a) Explain effect of temperature on diode characteristics.
b) Explain with diagram voltage trippler.
c) Compare performance of C, LC, filters.
d) Derive expression for maximum and minimum load resistance can be
connected to zener regulator for fixed input voltage and fixed series resistance.
e) Write and explain PN junction diode characteristics with diode equation.
(72=14)
a) Explain types of Clipper circuits and biased shunt clippers.

b) Draw circuit diagram of full wave rectifier with LC filter and explain its working.
Derive expression of ripple factor of LC filter.
c) Design voltage source using full wave bridge rectifier with capacitor filter for
ripple factor of 10% and Vdc of 12V and Idc of 100 mA. Line frequency is 50 Hz.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)
a) Draw and Justify from output characteristics that CE amplifier configuration

provides 180. Phase shift between input and output.
b) Derive equation for stability factor for voltage divider bias circuit.
c) High frequency characteristics of an amplifier circuit are limited by the
transistor device itself, justify the statement.
d) Explain operation of JFET as switch with output characteristics.
e) Define significance of hybrid parameters in amplifier analysis.
Set P
SLR-PK 200
-4-
5. Solve any two :
*SLRPK200*
(72=14)
a) Design single stage CE transistorized amplifier using voltage divider bias

having voltage gain 4, the Q point at (5V, 3mA) and load resistance of
20 Kohm. The lower cut off frequency is 200Hz. The transistor selected has
following parameters hfe = 250, hie = 2 kohm and 1/hoe = 1 M ohm. Assume
suitable stability.
1) Early effect
2) Thermal runaway
3) Relation between Icbo and Iceo.
c) Derive expression Avs, Ais, Ri, Ro for transistor amplifier using fixed bias
with emitter resistance using hybrid parameters for common emitter without
emitter bypass capacitor.
_____________________
Set P
SLR-PK 200
*SLRPK200*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14

a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Shunt
d) None of these
14

a) Delay circuit
a) 5 K
b) 20 K
c) 10 K
d) None of above
a) Iz(min)
b) Vz
c) Iz(max)
d) None
a) Voltage bias
b) Current bias
c) Isolators
d) Impedance
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 200
*SLRPK200*
-2-

a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Large
d) None
a) High
b) Same as CE
c) Very low
d) Very large
amplifier
d) a) and b)
a) B
b) IC
c) IB
d) IE
IE
a) I
B
IC
b) I
ICO
IE
c) I
C
d) None of these

a) Transistor
b) Transformer
c) Zener Diode
d) Rectifier
13) If = 0.98 then will be ____________
a) 16
b) 68
c) 49
d) 100
a) 180 Out of phase
b) In phase
c) 90 out of phase
d) None of these
______________
Set Q
*SLRPK200*
-3-
SLR-PK 200
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)
(72=14)

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)

Set Q
SLR-PK 200
-4-
5. Solve any two :
*SLRPK200*
(72=14)

suitable stability.
1) Early effect
2) Thermal runaway
_____________________
Set Q
SLR-PK 200
*SLRPK200*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14

a) Transistor
b) Transformer
c) Zener Diode
d) Rectifier
14
2) If = 0.98 then will be ____________

a) 16
b) 68
c) 49
d) 100
a) 180 Out of phase
b) In phase
c) 90 out of phase
d) None of these
a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Shunt
d) None of these
a) Delay circuit
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 200
*SLRPK200*
-2-

b) 20 K
a) 5 K
c) 10 K
d) None of above
a) Iz(min)
b) Vz
c) Iz(max)
d) None
a) Voltage bias
b) Current bias
c) Isolators
d) Impedance
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Large
d) None
a) High
b) Same as CE
c) Very low
d) Very large
amplifier
d) a) and b)
a) B
b) IC
c) IB
d) IE
IE
a) I
B
IC
b) I
ICO
IE
c) I
C
d) None of these
______________
Set R
*SLRPK200*
-3-
SLR-PK 200
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)
(72=14)

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)

Set R
SLR-PK 200
-4-
5. Solve any two :
*SLRPK200*
(72=14)

suitable stability.
1) Early effect
2) Thermal runaway
_____________________
Set R
SLR-PK 200
*SLRPK200*
Seat
No.
Set

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70

one mark.
of Page.
Marks : 14
14

a) Delay circuit
a) 5 K
b) 20 K
c) 10 K
d) None of above
a) Iz(min)
b) Vz
c) Iz(max)
d) None
a) Voltage bias
b) Current bias
c) Isolators
d) Impedance
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Large
d) None
a) High
b) Same as CE
c) Very low
d) Very large
P.T.O.
SLR-PK 200
*SLRPK200*
-2-

amplifier
d) a) and b)
a) B
b) IC
c) IB
d) IE
IE
a) I
B
IC
b) I
ICO
IE
c) I
C
d) None of these

a) Transistor
b) Transformer
c) Zener Diode
d) Rectifier
11) If = 0.98 then will be ____________
a) 16
b) 68
c) 49
d) 100
a) 180 Out of phase
b) In phase
c) 90 out of phase
d) None of these
a) Parallel
b) Series
c) Shunt
d) None of these
______________
Set S
*SLRPK200*
-3-
SLR-PK 200
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 56
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)
(72=14)

SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(3.54=14)

Set S
SLR-PK 200
-4-
5. Solve any two :
*SLRPK200*
(72=14)

suitable stability.
1) Early effect
2) Thermal runaway
_____________________
Set S

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SLR-PK 1

F. E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Attempt any three questions from each Section.

1. Choose the correct answer :

1) If x = cos + i sin then the value of x100 +

2) The modulus of z is constant then it represents

3) The real part of sinhz if z = x + iy is

4) Which of the following is not true ?

5) If y = e10x then yn = ____________

6) If y = ex cos x then yn = ___________

7) The coefficient of x5 in the expansion of cosx is

8) Let A be 33 matrix of rank 2 then the solution of AX = 0 has

= 3, = 10, system is consistent

12) If u = f(r, s), r = x + y, s = x y, then

13) If u = log (x2 + y2 + z2), then x

F. E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

b) Express sin8 in a series of cosines of multiples of .

c) Find the roots of the equation x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1 = 0.

b) If y = sinrx + cosrx, prove that yn = rn [1 + (1)n sin 2rx]

c) If y = (x2 1)n then prove that (x2 1) yn+2 + 2x yn+1 n (n + 1) yn = 0.

c) Expand log tan x + in powers of x upto x2 by using Taylors theorem.

b) If sin ( + i) = x + iy prove that x2 cosec2 y2 sec2 = 1.

2 by reducing it to normal form.

b) Investigate the values of and so that the equations

7. Attetmpt the following :

8. Atteempt the following :

b) If z = f(x, y) , x= r cos , y = r sin , prove that

9. Attempt the following :

c) Examine f(x, y) = x3 + y3 3 axy for maximum and minimum values.

F. E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Attempt any three questions from each Section.

1. Choose the correct answer :

1) Let A be 33 matrix of rank 2 then the solution of AX = 0 has

= 3, = 10, system is consistent

4) If X1 , X2, X3 are linearly independent and K1 X1+ K2 X2 + K3 X3 = 0, then

6) If u = log (x2 + y2 + z2), then x

8) If x = cos + i sin then the value of x100 +

10) The real part of sinhz if z = x + iy is

11) Which of the following is not true ?

12) If y = e10x then yn = ____________

13) If y = ex cos x then yn = ___________

14) The coefficient of x5 in the expansion of cosx is

F. E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

b) Express sin8 in a series of cosines of multiples of .

c) Find the roots of the equation x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1 = 0.

b) If y = sinrx + cosrx, prove that yn = rn [1 + (1)n sin 2rx]

c) If y = (x2 1)n then prove that (x2 1) yn+2 + 2x yn+1 n (n + 1) yn = 0.

c) Expand log tan x + in powers of x upto x2 by using Taylors theorem.

b) If sin ( + i) = x + iy prove that x2 cosec2 y2 sec2 = 1.

2 by reducing it to normal form.

b) Investigate the values of and so that the equations

7. Attetmpt the following :

8. Atteempt the following :

b) If z = f(x, y) , x= r cos , y = r sin , prove that

9. Attempt the following :

c) Examine f(x, y) = x3 + y3 3 axy for maximum and minimum values.

F. E. (Part I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Attempt any three questions from each Section.

1. Choose the correct answer :

2) If y = ex cos x then yn = ___________