NEET PAPER -2

PHYSICS

Pattern of the Entrance Test:1) The Entrance Test shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (four
options with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology) to
be answered on the specially designed machine-gradable sheet using Ball Point Pen only. The
duration of paper would be 03 hours
2) Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response one mark will be deducted from the total score.
1.

2.

The dimensions of

h
are same as that of (where h = planck's constant and e = charge)
e

1) Magnetic field induction

2) Magnetic flux

3) Electric field strength

4) Elctric flux

A block A is pulled on a smooth horizontal plane with a rope which moves with velocity

as shown in figure. The velocity of the block on the plane 'u' is

v

smooth

1) cos ec

2) s in

3) cos

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4) sec

3.
4.

Find the value of p so that 2i j k , i 2 j 3k and 3i pj 5k may be coplanar

1) -8
2) -4
3) 2
4) 4
A stationary body of mass 3kg explodes into three equal pieces. Two of the pieces fly off at
at right angles to each other, one with a velocity 2i ms1 and the other with a velocity
3 j ms1. If the explosion takes plece in 105s, the average force acting on the third piece
in newton is
5
1) 2i 3 j 10

5.

5
2) 2i 3 j 10

5
4) 2i 3 j 10

A small particle of mass m is released from rest from point A on frictionless hemispherical bowl as shown in figure. The ratio of magnitude of centripetal force and normal reaciton
on the particle at any point B is

6.

5
3) 3 j 2i 10

1) 2/3
2) 1/2
3) 2/3
4) 4/5
A body is projected up a smooth inclined plane with velocity u from the point A as shown
in fig. The height of the inclined plane is 5.4m and the top of the inclind plane is connected to a well of diameter 3.6m. the body just manages to cross the well. The value of
u is ( g= 10ms2)

v
u

5.4m

450
3.6m
1) 20ms1

2) 12ms1

3) 30ms1
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4)54ms 1

7.

Two blocks, A of mass 1kg and another B of mass 2kg are shown in figure. A force of 5N is
applied on A. Coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and that between B and horizontal surface is zero. Find the time taken for the front face of A to coincide with that of B:
4cm

5N

A
B
8cm

8
3
s
s
3)
4) 0.2s
3
8
When a body is moving vertically up with constant velocity, then match the following
Column-I
Column -II
1) Work done by lifting force is
A) Negative
2) Total work done byall the forces is
B) Positive
3) Work done by gravity
C) Zero
4) Work done by lifting force + work done by gravity
D) Higher positive values
1) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - C
2) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - A
3) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
4) 1 - A, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D
A ladder of length 6m and mass 40kg rests with its upper end against a smooth wall and
lower end on rough ground. Find the minimum coefficient of friction between the ground
and the ladder so that the ladder does not slip if the ladder makes an angel of 600 with the
horizontal ( take g =10ms2)

1) 2s
8.

9.

1
1
3
3)
4)
2 3
3
2
2
10. During the vapourization of some amount of water at 373K at atmospheric pressure which
of the following statements is correct ?
a) Work is done by the steam water system on the atmosphere
b) Work is done on the steam water system by the atmosphere
c) The internal energy of the steam water system increases
d) The internal energy of the steam water system decreases
1. a, c only
2. b, d only
3. b, c only
4. a, d only

1)

2)

2)

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11.

Which of the following is not correct about the centre of mass?

1) It depends on the frame of reference
2) The angular momentum of a system about the centre of mass is always zero
3) Internal forces do not affect the motion of centre of mass
4) Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre of gravity
12. Two billiard balls of the same size (radius r ) and same mass are in contact on a billiard
table. A third ball also of the same size and mass strikes them symmetrically and remains
at rest after the impact. The coefficient of restitution between the balls is
1) 1/3
2) 2/3
3) 1/2
4) 3/4
13. Find the ratio of energy required to raise a satellite upto a height R (radius of earth)
from the surface of earth to that required to put it into an orbit at that height.
3
4
3
3)
4)
2
3
4
14. A wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. When a weight W is hanged from its
lower end, in air, the wire extends by 16cm. When the weigth is completely immersed in
water, the extension reduces to 12cm. Then the relative density of the material of the
weigth is
1) 5gcm3
2) 8gcm3
3) 4gcm3
4) 6gcm3
15. A small block of wood of specific gravity 0.4 is submerged at a depth of 1.6m in a con-

1) 2/3

2)

g
.
3
Then the time taken by the block to reach the surface when released with zero initial
velocity is
1) 0.4s
2) 0.5s
3) 0.1s
4) 0.2s
16. When a liquid is poured, it insists to runs down the side of the can instead of falling
straight down from the tip as shown in fig. This can be explained by

tainer containing water. The container is accelerated upward with an aceleration

1) Viscosity
3) Bernoulli's principle

2) Surface tension
4) Newton's third law of motion

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17. A flask with open mouth contains air at 270C. Find the temperature at which

2
th mass of
5

the air escapes the flask.

1) 2270C
2) 3000C
3) 2460C
4) 2730C
18. Three rods A, B and C made of the same material and having the same cross-section have
lengths 10cm, 20cm and 10cm respectively. Their ends are at temperatures 600C, 600C
and 00C as shown. Then the temperature of the junction D is
600C
A
C
0
10cm
0C

10cm
B

20cm

600C

1) 300C
2) 360C
3) 500C
4) 400C
19. Three moles of an ideal monoatomic gas perform on cycle as shown. The gas temperat ur es i n dif f er ent st at es ar e T 1= 400K, T2= 800K, T3= 2400K & T4=1200K. The work
done by the gas during the cycles is approximately.
P
2
1

1) 10kJ
2) 20kJ
3) 30kJ
4) 15kJ
20. Assertion (A): Mean free path of the molecule of a gas varies inversely as the density of
the gas
Reason (R): Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is flase but R is true
21. A particle performs SHM with a period of 16s. At time t=2s, the particle passes through
origin (MP), while at t=4s, its velocity is 4ms-1. Its amplitude is ______
32 2
1)

16 3
2)

24 2
3) 2

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16
4)

22. Speed of sound is 320m/s and frequency of sound wave entering at A is 500Hz. No sound is
heard at B as shown in fig. Then the length of the curved path curved path CDE may be
D
C

E
B

1) 16cm

2) 32cm

3) 48cm

4) 88cm

23. A radar sends a radio signal of frequency 9 109 Hz towards an aircraft approaching the
radar. If the reflected wave shows a frequency shift of 3 103 Hz, the speed with which the
aircraft is approaching the radar in ms1 [ Velocity of the radio signal = 3X108ms1]
1) 150
2) 100
3) 50
4) 25
24. Two similar charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make
an angle of 300 with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8gm/cc, the
angle remains the same. What is the dielectric constant of the liquid ? Given density of
material of the spheres =1.6gm/cc.
1) 3
2) 4
3) 2
4) 5
25. The equipotential lines and their positions in x y plane are shown in figure. Find electric
field internsity in this region
y
4V

300

5cm

30 0

8V

12V

30 0

10cm 15cm

1) 140 V/m
2) 160 V/m
3) 120 V/m
4) 180 V/m
26. An electrical dipole is placed at the origin and is directed along the x-axis At a point P,
far away from the dipole, the electric field is parallel to the y- axis. OP makes an angle
with the x- axis then
1) tan 3

2) tan 2

3) 450

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4) tan

1
2

27. The LED, i.e., light emitting diode

a) is made from Ge or Si
c) is forward biased
1) a and b are correct
3) a, b and c are correct

b) is made from Ga As P
d) is reverse biased
2) b and c are correct
4) a, b and d are correct

28. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and respectively. If
initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1
to that of X2 will be 1/e after a time of
1
1) 10

1
2) 11

11
3) 10

1
4) 9

29. Assertion (A): Free electrons in conductors do not acquire infinite velocity even after
eE
.
m
Reason (R): The velocity acquired by them becomes zero after every collision with the
lattice sites
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is flase but R is true
30. Resistance of potentiometer wire AB is 10 . This is in series with a battery of 5V and a
resistance R 40 . The length of the potentiometer wire is 5m. The null point is obtained
at 2m from the end A . Find emf 'E'.

infinite time though acceleration is a

5V

R 40

1) 2V
2) 0.2V
3) 20mV
4) 0.4V
31. A tightly wound long solenoid of the radius r metre and number of turns per metre equal
to n, carries a current of i amp. A paticle of mass m and charge q projected from a point on
its axis in a direction at right angle to its axis. Find the maximum velocity of the particle
so that it may not touch the solenoid
1)

0 nqri
m

2)

0 nqri
4m

3)
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0 mnri
2

4)

0 riq
2mn

32. A galvanometer of 25 resistance can read a maximum currect of 6mA. It can be used as
a voltmeter to measure maximum of 6V by connecting a resistance to the galvanometer.
Identify the correct choice in the given answers.
1) 1025 in series
2) 1025 in parallel 3) 975 in series
4) 975 in parallel
33. When a current is passed in a circular coil, neutral point is found to be at its centre and
BH at that place is 0.32 104 T . What will be the resultant magnetic field at the centre
when the plane of the coil is turned though 900 ?
1) 0.32 104 T

2) 0.64 104 T
3) 0.45 104 T
4) 0.16 104 T
34. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have:
1) High retentivity and high coercivity
2) Low retentivity and high coercivity
3) High retentivity and low coercivity
4) Low retentivity and low coercivity
35. The loop PQ, as shwon in figure moves with a velocity . Both loop and velocity are in the

plane of paper and a magnetic field B exists in the region perpendicular to plane and
directed inward. Find the emf induced between P and Q.
x

x x x
P
a A
x x x

Q
C
b
x x x

v
r

1) B 2r

2) B a b 2r

3) B a b r

4) B r

36. In ac a.c circuit, the current flowing is i 5sin 100t / 2 A and the potential difference
is V 200sin 100t V . The power consumption is equal to
1) 100W

2) 40W

3) 20W

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4) 0W

37. In the given circuit each one of the diodes D1 and D2 has forward resistance of 40 ohm and
infinite backward resistance. Each one of the ammeters A1, A2 and A3 has internal resistance
5ohm. The readings of A1A2 and A3 are respectively
A3
50

D1

75

A2

D2
100

A1

12V
1) 0.06A, Zero, 0.04A
3) 0.06A, Zero, 0.06A

2) Zero, 0.08A, 0.03A

4) 0.03A, 0.08A, Zero

38. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is given by Ex= 0, E y =2.5

V
m

[cos 2 106 rads 1 t 10 2 m 1 x] , Ez = 0, The wave is

1) Moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100m

2) Moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m
3) Moving along -x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m
4) Moving along y-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m
39. An object is placed at a distance of 60cm from the lens. A convex mirror is placed as
shown. The image thus formed coincides with the object. The focal length of the lens and
mirror are 20cm and 12cm respectively. Find the distance between the lens and the convex
mirror
f=12cm
X

60cm

1) 6cm
2) 12cm
3) 24cm
4) 30cm
40. A driver uses a lens of power 1.25D for driving a car . The distance of far point of his eye
is:
1) 125cm
2) 62.5cm
3) 80cm
4) 150cm
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41. Modulation is required to

a) Distinguish different transmissions
b) Ensure that the information may be transmitted over long distances
c) Allow the information accessible for different people
1) a and b are true
2) b and c are true
3) c and a are true
4) a, b and c are true
42. A source emits electromagnetic waves of wavelength 3m. One beam reaches the observer
directly and other after reflection from a water surface, travelling 1.5m extra distance
and with intensity reduced to 1/4 as compared to intensity due to the direct beam alone.
The resultant intensity will be
1) (1/4) fold
2) (3/4) fold
3) (5/4) fold
4) (9/4) fold
43. A particle of mass m at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2 having non
1
zero velocities. The ratio of de broglie wavelengths of the particles is
2
m1
1) m
2

m2
2) m
1

3) 1

4)

m2
m1

44. What is the force exerted by a photon of intensity 1.4kWm2, if it falls on a perfect absorber
of radius 2 metre?
1) 5.88 105 N
2) 108 N
3) 8.35 10 4 N
4) 8.8 108 N
45. If the series limit of lymen series for hydrogen atom is equal to the series limit of Balmer
series for a hydrogen like atom, then atomic number of this hydrogen like atom is
1) 1

2) 2

3) 4

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4) 8

CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following does not have spherical as well as angular node ?
1) 1s
2) 2p
3) 3d
4) 5f
47. Equal masses of H2and He gases mixed in vessel recorded a pressure of 7.5 atm. The
partial pressure of H2 is
1) 4.8 atm
2) 2.4 atm
3) 5 atm
4) 7.5 atm
48. pH of a solution is changed from 2 to 5. What has been done to the solution ?
1) 3 times dilution
2) 3 times concentration
3) 100 times concentration
4) 1000 times dilution
49. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is 30.8 kJ mol-1 at its boiling point (80.10C).
Calculate the entropy change in the condensation process.
1) +87.3 JK-1 mol-1 2) -87.3 JK-1 mol-1
3) 240 JK-1 mol-1
4) -240 JK-1 mol-1
50. 2-3% gypsum is added to sample for
1) increasing hardness
2) decreasing setting time
3) increasing setting time
4) making is soft
51. AlCl3 and FeCl3 can be separated from their mixture by using
1) NH4OH
2) NaOH
3) H2O
4) magnetic method
52. Which of the following are correct w.r.t D2O?
1) It can be used as moderator
2) Its m.p. is 3.820C
3) Its b.p. is 101.420C
4) All of these
53. 0.5 molal aqueous solutions of each of NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 have boiling points T1, T2
and T3 respectively. Which of the following is correct ?
1) T1 > T2 > T3
2) T3 > T2 > T1
3) T2 > T1 > T3
4) T1 > T3 > T2
54. i) P Q A fast
ii) A R B slow
iii) B Q S T fast
are the elementary steps of the reactions,
2P Q 2R S T

The rate law of the reaction is:

1) r = k [P] [Q]

2) r = k [P] [Q] [R]

3) r k P 1/2 Q R 1/3 4) r k P Q R

55. NH3 gives brown precipitate with Nesslers reagent. The formula of brown compound is :
1) K2HgI4

2) H 2 N Hg O Hg I

3) Ca 3P2 CaC2

4) NH 4 2 MoO 4

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56. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal ?
1) XeF4

2) BF4

3) SF4

4) SiF4

3) t 02g e g22

4) t12g eg21

57. If P 0 , the d4 is represented as

0
1 ) t 211
2g e g

1
2) t111
2g e g

58. CuSO4. H2O is blue in colour but anhydrous CuSO4 is white though in both copper
exists as Cu2+ ion with one unpaired electron the reason is :
1) CuSO4 (anhydrous) absorbs white light
2) CuSO4 . 5H2O absorbs blue light
3) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4 (anhydrous) and absorption of orange red light
takes place
4) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4.5H2O and absorption of orange-red light takes place
59. Which one of the following elements, when present as an impurity in silicon makes it a

p-type semiconductor?
1) As
2) P

3) In

4) Sb

60. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of

1) CH 2 CH CH CH 2 and C6 H 5CH CH 2
2) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH CH CH 2
3) CH 2 CH CN and CH 2 CH C CH 2
|
CH 3
Cl
|
4) CH 2 CH C CH 2 and CH 2 CH CH CH 2

61. 0.24 g of a volatile substance displaced 53.78 mL of air at STP. The molecular mass of the
of the substance is
1) 24g
2) 53.78g
3) 50g
4) 100g

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62. A fixed mass of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and

back to K as shown
K

M
V

The pair of isochoric processes among the transformations of sates is

1) K to L and L to M 2) L to M and N to K 3) L to M and M to N 4) M to N and N to K
63. If fraction of space occupied in hcp is 'x' and in fcc is 'y', then
1) x > y

2) x < y

3) x = y

4) uncertain

64. The energy of second Bohr's orbit in hydrogen atom is 328kJ mol1. The energy of the
third Bohr's orbit of H is
1) 583.11kJ mol1 2) 853.11kJ mol1 3) 145.78 kJ mol1
4) 511.83kJ mol1
65. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species ?
1) N 2 , O2 , NO , CO 2) C 22 ,O2 , CO, NO
3) NO , C 22 , CN , N 2 4) CN , N2 ,O22 ,C22
66. In which of the following the experimental dipole moment is more than what is expected
from theory ?
CH3

Cl

CH3

1)

OH

2)

Cl

3)

4) All of these

67. The reaction ,

C 6 H 6 (l )

15
O 2 g
6CO 2 g 3H 2 O(l ) is spontaneous, then which of the following is
2

correct ?
1) H TS
2) H TS
3) H TS
4) H 0 and S 0
68. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as
2AB g B2 g
2AB2 g

The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the
degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is
1) 2K p / P

1/3

2) 2K p / P

1/ 2

3) K p / P

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4) 2K p / P

69. The pH of water at 298 K is 7.0. If water is heated to 350 K, then

1) pH will decrease, water will become acidic 2) pH will remain same
3) pH will increase, water wil remain neutral
3) pH will decrease, water will remain neutral
70. 1 mole of each of A and B form an ideal solution of vapour pressure 100 mm Hg. Addition
of 2 moles of B to it, decrease the vapour pressure by 20 mm Hg. Vapour pressures of A
and B in pure state are respectively
1) 100 and 100 mm Hg
2) 100 and 80 mm Hg
3) 60 and 140 mm Hg
4) 140 and 60 mm Hg
71. A 4.0 molar aqueous solutio of NaCl is prepared and 500mL of this solution is electrolysed.
This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The total number of
moles of chlorine gas evolveed is
1) 0.5
2) 1.0
3) 2.0
4) 3.0
72. For the given three cells, which of the following is correct?
a) Zn Zn 2 1.0M Cu 2 1.0M Cu; E1

b) Zn Zn 2 1.0M Cu 2 10.0M Cu; E 2

c) Zn Zn 2 10.0M Cu 2 1.0M Cu; E 3

1) E1 E 2 E3

2) E3 E 2 E1

3) E 2 E1 E3

4) E1 E 2 E 3

Slope=k

2)

Conc.

Conc.

1)

Rate

73. Which of the following graphs represents the first order reaction ?

Time

3)

log [A]

log[A]0
Intercept constant
-k
Slope=2.303

4) All represent 1st order reaction

Time

74. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical field. The particles move towards

anode. The coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlC3 solutions. Their coasgulating power should be
1) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3

2) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl

3) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl

4) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3

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75. Which is wrongly reported ?

1) Spelter : impure zinc
2) Pig iron : impure iron
3) Sphalerite : ZnO
4) Blister Copper : Impure Copper
3
3
76. 100 cm of a sample of H2O2 gives 1000cm of O2 at STP. The given sample is
1) 10 volume H2O2 2) 100 volume H2O2 3) 10% H2O2 (W/V) 4) 2.786N
77. Cs2CO3 is highly soluble in water while BaCO3 quite sparingly soluble. Which of the
following is correct ?
1) hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of Cs2CO3 while it is opposite in case of BaCO3
2) hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of BaCO3 while its opposite in case of Cs2CO3
3) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is high
4) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is low
78. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer ?
1) Me3SiCl
2) PhSiCl3
3) MeSiCl3
4) Me 2SiCl 2
3
79. In PO 4 , the bond order of P O bond and formal charge on O atom are, respectively
1) 0.25, 0.25
2) 0.50, 0.50
3) 1.25, 0.75
4) 0.75, 1.25
Na CO /air
Y .X and Y aree
80. Chormite ore X
fuse
1) Cr2O3 and Na 2Cr2 O 7
2) FeO.Cr2 O3 and Na 2 Cr2 O7
3) FeO.Cr2 O3 and Na 2 CrO 4
4) Cr2O3 and Na 2CrO 4
81. Kjeldahl's method can not be used to estimate nitrogen in which of the following compounds?
2

1)

2)

NH2 C

NH2

3)

4) All of these

NH2

82. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation

1) O2N

CH2

2)

CH2

3) CH3

CH2

4) CH3O

CH2

83. How are the following related ?

CH3

CH2

CH2

I)
III)

CH3

CH3

II)

CH3

CH2

CH2

CH2

1) I and II are position isomers

3) I, II and III are metamers

CH2

CH3

CH3

NH2

2) I and III are chain isomers

4) I, II and III are functional isomers

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84. Ozonolysis is of

(using H2O/Zn) produces

O
||

1) HCHO OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 2) HCHO OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO

O
||

3) CO 2 H 2 O OHC CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO 4) H 2 O CO 2 OHC CH 2 C CH 2 CHO

85. Which of the following is a chain initiation step in the chlorination of CH4?

.
hv
1) Cl Cl
2Cl

2) CH 4 C l
C H 3 HCl

3) C H 3 Cl2
CH 3Cl Cl

4) C H3 C H 3
CH3 CH 3

86. Ethanal is treated with HCN and the resulting compound on hydrolysis followed by
polymerisation gives 'X'. 'X' is used as / in
1) Orthopedic devices

2) Making capsules

3) Post operative stitches

4) Photo films

87. CH 3 CH OH CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 andCH 3 CH 2 CHOH CH 2 CH 3

can be distinguished by
1) HCl / ZnCl2

3) KMnO 4 / H

2) Br2 / CCl4

4) I2 / NaOH

AlCl3
2
Cl CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
P

Q Phenol
iiH O
i O /

88.

The major product P and Q are

1)

3)

and CH3-CH2-CHO

and CH3COCH3

2)

4)

and CH3-CH2-CHO

and CH3-CH2-CHO

89. Which will oxidise glucose to gluconic acid ?

1) Br2 water
2) Benedict solution 3) Tollens'reagent
4) All of these
90. In the titration of Oxalic acid solution with KMnO4, the substance working as catalyst is
1) KMnO4
2) MnO2
3) Oxalic acid
4) MnSO4
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BOTANY

91. In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in
1) Protista

2) Algae

3) Plantae

4) Monera

92. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in which of the following groups

1) Fungi

2) Animalia

3) Monera

4) Plantae

93. The given figures show thalli of a liverwort. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D in
that

a)

b)

1) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C- Roots ; D - Archegoniophore

2) A - sporophyte ; B: rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
3) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
4) A - gemma cup ; B - roots ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore
94. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct
option.
A) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence
2) The multicellular female gametophyte is called endosperm
3) The gymnosperms are heterosporous
1) A and B are true but C is false

2) A and C are true but B is false

3) B and C are false but A is true

4) B and C are true but A is false

95. How many plants in the list given below have tap root modifications - Banyan, Vanda,
Turnip, Sweet potato, Groundnut, Sugarcane, Monstera
1) Four

2) Two

3) Three

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4) Five

96. Aerial roots are modified for both absorption and assimilation in this genus
1) Vanda

2) Monstera

3) Banyan

4) Taeniophyllum

97. The structure which contains vascular bundle and is the modification of stem is
1) Spine

2) Trichome

3) Thorn

4) Prickle

98. Green leaf like modified branches with a single internode are called
1) Phyllode

2) Phylloclade

3) Bulbils

4) Cladode

99. Find the correct match:

1) Mustard plant

: leaves are opposite

2) Guava plant

: leaves are alternate

3) Nerium plant

: leaves are whorled

4) Calotropis plant

: leaves are alternate

100. Which of the following is not a tendril climber

1) Smilax

2) Pisum

3) Grape vine

4) Bean

101. Cup shaped structure in the flower of guava is

1) Thalamus

2) Peduncle

3) Bracts

4) Ovary

102. A character not applicable to chinarose is

1) Alternate phyllotaxy
2) Twisted aestivation in the second whorl of flower
3) Cohesion in the third whorl of flower

4) Solitary, terminal inflorescence

103. Identify the types of placentations in the diagrams A, B, C, D given below respectively

1) Marginal, axile, parietal, basal

2) Marginal, axile, parietal, parietal

3) Marginal, parietal, parietal, axile

4) Parietal, axile, parietal, marginal

ROUGH

104. Fleshy fruits that develop from inferior ovaries are found in
1) Sunflower, apple, cucumber

2) Apple, cucumber, citrus

3) Tomato, grapes, guava

4) Guava, apple, cucumber

105. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from

1) Synergids

2) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule

3) Antipodal cells

4) Diploid egg

106. Incorrect statement among the following

1) In mustard flower stamens have no adhesion or cohesion
2) In thorn apple stamens have adhesion, but not cohesion
3) In sunhemp stamens have cohesion, but not adhesion
4) In lily stamens have both cohesion and adhesion
107. Which of the following is wrongly matched:
1) Aloe - medicine

2) Sesbania - green manure

3) Thorn apple - fumigatory

4) Asparagus - vegetable

108. Which of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ?

1) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane
2) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
3) Adenylic acid - adenosine with glucose phosphate molecule
4) Alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
109. Identify the amino acids n-2, n-1, n, n+1 in the following representation of primary
structure a hypothetical protein
OH
C H 2C O O H

CH 2

SH

C H 2O H

CH 2

CH 2

CH 2

HN CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO NH CH CO
n-2

n-1

n+ 1

1) Glutamic acid, Tyrosine, Cysteine, Serine 2) Serine, cystine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid
3) Serine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid, Cystine 4) Serine, Cystein, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid
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110. What is true about ribosomes

1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where "S" stands for sedimentation co-efficient
2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and protein
3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
4) These are self - splicing introns of some ribozymes
111. If mitotic division is restricted in the G1-Phase of a cell cycle then the condition is
known as
1) S-Phase

2) G2-Phase

3) M-Phase

4) G0-Phase

112. In the following diagram of phloem identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D

1) A - Sieve pore, B - Sieve tube element, C-companion cell, D-Phloem parenchyma

2) A - Sieve pore, B-sieve tube element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-Companion cell
3) A-perforation plate, B-Sieve element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-companion cell
4) A-Sieve pore, B-companion cell, C-sieve tube element, D- Phloem parenchyma
113. Which of the following statements is correct for secondary succession
1) It begins on a bare rock

2) It occurs on a deforested site

3) It follows primary succession

4) It takes place slowly than that of primary succession
114. A cell is equally permeable to sucrose solution and NaCl solution. First the cell is put
in 0.6 M sucrose solution, there is no change in size but when put in 0.6 M NaCl solution
the size will
1) Increase

2) Decrease

3) Remain same

4) Can't be said

3) mesophytes

4) halophytes

115. Stomata open at night in

1) hydrophytes

2) Succulents

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116. In the illustration of mass flow by Munch, identify A, B, C, D respectively

1) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-sink, D- source

2) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-source, D-sink
3) A-concentrated solution, B-dilute solution, C- sink, D-pure water
4) A- dilute solution, B-concentrated solution, C- sink, D-purewater
117. Which inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens
1) Feed back inhibitors

2) Non competitive inhibitors

3) Competitive inhibitors

4) Allosteric inhibitors

118. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less effected by atmospheric CO2 levels because
1) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells
2) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2
3) Four carbon acids are primary initial CO2 fixation products
4) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
119. During the operation of non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the immediate source of
electrons to P700 is
1) Cyt f

2) PC

3) PQ

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4) Fd

120. The following diagram represents ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. Identify A, B,
C, D parts labelled in it
H+
NADP+

NADPH

H 2O
H+
+

H+
H+

Lumen

Thylakoid
membrane
Stroma
D
ADP

ATP

1) Photosystem I

Cytochrome b and f

Photosystem II

ATP synthase

2) PhotosystemII

cytochrome b and f

Photosystem I

CF0

3) Photosystem II

Cytochrome b and f

Photosystem I

ATP synthase

4) Photosystem II

ATP synthase

PhotosystemI

CFI

121. Assimilatory power used in bundlesheath cells of maize for the net production of one
glucose molecule is
1) 30ATP, 12NADPH+H+

2) 12ATP, 6NADPH+H+

3) 18ATP, 12NADPH+H+

4) 30ATP, 18NADPH+H+

122. ATP produced in the mitochondria per one glucose molecule is (both substrate
phosphorylation and oxidation of all reduced coenzymes produced in cytoplasm and
matrix)
1) 34

2) 32

3) 30

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4) 24

123.

G lucose

A
NA D +

N A D H + H+

3 PG A
NA D +

NADH+

D
C O 2 +H 2 O

Pyruvic
acid

N AD H +H +
NAD+
B +CO 2

A, B, C, D in the above representation of respiration are

A

1)

PGAL

Lactic acid

Ethanol

Aerobic respiration

2)

1,3 bis PGA

Ethanol

Lactic acid

Krebs cycle

3)

G-3-P

Ethanol

Lactic acid

Aerobic respiration

4)

F, 1,6 bis P

Ethanol

Lactic acid

Aerobic respiration

124. Bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one pole is known as

1) Lophotrichous

2) Monotrichous

3) Amphitrichous

4) Peritrichous

125. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results, from this he
concluded that
1) These is no independent assortment of traits
2) These is no dominance of any trait
3) Gametes are always pure for a particular trait
4) Sex has no influence on the dominance of traits

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126. Mendel's principle of seggregation means germ cells always receive

1) One pair of alleles

2) One quarter of the genes

3) One of the paired alleles

4) Any pair of alleles

127. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross
1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombinations
2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations
4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
128. In the history of biology human genome project led to the development of
1) Biotechnology

2) Biomonitoring

3) Bioinformatics

4) Biosystematics

129. The purpose of polymerase chain reaction is

1) DNA modification

2) DNA amplification

3) DNA replication

4) DNA visualisation

130. Match the codons with their respective aminoacids and choose correct answer
Colum I

Colum II

A. UUU

1. Serine

B. GGG

2. Methionine

C. UCU

3. Phenylalanine

D. CCC

4. Glycine

E. AUG

5. Proline

1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2

2) A-3, B-1, D-4, D-5, E-2

3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-2

4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3

131. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence with in a gene are

1) Frame shift mutation

2) Base pair substitution

3) Both a and b

4) None of these

132. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

1) Make cut at specific positions within the DNA molecule
2) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
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133. Which of the following is a wrong match for a microbe and its industrial product
1) Yeast - statins
2) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid
3) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid

4) Aspergillus niger - citric acid

134. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This
protein
1) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry
2) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to the toxin
3) Is activated by acidic pH in the foregut of insect pest
4) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut in the insect pest ultimately killing it
135. Which of the following is a eukaryotic biofertilizer
1) Nostoc

2) NPV

3) Rhizobium

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4) Glomus

ZOOLOGY

136. In the case of suspected filarial patients, blood samples are collected during night
time because the
1) patients do not feel much pain
2) filarial worms enter into blood from lymph during night time
3) microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity
4) adult worms are active in blood circulation during night time
137. The drug cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy levels as it
1)acts as amphetamine

2)stimulates adrenal glands to produce steroids

3)causes the inhibition of cholinergic nerves 4)interferes with the transport of dopamine
138. Which of the following is not a symptom of chronic malaria?
1)Splenomegaly

2)Hypertrophy of RBC

3)Cirrhosis of liver

4)Anaemia

139. In cockroach, the structures that help in locomotion on smooth surface are
1)claws and arolium

2)pulvillus and bristles of podomeres

3)plantulae on tarsus

4)plantulae, claws

140. Incorrect statement about the mushroom shaped gland of Periplaneta americana from
the following
1)Helps in storage and excretion of uric acid
2)Secretes the innermost layer of spermatophore
3)Stores the sperms in the form of spermatophores
4)Nourishes the sperms
141. In a biological community Gauses principle explains
1)competition among different species under unlimited resources
2)competitive exclusion of an inferior species due to the limited natural resources
3)coexistence of closely related species due to resource partitioning
4)intra specific competition due to limited natural resources
142. In India, grassland ecosystems are found mainly in
1)Ladakh region

2)Himalayan region

3)Deccan plateau

4)Western ghats

ROUGH

143. The influence of light on non-directional movement of animals is known as

1)phototaxis

2)photoperiodism

3)photokinesis

4)phototropism

144. According to the study of molecular systematics, the kingdom replaced by the two
kingdoms bacteria and archebacteria is
1)Fungi

2)Protista

3)Monera

4)Metaphyta

145. Identify the correct match from the following

1)Earth summit-Johannesburg, South Africa
2)Biosphere reserves-Norman Myers
3)Jim Corbett National park-first Indian national park in Gujarat
4)Cryopreservation-ex-situ conservation
146. In humans mucous connective tissue is present mainly in the
1)mucosa lining of gut

2)lining of alveoli of lungs

3)umbilical chord of newly born infants

4)walls of trachea, bronchi and bronchioles
147. Cardiac muscles are highly resistant to fatigue mainly due to the presence of
1)intercalated discs

2)branched muscle fibres and communication junctions

3)specialised autorhythmic muscle fibres

4)numerous sarcosomes and myoglobin molecules
148. Identify the correct combination from the following
Scientific name

Respiratory organs Excretory organs

1)Astacus

Dermal branchiae

Green glands

2)Aplysia

Ctenidia

Meta nephridia

3)Aphrodite

Parapodia

Protonephridia

4)Ascidian

Pharyngeal gill slits Proboscis gland

149. Echinoderm with elongated body and without arms,spines is

1)Gorgonocephalus 2)Thyone

3)Clypeaster

4)Antedon

150. Incorrect statement about "great white shark" from the following
1)Sharks exhibit physiological uraemia
2)They have placoid scales and heteroceracal caudal fin
3)Fertilization internal and viviparous in nature
4)Lobe finned fishes with air bladder acting as hydrostatic organ
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151. Identify the correct match from the following

1)Gavialis-Vascular cloacal wall

2)Corvus-Urinary bladder present

3)Cervus-Intra abdominal testes

4)Trichechus-Six cervical vertebrae

152. Identify the uricotelic animal from the following

1)Land leech

2)Land snail

3)Desert fox

4)Camel

153. Incorrect match from the following

1)Paneth cells-lysozyme

2)Schawnn cells-myelin sheath

3)Dendritic cells-afferent neurons

4)Mast cells-inflammation

154. Which of the following is an exotic carp?

1)Tunas

2)Common carp

3)Cat fish

4)Oil sardine

155. Follicular hyperkeratosis is a/an

1)sex influenced trait

2)holandric character

3)sexlinked dominant trait

4)autosomal recessive character

156. Amniocentesis test is developed mainly to

1)confirm the pregnancy

2)determin the sex of the foetus

3)detect the chromosomal abnormalities

4)findout the correct position of foetus

157. Which of the following disorder is not caused by trisomy(2n+1) in human beings?
1)Down syndrome

2)Turner's syndrome

3)Kline felter syndrome

4)Patau syndrome

158. In a family, blood groups of children are entirely different from that of parents only if
the blood groups of the parents are
1)A and B

2)AB and AB

3)AB and O

4)O and A or B

159. Correct match from the following

1)Mutation theory-Bateson

2)Survival of the fittest-Herbert Spencer

3)Principles of geology-Alfred Wallace

4)Biochemical recapitulation -Ernst Haeckel

160. The first human like being frugivorous in habit and hunted with sharp stony objects
was named
1)Australopithecus

2)Homo neanderthalensis

3)Homo habilis

4)Homo erectus

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161. Incorrect match from the following

1)MRI-aneurysm

2)EEG-epilepsy

3)PSA test-cervical cancer

4)PCR-HIV detection

162. The technique of attenuating or weakening of a microbe was developed by

1)Edward Jenner

2)Alexander Fleming 3)Louis Pasteur

4)Jonas Salk

163. Ampulla of vater is formed by the union of

1)common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct 2)common bile duct and pancreatic duct
3)cystic duct and common hepatic duct

4)infundibulum and isthmus of fallopian tube

164. Adenoids are present in

1)nasopharynx

2)oropharynx

3)below the tongue

4)laryngophrynx

165. In human development, most of the organ systems are developed by the end of
1)first month

2)24 weeks

3)first trimester

4)8 weeks

166. The cells that provide nutrition to developing spermatozoa in testes are called
1)Kupffer cells

2)Leydig cells

3)Sertoli cells

4)Oxyntic cells

167. Rima glottidis is the narrow space between the

1)true vocal folds and false vocal cords

2)true vocal cords and arytenoids

3)corniculate cartilages and cuneiform cartilages 4)arytenoids and thyroid cartilages

168. Pneumoconiosis is caused by the
1)bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae
2)inhalation of coal dust and sulphur particles
3)release of vasodilator substances due to allergens
4)deposition of iron particles in alveoli of lungs
169. The specialised myocytes present in inner ventricular walls of heart beneath
endocardium are called
1)Chorde tendinae

2)Papillary muscles 3)Purkinje fibres

4)Columnae carneae

170. In human heart, the non functional valve in the right atrium is present at the opening
of
1)coronary sinus

2)superior venacava

3)inferior venacava

4)right atrioventricular aperture

ROUGH

171. Which of the following hormones are not antagonistic to each other in their actions?
1)Parathormone and calcitonin

2)Somatocrinin and somatostatin

3)Cortisol and Catecholamines

4)Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide

172. Prostaglandins are derivatives of

1)tryptophan

2)tyrosine

3)glycoproteins

4)eicosanoids

173. The vestibular apparatus concerned with body equilibrium is constituted by

1)saccule and utricle

2)ampullae and cristae

3)maculae and vestibule

4)semicircular canals and otolith organ

174. Inter ventricular foramina are connecting the

1)atria and ventricles in heart

2)paracoels and diocoel in brain

3)3rd and 4th ventricles of brain

4)right and left ventricles of heart

175. Joint between two adjacent vertebrae of mammals is an example of

1)symphysis and synarthrosis

2)synchondrosis and syndesmosis

3)diarthrose and syndesmosis

4)symphysis and amphiarthrosis

176. Hensen's disc is

1)part of primitive streak

2)part of sarcomere made of only myosin

3)primitive knot through which chordamesodermal cells involute to form notochord

4)bilaminar embryonic disc with epiblast and hypoblast
177. Autoimmune disease from the following
1)Glomerulo nephritis

2)Osteo arthritis

3)Rheumatoid arthritis

4)Meningitis

178. In the conduction of nerve impulse, relative refractory period coincides with the phase
of
1)depolarisation

2)repolarisation

3)hyperpolarisation

4)polarisation

179. In kidneys, renal columns are made of

1)renal calyces

2)medullary pyramids

3)renal cortex

4)renal papillae

180. In the process of urine formation, selective reabsorption is minimum in this part of
nephron
1)Proximal convoluted tubule

2)Distal convoluted tubule

3)Henle's loop

4)Collecting duct
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NEET PAPER 2 KEY SHEET

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

4)

5)

6)

7)

8)

9)

10) 1

11) 1

12) 2

13) 1

14) 3

15) 1

16) 2

17) 1

18) 2

19) 2

20) 2

21) 1

22) 4

23) 3

24) 3

25) 2

26) 2

27) 2

28) 4

29) 1

30) 4

31) 1

32) 3

33) 3

34) 4

35) 2

36) 4

37) 3

38) 2

39) 1

40) 3

41) 4

42) 4

43) 3

44) 1

45) 2

CHEMISTRY

46) 1

47) 3

48) 4

49) 2

50) 3

51) 2

52) 4

53) 2

54) 4

55) 2

56) 3

57) 2

58) 4

59) 3

60) 2

61) 4

62) 2

63) 3

64) 3

65) 3

66) 2

67) 1

68) 1

69) 4

70) 4

71) 2

72) 3

73) 4

74) 3

75) 3

76) 1

77) 1

78) 1

79) 3

80) 3

81) 1

82) 1

83) 4

84) 2

85) 1

86) 3

87) 4

88) 3

89) 4

90) 4

92) 3

93) 3

94) 4

95) 2

96) 4

97) 3

98) 4

99) 3

100) 4

BOTANY

91) 1

101) 1 102) 4

103) 2 104) 4

105) 2 106) 4

107) 3 108) 1

109) 4 110) 2

111) 4 112) 2

113) 2 114) 2

115) 2 116) 1

117) 3 118) 4

119) 2 120) 3

121) 3 122) 1

123) 3 124) 1

125) 4 126) 3

127) 4 128) 3

129) 2 130) 1

131) 3 132) 1

133) 3 134) 4

135) 4

137) 4

138) 3 139) 3

140) 3 141) 2

142) 2 143) 3

144) 3 145) 4

146) 3 147) 4

148) 2 149) 2

150) 4 151) 4

152) 2 153) 3

154) 2 155) 3

156) 3 157) 2

158) 3 159) 2

160) 3 161) 3

162) 3 163) 2

164) 1 165) 3

166) 3 167) 2

168) 4 169) 3

170) 3 171) 3

172) 4 173) 4

174) 2 175) 4

176) 2 177) 3

178) 3 179) 3

180) 3

ZOOLOGY

136)
3