Banking Crack Book by GovernmentAdda

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list is the list from you copied content

http://gradestack.com/blogs/ibps-po-pre-2016-reasoning-section-detailed-syl
labus-pattern/
http://gradestack.com/blogs/how-to-approach-reasoning-section-for-ibps-po2016-exam/
http://gradestack.com/blogs/ibps-po-prelims-quant-section-detailed-syllabuspattern/
http://gradestack.com/blogs/ibps-po-pre-2016-exam-english-section-detailed
-syllabus-pattern/
http://www.sscadda.com/2016/09/bankssc-exam-how-to-study-for-12-14.htm
l
http://www.bankersadda.com/2016/08/56-days-study-plan-for-ibps-po-prelim
s.html
Plagiarist, looters
you are a community of thieves.
SYLLABUS
CRACK BOOK
Copyright 2016@GovernmentAdda.All rights reserved
Beware of such raskals
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Table Of Content :1. IBPS Detailed Syllabus Copied From GradeStack

2. Study Plan To Crack the Exam from GradeStack
3. English Crack Book Copied From BankExamToday
4. Reasoning Crack Book
All are Copied.
5. DI Crack Book
6. Quantitative Aptitude Crack Book
7. Practice Sets for English,Reasoning,Quant,DI
8. Previous Year Papers Scanned Copy
9. Model Papers just a Scanned Copy
It means all artices are just copied and paste

and they use to sell with guarantee.
Not a single line is your effort.
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IBPS PO Exam: Syllabus & Pattern

Hello GovernmentAdda.com Readers,
The official notification of IBPS PO-VI 2016 examination has been
released now. As per the notification there are around 8800 vacancies
for 2017 18 recruitment. There has been no change in the exam
pattern of Prelims Exam but IBPS has introduced fixed time for each
section in IBPS PO Mains Exam, similar to SBI Clerk & PO Mains
Exam.
Around 20 lakh students are expected to appear for the IBPS PO VI
Exam. This is a very good opportunity for all those aspirants who
couldnt be able to clear the SBI Clerk & SBI PO Prelims Exam. It is
up to you how to make the best use of the opportunity. Now, dont
waste your time thinking about the past, accept your destiny & move
forward. So this is a high time to prepare yourself for the upcoming
exam.
Before looking at the syllabus, let us check out the eligibility criteria,
important dates & exam pattern.
Eligibility Criteria:
Age limit:Minimum 20 years & Maximum 30 years as on

01.07.2016
Educational Qualifications: Should be Graduate from a
recognised university/ Institution. No minimum % required.
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Important
Dates:
Date of online registration 26th July 2016 to 13th August 2016

Date of Prelims Exam 16th, 22nd and 23rd October 2016
Date of Mains Exam 20th November 2016
The Selection Process of the Exam consists of 3 phases which are

given below:
i)Phase I:Online Preliminary Examination (Objective Test)
ii)Phase II:Online Mains Examination (Objective Test)
iii) Phase III: Interview
NOTE:
Prelims Exam is of qualifying nature. Marks obtained in mains

examination only will be counted for interview call. Final merit
list will be made on the basis of total marks obtained in Mains
exam & Interview.
There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong
answer in prelims & mains.
There will be sectional as well as over-all cut off in prelims &
mains both.
This is copied from

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Prelims Exam Pattern

The marks secured in the Phase I (Prelim Exam) will not be counted
for the purpose of Final Selection. This is a qualifying round similar
to SBI PO prelim exam.
The prelims exam of IBPS PO will have the following pattern:
Mains Exam Pattern

The mains exam of IBPS PO is divided into 5 sections similar to last
year but this year, IBPS has specified the time to attempt each of
the five sections. Sections have to be attempted in the same order as
specified at the time of mains exam. We cant move to next section
before the specified time for the current section.
The mains exam of IBPS PO will have the following pattern:
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Expected Syllabus
The questions that will be asked can be from any of the following
mentioned topics. So go through the syllabus thoroughly which will
give you a proper idea of the expected questions from each of the
sections.
Quantitative Aptitude
Simplification
Number Series
Ratio & Proportion
Percentage & Averages
Profit & Loss
Mixtures & Allegations
Simple Interest & Compound Interest
Work & Time
Time & Distance
Sequence & Series
Permutation, Combination & Probability
Data Interpretation
Reasoning
Seating Arrangement
Syllogism
Input Output
Coding Decoding
Alphanumeric Series
Ranking/Direction/Alphabet test
Data sufficiency
Coded Inequalities
Puzzle
Logical Reasoning
English language
Reading Comprehension
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Cloze test
Fill in the blanks
Error Spotting
Sentence Correction
Para Jumbles
General Awareness
Banking & Financial Awareness

Current Affairs
Static GK (Few questions)
Computer Knowledge
Fundamentals of Computer
History of Computer
Internet
MS Office Word, Power point, Excel & Access
Memory
Input Output devices
Computer Shortcuts
Detailed syllabus & important topics of each section given below.
From GradeStack
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Let's see How they Copied
IBPS PO PRE
SYLLABUS
This is copied from

GradeStack.com
http://gradestack.com/blogs/how-to-approach-reasoning-section-for-ibps-po-2016-exam/
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Reasoning Section Detailed Syllabus & Pattern

Reasoning Section
Exact copy and paste, let check

http://gradestack.com/blogs/how-to-approach-reasoning-section-for-ibps-po-2016-exam/
Consists of 35 questions.
1 mark will be awarded for every right answer.

0.25 marks will be deducted for every wrong answer.
Total 35 marks.
Expected number of questions from various topics of Reasoning is

as follows
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Inequality 5 questions
Syllogism 5 questions
Coding Decoding 5 questions
Puzzle / Seating Arrangement 15 questions
Miscellaneous 5 questions (Blood Relation, Direction, Ranking
etc)
1. Inequality:
In this type of questions, some statements followed by conclusions
are given. In the statement, relationship between some variables is
given and in the conclusion, the relationship between some other
variables is asked.
Questions from this topic can be asked in two different ways
Case I
The relationship between the variables is directly given.
e.g. Mark answers if

1.
2.
3.
4.
Only conclusion I follows.

Only conclusion II follows.
Either conclusion I or II follows.
Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
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5. Both conclusion I and II follows.

Q.) Statement: P Q = R > S > T
Conclusions: I. P T
II. T < Q
Solution: P is either greater than or equal to Q. But Q is equal to R
which means P is either greater than or equal to R and we can see that
P is greater than S, which finally tells that P will definitely be greater
than T. However the first conclusion says P is either greater or equal
to T which is not necessarily true.
Now Q is equal to R which leads to Q greater than S which finally
tells that Q is greater than T. So only conclusion II follows.
Case II
The relationship between the variables is coded. We have to

decode the relationship to check whether the conclusions
follow or not.
Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, % and

& are used with the meanings as illustrated below:
P @ Q means P is not smaller than Q
P # Q means P is not greater than Q
P $ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P % Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
P & Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given
statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and
IV given below them is / are definitely true and give your answer
accordingly.
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Q.) Statements: A $ B, B % C, C & D, D # E

Conclusions:
I. E @ C
II. D $ B
III. A $ E
IV. B % E
1) Only I, II and III are true
2) Only I, II and IV are true
3) Only II, III and IV are true
4) Only I, III and IV are true
5) All I, II, III and IV are true
Solution:
@ means
# means
<
& means =
$ means >
% means
Statement: A>B, B<C, C=D, DE

Conclusions:
I.EC (As ED and D=C which means EC)
II.D>B (As D=C and C>B which means D>B)
III.A>E (As ED and D=C and C>B which means E>B and we know
that A>B, so cant be sure)
IV.B<E (As ED and D=C and C>B which means E>B)
Which means I, II and IV are true.
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So option (2) is the correct answer.

2. Syllogism:
In syllogism questions, some statements followed by some
conclusions is given. We have to decide which of the conclusions
follow with the help of the given statements.
The conclusions should be true in any case. The best approach to
solve these questions is that one should always try to prove the
conclusion wrong, if the conclusion cant be proved wrong in any
case then it is definitely true.
Generally Venn diagrams are used to solve these questions.
Directions: In each of the following questions, three statements are
given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: Some chocolates are candies. All candies are sweet. No
sweet is free.
Conclusions:
I.Some chocolates are free.
II. Some candies are free.
III. All chocolates being sweet is a possibility.
IV. All chocolates being free is a possibility.
(1) Only II follows
(2) Only either I or IV follows
(3) Only III follows
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(4) Only II and either I or IV follows

(5) None follows
Solution:
check this link

http://gradestack.com/blogs/ibps-po-pre-2016-reasoning-s
ection-detailed-syllabus-pattern/
I. Some chocolates cant be free always as we can see in the Venn

diagram. So it does not follow.
II. Candies cant be free at all because candies are under sweet and no
sweet is free. So it does not follow.
III. In this option possibility is asked and all chocolates can be sweet.
So it follows.
IV. All chocolates cant be free because then some sweets will be free
that is not allowed. So it does not follow.
So only III follows which means option (3) is correct.
3. Coding Decoding:
In coding decoding, actual words are coded in some other words
(usually smaller). Few coded sentences give us the idea of respected
coded words for each of the actual words. Once all the words are
decoded, answer of any related question can be given in seconds.
Directions: Study the following information and answer the
question given:
In a certain code,
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aa be rs means go went gone,

ub rs wa means you go home,
wa de means you want and
lo aa means went do
Q.) What is the meaning for wa?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
You
Do
Home
Go
Want
Solution:
From the first two sentences, we can clearly say that go is coded as
rs. From 2nd and 3rd sentence, we can decode the word for you. In
the same way, we can find coded words for all the used words.
After decoding the given data, the codes are as follows:
So the meaning for wa will be You. Thus the correct option will be
(1).
4(a) Puzzle:
These may be individual or group questions from a large (almost
infinite) number of areas.
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Sometimes the questions asked from the puzzle are based on

floor. We have to follow the instructions to locate the persons
on different floors.
The questions can have 2 variables ( i.e. Different liking,
profession)
The questions can have 3 variables ( i.e. Different liking,
Profession, favorite color)
Here we are providing one type of puzzle

Directions: Read the following information and answer the
questions that follow:
There are seven students Sintu, Sanjeev, Saket, Sandeep, Sonu,
Sahil and Shyam in an institute. Each of them has a different
favorite subject, viz Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability,
Computer Science, English Language, General Awareness, Current
Affairs and Banking Awareness. Each of the students secured
different marks in his favorite subject. Saket has secured second
highest marks and neither Quantitative Aptitude nor English
Language is his favorite subject. Sonu secured the least marks and
neither Current Affairs nor Reasoning Ability is his favorite subject.
The favorite subject of Sandeep is Computer Science and he secured
more marks than marks of Sanjeev and Shyam but less than the marks
of Sintu. The favorite subject of Sanjeev is General Awareness and
his marks is more than the marks of Sonu but less than the marks of
Shyam. The favorite subject of Sintu is Banking Awareness and he
has not secured the highest marks. The student whose favorite subject
is English Language got the highest marks. The favorite subject of
Saket is not Reasoning Ability.
Q.) Which is the favorite subject of Sonu?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Reasoning Ability
General Awareness
Data Inadequate
None of these
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Solution:
Ans: A
4(b) Linear seating arrangement:
This category is most likely to be asked in the prelims paper and at
least 5 questions will be there from a complete paragraph and we will
have to follow the instructions given in the paragraph to properly
arrange the persons/ things given.
We should be very focused in arranging the things/persons because if
any sentence is skipped then we cant do the arrangement.
Directions: Study the following information to answer the given
questions:
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people
each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent
persons. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting and all of them are
facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting and all of them
are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each
member of a row faces another member of the other row. V sits third
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to the right of S. S faces F and F does not sit at any of the extreme
ends of the lines. D sits third to the right of C. R faces E. The one
facing E sits third to the right of P. B and P does not sit at the extreme
ends of the lines. T is not an immediate neighbor of S and F is not an
immediate neighbor of D.
Q.) Who among the following faces D?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
T
P
Q
R
None of these
Ans: T
4(c) Circular seating arrangement:

In circular arrangement, persons sit round a circular table. One
difficulty that is generally found while solving these questions is that
students find it difficult to decide which is the left side and which is
the right side of a person. For resolving this hurdle, one can quickly
assume oneself to be at that particular persons place.
For making circular arrangement hard, some persons are facing

inward while others are facing outward type of questions can
be asked in circular arrangement.
Blood relation is another way to make the question tough.
Apart from these, people can have different profession or
likings.
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Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer

the given questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle facing
the center. All of them have different weight such as 40 Kg, 45 Kg, 50
Kg, 55 Kg, 60 Kg, 65 Kg, 70 Kg and 75 Kg but not necessarily in the
same order. A and B sit opposite each other and B is heavier than
only C, who is not neighbor of A, B is an immediate neighbor of F
and D. The one who is heaviest sits opposite to H. The weight of A is
60 Kg. F who is just Lighter than A, is fourth to the right of E, who is
third to the right of C, H is Lighter than only D, E is Lighter than only
2 persons.
Q.) Which of the following second to the Right of H?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
C
F
G
E
A
Ans: D
Solution:
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5.Miscellaneous:
Apart from above mentioned topics, the questions can be asked from
ranking, blood relation and direction etc. So dont forget to cover
these topics. These questions are generally asked individually so these
questions are not too much challenging.
Q.) In a class, Rajan got the 11th rank and he was 31st from the bottom
of the list of boys passed. Three boys did not take the examination
and one failed. What is the total strength of the class?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
32
42
45
46
47
Solution:
From the statement,
Rajan is 11th from the top and 31st from the bottom;
Thus there are total of 31+11 1 = 41 students.
Moreover; three boys and one boy failed; so the total number of
students will be:
41+3+1 = 45
Hence Option C is correct.
Q.) Anjaney and Ashish starts walking from same place. Anjaney
walks 10 km towards north. Then he takes a right turn and walks for 3
km. Finally he turns left and walks for 5 km before stopping. Ashish
walks 6 km towards east and and after talking a left turn, he walks for
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another 11 km before stopping. What is the shortest distance between

destination points of Anjaney and Ashish?
Solution:
The shortest distance between destination points of Anjaney and

Ashish will be 5 kms.
Now Check Quant Section

http://gradestack.com/blogs/ibps-po-prelims-q
uant-section-detailed-syllabus-patte
rn/
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Quant Section Detailed Syllabus & Pattern

Quantitative Aptitude Section
Consists 35 questions
1 mark will be awarded for every right answer
0.25 marks will be deducted for every wrong answer
Total 35 marks
Expected number of questions from various topics of Quantitative

Aptitude is as follows
Simplification/Approximation 5 questions
Number Series 5 questions
Quadratic Equation 5 questions
Data Interpretation 10 questions (Tabular/Bar Graph/Pie
Chart/Missing DI/Line Graph)
Miscellaneous 10 questions (Profit loss, Average, SI & CI,
Ratio & Proportion, Time & Work, Time, Speed & Distance,
Boats & Streams, and Probability etc.)
1. Simplification/Approximation Simplification means to find out

a final answer for a complex calculation. Simplification questions are
asked to check the ability of a student to deal with numbers.
Questions from this topic can be asked in one of the following two
types
Sometimes, a calculation is given and one of the numbers is

missing from the calculation. To find out the missing number,
we have to approximate the given numbers or do the basic
operations.
Q. Find out the missing number: 9876 24.96 + 215.005 ? =

309.99
Solution:
Using the rounding concept
copied from
http://gradestack.com/blogs/ibps-po-prelims-quant-section-detailed-syllabuspattern/
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9875 25 + 215 ? = 310

Using the BODMAS rule
395 + 215 ? = 310
610 ? = 310
? = 300
Sometimes all the numbers are given with some operations

between them & we have to simplify the calculation.
Q. Simplify the calculation: 127.001 * 7.998 + 6.05 * 4.001

Solution:
Using the rounding concept
127 * 8 + 6 * 4
1016 + 24
1040
2. Number Series As the name suggests that we have numbers
which are written in a sequence thus making a Number Series.
These numbers are written in a sequence because they follow a
specific pattern. So we have to observe the pattern.
Generally two types of questions can be asked from number series:
Sometimes, a series is given and one of the numbers is

missing from the series. To find out the missing number, we
have to observe the pattern followed by given numbers in series.
This pattern is followed by the missing number as well which
helps us in identifying the missing number.
Q. Find out the missing number : 1, 3, 9, 31, ? ,651

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Solution:
1*1+2 = 3
3*2+3 = 9
9*3+4 = 31
31*4+5 = 129
129*5+6 = 651
Sometimes all the numbers of the series are given but one of the
numbers doesnt follow the pattern followed by rest of the
numbers of the series. So we have to identify the pattern to
eliminate inappropriate/wrong number in the series.
Q. Find out the wrong number in the series: 26, 37, 50, 63, 82
Solution:
52+1 = 25+1 = 26
62+1 = 36+1 = 37
72+1 = 49+1 = 50
82+1 = 64+1 = 65
92+1 = 81+1 = 82
As we can see that number 63 in the series doesnt follow the pattern
followed by other numbers. So this is the wrong number in the series
and it will be our answer for this question.
3. Quadratic Equation The questions from this topic consist of a
single variety of questions generally. One quadratic equation in
variable x and another quadratic equation in variable y is given. We
have to solve the equations individually to find out the value of x and
y both. After finding the values, we have to choose one option out of
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given options which consist of relation between both variables i.e.

x>y, y>x, xy, yx or relation cant be established.
Q. Find out the relation between x and y.
I.x2 -23x + 132 = 0
II.y2 25y +84 = 0
Solution:
x2 (11x+12x)+ (11*12) = 0
x2 -11x-12x+ (11*12) = 0
x(x-11) -12(x-11) = 0
(x-11)(x-12) = 0
x= 11 and 12
y2 (21y+4y)+(21*4) = 0
y2 21y 4y + (21*4) = 0
y(y-21) 4(y-21) = 0
(y-21)(y-4) = 0
y = 4 and 21
As we can see that one value of y is less than both values of x and
another value of y is more than both values of x. So no relation can be
established between x and y.
4. Data Interpretation This is one of the parts of Quant section
which needs proper time. The most important thing that one should
realize is that these questions are in the paper to check our
observation and calculation both. Firstly, look at the data carefully,
understand the small specifications and then look at the type of
questions asked and It can be done within a minute. Now we have an
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idea of the complete data and the related questions so now its the
time for some calculations.
So we can say that a set of data interpretation questions are basically
the normal questions using the huge amount of data given in the
form of pie chart/ bar chart/ line chart/ tabular form etc.
Number of players participating in three different games from six

different countries:
Q. The number of players participating in Cricket from country
4 is what percentage of the number of players participating in
Badminton from country1?
Just point out Cricket players from Country-4 = 80 players.
Number of Badminton players from Country-1 = 45 players.The rest
is just the application of percentage formula.
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Percentage = 80/45 * 100 = 177.77%
Q. If one-thirty sixth of the number of teachers from university F

is professors and the salary of each professor is Rs 96000, what
will be the total salary of all the professors together from
university F?
Solution:
Number of teachers from university F = 18% of 6400 = 1152
Number of professors from university F = 1/36 of 1152 = 32
Total salary = 32*96000 = 3072000 = 30.72 lakh
5. Miscellaneous This part of Quantitative Aptitude section has a
variety of questions from various topics. So students must be well
aware of the basic concepts of each of the topics given below:
Work & Time

Speed, Time & Distance
Simple & Compound Interest
Profit & Loss
Ratio & Proportion (Problems on Partnership, Ages)
Permutation & Combination
Probability
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Percentage & Averages

Mixture & Allegations
Q. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10%

discount on printed price. The ratio of the cost price to printed
price of the book is?
Solution: C.P. of the book = Rs. x
Printed price = Rs. y
(y90)/100=x 112/100
x/y=90/112=45/56
Q. 12 men can complete a piece of job in 56 days. In how many
days can 28 men complete the same piece of job?
Solution: 12 men can do a piece of work in 56 days.
1 man can do a piece of work in 56 12 days
28 men can do a piece of work in (56 x 12) /28 days = 24 days
So, this is the detailed syllabus of Quantitative Aptitude section for
IBPS PO 2016 Prelims Exam. One thing to keep in mind is that marks
of prelims wont be added for the final selection. So attempt the
questions smartly.
Now check what they did
http://gradestack.com/blogs/ibps-po-pre-2016-exam-english-section-detailed-sylla
bus-pattern/
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English Section Detailed Syllabus & Pattern

The English section can be divided into two parts:
1. Grammar
This is copied from gradestack
Common Errors
Sentence Correction/Improvement
2. Vocabulary
This all is copied from
Cloze Test
Sentence Rearrangement
Double Fillers
Reading Comprehension
http://gradestack.com/blogs/ibps-po-pre2016-exam-english-section-detailed-syllabus
-pattern/
1. Cloze Test
First of all go through the complete passage and get a rough

idea about the content and the message it conveys. Also note
down the unknown words.
In a passage mostly all the sentences are logically related to
each other. These logics will give you an idea about the
appropriate word for the blank space.
Sometimes you can easily spot the correct answer. If not,then
eliminate the improbable options one by one and get the right
answer.
Find a logical relation between all the provided options.
Practice at least 4-5 cloze tests to check your performance.
2. Sentence Rearrangement/ Para Jumbles
Read complete passage properly to find out the theme of the

passage
Find out the Independent sentence, itll give you the lead (most
of the time its 1stsentence)
Find out the connecting sentences ( looking carefully for the
repetition of noun with pronoun)
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Identify the pair while looking for some cause, effect, problem
then its solution.
At last, find the message, result and conclusion mainly
representing the purpose of the passage. (special words thus,
therefore, hence, however, so etc.)
3. Double Fillers
Read the whole sentence to get the message and go with the
flow.
Go with the second part first to get the proper sequence or
meaning of the sentence while keeping the grammar rules in
mind (especially tense.)
Think of the logic behind the option, you can also go with Odd
one out strategy.
Accuracy is the key, so better be sure before marking your
answer.
4. Reading Comprehension
Reading Comprehension is the ability to read text, process it and
understand its meaning. In addition, RCs are aimed at testing a
candidates Knowledge of two elements i.e. Vocabulary and Text
Comprehension.
And it is interesting to note that both these elements play a crucial
role in better understanding of the passage i.e. for understanding a
text, one must have better knowledge of Vocabulary. But what is
more complex and varied out of the above two elements is the Text
Comprehension.
The current trend of questions that come in the RC are inference
based i.e. the questions are not direct but one has to infer from the
given passage. Also there can be one or more conclusions given in the
question which are true/false depending on what is asked in the
question.
Now lets move towards the Approach that one should follow while
performing a RC in the exam.
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The most common suggestion and approach is first read the entire
passage and then answer the question that follows. Firstly lets
discuss this approach in detail.
Try to make notes while solving/ reading RCs. It is crucial for
locating the appropriate information and also acts as a mental
bookmark, thus helping in better understanding of the topic.
It is expected that RC passage will be based on Socio-economic

issue comes in RC. So to handle either one must regularly read
newspapers.
Dont spend much time on single question.
Skip those questions which ask you to find out the correct or
incorrect from the passage or have multiple options to look for.
Keeping time factor in mind, its better to attempt only
Antonyms and Synonyms.
5. Sentence Correction
Read the original sentence carefully and try to spot grammatical

errors by identifying whether something sounds wrong.
Always look at every choice.
Even when the original sentence seems fine, pay attention to the
grammar that it tests and look through the choices
systematically to see if any provides a better option.
As you locate each error, eliminate all of the choices that
contain that error.
Do not read each answer choice back into the sentence
individually; that wastes time and invites inaccuracy.
Instead, identify the differences among the choices and
eliminate those that offer less effective or grammatically
incorrect alternatives.
6. Spotting Error
In order to solve questions on spotting errors, the first step you

should take is to read the complete sentence carefully. In most
of the cases, you will be able to detect the error in the first go
itself.
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While reading the entire sentence, you must carefully check the
subject-verb agreement.
If you can still not detect the error or you are still unsure of the
correct answer, then you must read each individual part of the
sentence and closely examine which part consists of an error.
Expected Topic wise Questions
Reading Comprehension 10 Questions

Cloze Test 5 Questions
Para-jumbles 5 Questions
Spotting Error 5 Questions
Fill in the blanks / Sentence Correction 5 Questions
Now lets come to strategies for attempting English section

1) Always start answering with small questions like spotting
errors, fillers, sentence rearrangement etc. and keep the
comprehension for last as its time consuming.
2) No one can answer all the questions in English with hundred
percent accuracy so attempt only those questions which you are
sure about instead of making wild guesses.
3) Most of us are weak in vocabulary so dont worry much about
it, because there will be hardly 2-4 questions of that kind. You can
even skip those questions.
4) While attempting fillers with two blank, there will be one blank
which will be easy to identify and you can relate the second one
accordingly.
5) Sometimes we face problem with sentence rearrangement also, so
its better to identify the first and last sentence first and then
arrange the remaining if you can.
6) For comprehension, go through the passage and questions
simultaneously. This will help you in answering the question quickly
without wasting time.
All of the above is copied from gradeStack.com.
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How to Study for 12-14 Hours a Day :this is copied from SSCAdda
http://www.sscadda.com/2016/09/bankssc-exam-how-to-study-for-12-14.html
As a student we struggle a lot while studying and to find time

for studies, It's even harder for most of the students to stay
energetic while studying. We all want to study for long hours
daily but we struggle and fail miserably in our plans.
You can study 14-16 hour a day. These are the things that will
keep you sane, happy, and motivated. You can do this. You
already have the ability within you because you are all asking
this question to us . With these tips, you will be
unstoppable.
Exercise - Every day get your blood flowing. It's clich for a
reason: healthy body, healthy mind. 20 minutes a day is good
enough. Go for a walk in the morning whilst listening to
something that motivates you.
Sunlight and fresh air - It's very important to make sure
you breathe in fresh air and see the sun regularly. Getting up
early and witnessing beautiful sunrise could be a soothing and
therapeutic experience.
Diet - A diet rich in good fats will keep your mind
lubricated. Try coconut oil (a teaspoon every day to begin
with, then up the dose). Eat fish, nuts, fruits, vegetables.
Limit refined sugars/grains/dairy. Have a dessert but have it
at night time because the carbohydrates will help you sleep
well. Bananas are great to eat before bed because they
contain tryptophan which will boost the serotonin in your
brain (the chemical that makes you happy and motivated). Eat
light during the day. If you can fast in the morning, that will
be great for concentration. Digestion slows you down.
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Coffee + Tea - Get yourself a really good quality coffee and

some great green tea. Have a cup of coffee and a cup of
green tea beside you whilst you study and sip them. The
coffee has caffeine, which keeps you alert, and the green tea
has l-theanine, which keeps you relaxed and happy. This
combination is fantastic. The green tea stops you from getting
coffee jitters.
Pomodoro Technique - Work in bursts. Set a timer for 25
minutes and do nothing but concentrate on work. Then have a
5-minute break where you do whatever you want. Watch
something funny on YouTube, walk around, play with your
dog. You can sustain long bouts of work by doing this. This
will also make sure that you absorb most of what you study.
Seriously, after 25 minutes of studying, your brain needs a
break or you're going to be ineffective.
Olympic Athlete Mindset - Tell yourself that you're training
for the academic gold. Keep yourself fit, healthy, happy, and
focused. Make this your purpose. There's nothing depressing
about living your purpose. You can do this! This is your
mission.
Meditation/Stretching/Yoga/Pranayama - Learn to quiet
the mind. Read Good books on meditation or watch guided
meditation videos on YouTube. Go for walks and just focus on
your breathing, don't indulge your thoughts, and notice things
around you. You will be sitting down for long periods of time
so make sure you have a good stretching/yoga routine.
Relax Every Day - This is important. You have to switch off
your mind at the end of the day for your own sanity.
Relaxation time is important because that is the time where
your mind consolidates all the information you fed it during
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the day. Protect 'You Time' and give yourself at least 2 hours
to relax. Go see friends, talk with your family, watch a movie,
read a book, take a hot bath (or contrast shower). Do
whatever you need to do to feel normal again. Doing social
stuff is a great idea because you don't want to spend too
much time in your head.
Keep a To-Do List and Diary - Every Sunday, write out what
you will do over the week. And every day before bed, write
out and review what you will do the next day. Then tick off
everything as you do it. This will give you a little burst of
motivation and happiness because you will feel a sense of
achievement every day. Write on paper. There is something
therapeutic about getting away from a computer screen and
organising your thoughts.
All of the above is

copied from
SSCAdda.com
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Study Plan For

IBPS
Copyright 2016 @ GovernmentAdda.com
GOVERNMENTADDA
.COM
this is copied from

BankersAdda.com
28
Days Study Plan for IBPS PO 2016
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We all want to be in the Top Companies & when we talk about banking
sector, we all want to be a Probationary Officers' (PO) in PSBs.
To become a Probationary Officer is a dream of many bank aspirants.
You work hard all year for this one opportunity and here we have IBPS
PO Pre Exam in 28 days. What you do in these 28 days will make or
break your dream of becoming a PO. All the hard work youve been
doing so far now if not channelized properly into smart work, might then
go in vain. It is very important for you to understand that from now
onwards, every move that you make counts.
Key to CRACK IBPS PO Entrance Exam
PROPER PLANNING + DEDICATION + SMART WORK
How should you plan to work in these areas: Quantitative Aptitude,
Reasoning, English
If you are good in calculation and youve cleared your basics then this
section is good for scoring. For quantitative aptitude, its practice that
matters for scoring well in limited time. But if you find this section
difficult, start working on it with a smart plan. Learn basic concepts and
practice them well, as for banking exams basic concepts will come in
handy rather than tricks. Also you must carefully choose the questions
that you attempt. With good accuracy youll surely get through this
section with a decent score. Try not to get struck on a particular question
or topic for too long.
Reasoning
Reasoning is a tricky section, but it is very important to solve questions
of this section in limited and stipulated time. We've seen in recent SBI
Exams that this section can be quite challenging for students as well as
surprising. For scoring well in reasoning practicing what is really
important and it can be your game changer.
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English
For scoring well in any language, the most important thing is to know its
grammar rules. You must learn and understand basic rules of grammar
of English language and also increasing you reading habit will help you
in making a command over this language sooner.
So to crack this pattern, we are providing you the "28 DAY ACTION
PLAN" for the preparation of IBPS PO exam.
You all have to clear the PRELIMINARY exam to make yourself
qualify for the MAINS, therefore our 28 Day Action Plan will mainly
focus on:
Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning, English
The time for Prelims exam is: 1 hour
Note: Students if you are very well focused to crack IBPS PO and
finally become Probationary Officer you must not only focus on Prelims
as going through Prelims exam is just a milestone, you have to be
prepared for MAINS Examination as well. Do not wait for Prelims
to be over to start your preparation for Mains. For the first 15 days
you should be focused on preparing for Prelims and for next days you
should also prepare for Mains Exam. For IBPS PO Mains Exam you
need study General Awareness and Computer Awareness.
Detailed Study Plan for Non - Working Aspirants
Devotion of Time for Subjects in Total - 12 hours/ day
Quantitative Aptitude- 5 hours
Reasoning- 4 hours
English- 3 hours
The time is devoted for both studying the topics and practice.
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Detailed Study Plan:

360 hours of dedication and hard work..
Aur aap apne aapko Nationalized Bank ki branch mein as a PO
dekh sakte hai.
First of all, we have divided 28 Days in 2 Slots to Help You Study
Better.
1st 17 Days: Do & Revise all the topics of each and every subject. Make
your weak subjects strong in these 30 days.
Last 11 Days: PRACTICE THE ONE HOUR MOCK in these days, as
to crack the prelims SPEED & ACCURACY are need which can be only
achieved through practice. This practice will help you all to be SMART
HARD WORKERS.
The chapter wise planning of all the subjects we have given in the table
below:
Days
Math
Reasoning
English
Tables/Fractions/Cubes/Squares
Alphabets
Quick Calculation Techniques

(Multiplication/Division)
Alphabets
Simplification/ Approximation
Percentage
Average
Blood Relation
Blood Relation
Alpha-NumericSymbol series
Alpha-NumericSymbol series
Coding-Decoding
Coding-Decoding
Inequalities
Basic Grammar such as

sentence, subject and predicate,
phase, clauses and Nouns.
Adjective, types of adjective and
using suitable forms of
adjectives.
Articles
Noun/Pronouns
Phrase Replacement
2
3
Ratio and Proportion

4
5
6
Partnership
Profit and Loss
Time and Work, Work and
Wages
Pipes and Cisterns
Time and Distance
Boat and Streams
Allegation or Mixtures
Problems on Ages
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Inequalities
Ranking and
Directions
Ranking and
Directions
Syllogism
Syllogism
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Tenses
Tenses
Tenses
Auxiliary and Modals Verbs
Adverbs and its types and usage
Prepositions, Conjunctions and
Interjection
RC (Story Based)
RC (Banking Based)
RC (Economy Based)
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8
9
10
11
12
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Simple Interest
Compound Interest
Number Series
Number Series
Permutation and Combinations
Quadratic Equations/Inequality
Quadratic Equations/Inequality
Probability
Syllogism
Data Sufficiency
Data Sufficiency
Data Sufficiency
Seating Arrangement
Seating Arrangement
Seating Arrangement
Seating Arrangement
RC (Social Based)
RC (Topic Based)
Error Detection
Error Detection
Error Detection
Para-Jumbled
Para-Jumbled
Sentence Improvements
Mensuration I:Area and

Perimeter
Mensuration II:Volume
Mensuration III:Surface Area
Data Sufficiency
DI (Table Graph)
DI (Line Graph)
Seating Arrangement
Sentence Improvements
Cloze-Test
Cloze-Test
Double/Single Fillers
Double/Single Fillers
Antonyms/Synonyms
16
DI (Pie Charts)
Puzzle
Puzzle
Puzzle
Puzzle
Machine InputOutput
Machine InputOutput
Machine InputOutput
Logical Reasoning
17
DI (Radar Graph)
DI (Missing)
DI (Case let)
Logical Reasoning
Mathematical Symbol
Mathematical Symbol
Practice of First three chapters

(1-3)
Practice of next three chapters
(4-6)
(7-9)
(10-12)
(13-15)
(16-18)
(19-21)
(22-24)
(25-27)
(28-30)
(31-33)
Practice of last chapter (34)
Practice of First three

chapters (1-3)
Practice of next three
chapters (4-6)
chapters (7-9)
chapters (10-12)
chapters (13-15)
chapters (16-18)
chapters (19-21)
chapters (22-24)
chapters (25-27)
chapters (28-30)
chapters (31-33)
Practice of last
13
14
15
DI (Bar Graph)
DI (Cumulative Bar Graph)
18
19
20
21
22
23
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Antonyms/Synonyms
Jumbled paragraph with odd one out sentence.
Jumbled paragraph with odd one out sentence.
Paragraph Completion
Paragraph Completion
Combining sentences using
participial phrases/connecting
words. (Compound Sentences)
Practice of First three chapters
(1-3)
(4-6)
(7-9)
(10-12)
(13-15)
(16-18)
(19-21)
(22-24)
(25-27)
(28-30)
(31-33)
Practice of last chapters (34)
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24
Practice Mock-1 and Analysis

25

26

27

28

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chapter (34)
Practice Mock-1 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-2 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-3 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-4 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-5 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-6 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-7 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-8 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-9 and
Analysis
Practice Mock-10 and
Analysis
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All the best for IBPS PO Exam
Now they change their gear and start

coping from
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English
Language
Banking Crack
Book
Copyright 2016@GovernmentAdda.All rights reserved.
By Ashok Sharma
Table of Contents
Chapter 1 ................................... English Grammar

Chapter 2 .......................Reading Comprehension
Chapter 3 .................................................Antonyms
Chapter 4 ................................................Synonyms
Chapter 5 .............................Sentence Arrangements
Chapter 6 ..................................Grammatical Errors
Chapter 7................................. Phrases and Idioms
Chapter 8.............................One Word Substitutions
Chapter 9 ............................................. Miscellaneous
Chapter 10.....Double Fillers
Chapter 11...Cloze Test
Page 2
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From KnowledgePhilic.com
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copied from ebook of

Chapter BankExamToday
1
by
RamanDeep
Sir.
English Grammar
Types of Articles:
1. Definite (the)
2. Indefinite (a/an)
Examples:
#1.there was a king in the forest and the king was brave.
{ here 'a' used before king ( which is not known and does not described
before,it is also countable noun,so there we use 'a'.
#2. She is an intelligent girl.
{ a indefinite article is used before the adjective of singular noun }
#3. she gave me an* information .
{ Article is not used before information because information is not a singular
countable noun }
so the correct sentence will be
Correct Sentence : She gave me information
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Where to use 'a' and 'an'

'a' is used before singular countable noun started with a consonant alphabet or
which are sound consonant.
Ex: chair, BA etc
'an' is used before the singular countable noun which are started countable noun
which are started with vowels or give sound of vowels.
Ex : Heir, Apple etc.
Use of indefinite article

1. With Proper Noun :
Example: This book is written by a Chetan .
This book is written by Chetan .
{ Difference between above two sentence is that in the 1st sentence we are
talking about 'Chetan' who is not a particular and in the next sentence 'Chetan' is
described as famous or a particular special person.}
2. The Case of so , as , too :
Example : 1. It is too heavy a parcel for me to carry.
2. She is as beautiful a girl as you are ever likely to me.
3. A mid wave of shouting was flowing in the party.
'THE'
Examples:
#1. You are the man who helped me.
#2. These are the girls whom are I have invited.
#3. The water of this well is polluted.
==>> Here 'the' is used before the noun to make the noun specific.
==>>'The' article is used before the singular countable noun , uncountable noun.
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==>>'The' article is used with the country names if it's last letter of name
include 's'.
==>>'The' is used before the countries which are stated by using 'united' ,
'Republic'.
Example: United states of America ,Republic of China.
4. Incorrect statement : The director and producer of the film were* present in
the function.
Correct Statement: The director and producer of the film was present in
function.
Note: Here 'the' is used with director only and the producer is separated by
using 'and' , here the sentence state that producer and director is the same
person. so the verb should be singular so here use was instead of 'were'.
Omission of Article
#1. He goes to school daily.
#2. He is standing near by the school.
==>> 'The' article is used before noun when we have need to show something
specific.It is not as before the noun representing general act.
#3. He went to church to offer prayers. [general act]
#4. He went to the church to meet his friends.
Words with which 'the' is not used in general cases:
Church for prayers

Temple for prayers
Collage as student
School to study
Court
University
Bed to sleep
Market
Hospital as a Patient
Jail as a prisoner
Use of ' little', 'a little', 'the little'

=>little means negligible
=>A little means little
=> The little means sufficient
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BankExamToday
by
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Rule- All of these are used with uncountable noun.

Examples:
#1. He did not attempt any question in the exam, as he had little knowledge of
computer.
#2. He attempted two question in the exam as he had a little knowledge of
computer
#3. The little knowledge of computer that he possessed was sufficient to crack
the exam.
Use of Few , A Few , The Few
It is used before the uncountable nouns.
The use age was same as of (little, a little, the little)
Examples
#1. In an hours* time, he reached Mumbai.
#2. Music is a science but singing is art* said the music teacher.
#3. Thanks to an insight and persistence of the local doctors, thousands of
victims were able to resume a normal life.
#4. There are a hundred of partially built houses in the town.
#5. I don't like that kind of a man who does nothing but finds faults in others.
#6. He thinks about himself to be a linguistic but in reality he does'nt know even
ABC of linguistics.
Note:- 'a' is not used before the noun if it followed by 'of'
'the' article is used in the case of 'noun of noun'.
Other words are
plenty of
bind of
sort of
type of
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Nouns
In the series of sharing English Grammar notes, Today I am sharing notes for
Noun.
Types:
Proper Noun : Name of specific person, place or thing.

Common Noun : Name of common things like boys, chair, girls etc.
Collective Noun: Collection of some persons or things and represented
as a singular noun.
Ex: class, army , herd , flight
etc.
Abstract Noun :Whom we cannot touch like happiness, sadness etc.

Materialistic Noun: From whom some thing is comprised of known as
materialistic Noun.
Further classifications are:

Rule No: 1.
Uncountable Nouns
There are some rules which are uncountable nouns.
We cannot measure uncountable nouns. like '2 informations' wrong
phrase.
We always use singular verb with uncountable nouns.
Plural of these words does not exist.
Some examples of uncountable nouns are:
Hair
Stuff
Advice
Jewellery
Furniture
Money
Machinery
Clothing
Scenery
Information
Mischief
Poetry
Evidence
Luggage
Bread
Wood
Wages
Crockery
Cash
Help
Examples:
Children are prone to making mischiefs if they have nothing to

do.[Correct:mischief]
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I saw beautiful sceneries in painting exhibition.[Correct:scenery]

I ate three breads today.[Correct:bread or three slices of bread]
.She gave two jeweleries.[Correct:Jewellery or a piece of jewellery]
Rule No: 2
There are some nouns which seem to be plural but are singular.
Mathematics
Mums
Physics
Rickets
Robotics
Mechanics
Gymnastics
Statistics
Some Diseases:
Mesals
Physics
Shingles
Civics
Billiards
Diabetes
News
Summons***
Innings
Series
Examples:
News is coming on tv.
The morale of the army was high the news coming from the
front were very encouraging.
1st innings is going on.[Correct:Inning]
A 5 match series is being played between India and Australia in
Melbourne.
Rule No: 3
There are some nouns which to be singular but exists in plural so use
plural verb with it.
Children
Infantry
Politry
Police
Gentry
Cattle
Brethren
People
Examples:
There was no Gentry in function.[Correct:were]
Police has been deployed all over the route.[Correct:have]
Gentry : Group of Gentlemen
Infantry(Troop):Collection of soldiers
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Rule No: 4
There are some nouns which exists both in singular and plural
form.Nature of verb depends upon sense of sentence and noun.
Words:
Team
Committee
Audience
Jury
House
Examples:
Our team is the best team.
Our team are trying their new dresses today.
A committee is formed for the welfare of society.
A committee were appointed for the welfare of society.
Rule No: 5
There are some nouns which is to be plural , they also exist in form but
cannot be converted into singular form.
Note: Always use singular verb with them untill they specified numerial.
scissors
spectacles
binoculars
tweezers
thanks
contents
trousers
socks
pincers
jeans
remains
pajamas
pants,
scales
tights
shorts
pliers
congratulations
earnings
wages
savings
Examples:
A pair of spectacles have be bought by me.[Correct:has]
He read the letter and made aware of its contents.[Correct:content]
All the evidences were against and he was held
guilty.[Correct:evidence,was]
Numerical Adjective Noun Case
When in a sentence there is a numerical adjective with a noun,we cannot
use the plural of that noun if after there is another noun.
Examples:
Incorrect : He is a twenty years old boy. [ In this sentence we cannot use 's'
with 'year' because after years there is a another noun 'boy' ]
Correct:He is a twenty year old boy.
The boy is twenty years old.
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Twenty kms are a long distance.[Correct:is]

He walked twenty kms.
Twenty kms walk is a long distance.[Correct;km]
The five members deligation will call on the president.
Noun - Preposition - Noun Case

Preposition: in,on,at,of,for,after,before,into,with,by,between,among,....etc
Examples:
Rows upon Rows of pink marbles are to the eyes.[Correct:Row upon

Row,is]
Use of Apostrophe 's' : ('s)

The Ram House of ram = Ram's house
Rule 1
1 Never use apostrophe with non-living like wood, table,chair etc.
2. We can use (" 's ") with nouns which not come in the category of living and
non-living.
Ex:
America's Problems
Nature's law
A meter's length
A Kg's sugar
Examples:
Ram and sham's house

I visited John's and Marry's house twice but found the couple absent.
[Correct:John and Marry's]

His wife's secretary's mother has died.
In this sentence the structure of sentence is not correct.
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Correct : Mother of his wife's secretary has died.

Rule:2
Two apostrophe cannot come together in a single sentence.
Rule: 3
We can use ";" only with the words which are ended with 's'.
Ex: Kalidas' work
He was late and entered the female compartment in hurry.
[Correct:Women's or ladies']
We reached the fare and found that there was no place to
stand.[Correct:room]
Pronoun
Used in place of 'Noun'.
Pronoun
Examples He, she, his ,they ,we , us , me , my , mine , I , you , it ,
ours , your , your , hers , her , its , their , theirs
# Types
1. Nominative : Used as a subject in the sentence.
Examples I , We , You etc.
2. Objective
on.
Examples
3. Possessive
: Used as an object in the sentence on which work is going
me , him , her , it etc.

: Pronouns which show possessiveness.
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Difference Between ' my ' & ' mine '

' my ' is used before the noun.
' mine ' is used after the noun.
Difference Between ' your ' and ' yours '

' Your ' used before the ' noun '.
' Yours ' used after the ' noun '.
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Table of Pronoun
# OBJECTIVE PRONOUN
Rule 1: After Preposition we have to use objective pronoun.
Example :
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Example :
Difference between ' I ' and ' me '

' I ' is used as a subject , which is do some work.
' me ' is worked as object on which work is going on , so it always used as a
object , is a objective noun and used after preposition.
Rule 2: After ' Let '
Objective pronoun is used after ' Let '
Examples:
# NOMINATIVE PRONOUN
Rule 3: After 'Than'
When there is any comparison between two, then nominative pronoun is used.
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Examples:
His efforts will bring him more success than your's.

You should be true to your word. or One should be true to his word.
The dog I have bought looks more ferocious(wild) , than the one you
have.
The hotel of Patna are more luxurious than those of Muzaferpur.
Yours are the same problems as mine.
Reflexive Pronoun
# Transitive verbs :
Verbs which requires object after them, those are known as transitive
verb.
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Example:
Children fly kites.
[ here fly acts as transitive verb because children fly doesn't
make any sense, So noun is used to complete the sentence Those verbs which
always comes along with Pronoun or noun is known as transitive verb ]
Birds fly.
[ Here fly is not a transitive verb ]
Some verb which act as transitive verbs
cut
kill
introduce
hurt
eat
absent
hit
watch
avail
cheat
prostrate
enjoy
Example :
copied from ebook

of
BankExamToday
by
RamanDeep Sir.
We use a reflexive pronoun as object or complement when it refers to the same

thing as the subject.The pronouns which are used with transitive verb as a object
are known as reflexive pronoun.
Reflexive Pronoun are :
he himself
her herself
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it itself
they themselves
I
myself
you yourself
we ourselves
one oneselfs
Examples:
[ here , absent is not work as transitive verb , it is used as adjective so reflexive

pronoun is not used here]
He prostrated himself before his master , who had come from london after a
year.
The officer as well as the assistants absented themselves from the office.[
Correct ; himself ]
[ In the sentence there is ' as well as ' used with which verb is changed to 1st
noun or pronoun and here officer , so 'themselves' is changed himself.
* Exception
Transitive verb does not use reflexive pronoun.
keep
stop
bathe
turn
rest
qualify
hide
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Examples:
# In-transitive Verb
Verb which does not require object.
Birds fly.
Subject Verb Agreement

#Case 1. 'and'
When there are two nouns and if they are separated by 'and', then there
is a case of subject verb agreement. Then noun and noun whole is
treated plural, so the verb used is also in plural
When each is used before the noun and noun is separated by 'and' then
it treated as singular and the verb used singular.
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Example
Combinations
Combinations are always treated as singular.
Example
Bread and Butter are my favorite dish. [ Correct: is]
Horse and carriage are waiting for the couple outside. [ Correct: is]
The director and producer of the film were present in the function.
[ Correct:
was]
#Case 2. 'as well as'

When there is a case of as well as , the verb will always depends upon
the 1st noun or pronoun.
Other similar words on which it depends.
as well as
together with
along with
besides
like
unlike
governed by
headed by
lead by
controlled by
more than
and not
copied from ebook

of
BankExamToday
by
Page 19
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#Case 3.' Each , Every '

Rules:
1. The verb is always in singular form when used with 'each' & 'every'.
2. If 'each' is followed by 'of ' we have to use plural noun.
3. Verb always remains singular with 'each'
4. When there is a numerical adjective of 'two' always use 'each'
Examples:
1. Every of the two boy is playing.
[ Rule 2 ] [ Correct: Each ]
2. Each / Every of the three / five / thousand boys is playing.
[ rule 2 ]
3. There were only two soldiers but each and every soldier was equals to 5
policeman.
4. Every Tom , Dick , Herry drinks wine these days.
5. Every day and every night brings its own pleasures for everyone.
6. Ritu as well as some of her friends have fallen in love with Sonu , who
is the eldest son ofSDO.
[ Correct: has ]
7. He more than his parents are responsible for his bad habits. [ Correct:
has ]
8. Every and and women of this village have come out to see this strange
child. [ Correct: has ]
#Case 4.' Either , Neither , None of , One of '
1. Either of the two boys is innocent.
2. Neither of the three boys is innocent.
[ Correct: None of ]
Note: In case of either and neither
numeric adjective should always be 2.
always use singular verb.

3. One of the three boys is innocent.
[ Correct: None of/Any of ]
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Example:
1. She is more garrulous than any of her 3 sister.
2. He is one of the richest man ,if not the richest man of the world.
[ Correct:
Men ]
3. None of the two principals have been looking after their collage.
[ Correct: Neither,has,his
]
Note : with 'none of' and 'one of' verb used is always in plural.
#Case 5.' Not Only......................But Also'
' Either...........................Or '
' Neither .......................Nor '
Note:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
These phrases always come in form of combination & this combination

is fix.
Verb is always depends upon the noun.
Not only the doctor but also the nurses of the this nursing home is very
kind and helpful.
[ Correct : are ]
Not only he but also I are responsible for this loss. [ Correct: am ]
Not only Deepak but also Mohit can do this work. [ Correct: Neither,
has, his]
He likes not only Magon fox but also Cameron Diaz.
He is going
not only to open a hospital but also an in. [Correct :
to open ]
#Case 6.' Something , Somebody , Anything , Anybody '

Note :
Always use singular verb with 'something'
Example:
1. Something is better than nothing.
2. Some things is important in life.
If Noun is countable then we have to use plural , therefore verb should as be

used in plural form.
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Example:
Some things is important in life.

Everybody among his friends like playing.
#Case 7
' Some - Some of '
'All - All of '
' Most Of '
' A Lot Of '
' Lots Of '
' One - Third Of '
' Two - Thirds Of '
' Three - Fourth Of '
If Noun is uncountable then singular verb is used.
Example
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Some money is needed.

A lot of milk has been utilised.
All men are mortal.
Half of the hotels have been closed today.
Two-thirds of the land has been ploughed.
All his money is spent and all his hopes are ruined.
' A lot Of ' : used as singular

'Lots Of ' : used as plural
In sentence always use ' a lot of' and 'lots of' not 'a lots of '.
Example : There are a lots of books. [ Correct : lot ]
#Patterns
Quantifier + noun
These are the possible combinations.
Singular
all:
most:
Plural
all systems
most systems
Uncountable
all music
most music
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both:
either: either system
neither: neither system
every: every system
each: each system
some: (some system)
any:
any system
no:
no system
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both systems
some systems
any systems
no systems
some music
any music
no music
Verb
Will , Shall
Generally ' will ' is used with ' We ' and ' You ' & ' Shall ' with ' I ' But in
deterministic cases ' will ' is used with ' I '.
Eg : I will do this work.
' Shall ' is used with ' You '.
Always use shall with you:
1. Shall be grateful
2. Shall be obliged
3. Shall be forced
Eg:
I know I will be compelled to leave this house this week.
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Would , Should
would:
Would is past form of will
( used in narration )
Eg. Ram said to shyam, " I shall go to office".
Ram told shyam that he would go to office.
for polite request
Eg. Would you like to have cofee.
Can , Could
could is used in past
( It is used in the place of can in past )
formal request
Eg. Could I meet to the director.
Should
Used for advice
Eg. You should read newspaper.
Must
Must is used for compulsion
Eg. You must read the newspaper.
May , Might
Both these are used for possibility
1. It may rain today.( there is a possibility that it will rain )
2. It might rain today.
( few possibility or in negative form )
Past of may - might
May is used for permissible request
Eg. May I come in.
Ought to
Used for moral duties.
Eg. You ought to respect your elders.
It being a storm you must thought of postponing all your programs. [ Correct :
think ]
Rule : Always use 1st form of verb with Modals.
# Marginal Auxiliary Verb
need
He needs you.
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[ main verb ]
He needs not to go there. [ Correct : need ]
[ need act as helping verb ]
Correct : he need nto go there.
Dare
same rules as for ' need '
Used to
Eg. He used to go there.
Rules:
always use ' to ' with ' used '
always use First form of veb with ' used '
' used ' is used for past.
Eg. He used to go there
[ never used ' uses ' for general cases in present ]
Incorrect : He uses to go there.
Correct : He goes there .
Incorrect : He uses to study in night
Correct : He studies in the night.
# Primary Auxiliary verbs
Is, am , are
They are used in present tense
These verbs can come only following cases :
1. As a main verb
Eg. Ram is a good boy.
[ act as main verb ]
2. In continuous tense
Eg. Ram is playing cricket. [ is + v1 + ing ]
3. In passive voice
Eg. Cricket is played by Ram. [ is + v3 ]
Do , Does , Did
all of these are used with first form of verb.
Eg. Do you doubted about the success of this boy.
Has, Have, Had
always used with V3
Used in perfect tense
Eg. 1. The criminal will certainly be hung. [ Correct : hanged ]
2. The workers fell no lesser than 200 trees within 6 hours. [ Correct : fewer ]
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3. We advise him to marry his daughter as she had come to a marriagable age.
Correct: We advised him to get his daughter married as she had come to a
marriagable age.
Some Confusing Verbs
Lie
Lie
Lay
Hold
Held
lied
lay
lied
held
held
Fall
fell
fell
felled
Lied
layed
Laid
Held ( grasp )
Held ( organized
something )
Fallen
felled
In many lesser leaders were present in the function. [ Correct : means less
important ]
Adjective
Adjectives are words that describes or modify another person or thing in the
sentence.
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Degree of adjective
1. Positive: It is used to describe the quality of noun.
2. Comparative Degree : It is used when there is a comparison between two

nouns or pronouns.
3 Superlative Degree : When noun is shown as a superior out of a club or

group, class etc.
Superlative degree is used.Superlative degree is followed by ' the '.
# Comparative Degree
Rule 1
1. There are some adjective which denotes absolute positions and of which
comparative and superlative degrees remains the some.
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Rule 2
Their are some adjective which uses 'to' rather than ' than' when used
to compare.
These adjective has suffix - ' ior '
These adjective are:
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Rule 3
If two adjective are separated by ' and ' , then they must be in some degree.
Use of ' very , ' more ' , ' much '

Very : It is used with positive degree of adjective .
More: Used with comparative degree of two.
Much : It is used with comparative degree.
Example:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
He is good.
He is very good.
He is better than you.
He is much better than you.
He is comparatively smarter than you. [ Correct : Smart ]
Conversion of Superlative degree to Comparative degree

There are two methods to change superlative degree to comparative
degree
Methods
1. All + Other + Plural Noun
2. Any + Other + Singular Noun
Gold is more precious than any other metal.
Examples:
1. He is better than all other boy of the class. [Correct : boys ] [ Method 1
]
2. He is better than any other boy of the class.[ Method 2 ]
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3. She was curious to know what it was that made him stronger and
braver than any other man of his village.[ Method 2 ]
4. The Ganga is the holiest of all other rivers of India.
[ ' other ' is never used witg superlative degree ]
Synthesis
Synthesis is done between two special type of sentences which have
[ It is done by using conjuction ' If / but ]

Example : She is more beautiful but not so altered as her younger sister.
Ordering of Adjectives
Size shape age color nationality noun
Example Black American 20 year old Nigro is his best friend.
Correct 20 year Black American Negro is his best friend.
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Examples:
1. he wanted certain boy to make entry into the principal's chamber. [
Correct : boys ]
certain a) with ' certain ' noun used in plural form
b) ' a ' is used with certain
2. These sort of men attain worldly success by hook or by crook. [ Correct
: sorts ]
' These ' and ' Those '
The noun following ' these ' and ' those ' should be in plural form.
1. There were only two soldiers but each and every soldiers was equal to
5 policemen.
[ Correct : soldier , 'and each' never be used ]
here each is used as adjective.
2. Inspite of facing much problems he did not dessert the path of
honesty.
[ Correct : Many ]
' much ' and ' many '
much is used with uncountable nouns. many is used with countable nouns.
1. Can you tell me how many eggs and how much milk he has brought
home.
2. whole the chapter of the book is full of printing mistake.
'All , Whole & Both '
' All ' and ' both ' are followed by definite article ' the '. ' whole ' is proceeded by
the definite article ' the ' .
1. Her long black hair adds glamour to her looks. [ size color ( Order of
Adjectives ) ]
2. I saw an anxious pale girl . [ emotion color ( Order of ve ]
3. I saw a pale anxious girl.
4. I t is a fact that mahatma Gandhi was the 1st politician of his time. [
Correct : famous ]
5. Delhi is farther from Patna than it is from kolkata.
6. You can trust this agency for the last news of this week. [ Correct :
latest ]
7. He doesn't have some money to buy a new car. [ Correct : any ]
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' Some ' & ' Any '

' any ' is used with negative sentence and question
1. He felt happily to know that, his younger brother had got a prestigious
job in the bank. [ Correct: happy ]
Participles
Types
1. Present Participle
2. Past Participle
# Present Participle
Here running is come alone without any helping verb, so from this we
got to know that 'running ' is not a part of tense.
If we use only ' run ' instead of ' running ' it doesn't make any sense
So when v1 + ing comes alone, without them sentence doesn't make any
sense is known as participle.
If it in the present tense ( is, are is used ) , then the participle is known
as Present Participle.
Here participle is act as an adjective.
# Past Participle
Used for all perfect tense forms of a verb and in the passive voice.
Example: He hid the money in his recently gotten shirt.
Here gotten is past participle because :

It acts as adjective because it adds the quality or describes about noun.
( Here noun is shirt )
No helping verb is used with ' gotten ' so it cannot be a part of tense.
It is third form of verb.
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Example : He took the gun. He shot the tiger.

Having taken the gun, he shot the tiger.
[ Active Voice ]
Here past participle is used with having

So in the active voice past participle can come as having + v3
Having been taken the gun, he shot the tiger.
[ He : Subject of Reference ]
[ Passive Voice ]
Tenses
In a series of sharing English grammar notes, today I am sharing Tenses.
Present continuous:
present of be + active participle
I am reading
you/we/they are reading
he/she/it is reading
Negative
I am not reading
you/we/they are not reading
he/she/it is not reading
Questions
Present simple:
base form/s-form
I/you/we/they read
he/she/it reads
I/you/we they do not read
he/she/it does not read
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am I reading?
are you/we/they reading?
is he/she it reading?
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do I/you/we/they read?
does he/she/it read?
Present continuous: Present simple: present of be + active participle base

form/s-form I am reading you/we/they are reading I/you/we/they read he/she
it is reading he/she/it reads Negative I am not reading you/we/they are not
reading I/you/we they do not read he/she/it is not reading he/she/it does not
read Questions am I reading? are you/we/they reading? do I/you/we/they
read? is he/she it reading? does he/she/it read?
Present perfect
present of have + past
participle
I/you/we/they have
opened
he/she/it has opened
Negative
I/you/we/they have not
opened
he/she/it has not opened
Questions
have I/you/we/they
opened?
has he/she/it opened?
Past Continuous
Past of be + active participle
I/he/she/it was flying
you/we/they were flying
Negative
I/he/she/it was not flying
you/we/they were not flying
past simple:
Past form
someone opened
someone did not open
did someone open?
Present perfect continuous

Present of have + been + active
participle
I/you/we/they have been waiting
he/she/it has been waiting
I/you/we/they have not been
waiting
he/she/it has not been waiting
Questions
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was I/he/she/it flying?

were you/we/they flying?
have I/you/we/they been

waiting? has he/she/it been
waiting?
Past Perfect
had + past participle
someone had invited
Negative
someone had not invited
Questions
had someone invited?
Past Perfect Continuous

had been + active participle
someone had been going
someone had not been going
had someone been going?
#Present
Present Simple
Ram plays cricket.
Sub + V1 + Object
Note: 's' is used according to subject, always use 's' if subject is singular
Present Continuous
Ram is playing cricket.
Is / Am / Are + V1 + ing
Sub + V1 + ing+ Object
Present Perfect Continuous Tense
Ram has been playing cricket since morning or for two hours.
{ Has + Been + V1 + ing + time [since or for] }
Present Perfect Tense
Ram has played cricket.
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Has / Have + V3 + Object

#Past Tense
Past Indefinite
Ram played cricket. [ Sub + V2 ]
Past Continuous
Ram was playing cricket. [ Sub + Was / Were + V1 + ing ]
Past Perfect Continuous Tense
Ram had been playing cricket since morning or for two hours.
{ Had + Been + V1 + ing + time [since or for] }
Past Perfect Tense
Ram had played cricket. [ Sub + Had + V3 ]
#Future Tense
Future Indefinite
Modals ( will/shall) always use with 1st form of verb.
Ram will play cricket.
Future Continuous
Ram will be playing cricket.
Sub + will/shall+be+ V1 + ing+ Object
Future Perfect
Ram will have played cricket.
(always use 'have' with 'will')
Future Perfect Continuous
Ram will have been playing cricket since morning.
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Example : I
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(return) my book in the library yesterday.
The case of after and before
The passenger
reached the station before the train
(arrive).[had,reached (V2) ]
The doctor came after the patient died(V3).
Conditional Statements
If + Present Indefinite + Future Indefinite + Obj
If + Past + Indefinite + would + V1 + Obj
If + Past Perfect + would + Have + V3 + Obj
Examples:
1. If I will go to Delhi, I will Meet her. [Correct:If I go to Delhi]
2. She will come to meet me as soon as I will reached Delhi.[Correct: I
reach Delhi]
Conditional Words
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
As soon as
If
As If
If wish
Unless
Until
When
When ever
3. Unless you will not take care of yours. you will not recover.
4. Until the train will not gets the signal. It will not arrive.
[always use 's' or 'es'
with verb according to the subject ]
5. Ram had a car. [ had = main verb (past indefinite)]
Ram had had a car. [past perfect] [ has had had ; be was been \
Sub + Main Verb + V3 + Obj
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6. She was a good girl. [past Indefinite]

She had been a good girl.[past
perfect]
7. If I was a bird, I would fly in the sky. [ Correct :were]
Present wish = Past
indefinite
[ never depends on subject]
8. If we had
mohan in our team we would have won the match. [
Correct : had ]
Past wish = Past Perfect
9. If I had seen you, I would
stop my car. [ Correct: Have ]
10. He scolded me as if he was my boss.

[ Correct: Were ]
[ Never use 'was' in conditional statement after if or as ]
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2.READING COMPREHENSION
#1:
1. RCs contains a passage usually having a length of 500 to 2000 words.
2. Five question are being asked on the passage.
3. The passage is taken from published material.
4. The word 'comprehension' actually means grasping with intellect understanding
5. The questions that follow the passage are of varying quality and range. Some of the
questions test your ability to recognize implications and draw inferences.
6. The questions test your ability to read a passage comprehend its meaning, criticize
its strength and weaknesses: Showing that ability by selecting the correct answer
from among choice supplied.
#2:
A comprehension passage contains a number of paragraphs.
Every paragraph has a central idea which is expounded with

ideas and illustrations and other references.
The key sentence that gives the central idea of the paragraph may be at the
beginning, middle or end of paragraph. This sentence enunciating the central idea, is
otherwise called topic sentence
The crux of the problem is just to understand the writer's point of

view. According to the difficulty of the passage, reading speed should also fast.
#3:
Step by step method is useful in solving the questions.
Step 1: The very first step is to read the questions quickly. This gives you some idea
of what you should be looking for as you read the passage.
Step 2: The second step is to read the passage at your fastest rate. The questions that
have located in your subconscious after reading the questions will force you more
conscious as you come across anything that is relevant or important if.
Step 3: Again reread the question one at a time. You will get some idea of the
location in the passage of material that Answers the questions. If you have no ideas
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as to location in the passage of material that Answers the questions, go on the next
question Matter this step you may solve all the question. Only one or two question
may be left after this step.
Step 4: Reread the question carefully that is still unanswered and try to find the
reason. They may be analytical in nature which requires the analysis of a certain
part of the passage. One of the most important aspects of this, is the vocabulary.
#4
Four subjects that you must cover are:
1. Sociology
2. Psychology
3. Philosophy
4. Economics.
As far as practice for RCs goes, you should build up your practice slowly and
steadily. As of now, you would do well to solve 2 to 3 RCs a day.
Carry out this exercise for 5 days at least every week, and this way, you should be
able to cover 10 to 15 passages per week.
As time goes on, you are advised to increase your practice to 20 passages a week,
and in the last month, you should be practicing at least 3 to 4 RCs a day.
Always remember, you need to build your stamina as far as RCs are concerned.
#5
HOW TO PROCEED?
Read the complete passage
As far as the exam goes, it is recommended that you read the complete passage.
Most of the times test setters ask a lot of inferential questions, and reading only
parts of the passage and skimming the rest can be a mistake in the given case, as it
might lead to a situation where you do not understand the passage truly.
Do you always need to read the full passage?
No, you do not always need to read the full passage.
For easier RCs or direct questions, you can undertake selective reading and try to
find the relevant information.
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But keep in mind that this works only in the case of fact-based passages; whenever
the questions check your overall understanding of the passage, it is suggested that
you read the complete passage
#6
MAKE NOTES WHILE PRACTICING RCS:
One basic activity that you can carry out while solving RCs is making notes. Why make
these notes? Well, these are mental bookmarks that help you locate appropriate
information and help you understand the passage that much better. While you making
notes, there are three fundamental things that you need to identify:
1. Subject of the passage: which/what is the precise thing the author is talking about.
2. Main idea of the passage: what is he saying about the author.
3. Tone of the author of the passage: which is manner he has adopted in the passage.
The above are three central considerations in figuring out what the passage is all
about. Make sure you note these down every time you solve RCs.
This is the best way to figure out the gist of the passage, and once you take hold of
the central points of the passage, you can answer inference based questions easily.
Also, a thematic makeup and a logical sequence of the passage will be built-up
within your mind, which would enable you to answer questions from particular
parts of the passage.
#7
Look out for structural words that tell you the important ideas or transitions in a
passage.
Though this tip might appear cumbersome to many, yet it holds value. There are a
number of words which play specific roles in a sentence and paragraph.
Continuity Words:
Similarly
Moreover
Additionally
In the same way
Likewise
Contrast Words
Nonetheless
However
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But
Although
Despite
Conclusion Words
Thus
Therefore
Hence
In summary
In Conclusion
These portray three roles that words can play in a paragraph, and these roles help you
establish the motive of the author. For example, contrast words are an indicator that
what would follow would be a contradiction of the reasoning pattern so far, and a new
direction will be lent to the paragraph.
The above roles are described below:
Continuity words: The author would support his point of view further.
Contrast words: The author would introduce a contrarian point of view.
Conclusion words: The author would sum up his argument so far.
#8
Suppose, I am writing an Article on the state of slums and poverty-stricken multitudes in
India.
Essentially, the subject is Poverty and India
The main idea would be the problem I highlight. What exactly am I trying to
communicate. Sort of similar to the subject, but a bit more detailed.
Bit is the keyword here
#9
For Vocab questions, think like a thesaurus.
Approximately 15% of the RC questions will ask you about a specific word from a
paragraph. Keep in mind that you are NOT expected to know the definition of this
word, and most of the time the standard dictionary definition will be listed among
the answer choices and will be INCORRECT.
Look back to the passage and ask yourself, how is this word being used in context?
Try to come up with a word on your own that is similar in meaning and could
replace the word in the sentence. Use this prediction to eliminate answer choices
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#10
FOCUS ON THE FIRST AND FINAL PARAGRAPHS TO FIND THE MAIN
IDEA.
The author usually uses the first paragraph to introduce his topic and start a
discussion of the Main Idea.
The final paragraph wraps up the discussion of the body paragraphs and reinforces
the Main Idea. If you are having trouble finding what the overall purpose or point is
for the passage, go back to these two book ending paragraphs.
Look for thesis statements or concluding summations.
#11
Remember that Details are used to reinforce each paragraph.
Detail questions make up a big proportion of RC questions.
If you are asked about the purpose of a Detail or why the author mentions something,
take a look at the paragraph in which the detail is found.
Authors use details to support their points.
Identify what point is the paragraph trying to make?
#12
Find the implication to support the Inference.
The correct answer for an Inference question is NOT something that sounds
reasonable to you.
It is the choice that puts into words an unstated implication from the passage. Only
once choice can be correct because the passage will be worded in such a way as to
only support ONE of the implications.
Look for stated support for each answer choice in the passage. Dont rely on your
memory, and avoid large leaps in logic.
The correct answer is ALWAYS based on something from the passage. You just
have to find it!
#13
1. Read between the Paragraphs.
2. Read for Author's Main Idea and Primary Purpose.
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3. Create a thought flowchart by writing down the Main Idea and Primary purpose
after each paragraph.
4. The Main Idea of the passage is the repeated idea in each of the Main ideas (of the
paragraphs)
5. The primary purpose is mostly the Primary purpose of the concluding paragraph.
#14
1. Classify the passages as
Explanatory (Mostly Science passages, explain one theory/phenomenon in detail)
Comparative (two or more point of views on a theory/topic. Doesn't go in much

detail)
Argumentative (Subjective, opinionated. Mostly social science/business topics. Pros

and cons of a topic with author's views on them)
1. Paraphrase the text to simplify.

2. Don't over read. Skip examples, dates, lengthy names, any details which can be
referred in case something is asked explicitly.
3. Don't go for choices which hold true only for one part of the author's argument.
4. Don't go for choices which exaggerate the author's conclusion.
#15
1. Don't fill in the blanks yourself. Use only as much is there in the passage.
2. At the end of reading, ask yourself questions like : What was the passage about?
What was author's motive in writing all this?
3. Read quickly through soporific passages.
4. Read the first question before the Passage.
5. Use your Critical Reasoning techniques for reasoning/ inference/ strengthen/
weaken questions.
#16
Explaining a few points from the list:
Read between the Paragraphs.:
This basically means that you should try finding the hidden meaning and points or
change in directions between passages.
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How two paragraphs are inter-linked?
Similar or contrasting?
How does one paragraph explains or furthers the ideas presents in the previous one?
#17
Read for Author's Main Idea and Primary Purpose.:
As explained earlier, always keep in mind the main idea and subject of the paragraph.
Skimming the questions before reading the paragraph will definitely help.
#18
Create a thought flowchart by writing down the Main Idea and Primary purpose after
each paragraph.
In some of the more complex RCs, you may be required to create a flow chart to
connect the events, ideas, and people mentioned in the passage. It is recommended to
start making these for every passage you read at this stage.
#19
Paraphrase the text to simplify.
No one can simplify things for them better than oneself. Paraphrase the ideas. Simplify
the text for yourself.
#20
Goals
Whenever we start a specific type of problem, we want to have certain goals in mind
(depending, of course, on what that problem type is). Reading comprehension (RC) is
no exception.
First, we have some timing goals. I aim to complete an initial read-through of an RC

passage in 2 (shorter) to 3 (longer) minutes. This is not very much time in fact,
Im not reading every last word or detail carefully. Im just trying to get the main
ideas (and, note, what we do for the exam is definitely not what we would want to
do if we were reading something for school!).
I try to answer general questions (e.g., main idea) in about 1 minute and
specific questions in about 1.5 minutes (up to 2 minutes for the longest ones).
Next, we have some goals for the initial read-through of the passage. Every passage
has a topic and what I call The Point.
The topic is what you would probably expect: the basic topic under discussion in the
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passage. The Point is the main reason the author is writing this specific passage
(you can also think of The Point as the thesis statement).
For instance, a passage topic might be the curious decline of bees in recent years
(entire hives have been dying, losing the ability to find their way back to the hive,
and so on).
The Point might be that, out of three possible causes (all mentioned in the passage),
a certain fungus is the most likely cause (according to the author).
Back to our Goal: when I read the passage, I need to make sure I understand The
Point, not just the topic.
Further, I also need to make sure I understand the purpose of each paragraph. These
passages follow the same rules were supposed to use when we write an essay: each
paragraph should have one distinct purpose or message. Often, that message is
delivered via a topic sentence, usually the first or second sentence of the paragraph.
Note: there is one exception. Some passages consist of only one long paragraph.
When this is the case, split the paragraph up into halves or thirds: for example, the
first half explains the plight of the bees and the second half speculates that
pesticides are the cause.
Finally, as I alluded to earlier, I also need to make sure that I do NOT dive fully into
all of the detail in each paragraph. That NOT was not a typo. Im trying to read
this passage in 2 to 3 minutes maximum; I dont have time to try to fully
understand, let alone remember, all of the detail. My goal is to have a very basic
idea of the kind of detail and to know in which paragraph the different kinds of
detail reside thats all.
Wait I do NOT want to understand the detail?
Not much. This is where we can take advantage of the fact that the exam is a
standardized test. An individual test-taker is given only some (3 or 4) of the
questions that were written for that passage. That little piece of knowledge has
major implications for how we conduct the initial read-through.
I know that Im going to have to understand The Point, because that permeates the
passage and all of the questions. I also know that I will not get asked about every
detail on the screen, because Im only going to see some of the questions that were
written. So why learn all of that annoying detail unless I know that Im going to get
a question about it? I wont know that until the question pops up on the screen.
Ergo: I dont want to learn all of the detail ahead of time.
Instead, as we discussed above, my goal for the detail is to know in which

paragraph it resides. That way, if I do get a question about the chemical mechanism
by which the pesticide affects a bees nervous system, Ill immediately know that I
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can find that detail in paragraph 2. I wont actually know how to answer the
question yet; Ill have to read that detail now to see whether I can figure it out.
Note: did you hit a tough word you dont know? Skip it. (Later, if you need that
word, you can try to figure it out from the context but only if you actually need it.)
Is some sentence really convoluted? If its the first sentence of a paragraph, use
your grammar knowledge to find the subject and verb, just to get a basic
understanding of what it says. If its a detail sentence, skip it. (If you need that
sentence later, you can try to work through it at that point but, again, only if you
actually need it.)
#21
THE INITIAL READ-THROUGH
Most of the time, The Point can be found in one discrete sentence somewhere in the
passage (though sometimes we have to combine two sentences to get the full Point).
Most often, The Point can be found in the first few or last few sentences of the
entire passage, but it can show up anywhere.
So, a new passage pops up on the screen and we, naturally, start reading. Read the
first sentence, then stop. Can you rephrase it it in your mind (put it into words that
you can understand very easily)? Then do so and jot down a note.
Do the same with the second sentence. If, after reading the first sentence, you cant
rephrase or arent sure what the passage is saying, try reading the second sentence.
Keep reading, little by little, until you get enough of an idea of whats going on to
jot down a note.
Once you think you understand the purpose of that first paragraph, you can start
skimming the rest of the paragraph. While you skim, youre trying to make this
distinction: is this information simply detail that goes along with or supports
whatever I decided was the purpose of this paragraph? Or is this information
something new: does it represent a new idea, a contradiction, or a change of
direction?
If its just a detail, you may or may not decide to write something down (probably
not). If it represents a new idea or change of direction, then pay a little more
attention and, if appropriate, take some short notes.
Do the same with the other paragraphs, though you can be a bit more aggressive
about skimming. If, for example, you think you understand the purpose of the
second paragraph after reading only the first sentence, thats fine. Start skimming
(but take note of anything that represents a new direction).
When youre done, take a moment to articulate The Point to yourself. Is that already
in your notes? Put a star next to it. If it isnt in your notes, jot it down.
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#22
TAKING NOTES
:
Your notes should be heavily abbreviated much more aggressively abbreviated

than notes you would typically take at work or school. In fact, if I look at my notes
for a passage a few days later, I should have a lot of trouble figuring out what they
say (without using the passage as a reference).
How can we get away with abbreviating this heavily? Again, were taking
advantage of the nature of this test. Youre going to spend perhaps 6 to 8 minutes
with this passage and then you can forget about it forever.
You dont need to commit anything to long-term memory, nor do you need to take
comprehensive notes from which you can study in a week (as you often have to do
for school).
Of course, if youre just practicing, you are going to review your work later, but you
should still practice as though its the real thing.
#23
ANALYZING YOUR WORK
Everyone already knows that its important to review your work on the problems
you do, but did you know that its also important to review how you read and take
your notes? When youre done with a passage and the associated questions, start
your review with the passage itself. When you were done reading (but before you
answered questions), what did you think The Point was? What did you think the
purpose of each paragraph was? Did that knowledge or understanding change as
you worked your way through the questions?
If you misunderstood something after the first read-through, why do you think you
misunderstood it? Did you read too quickly and overlook something? Did you not
take the time to rephrase what you read? Was the language too hard were there
words or idiomatic expressions that you didnt know? How could you do this better
next time?
Next, match your initial notes to your current knowledge of what information is
contained in the passage. Were you able to find the right paragraph easily when
answering a specific question? If not, why not? What should you have jotted down
on the initial read-through to make that easier?
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Conversely, did you have too much information jotted down? Maybe you were able
to answer a specific question just from your notes, or maybe you had a lot of detail
written down that you never had to use. If so, you wrote down too much
information and likely spent too much time on the initial read-through.
Could you have abbreviated even more? Write down what that might have looked
like. In general, if you feel your notes were fairly far from your ideal for any
reason, then re-write the notes the way you should have written them the first time.
#24
TAKEAWAYS
You do NOT want to learn or comprehend every single thing that the passage says.
(Note: this is not what to do once you actually do get to b-school. There, do try to
understand everything clearly!)
Know your goals:

1. Find The Point
2. Find the purpose of each paragraph
3. Know where (in which paragraph) to find different kinds of detail
Practice sticking to your timing and practice abbreviating heavily.
When you review your work, also review how you read and took notes on the
passage.
Directions (Q. 1-10) Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it.
A long time ago, on a big tree in the lap of the
mountain, lived a bird named Sindhuka. It was a rather special
bird because its droppings turned into gold as soon as they hit
the ground.
One day, a hunter came to the tree in search of prey and
he saw Sindhuka's droppings hit the ground and turn into gold.
The hunter was struck with wonder. He though, "I have been
hunting birds and small animals since I was a boy, but in all my
80 years, I have never seen such a miraculous creature. He
decided that he had to catch the bird somehow. He climbed the
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tree and skillfully set a trap for the bird. The bird, quite
unaware of the danger it was in, stayed on the tree and sang
merrily. But it was soon caught in the hunter's trap. The hunter
immediately seized it and shoved it into a cage.
The hunter took the bird home joyfully. But as he had
time to think over his good fortune later, he suddenly realised,
"If the king comes to know of this wonder, he will certainly
take away the bird from me and he might even punish me for
keeping such a rare treasure all to myself. So it would be safer
and more honourable if I were to go to the king and present the
unique bird to him," The next day, the hunter took the bird to
the king and presented it to him in court with great reverence.
The king was delighted t o receive such an unusual and rare
gift. He told his courtiers to keep the bird safe and feed it with
the best bird food available.
The king's prime minister though, was reluctant to
accept the bird. He said "O Rajah, how can you believe the
word of a foolish hunter accept this bird? Has anyone in our
kingdom ever seen abird dropping gold? The hunter must be
either crazy or telling lies. I think it is best that you release the
bird from the cage." After a little thought, the king felt that his
prime minister's words were correct. So he ordered the bird to
be released. But as soon as the door of the cage was thrown
open, the bird flew out, perched itself on a nearby doorway and
defecated. To everyone's surprise, the dropping immediately
turned into gold. The king mourned his loss.
1. Which of the following is possible the most appropriate
title for the story?
a) The Skilled Hunter
b) The Kings Prime Minister
c) The Kings Defeat
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d) The Bird with the Gold Dropping

e) The Trials and Tribulations of the Foolish Bird Sindhuka
2. Which of the following emotions made the hunter gift the bird to the
king?
a) Respect
b) Joy
c) Pride
d) Fear
e) Awe
3. Which of the following is true according to the story?
a) Birds like Sindhuka were very common in the area near the mountain
b) Sindhuka remained caged for the rest of its life
c) Sindhuka was unaware of the trap laid by the hunter
d) The King, when told to not accept the bird, did not listen to his Prime
Minister
e) All are true
4. Why was the kings Prime Minister reluctant to accept the bird?
a) He believed that the bird would die if caged
b) He know about the hunters habit of lying
c) He believed that the bird would bring bad luck to the king
d) His sources had informed him that the hunter was crazy
e) None of these
5. How did the hunter find Sindhuka?
a) He had read stories about the bird and had set traps at various
locations in the city
b) He followed the birds droppings
c) He was on the lookout for a prey when he chanced upon it
d) People from the city had informed him about the birds whereabouts
e) He was attracted by the birds calls
Directions (Q. 6-8) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
6. Rather
a) Regular
d) But
b) Quite
e) Known
c) Instead
7. Release
a) Free
d) Let expire
b) Vacate
e) Make public
c) Vent
8. Reverence
a) Respect
b) Detail
c) Astonishment
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d) Hope
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e) Remembrance
Directions (Q. 9-10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. Reluctant
a) True
d) Hesitant
b) Clever
e) Keen
c) Averse
10. Skilfully
a) Angrily
d) Cheaply
b) Haphazardly
e) Deftly
c) Highly
Directions (Q. 11-19) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it.
Once a thief named Kalu had planned to loot the king's treasury. At
midnight, he went to the palace and began to drill a hole in the side wall of the
treasury. The king, who was awake in his bedroom just above the treasury, came
out to investigate the whirring sound. He was dressed in a simple nightgown
and the thief could not recognize him. He asked Kalu who he was and what he
was doing. The latter said, "Sir, I am a thief and intend to loot this treasury. I
presume that you are also a thief and have come with the same intentin. No
matter, let us both go inside and we shall share the loot equally. "Both entered
the treasury and divided all the money and the jewels equally between them.
Inside a locker they found three big diamond pieces. As the thief was
puzzled as to how to divide the three pieces into two portions, the king
siggested. "We have taken away everything else. Let us leave one diamond
piece for the poor king and share the rest equally". Kalu agreed and when he
took his leave, the king asked for his name and address. As Kalu had taken a
vow of telling only the truth, he have the correct information.
The king took away his share of the loot and hid it in his room. Next
morning he asked his Prime Minister to inspect the treasury as he had heard
some strange sounds during the previous night. The Prime Minister saw to his
horror that all the valuables were missing and only a single diamond was left,
perhaps inadvertantly, by the theif. He put the diamond in his oiwn shift pocket
as its loss could be ascribed to the thief and nobody would suspect the Prime
Minister. The Prime Minister went back to the king. The king particularly
enquirerd. "Do you mean that the theif has completely denuded the treasury of
its valuables and not a single item has been left?" The Prime Minister confirmed
it. The king asked the chief of police to bring in Kalu. When Kalu came he was
unable to recfognize the king as his accomplice of the previous night. The king
asked him, "Are you the theif who h as stolen everything from my treasury
leaving nothing back?" Kalu confirmed it but said, "Sir, I did leave one diamond
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back in the locker as advised by an accomplice of mine and it should st ill be

there." The Prime Minister interrupted saying, "Your Majesty, this thief is
lying. There is nothing left in the locker." The king asked the police chief to
search the pockets of the Prime Minister, from where the missing diamond was
recovered. The kind told his courtiers, "Here is a Prime Minister, who is a liar
and a thief and here is a thief who is at truthful gentleman."
11. The king came out in the middle of the night in order to
a) Help kalu to break into the palace treasury
b) Share the loot equally between Kalu and himself
c) Find out the source of and reason for the sound he had heard
d) Catch the thief who had come to steal his valuables
e) None of these
12. Kalu could not recognize the king because
a) The king was wearing clothes like those of an ordinary person
b) The kings clothes were covered by a simple nightdown
c) Kalu had never seen the king before
d) Kalu had not seen the king descending from his bedroom
e) None of these
13. Which of the following made the king suspect the Prime Minister? The
Prime Ministers statement that
a) Except for one piece of diamond all other valuables were stolen
b) All the valuables without any exception were stolen from the treasury
c) The thief was lying when he said he had left one diamond back in the
locker
d) The search for the diamond did not yield any favourable result
e) None of these
14. Which of the following horified the Prime Minister?
a) The valuables missing from the kings treasury
b) A piece of diamond left in the locker
c) Certain strange sounds heard by the Prime Minister
d) The fact that the king suspected him of stealth
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 15-17) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in
meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
15. Accomplice
a) Co-traveller
d) Coordinator
b) Collaborator
e) Commuter
c) Controller
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16. Ascribed
a) Attributed
d) Withdrew
b) Donated
e) Connected
c) Attached
17. Denuded
a) Uncovered
d) Discarded
b) stripped
e) Abandoned
c) Destroyed
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Directions (Q. 18-19) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of
the word given in bold as used in the passage.
18. Inadvertently
a) Knowingly
d) Unwittingly
b) Sensibly
e) Unscrupulously
c) Indifferently
19. Previous
a) New
d) Modern
b) Preceding
e) Subsequent
c) Novel
Banking sector reforms in India were introduced in order to improve
efficiency in the process of financial intermediation. It was expected that banks
would take advantage of the changing operational environment and improve
their performance. Towards this end, the Reserve Bank of India initiated a host
of measures for the creation of a competitive environment. Deregulation of
interest rates on both deposit and lending sides imparted freedom to banks to
appropriate price their products and services. To compete effectively with nonbanking entities, banks were permitted to undertake newer activities like
investment banking, securities trading and insurance business. This was
facilitated through amendments in the relevant acts which permitted PSBs to
raise equity from the market up to threshold limit and also enabling the entry of
new private and foreign banks. This changing face of banking led to an erosion
of margins on traditional banking business, promoting banks to search for newer
activities to augment their free incomes. At the same time, banks also needed to
devote focused attention to operational efficiency in order to contain their
transaction costs. Simultaneously with the deregulation measures prudential
norms were instituted to strengthen the safety and soundness of the banking
system. Recent internal empirical research found that over the period 19922003, there has been a discernible improvement in the efficiency of Indian
banks. The increasing trend in efficiency has been fairly uniform, irrespective of
the ownership pattern. The rate of such improvement has, however, not been
sufficiently high. The analysis also reveals that PSBs and private sector banks
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in India did not differe significantly in terms of their efficiency measures.

Foreign banks, on the other hand, recorded higher efficiency as compared with
their Indian counterparts.
20. Prudential norms were initiated in the banking sector with a view to
a) Increase operational efficiency
b) Contain the non-performing assets
c) Strengthen the soundness of banking system
d) Improve the custome service
e) None of these
21. Banking sector reforms in India were introduced for the purpose of
a) Giving more and more employment opportunities to the educated
unemployed
b) Taking care of the downtrodden masses
c) Increasing efficiency in the banking activities
d) Giving better return to the Central Government
e) None of these
22. Banks can control their transaction costs by
a) Restricting their lending activities
b) Undertaking more and more non-banking activities
c) Encouraging the customers to bank with other banks
d) Devoting more attention to operational efficiency
e) None of these
23. The recent internal empirical research conducted by the RBI found that
a) There is cut-throat competition in banking industry
b) The rate of return is not commensurate with the operational cost
c) The rate of improvement has not been high
d) Nationalised banks and private sector banks did differ in the
efficiency measures
e) None of these
24. Which of the following statements recognising improvement in
efficiency is true in the context of the passage?
a) There is no discremible difference in efficiency parameters
b) The foreign banks recorded higher efficiency
c) The efficiency of foreign banks is not comparable with Indian banks
d) The rate of such improvement in efficiency was very high
e) None of these
meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
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25. Relevant
a) Recorded
d) Stringent
b) Opposite
e) Germane
c) Appropriate
26. Augment
a) Make
d) Increase
b) Become
e) Envelop
c) Enlarge
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Directions (Q. 27-28) Choose the word that is most opposite of the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
27. Improve
a) Retard
b) Disprove
c) Prove
d) Accelerate
e) Degenerate
28. Reveal
a) Show
d) Exhibit
b) Conceal
e) None of these
c) Secretive
King Hutamasan felt he had everything in the World not only due to his
riches and his noble knights, but because of his beautiful queen, Rani Matsya.
The rays of the Sun were put to shame with the iridescent light that Matsya
illuminated, with her beauty and brain. At the right hand of the king, she was
known to sit and aid him in all his judicial probes. You could not escape her
deep-set eyes, when you committed a crime as she always knew the victim and
the culprit. Her generosity preceded her reputation in the kingdom and her
hands were always full to give. People in the kingdom revered her because if
she passed by, she always gave to the compassionate and poor.
Far away from the kingly palace lived a man named Raman with only
ends to his poverty and no means to rectify it. Raman was wrecked with poverty
as he had lost all his land to the landlord. His age enabled him little towards
manual labour and so begging was the only alternative to salvage his wife and
children. Every morning, he went door to door for some work, food or money.
The kindness of people always got him enough to take home. But Raman was a
little self-centered. His World began with him first, followed by his family and
the rest. So, he would eat and drink to his delight and ret urn home with
whatever he found excess. This routine followed and he never let anyone
discover his interests as he always put on a long face, when he reached home.
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One day as he was relising the bowl of rice he had just received from a
humble home, he heard that Rani Matsya was to pass from the very place he
was standing. Her g enerosity had reached his ears and he knew if he pulled a
long face and showed how poor he was, she would hand him a bag full of gold
coins enough for the rest of his life, enough to buy food and supplies for his
family. He thought he could keep some coins for himself and only reveal a few
to his wife, so he can fulfil his own wishes.
He ran to the chariot of the Rani and begged her soldiers to allow him to
speak to the queen. Listening to the arguments outside Rani Matsya opened the
curtains of her chariot and asked Raman what he wanted. Raman went on his
knees and praised the queen. I have heard you are most generous and most
chaste, show this beggar some charity. Rani narrowed her brows and asked
Raman what he could give her in return, surprised by such a question, Raman
looked at his bowl full of rice. With spite in him he just pricked up a few grains
of rice and gave it to the queen. Rani Matsya counted the 5 grains and looked at
his bowl full of rice and said, you shall be given what is due to you. Saying this,
the chariot galloped away.
Raman abused her under his breath. This he never thought would
happen. How could she ask him for something in return, when she hadnt given
him anything? Irked with anger he stormed home and gave his wife the bowl of
rice. Just then he saw a sack at the entrance. His wife said men had come and
kept it there. He opened it to find it full of rice. He put his hand inside and
caught hold of a hard mental only to discover it was a gold coin. Elated he
upturned the sack to find 5 gold coins in exact for the five rice grains. If only I
had given my entire bowl, thought Raman, I would have had a sack full of gold.
29. According to the passage, which of the following is definitely true about
Rani Matsya?
A. She was beautiful.
B. She was intelligent.
C. She was kind.
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) A and B
e) All the three
30. What does the phrase pulled a long face as used in the passage mean?
a) Scratched his face
b) Looked very sorrowful
c) Disguised himself
d) Put on makeup
e) None of these
31. What can possibly be the moral of the story?
a) Do onto others as you would want others to do to you
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b) Patience is a virtue
c) Winning is not everything, it is the journey that counts
d) Change is the only constant thing in life
e) Teamwork is more we and less me
32. Why was begging the only option for Raman to get food?
a) As Raman belonged to a family of beggars
b) As begging was the easiest way for him to obtain food
c) As Ramans family had forced him to beg
d) As he had lost all his property and was too old to do manual work
e) None of these
33. Which of the following words can be used to describe Raman?
A. Deceitful
B. Selfish
C. Timid
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) A and B
d) B and C
e) All the three
34. What did Raman find after he returned home from his meeting with
Rani Matsya?
a) The Ranis soldiers
b) An empty house
c) The five grains of rice that he had given to Rani Matsya
d) A sack full of rice and five gold coins
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 35-36) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in
meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
35. Galloped
a) Hurtled
d) Jumped
b) Stumbled
e) Ran
c) Slumbered
36. Revered
a) Remembered
d) Embraced
b) Feared
e) Respected
c) Talked about
Directions (Q. 37-38) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite
in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
37. Reveal
a) Stop
d) Pending
b) Conceal
e) Tell
c) Present
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38. Elated
a) Afraid
d) Depressed
b) Poor
e) Grounded
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c) Happy
Rahul a young householder, used to study the scriptures everyday under
a guru. One day the guru was explaining the following passage from the
Upanishads.
No husband is loved by his wife for his own sake but it is all for the
sake of the self
No sons are lov ed by their fathers for their sake but it is
all for the sake of the self that the sons become dear to him.
At that stage, Rahul intervened and said, Sir, in my case, both my
parents and my wife love me so dearly for my own sake that if I am delayed by
a few minutes in reach ing home they get highly agitated and if something
happens to me they will die. Guruji said, You shall learn the truth of it
tomorrow, when you see the result of a test I am going to h old. Before going to
bed tonight, you must swallow this herbal powder. As a result, you will lie as if
dead tomorrow morning, but you will be able to hear all that is spoken in your
presence. After a few hours, when the effect of this medicine wears off, you will
become normal and get up. You will see the fun.
Rahul did as instructed and in the morning his wife and parents found
him dead-lying motionless without any pulse or heartbeat. The guruji asked
for a jar full of water and said, I shall draw out all the bad destiny responsible
for yhour sons death into this water. One of you will have to drink this water.
The one who drinks will die immediately, while Rahul will be restored to life.
Tell me who among you is prepared to die for him?
Both the parents refused saying, we are old and, helping each other
mutually. If one dies, the other will not have anybody to help. So our drinking
the water is out of question. Rahuls young wife also said, I am very young
and have not seen anything of this world yet. When such old people, who have
seen life in its fulness, do not want to die how can you expect me to volunteer
for death?
A brighter idea flashed into the mind if the fat her who told the guruji,
Sir, you are a reunciate and have no relatives to mourn your death. Why dont
you drink the water yourself? We will conduct your funeral in a grand manner.
39. The contents of the passage prove that
a) What the Upanishad states appears to be true
b) Rahuls initial understanding about his family members was true
c) The guru did not have any miraculous power
d) The guru did not have thorough knowledge of scriptures
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e) None of these
40. After experimenting as per the gurus plan, Rahul realised that
a) His parents would do anything for his sake
b) His wife would readily sacrifice for his welfare
c) The gurus prediction had proved to be wrong
d) One loves oneself more than one loves anyone else
e) None of these
41. What according to the passage, was the essence of the Upanishad
passage?
a) Sons are loved by their fathers for the sake of themselves
b) Relatives are dear to us because we love them
c) Most human beings are not selfish
d) Every persons actions are to gratify himself or herself
e) None of these
42. The guru wanted a jar of water to
a) Drink from as he was very thirsty
b) Extract the bad elements responsible for Rahuls death
c) Give it to Rahuls parents to drink from
d) Sprinkle it on Rahuls dead body to bring him to life
e) None of these
43. Which of the following was proposed by Rahuls father to the guru?
a) He may be given the enchanted water to drink
b) Rahuls wife was the most appropriate person to drink the magical
water
c) Rahul be brought back to life without the death of anybody else
d) The guru himself should participate in Rahuls grand funeral
e) None of these
Directions: (Q. 44-46) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of
44. Refused
a) Denied
d) Defused
b) Accepted
e) Accomplished
c) Declined
45. Bright
a) Vivid
d) Shadow
b) Dark
e) Stupid
c) Dazzling
46. Agitated
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a) Roused
d) Claim
b) Troubled
e) Angered
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c) Excited
meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.
47. Apprised
a) Respected
d) Shown
b) Valued
e) Informed
c) Assessed
48. Entreated
a) Respected
d) Commanded
b) Implored
e) Managed
c) Desired
Uncle said Luke to the old Sean, You seem to be well fed, though I
know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any
time. Tell me how do you manage it?
Because Sean replied, I have a good feed every night at the
emperors orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out enough fruits to
last a fortnight.
Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though
reluctant because of Lukes habit of euphoric exhibition of extreme
excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke
on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of fruits was excited and lifted
his voice which brought ecmperors men immediately to his side. They seized
him and mistook him as the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke
reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded him mercilessly before
setting him free.
49. How did old Sean manage to meet his food requirements?
a) By buying food from the market
b) His nephew Luke took care of his requirements
c) Luke brought fruits from the emperors orchard for Sean
d) He picked up fruits from the emperors orchard
e) The emperor provided him with ample supply of fruits
50. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
a) Sean was a poor and suffering man
b) Luke came to know about the orchard from his uncle
c) Sean initially hesitated to take his nephew along
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d) Luke as finally set free

e) Both Sean and Luke collected fruits from Emperors orchard
51. Why was Sean reluctant to take Luke along?
a) Becausre he was a selfish man
b) He feared that Lukes reaction may alert the Emperors men
c) Because Luke could harm him
d) He wanted to bring fruits for Luke himself
e) He knew Luke was a greedy person
52. How often did Sean visit the emperors orchard?
a) Daily
b) Once a month
c) In a period of two weeks
d) Never, his nephew Luke brought fruits for him
e) Everyday during midnight
53. Luke remitted behind at the orchard because he
a) Was greedy and wanted to collect more fruits
b) Waited for the Emperors men to arrest him
c) Lost his composure and started expressing his feelings loudly
d) Had waited for his uncle to return
e) Could not move in the dark
Directions (Q. 54-56) Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in
meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
54. Reiterated
a) Pleaded
d) Repeated
b) Regurgitated
e) Recapitulated
c) Protested
55. Extreme
a) End
d) Serious
b) High
e) Moderate
c) Severe
56. Reluctant
a) Disinclined
d) Resistant
b) Opposed
e) None of these
c) Against
the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
57. Pounded
a) Weighed
b) Released
c) Paid
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d) Attended
58. Mercilessly
a) Calmly
d) Forgivably
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e) Caressed
b) Compassionately
e) Sympathetically
c) Mildly
The King of Kanchi set off to conquer Kamat. He was victorious in
battle. The elephants were laden with sandalwood, ivory gold and precious
stones, taken from the conquered kingdom of Kamat. They would be a part of
the victory parade for his sujbjects. On his way back home he stopped at a
temple, finished his prayers to the goddess and turned to leave. Around his
neck, was a garland of scarlet hibiscus and as was the custom for all, his
forehead was anointed with red sandal paste. His Minister and the court jester
were his only companions. At one spot, in a mango grove by the wayside, they
spied some children play. The King said, Let me go and see what they are
playing.
The children had lined up two ros of clay dolls and were playing
warriors and battles. The king asked, Who is fighting with whom? They said,
Kamat is at battle with Kanchi. The king asked, who is winning and who is
the loser? The children puffed their chests up and said, Kamat will win and
Kanchi will lose. The Minister froze in disbelief, the King was furious and the
juester burst into laughter.
The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were still
immersed in their game. The King commanded, Cane them hard. The
childrens parents came running from the nearby village and said, They are
nave, it was just a game, please grant them pardon. The King called his
commander and ordred, Teach these children and the village a slesson so that
they never forget the king of Kanchi. He went back to his camp.
That evening the commander stood before the King. He bowed low in
shame and said, Your Majesty, with the exception of hyenas and vultures, all
lie silent in the village. The Minister said, His Majestys honour has been
saved. The priest said, The goddess has blessed our King. The jester said,
Your highness, please grant me leave to go now. The King asked, But why?
The jester said, I cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at Gods gift of
life. Trembling In the face of the Kings anger he bravely continued, If I stay
in your Majestys court, I shall become like you and I shall forget how to
laugh.
59. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables?
a) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among
his soldiers as a reward
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b) This was the kings offering to the deity out of gratitude for making
him victorious
c) It was what the king had plundered from Karnat to display to the
people of his kingdom as a sign of victory
d) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as
their rew ruler
e) None of these
60. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste?
a) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious
b) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple
c) To show other devotees that he was king
d) To priest requested him to do so
e) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple
61. What excuse was given for the childrens behaviour?
a) They were disobedient to their parents wishes
b) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle
c) They were upset that their army had lost
d) They were in the habit of lying
e) None of these
62. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
a) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered
b) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed
great respect for the king
c) The commander was ashamed at having obeyed the kings orders to
cane the children
d) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of karnat
e) None of these
63. Why did the jester resign from his post?
a) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister
b) To show that he disapproved of the kings action of punishing the
children
c) He did not want to accompany the king on his war campaign
d) He was no longer able to make the king laugh
e) None of these
64. Why was the king angry with the children?
a) Because the game they were playing was dangerous
b) They had lied him
c) They did not recognize him as king
d) They had unknowingly insulted him
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e) They were rude to him

65. Froze
a) Cold
d) Stood still
b) Numb
e) Chill
c) Shivered
66. Leave
a) Holiday
d) Permission
b) Transfer
e) Farewell
c) Exit
67. Spied
a) Noticed
d) Spot
b) Keep watch
e) Caught
c) Followed
68. Immersed in
a) Safe from
d) Drowning in
b) Distracted from
e) Entertained by
c) Boring
69. Pardon
a) Punishment
d) Intolerance
b) Excuse
e) Imprison
c) Convict
Directions (Q. 70-77) Read the passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
Various measures have been deployed to combat food inflation.
Subsidies on food and fertilisers, imports of food as well as regulations to
prevent hoarding farm produce did succeed in stabilising prices from time to
time. But such crisis management has been able to provide only short lived
relief, and prices have gone up from 2007.
Bringing down food inflation will benefit the consumer, but make
prices unattractive to farmers. This will accentuate poverty. Unremunerative
prices discourage investments in agriculture, causing supply side shortages,
fueling inflation further. So, the most effective way of prices, ploughing a larger
share of the consumer spend back to the farmer.
First we need to lower transaction costs. The Agricultural Produce
Market Committee Acts mandate all farm produce should be brought to mandis
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for farmer pays to transport his produce over loing distances, before knowing
the price at which his produce would be sold, or whether any other market
would have paid a better price.
The journey from farm to consumer involves multiple levels of
transportation, handling expenses, commissions of agents and a mandi cess,
adding nearly 20% cost to food prices. This absurdity was acknowledged years
ago, and a new Model APMC Act recommended by the Centre in 2003.
This Model Act must be implemented in all states. Unless farmers have
the freedom to sell at farm-gate or other transparent platforms directly to buyers,
transaction costs will remain high and drive consumer prices higher. Next, we
need to cut wastage. Anywhere from, 5% to 40% of food is wasted along the
chain, depending on the perishability of the crop and the season. First, market
instruments must empower farmers to produce as per tommorrows demand,
rather than be guided by yesterdats prices.
If the Forward Contracts Regulation Act is amended to permit trading in
options, farmers are assured of a minimum price when sowing, based on future
projections simulated by a market consensus. This will align production
volumes to future demand conditions and minimise wastage.
70. What has been the overall effect of the various measures taken to
combat food inflation?
a) Such measures have successfully stablisied prices of food items for a
longer period
b) Such measures have proved ineffective in the long run, and the prices
have gone up.
c) Such measures could provide only a short lived relief
d) Only b) and c)
71. What prompted the Centre to bring about a new Model APMC Act?
Select the most appropriate option.
a) The earlier version of the APMC Act forced the farmers to bear huge
transportation cost
b) The APMC Act provided that every farmer had to sell his produce
only in man di and that also through agents.
c) APMC Act was not acceptable to farmers, and on several occasions
they had expressed their resentment against the said Act.
d)The APMC Act could not provide relief to farmers, rather it led the
food prices to costlier by 20%.
72. Which of the following statements is contrary to the facts mentioned in
the given passage?
a) Unremunerative prices discourage investment in agriculture resulting
into supply side shortage
b) To contain food inflation the consumer prices should be lowered.
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c)Market instruments must empower farmers to produce as per

yesterdays demand.
d) The new Model of APMC Act was recommended by the centre to
lower the transaction cost.
73. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to
the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
Absurdity
a) Logic
b) Wisdom
c) Folly
d) Seriousness
e) None of these
Virtual
a) Real
b) Practical
c) Authentic
d) Actual
e) None of these
Simulated
a) Unexpected
b) Classified
c) Delivered
d) Imitated
e) None of these
76. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning of
Accentuate
a) Alleviate
b) Increase
c) Accentuate
d) Highlight
e) None of these
the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage
Fueling
a) Inciting
b) Lessening
c) Inflaming
d) Sustaining
e) None of these
Indias external debt profile appears similar to that of other major
market economies. But its short term external debt stock is now higher than
countries such as Brazil and Russia (in terms of percentage of GDP), according
to Taimur Baig and Kaushik Datta, economists at Deutsche Bank. Indias share
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of short term debt relative to the stock of total external debt is also higher than
other emerging market economies, with the exception of Turkey, they say.
Though short term debt was contained in FY 14, it was largely due to a
slowdown in imports and may again rise once there is a rebound in growth and
imports pick up. Some economists point out that since GDP is expressed in
dollar terms, a weak rupee translates into a lower GDP number and hence, a
lower ratio could be misleading.
However, the composition of long term debt which is reckoned to be
durable and safe is also worrisome. While the share of almost risk free
sovereign, multilateral and bilateral credit has reduced significantly over the
years, it is private corporate sector debt and retail component in terms of NRI
deposits that has swelled over the years. Proceeds from the FCNR (B) swap and
overseas borrowing schemes were, in fact, the main contributors to the $31.2 bn
increase in external debt in FY 14, which were facilitated by the Reserve Bank
to stabilise the Indian currency.
NRI deposits do not pose material risks (as they are generally rolled
over). But the increase in the share of external commercial borrowings exposes
the domestic corporate sector significantly to external shocks, including adverse
exchange rate movements, says Samiran Chakrabarty, Chief India Economist,
Standard Ch artered Bank. Every year about $20 bn is scheduled for repayment.
The amount may not seem alarming, but the risk arises if there is a global
liquidity squeeze.
The recent trouble in Iraq has added another dimension to external
sector woes, which is that the reduction in trade deficit in FY 14 may reverse
again. Already struggling with a record low growth, high inflation, a weak
currency, low manufacturing growth and possibility of sub-normal monsoon,
the threat of oil supply shock and the resultant increase in prices add to the risks
faced by the country, which could hamper Indias envisaged improvement in
economic growth in FY 15, say Madan Sabnavis and Kavita Chacko of Care
Ratings. If crude price risks persist, the current account deficit, which was
contained in 2013-14, could deteriorate further and also add to pressure on the
rupee. Care Ratings has projected a CAD for the year at 2.5% of GDP,
assuming stable crude oil prices and a re covery in industrial production. Higher
persistent crude prices would upset this calculation.
78. Which of the following statements is contrary to the facts mentioned in
the given passage?
a) In FY 14, short term debt was contained due to slowdown in imports.
b) Short term debt is directly proportional to t he quantum of imports.
c) A weak rupee translates into a lower GDP number
d) Private corporate sector debt has decreased over the years
79. What is/are the reasons of the author being apprehensive about Indias
improvement in economic growth in FY 15?
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a) The recent Iraq crisis may lead to reduction in trade deficit in the
current financial year
b) The possibility of sub-normal monsoon
c) High inflation and low manufacturing growth
d) All of the above
Contained
a) Neglected
b) Accomodated
c) Controlled
d) Excluded
e) None of these
Reckoned
a) Nullified
b) Abandoned
c) Started
d) Considered
e) None of these
Envisaged
a) Anticipated
b) Amazed
c) Doubted
d) Discarded
e) None of these
Proceeds
a) Profit
b) Outgo
c) Income
d) Interests
e) None of these
Squeeze
a) Congestion
b) Crunch
c) Restraint
d) Release
e) None of these
The first budget of the new administration needed to focus on two key
macro problems a path to fiscal consolidation and a clear signal for structural
reforms to boost the long run growth trajectory of the economy. The budget
delivers on both counts.
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On the fiscal deficit, the new government has continued from where the
previous administration left in laying out a path and a commitmen to reducing
the deficit to 3% of GDP by FY 17. On the structural reform path, there was a
clear focus on boosting labour intensive manufacturing and growth.
The excise duty cuts for food processing and footwear industries,
creation of SEZs, single window clearance, tax deductions for investments,
reforms to the Apprenticeship Act and Rs.10,000 Crore as venture capital for
SMEs were all small steps in that direction. While the fiscal path is admirable, it
also may be too aggressive. It may be difficult to get a 20% increase in tax
revenues in a year when growth is likely to remain below 6%.
The assumption of service tax revenues growing by 40% may be a tad
optimistic. Further, the 3G telecom privatisation proceeds of Rs.45,000 Crore
also look ambitious. To achieve the governments medium term targets will not
be easy. First, we would have preferred a more realistic and gradual approach to
consolidation. Taking an extra year to reach the 3% deficit target (i.e. by FY 18
instead of FY 17) might be more realistic, and would not compromise macro
stability. Second, there is an urgent need for a return to fiscal rules and the
FRBM Act, with due sanctions, as the Economic Survey argues. Without it, and
despite the medium term path laid out in the budget, there may be an incentive
to pause on fiscal consolidation, as happened in FY 09 and was witnessed
through FY 12. More than 80 countries follow some sort of a fiscal rule and
have found them very useful in imposing fiscal descipline.
Third, if consolidation is based on increasing the tax base, then further
erosions could be avoided. In this regard, the increase in income tax exemption
limits further reduces an already small tax base. Only 3% of Indians (35 mn)
pay income tax compared with more than 20% of Chinese and over 45% of
Americans. The strategy that China followed was to not raise I ncome tax
thresholds with rising incomes to increase the base further. If the government
consistently raises the threshold limits, it would be difficult to expand the tax
base.
Fourth, tax administration could be improved by having an independent
revenue service, with its own budget and autonomy in hiring staff. As the
government implements its revenue strategy, autonomy and reforms in
administration could be potentially very helpful.
Fifth, a road map for reducing subsidies, particularly the large fertiliser
subsidy, can give greater credence to the consolidation path.
The budget marks a very good beginning in terms of signalling a
commitment to fiscal discipline and structural regorms. While the strategy
seems to improve GDP growth and, thereby, reduce fiscal deficit through
revenue byoyancy, such a strategy is fraught with risks.
We think that to meet the consolidation path requires a clear set of rules,
measures to broadbase the tax system and a road map to reduce subsidies. This
budget lays out the overall vision.
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85. Which of the following statements is not based on the facts mentioned
in the given passage?
a) It will be difficult to get a 20% increase in income tax revenue if the
growth remains below 6%.
b) It will be difficult to achieve governments medium term targets.
c) The new government has committed to reducing the fiscal deficit to
3% of GDP by FY 17.
d) Among India, China and America, the highest number of tax payers
live in America.
86. What is being done by the government for structural reform?
a) Special attention was paid on the growth of labour intensive
manufacturing.
b) Excise duty cut for food processing and footwear industries was
allowed
c) SEZs are to be created
d) All of the above
87. What is/are the prerequisite(s) to meet the consolidation path? Give
your answer in the context of the given passage.
a) More and more people should be brought under the net of income
tax.
b) A blue print should be prepared to reduce subsidies.
c) An independent, autonomous body with an authority to inspect the
functioning of income tax department should be brought into existence.
d) Only a) and b)
Erosion
a) Destruction
b) Deterioration
c) Strengthening
d) Consumption
Buoyancy
a) Elasticity
b) Snap
c) Rigidity
d) Feslience
Fraught
a) Empty
b) Devoid
c) Lack
d) Abound
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Consistently
a) Steadily
b) Customarily
c) Never
d) Congruously
Credence
a) Distrust
b) Assurance
c) Belief
d) Credit
The RBI orders a moratorium when a banks financial stability is
threatened. Depositors face some restrictions on withdrawing money from their
accounts during this period. Currently the restriction is confined to premature
withdrawl of FDs in case of Kapol Bank. Customers can still withdraw money
from their savings and current accounts. However, the Bhanking Regulation Act
has provisions for relief to customers facing a financial emergency. Banks
administrative board can approach the RBI with a plea for relaxing the
withdrawal limits in case of account holders such as those who have saved or
deposited money for their medical treatment or educational purpose and
pensioners, says VN Kulkarni, chief credit counsellor with the Bank of India
backed Abhay Credit Counselling Centre.
Since one cannot do much after the bank gets into trouble or the RBI
comes into the picture, it would be wise to take some precautions. Depositors
need to be selective not only in choosing the bank, but also in depositing the
amount using different combinations, says Kulkarni. For instance, you can
maintain the first deposit in your name, held jointly with your spouse or
children. Similarly, the second joint FD could be created with your wife as the
first holder. This will help you benefit from the deposit insurance cover
extended to retail depositors.
Currently, deposits are insured upto Rs.1 Lakh per bank, and not per
branch of the same bank. You can also look at maintaining FDs in more than
one bank to spread out the risk.
However, this may not be feasible for some individuals. For instance, a
retiree who wishes to invest her huge retirement corpus in FDs. It is not
feasible to split a huge amount of, say, Rs.50 Lakh into 50 deposits with
different banks. Senior citizens have to strike a balance between convenience,
risks and higher returns that some of the smaller banks offer, says Suresh
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Sadagopan, certified financial planner and founder, Ladder. Financial

Advisories. He recommends diversification by investing in fixed income
options like company FDs, non-convertible debentures as also more secure
alternatives such as tax free bonds and senior citizens savings scheme, which
offers an interest rate of 9.2%. You must also evaluate the banks credentials
carefully before parking your money in it. While selecting the bank, you need
to ascertain its gross NPAs. It should be not higher than 5%. Similarly, ensure
that your bank has adequate capital as prescribed by the regulators, says
Kulkarni. That is, minimum 9% of risk-weighted assets, and at least 12%, in
case of cooperative banks. You will find this information in the balance sheets
of banks.
93. Which of the following is not definitely true with respect to Kapol
Bank?
a)It is a private sector bank
b) At present, premature withdrawal of FD cannot be allowed.
c) Customers of this bank have been allowed withdrawal of money from
their CASA.
d) There are no restrictions on withdrawal except of premature fixed
deposits.
94. Find the statement which is not based on the facts mentioned in the
passage.
a) Under certain circumstances, account holders facing financial
emergency can be allowed withdrawal of moiney beyond withdrawal
limit as per the provisions laid down in the Banking Regulation Act.
b)When the bank gets into trouble it is better for a depositor to be
selective in both ch oosing the bank and depositing the amount using
different combinations.
c) When the financial stability of a bank is at stake the central bank
ordres a moratorium
d) The central bank has ordered a moratorium on Kapol Bank.
95. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
Parking
a) Removing
b) Depositing
c) Stopping
d) Walking
Picture
a) Scene
b) Mainstream
c) Portrait
d) Role
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Diversification
a) Variegation
b) Homogenous
c) Allocation
d) Division
Threatened
a) Warned
b) Jeopardised
c) Ensured
d) Exposed
Strike
a) Maintain
b) Hit
c) Knock
d) Smack
Directions (Q. 100-111) Read the passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Indias banking sector may be getting ready for a wave of consolidation
as the country tries to build institutions of world class proportions. Four big
state run banks State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Bank of Baroda
and Bank of India have already begun on exercise to identify takeover targets
to gain access to franchises that would augment their capabilities, said three top
bankers familiar with the move. The top managements of the four banks are in
the process of preparing a blueprint that would explain the rationale for
absorbing one or two entities, said the people cited above, none of whom
wanted to be named. Employees at these state run banks are engaged in the
exercise after Finance Minister Arun Jaitley gave the lenders the go-ahead to
decide how they would strategiese to remain relevant in the emerging economic
scenario.
We are hearing from the corridors of finance ministry that there is
seriousness on consolidation of banks, said an executive from one of the top
four banks. The sense we are getting is that first there could be merger of at
least one SBI associate bank with SBI to kick off the consolidation process.
Although no names of likely acquisition targets are being discussed at these
four banks, the key conditions for a smaller bank will be regional, technological
and cultural advantages. For instance, a bank such as Bank of Baroda, which
does not have a presence in the East, may prefer one from that part of the
country. State run banks have weakened over the years as governments have
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treated them as an organ of the administration and used them to push their social
agenda. Meanwhile, lenders in neighbouring China have acquired scale while
those in India are puny by comparison, giving them little clout in global
markets.
The economic downturn, with growth having almost halved from the
peak, has exposed the fault lines in the system. The parlous financial position
of the government has left banks capital starved - the allocation for this year is
tiny compared with the amount needed to meet Basel III standards. And, to
access capital from the market, the state run banks need a strategy to turn more
profitable. Currently, they are labouring under bad debt on account of
companies finding it difficult to repay loans because of the slump.
Government has made it clear that they will not give any capital, said
one of the bankers. Banks that have the capital and the capability to raise
capital could look at acquisitions, he said, while adding Nothing has reached
the drawing board. Banks are only doing all kinds of permutations and
combinations.
To be sure, state run bank consolidation has been discussed for nearly a
decade, but little progress has been made, except for shotgun weddings that
were aimed at rescuing ventures in poor shape. Inertia among banks, cultural
issues and fears of trade union unrest held up any such move. That may now
change with the new government.
There have been some suggestions for consolidation of public sector
banks, Jaitley said in his July 10 Budget speech. Government, in principle,
agress to consider these suggestions.
A committee set up by the Reserve Bank of India under former Axis
Bank Chairman P.J. Nayak had suggested that the health of state run banks was
poor. To strengthen them, the report said it would be better either to privatise
these banks and allow their future solvency to be subject to market competition,
including through mergers; or to design a radically new governance structure for
these banks which would better ensure their ability to compete successfully, in
order that repeated claims for capital support from the government, unconnected
with market returns, are avoided.
The market share of the public sector banks is forecast to decline from
80% in 2000 to just over 60% in 2025, Nayak had said. They stack up poorly in
many respects against non-state institutions. For instance, net profit per
employee at the new private sector banks was about four tiems that of the SBI
Group in the year ended March 2013.
100.
Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
a) Four big state run banks have begun to identify takeover targets.
b) The finance minister has given free hand to state run banks to make
their own strategy for banking business.
c)The four big state run banks have already decided the names of some
small banks likely to be taken over
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d) According to PJ Nayak Committee report, the state run banks were

not performing well.
101.
Why have banks turned capital starved? Answer in the context
of the passage?
a) Because of excessive loans santioned to malafide customers
b) Because of bad monetary policy of the RBI
c) Because of the excessive payments towards government sponsored
schemes without appropriate provision for them
d)Because of the dangerous financial position of the government
102.
Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for
the passage?
a) Policy Paralysis of the Central Government
b) The Economic Downturn
c) Union Budget 2014: A Review
d)Consolidation of Banks
103.
Which of the following statements regarding the consolidation
of state run banks is/are true? Answer in the context of the passage.
a)Efforts for consolidation of state run banks are on for past one decade
but nothing remarkable has come out as yet.
b) The consolidation of state run banks is a complex task and it will take
some more years for its completion.
c) Banks are doing all kinds of permutations and combinations but the
result is cipher.
d) Only a) and b)
104.
What does the phrase kick off mean as used in the passage?
a) Discontinue
b) Breakdown
c) Smash
d) Begin
105.
Under the current scenarioi what do state run banks need to do
to access capital from the market?
a) They need to float public shares b)They
need a strategy to earn more profit
c) They should increase lending rate to attract depositors.
d) They should announce handsome returns to depositors.
106.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word
Acquisition
a) Redemption
b) Forfeit
c) Possession
d) Dearth
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107.
Parlous
a) Harmful
b) Strong
c) Critical
d) Powerful
108.
Inertia
a) Inactivity
b) Liveliness
c) Awakening
d) Interest
109.
Solvency
a) Destitution
b) Depriviation
c) Impotency
d) Financial competence
110.
Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in
meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Puny
a) Trivial
b) Strong
c) Inferior
d) Tiny
111.
passage.
Augment
a) Reinforce
b) Strengthen
c) Magnify
d) Multiply
Directions (Q. 112-120) Read the passage carefully and answer the given
below it. Certain words /phrases are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
Sanjaya Barus book has been perceived as an attack on PM Manmohan
Singh by a disgruntled employee who was denied a job by the Prime Minister in
his second term. This is a completely wrong reading of the book. It is, in fact, a
defence of Manmohan by a member of his fan club. Fortunately, it is not a
fawning hagiography. It is straightforward and gossipy, but not excessively so.
It is an important contribution to contemporary Indian history; it can also be
read as a text book for those who wish to understand how politics
and
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administration actually work in India of our times. Like the Crossman Diaries in
Britain in earlier times and like Duty by Robert Gates in the US in recent times,
it throws light on contingencies and counterfactuals.
Future historians may see inevitable and inexorable patterns in the way
things have unfolded in India in the last decade. Barus book will be a source
that will help the historian focus with some humility on issues of choice and
chance.
Baru was recruited by Manmohan and worked with him closely as
Media Adviser, Baru is a loyal defender of his boss. Contrary to the popular
perception of Manmohan being dour or politically clumsy, Baru makes the case
that the economist turned politician is, in fact, a clever and sophisticated
operator. Manmohans excellent relationship with wily and experienced
politicians like Sharad Pawar, Karunanidhi, Lalu Prasad, Harkishen Surjeet,
Jyoti Basu and even Vajpayee and Jaswant Singh would not have been possible
if he had been nave or weak. On issues which mattered to Manmohan like Free
Trade Agreements or the Nuclear Accord, he can be a cool and consummate
political operator. But he does have his blind spots. Whether it is because he has
a lifelong commitment to civil service traditions that one department must not
intrude on the turf of another department, or it is out of a conviction that party
politics is not his forte, or for whatever unmentioned reason, Manmohan has
kept himself severely and completely away from the Congress Party. Perhaps,
Manmohan felt that his own political guru, Narasimha Rao, paid a price for
intruding into areas where both fools and angels should fear to tread. The net
result was that Man mohan had less support from his own party leaders and, in
Barus opinion, that proved very costly for our accidental Prime Minister.
There are some self-serving bits in this memoir. Manmohans
performance in UPA-1 is portrayed as outstanding. After all, Baru was with him
most of that time, was he not? And some of the achievements of that time seem
to have a greater Baru imprint than what other observers might concede. And
virtually all the problems of Manmohan seem to have coincided with UPA-2
when Baru was no longer around! Neverthless, Barus professionalism and
better nature does assert itself almost everywhere in the book. He gives himself
far less credit than others who have written similar books tend to do. He is lucid
enough to concede that in economic matters, effects are preceded by causes with
some lags. The good times of UPA-1 were not merely because the global
economy was strong, but because Manmohan inherited a good legacy from
Vajapayee. The roots of many of the problems in UPA-2 were the results of sins
of profligacy committed during UPA-1 when economic growth was not only
taken for granted, but treated with some contempt by the elitist do-gooders of
the National Advisory Council, which could have been a source of anodyne
amusement, if so many of its actions had not ended up being dangerous, even
disastrous for the country.
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112.
Which of the following, according to the author, is true about
Sanjaya Barus book?
a) It is a book intended to attack the former PM Manmohan Singh
b) It is a fawning hagiography
c) It is straightforward and excessively gossipy
d)It is a book which throws light on contingencies and counterfactuals
of Indian politics
113.
Which of the following statements is contrary to the facts
mentined in the given passage?
a) Narasimha Rao was the political guru of Manmohan Singh
b) As per civil service traditions, one department must not intrude on
the turf of another department
c) Manmohan Singh kept himself severely and completely away from
the Congress Party.
d) None of these
114.
Which of the following facts supports the view that Manmohan
was neither a nave nor a weak Prime Minister?
a) During his regime the nuclear deal was signed, which is one of most
important achievements
b) He had a very good relationship with wily and experienced
politicians
c) Manmohan Singh preferred to keep mum than to indulge into
controversy
d) He was aware of the fact that party politics is not his forte and hence
he kept himself away from active politics.
115.
Why, according to Baru, was Manmohans performance in
UPA-1 outstanding?
a) Because Baru was with him most of the time
b) Because the Congress Party had done a lot of good work to alleviate
poverty
c)Because the global economy was strong and Manmohan Singh had
inherited a good legacy from Vajpayee.
d) Because UPA-2 was full of scams
116.
Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in
meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Intrude
a) Associate
b) Interfere
c) Leave
d) Combine
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117.
passage.
Profligacy
a) Fraglity
b) Restraint
c) Lacking
d) Recklessness
118.
passage.
Anodyne
a) Soother
b) Upsetting
c) Excitative
d) Agitating
119.
passage.
Inexorable
a) Harsh
b) Dogged
c) Flexible
d) Relentless
120.
passage.
Concede
a) Allow
b) Accord
c) Acknowledge
d) Reject
Directions (Q. 121-129) Read the passage carefully and answer the
Since 1947, Indians have not spoken out so strongly and clearly for a
completely new brand of people running government. Mercifully, there are no
ministers educated abroad. Thankfully, none of them has been brainwashed at
Harvard, Stanford, Cambridge, the World bank or the IMF, subtly forcing
expensive Western solutions on typically Indian problems at the cost of the
poor. Look what the high powered, foreign returned degree wallahs have
reduced this country to. They wasted opportunities to show the inner strength of
what is essentially Indian because they never really knew their own people
living in Bharat. In the eyes of the World, we have lost our self-respect, dignity
and identity.
All the ministers now have gone through average government schools.
Some have never been to college. Many have experienced poverty, exploitation,
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injustice and discrimination at some point of time in their lives. It is truly the
first barefoot government ever to be voted into power in independent India.
Where else in the World would you have a one time tea seller on a railway
station becoming Prime Minister, shaping the destiny of more than one billion
people?
The first example the Modi government must set is by drastically
reducing the perks and privileges of MPs. Free power, food, housing, travel to
those whose personal assets run into crores and a Rs.2 Crore annual fund for
development for over 500 MPs is costing the exchequer nearly Rs.2000 Crore.
Only the Prime Minister will be able to make it happen and, at the same time,
stifle any dissent from BJP MPs. The time is now.
No other government in the World has a Class 12 pass woman ministers
speaking as an equal to almost 120 heavily qualified, on paper, vice chancellors
(90 % male). Today, as we judge them, the VCs are all to intellectually and
morally fatigued. There is something dreadfully wrong with an education
system that produces graduates from even private, expensive, snobbish schools
and colleges who are still prejudiced about caste, class, religion, sex and colour.
These graduates, who roam the streets of small towns and cities by the
thousands, call themselves educated, practise the worst forms of cruelty,
slavery and crimes against humanity, against society and in their own families.
Indeed, some of them rose to the level of their incompetence by becoming
ministers in previous governments, reinforcing the status quo, wasting vast
public resources by implementing silly Western ideas, listening to foreign
returned experts and making a hopeless mess of this country. The tragedy is
that they cannot see the colossal damage they have done to the very fabric of
this country.
121.
What is/are true about the ministers of the new government
formed at the Centre?
a) Some of them are ghighly qualified and foreign degree holders.
b) Only a few of them are t he products of average government schools.
c)There are so me ministers who have never been to college.
d) Our Prime Minister is a postgraduate in Political Science.
122.
Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of the
ministers of the last government at the Centre?
a) Some of the ministers of the last government at the Centre were
educated abroad.
b) The ministers of the last government were brainwashed at foreign
universities to suggest Western solutions for Indian problems.
c) The Western degree holder ministers coming from the elite class
never knew their own people living in Bharat.
d)Though the ministers of the last government were Western educated
yet they had great concern about the gripping problems of India
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123.
Which of the following statements is based on the facts
mentioned in the passage?
a) The present government aims at reducing the perks and privileges of
MLAs.
b)There is something wrong with those educational institutions that
produjce graduates who remain prejudiced about caste, class and gender
c) The elitist education policy has still managed to make students
humble and sensitive towards humanity.
d) None of the present ministers has gone through poverty, injustice,
exploitation and discrimination
124.
What is the perception about India in the eyes of the World?
a) That India is a developing nation
b)That we dont have self respect, dignity and identity
c) That India is still a c ountry of snake charmers
d) That India is an educationally backward nation
125.
passage.
Destiny
a) Objective
b) Prospect
c) Future
d) Concept
126.
passage.
Perks
a) Benefits
b) Candy
c) Loss
d) Constraints
127.
passage.
Fatigued
a) Fresh
b) Lively
c) Exhausted
d) Vivacious
128.
passage.
Dissent
a) Strife
b) Marvellous
c) Objections
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d) Approval
129.
passage.
Snobbish
a) Haughty
b) Pompous
c) Arrogant
d) Humble
Directions (Q. 130-139) Read the following passage carefully and answer
the questions given below it. Certain words/expressions are given in bold in
the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
My God, it speaks uttered the Emperor of Brazil and the receivr of the
Telephone slipped from his hand and banged around. At the other end
Alexander Graham Bell was still on line.
This incident goes back to 1876 when at an exhibition in Philadelphia,
Alexander Graham Bell was giving a demonstration of his new invention. This
strange instrument known as Telephone was to revolutionize life in the years to
come.
Bell was born at Edinborough, Scotland. He was a teacher and, was
dedicated to the noble cause of teaching the deaf and the dumb. Due to a severe
illness, Bell was sent to Canada in 1870, where too he got engaged in helping
the dumb deaf to hear and speak. Thereafter, he shifted to the USA but
continuted with his work by opening a school f or deaf to hear and dumb.
Bell was fond of scientific inventions and was ever engaged in making
some machines in his spare time. While at Boston, he tried to communicate
through metal wire. His companion in this work was Watson. One day while
experimenting with this instrument, Bell spoke to Watson standing at a distance.
Watson was taken by a pleasant surprise as he had heard Bell clearly through
his instrument. The instrument was a success and Bell patented it.
Graham Bell had some sterling qualities of head and heart. Apart from
being as artist, he was a kind human being, ready to help the needy. He
established an institution for the deaf and dumb children. He died in 1922 in
Canada. The entire northern America paid him a tribute by hanging up their
telephones for a while during his funeral.
130.
The teaching activity undertaken by Bell was
noble particularly because
a)He was teaching the physically under privileged persons
b) There was nobody else in the field of education
c) He was not accepting any salary of that job
d) He was a very famous scientist of his times
considered
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131.
The words uttered by the Emperor of Brazil suggest that it was
extremely
a) Angry
b) Insulted
c) Surprised
d) Agitated
132.
What according to the passage was the contribution of
invention of telephone?
a) Interaction between two persons at some distance was possible
b) Rich people were able to communicate with others
c) Graham Bell could converse with Watson regarding invention
through telephone
d)It revolutionized human life
133.
Which of the following made Bell to invent telephone?
a) His activity of teaching
b) His service to the deaf and dumb
c)He kept interest in scientific inventions
d) Encouragement received from Watson
134.
Graham Bell made the telephone call of his invention to the
Emperor from the city of
a) Edinborough
b) Philadelphia
c) Brazil
d) Boston
135.
Bell had gone to Canada in 1870 for
a) Treating a patient who was seiously ill
b) Helping the deaf and dumb children to hear and speak
c)Undergoing medical treatment for himself
d) Devoting his full time to his invention
136.
Choose the word or group of words which is most nearly the
same in meaning as the word printed in bold?
Revolutionize
a) Affect adversely
b) Develop gradually
c) Illuminate completely
d) Change drastically
137.
Choose the word or group of words which is most nearly the
same in meaning as the word printed in bold?
Dedicated
a) Appointed
b) Deployed
c) Devoted
d) Religious
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138.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the
word printed in bold.
Continued
a) Irregular
b) Destroyed
c) Reckoned
d) Suspended
139.
word printed in bold.
Pleasant
a) Admirable
b) Disgusting
c) Nice
d) Indecent
the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you
to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with
silk fabrics, gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of
sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The
mother was sending out gifts to everyone.
The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children
in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he
travelled all over the World. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles
and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across
the World. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a
servant, was soon bored left her and stood at the door all day long, waiting and
watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and
plates, covered them with colorful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and
servants. The neighbors looked on.
The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.
The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother,
Maa, you gave present to everyone, but you didnt give me anything!
His mother laughed, I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now
see whats left for you. She kissed him on the forehead.
The child said in a tearful voice. Dont get a gift?
Youll get it when you go far away. But when I am close to you,
dont I get something from your own hands?
His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her This is all I have
in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.
140.
Why did the womans second son travel?
a) He was restless by nature
b) He did not want to stay at home
c) He was rich and could afford to travel
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d)His job was such that he had to travel

141.
Why did the womans eldest son not attend the festival?
a) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at
home
b) He had quarreled with his mother
c) His wife did not allow him to return home
d) None of these
142.
Which of the following can be said about the woman?
a) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
b) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an
early age
c)She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
d) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
143.
What did the boy receive from his mother?
a) She taught him the value of patience
b) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his
brother
c) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
d)She gave him a hug to express her love
144.
Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
a) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
b) The womans eldest son lived abroad
c)The members of the womans family did not care about her
d) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want
to burden the servants
145.
Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as
Left
a) Gone
b) Quit
c) Remaining
d) Disappeared
146.
Packed
a) Filled
b) Squeezed
c) Crowd
d) Collected
147.
word Dejectedly as used in the passage.
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a) Calmly
d) Fortunately
b) Happily
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c) Willingly
the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to
help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
During Emperor Akbars reign, there was a poor man in Agra, who was
throught to bring bad luck. People believed that if any one looked at his face in
the morning, they would have a bad day.
Get lost, you ugly fellow! he would be cursed by one and all. Hide
your face before you kill someone with your evil eye!
The emperor soon heard of this mans reputation and wanted to see him.
The poor fellow, who had not harmed a single person in his life, was brought to
Akbar.
Akbar took a look at him and asked him to be brought back in the
evening.
That particular day was an especially full and tiring day for the emperor
and his courtiers.
So, many matters had to be attended to that Akbar even forgot to eat. By
the end of the day, the emperor was exhausted. To make matters worse, Akbar
was informed that his favorite child, little Prince Salim, had fallen ill.
Then the emperor suddenly remembered that he had seen the face of the
unlucky man that morning.
That was it. It was that mans entire fault, Akbar decided.
Akbar called his courtiers and told them that he was going to have
unlucky man executed. All of them agreed immediately.
That is all except Birbal. Instead, Birbal let out a short laugh.
What is the matter, Birbal? asked the emperor You seem to find
something funny!
Nothing, your majesty, replied Birbal
You say this man brings bad luck because you had to go without food
ever since you saw him this morning. Look at his luck. Yours was the first face
he saw today, and has to die because to it.
Akbar immediately realized his folly and rewarded Birbal for his
wisdom.
148.
Why had the king not eaten his food?
a) He was very busy that day
b) He had seen the face of the unlucky fellow
c) He was not feeling well
d) None of these
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149.
Who was not well on that particular day?
a) King Akbar
b) The King's courtiers
c) Birbal
d) Prince Salim
150.
Which of the following describes Birbal?
a) He was a famous merchant
b) He had lost his senses
c) He was very poor
d)He possessed good logical thinking
151.
a) The poor man wanted to see the king
b) The poor man was well educated
c) The courtiers were sympathetic with the poor man
d)King Akbar realized his mistake
152.
What was Birbals initial reaction when he heard that
poorman would be executed?
a) He was angry because Akbar had not taken his advice
b) He laughed slightly
c) He was silent and wanted to give a change to the poor man
d) None of these
the
153.
Choose the word that is most nearly the same meaning as the
word/phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.
Reputation
a) Character
b) Respect
c) Fame
d) Report
154.
Choose the word that is most nearly the same meaning as the
word/phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.
Folly
a) Argument
b) Mistake
c) Words
d) Conflict
155.
Choose the word which is the most opposite in meaning of the
Hide
a) Seek
b) Show
c) Go away
d) Indicate
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156.
Choose the word which is the most opposite in meaning of the
Exhausted
a) Consumed
b) Drained
c) Restless
d) Energetic
locate them while, answering some of the questions.
In the town, where Abhiram painted pictures of gods and goddesses,
everyone knew him only as a stranger, who had always painted pictures for a
living. No one knew him or his past. He would think, I was once wealthy but
its all gone now
and in a way it is for the better. I meditate on various
forms of God all day long now, my bread and butter comes from that. I also
place his image in all the houses. None can take away the respect and goodwill
this earns me. One day the royal Minister passed away. The King employed a
new Minister from a foreign land. The whole town was abuzz with the news but
that day Abhirams fingers stilled to a halt. Abhirams father and adopted an
orphan boy, whom he raised and trusted more than his own son, Abhiram. But
the boy had turned traitor and had stolen the old mans fortune from him. The
very same man and now come to the new kingdom as the new Minister. The
room where Abhiram painted was also his puja room. He went in, folded his
hands and queried, Is this why I have spent so many years meditating on. You
through every colour, every line? Is this how you reward me with such an
insult?
The chariot pageant was coming up. At the fairgrounds many people
from different lands thronged to buy Abhirams pictures. In that throng, there
was a little boy watched over by servants. He picked out one picture. Abhiram
turned to the childs attendant and asked, who is this boy? He replied, The
only son of our royal Minister. Abhiram covered his paintings with a cloth and
said, I will not sell my pictures. Which only made the child want the picture
even more? He came home and sulked in the corner and refused to eat. The
Minister sent a bagful of coins for Abhiram, but the bag came back to the
Minister untouched. The Minister said to himself, what audacity! The more
he was pestered, the more dogged was Abhirams refusal and he thought, This
is my victory.
Every morning the first thing Abhiram did was to paint a picture of his
own beloved deity. This was the only form of worship known to him. One day,
he realized the painting wasnt to his satisfaction. Something looked different. It
wasnt looking right. He felt tormented. As the days passed, the subtle
difference became more apparent until one day Abhiram looked up, started by
the realization
he could see it clearly now - the face oif his God was
beginning to look more and more like the Minister. He hurled his brush to the
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ground and said, So the Ministger wins! That same day the painting to the
Minister and said, Here is the picture, give it to your son. The Minister asked,
How much? Abhiram said, You robbed me of my devotion to God I shall
gain it back by gifting you this picture. The Minister had no idea what he was
talking about.
157.
Why did Abhiram paint a picture of one particular deity every
morning?
a) His paintings of this particular deity were very popular and he sold
many of them
b) He kept trying to paint the picture well but he never succeeded
c) In memory of his father, who had great devotion for the deity
d)It was his way of praying
158.
Why did the Minister send a bagful of gold to Abhirams
house?
a) As penance for taking Abhirams rightful share of their fathers
property
b) He admired artists and wanted to pay his respects to Abhiram
c) As a bribe to ensure that Abhiram would keep t heir past a secret
d)He wanted to purchase a painting that his son was determined to have
159.
Why was Abhiram disappointed with his most recent painting?
a) Despite his best efforts, he could not get the painting to resemble the
Minister
b) Attention to details which made his paintings so popular was missing
c)Instead of resembling, a replica of a deity, the painting looked like a
portrait of the Minister
d) Since, he was unable to paint the lighting effects properly, the deity
did not look lifelike in the portrait
160.
What was Abhirams first reaction when, he heard about the
appointment of the new Royal Minister?
a) He decided not to sell his paintings at the chariot pageant
b) He stopped praying because he believed that God had abandoned him
c) He gave up his carrer as an artist
d) None of these
161.
Audacity
a) Courage
b) Fear
c) Insult
d) Rudeness
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162.
Idea
a) Image
b) Understanding
c) Design
d) Plan
163.
Choose the word, which is most opposite in meaning of the
word given in bold as used in the passage.
Gain
a) Lose
b) Decrease
c) Lack
d) Fail
164.
Choose the word, which is most opposite in meaning of the
Dogged
a) Polite
b) Weak
c) Unstable
d) Soft
the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in the bold to
A goat was struggling violently and injured many people, as it was
being led away by a dozen men through the street. It was being taken away for a
sacrificial offering. But it became calm the moment it saw a saint. The saint bent
down and said something in its ear and patted it on its back. He then withdrew
covering his face and muttering How sad! My poor friend!.
The animal now tame allowed itself to be led away. The onlookers
flocked around the saint and asked him what he had whispered to the goat?
The Saint explained that the goat was a reincarnation of his good friend,
a wealthy man who instituted the sacrifice as a ritual in the village and that he
had told the goat that the game was started by it in its previous birth so why was
it complaining now when it was its time to be in the same boat. He continued
As one sows, so shall he reap.
The story spread and eventually brought an end to the ritual of animal
slaughter in the name of sacrificial offering in the village.
165.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) Reincarnation is a phenomenon which occurs
b)One receives as one propagates
c) Animal slaughter is now banned by law
d) Saints do have magical powers
166.
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a) The goat was not sacrificed

b)The ritual of sacrifice gradually stopped in the village
c) The Saint did not believe in reincarnation
d) The onlookers were ashamed of themselves and avoided the Saint
167.
Why did the goat recognize the Saint?
a) It was the Saint who had asked people to sacrifice it
b) The Saint was wearing a robe unlike the other onlookers
c) The Saint had a peculiar look
d)The Saint had been a good friend of the goat in its previous birth
168.
Why did the Saint mutter How sad! My poor friend?
a) He was against the lifestyle of his friend
b) The goat had been injured while it was being led away
c) The goat was dying from its wounds
d)He was sad because his friend was going to be killed
169.
Why did the animal become docile after the Saint talked to it?
a) It was keen to be sacrificed
b) It had already injured many people and was tired
c) The priest promised that it wouldnt be sacrificed
d)It had accepted that it deserved its fate
170.
Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the
Patted
a) Stroked
b) Flattened
c) Hit
d) Hurt
171.
Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the
Flocked
a) Herd
b) Together
c) Gathered
d) Accompanied
172.
Choose the word which is most opposite in the meaning to the
Tame
a) Spirited
b) Disciplined
c) Cruel
d) Insane
173.
Choose the word which is most opposite in the meaning to the
End
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a) Life
d) Start
b) Begin
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c) Middle
the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to
help you locate them, while answering some of the questions.
Though the US prides itself on being a leader in the World community,
a recent report shows that it lags far behind other industrialised countries in
meeting the needs of its youngest and most vulnerable citizens. The US has a
higher infant mortality rate, a higher proportion of low birth weight babies, a
smaller proportion of babies immunised against childhood diseases and a much
higher rate of adolescent pregnancies. These findings, described as a quiet
crisis requiring immediate and far reching action, appeared in a report prepared
by a task force of educators, doctors, politicians and business people. According
to the report, a fourth of the nations 12 million infants and toddlers live in
poverty. As many as half confront risk factors that could harm their ability to
develop intellectually, physically and socially. Child immunisations are too low,
more children are born into poverty, more are in substandard care, while their
parents work and more are being raised by single parents. When taken together,
these and other risk factors can lead to educational and health problems that are
much harder and more costly to reverse.
The crisis begins in the womb with unplanned parenthood. Women with
unplanned pregnancies are less likely to seek pre natal care. In the US 80% of
teenage pregnancies and 56% of all pregnancies are unplanned. The problems
continue after birth, where unplanned pregnancies and unstable partnerships
often go hand in hand. Since 1950, the number of single parent families has
nearly tripled. More than 25% of all births today are to unmarried mothers. As
the number of single parent families grows and more women enter the work
force, infants and toddlers are increasingly in the care of people other than their
parents.
Most disturbingly, recent statistics show that American parents are
increasingly neglecting or abusing their children. In only four years from 19871991, the number of children in foster care increased by over 50%. Babies under
the age of one are the fastest growing category of children entering foster care.
This crisis affects children under the age of three most severely, the report says.
Yet, it is this period from infancy through preschool years that sets the stage
for a childs future.
174.
The main focus of the passage is on the plight of
a) Orphaned children
b) Teenage mothers
c) Low birth weight babies
d) None of these
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175.
Which of the following does not constitute quiet crisis in the
US as per the task force report?
a) Lower proportion of new born babies with normal weight
b) Higher incidence of adolescent girls becoming mothers
c) Lower rate of babies surviving childhood diseases
d)Increasing cases of teenage couples getting divorced
176.
Which of the following statements is not true in the context of
the passage?
a) The number of single parent families today is approximately three
times that four decades ago
b)The number of children in the US entering foster care has decreased
after 1991
c) In the US, the number of infants living in poverty is about 3 million
d) Only 20% of all the pregnancies in the US are planned
177.
The number of children born to married mothers in the US is
approximately, how many times the number of children born to unwed
mothers?
a) 1.5 times
b) 2 times
c) 3 times
d) 3.5 times
178.
The task force report seems to be based on the data pertaining
to the period
a) 1987-91
b) 1950 onwards till data
c) 1987 onwards till data
d) 1950-91
179.
Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to
the given word given in bold as used in the passage.
Confront
a) Face
b) Tolerate
c) Succumb
d) Eliminate
180.
the given word given in bold as used in the passage.
Vulnerable
a) Insecure
b) Indispensable
c) Risky
d) Promising
181.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the
given word in bold as used in the passage.
Severely
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a) Drastically
d) Slightly
b) Intensely
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c) Minutely
182.
given word in bold as used in the passage.
Substandard
a) Impoverished
b) Compassionate
c) Excellent
d) Valuable
One day, the king came to the court and began attending to the routine
matters people had brought to him. He happened to be in a bad mood that day.
Just then, a messenger arrived out of breath, with a message that the queen
wanted to see the king in her palace. The king rose immediately and all the
courtiers respectfully got to their feet. The jester however remained seated
unaware that the king was departing. He belatedly got to his feet but while
doing so, he was noticed by the king, who perceived this behavior as an insult.
He ordered the jester to leave his kingdom with immediate effect and not set
foot on its soil under penalty of death.
The courtiers were upset and protested. The jester was amusing and
well liked. But the jester obeyed the kings commands and left the palace
promptly. Several months passed after the ing had ordered the jester to leave
his court. The kings anger had subsided. He decided to invite the jester to
return to his court. Messengers were sent to neighboring kingdoms to search for
the jester and bring him before the king. However the very next day, when the
king was standing in one of the palace balconies, he saw a horse carriage pass
outside the palace. He glanced at the carriage out of curiosity and spied the
jester sitting inside. The carriage was stopped. The king asked the jester angrily,
Why have you come back to the kingdom without my permission? Your
Majesty the jester replied politely, I left for China the day you drove me out
of your court. I returned only after I had covered the floor of my carriage with
the soil of the neighboring country. I have thus not set my foot on your soil,
The king found the jesters answer pleasing. He smiled and asked him to come
to court from the next morning.
183.
Why did the king leave the court suddenly one day?
a) He was bored as the word was routine
b) He realised that he had forgotten to meet the queen that day
c) He was upset that day
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d) None of these
184.
Why did the king himself ask the jester to return to his court?
a) He missed the jesters wit and humour
b) The jester did not need the request, the king had sent through his
messengers
c) The courtiers throught the king was foolish for throwing out the jester
d) The king appreciated the jesters cleverness in interpreting his orders
185.
Why did the jester remain seated, while the king was leaving?
a) To show he was unhappy with kings decision toi leave early
b) To get the kings attention
c) To show the king that leaving early was insulting to those, who had
come to the court
d) He did not realise that the king was leaving
186.
a) The king was stubborn and never listened to his courtiers advice
b) The jester was quick witted
c) The kings messengers did not try very hard to find the jester
d) The jester did not return to the court till the k ing had asked
forgiveness
187.
Spied
a) Watched
b) Followed
c) Stared
d) Noticed
188.
Subsided
a) Lessened
b) Failed
c) Collapse
d) Calm
189.
Promptly
a) Later
b) Behind
c) Relaxed
d) Lately
190.
Pleasing
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a) Sorrow
d) Hating
b) Disliking
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c) Worsening
help you to locate them, while answering some of the questions.
It is time, we looked at the latent causes. Where does the strength of
India lie? Not in numbers, not necessarily in our moral stands on international
issues. In modern times, the strength of a nation lies in its achievements in
science and technology. This is not to say that other fields do not count.
In the five decades after independence, we have yet to demonstrate our
originality in applied science and technology. Though Japan also started like us,
yet by cultivating the technology of the West, the Japanese adapted, improved
and displayed originality in several areas of science and technology. The
generation which is at the helm of affairs in science and in our country after
independence mostly consisted of self seekers.By and large with a few
exceptions. The science and technology managers in India concentrated in
gaining power and influence. They loved publicity. Most of them stopped doing
science while they managed science. Things would have been better had they
been humble enough to acknowledge the difference between doing and
managing science. Instead they claimed they were the foremost in science and
technology, simply because they were at the helm of affairs. As a result, they
ceased to inspire the younger lot. India continues to be a borrowers of science
and technology, even though its potential for originality is substantial.
Our achievements in nuclear science and technology may be dazzling
to our people. But, in worth and originality, they are ordinary and routine. While
our own people remain ignorant the people of other countries know all about the
pretensions to knowledge of our nuclear science and technology managers. Our
subtle way of sabotaging our nuclear goals is to help hollow persons reach and
remain at the helm of affairs. International bodies come in as handy tools in that
subtle process. The veil of secrecy effectively protects the mismanagement in
our nuclear establishments. The talk of national security comes as an easy
weapon to prevent any probe into mismanagement. On nuclear matters the
media in our country, by and large avoid the mismatch between promise and
hence performance in the nuclear field does not get exposed as much as the
mismanagement in other fields.
191.
What does the author mean by doing science?
a) Demonstrating exaggerated performance without achieving the
desired level
b) Managing effectively the administrative functions involved in the
power game
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c) Concentrating on such researches which have very low practical

utility
d) Displaying genuine acumen and performance in scientific studies
192.
Doing science and managing science are implied by the
author is analogous to
a) Set target and achieving it
b) Fact and fantasy
c) Originality and adaptability
d) Scientific inventions and disc overy of principles
193.
The author of the passage has
a) Criticised the power hung Indian technocrats
b) Appreciated the Japanese scientists unduly and exorbitantly
c) Hailed Indias technological advancement in the past five decades
d) Underestimated the Japanese and Chinese scientists and t
echnologists
194.
Which of the following is the commonality between the Indian
and the Japanese scientists?
a) Both have displayed originally in applied sciences
b) Both have displayed and advancement of substandard quality
c) Both have displayed greed f or influence and power
d) Both have displayed remarkable just for publicity
195.
Which of the following is the correct assessment of Indias post
independence nuclear and scientific advancements?
a) Originality and adaptability is duly displayed in the field of applied
science
b) Our achievement in nuclear science and technology are dazzling
c) Our achievements are of a very ordinary quality and routine nature
d) Our scientists have done full justice to the developmental needs of
nuclear science
196.
Find out the word from the given options, which is most nearly
the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
Latent
a) Cautions
b) Hidden
c) Overt
d) Brilliant
197.
Find out the word from the given options, which is most nearly
the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
Handy
a) Silent
b) Hand-rolled
c) Suitable
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d) Solemn
198.
Find the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
Dazzling
a) Tremendous
b) Domineering
c) Deafening
d) Brilliant
199.
Find the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
Humble
a) Doctile
b) Llethargic
c) Stupid
d) Cunning
help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
During the reign of King, Veer, there lived a wise magistrate.
Haripants verdicts were always just and people from all over the vast kingdom
came to him in order to settle their disputes. In the city where Haripant lived,
there was a greedy ghee merchant named Niranjan. He always kept twenty
barrels of ghee. Of these, fifteen would contain good quality ghee and the
remaining would be adulterated, he would mix into and sell it. This went on for
a time, till finally the people fed up being cheated and complained to Haripant.
Haripant had the ghee examined and found it to be adulterated. He gave
Niranjan a choice of punishment drink the five barrels of adulterated ghee from
his shop or receive a hundred lashings or pay a thousand gold coins in the
treasury. Niranjan thought for a while. Losing a thousand gold coins was too
much and a hundred lashings are painful. So, he decided to drink the barrels of
ghee.
Though Niranjan adulterated goods in his shop, they made sure his own
food was of the best quality. So, after drinking one barrel of ghee, he began to
feel sick. By the second barrel, he was vomiting. At this point he decided to opt
for the lashings instead. But he was pampered and his body was unused to any
harsh treatment. After ten lashes, he started trembling and by twenty he was
giddy. Stop! He screamed I will pay the thousand gold coins! and he handed
them.
So, he ended up suffering all three punishments something he did not
forget in a hurry and the people of the city got to use only the best quality ghee
in their food from then on!.
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200.
Why did the people decide to go to Haripant with their
complaint?
a) He was close to the King and would get justice for them
b) Thuey knew Niranjan was afraid of Haripant, who punished people
severely
c) They were confident that he would listen to their complaint and give
a fair judgement
d) He was the only magistrate in the entire kingdom
201.
Why did Haripant allow Niranjan to choose his own
punishment?
a) He felt sorry for Niranjan
b) Niranjans offence was minor
c) He did not want Niranjan to appeal of the king for leniency
d) None of these
202.
Why did Niranjan decide to drink adulterated ghee for his
punishment?
a) Since the barrels were from his shop he thought he could substitute
the adulterated ghee with good ghee
b) He wanted to prove that the quality of ghee he sold was good
c) He was greedy and had a big appetite so he thought he would easily
drink the ghee
d) He considered it the easiest of the punishments as he did not realise
what effect the ghee would have on him
203.
Why did Niranjan suffer three punishments?
a) He had cheated so many people that his punishment had to be severe
b) Haripant had ordered this so that Niranjan would never repat his
offence
c) Haripant wanted to make an example of him so that other merchants
would not cheat their customers
d) Niranjan could not decide which punishment to under go. So,
Haripant awarded him all three punishments.
204.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning as the word
Cheated
a) Unfaithful
b) Blamed
c) Exploited
d) Dodged
205.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning as the word
Suffering
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a) Hardship
d) Experiencing
b) Distressing
c) Hurting
206.
Best
a) Damaged
b) Inferior
c) Spoiled
d) Defective
207.
Unused
a) Accustomed
b) Routine
c) Often
d) Normal
the questioins given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in the bold to
Many years ago, I was the chief guest at a function. This was held in a
hostel for poor students that had been built by a philanthropist. Food and shelter
were free, but students had to bear other expenses like tuition and clothing.
In my younger days, I have come across many families, who would
look after students who were economically backward but otherwise bright.
They used to help them with their fees or clothing and often with their food as
well. In those days, most colleges were located in larger towns. Many poor
students, who came to study in these towns used to stay with these families and
would be treated as a part of the family. The woman of the house considered
this a good deed and helped the poor students whole heartedly. Today, the
situation is different. Even smaller towns have schools and colleges, so this
custom has disappeared.
While I was sitting on the dais, I remembered the past and congratulated
the person, who had built the hostel. It was a good deed and of great help to
many students. The hostel secretary told me about some of the students in the
hostel, who had secured ranks but had a problem paying their tuition fees.
He said, Madam, this year we have three students from different
disciplines who have secured ranks. All of these are from extremely poor
families. They have one more year to complete their degrees. What are they
studying? One is in medicine, the second in engineering and the third in
commerce. Can I meet them after the function?
The function went on as usual. Often, at such functions too much praise
is lavished on the chief guest. Sometimes, they even make exaggerated and
false claims about the chief guest. I feel this unnecessary praising is the highest
form of corruption where people are easily fooled, and it encourages those who
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are praised to develop an inflated opinion of themselves. Thats why in the

twelfth century, in Karnataka, the great revolutionary leader Basaveshwara
warned in his teaching that praise is like a golden gallows.
After the function, I met the three poor bright boys whom the secretary
had told me about. They were a little puzzled, shy and nervous. All of them had
the same story father in a small job unable to make ends meet, a large family
back in the village, no land or any other asset. Only sheer determination to excel
in studies had brought them here against all odds.
208.
How did poor students manage their expenses in towns, if a
college education was not available to them in their villages?
a) They used to get regular help from the philantrhropist
b) Their fees and clothing expenses were borne by the colleges
c) Many families used to provide them facilities on payment
d) None of these
209.
Why has the practice of students from villages staying with
families in towns stopped now a days?
a) Families have found education has become very expensive
b) Higher education is available to students even in smaller towns
c) There is no need for students to go in for higher education these days
d) The situation is altogether different as t he educational structure has
changed
210.
What does the author dislike about functions?
a) The false or exaggerated praise showered on the chief guest
b) Selection of corrupt persons as chief guests
c) The awkward situation created by the audience
d) The shyness and nervousness of the audience
211.
Which of the following was not a common factor among the
three students?
a) Subjects of study
b) Family background
c) Lack of resources
d) Intelligence
212.
Bear
a) Tolerate
b) Ensure
c) Pay
d) Receive
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213.
Lavished
a) Showered
b) Taken
c) Abundant
d) Warranted
214.
Choose the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to
Bright
a) Light
b) Dark
c) Unintelligent
d) Glowing
215.
Choose the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to
Exaggerated
a) Narranted
b) Expelled
c) Stopped
d) Understand
In a reversal of the norm elsewhere, in India policymakers and
economists have become optimists while bosses do the worrying. The countrys
Central Bank has predicted that the countrys economy is likely to grow at a
double digit rate during the next 20-30 years. India has the capability with its
vast labour and lauded entrepreneurial spirit. But he private sector which is
supposed to do the heavy lifting that turns India from the worlds tenth largest
economy to its third largest by 2030 has become fed up. Business people often
carp bout Indias problems but their irritation this time has a nervous edge. In
the first quarter of 2011, GDP grew at an annual rate of 7.8%; in 2005-07 it
managed 9-10%. The economy may be slowing naturally as the low interest
rates and public spending that got India through the global crisis are belatedly
withdrawn. At the same time the surge in inflation caused by exorbitant food
prices has spread more widely, casting doubts over whether India can grow at 810 % in the medium term without overheating.
In India, as in many fast growing nations, the confidence to invest
depends on the conviction that the long term trajectory is intact and it is that
which is in doubt. Big Indian firms too sometimes seem happier to invest
abroad than at home, in deals thatare often hailed as symbols of the countrys
growing clout but sometimes speak to its weaknesses purchases of natural
resources that India has in abundance but struggles to get out of the ground. In
fact a further dip in investment could be self fulfilling: if fewer roads, ports and
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factories are built, this will hurt both short term growth figures and reduce the
economys long term capacity.
There is a view that because a fair amount of growth is assured the
government need to try very hard. The liberalization reforms that began in 1991
freed markets for products and gave rise to vibrant competition, at the same time
what economists call factor markets, those for basic inputs like land, power,
labour etc. remain unreformed and largely under state control, which creates
difficulties. Clearances today can take three to four years and many employers
are keen to replace workers with machines despite an abundance of labour
force. This can be attributed to labour laws which are inimical to employee
creation and an education system that means finding quality manpower a major
problem. In fact the Planning Commission, concluded that even achieving 9%
growth will need marked policy action in unreformed sectors. Twenty years
ago it was said that the yardstick against which India should be measured was
its potential and it is clear that there remains much to do.
216.
.What is the state of Indias basic input sectors at present?
a) These sectors attract Foreign Direct Investment because of their vast
potential.
b) These sectors are lagging as projects are usually awarded to foreign
companies.
c) These sectors are stagnating and badly in need of reforms.
d) These sectors are well regulated as there are governed by the State
217.
Which of the following can be said about the Indian economy at
present?
a) It can comfortably achieve doubel digit growth rate at present.
b) High food prices have led to overheating of the economy.
c) Citizens are affluent owing to laxity in regulation.
d) Unreformed sectors are a drag on economic growth.
218.
Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word
MARKED given in bold as used in the passage?
a) Decreased
b) Ignored
c) Clear
d) Assessed
The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer
through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S. as a result of the
financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth
deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as
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credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia
swung back to greed as the regin shows signs of recovery and property and
stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia.
Why should this sharp Asian turn around be greeted with skepticism?
Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend,
which could further fuel the regions nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia
could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S.
housing market. In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed.
The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response
to the global credit crunch of 2008, Policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates
and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing
and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to
reverse a deepening economic crisis but there is evidence that there is too much
easy money around. Its winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up
too far and too fast for the undenying economic fundamentals. Much of the
concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been large
and effective, Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggreegate new
bank lending surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a year
earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on, Exuberance over a quick recovery which was
given a boost by Chinas surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second
quarter hjas buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.
Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that
bubbles could only be recognised in hand sight. But investors who have been
well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly
wary that prices have risen too far and that the slightest bit of negative,
economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by
the possibility that Asias central bankers willbegin taking stops to shut off the
money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to
Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close
to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that
constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money
conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more
dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years.
Asia may beneading for another disheartening plunge.
219.
What does the author want to convey through the phrase The
world has not changed it has just moved places?
a) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on
the US economy
b) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
c) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as
developed countries
d) None of these
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220.
Which of the following can be said about the Chinese
governments efforts to revive the economy?
a) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market
improved
b) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in
stocks
c) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the
US market stabilising
d) These were appropriate and accmplished the goal of economic
revival
221.
What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in
2009 indicate?
a) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
b) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
c) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic
crisis
d) None of these
222.
What is the authors main objective in writing the passage?
a) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than
those of developed countries
b) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted
and avoided
c) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth
and profits over sound economic-principles
d) Extoiling Chinas incredible growth and urging other countries to
emulate it
223.
Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian
economics?
a) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy
which is yet to recover
b) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely
to cause stock markets to crash
c) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a
financial crisis
d) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
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Delays of several months in Natioinal Rural Employment Guarantee

Scheme wage payments and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of
being paid at all have become the norm in many states. How are workers who
exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families? Under the
scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled to
compensation under the Payment of Wages Act upto Rs.3000 per aggrieved
worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It
is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of
banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though
there is agrain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The jam in the
banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments
imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central
Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting
with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However, delays are not
confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include
implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders,
viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in
procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of muster rolls and
job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate backlash
against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle
NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government
functionaries the workload has remained without the inducements. Slowing
down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because
workers will desert NREGS worksites.
The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt
the business correspondent model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to
make cash payments and duly record them on handheld, electronic devices. This
solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from
banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timilines for
every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as
Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure
to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no
provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected
areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work
measurement is not completed withinn a week and wages may be paid on the
basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post
offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be
considered provided wage payment are meticulously tracked. But failure to
recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats
to the NREGS.
224.
What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS
workers?
a) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
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b) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them

c) They have been unable to provide for their families
d) None of these
225.
Which of the following factors has not been responsible for
untimely payment of NREGS wages?
a) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
b) Improper record keeping
c) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
d) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
226.
What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through
banks been?
a) Theft of funds by administratioin officials responsible for the scheme
has reduced
b) Increased work load for local government officials
c) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest
bank to claim their wages
d) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
227.
To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in
wage payments?
a) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
b) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
c) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
d) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against
extra work
228.
Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the
NREGS?
a) Lack of co-ordinatioin among Programme Officers
b) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
c) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage
payments
d) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post
offices
Directions (Q. 229-233) In the following questions, you have one brief
passage with five questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best
answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Although Indians spend less money on allopathic medicines than people
in most Asian Countries, more than 40,000 drugs formulations are available
here. All manufacturers are required by law to provide information about their
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product either on the packaging or in a pamphlet inside. But, in many cases, this
information is very meagre and hard to understand. Many doctors, too do not
tell their patients anything about the drugs they prescribe.
What should we be concerned about when we take drugs? There are two
areas: (1) Side effects. Many people taking a drug will notice an undesirable
reaction, usually minor. But even the mildest drugs can do harm if taken
improperly, long enough or in excessive doses. And everyone responds to a
drug differently. (2) Failyre to follow directions. Many of us disobey
prescription instructions on how much to take and when. It is eady to fall into
thinking that more of the drug will speed up the healing. It is more common,
however, for people to stop taking a drug when they begin to feel better. This,
too, can be dangerous.
What are the steps to be taken for safety? Take a drug only as
recommended on the label or by the doctor. (2) If you feel ill after taking a drug,
check it with a doctor. (3) Do not mix drugs. (4) Check whether any food or
activities are to avoided.
229.
Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Indians use more than 40,000 allopathic drugs
b) Indians hate allopathic medicines
c) Other Asian countries do not have allopathic medicines
d) Indians cannot afford allopathic drugs
230.
How are drug users to be instructed by the manufacturers?
a) Doctors should give a manual of instructions.
b) The Chemist should issue an instruction manual.
c) Information should be printed on the carton or in a pamphlet kept
inside it.
d) Patients should keep in touch with drug manufactuters.
231.
Only one of the following sentences is right identify it.
a) All medicines produce reactions of various degrees in their users
b) Even mild drugs are not always safe
c) Medicines should be discontinued as soon as we feel better
d) More than the prescribed dose brings quicker recovery
232.
Drug manufacturers
a) do not give instructions
b) give all necessary instructions
c) give very little and unintelligible information
d) give information only when asked
233.
Which one of the following is true?
a) Throw away the drug that produces side effects and try another
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b) Drugs may be taken with all kinds of foods

c) Drugs do not inhibit our normal life style
d) Drugs should be used only according to prescription
the given questions. Certain words have been given in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
On attending a conference, which focused on the role of the services
sector in Indian economy I was amazed. The conference gave a very interesting
perspective on the role of the service sector in the growth of Indian economy in
relation to growth rates in agriculture and industry. The current situation in
India is that the growth rate of services has overtaken both agriculture and
industry and is now contributing to more than 50% of GDP. The services sector
has the highest growth rate and is the least volatile sector. Growth is
particularly marked in public services, IT and financial services. In some areas,
the growth rate of the services sector is 40-50% due to increased use of mobile
technologies. India, therefore has, a services oriented economy. It hasnt
followed traditional growth models as in China. However, in the process of
doing so it has skipped the manufacturing stage and has jumped straight from
the agriculture stage to service stage which is also the main reason for the
expansion of the service sector. In fact, the situation now is such that the growth
in the service sector can and will support in the agriculture and industrial
sectors.
However, the only setback for Indian economy is the lack of growth in
the manufacturing sector, which causes dependence on other coutnries, which is
not so desirable in terms of job creation and increased prosperity.
Population is also a major concern of the Indian economy. As the
population of India grows so also does the number of dependents in the
population in both the lower and higher age groups. In such a scenario of
increasing population, especially in an economy which still recovering from
crisis, growth becomes difficult. For such an economy to grow it has to invest.
Currently, the public sector invests more than it saves. The household
sector saves in surplus, but it is not increasing so it cannot continue to support
private and public sectors. There is a massive need to spend on agriculture and
infrastructure development of the country. Apart from that health and
educatiopn should also be the priority of the government particularly the
education of women in order to reduce the birth rate.
234.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to word
given in bold as used in the passage.
Volatile
a) Erratic
b) Impatient
c) Stable
d) Solid
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235.
What does the author mean by the statement, a growth
window for India will open.?
a) In the coming years, the Indian economy will grow as the service
sector of the country would be booming due to the focus of the
government in that sector.
b) In the next two decades, Indian economy will have an
opportunity to grow as the working population of India will be high
as compared to the dependent population.
c) There would be only a small period of time in which the economy of
India has to grow and if it fails to do so it will never be able to recover
from the economic downfall.
d) Only upto the next two decades would Indian people be interested in
finding jobs in the country beyond which they would search for jobs
abroad thus hampering the growth of Indian economy.
236.
Prerequisites
a) Requirements
b) Instincts
c) Prohibitions
d) Acknowldgements
237.
What does the author mean by the statement, to change the bad
sectors to good sectors.?
a) In order to deal with the problem of poverty it is important to
distinguish between good and bad sectors and encourage people to start
searching fro jobs in the good sectors.
b) The government should make efforts to improve the sectors that are
not functioning well in order create greater job opportunities in those
sectors and in turn eradicate poverty
c) Poverty alleviation is possible only if the government understands the
importance of good sectors and provides it with necessary opportunities
d) The bad sectors of the country should be identified and such jobs
should be outsourced to other underprivileged countries in order to
eradicate poverty from those countries.
238.
given in bold as used in the passage?
Perspective
a) View point
b) Prospect
c) Attitude
d) Agreement
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239.
Which of the following is true as per the passage?
a) India has not followed the conventional model of growth and has
moved directly from the agriculture sector to the service sector.
b) The service sector of the country is yet to make a mark on the IT and
financial sectors of the country.
c) With availability of labour and growth in human skills, the service
sector of Indian economy is booming limitlessly as there is no
restriction on movement of labour.
d) India has become self reliant and does not have to depend on other
countries because of the development in the manufacturing sector
240.
According to the author, which of the following can be said
about the growth of service sector in India?
a) India is essentially an agrarian economy and is not yet ready to shift
forcus from agriculture sector to service sector
b) The expansion of service sector in India was seen mainly because of
the growth in the agricultural sector
c) Indian economy cannot run only on the basis of service sector i.e.,
without further development in the agriculture and the industrial sector
d) The growth of service sector in India is facilitated by the
improvement in technology
241.
word given in boldas used in the passage.
Massive
a) Prominent
b) Proactive
c) Short
d) Little
the given questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you to
We should never confuse education with training or the tools that
educators use. Education is no more a computer or an online class than it is a
chalkboard-those are simply tools. Additionally, precious few new and relevant
findings have been added to out into the learning process; much of what many
proclaim to be insightful turns out to be faddish and misguided. What we need
for learning to occur are well prepared and motivated teachers, students who are
willing and able to learn and a social system that values educational attainment.
Many might take exception to these assertions, raising a host of ancillary social,
economic, nutritional and sociological issues. However, decades of data from
failed public experiments aimed at mitigating these problems argue to the
contrary.
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What are we to do? Create a wave of educational entrepreneurship?

Despite all of the hype and media attention, no one currently knows the best
way forward. We must incentivise educationalists, technologists, and classroom
teachers to experiment and innovate. Such partnerships should truly explore
alternatives as we seek to define the blended face to face and online class rooms
of the future. Some approaches will fail, but that is part of the change process.
There will be no one size fits all experience success will vary by
discipline and educational objectives. Unless everyone involved in this process
is inspired to take risks, we will not enjoy the full potential these new
approaches represent. Also, we should not forget the extent to which those who
most benefit from the current system will attempt to hijack this change process
for their own purposes.
With these issues in mind, consider the following vision of the change
process to the classroom of tomorrow a vision that leverages technology to
create a more personalised learning experience. With the onset of this vision the
professor student relationship will change. What is not likely to survive is the
large class in which every one progress at the same pace.
That paradigm will be replaced by a more customised and colloborative
learning process. The reality of a technology enabled personalised learning
environment is till evolving. What seems clear is that at its heart is a more
collaborative and student mapped and paced process. The function of the
professor, aided by educationalists, will also change.
Student professor collaboration will then determine both what content
can be assigned to practice methods and how the student demonstrates mastery
of that content. In such cases, timing issues will most likely be left entirely in
the students hands, while technology specialists recommend the best hardware
and software solutions.
Critical thinking or application ideas will involve more specialised, face
to face and interactive online approaches geared to the real time needs and
progress the students is making.
Thus, the professor, with the students help, will vigilantly mix and
blend the learning ingredients to produce a new learning environment. How this
process plays out in reality will be the result of educational entrepreneurship but
is will surely entail both successes and some failures.
The administration and accreditation of education will also have to
change. As more education occurs outside the bricks and mortar framework and
is more centred on the student professor interaction, the role of all non-teaching
staff will need to be reassessed. As students and faculty increase their use of
technology to personalise their formal and informal learning, educational
technologists must be on hand to facilitate the effective use of that technology.
Also, the current hierarchical and standardised outcomes formulas for
administration and accreditation of colleges and universities are no longer
tenable. Realistically, they are an impediment to the change needed.
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Finally, we must address one of the most serious challenges facing

online education cheating, simply put, cheating is rampant and we are turning
a blind eye to the problem. Cheating threatens the integrity of the educational
process and the value added of the degree. Solutions must be found and
implemented or all changes will be for naught.
242.
Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as
the word given in boldas used in the passage?
Entail
a) Limit
b) Occasion
c) Involve
d) Subject
243.
Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the
passage?
a) Educating through technology what the future can be
b) Teachers An obsolete future
c) The hype around technology aided education
d) Limitations of technology
244.
Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the
word given in bold as used in the passage?
Mitigating
a) Aggravating
b) Irritating
c) Annoying
d) Frustrating
245.
Which of the following is most nearly the same is meaning in
the word given is bold as used in the passage?
Personalise
a) Customise
b) Cause
c) Sensible
d) Own
246.
Which of the following is most OPPOSITE is meaning word
given in bold as used in the passage?
Impediment
a) Freedom
b) Advantage
c) Extravagancy
d) Luxury
247.
What does the author mean when he uses the words will be for
naught?
a) will be in trouble
b) will face complications
c) will not be allowed
d) will come together
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248.
According to the author, which of the following is not true
about cheating?
a) It is one of the gravest problems faced in education
b) It undermines the value of the credential obtained through education
c) Not much is being done to curtail it at present
d) It is quite prevalent at present
the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are
printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Indra foresaw that a supreme contest was inevitable between his son
Arjuna and Karna; and he put on the garb of a Brahmana and came to Karna,
who was reputed for his charity, and begged of him his earrings and armour.
The Sun god had already warned Karna in a dream that Indra would try to
deceive him in this manner. Still, Karna could not bring himself to refuse any
gift that was asked of him. Hence he cut off the earrings and armour with which
he was born and gave them to the Brahmana.
Indra, the king of gods, was filled with surprise and joy. After accepting
the gift, he praised Karna as having done what no one else would do, and
shamed into generosity, bade Karna ask for any boon he wanted.
Karna replied: I desire to get your weapon, the Sakti which has the
power to kill enemies. Indra granted the boon, but with a fateful proviso. He
said : You can use this weapon against but one enemy, and it will kill him
whosoever he may be. But this killing done, this weapon will no longer be
available to you but will return to me. With these words Indra disappeared.
Karna went to Parasurama and became his disciple by representing to
him that he was a Brahmana. He learnt of Parasurama the mantra for using the
master weapon known as Brahmastra. One day Parasurama was reclining with
the head on Karnas lap when a stinging worm burrowed into Karnas thigh.
Blood began to flow and the pain was terrible, but Karna bore it without tremor
lest he should disturb the masters sleep. Parasurama awoke and saw the blood
which had poured from the wound. He said: Dear pupil, you are not a
Brahmana. A Kshatriya alone can remain unmoved under all bodily torments.
Tell me the truth.
Karna confessed that he had told a lie in presenting himself as a
Brahmana and that he was in fact the son of a charioteer. Parasurama in his
anger pronounced this curse on him: Since you deceived your guru, the
Brahmastra you have learnt shall fail you at the fated moment. You will be
unable to recall the invocatory mantra when you hour comes.
It was because of this curse that at the crisis of his last fight with
Arjuna, Karna was not able to recall the Brahmastra spell, though he had
remembered it till then. Karna was the faithful friend of Duryodhana and
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remained loyal with the Kauravas until the end. After the fall of Bhishma and
Drona, Karna became the leader of the Kaurava army and fought brilliantly for
two days. In the end, the wheel of his chariot stuck in the ground and he was not
able to lift it free and drive the chariot along. While he was in this predicament,
Arjuna killed him. Kunti was sunk in sorrow, all the more poignant because she
had, at that time, to conceal it.
249.
How did Parasurama find that Karna was not a Brahmana?
a) Karna himself confessed his identity before Parasurama.
b) Karna bore the sting of a worm without any tremor
c) Parasurama had acquire3d the ability to know everything through his
third eye.
d) He asked Karnas father about his identity.
250.
Why did Karna decide toi become Parasuramas disciple on the
pretext that he was a Brahmana?
a) Because Parsurama was a Brahmana.
b) Parasurama hated Kshatriyas and Sudras.
c) Parasurama was a man who believed in strict notions of castes.
d) Not given in the passage
251.
Why could Karna not refuse the demands for his earrings and
armour made by Indra?
a) Because Karna was the son of Indra
b) Because Karna was known for his charity.
c) Karna, being the son of a charioteer, could not refuse Indra, the King
of Gods.
d) Karna was deceived by Indra in the guise of a Brahmana.
252.
Why did Parasurama curse Karna?
a) Because Karna decided to use the Brahmastra on Parasurama.
b) Because Karna failed to learn the techniques of a Kshatriya.
c) Because Karna concealed his identity and betrayed his master.
d) Because Karna had vowed to destroy the hermitage of Parasurama.
253.
What would be the effect of the curse?
a) That Karna would not be able to recall the Brahmastra spell when his
hour came.
b) That the invocatory mantra would cease to act on the person targeted.
c) That he would not be able to pass the spell to his friends.
d) That he would be killed by his own invocatory mantra of the
Brahmastra.
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254.
Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in
passage.
Tremor
a) Fear
b) Trembling
c) Offering
d) Sorrow
255.
passage.
Poignant
a) Defile
b) Straight
c) Foul
d) Painful
256.
passage.
Predicament
a) Difficulty
b) Fancy
c) Hurry
d) Emergency
257.
Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE
in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Reclining
a) Resting
b) Standing
c) Waiting
d) Thinking
258.
Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE
in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Torments
a) Suffering
b) Pain
c) Anxiety
d) Comfort
the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to
locate them, while answering some of the questions.
The wakeup call that China represents to India is not limited to its
showpiece urban centres or that New Delhi hopes India will experience the
benefits that the Olympic Games have brought to Beijing. More pertinent is the
comparison of the agricultural sectors of the two countries. Why and how has
China managed to outstrip India in agriculture when 25 years ago the two
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countries were on par on most parameters? Both have traditionally been

agrarian economies and over half their populations continue to depend on the
land for their livelihood. With large populations and histories of famine, India
and China share concern on issues such as food security, however, while
Indias agricultural sector is projected to grow by about 2.5% this year a slide
from the previous years growth. Chinas has been steadily growing at between
4% and 5% over the last fifteen years. The widest divergence between India and
China is in the profitable horticultural sector with the production of fruits and
vegetables in China leaping from 60 million tonnes in 1980 compared to Indias
55 million tonnes at the same time, to 450 million tonnes in 2003 ahead of
Indias corresponding 135 million tonnes. Chinas added advantage lies in the
more diversified composition of its agricultural sector with animal husbandry
and fisheries which account for close to 45% of growth compared to 30% for
India.
According to the latest report by Economic Advisory Council the
traditional excuses for Indias substandard is placed favorably when compared
to China in terms of quantity of arable land, average farm size, farm
mechanization etc. The reasons for China having outperformed India are
threefold : technological improvements accruing from research
and
development (China has over 1000 R and D centres devoted to agriculture),
Investment in rural infrastructure and an increasingly liberalized agricultural
policy moving away from self-sufficiency to leveraging the competitive
advantage with a focus on efficiency as much as equity. Investment in rural
infrastructure, roads, storage facilities, marketing facilities are also crucial but
government support in India has been mainly been through subsidies, not
investment. There has been much debate about subsidies and their utility, the
opposing view being that subsidies are against the market reforms and distort
the market as well as reduce resource efficiency. In contrast to the 2046
applications for the registration of new plant varieties in China over the past few
years data reveals that despite India having the largest number of agricultural
scientists in the World Indias current research track record is abysmal,
equivalent to what China achieved in the 1908s. Far from developing new
strains, the number of field crop varieties fell by 50% between 1997 and 2001
despite the fact that there was sharp and sustained increase in funding. One
reason is that majority of the budget is eaten up by staff salaries with only 3%
being allotted for research. In contrast, most agricultural research centres in
China must use Central Government funding purely for research. Funds relating
to salaries and other administrative incidentals must be generated by the centres
themselves. The centres and scientists are thus, encouraged to engage in joint
ventures with private sector companies to form commercial signoffs from their
research. In fact research staff is now being hired on a contract basis with pay
based on performance and salaries raised proportionately for those who perform
well. India needs to learn from Chinas example and adopt a pragmatic
approach if it has to meet its targets of the Eleventh five year plan.
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259.
What has been the major area of difference in the development
of the agricultural sectors of India and China?
a) Quantity of arable land in China is far greater than in India
b) Food security is not a concern for China as the country is basically
self sufficient
c) China has experienced substantial growth in production in allied
agricultural activities like horticulture
d) Indias agricultural sector is too diversified so it is difficult to
channel funds for development
260.
How is Chinese agricultural research facilities governed?
a) Salaries of staff are linked to performance which hampers productive
research
b) Their funding comes from the government alone to prevent private
companies from manipulating the direction of their research
c) A fixed proportion of government grants is allotted to be utilized for
administrative incidentals which cannot be exceeded
d) None of these
261.
Which of the following is an advantage that India holds over
China with respect to the agricultural sector?
a) Lack of diversification of the agricultural sector
b) Superior technology and farming practices
c) Greater prevalence of farm mechanization
d) Provision of fertilizer and power subsidies
262.
Why was there a drop in development of new crop varieties for
five years from 1997?
a) Government funding for research fell during that period
b) Funds were diverted during this period to agricultural mechanization
c) The private sector was not allowed to fund research
d) None of these
263.
Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
a) Agricultural status of China and India was equivalent a quarter of a
century ago
b) Indias current economic growth rate is half that of China
c) China is traditionally an agrarian economy
d) Agricultural research in India is inadequate
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the questions given.
It is difficult to imagine the extraordinary number of controls on Indian
industry before 1991. Enterpreneurs needed permission to invest and could be
penalized for exceeding production capacity. Even with the given investment
capacity they had, entering certain areas was prohibited as these were reserved
for the public sector. If they had to import anything, they required licences. To
get these licences was tough, they had to persuade a bureaucrat that the item
was required but even so permission was unavailable if somebody was already
producing it in India.
The impact of the reforms was not instantaneously and permanently
wonderful. In Indias case it began to show after about a year and a half. After
1993 there came three years of rapid industrial growth of about 8% or so. But,
in the second half of the 90s, there had an impact on the Indian industry. But, in
the last few years there has been a tremendous upturn. With the rise of
investment industrial growth has reached double digits or close.
However, even during the period when industrial growth was not that
rapid, there is a lot of evidence that positive results of the reforms were seen.
There were companies that didnt look at all internally but instead performed
remarkably in the highly competitive global market. For instance, the software
sectors performance was outstanding in an almost totally global market.
Reliance built a world class refinery. Tatas developed an indigenously designed
car. The success of the software sector has created much higher expectations
from and much higher confidence in what Indian industry can do. On the
governments side its a vindication that liberalization of both domestic and
external policies, including the increased inflow of Foreign Direct Investment,
has created an environment in which industry can do well, has done well and is
preparing to do even better. What they need is not sops, but good quality
infrastructure. For the 11th plan an industrial growth rate of around 12% is
projected. It will have methods of developing infrastructure, which will close
the deficit. This can be done through increased investment in public sector for
those infrastructure areas, which cannot attract private investment, and through
efforts to improve private participation in different ways of public private
participation.
In the early stages of reforms, the liberalization of trade policies and a
shift to a market determined exchange rate had the effect of removing constrains
on agriculture in terms of depressed prices. The removal of protection on
industry helped to produce a more level playing field, because the earlier system
was extremely unfair to agriculture. The lesson to be learnt from the reforms
process is to persevere in reforming the strategic parts of the economy, which
will lead to even higher growth rate. India has to do better than its current
average growth rate of 8% and ensure that benefits from this higher growth go
beyond industry and urban areas and extend to agriculture.
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264.
Which of the following factors was responsible for the fall in
Indias growth rate in the late 1990s?
a) The implementation of economic reforms was too rapid
b) It was expected after achieving a high growth at 10%
c) There was a slowdown in the global economy
d) There were sanctions against East Asian countries by WTO
265.
Which of the following can be said about the reforms of 1991?
a) They benefited Indian industry immediately
b) All Indian companies began to focus on indigenous development
instead of looking for opportunities abroad
c) They were targeted only at the software sector
d) They encouraged Foreign Direct Investment in India
266.
What was the impact of the flourishing Indian software sector?
a) Other companies were unable to be competitive in the global market
b) It fulled expectations of a good performance from the Indian
economy
c) Growth rate rose to 12%
d) It created cut throat competition among software companies which
would hinder the sector in the long run
267.
Why was investment by private business disallowed in certain
sectors?
a) To ensure proper development in these sectors
b) To prevent corruption in key sectors like infrastructure
c) To ensure steady not inconsistent growth in key sectors
d) To protect the interest of the public sector in these sectors
268.
What is the authors opinion about the governments decision to
liberalize the economy in 1991?
a) It was beneficial because it created confidence in the Indian economy
b) The timing was wrong since the economy experienced a slowdown in
growth rate
c) It led to a focus on software and other sectors were neglected
d) Foreign companies took advantage of the new policies and exploited
certain sectors
269.
How did software companies deal with slow industrial growth
in an open Indian economy?
a) They focused on strengthening their position in the domestic market
b) They campaigned for infrastructure development
c) They diversified into different sectors
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d) They targeted global markets

270.
What does the author recommend to ensure that the industrial
sector continues to perform better?
a) Subsidies should be provided in infrastructure development
b) Government should keep control of and monitor all infrastructure
projects
c) Wipe out any infrastructure deficit by transferring responsibility of
these projects to the private sector
d) Ensure a combination of public and private sector involvement in
developing infrastructure
271.
How did the economic reforms affect the agriculture sector?
a) A system of market determined exchange rate was introduced
b) Constraints in agriculture increase
c) Prices were depressed because there was a removal of protection on
the sector
d) Agriculture growth rate doubled
the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you
Nobel Prize winner Joseph E. Stiglitz, described globalization as a
double edged sword. For those willing to seize the opportunities and manage
globalization on their own terms, it has provided the basis of unprecedented
growth. Taking full advantage of globalization India has managed a
historically unprecedented growth rate for more than a decade and half.
Following the Washington consensus in the last quarter of 20th century,
international institutions including the World Bank and the International
Monetary Fund mounted a sustained campaign to push liberalization of
national economies and privatization of their public sector. Empirical studies
have amply demonstrated that the benefits of the globalization have not been
shared by all the countries. Even in the same country, the benefits arising out of
globalization have not filtered to the various strate of the population and
disparities have widened. Thus, there are transparent inequalities amongst the
countries as also within the same country. India is no exception to the latter. In
most of the poorer countries in Africa growth rates have not registered any
improvements and the number of people below poverty line has in some cases
doubled. Moreover there is reluctance of developed countries in removing the
trade distorting subsidies in agriculture and giving duty-free market access to
the least developed countries with very limited exportable products.
The issue is how has India reaped benefits of globalization? To assume
that economic, fiscal, trade and allied policies initiated by the government
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created an environment which facilitated economic advancement on these fronts

will amount to manipulation of ground realities. The foremost factor which
engineered the growth in India was emergence of a self-reliant middle class
equipped with strong knowledge base with technical qualifications. They
pursued innovative businesses requiring managerial and technical skills in the
upcoming sectors like information technology and other allied fields. Instead of
the traditional industry led growth path followed by the west and other
developing countries India opted for services-led growth which had visible,
tangible results. In the manufacturing sector, technological innovation, low-cost
production, ability to quickly adapt to changes, establishing word class R and D
facilities etc., greatly helped in successfully meeting global competition. The
automobile industry is a classic example, Strong presence of non-resident
Indians in the developed countries occupying senior management positions in
several multinational corporations built confidence in Indian managerial
competence and leadership. This promoted MNCs networking with India (as
also in China) with its expanding domestic market which in the present
circumstances remained the only viable option for their sustained growth in
future. The success stories of businesses controlled by NRIs in the western
markets established Indias reputation as dependable and disciplined
businessmen. Well established democratic political framework, large young
population ingrained with absorption capaicty of new technologies have all
created a responsive realization that India is marching ahead. The initiative
largely of its private sector in expanding connectivity by improved
telecommunications, low-cost air transportation and vast press, TV and other
media penetration ignited awareness amongst all sections of its people of a
bright future and thus radically changed their perception, thinking and actions.
Furthermore the entire world took note of unexploited potentials of India in
becoming a competitive centre of excellence and cost efficiency.
272.
According to the author, which of the following was primarily
responsible for Indias growth?
a) Well developed and implemented economic, fiscal and trade policies
b) Detailed microlevel analysis of the economy
c) A workforce with managerial rather than technical qualification
d) None of these
273.
What was the fallout of improvement in connectivity?
a) Decline in travel by traditional modes like road and rail
b) Optimism was created among the Indian public about the future of
the Indian economy
c) Youth in urban areas mainly benefited from the exposure to western
styles of management and business.
d) It made Indian entrepreneurs realize that they should concentrate on
domestic not global markets.
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274.
What does the example of the auto industry indicate?
a) Indian cars were too expensive for the Indian market but were
competitively priced for global markets.
b) Investment by multinationals in Indian firms boosted the Indian auto
industry.
c) Collaboration with foreign scientists reduced time needed for
research and development
d) NRIs were responsible for the success of the automobile industry
275.
Mounted
a) Increased
b) Grew
c) Organized
d) Climbed
276.
Tangible
a) Valuable
b) Complex
c) Touch
d) Concrete
277.
Manipulation
a) Distortion b) Calculation c) Utilization
d) Indication
278.
Viable
a) Indirect
b) Impractical
c) Unsatisfied
d) Unpleasant
279.
Amply
a) Slowly
b) Intensively
c) Least
d) Hardly
the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in
bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
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Rural India faces serious shortages power, water, health facilities,

roads, etc. these are known and recognized. However, the role of technology in
solving these and other problems is barely acknowledged and the actual
availability of technology in rural areas is marginal. The backbone of the rural
economy is agriculture, which also provides sustenance to over half the
countrys population. The green revolution of the 1970s was, in fact, powered
by the scientific work in various agricultural research institutions. While some
fault the green revolution for excessive exploitation of water and land resources
through overuse of fertilizers, it did bring about a wheat surplus and prosperity
in certain pockets of the country.
In rural India today, there is a dire inadequacy of both science (i.e.
knowledge) and technology (which derives from science and manifests itself in
physical form). The scope to apply technology to both farm and non-farm
activities in rural areas is huge, as are the potential benefits. In fact, crop yields
are far lower than what they are in demonstration farms, where science and
technology are more fully applied. Technologies that reduce power consumption
of pumps are vital, unfortunately, their use is minimal, since agricultural power
is free or largely subsidized. Similarly, there is little incentive to optimize
through technology or otherwise water use, especially in irrigated areas ( a third
of total arable land), given the water rates, post harvest technologies for
processing and adding value could greatly enhance rural employment and
incomes but at present deployment of technology is marginal. Cold storage and
cold chains for transportation to market is of great importance for many
agricultural products particularly, fruits and vegetables, but are non-existent.
These are clearly technologies with an immediate return on investment, and
benefits for all, the farmer, the end consumer, the technology provider.
However, regulatory and structural barriers are holding back
investments.
Power is a key requirement in rural areas, for agricultural as well as
domestic uses. Technology can provide reliable power at comparatively low
cost in a decentralized manner. However, this needs to be upgraded and scaled
in a big way, with emphasis on renewable and non-polluting technologies,
Reliable and low cost means of transporting goods and people is an essential
need for rural areas. The bullock-cart and the tractor-trailer are present vehicles
of choice. Surely, technology can provide a better, cheaper and more efficient
solution? Information related to commodity prices, agricultural practices,
weather etc. are crucial for the farmer. Technology can provide these through
mobile phones, which is a proven technology however the challenge to ensure
connectivity remains. Thus, there is a pressing need for technology as currently
economic growth though skewed and iniquitous has created an economically
attractive market in rural India.
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280.
Which of the following is not an impact of the green
revolution?
a) Over utilization of water resources
b) Application of scientific research only in demonstration farms
c) Wealth creation restricted to creation areas
d) Damage caused to land by inordinate use of fertilizers
281.
Why is there no motivation to reduce power consumption?
a) Freely available sources of energy
b) Government will have to subsidize the cost of technology required to
reduce power consumption
c) Power distribution has been decentralized
d) None of these
282.
What effect will the implementation of post harvest
technologies such as cold storages have?
a) Regulatory procedures will have to be more stringent.
b) Prices of commodities like fruits and vegetables will fall since there
is no wastage from spoilage
c) Incomes of rural population will fall
d) Pollution of the environment
283.
The authors main objective in writing the passage is to
a) Censure scientists for not undertaking research
b) Criticize farmers for not utilizing experimental low cost post
harvesting technology
c) Exhort the government subsidize the cost of utilizing technology
d) Advocate broadening the scope of research and use of technology in
agriculture
284.
Marginal
a) Austere
b) Severe
c) Detrimental
d) Insignificant
285.
Fault
a) Defect
b) Offend
c) Imperfect
d) Blame
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286.
Dire
a) Pessimistic
b) Alarming
c) Futile
d) Frightened
287.
Potential
a) Unlikely
b) Incapable
c) Unable
d) Ineffective
288.
Iniquitous
a) Immoral
b) Godly
c) Victatious
d) Just
Giving loans to impoverished women to make ceramics or to farmers to
buy milk cows were not seen as great business. Microfinance was an industry
championed by antipoverty activists. Today it is on the verge of a revolution,
with billions of dollars from big banks, private equity shops and pension funds
pouring in, driving growth of 30% to 40% this year alone. In 1998, a nonprofit
microfinance organization in Peru, converted into a bank (called Mibanco). This
demonstrated that the poor are good risks who repay loans on time and getting
them together, not only chips away at poverty but also turns a profit. The
success of Mibanco has piqued the interest of commercial banks, which had
previously shunned the countrys poor. Now big banks are going after
Mibancos clients with low-rate loans and realising it takes special know how to
work with the unbanked are hiring away Mibancos staff.
But with the emergence of players who are only out for profit,
microfinance schemes could end up milking the poor. This could happen in
countries where lenders dont have to disclose interest rates. When a Mexican
microfinancier went public, revealing its loans had rates of about 86% annually,
the Consultative Group to Assist the Poor criticised it for putting shareholders
ahead of clients. The pressure to turn a profit also forces microfinanciers to
change their business models in ways that depart from the industrys core
mission, to help poor people lead better lives. Such shifts have caused the
average loan size to triple. Moreover smaller loans being costlier to service, a
lower percentage of loans go to women because they tend to take out smaller
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sums, According to CGAP, with the flood of new large entities there is the risk
that a large percentage of cross border funds go to Latin America and Eastern
Europe, the Worlds most developed microfinance markets. The poorest of the
Worlds poor, who are predominantly in Asia and Africa get left out, says the
CEO of the nonprofit Grameen Foundation, which helps develop microfinance
institutions.
Segementing the industry, might be worthwhile if it allows more of the
poor to get access to credit. Multinational corporations could take the top
microfinance institutions to the next level, and the remainder could be the
responsibility of development groups and regional banks. Yet making loans to
poor people is hardly a poverty cure. Property rights and the rule of law matter
too. One cannot overidealize what microfinance alone can do. Most nonprofits
started with lending simply because local laws prohibited nonbanks from
offering deposit accounts. With an increase in competition and marketing
efforts, poverty alleviation experts are concerned that people will be talked into
loans they wouldnt otherwise want. For example, organisations like Mibanco
are providing consumer loans. There is nothing wrong with buying. TVs and
microwaves on credit, but certain markets, like Mexico, have been flooded with
loans that have nothing to do with providing capital to aspiring entrepreneurs
just increasing household debt.
289.
Why did most microfinance institutions initially provide only
credit services?
a) They were unable to compete with the interest rates offered on
deposits by commercial banks
b) They have to operate purely on a nonprofit basis
c) Government restrictions prevented them from offering additional
services
d) To ensure the poor have access to modern necessities like
microwaves
290.
What was the impact of the non-disclosure of their interest rates
by lending institutions?
a) The Government issued sanctions against such firms
b) Shareholders interests were not protected
c) More microfinance institutions were motivated to go public
d) The poor were exploited
291.
What is CGAPs fear with respect to new entities providing
microfinance?
a) NGOs will be unable to survive in an environment of cut throat
competition
b) The poor will hesitate to take advantage of credit facilities because of
the formalities involved
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c) The poor in the developed world will be overlooked

d) The interests of the most deserving among the poor will be neglected
292.
What is the authors opinion about the competition for
customers among microfinanciers?
a) It benefits the poor by providing them with loans they would have
otherwise not had access to
b) It is futile since the poor have to pay high rates of interest on
property loans
c) It is not beneficial since firms waste their profits on marketing rather
than helping the poor
d) None of these
293.
Depart
a) Absent
b) Retirement c) Divide
d) Vary
294.
Piqued
a) Provoked
b) Irritated
c) Disturb
d) Offended
295.
Verge
a) Tend
b) Crossroad
c) Ascent
d) Slope
296.
Aspiring
a) Uninterested
b) Ungrateful
c) Anxious
d) Miserable
297.
Core
a) Clear
b) Unnecessary
c) Crust
d) Besides
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Sixty years after independence, India remains one of the unhealthiest
places on earth. Millions of people still suffer from disease that no longer exist
almost anywhere else on the planet. What makes the picture even bleaker is the
fact that Indias economic boom has so far had, little impact on health standards.
Between 2001 and 2006 Indias economy grew almost 50%, the countrys
biggest expansion in decades. Meantime, its child malnutrition rate, dropped
just a single percentage point, to 46%. This is worse than in most African
countries. The incredible economic growth is having an impact in other ways by
driving up rates or rich world diseases such as obesity and encouraging high end
health services, some of which offer world class care but remain far beyond the
reach of the vast majority of Indians. The country brags about the skill of
Indias world class doctors when its marketers sell India as a medical tourism
destination and emerging health service giant. The truth behind the glossy
advertising that : India is the sick man of Asia, malnourished and, beset by
epidemics of AIDS and diabetes and with spending levels on public health that
even its Prime Minister has coinceded are seriously lagging behind other
developing countries in Asia.
Part of the reason for sorry state of Indias medical services is the
crumbling public health infrastructure not fancy hospitals or equipment but
basic services such as clean water, a functioning sewage system, power. The
World Health Organisation estimates that more than 900000 Indians die every
year from drinking bad water and breathing bad air. Public health experts
believe that Indias vast population adds to the burden, overloading systems
where they do exist and aiding the spread of disease in many places they dont.
Moreover, for the past decade or so, funding for preventive public health
initiatives such as immunization drives and programmes to control the spread of
communicable diseases has been cut. Experts also blame policies that
concentrate on the latest scientific techniques and not enough on basics for the
fact that millions of people in India are suffering and dying. Especially in rural
India, health services are poor to non-existent. Current staff often doesnt turn
up for work, clinics are badly maintained and people end up seeking help from
pharmacists who are not sufficiently trained. India need more than a million
more doctors and nurses. The government has also promised more money for
rural health through its ambitious National Rural Health Mission. It will
increase public health spending from the current 1% of Indias GDP to upto 3%
by 2010, but thats still just half the rate at which countries with comparable per
capita incomes such as Senegal and Mongolia fund their health sectors. If that is
to change, we must realise that the link between wealth and good health isnt
clear cut. Poor states that have made efforts in child immunization over the past
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few years now have better coverage than rich states, where immunization has
actually slipped.
India needs to stop being complacent and prepare to spend on health
but whenever it is mentioned there is always this debate about cost. Why dont
we have the same debate when we spend tens of billions on new arms? Its hard
to be an economic superpower if youre too sick to work.
298.
What can be inferred from the statistics given for 2001-2006?
a) India has made strides in reducing its malnutrition rate
b) During this period India managed to achieve a growth rate equivalent
to that of developed countries
c) India managed to achieve high standards both in economic growth
and in healthcare
d) Though India achieved a high economic growth rate this did not
positively impact the healthcare sector to a great extent
299.
What is the authors main objective in writing the passage?
a) Comparing India and Africa in terms of economic growth
b) Cautioning India to improve its healthcare system
c) Exhorting India to have higher growth rate which will benefit the
healthcare sector
d) Criticising medical practitioners for their lack of concern for the
health of the weaker sections of society
300.
Which of the following cannot be seen as a cause for the state
of Indias healthcare system?
a) Vast population
b) Lack of basic services like water, power etc.
c) Inadequate waste management facilities
d) Lack of funding from the World Health Organisation
301.
Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in
Sorry
a) Forgiveness
b) Apology
c) Repentant
d) Miserable
302.
Choose the word /phrase which is most nearly the same in
Complacent
a) Pleasing
b) Self-satisfied
c) Conforming
d) Willing
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303.
Choose the word /phrase which is most nearly the same in
Reach
a) Extend
b) Span
c) Grasp
d) Distance
304.
Bleaker
a) Hopeful
b) Warm
c) Cozy
d) Sheltered
305.
Non-existent
a) Hypothetical
b) Active
c) Realistic
d) Available
the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold in the passage
to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
It is difficult to compare countries because various factors such as size,
culture, history, geography, natural endowments, geopolitics and internal polity
comes into play. There are some goals which can be achieved by smaller
countries, but sometimes smaller countries find it difficult to mark upon certain
big technological plans even if they have the funds, because the size of the
domestic market is too small. If we consider the bigger countries, the closest
comparison to India is China, though there are many crucial differences.
The Chinese vision is to prepare the country for entry into the ranks of
mid level developed nations by the middle of the twenty first century.
Acceleration of the nations economic growth and social development by
relying on advances in science and technology is pivotal in this.
Documents describing the Chinese vision state that science and
technology constitute premier productive forces and represent a great
revolutionary power that can propel economic and social development. It is
interesting to note that the main lessons the Chinese have drawn from their past
performance is their failure to promote science and technology as strategic tools
for empowerment. They also point to the absence of mechanisms and
motivations in their economic activity to promote dependence on science and
technology. Similarly, they hold that their scientific and technological efforts
were not oriented towards economic growth. As a consequence they conclude,
a large number of scientific and technological achievements were not converted
into productive forces as they were too far removed from Chinas immediate
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economic and social needs. The Chinese vision is therefore aimed at exploiting
state of art science and technology to enhance the nations overall power and
strength, to improve the peoples living standards, to focus on resolving
problems encountered in large scale industrial and agricultural production and
to effectively control and alleviate pressures brought on by population,
resources and the environment. By the year 2000, China had aimed at bringing
the main industrial sectors upto the technological levels achieved by the
developed countries in the 1970s or 80s, and by 2020 to the level they would
have attained by the early twenty first century. The aim is to bridge the overall
gap with the advanced World. There is a special emphasis on research and
development of high technologies that would find defence applications. Some of
these technologies are critical for improving the features of key conventional
weapons. Some technologies are meant for enhancing future military
capabilities. Other efforts are aimed at maintaining the momentum to develop
capabilities for cutting edge defence technologies. They call for unremitting
efforts in this regard with the aim of maintaining effective self defence and
nuclear deterrent capabilities and to enable parity in defence, science and
technology with the advanced world.
306.
Why cant smaller countries take up big technological
planning?
a) They have other goals to achieve
b) They have smaller domestic market size
c) Smaller countries lack technological know how
d) Bigger countries do not permit them to do so
307.
What is the goal of China to be accomplished by the middle of
21st Century?
a) To become one of the most developed nations
b) To surpass the level of all middle level developed nations by a good
margin
c) To be the most influential super power
d) None of these
308.
What according to the Chinese vision can boost socio-economic
development?
a) Science and technology
b) Minds united with revolutionary powers
c) Premier productive forces
d) A vision which propels development
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309.
Endowments
a) Powers
b) Measures
c) Habitats
d) Gifts
310.
Oriented
a) Stated
b) Tempting
c) Deciding
d) Leaning
311.
Conventional
a) Functional
b) Activist
c) Deliberate
d) Traditional
312.
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the word
Crucial
a) Central
b) Trivial
c) Decisive
d) Fundamental
313.
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the word
Parity
a) Impropriety
b) Impartiality
c) Inequality
d) Inauspicious
Directions (Q. 314-317) In the sentence below, a word is printed in bold.
Below the sentence, five words /group of words are suggested, one of which
can replace the bold word, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
Find out the appropriate word/group of words in each case.
314.
If you familiarize yourself with the culture of that area, you
will be able to enjoy life there.
a) Submit
b) Acquaint
c) Associate
d) Look after
315.
For such a gigantic task, there should be some special task
force.
a) Trivial
b) Important
c) Huge
d) Gallantry
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316.
If you are required to handle things under stress, mistakes are
inevitable.
a) Correctable
b) Detectable
c) Unpardonable
d) Unavoidable
317.
People who trespass this gate will be fined.
a) Cross without permission
b) Climb up and cross over
c) Break unlawfully
d) Pass on
Directions (Q. 318-322) Below the four words are given. One of these four
words may be wrongly spelt. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt, if
there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words are
correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.
318.
Below the four words are given. One of these four words may
be wrongly spelt. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is
any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words are
a) Adventure
b) Demonstration
c) Environment
d) Innosent
319.
a) Limitasion
b) Dependable
c) Miniature
d) Qualitative
e) All correct
320.
a) Lucrative
b) Ancestral
c) Performanse
d) Incidentally
e) All correct
321.
a) Futility
b) Separasion
c) Embarrassment
d) Positively
e) All correct
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322.
a) Tournament
b) Enhancement
c) Amazingly
d) All are correct
Directions (Q. 323-326) In the following sentence, an idiomatic expression
or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its
use in the sentence.
323.
Mrs.Nayak opened the discussion on the alarming rate of
poverty in India.
a) Started the discussion
b) Gave her opinion in the discussion
c) Did not agree on the discussion
d) Welcomed the people to the discussion
324.
The course of events made it necessary for Joseph to start
working.
a) Events that were planned
b) Long list of future events
c) A succession of unexpected events
d) Nature of events that followed after Joseph joined work
325.
The new law on 'Right to Food Safety' will come into force
next month.
a) Be forced upon the people
b) Be associated from next month onwards
c) Be implemented next month
d) Be withdrawn next month
326.
When the girl wanted to stay out past midnight, her father put
his foot down.
a) Gave in to her request
b) Walked away disapprovingly
c) Obstructed her from leaving the house
d) Requested her to be home on time
Directions (Q. 327-331) Which of the phrases given below should be
replaced the phrase given in bold in the sentence to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct?
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327.
There are lot many opportunities for young IT graduates today.
a) Lot many of
b) Very many of
c) Lots of
d) No correct required
328.
Along the course off his carrer, he has established a reputation
for efficiency.
a) In the course off
b) During the course of
c) While the course of
329.
It is much likely his train has been delayed due to bad weather.
a) Quite likely that
b) Mostly like that
c) Much likely that
330.
He answered every question put on him frankly.
a) Put for him
b) Put to him
c) Put by himself
d) Putting on him
331.
The engineers have been working overtime, but have been not
able to locate the fault.
a) Have not been unable
b) Are not unable
c) Have been unable
Directions (Q. 332-335) Choose the word/group of words which is most
similar in meaning to the word /group of words printed in bold
332.
Galloped
a) Hurtled
d) Jumped
b) Stumbled
c) Slumbered
333.
Revered
a) Remembered
d) Respected
b) Feared
c) Talked
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334.
Reveal
a) Stop
d) Pending
b) Conceal
c) Present
335.
Elated
a) Afraid
d) Depressed
b) Door
c) Happy
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Answers:
1. Option D
2. Option D
3. Option C
4. Option E
5. Option C
6. Option B
7. Option A
8. Option A
9. Option E
10. Option E
11. Option C
12. Option B
13. Option B
14. Option A
15. Option B
16. Option A
17. Option B
18. Option A
19. Option E
20. Option C
21. Option C
22. Option D
23. Option C
24. Option B
25. Option A
26. Option D
27. Option A
28. Option B
29. Option E
30. Option B
31. Option A
32. Option D
33. Option C
34. Option D
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35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option A
Option E
Option B
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option E
Option D
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option D
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79. Option D
80. Option C
81. Option D
82. Option A
83. Option B
84. Option D
85. Option D
86. Option D
87. Option D
88. Option B
89. Option D
90. Option D
91. Option C
92. Option A
93. Option A
94. Option B
95. Option B
96. Option A
97. Option A
98. Option C
99. Option D
100.
Option C
101.
Option D
102.
Option D
103.
Option A
104.
Option D
105.
Option B
106.
Option C
107.
Option A
108.
Option C
109.
Option D
110.
Option B
111.
Option D
112.
Option D
113.
Option D
114.
Option B
115.
Option C
116.
Option B
117.
Option D
118.
Option A
119.
Option C
120.
Option D
121.
Option C
122.
Option D
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123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option B
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option B
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167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option A
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option A
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211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
252.
253.
254.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option A
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option B
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255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
262.
263.
264.
265.
266.
267.
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option D
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299.
300.
301.
302.
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
313.
314.
315.
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option D
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Chapter 3
Antonyms
Absence
Abundant
Accept
Accurate
Admit
Advance
Advantage
Agree
Alive
Ally
Always
Ancient
Answer
Approached
Approval
Arrival
Artificial
Ascend
Asleep
Attack
Attention
Attractive
Backward
Bad
Beautiful
Beginning
Below
Bend
Best
Better
Big
Bitter
Blame
Bless
Blunt
Bold
Borrow
Bravery
Presence
Scarce
Refuse
Inaccurate
Deny
Retreat, Retire
Disadvantage
Disagree
Dead
Enemy
Never
Modern
Question, Query
Receded, Departed
Disapproval
Departure
Natural
Descend
Awake
Defence
Inattention
Repulsive
Forward, Onward
Good
Ugly
Ending
Above
Straighten
Worst
Worse
Small, Little
Sweet
Praise
Curse
Sharp
Timid, Meek
Lend
Cowardice
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Bright
Broad
Build
Calm
Capable
Captivity
Careful
Cellar
Cheap
Clear
Clever
Clockwise
Close
Cold
Combine
Come
Comfort
Common
Conceal
Correct
Courage
Courteous
Cruel
Cunning
Dainty
Danger
Dark
Decrease
Deep
Definite
Demand
Despair
Disappear
Discourage
Disease
Dismal
Doctor
Dry
Dull
Dusk
Early
East
Easy
Ebb
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Dull
Narrow
Destroy, Demolish
Troubled
Incapable
Freedom, Liberty
Rush, Careless
Attic
Dear, Expensive
Vague, Cloudy
Stupid
Anti-clockwise
Distant
Hot
Separate
Go
Discomfort
Rare
Reveal
Incorrect
Cowardice
Discourteous, Rude
Kind
Simple
Clumsy
Safety
Light
Increase
Shallow
Indefinite
Supply
Hope
Appear
Encourage
Health
Cheerful
Patient
Wet
Clear, Bright
Dawn
Late
West
Difficult
Flow
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Economise
Employer
Empty
Encourage
Entrance
Excited
Expensive
Export
Exterior
External
Fail
False
Famous
Fast
Fat
Feeble
Few
Find
First
Fold
Foolish
Forelegs
Forget
Fortunate
Found
Frank
Freedom
Frequent
Fresh
Full
Gather
Generous
Gentle
Giant
Glad
Gloomy
Granted
Great
Guardian
Guest
Guilty
Harmful
Hasten
Hate
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Waste
Employee
Full
Discourage
Exit
Calm
Inexpensive, Cheap
Import
Interior
Internal
Succeed
True
Unknown
Slow
Thin
Sturdy, Strong, Powerful
Many
Lose
Last
Unfold
Wise
Hindlegs
Remember
Unfortunate
Lost
Secretive
Captivity
Seldom
Stale
Empty
Distribute
Mean
Rough
Dwarf, Pygmy
Sorry
Cheerful
Refused
Minute, Small, Little
Ward
Host
Innocent
Harmless
Dawdle
Love
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Healthy
Heavy
Here
Hero
Hill
Hinder
Honest
Horizontal
Humble
Hunger
Imitation
Immense
Imprison
Include
Inferior
Inhabited
Inhale
Inside
Intelligent
Intentional
Interesting
Interior
Internal
Join
Junior
Junstice
Knowledge
Land
Landlord
Large
Last
Laugh
Lawful
Lazy
Leader
Lecturer
Left
Lender
Lengthen
Less
Light
Like
Likely
Loyal
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Unhealthy
Light
There
Coward
Valley
Aid, Help
Dishonest
Vertical
Proud
Thirst
Genuine
Tiny, Minute
Free
Exclude
Superior
Uninhabited
Exhale
Outside
Unintelligent, Stupid
Accidental
Uninteresting, Dull
Exterior, Outside
External
Separate
Senior
Injustice
Ignorance
Sea
Tenant
Little, Small
First
Cry
Unlawful
Energetic
Follower
Student
Right
Borrower
Shorten
More
Dark, Heavy
Dislike, Unlike
Unlikely
Disloyal
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Mad
Magnetize
Master
Mature
Maximum
Minority
Miser
Misunderstand
Noisy
Odd
Offer
Open
Optimist
Parent
Past
Patient
Peace
Permanent
Please
Plentiful
Poetry
Possible
Poverty
Powerful
Private
Prudent
Rapid
Regularly
Rich
Rigid
Rough
Satisfactory
Scatter
Second-hand
Security
Sense
Serious
Shopkeeper
Simple
Singular
Slim
Sober
Solid
Sour
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Sane
Demegnetize
Servant
Immature
Minimum
Majority
Spendthrift
Understand
Quiet
Even
Refuse
Shut
Pessimist
Child
Present
Impatient
War
Temporary
Displease
Scarce
Prose
Impossible
Wealth
Feeble, Weak
Public
Imprudent
Slow
Irregularly
Poor
Pliable, Soft
Smooth
Unsatisfactory
Collect
New
Insecurity
Non-sense
Trivial
Customer
Complicated
Plural
Thick, Stout
Drunk
Liquid
Sweet
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Speaker
Straight
Sunny
Vacant
Valuable
Victory
Virtue
Visible
Voluntary
Vowel
Wax
Wisdom
Within
Listener
Crooked
Cloudy
Occupied
Valueless
Defeat
Vice
Invisible
Compulsory
Consonant
Wane
Folly
Without
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Chapter 4
Synonms
About
Abstract
To accomplish
To accumulate
To administer
Almost
Animated
To annoy
To answer
Anyway
Apparent
To appear
Applicable
Appreciable
Ardour
Arise
Aromatic
To arrive
Artful
Association
To assure
Attractive
Backbone
Backside
Bad
Ballot
To beat
To behave
Believable
Bendy
Beneficiant
Beneficial
Bid
Blameless
Bloodbath
Bloodless
Branch
Brave
Approximately
Summary
To achieve
To build up
To manage
Nearly
Lively
To irritate, to bother
To reply
Besides
Obvious
To seem
Relevant
Considerable
Passion
Occur
Fragrant
To reach
Crafty
Organization
To guarantee
Appealing
Spine
Behind, Bottom
Poor, Naughty
Poll
To defeat
To act
Plausible
Flexible
Generous
Favourable
Tender
Innocent
Massacre
Cold
Department
Courageous
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Brow
Bum
Business
To categorize
Charter
Cheesy
To chop
Chorus
Citation
To cite
Class
Clerk
Clever
To close
Coiffure
To collapse
To collect
Comfort
Comic
Commencement
Complete
Concord
To condemn
Confederate
To confine
Conflict
To conform
To confuse
To connect
Considerate
Constancy
Constant
Constitution
Construction
To consult
Contemporary
Continuous
Contrary
Convention
To convey
To cope
Correct
Couch
Crook
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Forehead
Backside, Behind, Bottom
Commerce, Trade
To classify
Constitution
Corny, Tacky
To cut
Refrain
Quotation
To quote
Lesson, Course
Receptionist
Intelligent
To shut
Hairstyle
To break down
To gather
Consolation
Comedian
Graduation
Total
Harmony
To sentence
Accomplice
To restrict
Clash
To comply
To mix up
To associate
Thoughtful
Fidelity
Fixed
Structure
Interpretation
To refer to
Modern
Continual
Opposite
Conference
To communicate
To manage
Right
Sofa
Criminal
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Crusade
Cube
Curative
Curler
Cussed
Dash
Daybreak
Deceptive
Decontrol
Dedicated
To deduce
Defective
Deliberate
Deliberately
Delicate
To demostrate
Denims
To denote
To deprave
Depraved
To desert
Deserted
Destiny
Detached
Devil
Dicy
To differentiate
To diminish
Disadvantaged
Disagreeable
To disappear
Disaster
To disclaim
To disclose
Discount
Disgrace
Domesticate
Dossier
Dubious
Dull
Eager
Earth
Economic
Egocentric
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Campaign
Dice
Healing
Roller
Stubborn
Sprint
Dawn
Misleading
Deregulate
Committed
To infer
Faulty
Planned
Intentionally
Fragile
To protest
Jeans
To indicate
To corrupt
Wicked
To abandon
Abandoned
Fate
Indifferent
Satan
Risky
To distinguish
To decrease
Deprived
Unpleasant
To vanish
Catastrophe
To deny
To reveal
Reduction
Shame
Cultivate
File
Doubtful
Stupid
Keen
Soil
Profitable
Selfish
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To elevate
To encounter
To enquire
Equity
Especially
Essential
To establish
To evaluate
Everlasting
Exactly
Except
To expire
To explode
Extra
To Fabricate
Famous
Fanatic
Fantastic
To float
Fool
Foolish
To foretell
Formerly
Fortunate
Foxy
Foyer
Fragrance
French dressing
To function
Garbage
Gay
To glitter
To grab
Grasping
Gratis
Gratuity
Gravestone
To grouse
Gut
Hall
Hang-out
Happily
Hard
Hashish
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To raise
To come across
To investigate
Fairness
Particularly
Fundamental
To set up
To assess
Eternal
Precisely
Apart from
To run out
To blow up
Additional
To manufacture
Renowned
Enthusiast
Great, Brilliant
To drift
Idiot
Silly
To predict
Previously
Lucky
Cunning
Lobby
Perfume
vinaigrette
To operate
Rubbish
Homosexual
To sparkle
To seize
Greedy
Free of charge
Tip
Headstone
to grumble
Intestine
Corridor
Haunt
Fortunately
Tough
Cannabis
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To hawk
To hazard
Hearsay
Hermetic
Highbrow
Hint
Hole
Home
Homicide
Hunger
To hurry
Hypothesis
If
To ignore
Illiberal
To illuminate
To illustrate
To imagine
To imitate
Immediate
Immobile
Immoderate
Immodest
To impact
Impartial
Impasse
Impassive
To impeach
Impediment
Imperative
Impolite
Incidentally
Inconsiderate
Indisputable
Infamous
Infantile
To infect
Inflexible
Inflow
Informal
Infrequent
Inheritor
Innocent
Insolvent
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To peddle
To endanger
Rumour
Airtight
Intellectual
Trace
Gap
Domestic
Murder
Starvation
To rush
Speculation
Whether
To disregard
Intolerant
To clarify
To demonstrate
To suppose
To mimic
Instant
Motionless
Excessive
Conceited
To affect
Neutral
Deadlock
Emotionless
To question
Obstacle
Vital
Rude
By the way
Thoughtless
Indeniable
Notorious
Childish
To contaminate
Rigid
Influx
Casual
Rare
Heir
Harmless
Bancrupt
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To inspect
Instruction
Insufferable
Insufficient
Insupportable
Insurgent
Intellectual
To intend
To intensify
Interplay
Inventory
Invoice
Jealous
Joy
Knowingly
Lacking
Last
Leading
To learn
Legitimate
Lethal
Liveable
Loopy
Lucid
Madness
Magican
Magistrate
To magnify
To maintain
Mannequin
Material
Matters
May be
In the meantime
Measure
Meeting
Mendacity
Merciless
Middleman
Midway
To migrate
Mild
To mimic
Mind
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To examine
Direction
Unbearable
Inadequate
Intolerable
Rebel
Mental
To mean
To heighten
Interaction
Stock
Bill
Envious
Delight
Deliberately
Missing
Final
Main
To memorize
Valid
Deadly
Habitable
Crazy
Clear
Insanity
Conjuror
Justice of the Peace
To exaggerate
To preserve
Model
Fabric
Things
Perhaps
Meanwhile
Degree
Assembly
Lying
Cruel
Intermediary
Halfway
Emigrate
Gentle
To imitate
Intellect
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Mindless
To minimize
To mirror
To misconceive
Miserable
Misery
Misread
Missing
Mistrust
Moderately
Modern
More and More
Moreover
Movie
Murderer
Naked
Nameless
Napkin
To narrate
A narrative
A native
To near
Necessary
Nightfall
Nobility
To nominate
Non-stop
Noon
Noted
To notify
Notwithstanding
Nugatory
Numerous
Obdurate
Object
Obligatory
Oblique
Obsolete
To operate
Organic
Ornament
Outside
To overhaul
To overlook
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Senseless
To play down
To reflect
To misunderstand
Depressing
Distress
Misinterpret
Lost
Distrust
Reasonably
Contemporary
Increasingly
In addition
Film
Assassin
Bare
Anonymous
Servoette
To relate
A story
A local
To approach
Essential
Dusk
Aristocracy
To appoint
Continuous
Midday
Famous
To inform
however
Worthless
Many
Stubborn
Thing
Compulsory
Indirect
Out of date
To function
Biological
Decoration
External
To overtake
To miss
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Overseas
To oversee
Painting
Paper money
Particular
Passable
Pattern
Peaceable
Perception
Phantasm
Poisonous
Possibility
Post-mortem
Practically
Praise
Precedence
Precept
Precis
Pressing
Previous
Prompt
Prosperous
To provide
To quake
Quite
Reasonable
To receive
Refrain
Reliable
Religious
Remainder
Remark
Reminiscence
Remorse
Remoted
Removable
To renew
To renounce
Repute
To respond
Revolting
Rubbish
Rude
Sacristy
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Abroad
To supervise
Portray
Notes
Specific
Satisfactory
Sample
Peaceful
Insight
Illusion
Toxic
Opportunity
Autopsy
Virtually
Compliment
Priority
Principle
Summary
Urgent
Preceding
Immediate
Affluent
To supply
To tremble
Fairly
Fair
To get
Chorus
Dependable
Devout
Rest
Comment
Memory
Regret
Isolated
Detachable
To resume
To give up
Reputation
To reply
Disgusting
Nonsense
Impolite
Vestry
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Satisfied
Scarcity
Scrumptious
Second
To select
Selection
Self-assured
Signal
Significant
Silly
Sincere
Skull
Soiled
Spotlight
Substantially
Suggest
Sure
Surroundings
To survive
To symbolize
Temper
Terror
Testament
Today
Torpid
Touchy
To transform
Transitority
Transparent
Trustworthy
Twister
Twosome
Ultimate
Uncommon
Uncooked
Undeniable
Unforeseen
Unfortunate
Unhurt
Uninjured
Unlawful
Unmarried
Unstated
Untimely
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Convinced
Shortage
Delicious
Moment
To choose
Choice
Confident
Sign
Meaningful
Foolish
Honest
Cranium
Dirty
Highlight
Considerably
Propose
Certain
Environment
To outlive
To represent
Mood
Terrorism
Testamony
Nowadays
Lethargic
Sensitive
To convert
Temporary
Obvious
Reliable
Tornado
Pair
Final
Unusual
Raw
Indisputable
Unexpected
Unlucky
Unharmed
Unhurt
Illegal
Single
Unspoken
Premature
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Untrue
Unvoiced
Uprising
Usually
Vacancy
To vacuum
Vague
Vain
Valueless
To vanquish
To vary
Vast
Virtue
To visualize
Warrantly
Well mannered
Well timed
Winery
To withstand
Zenith
Unfaithful
Voiceless
Rebellion
Generally
Emptiness
To hoover
Indistinct
Useless
Worthless
To conquer
To differ
Huge
Advantage
To imagine
Guarantee
Polite
Timely
Vineyeard
To resist
Peak
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Chapter 5
Sentence Arrangements
Directions (Q. 1-5): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D),
(E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and
then answer the questions given below.
A. The researchers in these companies claim that they could do better by
allowing their employees to doze off at work place.
B. The dreams, while at work, are thus helpful to solve crucial problems.
C. Would you believe that some UK based companies are arranging for
bed at the work place?
D. The reason, they claim, could be that dreams produce creative solutions.
E. We only hope that these crucial problems in UK are different from
those of ours.
F. But it is true and is considered as a step to improve quality of their
products.
1. Which of the following should be the First sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
2. Which of the following should be the Third sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
3. Which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
4. Which of the following should be the Fifth sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
5. Which of the following should be the Sixth sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
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Directions (Q. 6-10): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C),
(D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph
and then answer the questions given below.
A. The reasons for their happiness was that they had come to the Vithal
temple of Pandharpur to see their beloved Lord.
B. There were rich, poor men, women, children, blind, handicapped among
them.
C. They were all in a very happy state of mind, as was apparent from their
glowing faces.
D. They would worship and seek the Divine blessings while in Pandharpur.
E. It was an auspicious day and many people had assembled in the temple.
F. Though different there was one commonality among.
6. Which of the following should be the Fourth statement after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
7. Which of the following should be the Fifth statement after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
8. Which of the following should be the Sixth statement after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
9. Which of the following should be the First statement after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
10. Which of the following should be the Second statement after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
A. Besides, they get a lot of exposure to novel things through media.
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B. Therefore, their mental development did not show any extraordinary

signs.
C. Children of the present generation appear to be smarter than their earlier
counterparts.
D. Thus, the environment of present days has brought out these changes.
E. This is probably because there are lots of opportunities for their indirect
learning.
F. Children of yester years did not have these facilities.
11. Which of the following will be the Third sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
12. Which of the following will be the First sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
13. Which of the following will be the Sixth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
14. Which of the following will be the Second sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
15. Which of the following will be the Fifth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
(A) Special care needs to be taken to reform the other State taxes, viz state
excise, motor vehicles tax, passengers and goods tax, and stamp duty
and registration fee.
(B) The introduction of GST in the indirect tax system of the Union and the
State Governments and the DTC in the direct taxes of the Union
Government will help establish an economically efficient, cost-effective
and transparent tax system.
(C) That would make the Indian tax system suitable for taking the country
towards a new horizon of future growth and prosperity.
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(D) It would make the Indian tax payer competitive at home as well as in
the international market.
(E) Also, the other taxes at the state level need to be further reformed.
(F) It is, however, important to remove the bumps and road blocks in its
introduction.
16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after
rearrangement?
a) F
b) E
c) B
d) A
e) C
17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) D
18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after
rearrangement?
a) E
b) F
c) D
d) C
e) B
19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after
rearrangement?
a) B
b) D
c) F
d) E
e) C
20. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) C
b) A
c) B
d) D
e) F
A. With all the bid information being available and tracked online,
corruption has Considerably reduced.
B. Today, most i.e., over 95% household, in the city enjoy broad band
connection.
C. All city contracts are now bid for online.
D. Over 20 years ago the City Government, Central Government and the
Private Sector made a concerned effort to shift the economy to include
IT.
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E. As our cities to expand and become more complex, such a system will
make Governance more manageable.
F. This level of connectedness has changed not only the citys economy,
but also how it is governed and how business is conducted.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
22. Which of the
rearrangment?
a) A
d) D
following should be the Second sentence after
23. Which of the

rearrangement?
a) A
d) E
following should be the Third sentence after
b) B
e) F
b) C
e) F
c) C
c) D

rearrangement?
c) C
b) B
a) A
d) D
e) E
25. Which of the following should be the Last (Sixth) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
A. While these disadvantages of biofuels are serious, they are the only
alternate energy source of the future and the sooner we find solutions to
these problems the faster we will be able to solve the problems we are
now facing with gasoline.
B. This fuel can also help to stimulate jobs locally since they are also much
safer to handle than gasoline and can thus have the potential to
turnaround a global economy.
C. These include dependence on fossil fuels for the machinery required to
produce biofuel which ends up polluting as much as the burning of
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fossil fuels on roads and exorbitant cost of biofuels which makes it very
difficult for the common man to switch to this option.
D. This turnaround can potentially help to bring World peace and end the
need to depend on foreign countries for energy requirements.
E. Biofuels are made from pnlant sources and since these sources are
available in abundance and can be reproduced on a massive scale they
form an energy source that is potentially unlimited.
F. However, everything is not as green with the biofuels as it seems as
there are numerous disadvantages involved which at times overshadow
their positive impact.
26. Which of the following sentence should be the Third sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
27. Which of the following sentence shouldbe the Fifth sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
28. Which of the following sentence should be the Sixth (Last) sentence
after rearrangement?
a) A
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
29. Which of the
following sentence should be the Second after
rearrangement?
b) B
c) D
a) A
d) E
e) F
30. Which of the following sentence should be the First sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. According to it, organized retail stores are not wolves at the doors of
friendly neighborhood grocery stores as there is room for expansion of
both.
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B. Many have been crying foul over the entry of organized retail stores
expressing concern over their impact on small store owners.
C. The final winner in the competition, however, is the common man who
gets to choose between the most suitable options and in turn fights with
the runaway inflation in prices of essential commodities.
D. In spite of this potential for expansion, it is doubtless that the small
store owns face a decline in profit in initial years if organized retailers
set up stores in the vicinity.
E. But a study conducted over a period of two years goes a long way
towards allying these fears.
F. This impact, however, wears off once they learn to take on the
competition which in turn enhances efficiency all around.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
32. Which of the following sentence should be the Second after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
33. Which of the following should be Third sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) E
c) D
d) F
e) C
34. Which of the following sentence should be the Fifth after
rearrangement?
a) D
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
35. Which of the following should be the Sixth (Last) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
A. However if this happens it will cause problems for the elderly who
mainly use cheques.
B. The use of cheques has fallen dramatically in the past few years.
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C. Thus cheques may be phased out gradually making sure that the needs
of all consumers including the elderly are met.
D. This is because more and more consumer are transferring money
electronically by direct debit or credit cards.
E. Without cheques they are likely to keep large amounts of cash in their
homes making them vulnerable to theft.
F. British banks have thus voted to phase cheques out in favor of these
more modern payment methods.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
d) D
d) E
e) F
38. Which of the following should be the Second sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
A. However, many people may not be aware of the numerous other areas
where it has been applied.
B. Today, even, those who have little knowledge about the production of
virtual reality are now most likely aware of its use in video games.
C. Similarly, medical students have substituted a cadaver for a fibeglass
mould of a body and a headset when training to perform surgery.
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D. Virtual reality was an unfamiliar concept to many people till the early
90s.
E. Introducing virtual reality to the real World, thus, has already proven to
be beneficial for every industry it encounters.
F. For example, astronaut trainees have recently used virtual reality to
simulate to trip to space.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) F
c) A
d) D
e) B
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. If tomorrows children meet these two crucial criteria they are likely to
have the opportunity both to pursue work to fulfill their dreams and
make an impact on the World around.
B. In the 21st Century however this no longer holds true as the expectations
of organizations have changed.
C. The concept of the job in the 20th Century was often equated with toil.
D. In order to meet these changed expectations employees need
commitment and access to continuous learning.
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E. Jobs were acquired, learned and performed until retirement and did not
have to be rewarding.
F. They demand more creativity and expertise and want employees to be
responsible for both outputs and outcomes.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
A. This decision on which force is to be maximised lies with every
individual.
B. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces
prevailing at a particular time.
C. We must maximise the constructive forces of science and the
destructive ones should be minimised.
D. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science
but war.
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E. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways
to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for
causing these.
F. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is
perverted to destructive ends.
51. Which of the following sentence should be the Sixth (Last) after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
52. Which of the following sentence should be the Third after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) E
c) F
d) D
e) C
53. Which of the following sentence should be the Fifth after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
54. Which of the following sentence should be the First after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
55. Which of the following sentence should be the Second after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) F
A. Voluntary measures such as codes of conduct have failed to address
these issues and deliver change.
B. However they can also cause serious problems with their irresponsible
behavior.
C. Companies are a powerful force for good.
D. There are several instances of companies undermining workers rights
and damaging the environment.
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E. The Companies Bill 2009 is thus a means to address issues of corporate

governance and ensure companies are accountable for their financial
performance and social impact.
F. They provide jobs, boost economies and aid social and environmental
development.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
d) D
d) E
e) F
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
A. The blame for lacking creativity is, however, put on the present
generation by the modern educationists.
B. The concept of home work began so that the pupils could revise that
was being taught in the class.
C. By doing so, most of the schools took away the leisure time of the
children.
D. Instead, these educationists should suggest lowering of burden of
homework to the commission for educational reforms.
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E. The purpose of this concept was, however, defeated when the schools
started overburdening students with so called homework.
F. Lack of such leisure time does not allow the children to develop
creative pursuits.
61. Which of the
rearrangement?
a) A
d) F

b) E
e) C
c) D

rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) F
64. Which of the following should be the Sixth (Last) sentence
rearrangement?
b) C
c) D
a) B
d) E
e) F
after

rearrangement?
c) C
b) B
a) A
d) E
e) F
A. A group of media persons have now taken the responsibility of
educating people regarding the reality shows.
B. This is because these shows are said to be staged, fabricated and
directed to improve TRPs.
C. The reality shows on TV have been attracting a huge viewership
recently.
D. Owing to their efforts, the public has now realized the truth behind
reality shows and such shows are fast losing their hold.
E. Though the name infers real viewers are being exposed to a lot of
unreal content.
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F. The public however is drawn to such contents of the reality shows

unaware of this fabrication.
rearrangement?
a) C
b) B
c) E
d) F
e) D
rearrangement?
b) D
c) C
a) B
d) E
e) A
after

rearrangement?
b) C
c) D
a) A
d) E
e) F
69. Which of the following should be the sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) F
d) D
e) A
Directions (Q. 71-75) In each of the following questions, rearrange the
given sentences A, B, C and D and indicate the correct sequence in which
these sentences must appear so as to make a meaningful paragraph.
71. A. By increasing these connections the intelligence is also increased.
B. Classical music has been proved to be very helpful in child
development.
C. Many doctors now-a-days use it for therapeutic purposes which are
based upon the findings of this research.
D. The research has demonstrated that listening to classical music
increases the rate of nervous connections in brain.
a) BDCA
b) DBAC
c) ACBD
d) BDAC
e) BCAD
72. A. This right however comes along with the responsibility which the
press is forced to work with.
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B. It means that the pressmen have every right to expose matters related
to public and national interest.
C. Such responsibilities include not broadcasting matters related to
national security and other sensitive issues.
D. Freedom of press is symbolic of democracy.
a) DBCA
b) DBAC
c) ABCD
d) BDAC
e) BCDA
73. A. A popular example of this damage is the Taj Mahal whose marble
has been corroded due to acid rain.
B. It changes the acidic content of water bodies thus affecting the lives
of the living organisms of this habitat.
C. Acid rain has been a major factor responsible for the degradation of
the environment.
D. Along with affecting the living beings, it is also responsible for the
corrosion of several heritage building thus causing irreparable damages
to them.
a) CBAD
b) CDBA
c) BADC
d) BDAC
e) CBDA
74. A. Along with missing their education these children also face life
threatening dangers by working in hazardous chemical factories.
B. Child labor has been interfering with the education of millions of
children across India.
C. However, there is a dire need to reinforce these laws strictly
throughout the country.
D. Many laws have been framed in order to curb this evil.
a) BADC
b) CBAD
c) DBAC
d) BDAC
e) BACD
75. A. Their invention has been proved to be a boon to the society since
many diseases caused by the microbes could be cured by these
anibiotics.
B. The scientists therefore face a continuous challenge to keep
inventing new drugs to counter this problem.
C. A major hurdle in the use of antibiotics, however, is that the
microbes develop resistance to the antibiotics thus rendering these
ineffective.
D. Antibiotics are chemical substances produced by microbes which are
capable of inhibiting the growth of other microbes.
a) BACD
b) CBAD
c) DABC
d) DACB
e) ABDC
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A. Had it been not for them, Indian banks would have had their hands tied
down.
B. Today, almost all the countries are facing the heat of recession.
C. One of these is the strict RBI and SEBI rules which regulated banking
sector very efficiently.
D. This could have led to massive losses to them, which could have
percolated to other sectors as well.
E. However, there are a few things which help India in bouncing back
from the state of recession.
F. Like others, India too has not remained immune to the epidemic.
76. Which of the
rearrangement?
a) A
d) F

b) E
e) C
c) D

rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) F
rearrangement?
b) E
c) D
a) A
d) B
e) F
after

rearrangement?
b) C
c) A
a) B
d) E
e) F
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A. However while reading they would not know when to pause and what to
emphasize.
B. Since then their use has been regularized and the punctuation rules have
been followed by all.
C. In earlier days, people learnt by reading out loud.
D. But not everybody used the same punctuations for the same thing.
E. To address this problem, various signs depicting various punctuations
were introduced.
F. Thus firmer guidelines regarding punctuations were framed so that
everyone used them in similar way.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) F
82. Which of the
rearrangement?
a) A
d) F

b) E
e) C
c) D

rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) A
d) E
e) F
rearrangement?
c) D
b) E
a) C
d) B
e) F
after

rearrangement?
b) B
c) C
a) A
d) D
e) E
(D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and
A. For instance, if we measure the room temperature continuously and plot
its graph with time on X-axis and temperature on the Y-axis, we get a
continuous waveform, which is an analog signal. Analog is always
continuous.
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B. The absence or presence of something can be used to plot a digital

signal.
C. An analog signal is a continuously varying signal, similar to a
sinusoidal waveform.
D. Any signal can be classified into one of the two types: analog and
digital.
E. In contrast, a digital signal takes the form of pulses, where we have
something or nothing.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as
those offered by private or foreign corporates.
B. This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why
employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in
India and abroad.
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C. Public Sector Enterprises have been experiencing severe challenges in

attracting, motivating and retaining their key staff.
D. Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is
important to empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the
situation.
E. One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are
more willing to undertake professional risks.
F. Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly
difficult to retain.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. Assuming that all these reasons are true, the fact remains that there is an
urgent need to check the accelerated costs and initiate suitable
measures.
B. Some people attribute it to the increasing greediness among the
medicos.
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C. The impact of these measures will be visible only after a considerable

passage of time.
D. Health care costs have been skyrocketing in our country.
E. The measures include yoga classes with emphasis on physical and
mental exercises and also change in food habits.
F. Certain others feel that it is because of drastic changes in peoples
lifestyle and eating habits.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
97. Which of the following should be the sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
100.
Which of the following should be the Sixth (Last) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. However this is too narrow a definition for India.
B. Most often economic refer to opening the economy in terms of trade
and investment and tax cuts.
C. The sooner action is initiated the faster India will be able to attain its
targeted growth rate.
D. This is a standard definition of economic reforms and may be applicable
to most countries.
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E. Economic reforms in India have to extend to reforming the public

sector, transport, power, agriculture and infrastructure among other
sectors.
F. To identify these sectors and the necessary reforms required, there is a
need for new thought leadership.
101.
Which of the following should be the First sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
102.
Which of the following should be the Fifth sentence after
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
103.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
104.
Which of the following should be the Third sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
105.
Which of the following should be the Second sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. Irrespective of hierarchical level, he would give undivided attention to
those who voiced ideas.
B. He would then ask him some probing questions and turn to his senior
most manager to get these ideas implemented.
C. What set him apart from other industrialists was that he was not
interested in demonstrating his power over his employees.
D. This is a prime example of how he fostered the participation of
everyone in the organisation.
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E. For example he would typically look intently at a young engineer

presenting his ideas.
F. Instead he thought of himself as one of the team.
106.
Which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
107.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
108.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
109.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
110.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. In fact, he believed that customers are the origin, the source of the
money we have.
B. The customer thus has the power to fire everybody in the company from
the Chairman on down.
C. Management can ensure this doesnt happen by motivating employees
to cultivate meaningful relationships with customers.
D. Sam Walton built his Walmart business empire knowing there was only
one boss the customer.
E. So it is not the company which pays us but the customer.
F. He can achieve this by simply spending his money elsewhere.
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111.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
112.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) F
113.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
114.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
115.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
A. There are various ways to reduce this gap.
B. However as the success of the telecom, airline and banking industries
shows it is not these but competition among educational institutions
which is the solution.
C. Today, there is a huge demand in industry for taltnted youth with
certain skill sets.
D. Feedback from industry indicates that the reason for this trend is a huge
gap between the skill sets required in the market and the education
system output.
E. Many recommend privatization or corporatisation of the education
system.
F. Despite this there is a trend of many graduates including engineers
being unemployed.
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116.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
117.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
118.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) F
e) E
119.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
120.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. He, then hid nearby to watch and see who would remove it.
B. He saw a purse full of gold lying in the middle of the road. It was the
kings reward to the person who did something about the problem.
C. The king was tired of his subjects only complaining but doing nothing
to solve their problems.
D. A youth on his way to market saw the stone, put down his produce and
rolled the stone to the side of the road.
E. Many people passed by but dodged their duty of moving the stone
instead blaming the king for not keeping the highways clear.
F. One day he placed a heavy stone in the middle of the road.
121.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
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122.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
123.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
124.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
125.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
A. Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as
those offered by private or foreign corporates.
B. This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why
employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies on
India and abroad.
C. Public Sector Enterprises have been experiencing severe challenges in
attracting, motivating and retaining their key staff.
D. Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is
important to empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the
situation.
E. One reason is that young employees lured away by private firms are
more willing to undertake professional risks.
F. Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly
difficult to retain.
126.
Which of the following should be the Last (Sixth) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
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127.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
128.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
129.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
130.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. But it is normal for rates to vary somewhat.
B. The rate at which these actions emerge is sometimes a worry for
parents.
C. As a child grows, his or her nervous system becomes more mature.
D. Having said that variation is normal, nearly al children begin to exhibit
certain motor skills at a fairly consistent rate unless some type of
disability is present.
E. As this happens, the child becomes more and more capable of
performing increasingly complex actions.
F. Hence, they frequently fret about whether or not their children are
developing these skills at a normal rate.
131.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
132.
rearrangement?
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a) A
d) D
b) B
e) E
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c) C
133.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
134.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) F
d) D
e) E
135.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) D
c) B
d) F
e) E
A. If China is the Worlds factory, India has become the
Worlds
outsourcing centre-keeping in line with this image.
B. But, Indias future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully in
the creative economy not just in tech and software, but across design
and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment and the knowledge
based professions of medicine, finance and law.
C. While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors,
India must address several challenges to increase its international
competitiveness as the World is in the midst of a sweeping
transformation.
D. This transformation is evident in the fact that the World is moving from
an industrial economy to a creative economy that generates wealth by
harnessing intellectual labor, intangible goods and human creative
capabilities.
E. Its software industry is the Worlds second largest, its tech outsourcing
accounts for more than half of the $300 bn global industry, according to
a technology expert.
F. If the meeting of World leaders at Davos is any indication, India is
rapidly becoming an economic rock star.
136.
rearrangement?
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a) A
d) D
b) B
e) E
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c) C
137.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
138.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) F
e) E
139.
rearrangement?
a) F
b) B
c) C
d) A
e) E
140.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
(D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. But seriously, how much would you pay to know what thoughts are
swimming around in someone elses head?
B. In most fictional movies thus, the idea of reading minds of seeing the
private intentions of another, and the possibility of intervening in those
plans has always been highly attractive.
C. Such fantastical questions have long been the bread and butter of
fiction.
D. Today, more than four centuries since the phrase, A penny for your
thoughts?, was first recorded, inflationary accounting makes that
ancient penny worth more than $40.
E. The going rate for a thought a probe into the thinking of another
was once quite a bargain.
F. And if you could really know their truthfulness how much more would
you pay?
G. Even with the sliding value of the dollar, this still seems quite a bargain.
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141.
rearrangement?
a) F
b) D
c) C
d) G
e) A
142.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) G
d) D
e) F
143.
Which of the following should be the Sixth sentence after
rearrangement?
a) E
b) G
c) C
d) B
e) A
144.
Which of the following should be the Seventh (Last) sentence
a) A
b) B
c) F
d) D
e) E
145.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. Therefore, it is important to source a large part of economic growth in
agriculture, in rural non-agricultural activities and in productive
expansion of the informal sector which all have high employment
elasticities, as well as in an export strategy based on labor intensive
exports.
B. It is important because it creates more resources and has the potential of
creating more space for the involvement of the poor.
C. If the growth is sourced upon those sectors of the economy or those
activities that have a natural tendency to involve the poor in their
expansion, such growth helps poverty eradication.
D. Economic growth is important.
E. But this involvement depends on the sources of growth and the nature
of growth.
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146.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
147.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A
148.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
149.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A
150.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. What a waste of my tax money, I thought, walking past the people
having free Californian Chardonnay.
B. Speak to her, he said, Shes into books.
C. The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticing her.
D. In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that
the US Consulate was hosting a Gallo drinking appreciation event.
E. Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short
woman was dancing around him.
151.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
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152.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
153.
Which of the following should be the Fifth (Last) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
154.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
155.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. While the reference point for the former is the state, for the latter its
society.
B. Indias strategic community comprises two distinct circles with little
overlap.
C. Consequently, mainstream strategists have an external orientation to
their discourse, concentrating on high politics, the latter is more internal
oriented.
D. Their prescriptions too are understandably poles apart and thus, the
state, to which both their commentary is directed, has to play balancer,
and ends up being at the receiving end of criticism from both sides.
E. Out of the two, one can be termed the mainstream and the other
alternate.
F. To further elaborate on the external and internal concept while one is
enamoured of Indias rise and place in the global order, the other is
more sensitive to its vulnerabilities and inadequacies.
156.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A
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157.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
158.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A
159.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
160.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
A. Building of these structures requires a lot of fuel to be burnt which
emits a large amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B. The major source of carbon dioxide is power plants.
C. Another 20% of carbon dioxide emitted in the atmosphere comes from
burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
D. Buildings, both commercial and residential represent a larger source of
global warming pollution than the said cars and trucks.
E. The major cause of global warming is the emission of green house gases
like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide etc. into the atmosphere.
F. These power plants emit large amounts of carbon dioxide produced
from burning of fossil fuels for the purpose of electricity generation.
161.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A
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162.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
163.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
164.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
165.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) D
c) C
d) B
e) A
A. Increased competition, globalization and the need which once held the
fort.
B. In order to achieve these hype and sensationalism is put in to spice up
the newswhich have robbed news stories of credibility.
C. This is only possible if a lot more thought is put into the gathering and
presentation of the daily news and delivering it much more sensitively
to its receivers/users.
D. Technological innovation and economic change have transformed the
news industry to the extent where its original definition as a public
service no longer holds good.
E. In order to win it back, the media should make full use of the
tremendous power that the democracy blesses it with.
F. These included public good and social responsibility. But sadly, today,
these have made way for a business target of commercial viability and a
chase of viewership.
166.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
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167.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) E
c) D
d) F
e) C
168.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) E
d) C
e) F
169.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
170.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) F
A. The Reserve Bank of India which had last intervened in the foreign
exchange market in June 2009, was seen buying dollars to stem the
rupees runaway appreciation.
B. The bank had for so long resisted a rate increase, but finally toed the
line of other banks as its cost of funds has gone up.
C. The local currency recently rose to a 25 month high against the dollar
on sustained capital inflows.
D. Some interesting things have happened in the Indian financial system in
the past few weeks.
E. The RBI also announced a Rs.12000 Crore buy back of government
bonds from the market to infuse money into a liquidity starved banking
system.
F. Finally, the State Bank of India, the nations largest lender, has raised
its minimum lending rate, or base rate, by 10 basis points. (One basis
point is one-hundredth of a percentage point)
171.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) A
c) D
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d) E
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e) F
172.
Which of the following should be the Sixth (last) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) A
173.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
174.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) A
e) E
175.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
A. It is therefore, a contributing factor to the growth of landfills and
waterway pollution, both of which are costly and energy intensive to
solve.
B. Making an effort to use those resources and avoid polystyrene ones can
help to decrease your environmental impact.
C. Non-biodegradable essentially means that any polystyrene that makes
its way into a landfill will stay there indefinitely, never breaking down
and returning to the earth.
D. Polystyrene, as a product, is very convenient to use, but it has some
important effects we should consider when making choices as
consumers.
E. While recycling polystyrene material can cushion the environmental
blow of its use, alternatives are available that are created from
renewable resources and biodegrade more readily.
F. For example, while polystyrene has some excellent uses and is,
technically, recyclable, it is not a substance that biodegrades.
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176.
Which of the following should be the Last (Sixth) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
177.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) F
c) A
d) D
e) B
178.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
179.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
180.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
A. In fact according to mainstream economists it is inevitable and a
necessary evil in any economy.
B. It is thus important for every nation to maintain this reserve of labor
force to maintain an optimal level of unemployment.
C. Unemployment is popularly believed to be an index which measures the
economic condition of a nation.
D. This is because it helps avert inflation by providing a reserve army of
labor which keeps wages in check.
E. The problem, however, only emerges when governments indirectly
facilitate unemployment in order to curb inflation through various
policies and frameworks, depriving a large population of its
fundamental rights.
F. But contrary to popular belief unemployment is not always
disadvantageous to the economy of a state.
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181.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
182.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
183.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
184.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) F
185.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) E
c) D
d) F
e) C
(D), (E), (F), (G) and (H) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
A. During the examination the invigilator noticed the chits and despite
Rajeshs plea for innocence asked him to leave the examination hall.
B. At this point Ravish realised his mistake and felt guilty, so he
immediately confessed his misdeed to the invigilator and left the
examination hall.
C. Rajesh forgave Ravish because Ravish had not only accepted his
mistake on time but also had not let Rajesh be punished for the wrong
reason.
D. Ravish and Rajesh were in college and had been friends since
childhood. However, Ravish did not trust Rajesh.
E. Another student Satish who had seen Ravish hiding something in
Rajeshs desk stood up and informed the invigilator of what he had
seen.
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F. One day Ravish decided to test Rajeshs friendship and so during one of
the college examinations Ravish went early to class and hid some chits
in Rajeshs desk.
G. Rajesh did not believe Satish, instead was furious that Satish had falsely
blamed his friend and agreed that he would leave his examination only
if Ravish was kept out of the matter.
H. After the examination was over Ravish apologized to Rajesh and
promised that he would be a good friend from then onwards.
186.
rearrangement?
a) G
b) H
c) E
d) D
e) C
187.
rearrangement?
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G
188.
Which of the following should be the Eighth (Last) sentence
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
189.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
190.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) G
d) F
e) E
(D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
A. Japanese toys, for instance, are in great demand despite the heavy
import duty.
B. The toys that they produce are almost without exception of the poorest
quality.
C. Their manufacturers here need to be reminded of this.
D. The two toy libraries in Mumbai also rely largely on foreign made toys.
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E. But making them is no childs play.

F. Toys are meant for children.
G. Not surprisingly, many parents prefer to buy the imported variety even
though these are usually much more expensive.
191.
rearrangement?
a) C
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) G
192.
Which of the following should be the Last sentence after
rearrangement?
a) C
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) G
193.
rearrangement?
a) E
b) G
c) A
d) F
e) B
194.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) E
c) C
d) D
e) A
195.
rearrangement?
a) F
b) E
c) C
d) D
e) B
A. I, therefore, contacted him, found out his fees and that he wanted to
study at a Teachers Training College.
B. He sent me a letter of thanks but I was surprised also to find some
currency notes in the envelope.
C. While reading the newspaper, I saw an interview with a boy who had
ranked eighth in the SSC exams.
D. He knew I did not expect any account of the money, yet he had returned
the balance of the amount I had sent, as his expenditure was less.
E. He was unable to study further because his father earned only forty
rupees a day.
Page 189
F. I, accordingly, sent Rs.1800 to cover his expenses for six months.

196.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
197.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
198.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
199.
rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
200.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option D
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15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option E
Option C
Option E
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option E
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option E
Option A
Option A
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option A
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59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option E
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103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option C
Option A
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option E
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option E
Option C
Option D
Option E
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option E
Option D
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147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option C
Option E
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option E
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option E
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option E
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option D
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191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
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Option A
Option C
Option D
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option E
Option D
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Chapter 6
Grammatical Errors
Directions (Q. 1-5) Read this sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error,
mark No error as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation if any).
1. Attributing rise in inflation partly for withholding of food stocks by
traders/the minister said that/he was committed/to easing this supply
side bottleneck.
a) Attributing rise in inflation partly for withholding of food stocks by
traders
b) The minister said that
c) He was committed
d) To easing this supply side bottleneck.
e) No error
2. Indias largest utility vehicle and tractor maker/is again in the race to
acquire/for stake in Swedish company/which is a premium car maker.
a) Indias largest utility vehicle and tractor maker
b) Is again in the race to acquire
c) For stake in Swedish company
d) Which a premium car maker
e) No error
3. With sale of branded or premium petrol becoming almost nil/due to
high duties,/a government appointed panel has recommended/slashing
excise duty to make them at par with regular fuel.
a) With sale of branded or premium petrol becoming almost nil
b) Due to high duties
c) A government appointed panel has recommended
d) Slashing excise duty to make them at par with regular fuel
e) No error
4. Keeping in mind/that power cuts are on different days in different
areas/the change in the factory law would enable individual factories
within an area/to determining their own weekly holidays.
a) Keeping in mind
b) That power cuts are on different days in different areas
c) The change in the factory law would enable individual factories
within an area
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d) To determining their own weekly holidays

e) No error
5. Police officers have refused on identify the bystander,/who is the only
eyewitness to the crime,/but have said that the investigating team would
explore/if he could be a witness in the case.
a) Police officers have refused on identify the bystander
b) Who is the only eyewitness to the crime
c) But have said that the investigating team would explore
d) If he could be a witness in the case
e) No error
6. Mangal Pandey was well known (a) / because he was involved (b) / in
the initial stages (c) / of the Indian rebellion. (d) / No error (e)
7. Most of the Indian populations still lives (a) / in its villages and thus the
contribution of (b) / agriculture to Indian economy (c) / becomes very
important. (d) / No error (e)
8. Catherines grandfather always (a) / lost his balance while walking (b) /
and would be found fallen (c) / on the road. (d) / No error (e)
9. Her doctor was (a) / annoyed because she (b) / ignore her health (c) /
even after being hospitalised twice. (d) No error (e)
10. Raghav was worry (a) / about telling his parents (b) / that he wanted to
move out (c) / and live independently. / (d) No error (e)
11. (a) France is one of the wealthiest economy in the world, (b) home to
leaders in aviation, insurance, banking, tourism (c) and retail and is
known for its (d) fine cuisine and appellation-controlled wines. (e) No
error
12. (a) The fashion is becoming a global game now, (b) where the label
may originate in one country, (c) chief designer from another country,
(d) the owner investor from third nation (e) No error
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13. (a) In India, for over a decade now, (b) Ermenegildo Zegna has had a
successful (c) run with its stand alone stores (d) In Delhi, Mumbai and
Hyderabad. (e) No error
14. (a) The final outcome of Indias first environmental referendum is not
yet known (b) but the very fact that it is taking place (c) in the thick
forested and remote region of Niyamgiri (d) provides a small glimmer
of hope. (e) No error
15. (a) The court ordered the seizure of his properties (b) and gave him (c)
an additional 10 years in jail (d) for misuse of power. (e) No error
16. I am grateful to you (a) / and all your friends (b) / for they showed
sympathy (c) / and kindness towards me. (d) / No error (e)
17. While he was (a) / walking along the road (b) / a speeding car (c) /
knocked down to him. (d) No error (e)
18. Though none of his, (a) / so-called well-wishers forwarded to help (b) /
I helped him by (c) / completing his work on time. (d) / No error (e)
19. From the way he was talking (a) / it was clear (b) / that he had (c) / no
control on himself. (d) No error (e)
20. Your over-dependent on (a) / others even for (b) / trivial matters may
(c) / prove disadvantageous. (d) / No error (e)
21. He was awfully dissatisfy (a) / with the arrangements (b) / made for him
(c) / by the security guards. (d) / No error (e)
22. I wanted to be (a) / out of the way (b) / when she was (c) / likely for
receiving the letter. (d) / No error (e)
23. We have rarely come (a) / across any programme, (b) / which does not
show (c) / violent in some from. (d) / No error (e)
24. A lot of people (a) / have involved in (b) / the national mission (c) / to
eradicate illiteracy. (d) / No error (e)
25. They failed in (a) / their plan only because (b) / they could not (c) / give
timely attention to it. (d) / No error (e)
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26. Development of the (a) / agriculture sector being (b) / agricultural sector
being (b) / the main focus of (c) / the government today. (d) / No error
(e)
27. Every citizen is (a) / required to follow scrupulous (b) / all the rules and
regulations (c) / prescribed by the government. (d) / No error (e)
28. They have donated (a) / large sums of money (b) / for the welfare of (c)
/ the poor and the underprivileged. (d) / No error (e)
29. He asked me what (a) / my role in conducting (b) / the seminar for the
(c) / participants of different countries was. (d) / No error (e)
30. Mr.Arya who is a (a) / renowned economist has (b) / been appointed to
(c) / an advisor to the minister. (d) / No error (e)
31. The principle that (a) / a pen is mightier (b) / then a sword (c) / was
known to early Greeks. (d) No error (e)
32. Martha missed her dog (a) / who died of a (b) / skin infection at a (c) /
very young age. (d) No error (e)
33. There was such (a) / a crowd that (b) / he would not (c) / find his
brother. (d) No error (e)
34. Having managed the (a) / team of two (b) / years, he knew (c) / his
players well. (d) No error (e)
35. Because of heavy (a) / rains the trains (b) / are disable to (c) / run on
time. (d) No error (e)
36. The revised governments (a) / guidelines have reduced (b) / the number
of mergers (c) / taking place among banks. (d) No error (e)
37. I do not know (a) / who of the (b) / new trainees should (c) / be
confirmed. (d) No error (e)
38. To promote India as (a) / a tourist destination (b) / the government has
organized (c) / many cultural programmes. (d) / No error (e)
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39. Banks in India (a) / cannot open ATMs (b) / except obtaining (c) /
approval from RBI. (d) No error (e)
40. Today the success of (a) / companies depends on the (b) / quality of
their products and (c) / efficient managing staff. (d) / No error (e)
41. Some of our staff is worried (a) / that as soon as (b) / the project is over
they (c) / will lose their jobs. (d) No error (e)
42. If you decide to hold (a) / the function in Kolkata (b) / not much of us
(c) / will be able to attend. (d) No error (e)
43. In case you need five people (a) / to run a branch you (b) / should be
selected (c) / ten since some may leave. (d) No error (e)
44. Although he approached (a) / many private businesses to invest (b) / in
his printing business (c) / nobody of them was interested. (d) No error
(e)
45. How can you give up (a) / this job when you are (b) / just about to be (c)
/ appointed for General Manager. (d) No error (e)
46. Governments and businesses must reduce (a) / its own energy use (b) /
and promote conservation (c) / to their citizens and employees. (d) No
error (e)
47. If the allegations (a) / made against him (b) / are found to be true (c) /
he could face rigorous imprisonment. (d) No error (e)
48. Having acquired some experience (a) / she is no longer (b) / one of
those who believes (c) / every explanation she is given. (d) No error (e)
49. On discovering that (a) / it was a forgery (b) / he torn up the agreement
(c) / he had signed. (d) No error (e)
50. With regard to implementation the (a) / details of the proposal (b) / the
committee was divided (c) / in its opinion. (d) / No error (e)
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51. She considered herself (a) / very fortunated to (b) / have had a (c) / very
good education. (d) No error (e)
52. A lot number of people (a) / donate money to the organisation (b) / at
this time (c) / of the year. (d) No error (e)
53. The leader of the opposition (a) / is in the danger (b) / of lost his seat (c)
/ in the next elections. (d) No error (e)
54. He is the same (a) / ice-cream vendor (b) / which sold ice-creams (c) /
when we were kids. (d) No error (e)
55. The police received (a) / tremendous support from (b) / the general
public (c) / over that issue. (d) No error (e)
56. Farmers will be (a) / entitled to fresh (b) / agricultural loans (c) / from
July onward. (d) No error (e)
57. Today there is (a) / over one billion (b) / people living in poverty (c) / in
developing countries. (d) No error (e)
58. There is no need (a) / to import maize (b) / since there is (c) / any
demand for it. (d) No error (e)
59. Accordingly their policies (a) / banks write off (b) / banks write off (c) /
outstanding amounts (c) / in NPA accounts. (d) No error (e)
60. In order to (a) / be profitable (b) / a company needs (c) / to control its
costs. (d) No error (e)
61. Our housing society comprises (a) / six block and thirty flats (b) / in an
area of (c) / about thousand square metres. (d) No error (e)
62. Still remaining in the ancient castle (a) / are the Dukes collection of
early Dutch paintings (b) / which will be (c) donated to a museum. (d)
No error (e)
63. Computer education (a) / in universities and colleges today (b) / leaves
much (c) / to be desired. (d) No error (e)
64. Everyone knows (a) / that the tiger (b) / is faster (c) / of all animals. (d)
No error (e)
65. When he (a) / had got what (b) / he wanted (c) he has gone home. (d)
No error (e)
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66. One of the basics of good writing (a) / is to have a (b) / clear
understanding of the target audience (c) / and its requirements. (d) No
error (e)
67. Radha with (a) / her brothers (b) / and sisters (c) / are present here. (d)
No error (e)
68. The language used for writing text books (a) / differs from other forms
of writing (b) / in its preference on (c) / simplicity over style. (d) No
error (e)
69. He is one of the (a) / most intelligent (b) student (c) / I have every
taught. (d) No error (e)
70. This road is (a) / worst than (b) / any other road (c) / of the city. (d) No
error (e)
71. Governments and businesses must reduce (a) / its own energy use (b) /
and promote conservation (c) / to their citizens and employees. (d) No
error (e)
72. If the allegations (a) / made against him (b) / are found to be true (c) /
he could face rigorous imprisonment. (d) No error (e)
73. Mangal Pandey was well known (a) / because he was involved (b) / in
the initial stages (c) / of the Indian rebellion. (d) / No error (e)
74. On discovering that (a) / it was a forgery (b) / he torn up the agreement
(c) / he had signed. (d) No error (e)
75. Our housing society comprises (a) / six block and thirty flats (b) / in an
area of (c) / about thousand square metres. (d) No error (e)
76. Mr.Singhs son has applied (a) / to the post (b) / of Assistant Manager
(c) / in a construction company. (d) No error (e)
77. He submitted (a) / the request for compensation (b) / of time but (c) / it
was denied. (d) No error (e)
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78. Unfortunately today many (a) / parents cannot afford (b) / to send its (c)
children to school. (d) No error (e)
79. He was convinced (a) / that he (b) / loss the account (c) / because of bad
luck. (d) No error (e)
80. In his opinion (a) / every senior citizens (b) / will benefit (c) / from the
new rule. (d) No error (e)
81. I was pretty sure that (a) / he would support me (b) / for changing the
age-old (c) / and static structure of our organization. (d) No error (e)
82. The interrogation made by (a) / him hardly yield (b) / any can create
conclusion (c) / about the crime. (d) No error (e)
83. Jayesh loved his Guru immensely (a) / and gave him fullest loyalty, (b) /
yet he had his own (c) / independent way of thinking. (d) No error (e)
84. I caught him (a) / from the hand (b) / and began (c) / to plead. (d) No
error (e)
85. If you have good (a) / control over breathing (b) / you can float (c) / on
water effortlessly. (d) No error (e)
86. Such an act of cruelty (a) / had never (b) / be committed (c) / before. (d)
No error (e)
87. The girl said (a) / that she preferred (b) / the blue gown (c) / than the
black one. (d) No error (e)
88. Being a very cold day (a) / I would (b) / not go out for (c) / a morning
walk. (d) No error (e)
89. The principle that (a) / a pen is mightier (b) / then a sword (c) / was
known to early Greeks. (d) No error (e)
90. During the course of the exhibition, (a) / the old man who was (b) /
looking usually cheerful (c) / kept on take notes. (d) No error (e)
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91. No country can long endure (a) / if its foundations (b) were not laid
deep (c) / in the material prosperity. (d) No error (e)
92. I went to the liberarian and Cashier (a) / and they gave me (b) / all
facilities required (c) / to complete the project. (d) No error (e)
93. When she comes (a) / to see us (b) / she usually were bring (c) /
somethings with her. (d) No error (e)
94. Why did you (a) / not told me (b) / that the meeting (c) / was postponed.
(d) No error (e)
95. He picked up (a) / the books (b) / and put it (c) / on the table. (d) No
error (e)
96. Many multinational companies (a) / have not been as (b) / successful in
India (c) / than we expected. (d) No error (e)
97. He has ruined (a) / his eyesight (b) / by not using (c) / his spectacles
regularly. (d) No error (e)
98. Mostly of the (a) / newly recruited officers (b) / have no experience (c) /
in the banking sector. (d) No error (e)
99. The resignation of (a) / one of our Directors (b) / have caused the price
(c) / of shares to fall. (d) No error (e)
100.
There are many (a) / ways of which (b) / inflation can (c) / be
measured. (d) No error (e).
101.
Base on the research (a) / we have conducted in (b) / different
parts of the country (c) / this scheme will be successful. (d) No error (e)
102.
I want to share (a) / my experience with you (b) / though you
will (c) / benefit from it. (d) No error (e)
103.
He used to advise (a) / his students to do (b) / their work serious
if they (c) / wanted to achieve their goals. (d) No error (e)
104.
Any of these branches do (a) / not require more than (b) / two
employees since they (c) / have been recently established. (d) No error
(e)
105.
He encouraged us to (a) / think but none of the (b) / suggestions
we made was (c) / discussed at the meeting. (d) No error (e)
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106.
Our countrys performance (a) / in the last few national and
international games (b) / is fairly ordinary (c) / and below our stature.
(d) No error (e)
107.
We have (a) / fairly standard accounting procedures (b) / that
are on the line (c) / with the internationally accepted norms. (d) No error
(e)
108.
The company is negotiating (a) / new store launches (b) / at
nearby (c) / half the rent (d) No error (e)
109.
Intense fear blocks (a) / both to the generation (b) / and
expression (c) / of ideas (d) No error (e)
110.
The Government officials have been met (a) / heads of
commercial Banks later this week (b) / to get their views on liquidity (c)
/ and growth in deposits (d) No error (e)
111.
The Government has asked individuals (a) / with income of
over Rs.10 Lakh to (b) / electronic file tax returns for the year 2011-12,
(c) / something which was optional till last year. (d) No error (e)
112.
The power tariff had already (a) / been increased twice in (b) /
the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had also (c) / levied
additionalmonthly charges to consumers. (d) No error (e)
113.
Despite of curfew (a) / in some areas, minor (b) / communal
incidents were reported (c) / from different areas of the walled city. (d)
No error (e)
114.
This comes (a) / at a time (b) / when fund allocation (c) / is
been doubled (d) No error (e)
115.
As the prison will get (a) / an official telephone facility soon,
the prisoners (b) / wont have to make calls in discreet manner (c) /
through smuggled mobile phones. (d) No error (e)
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116.
The ban of Indian hockey today is (a) / lack of interest by the
part of the public (b) / which in turn is fuelled by the perception that (c)
/ it doesnt pay to take up the sport as a career. (d) No error (e)
117.
Illegal sand mining has become (a) / a boom business fuelled
(b) / by the ever-increasing demand (c) / of the construction industry.
(d) / No error (e)
118.
Much is the inflow of travelers that (a) / it is tough to book an
air ticket (b) / to Ahmedabad and the international flights (c) / too are
almost over-booked. (d) No error (e)
119.
Experts believe that a (a) / gradually decreasing infant mortality
rate (b) / is lead to a proportionate (c) / decrease in the size of our
brains. (d) No error (e)
120.
In just two months after having (a) / planted these, most of the
plants have (b) / either dried up and are suffering (c) / due to lack of
maintenance. (d) No error (e)
121.
Inception of regional rural banks can be (a) / seen as a unique
experiment as well as (b) / an experience in improvement the efficacy of
(c) / rural credit delivery mechanism in India. (d) No error (e)
122.
In rural areas, often (a) / on small family farms, it is (b) /
difficulty to improve ones standard of (c) / living beyond basic
sustenance. (d) No error (e)
123.
People, especially the elderly, (a) / are often forced to move to
cities (b) / where there are hospitals that can (c) / cater for their health
needs. (d) No error (e)
124.
In modern times industrialization of agriculture (a) / has
negative affected the economy (b) / of small and middle-sized farms
and has strongly (c) / reduced the size of the rural labour market. (d) No
error (e)
125.
A national survey of rural health care providers (a) / was
undertaken to identify (b) / their perceptions of the (c) / environmental
health issues faced their constituents. (d) No error (e)
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126.
The President has denied (a) / that the economy is in recession
(b) / or was go into one (c) / despite a spate of downcast reports. (d) No
error (e)
127.
The angry at being (a) / left out of the bonanza (b) / is palpable
among (c) / employees of the organization. (d) / No error (e)
128.
His comments came after (a) / the research group said that its
(b) / consumer confidence index were (c) / slumped to its lowest level.
(d) No error (e)
129.
If all goes well (a) / the examination scheduled for next month
(b) / is all set to be completely free (c) / from annoying power cuts and
disruptions. (d) No error (e)
130.
There are just too few trains (a) / for the ever-grow (b) number
of passengers (c) / in the city. (d) No error (e)
131.
The Director prefers (a) / your plan than (b) / that given by (c) /
the other members of the committee. (d) No error (e)
132.
I always prefer (a) / working in a relaxed atmosphere (b) / than
one full of (c) / tension and anxiety. (d) No error (e)
133.
You should not discuss (a) / about a matter (b) / with friends
who are likely (c) / to find it offensive. (d) No error (e)
134.
Having to stay (a) / in the jungle that night, (b) / they had
nothing (c) / to feed at. (d) No error (e)
135.
The student (a) / answered to (b) / the question (c) / asked by
the inspector of school. (d) No error (e)
136.
Dress in black (a) / several students from the Univesity took
part (b) / in a protest march in the city on Thursday as part (c) / of a
campaign against female infanticide. (d) No error (e)
137.
On the second day of the workshop, (a) / participants does a
situational analysis of the state (b) / and spoke about their plan of action
(c) / for implementing the Act. (d) No error (e)
138.
The Court has asked the authorities (a) / to take appropriate
steps to restore natural water resources (b) / so that the water shortage
problem (c) / in the state can be solved. (d) No error (e)
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139.
The poor experience in (a) / neighbouring countries which have
implemented (b) / food stamp programmes should serve as (c) / a
deterrent on our country (d) No error (e)
140.
The Government has warned (a) / that air pollution from
vehicles and power stations (b) / is reducding life expectancy in the
country (c) / in an average of six months. (d) No error (e)
141.
The right to adequate food (a) / and clean drinking water (b) /
should be regarded as a (c) / basic right of all citizens of India (d) No
error (e)
142.
A sharp fall in (a) / international prices of tea (b) / have lead
Tea plantation workers (c) / in Kerala to face starvation. (d) No error (e)
143.
In spite freedom of the press is vital to democracy (a) / the thin
line between reporting facts (b) / and expressing opinions on them (c) /
is being increasingly crossed. (d) No error (e)
144.
In India, the teacher has been elevated (a) / to a position of
power (b) / and a part of that power has been (c) / to assuming the right
to punish the students (d) No error (e)
145.
In the flying game, there are a host of (a) / new low-cost airlines
that dare to roar, (b) / providing a glimmer of hope of (c) / more
cheapper air transport to millions. (d) No error (e)
146.
Sugar sweetened drinks does not (a) / pose any particular health
risk, and (b) / are not a unique risk factor (c) / for obesity or heart
disease. (d) No error (e)
147.
Airline managements should note (a) / that the ultimate
passenger unfriendliness (b) / is to have their planes crash (c) / due to
the adopted of unsafe procedures. (d) No error (e)
148.
Celebrating its ten long years (a) / in the industry, a private
entertainment channel (b) / announce a series of (c) / programmes at a
press conference. (d) No error (e)
149.
The award ceremony ended (a) / on a note of good cheer (b) /
with audiences responding warmly (c) / to its line up of films. (d) No
error (e)
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150.
The actress was ordered for (a) / wear an alcohol monitoring
bracelet and (b) submit to random weekly drug testing after (c) / she
failed to appear for a court date last week. (d) No error (e)
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option E
Option A
Option A
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option A
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option B
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option B
Option A
Option B
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38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option E
Option B
Option B
Option E
Option D
Option D
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option B
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option B
Option C
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82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option B
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option E
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option A
Option E
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option E
Option C
Option D
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126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option D
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option A
Option D
Option C
Option E
Option A
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Chapter - 7
Phrases and Idioms
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
A big cheese an important or a powerful person in a group or family

A boon in disguise a benefit in loss
A bull in a China shop an awkward person
A but under the weather falling ill
A dead letter an argument or law not followed by anyone
A dish fit for Gods something of very high quality
A house of cards a poor plan
A nine days wonder pleasure for a short time
A queer fish a strange person
A red letter day an important day
A wakeup call an event done to warn someone
A witch hunt an attempt to find and punish those who have options
that are believed to be dangerous
A worms eye view having very little knowledge about something
Afraid of ones own shadow to become easily frightened
Against the clock to be in a hurry to do something before a particular
time
Air ones dirty laundry to make public something embarrassing that
should be kept secret
All systems go everything is ready
An arm and a leg a large amount of money
An educated guess - a guess which was likely to corrected
Appear out of now here to appear suddenly without warning
Apple of someones eye someone loved very much
As the crow flies measuring distance between two places in a straight
line
Ask for the moon to ask for too much
Asleep at the switch not to be alert on opportunity
At an arms length to keep at a distance
At sixes and sevens to be lost and bewildered
At someones beck and call to be always ready to serve
At the eleventh hour be too late
At the heels of to follow someone
Back to the salt mines back to something that you dont want to do
Bad blood feelings of hate between two families
Ball of fire active and energetic
Bark up the wrong tree to make a wrong assumption
Battle down the hatches prepare for difficult times
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35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
PDF4EXAMS.COM
Be above board to be honest and legal

Be at each others throat two persons arguing angrily
Be at the drum to speak eagerly about something you support
Be bouncing off the walls excited and full of nervous energy
Be in seventh heaven extremely happy
Be in the doldrums not very successful or nothing new is taking
place
Be on cloud nine be very happy
Be on the edge to be nervous or worried about something
Be tailor made to be completely suitable for someone
Beat ones brain out to work hard
Beat ones head against the wall to try to do something that is
hopeless
Begin to see the light to begin to understand
Behind closed doors done in secret
Bend your ears to talk to someone for a very long time about
something boring
Bent on doing to be determined to do something
Bite off more than one can chew to do more than ones ability
Bite the bullet to face a difficult situation bravely
Bite your tongue to stop yourself from saying something because it
would be better not to
Bitter pill to swallow an unpleasant fact that must be accepted
Black and blue full of bruises
Black sheep of the family worst member
Blessing in disguise something that turns out to be good which earlire
appeared to be wrong
Blind leading the blind someone who does not understand something
but tries to explain it to other
Blow ones own horn to praise one
Blow someones mind excite someone
Blue blood belonging to high social class
Brass monkey weather extremely cold weather
Break the back of reduce the power of something
Break the ice to make more comfort or relaxed with a person whom
you have not met earlier, to break the silence
Bring home the bacon to earn money to live
Burn a hole in ones pocket to spend money quickly
Burn the midnight oil to study till late of night
Bushmans holiday a holiday where you spend doing same thing as
you did at working days
Buttons one lip to keep quite
Cap it all to finish
Cards are stacked against luck is against you
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71. Carrot and sticks you use both awards as well as punishments to
make someone do something
72. Carry coals to new castle to take something to a place or a person
that has a lot of that thing already
73. Cast a long shadow something or someone that casts a long shadow
has considerable influence on other people or events
74. Change horses in midstream to change plans
75. Cloak and dragger when people behave in very secret manner
76. Crack a book to open book to study
77. Cried with eyes out cried a lot
78. Cross a bridge before one comes to it worry about the future in
advance
79. Dances to the tune to always do what someone tells you to do
80. Dark house one who was previously unknown and is not prominent
81. Dont court your chickens before they hatch do not rely on
something you are not sure of
82. Down to Earth Practical or humble, unpretentious
83. Dressed up to the nines wearing fancy clothes
84. Drink like a fish To drink very heavily
85. Drive a wedge between to break relationship between the two
86. Elephant in the room ignoring a large, obvious problem or failing to
address an issue that stands out in a major way
87. Every cloud has a silver lining To be optimistic, even in difficult
times
88. Face the music-to accept punishment for something you have done.
89. Fall on your own sword- to be cheated by someone you trust.
90. Feather in ones cap- something that you achieve and proud of.
91. Feel the pinch- to have problems with money.
92. Follow your nose- When giving directions, telling someone to follow
their nose means that they should go straight ahead.
93. Fool's paradise- A fool's paradise is a false sense of happiness or
success
94. French leave- absent without permission, to take French leave is to
leave a gathering without saying goodbye or without permission.
95. From cradle to grave- during the whole span of your life.
96. Get a raw deal- not treated equally
97. Get off the hook- free from all obligations
98. Gift of the gab- talent of speaking, if someone has the gift of the gab,
they speak in a persuasive and interesting way
99. Give someone a bird- make fun
100.
Gives cold shoulder- to ignore
101.
Give-up the ghost- to die
102.
Go tell it to birds- This is used when someone says something
that is not credible or is a lie
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103.
Go under the hammer- If something goes under the hammer,
it is sold in an auction
104.
Got the slap on the wrist- got light punishment
105.
Got the wind up- to be scared
106.
Graveyard shift- If you have to work very late at night, it is the
graveyard shift
107.
Grease monkey- A grease monkey is an idiomatic term for a
mechanic
108.
Hand to mouth- Someone who's living from hand to mouth, is
very poor and needs the little money they have coming in to cover their
expenses
109.
Have a big mouth- one who gossips more or tells secret
110.
Have a one track mind- think only of one thing
111.
Have an egg on the face- be embarrassed
112.
Have ants in your pants- not be able to keep still because you
are very excited or worried about something.
113.
Have clean hands- be guiltless
114.
Have eyes bigger than stomach- desiring more food than one
can eat
115.
Have no truck with- If you have no truck with something or
someone, you refuse to get involved with it or them
116.
Having a whole of a time- to enjoy very much
117.
Heart in the right place- good natured
118.
Heart missed a beat- very excited
119.
Himalayan blunder- a serious mistake
120.
Hit the bull's-eye- If someone hits the bull's-eye, they are
exactly right about something or achieve the best result possible.
121.
Hold ones horse- be patient
122.
Hold water- When you say that something does or does not
'hold water', it means that the point of view or argument put forward is
or is not sound, strong or logical. For e.g. 'Saying we should increase
our interest rates because everyone else is doing so will not hold water.
123.
If the shoe fits, wear it- This is used to suggest that something
that has been said might apply to a person
124.
In droves- When things happen in droves, a lot happen at the
same time or very quickly
125.
In the doghouse- If someone is in the doghouse, they are in
disgrace and veryUnpopular at the moment.
126.
In cahoots within a partnership usually for a dishonest reason
127.
Jack Frost - If everything has frozen in winter, then Jack Frost
has visited.
128.
Jack the Lad - A confident and not very serious young man
who behaves as he wants to without thinking about other people is a
Jack the Lad.
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129.
Jack-of-all-trades- A jack-of-all-trades is someone that can do
many different jobs.
130.
Jam on your face - If you say that someone has jam on their
face, they appear to be caught, embarrassed or found guilty.
131.
Jam tomorrow - This idiom is used when people promise good
things for the future that will never come.
132.
Jersey justice - Jersey justice is very severe justice.
133.
Jet set - Very wealthy people who travel around the world to
attend parties or functions are the jet set.
134.
Jet-black - To emphasise just how black something is, such as
someone's hair, we can call it jet-black.
135.
Job's comforter - Someone who says they want to comfort, but
actually discomforts people is a Job's comforter.
136.
Jobs for the boys - Where people give jobs, contracts, etc, to
their friends and associates, these are jobs for the boys.
137.
Jockey for position - If a number of people want the same
opportunity and are struggling to emerge as the most likely candidate,
they are jockeying for position.
138.
Joe Public - Joe Public is the typical, average person.
139.
Jog my memory- If you jog someone's memory, you say words
that will help someone trying to remember a thought, event, word,
phrase, experience, etc.
140.
Johnny-come-lately - A Johnny-come-lately is someone who
has recently joined something or arrived somewhere, especially when
they want to make changes that are not welcome.
141.
Join the club - Said when someone has expressed a desire or
opinion, meaning "That viewpoint is not unique to you". It can suggest
that the speaker should stop complaining since many others are in the
same position. Example: "If this train doesn't come, I'll be late for
work!" "Join the club!"
142.
Joined at the hip - If people are joined at the hip, they are very
closely connected and think the same way.
143.
Judge, jury and executioner - If someone is said to be the
judge, jury, and executioner, it means they are in charge of every
decision made, and they have the power to be rid of whomever they
choose.
144.
Juggle frogs - If you are juggling frogs, you are trying to do
something very difficult.
145.
Jump on the bandwagon - If people jump on the bandwagon,
they get involved in something that has recently become very popular.
146.
Jump ship - If you leave a company or institution for another
because it is doing badly, you are jumping ship.
147.
Jump the broom - To jump the broom is to marry.
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148.
Jump the gun - If you jump the gun, you start doing something
before the appropriate time.
149.
Jump the track - Jumping the track is suddenly changing from
one plan, activity, idea, etc., to another.
150.
Jump through hoops - If you are prepared to jump through
hoops for someone, you are prepared to make great efforts and
sacrifices for them.
151.
Jump to a conclusion - If someone jumps to a conclusion, they
evaluate or judge something without a sufficient examination of the
facts.
152.
Jungle out there - If someone says that it is a jungle out there,
they mean that the situation is dangerous and there are no rules.
153.
Jury's out - If the jury's out on an issue, then there is no
general agreement
or
consensus
on
it.
Just around the corner- If something is just around the corner, then it is
expected to happen very soon.
154.
Just coming up to - If the time is just coming up to nine
o'clock, it means that it will be nine o'clock in a very few seconds.
You'll hear them say it on the radio in the morning.
155.
Just deserts - If a bad or evil person gets their just deserts, they
get the punishment or suffer the misfortune that it is felt they deserve.
156.
Just for the record - If something is said to be just for the
record, the person is saying it so that people know but does not
necessarily
agree
with
or
support
it.
Just in the nick of time - If you do something in the nick of time, you
just manage to do it just in time, with seconds to spare.
157.
Just off the boat - If someone is just off the boat, they are
naive and inexperienced.
158.
Just what the doctor ordered - If something's just what the
doctor ordered, it is precisely what is needed.
159.
Keep ones eye on the ball- be ready for something
160.
Kick up a row- to start a fight, to create disturbance
161.
Know which way the wind blows- This means that you should
know how things are developing and be prepared for the future
162.
Left to your own devices- If someone is left to their own
devices, they are not controlled and can do whatever they want
163.
Let someone slide- neglect something
164.
Let the cat out of the bag- reveal the secret
165.
Like a shag on a rock- completely alone.
166.
Like a sitting duck- totally unaware
167.
Lions share- a major share
168.
Loaves and fishes- done for material benefits
169.
Make a bee line for- to go directly towards something.
170.
Make a dry face- show disappointment
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171.
Make a monkey of someone- If you make a monkey of
someone, you make them look foolish
172.
Make castles in the air- plans or hopes that have very little
chances of happening.
173.
Make ones bed and lie on it- to be responsible for what you
have done and accept the results
174.
Man of his word- A man of his word is a person who does
what he says and keeps his Promises
175.
Meet ones waterloo- meet ones final end
176.
Needle in a haystack- If trying to find something is like
looking for a needle in a haystack, it means that it is very difficult, if not
impossible to find among everything around it
177.
Never-never land- ideal best place.
178.
New brush sweeps clean- 'A new brush sweeps clean' means
that someone with a new perspective can make great changes. However,
the full version is 'a new brush sweeps clean, but an old brush knows
the corners', which warns that experience is also a valuable thing
179.
No love lost between- dislike
180.
Nobodys fool- one who can take care of himself
181.
not having a leg to stand for- not having proof
182.
Old flames die hard- It's very difficult to forget old things
183.
On pins and needles- If you are on pins and needles, you are
very worried about something
184.
On its last legs- in a bad condition and will not last long
185.
On the bandwagon- doing something because others are also
doing it
186.
On the hook- If someone is on the hook, they are responsible
for something.
187.
Once in a blue moon- very rarely
188.
Only the wearer knows where the shoe pinches- This means
that it's hard to know how much someone else is suffering.
189.
Open Pandoras box- to discover more problems
190.
Over the moon- being too happy
191.
Paper over the cracks- to try to hide something
192.
Pick someone to pieces- to criticize sharply
193.
Pull up the shocks- do things in the right manner and correctly
194.
Put the cart before the horse- doing things in a wrong manner
195.
Queer fish- A strange person is a queer fish
196.
Quiet as a cat- If somebody is as quiet as a cat they make as
little noise as possible and try to be unnoticeable
197.
Quiet as a mouse- If someone's as quiet as a mouse, they make
absolutely no noise
198.
Rack and ruin- If something or someone goes to rack and ruin,
they are utterly destroyed or wrecked
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199.
Rain on your parade- If someone rains on your parade, they
ruin your pleasure or your plans
200.
Rake someone over the coals- If you rake someone over the
coals, you criticize or scold them severely
201.
Read between the lines- read hidden meanings
202.
Recipe for disaster- A recipe for disaster is a mixture of people
and events that could only possibly result in trouble
203.
Red carpet- If you give someone the red-carpet treatment, you
give them a specialWelcome to show that you think they are important
204.
Red herring- If something is a distraction from the real issues,
it is a red herring
205.
Red letter day- A red letter day is a one of good luck, when
something special happens to you
206.
Round the houses- If you go round the houses, you do
something in an inefficient way when there is a quicker, more
convenient way
207.
Run into the sand- If something runs into the sand, it fails to
achieve a result
208.
Salt on the earth- fundamental good people
209.
Shake a leg- to go fast, hurry
210.
Snake in the grass- a hidden army
211.
Snake in the shoes- to be in a state of fear
212.
Spill the beans- to expose a secret
213.
Tables are turned- When the tables are turned, the situation
has changed giving the advantage to the party who had previously been
at a disadvantage
214.
Take a back seat- choose to decrease involvement
215.
Take someone under your wing- If you take someone under
your wing, you look after them while they are learning something
216.
Take the cloth- to become a priest
217.
Take your medicine- If you take your medicine, you accept
the consequences of something you have done wrong
218.
Taking to a brick wall- taking with a no response
219.
Talking to a brick wall- If you talk to someone and they do
not listen to you, it is like talking to a brick wall
220.
Taste of your own medicine- If you give someone a taste of
their own medicine, you do something bad to someone that they have
done to you to teach them a lesson
221.
The apple does not fall far from the tree- Offspring grow up
to be like their parents
222.
Though thick and thin- under all conditions
223.
Threaded his way out- walked carefully through
224.
Tit for tat- an action done to revenge against a person who has
done some wrong to you
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225.
To bell the cat- to take great risks
226.
To blow a fuse- to turn someone angry
227.
To crow over- to triumph over someone
228.
To look through colored glasses- to look the things not as they
are
229.
Uncharted waters- If you're in uncharted waters, you are in a
situation that is unfamiliar to you, that you have no experience of and
don't know what might happen
230.
Under a cloud- If someone is suspected of having done
something wrong, they are under a cloud
231.
Under fire- If someone is being attacked and criticized heavily,
they are under fire
232.
Under lock and key- If something is under lock and key, it is
stored very securely
233.
Up a river without a paddle- If you up a river without a
paddle, you are in an unfortunate situation, unprepared and with none of
the resources to remedy the matter
234.
Up for grabs- If something is up for grabs, it is available and
whoever is first or is successful will get it
235.
Up to the neck- If someone's in something up to the neck, they
are very involved in it, especially when it's something wrong
236.
Upset the apple cart- to create difficulty
237.
Vale of tears- This vale of tears is the world and the suffering
that life brings.
238.
Vent your spleen - If someone vents their spleen, they release
all their anger about something.
239.
Vicar of Bray - A person who changes their beliefs and
principles to stay popular with people above them is a Vicar of Bray
240.
Vicious circle - A vicious circle is a sequence of events that
make each other worse- someone drinks because they are unhappy at
work, then loses their job... 'Vicious cycle' is also used.
241.
Vinegar tits - A mean spirited women lacking in love or
compassion.
242.
Virgin territory - If something is virgin territory, it hasn't been
explored before.
243.
Voice in the wilderness - Someone who expresses an opinion
that no one believes or listens to is a voice in the wilderness,especially
if proved right later.
244.
Volte-face - If you do a volte-face on something, you make a
sudden and complete change in your stance or position over an issue.
245.
Vultures are circling - If the vultures are circling, then
something is in danger and its enemies are getting ready for the kill.
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Wait for a raindrop in the drought- When someone is

246.
waiting for a raindrop in the drought, they are waiting or hoping for
something that is extremely unlikely to happen
247.
Walking on broken glass- When a person is punished for
something
248.
Weight ones word- be careful to what one says
249.
Wet behind the ears- Someone who is wet behind the ears is
either very young or inexperienced
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Chapter - 8
One Word Substitutions
1. A speech delivered without any previous preparation Extempore
2. One who has no money Pauper
3. A place for sick people who need long period of treatment or rest
Sanatorium
4. A great lover of books Bibliophile
5. One who breaks into a house to commit theft Burglar
6. The killing of human beings Homicide
7. The Science which studies the crust of the earth Geology
8. A study of man Anthropology
9. A paper written by hand Manuscript
10. One who collects coins Numismatists
11. One who is skilled in the study of celestial bodies Astronomer
12. Work for which no salary is paid Honarary
13. A writing or speech in praise of someone Eulogy
14. Person who talks a lot Garrulous
15. The meat of deer Venison
16. One who goes on foot Pedestrian
17. Exclusive possession of the trade in some commodity Monopoly
18. A person who regards the whole World as his country Cosmopolitan
19. One who believes in fate Fatalist
20. Someone who knows a lot about the subject Scholar
21. Loss of money Amnesia
22. A person having deep study in a language Philologist
23. One who is free from all mistakes and failures Infallible
24. A person difficult to please Fastidious
25. The home of a large fierce wild animal Den
26. A long pole used for rowing a boat Oar
27. The original inhabitants of a country Aborigines
28. The Science dealing with the motion of projectile like rockets bombs
and shells Ballistics
29. Emblem of medical profession and US army medical corps Caduceus
30. One who is sued by the plaintiff Defendant
31. Persons with unusual or odd personality Eclectric
32. Sworn allegance to a lord Fealthy
33. International distriuction of racial groups Genocide
34. Curve with two distinct and similar branches Hyperbola
35. A line on a map connecting points having the same amount of rainfall in
a given period Isohyets
36. One who is out to subvert a government Anarchist
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37. One who murder ones mother Matricide

38. A lover of God Philotheist
39. The Science relating to the formation and development of words
Elymology
40. A shed for motor car Garage
41. One who is easily deceived Gullible
42. Vehicle to carry dead bodies Hearse
43. Person having no knowledge of any happening Ignorant
44. A planned rout or journey, details of travel Itinerary
45. The area over which an official has control Jurisdiction
46. A school for small children Kindergarten
47. The science of reasoning Logic
48. Purely fictitious narrative usually involving supernatural being etc.
Myth
49. A person with an evil reputation Notorious
50. One who looks at the bright side of things, somebody positive
Optimist
51. A supposed cure for all diseases or problems Panacea
52. Stanza of four lines Quatrain
53. Direct decision by a general vote on the single question Referendum
54. Write hurriedly or carelesslyin regard to hand writing Scribble
55. A writing which end in death or sorrow Tragedy
56. A state of highest perfection Utopia
57. Repetition of word by word Verbatim
58. A man devoid of kind feeling and sympathy Callous
59. Act or art of rhetorical exercise Declamation
60. Sure to produce desired results Efficacious
61. One who thinks only of welfare of women Feminist
62. An animal story with a moral Fable
63. Custom of having many wives Polygamy
64. Group of three novels Trilogy
65. Just punishment for wrong doing Nemesis
66. Man having the qualities of woman Effeminate
67. List of explanation of words Glossary
68. Member of a band of robbers Brigand
69. Old age when a man behaves like a fool Dotage
70. One who cuts precious stones Lapidist
71. One who fights for the sake of money Mercenary
72. One who is more interested in himself Introvert
73. One who lends money at high rate Usurer
74. One who sacrifices his life for country Martyr
75. One who travels from place to place Itinerant
76. Person pretending to be somebody he is not Imposter
77. Person who is against ordinary society especially dressing Hippy
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78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
Person who regards the whole World as his country Cosmopolitan

Places where government records are kept Archives
Public building where weapons are made and stored Arsenal
Send unwanted person out of the country Deport
Stage between boyhood and youth Adolescence
Study of statistics of birth, death and diseases Demography
Things that cannot be understood Unintelligible
Walking in sleep Somnambulism
One who is all powerful Omnipotent
A place for housing aero planes Hanger
One who is filled with excessive and mistaken enthusiasm in religious
matters Fanatic or Bigot
89. One who runs away from justice or the law Fugitive
90. Words which are inscribed on the grave or the tomb in the memory of
the buried Epitaph
91. A fault that may be forgiven Venial
92. One who acts against religion Heretic
93. That which can be seen through Transparent
94. A place where money is made Mint
95. Murder of infant Infanticide
96. Able to adapt oneself readily to many sitations Versatile
97. A person who is womanish in his habits Effeminate
98. One who talks continuously Loquacious
99. Animals which live in water Aquatic
100.
The life history of a person written by himself Autobiography
101.
The art of elegant speech of writing Rhetoric
102.
To cut off a part of a persons body which is infected
Amputate
103.
A published collection of poems from different poets
Anthology
104.
A list of books representing some scholarly work for reference
Bibliography
105.
A person who eats human flesh Cannibal
106.
The Government of people Democracy
107.
The practice or custom of marrying only within a local
community Endogamy
108.
The time or date, when the day and night are of the same length
Equinox
109.
Destruction of red blood cells Haemolysis
110.
A person who talks excessively Loquacious
111.
Destructive of the kidney Nephrotoxic
112.
Extreme fear from strangers Xenophobia
113.
A book published after the death of its author Posthumas
114.
Belonging to the middle ages Medieval
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115.
Hard but liable to be easily broken Brittle
116.
Misappropriation of money Embezzlement
117.
One who dies without a Will Intestate
118.
Persons who work together Colleagues
119.
Something that cannot be imitated Inimitable
120.
That which cannot be conquered Invincible
121.
World written on the tomb of a person Epitaph
122.
A study of the body Physiology
123.
A strong desire to return home or home-sickness Nostalgia
124.
One who hates women Misogynist
125.
One who questions everything Cynic
126.
A study of races Ethnology
127.
Murder of self Suicide
128.
Violating the sanctity of a church Sacrilege
129.
A school boy who cuts classes frequently Truant
130.
Politicians are notorious for doing undue favour to their
relatives Nepotism
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Chapter 9
Miscellaneous
Directions (Q. 1-4) In the sentence below, a word is printed in bold. Below the
sentence, five words/group of words are suggested, one of which can replace the
bold word, without changing the meaning of the sentence. Find out the
appropriate word/group of words in each case.
1. If you familiarize yourself with the culture of that area, you will be able
to enjoy life there.
a) Submit
b) Acquaint
c) Associate
d) Look after
e) None of these
2. For such a gigantic task, there should be some special task force.
a) Trivial
b) Important
c) Huge
d) Gallantry
e) None of these
3. If you are required to handle things under stress, mistakes are
inevitable.
a) Correctable
b) Detectable c) Unpardonable
d) Unavoidable
e) None of these
4. People who trespass this gate will be fined.
a) Cross without permission
b) Climb up and cross over
c) Break unlawfully
d) Pass on
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 5-9) Below the four words are given. One of these four words
may be wrongly spelt. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any.
The number of that word is your answer. If all the words are correctly spelt
mark All correct as the answer.
5. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be
wrongly spelt. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any.
The number of that word is your answer. If all the words are correctly
spelt mark All correct as the answer.
a) Adventure
b) Demonstration
c) Environment
d) Innosent
e) All Correct
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a) Limitasion
b) Dependable
c) Miniature
d) Qualitative
e) All Correct
a) Lucrative
b) Ancestral
c) Performanse
d) Incidentally
e) All Correct
a) Futility
b) Separasion
c) Embarrassment
d) Positively
e) All Correct
a) Tournament
b) Enhancement
c) Amazingly
d) Continuation
e) All Correct
Directions (Q. 10-14)
A. The researchers in these companies claim that they could do better by
allowing their employees to doze off at work place.
B. The dreams, while at work, are thus helpful to solve crucial problems.
C. Would you believe that some UK based companies are arranging for bed at
the work place?
D. The reason, they claim, could be that dreams produce creative solutions.
E. We only hope that these crucial problems in UK are different from those of
ours.
F. But it is true and is considered as a step to improve quality of their products.
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) None of these
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11. Which of the

rearrangement?
a) A
d) D
12. Which of the

rearrangement?
a) A
d) D
following should be
b) B
e) None of these
c) C
the Fourth sentence after
b) B
e) None of these
c) C

rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) None of these
14. Which of the
rearrangement?
a) A
d) E
following should be the

b) B
e) None of these
Sixth
sentence after
c) C
Directions (Q. 15-18) In the following sentence, an idiomatic expression or a

proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the
sentence.
15. Mrs.Nayak opened the discussion on the alarming rate of poverty in
India.
a) Started the discussion
b) Gave her opinion in the discussion
c) Did not agree on the discussion
d) Welcomed the people to the discussion
16. The course of events made it necessary for Joseph to start working.
a) Events that were planned
b) Long list of future events
c) A succession of unexpected events
d) Nature of events that followed after Joseph joined work
17. The new law on 'Right to Food Safety' will come into force next
month.
a) Be forced upon the people
b) Be associated from next month onwards
c) Be implemented next month
d) Be withdrawn next month
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18. When the girl wanted to stay out past midnight, her father put his foot
down.
a) Gave in to her request
b) Walked away disapprovingly
c) Obstructed her from leaving the house
d) Requested her to be home on time
A. The reasons for their happiness was that they had come to the Vithal temple
of Pandharpur to see their beloved Lord.
B. There were rich, poor men, women, children, blind, handicapped among
them.
C. They were all in a very happy state of mind, as was apparent from their
glowing faces.
D. They would worship and seek the Divine blessings while in Pandharpur.
E. It was an auspicious day and many people had assembled in the temple.
F. Though different there was one commonality among.
19. Which of the following should be the Fourth statement after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) None of these
20. Which of the
rearrangement?
a) A
d) D
following should be the Fifth statement after
21. Which of the

rearrangement?
a) A
d) D
following should be
22. Which of the

rearrangement?
a) A
d) E
following should be the First statement after
b) B
e) None of these
b) B
e) None of these
b) B
e) None of these
c) C
the Sixth statement after

c) C
c) C
23. Which of the following should be the Second statement after

rearrangement?
b) B
c) C
a) A
d) D
e) None of these
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Directions (Q. 24-28) Which of the phrases given below should be replaced the
phrase given in bold in the sentence to make the sentence grammatically
meaningful and correct?
24. There are lot many opportunities for young IT graduates today.
a) Lot many of
b) Very many of
c) A lot many
25. Along the course off his carrier, he has established a reputation for
efficiency.
a) In the course off
b) During the course of
c) While the course of
26. It is much likely his train has been delayed due to bad weather.
a) Quite likely that
b) Mostly like that
c) Much likely that
27. He answered every question put on him frankly.
a) Put for him
b) Put to him
c) Put by himself
d) Putting on him
28. The engineers have been working overtime, but have been not able to
locate the fault.
a) Have not been unable
b) Are not unable
c) Have been unable
A. Besides, they get a lot of exposure to novel things through media.
B. Therefore, their mental development did not show any extraordinary signs.
C. Children of the present generation appear to be smarter than their earlier
counterparts.
D. Thus, the environment of present days has brought out these changes.
E. This is probably because there are lots of opportunities for their indirect
learning.
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F. Children of yester years did not have these facilities.

29. Which of the following will be the Third sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) None of these
30. Which of the following will be the First sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) None of these
31. Which of the following will be the Sixth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) None of these
32. Which of the following will be the Second sentence after
rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) None of these
33. Which of the following will be the Fifth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) None of these
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option E
Option E
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option C
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20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
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Option D
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option D
Option B
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10.Double
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Fillers
Double fill in the blank is one the most scoring set of questions in SSC IBPS or any
other competitive exams. It is very easy to solve. A candidate needs to remember certain
keywords before solving these questions.
There are certain tips which may help aspirants to choose right answer among the
alternatives or options provided in the answers. These tips are explained as follows:
a.
Read the complete questions and understand the statement. Find out meaning of all
options provided as answer in the question. Correct match will be right option.
b.
Do the first checks for the tense i.e. present, past or future in the sentence provided. Do
the second checks for the tense of answers provided in the option. Correct match will be
right option.
c.
Do the check Noun, Pronoun, Adjective, Adverb, Conjunction etc. for answers
provided in option. Correct match will be right option.
By applying the above tips and tricks, some examples are provided for clarification of
the concept of giving right answer to the questions of double fill in the blanks in
stipulated time period. These questions are retrieved from the previous papers.
1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
EXAMPLES FORM PREVIOUS PAPERS:

Pick out the most effective pair of words from the given pair of words to make the
sentences/s meaningfully complete.
When interpersonal problems___________but are not dealt with the organizations
productivity inevitably____________.
Surface, develops
Focus, increase
Establish, projects
Develop, exhibits
Exist, diminishes
Answer: e
Explanation:
Tense = Present Indefinite
Keyword 1= Interpersonal problems
Keyword 2 = Inevitably
Read the statement carefully and it is found that the statement tells about a certain
inevitable problem. Thus the correct match will be e.
Participative management in which everyone has _____in a decision that leader then
makes, is a mechanism for______employees.
Share, protecting
Value, thwarting
Motivation, involving
Reward, Stimulating
Input, empowering
Answer: a
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Explanation:
Tense = Present Perfect Tense
Keyword 1= Participative Management
Keyword 2 = decision
Read the statement carefully and it is found that the statement tells about a decision of a
participative management. Thus the correct match will be a.
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Lack of _____is basic to good teamwork but our ability to work with others depends
on our_____.
Rigidity, Compatibility
Dogmatism, motivation
Professionalism, Vulnerability
Positivism, Flexibility
Consideration, Acumen
Answer: a
Explanation:
Keyword 1= Lack of (quality)
Keyword 2 =ability to work with others
Read the statement carefully and it is found that the statement tells about lack in the
quality of team work. Thus the correct match will be a.
Complete and Constant Openness is a notion that can be _____ to absurdity. Am I
_____ to stop everyone on the street and tell them my reaction to their appearance?
Consigned, communicated
Reduced, required
Attributed, requested
Projected, destined
Subjected, confined
Answer: b
Explanation:
Keyword 1= Interpersonal problems
Keyword 2 = Inevitably
Read the statement carefully and it is found that the statement tells about a certain
inevitable problem. Thus the correct match will be b.
5.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
When organizations______creativity and risk-taking the usual method of maintaining

order and ______are indeed shaken.
Encourage, decorum
Exhibit, durability
Propose, humility
Enhance, supply
Propagate, production
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Answer: a
Explanation:
Keyword 1= creative organization
Keyword 2 = maintaining order
Read the statement carefully and it is found that the statement tells about order in
organizations. Thus the correct match will be a.
Set-1
1. While the technology and state of knowledge in medicine allows the gadgets to
_____ data and give recommendation, it will be a while before we are ready to
_____ doctors for serious illnesses.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
estimate, credit
evaluate, credence
analyse, trust
describe, distrust
figure out, confidence
2. Just because momentum is _____ away coal in china does not mean that the
country is no longer part of the global coal _____.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
altering, bang
changing, collapse
stagnating, rise
shifting, boom
staying, failure
3. Theres plenty of _____ that transferring kids to the adult criminal justice
system for trial and conviction has _____ to prevent repeat offences.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
data, declined
information, rise
disproof, developed
indication, finished
evidence, failed
4. However, Digital India will not happen even if the _____ is in place unless
equal _____ is paid to what is made available at the end of the pipeline.
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1. framework, thinking
2. Infrastructure, attention
3. groundwork, scrutiny
4. backbone, indifference
5. support, thought
5. The national disaster management authority should come up with national
guidelines for the _____ of such deaths for immediate _____ by the states.
1. prevention, implementation
2.
3.
4.
5.
aid, effect
deterrence, operation
avoidance, usage
obstruction, assistance
6. The health minister _____ the need to make the laparoscopic surgery available
to the common people and ____ its reach.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
underscored, widen
stressed, larger
emphasized, restrict
spotted, extend
repeated, narrow
7. Extreme weather _____ continued in several parts of the country on Sunday,

_____ 41 more lives in the worst-hit Andhra Pradesh.
1. obligations, killing
2. conditions, claiming
3. crisis, demanded
4. climate, warranted
5. domain, taking
8. On the world tobacco day, PM Modi ______ the harms associated with tobacco
consumption and pressed for reducing the ________ .
1. repeated, trouble
2. accentuated, delight
3. told, plague
4. highlighted, menace
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5. asked, risk
9. The visit will focus on _____ , sustainable development, urban development and
scientific research with both countries exploring ways to _____ mutual exchanges
in the areas of trade and science.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
modernization, appreciate
newness, elevate
innovation, enhance
stagnation, amplify
modification, reduce
10. However, the proposed Bill does not include the two crucial provisions for
taking ______ of the landowner and the social impact assessment of the _______.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
compliance, shift
accord, movement
denial, distance
dissent, rearrangement
consent, displacement
ANSWERS
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 2
5. 1
6. 1
7. 2
8. 4
9. 3
10. 5
Set-2
1. -------------- specialist doctors have good accommodation facilities in far-flung areas,
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they won't prefer to --------there.

1. Till, belong
2.Unless, go
3. Except, rush
4. Until, reaches
5. However, force
2. Ever since animals were -------------from circus, performers have been ------------their
lives in stunts.
1.Banned, dodging
2.Banned, plunging
3.Banned, dying
4.Banned, risking
5. Banned, meeting
3. The city is reeling under scorching heat coupled with acute ----------of water and
power cuts that has -----------normal life out of gear.
1. Normalcy, launched
2. Rarity, chased
3. Scarcity, thrown
4. Plenty, created
5. Vivacity, shunned
4. The overuse of water not only washes away ------------nutrients but also increases the
moisture-----------, resulting in roots and stems developing fungus and consequently
bringing down production.
1. Essential, content
2. Severe, content
3. Require, content
4. Subordinate, content
5. Serious, content
5. The bonded-labourers are at the -----------of the contractors because ----------they
protest, their families will never be provided any work.
1. Vigil, one
2. Cost, when
3.Mercy, if
4. Threat, where
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5. Charge, had
6. In absence of any other road -------------to cross the river, the bridge has been taking
all the load that includes large number of trucks that--------- heavy cargo.
1.Alternative, convey
2.Alternative, hoist
3.Alternative, conduct
4.Alternative, halt
5. Alternative, carry
7. The need of the hour is to form separate car lanes so that the traffic ----------on streets
is ----------and pollution also reduces.
1.Congestion, stayed
2. Congestion, avoided
3.Congestion, shaken
4.Congestion, left
5. Congestion, permitted
8. If ------------an inch of fat from abdomen is reduced, the risk of a heart attack or
paralysis ---------by 20%.
1. Also, garners
2. But, trims
3. When, faces
4. Even, reduces
5. Ever, traces
9. Excessive sweating because of hot and ---------weather can lead to imbalance of
electrolytes in the body, which -----------in maintaining good health.
1. Oppress, help
2. Stern, help
3. Upheaval, help
4. Change, help
5. Humid, help
10. Unwillingness among the public to ------------change has also been one of the
reasons the plastic bags -----------to be used.
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1. Waive, raise
2. Retrieve, last
3. Accept, continue
4. Secure, pursue
5. Receive, advance
ANSWERS
1. (2)
2. (4)
3. (3)
4. (1)
5. (3)
6. (5)
7. (2)
8. (4)
9. (5)
10. (3)
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11.Cloze
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test
How To Solve Cloze Test Tips and Tricks

In Cloze passages the candidate is given a text passage with some words removed. The
candidate has to replace the missing words from the options given to solve the question
correctly. A Cloze test consists of a text passage with some certain word removed (cloze
text). Its a mixture comprehension and fill in the blanks type of questions, since you of
are provided with a passage with certain words missing from it. To solve cloze test
correctly, you are expected to have a strong command over the language and grammar,
along
with
good
vocabulary.
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Checkout the example:

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Failure is probably one of the ______ discouraging moments in our lives. Failure
______ not, however, break our spirit. Instead, we should use the ______ learnt from
our defeat to spur us ______ to greater achievements.
The correct answers in the above scenario would be most for the first blank , should
for the second, lessons and on for the fourth blank.
TIPS TRICKS TO SOLVE CLOZE Test PASSAGE
1. The first step to solve a cloze passage is to read it slowly without filling up the blanks.
This enables you to develop an idea about the topic. Slowly read the passage two to
three times until you figure out what the text is about.
2. After knowing the theme of the passage, complete the blanks you are 100% sure of.
Remember only complete those blanks in which you are certain that you know the
correct
answer.
3. Just like a comprehensive package, cloze test contains a passage with sentences that
are logically connected to each other. Be cautious to not commit the naive mistake of
treating each sentence individually and filling the blanks one by one. Instead think of
logical connections that link up the sentences together.
Cloze Test Grammar Tips
4. To find out the missing words in the remaining gaps, find out which among the
following part of speech will fill in the gap: articles, nouns , pronouns, adverbs,
prepositions, adjectives, conjunctions or verbs. Some sentences may have the following
combinations:
a preposition following a noun, adjective or verb. (Example: good at languages)
a prepositional phrase. (Example: in spite of )
an adverb. ( Example: He moved to Mumbai two years ago )
a connector. (Example: First, he arrived; then he sat down; finally, he left.)
a conjunction. (Example: Although he is seven, he can speak eight languages)
a auxiliary verb . (Example: He has won 2 contests)
an article or some other kind of determiner. (Example: I have no time)
a pronoun , either subject or object. (Example : it is easier to know)
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a comparative or superlative involved? (Example: shes taller than me)

Cloze Test Fast Solving Tips
5. There are many blanks which have multiple correct options. The correct way to solve
is to first mark options of this kind and then try fitting them in the blank one by one.
Then using the one which fit perfectly. Use words that fit appropriately with the given
sentence as well as with the content of the complete passage.
6. It may happen sometime that you are unable to decide between two words. In such
cases, use that word from options which is used frequently with words around the blank.
For example- Can we have a ____ chat?
A. swift
B. quick
C. prompt
All the three options are synonyms of each other. it may be difficult to do you decide
which one is the correct answer?
In English language, some words are used more frequently as a combination. The words
quick and chat are used together frequently rather than swift chat or prompt chat .
Therefore quick is your answer.
7. Each passage is written in a certain tone: humour, serious, narrative and so on.
Identify the tone and pick the words accordingly. If the tone is funny/humorous try and
use words which evoke fun and vice versa.
8. Read as many sentences as you can to improve your language. When you read more,
you tend to have a better idea of which words goes with the other words.
Set-1
Actually everyday we all are engaged in this business of 'reading' people. We do it (1).
We want to figure others out. So we (2) make guesses about what others think, value,
want and feel and we do so based on our (3) beliefs and under-standings about human
nature. We do so because if we can figure out (4) and intentions of others the possibility
of them (5) or hurting us, (6) and this will help as to (7) a lot of unnecessary pain and
trouble. We also make second-guesses about what they will do in future, how they will
(8) if we make this or that response. We do all this second guessing based upon our (9)
of what we believe about the person's inner nature (10) his or her roles and manners.
1.
(1) vehemently
(2) practically
(3) actually
(4) incessantly
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(5) virtually
2.
(1) ably
(2) constantly
(3) partly
(4) largely
(5) positively
3.
(1) futuristic
(2) proactive
(3) reactive
(4) decorative
(5) assumptive
4.
(1) manifestations
(2) expressions
(3) motives
(4) hopes
(5) prospects
5.
(1) tricking
(2) blaming
(3) furthering
(4) alarming
(5) criticising
6.
(1) lessens
(2) happens
(3) questions
(4) deepens
(5) laments
7.
(1) approach
(2) direct
(3) avoid
(4) implement
(5) prepare
8.
(1) solve
(2) apply
(3) plan
(4) approach
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(5) respond
9.
(1) projection
(2) exhibition
(3) situation
(4) prediction
(5) attribution
10.
(1) organizing
(2) underneath
(3) appreciating
(4) proposing
(5) outside
Answers:
1.4
2.2
3.5
4.3
5.2
6.1
7.3
8.5
9.4
10.1
Set-2
In any organised group of mammals, no matter how co-operative, there is always
a ...(1)... for social dominance. As he pursues this, each adult individual ...(2)... a
particular social rank, giving him his position, or status in the group hierarchy. The
situation never remains ...(3)... for very long, largely because all the status strugglers
are ...(4)... older. When the overlords or topdogs become senile, their seniority is
challenged and they are ...(5)... by their immediate subordinates.
1.
1) stress
2) feel
3) struggle
4) war
5) envy
2.
1) desire
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2) allots
3) inherits
4) approves
5) acquires
3.
1) unstable
2) stable
3) equitable
4) equal
5) calm
4.
1) growing
2) aheading
3) looking
4) feeling
5) moving
5.
1) piked
2) throned
3) thrown
4) over thrown
5) insulted
Answers:
1. 3
2. 3
3. 5
4. 1
5. 4
Set-3
The (1) increase in the number of vehicles on Indian roads has also led to an increase
in road accidents. India (2) for 10 per cent of the global road crash (3) . Statistics show
that (4) more than a million people die due to road accidents every year; if we do not
do (5) about it by 2020 this (6) will double. Vehicular safety standards are a (7) area.
Hence, the United Nations has (8) 2011-20 as the Decade of Action for Road Safety
with the (9) to reduce fatalities by 50 per cent. The UN has (10) five pillars to achieve
this target, ie Road Safety Management, Safer Roads and Mobility, Safer Road Users,
Post Crash Response and Safer Vehicles.
1.
1) fantastic
2) tremendous
3) awesome
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4) excellent
5) terrible
2.
1) calculates
2) registers
3) targets
4) wishes
5) accounts
3.
1) lethality
2) numbers
3) fatalities
4) disaster
5) mortality
4.
1) globally
2) always
3) entirely
4) finally
5) lastly
5.
1) anymore
2) whatever
3) all things
4) anything
5) everything
6.
1) total
2) sum
3) character
4) amount
5) figure
7.
1) complication
2) dispute
3) problem
4) question
5) difficulty
8.
1) announced
2) disclosed
3) released
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4) circulated
5) told
9.
1) aspiration
2) wish
3) scheme
4) aim
5) course
10.
1) classified
2) identified
3) established
4) selected
5) separated
Answers:
1.2
2.5
3.3
4.1
5.4
6.5
7.3
8.1
9.4
10.2
Set-4
Once upon a time in Mumbai, I was present at Teachers' Day function that delivered
a ...(1)... lesson to both the management and the teaching staff. When the gifts were
unwrapped and the teachers found stainless steel tiffin boxes, a section of
them ...(2)...:"Does this mean we do more cooking and have less time for reading,
researching and updating ? Is it a reminder that our primary place is the kitchen ?" They
said they preferred a field trip. If accepting gifts is tough, choosing is much ...(3).... So,
You set ...(4)... cash, time and effort to meet a gifting need and often end up
feeling ...(5)... that it may not be the right one. How do I know ...(6)... won't be ...(7)... to
a shelf-back or worse, re-cycled ? The joy of choosing for some one you love doesn't
entirely take away the stress of finding the "perfect gift", does it ?
Well Face bookers, be reminded-you can get together on your Facebook walls and buy
on another gifts. Wrapp, an app that runs on smart phones or tablets etc, lets Face book
friends buy gift cards from participating retailers individually or by teaming up, store
them in mobiles and ...(8)... them either online or at physical stores. "E-commerce
platforms are becoming ...(9)... more social with the ...(10)... of comments,
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recommendations and purchase history from each person's social graph.

1.
1) Reasonable
2) upright
3) intense
4) startling
5) impair
2.
1) exploded
2) invigorate
3) moderated
4) favoured
5) redeemed
3.
1) rusty
2) more
3) ever
4) than
5) has
4.
1) deprave
2) rouse
3) aside
4) manly
5) heed
5.
1) uneasy
2) real
3) unreal
4) stout
5) revengeful
6.
1) creditable
2) benevolent
3) it
4) have
5) you
7.
1) haul
2) resist
3) enfold
4) atrocious
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5) confined
8.
1) yield
2) adorn
3) uncouth
4) redeem
5) preserve
9.
1) comely
2) amity
3) inherently
4) towering
5) hampering
10.
1) inclusion
2) rampage
3) plunder
4) intrinsic
5) facade
Answers:
1.4
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
5. 1
6. 3
7. 5
8. 4
9. 3
10. 1
Set-5
The (1) functioning of the world economy should be (2) to (3) instead of (4) if with a
war-like (5) created by the US and Britain which is (6) for. Iraq has (7) (8) lessons after
a decade of economic (9) and (10) of so many lives.
1.
1) crystal
2) speed
3) accelerated
4) smooth
5) lubricated
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2.
1) made
2) directed
3) governed
4) assisted
5) allowed
3.
1) roll
2) continue
3) turn
4) energise
5) hold
4.
1) destroying
2) concerning
3) shadowing
4) drying
5) facing
5.
1) dictatorship
2) hostility
3) scenario
4) destruction
5) gravity
6.
1) condemned
2) rebuked
3) unmindful
4) uncalled
5) silly
7.
1) sought
2) learnt
3) availed
4) resulted
5) slapped
8.
1) bitter
2) hot
3) sour
4) enough
5) severe
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9.
1) block
2) sanctioning
3) penalty
4) showdown
5) embargo
10.
1) injury
2) damages
3) claim
4) loss
5) killing
Answers
1.4
2.5
3.2
4.1
5.3
6.4
7.2
8.1
9.5
10.4
Set-6
The Indian Meteorological Department has sought permission to ...(1)... a Doppler
weather radar system used for long-range weather-forecasting. The Government
had ...(2)... the equipment in the wake of 26/7 and ...(3)... to find a suitable location have
been on ...(4)... then. The key factor is that the radars antenna is to be installed in
an ...(5)... area of a few square kilometres far from highrises, ...(6)... at an altitude. The
radar would also need to be ...(7)... near the coast as it would be used to (8) highintensity storms or cyclones. MHCC has hinted it is willing to ...(9)... clearance for the
Colaba site, but only after ...(10)... the location. It was after scouting for locations across
the city that the office proposed to locate the radar near the observatory. But the problem
of finding a suitable site within area still remains. The area is very congested. We will
have to locate a site not only from the heritage point of view but also the radar needs to
be at a height which is higher than all the buildings in the area. The naval residential
buildings which are in the area are 13-14 storeys high. If at all it is to be set up at Colaba
then it must be above the existing structures so that signals reaching the antenna are not
blocked.
1.
1) detach
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2) install
3) launch
4) fix
5) attach
2.1) granted
2) realised
3) abstained
4) seen
5) sanctioned
3.1) try
2) project
3) commission
4) efforts
5) worked
4.1) since
2) until
3) already
4) at
5) for
5.1) inseparable
2) encumbered
3) unencumbered
4) unpossessed
5) occupied
6.1) hopelessly
2) hoping
3) enacting
4) preferably
5) undesirably
7.1) erected
2) located
3) stalled
4) tied
5) build
8.1) deduct
2) examine
3) feel
4) evaluate
5) detect
9.1) advocate
2) launch
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3) pass
4) grant
5) grand
10.1) examining
2) study
3) scanning
4) combing
5) watching
Answers:
1. 2
2. 5
3. 4
4. 1
5. 3
6. 4
7. 2
8. 5
9. 4
10. 1
Set-7
The number of people using Facebook messenger application has (1) 800 million, taking
the lead as the (2) growing social networking site of 2015, according to a new
study.Facebook was the (3) smartphone messenger application which had more than 126
million (4) unique users each month. It was the second most popular iOS app with 10
billion photos being (5) among users, according to a study by global research firm
Nielsen.
The apps with highest year-(6)-year change was Facebook Messenger with a 31 per
cent (7) in users from 2014 and Apple Music, with a 26 per cent growth, Nielsen
noted.In 2014, the number of users of Facebook Messenger were over 550 million.The
Messenger teams (8) is to make Messenger the best place to (9) with all the people
and (10) in the world, Facebook head of messaging products Dave Marcus said in an
online post.
1.
a.overed
b.moved
c.composited
d.assisted
e.crossed
2.
a.highest
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b.largest
c.biggest
d.fastest
e.greatest
3.
a.best
b.top
c.finest
d.prime
e.superior
4.
a.average
b.higher
c.regular
d.more
e.lesser
5.
a.allowed
b.shared
c.sent
d.deliverd
e.chunked
6.
a.over
b.by
c.with
d.for
e.through
7.
a.decrease
b.decline
c.increase
d.rise
e.raise
8.
a.aim
b.target
c.objective
d.mission
e.ambition
9.
a.communicate
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b.link
c.contact
d.correspond
e.lead
10.
a.trade
b.buisness
c.occupation
d.work
e.field
Answers
1.e
2.d
3.b
4.a
5.b
6.a
7.c
8.d
9.a
10.b
Set-8
A. Surendran, Additional General Manager of International Banking at Federal
Bank, said banks expected about $10 billion to (1) in. The (2) of these inflows will be
seen only in the next (3). There may be an impact now but not a major one, as
these (4) have to be fresh deposits or renewal of deposits, he said.
Reports say the total NRE, NRO (non-resident ordinary) and FCNR deposits are at
$51.97 billion as in October 2011. If one (5) a one per cent (6) in the value of rupee and
takes (7) account the (8) rates in other countries, NRIs have an option (9) they could
borrow from their home countries and deposit in India, thereby making a clear (10) of 12 per cent.
1.
1) grow
2) blow
3) flow
4) go
5) call
2.
1) produce
2) consequent
3) resultant
4) impact
5) reaction
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3.
1) time
2) fiscal
3) year
4) mensem
5) plan
4.
1) tenders
2) money
3) cash
4) credits
5) deposits
5.
1) thinks
2) lends
3) assumes
4) borrows
5) feels
6.
1) grow
2) appreciation
3) plus
4) dividend
5) cut
7.
1) into
2) for
3) in
4) to
5) out
8.
1) prime
2) lending
3) pulse
4) increase
5) depreciation
9.
1) wherein
2) which
3) that
4) how
5) when
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10.
1) difference
2) reduction
3) margin
4) deduction
5) cut
Answers
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 5
5. 3
6. 2
7. 1
8. 2
9. 1
10. 3
Set-9
Rural healthcare in India is (1) by a huge gap between supply and demand. Currently,
rural healthcare needs are (2) either by limited government facilities and private nursing
homes, which have not been able to keep pace with increasing demand, (3) by a number
of quacks who practise medicine in rural areas. The quality of infrastructure is usually
poor and people (4) up having to go to nearby large cities if they need high-quality care.
Rural India deserves better, since the ability to pay has gone up over the last few years,
driven by growth in income and penetration of government healthcare programmes.
Increasing demand, (5) with the failure of existing infrastructure to scale, has resulted in
rural healthcare (6) a large under-served market. Absence of a viable business model (7)
conversion of the huge rural expenditure on health into an economic activity that
generates incomes and (8) the poor. It is this (9) that entrepreneurs are looking to (10).
1. 1) performed
2) displayed
3) furthered
4) characterised
5) made
2. 1) stopped
2) met
3) elevated
4) discussed
5) set
3. 1) also
2) nor
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3) but
4) or
5) and
4. 1) end
2) give
3) fed
4) start
5) set
5. 1) couple
2) combined
3) mentioning
4) engaged
5) resulting
6. 1) become
2) happening
3) being
4) exists
5) is
7. 1) to
2) makes
3) so
4) ceasing
5) prevents
8. 1) generates
2) supplies
3) lists
4) turns
5) serves
9. 1) gap
2) truth
3) progress
4) catastrophes
5) divides
10. 1) fills
2) access
3) plug
4) form
5) distance
Answers:
1.4
2.2
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3.4
4.1
5.2
6.3
7.5
8.5
9.1
10.3
Set-10
Everyone needs quality sleep every single night, but lifestyle ...(1)... and hurdles make
sleep disorders more common than good sleep. This poor sleeping pattern has
serious ...(2)... on our health, and the first thing we ...(3)... is unhealthy weight gain or
weight loss, low concentration, and mood swings. If you
have ...(4)... sleeping ...(5)... every day and this lack of sleep is ...(6)... your dayto-day
routine, then you may be suffering from one of the many (and most common) sleep
disorders. You will be surprised to know that there are many more sleep disorders than
just insomnia and sleep apnoea. There are ...(7)... sleep disorders and their ...(8)..., You
should take proper ...(9)... before they take a ...(10)... on your life.
1.
1) cozen
2) choices
3) abjure
4) deter
5) rustic
2.
1) coerce
2) rampage
3) repercussions
4) rattle
5) assent
3.
1) covert
2) denounce
3) bleak
4) notice
5) point
4.
1) mutilate
2) trouble
3) rear
4) dismay
5) cozy
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5.
1) utmost
2) in
3) for
4) at
5) almost
6.
1) glimmering
2) gamut
3) fortifying
4) affecting
5) cascading
7.
1) bland
2) copious
3) various
4) alternate
5) growing
8.
1) warning
2) symptoms
3) signs
4) indicia
5) indication
9.
1) treatment
2) healing
3) hubris
4) overt
5) regimen
10.
1) abject
2) toll
3) barge
4) muse
5) poised
Answers:
1. 2
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2. 3
3. 4
4. 2
5. 5
6. 4
7. 3
8. 2
9. 1
10. 2
Set-11
The culture of India is one of the oldest and unique. In India is ...(1)... cultural
diversity ...(2)... the country. The South, North, and Northeast have own ...(3)... cultures
and almost every state has ...(4)... out its own cultural ...(5).... There is hardly any
cultural in the world that is as ...(6)... and unique as India. India is a vast
country, ...(7)... variety of geographical features and climatic conditions. India is home
to some of the most ancient civilzations, including four major world religions,
Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and Sikhism.
A ...(8)... of these factors has resulted into exclusive culture-Indian culture. India culture
is a ...(9)... mixture of varying styles and influences. In the matter of cuisine. For
instance, the North and the South are totally different. Festivals in India are
characterized by colour, gaiety, enthusiasm, prayers and rituals. In the ...(10)... of music,
there are varieties of folk, popular, pop and classical music. The classical tradition of
music in India includes the Carnatic and the Hindustani music.
1.
1) amazing
2) plausible
3) tenable
4) persuasive
5) rational
2.
1) around
2) in
3) of
4) throughout
5) with
3.
1) explicit
2) distinct
3) obscure
4) profound
5) incisive
4.
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1) excavated
2) indented
3) deep
4) root
5) carved
5.
1) niche
2) grave
3) chase
4) model
5) profound
6.
1) especial
2) tremendous
3) pleasant
4) tarnish
5) varied
7.
1) being
2) taking
3) having
4) liking
5) using
8.
1) use
2) fetus
3) combination
4) introduction
5) collection
9.
1) sample
2) composite
3) sound
4) cipher
5) ceramic
10.
1) sense
2) realm
3) need
4) liking
5) fondness
Answers:
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1. 1
2. 4
3. 2
4. 5
5. 1
6. 5
7. 3
8. 3
9. 2
10. 2
Set-12
The Indian economy is not (1) in a bright spot. That is what most (2), barring those
like the International Monetary Fund (IMF), appear to think. One can, of course, see (3)
the IMF is coming from. Multilateral agencies, (4) armed with a cookie-cutter
approach,
do take a (5) view and it is true that India is today the worlds fastest-growing
(6) economy. Cheer on this front must, however, be (7) by an awareness that India has a
far (8) per capita income compared to other countries in the Brazil, Russia, India,
China,
South Africa (BRICS) grouping. (9), early indications are that Indias growth rate
is slowing this (10) year.
1.
a. altogether
b. exactly
c. quitely
d. same
e. truly
2.
a. observers
b. followers
c. Viewers
d. spectators
e. watchers
3.
a. what
b. why
c. that
d. where
e. which
4.
a. although
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b. despite
c. in spite of
d. despite of
e. though
5.
a. world
b. whole
c. global
d. complete
e. overall
6.
a. large
b. largest
c. highest
d. biggest
e. big
7.
a. artifical
b. mediteted
c. settled
d. moderated
e. resolved
8.
a. higher
b. moderate
c. lower
d. reduced
e. arguable
9.
a. whatsoever
b. however
c. moreover
d. nonetheless
e. anyhow
10.
a. current
b. fiscal
c. purgatory
d. financial
e.commercial
Answers
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1. b
2. a
3. d
4. e
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. c
9. c
10.d
set-13
Everyone needs quality sleep every single night, but lifestyle ...(1)... and hurdles make
sleep disorders more common than good sleep. This poor sleeping pattern has
serious ...(2)... on our health, and the first thing we ...(3)... is unhealthy weight gain or
weight loss, low concentration, and mood swings. If you
have ...(4)... sleeping ...(5)... every day and this lack of sleep is ...(6)... your dayto-day
routine, then you may be suffering from one of the many (and most common) sleep
disorders. You will be surprised to know that there are many more sleep disorders than
just insomnia and sleep apnoea. There are ...(7)... sleep disorders and their ...(8)..., You
should take proper ...(9)... before they take a ...(10)... on your life.
1.
1) cozen
2) choices
3) abjure
4) deter
5) rustic
2.
1) coerce
2) rampage
3) repercussions
4) rattle
5) assent
3.
1) covert
2) denounce
3) bleak
4) notice
5) point
4.
1) mutilate
2) trouble
3) rear
4) dismay
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5) cozy
5.
1) utmost
2) in
3) for
4) at
5) almost
6.
1) glimmering
2) gamut
3) fortifying
4) affecting
5) cascading
7.
1) bland
2) copious
3) various
4) alternate
5) growing
8.
1) warning
2) symptoms
3) signs
4) indicia
5) indication
9.
1) treatment
2) healing
3) hubris
4) overt
5) regimen
10.
1) abject
2) toll
3) barge
4) muse
5) poised
Answers:
1. 2
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2. 3
3. 4
4. 2
5. 5
6. 4
7. 3
8. 2
9. 1
10. 2
Set- 14
Fourteen centuries ago when the world was much younger, the ruler of all India, Rajah
Balhait, was ...(1)... about his people. A new game of dice, called nard, had ...(2)... the
imagination of his subjects. Teaching them that chance alone a roll of the dice
guided the ...(3)... of men. All who played this game of fortune lost their ...(4)... in the
virtues of courage, prudence, wisdom and hope. It bred a fatalism that was ...(5)... the
spirit of the kingdom.
Rajah Balhait commissioned Sissa, an intelligent courtier, at his court, to find an answer
to this ...(6).... After much ...(7)... the clever Sissa invented another game, chaturanga,
the exact ...(8)... of nard, in which the four elements of the Indian army were the key
pieces. In the game these pieces chariots, horses, elephants and foot soldiers joined
with a royal counseller to defend their kind and defeat the enemy. Forceful ...(9)... was
demanded of the players not luck. Chaturanga soon become more popular than nard, and
the ...(10)... to the kingdom was over.
1.1) concerned
2) confident
3) ignorant
4) indifferent
5) partisan
2.1) propelled
2) enshrined
3) captured
4) activated
5) enhanced
3.1) communities
2) ways
3) abnormalities
4) destinies
5) groups
4.1) bravado
2) interest
3) peace
4) wealth
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5) faith
5.1) appalling
2) crushing
3) moistening
4) promoting
5) overwhelming
6.1) apprehension
2) risk
3) problem
4) game
5) destiny
7.1) deliberation
2) absorption
3) insight
4) hesitation
5) reluctance
8.1) nature
2) equivalent
3) picture
4) opposite
5) replica
9.1) prediction
2) concentration
3) manipulation
4) attack
5) fortune
10.1) devastation
2) anxiety
3) impeachment
4) nuisance
5) threat
Answers
1.(5)
2.(4)
3.(1)
4.(3)
5.(3)
6.(5)
7.(2)
8.(1)
9.(2)
10.(2)
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Set-15
There has been a (1) change in peoples (2) towards and awareness (3) the environment.
People are more (4) about the (5) condition of their environment. Land in all societies is
subjected to (6) usage, viz. crop production, forest cover, grassland, urbanization and
industrialization etc. During the last five decades (7) developmental activities have taken
place. Slope failure and (8) of soil due to such (9) are (10) environmental hazards.
1.
1) special
2) tremendous
3) extreme
4) developmental
5) supportive
2.
1) information
2) feasibility
3) debate
4) participation
5) attitude
3.
1) protecting
2) covering
3) towards
4) surrounding
5) of
4.
1) concerned
2) biased
3) casual
4) desperate
5) confused
5.
1) grey
2) deteriorating
3) dry
4) rustic
5) uneven
6.
1) continued
2) drastic
3) multiple
4) unjustified
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5) insignificant
7.
1) unique
2) disastrous
3) umpteen
4) extensive
5) amazing
8.
1) pollution
2) cultivation
3) deployment
4) demand
5) erosion
9.
1) urgency
2) misconception
3) activities
4) action
5) misdeed
10.
1) major
2) damaging
3) effective
4) distinctive
5) concerned
Answers
1. 2
2. 5
3. 5
4. 1
5. 2
6. 3
7. 4
8. 5
9. 3
10.1
Page 273
REASONING CRACK
BOOK
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Table Of Content
1. Inequality Trick
2. Syllogism Tricks
3. Coding and Decoding Tricks
4. Blood Relation Tricks
5. Direction Sense Tricks
6. Order And Ranking Tricks
7. Seating Arrangement Tricks
8. Puzzles Tricks
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1.Inequality Trick
King Soldiers and Public technique to solve Inequalities. By using this technique,
you can solve any question from Inequalities within 10 seconds. In every exam, at
least 5 questions are asked from this topic.
Points to remember
King is more powerful than Soldiers

Soldiers are more powerful than Public
Whenever there is a conflict between two Kings, then there will be no
conclusion
When there is a conflict between two soldiers, then there will be no
conclusion
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Let King means < or >
Soldier means or
Public means =
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Case 1. 'King vs King'
Suppose there is a war going on between two kings.Whenever the two kings
faces each other means war. In other words conclusion will be wrong.
Note: Two signs opposite to each other will make the conclusion wrong But again
if the signs are in same manner that will not make it wrong.
like this
If A > B < C > D then A < C = False , C > A = False .
But
If E > F > G > H then E > G = True , F > H = True , E > H = True.
Statement: A < D > C < E > B
Conclusions:
C > B False
A < E False
D > B False
In simple way ,Whenever these two sign comes in opposite direction the answer
will be false.
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Case 2. ' Soldier vs Soldier'
Whenever the soldiers face each other means again war(same apply here). In
other words conclusion will be wrong.
Note: Two signs opposite to each other will make the conclusion wrong But again
if the signs are same then it will be true.
like this
If A B C then A C = False , C A = False .
But
If A B C then A C = True , C A = True .
Example
Statement: B D A F C
Conclusions :
I. A C False
II. B F False
III. D C False
Case 3. Sets Priority:
If they all are comes in order then kings priority will be first ,soldier's second
and public at last.
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Statement: P R > Q = T S
Conclusions :
I. P Q False
II. P > Q True
III. Q S True
Case 4.
When it occurs to you that the statement of order is opposite just change the
sign into similar opposite direction
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Change the sign into similar opposite /corresponding / alternative direction .

If A > B > F > C < D < E
than F < A True [ A > B > F = F < B < A ]
Example:
Statements : A>B>F>C; D>E>C
Conclusions:
I. C < A True
II. C > A False
Statements : R S T > U > X ; T < V <W
Conclusions:
I. R > X True [Note: Apply Case 3 here ]
II. X < R True [Note: Apply Case 3 & 4 here ]
Statements : K L M = N ; P O N
Conclusions:
K LM=NOP
III. K M True
IV K < P False
V K = P False
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Statement IV & V Apply Either Or

Case 5. Protocols
There are some rules in battle field which is that king only fights with king
and soldier only fights with soldier.
So Whenever you find two conclusions which are false Just check for these
two symbols.In Most of case where two conclusions are false and these two
similar signs are not there respectively then that statement you can call it as
Either Or but should check there variable it should same.
#Case Either Or :
Note : First thing you need to check whether in your conclusion any 2 or
more conclusions are wrong
then if it is there then check whether the two variables are same If It
happens then write it as 'Either or' but after checking their symbols.
Rules:
1. Both conclusion should False
2. Should have Same Predicate or Variable
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3. Check the symbols

If 3 Condition is satisfied then write it as " Either Or' Other wise leave it.
Solved Questions :
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#Case Neither Nor :
There are some rules in battle field which is that king only fights with king
and soldier only fights with soldier.
So Whenever you find two conclusions which are false Just check for these
two symbols.In Most of case where two conclusions are false and these two
signs are not there respectively then that statement you can call it as
Neither Nor.
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Note : First thing you need to check whether in your conclusion any 2 or
more conclusions are wrong
then write it as 'Neither Nor' but before checking their symbols.
Rules:
1. Both conclusion should False
2. Check the symbols
If Both Conditions are satisfied then write it as " Neither Nor' Other wise
leave it.
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How to solve 'Either Or' & 'Neither Nor' Question
In order to understand questions on inequality first you need to have an overview

of various terminologies which are used in such questions
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The table given

below gives the relationship between certain statements and their conclusions.
Once you have learnt and understood these concepts, questions on inequality will
be much easier to solve.
There are two types of questions in Inequality

1) Coded Inequality
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2) Direct Inequality
Both kinds of questions can be solved easily once you have gone through the
above tables.
Example:
In the following questions, the symbols $,@,%, and # are used with the
following meanings as illustrated below:
PQ means P is greater than Q.
P%Q means P is smaller than Q.
P@Q means P is either greater than or equal Q.
P$Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q.
P#Q means P is equal to Q.
A) If only conclusion I is true.
B) If only conclusion II is true.
C) If either conclusion I or II is true.
D) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E) If both conclusions I and II are true1) Statements: M @ R, R F, F#L
Conclusions: I. R@L II.M@L
2) Statements: T % J, J @ V, V # W
Conclusions: I. TW II. W@T
3) Statements: J @ D, D$ L, L#N
Conclusions: I. J # L II. J $ L
4) Statements: R $ M, M%H,H$F
Conclusions: I. R % F II. M$F
5) Statements: K $ H, H % I, I F
Conclusions: I. K $ I II.H % F
Answers & Explanations:
1) D
(M R>F=L. So, R>L. Hence, conclusion I is not true. Even, the Conclusion II is
not true)
2) C
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(T < J V= W Either I or II follows)

3) D
(J D L = N Both the conclusions are not true)
4) A
(R M < H F. Hence, R< F. Conclusion I is true. As M< F conclusion II is not
true)
5) D
(K H < I > F. As K< I, conclusion I is not true. H and F cant be compared.
Hence, conclusion II is not true)
Directions (Q. 1-5)
In the following questions, the symbol ,,@,# and $ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
P Q means P is not greater than Q.
P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q.
P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equals to Q.
P # Q means P is neither equal to nor greater than Q.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be
true, find which of the three conclusions, 1,2,3 given below them is/are definitely
true and give your answer accordingly.
Statements N B, B $ W,W # H, H M
Conclusions:
I.
M@W
II.
H@N
III. W N
IV. W # N
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1) Only I is true
2) Only III is true
3) Only IV is true
4) Only either III or IV is true
5) Only either III or IV and I is true
Ans 5
Statements R D, D $ J, J # M, M @ K
Conclusions:
I.
K#J
II.
D@M
III.
R#M
IV.
D@K
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only IV is true
Ans 1
Statements H @ T, T # F, F E, E V
Conclusions:
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I.
V$F
II.
E@T
III.
H@V
IV.
T#V
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2) Only I, II and IV are true
Ans 2
Statements D @ R, R K, K @ F, F $ J
Conclusions:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
J#R
J#K
R#F
K@D

5) None of the above
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Ans 5
Statements M $ K, K @ N, N R, R # W
Conclusions:
I.
W@K
II.
M$R
III.
K@W
IV.
M@N
1) Only I and II are true

3) Only III and IV are true
Ans 5
In the following questions, the symbol @,,%, and $ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q.
P Q means P is neither greater than nor equals to Q.
P % Q means P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q.
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Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be

true, find which of the three conclusions, 1,2,3 given below them is/are definitely
true and give your answer accordingly.
Statement : D @ M, M $ B, B R, R % T
Conclusion:
I.
BD
II.
B@D
III.
TM
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only either I or II is true
Ans 5
Statement : W F, F @ D, D K, K $ J
Conclusions: I. K % W
II. D $ W
III. F K

2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
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4) All I, II and III are true

None of the above
Ans 4
Statements R * K,K M,M % T,T $ J

Conclusions: : I. J * M
II. R * M
III. K J
1)
Only I is true
2)
Only II is true
3)
Only I and II are true
4) All I, II and III are true

None of the above
Ans 3
Statements R @ K, T K,T $ M,M * W
Conclusions: : I. W % K
II.M R
III. T R
1)
Only I is true
2)
Only II is true
3)
Only III is true
4)
All I, II and III are true
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5)
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None of the above
Ans 5
Statements T $ N, N % B,B @ W,K W
Conclusions: : I. K $ B
II.K $ T
III. T % B
1)
2)
Only I and III are true
3)
Only III is true
4)

None of the above
Ans 3
Statements Z % V, V * J,J M,M @ R
Conclusions: : I. R % V
II.M % V
III. Z % M
1)
2)
3)
Only II and III are true
4)
None of the above

Ans 1
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Direction Q (12-16) In these questions relationships between different elements is

shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give Answer
1) If only conclusion I follows
2)
If only conclusion II follows
3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

4) If neither conclusion I or conclusion II follows
5) If both conclusion I and II follow
Statements N O P = Q > R
Conclusions
I.
N>R
II. R = N
Ans 1
Statements W X < Y = Z >A;W<B
Conclusion
I.
B>Z
II. W < A
Ans 4
Statements : H > I > J > K ; L > M < K
Conclusions
I.
I>M
II. L < H
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Ans 1
Statements : C < D < E ; D > F G
Conclusions
I.
CG
II. F > E
Ans 4
Statements : R > S T U; V < T
Conclusions:
I.
V U
II. V < R
Ans 2
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2.Syllogism Tricks
Syllogism is one of the most important and interesting topics in Reasoning and
Solving Syllogism is always fun if you understand the shortcuts. If you understand
the below concepts I assure you that you can solve 5 Syllogism problems in just 2
mins. Yes. Just 2 mins.
Have a Pen with you. Go through all the concepts one by one. Understand how to
draw Venn Diagrams for each concepts. Then understand how the conclusion are
made for each concepts.(Just dont Scroll down fast!!!).
Then work out the problems.
I insist you again. GO ONE BY ONE. Understand it. Then go to the next one.
Make sure you are thorough enough with the given concepts.
You dont need to memorize any statements or any conclusions. All you need is to
UNDERSTAND.
Believe Me. Its very simple. It is not ROCKET SCIENCE.
The first step is to make a Venn diagram. Second step is deriving the conclusion. Lets go to all
possible concepts. (Concepts = Statements)
CONCEPT 1 Some A is B.
The Diagram for Some A is B is
The possible conclusions are,

1) Some A is B
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2) Some B is A
CONCEPT 2 Some A is B and Some B is C
The Diagram is,
Now the Possible Conclusions are,

Between A and B
Between B and C
Some A is B
Some B is C
Some B is A
Some C is B
There is no DIRECT CONNECTION between A and C. So it is not possible to derive any

conclusion between A and C.
CONCEPT 3 All A is B
The Diagram is,

The Conclusions are,
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All A is B.
Some A is B.
Some B is A.
IMPORTANT NOTE : WHEN THE STATEMENTS ARE POSITIVE, THE CONCLUSIONS MUST BE
POSITIVE.
CONCEPT 4 All A is B and All B is C
The Conclusions are,

Between A and B
Between B and C
All A is B.
All B is C.
All A is C.
Some A is B.
Some B is C.
Some A is C.
Some B is A.
Some C is B.
Some C is A.
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Between A and C
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Concept 5 Some A is B. All B is C.

Between A and B
Between B and C
Between A and C
Some A is B
All B is C
Some A is C
Some B is A
Some B is C
Some C is A
Some C is B
Concept 6 All A is B and Some B is C

Between A and B
Between B and C
All A is B
Some B is C
Some A is B
Some C is B
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Some B is A
There is no DIRECT CONNECTION between A and C. So it is not possible to derive any
conclusion between A and C.
Concept 7 All B is A and All C is A
The Possible Conclusions are,

Between A and B
Between A and C
All B is A
All C is A
Some B is A
Some C is A
Some A is B
Some A is C
There is no DIRECT CONNECTION between B and C. So it is not possible to derive any

conclusion between B and C.
Concept 8 No A is B
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No A is B
No B is A
Some A is not B
Some B is not A
When NO comes in Statement, Some-not should follow in Conclusion
Concept 9 All A is B and No B is C

Between A and B
Between B and C
Between A and C
All A is B
No B is C
No A is C
Some A is B
No C is B
Some A is Not C
Some B is A
Some B is not C
-Some C is not B
Concept 10 All A is B and No A is C
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Between A and B
Between A and C
Between B and C
All A is B
No A is C
Some B is not C
Some A is B
No C is A
Some B is A
Some A is not C
Some C is not A
Concept 11 Some A is B; No B is C

Between A and B
Between B and C
Between A and C
Some A is B
No B is C
Some A is not C
Some B is A
No C is B
-Some B is not C
Some C is not B
Concept 12 Some A is B; No A is C
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Between A and B
Between A and C
Some A is B
No A is C
Some B is A
No C is A
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Between B and C
Some B is not C
-Some A is not C
-Some C is not A
Note: In all the above, the conclusions are made based on the statements. There in only one case
where the conclusions are determined based on the conclusion itself. It is called as Merging
Concept.
MERGING CONCEPT
This concept is applicable when more than one conclusion does not follows.
Rules:
The two non-following conclusions must be of same character.
One conclusion must be positive (All/Some)
One conclusion must be negative (No/Some-not)
Let me explain this concept with some examples.
Example 1:
Stmt : All Lotus are Flowers; No Lilly is Lotus.
Conclusion: No Lilly is a flower; Some Lilly is Flowers.
The first step is to draw Venn Diagram
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.
Now Check the conclusions.
No Lilly is a flower. (Its not true)
Some Lilly is flowers (It is also not true)
Two conclusions are false. And Both are same Characters (Lilly and Flower). One is Positive
and one is negative. It satisfies all the rules of Merging Concept.
So the Answer is Either (i) or (ii) Follows.
Example 2
Stmt : Some Cameras are Radios; Some Statues are Cameras.
Conclusion : Some Radios are statues; No Radio is a Statue.
Conclusion 1 : Some Statues are Radios (It is false) (No direct relation between Statue and
Radio)
Conclusion 2: No Radio is a Statue (It is False) (It is a negative conclusion) (When statements
are
positive, conclusions must be positive).
Now Check for merging concept.
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Two Conclusions are False.

They are of same character. One is Positive and other is Negative.
Answer is Either (I) or (II) Follows
POSSIBILITY
Whenever the term Possibility OR Can comes in Conclusion, We need to check this simple
table.
Let me explain you guys with an example.

Statements:
Some Mangoes are Apples; Some Bananas are Apples; Some Branches are Bananas
Conclusions:
Some Mangoes are Bananas
Some Branches Being Apples is a Possibility
Some Branches are Mangoes
All Apples Being Mangoes is a Possibility
The First Step is to draw Diagram.
Conclusion 1 : It is False. (No Direct Connection between them).
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Conclusion 2: No relation between Branches and Apples. Possibility is there. (Chk Table) (It is
True)
Conclusion 3: It is False (No Direct relation)
Conclusion 4: Between Apples and Mangoes Some can come. Possibility is there (Check
Table). It is also true.
So the conclusion is II and IV Follows.
Types of conditions
As I always try to make things simple so instead of writing formulae and all that bulky stuffs, here I am
explaining the technique using simple examples.
1) All pigs are animals. Some animals are mammals
In this example, there are two sub-conditions.
Condition 1 - All pigs are animals. So circle Pig will be covered by circle Animals.
Conditions 2 - Some animals are mammals. This sub-conditions give two situations :- 1) Some pigs are
mammals 2) No Pig is mammal.
2) All pigs are animals. All animals are mammals

This example is bit simple. All pigs are part of category animal and all animals are part of category
mammals.
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3) Some pigs are animals. All animals are mammals

In this example there are two conditions. There is no proper order to apply these conditions. Some pigs
are animals. All animals are mammals so Animals circle is covered Mammals circle.
Conclusion is some but not all pigs are mammals.
In exam, try to make circles for every syllogism question. These questions take hardly 20-30 seconds to
solve with this method. This year these type of questions replaced mirror image questions, so never skip
these marks rich questions.
Practice Questions
Today we are sharing Practice Sets of Syllogism. Try out these and share your marks. Keep Practicing !
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SET 1
In these questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been
given. You have to decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement 1:
All fishes are birds.
No Bird is an animal.
All animals are mammals.
Conclusions A:
I At least some birds are mammals.
II All mammals being birds is a possibility.
1) Only conclusion II is true
2) Neither conclusion I or II is true
3) Both conclusion I and II are true
4) Either conclusion I or II is true
5) Only conclusion I is true
Conclusions B
I No fish is an animal
II All fishes being mammals is a possibility
Statement 2:
Some forces are groups
All groups are powers
All powers are growth
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Conclusions A
I At least some forces are growth
II All groups are growth
Conclusions B
I All forces being powers is possibility
II All powers are group

Statement 3:
Some triangle are circles
All squares are circles
Conclusions:
I At least some squares are triangle
II All circles are triangles
Statement 4:
All airways are trains
No train is a station
Some stations are airports
Conclusions:
I All airways being airports is a possibility
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II No airway is a station
1) Only conclusion I follows
2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Both conclusion I and II follows
4) Either conclusion I or II follows
5) Neither conclusion I or II follows
Statement 5:
All books are scales
All scales are pencils
Some scales are pens
Conclusions A:
I No book is pen
II All pencils are scales
Conclusions B:
I At least some scales are pen
II No scale is a pen
Statement 6:
All rainy are summers
Some summers are springs
No spring is sunny
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Conclusion A
I At least some rainy are springs
II Some sunny being summers is a possibility

Conclusion B
I All summers can never be sunny
II No spring is a sunny

SET 2
In the questions given below four statements followed by five conclusions, one of which definitely
does not logically follow ( or is not possibility of occurrence) from the given statements. That
conclusion is your answer.
Statement 1:
No toy is a doll
All boxes are toys
All bears are dolls
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All dolls are baskets

Conclusions
1) All baskets are toys
2) No box is a bear
3) All boxes being baskets is a possibility
4) All bears are baskets
5) No doll is a box
Statement 2:
Some logics are answers
All answers are arguments
All arguments are fights
No fight is a meaning
Conclusions
1) All meanings being logic is possibility
2) No meaning is an argument
3) All logics being meaning is a possibility
4) All answers are fights
5) No answer is a meaning
Statement 3:
All references are letters
All contacts are references
All comments are contacts
No letter is confirmation
Conclusions
1) No reference is a confirmation
2) All comments are letters
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3) No contact is confirmation
4) All confirmations being comments is a possibility
5) At least some letters are contacts
Statement 4:
Some moments are memories
All moments are minutes
All memories are instances
No instance is an hour
Conclusions
1) All hours being minutes is a possibility
2) No minute is a memory
3) No hour is a memory
4) At least some seconds are instances
5) At least some minutes are instances
Statement 5:
All circles are spheres
All spheres are rectangles
No rectangle is a pyramid
No pyramid is a triangle
Conclusions:
1) At least some circles are pyramid
2) All triangles being circles is a possibility
3) All rectangles being triangles is a possibility
4) At least some rectangles are circles
5) No pyramid is a sphere
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Statement 6:
No hotel is a motel
All motels are apartments
All apartments are inns
No inn is a guest house
Conclusions
1) All hotels being inns is a possibility
2) No hotel is a guest house
3) All hotels being apartments is a possibility
4) No motel is an inn
5) No guest house is an apartment
ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS
SET 1
1) Conclusion A Ans - 2) Neither conclusion I or II is true
Conclusion B Ans - 3) Both conclusion I and II are true
2) Conclusion A Ans - 5) Both conclusion I and II are true

Conclusion B -
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Ans - 3) Only conclusion I is true
3) Ans - 4) Neither conclusion I or II is true
4)
5) Conclusion A:
Ans - 4) Neither conclusion I or II follows

Conclusion B:
Ans - 3) Either conclusion I or II follows
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6) Conclusion A:
Ans - 5) Only conclusion II follows
Conclusion B:
Ans - 2) Both conclusion I and II follows
SET 2
1) Ans - 1) All baskets are toys
2) Ans - 3) All logics being meaning is a possibility
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3) Ans - 4) All confirmations being comments is a possibility
4) Ans - 2) No minute is a memory
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5) Ans - 1) At least some circles are pyramid
6) Ans - 4) No motel is an inn
Statement 1: All A are B
Now, lets try all these conclusions if they fit in this statement
1. Some A are B
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2. No A are B
3. Some A are not B
4. All B are A
5. Some B are A
6. No B are A
7. Some B are not A
Is conclusion 1 following?
Yes! Of course! All A are B, that means Some A are Definitely B
Of course not!
What about 3rd?
Yes yes. Not following
4th?
Well, can follow, if A encircles B, i.e. All A are B and All B are A
5th?
Of course, some B are A
6th?
Bullshit conclusion. How can no B are A
7th?
Well, look at 4th conclusion. Its possible that All B are A if A also encircles B. In that case,
Some B are not A will not follow. So, theres a possibility that this 7th conclusion will follow.
Understood?
Statement 2: Some A are B
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1. All A are B
2. No A are B
3. Some A are not B
4. All Bare A
5. Some B are A
6. No Bare A
7. Some B are not A
Could follow.
2nd?
Impossible.
3rd?
It wont follow in all the cases, but its possible.
4th?
Again, its possible.
5th?
Yes. Follow. In all cases.
6th?
Impossible.Nahinahinahi!
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7th?
It could be possible. Wont follow in all the cases, but yes, it also could be possible.
Statement 3: No A are B
1. All A are B
2. Some A are B
3. Some A are not B
4. All Bare A
5. Some B are A
6. No Bare A
7. Some B are not A

Conclusion 1 following?
Of course not!
2nd?
Haha..
3rd?
No A are B, then Some A are also Not B.. Yes, following!

4th?
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Clearly, not following!

5th?
What the hell. Not following!
6th?
Now this is class. Yes, follows!
7th?
Of course will follow! No A are B only means, No B are A, which also means, Some B are not A
Statement 4: Some A are not B
1. All A are B
2. Some A are B
3. No A are B
4. AllB are A
5. Some B are A
6. No Bare A
7. Some B are not A
Of course not!
2nd?
It could be possible! Not in all cases, but it could be possible
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3rd?
Again, could be possible!
4th?
Yes, yes. Could be possible!
5th?
Not in all cases, but could be possible!
6th?
Again, it also could be possible!
7th?
Again, possible!
Now, lets solve some basic questions based on all the things that weve just learned.
Question 1:
Statements:
All buckets are mugs.
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All lunch boxes are pencil boxes.

Some pencil boxes are mugs.
Some buckets are not drums.
Conclusions:
I. All mugs are lunchboxes.
II. All lunchboxes are buckets.
III. Some lunchboxes are mugs.
IV. Some drums are not mugs.
1? Not follows
2? Not follows
3? Not follows
4? Not follows
Question 2:
Statements:
Some chairs are tables.
Some desks are benches.
All benches are tables.
Some woods are not desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some benches are desks.
II. Some tables are benches.
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III. Some woods are not benches.

IV. Some desks are tables.
1? Yes
2? Yes
3? Not follows
4? Yes
Question 3:
Statements:
No bank is a market.
Some markets are offices.
All restaurants are offices.

Some banks are rooms.
Conclusions:
I. Some markets are not rooms.
II. Some offices are not banks.
III. Some restaurants are markets.
IV. Some rooms are restaurants.
1? Not Follows
2? Yes. Some offices which are Market cannot be Banks
3? Not follows
4? Not follows
Question 4:
Statements:
All ones are twos.
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Some threes are fours.

All three are ones.
All five are fours.
Conclusions:
I. Some fives are threes.
II. Some ones are fives.
III. Some twos are fives.
IV. Some twos are fours
1? Not follows
2? Not follows
3? Not follows
4? Yes. Follows
In possibility questions, the examiner asks if there exists any such case (diagram) where this
conclusion is valid. So, you job is to find out this case. If there exists at least one such case, then
the conclusion holds true. If not, then the conclusion is false. As simple as that!
Keeping this and also the previous Syllogism Post in mind, lets solve some possibility
questions.
Abbreviations that I used:
Basic Diagram = BD
Modified Diagram = MD
Question 1:
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Statements:
A. All flowers are trees
B. Some trees are houses
C. All houses are wheels
Lets first make a BD according to these statements.
Conclusions:
1. At least some wheels are trees
2. Some trees are flowers
3. All wheels are flower is a possibility
Now, see the BD,

Conclusion 1 clearly follows.
Conclusion 2 also clearly follows.
But, what about Conclusion 3?
Lets make a MD and see if it follows or not!
In the MD, we can clearly see that all the statements are still valid, and Conclusion 3 also is
following. So, Conclusion 3 follows.
1? Follows
2? Follows
3? Follows
Understood?
Lets now solve another question!
Question 2:
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Statements:
A. Some desks are chairs
B. Some chairs are pens
C. Some pens are drawers
First, make a BD according to these statements.
Conclusions:
1. At least some drawers are desks
2. There is a possibility all drawers are chairs
3. No drawer is a chair
Now, see the BD
Conclusion 1 clearly doesnt follow.

Lets make a MD
See the MD, Conclusion 2 follows in it.
And if there is a possibility that All drawers are chairs, then how could No drawer is a chair
follow?
So, Conclusion 3 will not follow!
1? Doesnt follows
2? Follows
3? Doesnt follows
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Understood?
Lets solve another one!
Question 3:
Statements:
A. All politicians are corrupt
B. Some politicians are honest
C. No leader is honest
Conclusions:
1. Some politicians are not leader
2. All honest being corrupt is a possibility
3. Some leaders are not corrupt

Now, see the BD,
Some politicians, which are honest (Red Portion), cannot beleaders.
So, Conclusion 1 clearly follows.
Lets make a MD.
See the MD, Conclusion 2 clearly follows!
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What about conclusion 3?

Lets make another MD.
See the last diagram, All leaders are corrupt could be a possibility! So, Conclusion 3 doesnt
follow.
1? Follows
2? Follows
3? Doesnt follows
Understood?
Question 4:
Statements:
A. Some people are intelligent
B. All intelligent are honest
C. No intelligent is smart
Conclusions:
1. Some honest are not smart
2. All people being honest is a possibility
3. Some honest are people
Now, see the BD,
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Some honest, which are intelligent (Red Portion), cannot be smart.

So, Conclusion 1 follows.
Lets make a MD.

See the MD, Conclusion 2 clearly follows.
Conclusion 3 also follows.
1? Follows
2? Follows
3? Follows
Understood?
Question 5:
Statements:
A. Some writers are poets
B. All poets are singers
C. Many singers are actors
D. No singer is a dancer
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Conclusions:
1. Some writers are singers
2. Some actors are not dancers
3. All poets being actor is a possibility
4. No poet is a dancer
See the BD,
Also, some actors, which are singers (Red Portion), cannot be dancers.
So, Conclusion 2 also follows.

Lets make a MD.
See the MD,
Also, since no singer is a dancer, so, no poet is a dancer.
Hence, Conclusion 4 is also following!
1? Follows
2? Follows
3? Follows
4? Follows
Understood?
PS: Try re-doing these questions again if you still feel confused. Confusions will be clear
this way!
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3.Coding and Decoding Tricks

Coding is a process in which a word, a number, or a series of combination of words and numbers
is expressed in a particular code or pattern based on various rules. You have to answer the
questions based on these set of rules.
Decoding is the process of (interpreting) deciphering the coded pattern and reverting it to its
original form from the given codes. Hence, you are required to understand the logic behind the
coding pattern and then apply this logic to find answers.
Handy Tips:
1. Letter positions as per English Alphabet Series: (A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4.Y=25, Z=26).
To learn this, remember a shortcut for the position of letters i.e. EJOTY where E=5,
J=10, O=15, T=20 & Y=25)
2. Letter positions as per reverse English Alphabet Series (A=26, B=25, C=24 ., Z=1)
3. Corresponding letter of each letter i.e., the pair of letters at the same distance from start
and end of the English Alphabet Series (A is opposite to Z; B is opposite to Y, and C is
opposite to X and so on) and to learn this one can use different acronyms for e.g. for AZ
> AZar; BY > BYe; CX> CruX; DW>DeW and so on.This topic can be divided in
to the following subtopics based on the logic incorporated:
(I) Coding Decoding by Letter Shifting:
In this method, one or more English words are given with their respective codes. The coding is
based on shifting the positions of the individual letters based on their place in the English
Alphabet. You have to identify a common pattern and apply the same pattern to the word in the
question to find its code or apply the reverse pattern to the given code to find the original word.
Example 1:
In a certain code MONARCHY is written as NPOBSDIZ. How will STANDARD be
written in that code?
Solution:
In this question, each letter of MONARCHY is simply replaced by its next letter as per English
Alphabet.
M + 1 = N;
O + 1 = P;
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N + 1 = O;
A + 1 = B;
R + 1 = S;
C + 1 = D;
H + 1 = I;
Y + 1 = Z.
Based on similar pattern, code for STANDARD is TUBOEBSE.
Lets take a slightly more complicated example.
Example 2:
In a certain code ARCHERY is written as DSBGZSF. How will the word TERMITE be
Solution and Steps Involved:
1. Write down the letters in one line and its code in the line below.
2. Analyze the coding pattern by matching the code with the word.
We can see that the word has been divided into three parts, where letters of the first and third
parts are increased by 1 position and then reversed among themselves while the lone letter in the
middle part is decreased by 1.
NOTE: Here increasing or decreasing by n place means, exchanging the current letter
with a letter that is n places to the right or left, respectively, in the English Alphabet.
3. Once the pattern has been identified, find the code for the word asked in the question:
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Hence, code for TERMITE is SFULFUJ

Variations:
a. Just the jumbling of letters with no substitution by any other letter: The jumbling can be done
directly or by dividing the given word in multiple parts and jumbling each part separately.
Try It Yourself 1 (TIY1):
In a certain code COUNTERS is written as SRETNUOC. Then find out how CLEARING is
written in that code language?
(a) CGLNEIAR (b) GNIRCLEA (c) GRINGACLE (d) CLEANRIG (e) GNIRAELC
NOTE: Leave your answers for Try It Yourself Examples in the comments. State the TIY
No. and the answer option or the answer itself.
In a certain code STRATEGIC is written as TSARTGECI. Then find out how STIPULATE
is written in that code language?
(a) USTIPALET (b) PLATEUSTI (c) TSPIUALET (d) PULATESIT (e) TIPSUATEL
b. Just the shifting of letters, which can be done in any pattern:
(i) Shifting of all the letters by a constant value.
If VXUPLVH is written as SURMISE, what is OHPRQ the code for?
(a) LEMON
(b) OPENS
(c) MELON
(d) NAMED
(e) RKSUT
(ii) Shifting of all letters by an increasing or decreasing value.
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TIY 4:
In a certain code language, the word NEATLY is written as WORDCQ and the word
PRAISE is written as CVGDPS. How will the word SUMMIT be written in that code
language?
(a) PSVRLK
(b) VSPKLR
(c) RLKPSV
(d) KLRVSP
(e) None of these
c. Jumbling of letters as well as shifting of the letters:

(i) Both the processes may be followed in the whole word. (as seen in Solved Example 2.)
(ii) It can also be that jumbling is done in one part and shifting is done in another part.
TIY 5:
In a certain code, GRANDEST is written as NARGFHWY. Then what is the code for
MOTHERLY?
(a)ORXMGUPD (b)HTOMGUPD (c)HTOMYLRE (d)YLREHTOM (e)None of these
(II) Coding Letters of a Word:
In these questions, the letters of one or more words are coded in terms of symbols/digits/other
letters. You have to identify the code of the individual letter by comparing and based on this,
find out the code for given word.
Types:
A. There is a one to one relation between letters and the code, which you can identify by just
comparing letters with the code of same place value.
Example 3:
In a certain code CAMPHOR is written as 6$3#152 and SAKE is written as @$98. How is
MORSE written in that code language?
1. Write down letters and codes corresponding to their position.
2. Check common letters in given words and their codes.
3. If the common letter has same code each time, highlight the letters that are part of the word
that has been asked in the question.
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C6 S@
A$ A$
M3K9
P# E8
H1
O5
R2
4. Rewrite the word in the question and corresponding codes below each letter. (Remember here
order of letters will matter.)
MORS E
3 5 2 @8
Hence, the code for MORSE is 352@8.
Variations:
a. Letters are coded as other letters without any letter shifting or jumbling. These may appear
tough as you might be looking for letter shifting patterns. But there is only direct correspondence
between the letters of the word and the letters of the code and no other relationship exists.
Example 4:
If CARING is coded as MPDRGF, and SHARES is coded as XLPDUX, how could CASKET be
possibly coded in
the same code?
(a) MPXBUN (b) MXPGUN
(c) MPDDUX (d) LMPGFR
(e) FGRDXP
Solutions and Steps Involved:

1. First establish correspondence.
2. Find the common codes.
3. If the common letter has same code each time, highlight the letters that are part of the word
that has been asked in the question.
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4. Rewrite the word in the question and corresponding codes below each letter. (Remember here
order of letters will matter.)
5. If there are letters in the question word whose codes you cant find, then leave them blank.
C AS KE T
MP X U
6. For the possible answer, check the options. The blank spaces must not be filled with any of
the remaining codes from the given question. It must be filled with new codes. There will be
only one such answer. In the given question, the blank spaces cannot be filled with D,R,G,F or L.
From the given options, we can see that the answer is
CASKET MPXBUN
NOTE: When asked to find a possible code, remember that there is no need to find the
exact code. In fact, there may be many possible correct codes. You just need to find the
code among the options that could be a fit. This can be accomplished by finding the codes
of the letters that are definitely there. And the rest of the code can be found out by
removing the letters that shouldnt be in the code. Then find the correct code from the
options.
b. When the positions do not strictly correspond one to one.
TIY 6:
The entities in the code are not necessarily in the same order as the letters in the word for which
they stand. If the first two words given on the left are coded as the words given on the right,
which of the following could be a possible code for the third word?
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GRAD
RENT
RIDE
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polt
zqtf
(a) ptbq (b) ztof (c) mtaf (d) ftcz (e) None of these
B. This is the extension of the first type. In this logic, a string of letters and a string of same
number of codes (both numeric and symbols) is given right below it. A set of conditions are
provided to follow while answering the questions. You have to code the word given in the
question as per the given conditions.
Example 5:
In the below question a group of letters or word is given followed by some conditions. You have
to find the code for the word based on the following letter coding system.
Letters
MLEGSKRUBWC HI AP
Digit/Symbol 4 8 $ 1 # 5 7 2 6 % 3 9 @
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code
for the consonant.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as .
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel the codes for first and last letters
are to be interchanged.
Find the code for BELGIUM
1. Write down the given word and identify the nature of its first and last letter.
2. Identify the condition that goes with it.
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Here, the first and the last letters are both consonants, so we need to apply condition (ii).
3. Write down the code as per given seriesThe code of the word as per given conditions:
BELGI UM
2 $ 8 1 34
4. Apply the condition identified above to get the final answer.On applying condition (ii), we
have to change the codes for the first and the last letter as .Hence, code for BELGIUM $
813
Variations:
a. The conditions might be given for letters other than the first and the last letter.
TIY 7,8,9:
In the question below, a group of letters or word is given followed by some conditions. You have
Letters
MLEGSKRUBWC HI AP
Digit/Symbol 4 8 $ 1 # 5 7 2 6 % 3 9 @
Conditions:
(i) if more than two vowels are there in the group of letters, all vowels are to be coded as
(ii) if third letter is a consonant, code the letter as b.
(iii) if fifth letter is a vowel, code the letter as d
Now find the code for
TIY 7: AGUMKE
TIY 8: BEWSMU
TIY 9: KGAPUB
b. The conditions might be given on position values of letters in the English Alphabet instead of
them being Vowels and Consonants.
TIY 10,11,12:
In the below question a group of letters or word is given followed by some conditions. You have
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Letters
MLEGSKRUBWC HI AP
Digit/Symbol 4 8 $ 1 # 5 7 2 6 % 3 9 @
Conditions:
(i) if the sum of positions of first and second letters of the word is 8 then both are to be coded as
(ii) if product of positions of letters at even positions of the word are 24 then they are to be coded
as d
(iii) if difference of positions of third and fifth letters of the word is 8 then they are to be coded
as
Now find the code for
TIY 10: WHKPAC
TIY 11: BRGSAU
TIY 12: HBRMCI
(III) Coding by Analogy:
Analogy means correspondence. In the coding questions based on analogy, a relationship is
given between entities and another relationship or expression has to be identified/calculated
based on this analogy. Analogy is meant to test ones ability to reason and follow certain rules.
Types:
A. In these types of questions, mathematical operators are coded as some letters or numbers.
Subsequently, a mathematical expression is given with letters or numbers written between the
numbers. You have to calculate the value of the expression based on the given conditions.
Example 6:
If Q denotes ; R denotes -, T denotes and W denotes +, then find the value of the
expression 20R12T4Q6W5.
1) Write down the given expression as it is and write down the rules so that you dont need to
refer the question again and again
Given expression is: 20R12T4Q6W5
The relations are as following:
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QRTW
Denotes
+
2) Replace the letters/numbers/operators as per given relations.
On substituting the letters as per the given rules, the expression becomes:
20 12 4 6 + 5
3) Apply the BODMAS rule to correctly solve the expression to get the final answer.
Solving the above expression using BODMAS rule:
20 [(12 4) 6] + 5
= 20 [3 6] + 5
= 20 [18] + 5
= 25 18 = 7
Variations:
a. The relations can be given between a pair of operators instead of letters and operators, for
example, + is coded as ; - is coded as , and so on.
Try It Yourself 13 (TIY 13):
If + means - , - means , means and means +, then what is the value of 38
336 24 2 + 18 =?
(a) 118
(b) 86
(c) 12
(d) 48
(e) None of these
b. The relations can be given between symbols and operators, for example, is coded as @;
+ is coded as $, and so on.
TIY 14:
If % means , @ means , & means + and # means , then what will be the average
of five consecutive even numbers where R is the smallest number?
(a) R & 10 # 5
(b) R & 4
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(c) 40 # R & 5
(d) (R & 20) # 2
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(e) None of these
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B. In this category, successive analogies between many words is given. You need to find the
code of the given new word. The code is deciphered by relating the word according to the given
conditions.
Example 7:
If red means white, white means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means violet and
violet means red, then which of the following represents the color of mustard flower?
a. First, you need to know the word you are looking for.
We know that mustard flower is originally of color yellow.
b. Then check the coding of that word as per the question.
But, in the given question, it is given that in the code white stands for yellow. Therefore the
correct answer is white.
NOTE: In the above example, it is important to avoid two common mistakes. Know which
is the code and which is the word. Different wordings give you different ways of
understanding the question. If the question reads A means B then A is the code for the
word B. So if we want color B, then we use the code A. We cant use it the other way
around. If the question reads A is B then A is the word and B is the code. If the question
reads A is called B then clearly A is the word and B is the code.
Also, it is important not to follow the trail. Meaning if A is B, B is C, C is D, and you
need to find the code for A, then the answer is B and not C or D. In the example above,
Your answer yellow is coded as white, and white is coded as red and so on. However,
we dont need to look beyond the first relation i.e. code for yellow. Rest of the codes are just
there to confuse you.
(IV) Coding decoding based on operations on place value:
In this type of questions, one or more words are given and some numeric value is given against
them. You have to find out the relation between place values of letters of that word as per
English Alphabet and the number given against it. You have to apply the same relation to find
the numeric value of the word asked in the question.
Example 8:
If the code for HEN is 27, what will be the code for ASK?
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1) Write down the word given in the question and place value of each of its letters as per the
English Alphabet below it.
HEN
8 5 14 As per their place in the English Alphabet
2) Try to identify a relation between these position values and the number given against the
word.
HEN is given as 27.
We can see, 27 = 8 + 5 + 14.
Hence, we have figured out a relation: The given number is the sum of the place values of the
letters according to the English Alphabet.
3) Write down the position values of the letters of the word asked in the question.
AS K
1 19 11
4) Apply the same relation between the position values of this word to find the final answer.
Hence, code for ASK is:
1 + 19 + 11 = 31
Variations:
a. The relation can be more complex than just the sum of the position values.
TIY 15:
If Code for RAT is 9267, then what is the code for MET?
TIY 16:
If code for BOY is 267 then what is code for GIRL
(V) Coding Decoding in Fictitious Language:
In this type of question, two or more statements are given against each of which a string of
random codes is given. You need to identify common words between any pair of statements and
common codes in their respective strings of codes to find out the codes of these common words.
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Keep doing this until all such comparisons are exhausted and you have found out the codes for
all the words possible.
Example 9:
Directions: In a certain code, calendar contains all holidays is coded as si ma kc du;
holidays are real fun is coded as si vt gs tm; juice contains real fruit is coded as ma ky gs
mk and fun and fruit calendar is coded as ke lm mk ze.
How will fruit contains real juice be coded in this code language?
1) Write down all the statements and their codes one after another.
2) Pick any two statements which have common word(s) and compare their code strings to find
out the common codes between them.
3) Highlight common words and common codes in a unique fashion.
In statements 1 and 2, holidays is the common word and si is the common code, hence, code
for holidays is si which we have highlighted by drawing a box around them.
4) Continue this process until all such cases are exhausted.
From statement 1 and 3, contains is the common word and ma is the common code, hence,
code for contains is ma which we have circled.
Similarly, we will compare other pair of statements to find out the codes for rest of the words.
Hence,
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Code for fruit mk

Code for calendar ke
Code for fun tm
Code for real gs
Code for juice ky (because only juice and ky is left in statement 3)
Now pick the words asked in the question and their corresponding words to get the final answer.
Hence, code for fruit contains real juice is mk ma gs ky.
Variations:
a. In place of the code for whole string, code for individual words might be asked
TIY 17:
In a certain code res tur dimi wez means my pointer was theft; soz res lem ner means
your pointer is here; res zet tur lem means blue pointer was here and dimi res tur soz
means your pointer was theft. Which of the following is the code of the word here?
(a) tur
(b) ner
(c) dimi
(d) lem
(e) None of these
b. A code or string of codes might be given and you will need to decode it.
TIY 18:
In a certain code, solution it correct is written as fi jb nu; When is it is written as fi be vi;
correct for here is written as sc to jb and here she is is written as li be to. What does the
code sc stand for?
(a) here
(b) for
(c) she
(d) correct
(e) None of these
(V) Coding Decoding by Pattern Weights:

In this type the letters of the word are assigned weights (values) depending on whether they are
vowels/consonants, the number of letters in the word, and the pattern of arrangement. The rest is
a one-to-one correspondence. The codes could be repeated.
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Example 10:
ONE (5)(15)(10)
ACT (10)(5)(15)
WOW (10)(5)(10)
OUT (10)(15)(20)
CUT (35)(20)(5)
MOO (30)(10)(10)
END (10)(5)(15)
If the words given above are coded thus, then what should be the code for OWL?
1) Identify the pattern among the given words. For example, the word (ONE) beginning with and
ending with different vowels and with a consonant in the middle is coded as (5)(15)(10).
Similarly, the word (WOW) beginning and ending with the same consonant and with a vowel in
the middle is coded as (10)(5)(10).
2) Identify the pattern of the question word. And find the word in the list that matches this
pattern. In the given question, OWL begins with a vowel and the remaining two letters are
different consonants. The word in the list that matches this pattern is END.
3) The code for the matching word is the code required.
So OWL (10)(5)(15)
Apply these tips to crack the code of Coding and Decoding for bank exams. Good luck!
ANSWER KEY for TRY IT YOURSELF (TIY) in PART 1 and PART 2:
1. What is the code for have?

1. pik
2. bik
3. vik
4. rik
5. sik
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Answer 3. vik
2. Which word is coded as lik?
1. do
2. not
3. often
4. need
5. beat
Answer 5. beat
3. What is the code for you do not beat?
1. bik rik tik cik
2. rik bik tik lik
3. yik bik tik rik
4. cik lik bik tik
5. None of these
Answer 2. rik bik tik lik
4. What is the code for company to need you?
1. cik sik nik pik
2. nik cik sik fik
3. cik sik nik rik
4. rik nik pik cik
5. None of these
Answer 3. cik sik nik rik
5. What can be the code for company need your thoughts?
1. nik yik cik bik
2. cik bik yik rik
3. yik cik nik mik
4. bik pik cik sik
5. yik rik bik mik
Answer 3. yik cik nik mik
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1. What is the code for Y?

1. $
2. 9
3. 8
4. #
5.
Answer 3. 8
2. What is coded as 5?
1. I
2. L
3. E
4. M
5. T
Answer 4. M
3. What can be the code for GEAR?
1. ?36
2. ?35
3. 36@
4. 36?#
5. None of these
Answer 1. ?36
4. What is coded as $@5??
1. LITE
2. LATE
3. LIME
4. LOST
5. REST
Answer 3. LIME
5. What can be the code for BOMBAY?
1. #95#63
2. #95?68
3. #95@38
4. 59#538
5. #95#68
Answer 5. #95#68
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Q(1 5) Study the information below and answer the following question:
In a certain code language,
committee to protect journalists is written as es fr re pt,
protect people in city is written as ch ba mo fr
people to follow on is written as re dv ch gi
follow tips to protect is written as re gi fr yu
(All the codes are two-letter codes only.)
Explanation
To re
Protect fr
People ch
Follow -gi
on dv
tips yu
Committee / Journalists pt / es
city / in ba / mo
1. What is the code for city in the given code language?
A. mo
B. yu
C. ch
D. Other than those given as options
E. Either ba or mo
Answer E. Either ba or mo
2. In the given code language, what does the code pt stand for?
A. follow
B. Either journalists or committee
C. city
D. protect
E. Either city or in
Answer B.Either journalists or committee
3. What may be the code for Protect us in the given code language?
A. dv iq
B. iq gi
C. iq fr
D. gi es
E. fr dv
Answer C. iq fr
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4. What is the code for to in the given code language?

A. mo
B. fr
C. gi
D. dv
E. re
Answer E. re
5. If follow on twitter is coded as dv wz gi in the given code language, then what is
the code for Tips on twitter?
A. wz ch es
B. dv wz yu
C. yu mo wz
D. fr es wz
E. ch yu fr
Answer B. dv wz yu
Q(6 10) Study the information below and answer the following question:
In a certain code language,
beautiful flowers for women is written as di mi bo ge,
tips for working women is written as so li ge mi
women like to give is written as ge fx wr ct
give beautiful tips and is written as bo so ct ym
(All the codes are two-letter codes only.)
Explanation
to / like wr /fx
women ge
give ct
for -mi
beautiful bo
flowers di
tips so
working li
and ym
6. What may be the possible code for Tips please in the given code language?
A. so fx
B. ge so
C. ct bo
D. so mu
E. None of the Above
Answer D. so mu
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7. What is the code for give in the given code language?

A. so
B. ge
C. ct
D. mu
Answer C. ct
8. In the given code language, what does and stands for?
A. so
B. ge
C. ct
D. mu
E. ym
Answer E. ym
9. What is the code for women in the given code language?
A. so
B. ge
C. ct
D. mu
E. ym
Answer B. ge
10. What is the code for like in the given code language?
A. Either so or ct
B. ge
C. Either fx or wr
D. mu
E. other than those given as options
Answer C. Either fx or wr
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4.Blood Relation Tricks

The blood relationship formula are outlined in this post. It would be
useful to read and know these formula to answer the blood relationship
questions of UPSC, IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk, RBI, SBI, other bank exams
& all Insurance exams.
Fathers side
Mothers side
Mothers or Fathers Father
Mothers or Fathers Mother
Mothers or Fathers Brother
Mothers or Fathers Sister
Mothers or Fathers Son
Mothers or Fathers Daughter
Sons Wife
Daughters Husband
Husbands or wifes Father
Husbands or wifes Mother
Husbands or wifes Brother
Husbands or wifes Sister
Sisters Husband
Brothers Wife
Brothers or Sisters Son
Brothers or Sisters Daughter
Uncles or Aunts Son or Daughter
Cousin)
Son or Daughter of the First Cousin
Second Cousin)
Grandsons or Grand Daughters Son
Grandsons or Grand Daughterss Daughter
Fathers or Mothers Aunt
Fathers or Mothers Uncle
Real Brother or Sister (Common Parents)
Paternal
Maternal
Grandfather (Maternal or Paternal)
Grandmother (Maternal or Paternal)
Uncle
Aunt
Brother
Sister
Daughter-in-law
Son-in-law
Father-in-law
Mother-in-law
Brother-in-law
Sister-in-law
Brother-in-law
Sister-in-law
Nephew
Niece
Cousin (He is considered as First
Cousin (He is mainly addressed as
Great Grand son
Great Grand Daughter
Grand Aunt or Grand Aunt
Grand Uncle or Great Uncle
Sibling
How to Draw Tree Diagram
For Male Use + Symbol and for Female use - Symbol.

A is Father of B
Here we know A is Male and we dont know about B.
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A is Mother of B
A is the Wife of B
(Use Heart symbol when it is about couples)
A and B are Brothers and C is their Mom and D is their Dad.
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A and B are the Parents of C and D. E and F are sisters. C is their Mother. Z is husband
of C.
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Z is the Son-in-law of A and B. We dont know the gender of D. The possibility for D is
Uncle/Aunt of E and F. If D is Male it makes him Brother-in-law of Z and if D is Female
it makes her Sister-in-law of Z.
This is the basic in solving Problems related to Blood Relationship. You need to accurate
and also fast. In this area it is possible to save lots of time. Do solve more problems and
understand how the TREE works. You dont need to follow exactly the above steps. If
you are comfortable in some other way follow that.
If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to

A?
We dont know the Gender of D. The Possibilities are,

If D is Male Nephew.
If D is Female Niece.
P is the mother of K; K is the sister of D; D is the father of J. How is P related to J?
P is Grandmother of J.
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As son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B. How D is

related to A?
From the Diagram, it is clear that, B and E are Brothers; C and D are Sisters. B and E are
Sons of A.
The Answer D is the Daughter-in-law of A.
T is the Sister of R, who is the Brother of V, who is the Son of S. How T related to S?
T is the Daughter of S.
T is the Brother of R, who is the Mother of V, who is the Brother of S. How S related to
T?
We dont the Gender of S. But the Possibility is S is the Nephew/Niece of T

P is the Son of Q, who is the Brother of R, who is the Daughter of T. How is P related to
T?
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P is the Grandson of T.
A is the only Son of B, who is the Father of C. How C related to A?
The Only Son word makes C Female. So C is the Sister of A.

Q1. Pinky, who is Victor's daughter, say to Lucy, "Your Mother Rosy is the younger sister of
my Father, who is the third child of Joseph." How is Joseph related to Lucy?
a) Father - In - Law
b) Father
c) Maternal Uncle
d) Grand Father
Solution
(Option D)
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Joseph has three children, One is X, second is Victor and Third is Rosy. It is not clear X is male or
female. Rosy is the mother of Lucy so Joseph is the grandfather of Lucy that is clearly shown in
the above diagram.
Q2. Mohan is the Son of Arun's Father's sister. Prakash is the son of Reva, who is the mother
of Vikas and Grandmother of Arun. Pranab is the father of Neela and the grandfather of
Mohan. Reva is the wife of Pranab. How is the wife of Vikas related to the neela?
a) Sister
b) Sister - In - Law
c) Niece
d) None of The Above
Solution
(Option B)
As the diagram shows that Vikas is Neela's brother so wife of Vikas will be Neela's Sister - in Law.
Q3. T, S and R are three brothers. T's son Q is married to K and they have one child Rahul
blessed to them. M the son of S is married to H and this couple is blessed with a daughter
Madhvi. R has a daughter N who is married to P. This couple has one daughter Karuna born to
them. How is Madhvi related to S?
a) Daughter
b) Niece
c) Grand Daughter
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Solution
(Option C)
In the above diagram, its clearly shows that Madhvi is granddaughter of S.
Q4. Arti and Saurabh are the children of Mr and Mrs Shah. Ritu and Shakti are the children of
Mr and Mrs. Mehra. Saurabh and Ritu are married to each other and two daughter Mukti and
Shruti are born to them. Shakti is married to Rina and two children Subhash and Reshma are
born to them. How is Arti related to Shruti?
a) Mother
b) Mother - in - Law
c) Sister
d) Aunt
Solution
(Option D)
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Arti is Aunt of Shruti. It can be seen clearly from the above diagram.
Q5. In a family, there are seven persons, comprising two married couples. T is the son of M
and the grandson of K. M is a widower. M and R are brothers and W is the daughter - in - Law
of J, who is the mother of R and the grandmother of D. How is D related to M?
a) Son
b) Son - in - Law
c) Nephew or Niece
d) Brother
Solution
(Option C)
D is Nephew or Niece of M because gender of D is not specify in the question.

We have included Some questions that are repeatedly asked in bank exams !!!
1. Direction:(1-3)
A B means A is wife of B
A B means A is brother of B
A + B means A is daughter of B
A B means A is son of B
How is A related to D in the given expression ?
A+BCD
1)Grand son
2)Granddaughter
3)Daughter
4)Mother
Answer2)Granddaughter
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2. Which of the following symbol will come in place of ? to make the expression Q is
daughter-in-law of T true ?
P+QR?ST
1)
2)+
3)4)
Answer1)
3. In which of the following expressions N is the father of M ?
1)MNO P
2)N-OPM
3)POMN
4)None
Answer1)MNO P
4. Direction(4-5)
A @ B means A is wife of B
A $ B means A is father of B
A # B means A is mother of B
A % B means A is son of B
A B means A is sister of B
How is P related to M in the given expression: M % N O @ P $ Q ?
1)Brother
2)Father
3)Aunt
4)Uncle
Answer4)Uncle
5. Which of the following expression represents D is brother of G ?
1)D @ E $ F $ G
2)D % E @ F $ G
3)G % F @ E $ D
4)None
Answer2)D % E @ F $ G
6. Direction(6-8)A is the sister of B. B is married to C. C is the son of D. A is the
mother of E. F is the father of G. F has only 1 son and 1 daughter. G is the daughter
of A. H is the son of B.
How is H related to D ?
1)Granddaughter
2)Daughter
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3)Grandson
4)Son
Answer3)Grandson
7. How is C related to A ?
1)Brother
2)Sister
3)Uncle
4)Brother-in-law
Answer4)Brother-in-law
8. How is E related to B ?
1)Uncle
2)Son
3)Niece
4)Nephew
Answer4)Nephew
9. P is brother of Q. R is sister of Q.S is father of R. How is Q related to S ?
1)Son
2)Daughter
3)Daughter or Son
4)Sister
Answer3)Daughter or Son
10. A persons pointing to a photograph says, This lady is my sisters sons
grandmother. How is the lady related to that person ?
1)Mother
2)Father
3)Brother
4)Sister
Answer1)Mother
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5.Direction Sense Tricks

e keep track of direction is primarily based on the sun or the Pole Star. We know that the sun
rises in the east and sets in the west, so there is four major directions that we prepared based on
positioning of the sun, which is South, East, North and West and four sub directions are North-
East, South-East, North-West and South-West.

Direction Sense Test
The main aim of this type of examination is to test the candidates knowledge of direction and
ability to trace and follow or we can say sense the path or direction. Now In this type of direction
sense test problems, what we have to do is to make a diagram as quickly as possible on a paper
as per the question given. The direction sense test problems involves a person moving in the
given directions and the candidate is asked to find out the distance from the initial point or
direction in which the person in the question is standing etc.
Memory tool
For example you are given a question like this:
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Question: Mohan starts to walk towards east from his home and traveled 15meters. He then
takes a left turn and walked 10m. again he takes a right turn and walked 07m finally he takes a
right turn and walks 10m and takes his destination. So how far is he from his starting position
and which direction is he facing?
And the options are:
22 meters west
22 meters east
22 meters south-west
22 meters north-east
Solution: For solving the question, you might take to draw a diagram on paper. For example
consider 2cm as a 5m, You have to think that you are travelling the distance. The most important
thing to care about is in which direction the person starts. So read the question very carefully
first and then start as the given points of solution are below:
In the question above the person Mohan starts walking in east direction as given.
Mohan starts to walk towards east and walk 15 meters, Make a line going straight up as
given below and mark it 15m. think yourself as you have traveled 15m in the east
direction.
Now as per the question, Mohan takes a left turn and walks 10m. so move your line to
10m in left direction as shown below.

Again Mohan takes a right turn and walks 07m. so again move your line to 07m right as
given below in the diagram.
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At last he takes a right turn and walks 10m. so again move your line to 10m right as given
below diagram.
Finally with the help of last diagram, you can easily find out which direction Mohan is
facing.
Answer: So Mohan is 15+07 = 22 meters far from his home and direction he is facing is
east.
If I move 4 km towards east and then I travel 3 km towards north. What is my distance from
the starting point?
Remember your starting point is always the centre of the direction map.
Solution:
First of all, draw the map according to the directions
It is a right angled triangle so by Pythagorean theorem
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H2 = P2 +B2
= 32 + 42
= 9 + 16
= 25
H=5
So I am at a distance of 5 KM from the starting point.
Similarly you can be asked to find the direction
If I move 4 KM towards east and then I travel 3 Km towards north. In which direction I am from
the starting point?
Solution:
Draw the map and try to superpose the direction map like this
Now it is quite clear from the map that I am in NE direction from the starting point.
This question can also be asked in a different way like :
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In which direction I am from my final position ?,
Now scenario will change and the final position would act as the centre of the map.
It is clear from the map I am in SW direction from my starting position.
There are a few thing that you need to keep in mind while solving these questions
1. Direction : N S E W
2. Left Right
3. Straight / opposite
4. Sunrise and sunset
A person starts from position A. He goes towards the east and then takes a right turn .Again the
person takes a left turn and moves and then again he move 45 degree right. In which direction he is
from the starting position?
Solution;
Consider yourself as the person and draw the map.
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It is clear that he is in the SE direction the starting point.
A person P is standing at a point , another person Q is standing in the north of P. Qs friend R is in

right of Q and Ps friend S is standing left of P.In which direction R is standing with respect to S.
Solution:
It is clear from the picture with respect to R , S is SW direction.
In which direction is S with respect to R ?
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It is clear that with respect to R, S is in the NE direction.
I start from my house and go straight and come at a cross road. The road which is coming
from opposite direction ends at a hospital. When I walk from my house and turn right , there
is a park on that road and opposite to park there is a school.What would be the direction of
my house from the school.
Solution:
If it is straight , we can assume any direction.
Here the assumed direction is EAST.
My house is in the SW from the school.

What would be direction of school from my house ?
Solution:
Clearly school is NE direction from the school.
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SUNRISE and SUNSET

Sun rises in the EAST then it shadow will be in the WEST.
Sun sets in the WEST then it shadow will be in the EAST.
A man is facing towards the NORTH. At sunrise where will his shadow be? And if he is facing
SOUTH. Then where will his shadow be?
Solution:
If he is facing NORTH, his shadow will be in the WEST or in the left of the person.
And If he is facing South , Then also his shadow will be in THE WEST or in the RIGHT
of the person.
At a glance
Direction is a measurement of position of one thing with respected to another thing.
Displacement is the measurement of distance between initial and the final point.
Here the candidate's ability to trace and follow the logical path correctly and sense of direction correctly
as well. Direction and distance test mainly deals with two types of direction i.e.. main direction and
cardinal direction
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Main Direction
There are four type of directions, viz. East West North and South. Sun rises in the East.
Just opposite of East is West and South is in the opposite to North.
Abbreviations for these directions are E (East), W (West), N (North) and S (South).
Cardinal Directions
A direction between two main directions is called cardinal direction. Clearly, there are
four cardinal directions.
They are
N-E (North-East)
N-W (North-West)
S-E (South-East) and
S-W (South-West)
We should use the diagram as given in question for the purpose of sensing directions.
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Note:- Angle formed between two main directions is 90o and angle formed between a
cardinal direction and main direction is 45 o
Rotation of Angles
To solve angle movement questions. It is necessary to know about the rotations of

angles which are given below
i) For right direction movement (Clockwise)
ii) For left direction movement (Anti-clockwise)
Left turn Anti-clockwise direction

Right turn Clockwise direction
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The Change in Direction when a Person or Vehicle Takes A Right or a Left Turn
Direction before
taking the turn
Direction in which the person or vehicle will be moving after

taking the turn
Right
Left
North
East
West
South
West
East
East
South
North
West
North
South
The distance from a point is P in horizontal direction and a distance of Q in vertical

direction is equal to
.
Phythogoras Throrem
I. QR2 = QP2 + PR2 or QR=
II. QP2 = QR2 PR2 or QP =
III. PR2 = QR2 QP2 or PR=
Shadow Case
In morning/ Sunrise time
a)
b)
c)
d)
If a person facing towards Sun, the shadow will be towards his back or in west.
If a person facing towards South, the shadow will be towards his right.
If a person facing towards West, the shadow will be towards his front.
If a person facing towards North, the shadow will be towards his left.
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In evening/ Sunset time
a)
b)
c)
d)
If a person facing towards Sun, the shadow will be towards his back or in East.
If a person facing towards North, the shadow will be towards his right.
If a person facing towards East, the shadow will be towards his front.
If a person facing towards South, the shadow will be towards his left.
Note- At 12:00 noon is no shadow because the rays of the Sun are vertically downward.
Question covered under the head of direction test further divided into following types
Type 1. Final Direction Based
In this type of questions, we have to ascertain the final direction with respected to the
initial point or the directional relations between two points/things.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Example 1. A man is facing towards West and turns through 450 clockwise, again 1800
clockwise and then turns through 2700 anti-clockwise. In which direction is he facing
now?
West
North-West
North
South
South-West
Ans. e)
Finally on moving 2700 anti- clockwise, he faces in the direction OS which is South-West.
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Type-2 Distance (Displacement) Based
In this type of question, we deal with the final distance between starting and final point
or between two points/persons/things. There are various formats/patterns of
displacement.
Example 1. Mayank walks 20 m North. Then, he turns right and walks 30 m. Now, he
turns right and walks 35 m. Now, turning left, he walks 15 m. Again, he turns lefts and
moves 15 m. Finally, turning left he again walks 15 m. In which direction and how far
is he from his original position?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
15 m, East
45 m, East
15 m, West
45 m, West
None of these
Ans. b)
Mayanks distance from his original position (AF) = BC + DE = 30 + 15 = 45 m

Also F lies to East of A.
Type-3. Distance (Displacement) and Direction Based
In this type of questions, we deal with the final distance between starting and final point
of any person/object/thing. There are various formats/patterns of distance and
direction.
Example 1. A tourist drives 10 Km towards East and turns to the right hand and drives
3 Km. Then, he drives towards West (turning to his right) 3 Km. He, then turns to his
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left and drives 2 Km. Finally he turns to his right and travels 7 Km. How far is he from
his starting point and in which direction would he be?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10 Km, East
9 Km, North
8 Km, West
5 Km, South
3 Km, South
Ans. (d)
Required distance AF = BC + DE = 3 + 2 = 5 Km
His final point is F which is in South direction from starting point A.
1. Riya starts walking in the north direction and after walking some distance she took
a left turn followed by a right turn. After that she took two consecutive left turn,
now she is walking in which direction?
a) south
b) north
c) east
d) west
e) None of these
Answer & Explanation
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Answer a) south
Explanation :
2. Rahul walks a distance of 10 km towards south, then he turn to his left and walks 5
km. From here he took a right turn and walks 6 km and stops at a point A. Find the
distance between the starting point and A and A is in which direction with respect to
starting point.
a) 17km, north east
b) 17km south east
c) 17km north west
d) 17km south west
e) None of these
Answer b) 17km south east
Distance = 16^2 + 5^2 = 281 = 17km
Explanation :
(approx.)
3. Neha travelled from a point X straight to point Y at a distance of 50 meters. He

turned to his right and walks 50 meter more, then again turned right and walks 60
meter. Finally, he turned to right and walks 50 meters. How far is he from the
starting point?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
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d) 40
e) None of these
Answer a) 10
Explanation :
4. Nishant walks 30 meter in the north direction, after that he took a right turn and
walks 40 meter. After that he took a right turn and walks 40 meter more and finally
he took a right turn and stop after walking 40 meter. Find the distance of nishant
from the initial position?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
e) None of these
Answer b) 10
Explanation :
5. From his house, Ram went 15 kms to the north. Then he turns west and covered 20
km. Then he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to east, he covered 25
km. In which direction is he from his house?
a) north west
b) north east
c) south east
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d) south west
e) None of these
Answer b) north east
Explanation :
6. A man walks 40 meters towards north. Then turning to his right, he walks 50 meter.
Then turning to his left, he walks 30 meters. Again he turns to his left and walks 40
meters. How far is he from initial position?
a) 402
b) 502
c) 602
d) 503
e) None of these
Answer b) 502
Distance = (70^2 + 10^2)
Explanation :
= 5000 = 502
7. Riya goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right
she goes 15 km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in
what direction is she from her starting point?
a) 10m east
b) 15m east
c) 20m east
d) 25m east
e) None of these
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Answer b) 15m eastExplanation :

8. A person starts walking from his home in west direction and after walking 20 meter
he took a left turn and walk 30 meters. Now he took a right turn and walks 10 meter
to reach the bus stand. Find the distance between home and stand
a) 202
b) 302
c) 402
d) 502
e) None of these
Answer b) 302
Distance = (30^2 + 30^2)
Explanation :
= 302 m
9. A girl rides her bicycle southwards, then turned right and rode 2 km and again
turned right and rode 4 km. She found himself exactly 2 km east from the starting
point. How far did she ride southwards initially?
a) 2km
b) 3 km
c) 4 km
d) 6 km
e) None of these
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Answer c) 4 km
Explanation :
10. One day raj left home and walked 5 km northwards, turned right and walked for
10km and turned left and walked 5 km more and finally turned left and walked
10km. How many kilometres will he have to walk to reach his home straight?
a) 15 km
b) 10 km
c) 5 km
d) 20 km
e) None of these
Answer b) 10 km
Explanation :
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6.Order And Ranking Tricks

When we are doing order and ranking we know basically two type of symbols first is greater
than(>)and the other one is less than(<).To solve these questions we only know the three things:
TRICKS
Symbol of Greater Than and LESS THAN means if A>B IMPLIES THAT (A is greater than B)or B <
A(B is smaller than A)
These are for the same person:
1. TOTAL={(TOP+BOTTOM)-1}
2. TOTAL={(LEFT+RIGHT)-1}
Ordering and Ranking Arrangement is an important topic from the point of view of SBI PO,
SBI Clerk, IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk, SSC, CAT and many other competitive exams. There are
usually 3-5 questions in any exam from this topic. By following some simple shortcut tricks, you
can easily crack the questions in a matter of seconds. This can be helpful in boosting your
reasoning ability and, more importantly, your marks in the exam. Time is an important factor in
qualifying through these competitive exams, and short tricks are the only way to go about getting
through the Reasoning section with ease.
In ordering and ranking arrangement questions, position/rank of a person from left-right/topbottom of a row/class is to be determined or rank/position is given & total no. of persons is to be
calculated. You may also be asked to determine, using data given, which floor which person
lives on.
Note:
1) Read the statement line by line and apply the cases as explained below.
2) Position can be from either sides of row and rank is always from top or bottom of the row
Here, different types of ordering & ranking arrangement questions are explained below with the
help of different examples. By grasping each type, you can have a complete command over this
topic and ensure 3-5 marks in your kitty.
TRICK 1
1) Total number of persons = {(sum of positions of same person from both sides i.e. left and
right side) 1}
OR
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2) Position of a person from opposite side = {(Total no. of persons Position of same person
from given side) +1}
E.g.1) In a row of persons, position of A from left side of the row is 27th and position of A from
right side of the row is 34th. Find total no. of persons in the row?
Solution:
Total no. of students = (Position of A from left + Position of A from right) -1
Total no. of students = (27 + 34) 1 = 61 1 = 60
E.g. 2) In a row of 16 persons, position of A from left side of the row is 12th. Find the position of
A from right side of the row?
Solution:
Position of A from right side = {(Total no. of persons Position of A from left side) + 1}
Position of A from right side = (16 12) + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5th
TRICK 2
1) Total no. of persons = No. of persons after or before the given person in a row + Position of
same person from the other side
OR
2) No. of persons after or before the given person in a row = Total no. of persons Position of
same person from other side
E.g.1) In a row of persons, position of A from left side of the row is 27th and there are 5 persons
after A in the row. Find total no. of persons in the row?
Solution:
No. of persons in the row = Position of A from left + No. of persons after A
Total no. of persons = 27 + 5 = 32
E.g.2) In a row of 18 persons, position of A from left side of the row is 6th. Find the no. of
persons after A in the row?
Solution:
No. of persons after A = Total no. of persons Position of A from left
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No. of persons after A in the row = 18 6 = 12

TRICK 3
When the positions of two persons are given from opposite ends and we know the total number
of persons, then two cases arise when trying to determine the number of persons between these
two persons
1. When there is no overlapping: i.e. the sum of positions of the two persons from opposite ends <
total number of persons
2. When there is overlapping: i.e. the sum of positions of the two persons from opposite ends >
total number of persons
Case i)
No. of students between two different persons = Total no. of students (Sum of positions of two
different persons from opposite sides)
E.g.1) In a row of 54 persons, A is 15th from the left side of the row and B is 20th from the right
side of the row. Find the no. of persons sitting between A and B?
Solution: Here Sum of positions of A & B from opposite ends = 15 + 20 = 35 < Total no. of
persons
No. of persons between A & B = Total no. of students (Position of A from left + Position of
B from right)
No. of persons between A & B = 54 (15+20) = 54 35 = 19
Case ii)
No. of students between two different persons = (Sum of positions of two different persons from
opposite sides) Total no. of students 2
E.g.1) In a row of 54 persons, A is 35th from the left side of the row and B is 22nd from the right
side of the row. Find the no. of persons sitting between A and B?
Solution: Here Sum of positions of A & B from opposite ends = 35 + 22 = 57 > Total no. of
persons
No. of persons between A & B = (Position of A from left + Position of B from right) Total
no. of students 2
No. of persons between A & B = (35+22) 54 2 = 57 54 2 = 1
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TRICK 4
If total no. of students is to be calculated and positions of different persons from any side are
given then it is always a case of cannot be determined or data inadequate or cant say. This
is because we do not know if there is overlapping or not.
E.g. In a row Position of A from left side of the row is 18th and position of B from right side of
the row is 25th. Find the total no. of students in the row?
Solution: Cannot be determined as position of different persons is given from the same side.
TRICK 5
Positions of two persons is given and their positions are interchanged and after interchanging
position of 1st person is given from same side as before interchanging
Position of 2nd person from the same side as before interchanging = Position of 2nd person from
same side before interchanging + (Position of 1st person after interchanging position of 1st
person before interchanging from same side)
To find total no. of students Find the person whose position from both sides can be depicted
from the statement. Add both his positions from opposite ends and subtract 1.
To find no. of persons between them Difference in the position of common person whose
position from same side before and after interchanging is given then subtract 1
E.g. A and B are standing in a row of persons. A is 18th from left side of the row and B is 24th
from right side of the row. If they interchange their positions A becomes 31st from left. Find
1. i) New position of B from right side
ii) Total no. of persons
iii) No. of persons between A & B
Solution:
1. i) New position of B from right side = Position of B from right side before interchanging +
(Position of A from left side after interchanging Position of A from left side before
interchanging)
New position of B from right side = 24 + (31 18) = 24 + 13 = 37th

1. ii) Total no. of persons = (As position from right before interchanging + As position from left
before interchanging) 1
Total no. of persons = (Bs position from right after interchanging + As position from left
before interchanging) 1
Total no. of persons = (24 + 31) 1 = 55 1 = 54
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iii) No. of persons between A & B = (Position of A from left after interchanging Position of A
from left before interchanging) 1
No. of persons between A & B = (31 18) 1 = 13 1 = 12
TRICK 6
If positions of two different persons are given from opposite sides of the row and a third person
is sitting exactly in middle of the two and total no. of persons in the row is to be calculated as
1. i) When position of third person sitting is given from either side of row
2. ii) When position of third person is given from either of the two persons between whom he/she
is sitting
Then find the position of the 3rd person from both sides of the row and hence find total no. of
persons according to type 1
E.g. 1) In a row of persons, position of A from left side of the row is 9th & position of B from
right side of the row is 8th.If C is sitting just in middle of A & B and position of C from left side
of the row is 15th. Find the total no. of persons in the row?
Solution: Position of C from left is 15th and A from left is 9th so there are (15 9 1 = 5)
persons are sitting between A and C. As C is sitting in middle of A and B so there must also be 5
persons sitting between B and C.
Thus position of C from right = Position of B from right + 5 + 1 = 8 + 6 = 14th
Total no. of students = (Sum of positions of C from both sides 1)
E.g. 2) In a row of persons, Position of A from left side of the row is 11th and B from right side
of the row is 19th. If C is sitting just in middle of A & B and position of C from A is 7th. Find
total no. of persons in the row?
Solution: Position of C from Left = Position of A from left + Position of C from A = 11 + 7 =
18th
Given C is 7th from A and C is sitting in middle of A and B then also C is at 7th position from B
Position of C from right = Position of B from right + Position of C from B = 19 + 7 = 26th
Total no. of students = (Sum of position of C from both sides 1)
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TRICK 7
In the questions where it is asked to find minimum no. of persons in a row then it is always a
case of overlapping i.e. given positions of persons from either sides overlap each other.
Then
Minimum no. of persons = Sum of positions of persons from both sides Persons between them
2
E.g. If position of A from left side of a row is 15th and position of B from right side of a row is
19th and only 1 person is sitting in middle of A & B. Find the minimum number of persons that
can be seated in this row?
Solution: Total no. of persons = 15 + 19 1 2 = 3
Type 8
These are ordering type questions. In this type of question, it is given that there are several
people living in an n-storey building. Some information will be given about the relative positions
of one above or below the other. You need to find which floor each person lives on. These are
almost similar to seating arrangement questions. However, you may be required to apply the
rules you learnt above, in these problems.
*************************************************************************
Ranking And Direction Short Cut:
RANKING TEST: In this type of question, generally a set, group or series of numerals is given
and the candidates is asked to trace out numerals following certain given conditions or lying at
specific mentioned positions after shuffling according to a certain given pattern.
Examples:
Here is a table.
No.
Rank from top
Rank from bottom
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Let discuss about D

Ds rank from top = 4 and from bottom = 3
Now total rank = 6 Means total rank = (rank from top + rank from bottom) 1
Now rank from top = (total rank + 1) rank from both
Rank from bottom = (total rank + 1) rank from top
DIRECTION TEST
In this test, the questions consist of a sort of direction puzzle. A successive follow-up f directions
is formulated and the candidate is required to ascertain the final direction or the distance between
two points. The test is meant to judge the candidates ability to trace and follow correctly and
sense the direction correctly.The adjoining figure shows the four main directions (North N,
South S, East E, West W) and four cardinal directions (North East NE, North West NW, South
East SE, South West SW) to help the candidates know the directions.
Always Remember:
left + left
Down
Left + right
Up
Right + left
Up
Right + right
Down
Up + left
Left
Up + right
Right
Down + left
Right
Down + right
Left
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Formulas to determine the positioning of a person

1)Left + Right = Total + 1
2)Left = Total + 1 Right
3)Right = 1 + 1 left
4)Total = left + Right
Note : the above formulas are only for a single person's position
Example:
|
3rd from left
3rd from right
Total= 3+3-1
Same for vertical & Horizontal

1)Total + 1 = top + Bottom
2)Top = Total + 1 Bottom
3)Bottom = Total + 1 Top
4)Total = Top + Bottom
Eg.1: In a row of 40 students, A is 13th from the left end, find the rank from right end.
Ans Total = 40
13L
As rank from right side = Total + 1 left

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= 40 13 + 1
= 27 + 1
= 28
Eg2: M a row P is 25th from left end, Q is 30th from right end. Find the total no. of students
in all.
Ans. Cant be Determined as there are more than 1 possibilities
Case 1
Note : When total is not given and 2 persons positions from left and right are given, then answer is
C.D
Eg 3: In a row of children. A is 17th from left, B is 15th from right.
(1) find the total number of children in the row
Ans. Cant be determined, as there are more than 1 possibilities
Eg 4: In a row of some children, S is 25th from left, T is 60th from right. If they interchanged
their positions, then T becomes 70th from right end
Find
(i) What is Ss right-hand position in new position
(ii) What is Ts left hand position in earlier position.
(iii) How many numbers of persons between S and T.
(iv) What is the total strength
(v) If Q is placed exactly between S & T then what is his rank from left end?
Answers
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1)Ss new position from left end = 35

2)Ts left hand position in earlier position = 35 L
i.e. L = 25 + 9 + 1
= 35
Or
L = 94 + 1 - R
= 95 60
= 35
3) Persons in between = 70 60 1
=9
Or Persons in between = Total 25 60
= 94 25 60
= 94 - 85
=9
4)Total strength = 25 + 60 + 9
= 95
Or Total = 70 + 25 1 = 94
5)
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Ans : 25 + 4 +1 = 30 from left
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Quiz
1. In a group of 40 girls, when latha was shifted by 4 places towards her right, then she
become 12th from the left end what was her earlier position from the right end of the row?
1) 34
2) 32
3) 33
4) 35
5) none
2. In a group of 40 boys, Raju is 12th from the left end and Raghu is 17th from the right end.
If Dilip is placed exactly between them what is his right hand rank?
1) 22
2) 23
3) 24
4) 25
5) none
3. In a row of students, Ravi is 10th to left of Ramesh, who is 30th from the left end. If
Ramesh is exactly in the middle of ravi and Sandeep, then find.
(I) How many minimum numbers of students is possible in that row?
(1)39
(2)38
(3)40
(4)41
(5)Cant be determined
(II) What is the total strength?
(1)90
(2)80
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(3)40
(4)70
(5)Cant be determined
4. Amit is 24th from the left end and 6th from the right of Sumit. Anuj is 33th from the
right end. Sumit is between Amit and Anuj.
(I) What will be the total strength?
(1) 45
(2) 44
(3) 50
(4) 43
(5) None
(II) What is Anujs position from the left end?
(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 13
(5) None
Answers
1) 3
2) 2
3)I) 3
II) 5
4)I) 2
ii) 3
Explanation
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Members
24
Or
29
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12
in
17
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between
11
11
Why we subtract 1 is because we do not want to consider the 29th rank, we want the nos. between 29
&
17.
Dilip's rank from right = 17 + 5 + 1 = 23
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7.Seating Arrangement Tricks

In Sitting Arrangement, we should arrange things based on the information provided. There are
three types of Sitting Arrangement.
1) Linear Arrangement
2) Circular Arrangement
3) Square/Rectangular arrangement.
Linear Seating Arrangement

In linear (row) arrangement problems, we have to arrange the data linearly. The arrangement is
done only one axis and hence, the position of people or objects assumes importance in terms of
order like first position, second position, last position. In this type of arrangement, we take
directions according to our left and right.
There are two types of problems asked in competitive exams, from this topic.
1. One Row arrangement In one row arrangement problems, people or objects sits in a row
either facing North or South. So, we have to make arrangement according to the direction of
face of the people.
2. Two Row arrangement In two row arrangement problems, there are two groups of people or
objects sits in a two rows and people sitting in a first row facing North or South and vice versa.
No matter what the model is, the following points are to be noted in order to solve the questions
easily.
Read the entire information and understand the statements correctly
Identify the statements that give definite information.

For instance let us take three statements and evaluate them
One Row arrangement

Now, let us understand with the figure. Four people A, B, C, D are sitting in a row facing North
direction.
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From the above figure, we can draw these conclusions:

(i) A and D are sitting at the extreme end of the line.
(ii) Right of A = B, C, D.
(iii) Left of D = C, B, A
(iv) A is sitting immediate left of B. B is sitting immediate left of C. C is sitting immediate left of
D.
(v) B is sitting immediate right of A. C is sitting immediate right of B. D is sitting immediate
right of C.
(vi) A is sitting second to the left of C. B is sitting second to the left of D.
(vii) C is sitting second to the right of A. D is sitting second to the right of B.
(viii) A is sitting third to the left of D. D is sitting third to the right of A.
Four people A, B, C, D are sitting in a row facing South direction

(i) A and D are sitting at the extreme end of the line.
(ii) Left of A = B, C, D.
(iii) Right of D = C, B, A
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(iv) A is sitting immediate right of B. B is sitting immediate right of C. C is sitting immediate

right of D.
(v)B is sitting immediate left of A. C is sitting immediate left of B. D is sitting immediate left of
C.
(vi) A is sitting second to the right of C. B is sitting second to the right of D.
(vii) C is sitting second to the left of A. D is sitting second to the left of B.
(viii) A is sitting third to the right of D. D is sitting third to the left of A.
Two Row arrangements

Now, let us understand with the figure. Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing
four people each in row, such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In
row 1, A, B, C, and D are sitting and all of them are facing South. In row 2, P, Q, R, and S are
sitting and all of them are facing North.

(i) A, D, and P, S are sitting extreme end of the line.
(ii) A is sitting opposite to P. B is sitting opposite to Q. C is sitting opposite to R. D is sitting
opposite to S.
(iii) A and S is sitting diagonally opposite to each other.
(iv) D and P is sitting diagonally opposite to each other.
(v) B and R is sitting diagonally opposite to each other.
(vi) C and Q is sitting diagonally opposite to each other.
Solved Example (Based on One row arrangement problems)
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Question (1) Anil, Bobby, Charu, Deepak, Esha, Faizal, Gaurav and Harish are sitting in a row
facing North.
(i) Anil is fourth to the right of Esha.
(ii) Harish is fourth to the left of Deepak.
(iii) Charu and Faizal, who are not sitting at extreme ends of the line, are nieghbours of Bobby
and Esha respectively.
(iv) Harish is next to the left of Anil and Anil is the neighbor of Bobby.
STEPS TO SOLVE THE QUESTION
From the first information (i), we get that there are three persons between Anil and Esha.
In the information (iv), we get that Harish is next to the left of Anil and Anil is the neighbor of
Bobby. Using the information (i) we get
By the information (ii), Harish is fourth to the left of Deepak
By the information (iii), Charu and Faizal, who are not sitting at extreme ends of the line, are
nieghbours of Bobby and Esha respectively.
So, we can assume Gaurav is sitting between Faizal and Harish.
So, Esha and Deepak is sitting at the extreme ends of the line.
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Solved Example (Based on Two row arrangement problems)

Question (1) Eight members P, Q, R, S, T, V, H and L are sitting in two rows with equal number
of members in each row. Members of one row are facing North and those in other row are facing
South. Each member in one row is sitting exactly opposite a member in the other row.
(i) P sits in the row facing North, to the immediate right of H who is exactly opposite of R.
(ii) L is to immediate right of R and S is exactly opposite of T who is to the immediate right of P.
(iii) V does not sit at any of the ends any row.

From the (i) information it is clear, that P and H is facing North and P is to the immediate right
of H. R is facing South.
From the (ii) information, we get
From the (iii) information, we get
So, now only Q remains who is sitting one of the extreme ends of the line.
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______________________________________________________________________________
Points to Remember
The Meaning of and, who and adjacent in seating arrangement questions:
1. If two information is joining by and , than the information is talking about the first person.
For e.g. A is third to the left of B and second to the right of D.

Here it means A is sitting third to the left of B and also A is sitting second to the right of D.
Many students confuse here and take information as a A is sitting third to the left of B and B
is sitting second to the right of D, which is wrong.
2. If two information is joining by who, than the information given after who is talking about
the second person.
For e.g. A is third to the left of B who is second to the right of D.

Here it means A is sitting third to the left of B and B is sitting second to the right of D.
Many students confuse here and take information as a A is sitting third to the left of B and
also A is sitting second to the right of D, which is wrong.
3. Adjacent means next to each other not opposite to each other. A and B is adjacent to each
other, which means they are immediate neighbor of each other.
Circular Seating Arrangement

Circle is the most important case from the exam point of view. Most of the times Circle kind of
statements are there in exams.
From the exam point of view ,In most cases they give 8 person sitting in the circle.
But Before Solving the important thing is their ' Sitting position '.
Step 1 . Knowing NEWS! N= North , E= East , W=West , S= South
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To remember this just remember combination ' North - South ' & ' West - East ' which comes
together to each other respectively.
So remember " WE are Not Smokers" for combination
Now just place like this on paper
Step 2 : Picking Left & Right .
Facing Center
Facing Outside
If It is mention in the statement that all is facing outside then just do opposite of above like this:
Clock wise = Right & Anti- clock wise = Left
Step 3: Solving Step Wise the statement or Following the statement
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Circular Sitting Arrangement (Normal) In circular sitting arrangement, you have to arrange
people or objects around a circle, as per the given information in the questions.
Circular Arrangement In normal circular arrangement, persons are sitting around a circle and
facing the centre.
1. Left movement is called clockwise rotation.

2. Right movement is called anti clockwise rotation.
According to the information, you have to specify the position of all the persons in the
arrangement. The positions are specified through conditions like a particular person is sitting
right or left of another person.
For e.g.
Question Four persons are A, B, C and D is sitting in a circle facing the centre. A is sitting
second to the left of D. C is sitting third to the right of A. C is sitting opposite to B.
(i) First step is to read the information and draw a circle.
(ii) After drawing a circle, find out who is on right side and who is on left side of.
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(iii) Pick one information first and solve the questions accordingly. In question, it is given A is
sitting second to the left of D. So, you have to fix the place of A and D in a circle.
After fixing the place of A and D, we will move to another information. Now, here it is given, C
is sitting third to the right of A.

After fixing the place of A, D and C, we will move to another information. C is sitting opposite
to B.
Solved Example:
Question: Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a circle facing the centre. Q
is sitting between V and S. W is third to the left of Q and second to the right of P. R is
sitting between P and V. Q and T are not sitting opposite to each other.
1. Who is third to the left of S?
1. U
2. T
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3. P
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
1. S and P are sitting opposite to each other
2. R is third to the right of S
3. T is sitting between U and S
4. P is sitting between R and U
5. T and R is sitting opposite to each other.
Solutions: First step is to draw a circular figure having eight persons. Now, fix the place of the
persons or friends one by one according to the information.
Q is sitting between V and S. Here position of V and S is exactly not confirm, so we will skip
this information and move to another information, which will fix the place of the person is a
circle in a specific place.
Next information is W is third to the left of Q and second to the right of P.
Here, it is important to note that W is third to the left of Q and also second to the right of P.
Some students confuse in this information and pick information as Q is second to the right of P,
which is wrong.
After the fixing the place of W, P and Q we will move to another information. R is sitting
between P and V. Q is sitting between V and S.
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After the fixing the place of W, P, Q, V, R and S; we will move to another information. Q and T
are not sitting opposite to each other means opposite of Q is U and T is sitting between S and W.
Now the correct answers is

1. (1) Third to the left of S is U.
2. (3) T is sitting between U and S is wrong statement.
Tips to solve Seating Arrangement questions
1. First step is to take a quick glance on the given information and you will get an idea of
the situation of the persons.
2. Second step is to pick the useful information which is definite information and fix the
place accordingly. For e.g. A is sitting second to the left of B.
3. Do not pick the negative information in first step. Negative information means which
information does not tell anything definitely but it gives an idea to eliminate a
possibility. For e.g. A is not sitting on the immediate left of B. or B is not opposite of E.
Important note: Meaning of and, who and adjacent in seating arrangement.
1. If two information is joining by and , than the information is talking about the first
person. For e.g. A is third to the left of B and second to the right of D. Here it means
A is sitting third to the left of B and also A is sitting second to the right of D. Many
students confuse here and take information as a A is sitting third to the left of B and B
is sitting second to the right of D, which is wrong.
2. If two information is joining by who, than the information given after who is talking
about the second person. For e.g. A is third to the left of B who is second to the right of
D. Here it means A is sitting third to the left of B and B is sitting second to the right
of D. Many students confuse here and take information as a A is sitting third to the left
of B and also A is sitting second to the right of D, which is wrong.
3. Adjacent means next to each other not opposite to each other. A and B is adjacent to
each other, which means they are immediate neighbor of each other.
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In continuation with our article on Sitting Arrangement which, here we are posting some tricks to
solve more complicated questions from the topic which are becoming very common in the recent
Banking Exams.
No matter what the model is, the following points are to be noted in order to solve the questions
easily.
Read the entire puzzle and understand the statements correctly
Identify the statements that give definite information.

For instance let us take three statements and evaluate them
Statement 1: A is to the left of B.

The data in the statement is basic but not definite as the statement ONLY says that A is to the left
of B. but, it does not specify where A is located from B.
Statement 2: A is second to the left of B. The data in the statement is definite as it clearly states
that A is placed second to the left of B.
Some important points to be kept in mind before solving the sitting arrangement puzzles are:
If A is sitting immediate left of B, it means B is on immediate right of A.

To avoid confusion of left and rights in circular and other shapes seating arrangement
problems, you should assume that all people are facing to center (unless and until they
specify the direction).
Its always better idea to assume you are one among them so that it will be easier for you
to get an idea of the arrangement.
If you are unable to get the idea from a line then better skip that line and go to next line.
You can revisit to the skipped line after getting another clue.
For circular sitting arrangement those objects which are facing inwards to the center are
favorable to us which means LEFT-RIGHT position are same to reference object and those
objects which are facing outwards are unfavorable to us which means LEFT-RIGHT position
are opposite to reference object.
Persons sitting in a CIRCLE or RECTANGLE or SQUARE facing AWAY from centre:
Seated to the left = Take Anti-clockwise direction

Seated to the right = Take clockwise direction
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Such types are problems are solved in the same manner as the problems for the centre facing
people are solved. The only change in this case is the direction of reference changes which
confuses the candidates.
But now-a-days, questions of some different pattern are asked in Bank exams like Some people
are facing inward while some of them are facing outwards.
Let us see how to solve such questions without getting panic.
Question:
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a circle. Five of them are facing the center while two of
them are facing opposite to the center. R sits third to the left of S and both are facing the
center. T is neither an immediate member of S nor of R. The one sitting exactly between S
and U is facing to the center. V sits third to the left of P and V is facing opposite to the
center. One of Qs neighbors is facing opposite to the center.
Draw a circle. Mark all position of objects in the circle.
Note: Five of them are facing center means favorable to us and then left two are facing
outward means unfavorable to us.
Now put S on the middle bottom position of the circle and position R on left side (Clockwise
direction) to S.
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T is neither an immediate member of S nor of R. the statement leaves a single place for T to sit.
The one sitting exactly between S and U is facing to the center.

Then put U from left of S by leaving one position blank.
V sits third to the left of P and V is facing outside to the center.

In this case position of P and V is not discussed in reference to all other objects. So their position
can be done by hit and trial method which is based on most convenient positions.
Now the left place is the only option for Q to sit.

As per the statement, one of Qs neighbors is facing opposite to the center. This clearly tells us
that T is facing opposite to the centre. And according to the question, since five of them are
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facing the centre, so U and Q also face the centre. So, the final diagram we get is
Now, since you have understood the Concepts and Shortcuts on Inward- Outward seating
arrangement, you can attempt a quiz.
Example 1 (A simple problem)
Six friends A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated in a circle facing inwards.
F is between A and D.
C is between E and B.
E is not between C and D.
D is second to the left of C.
Steps:
First Draw a Circle.
Second We know there are Six friend. So Mark six points in the circle.
Third Check statement 2. F is between A and D. Its a circle. So you can place these 3 (F, A,
and D) in any three places. The only condition is F should be in the middle of A and D.
Fourth Check the last statement. Now you can place C easily.
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Fifth Now you have to place E and B. According to Statement V, E is not between C and D.
That makes E to come between A and C. The only remaining place is for B.
Then based on this diagram, you have to answer 5 questions.
Thats it. :-).
Example -2
Six friends Arun, Senthil, Praveen, Bharani, Avinnash, Karthik are standing straight line
facing North but not necessarily in same order.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Arun is standing Fourth to the left of Karthik.

Senthil is standing Second to the right of Bharani.
Praveen is standing second to the right of Senthil.
Karthik is not standing of the extreme end of this line.
Totally Six positions in a Straight Line. All are facing North.

When taking the first condition alone, we get two chances. That is Arun may either come in First
Position or in Second Position. Based on Aruns position Karthik may either come in 5th or 6th
position. See Condition 4. Karthik is not in extreme end. So that make Karthik to come in V
position and Arun in I position.
Arun _____ _____ ______ Karthik -______.
Now Condition 2. Senthil can come in position 4 or position 6. Assume he comes in position 6.
Arun _____ ______ Bharani Karthik Senthil.
Our assumption is wrong. Because according to Statement 3, Praveen is standing to the right of
Senthil.
So that makes Senthil to come in Place 4.
Arun Bharani _____ Senthil Karthik Praveen.
The remaining place (3rd position) is for Avinnash.
Arun Bharani Avinnash Senthil Karthik Praveen.
Example 3
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Seven members A, B, C, D, E, F, G are sitting in a circle.

F is third to the left of B.
G is third to the left of A.
D is not the neighbour of G.
C is the neighbour of A.
B is to the immediate left of A.
Whenever solving with Circular Arrangements, we can take any condition and start drawing. It is
not necessary to start from the first. In the above conditions, A is there in 3 conditions. So it is
better to start with the Second Condition.
Example 4
Five friends are sitting in a row facing North.
1. Dhivya is between Soumya and Sindhuja.
2. Sindhuja is to the immediate right of Amrutha.
3. Nisha is to the right of Soumya. Correct order is?
According to first condition Sindhuja Dhivya Soumya (These 3 will stick in this order).
II Statement Amrutha Sindhuja Dhivya Soumya
III Statement Amrutha Sindhuja Dhivya Soumya Nisha
Example 5
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A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are sitting around the circle facing center.

1) F is Third to the right of B who is third to the right of H.
2) A is third to the left of H.
3) C is fourth to the left of A.
4) E is third to the right of D.
5) D is not the neighbour of A.
Follow from the First Condition. All other alphabets will fall in place easily.
Problem 1
Eight Friends, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing center but not
in same order.
1) Three people are sitting between A and D.
2) B is sitting second to the right of F.
3) D is not an immediate neighbour of either F or E.
4) H is not an immediate neighbour of B.
5) F and C are sitting opposite to each other.
6) G is not an immediate neighbour of E
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In some questions, there will be more than one possibility for a particular place. In those cases
either cannot be determined will be the answer or it may be based on the given options.
Its not a tough one.
Ram and five of his friends went to a park and they started playing six-seater merry-go-round. It
rotates in clockwise direction. Each seat is designed with different animals. Each child wears a
hat of different colour. Find the position of each child, the animal they ride and the colour of
their hat.
Note: Merry-go-round turns clockwise. Seat no 1 is in front of Seat no 6. Seat no 2 is in front of
Seat no 1 etc.
Conditions:
1) Ram sat in seat 1.
2) Raju rode the horse (which is not seat 2)
3) Arun sat right behind the Rhinoceros
4) Sindhuja sat in seat 5 and she is not a girl who is wearing purple hat.
5) The child riding the alligator was not wearing a yellow hat.
6) Soumya and the child in front of her were in some order, the child with red hat and the child
riding the tiger.
7) The boy on the elephant wore a green hat
8) The child riding Hippopotamus was not wearing an Orange or Yellow hat
9) Manoj (who was directly opposite to Arun) was just behind the child with the blue hat.
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Before start drawing, we need to categorize the names, animals and colours.
Names are Arun, Ram, Raju, Manoj, Soumya, Sindhuja.
Colours are Orange, Red, Yellow, Purple, Green, Blue.
Animals are Tiger, Horse, Rhino, Hippo, Alligator, Elephant.
Ram is Seat 1 and

Sindhuja in Seat 5 (From clues 1 and 4). We mark it.
From Clue 9 Manoj sits opposite to Arun. (The only available opposite seats are 3 and 6). We
mark that too.
According to Clue 2, Raju rode Horse, which is not Seat 2. The only choice is Seat 4.
Clue -3 states Arun sat behind the Rhinoceros. So Seat 3 is for Manoj and Seat 6 is for Arun.
Also Seat 1 Rhino.
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From Clue 6 we can mark Red hat for Manoj and Tiger in Seat 2.
From Clue 9 we can mark Blue for Raju.
The only Boy without an animal and Hat is Arun. So He is in Elephant seat and wears Green hat.
The remaining animals are Hippo and Alligator. Remaining colours are Purple, Yellow, Orange.
Sindhuja will either wear Yellow or Orange. She is not wearing Purple hat (Clue 4).
From clue 8, we can say Manoj is riding Hippo and Sindhuja is riding Alligator.
Now we placed all names on seats and also the animals. The only thing remaining is marking the
colours of the hat.
Sindhuja is not a girl who is wearing Purple hat. It means there is some other girl who wears
Purple hat. The only option is Soumya.
Girl in Alligator is not wearing Yellow. So Alligator and Orange matches. Yellow goes to Ram.
The problem is done. Its easy only. I just expanded for your understanding.
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Example :
Eight people E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the center. Each of them is
of a different profession Charted Accountant, Columnist, Doctor, Engineer, Financial Analyst, Lawyer,
Professor and Scientist but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of K. The
Scientist is an immediate neighbor of K. There are only three people between the Scientist and E. Only
one person sits between the Engineer and E. The Columnist is to the immediate right of the Engineer. M
is second to the right of K. H is the Scientist, G and J are immediate neighbor of each other. Neither G
nor J is an Engineer. The Financial Analyst is to the immediate left of F. The lawyer is second to the right
of the Columnist. The Professor is an immediate neighbor of the Engineer. G is second to the right of
Charted Accountant.
Before solving remember
1. No of Persons = 8 , No of Profession = 8
2. Facing Center
3. 8 persons 8 profession
Persons Professions
E
F
G
H
J
K
L
M
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Step 4 : Break statement into Shortcuts

Statement: F is sitting second to the left of K.
We can write it as:
[ Note : The Above diagram shows that there is one place vacant between F & K ]
Will get like this:
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Step 5. Applying these Shortcuts into Circle Diagram

Be careful while positioning or placing Scientist and Engineer.There you need to make two diagram for
each.
Step a) Pick any place and place it there the one person whom you want to be placed.
(Be careful while choosing that particular person or element like here E, F,G,H,J,K,L,M,N )
The one person or element you choose, should be relate with at least 2 element of the statement
because it will make the other step easy for you.Try to choose the co-relating element which help you to
fill the maximum space or seats or corners or places and Always choose the one in which you know the
exact location (Left or Right).Now here i choose F. F relates with K and M
[Note: Don't go again & again for reading whole statement,just use the shortcuts that you have made ]
Step b) Now check whether the already placed element co-relate with any other elements.like here
The Scientist is an immediate neighbor of K.So here is the relation between K & Scientist.Now here we
don't know the exact position of Scientist.So Most of cases you will find this kind of problem.When there
is a two possibility then it is Called ' T ' point.
Step c) Find whether there is any T point in a statement.Solve it by making two different diagram.Like
here 1(a) & 2(a) which will further be checked whether these diagram satisfied the other problems or
condition or statement given in the question.If it is not then make other two diagram.Like Here (1b &
2b). At the end , you will get the answer.
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In 1(a) & 1(b) We are unable to position the person G & J.So 1(a) & 1(b) diagram is not possible.Now
Move to 2(a).
In 2(a) Engineer cannot be placed next to F.So 2(a) diagram is not possible.
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Practice Sets
Set 1
Directions (Q. 1 - 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Bunty, Dev, Manav, Kavya, Payal, Qasturba, Wasir and Himmat are sitting around a circle facing at the
centre. Manav is to the immediate right of Bunty who is 4th to the right of Kavya. Payal is 2nd to the
left of Bunty and is 4th to the right of Wasir. Qasturba is 2nd to the right of Dev who is 2nd to the right of
Himmat.
Q1. Who is 3rd to the right of Bunty?

a) Wasir
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b) Manav
c) Kavya
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d)
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Himmat
e)
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None
of
these
Q2. Which of the following represents the immediate neighbours of D?

a) Payal and Qasturba
b) Kavya and Himmat
d) Kavya and Qasturba
e) Payal and Kavya
c) Payal and Himmat
Q3. Who is 3rd to the right of Wasir?

a) Payal
d) Qasturba
b) Dev
c) Kavya
e) Data inadequate
Q4. Who is 2nd to the left of Payal?

a) Dev
d) Data inadequate
b) Himmat
c) Kavya
e) None of these
Q5. Who is to the immediate left of Bunty?

a) Qasturba
d) Data inadequate
b) Payal
c) Wasir
e) None of these
Solution
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Answer 1. (Option D)
Answer 2. (Option E)
Answer 3.
(Option B)
Answer 4.
(Option C)
Answer 5.
(Option A)
Set 2
Directions (Q. 6 - 10) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Amrit, Bector, Chinky, Deepinder, Eeshwar, Fancy, Gurkamal and Hero are sitting around a circle
facing the centre. Fancy is third to the right of Chinky and second to the left of Hero. Deepinder is not an
immediate neighbor of Chinky or Hero. Eeshwar is to the immediate right of Amrit, who is second to the
right of Gurkamal.
Q6. Who is second to the left of Chinky?
a) Amrit
d) Deepinder
b) Bector
c) Eeshwar
e) None of these
Q7. Who is to the immediate right of Chinky?

a) Amrit
d) Bector or Deepinder
b) Bector
c) Deepinder
e) None of these
Q8. Which of the following pairs of persons has first person sitting to the right of the second person?
a) Chinky and Bector
b) Amrit and Eeshwar
d) Hero and Amrit
e) Deepinder and Bector
c) Fancy and Gurkamal
Q9. Who sits between Gurkamal and Deepinder?

a) Hero
d) Eeshwar
b) Deepinder
c) Fancy
e) None of these
Q10. Which of the following is the correct position of Bector with respect to Hero?
I. Second to the right
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II. Fourth to the right

III. Fourth to the left
IV. Second to the left
a) Only I
b) Only II
d) Both II and III
c) Only III
e) None of these
Solution
Answer 6. (Option A)
Answer 7. (Option B)
Answer 8.
(Option E)
Answer 9.
(Option C)
Answer 10.
(Option D)
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Set 3
Directions (Q. 11-15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Akshay, Manisha, Deepak, Paresh, Ranbir, Tarun, Bector and Hrithik are sitting around a circle
facing at the centre. Manisha is 3rd to the left of Akshay who is 2nd to the left of Tarun. Deepak is 2nd to
the right of Hrithik who is 2nd to the right of Tarun. Ranbir is 2nd to the right of Bector who is not an
immediate neighbour of Tarun.
Q11. Which of the following combinations represents the first and the second to the left of Bector
respectively?
a) Manisha and Deepak
d) Akshay and Ranbir
b) Deepak and Hrithik
c) Akshay and Manisha
e) Deepak and Manisha
Q12. Who is 3rd to the right of Tarun?

a) Deepak
b) Bector
d) Manisha
e) None of these
c) Hrithik
Q13. Who is to the immediate left of Hrithik?

a) Paresh
b) Manisha
d) Ranbir
e) Data inadequate
c) Tarun
Q14. Who is 2nd to the left of Bector?

a) Deepak
d) Data inadequate
b) Hrithik
c) Manisha
e) None of these
Q15. In which of the following combinations 3rd person is 2nd to the left of 2nd person?
a) Bector, Akshay, Ranbir
d) Paresh, Manisha, Hrithik
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b) Deepak, Bector, Mansiha
c) Tarun, Paresh, Hrithik
e) None of these
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Solutions
Answer 11. (Option E)

Answer 12. (Option D)
Answer 13.
(Option A)
Answer 14.
(Option C)
Answer 15.
(Option B)
Direction (Q 1-8)
Answer the following question based on the information given below:
There are 8 persons namely E, F, G, H I, J, K ,L living in a building on a different floor,each has it's own
car with different color like Red, Green, Yellow, Black, Purple, white, Pink, Blue.There are total 8 floor in
a building.The one who has Black color car live between the floor whom having Yellow
color car & Purple color car.L has neither a Yellow nor Purple color car.The one who has white color car
is lives below the one who has Red color car.I has a white color car.H has Pink color car and He lives
neither on the top floor nor on first floor.E lives above H on one of the floor in building .E lives
immediate above I.J lives on 2nd floor immediate below the one who has purple color car. The one who
has Green color car is not lives above the one who has yellow color car.J is not having a Green color
car.G lives neither immediate next floor of the one who has pink color car nor Blue color car.F lives one
flor below from the one who has black color car.
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Q1. Who lives immediate next to the floor of E.
a) L
b) H
c) G
d) K
e) None of the Above
Q2) who lives between the floor of H & G.

a) I
b) F
c) J
d) K
e) None of the above
Q3) Who has the black color car.

a) K
b) F
c) G
d) J
e) None of these
4) who has the red color car.

a) E
b) F
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c) G
d) H
e) None of these
Q5) Who lives on the seventh floor?

a) E
b) I
c) H
d) K
Q6) Who lives on the 4th floor?

a) one who has black color car
b) one who has yellow color car
c) one who has purple color car.
d) one who has pink color car
e) None of these
Q7) On which floor K lives?

a) 1
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7
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Q8) Which of the following is not correct?

a) E-H
b) K-F
c) J-H
d) I-K
e) None of these
Solution :
Use Shortcut Diagram :
Answer 1.(e) 2. (d ) 3. ( c) 4. (a ) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7.(e ) 8.(c )
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8.Puzzles Tricks
How to solve Reasoning Puzzles Quickly :Puzzles are a curious thing; they solve so easily when solving them at home and
almost always let us down in exams. Why? Have you asked yourself?
Why at home we can solve hundreds of questions without mistake and in exam
we cant even make A or B sit in the correct order to actually get an answer!
Sometimes you might have encountered a situation where having solved a puzzle
, when clicking on options, you find that after 2-3 questions (where you were able
to find your correct option), in the 4/5th questions your answer according to
your arrangement is not their in the options at all!
Has anyone of you encountered such a frustrating situation? I know I have, and
many of friends have too.
It all happens because of tension. At home we dont take tension = puzzles get
solved correctly. In exam we take a lot of tension = puzzles get more puzzled!
So let us try not to take tension and learn how to solve puzzles in an easy manner.
1. Know your enemy or in this case, the common puzzle structure.
Seating arrangements with Banks/Colour/Fruit/Language/State/car models etc.
likes and dislikes and options.
Or, Days and subjects with the similar likes and dislikes thing. Or, maybe
months/floors/single row/double row etc. with multiple likes/dislikes options.
The more complicated the better for them and worse for us!
2. Every battle has a plan so should you!
I look at puzzles as a personal battle with the Gods of Luck, and I used to always
lose until the day I planned my puzzle solving quest.
Yes, dear readers, plan. How? Well, then read on
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3. Read once, start drawing

A table or a circle or a row or multiple rowswhatever as per the given question.
Do no waste time reading the whole puzzle! In the two lines, you get to know if
its a seating arrangement in circle/square/row/multiple rows etc., immediately
draw the required figure.
4. Keep reading and arranging
Once you have the basic structure of arrangement, then keep reading and after
every line, arrange the information given in that sentence.
Go one sentence at one time. Arrange the information given in one sentence and
only then move on the next one.
5. Use tables
To solve puzzles of days/subjects/floors/persons where there is no seating order.
This is a great way to solve puzzles and youll see that your questions will start
looking easy once you have all the information nicely arranged in a tabulated
manner.
6. Indirect clues
After arranging as per the direct information available in question, youll see that
some are left un-arranged.
These will require your logical reasoning abilities to be able to solve these indirect
relations.
Everyone can do it. You can do it. But the difference between a successful
candidate and the unsuccessful one is presence of mind/clarity of thinking/ and
keeping calm and composed.
That said, here is one practice question to help you kick start your battle against the
puzzles!
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Set 1 :
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Seven persons namely Paramjit, Tarun, Morya, Jeeva, Vaani, Ram and Waqar are good friends
and are studying in M.Com, M.A. and M.Sc courses. Three are doing M.Com, two are in M.A. and
another two are in M.Sc. Each of them has a very distinct and favorite color choice ranging from blue,
red, yellow, white, black, pink and brown but not necessarily in the same order. None doing M.Com like
either red or black. Morya is doing M.A. and he likes blue. Ram is doing M.Sc and likes brown. Jeeva is
doing M.Com and likes yellow. Paramjit who does not like red is in the same discipline of Ram. Tarun
is in the same discipline of Morya. Vaani does not like pink.
Q1. Which among the following groups is doing M. Com?

a) Jeeva, Vaani and Waqar
b) Vaani, Waqar and Tarun
c) Jeeva, Vaani and Tarun
d) Jeeva, Paramjit and Ram
Q2. What is the color combination choice of those who are in M.Sc discipline?
a) Brown and Pink
b) Black and White
c) Black and Brown
d) Yellow and Black
e) None of The Above
Q3. Which color does Vaani like?
a) Yellow
b) Pink
c) White
d) Brown
e) None of The Above
Q4. What is the color combination choice of those who are in M.A. discipline?
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a) Red and Black

b) Blue and Red
c) Blue and Black
Q5. Morya is related with which discipline?

a) M.Sc.
b) M.A.
c) M.Com
Solution
Persons
Courses
Colors
Jeeva
M.Com
Yellow
Vaani
M.Com
White
Waqar
M.Com
Pink
Morya
M.A.
Blue
Tarun
M.A.
Red
Ram
M.Sc.
Brown
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Paramjit
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M Sc.
Answer 1.
(Option A)
Answer 2.
(Option C)
Answer 3.
(Option C)
Answer 4.
(Option B)
Answer 5.
(Option B)
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Black
SET 2
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
M, K, J, T, R, D and W are seven members of a family. There are two married couples among them
belonging to two different generations. Each of them has a different choice of cuisine - Chinese,
Continental, Thai, Punjabi, South India, Gujarati and Malwani. The grandfather in the family likes
Gujarati food. None of the ladies likes Continental or Thai food. T is the son of M, who likes Chinese
food. W is J's daughter-in-law and she likes South Indian food. K is grandfather of D, who likes Punjabi
food. J is mother of R, who likes Continental food.
1) How is R related to D?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Uncle
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
2) How many male members are there in the family?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

3) Which of the following group contains one each from the same generations?
(a) JRT
(b) JRW
(c) MRD
(d) MWT
(e) None of these
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4) Which food does T like ?

(a) Gujarati
(b) Thai
(c) Malwani
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
5) Which of the following combinations represents favourite food of the two married ladies ?
(a) Malwani, South Indian
(b) South Indian, Punjabi
(c) Punjabi, Malwani
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
ANSWERS
1. (c) R is the brother of M, who is father of D. So, R is uncle of D.
2. (d) We can not determine because there is nothing mentioned about D in the question.
3 (a) J belongs to 1st generation, R belongs to 2nd generation and T belongs to 3rd generation.
4 (b) Thai food
5 (a) J likes Malwani and W likes South Indian.
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PERSON
CUISINE
K(MALE)
GUJARATI
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GENERATION
1st
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RELATIONSHIPS
FATHER OF M AND
RGRANDFATHER
OF D AND T
J (FEMALE)
MALWANI
1st
WIFE OF K
M (MALE)
CHINESE
2nd
SON OF K AND J
W (FEMALE)
SOUTH INDIAN
2nd
WIFE OF M
R (MALE)
CONTINENTAL
2nd
BROTHER OF M
D(MALE/FEMALE)
PUNJABI
3rd
SON/DAUGHTER OF
M &W
T (MALE)
THAI
3rd
SON OF M
SET 3 :
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it.
Six friends Abhi, Deep, Myank, Prince, Rambo and Sumit married within a year in the
months
of February, April, July, September, November and December and in the cities of
Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata but not necessarily following
the above order. The brides names were Geetu, Jasmeet, Harman, Bindia, Inpreet and
Vanshika, once again not following any order. The following are some facts about their
weddings.
(i) Myanks wedding took place in Chennai, however he was not married to Geetu or
Vanshika
(ii) Abhis wedding took place in Ahmedabad and Rambos in Delhi; however neither of
them was married to Jasmeet or B india.
(iii) The wedding in Kolkata took place in February
(iv) Harmans wedding took place in April, but not in Ahmedabad
(v) Geetu and Inpreet got married in February and November and in Chennai and Kolkata
but not following the above order
(vi) Prince visited Bengaluru and Kolkata only after his marriage in December
(vii) Sumit was married to Jasmine to September
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Q1. Harmans husband is
a) Abhi
b) Deep
c) Rambo
d) Prince
e) Myank
Q2. Deeps wedding took place in

a) Bengaluru
b) Mumbai
d) Delhi
e) Chennai
c) Kolkata
Q3. In Mumbai, the wedding of one of the friends took place in the month of
a) April
b) September
d) December
e) July
c) November
Q4. Sumits wedding was held in

a) Bengaluru
b) Chennai
d) Delhi
e) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
Q5. Geetu was married to ____

a) Mayank
b)
c) Prince
Deep
d) None of these
Solution
Answer 1.
Option c)
Answer 2.
Option c)
Answer 3.
Option d)
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Answer 4.
Option a)
Answer 5.
Option b)
Husband
Wife
Place
Month
Abhi
Vanshika
Ahmedabad
July
Deep
Geetu
Kolkata
February
Myank
Inpreet
Chennai
November
Prince
Bindia
Mumbai
December
Rambo
Harman
Delhi
April
Sumit
Jasmeet
Bengaluru
September
SET 4
Directions (Q. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below :-
Five friends Pawan, Qureshi, Rajan, Sultan and Tango are Musician, Architect,
Doctor, Engineer and Artist by profession and like White, Blue, Red, Yellow and Green
colour but not necessarily in that order. Their hobbies are Net Surfing, Gardening, Reading,
Painting and Dancing but not necessarily in the same order.
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The person whose hobby is dancing preferred lemonade to cola while others
preferred cola to lemonade in beverages.
The four friends who took cola were Pawan, the one who is an Engineer, the
person whose favouritecolour is Green and the one whose hobby is net surfing.
Sultan did not take lemonade and his favouritecolour is White.
Qureshisfavouritecolour is Blue. He did not like lemonade.
Tangos hobby is not painting, reading or gardening.
Sultan clicks a picture of his friend who is an Engineer.
The person whose favouritecolour is Red likes painting and the person who is artist
likes gardening.
Sultan is not a doctor. The person who is a doctor takes cola. The person who is an
Engineer
likes Blue colour.
The musicians favouritecolour is not Yellow. Rajansfavouritecolour is Green.
Q1. Who among the following is a Doctor?
a) Rajan
b) Pawan
d) Cant say
e) None of these
c) Sultan
Q2. Qureshis hobby is

a) Reading
b) Painting
d) Cant say
e) None of these
c) Gardening
Q3. The person who likes Blue colour is a/an

a) Architect
b) Musician
d) Cant say
e) None of these
c) Engineer
Q4. Whose favouritecolour is Yellow?
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a) Tango
d) Cant say
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b) Rajan
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c) The one who is an artist
e) None of these
Q5. Which of the following combinations is not correctly matched?

a) Tango-Architect-Yellow-Dancing-Cola
b) Rajan-Artist-Green-Gardening-Cola
c) Qureshi-Engineer-Blue-Reading-Cola
d) Pawan-Doctor-Red-Painting-Cola
Answers
Q 1) B
Q 2) A
Q 3) C
Q 4) A
Q 5) A
SET 5 :
Direction (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
it :
There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects,
one compulsory subject and the other optional subject. Ds optional subject was History while
three others have it as compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. Fs
compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional subject of both C and E. History and
English are As subjects but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they are just reverse
of those of Ds. Chemistry is an
optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the school has English as her
compulsory subject.
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1.What is Cs compulsory subject ?

(a) History
(b) Physics
(c) Chemistry
(d) English
(e) Mathematics
2.Who is a female member in the group ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
3.Which of the following has same compulsory and optional subjects as those of
Fs ?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) A
(d) C
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4.Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same
two subject combination as F ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) D
(e) NONE OD THESE
5.Which of the following groups has History as the compulsory subject ?
(a) A, C, D
(b) B, C, D
(c) C, D
(d) A, B, C
(e) A, D
Answers
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a
d
e
c
d
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G represent different countries in Rio Olympics, viz, USA,
China, Brazil, india, Russia, Jamaica and Japan; each One competes for a different sport and gets
gold medals in the event, viz. swimming, Archery, Rifle Shooting, Tennis, Wrestling, Athletics
and gymnastics. The order of persons, countries and games is not necessarily the same. C
represents China for Archery. D represents USA but not for swimming or Rifle Shooting. The
one who represents Japan competes for Wrestling. E competes for swimming but not for Brazil
.A represents Jamaica for Athletics. The one who represents Russia competes for Tennis. F does
not represent Brazil or Japan.G competes for Rifle Shooting.
1. Which of the following combinations is correct?
a) F - Tennis -India
b) G-Tennis - Russia
c) G - Tennis - India
d) F - Tennis - Russia
e) None of these
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2. Who represents Japan?

a) E
b) G
c) F
d) B
e) None of these
3. E represents which country?
a) India
b) Russia
c) Japan
d) Brazil
e) None of these
4. The one who competes for Rifle Shooting, represents which country?
a) India
b) Brazil
c) Japan
d) USA
e) None of these
5. For which game does D compete?
a) Wrestling
b) Gymnastic
c) Tennis
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Answers:
1. d
2. d
3. a
4. b
5. e
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persons
country
game
Jamaica
Athletics
Japan
wrestling
china
archery
USA
gymnastics
India
swimming
Russia
tennis
Brazil
Rifles hooting
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Directions (Q. 1-5) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow.
Five friends Abdullah, Birbal, Chanakya, Durjan, and Eeshwar are working in
5 different departments M, N, O, P and Q and they earn different salaries i.e.
10,000, 15,000, 20,000, 25,000 and 30,000 and they all are of different ages i.e.
24, 26, 28, 30 and 32 years. These all information are not necessarily in the same
order.Birbal works in department M and earns more than 20,000. Person who is
28 years old works in department Q. 32 years old person earns at least 20,000.
The person who is 26 years old earns 25,000. Abdullah earns 15,000, but does not
work in department N or P.Person who is 30 years old earns highest salary but
does not work in department M and N. Eeshwar does not work in department P
or Q, and his age is not 32. The salary of Durjan is less than 20,000.
Q1. Who works in department N?
a) Birbal
b) Chanakya
d) Eeshwar
e) Cant be determined
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c) Durjan
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Q2. If the name of the person represents its salary then which of the following
is true?
a) Abdullah + Birbal = Chanakya
b) Chanakya + Durjan = Eeshwar
c) Durjan + Eeshwar = Birbal
d) Abdullah + Durjan = Eeshwar
e) None of these
Q3. Which of the following combination is definitely true?
a) Birbal-30 years-M-30,000
b) Durjan-24 years-N-10,000
c) Abdullah-24 years-P-15,000
d) Eeshwar-30 years-O-30,000
e) None of these
Q4. The person whose age is 30 works in which department?
a) M
b) N
d) P
e) None of these
c) O
Q5. Age and Salary of Chankaya is:

a) 32 years and Rs. 20,000
b) 24 years and Rs. 25,000
c) 30 years and Rs. 30,000
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Solutions
Answer 1.
(Option E)
Answer 2.
(Option B)
Answer 3.
(Option D)
Answer 4.
(Option C)
Answer 5.
(Option A)
PUZZLE TEST
i) Five friends , P, Q, R, S AND T travelled to five different cities of Chennai,

Kolkata, Delhi, Banglore and Hyderabad by different modes of transport of Bus,
Train , Aeroplane , Car and Boat from Mumbai.
ii) The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
iii) R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane
iv) S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train .
v) Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.
1. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?
a. P- Bus b. Q-Aero plane c.R- Car d. S- Boat e. T- Aero plane.
2. Which of the following combinations is true for S?
a. Delhi-Bus b. Chennai-Bus c.Chennai- Boat
d. Data inadequate e. None of these
3. Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct?
a. Delhi-Bus b.Kolkata- Aero plane c.Bangalore- Car
d.Chennai-boat e. hyderabad- bus
4. The person traveling to delhi went by which of the following modes?
a. bus b. train c. aero plane d. car e. boat
5. Who among the following traveled to delhi
a. R b. S c. T d. data inadequate e. none of these.
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Soln. the given information can be analysed as follows:

a) mode of transport : RTravels by car, Q by aeroplane , S by boat and T by train .
Now , only P remains . S o, P travels by Bus.
b) place of travel: R goes to bangalore , Q to kolkata. N ow , bus transport is not
available for delhi or chennai. so , p who travels by bus goes to hyderabad. S
travels by boat and hence by (ii) , did not go to delhi. So, S goes to chennai. Now,
only T remains. So, T goes to delhi
Person
Place
Mode
P
Q
Hyderabad Kolkata
Bus
Aero plane
R
Bangalore
Car
S
Chennai
Boat
T
Delhi
Train
1. clearly , the incorrect combination is T-aeroplane . So , the answer is (e)

2. clearly, the correct combination for S is chennai- boat. So, the answer is (c).
3. clearly , the incorrect combination is delhi-bus. So the answer is (a).
4. clearly, T travel to delhi by train . So the answer is (b).
5. clearly , T travel to delhi. So , the answer is (c).
Ex.2i) B and E are good in dramatics and computer science
ii) A and B are good in computer science and physics.
iii) A, D and C are good in physics and mathematics .
iv) C and A are good in physics and mathematics .
v) D and E are good in history and dramatics.
1. Who is good in physics , history and dramatics ?
a. A b. B c. D d. E
2. Who is good in physics, history and mathematics but not in computer science ?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
3. Who is good in computer science , history and dramatics?
a. A b. B c. C d. E
4. Who is good in history , physics , and computer science and mathematics?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
5. Who is good in physics , dramatics and computer science ?
a. A b. B c. D d. E
Soln. The given information can be analysed as under :
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A
B
C
D
E
dramatics
X
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com. sc.
X
X
Phy
His
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Math
X
X
1. D is good in physics , history and dramatics . so the answer is ( c).

2. Both A and C are good in physics , History and mathematics . But A is good in
computer science , while C is not . So , the answer is (c).
3. E is good in computer science , history and dramatics. Hence , the answer is (d).
4. A is good in history , physics , computer science and mathematics . Hence , the
answer is (a).
5. B is good in physics, dramatics and computer science. Hence , the answer is (b).
Ex.-3
Study the following information carefully to answer the given question .
Madan and Rohit are in same team of hockey . Parth defeated Rohit in badminton
but lost to sachin in tennis . nitin teams with sagar in football . and with sachin in
hockey . rohit defeated sachin in chess. Those who play cricket donot play
badminton , volleyball or tennis . madan and parth are in opposite team of
basketball. nitin represent his state in cricket while sagar does so at the district
level. Boys who play chess donot play football , basketball or volleyball. Madan
and parth are together in volleyball team . Boys who play football also play
hockey.
1. Name the boy who donot play football ?
a. Sachin , Nitin b. Rohit , Sagar c. Rohit , Sachin d. Rohit , Nitin
2. Who play both hockey and tennis?
a. Sachin b. Rohit c. Nitin d. Parth
3. Which is the most popular game with this group?
a. cricket b. hockey c. football d. badminton
4. Who play the largest number of games ?
a. Sagar b. Rohit c. Parth d. Nitin
5. Which boy play both badminton and hockey?
a. Sachin b. Rohit c. Nitin d. Parth
Soln.
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Madan Rohit Parth Sachin Nitin Sagar

Hockey
Badminton
X
X
Tennis
X
X
Chess
Football
X
X
Basketball
X
X
Volleyball
X
X
X
X
Cricket
1. (c) Rohit and Sachin donot play football

2. (a) Sachin play both hockey and tennis .
3. (b) Since hockey is played by the maximum nos. of student in the group so,
hockey is the most popular game.
4. (c) Parth , play the largest nos. of game i.e. four.
5. (b) Rohit play both badminton and hockey
EX.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given question
1. A, B, C, D, E ,F and G are sitting around a circle and are facing the centre.
2. G is second to the left of C, who is to the immediate left of F.
3. A is third to the left of E.
4. B is between D and E.
i)which of the following is false ?
a. A is the fourth to the right of E. b. G is to the immediate right of D . c. F is the
third to the right of D . d. B is the immediate left of D . e. None of these
ii) Which of the following is true?
a. C is fourth to left of B . b. A is to the immediate right of G. c. D is second to the
left of E. d. B is second to the right of G.
e. None of these
iii) Which of the following pair has the first person sitting to the immediate left of
the second person?
a. BE b. CA c . GD d. DG e. None of these
iv) Which of the following is the positions of F?
a. Fourth to the right of D. b. To the immediate left of C. c. Between A and C. d.
To the immediate right of A e. None of these.
Solutions.
We first of all marki the seven balank polsitions around a circle . Now , G is
second to the left of C and C is to the immediate left of F . We mark their positons
as shown . also , B is between D and E. tHUS , D , B, E sit together and occupy the
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three consecutive blank positions . Now , only one position remains blank betwen
G and C, and this must be occupied by A. now , D, B, E may sit in any of the
postions ( D,B,E) or ( E,B,D). But A is third to the left of E only when they sit in
the order ( D, B, E). Thus we mark their postions as shown.
1. Clearly , F is fourth to the right of D . So , (c) is false . hence , the answer is (c)
2. C is third to the left of B. So, (a) is false
A is to the immediate right of G. So , (b) is true.
D is second to the right of E. So, (c) is false .
B is second to the left of G. So, ( d) is false .
Hence , the answer is (b)
3. Clearly , only in the pair DG , the first person D sits to the immediate left to the
second person G . Hence the answer is (d).
4. C sits between A and F ; F sits between E and C ;E sits between B and F: D sits
between G and B. So, none of the given groups satisfies the given condition.
5. Clearly, F's postion is . fourth to the right of D.
. to the immediate right of C.
. between C and E
.Second to the right of A.
Hence, the answer is (a).
I.Study the following information carefully to answer the given Questions
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on 8 different floors of a buildings but not necessarily in the same
order. The lower most floor of the building numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so
on.Each of them lives on a different floor also likes a different sports Badminton, Volley ball,
Race, Cricket, Tennis, Hockey, Football and Boxing.
The one who likes Tennis lives on an even numbered floor. Only 3 people live between
the one who likes Tennis and C.Only 2 people live between C and D. D does not live on
the lowermost floor.Only 3 people live between D and the one who likes Hockey.
E lives immediately above A. E lives on an even numbered floor. A does not like
Hockey.A lives neither on the floor 3 nor 5.Only 2 people live between A and the one
who likes Football.Only one person lives between the one who likes Football and
Volleyball.The onewho likes Volleyball lives below the one who likes Foot ball.
B lives immediately above G. Only one persons lives between G and the one who likes
Cricket.The one who likes Race lives immediately above the one who likes Badminton.F
does not like Tennis. A does not like Volleyball.
1. Which of the following game does H likes ?

A.Hockey
B.Tennis
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C.Cricket
D.Race
E.None of these
Answer B.Tennis
Explanation :
2. D lives on the which of the following floor numbers ?
A.5
B.4
C.3
D.6
E.None of these
Answer A.5
3. Who among the following likes Hockey ?
A.H
B.E
C.C
D.F
E.None of these
Answer D.F
4. Which of the following pair is correct ?
A.E-Race
B.D-Boxing
C.G- Tennis
D.A Football
E.one of these
Answer A.E-Race
5. Who lives below the person one who likes Cricket ?
A.F
B.H
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C.B
D.C
E.None of these
Answer C.B
II.Study the following information carefully to answer the given Questions
K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are seven members of a family. Each of them has a different professionDoctor, Teacher, Lawyer, Engineer, Architect, CA and banker, their incomes are different.
There are 2 married couples in the group.M is the doctor and earns more than Engineer
and the Lawyer. O married to the CA and she earns the least. No lady is either lawyer or
engineer.
L, the teacher earns less than K, the lawyer Q is married L, he earns more than N and K.
P is not the lawyer. The CA earns less than lawyer but more than the banker.
1. What is the profession of P ?

A.Lawyer
B.CA
C.Doctor
D.Engineer
E.None of these
Answer B.CA
Explanation :Income : Doctor> Lawyer> CA> Banker> Er>Teacher> Architect
LQ, OP => married couples
2. Who earns the minimum in the family ?

A.Teacher
B.Lawyer
C.Banker
D.Architect
E.None of these
Answer D.Architect
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3. Which of the following pair is a married couple ?

A.ON
B.KM
C.LQ
D.QN
E.None of these
Answer C.LQ
4. Who among the following is husband of O ?
A.L
B.P
C.M
D.N
E.None of these
Answer B.P
5. Which of the following is not correct ?
A.Q Lawyer M
B.P CA-M
C.L Teacher F
D.N Engineer M
E.None of these
Answer B.P CA-M
I.Study the following information carefully to answer the given Questions
Eight groups P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are going for rock climbing in different mountain ranges,
viz. Saser Kangri, Rimo, Aravali, Chaukhamba, Nanda Devi, Hardeol, Trisul and Kamet but not
necessarily in the same order. These groups are also going for rafting in different rivers, viz.
Meghna, Yamuna, Tons,Mahanadi, Tabi, Narmada, Koshi and Ganges but not necessarily in the
same order,
Group V is going neither to river Koshi nor to river Yamuna, Neither group U nor group
V is going to raft in the river Mahanadi or the river Narmada. Group T is going to the
Kamet mountain range.
Group R is going to the Chaukhamba mountain range and the river Tabi. The one who is
going to raft in the Tons is also going to the Kamet mountain range. Group P and Q are
going for rafting either in the Narmada or Ganges.
Group S does not want to raft in the Mahanadi and U does not want to raft in the
Yamuna. The group which is climbing on the Sasar Kangri is rafting in the Koshi and the
group which is climbing on the Trisul is rafting in the Yamuna. P and V do not climb on
the Hardeol and the Aravali.The group which is climbing on the Rimo is rafting in the
Ganges. Group W and V climb either on Nanda Devi or on the Aravali mountain range.
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1. Which group is going to raft in the river Narmada?

1.P
2.Q
3.R
4.S
5.None of these
Answer 2.Q
Explanation :
2. Which of the following groups is going to climb on the Sasar Kangri ?.
1.S
2.T
3.U
4.W
5.None of these
Answer 3.U
3. The group rafting in the Tons is climbing in which of the following mountain
ranges?.
1.Nanda devi
2.Trisul
3.Rimo
4.Kamel
5.None of these
Answer 4.Kamel
4. The group Q is going to climb on the which of the following mountain ?
1.Hardeol
2.Trisul
3.Rimo
4.Aravali
5.None of these
Answer 1.Hardeol
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5. Which of the following is true ?

1.P Tabi
2.S Trisul
3.V Nanda Devi
4.R Ganges
5.None of these
Answer 3.V Nanda Devi
II.Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H belonging to different cities viz Delhi, J & K, MP,
Kerala, AP, Odisha, Rajasthan and Tamilnadu, but not necessarily in the same order, went to
Hyderabad to attend an Education programme .Each had a different specialisation, viz Literature,
Science, Presentation, Advertisement, Designing, Information Technology, Drawing and
Writing, but not necessarily in the same order.
E is from AP. G does not have specialisation in Literature or Science. C is from MP and
he has specialisation in Designing. Neither F nor G has specialisation in Advertisement or
Information Technology. One who is from AP has specialisation in Drawing. A and B
have specialisation either in Information Technology or in Writing.
D does not have specialisation in Advertisement and F does not have specialisation in
Science. One who is from Tamilnadu has specialisation in Literature and one who is from
Kerala has specialisation in Science. G and H belong either to Rajasthan or to Odisha.
A and G do not belong to J & K and Rajasthan respectively. One who belongs to Delhi
has specialisation in Writing.
1. The person with specialisation in Information Technology comes from which of the
following cities?
1.MP
2.J & K
3.Kerala
4.Delhi
5.None of these
Answer 2.J & K
Explanation :
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2. Which of the following persons is from Tamilnadu ?

1.G
2.H
3.F
4.C
5.None of these
Answer 3.F
3. Who is specialised in Science ?
1.A
2.B
3.C
4.D
5.None of these
Answer 4.D
4. Which of the following is true ?
1.H AP
2.G Tamilnadu
3.A Delhi
4.F Odisha
5.None of these
Answer 3.A Delhi
5. Which of the following is not true ?
1.H Presesentation
2.C Designing
3.E Drawing
4.D Science
5.None of these
Answer 1. H Presesentation
I. Study the following information carefully to answer the question given below
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are 7 football players each playing for a different team Green , Red and
Blue with at least two of them in each of these teams. Each of them likes a fruit Apple, Guava,
Banana, Orange, Mango, Papaya and Waterlemon not necessarily in the same order.Q plays with
T in team blue and he likes mango. None of those who play for either team red or green likes
either guava or banana. S plays with only the one who likes Watermelon. U likes papaya and he
plays in team red. The one who likes orange does not play in team red. V likes watermelon and
he plays for team green. P likes Apple and he plays for team red. R does not like guava.
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1. Which of the following players play for team Red ?

1.SR
2.PU
3.ST
4.PQ
5.None of these
Answer 2.PU
Solution:
2. Who likes Guava ?
1.T
2.Q
3.S
4.U
5.None of these
Answer 1. T
3. Which fruit does S likes ?
1.Mango
2.Banana
3.Apple
4.Orange
5.None of these
Answer 4.Orange
4. In which team do 3 of them play ?
1.Blue or Red
2.Red
3.Blue
4.Data inadequate
5.None of these
Answer 3.Blue
5. Which of the following combination is incorrect ?
1.T Blue Guava
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2.U Red Papaya

3.Q Blue Mango
4.S Green Watermelon
5.None of these
Answer 4. S Green Watermelon
II. Study the following information carefully to answer the question given below
Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are standing in a straight line facing north at equal
distance but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is a different professional Actor,
Reporter, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer, Teacher and Painter but not necessarily in the same order.
S is standing at the fifth position to the left of O. Reporter is standing at the third position to the
right of S. R is standing at the fifth position to the right of M. Q is standing second to the left of
N. Engineer is standing the second position to the left of P. Three persons are sitting between
Engineer and Painter. Doctor is to the immediate left of Engineer. Lawyer is to the immediate
right of teacher.
1. Who among the following is sitting second to the right of Teacher ?
1.O
2.N
3.Lawyer
4.Actor
5.None of these
Answer 2.N
Solution :
2. Who among the following are the immediate neighbours of Painter ?
1.Doctor and Lawyer
2.Actor and Lawyer
3.Reporter and Actor
4.Lawyer and Reporter
5.None of these
Answer 3. Reporter and Actor
3. Who among the following is sitting exactly in the middle of the row ?
1.R
2.Lawyer
3.O
4.Reporter
5.Teacher
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Answer 2.Lawyer
4. Who is sitting at the left end of the row ?
1.M
2.N
3.O
4.P
5.None of these
Answer 1.M
5. How many persons are there to the left of Reporter ?
1.One
2.Two
3.Three
4.Four
5.None of these
Answer 4.Four
I.Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
Eight persons A,B,C,D,E,F,H and I are going to three different destinations Gujarat,
Amritsar, Hyderabad in three different cars- Chevrolet, Ford, Hyundai. Out of these three
are females and also one in each car. At Least two persons are there in each car.
E, a male, is travelling with only I and they are not going to Amritsar.
A is travelling in Chevrolet and and is going to Hyderabad. C is not travelling with
B and H.
C and F are travelling together. H is not going to Amritsar. D is the sister of A and
is travelling by Hyundai.
1. Members of which cars are going to Amritsar?

1)Ford
2)Cant be determined
3)Hyundai
4)Chevrolet
Answer 3)Hyundai
Explanation :
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2. In which car are four members travelling?

1)None
2)Hyundai
3)Ford
4)Chevrolet
Answer 1)None
3. Which of the following combinations represents the three female members?
1)ABC
2)CID
3)CFE
Answer 4)Cant be determined
4. Who is travelling with H?
1)CF
2)SI
3)AB
Answer 3)AB
5. Members of which of the following are travelling in Chevrolet?
1)ACH
2)ABI
3)HAB
4)None of these
Answer 3)HAB
II.Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.

Five friends A,B,C,D and E wore shirts of Green, Yellow, Pink, Red
and Blue colors and shorts of Black, White, Grey, Blue and Green
colors.
Nobody wore shirt and short of same color.
D wore Blue shirt and C wore Green Short.
The one who wore Green shirt, wore Black short and the one who
wore Blue short wore Red shirt
A wore White short and Pink shirt.
E did not wear Red shirt.
1. Which color shirt did C wear?

1)White
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2)Green
3)Yellow
4)None
Answer 3)Yellow
Explanation :
2. Who wore Black Short?
1)B
2)E
3)A
4)C
Answer 2)E
3. Who wore White short?
1)C
2)E
3)D
4)A
Answer 4)A
4. Which color short did B wear?
1)Grey
2)Black
3)Green
4)Blue
Answer 4)Blue
5. If C wore Green shirt and E wore Yellow shirt and if C wore Pink shirt then what
color shirt did A wear?
1)Green
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2)Blue
3)Yellow
4)None of these
Answer 3)Yellow
Seven specialist doctors B,M,K,P,D,F and H visit a polyclinic on four days- Tuesday,
Wednesday, Friday and Saturday In a week. At Least one doctor but not more than two
doctors visits the Polyclinic on each of these days. Each of One is Specialist in different
Fields ENT, Orthopaedics, Paediatrics, Neurology, Ophthalmology, Radiology and
Oncology.
P visit on Friday with Radiologist.

The Paediatrician does not visit on Saturday nor with D and H.
The Oncologist F visit alone on Tuesday.
M visits on Wednesday and he is not Paediatrician.
K visit on Wednesday. H is not Radiologist.
The Paediatrician visits with the ENT specialist.
The Neurologist visits on Friday.
B is neither Orthopaedician nor Radiologist.
1. What is the Speciality of B?

1)ENT
2)Ophthalmology
3)Paediatrics
4)Data inadequate
5)None of these
Answer 2)Ophthalmology
Explanation :
2. On which day of the week does D visit?
1)Wednesday
2)Saturday
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3)Friday
4)Wednesday or Saturday
5)None of these
Answer 3)Friday
3. Who among them visits the Polyclinic along with B?
1) H
2)D
3)P
4)Either H or P
5)None of these
Answer 1) H
4. What is Ps Profession?
1)ENT
2)Paediatrician
3)Ophthalmologist
4)Data Inadequate
5)None of these
Answer 5)None of these
5. On which of the following days do the specialists in Orthopaedics and
Ophthalmology visit?
1)Wednesday
2)Friday
3)Saturday
4)Data inadequate
5)None of these
Answer 3)Saturday
Seven candidates Harish, Samir, nilesh, shailaja, Nikita, Laxman and Sujata are to be
interviewed for selection as Trainee officers by different panels 1 to 7 for different banks
Bank of India, SBI, Bank of Maharashtra, PNB, Axis, HDFC and ICICI not necessarily in
the same order.
Nilesh is interviewed by panel 4 for Bank of India. Samir is interviewed by panel 3
but not for PNB or Bank of Maharashtra. Harish is interviewed for SBI but not by panel 1
or 2. Nikita is interviewed by panel 6 for Axis Bank. Panel 7 conducts the interview for
HDFC. Shailaja is interviewed by panel 1 but not for Bank of Maharashtra. Panel 2 does
not interview Laxman.
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1. Shailaja is interviewed for which Bank?

1)Bank of India
2)ICICI
3)HDFC
4)PNB
5)None of these
Answer 4)PN
Explanation :
2. Panel 2 conducts interview for which Bank?

1)Bank of Maharashtra
2)HDFC
3)ICICI
4)SBI
5)None of these
Answer 1)Bank of Maharashtra
3. Who is interviewed for ICICI?
1)Nikita
2)Shailaja
3)Laxman
4)Samir
5)None of these
Answer 4)Samir
4. Which candidate is interviewed by panel 5?
1)Laxman
2)Sujata
3)Shailaja
4)Harish
5)None of these
Answer 4)Harish
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Seven members P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are working in different cities Ahmedabad,
Bangalore, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Delhi and Mumbai not necessarily in the same
order. Each one has a different mother tongue Tamil, Kannada, Telungu, Hindi, Marathi,
Punjabi and Bangla not necessarily in the same order.
R works in Bangalore and his mother tongue is not tamil or marathi. Ss mother
tongue is Punjabi and he works in Ahmedabad. T and U do not work in Chennai and none
of them has marathi mother tongue. Q works in Hyderabad and his mother tongue is
telungu. The one who works in Delhi has bangle mother tongue. V works in Mumbai and
his mother tongue is hindi, T does not work in Kolkata.
1. What is Rs mother tongue ?
A)Tamil
B)Kannada
C)Punjabi
D)Hindi
E)None of these
Answer B)Kannada
Explanation :
2. Who works in Delhi ?
A)T
B)U
C)V
D)S
E)None of these
Answer A)T
3. What is Us mother tongue ?
A)Telungu
B)Hindi
C)Tamil
D)Marathi
E)None of these
Answer C)Tamil
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4. Who works in Chennai ?

A)S
B)R
C)Q
D)P
E)None of these
Answer D)P
5. Which of the following is correct ?
A) Q Hyderabad Punjabi
B) T Ahmedabad Bangla
C) V Mumbai Hindi
D) S Delhi Telungu
E)None of these
Answer C) V Mumbai Hindi
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends. Each of them likes a particular fruit and city.
The choices of fruits and favourite city not necessarily in the same order.
Fruit: Apple, Banana, Pear, Guava, Orange, Mango, Waterlemon
City : Mumbai, Pune, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Hyderabad, Cochin
B likes Mango and her favourite city is Chennai, The one whose favourite city is
pune, likes waterlemon. Es favourite city is Kolkata. C likes guava and his favourite city is
not Mumbai. Gs favourite city is cochin and he does not like either banana or pear. The
favourite city of the who likes orange is Hyderabad. E does not like pear. As favourite city
is neither pune nor Hyderabad. D does not like waterlemon.
1. What is Fs favourite city ?
A)Delhi
B)Mumbai
C)Pune
D)Kolkata
E)None of these
Answer C)Pune
Explanation :
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2. Who like Pear ?

A)C
B)F
C)B
D)A
E)None of these
Answer D)A
3. Which fruit does G likes ?
A)Apple
B)Banana
C)Waterlemon
D)Orange
E)None of these
Answer A)Apple
4. Which of the following combination is correct ?
A) D Kolkata
Apple
B) E Hyderabad Banana
C) G Cochin
Orange
D) A
Mumbai Pear
E)None of these
Answer D) A Mumbai Pear
5. Which of the following combination is not correct ?
A)B Chennai
Mango
B)F Pune
Watermelon
C)E Kolkata
Banana
D)C Cochin
Apple
E)None of these
Answer D)C
Cochin
Apple
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends left for 7 different cities Delhi, Chennai,
Hyderabad, Bangalore, Kolkata, Chandigarh and Jaipur, each one on a different day of the
week. C left for Jaipur on Monday. On the last day of the week, the person left for
Bangalore. E left the next day of A who left for Chandigarh and on the previous day of G.
D left for Kolkata on Friday. B didnt leave for either Hyderabad or Bangalore and G left
for Delhi.
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1. On which day of the week did B leave ?

A)Sunday
B)Saturday
C)Monday
D)Tueday
E)None of these
B)Saturday
Explanation :
2. Who left for Bangalore ?
A)E
B)B
C)G
D)F
E)None of these
D)F
3. Who left on Tuesday ?
A)A
B)C
C)G
D)F
E)None of these
A)A
4. On which day of the week did E leave ?
A)Friday
B)Sunday
C)Wednesday
D)Thursday
E)None of these
C)Wednesday
5. Which of the following Combination is not right ?
A)C Jaipur
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B)F Bangalore
C)A Chandigarh
D)E Kolkata
E)None of these
D)E Kolkata
II. Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are 7 friends who travel to college everyday by a particular
train which stops at 5 stations 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively after it leaves base stations. 3
among them get in the train at the base station. S gets down at the next station at which U
gets down. Q gets in with 2 persons and does not get down with either P or T. V alone gets
in at station 3 and gets down with R after 1 station. P travels between only 2 stations and
gets down at station 5. None of them gets in at station 2. R gets in with U but does not get in
with either Q or S. T gets in with 2 others and gets down alone after S. Q and S going to
same college and they get down together at station 3. None of them gets down at station 1.
1. At which station does T get down ?
A)Station 2
B)Station 4
C)Station 3
D)Station 5
E)None of these
B)Station 4
Explanation :
2. At which station does R, U get in ?
A)Base station
B)Station 2
C)Station 1
D)Station 3
E)None of these
C) Station 1
3. After how many station does Q get down ?
A)4
B)3
C)1
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D)2
E)None of these
D)2
4. At which of the following station does Q and T get in ?
A)Base Station
B) Station 1
C) Station 2
D) Station 3
E)None of these
A)Base Station
A)T gets in at the base station
B)R gets in at the Station 3
C)V gets down at Station 5
D)U gets down at Station 2
E)None of these
A)T gets in at the base station
I. Study the following information to answer the given questions questions

P, Q, R, S, T,U and V are seven employess in the Big company. Three of them are in
1 grade and 2 of them in other 2 grades among A, B and C. Each of them earns different
amount as salary.
There are 3 ladies among them one each in each grade. R and her husband only are
in grade B. V earns the maximum and he along with only S are in grade A. S earns more
than only P. U and her friend Q are in Grade C. P is not in Grade C. U earns less than R
but more than Q. T earns less than Q.
1. Who are the following in Grade A ?
1)S
2)P
3)V
4)Both S and V
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Answer4)Both S and V
Explanation :
2. Who earns greater than R ?
1)U
2)V
3)P
4)Both U and V
Answer2)V
3. The one who earns the maximum in which Grade ?
1)A
2)B
3)C
4)Data inadequate
Answer1)A
4. Who among the following earns the minimum Salary ?
1)V
2)T
3)P
4)R
Answer3)P
5. Which of the following Group belongs to Grade C ?
1)PSV
2)TOR
3)QTU
4)QRV
Answer3)QTU
II. Study the following information to answer the given questions questions
7 players A, B, C, D, E, F and G from 7 different countries such as Canada, India,
Singapore, Sri Lanka, South Africa, Kenya and Maldives participate in the Games but not
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necessarily in the same order.

All of them participate in 7 different games, viz Badminton, Swimming, Boxing,
Hockey, Netball, Rugby and Tennis. The one who participate in Boxing does not belong
to South Africa. D is from Singapore and he does not participate in Hockey. The one who
is from Sri Lanka participates in Badminton. The one who is from India does not
participate in Hockey or Netball. A is from Maldives. G from Canada and participates in
Rugby. C participates in Table tennis but he is neither from Kenya nor South Africa. B
participates in Swimming and E participates in Boxing.
1. Who among the following Participated in Rugby ?
1)F
2)G
3)D
4)B
Answer2)G
Explanation :
2. The one who is from Kenya participated in which of the following games ?
1)Swimming
2)Hockey
3)Boxing
4)Tennis
Answer3)Boxing
3. C belongs to which of the following Country ?
1)India
2) Sri Lanka
3)Maldives
4)Kenya
Answer1)India
4. Which of the following Combination is correct ?
1)B- South Africa Swimming
2)G -India Badminton
3)D-Maldives Tennis
4)A-Canada Swimming
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Answer1)B- South Africa Swimming

5. The one who is from Canada participated in which of the following games ?
1)Boxing
2)Tennis
3)Rugby
4)Netball
Answer3)Rugby
I. Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

W, X, Y, Z, M, N and O are travelling in three buses P , Q and R with at least 2 of
them in any of these buses. Each of them has a favourites country such as Denmark,
Russia, Britain, Malaysia, Germany, Kenya and USA.
X travelling in bus Q with M. Ms favourite country is USA. Those who travel in
bus P do not like Denmark and Malaysia. The one who likes Russia travels only with O in
bus R. The one whose favourite country is Germany does not travel in the same bus with
either M or O. W does not travel in bus Q. W likes Kenya. Z and N are travelling in the
same bus. N does not like Britain. The one whose favourite country is Malaysia does not
travel in Bus Q.
1. In which bus W, Z and N travelling ?
A)Cannot be determines
B)P
C)Q
D)R
E)None of these
AnswerB)P
Explanation:
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2. Whose favourite country is Denmark ?

A)X
B)W
C)Y
D)Z
E)None of these
Answer A)X
3. What is Ms favourite country?
A)Kenya
B)Malaysia
C)USA
D)Germany
E)None of these
AnswerC)USA
4. Which of the following combination is right ?
A)W R : Russia
B)O P : Germany
C)N R : Malaysia
D)Z P : Britain
E)None of these
AnswerD)Z P : Britain
5. Y travelling in which bus ?
A)P
B)Q
C)R
D)Cannot be determined
E)None of these
AnswerC)R
II. Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
A group of 7 persons P, Q, R, S, T, U AND V works as Clerk, IT officer,
Agricultural Officer, Forest Officer, Terminal Operator, Research Analyst and Economist
for the banks A, B, C,D , E, F and G. R works for bank E and is neither a Economist nor a
Forest officer. T is an Research Analyst and works for bank C. P works as a Clerk and
does not work for bank B or D. The one who is an IT Officer works for bank F. The one
who works for bank D works as a Forest Officer. U works for bank B. V works for bank A
as a Economist. S is not an IT Officer.
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1. Who among the following works as Terminal Operator ?

A)P
B)Q
C)R
D)S
E)None of these
AnswerC)R
Explanation:
2. Who working in the bank B ?

A)U
B)V
C)S
D)T
E)None of these
AnswerA)U
3. Which of the following combination is correct ?
A)F Agricultural Officer
B)C Clerk
C)A Economist
D)G Forest Officer
E)None of these
AnswerC)A Economist
4. What is the profession of R ?
A)Clerk
B)Terminal Operator
C)IT officer
D)Economist
E)None of these
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AnswerB)Terminal Operator
A)S Bank C
B)V Bank B
C)R Bank D
D)P Bank G
E)None of these
Answer D)P Bank G
Directions for questions : These questions are based on the following information.
Banking Complex is an 8 storeyed building located in suburbs of Mumbai. The seven major
banks of the country have their corporate offices on the different floors of the building starting
from 1st floor to 7th floor. 0th or Ground floor has a parking lot. The different banks are namely
CICIC bank, DFHC bank, Cyndicate bank, VTI bank, Kanara bank, Korporation bank and
HFBC bank. Each of these bank is managed by a manager. The names of the managers of these
banks are Mr. K.Bangarappa, Mr. V.Kant, Mr. S.Raju, Mr. R.Sanjay, Mr. A.Subodh, Mr.
D.Shishir and Mr. B.Krishna (not necessarily in the same order). Further, information is given as
a. Either VTI bank or HFBC bank is on the top or first floor respectively.
b. D. Shishir is the manager of the bank which is on 5th floor.
c. DFHC and Korporation bank are on the consecutive floors.
d. K. Bangarappa and Mr. A. Subodh are the managers of the CICIC bank and Kanara bank
respectively.
e. Mr. S. Raju and Mr. D. Shishir are the managers of the banks which are on consecutive floors.
f. Mr. V.Kant, who is the manager of DFHC bank, and Mr. K. Bangarappa have one bank in
between their respective floors.
g. Mr. S.Raju, who is the manager of the Cyndicate bank sits on the floor just above the
Korporation bank.
1. Which bank is on the immediate next floor to Kanara bank?
A. DFHC bank
B. CICIC bank
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. Cyndicate bank
AnswerC. Either (A) or (B)
2. Mr. D.Shishir is the manager of which bank?hich bank is on the immediate next
floor to Kanara bank?
A. Korporation bank
B. Kanara bank
C. DFHC bank
D. Either (A) or (B)
AnswerA. Korporation bank
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3. If Mr. R.Sanjay is the manager of the bank on 1st floor, who is the manager of VTI
bank?
A. Mr. R. Sanjay
B. Mr. K. Bangarappa
C. Mr. A. Subodh
D. Cannot be determined
AnswerD. Cannot be determined
4. The manager of the Cyndicate bank sits on which floor?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Sixth
D. Fourth
AnswerC. Sixth
5. If HFBC bank is on top floor, how many banks are in between DFHC bank and
HFBC bank?
A. Two
B. Four
C. One
D. Three
AnswerA. Two
Amit, Bunty, Reena, Veena and Dolly were selected for prizes because of their excellent
performance by the school. On this occasion their parents were also invited by the school
authority. Brajest, Jayant, Manoj, Ritesh and Vinod were the fathers of the individuals but not in
the same order. Anju, Babita, Punam, Rita and Vinita were the mothers of the individuals but not
in the same order. Among the children only two are males. The first letter of the name of any
parent was not same as the first letter of eth name of their child. The same was true of spouses
also.
The first letter of the name of Dollys father was the same as that of Reenas mother. Similarly,
Dollys mothers name started with the first letter of Reenas father name. Brajesh and Manoj
were not the fathers of Veena and Amit respectively. The first letter of Buntys mother was the
same as the first letter of the name of Veenas father. Anju is not Dollys mother. Jayant is the
husband of Punam. Reenas performance was best among all; that is why her mother Babita
praised her.
1. Who among the following is the father of Amit?
A. Manoj
B. Vinod
C. Jayant
D. Brajesh
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AnswerC. Jayant
2. Who among the following is the son of Rita?
A. Amit
B. Bunty
C. Either Amit or Bunty
D. Cant say
AnswerB. Bunty
3. Fathers name of Reena is?
A. Cant say
B. Vinod
C. Brajesh
D. Manoj
AnswerB. Vinod
4. Who of the following couples is correctly matched?
A. Vinod, Babita
B. Manoj, Punam
C. Brajesh, Anju
D. None of these
AnswerA. Vinod, Babita
Of the five boys A, B, C, D, and E, two are good, one is poor and two are average in studies.
Two of them study in post-graduate classes and three in under-graduate classes. One comes from
a rich family, two from middle class families and two from poor families. One of them is
interested in music, two in acting and one in sports. Of those studying in under-graduate classes,
two are average and one is poor in studies. Of the two boys interested in acting, one is a postgraduate student. The one interested in music comes from a middle class family. Both the boys
interested in acting are not industrious. The two boys coming from middle class families are
average in studies and one of them is interested in acting. The boy interested in sports comes
from a poor family, while the one interested in music is industrious. E is industrious, good in
studies, comes from a poor family and is not interested in acting, music or sports. C is poor in
studies in spite of being industrious. A comes from a rich family and is not industrious but good
in studies. B is industrious and comes from a middle class family.
1. Name the boy interested in sports.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
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AnswerC. C
2. Name the boy interested in music.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
AnswerB. B
3. Name the middle class family boy interested in acting.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
AnswerD. D
4. Name the boys studying in post-graduate classes.
A. A, D
B. A, E
C. B, C
D. D, E
AnswerB. A, E
5. Name the boy who is not industrious and is average in studies.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
AnswerD. D
There are seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Each of them has a different favorite subject
English, Math, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Sociology and Philosophy. Each of the students
secured different marks in the examination. C has secured second highest marks and neither
English nor Math is his favorite subject. E secured the least marks and neither Sociology nor
Math is his favorite subject. The favorite subject of D is Physics and he secured more marks than
B and G but less than A. The favorite subject of B is Biology and his marks are more than the
marks of E but less than the marks of G. the favorite subject of A is Philosophy. The student
whose favorite subject is Chemistry got the highest marks.
1. Chemistry is the favorite subject of
A. A
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B. C
C. F
D. G
AnswerC. F
2. Which is the favorite subject of E?
A. Math
B. English
C. Biology
D. Data inadequate
AnswerB. English
3. When all the seven students are arranged according to their marks in descending
order, what is the position of A from the top?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Data inadequate
AnswerB. Third
4. What is the favorite subject of G?
A. Math
B. Sociology
C. Either Math or Sociology
D. None of these
AnswerA. Math
5. Who got the second least marks?
A. C
B. D
C. G
D. None of these
AnswerD. None of these
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Data Interpretation
Crack Book
By:Governmentadda
.com
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Data Interpretation
Data Interpretation problems can be solved with little ease. There are of course some other
things to focus upon first before you embark upon solving DI questions.
What other things?

Nearly all the Banking an SSC Exam DI questions are based upon these two chapters of
Arithmetic. These are:
Ratios
Percentages & Average
Almost all the Data Interpretation questions are solved using the formulas of only these
two types. We assume here that you should have decent practice of these two types of questions.
If not, practice them until you feel confident enough.
DI Representation
DI questions follow a certain type of presentation. These presentations are broadly classified into
the following classes:
PART 1: Pie Charts
A Pie Chart is a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represent a
proportion of the whole. Pie charts can be replaced in most cases by other plots such as the bar
chart. The central angle of a circle is 360. The proportion that each part bears to the whole will
be corresponding proportion of 360 , which is required to be calculated.
Roughly 10 Qs are asked in the exam on Pie Charts, which generally range from being
Moderate to Difficult.
PART 2: Bar Graphs
A Bar graph is essentially a graph converted into and presented in the form of rectangular
blocks called as bars. These rectangular blocks have common width and hence are proportional
in value as per their lengths. It may not present information as precisely as a table but it gives a
quick overall impression of the findings.
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Roughly 5 Qs are asked in the exam on Bar Graphs, which generally range from being
PART 3: Line Graphs

A Line graph is a linear representation of the figures, put on a two-dimensional scale and show
a relationship between the figures on the two axes, via x and y. It is one of the simplest and
easiest way of showing data interpretation.
Roughly 10 Qs are asked in the exam on Line Graphs, which generally range from being
PART 4: Data Tables

A Data Table is a common method in data interpretation. Table is an arrangement of data in
rows and columns. It provides an overall view of the situation and help in the process of decision
making. Sometimes, the columns in a table are subdivided to give further information. Generally,
it is easier to process the data in a table having more number of rows than columns.
Roughly 5 Qs are asked in the exam on Data Tables, which generally range from being
PART 5: Mixed Graphs (combination of two or more of the above types)
In a Mixed Graph you can compare several categories by a graph of the cumulative type. These
are usually bar or line graphs where the height of the bar or line is divided up proportionately
among different quantities.
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Pie Charts
Introduction
Pie Chart is a circular form of Data representation. In this, the circle is divided into sectors
either percent wise or degree-wise. In percent-wise division, the total area of the chart is taken to
be 100% and in degree wise division, the total area of the chart is taken to be 360o.
Sample Question
Directions: Study the following pie chart and answer the questions that follows:
Total Number of Teachers = 6400

(Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank 2012)
Question 1: If one-thirty sixth of the number of teachers from university F is professors and the
salary of each professor is Rs 96000, what will be the total salary of all the professors together
from university F?
[1] Rs 307.2 lakh
[2] 32.64 lakh
[3] Rs 3.072 lakh
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[4] 3.264 lakh

[5] None of these
Number of teachers from university F = 18% of 6400 = 1152
1/36 of 1152 = 32
Total salary = 32*96000 = 3072000 = 30.72 lakh. Answer [5] is correct. (Note the tricky
options [1] and [2])
Question 2: Difference between the total number of teachers in university A, B and C together
and the total number of teachers in university D, E and F together is exactly equal to the number
of teachers in which university?
[1] A
[2] B
[3] C
[4] D
[5] F
(You dont even have to calculate the number of teachers. Just presence of mind is
needed.)
Number of teachers in university A, B and C = 11+17+19 = 47%
Number of teachers in university D, E and F = 6+29+18 = 53%
Difference = 6% = University D. Answer [4] is correct.
Question 3: What is the average of teachers in university A, C, D and F together?
[1] 854
[2] 3546
[3] 3456
[4] 874
[5] None of these
Again, solving it quickly.
11+19+6+18 = 54%. Average = 54/4 % = [54/400]*6400 = 54*16 = 864. Answer [5] is correct.
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Question 4: If twenty five percent of the number of teachers in university C is female, what is
the number of male teachers in university C?
[1] 922
[2] 911
[3] 924
[4] 912
[5] None of these
Number of teachers in university C = 19% of 6400 = 19*64 = 1216
25% of this is female. Hence remaining 75% is male.
Number of male teachers = 75% of 1216 = [3/4]*1216 = 912. Option [4] is correct.
Question 5: Number of teachers in university B is approximately what percent of the total
number of teachers in university D and E together?
[1] 55%
[2] 59%
[3] 49%
[4] 45%
[5] 65%
Just solve the percentages.
University B = 17%. University D+E = 6+29 = 35%
Required percentage = [17/35]*100 = approx. 49%. Answer is [3]
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Bar Graphs
Introduction
In this article, we are discussing the Bar Graphs in a manner which is comparatively lucid. Dont
worry, the rest of the types we will cover in the upcoming articles. If you want to fully
understand the techniques, you will have to pay attention to each and everything thats been
taught here.
Reading Bar Graphs
A bar graph looks like the following:
Along the X-axis (horizontal axis) we have some numbers. Along the Y-axis (vertical axis) we
have some other numbers. And in between the area, we have some Bars. Try to understand the
data thats been presented here.
Finding it a bit difficult? Of course its difficult because you dont know what these bars
represents.
Now, try to understand the same bar chart, but with the headings.
Number of players participating in three different games from six
different countries:
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This wont be difficult. From the above bar graph we conclude that:
Three different bars represent three different games: Football, Cricket, and Badminton.
On the X-axis, we have a number of countries from 1 to 6.
On the Y-axis we have the number of players.
The length of the Bars denotes the number of players.
CONCEPT 1: Before you solve any of the questions, first you have to understand what
the Bar Graph is trying to say. Make a habit of scanning the headings first. You have to
understand whats on the X-axis, whats on the Y-axis, whats the relation between
these two in terms of the length of Bars.There will be five questions based on one Bar
Graph and that means you can get five full marks if and only if you understand the format of
data thats presented in the question. Thats what Data Interpretation actually means!!
Lets proceed to solving five questions based upon this Bar Graph.
Sample Questions
Question 1: The number of players participating in Cricket from country4 is what percentage
of the number of players participating in Badminton from country1?
[1] 177.77%
[2] 176.78%
[3] 178.87%
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[4] 180.82%
[5] 179.97%
CONCEPT 2: From this question we conclude that: data in Bar Graph tell us so many
things. But its pointless to waste time interpreting all the data. Its not necessary to know
how many Football players or Badminton players are from Country-4 or from
Country-6.Interpret whats necessary!
Just point out Cricket players from Country-4 = 80 players. Number of Badminton players from
Country-1 = 45 players. The rest is just the application of percentage formula.
Percentage = 80/45 * 100 = 177.77%
Question 2: What is the total number of players participating in Cricket from country 4, 5 and 6
and the number of players participating in Football from country 1, 2 and 3?
[1] 335
[2] 635
[3] 435
[4] 535
[5] 235
Applying Lesson number two, Number of Cricket players from Country 4, 5 and 6 = [80+70+60]
= 210.
Number of Football players from Country 1, 2 and 3 = [65+70+90] = 225.
And 210+225 = 435
Question 3: The number of players participating in Badminton from all the country is what
percentage of the total number of players participating in all the games from country3?
[1] 134%
[2] 164%
[3] 126%
[4] 157%
[5] 138%
Badminton players from all countries = [45+40+95+85+95+65] = 425. Total players from all
games from Country-3 = [90+85+95] = 270. Required Percentage = [425/270]*100 157%
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Question 4: In which country is the number of players participating in Football is the highest
and the number of players participating in Badminton is the lowest?
[1] Country 3 & 2
[2] Country 4 & 6
[3] Country 3 & 4
[4] Country 5 & 1
[5] Country 2 & 5
CONCEPT 3: These sort of questions are pretty easy to solve. Just interpret
the data in your mind. Check the length of the Bars. The answer will surely
come.
Football highest = 90 = Country-3 and Badminton lowest = 40 = Country-2
Question 5: 60% of players participating in all game from country-5 are male and 30% players
participating in all game from country-3 are female. What will be their ratio?
[1] 127:170
[2] 13:7
[3] 49:27
[4] 87:55
[5] 270:126
Number of players from all games of Country-5 = [80+70+95] = 245. 60% of 245 = 147
Number of players from all games of Country-3 = [90+85+95] = 270. 30% of 270 = 81
Number of players from all games of Country-3: we already have calculated this number before
in Question 3.
CONCEPT 4: Sometimes the calculation of one questions helps in the calculation of some other
question.
In this question, the ratio is = 147:81 = 49:27
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Line Graph
Introduction
Line Graph is the innovative version of Bar Graph representation. If we connect the upper point
of the first Bar to the upper point of the second Bar and then tie these dots, we will get a line.
Repeating the procedure gives us the Line Graph representation. Line graph and bar grapg r easy
to comprehend. A Line Graph looks like this:
Sample QuestionFollowing line graph shows the ratio of expenditure to income of three
companies A, B and C during the period 20082013.
Reading the headings are important otherwise you will not be able to understand what these lines
are all about.
Along Y-Axis are the ratios. Along X-Axis are the years. In between are the lines.
Following Line Graph shows the ratio of expenditure to income of three
companies A, B and C.
Learn a few things from the heading:
1. For Company A in 2008, if Expenditure is Rs 0.9, then Income will be Rs 1, and so on.
2. Its Expenditure to Income Ratio expressed as E:I and not Income to Expenditure.
3. To have Profit, Expenditure is to be less than Income. Reverse is for Loss.
4. Profit and Loss percentages are calculated using the formulas for the same.
Profit = Income Expenditure
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Profit Percentage = [Profit/Expenditure]*100
Loss = Expenditure Income
Loss Percentage = [Loss/Expenditure]*100
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5. The lower is the E:I ratio, higher is the profit.

The questions of Expenditure and Income seem difficult to solve. But, lets apply the above
mentioned points to solve the questions in no time!
Steps to Solve
Question 1: In which of the following years is the percentage loss/profit of Company C the
maximum?
[1] 2008
[2] 2009
[3] 2010
[4] 2011
[5] 2012
From point no. 5, we conclude that profit is maximum when E:I is minimum which is 0.3 in
2011.
Hence answer is [4].
Question 2: If the expenditure of Company A in 2008 and 2009 together is Rs 60 lakhs, then
what is its income in 2008 and 2009 together?
[1] Rs 120 lakhs
[2] Rs 150 lakhs
[3] Rs 66.66 lakhs
[4] Data inadequate
[5] None of these
E:I for Company A in 2008 and 2009 is 0.5 and 0.4. This means for Rs 0.5 Expenditure in 2008,
Income is Rs 1 in 2008 and for Rs 0.4 Expenditure in 2009, Income is Rs 1 in 2009. But
combined Expenditure of 60 lakhs is given. So, ratios being different, its not possible to
calculate the Income from the combined expenditure. Answer is [4].
Question 3: If the expenditure of Company B in 2008 and 2012 together is Rs 60 lakhs then
what is its income in 2008 and 2012 together?
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[1] Rs 66.66 lakhs

[2] Rs 75 lakhs
[3] Rs 48 lakhs
[4] 96 Rs lakhs
[5] Data inadequate
E:I for 2008 and 2012 is 0.8 and 0.8. Ratios being same, combined Income from the
combined Expenditure can be calculated. Income = E/0.8 = 60/0.8 = 75 lakhs.
Answer is [2].
Question 4: In which of the years does Company C gain 100% profit?
[1] 2008
[2] 2009
[3] 2010
[4] 2011
[5] None of these
For 100% profit, E:I ratio must be 0.5 so that I = E/0.5 = 2E. Its in 2009.
Answer is [2]
Question 5: What is the percentage decrease in the percentage profit of Company C from 2009
to 2010?
[1] 75%
[2] 300%
[3] 62.5%
[4] 160%
[5] None of these
E:I of Company C in 2009 = 0.5:1
Profit = 1-0.5 = 0.5
Percentage profit of profit of Company C in 2009 =[0.5/0.5]*100 = 100%
E:I of Company C in 2010 = 0.8:1
Profit = 1-0.8 = 0.2
Percentage profit of profit of Company C in 2009 =[0.2/0.8]*100 = 25%. Percentage
decrease = 75%. Answer is [1].
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Table Charts
Introduction
Data Tables or table Chart are said to be the easiest form of data representation. Being easier in
interpretation, questions asked of this type in IBPS and SBI PO exams are generally calculative
in nature. In Data Tables, data are presented in the form of a table as shown below.
Sample Question
Directions: Study the table and answer the questions that follows:
Data Related to Human Resource of a Multinational Company (X) which has 146 Offices
across 8
Countries.
SBI PO 2014 Question

Question 1: If the number of male post-graduate employees in country H is 1800, what percent
of female employees in that particular country is post-graduate?
[1] 76
[2] 74
[3] 72
[4] 64
[5] 68
In country H, 80% are post-graduate. That is = [80/100]*3360 = 2688
Male is given 1800. Hence, female post-graduate employees = 2688 1800 = 888
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Total female employees is = [5/14]*3360 = 1200

Hence, required percentage = [888/1200]*100 = 74 Percent. Answer [2] is correct.
Question 2: In which of the given countries is the percentage of women employees to the
number of employees (both male and female) in that country the second lowest?
[1] G
[2] B
[3] E
[4] H
[5] D
These types of question are too much calculative. But you can apply the
reasoning process to solve these questions a little more quickly. The
question asks the percentage of female to total employees. This can be arrived at from
the ratio thats given in the table under the third column. So, just focus upon that ratio
and focus upon the countries given in the options. (I.e. Countries G, B, E, H and D only).
Country B = 11:5 [5/16]*100
Now, lets say this is approximately 30% (16*3 = 48 which is close to 50).
Country D = [2/5]*100 = 40%
Country E = [6/13]*100 = approx. 45%
Country G = [7/15]*100 = approx. 45%
Country H = [5/14]*100 = approx. 35%
Now, second highest is Country H. Question solved. Answer [4] is correct.
Question 3: What is the respective ratio between total number of male employees in countries B
and H together and total number of female employees in countries C and D together?
[1] 63:52
[2] 51:38
[3] 77:64
[4] 69:44
[5] 57:40
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These sort of questions requires faster calculation. No other alternative is

there!
Total male employees from countries B and H = [11/16]*2880 + [9/14]*3360 = 1980 + 2160 =
4140
Total female employees from Countries C and D = [11/21]*2310 + [2/5]*3575 = 1210 + 1430 =
2640
Required ratio = 4140:2640 = 69:44. Answer [4] is correct.
Question 4: What is the difference between average number of post-graduate employees in
countries A, B and D together and average number of post-graduate employees in countries F, G
and H together?
[1] 282
[2] 276
[3] 316
[4] 342
[5] 294
Again. Mastery at calculation is required. But heres a reasoning approach to simplify the
calculations.
75% of 2568 is required. Divide 2788 in four parts and add three parts. Thus 2568/4 is 642 and
642*3 = 1926
65% of 2880 is required. Divide 2880 in ten parts and add six parts and half of 7th part. Thus
288*6 + 288/2 = 1728 + 144 = 1872
60% of 3575 is required. Divide 3575 in 5 parts and add three parts. Thus 3575/5 = 715 and
715*3 = 2145
Average of these three is = [1/3]*[1926+1872+2145] = 1981
Using similar procedures, average of other three is calculated as = 2275
Difference = 2275 1981 = 294. Answer [5] is correct.
Question 5: Which of the given countries has the highest number of average employees per
office?
[1] F
[2] H
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[3] B
[4] C
[5] D
This question is similar to question no. 2. Calculating the averages of the given options only
gives
B = 2880/18 = 1440/9 = 160
C = 2310/14 = 330/2 = 165
D = 3575/22 = 325/2 = 162.5
F = 2788/17 = 164
H = 3360/21 = 480/3 = 160
Highest is in country C.
Answer [4] is correct.
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Mixed Graphs
Introduction
People have a belief that mixing the types complicates the data representation, which is not the
case. The opposite is true. Mixed Graph, if interpreted correctly, is the simplest form of data
representation. In Mixed Graphs, we encounters a combination of two (or sometimes more) types
of data representation, such as:
1. Pie Chart and Data Table
2. Data Table and Line Graph
3. Bar Graph and Line Graph
4. Pie Chart and Line Graph
5. Pie Chart and Pie Chart
The above mentioned types are the most common ones.
Sample Question
Directions: Five different companies A, B, C, D and E make two items I and II. The
total number of items produced by these five companies is 80 thousand. The cost of
production of each item is Rs 5000. The distribution of the total production by these
companies is given in the following pie-chart and the table shows the ratio of
production of Item I to that of Item II and the percentage profit earned by these
companies on each of these items.
Question 1: What is the profit earned by Company C on Item II?

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[1] Rs 57.6 lakhs

[2] Rs 55.4 lakhs
[3] Rs 56.8 lakhs
[4] Rs 54 lakhs
[5] None of these
Being good at dealing with ratios helps much in solving these sorts of questions. Lets
realize the final answer step by step.
Number of items produced by company C = [72/360]*80000 = X
Cost of production = X*5000 = Y
Cost of production of Item II = [3/5]*Y = Z
Percent profit earned on Item II = 12% of Z = [12/100]*Z
= [3/5]*[12/100]*Y = 5000*[3/5]*[12/100]*X
= [72/360]*80000*[3/5]*5000*[12/100] = 5760000 = 57.6 lakh. Answer [1] is correct.
NOTE: With adequate practice, you can easily compute all this in just a single step!
Question 2: What is the total cost of production of Item I by companies A and B together?
[1] Rs 5 crores
[2] Rs 6 crores
[3] Rs 8 crores
[4] Rs 9 crores
[5] None of these
Using the approach as mentioned above:
Cost of producing Item I of company A = [90/360]*80000*[2/5]*5000
Cost of producing Item I of company B = [108/360]*80000*[1/3]*5000
Total = 80000*5000*[(90/360)*(2/5) + (108/360)*(1/3)] = 80000*5000*[1/5] = 8 crores.
Question 3: What is the total of the profit earned by Company E on production of Item I and the
profit of Company D on production of Item II?
[1] Rs 1.56 crores
[2] Rs 2.2 crores
[3] Rs 1.3 crores
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[4] Rs 2.6 crores

[5] None of these
Using similar approach:
Total = 80000*5000*[(36/360)*(4/5)*(30/100) + (54/360)*(2/5)*(25/100)] = 1.56 crores.
Question 4: What is the ratio of the cost of production of Item II by Company A to the cost of
production of Item I by Company E?
[1] 17:12
[2] 4:5
[3] 7:4
[4] 15:8
[5] 1:2
At this point, it should be comfortable to derive the required ratio just by solving
[90/360]*[3/5] : [36/360]*[4/5] = 90*3 : 36*4 = 30:16 = 15:8.
Question 5: The cost of production of Item II for Company E is what per cent of the cost of
production of Item I for Company A?
[1] 80%
[2] 20%
[3] 60%
[4] 75%
[5] 40%
With the same comfort, the required percentage is:
{([36/360]*[1/5]) / ([90/360]*[2/5])}*100 = [36/180]*100 = 20 percent.
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Missing D.I
Most of you who have appeared for previous Banking Exams which took place last year or
Starting of this year would have seen certain question of Missing Data Interpretation asked
repeatedly in the Exam. Thus you can surely expect Missing DI question in upcoming IBPS
Exams.
Now the questions is what is Missing DI?
Missing D.I. are specific types of data presentation where the data is represented mostly in the
form of table and some data are missing in table. In these types of questions, all data
are related to each other and on the basis of one data you have to find missing data and then
solve the questions asked.
Important Point on Missing Table Chart

1. Understanding the various condition of Missing DI table is very important.
2. Try to find relation between data in missing D.I on the basis of condition.
3. Most cases in missing D.I. you can fill all missing data by the help of given data.
4. Missing D.I.question solving helps to solving some other questions.
5. Dont try to use short tricks on Missing D.I question.
To make the chapter easy for you all, we are providing you how to Solve Missing Table
Questions in DI and explain with the help of example. Here we are explaining two types of
Missing D.I question with explanation.
Type 1 Missing D.I Sample Question

Direction
1-4) Study the following table carefully and answers the following questions carefully.
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Details of various items sold by Shop keeper.
Question 1 :- If shopkeeper earns 5% profit on Wheat then what percent discount allowed by
shop keeper?
(1) 12.5%
(2) 15%
(3) 18%
(4) 10%
(5) None of these
Note :- In this type of question you can approach two types
(1). Fill all blank space given in table
(2). According to question try to solve because many blank space in this table.
Explanation:In this question we have cost price and profit% on the basis of given values easily find out
the discount %
Markup price of Wheat = (800*20)/100 = 160 800+160 = 960
5% profit means selling price is = 840
Required discount % = (960 840)/960 = 12.5%
Question 2;- What percentage of profit earn by the shopkeeper on oil?
(1) 15%
(2) 25%
(3) 20%
(4) 18%
(5) None of these
Explanation:- Here we have cost & selling price of oil so easily can find percentage values of
profit
Required profit % = (192-160)/160 = 20%
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Question 3
Ifshopkeeperr allowed 10% discount on mark price of Wheat then what is the selling price of the
Wheat?
(1) Rs. 875
(2) Rs. 864
(3) Rs. 892
(4) Rs. 882
(5) None of these
Explanation:In this question we have cost price and markup% on the basis of given values easily find out
the selling price.
Mark price of Wheat = 960
After allowing 10% discount = (960*10)/100 = 96
Selling price of the Wheat = 960 -96 = 864
Question 4:- If shopkeeper Face 20% loss on Rice then what is cost price of the Rice?
(1) Rs. 750
(2) Rs. 580
(3) Rs. 700
(4) Rs. 520
(5) None of these
Explanation:In this question we have selling price and loss% on the basis of given values easily find out
the cost price.
Cost price of Rice = (600*100)/80 = 750
Type 2- Missing D.I Sample Question

Directions (5-8): In the following questions information about number of candidates interviewed
by five public banks on different working days has been provided. You are required to read the
table carefully and answer the questions given below:
Number of candidates interviewed by five banks on different working days
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Note:- In this type of question before proceeding to the question, our aim should be to find
the missing values because very less number of missing space.
Missing Values in PNB = [112- (17+21+23+10+17)] = 24
Missing Values in BOI = [109- (18+22+14+10+26)] = 19
Missing Values in IDBI = [108- (23+14+23+12+20)] = 16
Missing Values in ICICI = [123- (25+28+23+15+20)] = 12
Question 5:- What is the respective ratio between the number of candidates interviewed by
ICICI banks on Friday and Saturday together and that of candidates interviewed by BOI banks
on the same day?
(1) 35:38
(2) 39:40
(3) 43:44
(4) 45:46
(5) None of these
Explanation:Required Ratio = (15+20) :(10+26) = 35 : 36
Question 6:-The number of candidates interviewed by IDBI bank on Wednesday is what per
cent of total number of candidates interviewed by all banks on the same day
(1) 26.65
(2) 23.45
(3) 28.45
(4) 24.35
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(5) None of these

Explanation:Required percentage = {23/98 * 100} = 23.45
Question 7:-What is the number of candidates interviewed by all banks on Tuesday?
(1) 101
(2) 108
(3) 104
(4) 107
(5) None of these
Explanation:Required number = (21+19+14+28+25) = 107
Question 8:-By Approximate what per cent the number of candidates interviewed by ICICI bank
on Thursday increased with respect to that of interviewed on previous day?
(1) 80%
(2) 96%
(3) 88%
(4) 92%
(5) None of these
Explanation:Required percentage = (23-12)/12 * 100 = 91.66%
Directions (1-5): Study the given table carefully to answer the following
questions.
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1.What is the cost of flooring of A?

1)Rs.4000
2)Rs.4600
3)Rs.4800
4)Rs.5000
5)Rs.4400
2.What is the difference between the cost of fencing of C and that of B?

1)Rs.180
2)Rs.120
3)Rs.240
4)Rs.360
5)Rs.480
3.What is the ratio of the cost of flooring to that of fencing of field D?

1) 4 : 1
2) 6 : 1
3) 8 : 1
4) 9 : 1
5) 5 : 1
4.The cost of fencing of field E is approximately what per cent of the cost of
flooring of field C?
1) 10.5%
2) 19.46%
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3) 18.71%
4) 15.36%
5) 13.82%
5.The cost of fencing of field C is what per cent of the cost of fencing of field D?
1) 87.54%
2) 67.5%
3) 72.13%
4) 54.36%
5) 46.5%
Directions (6-10): Study the table carefully to answer the following questions.
The percentage profit is given on total cost price.
Cost price=cost of production + transportation + packaging cost
6.If the percentage of profit on sold Ghee is 10%, then what is its cost of
packaging?
1)Rs.24.90
2)Rs.23.50
3)Rs.22
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4)Rs.21.09
5)Rs.27.80
7.What is the difference between the selling price of Sugar and that of Rice, if the
cost of transportation is zero for both?
1)Rs.56
2)Rs.52
3)Rs.58
4)Rs.36
5)Rs.72
8.What is the cost of packaging of Pulse?

1)Rs.24.90
2)Rs.23.50
3)Rs.22
4)Rs.21.09
5)Rs.15.74
9.What is the percentage profit of Milk if its selling price is 80% of the cost price
of Rice?
1)28%
2)30%
3)32%
4)30.49%
5)38%
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10.4 kg Ghee, 3 kg Rice and 5 kg Milk are sold. What is profit or loss percentage?
(The packing cost is zero for all goods) and selling price of Milk is ` 32 per kg?
1)36%
2)32%
3)30.49%
4)34.2%
5)31.5%
Answers
1.(3)A is traingle
Area of A=1/2(16X12)=96m^2
Cost of flooring of A=96X50=4800
2.(1) Perimeter of B=2(10+20)=60 m

cost of fencing of B=60X15=900 Rs.
Perimeter of C=4X15=60 m
So, cost of fencing of C=60X18=1080 Rs.
Required difference=1080-900=180
3.(4) Area of D=BaseXHeight=20X12=240 m^2

cost of flooring of D=240X60=14400
Perimeter of D=2(20+12)=64
cost of Fencing of D=64X25=1600
Required ratio=14400:1600=9:1
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4. (4) Perimeter of E=2PiR=2X22/7X10=440/7 m

Cost of Fencing of E=440/7X22=1382.85
Area of C=15^2=225m^2
Cost of flooring of C=225X40=9000
Required %=1382.85X100/9000=15.36%
5.(2) Fencing cost of C=1080

Fencing cost of D=1600
Required %=(1080X100)/1600=67.5%
6. (4) selling price of Ghee=120 per kg.

Profit=-10%
Total cost price=120X100/110=109.09
Cost of packaging=109.09-80-8=21.09 Rs.
7. (3) Selling price of Rice=40X105/100=42

Selling price of Sugar=45+5+50=100
Required difference=100-42=58
8. (5) Selling price of pulse=90 Rs.

Loss=6%
Total CP=90X100/94=95.74
Cost of packaging of pulse=95.74-70.10=15.74
9. (1) CP of Rice=40
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SP of milk=40X80/100=32
CP of milk=20+3+2=25
% profit=(32-25)/25X100=28%
10. (3) CP of (4 kg Ghee+3kg Rice+5 kg milk)

= 4X(80+8)+3X40+5X(20+3)
=352+120+115=587
SP of( 4 kg Ghee+3kg Rice+5kg milk)
=4X120+3X42+5X32=480+126+160=766
% profit=(766-587)/587X100=30.49%
(Q.no: 1-5). Study the table carefully to answer the questions that
follow:
Distance(in Km) travelled by six cars on six different days of the week.
A
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
Saturday
240
320
324
288
366
292
B
250
264
294
300
302
284
C
320
308
330
310
288
260
D
325
314
312
278
292
274
E
330
318
310
260
270
280
F
300
314
325
275
268
242
1. What is the difference between the average distance covered by

Car D in all the days together and the average distance covered
by all the cars together on Saturday?
A. 25.16
B. 26.16
C. 27.16
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D. 28.16
E.None of the Above
Answer C. 27.16
Explanation :
Average distance covered by Car D in all the days together = 1795/6 =
299.16
Average distance covered by all the cars together on
Saturday = 1632/6 =272
Difference = 299.16 272 = 27.16
2. If the speed of the car A on Monday was 19.2 Km/hr, and the
speed on Wednesday was 20 Km/hr and on Friday was 30
Km/hr. What was the approximate average time taken(in
hours) by it to cover the distance on given days?
A.16 hours
B.15 hours
C.18 hours
D.13 hours
E.None of the Above
Answer D.13 hours

Explanation :
Required Time(Monday) = 240/19.2 = 12.5
Required Time(Wednesday) = 324/20 = 16.2
Required Time(Friday) = 366/30 = 12.2
Average time taken by Car A in given days = (12.5 + 16.2 + 12.2)/3
=13.63
3. If to travel the given distance, the time taken by Car B on all
the days was 8 hours, What was the average speed of the Car
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on all the days together?

A. 45.27 kmph
B. 35.29 kmph
C. 25.27 kmph
D. 15.26 kmph
E.None of the Above
Answer B. 35.29 kmph

Explanation :
250/8 = 31.25 kmph ; 264/8 = 33 kmph ; 294/8 = 36.75 ; 300/8 =
37.5 ; 302/8 = 37.75 ; 284/8 = 35.5
Average Speed of Car B on all the days together = 35.29 kmph
4. Total distance travelled by all the cars together on Friday and
Saturday is what percent of total distance travelled by all the
cars together on Monday and Tuesday?
A.94%
B.92%
C.90%
D.93%
E.None of the Above
Answer A.94%
Explanation :
Total distance travelled by all the cars together on Friday & Saturday
= 1786 + 1632 = 3418
Total distance travelled by all the cars together on Monday and
Tuesday = 1765 + 1838 = 3603
Required % = (3418/3603)*100 = 94%
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5. If on Tuesday, Car C and Car E travelled at the same speed,

what was the ratio of the time taken by Car C and that taken by
Car E to cover their respective distances?
A. 161 : 173
B. 173 : 159
C. 154 : 159
D. 161 : 154
Answer C. 154 : 159

Explanation :
= [308/x]:[318/x] = 154 : 159
II. Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the graph carefully to answer the
questions that follow:
Percent profit made by two companies over the years.
Percent Profit = [(Income Expenditure)/Expenditure]*100
6. If in the year 2004 the expenditures incurred by company A and

B were the same, what was the ratio of the income of company
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A to that of Company B in that year?

A. 25 : 26
B. 26 : 27
c. 20 : 21
D. 27 : 28
E. None of these
Answer D. 27 : 28
Explanation :
Let Expenditure = Rs.100
Income(A) = Rs. 135
Income(B) = Rs. 140
Ratio = 135 : 140 = 27 : 28
7. What is the sum of the average per cent profit earned by
company B and A over all the years together?
A. 69.16
B. 79.16
C. 89.16
D. 59.16
E. None of these
Answer B. 79.16
Explanation :
Average per cent profit earned by company B = 235/6 = 39.16
Average per cent profit earned by company A = 240/6 = 40
Sum = 79.16
8. If the amount of profit earned by company A in the year 2007
was Rs.1.5 lakhs, what was its expenditure in that year?
A. 3.75 lakh
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B. 4.50 lakh
C. 9.25 lakh
D. 5.75 lakh
E. None of these
Answer A. 3.75 lakh

Explanation :
1.5 * (100/40)= 3.75 lakh
9. If in the year 2008, the incomes of both companies A and B
were same, What was the ratio of expenditure of Company A to
the expenditure of Company B in that year?
A. 14 : 15
B. 13 : 14
C. 15 : 16
D. 13 : 15
E. None of these
Answer D. 13 : 15
Explanation :
Expenditure (A) = x *(100/150) = (2/3)x
Expenditure (B) = x *(100/130) = (10/13)x
(2/3)x : (10/13)x = 13 : 15
10.
What is the ratio of the amount of profit earned by company
A to that by company B in the year 2009?

A. 2 : 3
B. 4 : 7
C. 11 : 15
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
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Answer D. Cannot be determined
(Q.no: 1-5). Refer to the Pie-charts and answer the given questions.
Total Number of employees (both male and female) in 5 companies in
2014 = 6300
Total Number of male employees in 5 companies in 2014 = 3600
1. Only 25% of the members (both male and female) in company

D have Full membership in IES. If the number of females in
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Company D who have full membership is 126, what percent of

male members in Company D have full membership?
A.105/4 %
B.103/4 %
C.101/4 %
D.107/4 %
E.None of the Above
Answer A.105/4 %
Explanation :
Total = 6300
Total number of employees in D = 20% of 6300 = 1260
25% of D = 25% of 1260 = 315
Female employees who have IES membership = 126
Male employees who have IES membership = 315 126 = 189
Total number of male employees in D = 720
Required percentage = (189/720) * 100 = 105/4 %
2. What is the average number of female members in Companies
A, B and C?
A.564
B.572
C.568
D.548
E.None of the Above
Answer A.564
Explanation :
Total = 6300
In Company A (both female and male) employees = 1323
In Company B (both female and male) employees = 2079
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In Company C (both female and male) employees = 882

In Company A male employees = 864
In Company B male employees = 1080
In Company C male employees = 648
In Company A female employees = 459
In Company B female employees = 999
In Company C female employees = 234
(459 + 999 + 234)/3 = 564
3. Number of male employees in companies A and C increased by
equal number from 2014 to 2015. If the respective ratio
between number of male numbers in company A and that in C in
2015 is 13:10, what is the number of male employees in
company C in 2015?
A.690
B.750
C.720
D.740
E.None of the Above
Answer C.720
Explanation :
864 + x / 648 + x = 13 / 10
x = 72
Number of male numbers in company C = 648 + 72 = 720
4. What is the central angle corresponding to number of (both
male and female) in company B?
A.118.8
B.112.6
C.124.8
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D.116.4
E.None of the Above
Answer A.118.8
Explanation :
(33/100) * 360 = 118.8
5. Number of female members in company E is what percent less
than number of male members in company B?
A. 160/3 %
B. 170/3 %
C. 140/3 %
D. 190/3 %
Answer B. 170/3 %
Explanation :
Number of female members in company E = 756 288 = 468
(612/1080)*100 = 170/3%
(Q.no: 6-10). Refer to the Pie-charts and answer the given questions.
Number of Intex laptops sold = 28000
Percentage of Intex Smartphones sold
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Total number of Smartphones (Intex and Lneovo) sold = 48000
6. The number of smart phones of both types sold by stores A and

C is more than that sold by sold by stores E and F by
A. 2500
B. 2600
c. 2000
D. 2400
E. None of these
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Answer D. 2400
Explanation :
stores A and C 33/100 * 48000 = 15840
stores E and F 28/100 * 48000 = 13440
Difference = 2400
7. What is the ratio between the number of Intex and Lenovo
smartphones sold by store A?
A. 49 : 59
B. 47 : 49
C. 49 : 53
D. 49 : 47
E. None of these
Answer A. 49 : 59
Explanation :
Intex sold by store A = 14/100 * 28000 = 3920
Lenovo sold by store A = Total Intex
Total = 18/100 * 48000 = 8640
Intex = 3920
8640 3920 = 4720
3920 : 4720 = 49 : 59
8. What is the respective ratio between the average number of
Intex Smartphones sold by stores A, C and E and that sold by
stores B, D and F?
A. 3 : 4
B. 4 : 9
C. 9 : 16
D. 5 : 12
E. None of these
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Answer C. 9 : 16
Explanation :
Intex Smartphones sold by stores A, C and E = [(36/100) * 28000]/3
Intex Smartphones sold by stores B, D and F = [(64/100) * 28000]/3
36 : 64 = 9 : 16
9. By what percent is the number of Lenova smartphones sold by
store B is more than that of Intex Smartphones sold by store E?
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 55%
D. 45%
E. None of these
Answer B. 60%
Explanation :
Total smartphones sold by store B = (28/100) * 48000 = 13440
Lenova = 13440 8960 = 4480
Intex laptops sold by store E = 2800
Difference = 4480 2800 = 1680
(1680/2800)*100 = 60%
10.
What will be the central angle corresponding to number of
smartphones both kinds sold by stores C and F?

A. 126
B. 115
C. 90
D. 80
E. 120
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Answer A. 126
Explanation :
(35/100)*360 = 126
I. (Q.no: 1-5). Refer to the following Line Graph and answer the given
questions.
1. By What approximate percent is the profit earned by the

company in the month of February less than that earned in the
month of January?
A. 32%
B. 35%
C. 41%
D. 45%
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Answer C. 41%
Explanation :
140/340 * 100 = 41%
2. What is the difference between the total profit(in Rs.
Thousand) earned by the company in the months of February,
April and July and that earned in the months of January, March
and June?
A. 120
B. 130
C. 140
D. 160
Answer D. 160
Explanation :
Profit earned by the company in the months of February, April and
July= 200 + 280 + 140 = 620
Profit earned by the company in the months of January, March and
June = 340 + 180 + 260 = 780
Difference = 780 620 = 160
3. What is the respective ratio between the percentage profits
earned by the company in the months of March and May?
A. 4:5
B. 2:3
C. 5:4
D. 8:3
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Answer A. 4:5
Explanation :
Percentage profits earned by the company in March = 180/300 * 100
= 60
Percentage profits earned by the company in May = 240/320 * 100 =
75
60:75 = 4:5
4. What is the approximate average expenditure of the company
in the given months?(In Rs.Thousand)
A. 385
B. 389
C. 365
D. 375
E. 370
Answer A. 74%
Explanation :
320 + 580 + 300 + 440 + 320 + 280 + 480 = 2720
Average = 2720/7 = 389
5. In how many months, the income of a company was more than
the average income during the given months?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer C. 3
Explanation :
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660 + 780 + 480 + 720 + 560 + 540 + 620 = 4360

4360/7 = 622
3 months, the income of a company was more than the average
income during the given months.
II. (Q.no: 6-10). Refer to the following Line Graph and answer the given
questions.
6. The number of people who travelled by Train B on Friday is

20% more than the people who travelled by the same train on
Thursday. What is the respective ratio between the number of
people who travelled on Friday and those who travelled on
Saturday by the same train?
A. 4:5
B. 3:4
C. 5:6
D. 3:4
E. 1:4
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Answer B. 3:4
Explanation :
20% of 200 = 40
People travelled by Train B on Friday = 240
240 : 320 = 3 : 4
7. What is the difference between the total number of people who
travelled by Train B on Monday and Tuesday together and the
total number of people who travelled by Train A on Saturday
and Sunday together?
A. 200
B. 230
C. 210
D. 250
E. 240
Answer D. 250
Explanation :
Train B on Monday and Tuesday together = 200 + 170 = 370
Train A on Saturday and Sunday together = 350 + 310 = 620
Difference = 620 370 = 250
8. What is the average number of people travelling by Train A on
Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday?
A. 200
B. 230
C. 205
D. 250
E. 240
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Answer C. 205
Explanation :
240 + 210 + 140 + 230
= 820/4 = 205
9. The number of people who travelled by Train A decreased by
what percent from Saturday to Tuesday?
A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 30%
D. 42%
E. 33%
Answer B. 40%
Explanation :
[(350 210)/350]*100
= [140/350]*100 = 40%
10.
The total number of people who travelled by both the given
trains together on Sunday is approximately what percent more

than the total number of people who travelled by both the given
trains together on Wednesday?
A. 128%
B. 123%
C. 142%
D. 118%
E. 135%
Answer A. 74%
Explanation :
(580 260)*100
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= 320/260 * 100
= 123%
(Q.no: 1-5). Refer to the table and answer the given questions.
Companies Branches
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
16
18
14
22
13
17
24
21
Total number of
Employees
2568
2880
2310
3575
2054
2788
3720
3360
Ratio of Male to Female

Employees
5:7
11 : 5
10 : 11
3:2
7:6
20 : 21
8:7
9:5
Percentage of Post Graduate

Employees
75%
65%
40%
60%
50%
75%
55%
80%
1. If the number of male post graduate employees in company H is

1800, what percent of the female employees in that particular
company are post graduate?
A. 74%
B. 76%
C. 75%
D. 73%
E. 72%
Answer A. 74%
Explanation :
Number of Females in Company H = 3360 *(5/14) = 1200
Number of Post graduate employees in Company H = 3360 *(80/100)
= 2688
Number of female post graduate employees in Company H = 2688
1800 = 888
Required Percentage = (888 * 100)/1200 = 74%
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2. In which of the given companies is the percentage of women

employees with respect to the total number of employees(both
males and females) in that company the second lowest?
A. G
B. B
C. E
D. H
E. D
Answer D. H
Explanation :
Company A : ([7/12 * (2568)] / 2568)*100 = 58.33%
Company B : ([5/16 * (2880)] / 2880)*100 = 31.25%
Company C : ([11/21 * (2310)] / 2310)*100 = 52.38%
Company D : ([2/5 * (3575)] / 3575)*100 = 40%
Company E : ([6/13 * (2054)] / 2054)*100 = 46.15%
Company F : ([21/41 * (2788)] / 2788)*100 = 51.21%
Company G : ([7/15 * (3720)] / 3720)*100 = 46.66%
Company H : ([5/14 * (3360)] / 3360)*100 = 35.71%
3. What is the ratio of the total number of male employees in
companies B and H together to the total number of female
employees in Companies C and D together?
A. 63 : 51
B. 51 : 48
C. 77 : 63
D. 69 : 44
E. 55 : 53
Answer D. 69 : 44
Explanation :
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= [2880 * (11/16)/ 2310 * (11/21) + 3360 * (9/14)/ 3575 * (2/5)] =

(1980 + 2160)/(1210 + 1430) = 414/264 = 69:44
4. What is the difference between the average number of post
graduate employees in companies A, B and D together and the
average number of post graduate employees in companies F, G
and H?
A. 272
B. 312
C. 294
D. 346
E. 289
Answer C. 294
Explanation :
Average number of post graduate employees in companies A, B and D
= (1926 + 1872 + 2145)/3 = 5943/3 = 1981
Average number of post graduate employees in companies F, G and H
= (2091 + 2046 + 2688)/3 = 6875/3 = 2275
Difference = 2275 1981 = 294
5. Which of the given companies has the highest number of
average employees per office?
A. F
B. H
C. B
D. C
E. D
Answer D. C
Explanation :
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Company A 2568/16 = 160.5 ; Company B 2880/18 = 160

Company C 2310/14 = 165 ; Company D 3575/22 = 162.5
Company E 2054/13 = 158 ; Company F 2788/17 = 164
Company G 3720/24 = 155 ; Company H 3360/21 = 160
(Q.no: 6-10). Refer to the Line Graph and answer the given questions.
Number of gloves of XYZ brand sold in Town A and Town B in 6
different months.
6. The number of gloves sold in Town B increased by what percent

from October to December?
A. 500/3 %
B. 400/3 %
C. 100/3 %
D. 200/3 %
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Answer A. 500/3 %
Explanation :
= (320-120)*100
= (200/120)*100
= 500/3%
7. What is the difference between the total number of gloves sold
in both the towns together in January and the total number of
gloves sold in both the towns together in February?
A. 280
B. 270
C. 290
D. 260
E. 250
Answer A. 280
Explanation :
Gloves in January = 570
Gloves in February = 290
Difference = 280
8. The number of gloves sold in town A in November is what %
more than the number of gloves sold in Town B in the same
months?
A. 32%
B. 28%
C. 25%
D. 30%
E. 20%
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Answer D. 30%
Explanation :
Required Percentage
= [(260-200)/200]*100
= [60/200]*100 = 30%
9. What is the average number of gloves in Town A in October,
November, December and March?
A. 215
B. 220
C. 225
D. 210
E. 205
Answer D. 210
Explanation :
Avg = 150 + 260 + 350 + 80 = 840 = 840/4 = 210
10.
The total number of gloves sold in Town B in September is
20% less than the number of gloves sold in same town in

October. what is the respective ratio between the number of
gloves sold in September and those sold in December in the
same town?
A. 2:9
B. 1:5
C: 4:9
D. 2:7
E. 3:10
Answer E. 3:10
Explanation :
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Gloves sold in Town B in September

= 20% of 120 = 24 = 120-24 = 96
Ratio = 96 : 320 = 3:10
(Q.no: 1-10). Refer to the table and answer the given questions.
Year
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
Number of Candidates
Appeared
__
750
600
__
1040
% of Qualified
Candidates
__
__
28%
65%
40%
Respective Ratio of qualified male &

qualified females
5:3
5:4
__
8:5
__
1. In 2001, 6400 candidates appeared at the exam and 40% of

them qualified. In 2005 the ratio between qualified males and
females was 3:5. What is the total number of female candidates
who qualified in these two years?
A. 1120
B. 1220
C. 1330
D. 1150
Answer B. 1220
Explanation :
x = Female candidates in 2001
40% of 6400 = 2560
(3/8)x of 2560 = 960
y = Female candidates in 2005
40% of 1040 = 416
y = (5/8)*416 =260
Total = 960 + 260 = 1220
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2. In 2004, what percent of male candidates did qualify in the

exam among all qualified candidates?
A. 51%
B. 61%
C. 55%
D. 56%
Answer B. 61%
Explanation :
x = percent of qualified male candidates
x = (8/13)*100 = 61%
3. In 2002, 54% of appeared candidates did qualify. How many
female candidates did qualify in the exam?
A. 280
B. 170
C. 180
D. 250
E. 240
Answer C. 180
Explanation :
54% of 750 = 405
x = percent of qualified female candidates
x = (4/9)*405 = 180
4. In 2003, a total of 68 male candidates did qualify. What is the
respective ratio between males and females who had qualified
in 2003?
A. 11:25
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B. 19:25
C. 17:25
D. 25:13
E. 13:19
Answer C. 17:25
Explanation :
28% of 600 = 168
Female Candidates = 168 68 = 100
68 : 100 => 17:25
5. What is the average number of candidates who did not qualify
in the exam in the years 2003 and 2005?
A. 576
B. 556
C. 528
D. 546
Answer C. 528
Explanation :
72% of 600 = 432
60% of 1040 = 624
432 + 624 = 1056 = 1056/2 = 528
6. In 2003, if the number of female qualified candidates was 70,
what was the respective ratio of number of female qualified
candidates and number of male qualified candidates same year?
A. 5:9
B. 7:11
C. 10:11
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D. 10:13
E. 5:7
Answer E. 5:7
Explanation :
28% of 600 = 168
Female candidates = 70
Male candidates = 168 70 = 98
=> 70:98
=> 5:7
7. Number of appeared candidates increased by 20% from 2002 to
2006. If 25% of the appeared candidates qualified in 2006,
what was the number of qualified candidates in 2006?
A. 205
B. 225
C. 245
D. 240
E. 230
Answer B. 225
Explanation :
20% of 750 = 150
= 750 + 150 = 900
25% of 900 = 225
8. If the average number of qualified candidates in 2002 and 2005
was 433, what percent of appeared candidates qualified in the
competitive exam in 2002?
A. 60%
B. 75%
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C. 45%
D. 70%
E. 50%
Answer A. 60%
Explanation :
Number of qualified candidates in 2002 and 2005 = 866
2005: 40% of 1040 = 416
866 416 = 450
(450/750)*100 = 60%
9. In 2004, if the difference between number of male qualified
candidates and number of female qualified candidates was 120,
what was the number of appeared candidates in 2004?
A. 840
B. 800
C. 660
D. 600
E. 720
Answer B. 800
Explanation :
x = qualified candidates; y = Appeared Candidates
(3/13)*x = 120
x = 520
65% of y = 520
y = 800
10.
In 2001, the respective ratio of number of appeared
candidates to qualified candidates was 5:2. Number of female

candidates qualified in 2001 constitutes what percent of the
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number of appeared candidates in the same year?

A. 15%
B. 25%
C. 125%
D. 20%
E. Can not be determined
Answer A. 15%
Explanation :
[2x * (3/8) / 5] * 100 = 15%
I. Refer to the table and answer the given questions.
Data related to number of candidates appeared and qualified in a
competitive exam from 2 states during 5 years.
Andhra Pradesh
Year Number of
Appeared
candidates
2012 450
2013 600
2014 ___
2015 480
2016 380
Percentage of Appeared
candidates who qualified
60%
43%
60%
70%
___
Uttar Pradesh
Number of
Appeared
candidates
___
___
280
550
400
Percentage of Appeared
candidates who qualified
30%
45%
60%
50%
___
Note: Few values are missing in the table (indicated by __).

A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer
the given questions on the basis of given data and information.
1. Out of the number of qualified candidates from State Andhra
Pradesh in 2014, the respective ratio of male and female
candidates is 11:7. If the number of female qualified candidates
from State Andhra Pradesh in 2014 is 126, what is the number
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of appeared candidates(both male and female) from State

Andhra Pradesh in 2014?
A. 630
B. 510
C. 570
D. 650
E. 540
Answer E. 540
Explanation :
X Male candidates
X = 126 * (11/7) = 198
Total Qualified Candidates = 198 + 126 = 324
Total Appeared Candidates = 324 * (100/60) = 540.
2. Number of Appeared Candidates from State Uttar Pradesh
increased by 100% from 2012 to 2013. If the total number of
qualified candidates from State uttar Pradesh in 2012 and 2013
together is 408, what is the number of appeared candidates
from State Uttar Pradesh in 2012?
A. 380
B. 320
C. 340
D. 360
E. 300
Answer C. 340
Explanation :
x Total number of appeared Candidates in 2012
2x Total number of appeared Candidates in 2013
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x*(30/100) + 2x*(45/100) = 408

120x/100 = 408 > x = 340
3. What is the difference between number of qualified candidates
from State Andhra Pradesh in 2012 and that in 2013?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
E. 20
Answer A. 12
Explanation :
60% of 450 = 270
43% of 600 = 258
Difference 12
4. If the average number of qualified candidates from State Uttar
Pradesh in 2014, 2015 and 2016 is 210, what is the number of
qualified candidates from state Uttar Pradesh in 2016?
A. 191
B. 195
C. 183
D. 187
E. 179
Answer D. 187
Explanation :
Average no of qualified students in 2014,2015,2016 = 210
Total no of qualified students in 2014,2015,2016 = 630
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Qualified students in 2016 = (630 (60% Of 280 + 50% Of 550)) =

630 443 = 187
5. If the respective ratio between number of qualified candidates
from State Andhra Pradesh in 2015 and 2016 is 14:9, what is
the number of qualified candidates from State Andhra Pradesh
in 2016?
A. 252
B. 207
C. 216
D. 234
E. 198
Answer C. 216
Explanation :
x Number of qualified candidates in 2016
x = 336*(14/9) = 216
II. Refer to the table and answer the given questions.
Data related to number of employees in 5 different companies in
December, 2012
Company
M
N
O
P
Q
Total number of
Employees
1050
700
___
___
___
Out of total number of employees

Percentage of Science Percentage of
Percentage of Arts
Graduates
Commerce Graduates Graduates
32%
___
___
___
31%
40%
30%
30%
___
___
40%
20%
35%
50%
___
I. Employees of the given companies can be categorised only in three types:

Science Graduates, Commerce Graduates and Arts Graduates
II. Few values are missing in the table (indicated by ___). A candidate is
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expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given

questions, on the basis of the given data and information.
6. What is the difference between the number of Arts graduate
employees and Science Graduates employees in Company N?
A. 87
B. 89
C. 77
D. 81
E. 73
Answer C. 77
Explanation :
Number of Arts graduate employees = 40% of 700 = 280
Number of Science Graduates employees = 29% of 700 = 203
Difference = 280 203 = 77
7. The Average number of Arts graduate employees and
Commerce graduate employees in Company Q was 312. what
was the total number of employees in Company Q?
A. 920
B. 960
C. 1120
D. 1040
E. 1080
Answer B. 960
Explanation :
Average no of Arts graduate employees and Commerce graduate
employees in Company Q = 312
Total no of Arts graduate employees and Commerce graduate
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employees in Company Q = 624

Total number of employees in Company Q = X
X = 624 * (100/65) = 960
8. If the respective ratio between the number of Commerce
graduate employees and Arts graduate employees in Company
M was 10:7, what was the number of Arts graduate employees
in M?
A. 294
B. 266
C. 280
D. 308
E. 322
Answer A. 294
Explanation :
Number of Science Graduate employees = 32% of 1050 = 336
Number of Commerce Graduate employees and Arts graduate
employees = 1050 -336 = 714
Number of Arts graduate employees in M = 714 * (7/17) = 294
9. Total number of employees in Company N increased by 20%
from December 2012 to 2013, If 20% of the total number of
employees in Company N in December, 2013 was science
graduates, what was the number of Science graduate
employees in Company N in December 2013?
A. 294
B. 266
C. 168
D. 252
E. 238
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Answer C. 168
Explanation :
Total number of employees in Company N in 2013 = 840
Science graduate employees in Company N in December 2013 = 20%
of 840 = 168
10.
Total number of employees in Company P was 3 times the
total number of employees in Company O. If the difference

between number of Arts graduate employees in Company P and
that in Company O was 180, what was the total number of
employees in Company O?
A. 1200
B. 1440
C. 720
D. 900
E. 1080
Answer D. 900
Explanation :
Total number of employees in Company P = 3 times the total number
of employees in Company O.
40% 20% = 180
20% = 180
Total number of employees in Company o = 360 * (100/40) = 900
I. Refer to the table and answer the given questions
Data related to performance of 6 Batsman in a tournament
Batsman
A
B
Number of matches played in Average Runs scored in Total balls faced in the Strike
the tournament
the tournament
tournament
Rate
8
129.6
20
81
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38
400
D
E
28
55
1280
F
Note:
i. Strike Rate = [Total Runs Scored/Total Balls Faced]*100
ii. All the given Batsmen could bat in all the given matches played by him.
iii. Few Values are missing in the table (indicated by ). A candidate is
expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given
question, on the basis of the given data and information.
1. The respective ratio between total number of balls faced by D
and that by F in the tournament is 3:4. Total number of runs
scored by F in the tournament is what percent more than the
total runs scored by D in the tournament?
A. 200/9%
B. 150/9%
C. 350/9%
D. 325/9%
E. 100/9%
Answer A. 200/9%
Explanation :
F = D = [Strike Rate * Total Balls Faced]/100
F = 66*4x/100, D = 72*3x/100
F = D*[(100+y)/100] 264x/100 = 216x/100 * [(100+y)/100] y =
200/9%
2. If the runs scored by E in last 3 matches of the tournament are
not considered, his average runs scored in the tournament will
decrease by 9. If the runs scored by E in the 26th and 27th
match are below 128 and no two scores among these 3 scores
are equal, what are the minimum possible runs scored by E in
the 28th match?
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114
72
66
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A. 137
B. 135
C. 141
D. 133
E. 130
Answer A. 137
Explanation :
Total runs scored = Number of matches played in the tournament *
Average Run = 28 * 55 = 1540
Total runs scored(excluding last 3 matches) = 25 * 46(decrease 9 in
avg) = 1150
Total runs of last 3 matches = 1540 1150 = 390
Average = 390/3 = 130
26th and 27th match are below 128 and no two scores among these 3
scores are equal.So
Assume 26th = 127
then 27th = 126
and therefore 28th = 137
3. In the tournament, the total number of balls faced by Batsman
A is 74 less than the total number of runs scored by him. What
is the average run scored by Batsman A in the tournament?
A. 42.5
B. 39.5
C. 38
D. 44
E. 40.5
Answer E. 40.5
Explanation :
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129.6 = [x/x-74]*100 [Strike rate formula given)

129.6x -9590.4 = 100x
x = 324
Average = 324/8 = 40.5
4. Batsman B faced equal number of balls in first 10 matches he
played in the tournament and last 10 matches he played in the
tournament. If his Strike rate in first 10 matches of the
tournament are 120 and 150 respectively, what is the total
number of balls faced by him in the tournament?
A. 1000
B. 1100
C. 1200
D. 1250
E. 1300
Answer C. 1200
Explanation :
(120/100)*(x/2) + (150/100)*(x/2) = 1620
x = 1200
5. What is the number of matches played by batsman C in the
tournament?
A. 10
B. 16
C. 12
D. 18
E. 8
Answer C. 12
Explanation :
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114 = (38x / 400)* 100

x = 12
II. Refer to the table and answer the given questions
Person
A
B
C
D
E
Type of Interest
Compound
Simple
Compund
Simple
Compound
Principal(P)
20000
10000
Amount (A)
29500
Years
2
4
2
3
Rate of Interest(%)
2
6. If the ratio of interest rate of E to that of D is 2:3 then what is

the Principal(P) of D?
A. 15000
B. 20000
C. 35000
D. 25000
E. 30000
Answer D. 25000
Explanation :
R(%) = 4*3/2 = 6
Principal x
x + (x*3*6/100) = 29500
x = 25000
7. If the interest is compounded yearly for three years then what
is the amount to be earned by C?
A. 23497.28
B. 20497.28
C. 22597.28
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D. 22697.28
E. 22497.28
Answer E. 22497.28
Explanation :
Amount = P(1 + (R/100)^3)
A = 20000 * 1.04 * 1.04 * 1.04
A = 22497.28
8. What is the Simple Interest(SI) of B ? If the ratio of Principal of
C to that of B is 4:5 and the rate of interest is 10% more than
that of C.
A. 3300
B. 4400
C. 2200
D. 1100
E. 5500
Answer B. 4400
Explanation :
P = 5/4 * 20000 = 25000
The rate of interest is 10% more than that of C.
R(%) = 4 + (4*(10/100)) = 4.4 %
SI = [25000 * 4.4 * 4]/100 = 4400
9. If the Principal(P) of A is 20% more than that of E, then What is
the amount of A?
A. 12694.60
B. 16584.60
C. 12584.80
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D. 12484.80
E. 15684.60
Answer D. 12484.80
Explanation :
Principal(P) of A = 10000 * 120/100 = 12000
A = P(1 + (R/100)^N) = 12000(1 + (2/100)^2) = 12484.80
10.
If amount of D equals to five times that of his Principal then
what is the Rate of Interest(%)?

A. 122.22%
B. 144.44%
C. 133.33%
D. 155.55%
Answer C. 133.33%
Explanation :
Amount of D = Rs.29500
Principal x
Amount of D = 5x
5x = 29500 => x= 5900
SI = 29500 5900 = 23600
R = 23600 * 100 / 5900 * 3 = 133.33%
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I. Answer the questions based on the given line graph.

Ratio of exports to imports of two companies over the years.
1. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the
imports for company A?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. None of these
Answer B. 3
Explanation :
The exports more than the imports for company A in 3 years,
2005,2006,2007.
2. If the imports of company A in 2007 were increased by 40%,
what would be the ratio of exports to the increased imports?
A. 1.20
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B. 1.25
C. 1.30
D. Can not be determined
Answer B. 1.25
Explanation :
Let export of the company A in 2007 = 175x
import of the company A in 2007 = 100x
New import of the company A in 2007 = 140% of 100x = 140x
New Ratio = 175x/140x = 1.25
3. If the exports of company B in 2008 were Rs.237 crore, what
was the amount of imports in that year?
A. 189.6 crore
B. 243.8 crore
C. 281.5 crore
D. 316.7 crore
Answer A. 189.6 crore

Explanation :
Let imports of company B in 2008 = x crore
237/x = 1.25 => x = 189.6
4. In 2005, the export of company A was double that of company
B. If the imports of company A during the year was Rs 180
crores, what was the approximate amount of imports profit
company B during that year?
A. 190 crore
B. 210 crore
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C. 225 crore
Answer B. 210 crore

Explanation :
In 2005, for company A => Export / 180 = 1.75
Export of company A = 1.75 * 180
Export of company B = 1.75 * 180 / 2 = 157.5
Import of company B = 157.5/0.75 = 210 crore
5. In which year were the exports of company A minimum
proportionate to its imports?
A. 2010
B. 2009
C. 2008 and 2010
D. 2005 and 2007
Answer B. 2009
Explanation :
The exports of company A minimum proportionate to its imports refers
the minimum ratio.Ans: 2008 and 2009.From the options ans is 2009
II. Study the following Pie-Chart carefully to answer the questions that
follow
Breakup of number of employees working in different departments of
an organisation. the number of males and the number of employees
who recently got promoted in each department.
Breakup of employees working in different departments
Total number of employees = 3600
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Breakup number of males in each department

Total number of male employees = 2040
Breakup number of employees who recently got promoted in each

department
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Total number of employees who got promoted = 1200
6. The number of employees who got promoted from HR

department was what percent of the total employees working
in that department?(rounded off to two digits after decimal).
A. 36.18%
B. 30.56%
C. 47.22%
D. 28.16%
Answer B. 30.56%
Explanation :
Number of employees who got promoted from HR department = 11%
of 1200 = 132
Number of working employees in HR department = 12% of 3600 = 432
Required Percentage = (132/432)*100 = 30.56%
7. The total number of employees who got promoted from all the
departments together was what percent of the total number of
employees working in all the department together?(rounded off
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to the nearest integer)

A. 56%
B. 21%
C. 45%
D. 33%
Answer D. 33%
Explanation :
Number of promoted employees in all departments = 1200
Number of working employees in all departments = 3600
% = (1200/3600)*100 = 33%
8. What is the total number of females working in the production
and marketing departments together?
A. 468
B. 812
C. 582
D. 972
Answer C. 582
Explanation :
Total number of employees working in the production and marketing
departments together = 53% of 3600 = 1908
Total number of male employees working in the production and
marketing departments together = 65% of 2040 = 1326
Total number of female employees working in the production and
marketing departments together = 1908 1326 = 582
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9. If half of the member of employees who got promoted from the

IT department were males, what was the approximate
percentage of males who got promoted from the IT
Department?
A. 61%
B. 29%
C. 54%
D. 38%
Answer D. 38%
Explanation :
Number of promoted employees in IT department = 26% of 1200 =
312
Number of promoted male employees in IT department = 312/2 = 156
Number of working male employees in IT department = 20% of 2040
= 408
% = (156/408 * 100) = 38%
10.
How many females work in the accounts department?
A. 618
B. 592
C. 566
D. 624
Answer A. 618
Explanation :
Number of employees working in accounts department = 20% of 3600
= 720
Number of male employees in accounts department = 5% of 2040
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=102
Number of females work in the accounts department = 720 -102 = 618
I. Study the following table and Pie-Chart carefully and answer the
following questions given below.
Number of students studying in different streams in six engineering
colleges
Colleges Computer Science

Electrical Engineering Electronics Civil Mechanical
M
250
320
160
272 128
N
120
210
200
150 180
O
220
150
220
160 200
P
180
170
140
128 100
Q
240
220
180
170 190
R
160
200
150
190 150
Pie-charts show the distribution of students in different states in
colleges N and Q.
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150
220
120
172
200
160
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1. How many students doing in civil engineering in College N,

were from UP?
A. 35
B. 60
C. 55
Answer D. Can not be determined

Explanation :
Given data is not sufficient to calculate the answer.
2. What is the difference between the number of students from
Delhi in colleges N and Q?
A. 34
B. 50
C. 60
D. 72
Answer D. 72
Explanation :
Total number of students in college N = 1080
Number of students from Delhi in college N = 1080 * (20/100) = 216
Total number of students in college Q = 1200
Number of students from Delhi in college N = 1200 * (12/100) = 144
Difference = 216 144 = 72
3. What is the difference between the number of students
pursuing computer science and those pursuing mechanical
engineering in the given six colleges?
A. 205
B. 224
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C. 222
D. 220
Answer C. 222
Explanation :
Number of students pursuing computer science = 250 + 120 + 220 +
180 + 240 + 160 = 1170
Number of students pursuing mechanical engineering = 948
Difference = 1170 948 = 222
4. By what percentage is the number of students from Punjab in
college N more/less than those from Maharashtra in college Q?
A. 50%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 30%
Answer B. 40%
Explanation :
Number of students from Punjab in college N = 1080 * (10/100) = 108
Number of students from Maharashtra in college Q = 1200 * (15/100)
= 180
Percentage = [(180 108)*100] = 40%
5. The total number of students in college R forms approximately
what percentage of the total number of students in colleges M,
N and P together?
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 31%
D. 35%
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Answer C. 31%
Explanation :
Total number of students in colleges M, N and P = 1280 + 1080 + 890
= 3250
Total number of students in college R = 1010
Percentage = [(1010/3250)*100] = 31%(approximately)
II. Study the following bar graph and table carefully and answer the
following questions given below.
Time taken to travel (in hours) by six vehicles on two different days.
Distance covered by six vehicles on each day
Vehicle
Day 1
A
B
C
D
E
F
832
516
693
552
935
703
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Day 2
864
774
810
765
546
636
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6. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on

both the days?
A. Vehicle A
B. Vehicle B
C. Vehicle C
D. Vehicle D
Answer B. Vehicle B
Explanation :
Speed of vehicle A on day 1 = 832/16 = 52kmph
Speed of vehicle B on day 1 = 516/12 = 43kmph
Speed of vehicle B on day 2 = 774/18 = 43kmph
Speed of vehicle C on day 1 = 693/11 = 63kmph
Speed of vehicle D on day 1 = 552/12 = 46kmph
Speed of vehicle D on day 2 = 765/15 = 51kmph
Vehicle B travelled at the same speed on both the days
7. What was the difference between the speed of vehicle A on day
1 and the speed of the vehicle on the same day?
A. 22 kmph
B. 11 kmph
C. 10 kmph
D. 13 kmph
Answer B. 11 kmph
Explanation :
Difference = 63-52 = 11kmph
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8. What was the speed (in m/s) of vehicle C on day 2?

A. 12.5 m/s
B. 11.5 m/s
C. 10.5 m/s
D. 9.5 m/s
Answer A. 12.5 m/s

Explanation :
Speed of vehicle C on day 2 = 45 * (5/18) = 12.5 m/s
9. The distance travelled by vehicle F on day 2 was approximately
what % of the distance travelled by it on day 1?
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 94%
D. 98%
Answer A. 90%
Explanation :
Percentage = (636/703)*100 = 90%
10.
What is the ratio of speeds of vehicle D and Vehicle E on day
2?
A. 14:15
B. 17:13
C. 15:16
D. 13:17
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Answer B. 17:13
Explanation :
Speed of vehicle D on day 2 = 51kmph
Speed of vehicle E on day 2 = 39kmph
Ratio = [Speed of vehicle D on day 2/Speed of vehicle E on day 2] =
51/39 = 17:13
Bank PO Level Questions :-
1. The percentage increase in production of company Q from the

year 2009 to the year 2013 is _______
A. 50%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 100%
Answer D. 100%
Explanation :
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Increase in the production of the company Q from the year 2009 to the
year 2013 is = [(100 -50)/50]*100 = 100%.
2. The Average production over the years 2009-2013 was
maximum for the companies?
A. Q
B. P
C. R
D. P & R
Answer D. P & R
Explanation :
Average production of Company P = [60+90+50+100+80]/5 = 76 lakh
tonne
Average production of Company Q = [50+70+70+80+100]/5 = 74
lakh tonne
Average production of Company P = [70+80+90+70+70]/5 = 76 lakh
tonne
P & R Maximum production
3. The percentage rise or fall in production of company Q as
compared to the previous year is the maximum in the year
A. 2010
B. 2011
C. 2012
D. 2013
Answer A. 2010
Explanation :
For Company Q
Percentage change in 2010 = [(70-50)/50]*100 = 40%
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Percentage change in 2012 = [(80-70)/70]*100 = 14.28%
Q is the maximum in the year 2010.
4. The percentage of production of company R to production of
company Q is the maximum in the year?
A. 2010
B. 2011
C. 2009
D. 2013
Answer C. 2009
Explanation :
The production of company R to production of Q
in the year 2009 = [(70-50)/50]*100 = 40%
in the year 2010 = [(80-70)/70]*100 = 14.28%
in the year 2011 = [(90-70)/70]*100 = 28.57%
For 2012 & 2013 R is less than Q
5. The ratio of the average production of company P during the
year 2011 to 2013 to the average production of company Q for
the same period is ________
A. 11:13
B. 13:15
C. 17:19
D. 23:25
Answer D. 23:25
Explanation :
Average production of the company Q during the year 2011 2013 =
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[(50 + 100 + 80)/3]= 230/3 lakh tonne

Average production of the company Q during the year 2011 2013 =
[(70 + 80 + 100)/3]= 250/3 lakh tonne
Required Ratio = 23:25
II. Study the given graph carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Number of people (in thousand) using three different types of mobile
services over the years
6. What is the total number of people using mobile service M in

the years 2008 and 2009 together?
A. 35000
B. 30000
C. 25000
D. None of the Above
Answer D. None of the Above

Explanation :
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Total number of people using mobile service M in the years 2008 and
2009 together = 25 + 15 thousand = 40 thousand
7. Number of people using mobile service N in the year 2006
forms approximately, what percent of the total number of
people using all the three mobile services in that year?
A. 11%
B. 13%
C. 17%
D. 18%
Answer D. 18%
Explanation :
Number of people using mobile service N in the year 2006 = 10000
Total Number of people using all three mobile services in the year 2006
= 55000
Required Percentage = (10000/55000)*100 = 18%(approximately)
8. What is the respective ratio of number of people using mobile
service L in the year 2005 to those using the same service in
the year 2004?
A. 8:7
B. 3:2
C. 17:19
D. 23:25
Answer B. 3:2
Explanation :
Ratio = [number of people using mobile service L in the year
2005/number of people using mobile service L in the year 2004] =
15/10 = 3:2
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9. The total number of people using all the three mobile services
in the year 2007 is what percent of the total number of people
using all the three mobile services in the year 2008?(rounded
off two digits after decimal)
A. 92.69%
B. 91.67%
C. 94.65%
D. 95.68%
Answer B. 91.67%
Explanation :
Total number of people using all the three mobile services in the year
2007 = 55000
Total number of people using all the three mobile services in the year
2008 = 60000
percentage = (55000/60000)*100 = 91.67%
10.
What is the average number of people using mobile service
M for all the years together?

A. 50/3 thousand
B. 44/3 thousand
C. 55/3 thousand
D. 65/3 thousand
Answer A. 50/3 thousand

Explanation :
Average number of people using mobile service M for all the years
together = 100/6 = 50/3 thousand
I. The pie-chart shows sources of income for an NGO. The total income
is Rs.40 crore. The bar chart gives the expenditure incurred on various
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items A Food for poor, B Education to illiterate, C Mid-day deal

programme, D General Expenses, E Eye Camp expenses, F
Integrated Street Children Programme.(in Crores)
Total Expenditure = Rs.39 crore
1. What Percentage of money is saved by the NGO?

A. 1.5%
B. 2.5%
C. 1.8%
D. 3.5%
Answer B. 2.5%
Explanation :
Total income = Rs.40 crore
Total Expenditure = Rs.39 crore
% of money is saved by the NGO = [(40-39)/40]*100 = 2.5%
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2. If the industrialist stops donation and the expenditure pattern

remains the same, then what will be the decrease in money
spent for mid-day meal programme?
A. 0.77 crore
B. 0.87 crore
C. 0.93 crore
D. 0.94 crore
Answer A. 0.77 crore

Explanation :
Decrease in Income = 15% of 40 crore
New Income = 85% of 40 crore = 34 crore
percentage of expenditure on midday meal = (5/39)*100 = 12.8%
New Expenditure after gradual decrease is expenditure with respect to
income = (39/40)*34 = 33.15crore
Expenditure on midday meal = (12.8/100)*33.15 = 4.24 crore
Decrease in Expenditure on midday meal = 5 4.24 = 0.77 crore
3. What is the ratio of expenditure on food for poor and mid-day
meal programmes together to that of grant from central
government?
A. 1:3
B. 2:3
C. 4:5
D. 5:4
Answer D. 5:4
Explanation :
Expenditure on food for poor = 10 crore
Expenditure on food for mid-day meal programme = 5 crore
Total Expenditure = 15 crore
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Grant from central Government = 30% of 40 crore = 12 crore

Ratio = 15:12 => 5:4
4. The General expenses is how many times income from
investment?
A. 0.75
B. 0.25
C. 1.25
D. 2
Answer A. 0.75
Explanation :
General Expenses = 3 crore
Income from Investment = 10% of 40 crore = 4 crore
General expenses is x times income from investment then
3 = 4x
x = 3/4 = 0.75
5. Suppose in the next year, grant from central government
increase by 10%, foreign contribution decreases by 10% and
other income amounts remain same. If the expense pattern
remains same, what is the percent increase in Food for Poor?
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 4%
Answer C. 1%
Explanation :
Grant from central government = 30% of 40 crore = 12 crore
After increase 10% = 110% of 12crore = 13.2 crore
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foreign contribution = 20% of 40 crore = 8 crore

After 10% decrease in foreign contribution = 90% of 8 crore = 7.2
crore
Total increase in donation = [13.2 + 7.2] [12 + 8] = 0.4 crore
Gradual increase in expenditure = (39/40)*40.4 = 39.39 crore
Gradual increase in A =(10/39)*39.4 = 10.10 crore
% increase = (0.10/10)*100 = 1%
II. Study the following graph carefully and answer accordingly.
Number of students playing Carrom, Cricket, Hockey from different
Schools
6. Total number of students playing Carrom and Hockey together

from school P is what % of the total number of students playing
these two games together from School R?
A. 950/13 %
B. 980/13 %
C. 960/13 %
D. 900/13 %
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Answer D. 900/13 %
Explanation :
Total number of students playing Carrom and Hockey together from
school P = 220+140 = 360
Total number of students playing Carrom and Hockey together from
School R = 200+320 = 520
Percentage = (360/520)*100 = 900/13 %
7. If the number of students playing each game in school S is
increased by 15% and the number of students playing each
game in school Q is decreased by 5% then what will be the
difference between number of students in School S and Q?
A. 205
B. 305
C. 105
D. 405
Answer A. 205
Explanation :
Number of students in school S = 115% of 740 = 851
Number of students in school Q = 95% of 680 = 646
Difference = 851 646 = 205
8. If out of the students playing cricket from schools Q, S and T,
40%,35% and 45% respectively got selected for state level
competition, what was the total number of students got
selected for state level competition from these three schools
together?
A. 294
B. 292
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C. 300
D. 302
Answer B. 292
Explanation :
Total number of students who got selected for state level competition
from schools Q S and T
= 40% of 180 + 35% of 320 + 45% of 240
= 72 + 112 + 108 = 292
9. Total number of students playing Hockey from all schools
together is approximately, what percent of the total number of
students playing cricket from all schools together?
A. 70%
B. 65%
C. 79%
D. 89%
Answer C. 79%
Explanation :
Total number of students playing Hockey from all the schools together
= 140 + 260 + 320 + 160 + 180 = 1060
Total number of students playing Cricket from all the schools together
= 360 + 180 + 240 + 320 + 240 = 1340
% = (1060/1340)*100 = 79%(approximately)
10.
From School P, out of the students playing Carrom, 40% got
selected for state level competition out of which 25% further

got selected for national level competition.From School T, out of
the students playing Carrom, 45% got selected for state level
competition out of which two-third further got selected for
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national level competition.What is the total number of students

playing Carrom from these two schools who got selected for
national level competition?
A. 108
B. 106
C. 103
D. 102
Answer B. 106
Explanation :
Number of students who got selected for national level competition
from School P = 25% 0f 40% of 220 = 22
Number of students who got selected for national level competition
from School T = (2/3) of 45% of 280 = 84
Total number of students playing Carrom from these two schools who
got selected for national level competition
= 22 + 84 =106
I. Study the following Radar Graph and answer the given questions
Number of new countries registered (in thousand) in four countries in
various years.
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1. In which year is the average of the number of companies

registered the maximum?
A. 2008
B. 2010
C. 2009
D. 2011
Answer C. 2009
Explanation :
Average of the number of companies registered in 2008 = [5 + 20 +
15 + 40]*1000/4 = 20000
40 + 35]*1000/4 = 28750
15 + 20]*1000/4 = 16250
20 + 35]*1000/4 = 25000
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2. The number of companies registered in 2015 is what

percentage more or less than the number of companies
registered in the year 2008?
A. 44.44%
B. 43.75%
C. 22.22%
D. 11.11%
Answer B. 43.75%
Explanation :
Number of companies registered in 2015 = [20 + 20 + 40 + 35]*1000
= 115000
Number of companies registered in 2008 = [5 + 20 + 15 + 40]*1000
= 80000
% = [(115000 80000)/ 80000]*100 = 43.75% more
3. What is the ratio of the number of companies registered in
Japan to that in China during 2008 to 2015?
A. 39:40
B. 23:24
C. 40:41
D. 24:23
Answer B. 23:24
Explanation :
Number of companies registered in Japan during 2008 to 2015 =
230*1000 = 230000
Number of companies registered in China during 2008 to 2015 =
240*1000 = 240000
Ratio = 23:24
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4. The total number of companies registered in France is how

much more or less than the total number of companies
registered in China?
A. 34.14%
B. 33.13%
C. 29.16%
D. 11.11%
Answer C. 29.16%
Explanation :
Total number of companies registered in France = 170*1000 = 170000
Total number of companies registered in china = 240*1000 = 240000
% = [(240000 170000)/ 240000]*100 = 29.16% less
5. In which country is the average number of companies
registered the maximum?
A. Germany
B. Japan
C. China
D. France
Answer C. China
Explanation :
Average number of companies registered in France = 170000/4 =
42500
Average number of companies registered in Germany = 125000/4 =
31250
Average number of companies registered in Japan = 230000/4 =
57500
Average number of companies registered in China = 240000/4 =
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60000
Average number of companies registered in China is the maximum
Study Pie-Chart and table carefully to answer the following questions.
Pie-Chart showing percentage distribution-wise of cars in four different
states
Total Cars = 700
States
Diesel engine cars
Petrol engine cars
State 1
State 2
State 3
State 4
6. What is the difference between the number of diesel engine

cars in state 2 and the number of petrol engine cars in state 4?
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A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 24
Answer A. 21
Explanation :
Total no of cars in state 2 = 28% of 700 = 196
Number of diesel engine cars in state 2 = 196 * 5/14 = 70
Number of petrol engine cars in state 4 = 182 * 1/2 = 91
Required difference = 91 70 = 21
7. Number of petrol engine cars in state 3 is what percent more
than the number of diesel engine cars in state 1?
A. 200%
B. 300%
C. 400%
D. 100%
Answer D. 100%
Explanation :
Number of diesel engine cars in state 1 = 98* 3/7 = 42
% = [(84-42)/42]*100 = 100%
8. If 25% of diesel engine cars in state 3 are AC and remaining
cars are non-AC, what is the number of diesel engine cars in
state 3 which are non AC?
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A. 75
B. 95
C. 105
D. 100
Answer C. 105
Explanation :
Number of diesel engine cars in state 3 = 224* 5/8 = 140
Number of diesel engine AC cars in state 3 = 25% of 140 = 35
Number of diesel engine non-AC cars = 140-35 = 105
9. What is the difference between the total number of cars in state
3 and the number of petrol engine cars in state 2?
A. 75
B. 95
C. 85
D. 98
Answer D. 98
Explanation :
Number of petrol engine cars in state 2 = 196*(9/14) = 126
Required difference = 224 126 = 98
10.
What is the average number of petrol engine cars in states
together?
A. 75.25
B. 95.25
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C. 85.25
D. 89.25
Answer D. 89.25
Explanation :
Average total number of petrol engine cars in all states = (56 + 126 +
84 + 91)/4 = 89.25
I. The following pie chart gives the percentage of workers from various
industries working in night shifts. The bar graph shows the percentage
of female workers from these industries working in night shifts.
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1. What is the approximate average number of females working in

night shifts in all the industries?
A. 2066
B. 2395
C. 2069
D. 2394
Answer A. 2066
Explanation :
Average number of females
= [12% of 20% of 40250 + 18% of 20% of 40250 + 32% of 40% of
40250 + 8% of 60% of 40250 +14% of 40% of 40250 +16% of 10%
of 40250]/6
=12397/6 = 2066
2. The number of females working in night shifts in the gaming
industry is what percent of the total number of people working
in the night shifts from all the industries taken together?
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A. 3.9%
B. 3.7%
C. 3.6%
D. 3.5%
Answer C. 3.6%
Explanation :
Female workers in Gaming = 18% of 20% of 40250 = 1449
% = [Female workers in Gaming / Total no of people working in night
shifts from all industries]*100
= [1449/40250] *100
= 3.6%
3. What is the difference in percentage of males and females
working in night shifts in these industries?
A. 38.9%
B. 38.7%
C. 38.6%
D. 38.4%
Answer D. 38.4%
Explanation :
Total number of female workers = 12397 (From question 1)
Total number of male workers = 40250 12397 = 27853
Difference between male & female workers = 27853 12397 = 15456
% = [Difference between male & female workers/Total workers]*100 =
38.4%
4. If the number of females working in the night shifts in
marketing were 3206, while the number of females in rest of
the industries remained unchanged, the new % of females
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working in night shifts will be _______(assume that the total

number of people working in night shifts remains constant)
A. 33.19%
B. 33.18%
C. 33.16%
D. 33.14%
Answer C. 33.16%
Explanation :
Female workers in Marketing = 14% of 40% of 40250 = 2254
According to question, Female workers in Marketing = 3206
Difference = 952
After Increment, no of females = Total number of female workers +
952 = 12397(From question 1) + 952 = 13349
% = [13349/40250]*100 = 33.16%
5. Percentage of males working in night shifts is lowest in which
of the following industries?
A. Sales
B. IT
C. Marketing
D. Gaming
Answer A. Sales
Explanation :
Sales = 8% of 40% of 40250 = 1288
IT = 12% of 80% of 40250 = 3864
Marketing = 14% of 60% of 40250 = 3381
Gaming = 18% of 80% of 40250 = 5796
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II. In the following graph the number of laptops manufactured by six

different companies in the years 2014 and 2015 has been given. Read
the graph carefully and answer the following questions.
Number of laptops(in thousand) manufactured by six different
companies
6. The respective ratio between the number of laptops

manufactured by Lenovo in 2015 and that by Acer in 2014 is
A. 7:8
B. 8:7
C. 6:7
D. 7:6
Answer B. 8:7
Explanation :
manufactured by Lenovo in 2015 : manufactured by Acer in 2014
40000:35000 = 8:7
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7. What is the average number of laptops (in thousand)

manufactured by all the companies taken together in 2015?
A. 22.5
B. 23.5
C. 24.5
D. 25.5
Answer A. 22.5
Explanation :
Average = [25 + 15 + 10 + 15 + 40 + 30]/6 = 22.5
8. What is the % decrease in production of laptops by HP in 2015
in comparison to that in 2014?
A. 75%
B. 60%
C. 65%
D. 70%
Answer B. 60%
Explanation :
HP in 2014 = 25
HP in 2015 = 10
% decrease = [(25-10)/25]*100 = 60%
9. The difference between the number of laptops manufactured by
Apple Lenovo and Samsung in 2015 and that by Dell, HP and
Acer in 2014 is
A. 5 thousand
B. 15 thousand
C. 25 thousand
D. 20 thousand
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Answer A. 5 thousand
Explanation :
laptops manufactured by Apple Lenovo and Samsung in 2015 = 15 +
40 + 25 = 80 thousand
laptops manufactured by Dell, HP and Acer in 2014 = 15 + 25 + 35 =
75 thousand
Difference = 5 thousand
10.
What is the total number of laptops (in thousand)
manufactured by all the companies taken together in 2014?

A. 100 thousand
B. 120 thousand
C. 130 thousand
D. 140 thousand
Answer B. 120 thousand

Explanation :
Sum = 15 + 5 + 25 + 35 + 25 + 15 = 120 thousand
Study the given table carefully to answer the following questions.
Field
Name
Shape
Triangle
Rectangle
Square
Parallelogram
Side (in
m)
Base (in
m)
16
Height
(in m)
Cost of
flooring
(in Rs.
per sq.
metre)
Cost of
fencing
(in Rs.
per m)
50
20
10 20
30
15
15
40
18
60
25
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20
12
Radius
(in m)
12
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E
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Circle
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10
45
22
1) What is the cost of flooring of A?

a) Rs.4000
b) Rs.4600
d) Rs.5000
e) Rs.4400
c) Rs.4800
2) What is the difference between the cost of fencing of C and that of B?

a) Rs.180
b) Rs.120
d) Rs.360
e) Rs.480
c) Rs.240
3) What is the ratio of the cost of flooring to that of fencing of field D?

a) 4 : 1
b) 6 : 1
d) 9 : 1
e) 5 : 1
c) 8 : 1
4) The cost of fencing of field E is approximately what percent of the cost of flooring of field C?
a) 10.5%
b) 19.46%
d) 15.36%
e) 13.82%
c) 18.71%
5) The cost of fencing of field C is what percent of the cost of fencing of field D?
a) 87.54%
b) 67.5%
d) 54.36%
e) 46.5%
c) 72.13%
Study the given chart carefully and answer the following questions.
Train A
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Station
Arrival time
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Departure
time
Distance
from origin
(in km)
--
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Number of
passengers
boarding at
each station
Fare (in Rs.)
Ahmedabad
Starting
5:00 pm
400
--
Vadodara
6:30 pm
6:35 pm
100
100
50
Bharuch
8:50 pm
9:00 pm
250
90
120
Mumbai
4:00 am
4:10 am
800
300
400
Pune
7:30 am
7:45 am
1050
150
500
Solapur
10:20 am
Terminates
1280
--
620
Train B
Station
Arrival time
Departure
time
Distance
from origin
--
Number of
passengers
boarding at
each station
Fare (in Rs.)
Solapur
Starting
6:00 pm
300
--
Pune
7:40 pm
7:45 pm
230
150
120
Mumbai
9:30 pm
9:35 pm
480
270
220
Bharuch
5:40 am
5:55 am
1030
50
500
Vadodara
9:00 am
9:10 am
1180
100
570
Ahmedabad
12:00 noon
Terminates
1280
--
620
6) The number of passengers boarding Train A at Vadodara is what percent of the number of passengers
boarding Train B at Mumbai?
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a) 37.03%
b) 47.03%
d) 47.30%
e) None of these
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c) 27.03%
7) What is the difference between the speed of Train A and that of Train B?
a) 2.73 kmph
b) 1.97 kmph
d) 2.62 kmph
e) 3.9 kmph
c) 3.6 kmph
8) What is the ratio of the total passengers of Train A to that of Train B?

a) 102 : 79
b) 104 : 87
d) 110 : 79
e) 113 : 87
c) 103 : 87
9) The total income of Train A is what percent of the total income of Train B?
a) 180%
b) 159.51%
d) 125%
e) 127.64%
c) 123.29%
10) If the average speed of Train A increases by 10% then when will it reach to its destination?
a) 7:45 am
b) 9:45 am
d) 10:45 am
e) 11:45 am
c) 8:45 am
Solutions
1. Option C
A is a triangle
So, area of A = 1/2 16 12 = 96 sqm
So, cost of flooring of A = 96 50 = Rs.4800
2. Option A
Perimeter of B = 2 (10 + 20) = 60 m
So, cost of fencing of B = 60 15 = 900
Perimeter of C = 4 15 = 60 m
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So, cost of fencing of C = 60 18 = Rs.1080

So, required difference = 1080 900 = Rs.180
3. Option D
Area of D = Base Height
= 20 12 = 240 mtr sq
So, cost of flooring of D= 240 60 = Rs.14400
Perimeter of D = 2 (20 + 12) = 64 m
So, cost of fencing of D = 64 25 = Rs.1600
So, required ratio = 14400 : 1600 = 9 : 1
4. Option D
Perimeter of E = 2r = 2 22/7 10 = 440/7 m
Cost of fencing of E = 440/7 22 = Rs.1382.85
Area of C = 15 * 15= 225 mtr square
So, cost of flooring of C = 225 40 = Rs.9000
So, required % = 1382.85 x 100 / 9000
= 15.36% of flooring cost of C.
5. Option B
Fencing cost of C = Rs.1080
Fencing cost of D = Rs.1600
Required % = 1080/1600 100 = 67.5%
6. Option A
Required percentage = 100/270 100 = 37.03%
7. Option A
Speed of Train A = 1280 / 10:20 am 5:00 pm
= 1280 / 17 hours 20 minutes
= 1280 x 3 / 52 = 73.84 kmph
Speed of train B = 1280 / 12:00 noon 6:00 pm
= 1280/18 hours = 71.11 kmph
So, difference between the speed of train A and train B = 73.84 71.11 = 2.73 kmph
8. Option B
Total passengers in train A = 400 + 100 + 90 + 300 + 150 = 1040
Total passengers in train B = 300 + 150 + 270 + 50 + 100 = 870
9. Option E
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Total income of train A = (400 50) + (500 70) + (590 280) + (890 100) + (1040 120) = Rs.434000
Total income of train B = (300 120) + (450 100) + (620 280) + (670 70) + (770 50) = Rs.340000
So, required % = 434000 x 100 / 340000
= 127.64% of the total income of train B.
10. Option C
If the average speed of train A increases by 10%
then its new speed = 73.84 110/100
= 81.22 kmph
Time taken by train A during the journey = 1280/81.22 = 15.75 hours = 15 hours 45 minutes
The time when the train will reach its destination = 5 pm + 15 hours 45 minutes = 8:45 am
Study the pie-chart and line graph carefully to answer the given questions
The pie-chart shows the percentage of train accidents in different years
The line graph shows the number of persons who died in train accidents in various states in different years
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1) The number of persons who died in train accidents in 2013 is how much percent more than the number
of persons who died in the train accident in 2011?
a) 143.5%
b) 137.5%
d) 127.5%
e) 147.5%
c) 37.5%
2) What is the average of the number of persons who died in train accidents in 2008 in all states together?
a) 182
b) 290
d) 284
e) 307
c) 275
3) In which state is the number of persons who died in the train accidents the maximum during the given
period?
a) Odisha
b) UP
d) Only a) and b)
e) Maharashtra
c) Bihar
4) What is the difference between the number of train accidents in 2014 and that in 2012?
a) 5
b) 6
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c) 7
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d) 8
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e) 9
5) What is the ratio of the number of persons who died in train accidents in 2010 to that in 2014?
a) 8 : 7
b) 10 : 9
d) 14 : 13
e) 16 : 15
c) 12 : 11
Study the given bar graph and pie chart to answer the following questions.
The bar graph shows the production (in thousand tones) of Wheat, Rice and Maize in different
states.
The pie-chart shows the percentage of agricultural land in the given six states.
Productivity = Total production / Area of agricultural land
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6) The productivity of which state is the maximum?

a) Bihar
d) UP
b) Haryana
c) Punjab
e) MP
7) The production of which state is the maximum?

a) Bihar
d) UP
b) MP
c) Haryana
e) Punjab
8) The production of wheat in Punjab is what percent more than the production of Maize in Odisha?
a) 350%
b) 250%
d) 200%
e) 400%
c) 300%
9) What is the ratio of the production of Rice in Bihar to the production of Wheat in Haryana?
a) 2 : 3
b) 3 : 2
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c) 2 : 1
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d) 1 : 1
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e) 1 : 2
10) If MP exports 40% of Rice at the rate of Rs.30 per kg and UP exports 30% of Rice at the rate of Rs.32
per kg, then what is the ratio of the incomes from the exports?
a) 65 : 48
b) 31 : 42
d) 57 : 62
1.
c) 43 : 54
e) 1 : 2
Option C
The number of people who died in train accidents in 2013 = 400 + 500 + 600 + 700 = 2200
The number of people who died in train accidents in 2011 = 100 + 200 + 600 + 700 = 1600
So, required % = 2200 1600 x 100 / 1600 = 37.5%
2.
Option C
Average number of people who died in train accidents in all states in 2008 = 1/4 (100 + 200 + 300 +
500)
= 1100/4 = 275
3.
Option B
The number of deaths in train accidents in Bihar = 100 + 300 + 300 + 200 + 500 + 600 + 400 = 2400
Similarly, in UP = 500 + 600 + 500 + 700 + 600 + 700 + 600 = 4200
In Maharashtra = 200 + 400 + 100 + 100 + 300 + 400 + 300 = 1800
In Odisha = 300 + 200 + 700 + 600 + 400 + 500 + 200 = 2900
In UP the number of people who died in train accidents is the maximum.
Quicker method it is clear from the graph that the highest number of people died in UP.
4.
Option D
The number of train accidents in 2014 = 200 18/100 = 36
The number of train accidents in 2012 = 200 14/100 = 28
So, required difference = 36 28 = 8
5.
Option E
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The ratio of the number of deaths in 2010 to that in 2014 = (100 + 300 + 500 + 700) : (200 + 300 + 400 +
600) = 1600 : 1500 = 16 : 15
6.
Option B
Productivity = Total Production / Area of agricultural land
Productivity of UP = (35 + 30 + 25) x 1000 / 2 Lakh x 30/100 = 90000 / 60000 = 1.5 tonnes per sq km
Productivity of MP = (30 + 32.5 + 27.5) x 1000 / 2 Lakh x 25/100 = 90000 / 50000 = 1.8 tonne per sq km
Productivity of Bihar = (22.5 + 25 + 27.5) x 1000 / 2 Lakh x 20/100 = 75000 / 40000 = 1.875 tonnes per
sq km
Productivity of Odisha = (22.5 + 15 + 10) x 1000 / 2 Lakh x 5/100 = 47.5 x 1000 / 10000 = 4.75 tonnes
per sq km
Productivity of Haryana = (25 + 35 + 30) x 1000 / 2 Lakh x 8/100 = 90000 / 16000 = 5.625 tonnes per sq
km
Productivity of Punjab = (40 + 30 + 35) x 1000 / 2 Lakh x 12/100 = 105000 / 24000 = 4.375 tonnes per
So, productivity of Haryana is the maximum

7.
Option E
Production of Punjab is maximum = 105000 tonnes
8.
Option C
Production of Wheat in Punjab = 40000 tonnes
Production of Maize in Odisha = 10000 tonnes
So, required % = 40000 10000 / 10000 100% = 300%
9.
Option D
The ratio of production of Rice in Bihar to the production of Wheat in Haryana = 25000 tonnes : 25000
tonnes = 1 : 1
10. Option A
Income of MP from export of 40% of Rice at the rate of Rs.30 per kg = 32500 40/100 1000 30 =
Rs.39 Crore
Income of UP from export of 30% of Rice at the rate of Rs.32 per kg = 30000 1000 30/100 32 =
Rs.28.8 Crore
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So, required ratio = 39 : 28.8 = 390 : 288 = 65 : 48

Study the following table and pie chart carefully to answer the given questions.
The table shows the ratio of Hindi religion soldiers to soldiers of other religions
Name of regiment
Hindi
Other religions
Jat regiment
Sikh regiment
Madras regiment
Maratha regiment
Bihar regiment
1) What is the number of Hindu soldiers in Jat regiment?

a) 2600
b) 2700
c) 3200
d) 2800
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e) 2350
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2) What is the difference between Hindu soldiers in Madras regiment and soldiers of other religions in
Bihar regiment?
a) 485
b) 550
d) 510
e) 490
c) 520
3) The number of Hindu soldiers in Sikh regiment is what percent of the number of other soldiers in
Maratha regiment?
a) 97.12%
b) 99.56%
d) 104.16%
e) 25%
c) 102%
4) In which regiment is the number of non-Hindu soldiers the maximum?

a) Maratha regiment
b) Sikh regiment
d) Jat regiment
e) Bihar regiment
c) Madras regiment
5) What is the ratio of the number of Hindu soldiers in Bihar regiment to the number of non-Hindu
soldiers in Jat regiment?
a) 11 : 10
b) 12 : 11
d) 14 : 13
e) 15 : 14
c) 13 : 12
1. Option D
Number of soldiers in Jat regiment = 10000 = 3500
Number of Hindu soldiers in Jat regiment = 3500 = 2800
2. Option B
Number of Hindu soldiers in Madras regiment = 10000 = 1000
Number of soldiers of other religions in Bihar regiment = 10000 = 450
So, difference = 1000 450 = 550
3. Option D
Number of Hindu soldiers in Sikh regiment = 10000 = 750
Number of soldiers of other religions in Maratha regiment = 10000 = 720
So, required % = = 104.16%
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4. Option A
Number of non-Hindu soldiers in Jat regiment = 3500 2800 = 700
Similary in Sikh regiment = 10000 = 125
In Madras regiment = 10000 = 500
In Maratha regiment = 10000 = 720
In Bihar regiment = 10000 = 450
In Maratha regiment the number of non-Hindu soldiers is the maximum.
5. Option E
Number of Hindu soldiers in Bihar regiment = 10000 = 750
Number of non-Hindu soldiers in Jat regiment = 700

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below:
Number of boys of standard xi participating in different games
Note:
Every student (boy or girl) of each class of standard XI participates in a game.
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In each class, the number of girls participating in each game is 25% of the number of boys
participating in each game.

Each student (boy or girl) participates in one and only one game.
Ques 1.
All the boys of class XI D passed the annual examination but a few girls failed. If all the boys to girls as 5:1,
what would be the number of girls who failed in class XI D?
Solution: Total number of boys in XI D = 40

Number of girls in XI D = 25% of 40 = 10
Since all the boys of XI D passed, so the number of boys in XII D = 40
Ratio of boys & girls in XII D is 5: 1
Number of girls in XII D = 1/5 40=8
number of girls who failed = (10 8) = 2
Ques 2.
Girls playing which of the following games need to be combined to yield a ratio of boys to girls of 4 : 1, if all
the boys playing Chess and Badminton are combined?
Solution:
Total number of boys playing Chess & Badminton = (32 + 52) = 84
Number of girls playing Hockey & Football = 25% of 84
= 1/4 84=21
Since 84: 21 is 4: 1, so the girls playing hockey and football are combined to yield a ratio of boys to girls
as 4: 1.
So, Hockey and Football is the correct answer.
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Ques 3.
What should be the total number of students in the school if all the boys of class XI A together with all the
girls of Class XI B and Class XI C were equal to 25% of the total number of students?
Solution: Number of boys in XI A = 44

Number of girls in XI B = 25% of 48 = 12
Number of girls in XI C = 25% of 48 = 12
(44 + 12 + 12) = 68
Let x be the total number of students.
Then 25% of x = 68
Or, x = (68 100)/25 =272
Total number of students in the school = 272.
Ques 4
Boys of which of the following classes need to be combined to equal four times the number of girls in class XI
B and class XI C were to be equal to 25% of the total number of students?
Solution:
4 times the number of girls in XI B & XI C = 4 (12 + 12) = 96.
Ques 5.
If boys of class XI E participating in chess together with girls of class XI B and class XI C participating in
Table Tennis & Hockey respectively are selected for a course at the college of sports, what percent of the
students will get this advantage approximately?
Solution: Number of boys in XI E = 4
Number of girls in XI B playing Table tennis = 25% of 16 = 4
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Number of girls in XI C playing Hockey = 25% of 8 = 2

(4 + 4 + 2) = 10
Total number of students
(228 + 25% of 228) = 285
Let x% of 285 = 10
Or, x = (10 100)/285 =3.51
Total number of students getting advantage approximately is 3.51.
Ques 6.
If for social work every boy of class XI D and class XI C is paired with a girl of the same class, what
percentage of the boys of these two classes cannot participate in social work?
Solution:
Since the number of girls = 25% of the number of boys, so only 25% of the boys can participate in social
work
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Study the table carefully and answer the questions given below:
Financial Statement of A Company Over The Years (Rupees in Lakhs)
Ques 1.
During which year did the Net Profit exceed Rs. 1 crore for the first time?
Solution: 1984-85
only a look is needed (can be studied in the table).
Ques 2.
During which year was the Cross Turnover closest to the thrice the Profit before Interest and depreciation?
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Ques 3.
During which of the given years did the Net Profit form the highest proportion of the Profit before Interest
and Depreciation?
Solution: We look at the Net profit and Profits before Interest and Depreciation. We need to find the
year in which profits before.. is the smallest multiple of Net Profits. Use approximations, 38 1,
40 2, 52 5, 60 6.5, 8020, 92 22 and make quick mental calculation. Obviously any one of the last
two is the answer. We have 80 20=4,92 22>4,and hence 80 20 is the minimum.
Hence, 1984 85 is the answer.
Ques 4.
Which of the following registered the lowest increase in terms of rupees from the year 1984-85 to the year
1985 86?
Solution: Mental calculation with approximation is sufficient. Among 2700 - 2500, 900 800, 600 500,
99 92 and 220 212, the fourth is a single digit figure and it is the least.
Ques 5.
The Gross Turnover for 1982 83 is about what per cent of the Gross Turnover for 1984 85?
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QUANTITATIVE
APTITUDE CRACK
BOOK
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Table Of Content
1. Number System
2. Simplification And Approximation
3. Quadratic Equation / Inequality
4. Series
5. Average
6. Percentage
7. Profit And Loss
8. Ratio And Proportion
9. Simple Interest And Compound Interest
10.
Time And Work
11.
Speed, Distance And Time
12.
Boat And Stream
13.
Probability
14.
Problem On Ages
15.
Mixtures And Allegation
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1. Number
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System
Quantitative Aptitude deals mainly with the different topics in Arithmetic, which is the science
which deals with the relations of numbers to one another. It includes all the methods that are
applicable to numbers.
Numbers are expressed by means of figures 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 0 - called digits. Out
of these, 0 is called insignificant digit whereas the others are called significant digits.
Numbers
A group of figures, representing a number, is called a numeral. Numbers are divided into the
following types.
Natural Numbers:
Numbers which we use for counting the objects are known as natural numbers. They are denoted
by N
N = {1,2,3,4,.}
Whole Numbers:
When we include zero in the natural numbers, it is known as whole numbers. They are denoted
by W.
W= {0,1,2,3,4,5,}
Prime Numbers:
A number other than 1 id called a prime number if it is divisible only by 1 and itself.
To test whether a given number is prime number or not
If you want to test whether any number is a prime number or not, take an integer larger than the
approximate square root of that number. Let it be x. test the divisibility of the given number by
every prime number less than x. if it not divisible by any of them then it is prime number;
otherwise it is a composite number (other than prime).
Example: Is 349 a prime number?
Solution:
The square root of 349 is approximate 19. The prime numbers less than 19 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13,
17.Clearly, 349 is not divisible by any of them. Therefore, 349 is a prime number.
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Composite Numbers:
A number, other than 1, which is not a prime number is called a composite number.
e.g. 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 14 and so on
Even Number:
The number which is divisible by 2 is known as an even number.
e.g. 2, 4, 8, 12, 24, 28 and so on
It is also of the form 2n {where n = whole number}
Odd Number:
The number which is not divisible by 2 is known as an odd number.
e.g. 3, 9, 11, 17, 19 and so on
Consecutive Number:
A series of numbers in which each is greater than that which precedes it be 1 is called a series of
consecutive numbers.
e.g. 6, 7, 8 or 13, 14, 15, 16 or, 101, 102, 103, 104
Integers:
The set of numbers which consists of whole numbers and negative numbers is known as a set of
integers it is denoted by 1.
e.g. I = {-4,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,.}
Rational Number:
When the numbers are written in fraction, they are known as rational numbers. They are denoted
by Q.
e.g.
are called rational numbers.
Or, the numbers which can be written in the form a/b{where a and b are integers and b 0} are
called rational numbers.
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Irrational Numbers:
The numbers which cannot be written in the form of p/q are known as irrational numbers (where
p and q are integers and q 0).
Real Numbers:
Real numbers include both rational as well as irrational numbers.
Rules of Simplification
(i) In simplifying an expression, first of all vinculum or bar must be removed. For example: we
known that 8 10 = -18
But,
= (-2) = 2
(ii) After removing the bar, the brackets must be removed, strictly in the order (), {} and [].
(iii) After removing the brackets, we must use the following operations strictly in the order given
below. (a) of (b) division (c) multiplication (d) addition and (e) subtraction.
Note: The rule is also known as the rule of VBODMAS where V, B, O, D, M, A and S stand
for Vinculum, Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction respectively.
Example: Simplify
Solution:
Ascending or Descending Order in Rational Numbers

Rule 1: When the numerator and the denominator of the fractions increase by a constant
value, the last fraction is the biggest.
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Example: Which of the following fractions is the greatest?
Solution:
We see that the numerators as well as denominators of the above fraction increase by 1, so the
last fraction, i.e. 5/6 is the greatest fraction.
Rule 2: The fraction whose numerator after cross-multiplication given the greater value is
greater.
Example: Which is greater : 5/9 or 9/14 ?
Solution:
Students generally solve this questions by changing the fractions into decimal values or by
equating the denominators. But, we suggest you a better method for getting the answer more
quickly.
Step 1: Cross multiply the two given fractions.
We have, 5 14 = 70 and 8 9 =72

Step II. As 72 is grater than 70 and the numerator involved with the greater value is 9, the
fraction 9/14 is the greater of the two.
Example: Which is greater: 4/15 or 6/23 ?
Solution:
Step I: 4 23 > 15 6
Step II: As the greater value has the numerator 4 involved with it, 4/15 is greater.
You can see how quickly this method works. After good practice, you wont need to calculate
before answering the question.
The arrangement of fractions into the ascending or descending order becomes easier now.
Choose two fractions at a time. See which one is grater. This way you may get a quick
arrangement of fractions.
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Note: Sometimes, when the values are smaller (i.e., less than 10), the conventional method,
i.e., changing the values into decimals or equating the denominators after getting LCM,
will prove more convenient for some of you.
Example: Arrange the following in ascending order.
Solution: Method I
The LCM of 7,5,9,2,5, is 630.
Now, to equate the denominators, we divide the LCM by the denominators and multiply the
quotient by the respectively numerators.
Like for 3/7 , 630 7 = 90, so, multiply 3 by 90.
Thus, the fractions change to

The fraction which has larger numerator is naturally larger. So,
Method II:
Change the fractions into decimals like
3/7= 0.428, 4/5= 0.8, 7/9= 0.777, 1/2 = 0.5, 3/5= 0.6
Clearly,
Method III:
Rule of CM (cross-multiplication)
Step I: Take the first two fractions. Find the greater one by the rule of CM.
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3 5< 74
4/5 > 3/7
Step II: Take the third fraction. Apply CM with the third fraction and the larger value obtained
is step I.
49>57
4/5 > 7/9
Now we see that 7/9 can lie after 3/7 or between 4/5 and 3/7.
Therefore, we apply CM with 3/7 and 7/9 see that 7/9 > 3/7.
Step III: Take the next fraction. Apply CM with 3/7 and 1/2 and see that 1/2 > 3/7. Next, we
apply CM with 7/9 and 1/2 and see that 7/9 > 1/2.
Therefore,
Step IV: With similar applications, we get the final result as:
Note: This rule has some disadvantages also. But if you act fast, it gives faster results. Dont
reject this method at once. This can prove to be the better method for you.
We hop you all will like the post.
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1. Sum of all the first n natural numbers =
For example: 1+ 2 +3 +..+105=

2. Sum of first n odd numbers =(n)^2
For example: 1+3+5+7=4^2=16(as there are four odd numbers)
3. Sum of first n even numbers = n (n+1)
For example : 2+4+6+8+.+100 (or 50th even number) = 50(50+1)= 2550
4. Sum of squares of first n natural numbers =
For example:
5. Sum of cubes of first n naturals numbers =

For example :
Example:
(1) What is the total of all the even numbers from 1 to 400?
Solution:
From 1 to 400, there are 400 numbers. So, there are 400/2= 200 even numbers.
Hence, sum = 200(200+1) = 40200
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(From Rule III)
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(2) What is the total of all the even numbers from 1 to 361?
Solution:
From 1 to 361, there are 361, there are 361 numbers; so there are
numbers. Thus, sum = 180(180+1)=32580
even
(3) What is the total of all the odd numbers from 1 to 180?
Solution:
Therefore are 180/2 = 90 odd numbers between the given range. So, the sum =
(4) What is the total of all the odd numbers from 1 to 51?
Solution
There are
odd numbers between the given range. So, the sum =
(5) Find the of all the odd numbers from 20 to 101.

Solution:
The required sum = Sum of all the odd numbers from 1 to 101.
Sum of all the odd numbers from 1 to 20
= Sum of first 51 odd numbers Sum of first 10 odd numbers
=
Miscellaneous
1. In a division sum, we have four quantities Dividend, Divisor, Quotient and Remainder.
These are connected by the relation.
Dividend = (Divisor Quotient) + Remainder
2. When the division is exact, the remainder is zero (0). In this case, the above relation becomes
Dividend = Divisor Quotient
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Example: 1: The quotient arising from the divisor of 24446 by a certain numbers is 79 and the
remainder is 35; what is the divisor?
Solution:
Divisor Quotient = Dividend Remainder
79Divisor = 24446 -35 =24411
Divisor = 24411 79 = 309.
Example: 2: A number when divided by 12 leaves a remainder 7. What remainder will be
obtained by dividing the same number by 7?
Solution:
We see that in the above example, the first divisor 12 is not a multiple of the second divisor 7.
Now, we take the two numbers 139 and 151, which when divided by 12, leave 7 as the
remainder. But when we divide the above two numbers by 7, we get the respective remainder as
6 and 4. Thus, we conclude that the question is wrong.
5 Most Important Questions with Short Tricks on Number System
Question 1:
(A) 5995
(B) 5997
(C) 5996
(D) 5998
Solution with Short Trick:
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Question 2:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
= [3 + 3 3 + 3 3 3 + 3 3 3 3 + 3 3 3 3 3] +
Question 3:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Using Formula
Denominator Value
Question 4:
(A) x
(B)
(C) x 1
(D)
Question 5:
(A)
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(B)
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/2
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2.Simplification & Approximation

As we all know that simplification is most widely asked topic in almost every banking exam. So
let us try to understand what is actually meant by word Simplification.
Simplification means to find out a final answer for a complex calculation.
Simplification questions are asked to check the ability of a student to deal with numbers which
can be in one of the following two types.
Sometimes, a calculation is given and one of the numbers is missing from the calculation. To find
out the missing number, we have to approximate the given numbers or do the basic operations.
Sometimes all the numbers are given with some operations between them & we have to
simplify the calculation.
Rules related to Simplification

Rule- ) Replace of by Multiplication & / by Division
Explanation: Whenever we find of in a simplification problem, we can replace that by

multiplication(*). Similiarly / can be replaced by .
Example: Find of 20
Solution: () x 20 = 204 = 5
Rule-(II) Always keep in mind the BODMAS rule. These operations have priorities in the
same order as mentioned.
Explanation: Whenever we have more than one operation in the given calculation, we have to
do the operations according to the priority specified by BODMAS
B-Bracket
O-Of (means multiplication)
D-Division
M-Multiplication
A-Addition
S-Subtraction
Example: Simplify: (2+3)*30

Solution: In this question, we have two things-Bracket & Multiplication. According to the
BODMAS rule, we have to solve bracket first and not multiplication. So now coming to bracket,
we have only one operation-Addition, so we will do addition.
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(2+3)*30 = 5*30
Now we have only one operation to do Multiplication
5*30 = 150
Example: Simplify: (2+5) of 80
Solution: In this question, we have three things bracket, addition & of. Replacing of by
multiplication.
(2+5) of 30 = (2+5)*80
Now we have three things bracket, addition & Multiplication. According to the BODMAS rule,
we have to solve bracket first and not multiplication. So now coming to bracket, we have only
one operation-Addition, we will do addition.
(2+5)*80 = 7*80
Now we will do multiplication.
7*80 = 560
Rule-(III) Multiplication & Division have same priority(Do that operation first which is on
left).
Explanation: Though division has more priority than multiplication according to BODMAS
but we can perform multiplication first.
Example: 8*30/15
8*30 15
Solution: In this question, we have two things Multiplication & Division. So we can perform
any operation first as they have same priority.
Doing Multiplication first:
240 15
16
Doing division first:
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8*2
16
Rule-(IV) Addition & Subtraction have same priority.
Explanation: Though addition has more priority than division according to BODMAS but we
can perform any of the two operations first.
Example: 30+40-15
Solution: In this question, we have two things Addition & Subtraction. So we can perform any
operation first as they have same priority.
Doing Addition first:
70 15
55
Doing Subtraction first:
30 + 25
55
Rule-(V) Dont hesitate in rounding the numbers to nearest integers.
Explanation: Most of the times the numbers are given in such a way that you can round them
quickly and get the answer (Rounding should be done or not, It can be realised by looking at the
given options).
Example: (324.5*15)/(5.01*24.98)
Solution: (325*15)/(5*25)
=13*3
=39
Some previous year questions asked in banking exams from simplification
Now let us see some of the previous year questions asked from Simplification & try to apply
the rules learnt so far.
Q.1) Simplify: 127.001 * 7.998 + 6.05 * 4.001
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
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1000
1020
1040
1080
None of these
Solution: Using the rounding concept

127 * 8 + 6 * 4
1016 + 24
1040 (Option 3)
Q.2) What will come at place of ?: 9876 24.96 + 215.005 ? = 309.99
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
270
280
290
300
310

9875 25 + 215 ? = 310
395 + 215 ? = 310
610 ? = 310
? = 300 (Option 4)
Q.3) What will come at place of a: (128 16 x a 7*2)/(72-8*6+a2) = 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1
5
9
13
17
Solution: Using the BODMAS rule

(8*a 14)/(49-48+a2) = 1
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(8*a 14)/(1 + a2) = 1

8a 14 = 1 + a2
a2 8a + 15 = 0
a=3 or 5 (Option 2)
Q.4) What will come at place of ?: 85.147 + 34.192*6.2 + ? = 802.293
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
400
450
550
600
500

85 + 35*6 + ? = 803
85 + 210 + ? = 803
295 + ? = 803
? = 508 [approx. = 500] (Option 5)
Q.5) What will come at place of ?: 3/8 of 168*15 5 + ? = 549 9 + 235
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
189
107
174
296
None of these
Solution: Using the BODMAS rule

(3*168 8)*15 5 + ? = 549 9 + 235
(504 8)*3 + ? = 61 + 235
63*3 + ? = 296
189 + ? = 296
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? = 107 (Option 2)
Key points to remember related to Simplification:
epla e of
Multipli atio .
epla e /
Di isio .
Al a s do the operatio s i priorit a ordi g to BODMAS .
Division & Multiplication have same priority (Start from left).
Addition & Subtraction have same priority.
Rounding can be done to simplify problems.
Whe the gi e optio s are er lose the rou di g does t help u h.
Always look at the options before doing simplification that can help in elimination of options.
Basic Rules of Simplification

BODMAS Rule
It defines the correct sequence in which operations are to be performed in a given mathematical
expression to find the correct value. This means that to simplify an expression, the following
order must be followed
B = Bracket,
O = Order (Powers, Square Roots, etc.)
D = Division
M = Multiplication
A = Addition
S = Subtraction
1. Hence, to solve simplification questions correctly, you must apply the operations of brackets
first. Further, in solving for brackets, the order (), {} and [] should be stricly followed.
2. Next you should evaluate exponents (for instance powers, roots etc.)
3. Next, you should perform division and multiplication, working from left to right. (division
and multiplication rank equally and are done left to right).
4. Finally, you should perform addition and subtraction, working from left to right. (addition
and subtraction rank equally and are done left to right).
EXAMPLE 1: Solve 12 + 22 11 (18 3)^2 10
= 12 + 22 11 6^2 10 (Brackets first)
= 12 + 22 11 36 10 (Exponents)
= 12 + 2 36 10 = 12 + 72 10 (Division and multiplication, left to right)
= 84 10 = 74 (Addition and Subtraction, left to right)
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EXAMPLE 2: Solve 4 + 10 3 6 / 3 + 4
= 4 + 10 18/3 + 4 = 4 + 10 6 + 4 (Division and multiplication, left to right)
= 14 6 + 4 = 8 + 4 = 12 (Addition and Subtraction, left to right)
To Solve Modulus of a Real Number
The Modulus (or the absolute value) of x is always either positive or zero, but never negative. For any
real number x, the absolute value or modulus of x is denoted by |x| and is defined as
|x|= x {if x 0} and x {if x < 0}
EXAMPLE 1: Solve |8|
|8| = |-8| = 8
Tips to Crack Approximation

Conversion of decimal numbers to nearest number
To solve such questions, first convert the decimal to nearest value. Then simplify the given
equation using the new values that you have obtained.
EXAMPLE 1: Solve 4433.764 2211.993 1133.667 + 3377.442
Here,
4433.764 = 4434
2211.993 = 2212
1133.667 = 1134
3377.442 = 3377
Now simplify, 4434 2212 1134 + 3377 = 4466
EXAMPLE 2: Solve 530 x 20.3% + 225 x 16.8%
Here, 20.3% becomes 20% and 16.8% becomes 17%
Now, simplify 530 x 20% + 225 x 17%
= 106 + 38.25 = 144.25
Approximation of Square Roots
(1) To simplify a square root, you can follow these steps:
(2) Factor the number inside the square root sign.
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(3) If a factor appears twice, cross out both and write the factor one time to the left of the square
root sign. If the factor appears three times, cross out two of the factors and write the factor
outside the sign, and leave the third factor inside the sign. Note: If a factor appears 4, 6, 8, etc.
times, this counts as 2, 3, and 4 pairs, respectively.
(4) Multiply the numbers outside the sign.
(5) Multiply the numbers left inside the sign.
(6) To simplify the square root of a fraction, simplify the numerator and simplify the
denominator.
NOTE: Check that the outside number squared times the inside number should equal the original
number inside the square root.
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Simplification and Approximation Questions1. 572 26 x 12 200 = 2?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 6
D. 7
E. None of these
Answer C. 6
Explanation :
572 26 = 22
22 x 12 = 264
264 200 = 64 = 26
2. 43931.03 2011.02 x 401.04 = ?
A. 7500
B. 8300
C. 8800
D. 8850
E. None of these
Answer C. 8800
Explanation :
(44000 2000) x 400 = 8800
3. [(38 + 8) x (88 + 78)] 98 = ?
A. 352
B. 382
C. 362
D. 372
E. None of these
Answer B. 382
Explanation :
[8(3 + 1) x 8(8 + 7)] 98
[48 x 158] 98
480 98 = 382
4. (23.1)2 + (48.6)2 (39.8)2 = ? + 1147.69
A. 185.84
B. 175.84
C. 135.84
D. 163.84
E. None of these
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Answer D. 163.84
Explanation :
533.61 + 2361.96 1584.04 = ? + 1147.69
1311.53 1147.69 = 163.84
5. 3463 295 18611 = ? + 5883
A. 997071
B. 997091
C. 999090
D. 997090
E. None of these
Answer B. 997091
Explanation :
3463 295 = 1021585
1021585 (18611 + 5883) = 997091
6. 7378 x 1330 660 = ?
A. 130
B. 120
C. 160
D. 170
E. None of these
Answer B. 120
Explanation :
7378 86; 1330 36; 660 26
86 x 36 26
7. 6999 70.005 x 94.998 = ? x 19.999
A. 475
B. 380
C. 640
D. 720
E. None of these
Answer A. 475
Explanation :
7000 70 x 95 = ? x 20 475
8. 89.988% of 699.9 + 50.002% of 999.99 170.015 = ?
A. 950
B. 930
C. 960
D. 970
E. None of these
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Answer C. 960
Explanation :
(700 * (90/100) + 1000 * (50/100)) 170
630 + 500 170 960
9. (72 x 24 x 2 -(11) + 3) = ?
A. 52
B. 32
C. 62
D. 72
E. None of these
Answer B. 32
Explanation :
(2352 1331 + 3) = 1024 =32
10. 65% of 3136 x 5 = ? + 154
A. 56
B. 28
C. 35
D. 32
E. None of these
Answer B. 28
Explanation :
(65/100)*56*5 = ? + 154
182 154 = 28
(32.3)2 4 + 361 = ?2 + 50
1.15
2.13
3.11
4.17
5.None of these
Answer 1.15
Explanation :
32*32 = 1024
1024/4 + 19 = 256+19= 275
574222 ? 1290.76 = 536.24
1.121
2.25
3.36
4.49
5.None of these
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Answer 4.49
Explanation :
261* ? -1290.76 = 536.24
261*? = 1827
?=7
? = 49
54 % 7865 + 17 % 532 39 % 4269 = ?
1.2072.35
2.2420.76
3.2672.63
4.2570.36
5.None of these
Answer 3.2672.63
Explanation :
4247.1+90.44-1664.91 = 2672.63
1/(729)2/3 * 1/ (1296)1/4 1/(2187)2/7 = ?
1.1/45
2.1/54
3.2/61
4.3/75
5.None of these
Answer 2.1/54
Explanation :
1/81 * 1/6 1/9 = 9/81*6 = 1/54
256256 + 173173 = ?
1.96432
2.94465
3.95465
4.90510
5.None of these
Answer 3.95465
Explanation :
a2+b2 = [(a+b)2 +(a-b)2 ] / 2
? = 184041 + 6889
? = 95465
(1917+231-839) = ?
1.27
2.33
3.23
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4.37
5.None of these
Answer 1.27
Explanation :
1337+231-839 = 729
27*27 = 729
[3/2 + 2(1/5) 7/10] of ? = 1098
1.463
2.326
3.276
4.366
5.None of these
Answer 4.366
Explanation :
[15+22-7/10] * x = 1098
X = 1098/3 = 366
0.9775 + 999.98+98.750 9999.099 = ?
1.-8899.39
2.9877.92
3.8999.93
4.8899.39
5.None of these
Answer -1.-8899.39
Explanation :
1099.7075-9999.099= -8899.39
(16755) + (532812) * (843015) = ?2 235
1.152
2.138
3.158
4.142
5.None of these
Answer 3.158
Explanation :
335+444*56 = 24864+335 = 25199 235 = 24964
158*158 = 24964
17.006*0.001+21.101-31.900 = ?
1.12.990
2.-10.782
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3.11.882
4.-12.782
5.None of these
Answer 2.-10.782
Explanation :
0.017006+21.101 = 21.118
21.118-31.900 = -10.782
47.008 20.998 + 256.01 = ? * 2.0001

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
e) 24
Answer b) 21
Explanation :
47 21 + 16 = ?*2
? = 21
2176.981 + 413. 001 1872.993 = ? + 12.01*21.992
a) 423
b) 433
c) 443
d) 453
e) 463
Answer d) 453
Explanation :
2177 + 413 1873 = ? + 264
? = 453
(1/2)*(47.001*17.998) (1/2)*(2/7)*49.012 = ?
a) 423
b) 420
c) 416
d) 450
e) 432
Answer c) 416
Explanation :
(1/2)*(846) 7 = ?
? = 416
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80.9 + 224.98 + 13.01*17.99 = ?

a) 253
b) 257
c) 263
d) 267
e) none of these
Answer b) 257
Explanation :
9 + 15 + 13*18 = ?
? = 257
1235.092 + 4532.998 ? + 1279.991 = 4000.001
a) 2048
b) 3048
c) 3648
d) 4048
e) none of these
Answer b) 3048
Explanation :
? = 7048 4000 = 3048
1.980*4.059 + 14.0101*3.009 4.003*6.001 = ?
a) 22
b) 24
c) 26
d) 28
e) 30
Answer c) 26
Explanation :
8 + 42 24 = ?
? = 26
(1/2)*(1/17.01)*289*? = 4.001*2.01
a) 16/17
b) 14/17
c) 15/17
d) 13/17
e) 17/16
Answer a) 16/17
Explanation :
? = (4*2*2)/17 = 16/17
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1023.90 + 16.01*24.91 = ? (3/4)*(95.98)

a) 114
b) 124
c) 128
d) 134
e) 136
Answer b) 124
Explanation :
32 + 4*5 = ? 3*24
? = 124
21% of 4200 + 47% of 3000 -? = 17.001*21.998
a) 1818
b) 1898
c) 1918
d) 1928
e) none of these
Answer c) 1918
Explanation :
21*42 + 47*30 ? = 17*22
? = 1918
(3/7)*(14/19)*(38/3)*? = 17
a) 11/4
b) 13/4
c) 15/4
d) 17/4
e) 19/4
Answer d) 17/4
Explanation :
? *2*2 = 17
? = 17/4
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3.Quadratic
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Equation / Inequality
When we deal with Quadratic Equations problem in Quantitative Aptitude, we should use time
saving tricks. The ideal & fast way to proceed, including the tricks, is given below:-In quadratic
Equations We have the following options to choose from :1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
X >Y
Y >X
X >= Y
Y>= X
X = Y or relationship cannot be established.
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Practice Set For Quadratic Equation :

y = 1, 2
Put on number line
1, 1, 1.414, 2
1. 30x2 + 11x + 1 = 0
42y2 + 13y + 1 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
E. X = Y or relation cannot be
established
3. x2 2x 5x + 25 = 0
y2 3y 2y + 6 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
D. X Y
Explanation:
30x2 + 11x + 1 = 0
30x2 + 6x + 5x + 1 = 0
x = 0.16, -0.19
42y2 + 13y + 1 = 0
42y2 + 6y + 7y + 1 = 0
y = -0.14, -0.16
Put on number line
-0.19, -0.16, -0.16, -0.14
A. X > Y
Explanation:
x2 2x 5x + 25= 0
x (x-2) 5(x-2) = 0
(x-2) (x-5) = 0
x = 2, 2.23
y2 3y 2y + 6 = 0
y (y-3) 2(y-3) = 0
(y-2) (y-3) = 0
y = 1.414, 1.732
Put on number line
1.414, 1.732, 2, 2.23
2. x2 x 2x + 2= 0
y2 3y + 2 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
4. x2 + 12x + 36 = 0
y2 = 16
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established

established
Explanation:
x2 x 2x + 2= 0
x (x-1) 2(x -1) = 0
(x-1) (x-2) = 0
x = 1, 1.414
y2 3y + 2 = 0
y2 y 2y + 2 = 0
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B. X < Y
Explanation:
x2 + 12x + 36 = 0
x2 + 6x + 6x + 36 = 0
x = -6, -6
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y2 = 16
y=4
Put on number line
-6, -6, -4, 4
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3y + 6y + 4y + 8 = 0
y = -1.33, -2
Put on number line
-3, -2, -1.33, -0.66
7. 3x 7x + 2 = 0
2y 9y + 10 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
5. 9x2 + 3x 2 = 0
8y2 + 6y + 1 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
established
Explanation:
9x2 + 3x 2 = 0
9x2 + 6x -3x 2 = 0
x = 0.33, -0.66
8y2 + 6y + 1 = 0
8y2 + 4y + 2y + 1 = 0
y = -0.25, -0.5
Put on number line
-0.66, -0.5,-0.25,0.33
D. X Y
Explanation:
3x 7x + 2 = 0
3x -x -6x + 2 = 0
x = 2, 0.33
2y 9y + 10 = 0
2y 4y -5y + 10 = 0
y = 2.5, 2
Put on number line
0.33, 2, 2, 2.5
8. x = 9
2y 19y + 44 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
6. 3x + 11x + 6 = 0
3y + 10y + 8 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established

B. X < Y
Explanation:
x = 9
x=3
2y 19y + 44 = 0
2y 11y 8y + 44 = 0
y = 5.5, 4
established
Explanation:
3x + 11x + 6 = 0
3x + 9x + 2x + 6 = 0
x = -0.66, -3
3y + 10y + 8 = 0
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Put on number line

-3, 3, 4, 5.5
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Put on number line

2.2, 3, 3, 4.5
1. x2 1 = 0, y2 + 4y + 3 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
9. 2x -15x + 28 = 0
4y 23y + 30 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established

C. X Y
Explanation:
x2 = 1
x=1
y2 + 4y + 3 = 0
y2 + y + 3y + 3 = 0
y = -1, -3
Put on number line
-3 -1 -1 1
established
Explanation:
2x -15x + 28 = 0
2x -8x -7x + 28 = 0
x = 4, 3.5
4y2 23y + 30 = 0
4y2 15y 8y + 3 = 0
y = 3.75, 2
Put on number line
2, 3.5, 3.75, 4
2. x2 10x + 24 = 0, y2 14y + 48 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
10. 2x -15x + 27 = 0
5y 26y + 33 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established

D. X Y
Explanation:
x2 10x + 24 = 0
x2 6x 4x + 24 = 0
x = 4, 6
y2 14y + 48 = 0
y2 6y 8y + 48 = 0
y = 6, 8
Put on number line
4668

C. X Y
Explanation:
2x -15x + 27 = 0
2x -6x -9x + 27 = 0
x = 3, 4.5
5y 26y + 33 = 0
5y 11y 15y + 33 = 0
y = 3, 2.2
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3. 2x2 13x + 20 = 0, 2y2 7y + 6 = 0

A. X > Y
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B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
established
Explanation:
x4 227 = 398
x4 = 625
Take square root on both sides
x2 = 25
x = 5, -5
y2 + 321 = 346
y2 = 25
y2 = 25
y = 5

A. X > Y
Explanation:
2x2 13x + 20 = 0
2x2 8x 5x + 20 = 0
x = 2.5, 4
2y2 7y + 6 = 0
2y2 3y 4y + 6 = 0
y = 1.5, 2
Put on number line
1.5 2 2.5 4
6. x2 + x 20 = 0, y2 + y 30 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
4. (15/x) + (9/x) = 11x, (y/4) +

(5y/12)= (1/y)
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established

established
Explanation:
x2 + x 20 = 0
x2 + 5x 4x + 20 = 0
x = -5, 4
y2 + y 30 = 0
y2 +6y -5y 30 = 0
y = -6, 5
Put on number line
-6 -5 4 5

A. X > Y
Explanation:
(15/x) + (9/x) = 11x
24/x = 11x
x = 24/11 = 2.18
(y/4) + (5y/12)= (1/y)
(8y/12) = (1/y)
y = 1.5
7. x2 365 = 364, y 324 = 81

A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
5. x4 227 = 398, y2 + 321 = 346

A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
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D. X Y
Explanation:
x2 365 = 364
x2 = 729
x = 27
y 324 = 81
y 18 = 9
y = 27
Put on number line
-27 27 27
x2 + 11x + 30 = 0
x2 + 6x + 5x + 30 = 0
x = -6, -5
y2 + 7y + 12 = 0
y2 + 4y + 3y + 12 = 0
y = -4, -3
Put on number line
-6 -5 -4 -3
8. 9x 15.45 = 54.55 + 4x, (y+155)

6=7
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
10. y2 x2 = 32, y x = 2
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
B. X < Y
Explanation:
y2 x2 = 32
(y + x)(y x) = 32
From equation(2) y x = 2
(y + x)2 = 32
y + x = 16 (a)
y x = 2 (b)
2y = 18 => y = 9
9x=2
x=7

established
Explanation:
9x 15.45 = 54.55 + 4x
9x 4x = 54.55 + 15.45
5x = 70 => x= 14
(y+155) 6 = 7
(y+155) = 13
Squaring on both sides
y + 155 = 169
y = 14
9. x2 + 11x + 30 = 0, y2 + 7y + 12 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
1. 2x2 + 11x + 14=0, 4y2 + 12y +9 =0

A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
B. X < Y
Explanation:
2x2 + 11x + 14=0
2x2 + 7x + 4x + 14=0
x = -3.5, -2

B. X < Y
Explanation:
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4y2 + 12y +9 =0
4y2 + 6y + 6y +9 =0
y = -1.5, -1.5
Put on number line
-3.5 -2 -1.5 -1.5
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
2. x2 =729, y=729
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established

B. X < Y
Explanation:
4x + 2y =8.5 -(I)
2x + 4y = 9.5 (II)
By solving eqn (I and II)
x = 1.25, y=1.75
Put on number line
1.25 1.75

D. X Y
Explanation:
x2 =729
x = 27, -27
y = 729
y = 27
Put on number line
-27 27 27
5. x2 + 17x + 72 = 0, y2 + 15y + 56 = 0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
3. x=10648, y=484
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
D. X Y
Explanation:
x2 + 17x + 72 = 0
x2 + 8x + 9x + 72 = 0
x = -8, -9
y2 + 15y + 56 = 0
y2 + 8y + 7y + 56 = 0
y = -7, -8
Put on number line
-9 -8 -8 -7

C. X Y
Explanation:
x =10648
x = 22
y= 484
y = + 22, 22
Put on number line
-22 22 22
6. 1225x + 4900 = 0, (81)1/4y +

(343)1/3=0
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
4. 4x + 2y =8.5, 2x + 4y = 9.5
A. X > Y
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A. X > Y
Explanation:
1225x + 4900 = 0
35x + 70 = 0
x = -2
(81)1/4y + (343)1/3=0
3y + 7 = 0
y = -2.33
Put on number line
-2.33 -2
established
Explanation:
4x2 20x + 21 =0
4x2 6x 14x + 21 =0
x = 1.5 3.5
9y2 27y + 20 =0
9y2 -15y 12y + 20 =0
y = 1.33 1.66
Put on number line
1.33 1.5 1.66 3.5
7. (x7/5/9) = (169/x3/5), y1/4 * y1/4 * 7 =

(273/y1/2)
A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
9. 4/x + 7/x =x , y2 115/2/y = 0

A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
D. X Y
Explanation:
(x7/5/9) = (169/x3/5)
(x7/5)/(x3/5) = 169*9
x7/5 + 3/5 = 1521
x2 = 1521
x = 39
y1/4 * y1/4 * 7 = (273/y1/2)
y1/4 * y1/4 * y1/2 = 273/7
y = 39
Put on number line
-39 39 39
established
Explanation:
4/x + 7/x =x
1/x(4+7) = x
11/x = x
x = 11
y2 115/2/y = 0
y5/2 115/2
y = 11
8. 4x2 20x + 21 =0, 9y2 27y + 20 =0

A. X > Y
B. X < Y
C. X Y
D. X Y
established
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4.
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Series
What is Number Series?

Number series is a arrangement of numbers in a certain order, where
some numbers are wrongly put into the series of numbers and some
number is missing in that series, we need to observe and find the
accurate number to the series of numbers.
In competitive exams number series are given and where you need to
find missing numbers. The number series are come in different types. At
first you have to decided what type of series are given in papers then
according with this you have to use shortcut tricks as fast as you can .
Generally, two kinds of series are asked in the examination. One is
based on numbers and the other based on alphabets.
Step 1: Observer are there any familier numbers in the given
series. Familier numbers are primes numbers, perfect squares, cubes ...
which are easy to identify.
Step 2: Calculate the differences between the numbers. Observe the
pattern in the differences. If the differences are growing rapidly it might
be a square series, cube series, or multiplicative series. If the numbers
are growing slowly it is an addition or substration series.
If the differences are not having any pattern then
1. It might be a double or triple series. Here every alternate number or
every 3rd number form a series
2. It might be a sum or average series. Here sum of two consecutive
numbers gives 3rd number. or average of first two numbers give next
number
Step 3: Sometimes number will be multiplied and will be added another
number So we need to check those patterns.
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TYPES :
I. Prime number Series :
Example (1) : 2,3,5,7,11,13, ...........
Answer : The given series is prime number series . The next prime
number is 17.
Example (2) :2,5,11,17,23,...........41.
Answer: The prime numbers are written alternately.
II. Difference Series :
Example (1): 2,5,8,11,14,17,...........,23.
Answer: The difference between the numbers is 3. (17+3 = 20)
Example (2): 45,38,31,24,17,...........,3.
Answer: The difference between the numbers is 7. (17-7=10).
III. Multiplication Series:
Example (1) : 2,6,18,54,162,.........,1458.
Answer: The numbers are multiplied by 3 to get next number. (162x3 =
486).
Example: (2) : 3,12,48,192,............,3072.
Answer : The numbers are multiplied by 4 to get the next number.
(192x4 =768).
IV. Division Series:
Example (1): 720, 120, 24, .........,2,1
Answer: 720/6=120, 120/5=24, 24/4=6, 6/3=2, 2/2=1.
Example (2) : 32, 48, 72, 108, .........., 243.
Answer: 2. Number x 3/2= next number. 32x3/2=48, 48x3/2=72,
72x3/2=108, 108x3/2=162.
V. n2 Series:
Example(1) : 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ......., 49
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Answer: The series is 12, 22, 32, 42, 52, .... The next number is 62=36;
Example (2) : 0, 4, 16, 36, 64, ........ 144.
Answer :The series is 02, 22, 42, 62, etc. The next number is 102=100.
VI. n21 Series :
Example : 0, 3, 8, 15, 24,35, 48, ..........,
Answer : The series is 12-1, 22-1, 32-1 etc. The next number is 821=63.
Another logic : Difference between numbers is 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 etc. The
next number is (48+15=63).
VII.n2+1 Series :
Example : 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, .........., 65.
Answer : The series is 12+1, 22+1, 32+1 etc. The next number is
72+1=50.
VIII. n2+n Series (or) n2n Series :
Example : 2, 6, 12, 20, ............, 42.
Answer : The series is 12+1, 22+2, 32+3, 42+4 etc. The next number =
52+5=30.
Another Logic : The series is 1x2, 2x3, 3x4, 4x5, The next number is
5x6=30.
Another Logic : The series is 22-2, 32-3, 42-4, 52-5, The next number is
62-6=30.
IX. n3 Series :
Example : 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, ......... .
Answer : The series is 13, 23, 33, etc. The missing number is 73=343.
X. n3+n Series :
Example : 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 217, 344, ...........
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Answer : The series is 13+1, 23+1, 33+1, etc. The missing number is
83+1=513.
XI. n31 Series :
Example : 0, 7, 26, 63, 124, ............, 342.
Answer: The series is 13-1, 23-1, 33-1 etc The missing number is 631=215.
XII. n3+n Series :
Example : 2, 10, 30, 68, 130, .............., 350.
Answer : The series is 13+1, 23+2, 33+3 etc The missing number is
63+6=222.
XIII. n3n Series :
Example :0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ..............,
Answer : The series is 13-1, 23-2, 33-3, etc. The missing number is 737=336.
Another Logic : The series is 0x1x2, 1x2x3, 2x3x4, etc. The missing
number is 6x7x8=336.
XIV. n3+n2 Series :
Example : 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ............,
Answer: The series is 13+12,23+22,33+32etc. The missing number is
63+62=252
XV. n3n2 Series:
Example: 0,4,18,48,100,.................,
Answer : The series is 13-12,23-22,33-32 etc. The missing number is
63-62=180
XVI. xy, x+y Series:
Example: 48,12,76,13,54,9,32,...............,
Answer :2. 4+8=12, 7+6=13, 5+4=9 .: 3+2=5.
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Practice Set :-
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Answer B. 178
Explanation :
3*1+2=5
5 * 2 + 3 = 13
13 * 3 + 4 = 43..
Correct Number: 177
1. 5 7 16 57 244 1245 7506

A. 5
B. 16
C. 7506
D. 7
E. None of these
4. 972 484 240 118 56 26.5 11.25

A. 240
B. 11.25
C. 118
D. 56
E. None of these

Answer D. 7
Explanation :
(5 * 1) + 1 = 6
(6 * 2) + 2 = 16.
Correct Number: 6

Answer D. 56
Explanation :
972 / 2 2 = 484
484 / 2 2 = 240
240 / 2 2 = 118..
Correct Number: 57
2. 5 3 4 7.5 17 47 138
A. 5
B. 4
C. 47
D. 17
E. None of these
5. 25 313 457 529 565 585 592

A. 457
B. 592
C. 313
D. 529
E. None of these

Answer C. 47
Explanation :
5 * 0.5 + 0.5 = 3
3*1+1=4
4 * 1.5 + 1.5 = 7.5..
Correct Number: 45

Answer E. None of these
Explanation :
25 + 9 * 32 = 313
313 + 9 * 16 = 457
457 + 9 * 8 = 529.
Wrong Number: 585
Correct Number: 583
3. 3 5 13 43 178 891 5353

A. 43
B. 178
C. 891
D. 5353
E. None of these
6. 25 35 50 75 110 155 210

A. 50
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B. 210
C. 25
D. 110
E. None of these
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Wrong Number: 1000

Correct Number: 1020
9. 15 22 32 111 428 1538 12900
A. 22
B. 428
C. 1538
D. 12900
E. None of these

Answer C. 25
Explanation :
30 + 5 * 1 = 35
35 + 5 * 3 = 50
50 + 5 * 5 = 75..
Wrong Number: 25
Correct Number: 30

Answer D. 12900
Explanation :
15 * 1 + (1 * 7) = 22
22 * 2 (2 * 6) = 32
32 * 3 + (3 * 5) = 111
111 * 4 (4 * 4) = 428
428 * 5 + (5 * 3) = 2155
2155 * 6 (6 * 2) = 12918
7. 900 890 879 858 830 795 753

A. 753
B. 795
C. 890
D. 858
E. None of these
10. 2580 645 322.5 80.62 45 10.07 5

A. 322.5
B. 645
C. 45
D. 10.07
E. None of these
Answer C. 890
Explanation :
900 7 = 893
893 14 = 879
879 21 = 858
Wrong Number: 890
Correct Number: 893
8. 16800, 7770, 1290, 3120, 1000, 240,

30
A. 1000
B. 7770
C. 3120
D. 78
E. None of these
Answer C. 45
Explanation :
2580 * 0.25 = 645
645 * 0.5 = 322.5
322.5 * 0.25 = 80.62
80.62 * 0.5 = 40.31 ..
Correct Number: 40.31

Answer A. 1000
Explanation :
7^5 7, 6^5 6, 5^5 5, 4^5 4
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1. 19 10.5 11.5 18.25 37.5 92.25 285.25

A. 11.5
B. 274.25
C. 19
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B. 48
C. 1440
D. 10
E. None of these
D. 94.75
E. None of these
Answer D. 94.75
Explanation :
(19 * 0.5) + 1 = 10.5
(10.5 * 1) + 1 = 11.5
(11.5 * 1.5) + 1 = 18.25.

Answer D. 10
Explanation :
4 * 3 = 12
12 * 4 = 48
48 * 5 = 240..
Correct Number: 12
2. 21 22 28 38 55 81 118
A. 28
B. 81
C. 22
D. 118
E. None of these
5. 3 5 10 12 17 23 24
A. 5
B. 17
C. 24
D. 23
E. None of these

Answer C. 22
Explanation :
21 + 1 + 1 = 23
23 + 2 + 1 = 28
28 + 3 + 1 = 38 ..
Correct Number: 23

Explanation :
First series: 3, 10, 17, 24 (increased
by 7)
Second Series: 5, 14, 23 (increased
by 9)
Wrong Number: 12
Correct Number: 14
3. 3 4 10 32 136 685 4116

A. 4
B. 32
C. 685
D. 4116
E. None of these
6. 3 7 6 28 38 112 448
A. 112
B. 448
C. 28
D. 38
E. None of these

Answer B. 32
Explanation :
3*1+1=4
4 * 2 + 2 = 10
10 * 3 + 3 = 33..
Correct Number: 33

Answer D. 38
Explanation :
First series: 3, 6, 9 (increased by 3)
Second Series: 7, 28, 112, 448
(multiplied by 4)
4. 90720 10080 1440 240 48 10 4

A. 240
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19 * 1 (1 * 7) = 12
12 * 2 (2 * 6) = 12
12 * 3 (3 * 5) = 21
21 * 4 (4 * 4) = 68 ..
Wrong Number: 38
Correct Number: 9
7. 650 148 130 108 32.5 28 10.8
A. 28
B. 148
C. 650
D. 32.5
E. None of these
10. 2580 645 322.5 80.62 45 10.07 5

A. 322.5
B. 645
C. 45
D. 10.07
E. None of these

Answer A. 28
Explanation :
First series: 650, 130, 32.5, 10.8
(divided by 5, 4, 3)
Second Series: 148, 108, 68
(difference : 40)
Wrong Number: 28
Correct Number: 68
8. 4088, 2394, 1290, 520, 252, 78, 14

A. 1290
B. 520
C. 78
D. 14
E. None of these
Answer B. 520
Explanation :
7^4 6, 6^4 6, 5^4 5, 4^4 4
Correct Number: 620
9. 12 12 21 68 325 1538 12859
A. 12
B. 68
C. 325
D. 1538
E. None of these
Answer C. 45
Explanation :
2580 * 0.25 = 645
645 * 0.5 = 322.5
322.5 * 0.25 = 80.62
80.62 * 0.5 = 40.31 ..
1. 61 82 124 187 ? 376
A. 238
B. 248
C. 288
D. 271
E. None of these
Answer D. 271
Explanation :
61 + (1 * 21) = 82
82 + (2 * 21) = 124
124 + (3 * 21) = 187 ..
2. 23 30 46 80 141 ?
A. 238
B. 248
C. 288
D. 271
E. None of these

Answer D. 1538
Explanation :
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Answer A. 238
Explanation :
30 23 = 7
46 30 = 16
80 46 = 34
16 7 = 9
34 16 = 18.
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Answer D. 234
Explanation :
13 * 3 = 39
13 * 4 = 52
13 * 6 = 78
13 * 9 = 117 .
3. 1338 447 150 51 18

A. 8
B. 3
C. 7
D. 9
E. None of these
6. 16 24 ? 210 945 5197.5

A. 30
B. 40
C. 80
D. 90
E. 60

Answer C. 7
Explanation :
1338 / 3 + 1 = 447
447 / 3 + 1 = 150
150 / 3 + 1 = 51 .
Answer E. 60
Explanation :
16 * 1.5 = 24
24 * 2.5 = 60
4. 8 10 14.5 22.5 35 53 ?
A. 33.8
B. 34.5
C. 54.25
D. 77.5
E. None of these
7. 9000 1795 355 68 ? 1.32

A. 13.8
B. 14.8
C. 18.8
D. 19.8
E. None of these
Answer D. 77.5
Explanation :
10 8 = 2
14.5 10 = 4.5
22.5 14.5 = 8
4.5 2 = 2.5
8 4.5 = 3.5.

Explanation :
9000 / 5 5 = 1795
1795 / 5 4 = 355
355 / 5 3 = 68
68 / 5 2 = 11.6
8. 17 9 ? 16.5 35 90
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 30
E. None of these
5. 39 52 78 117 169 ?
A. 246
B. 148
C. 188
D. 234
E. None of these
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C. 388
D. 398
E. None of these

Answer A. 10
Explanation :
17 * (1/2) + 0.5 = 9
9 * (1) + 1 = 10

Answer A. 338
Explanation :
-12^2 -10^2, -8^2
338
9. 5 3 6 ? 64.75
A. 13.5
B. 14.5
C. 18.5
D. 19.5
E. None of these
2. 5 7 10 36 136 ?
A. 789
B. 890
C. 690
D. 698
E. None of these

Explanation :
5 * 0.5 + 0.5 = 3
3 * 1.5 + 1.5 = 6
6 * 2.5 + 2.5 = 17.5

Answer C. 690
Explanation :
*1+2
*24
*3+6
690
10. 6 13 38 ? 532 2675

A. 138
B. 129
C. 123
D. 164
E. None of these
3. 2 10 96 ? 7746
A. 775
B. 778
C. 776
D. 790
E. None of these

Answer B. 129
Explanation :
(6 * 1) + 7 = 13
(13 * 2) + 12 = 38
(38 * 3) + 15 = 129
(129 * 4) + 16 = 532
12 7 = 5
15 12 = 3
16 15 = 1
53=2
3 2 = 1

Explanation :
2*2^1 + 6, 10*3^2 + 6 ..
774
4. 3 10 32 ? 460 2315
A. 112
B. 132
C. 115
1. 698 554 454 390 354 ?

A. 338
B. 348
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C. 107
D. 106
E. None of these
D. 119
E. None of these

Explanation :
10 = 3 * 1 + 7 * 1
32 = 10 * 2 + 6 * 2
111 = 32 * 3 + 5 * 3
Answer B. 109
Explanation :
2^3 2^1
3^3 2^2
4^3 2^3
109
5. 6072 ? 200 48 14 5
A. 1045
B. 1010
C. 1005
D. 1052
E. None of these
8. 13700 1957 ? 65 16 5
A. 326
B. 350
C. 345
D. 362
E. None of these

Answer B. 1010
Explanation :
-12 / 6
-10 / 5
-8 / 4
1010

Answer A. 326
Explanation :
-1 / 7
-1 / 6
-1 / 5
326
6. 5 8 6 ? 7 12
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 10
E. None of these
9. 5 12 60 340 ? 6724
A. 1584
B. 1884
C. 1684
D. 1784
E. None of these

Answer D. 10
Explanation :
*2 2
/2 + 2
*2 2
10

Answer C. 1684
Explanation :
* 8 28
* 7 24
* 6 20
1684
7. 6 23 56 ? 184 219
A. 104
B. 109
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Answer B. 3535
Explanation :
18*7 -7 = 119
119*6 -6 = 708
708*5 -5 = 3535
10. 3 7 12 27 50 ?
A. 100
B. 95
C. 85
D. 105
E. None of these
3. 5 7.5 11.25 17.5 ? 50

A. 28.75
B. 26.50
C. 27.50
D. 28.25
E. None of these

Answer D. 105
Explanation :
3*2+1
7*22
12 * 2 + 3
27 * 2 4
50 * 2 + 5 = 105

Answer A. 28.75
Explanation :
7.5 5 = 2.5
11.25 7.5 = 3.75
=> 3.75 2.5 = 1.25
11.25 7.5 = 3.75
17.5 11.25 = 6.25
=> 6.25 3.75 = 2.5
1. 35 118 280 600 ?

2504 5036
A. 1364
B. 1236
C. 1362
D. 1361
E. None of these
4. 264 262 271 243 ?

A. 302
B. 304
C. 306
D. 308
E. None of these

Answer B. 1236
Explanation :
118 35 = 83
280 118 = 162
=>162 83 = 79
280 118 = 162
600 280 = 320
=>320 162 = 158
2. 18 119 708 ? 14136

42405
A. 3434
B. 3535
C. 3636
D. 3737
E. None of these
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Answer D. 308
Explanation :
264 1 + 1 = 262
262 + 2 + 1 = 271
271 3 + 1 = 243
5. 1.5 2.5 7 24 100 ?
A. 500
B. 504
C. 505
D. 503
E. None of these
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D. 980
E. None of these
Answer C. 505
Explanation :
1.5 * 1 + 1 = 2.5
2.5 * 2 + 2 = 7
7 * 3 + 3 = 24
6. 15 29 47 73 115 ?
A. 176
B. 189
C. 173
D. 178
E. None of these
Answer B. 189
Explanation :
15*2 1 = 29
29*2 11 = 47
47*2 21 = 73

Explanation :
9 * 2 + 2 = 20
20 * 3 + 3 = 63
63 * 4 + 4 = 256
256 * 5 + 5 = 1285
9. 1 2 6 21 88 ? 2676 .
A. 450
B. 455
C. 440
D. 445
E. None of these
Answer D. 445
Explanation :
1*1+1 = 2
2*2+2 = 6
6*3+3 = 21
21*4+4 = 88
7. ? 21 9 6 6 5
A. 58
B. 32
C. 60
D. 22
E. None of these
10. 2 12 36 ? 150
A. 70
B. 75
C. 60
D. 65
E. None of these

Answer C. 60
Explanation :
21 9 = 12
96=3
=> 12 3 = 9
96=3
66=0
=> 3 0 = 3

Explanation :
Ans : 80
1 + 1, 2 + 2, 3 + 3, 4 +
4.
8. 9 20 63 256 ?
A. 789
B. 816
C. 879
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5.Average
An average means the sum of n different items divided by n numbers of items.
The basic formula is
Average: = (Sum of observations / Number of observations).

Or
Find the Average Speed
If a person travels a distance at a speed of x km/hr and the same distance at a speed of y
km/hr then the average speed during the whole journey is given byIf a person covers A km at x km/hr and B km at y km/hr and C km at z km/hr, then the
average speed in covering the whole distance isWhen a person

leaves the group and another person joins the group in place of that person then
If the average age is increased,

Age of new person = Age of separated person + (Increase in average total number of
persons)
If the average age is decreased,
Age of new person = Age of separated person (Decrease in average total number of
persons)
When a person joins the group-In case of increase in average
Age of new member = Previous average + (Increase in average Number of members

including new member)
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In case of decrease in average
Age of new member = Previous average (Decrease in average Number of members

including new member)
Q. 1) The average weight of 4 men is increased by 3 kg when one of them who weighs 120
kg is replaced by another man. What is the weight of the new man?
Weight of new person = Weight of removed person + No. of persons * Increase in Average =
120+3*4
Weight of new person = 132 kg
Q. 2) The average marks obtained by 120 candidates in a certain examination is 35. If the
average marks of passing candidates is 39 and that of the failed candidates is 15, what is
the number of candidates who passed the exam?
Such questions are best dealt with allegation formula:
Mean value = 35, Dearer value = 39 and Cheaper = 15
Failed students : Passed students = (Dearer - Mean) : (Mean - Cheaper) = 39 - 35 : 35 - 15 = 4 :
20
No. of students who passed = (5/6) * 120 = 100
Q. 3)
Correct Average = Incorrect average + (Correct value - Incorrect value)/Total observations
Correct Average = 35 + (85 - 45)/20 = 37
Answer: (D)
Q. 4)
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Take x = 1
Then A = (1 + 1)/2 = 1
Average of x^3 + 1/x^3 = (1 + 1)/2 = 1
Now put A = 1 in all the four options and check which one is giving '1' as the output
Answer: (D)
Q. 5)
For consecutive numbers:

If the number of terms is odd (e.g. A, B, C), then their average is the middle term(i.e. B).
If the number of terms is even(e.g. A, B, C, D) then their average is (B+C)/2
So here, the average of eight consecutive even numbers = (5th term + 4th term)/2
Given, (5th term + 4th term)/2 = 93
5th term + 4th term = 186
We know, 5th term - 4th term = 2
Adding the equations, we get 5th term = 94
Hence 8th term = 5th term + 2 + 2 + 2 = 100
Answer: (C)
Q. 6)
Average = (8*3 + 20*2 + 26*m + 29*1)/(3 + 2 + m + 1)
17 = (93 + 26m)/(6 + m)
102 + 17m = 93 + 26m
m=1
Answer: (A)
Q. 7)
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Given, (3a + 4b)/2 > 50

3a + 4b > 100
5a > 100 [Since a = 2b]
a > 20
Hence the smallest value of a is 21
Answer: (D)
Q. 8)
Average of six numbers a,b,c,d,e,f = (Average of a,b + Average of c,d + Average of e,f)/3
3.95*3 = 3.4 + 3.85 + x
x = 4.6
Answer: (C)
Q. 9) The average of 11 numbers is 50. The average of first six numbers is 49, and that of
last six is 52. Find the sixth result.
This is a common CGL question and a short-cut to solve it is:
Sixth result = 50 + 6{(52 - 50) + (49 - 50)} = 50 + 6(2 - 1) = 56
Answer: 56
Q. 10)
Answer: (B)
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Q.11)
Shortcut Tricks for Average Chapter

1. If the value of each item in a group is increase by the same value x, then the average of the
group also increases by x.
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For instance, if the income of each person in a group increases by 15, the average income of
the group also increase by Rs. 15.
2. If the value of each item in a group is decrease by the same value x, then the average of the
group also decreases by x.
For instance, if the income of each person in a group decreases by 20, the average income of
the Group also decreases by Rs. 20.
3. If the average age of group of people is x years, then their average age after n years will be
(x + n).
This is because with each passing year, each persons age increases by 1 and vice versa.
4. If the average age of group of people is x years, then their average age n years ago will be
(x - n).
5. If the value of each item is multiplied by the same value x, then the average of the group or
items will also get multiplied by x.
6. If the value of each item is divided by the same value n, then the average of the group or
items will also get divided by n.
7. The average of a group always lies between the smallest value and the longest value in that
group.
8. If the average age of n persons increases by x years. Then the total age of n
persons increases by (n x) years.
Ex. Average age of 6 persons is increased by 2 yr when one of them, whose age is 26 yr is
replaced by a new man. What is the age of new person?
Sol. Total age increased = 6 2 = 12 yr
Age of new person = (26 + 12) = 38 yr
The increase in the total age of 6 persons is due to the replacement of a person aged 26 yr
with a person who is 12 yr older to him.
9. If the average age of n persons decreases by x years. Then the total age of n
persons decreases by (n x) years.
10. Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x kmph and an equal distance at y kmph, then
the average speed during the whole journey is (2xy/x+y) kmph.
11. Weighted Average Concept:When we have two or more groups whose individual averages are known, then to find the
combined average of all the elements of all the groups we use Weighted Average Method.
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Formula:
Average: = (Sum of observations / Number of observations).
If a person travels a distance at a speed of x km/hr and the same distance at a speed of y km/hr
then the average speed during the whole journey is given byIf a person covers A km at x km/hr and B km at y km/hr and C km at z km/hr, then the average
speed in covering the whole distance isWhen a person leaves the group
and another person joins the group in place of that person then
If the average age is increased,

Age of new person = Age of separated person + (Increase in average total number of persons)
If the average age is decreased,
Age of new person = Age of separated person (Decrease in average total number of persons)
When a person joins the group-In case of increase in average
Age of new member = Previous average + (Increase in average Number of members including
new member)
In case of decrease in average
Age of new member = Previous average (Decrease in average Number of members including
new member)
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In the Arithmetic Progression there are two cases when the number of terms is odd and
second one is when number of terms is even.
So when the number of terms is odd the average will be the middle term.
when the number of terms is even then the average will be the average of two middle terms.
Some Important Examples

Examples 1: what will be the average of 13, 14, 15, 16, 17?
Solution: Average is the middle term when the number of terms is odd, but before that lets
checks whether it is in A.P or not, since the common difference is same so the series is in A.P.
So the middle term is 15 which is our average of the series.
Example 2: What will be the average of 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18?
Solution: We have discussed that when the number of terms are even then the average will be
the average of two middle terms.
Now the two middle terms are 15 and 16, but before that the average we must check that the
series should be A.P. Since the common difference is same for each of the term we can say that
the series is in A.P. and the average is (16+15)/2 = 15.5
Example 3:The average of five numbers is 29. If one number is excluded the average becomes
27. What is the excluded number ?
Answer :
let the excluded number is
= (29 x 5) ( 27 x 4 )
= 145 108
= 37 .
Example 4: Find the average of first 20 natural numbers?
Answer:
Sum of first n natural numbers = n ( n + 1 ) /2
So, we can find easily average of first 20 natural numbers 20 x 21 / 2 = 210
So, then Required average is = 210 / 20 = 10.5.
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Example 5
Find the average of first 20 multiplies of 5 .
Answer:
Required average = 5 ( 1 + 2 + 3 +.. + 20) /20
= ( 5 x 20 x 21 / 20 x 2) = 2100 / 40 = 52.5 .
So the Required average is 52.5.
Question 1. The average of 8 numbers is 20. The average of first two numbers is 15.5 and the
average of next three number is
If the 6th number is 4 and 7 less by the 7th and the 8th
numbers respectively then what will be the 8th number?
(1)
25
(2)
22
(3)
35
(4)
30
Solution:
Short Trick:
Sum of all = 160
Sum of first 5 = 95 coming from
sum of last 3 = 65
x + x + 4 + x + 7 = 65
18 + 22 + 25
Answer: 1
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Question 2: The average temperature from Monday to Wednesday is 370C while the average
temperature from Tuesday to Thursday is 340C. The temperature of Thursday is
of Monday. Find the temperature of Thursday?
(1)
360C
(2)
330C
(3)
370C
(4)
340C
times to that
Solution:
Short Trick:
Mon + Tues + Wed = 111
Tues + Wed + Thurs + 102 (diff. = 9)
Thursday =
Thursday =
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Question 3: Of the three numbers whose average is 60, the first is one-fourth of the sum of the
others. The first number is
(1)
30
(2)
36
(3)
42
(4)
45
Solution:
x + y + z = 180 (i)
then 4x + y + z
Putting the value of y + z in
Equation .(i) x + 4x = 180
5x = 180 x = 36
Sum =
Question 4: The average of marks obtained by 120 candidates in a certain examination is 35. If
the average marks of passed candidates is 39 and that of the failed candidates is 15, what is the
number of candidates who passed the examination?
(1)
100
(2)
120
(3)
140
(4)
160
Solution:
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Let the number of passed candidates be x

Then total marks = 120 x 35 = 39x + (120 x) x 15
Or, 4200 = 39x + 1800 15x
Or, 24x = 2400
x = 100
Number of passed candidates = 100
Short Trick:
Pass
Fail
39
15
35
/
20
\
4
5 : 1
Hence, total number of passed candidates
Question 5: The average weight of 8 persons is increased by 2.5 kg when one of them who
weight 56 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is
(1)
73 kg
(2)
72 kg
(3)
75 kg
(4)
80 kg
Solution:
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Aw2 AW1 = 2.5
Total weight1 Total weight2 = 20.0 kgs

This difference is because of the new man.
Hence the weight of the new man = 56 + 20 = 76 kgs.
Short Trick:
56 + 8 x 2.5
= 76 kgs
Average Questions with Solutions & Tricks

Ex. 1: The average weight of 4 men is increased by 3 kg when one of them who weigh, 120
kg is replaced by another man. What is the weight of the new man?
Sol. : If the average is increased by 3 kg, then the sum of weights increases by 3 4 = 12 kg.
And this increase in weight is due to the extra weight included due to the inclusion of new
person.
Weight of new man = 120 + 12 = 132 kg
Ex. 2 : The average of marks obtained by 120 candidates in a certain examination is 35. If
the average marks of passed candidates is 39 and that of the failed candidates is 15, what is
the number of candidates who passed the examination?
Sol. : Let the number of passed candidates be x.
Then total marks = 120 35 = 39x + (120 x) 15
4200 = 39x + 1800 15x
24x = 2400
x = 100
number of passed candidates = 100.
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Ex. 3 : The average of 11 results is 50. If the average of first six results is 49 and that of last
six is 52, find the sixth result.
Sol. : The total of 11 results = 11 50 = 550
The total of first 6 results = 6 49 = 294
The total of last 6 results = 6 52 = 312
The 6th result is common on both; Sixth result = 294 + 312 500 = 56
Ex. 4 : The average age of 8 persons in a committee is increased by 2 years when two men
aged 35 years and 45 years are substituted by two women. Find the average age of these
two women.
Sol. : By the use of average formula,
the
total
age
of
two
women
=
= 16 + 80 = 96 years.
average age of two women = (96 / 2) = 48 years.
average age of two women = 48 years.
(35
45)
Ex. 5 : The average age of a family of 6 members is 22 years. If the age of the youngest
member be 7 years, then what was the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest
member?
Sol. : Total ages of all members = 6 22 = 132 years.
7 years ago, total sum of ages = 132 (6 7) = 90 years.
But at that time there were 5 members in the family.
Average at that time = 90 5 = 18 years.
Ex. 6 : The average score of a cricketer in two matches is 27 and in three other matches is
32. Then find the average score in all the five matches.
Average in 5 matches
Ex. 7: A man bought 13 shirts of Rs. 50 each, 15 pants of Rs. 60 each and 12 pairs of shoes
at Rs. 65 a pair. Find the average value of each article.
Average =
Ex. 8 : The average of 11 results is 30, that of the first five is 25 and that of the last five is
28. Find the value of the 6th number.
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6th number = Total of 11 results (Total of first five results + Total of last five results)
= 11 30 (5 25 + 5 28)
= 330 265 = 65
Ex. 9 : In a class, there are 20 boys whose average age is decreased by 2 months, when one
boy aged 18 years is replaced by a new boy. Find the age of the new boy.
Sol.: By the use of average formula,
Age of new person = Age of removed person No. of persons Decrease in average age
Ex. 10 : A batsman in his 17th innings makes a score of 85, and thereby increases his
average by 3. What is this average after 17 innings?
Sol. : Let the average after 16th innings be x,
then 16x + 85 = 17 (x + 3) = Total score after 17th innings.
x = 85 51 = 34
average after 17 innings = x + 3
= 34 + 3 = 37.
Ex. 11 : A cricketer has completed 10 innings and his average is 21.5 runs. How many runs
must he make in his next innings so as to raise his average to 24?
Sol.
:
Total
of
10
innings
=
21.5
Suppose he needs a score of x in 11th innings; then average in 11 innings
10
215
Ex. 12 : There are two sections A and B of a class, consisting of 36 and 44 students
respectively. If the average weight of section A is 40 kg and that of section B is 35 kg, find
the average weight of the whole class.
Solution: Total weight of (36 + 44) Students = (36 40 + 44 35) kg = 2980 kg
Therefore average weight of the whole class = (2980/80) kg
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Therefore average weight = 37.25 kg.

Ex. 13 : Distance between two stations A and B is 778 km. A train covers the journey from
A to B at 84 km per hour and returns back to A with a uniform speed of 56 km per hour.
Find the average speed of train during the whole journey.
Solution: required average speed
Ex. 14 : A Batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17th inning and thus increases his
average by 3. Find his average after 17th inning.
Solution: let the average after 17th inning = x
Then average after 16th inning = (x - 3)
Therefore 16 (x - 3) + 87 = 17x
Therefore x = 39
Ex. 15 : There were 35 students in a hostel. Due to the admission of 7 new students the
expenses of the mess were increased by Rs.42 per day while the average expenditure per
head diminished by Re 1. What was the original expenditure of the mess?
Solution: let the original average expenditure be Rs.x. then,
42 (x - 1) - 35x = 42
= 7x = 84
= x = 12
Therefore original expenditure =Rs.(35 12)=Rs.420.
Average Methods shortcut tricks - Math Shortcut Tricks
Formula:
Average: = ( Sum of observations / Number of observations ).

Suppose Rahul covers a certain distance at P Kmph and an equal distance at O Kmph. Then,
the average speed during the whole journey is (2PO / P + O ) Kmph.
Find the Average of all numbers ?

There are Five Numbers, we are going to calculate the average of 29, 31, 33, 37, 49.
Average = (29 + 31 + 33 + 37 + 49 ) / 5 = 179 / 5 = 35.8.
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Example 1: The average of five positive integers is 55.8 If average of first two integers is 49 and
the average of fourth and fifth integers is 69.5 Than find the thired integer.
Answer : Shortcut :
55.8 x 5 = 279
49 x 2 = 98
69.5 x 2 = 139
third number = (279 98 139) = 42.
Example 2: The average of four numbers is 80. The first number is 1 / 3 of sum of three number.
What would be the first number ?
Example : P + Q + R + S = 320 (I)
P = Q + R + S / 3 (II)
from (I) and (II)
4P = 240
P = 80
Example 3:The average of six numbers is 18, If average of four number is 12. What would be
the average of remaining two number ?
Answer : (18 x 6) (12 x 4) = 108 48 = 60
the average of remaining two number 60 / 2 = 30.
Example 4:
What would be the average of first 20 natural numbers ?
Answer :
Sum of first n natural numbers = n ( n + 1 ) /2
So, we can find easily average of first 20 natural numbers 20 x 21 / 2 = 210
So, then Required average is = 210 / 20 = 10.5.
Example 5: In a college, 16 girls has the average age is 18 years and 14 boys has the average
age 17 years. What would be the average age of entire college ?
Answer: 16 girls has the average age is 18 years ( 16 x 18 ) = 288
4 boys has the average age 17 years ( 14 x 17 ) = 238
Average age is = 288 + 238 / 30 = 526 / 30 = 17.54 years
Example 6: The average of five numbers is 64.6. The average of first and second numbers is 66
and the average of 4th and 5th number is 86. Find the third number.
Answer : 3rd number is = 323 ( 132 + 172 ) = 323 304 = 19.
Example 7: The average salary of 25 employee in a company per month is Rs.6000. If the salary
of managers is added than the salary is increase is Rs. 6500. What would be the salary of the
managers ?
Answer : average salary of employee in company is = 6000
when added one member salry 25 + 1 = 26 = 6500.
So, (26 x 6500)-(25 x 6000) = 169000 150000 = 19000
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Example 8:
What would be the average of first 20 multiplies of 5.
Answer:
Required average = 5 ( 1 + 2 + 3 +.. + 20) /20
= ( 5 x 20 x 21 / 20 x 2) = 2100 / 40 = 52.5.
So the Required average is 52.5.
Example 9:
The average marks of 13 students is 40, the first six students is 30 and that of the last six students
is 32. Find the value of the 7th number.
Answer :
Shortcut tricks :
7th student marks number = Total of 13 students result ( Total of first six students + Total of
last six students results )
= 13 x 40 ( 6 x 30 + 6 x 32 )
= 520 180 + 192
= 148.
Example 10:
The average of five numbers is 29, if one number is exclude the average becomes 27. what is the
exclude number ?
Answer :
let the exclude number is
= ( 29 x 5 ) ( 27 x 4 )
= 145 108
= 37.
The exclude number 37.
Problems on average
Q1. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate
in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
1.
2.
3.
4.
9.21
4
6.25
10
Answer is:6.25
Q2. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average
sale of Rs. 6500?
1. Rs. 6991
2. Rs. 6001
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3. Rs. 4991
4. Rs. 5991
Answer is:Rs. 4991
Q3. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years
older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is one year
less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age of the team?
1.
2.
3.
4.
23 years
25 years
24 years
None of these
Answer is:23 years
Q4. In Aruns opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother does not
agree with Arun and he thinks that Aruns weight is greater than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. His
mothers view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all are them are correct in their
estimation, what is the average of different probable weights of Arun?
1.
2.
3.
4.
68 kg.
69 kg.
67 kg.
66 kg.
Answer is:67 kg
Q5. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and
that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
17 kg
20 kg
26 kg
31 kg
Answer is:31 kg
Q6. A pupils marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for
the class got increased by half (1/2). The number of pupils in the class is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
40
20
50
72
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Answer is:40
Q7. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income of Q and
R is Rs. 6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The monthly income of P
is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
3500
4000
4500
5000
Answer is:4000
Q8. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average
sale of Rs. 6500?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Rs. 4991
Rs. 5991
Rs. 6001
Rs. 6991
Answer is:Rs. 4991
Q9. The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 50.25 kg and that of the remaining 8 boys is
45.15 kg. Find the average weights of all the boys in the class.
1.
2.
3.
4.
47.55 kg
48 kg
48.55 kg
49.25 kg
Answer is:48.55 kg
Q10. If the average marks of three batches of 55, 60 and 45 students respectively is 50, 55, 60,
then the average marks of all the students is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
52.33
54.68
60
62.21
Answer is:54.68
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6.Percentage
All quantitative aptitude examinations will have questions based on percentage system. Most of
the questions from this category are related to change of percentages or successive change of
percentages.
With the help of percentage tricks we can apply this to the various form like ratio, profit loss,
time and distance, graphs, pie chart etc these are basically are the form of percentage and if you
clear the basic concept it will be beneficial in many ways.
Fractio
Percentage
n
1/1
100%
1/2
50%
1/3
33.33%
1/4
25%
1/5
20%
1/6
16.66%
1/7
14.28%
1/8
12.5%
1/9
11.11%
1/10
10%
1/15
6.66%
1/20
5%
1/25
4%
1/30
3.33%
1/40
2.5%
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1/50
2%
1/60
1.66%
1/75
1.33%
1/80
1.25%
1/90
1.11%
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1/100 1%
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7.PROFIT AND LOSS

Cost Price:
The price, at which an article is purchased, is called its cost price, abbreviated as C.P.
Selling Price:
The price, at which an article is sold, is called its selling prices, abbreviated as S.P.
Profit or Gain:
If S.P. is greater than C.P., the seller is said to have a profit or gain.
Loss:
If S.P. is less than C.P., the seller is said to have incurred a loss.
IMPORTANT FORMULAE
1.
2.
3.
4.
Gain = (S.P.) - (C.P.)

Loss = (C.P.) - (S.P.)
Loss or gain is always reckoned on C.P.
Gain Percentage: (Gain %)
Gain % =
Gain x 100
C.P.
5. Loss Percentage: (Loss %)

Loss % =
Loss x 100
C.P.
6. Selling Price: (S.P.)

SP =
(100 + Gain %)
x C.P
100
7. Selling Price: (S.P.)

SP =
(100 - Loss %)
x C.P.
100
8. Cost Price: (C.P.)
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C.P. =
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100
x S.P.
(100 + Gain %)
9. Cost Price: (C.P.)

C.P. =
100
x S.P.
(100 - Loss %)
10. If an article is sold at a gain of say 35%, then S.P. = 135% of C.P.
11. If an article is sold at a loss of say, 35% then S.P. = 65% of C.P.
12. When a person sells two similar items, one at a gain of say x%, and the other at a loss of
x%, then the seller always incurs a loss given by:
Loss % =
Common Loss and Gain %

x
2=
2.
10
10
13. If a trader professes to sell his goods at cost price, but uses false weights, then
Gain % =
Error
x 100
(True Value) - (Error)
%.
Profit and Loss Based on Cost Price

To find the percent gain or loss, divide the amount gained or lost by the cost and multiply it
by 100.
Example: A toy that cost 80 rupees is sold at a profit of 20 rupees. Find the percent or rate of
profit.
Answer:
Gain/cost 100 = % profit.
20/80 100 = 25%. Answer
To find the loss and the selling price when the cost and the percent loss are given, multiply
the cost by the percent and subtract the product from the cost.
Example: A damaged chair that cost Rs.110 was sold at a loss of 10%. Find the loss and the
selling price.
Answer:
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Cost x percent loss = loss.

110 x 1/10 = 11, loss.
Cost loss = selling price.
110 11 = 99, selling price.
Profit and Loss Based on Selling Price
To find the profit and the cost when the selling price and the percent profit are given,
multiply the selling price by the percent profit and subtract the result from the selling
price.
Example: A toy is sold for Rs. 6.00 at a profit of 25% of the selling price. Separate this selling
price into cost and profit.
Answer :
Selling price x % profit = profit.
Selling price = profit + cost.
6.00 x .25 = 1.50, profit.
6.00 1.50 = 4.50, cost.
To find the loss and the cost when the selling price and the percent loss are given, multiply
the selling price by the percent loss and subtract the result from the selling price.
Example: At a sale, neckties selling at Rs. 50.00 are sold at a loss of 60% of selling price. What
is the loss and the original cost?
Selling price x % loss = loss.
Selling price + loss = cost.
50.00 x .60 = 30.00, loss.
50.00 30.00 = 20.00, cost.
To find the selling price when the cost and the percent loss are given, add the percent loss
to 100% and divide the cost by this sum.
Example: Socks that cost 7.00 per pair were sold at a loss of 25% of selling price. What was the
selling price?
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Answer: Cost / (100% + % loss) = selling price.

7.00 / 1.25 = 5.60, selling price.
To find the selling price when the profit and the percent profit are given, or to find the
selling price when the loss and the percent loss are given, divide the profit or loss by the
percent profit or loss.
Note: This rule should be compared with the one under Profit and Loss Based on Cost. The two
rules are exactly similar except that in one case 100% represents cost while in the other case
100% represents selling price.
Example: A kind of tape is selling at a profit of 12% of selling price, equal to 18 per yard. What
is the selling price of the tape?
Answer: Profit / % profit = selling price.
18 /.12 = 1.50 selling price.
To find the percent profit or loss, divide the amount gained or lost by the selling price.
Example: A candy bar sells for 1.30 at a profit of 65. What percent of profit on selling price
does this represent?
Answer: Gain / selling price = % profit.
65 / 1.30 = .5 or 50% profit.
Mark-up Price
Generally the SP is less than the marked price (MP) the difference MP SP is known as
discount, D.
Discount = M P S P
Discount %, D% = (Discount) / (M P) 100
To reduce percent loss on cost to percent loss on selling price, divide percent loss on cost by
100% minus percent loss on cost.
Example: 20% loss on cost is what percent loss on selling price?
Answer:
% loss on cost / (100% % loss on cost) = % loss on selling price.
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0.20 / 80 = .0025 or 25% loss on selling price

To reduce percent loss on selling price to percent loss on cost, divide percent loss on selling
price by 100% plus percent loss on selling price.
Example: 20% loss on selling price is what percent loss on cost?
Answer:
% loss on selling price / (100% + % loss on selling price) = % loss on cost.
.20 / 1.20 = .16666 or .16.67% loss on cost.
To reduce percent mark-up (percent profit on cost) to percent profit on selling price, divide
percent mark-up by 100% plus percent mark-up.
Example: A coat marked up 60% carries what percent of profit on selling price?
Answer : % profit on cost / ( 100% + % profit on cost ) = % profit on selling price.
.60 / 1.60 = .375 or 37.5% on selling price.
Type 1:
The cost price of 40 articles is the same as the selling price of 25 articles. Find the gain per
cent. (CGL-2012)
(a) 65%
(b) 60%
(c) 15%
(d) 75%
Answer: (b) Gain per cent
=(40-25)/25100
=15/25100=60%
shortcut methods
In Above question We take x = 40 , y = 25
Then Gain % = (x y) x 100/ y
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Type2:
Bananas are bought at the rate of 6 for Rs. 5 and sold at the rate of 5 for Rs. 6. Profit per
cent is: (CGL-2004)
(a) 36%
(b) 42%
(c) 44%
(d) 48%
Answer : (c) To avoid fraction, let the number of bananas bought
LCM of 5 and 6 = 30
CP of 30 bananas
= 5 x 5 = Rs. 25
SP of 30 Bananas = 6 x 6
= Rs. 36
Profit = Rs. (36-25) = Rs. 11
Profit %
= 11/25100=44%
shortcut Method
[(6 x 6 -5x 5)/ (5 x 5)] x 100 = 44%
Type 3:
A man bought oranges at the rate of 8 for Rs 34 and sold them at the rate of 12 for Rs. 57.
How many oranges should be sold to earn a net profit of Rs 45? (CGL-2011)
(a) 90
(b) 100
(c) 135
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(d) 150
Answers: (a) Let the man buy 24 (LCM of 8 and 12) oranges.
C.P. of 24 oranges = 34/8 24 = Rs. 102
S.P. of 24 oranges = 27/1224= Rs. 114
Gain = 114 102 = Rs. 12
Rs. 12 = 24 oranges
Rs. 45 = 24/1245= 90 oranges
Type 4:
A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on printed price.
The ratio of the cost price to printed price of the book is ? (CGL-2013)
(a) 45 : 56
(b) 50 : 61
(c) 90 : 97
(d) 99 : 125
Answer: (a) C.P. of the book = Rs. x
Printed price = Rs. y
(y90)/100=x 112/100
x/y=90/112=45/56
Type 5:
A dealer sold two types of goods for Rs 10,000 each. On one of them, he lost 20% and on
the other he gained 20%. His gain or loss per cent in the entire transaction was (CGL-2012)
(a) 2% loss
(b) 2% gain
(c) 4% gain
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(d) 4% loss
Answers: (d) Here, S.P. is same, Hence there is always a loss. Loss per cent =(2020)/100=4%
shortcut Trick
Loss % = (n^2)/100= (20)^2/100= 4%
Where n= 20
Type 6:
On selling an article for Rs170, a shopkeeper loses 15%. In order to gain 20%, he must sell
that article at rupees: (CGL-2013)
(a) 215.50
(b) 212.50
(c) 240
(d) 210
Answer ; (c) C.P. of article = (200120)/100 = Rs. 240
Type 7:
An article is sold at a loss of 10%. Had it been sold for Rs. 9 more, there would have been a
gain of 12 1/2% on it. The cost price of the article is (CGL 2002)
(a) Rs. 40
(b) Rs. 45
(c) Rs. 50
(d) Rs. 35
Answers: (a) Let the cost price of the article = Rs. x
S.P. at 10% loss
= x90/100= Rs. 9x/10
1. P. at 12 1/2 % gain
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x (100+12 1/2)/100 = Rs. 225x/200

According to the question
9x/10 + 9 = 225x/200
180x + 1800 = 225x
x = Rs. 40
Type 8:
A sells a suitcase to B at 10% profit. B sells it to C at 30% profit. If C pays Rs 2860 for it,
then the price at which a bought it is (CGL-2013)
(a) 1000
(b) 1600
(c) 2000
(d) 2500
Answer: (c) If the C.P. of the suitcase for A be Rs. x, then
x 110/100130/100=2860
x=(2860100100)/(110130) = Rs. 2000
Type 9:
Arun marks up the computer he is selling by 20% profit and sells them at a discount of
15%. Aruns net gain percent is
(CGL-2013)
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3.5
(d) 2.5
Answer (b)
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shortcut method:
r1 = 20 , r2 = 15
Formula = r1 r2 (r1 x r2)/100
(20-15-(2015)/100)
= 20 -18 = 2%
Type10:
A tradesman sold an article at a loss of 20%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs.
100, there would have been a gain of 5%. The cost price of the article was: (CGL-2004)
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 25
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 250
Answer (c) Let the C.P. of article be Rs. x.
105% of x 80% of x = Rx. 100
25% of x = Rx. 100
x = Rs. (100100)/25
= Rs. 400
Cost Price of Particle is 100%

Selling Price of Particle is 130%
Profit of Particle after Selling 30%
Formula: Gain % = (Gain x 100/C.P)
Example 1: P sells a item to Q at a profit of 20% and Q sells it to R at a profit of 25%. If R pays
Rs 225 for it. Find the cost price for it.
Answer : Required price is = 100 x 100 x 225 / 120 x 125 = Rs. 150
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Example 2: A boy purchased an item for Rs.80 and sold it for Rs.100. What would be his %
profit ?
Answer : CP of the item = Rs. 80
SP of the item = Rs. 100
Profit of the boy 100 80 = Rs.20
% profit = profit x 100 / CP
%p = 20 x 100 / 80 = 25%
Trick : % p = 20 x 100 / 80 = 25%
Example 3: If selling price of an item is 6 / 5 of its cost price than what would be profit in that ?
Answer : Let Cost Price is X.
Selling Price is 6X / 5
Gain = 6X / 5 X = X / 5
Gain% = X x 1 x 100 / 5 x X = 20%
Example 4: A shopkeeper bought 80 kg of onion for Rs. 640 and sold the whole onion at the
price of Rs. 8.50/kg. What would be his gain percent ?
Answer : Cost price 1 kg = 640 / 80 = Rs. 8
Selling price = of 1 kg = 8.50
gain% = 0.50 x 100 / 8 = 6.25%
Example 4: A shopkeeper sells one radio for Rs.840 at a gain of 20% and another for Rs.1056 a
loss of 4%. What would be his total gain or loss percent ?
Answer : C.P of first radio is = Rs. (100 x 840 / 120) = Rs.700
C.P of 2nd radio is = Rs. (100 x 1056 / 96) = Rs.1100
Total S.P = 840+ 1056 = 1896
Profit = ( 1896 1800 ) = Rs.96
Profit % = 96 x 100 / 1800 = 5.33%.
Example 5: By selling an item for Rs. 250, gains Rs. 50. what would be his gain % ?
Answer : Cost price of an Item is ( 250 50) = Rs.200
So, Profit % = 50 x 100 / 200 = 25%.
Example 6:
By selling an item For Rs.260 one gains Rs. 20, Then What would be her gain % ?
Answer:
Cost price = 260 -20 = Rs.240.
Profit% = 20 x 100 / 240 = 8.33%.
Example 7: Sabir purchase an article for Rs.40 and sells it for Rs. 60. Find his gain percent.
Answer: C.P = 40 and S.P = 60.
Gain= 60 40 = 20 .
Gain % = 20 x 100/40 = 50%
So, his gain percent is 50%
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Example 8: Rana purchase an ball for Rs.80 and sells it for Rs. 100. Find his gain percent.
Gain= 100 80 = 20
Gain % = 20 x 100/80 = 25%
So,his gain percent is 25%.
Example 9: A farmer purchase an article for Rs.25 and sells it for Rs. 28. Find his gain percent.
Gain= 28 25 = 3
Gain % = 3 x 100/25 = 12%
So, his gain percent is 12%.
Example 10: A untruthful retailer sell his product at cost price however uses a weight of 950
grams for a kg weight. Find his gain percent.
Answer : we apply gain% formula
1 Kg = 1000 grams.
Profit of untruthful retailer = ( 1000 grams 950 grams ) = 50 grams.
Gain% = [ Error x 100 / ( True Value ) (Error) ]%
50 x 100 / 950 = 100 / 19%
So, his gain percent is 100 / 19%.
Example 11: A dishonest wholesaler sell his goods at a cost price and use weight of 800 gm
instead of kilogram weight. what profit he is make ?
Answer : 200 x 100 / 800 = 25%.
Example 12: A women went to shop to bought chocolate at 6 for a rupee. To gain 20% profit
how many for a rupee she sail ?
Answer : Cost price 6 chocolate 1 rupee.
So, To Gain 20% of 1 rupee = 100 / 120 = 5 / 6.
= 5 x 6 / 6 = 5.
To gain 20% profit she sail for a rupee of 5.
Example 13: Sunita bought a TV for Rs.18000, and sold it by Rs.22000, How much profit she
get ?
Answer : ( 22000 18000 ) = 4000.
profit she get = 4000 x 100 / 18000 = 200 / 9 = 22.222222222%.
So, his gain profit is 22.222222222%.
Example 14: Nilesh in his shop mixes rice of 22 Kg at Rs. 18 per kg of with other type rice of 24
Kg of Rs. 16 er kg. and sell the new mixture of Rs. 20 per kg. What would be his profit percent ?
Answer: 22 x 18 + 24 x 16 = ( 396 + 384 ) = 780.
Total kg of rice = 22 + 24 = 46
selling price is = ( 46 x 20 ) = 920.
profit = ( 920 780 ) = 140.
profit % = 140 x 100 / 780 = 17.95%.
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Example 15: Samir bought a car at 11 / 15 of its selling price and after that sold it at 15% more
then its selling price. What would be his gain ?
Answer: Let Selling price be x Rs.
Cost price is 11 / 15 x,
sold it more 15% that is = 115% of Rs x is = 115 / 100 = 23 / 20x.
So gain = 23 / 20 11 / 15 = 5 / 12.
So gain% is = 5 x 15 x 100 / 12 x 11 = 625 / 11 %.
Example 16: Some goods item was purchased at 7 for Rs. 6 and that is sold at 6 for Rs. 7. What
would be the gain percent ?
Answer: So, Number of goods was purchase = We need to do is L.C.M of 7 and 6 = 42.
So Cost price 42 goods item = Rs 6 x 42 / 7 = 36.
Selling Price of 42 goods item is = 7 x 42 / 6 = 49.
So gain = ( 49 36 ) = 13
gain% is = 13 x 100 / 36 = 325/9%.
Example 17:
Find her gain or loss percent if a women purchase oranges at 5 for Rs. 4 and sold them at 4 for
Rs 5.
Answer : Let she purchase number of oranges L.C.M of 5 & 4
Cost price = Rs. (4 x 20 / 5) = Rs. 16
So, Selling price = Rs. (5 x 20 / 4 ) = Rs. 25
Profit = 25-16 / 16 = 9/16
So, gain percent = ( 9 x 100/16)% =56.25%
Loss percent Shortcut tricks

Formula: Loss% = (Loss x 100/C.P)
Example 1: A Sunglasses is sold at the price of Rs. 770 and gained profit 10%. If it sold at the
price of 680 then Find the profit and loss.
Answer : Cost Price = 100 x 770 / 110 = 700
C.P = Rs. 700
Loss = 700 680 = Rs. 20
Example 2: A boy sold his two mobile each at Rs. 1800. On 1st mobile he loss 10% and on 2nd
mobile he gained 10%. What would be his total loss % or profit % ?
Answer : There is always loss in this type of case.
Loss % = 102 / 100 = 1.
Example 3: A girls purchase a book for Rs. 200 and sell it for Rs 180. What would be her loss
percent ?
Answer : loss % = loss x 100 / CP
( 200 180 ) = 20
20 x 100 / 200 = 10%.
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Example 4: Monty bought a Led Tv and a smart phone for Rs. 16,000/- and Rs. 12,000/-. He
sold his Led Tv a loss of 10% and mobile at a Profit of 6%. What is his overall loss/profit ?
Answer : Total Cost price = ( 16000 + 12000 ) = 28,000.
Selling price of Tv = 16,000 x 90 / 100 = 14,400.
Selling price of mobile = 12,000 x 106 / 100 = 12,720.
Total selling price = ( 14,400 + 12,720 ) = 27,120.
So, Loss = ( 28,000 27,120 ) = 880.
Example 5: Amit loss 20% on mobile selling price, What percent loss he made on the cost price
?
Answer : Suppose Selling price is Rs. 100.
if loss 20% then cost price Rs. 120.
So, Loss% = ( 20 x 100 / 120 )% = 16.66 %.
Example 6:
A man purchased a toy for Rs. 120 and sold it for Rs. 90, Find the loss Percent.
Answer :
C.P = 120 and S.P =90
So We Know the formula of Loss = C. P S.P . Loss = (120 90) = 30
Loss% = 30 x 100/120 = 25%
So, the loss Percent is 25%.
Example 7:
Anil purchased a mobile for Rs. 12000 and sold it for Rs. 8000, Find the loss Percent.
Answer :
C.P = 12000 and S.P =8000
So We Know the formula of Loss = C. P S.P, Loss = (12000 8000) = 4000.
%Loss = 4000 x 100/12000 = 33.33%.
So, the loss Percent is 33.33%.
Example 8:
10% loss on selling price is what percent loss on the cost price ?
Answer :
consider selling price be = Rs.100, Then loss = Rs.10
Cost price = Rs.( 100 + 10 ) = 110
So, loss% = ( 10 / 110 x 100 ) = 100 / 11 %
Example 9:
A farmer purchased a cow for Rs. 200 and sold it for Rs. 180, Find the loss Percent.
Answer :
C.P = 200 and S.P =180
So We Know the formula of Loss = C.P S.P . Loss = (200 180) =20
%Loss = 20 x 100 / 200 = 10%.
So, the loss Percent is 10%.
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Example 10: Sachin sold his mobile for Rs. 6600 and gain 10%. What will his gain or loss per
cent if it sold at price for Rs. 5640 ?
Answer : Cost price of mobile = 6600 x 100 / 110 = 6000.
if sold at Rs.5640 then ( 6000 5640 ) = 360
loss % = 360 x 100 / 6000 = 6%.
Example 11: Anil bought an mobile phone for Rs.6500 and he sold it to suresh at 25% loss, He
again bought another mobile and sold it at 20% profit. Find his profit or loss.
Answer : bought price is Rs. 6500
Selling price of mobile = 6500 x 75 x 120 / 100 x 100 = 5850
Loss = ( 6500 5850 ) = 650/Example 12: Harish sold his two sunglasses for Rs. 750 each. On one he loss 15% and on
another he gained 15%. How much does he gain or loss ?
Answer : Remember point : In this type cases there is always loss arises,
Formula : Loss% = ( Common loss and gain% / 10 )2
( 15 / 10 ) 2 % = ( 3 / 2 )2 % = 9 / 4 = 2.25%
Example 13: Ajit bought 11 apples for Rs. 12 and sells 12 apples Rs.11. How much profit or
loss he make ?
Answer :
Short cut tricks :
% profit or loss = ( 11 x 11 12 x 12 ) x 100 / 12 x 12 = 2300 / 144 = 15.97%.
Sign is negative or -ve so, He makes loss of 15.97%.
Find selling Price Profit and Loss Shortcut tricks
Formula: S.P = (100+Gain%)/100 x C.P.
Example 1: If badminton at a price ranging from Rs. 250 to 285 are sold at price ranging from
Rs. 375 to 480. What would be the possible profit that might made in selling nine books ?
Answer : Cost price = 250 x 9 = Rs.2250
Selling Price = 480 x 9 = Rs.4320
Profit = (4320 2250) = Rs.2070
Example 2: Sunny bought a mobile for Rs. 1560/- and then he sold it at loss of 15% of the cost
price, Find the selling price of mobile.
Answer : (100 15)% = 85%
1560 x 85 / 100 = 1326.
Example 3: On selling a profit earned on item for Rs. 750 is double the loss incurred when sold
it Rs. 350.At what price should the item be sold to make 25% profit ?
Answer : Let the cost price is X.
Then, (750 X) = 2(X 350)
= 750 X = 2X 750
3X = 1500
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X = 500
To make 25% profit selling price should be = 500 x 125 / 100 = Rs.625
Example 4: We can find the Selling Price of article Using this above Formula
If C.P of a product is a Rs. 180, Gain = 30%, then Find the S.P.
Answer: S.P = ?
S.P = 130% of Rs. 180, Gain = ( 100+30 ) = 130, ( 130 / 100 x 180 ) = Rs. 234
So, Selling Price is Rs. 234
Shortcut Tricks
130/100 x 180 = 234.
Formula: S.P = (100 Loss%) / 100 x C.P
Example 5: If C.P of a product is a Rs. 180 , Loss = 30%, then Find the S.P.
Answer: S.P. = ?
S.P = 70% of Rs. 180, Loss = (100 30) = 70, ( 70/100 x 180 ) = Rs. 126
So the Selling Price is Rs. 126
Shortcut Tricks
70/100 x 180 = 126
Example 6:
Rajan bought a bike for Rs.60,000 and spent Rs. 4000 on repair and Rs. 1000 on transport and
sold it with 25% profit. What price did he sell the car ?
Solution:
Cost price =Rs. 60,000 Spent on repair =Rs. 4000 transport =Rs. 1000 and profit 25%
So, Cost price =Rs.( 60,000 + 4000 + 1000 ) = Rs. 65,000
So, Selling price = Rs. 65,000 x 125 / 100 = 81250.
Example 7: Niraj sold an item for Rs. 8500/- and he got loss on this 15%, To gain 15% profit At
what price should he sold the item ?
Solution : Cost price of item is = 8500 x 100 / 85 = 10000.
Selling price is 10000 x 115 / 100 = 11500.
Shortcut tricks: 8500 x 100 x 115 / 85 x 100 = 11500.
Example 8: Sushil purchase 25 candys for a rupee, how many must be he sold for a rupee that
he gain 25% ?
Solution : If he wants to profit 15% then he should sell less number of candy.
Shortcut tricks: 100 x 25 / 125 = 20
If he sold 20 candys then he gain 25% profit.
Example 9: Raman sold his old bike for Rs. 18000/- and he got loss on this 25%, To gain 25%
profit At what price should he sold the bike ?
Solution : Cost price of bike is 18000 x 100 / 75 = 24000.
Selling price is 24000 x 125 / 100 = 30000.
Shortcut tricks: 18000 x 100 x 125 / 75 x 100 = 30000.
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Example 10: A Mobile price Rs 6500 was sold at a loss of 20%. Find the selling price of mobile.
Solution : Shortcut tricks: 6500 x 80 / 100 = 5200.
Selling price of mobile is 5200.
Example 11: Manoj bought 140 Kg of apple at Rs. 60/Kg. After that he spent Rs.100 on carrier,
paid Rs.100 for packaging. He gain 6% on it, What would be the selling price per dozen ?
Solution : ( 140 x 60) + 100 + 100 = 8600.
8600 x 106 / 100 = 9116.
Selling price per dozen = 9116 / 140 = 65.114285714.
Example 12: A watch price Rs 1600 was sold at a profit of 16%. Find the selling price of
mobile.
Solution : Shortcut tricks: 1600 x 116 / 100 = 1856.
Selling price of mobile is 1856.
Example 13: In a showroom list price of an item is 6500 and shopkeeper sell it at successive
discount price of 15% and 10%, What would be its net selling price ?
Solution : Shortcut tricks: 6500 x 85 x 90 / 100 x 100 = 4972.5.
Find cost price Profit and Loss Shortcut tricks

Formula: C.P =100 x S.P/(100+Gain%).
Example 1: Nitin got a profit of 20% on selling an item for Rs. 5400/-. What was the cost price
of that item ?
Answer : 5400 x 100 / 140 = 4500.
Example 2: If S.P of a article is Rs. 240, then Gain 20%, Find the C.P.
Answer: C.P.= ?
C.P . = 100 x 240 / ( 100+20 )
=24000/120 = 200
C.P. = 200
shortcut Tricks:
100 x 240/( 120 ) = 200.
Formula: C.P = 100 x S.P/(100 Loss%).
Example 3: If S.P of a article is Rs. 240, then Loss 20%, Find the C.P.
Answer: C.P. = ?
C.P. = 100 x 240 / ( 100 20 )
= 24000 / 80 = 300
shortcut Tricks:
100 x 240 / 80 = 300.
Example 4: Anil sells a mobile to samir at the profit of 15% and samir Sell it to Tonny at the
profit 20%, And If Tonny paid for Rs 345. Find the cost price of Anil ?
Answer:
Shortcut tricks : 345 x 100 x 100 / 115 x 120 = 250
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Example 5: Amit sold balls for Rs 180, if he loss of 10%. What is the cost price of the ball ?
Answer: C.P = Rs. 100 x 180 / 90 = 200
Example 6: Samar sells a item to suresh at the profit of 10% and suresh Sell it to tanmoy at the
profit 25%, And If Tanmoy paid for Rs 550. Find the cost price of samar ?
Answer:
Shortcut tricks : 550 x 100 x 100 / 110 x 125 = 400
Example 7: Nilam Sold an item at the profit of 16%, If she sold that item For Rs 12 more then
he will get 18% gained, Find the cost price of the mobile ?
Answer:
Short cut tricks formula : Cost price = gained percentage profit x 100 / both percentage profit
in difference
Short cut tricks :18 x 100 / 18 16 = 900
Example 8: Harris sold his watch at profit of 18%. If selling price and cost price both are 120
less, then more profit would be 6%. What would be its cost price ?
Answer:
If selling price and cost price both are less by same amount.
Shortcut tricks: ( increasing profit percent + primary profit percent ) x Amount / increasing
profit percent
( 18 + 6 ) x 120 / 6 = 2880 / 6 = 480
Example 9: Nitin Sold his mobile at the profit of 12%, If he sold his mobile For Rs 25 more then
he will get 16% gained, Find the cost price of the mobile ?
Answer:
Short cut tricks formula : Cost price = gained percentage profit x 100 / both percentage profit
in difference
Short cut tricks :16 x 100 / 16 12 = 400
Example 10: jitten earns a profit of 20% on selling an item for Rs.2640/-, What is the cost price
of the item ?
Answer:
Shortcut : 100 x 2640 / 120 = Rs.2200
cost price of the item Rs.2200.
Example 11: The shop owner marked his goods 25% more then the cost price, A customer paid
Rs. 7850 for wooden dressing table. What is the cost price of wooden dressing table ?
Answer :
Shortcut : 7850 x 100 / 125 = Rs. 6280
cost price of wooden dressing table Rs. 6280.
Profit and Loss Hard Example - Math Shortcut Tricks
Example 1: Sanjay invest Rs.36000/- to start a business. 4 month later subham joined him and
invested Rs.64000/- and another 2 month later Sonali joined them both with Rs. 40000/-, At end
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of the year they earned profit from business Rs.14800/-. Find the share of profit of shubham.
Answer : Shortcut:
Sanjay : subham : Sonali = 36000 x 12 : 64000 x 8 : 40000 x 6 = 27 : 32 : 15
Share of profit of shubham 14800 x 32 / 74 = Rs.6400/-.
Example 1: What would be the equality discount of 50%and 26% ?
Answer : Let the marginal price be = Rs.100
Net selling price is = 100 x 50 x 74 / 100 x 100 = Rs.37
Required discount is = (100 37)% = 63%
Example 2: Bikash Rs 6500/- sold a mobile and loss 10%, to gained 20% profit on it What price
should he sold that mobile ?
Answer :
Short cut : 6500 x 100 x 120 / 80 x 100 = 9750
he sold that mobile Rs. 9750.
Example 3: Mr. Prakash purchase an Led Tv for Rs. 18000/- And sold it after a year it for Rs.
22500/-. What is the profit percent ?
Answer : 22500 18000 = 4500
4500 x 100 / 18000 = 2.5%.
Example 4 :
If the C.P is 75% of the selling price, then What is the profit percent ?
Answer :
Let S.P = Rs 100,
Then C.P = 75
Profit = Rs 25
Profit% = ?
= 25x 100 / 75
= 100 / 3 = 33.3
Profit % = 33.3
Example 5 :
Find the single discount equivalent to a series discount of 30%, 20% and 10%.
Answer :
Let price be Rs. 100.
Then Net S.P = ( 90 x 80 x 70 / 100 x 100 x 100 ) x 100
= 36 x 7 / 5
= 252 / 5
= 50.4
Required Discount is = ( 100 50.4 ) = 49.6
Example 6 :
A Farmer purchased a cow and carriage for Rs. 3500. He sold the cow at a gain of 35% and the
carriage at loss of 10%, So gaining 2% on the entire. Find the cost of the cow.
Answer :
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We consider C.P of the cow Rs. x

Then C.P of the Carriage Rs. ( 3500 x )
So,
35% of x 10% of ( 3500 x ) = 2% of 3500
( 35x / 100 ) 10( 3500 x ) / 100 = 2 x 3500 / 100
( 7x / 20 ) ( 3500 x ) / 10 = 70
5x 7000 = 1400
5x = 1400 + 7000
x = 8400 / 5
x = 1680.
the cost of the cow is 1680.
Example 7: Puja sold her mobile for Rs 2650/- and earned a profit 25%, What is the cost price
of the mobile ?
Answer:
Short cuttricks : 2650 x 100 / 125 = 2120
Example 8: Anil invest in a business Rs. 56000/- , After that four month later Bikash join and
investing Rs. 62000/- and another friend 2 month later Dinesh join them and investing Rs.
60000/-, at end of 1 year they earn the profit of Rs. 28650/-, Find dinesh the share of profit ?
Answer:
56000 x 12= 672000
62000 x 8 = 496000
60000 x 6 = 360000
672000 : 496000 : 360000
84 : 62 : 45
( 84 + 62 + 45 ) = 191
28650 x 45 / 191 = 6750
dinesh the share of profit 6750.
Example 9: Sachin sell some portion of 100 kgs of rice at 16% profit and remaining portion sells
at 26% profit. If total profit percent is 20 then what is the quantity sold by him at 6% profit ?
Answer :
Short cut tricks :
16 26
20
6 4
The ration is 6 : 4
So the required quantity of 6% is = 100 x 6 / 10 = 60 kg
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Example 10: Difference between 65% of a number and 45% of the same number is 3260. What
is 65% of that number ?
Answer:
65% 45% = 3260
20% = 3260
So 65% of that number is =
3260 x 65 / 20 = 10595.
The number is 10595.
Example 11 : Souman bought an item for Rs. 6500/- and sold it 25% loss. after that he purchase
from that money another item and sold it at 20% profit. What is his total profit ?
Answer : 6500 x 75 x 120 / 100 x 100 = 5850
6500 5850 = 650.
Some other examples:
Example 1: An item marked at Rs 60 is sold for Rs.48. So the rate of discount is:
Answer : ( 12 x 100 / 60 )% = 20%.
Example 2: Sushil bought a Tv with an extra discount of 20% on the reduced price, and then
deducted 10% from on marked price. If marked price was 2400, What price did he buy that TV ?
Answer :
Shortcut tricks:
Cost price of Tv = 2400 x 80 x 90 / 100 x 100 = 1728.
Example 3:
If the cost price of 14 pens is equal to the selling price of 8 pens, the gain percent is :
Answer :
Let C.P of each pen is Rs. 1 Then,
C.P of 8 pens = Rs. 8 : S.P price of 8 pens = Rs.14
Gain % = 6 x 100 / 8 = 75%
the gain percent is 75%.
Example 4: On Selling 16 pens, a Hole seller making a profit equal to the selling price of 6 pens,
What would be the his profit percent ?
Answer : Selling price of 16 pens cost price of 16 pens = selling price of 6 pens
cost price of 16 pens = selling price of 10 pens
Let cost price of each pens Rs. 1.
So, Cost price of 10 pens = Rs. 10
Selling price of 10 pens = Rs. 16.
gain% = ( 6 x 100 / 10 )% = 60%
Example 5: Souman bought a cycle with an extra discount of 20% on the reduced price, and
then deducted 10% from on marked price. If marked price was 2400, What price did he buy that
cycle?
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Answer :
Shortcut tricks:
Cost price of Tv = 2400 x 80 x 90 / 100 x 100 = 1728.
Example 6:
The Profit gained by selling an item for Rs.630 is equal to the loss incurred if the same article is
sold for Rs. 370. To gain 50% profit what would be the sale price ?
Answer:
Let C.P price be x
Then
630 x = x 370
2x =1000
x = 500
Required S.P = 150% of 500
= 150 x 500 / 100
= 750
the sale price for making 50% profit is 750.
Example 7: A item is sold with 15% discount on the listed price and gave profit of Rs. 86. What
should its cost price ?
Answer: because the marked price has not given so thats why we cannot be determined.
Example 8: A shop keeper mixes 25 kg of sugar at Rs. 22 per kg with 35 kg of sugar of other
type at Rs. 42 per kg and then sells that mixture at Rs. 35 per Kg. What would be his profit
percent ?
Answer:
Cost price of 60 kg sugar = Rs. ( 25 x 22 + 35 x 42 ) = ( 550 + 1400 ) = 2020
and Selling price of 60 kg sugar is = Rs ( 60 x 35 ) = 2100
So, gain % = 80 x 100 / 2020 = 3.96%.
Example 9:
On selling 15 book at Rs. 640, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 books. What would be
the cost price of a book ?
Answer:
(C.P. of 15 books) (S.P. of 15 books) = (C.P. of 5 books)
C.P. of 10 books = S.P. of 15 books = Rs.640.
C.P. of 1 books = Rs.(640 / 10) = Rs. 64.
Example 10: Some Apples were bought at 7 Apples for Rs. 6 and sold at 6 Apples for Rs. 7.
What would be Gain percent ?
Answer : So, Number of Apples bought = L.C.M. of 7 and 6 = 42.
C.P. of 42 Apples = Rs.6 x 42 / 7 = Rs.36.
S.P. of 42 Apples = Rs.7 x 42 / 6 = Rs.49.
Gain % = ( 15 x 100 / 36 ) % = 41.66%.
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8.Ratio and Proportion

Ratio and Proportion - Important Formulas
Ratio:
The ratio of two quantities a and b in the same units, is the fraction and we write it as a : b.
In the ratio a : b, we call a as the first term or antecedent and b, the second term or consequent.
5
Eg. The ratio 5 : 9 represents with antecedent = 5, consequent = 9.
9
Rule: The multiplication or division of each term of a ratio by the same non-zero number does
not affect the ratio.
Eg. 4 : 5 = 8 : 10 = 12 : 15. Also, 4 : 6 = 2 : 3.
Proportion:
The equality of two ratios is called proportion.
If a : b = c : d, we write a : b :: c : d and we say that a, b, c, d are in proportion.
Here a and d are called extremes, while b and c are called mean terms.
Product of means = Product of extremes.
Thus, a : b :: c : d
(b x c) = (a x d).
Fourth Proportional:
If a : b = c : d, then d is called the fourth proportional to a, b, c.
Third Proportional:
a : b = c : d, then c is called the third proportion to a and b.
Mean Proportional:
Mean proportional between a and b is ab.
Comparison of Ratios:
We say that (a : b) > (c : d)
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b d
Compounded Ratio:
The compounded ratio of the ratios: (a : b), (c : d), (e : f) is (ace : bdf).
Duplicate Ratios:
Duplicate ratio of (a : b) is (a2 : b2).
Sub-duplicate ratio of (a : b) is (a : b).
Triplicate ratio of (a : b) is (a3 : b3).
Sub-triplicate ratio of (a : b) is (a1/3 : b1/3).
a c
a+b c+d
If = , then
=
.
b d
a-b c-d
[componendo and dividendo]
Variations:
We say that x is directly proportional to y, if x = ky for some constant k and we write, x
y.
We say that x is inversely proportional to y, if xy = k for some constant k and

we write, x
1
.
y
Ratio Type 1:
Example 1: If A : B = 7 : 9, C : D = 6 : 13 then A : B : C is
Answer : A : B : C = (7 x 6) : (9 x 6) : (9 x 13) = 42 : 54 : 117
Example 2:
If P : Q : R = 2 : 3 : 4, Then P / Q : Q / R : R / P = ?
Answer :
P : Q : R = 2 : 3 : 4.
Let P = 2k,
Q = 3k,
R = 4k.
Then,
P / Q = 2k / 3k = 2 / 3 ,
Q / R = 3k / 4k = 3 / 4
R / P = 4k / 2k = 2 / 1.
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At first we do LCM of 2, 3, 4 is 12, now we multiplied with ratio numbers ,

Like, 2 x 12 / 3 = 8
3 x 12 / 4 = 9
2 x 12 / 1 = 24
So,the ratio of P / Q : Q / R : R / P is 8 : 9 : 24.
Example 3:
If a : b = 3 : 7 and b : c = 5 : 9, Find a : b : c.
Answer:
A : B = 3 : 7,
B:C=5:9
= ( 5 x 7 / 5 ) : ( 9 x 7 / 5 ) = 7 : 63 / 5.
= A : B : C = 3 : 7 : 63 / 5 = 15 : 35 : 63 .
Example 4:
If P : Q = 2 : 3 and Q : R = 4 : 5, then R : P = ?
Answer :
P / R = ( P / Q x Q / R ) = ( 2 / 3 x 4 / 5 ) = 8 / 15
=R / P = 15 / 8 = R : P = 15 : 8.
Example 5:
If P : Q = 2 : 3, Q : R = 4 : 5 and R : S = 6 : 7, Then P : S = ?
Answer :
P / S = ( P / Q x Q / R x R / S ) = ( 2 /3 x 4 / 5 x 6 / 7 ) = 16 / 35 = P : S = 16 : 35.
Example 6:
If P : Q = 4 : 3 , Q : R = 3 : 5 and R : S = 10 : 9, Then P : Q : R : S = ?
Answer :
P:Q=4:3
Q:R=3:5
R : S =10 : 9
= 4 x 3 x 10 : 3 x 3 x 10 : 3 x 5 x 10 : 3 x 5 x 9
P : Q : R : S = 120 : 90 : 150 : 135 = 8 : 6 : 10 : 9.
Example 7: what would be the 3rd proportional to 0.25 to 0.38 ?
Answer : 0.25 : 0.38 :: 0.38 : X
X = 0.38 x 0.38 / 0.25 = 0.5776
Eaxmple 8: Divide the Rs, 520 in the ratio of 6 : 4 in between ramesh and suresh, How much
amount would be both are getting ?
Answer: Sum of ratio = ( 6 + 4 )= 10,
Ramesh got his amount = 520 x 6 / 10 = 312.
Suresh got his amount = 520 x 4 / 10 = 208.
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Example 9:
What is the smallest part, If 75 is divided into three parts proportional to 3, 5, 8, 9.
Answer :
ratio is = 3 : 5 : 8 : 9, sum of ratio terms is = 25.
So the smallest part is = ( 75 x 3 / 25 ) = 9.
Example 10:
Rama gives his pencils between his four friends Rakesh, Rahul, Ranjan, and Rohit in the ratio 1 /
2 : 1 / 3 : 1 / 4 : 1 / 5. What would be the minimum number of pencils Rama should have?
Answer :
Rakesh : Rahul : Ranjan : Rohit = 1 / 2 : 1 / 3 : 1 / 4 : 1 / 5
Step 1: At First we need to do is LCM of 2,3,4 and 5 is 60.
Step 2: Then pencils are given in ratio among friends,
Rakesh = ( 1 / 2 x 60 ) = 30.
Rahul = ( 1 / 3 x 60 ) = 20.
Ranjan = ( 1 / 4 x 60 ) = 15.
Rohit = ( 1 / 5 x 60 ) = 12.
Step 3: Total number of pencils are ( 30 x + 20 x + 15 x + 12 x) = 77 x.
The minimum number of pencils are x = 1.
Rama should have only 77 pencils.
Example 11:
Two numbers are respectively 40% and 60% more than third number. What would be the ratio of
two numbers ?
Answer :
Step 1: Let the third number is A
Then first number is 140% of A = 140 x A / 100 = 7A / 5 and second number is 160% of B = 160
x B / 100 = 8B / 5.
Step 2: now ratio of first and second number is 7A / 5 : 8B / 5 = 35A : 40B = 7 : 8.
Example 12: A sum money is divided among P, Q, R, S in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 1 : 7 respectively.
If the share of Q is Rs.9872, than what would be the total amount of P and S together ?
Answer: Share of Q = 9872, P, Q, R, S in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 1 : 7
Total amount of P ans S together is = 9872 x 9 = 88848.
Example 13:
If A : B = 4 : 9 and B : C = 3 : 6 , Then find A : C is :
Answer : (A / B = 4 / 9, B / C = 3 / 6 )
= A / C = ( A /B x B / C) = ( 4 / 9 x 3 / 6 ) = 2 / 9 = A : C = 2 : 9.
Ratio Type 2:
Example 1: In a town, 20% of the mans are same in numbers as 1 / 4th of the women. What
would be the ratio of mans and woman in that town ?
Answer : 20% mans
= 1 / 4 womens<=> 20man / 100
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So, mans = 5 / 4 womens

mans / womens = 5 / 4
mans : womens = 5 : 4
Example 2: In a school, the number of ratio of boys and girls is 4 : 9, after inclusion of 32 new
girls, the ratio become 4 : 17. How many boys were present at starting in this school ?
Answer : 4x / 9x + 32 = 4 / 17
68x = 36x + 128
x=4
So, the number of boys in the school is (4 x 4) = 16.
Example 3: Ina school ratio of number of boys and girls is 9 : 6 and if there present 180 boys,
than find the total number of students in the school.
Answer: Let number of boys and girls 9x and 6x.
Then 9x = 180 = x = 20.
So, Total number of students is = 15x = (15 x 20) = 300.
Example 4:
Share Rs.4200 among joy, sanjay and bijoy in the ration 2 : 4 : 6.Find the amount received by
sanjay.
Answer :
Amount received by sanjay.
4 / 12 X 4200 = 1400= ( related ratio / sum of ratio ) x Total amount
So, the Amount received by sanjay is 1400.
Example 5:
Find the mean proportional between given two number that is 64 and 49.
Answer :
The mean proportion of two numbers is
Root of 64 and 49 is 8 x 7 = 8 x 7 = 56.
So, the mean proportional is 56.
Example 6:
Rs. 385 were divided among P , Q , R in such a way that P had Rs 20 more than Q and R had Rs
15 more than P . How much was Rs share ?
Answer :
Let Q gets Rs x. Then We can say P gets Rs (x + 20 ) and R gets Rs ( x + 35) .
x + 20 + x + x + 35 = 385
3x = 330
x = 110 .
Rs share = Rs ( 110 + 35 ) = Rs 145.
Example 7:
Rs 1210 were divided among three person P, Q, R so that P : Q = 5 : 4 and Q : R = 9 : 10. Then
R gets the amount.
Answer :
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P : Q = 5 : 4, Q : R = 9 : 10 = ( 9 x 4 / 9 ) : ( 10 x 4 / 9 ) = 4 : 40 / 9.
So, P : Q : R = 5 : 4 : 40 /9 = 45 : 36 : 40
Sum of ratio terms is = ( 45 + 36 + 40 ) =121.
R share of amount is Rs (1210 x 40 / 121) = Rs. 400 .
Example 8:
Rs 64000 are divided among three friends in the ratio 3 / 5 : 2 / 1 : 5 / 3 . The share of the second
friend is :
Answer :
Here the given ratio is = 3 / 5 : 2 / 1 : 5 / 3 = 9 : 30 : 25 .
So the Share of the second friend = Rs ( 64000 x 30 / 64) = 30000.
Example 9:
Which of the following ratio is the greatest ?
7 : 15 , 15 : 23 , 17 : 25 , 21 : 29
Answer :
7 / 15 = 0.466
15 / 23 = 0.652
17 / 25 = 0.68
21 / 29 = 0.724
So, 0.724 is greatest and therefore, 21 : 29.
Example 10:
What number has to be added to each term of 3 : 5 to make the ratio 5 : 6 :
Answer :
Let the number to be added x , Then
3+x/5+x=5/6
6(3+x)=5(5+x)
x = ( 25 18 ) = 7
So , the number to be added is 7.
Example 11:
On dividing a sum of Rs 832 between Paul and john in the ratio 3 : 5 , their shares are
Answer :
So the given ratio is = 3 : 5
So , the 1st part = Rs ( 832 x 5 / 8 ) = Rs 520 , 2nd part = Rs ( 832 x 3 / 8 ) = Rs 312
So , their shares are : 312 and 520.
Example 12:
A certain amount was divided between A and B in the ratio 4 : 3 . If Bs share was Rs, 4800, the
total amount was ?
Answer :
If B s share is Rs, 3, total amount = Rs, 7
If Bs share is Rs, 4800, total amount = Rs, (7 / 3 x 4800) = 11200.
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Example 13:
The Salary of Three friend A, B, C are divided into ratio 5 : 6 : 8. If the increment has given of
10%, 20%, 25%, Find the new ratio of three friend salary ?
Answer :
Step 1: We assume ration as 5x, 6x, 8x
now the increment of new salary of A is 10% = 110 / 100, B is 20% = 120 / 100, C is 25% = 125
/ 100.
Step 2: A,s new salary is 110 x 5X / 100 = 55X / 10.
B,s new salary is 120 x 6X / 100 = 36X / 5.
C,s new salary is 125 x 8X / 100 = 10.
Step 3: New ratio is 55X / 10 : 36X / 5 : 40X / 4.
Type 3 :
Example 1:
A money bag contains 50 p, 25 p, and 10 p coins in the ratio 5 : 9 : 4, and the total amounting to
Rs.206.
Find the individual number of coins of each type.
Answer :
Step 1: Let the number of 50 p ,25 p, and 10 p coins be 5x, 9x, 4x respectively.
we can say two 50 paise = 1 rupee thats why we take 2
we can say four 25 paise = 1 rupee thats why we take 4
we can say Ten 10 paise = 1 rupee thats why we take 10
Then, 5x / 2 + 9x / 4 + 4x / 10 = 206
= 50x + 45x + 8x = 4120
= 103x = 4120
= x = 40.
Step 2: Number of 50 p coins is ( 5 x 40 = 200 ),
Number of 25 p coins is( 9 x 40 = 360 ),
Number of 10 p coins ( 4 x 40 = 160 ),
Example 2:
On a self there are 4 books on Economics, 3 books on Management and 4 books on Statistics. In
how many different ways can be the books be arranged so that the books on Economics are kept
together ?
Answer :
( 4 books on Statistics ! + 3 books on Management ! + 1 x 4 books on Economics ! )
Total ways = 8! x 4!
=(8x7x6x5x4x3x2x1)x(4x3x2x1)
= 40320 x 24
=967680.
So , we can 967680 way be the books be arranged.
Example 3:
How many bags are required for filling 1824 kg of wheat if each bag filled with 152 kg of wheat
?
Answer :
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Each bag filled means 1 bag filled with 152 kg .

Total kg of wheat is 1824 kg , So we divide it by each bag filled with 152 kg
Number of bags = 1824 / 152
= 12.
Example 4:
An urn contains 4 green , 5 blue , 2 red and 3 yellow marbles. If four marbles are drawn at
random, what is the probability that two are blue and two are red ?
Answer :
Required probability = 5C2 x 2C2 / 14C4
= 10 / 1001.
Example 5:
An urn contains 4 green , 5 blue , 2 red and 3 yellow marbles. If eight marbles are drawn at
random, what is the probability that there are equal number of marbles of each color ?
Answer :
Required probability = 4C2 x 2C2 x 3C2 / 14C8
= 18 / 3003.
Example 6:
An urn contains 4 green , 5 blue , 2 red and 3 yellow marbles. If two marbles are drawn at
random, what is the probability that both are red or at least one is red ?
Answer :
Required probability = 2C2 / 14C2 + [ 1 12C2 / 14C2]
= 1 / 91 + [ 66 / 91 ]
= 1 / 91 + 25 / 91
= 26 / 91.
Example 7:
An urn contains 4 green , 5 blue , 2 red and 3 yellow marbles. If three marbles are drawn at
random, what is the probability that at least one is yellow ?
Answer :
Required probability = 1 11C3 / 14C3
= 1 165 / 364
= 199 / 364.
Example 8:
An urn contains 4 green , 5 blue , 2 red and 3 yellow marbles. If three marbles are drawn at
random, what is the probability that none is green ?
Answer :
Required probability = 10C3 / 14C3
= 30 / 91.
Example 9: In a cotton Bag has 50 paise and 25 paise coins, and the cotton bag contains total 60
coins which is sum of Rs.24.25. In cotton bag How many 25 paise coins are present ?
Answer: X x 0.50 + ( 60 X ) x 0.25 = 24.25
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0.50X + 15 0.25X = 24.25

0.25X = 24.25 15
0.25X = 9.25
X = 925 x 100 / 25 x 100
X = 37
Total no of coins is 60. So, ( 60 X ) = ( 60 37 ) = 23
So, 25 paise coins are present in bag is 23.
Example 10:
If each one plastic bag is filled with 160 Kgs of rice, than for 2240 Kgs of rice how many plastic
bags are required ?
Answer :Total rice is 2240, So required bags is 2240 / 160 = 14.
So plastic bags are required 14.
Some other examples:
Example 1: Rs. 75840/- are divided between P and Q in the ratio of 3 : 7. What would be the
diffderence between thrice the share of P and twice the share of Q ?
Answer : P : Q = 3 : 7
75840 x 3 / 10 = Rs. 22752
75840 x 7 / 10 = 53088
22752 x 3 = 106176
53088 x 2 = 68256
( 106176 68256 ) = 37920
Example 2: In the ratio of 8 : 12 Copper and silver are melted together. What is the weight of
melted mixture if 24 kg of silver has been consumed in it ?
Answer: The mixture melted of copper and silver = (12 + 8)kg = 20 kg.
for 24 kg silver, so mixture melted is = 20 x 24 / 8 = 60 kg.
Example 3:
Rs. 75,500/- are divided between A and B in the ratio 1 : 3. what is the difference between thrice
the share of A and twice the share of B ?
Answer :
Share of A = 75,500 x 1 / 1 + 3 = 75,500 x 1 / 4 = 18875 .
Share of B = 75,500 x 3 / 1 + 3 = 75,500 x 3 /4 = 56625 .
Difference between thrice the share of A and twice the share of B is
= 2B 3A
= 2 x 56625 3 x 18875
= 113250 56625
= 56625.
Example 4:
Milk and water in the ratio 5 : 3 is contain in a 20 litres of mixture. If 4 litres of this mixture be
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replaced by 4 litres of milk, the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture would be ?
Answer :
Quantity of milk in the mixture after taking out 4 liters of the mixture = ( 16 x 5 / 8 ) = 10 litres.
Now we add 4 liters of milk in this mixture.
quantity of milk in 20 litres of new mix = ( 10 + 4 ) = 14 litres.
quantity of water in it ( 20 14 ) = 6 litres.
Ratio of milk and water in the new ratio mix is = 14 : 6 = 7 : 3.
Example 5:
Rs 75,500/- are divided between A and B in the ratio 1 : 3. what is the difference between thrice
the share of A and twice the share of B ?
Answer :
Share of A = 75,500 x 1 / 1 + 3 = 75,500 x 1 / 4 = 18875 .
Share of B = 75,500 x 3 / 1 + 3 = 75,500 x 3 /4 = 56625 .
Difference between thrice the share of A and twice the share of B is
= 2B 3A
= 2 x 56625 3 x 18875
= 113250 56625
= 56625.
Example 6:
In a bottle mixture of 80 liters and the ratio of milk and water is 3 : 2. If this mixture ratio is to be
2 : 3. What the quantity of water to be further added ?
Answer :
Step 1: Quantity of Milk ( 80 x 3 / 5 ) = 48 liters, So Quantity of water in it ( 80 48 ) = 32
liters.
Step 2: New Ratio required 2 : 3, Let x water to be added, Then Milk : Water is = 48 : (32+x)
=48 / (32 + x).
Step 3: Now 48 / (32 + x) = 2 : 3
48 / (32 + x) = 2 / 3
2x = 144 64
x = 80/2
=40 liters.
Example 7:
The ratio between the number of men and women in a society is 31 : 23, When 75 more women
are added in the society, this ratio becomes 124 : 107. How many more women should be added
in the society in order to make the number of men and women be equal?
Answer :
31x / 23x + 75 = 124 / 107
3317x = 2852x + 9300
465x = 9300
x = 20 .
So , the number of women in society after added
= 20 x 23 + 75 = 535 .
So , the number of men in society after added
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= 31 x 20 = 620 .
Number of more women is = 620 535 = 85.
Example 8: In a liquid mixture of 60 litres , the ratio of milk and water is 2 :1. If this ratio is to
be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water to be further added is :
Answer :
So Quantity of milk = ( 60 x 2 / 3 ) = 40 litres.
Water in it = ( 60 40 ) = 20 litres .
new ratio required = 1 : 2 .
Let quantity of water to be added further be x liters
milk : water = 40 / ( 20 + x )
Now,
40 / ( 20 + x ) = 1 / 2
20 + x = 80
x = 60 lires
So, 60 litres of water to be added further.
Example 9:
20% alcohol present in a 15 litres mixture and rest of water. If 3 litres of water be mixed with it,
the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture would be ?
Answer :
20% present in a 15 litres mixture
So, 20 x 15 / 100 = 3 litres.
Water in it = ( 15 3 ) 12 litres.
New quantity of mixture = ( 15 + 3 ) = 18 litres.
Percentage of alcohol in new mix is = ( 3 x 100 / 18 ) % = 50 / 3.
Example 10:
A liquid mixture contain alcohol and water in the ratio of 4 : 3. If 5 liters of water is added to the
mixture the ration becomes 4 : 5. Find the quantities of alcohol in the given mixture ?
Answer :
Let the quantity of alcohol and water be 4x and 3x liters.
Then,
4x / 3x + 5 = 4 / 5
= 20x = 4(3x + 5)
= 8x = 20
= x = 2.5
Quantity of alcohol = ( 4 x 2.5 ) = 10 liters.
Example 11: If the ratio of milk and water is 3 : 2 in a mixture of 80 liters. If this ratio later to be
2 : 3, Then what quantity of water to be added more.
Answer : Total mixture is 80 liters and ratio is 3 : 2
So, milk is 80 x 3 / 5 = 240 / 5 = 48
Water is ( 80 48 ) = 32
48 / ( 32 + x ) = 32
2x = 80
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x = 40
Quantity of water to be added more is 40 litres.
Example 12: In a mixture of 25 litres has contains 40% milk and remaining is water, and if 5
litrs of water mix with it, then what would be the new percentage of milk in mixture ?
Answer : 40% milk means 60% water
So, milk in mixture is = 25 x 40 / 100 = 10 litres.
and water in mixure is ( 25 10 ) = 15 litres.
new mixture quantity = ( 25 + 5 ) = 30 litres.
10 x 100 / 30 = 100 / 3 litres.
new percentage of milk in mixture is 100 / 3 litres.
Important examples:
1. Arrange the following ratios in descending order.
2 : 3, 3 : 4, 5 : 6, 1 : 5
Solution:
Given ratios are 2/3, 3/4, 5/6, 1/5
The L.C.M. of 3, 4, 6, 5 is 2 2 3 5 = 60
Now, 2/3 = (2 20)/(3 20) = 40/60
3/4 = (3 15)/(4 15) = 45/60
5/6 = (5 10)/(6 10) = 50/60
1/5 = (1 12)/(5 12) = 12/60
Clearly, 50/60 > 45/60 > 40/60 > 12/60
Therefore, 5/6 > 3/4 > 2/3 > 1/5
So, 5 : 6 > 3 : 4 > 2 : 3 > 1 : 5
2. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. If the sum of numbers is 63, find the numbers.
Solution:
Sum of the terms of the ratio = 3 + 4 = 7
Sum of numbers = 63
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Therefore, first number = 3/7 63 = 27

Second number = 4/7 63 = 36
Therefore, the two numbers are 27 and 36.
3. If x : y = 1 : 2, find the value of (2x + 3y) : (x + 4y)

Solution:
x : y = 1 : 2 means x/y = 1/2
Now, (2x + 3y) : (x + 4y) = (2x + 3y)/(x + 4y) [Divide numerator and denominator by y.]
= [(2x + 3y)/y]/[(x + 4y)/2] = [2(x/y) + 3]/[(x/y) + 4], put x/y = 1/2
We get = [2 (1/2) + 3)/(1/2 + 4) = (1 + 3)/[(1 + 8)/2] = 4/(9/2) = 4/1 2/9 = 8/9
Therefore the value of (2x + 3y) : (x + 4y) = 8 : 9
More solved problems on ratio and proportion are explained here with full description.
4. A bag contains $510 in the form of 50 p, 25 p and 20 p coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Find the
number of coins of each type.
Solution:
Let the number of 50 p, 25 p and 20 p coins be 2x, 3x and 4x.
Then 2x 50/100 + 3x 25/100 + 4x 20/100 = 510
x/1 + 3x/4 + 4x/5 = 510
(20x + 15x + 16x)/20 = 510
51x/20 = 510
x = (510 20)/51
x = 200
2x = 2 200 = 400
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3x = 3 200 = 600
4x = 4 200 = 800.
Therefore, number of 50 p coins, 25 p coins and 20 p coins are 400, 600, 800 respectively.
5. If 2A = 3B = 4C, find A : B : C
Solution:
Let 2A = 3B = 4C = x
So, A = x/2 B = x/3 C = x/4
The L.C.M of 2, 3 and 4 is 12
Therefore, A : B : C = x/2 12 : x/3 12 : x/4 = 12
= 6x : 4x : 3x
=6:4:3
Therefore, A : B : C = 6 : 4 : 3
6. What must be added to each term of the ratio 2 : 3, so that it may become equal to 4 : 5?
Solution:
Let the number to be added be x, then (2 + x) : (3 + x) = 4 : 5
(2 + x)/(5 + x) = 4/5
5(2 + x) = 4(3 + x)
10 + 5x = 12 + 4x
5x - 4x = 12 - 10
x=2
7. The length of the ribbon was originally 30 cm. It was reduced in the ratio 5 : 3. What is its
length now?
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Solution:
Length of ribbon originally = 30 cm
Let the original length be 5x and reduced length be 3x.
But 5x = 30 cm
x = 30/5 cm = 6 cm
Therefore, reduced length = 3 cm
= 3 6 cm = 18 cm
More worked out problems on ratio and proportion are explained here step-by-step.
8. Mother divided the money among Ron, Sam and Maria in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If Maria got $150,
find the total amount and the money received by Ron and Sam.
Solution:
Let the money received by Ron, Sam and Maria be 2x, 3x, 5x respectively.
Given that Maria has got $ 150.
Therefore, 5x = 150
or, x = 150/5
or, x = 30
So, Ron got = 2x
= $ 2 30 = $60
Sam got = 3x
= 3 60 = $90
Therefore, the total amount $(30 + 60 + 90) = $180
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9. Divide $370 into three parts such that second part is 1/4 of the third part and the ratio between
the first and the third part is 3 : 5. Find each part.
Solution:
Let the first and the third parts be 3x and 5x.
Second part = 1/4 of third part.
= (1/4) 5x
= 5x/4
Therefore, 3x + (5x/4) + 5x = 370
(12x + 5x + 20x)/4 = 370
37x/4 = 370
x = (370 4)/37
x = 10 4
x = 40
Therefore, first part = 3x
= 3 40
= $120
Second part = 5x/4
= 5 40/4
= $50
Third part = 5x
= 5 40
= $ 200
10. The first, second and third terms of the proportion are 42, 36, 35. Find the fourth term.
Solution:
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Let the fourth term be x.

Thus 42, 36, 35, x are in proportion.
Product of extreme terms = 42 x
Product of mean terms = 36 X 35
Since, the numbers make up a proportion
Therefore, 42 x = 36 35
or, x = (36 35)/42
or, x = 30
Therefore, the fourth term of the proportion is 30.
More worked out problems on ratio and proportion using step-by-step explanation.
11. Set up all possible proportions from the numbers 8, 12, 20, 30.
Solution:
We note that 8 30 = 240 and 12 20 = 240
Thus, 8 30 = 12 20
..(I)
Hence, 8 : 12 = 20 : 30
.. (i)
We also note that, 8 30 = 20 12

Hence, 8 : 20 = 12 : 30
.. (ii)
(I) can also be written as 12 20 = 8 30

Hence, 12 : 8 = 30 : 20
.. (iii)
Last (I) can also be written as

12 : 30 = 8 : 20
.. (iv)
Thus, the required proportions are 8 : 12 = 20 : 30

8 : 20 = 12 : 30
12 : 8 = 30 : 20
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12 : 30 = 8 : 20
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12. The ratio of number of boys and girls is 4 : 3. If there are 18 girls in a class, find the number
of boys in the class and the total number of students in the class.
Solution:
Number of girls in the class = 18
Ratio of boys and girls = 4 : 3
According to the question,
Boys/Girls = 4/5
Boys/18 = 4/5
Boys = (4 18)/3 = 24
Therefore, total number of students = 24 + 18 = 42.
13. Find the third proportional of 16 and 20.

Solution:
Let the third proportional of 16 and 20 be x.
Then 16, 20, x are in proportion.
This means 16 : 20 = 20 : x
So, 16 x = 20 20
x = (20 20)/16 = 25
Therefore, the third proportional of 16 and 20 is 25.
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9.Simple Interest & Compound Interest
Simple Interest - Important Formulas
Principal:
The money borrowed or lent out for a certain period is called the principal or the sum.
Interest:
Extra money paid for using other's money is called interest.
Simple Interest (S.I.):
If the interest on a sum borrowed for certain period is reckoned uniformly, then it is called simple
interest.
Let Principal = P, Rate = R% per annum (p.a.) and Time = T years. Then
PxRxT
100
100 x S.I.
100 x S.I.
100 x S.I.
(ii). P =
;R=
and T =
.
RxT
PxT
PxR
(i). Simple Intereest =
Compound Interest - Important Formulas
Let Principal = P, Rate = R% per annum, Time = n years.

When interest is compound Annually:
R
Amount = P 1 +
n
100
When interest is compounded Half-yearly:
(R/2)
Amount = P 1 +
2n
100
When interest is compounded Quarterly:
Amount = P 1 +(R/4) 4n
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100
When interest is compounded Annually but time is in fraction, say 3 years.
R
Amount = P 1 +
3x 1 + R
100
100
When Rates are different for different years, say R1%, R2%, R3% for 1st, 2nd and 3rd year
respectively.
Then, Amount = P 1 +
R1
100
1+
R2
100
1+
R3
.
100
Present worth of Rs. x due n years hence is given by:

x
Present Worth =
1+
R .
100
(1) The basic concept of CI and SI

Let's say you have Rs. 30000 and you keep this money in three different banks for 2 years(Rs.
10000 each). The three banks have different policy :
a) Bank A keeps your money at simple interest and offers you 5% interest
b) Bank B keeps your money at compound interest and offers you 5% interest. The interest is
compounded annually.
Bank C keeps your money at compound interest and offers you 5% interest. The interest is
compounded half-yearly.
After 2 years, which bank will give you most interest?
Let us calculate
Case (A)
Simple interest is calculated simply as (P*R*T)/100
Here P= 10000, r = 5% and T = 2 years
T = 2 years. Let's divide this period in two equal intervals of 1 year each
Hence SI received for the period 0 to 1 = 10000*5*1/100 = Rs. 500
SI received for the period 1 to 2 = 10000*5*1/100 = Rs. 500
So after 2 years, you will get Rs. 10000 + 500 + 500 = Rs. 11000
Note : Simple Interest is proportional. The interest received is same each year. So in the above
example where SI was Rs. 500 for 1 years, that will mean the SI for 3 years is Rs. 1500, the SI
for 5 years is Rs. 2500 and so on.
Case (B)
Compounded annually means whatever interest you will earn on first year, that interest will be
added to the principal to calculate the interest for 2nd year. Let us see how
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We know the CI formula is, Amount = P(1 + r/100)^t (where Amount = P + CI)
CI received for the period 0 to 1 = Amount - Principal = 10000(1 + 5/100)^1 - 10000= Rs. 500
Now the amount received after 1 year will act as the Principal for calculating the Amount for
next year
For calculating the amount for second year, you won't take P as 10000, but as Rs. 10500. So
unlike SI where the interest was same each year, in CI the interest increases every year (because
the principal increases every year)
CI received for the period 1 to 2 = Amount - Principal = 10500(1 + 5/100)^1 - 10500 = Rs. 525
Total interest received after two years = Rs. 500 + Rs. 525 = Rs. 1025
Total amount received after two years = Rs. 11025
Note : In Case (b), to calculate the amount received after 2 years, I had divided the calculation
into 2 intervals. It was done just for the sake of explanation. You can calculate the amount
received after 2 years directly by 10000(1 + 5/100)^2
Case (C)
Just like case (b), where Principal was getting updated every year, in case (c) we will update the
Principal every 6 months (half-year)
Since I have given the explanation in case (b), so in this case I will directly apply the formula
Amount received after 2 years = 10000(1 + 2.5/100)^4 = Rs. 11038 approx.
So sum it up
Case A - amount received after two years= Rs. 11000
Case B - amount received after two years= Rs. 11025
Case C - amount received after two years= Rs. 11038
Case C is giving the maximum return and rightly so because in Case (C) principal is
increasing every 6 months.
Important formulas for Compund Interest -
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(2) A sum of money becomes x times in T years. In how many years will it become y times?
The approach to solve such questions is different for SI and CI
For SI : Formula = [(y - 1)/(x - 1)] * T
Q. 1) A sum of money becomes three times in 5 years. In how many years will the same sum
become 6 times at the same rate of simple interest?
Solution : [(6 - 1)/(3 - 1)] * 5 = 5/2 * 5 = 12.5 years
Answer : 12.5 years
For CI : Formula = (logy/logx) * T
Now dont worry, I wont be asking you to study logarithms :)
But just remember one property of logs and that is enough to solve the questions
log(x y) = y.log(x)
Hence log(8) = log(23) = 3.log(2)
Q. 2) A sum of money kept at compound interest becomes three times in 3 years. In how many
years will it be 9 times itself?
Solution : (log9/log3) * 3
... (1)
log9 = log(32) = 2.log(3)
Put this value in (1)
= 2.log(3)/log(3) * 3
= 2 * 3 = 6 years
Answer : 6 years
(3) Interest for a number of days
Q. 3)
Here P = 306.25
R = 15/4 %
T = Number of days/365
Number of days = Count the days from March 3rd to July 27th but omit the first day, i.e., 3rd
March
= 28 days(March) + 30 days(April) + 31 days(May) + 30 days(June) + 27 days(July)
= 146 days
We know SI = (P * r * t)/100
Answer : Rs. 4.59
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(4) Annual Instalments

This is the most dreaded topic of CI-SI. Before giving you the direct formula, I would like to tell
you what actually is the concept of annual instalments(if you only want the formula and not the
explanation, you can skip this part. But I would like you to read it)
Suppose you want to purchase an iPhone and its price is Rs. 100000 but you dont have Rs. 1 lakh
as of now. What would you do? You have two options - either you can sell your kidney (which
most the iphone buyers do :D), or you can go for instalments. But if you want to buy the iPhone
through this instalment route, the seller will incur a loss. How? Had you paid Rs. 1 lakh in one
go, the seller would have kept that money in his savings account and earned some interest on it.
But you will pay this Rs. 1 lakh in instalments and that means the seller will get his Rs. 1 lakh
after several years. So the seller is incurring a loss. The seller will compensate for this loss and
will charge interest from you.
Let the annual instalment be Rs. x. and you pay it for 4 years.
After 1 year you will pay Rs. x and the seller will immediately put this money in his savings
account (or somewhere else) to earn interest. He will earn interest on this Rs. x at the rate of
r% for 3 years (because the total duration is 4 years and 1 year has already passed)
Hence the amount which the seller will get from this Rs. x instalment = x(1 + r/100)^3
After 2nd year, you will again pay Rs. x and the seller will earn interest on this Rs. x for 2 years.
The amount which the seller will get from this Rs. x instalment = x(1 + r/100)^2
After 3rd year, you will again pay Rs. x and the seller will earn interest on this Rs. x for 1 year.
The amount which the seller will get from this Rs. x instalment = x(1 + r/100)^1
After 4th year, you will pay Rs. x and your debt would be paid in full (no interest on this Rs. x)
The amount which the seller will get from this Rs. x instalment = x
Now let's add all the above four amounts to get the total amount the seller would get from all the
instalments =
x(1 + r/100)^3 + x(1 + r/100)^2 + x(1 + r/100)^1 + x ... (1)
Now, had you paid Rs. 1 lakh in one go (without going for the instalment route), then the amount
received by the seller after 4 years would have been = 100000(1+r/100)^4
... (2)
Now (1) should be equal to (2) because only then the two routes (instalment route and direct
payment route) will give the same return and seller would have no problem in giving you the
iPhone in instalments.
100000(1+r/100)^4 = x(1 + r/100)^3 + x(1 + r/100)^2 + x(1 + r/100)^1 + x
[Remember the above equation for solving questions of compound interest]
P + P*r*4/100 = (x + x*r*3/100) + (x + x*r*2/100) + (x + x*r*1/100) + x
[Remember the above equation for solving questions of simple interest]
Although for Simple Interest, we have a direct formulaThe annual instalment value is given by-
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Now coming to the questions. There are two types of questions and they are bit confusing. In one
type, the Amount is given and in another type, Principal is given
Type 1(Amount is given):
Q. 4) What annual installment will discharge a debt of Rs.6450 due in 4 years at 5% simple
interest?
When the language the question is like "what annual payment will discharge a debt of ...", it
means the Amount is given in the question.
In this question, the Amount(A) is given, i.e., Rs. 6450. So we can apply the formula directly
Here A = 6450, r = 5%, t = 4 years
Solution : 100*6450/[100*4 + 5*4*3/4]
Answer : 1500
Type 2 (Principal is given) :
Q. 5) A sum of Rs. 6450 is borrowed at 5% simple interest and is paid back in 4 equal
annual installments. What is amount of each installment?
Here the sum is given. Sum means Principal.
But our formula requires Amount(A)
So we will calculate Amount from this Principal
A = P + SI = 6450 + 6450*5*4/100 = Rs. 7740
Now put the values in the formula
A = 7740, r = 5%, t = 4
Annual instalment = 100*7740/(100*4 + 5*4*3/2)
Answer : Rs. 1800
Q. 6)
"Sum borrowed" means Principal.
This question is of Compound Interest and hence we cant apply the direct formula. We will
solve this question with the help of the equation we derived earlier.
P(1+r/100)^2 = x(1+r/100) + x
P(1 + 5/100)^2 = 17640(1 + 5/100) + 17640
Solve for P, you will get P = Rs.32800
Answer : (B)
Q. 7) What annual instalment will discharge a loan of Rs. 66000, due in 3 years at 10%
Compound Interest?
Solution : Here again the question is of "Compound Interest" and hence we will solve it by
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equation :
Let each annual instalment be of Rs. x. Note that in this question, amount is given
Amount = x(1 + 10/100)^2 + x(1 + 10/100)^1 + x
66000 = x (1.21 + 1.1 + 1)
So x = Rs. 19939.58
Q. 8) What annual instalment will discharge a loan of Rs. 66000, due in 3 years at 10%
Simple Interest?
I have just converted Q.7 into Simple Interest
Now we can either solve it by direct formula, or by equation
By Equation method :
66000 = (x + x*10*2/100) + (x + x*10*1/100) + x
66000 = x(3 + 0.2 + 0.1)
x = Rs. 20000
By Direct formula method :
A = 66000, t = 3, r = 10%
x = 100A/[100t + t(t-1)r/2]
x = 100*66000/[100*3 + 3*2*10/2]
x = 6600000/(300 + 30)
x = Rs. 20000
Q. 1) If a sum of money becomes 3 times itself in 20 years at simple interest. What is the
rate of interest?
In such questions apply the direct formulaRate of interest = [100*(Multiple factor - 1)]/T
So R = 100*(3 - 1)/20
Answer : 10%
Note : With this formula you can find Rate if Time is given and Time if rate is given.
Q. 2)
In such questions, just write this line :

1st part : 2nd part : 3rd part = 1/(100+T1 * r) : 1/(100+T2 * r) : 1/(100+T3 * r)
= 1/(100+2 * 5) : 1/(100+3 * 5) : 1/(100+4*5)
= 1/110 : 1/115 : 1/120
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= 23*24 : 22*24 : 23*22

Hence 1st part = (23*24)/ (23*24 + 22*24 + 23*22) * 2379
Answer : 828
Note : Surprisingly, such questions when asked mostly have this same data, i.e., R=5% and T1,
T2, T3 = 2, 3, 4 years, respectively. Only the Principal is changed. So it would be wise if you can
just mug this line :
1st part : 2nd part : 3rd part = 23*24 : 22*24 : 23*22
Based on the above line, you would be able to solve such questions in a jiffy.
But note that it will only work if the question is on Simple Interest. Like the below question
appeared in SSC CGL Tier 2-
Q. 4
Here the data is same. i.e., R=5% and T1, T2, T3 = 2, 3, 4 years, respectively. So we will write
directly 1st part : 2nd part : 3rd part = 23*24 : 22*24 : 23*22
A received = (23*24)/ (23*24 + 22*24 + 23*22) * 7930
Answer : Rs. 2760
Q. 5) If a certain sum of money P lent out for a certain time T amounts to P1 at R1% per annum
and to P2 at R2% per annum, then
The above formula is for calculating the Time, if the question asks the rate, then just
interchange the rate and time. Hence the formula will become
R = (P1 - P2)*100/P2T1 - P1T2
Apply the formula:

R = (650-600)*100/600*6 - 650*4
R = 5%
Alternative Method :
You can solve such questions quickly without mugging the above formula. How?
The sum amounts to Rs. 600 in 4 years and Rs. 650 in 6 years. This means the simple interest is
Rs. 50 for 2 years (because the amount increased from Rs. 600 to Rs. 650 in 2 years)
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So the SI for 4 years is Rs. 100 (we have seen earlier than SI is proportional. So if SI = 100 for 2
years, then SI = 150 for 3 years, SI = 250 for 5 years and so on)
Now SI = Rs. 100; P = 600-100 = Rs. 500; t = 4 years
R = 100*SI/(P*t) = 10000/2000
Answer: 5%
For CI, the formula is different
Difference between CI and SI

This topic is very important from examination point of view. Note the following thingsIf t=1 year, then SI = CI
If t=2 years then difference between CI and SI can be given by two formulas-
If t=3 years then difference between CI and SI can be given by two formulas-
In all the above formulas we have assumed that the interest is compounded annually
Let us solve some CGL questions
Q. 6
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A = P(1+r/100)^t
Given, A=1.44P t = 2 years
1.44P = P(1 + r/100)^2
r = 20%
Answer : (D)
Q. 7
Here the interest is compounded half yearly, so the formulas we mugged earlier are of no use
here. We will have to solve this question manually
SI = P*10*1.5/100 = 0.15P
CI = P(1 + 5/100)^3 - P = P(1.05^3 - 1)
Given CI - SI = 244
P(1.05^3 - 1) - 0.15P = 244
P = Rs. 32000
Answer : (C)
Q. 8
Time = 2 years
Hence apply the formula: Difference(D) = R*SI/200
CI - SI = R*SI/200
CI - SI = (12.5/200)*SI
510 = 1.0625*SI [Since CI = Rs. 510]
SI = Rs. 480
Answer : (D)
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Q. 9
CI for 1st year = 10% of 1800 = Rs. 180
CI for 2nd years = 180 + 10% of 180 = Rs. 198
Total = 180+198 = Rs. 378
Hence time = 2 years
Or you can apply the formula
A = P(1+r/100)^t
Answer : (B)
Q. 10
2.5 = P*R*2/100 - P*r*2/100
2.5 = 10R - 10r
R - r = 0.25
Answer : (D)
Q. 11
CI for 1st year = 5% of P = 0.05P
CI for 2nd year = 5% of P + 5% of (5% of P) = 0.05P + 0.0025P = 0.0525P
Total CI = 0.05P + 0.0525P = 0.1025P
Given, 0.1025P = 328
P = Rs. 3200
Answer : (C)
Note : You can solve this question by the formula A = P(1+r/100)^t as well
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Q. 12
Note that in this question the CI for 2 years in not given, but the CI for the 2nd year is given.
CI for 2nd year = 10% of P + 10% of (10% of P) = 0.1P + 0.01P = 0.11P
Given, 0.11P = 132
P = Rs. 1200
Answer : (D)
Q. 13
Interest = Re. 1 per day = Rs. 365 for 1 year
SI = P*r*t/100
t=1, r=5%, SI = Rs. 365
So, P = 365*100/5 = Rs. 7300
Answer : (A)
Q. 14
We know
Difference = P(r/100)^2(r/100 + 3)
P = Rs. 10000, r = 5%, t = 3 years
Hence D = Rs. 76.25
Answer : (C)
Q. 15
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We know, R = [(y/x)^(1/T2 - T1) - 1]*100

= [(1587/1200)^1/(3 - 1) - 1]*100
= [(1587/1200)^1/2 - 1]*100
= 3/20 * 100
= 15%
Answer : (B)
Simple Interest examples:
Example 1: The simple interest obtained in 5 years on a principal of Rs. 40,000/- is 1/5 of the
principle. Find the rate of interest of simple interest p.c.p.a.
Answer :40,000 x 1 / 5 = 8000
SI = PRT / 100 =
R = 40,000 x 5 / 100 x 8000 = 4 %
Example 2:
Amit give Rs. 6000 to Bijoy for 2 years and Rs. 2000 to Sabir for 5 years on simple interest at
same rate of interest, and then he received Rs. 2200 as a interest from of them. Find the rate of
interest per annum.
Answer : We know formula SI = P x R x T / 100
So, R% = ( 6000 x R x 2 / 100 ) + ( 2000 x R x 5 / 100 ) = 2200
R% = 120R + 100R = 2200
R = 2200 / 220 = 10%
Example 3:
At what rate percent annul will a sum of money double in a 4 years.
Answer :
Let Principle is = P.Then S.I = P and Time = 4 years.
S.I. = ( PRT/100 ).
So, R = ( 100X P / P X T ) %.
R = 25%
Example 4:
What is the rate of p.c.p.a ? If the simple interest accrued on amount of Rs.25500 at the end of 3
years is 9180.
Answer :
we know the formula is S.I = PRT / 100
So, S.I = 9180 , P = 25500 , T = 3 years , R = ?
9180 = 25500 x R x 3 / 100
R = 9180 / 765 = 12 %
So rate of p.c.p.a = 12 %
Example 5:
A sum of money is in double in 12 years At what rate percent per annul.
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Answer :
Let Principle = P. Then S.I = P and T is given 12 years.
Rate = ( 100 X P / P X 12 ) = 8.33%
So R = 8.33 %
Example 6:
If the Simple interest accrued in 8 years on a principal of Rs.40,000/- is 8000 of the principal.
What is the rate of simple interest p.c.p.a?
Answer :
SI = PRT / 100
Let the rate of simple interest is x
So, x = 100 x 8000 / 40000 x 8
x = 2.5
So the rate of simple interest is 2.5.
Example 7: The simple interest deposited on an amount of Rs 26400 at the end of 3 years is Rs.
9504. What would be the rate of p.c.p.a ?
Answer: We know the formula S.I = PRT / 100
9504 = 26400 x r x 3 / 100
r = 9504 / 264 x 3 = 9504 / 792 = 12%
Example 8:
Suresh take a sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs.985 in 2 years and to Rs. 885 in 3
years , find The sum of money suresh was taken.
Answer :
Step 1: Simple interest in 1 year is = Rs.( 985 885 ) = 100.
Step 2: Simple Interest in 2 years = Rs.100 X 2 = 200.
Step 3: So,Principal = ( 985 200 ) = 785.
Example 9:
Samar take a sum from Anup at simple interest at 25x / 2 per annul and amounts to Rs, 3202.50
after 6 years. Find the Sum or Principal taken by Samar from Anup .
Answer :
First We consider sum is x and Rate percent is 25x / 2 and Time is 6 years, So
Step 1: Then S.I. = P X R X T / 100 = 3x / 4.
Step 2: Amount = Sum + Simple Interest = x + 3x / 4 = 7x / 4.
Step 3: 7x / 4 = 3202.50 and x = 3202.50 X 4 / 7 = 1830.
Samar taken sum from Anup is 1830.
Example 10:
What is the amount of Rs.16000 at 5% per annul compound interest in 3 years ?
Answer :
Time = 3
rate = 5%
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16000 x ( 105 / 100 ) = 16000 x 1157625 / 1000000

= 18522
So the amount is 18522.
Example 11:
John borrowed some money at the rate of 4% p.a for the First 3 years. at rate of 7% p.a. for the
next 4 years. If he pays a total interest of Rs. 12,600 at the end of seven years, how much money
did he borrow ?
Answer :
Let sum borrowed x then P = x
( P X R X T / 100 )
( x X 4 X 3 / 100) + ( x X 7 X 4 / 100) = 12600
( 3x / 25 + 7x / 25 ) = 12600
10x / 25 = 12600
x = 12600 x 25 / 10
x = 31500
So, sum he borrowed = Rs. 31500.
Find Simple interest using formula

Formula : S.I = (P X R X T / 100)
Example 1: What would be the simple interest got on an amount of Rs. 18,600 in 8 months at
the rate of 22 / 2% p.a ?
Answer : 8 months = 8 / 12 = 2 / 3
SI = 18600 x 2 x 22 x 1 / 3 x 2 x 100 = Rs.1364
Example 2: What would be the simple interest on Rs. 20 for 5 month at the rate of 6 paise per
rupee per month
Answer : Simple interest = 20 x 6 x 6 / 100 = Rs. 6.
Example 3:
Find the Simple Interest on Rs. 75000 at 4% per annul for 4 years.
Answer:
we know Principal
P = Rs. 75000
R% = 4 per annul
T year = 4 years.
we just put the value into formula.
P = Rs. 75000, R = 4% p.a ( per annul ) T = 4 years.
S.I = ( P X R X T / 100 ) = 75000 X 4 X 4 /100 = 12000.
So the S.I is 12000.
Example 4:
On amount of 7530 at the rate of 18 p.c.p.a for 6 years What will be the simple interest ?
Answer :
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S.I = P R T / 100
S.I = 7530 x 18 x 6 / 100
S.I = 8132.40
So, the simple interest is 8132.40.
Example 5: Find the time required Rs 10000 amount to Rs. 12000 at the rate of 4% per annum at
S.I ?
Answer : we know SI = PRT / 100
= 1000 = 10000 X 4 X T / 100
t = 10000 X 4 / 100 X 2000
t = 5 years.
Example 6:
What will be the Ration of the Simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate of
interest for 5 years and 7 years ?
Answer :
step 1: Let Principal P and Rate of interest be R %.
So Required interest of 5 years is S.I = P R T / 100 = P x R x 5 / 100 = 5 PR / 100.
Required interest of 7 years is S.I = P R T / 100 = P x R x 7 / 100 = 7 PR / 100.
Step 2: Required ration is = 5 PR / 7 PR = 5 / 7 = 5 : 7.
So, Required Ration is 5 : 7.
Example 7: What would be the simple interest acquired by certain amount at the same rate of
interest for 4 years and also that for 8 years ?
Answer : Let principle P and rate of interest = R%. Time = 4 years and 8 years.
we know the formula : Simple interest = PRT / 100.
[ PxRx4 / 100 : PxRx8 / 100 ] = 4PR / 8PR = 4 / 8 = 1 : 2.
Example 8: Find the Simple Interest on Rs. 40000 at 25 / 4 % per annul for the period from 4th
January, 2013 to 18th march, 2013.
Answer:
Step 1: First we calculate the period of time taken that is =
January = (31 4) = 27 days,
February = 28 days,
March = 18 day.
Add all together ( 27 + 28 + 18 ) = 73 / 365 year = 1 / 5 years.
Step 2: we know Principal P = 40000, and R = 25 / 4 % p.a.
Step 3: S.I = Rs. ( 40000 X 25 X 1 X 1 / 4 X 100 X 5 ) = Rs. 500
So, the S.I is 500.
Example 9: What would be the simple interest earned by certain amount, at the same rate of
interest for 4 years
and that for 8 years ?
Answer:
Let the principal be P
Rate of interest be R%
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Time is 4 years and 8 years

So, Required ratio is = ( P x R x 4 /100 ) / ( P x R x 8 /100 ) = 4 / 8 = 1 / 2 = 1 : 2.
Example 10: What would be the simple interest on Rs. 85,000 at 15% per annum for 8 month
Answer: S.I = 85,000 x 2 x 15 / 3 x 100 = Rs. 8500.
Example 11: What would be the simple interest earned on an amount of Rs. 18,600 in 8 months
at the rate of 18 / 2% per annul ?
Answer: 18,600 x 2 x 1 x 18 / 3 x 100 x 2 = 1116.
Example 12: What would be simple interest on Rs. 1860 from 2nd April to 21 June 2014 at the
rate of 20 / 2% ?
Answer: 2nd April to 21 June 2014 = ( 28 + 31 + 21 ) = 80 days,
1860 x 20 x 1 x 20 / 2 x 100 x 3 = 1240.
Example 13: If Rs. 75 amounts to Rs. 90 in 2 years, What would be Rs. 120 amount to in 6
years at the same time rate percent p.a ?
Answer: P = 75, So SI = ( 90 75 ) = Rs. 15, and time = 2 years
So, rate = 100 x 15 / 75 = 20%.
P = Rs. 120, R = 20% time = 6 years,
So, SI = 120 x 20 x 6 / 100 = Rs. 144.
Shortcut for finding compound interest

In some cases evaluation of C.I using formula will be time consuming. Here is an alternate
method for calculating compound interest.
Let Principle = P, Compound interest % = x % per annum , Time period=T
Total interest percentage for the first year=x,
Total interest percentage for the second year=x + x% of x= x+ (x*x/100)
Then effective percentage of interest =2x + x*x/100
Then C.I=(2 x + x*x/100) % of P= P*[(2x + x*x/100)/100]
Total interest percentage for the first year=x,
Total interest percentage for the second year=x + x% of x= x+ (x*x/100)
Total interest percentage for the third year= x + x % of ( x + x+ x*x/100) =x+ x*( x + x+
x*x/100)/100)
Then effective percentage of interest= x+ x+ (x*x/100) + x+ x*( x + x+ x*x/100)/100)= 3x+
(x*x/100) +x*( 2x + x*x/100)/100)
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You may be finding formulas lengthy, but you will find this method simpler after practicing
some problems.Especially if T=2, then this method will be much faster than conventional
method using the commonly used formula.
Now let us solve two problems using above method.
Example 1 : What is the compound interest paid on a sum of Rs.3000 for the period of 2 years at
10% per annum.
Solution= Interest % for 1st year= 10
Interest % for 2nd year= 10+ 10% of 10= 10+ 10 *10/100=11
Total % of interest= 10 + 11=21
Total interest = 21 % 3000= 3000 * (21/100)= 630
Example 2:What is the compound interest paid on a sum of Rs.3000 for the period of 3 years at
10% per annum.
Solution= Interest % for 1st year= 10
Interest % for 2nd year= 10+ 10% of 10= 10+ 10 *10/100=11
Interest % for 3rd year= 10+ 10%(10+11)=10+ 2.1=12.1
Total % of interest= 10 + 11+12.1=33.1
Total interest = 33.1 % 3000= 3000 * (33.1/100)= 993
Shortcut Formulas for Compound Interest

Rule 1: If rate of interest is R1% for first year, R2% for second year and R3% for third
year, then
Example
Find the total amount after three years on Rs 1000 if the compound interest rate for first
year is 4%, for second year is 5% and for third year is 10%
Sol:
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P = 1000
R1 = 4%, R2 = 5% and R3 = 10%
(From the table given at the bottom of the page)

A = 1201.2
Rule 2:
If principle = P, Rate = R% and Time = T years then
1. If the interest is compounded annually:
2. If the interest is compounded half yearly (two times in year):
3. If the interest is compounded quarterly (four times in year):
Example
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Find the total amount on 1000 after 2 years at the rate of 4% if

1. The interest is compounded annually
2. The interest is compounded half yearly
3. The interest is compounded quarterly.
Sol:
Here P = 1000
R = 4%
T = 2 years
If the interest is compounded annually
(From the table given at the bottom of the page)

A = 1081.6
If the interest is compounded half yearly
A = 1082.4
If the interest is compounded quarterly
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A = 1082.9
Rule 3: If difference between Simple Interest and Compound Interest is given.
If the difference between Simple Interest and Compound Interest on a certain sum of
money for 2 years at R% rate is given then
Example
If the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money
at 10% per annum for 2 years is Rs 2 then find the sum.
Sum:
If the difference between Simple Interest and Compound Interest on a certain sum of
money for 3 years at R% is given then
Example
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If the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money
at 10% per annum for 3 years is Rs 2 then find the sum.
Sol:
Rule 4: If sum A becomes B in T1 years at compound interest, then after T2 years
Example
Rs 1000 becomes 1100 after 4 years at certain compound interest rate. What will be the
sum after 8 years?
Sum:
Here A = 1000, B = 1100
T1 = 4, T2 = 8
Look up Table
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Simple interest, compound interest practice questions

1.A man derives his income from an investment of Rs.2000 at a certain rate of interest and
Rs.1600 at 2% higher. The whole interest in 3 years is Rs.960. Find the rate of interest.
Answer:8%
2.A man buys a house and pays Rs.8000 cash and Rs.9600 at 5 year credit at 4% per annum
simple interest. Find the cash price of the house.
Answer: Rs.16000
3.The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 4% is Rs.303.60. Find the
compound interest on the same sum for the same period at the same rate.
Answer:315.90
4.If a certain sum given on simple intrest doubles in 20 years. In how many years will it be four
times?
Answer:60 years
5.A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will
it amount to 8 times.
Answer:12 years
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10.Time and Work

Time and work aptitude questions are asked in every competitive exam.This section will provide
shortcuts, tips and tricks to solve quantitative aptitude questions on time and work. These are
similar to time and distance shortcuts or ratio and proportion shortcuts. So, all you have to do is
be thorough with the basics and practice as many questions as you can.
To make the chapter easy for you all, we are providing you all some Important Short Tricks to
Time & Work Questions which will surely make the chapter easy for you all.
Mantra to Crack Time and Work Questions
1. Work from Days:
If A can do a piece of work in n days, then As n days work is=1/n
No. of days = total work / work done in 1 day
Days from Work: If As 1 days work =1/n then A can finish the work in n days.
2. Relationship between Men and Work.
More men - can do -> More work
Less men - can do -> Less work
3. Relationship between Work and Time
More work takes> More Time
Less work takes> Less Time
4. Relationship between Men and Time
More men - can do in -> Less Time
Less men - can do in -> More Time
5. If M1 persons can do W1 work in D1 days and M2 persons can do W2 work in D2 days,
then
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6. If M1 persons can do W1 work in D1 days for h1 hours and M2 persons can do W2 work
in D2 days for h2 hours, then
7. If A can do a work in x days and B can do the same work in y days, then the number
of days required to complete the work if A and B work together is
8. If A can do a work in x days and A + B can do the same work in y days, then the
number of days required to complete the work if B works alone is
Time and Work is yet another easy topic and almost all the questions are predictable.
Please go through the following solved examples and I am sure that 90% questions would
be similar to these examples. Most probably I will complete Time and Work in 3 parts.
Note: In the complete Time and Work series, Efficiency would mean "Work Done in 1 day", and
efficiency has been denoted by small letters, e.g. "a" means "Efficiency of A".
Q. 1)
Let the total work be 8 units (because 8 is the LCM of 4 and 8)
Efficiency of x (Work done by x in 1 hour) = 8/4 = 2 units
Efficiency of y (Work done by y in 1 hour) = 8/8 = 1 unit
Work done by (x + y) in 1 hour = 3 units
3 units work in completed in 1 hour. Hence 8 units work will be completed in 8/3 hours or 160
minutes.
Answer: (A)
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Q. 2)
Let total work be 60 units (LCM of 10 and 12)
Raj completes the work in 12 days. Hence efficiency or per day work of Raj = 60/12 = 5 units
Raj and Ram take 10 days to complete the work, hence their efficiency = 60/10 = 6 units
Now Efficiency of Ram = (Efficiency of Raj and Ram) (Efficiency of Raj) = 6 5 = 1 unit
That means Raj completes 1 unit of work per day. So to perform 60 units of work, he will take
60 days.
Answer: (D)
Q. 3)
Let total work = 120 units
Efficiency of A + B = 120/15 = 8 units
Efficiency of B + C = 120/12 = 10 units
Efficiency of C + A = 120/10 = 12 units
Adding all the above 3 equations
2 * (A + B + C) = 30
Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 15 units
Efficiency of B + C = 120/12 = 10 units
Hence Efficiency of A = Efficiency of (A + B + C) - Efficiency of (B + C) = 15 10 = 5 units
Hence time taken by A to do 120 units of work = 120/5 = 24 days
Answer: (D)
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Q. 4)
Let the total work be 16 units.
Efficiency of first pipe = 16/4 = +4 units
Efficiency of second pipe = 16/16 = -1 units [negative sign because this pipe is emptying the
tank]
When both the pipes are opened together, their efficiency = (+4) + (-1) = +3 units [The positive
sign indicates that when both the pipes are opened together, their net result will fill the tank]
3 units of work is done in 1 hour
16 units of work is done in 16/3 hours
Answer: (B)
Note : In questions where one pipe is emptying the cistern while another is filling it, you must
put a positive or negative sign before the efficiency. But in questions where both the pipes are
emptying the cistern or both the pipes are filling the cistern, you can take the efficiency of both
the pipes as positive.
Q. 5)
Efficiency of first pipe = 15/3 = +5 units
Efficiency of second pipe = 15/3.75 = +4 units
Efficiency of third pipe = 15/1 = -15 units
Efficiency of all the three pipes = 5 + 4 15 = -6 units
If all the pipes are opened, it will take 15/6 or 5/2 hours to empty the cistern, but the cistern is
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already half empty, hence only 5/4 hours are required to empty it.
Answer: (C)
Q. 6)
Let the total work = 60 units
Efficiency of A = 60/20 = +3 units
Efficiency of B = 60/30 = -2 units
Now total work to be performed is 60 units. When 57 units work is complete, A will take 1 more
minute to add 3 units and hence will make it a total of 60 units.
Hence time taken to fill the tank = Time taken to perform 57 units of work + 1 minute
Now A and B are opened alternatively. That means for the first minute only A is opened, for the
second minute A is closed and B is opened, then for third minute again B is closed and A is
opened and so on.
So for each 2 minutes cycle, work done = Efficiency of A + Efficiency of B = +3 + (-2) = 1 unit
1 unit work is done in 2 minutes, so 57 units work is done in 114 minutes
Time taken to fill the tank = 114 + 1 = 115 minutes
Answer: (D)
Explanation : We have to perform a total of 60 units of work. For the 1st minute - A adds 3
units of work, but in the 2nd minute, B adds (-2) units of work and hence makes total work for 2
minutes = (+3) + (-2) = 1 unit. So effectively in 2 minutes, we are just adding 1 unit of work.
Hence in 4 minutes, 2 units of work will be performed and in 6 minutes 3 units of work will be
performed. Same sequence will continue till 57 units. As soon as 57 units of work is done (in 114
minutes), it will be A's turn to do the work. A will add 3 units of work(in 1 minute) and hence
take the total work from 57 units to 60 units. B won't be needed any more.
Q. 7)
40 men complete the work in 6 months. Hence 10 men can complete the work in 6*4 = 24
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months. Hence, Efficiency of 10 men = 240/24 = 10 units

60 women complete the work in 6 months. Hence 10 women can complete the work in 6*6 = 36
months. Hence, Efficiency of 10 women = 240/36 = 20/3 units
80 boys complete the work in 6 months. Hence 10 boys can complete the work in 6*8 = 48
months. Hence, Efficiency of 10 boys = 240/48 = 5 units
Efficiency of 10 men + Efficiency of 10 women + Efficiency of 10 boys = 10 + 20/3 + 5 = 65/3
units
So, 10 men, 10 women and 10 boys complete 65/3 units of work in 1 month. To complete 120
units(half of the work), they will take = 120 * 3/65 = 72/13 months
Answer: (C)
Q. 8)
Let the total work be 112 units and the efficiency of 1 man and 1 woman be m and w
respectively
2m + w = 112/14 = 8
4w + 2m = 112/8 = 14
Solve the equations and you will get w = 2 and m = 3
Hence the wage of woman = 2/3 * 180 = Rs. 120
Answer: (A)
Q. 9)
A and C complete 19/23 of the work. Hence B does 4/23 of the work
Amount paid to B = 4/23 * 575 = Rs. 100
Answer: (B)
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Q. 10)
Let A and B complete the work in x days

Then A will complete the work in (x + 8) days and B will complete the work in (x + 4.5) days.
Now,
1/(x + 8) + 1/(x + 4.5) = 1/x
Solve the equation and you will get x = 6 hours
Answer: (D)
Q. 11)
The question is same the previous one.

Let A, B and C take 'x' days to do the job. Then,
A takes (x + 6) days, B takes (x + 1) days and C taken 2x days
1/(x + 6) + 1/(x + 1) + 1/2x = 1/x
1/(x + 6) + 1/(x + 1) = 1/x 1/2x
1/(x + 6) + 1/(x + 1) = 1/2x
... (1)
Solve it and you will get x = 2/3
From equation (1) you can see that A and B take 2x days to complete the work
Answer: (D)
Note: In the complete Time and Work series, Efficiency would mean "Work Done in 1 day", and
efficiency has been denoted by small letters, e.g. "a" means "Efficiency of A".
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Q. 1)
If Pratibha finishes the work in X days, then Sonia will take 3X days to finish the same work
Given 3X X = 60
Or X = 30
Pratibha takes 30 days and Sonia takes 90 days
Answer: (A)
Q. 2)

Efficiency of Sunil = 24/4 = 6 units (Since Sunil takes 4 days to complete the work)
Efficiency of Ramesh = 6 * 1.5 = 9 units (Since Ramesh is 1.5 times efficient as Sunil)
Efficiency of Dinesh = 24/6 = 4 units ((Since Sunil takes 6 days to complete the work))
Efficiency of (Sunil + Ramesh + Dinesh) = 6 + 9 + 4 = 19 units
Time required to finish the complete work = 24/19 days
Answer: (D)
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Q. 3)
Let the total work be 15 units. Efficiency of A = a and Efficiency of B = b

A and B complete the work in 5 days.
Hence efficiency of A and B = 15/5 = 3 units
So, a + b = 3 (1)
New efficiency of A = 2a
New efficiency of B = b/3
With new efficiency the work was completed in 3 days.
So, 2a + b/3 = 15/3 = 5 (2)
Solve (1) and (2), you will get a = 12/5 = 2.4 units
So A will complete 15 units work in 15/2.4 or 25/4 days
Answer: (B)
Q. 4)
Let the total work be 24 units
Given, 3*Efficiency of A = Efficiency of B + Efficiency of C
3a = b + c
A, B and C compete the work in 24 days.
Hence, a + b + c = 24/24 = 1 or 4a = 1 [Put b + c = 3a]
a = 1/4 = 0.25 unit
A completes 0.25 unit work in 1 day. So to complete 24 units of work, he will take 24/0.25 = 96
days
Answer: (B)
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Q. 5)
Let the total work be 7 units. Since they all complete the work in 7 days, so their total efficiency
= 7/7 = 1 unit
Let efficiency of boy = x
Then efficiency of women = 2x
Efficiency of man = 4x
x + 2x + 4x = 1
7x = 1 or x = 1/7
The boy completes 1/7 work in 1 day, so to complete 7 units of work, he will take 49 days
Answer: (A)
Q. 6)
A does 1/2 as much work as B in 3/4 of the time. Hence A will do (1/2 + 1/2) or complete work
in (3/4 + 3/4) or 1.5 times more time than B.
A = 1.5B (where A = no. of days taken by A to finish the work and B = no. of days taken by B
to finish the work)
Also A*B/(A+B) = 18
Put A = 1.5B in the above equation and solve
B = 30 days
Answer: (B)
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Q. 7)

Efficiency of A = 60/20 = 3 units
Efficiency of B = 60/30 = 2 units
Efficiency of (A + B) = 5 units
Work done by A and B in 7 days = 5*7 = 35 units
Work left = 60 35 = 25 units
C completes 25 units of work in 10 days. Hence he will complete 60 units of work in 10* 60/25
= 24 days
Answer: (C)
Q. 8)
Let total work be 120 units.
Efficiency of C = 120/15 = 8 units
Work left = 7/8 * 120 = 105 units
Efficiency of A + B = 30 units
Hence time taken by A and B to complete 105 units of work = 105/30 = 3.5
Answer: (C)
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Q. 9)

Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 80/40 = 2 units
Work done by (A + B + C) in 16 days = 16 * 2 = 32 units
Remaining work = 80 32 = 48 units
B and C complete the remaining work (48 units) in 40 days.
Efficiency of B + C = 48/40 = 1.2 units
Efficiency of A = Efficiency of (A + B + C) - Efficiency of (B + C) = 2 1.2 = 0.8 unit
Time taken by A to complete the whole work = 80/0.8 = 100 days
Answer: (C)
Q. 10)
Let A left after x days, that means A and B worked together for x days. Total work done by A
and B together = 17x
Then the remaining work is finished by B in 23 days. Hence work done by B alone = 23 * 9 =
207 units
So, 17x + 207 = 360
Or x = 9 days
Answer: (D)
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Q. 11)
This question appeared in SSC Tier-2 2015, and stumped many candidates. Although there is
nothing tricky about it.
p + q = 60/6 = 10
q + r = 60*7/60 = 7
Given, Total work done = 3 days work of P + 6 days work of Q and R
60 = 3*p + 6*(7)
p=6
Hence time taken by P to complete the work = 60/6 = 10 days
p + q = 10, hence q = 4
q + r = 7, hence r = 3
Hence time taken by R to complete the work = 60/3 = 20 days
Difference = 20 - 10 = 10 days
Answer : (C)
Q. 12) 4 Men and 6 Women working together can complete the work in 10 days. 3 men and
7 women working together will complete the same work in 8 days. In how many days
10 women will complete this work?
One day work for a man = 1/m
One day work for a woman = 1/w
In one day, 4 men and 6 women will do 1/10 of the work. Hence,
4/m + 6/w = 1/10 ... (i)
Similarly,
3/m + 7/w = 1/8
... (ii)
Multiply equation (i) with 3 and equation (ii) with 4
12/m + 18/w = 3/10
12/m + 28/w = 1/2
Subtract the equations
10/w = 1/5
So 10 women will complete the work in 5 days
Answer: (5)
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Here W is the work. For e.g., if 5 men are cutting 10 trees in 2 days, working 4 hours per day.
Then,
M = 5, D = 2, H = 4 and W = 10.
Q. 1)
H1 = 6
D1 = 18
D2 = 12
H2 = ?
We know, H1 * D1 = H2 * D2
6 * 18 = H2 * 12
H2 = 9 hours
Answer : (B)
Q. 2)
M1 = 15
D1 = 20
H1 = 8
M2 = 20
D2 = 12
H2 = ?
We know, M1 * D1 * H1 = M2 * D2 * H2
15*20*8 = 20*12*H2
H2 = 10 hours
Answer : (B)
Q. 3)
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In this question, Taps = Men

Number of taps required = 20*9/15 = 12
Answer : (B)
Q. 4)
Let there be X number of men.
X men can finish a piece of work in 100 days. Hence total work = 100X
If there were (X - 10) men, it would have taken 110 days to finish the work. Total work in this
case = 110(X - 10)
Total work remains the same. Hence,
100X = 110(X - 10)
X = 110
Answer : (D)
Q. 5)
Efficiency of Subhash = 50/10 = 5 per hour
Efficiency of Subhash and Prakash = 300/40 = 7.5 per hour
Efficiency of Prakash = (Efficiency of Subhash and Prakash) - (Efficiency of Subhash) = 7.5 - 5
= 2.5
So Prakash can copy 2.5 pages per hour. To copy 30 pages, he would require 30/2.5 or 12 hours.
Answer : (D)
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Q. 6)
40 men can finish a work in 60 days. Hence, total work = 40*60 = 2400
Let the 10 men left after X days.
For X days, all the 40 men worked. Total work performed = 40X
Now when 10 men quit, only 30 men were left to do the work and they took (70 - X) more days
to finish it.
Total work done by 30 men = 30*(70 - X)
Now, 40X + 30*(70 - X) = 2400
X = 30 days
Answer : (C)
Q. 7)
Let A left after X days.
For X days, both A and B worked. Hence work performed = 17X
B worked for 23 days. Hence work performed by B = 23*9 = 207 units
Now, 17X + 207 = 360
X = 9 days
Answer : (D)
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Q. 8)
B and C together do 8/23 of the work, hence A does (1 - 8/23) or 15/23 of the work.
A should be paid = 15*5290/23 = Rs. 3450
Answer : (D)
Note : In this question, they have asked the wages of A. Had they asked the wages of B, firstly
you would have calculated the work performed by B with the formulaWork done by B = (Portion of work done by A and B) + (Portion of work done by B and C) - 1
Work done by B = 19/23 + 8/23 - 1 = 4/23
Wages of B = 4*5290/23 = Rs. 920
Q. 9)
This is a very famous question. A company employed 200 workers to complete a certain work in
150 days. Here the total work is not 200*150 because 200 workers and 150 days was only a plan.
In reality, only 1/4th of the work has been done in 50 days. So if they go with the same pace, 200
workers will take 200 days to complete the work.
So total work = 200*200 units
200 workers have worked for 50 days. Hence they have finished 200*50 units of work.
Remaining work = 200*200 - 200*50 = 200*150
Let the number of additional workers required = X.
Now (200+X) workers will work for 100 days to finish the work as per the schedule.
Work they need to perform = (200 + X)*100
Now, (200 + X)*100 = 200*150
X = 100
Answer : (C)
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Q. 10) A contractor undertook to finish a certain work in 124 days and employed 120
men.After 64 days,he found that he had already done 2/3 of work. How many men can be
discharged now so that the work may finish in time?
A) 56
B) 44
C) 50
D) 60
120 workers finish 2/3 of the work in 64 days. So to complete the whole work, workers will take
64*3/2 or 96 days.
Total work to be performed = 120*96
Now the workers have already finished 2/3 of the work and only 1/3 work has to be performed.
Remaining work = 120*96/3 = 120*32
Let the contractor discharges X men. Remaining workers = 120-X. These workers will continue
the work for (124-64) or 60 days. Hence,
120*32 = (120-X)*60
X = 56
Answer : (A)
Method 2
M1 = 120, D1 = 64, W1 = 2/3
M2 = 120 x, D2 = 60, W2 = 1/3
(M1*D1)/W1 = (M2*D2)/W2
120*64*3/2 = (120 - x)*60*3
x = 56
Q. 11)
Let the second pipe fills the pool in X hours. Then first pipe takes (X+5) hours and the third pipe
takes (X-4) hours to fill the pool. Now, 1st and 2nd pipe together take the same time to the fill
the pool as the 3rd pipe alone. Hence,
1/(X+5) + 1/(X) = 1/(X - 4)
Solve this quadratic equation and you will get X = 10 hours
That means second pipe takes 10 hours to fill the pool while the third pipe takes 6 hours.
Together they will take 10*6/(10 + 6) hours to fill the pool.
Answer: (B)
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Sample Questions
1. Shambhu is twice as good as workman as Bablu and together they finish a piece of work in 18
days. Find the total number of days in which Bablu can finish the work.
a) 27 days
b) 54 days
c) 56 days
d) 68 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:- As per question, Shambhu does twice the work as done by Bablu. So A:B =
2:1. Also (Shambhu+Bablu) one day work is 1/18
To get days in which Bablu will finish the work, lets calculate work done by Bablu in 1 day
=(118 13 )=154. So Bablu will complete the work in 54 days
2. Ritu can complete a piece of work in 5 days, but with the help of her son she can do it in 3
days. Find the time taken by the son alone to complete the work.
a) 7.5 days
b) 13 days
c) 11 days
d) 9 days
Answer: Option A
Explanation:- In this type of question, where we have one person work and together work done.
Then we can easily get the other person work just by subtracting them. As,
Sons one day work = (1/3 1/5 )=(53/15 )=2/15
So son will do whole work in 2/15 days
which is = 7.5 days
3. Two pipes can fill the cistern in 10 hr and 12 hr respectively, while the third pipe can empty it
in 20 hr. Simultaneously, if all the pipes are opened then the cistern will be filled in
a) 7.5 hr
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b) 8 hr
c) 5 hr
d) 10 hr
Answer (A)
Explanation:- Work done by all the tanks working together in 1 hour.
1/10+1/12-1/20=2/15. Hence, tank will be filled in 15/2= 7.5 hour.
4. Mr. Chawla is on tour and he has Rs 360 for his expenses. If he exceeds his tour by 4 days he
must cut down daily expenses by Rs 3. The number of days of Mr. Chawlas tour programme is
a) 28 Days
b) 24 Days
c) 22 Days
d) 20 Days
Answer (D)
Explanation:- Let Mr. Chawla under takes a tour of x days.
Then, expenses for each day =360/x
360/x+4=360/x3
x=20 and 24
Hence, x= 20 days
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11. Speed, Distance & Time

Important formulae and facts of Time and Distance
Speed is a very basic concept in motion which is all about how fast or slow any object moves.
We define speed as distance divided by time.
Distance is directly proportional to Velocity when time is constant.
Speed Distance Time formula mathematically written as:- Speed = distance/time
Formula of Time :-time = distance/ Speed

So Formula of time is, time is equal to distance upon speed.
Formula of Distance:-Distance = (Speed * Time)
Distance = Rate x Time
To find rate, divide through on both sides by time:
Rate = Distance/Time
Rate is distance (given in units such as miles, feet, kilometers, meters, etc.) divided by time
(hours, minutes, seconds, etc.). Rate can always be written as a fraction that has distance units
in the numerator and time units in the denominator, e.g., 25 miles/1 hour.
So distance is simply speed into time.

Note: All three formulae that formula of speed, formula of time and formula of distance are
interrelated.
Convert from kph (km/h) to mps(m/sec)

For converting kph(kilometre per hour) to mps(meter per second) we use following formula
x km/hr=(x5/18) m/sec
Convert from mps(m/sec) to kph(km/h)

For converting mps(meter per second) to kph(kilometre per hour) we use following formula
x m/sec= X *(18/5) km/h
If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a : b, then the ratio of the times taken by then to cover
the same distance is :1/a : 1/b or b : a
Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x km/hr and an equal distance at y km/hr. Then,
the average speed during the whole journey is :- 2xy/(x + y)
Relation between time, distance and speed: Speed is distance covered by a moving object in
unit time: Speed= Distance covered/ Time Taken
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Rule : 1: Ratio of the varying components when other is constant: Consider 2 objects A and B
having speed Sa, Sb.
Let the distance travelled by them are Da and Db respectively and time taken to cover these
distances be Ta and Tb respectively.
Lets see the relation between time, distance and speed when one of them is kept constant
1. When speed is constant distance covered by the object is directly proportional to the
time taken.
ie; If Sa=Sb then Da/Db = Ta/Tb
2. When time is constant speed is directly proportional to the distance travelled. ie; If
Ta=Tb then Sa/Sb=Da/Db
3. When distance is constant speed is inversely proportional to the time taken ie if speed
increases then time taken to cover the distance decreases. ie; If Da=Db then Sa/Sb=
Tb/Ta
Rule 2: We know that when distance travelled is constant, speed of the object is inversely
proportional to time taken
1. If the speeds given are in Harmonic progression or HP then the corresponding time taken will be
in Arithmetic progression or AP
2. If the speeds given are in AP then the corresponding time taken is in HP
Distance Constant
If dista e tra elled for ea h part of the jour e , ie d =d =d ==d =d, then average speed of
the object is Harmonic Mean of speeds.
Let ea h dista e e o ered ith speeds s ,s ,s i t ,t ,t ti es respe ti el .
Then t1 =d/s1
t2 = d/s2
tn =d/sn
then, Average Speed= [(d + d + d+ ntimes)]/ [d/s1 + d/s2+ d/s3+ d/sn

Average Speed= (n)/[(1/s1 + 1/s2+ . 1/sn)]
Time Constant
If ti e take to tra el ea h part of the jour e , ie t =t =t =t =t, the a erage speed of the
object is Arithmetic
Let distance of parts of the journey be d1,d2,d3,dn and let them be covered with speed
s1,s2,s3,sn respectively.
Then d1=s1 t , d2=s2t, d3=s3t, dn=snt
then , Average Speed= [(s1/t+ s2/t+ . sn/t)/(t + t+ ntimes)]
Average Speed=( s1+ s2+s3+ + sn)/n
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Relative Speed
If two objects are moving in same direction with speeds a and b then their relative speed is |ab|
If two objects are moving is opposite direction with speeds a and b then their relative speed is
(a+b)
Time and distance is a very easy topic and has limited variety of questions. I will take up
questions from each variety and will solve them with shortest method possible.
Q. 1)
Let the distance travelled on foot be X km. Then distance travelled on bicycle will be Rs. (80 X)
X/8 + (80 - X)/16 = 7
After forming this equation, don't solve it for X. Just observe, X/8 denotes that X is a multiple of
8 (although you can't be 100% sure, but SSC generally likes whole numbers). That means answer
is either 32 km or 48 km. Put X = 32 km in the equation and check if it satisfies the equation. It
does!
Answer : (A)
Q. 2)
This is a commonly asked question. Just remember Time taken to cross a telephone pole = Time taken by the train to cover a distance equal to its
length
Speed = 54 km/hr = 54 * 5/18 m/sec = 15 m/sec
Time taken by the train to cover a distance equal to its length = 300/15 = 20 sec
Answer : (A)
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Q. 3)
If two objects A and B are moving at a given speed and we are asked "when will A overtake B"
or "When will the police catch the thief", we use the concept of Relative Velocity. It's very
simple
When the objects are moving in opposite direction, Relative velocity = Speed of A + Speed of B
When the objects are moving in the same direction, Relative velocity = Speed of A - Speed of B
Let the length of each train be L metres.
Here, the trains are moving in the same direction, hence relative velocity = Speed of train A Speed of Train B = 10 km/hr = 10 * 5/18 m/sec = 25/9 m/sec
We know, Distance = Speed * Time
Here, Distance = Sum of the length of both the trains, i.e., 2L
Speed = Relative velocity
Time = Time taken by the faster train to overtake the slower train
So, 2L = 36 * 25/9
L = 50 m
Answer : (A)
Q. 4)
This question is similar to Q. No. 2. We just have to replace the Speed of the train, with Relative
Velocity.
Let the length of the fast train be L.
Trains are running in the same direction, hence Relative Velocity = 40 - 20 = 20 km/hr = 50/9
m/sec
L = 50/9 * 5 = 250/9 metres
Answer : (C)
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Q. 5)
You can solve such questions with two methods Method 1 (Relative Velocity)
Relative velocity of A and B = 6 + 4 = 10 km/hr
They have to cover a distance to 20 km.
Hence they will meet in 20/10 = 2 hours
So if they start at 7 a.m., they will meet at 9:00 a.m.
Answer : (C)
Method 2 (Equate the distance)
Let A and B after t hours
Then distance covered by A in t hours + Distance covered by B in t hours = 20
t*4 + t*6 = 20
or t = 2 hours
Q. 6)
This question is similar to the above question. But it has a twist! The two trains are not moving at
the same time. First train is starting at 7 am, while second train is starting at 8 am.
Method 1 (Relative Velocity)
Remember! To apply the relative velocity formula in such questions, we will first have to make
the trains move at the same time. How?
Let the distance between the trains be X km
The first train takes 4 hours (7 am to 11 am) to move from A to B
Hence speed of the first train = X/4
The second train takes 3.5 hours (8 am to 11:30 am) to move from B to A
Hence speed of the second train = X/3.5
From 7 am to 8 am (1 hour), only the first train is moving. Distance travelled by the first train in
1 hour = X/4 * 1 = X/4
Distance left between the two trains = X - X/4 = (3/4)X
Relative velocity of the trains = X/4 + X/3.5
Time taken by the trains to cross one another = (Distance between them) / (Relative
velocity)
= (3/4)X / (X/4 + X/3.5)
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= 1.40 hours
= 1 hour 24 minutes
So the trains will cross one another at 8 am + 1 hr 24 min = 9 : 24 am
Answer (D)
Method 2 (Equate the distance)
Let the trains cross each other in t hours
First train starts early, so it will travel for complete t hours. But second train starts 1 hour after
the first train, so it will travel for (t - 1) hours
Distance travelled by first train in t hours + Distance travelled by second train in (t - 1) hours = X
X/4 * t + X/3.5 * (t - 1) = X
t = 2.4 hours = 2 hours 24 minutes
But this time will be added to 7 a.m.
So, Answer = 7 a.m. + 2 hours 24 minutes = 9:24 a.m.
Q. 7)
This question is similar to the above question.
Chor-Sipahi questions are best tackled with Relative Velocity.
Relative Velocity of the Thief and the Owner = 50 - 40 = 10 km/hr
Distance travelled by the thief in half an hour (from 1:30 p.m. to 2 p.m.) = 0.5 * 40 = 20 km
Now the distance between the owner and the thief is 20 km.
So time taken to catch the thief = Distance between them / Relative velocity = 20/10 = 2
hours
He will catch the thief at 2 p.m. + 2 hours = 4 p.m.
Answer : (A)
Q. 8)
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Method 1 (Relative velocity)

Let P and Q meet in t hours
Distance travelled by P in t hours = 20t (because the speed of P is 20 km/hr)
Distance travelled by Q in t hours = 30t (because the speed of Q is 30 km/hr)
Given, 30t - 20t = 36 km
or t = 3.6 hours
So P and Q meet after 3.6 hours
Relative velocity of P and Q = 20 + 30 = 50 km/hr
Distance between the two places = Time taken by P and Q to meet * Relative velocity = 50 * 3.6
= 180 km
Answer : (A)
Method 2
Let P and Q meet at point M. P has to travel X km to reach M and Q has to travel Y km.
Time taken by P to reach M = Time taken by Q to reach M
X/20 = Y/30
X/Y = 2/3
Given, Y - X = 36 km
Divide the whole equation with Y
1 - X/Y = 36/Y
1 - 2/3 = 36/Y [Put X/Y = 2/3]
Y = 108 km
Hence X = Y - 36 = 72 km
Distance between the two places = X + Y = 108 + 72 km = 180 km
Answer : (A)
Q. 1)
Apply the direct formula
Average speed for the complete journey = 2XY/(X + Y) = 2*20*30/50 = 24 km/hr
Answer : (D)
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Q. 2)
Let the total distance be 100 km
Average Speed = Total Distance/Total Time
Total time = 70/20 + 10/25 + 20/8 = 3.5 + 0.4 + 2.5 = 6.4
Average Speed = 100/6.4 = 15.625 m.p.h
Q. 3)
This is again a very frequently asked question. Let the distance of his school be X km.
(Time taken to reach the school at 3 km/hr) - (Time taken to reach the school at 4 km/hr) = (10 +
10) minutes or 1/3 hours
X/3 - X/4 = 1/3
Hence X = 4 km
Answer : (B)
Direct Formula
Distance = S1*S2/(S1 - S2) * Time difference
S1 = 4 km/hr, S2 = 3 km/hr, Time Difference = 10 - (-10) = 20 minutes or 1/3 hours
Distance = 4*3/(4-3) * 1/3 = 4 km
Note: In the above formula, while calculating the time difference, "late" time is written with
negative sign.
Q. 4)
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Method 1
Let time taken by second runner = t. So time taken by first runner = t + 32/60 = t + 8/15
Since distance is constant, hence speed and time are inversely proportional
S2/S1 = T1/T2
16/15 = (t + 8/15)/t
16/15 = 1 + 8/15t
1/15 = 8/15t
t = 8 hours
So second runner takes 8 hours to cover the distance with a speed of 16 km/hr
Hence distance = 8*16 = 128 km
Method 2
Let the distance be X km. Then,
X/15 - X/16 = 32/60
Solve for X
X = 128 km
Answer: (A)
Method 3 (Direct formula)In such questions you can use the same formula you used for Q. (3)
Distance = S1*S2/(S1 - S2) * Time difference
Distance = 16*15/(16 - 15) * (32/60) = 16 * 15 * 32/60 = 128 km
Q. 5)
A man rows down a river 15 km in 3 hrs.
Hence, Downstream Speed(v) = 15/3 = 5 km/hr
Similarly, Upstream Speed(u) = 15/7.5 = 2 km/hr
v = Rate in still water + Rate of stream
u = Rate in still water - Rate of stream
Add the above 2 equationsRate in still water = (v + u)/2 = (5 + 2)/2 = 3.5 km/hr
Answer: (C)
Q. 6)
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We have in the above questionSpeed of the current = (v - u)/2

u = 36/6 = 6 km/hr
v = 48/6 = 8 km/hr
Speed of the current = (8 - 6)/2 = 1 km/hr
Answer: (D)
Q. 7)
Let the distance be X km. Let he takes 't' time downstream, then he will take '2t' time upstream.
Downstream speed(v) = X/t
Upstream speed(u) = X/2t
Speed of the boat in still water/Speed of the current = (v + u)/(v - u) = (X/t + X/2t)/(X/t - X/2t)
= 3/2 : 1/2
=3:1
Answer : (B)
Direct formula-
So, Speed of the boat in still water/Speed of the current = (2t + t)/(2t - t) = 3 : 1
Q. 8)
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Given,
24/u + 28/v = 6 or 12/u + 14/v = 3 ... (1)
30/u + 21/v = 6.5
... (2)
The best way to solve (1) and (2) is by eliminating a variable.
Multiply equation (1) by 3
36/u + 42/v = 9 ... (3)
Multiply equation (2) by 2
60/u + 42/v = 13 ... (4)
Subtract equation (3) from (4)
24/u = 4
u = 6 km/hr
Put u = 6 in equation (1)
v = 14 km/hr
Speed of the boat in still water = (u + v)/2 = (6 + 14)/2 = 10 km/hr
Answer: (D)
Q. 9) Two guns were fired from the same place at an interval of 13 minutes but a person in
a train approaching the place hears the second shot 12 mins 30 seconds after the first. Find
the speed of the train(approx) supposing that sound travels at 330 m/s.
A. 40
B. 47
C. 55
D. 60
Distance travelled by sound in 30 sec = Distance travelled by train in 12 min 30 sec
Let the speed of the train be X m/sec
Distance travelled by sound in 30 sec = 330*30 metres
Distance travelled by train in 12 min 30 sec (750 sec) = X*750
330*30 = X*750
X = 13.2 m/sec = 13.2 * 18/5 km/hr = 47.52 km/hr
Answer: 47 km/hr
Explanation
When you hear the gun shot, that means the sound has travelled to your ears.
First consider a simple scenario when the train is not moving. When the two shots are fired from
A, a person sitting in the train will hear them at an interval of 13 minutes only. The sound travels
the distance from A to B.
Now let us consider the scenario when the train is moving from B to A. When the first shot is
fired, the sound will travel from A to B and the person sitting inside the train will hear it
instantly. Now when the second shot is fired after 13 minutes, the sound would not have to travel
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from A to B, because the person sitting inside the train is not at B any more. He has moved from
position B to X. Hence the sound only needs to travel from A to X.
Hence in this case, the person is hearing the shot after 12 minutes 30 seconds. Instead of
travelling for 13 minutes (from A to B), now the sound is travelling only for 12 min 30 sec (from
A to X). Hence we can say,
AB = Distance travelled by sound in 13 minutes
AX = Distance travelled by sound in 12 minutes 30 seconds
XB = Distance travelled by sound in 30 seconds
... (1)
After 12 minutes 30 seconds, the sound moves from A to X and also the train moves from B to
X.
BX = Distance travelled by train in 12 minutes 30 seconds
... (2)
Hence from (1) and (2) we can sayDistance travelled by sound in 30 sec = Distance travelled by train in 12 min 30 sec
Q. 10) Two guns were fired from the same place at an interval of 10 minutes and 30
seconds, but a person in a train approaching the place hears second shot 10 minutes after
the first. The speed of train (in km/hr), supposing that sound travels at 330m/s is:
A. 19.8
B. 58.6
C. 59.4
D. 111.8
Distance travelled by sound in 30 sec = Distance travelled by train in 10 minutes (600 sec)
330*30 = X*600
X = 16.5 m/sec or 59.4 km/hr
Answer: (C)
Some Question on Above formulas

Ques 1: A man covers a distance of 600m in 2min 30sec. What will be the speed in km/hr?
Sol:: Speed =Distance / Time
=Distance covered = 600m, Time taken = 2min 30sec = 150sec
Therefore, Speed= 600 / 150 = 4 m/sec
= 4m/sec = (4*18/5) km/hr = 14.4 km/ hr.
Ques 2: A car travels along four sides of a square at speeds of 200, 400, 600 and 800 km/hr.
Find average speed.?
Sol: Let x km be the side of square and y km/hr be average speed
Using basic formula, Time = Total Distance / Average Speed
x/200 + x/400 + x/600 + x/800= 4x/y
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=25x/ 2400 = 4x/ y

= y= 384
Average speed = 384 km/hr
Ques 3: A motor car does a journey in 10 hrs, the first half at 21 kmph and the second half at
24kmph. Find the distance?
Sol:
Distance = (2 x 10 x 21 x 24) / (21+24)
= 10080 / 45
= 224 km.
Ques 4:A boy goes to school at a speed of 3 kmph and returns to the village at a speed of 2
kmph. If he takes 5 hrs in all, what is the distance between the village and the school?
Sol : Let the required distance be x km.
Then time taken during the first journey = x/3 hr.
and time taken during the second journey = x/2 hr.
x/3 + x/2 = 5 => (2x + 3x) / 6 = 5
=> 5x = 30.
=> x = 6
Required distance = 6 km.
Ques 5: Walking of his speed, a person is 10 min late to his office. Find his usual time to
cover the distance?
Sol : Usual time = Late time / {1/ (3/4) 1)
= 10 / (4/3 -1 )
= 10 / (1/3)
= 30 minutes.
We hope that the post would have cleared all your doubts related to the topic.
Most Important Questions with Short Tricks on Time, Speed and Distance
Question 1: A train running at 25 km/hr takes 18 seconds to pass a platform. Next, it takes 12
seconds to pass a man walking at 5 km/hr in the opposite direction. Find the sum of the
length of the train and that of the platform.
(1) 125 m
(2) 135 m
(3) 145 m
(4) 155 m
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Solution:
Speed of train = 25 km./hr.
Distance traveled in 18 secs at this speed

Where D = L . train + L . platform
length of train + length of platform = 125 m.

Short Trick:
Speed in m/sec.
Sum of length of train & Platform

Question 2: Two trains for Delhi leave Jaipur at 8.30 a.m. and 9.00 a.m. and travel at 60 km/hr
and 75 km/hr respectively. How many km. away from Jaipur will the two trains meet.
(1) 125 km
(2) 150 km
(3) 175 km
(4) 200 km
Solution:
Distance covered by 1st train in 30 min. = 30 kms. (as speed per hrs. 60)
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Time taken by 2nd train to cover 30 kms. = 2 hrs. (as it travels 15 km. per hr. more than 1st train.
Hence takes 2 hrs. to cover 30 km. that 1st train has already covered)
Dist. covered = (60 x 2.5 hr.) or (75 x 2 hrs.) = 150 km.
Short Trick:
Required distance = (9.00 8.30) x

Question 3: Two places P and Q are 162 km apart. A train leaves P for Q and at the same time
another train leaves Q for P. Both the trains meet 6 hrs after they start moving. If the train
travelling from P to Q travels 8 km/hr faster than the other train, find the speed of the two
trains.
(1) 17.5 km/hr, 9.5 km/hr

(2) 19.5 km/hr, 11.5 km/hr
(3) 21.5 km/hr, 13.5 km/hr
(4) Cant be determined
Solution:
Suppose the speeds of the two trains are p km/hr and q km/hr respectively. Thus
and p q = 8 (ii)
(i) + (ii) implies that
2p = 35
p = 17.5 km/hr
and (i) (ii) implies that

2q = 19
q = 9.5 km/hr
Short Trick:
Take speed =
(x) + (x + 8) = 27 (as given diff. in speed = 8 kms./hr.)
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9.5 & 17.5

Question 4: A train running at a speed of 60 kmph crosses a platform double its length in 32.4
seconds. What is the length of the platform?
(1) 180 metres

(2) 240 metres
(3) 360 metres
(4) 90 metres
Solution:
Let the length of the train be x m
length of the platform = 2x m
Total distance covered by the train = (2x + x =) 3x m
Now, according to the question
or,
Short Trick:
Speed in m/sec
Distance covered
Total length
540
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(as the length of platform is double of the train)

Question 5: A train travels at the speed of 65 kms/hr and halts at 8 junctions for a certain
time. It covers a distance of 1300 kms in 1 day (24 hours). How long does the train stop at
each junction, if it halts for the same period of time at all the junctions?
(1) 30 minutes
(2) 20 minutes
(3) 60 minutes
(4) 40 minutes
Solution:
Speed = 65 kmph
Distance = 1300 kms
Time taken
Clearly, 4 hours are spent at 8 junctions in stoppages as one full day was taken for the journey to
be completed.
Required time = 4 x 60 = 240 min. and at each junction the halt is of

Short Trick:
Time to cover 1300 km=D/S = 1300/65= 20 hrs
Break = 24 hrs. 20 hrs. = 4 hrs.
Break at each junction
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12.Boat and Stream

Upstream: When the boat moves against the current of the river (i.e. in opposite direction), then
the relative speed of the boat is the difference of the speed of the boat and stream. It is known as
upstream speed.
Remember it with UP as going up the hill means against the direction of the force (speed) of the
river.
If speed of boat or swimmer is x km/h and the speed of stream is y km/h then,
Speed of boat upstream =
k /h
Downstream: When the boat moves with the current of the river (i.e. in same direction), then the
relative speed of the boat is the sum of the speed of the boat and stream. It is known as
downstream speed.
Remember it with DOWN as going down the hill means towards the direction of the force
(speed) of the river.
If speed of boat or swimmer is x km/h and the speed of stream is y km/h then,
Speed of boat downstream = (x + y) km/h
Important Points
When speed of boat is given then it means speed in the still water, unless it is stated otherwise.
Some Basic Formulas
Speed of boat in still water is

= (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed)
Speed of stream is
= (Downstream Speed Upstream Speed)
Types of Questions asked in Previous Exam By SSC

Type 1: When the distance covered by boat in downstream is same as the distance covered by
boat upstream. The speed of boat in still water is x and speed of stream is y then ratio of time
taken in going upstream and downstream is,
Short Trick:
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Time taken in upstream : Time taken in Downstream = (x+y)/(x-y)

Example:
A man can row 9km/h in still water. It takes him twice as long as to row up as to row down. Find
the rate of the stream of the river.
Solution:
Time taken in upstream : Time taken in Downstream = 2 : 1
Downstream speed : Upstream speed = 2 : 1
Let the speed of man = B, & speed of stream = S
B + S : B S = 2/1
By using Componendo & Dividendo
B/R = 3/1, R = B/3
R = 9/3 = 3km/h
Type 2: A boat cover certain distance downstream in t1 hours and returns the same distance
upstream in t2 hours. If the speed of stream is y km/h, then the speed of the boat in still water is:
Short Trick:
Speed of Boat = y [(t2 + t1) / (t2 t1)]
Example
A man can row certain distance downstream in 2 hours and returns the same distance upstream in
6 hours. If the speed of stream is 1.5 km/h, then the speed of man in still water is
Solution:
By using above formulae
= 1.5 [(6+2) / (6-2)] = 1.5 * (8/4) = 1.5 * 2 = 3km/h
Type 3: A boats speed in still water at x km/h. In a stream flowing at y km/h, if it takes it t
hours to row to a place and come back, then the distance between two places is
Short Trick: Distance = [t*(x2 y2)]/2x
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Example
A motor boat can move with the speed 7 km/h. If the river is flowing at 3 km/h, it takes him 14
hours for a round trip. Find the total distance covered?
Solution: By using above formulae
= [14 * (72 32)]/2* 7 = [14 * (49-9)]/2*7
= 14*40/2*7 = 40km
Type 4: A boats speed in still water at x km/h. In a stream flowing at y km/h, if it takes t hours
more in upstream than to go downstream for the same distance, then the distance is
Short Trick: Distance = [t*(x2 y2)]/2y
Example
A professional swimmer challenged himself to cross a small river and back. His speed in
swimming pool is 3km/h. He calculated the speed of the river that day was 1km/h. If it took him
15 mins more to cover the distance upstream than downstream, then find the width of the river?
Solution: By using the above formulae
Distance = [t*(x2 y2)]/2y
= [(15/60) (32 12)]/2*1
= [(1/4) * 8] / 2
= 2/2 = 1 km.
Type 5: A boats speed in still water at x km/h. In a stream flowing at y km/h, if it cover the
same distance up and down the stream, then its average speed is
Short Trick: Average speed = upstream * downstream / mans speed in still water
Note: The average speed is independent of the distance between the places.
Example
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Find the average speed of a boat in a round trip between two places 18 km apart. If the speed of
the boat in still water is 9km/h and the speed of the river is 3km/h?
Solution: Average speed = upstream * downstream / mans speed in still water
Average speed = 6 * 12 / 9 = 8km/h
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13.Probability
Probability questions are an important part of Quantitative aptitude section of most
competitive exams like SBI, IBPS, PO/Clerk, LIC-AAO etc. These questions are asked
frequently so it becomes really relevant to know the right technique of solving these
questions.
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What is Probability?
Probability in simple terms tell us about the chance of something occurring. The probability
of an event happening ranges between 0 to 1. That means the value of probability can never be a
negative number or a number greater than 1.
Consider this, if its cloudy outside then two things can happen. First, either it will rain or
second, it wont rain. So, the total events are 2 (raining or not raining). And, the probability
of raining is 1/2
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So, Probability of an event happening = Concerned Events / Total Events

Probability of an event happening is denoted by P(E)
Probability of an event not happening is denoted by P().
And, P(E) + P() = 1
Types of Events:
1. If And event is given then we multiply or count events together.
2. If Or event is given then we add the two or more events.
Classical Cases:
The classical cases discussed in probability are based on following points:
1. Dice:
The dice used here is the one used to play Ludo. A typical dice has numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
are written over its six faces as shown below.
When a dice is thrown the number that appears on upper face is the concerned event. The
questions based on dice are mainly of two types(not exhaustive):
(I) When Only One dice is thrown once:
In such cases, the number rolling on playing a dice is either 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6.
Here, the concerned event of rolling out 1 is 1 only because 1 is written only one face. And,
total events = 6 because total different numbers written different faces are six in total.
So, Probability of rolling number 1 = 1/6
Similarly, Probability of rolling number 2 ( or any number from 3 to 6) = 1/6
Question asked:
What is the probability of getting an even number on rolling a dice?
Now, concerned event should have an even number which are 2, 4 and 6
So, Concerned Event = 3
Total Event = 6
So, Probability = 3/6 = 1/2
(II) When Two dices are thrown:
In such cases, either of the two things happen either two dices are thrown simultaneously and the
numbers appearing on top faces of both dices are noted and summed up; or one dice is thrown
two times in a row and the numbers appearing on the top faces in the two times are noted and
summed up. Whatever is done, the treatment is same in either the cases, two dices at once or
rolling one dice twice. So, this summed up number is the concerned event in such question.
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The various combinations of numbers that can turn up on throwing two dices (or one dice twice)
can be listed as below
For example: (1, 6) shows that 1 would turn up on dice 1 and 6 would turn up on dice 2.
Here, total outcome is the total number of combinations stated above: (1,1,); (1,2) . (6,5);
(6,6) = 36
The questions asked can be of following type:
Qs. 1 What is the probability of getting a combination of 5 and 3 on throwing two
dices?
Solutions Now the concerned event should have number 5 and 3 so concerned events = 2
{(3,5) and (5,3)}
Total events = 36
Probability = 2/36 = 1/18
Qs. 2 What is the probability of getting a sum of 10 on rolling a dice twice?
Solutions Now, the concerned events should have sum of 10 i.e. No. on dice 1 +No. on dice 2
= 10
This can be seen in these cases: (4,6); (5,5) and (6,4)
So, Concerned Events = 3
And, we know Total Events are always 36
So, Probability = 3/36 = 1/12
2. Coins:
Coin is a currency token which has two faces, one is head and other is tail. So, when throw a
coin in air and when it lands it might have either a head or tail. Coin questions can be three types
as shown below:
I. One Coin once:
When a coin is tossed is only once then there can be two outcomes either a head or a tail. In such
cases, total events = 2
Question: What is the probability of getting a head in a toss?
Solutions Concerned event = 1(One head)
Total Event = 2
P(E) = 1/2
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II. Two Coins or One Coin Twice:

When two coins are tossed together or one coin is tossed in twice then following outcomes can
be obtained:
Here, H = Head; T = Tail.
(H,T) shows that on coin 1 its Head while on coin 2 its Tail. Here, we can see that Total
Event = 4
Question: What is the Probability of getting at most one head on tossing a coin?
Solutions At most one head means there can be 0 head or there can be 1 head.
So, Concerned Event = 3 {(H,T) (T,H) (T,T)}
Total Events = 4
P(E) = 3/4
III. Three Coins or One Coin Thrice:
When three coins are tossed together or one coin is tossed in thrice then following outcomes can
be obtained:
Here, H = Head; T = Tail.
(HHH), (HHT), (HTH), (THH), (HTT), (THT), (TTH), (TTT)
Here, (HTH) shows that coin 1 has a head, coin 2 has a Tail while coin 3 has a head.
In such cases, Total Events = 8
Question: Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at least 2
heads?
Here, at least heads means there can be 2 heads and 3 heads.
So, Concerned Events = 4 {(HHH), (HHT), (HTH), (THH)}
Total Events = 8
P(E) =4/8 =1/2
3. Cards:
There are four kinds of symbol used in playing cards. The etymology for different symbols is as
below:
i) Spade Black in color (13 in number)
ii) Club Black in color (13 in number)
iii) Heart Red in color (13 in number)
iv) Diamonds Red in color (13 in number)
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Each of these 4 variants have 13 numbers each as 1, 2, 3 . 10 and, Jack, Queen, King and
Ace. There are
1) 26 red cards and 26 black cards.
2) 4 cards each of 1, 2, 3 . 10 and, Jack, Queen, King and Ace.
3) 13 cards each of Spade, Heart, Club and Diamond.
So, in total there are 13 4 = 52 cards.
Types of questions asked:
1. One card drawn:
In such types of question a card is drawn from the pack of cards. Here, the Total Events = 52
Question: What is the probability of getting a King of Spade or Queen of Heart in one
draw?
Solutions Here, King of Spade or Queen of Heart means that either the card can be the Spade
King or Heart Queen. Clearly, there is only one King of Space and only one Queen of Heart.
So, Concerned Event = 2
Total Event = 52
P(E) = 2/52 = 1/26
2. More than One Card drawn:
In such questions when more than One card is drawn we use the concept of Combination
formula. For example the question below:
Question Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that
one is a spade and one is a heart is ____ ?
Here, the one spade card has to be drawn from 13 spade cards, so its event = 13C1
And, one heart card has to be drawn from 13 heart cards, so its event = 13C1
So, Concerned Event = 13C113C1
Total Events (as two cards are to be drawn from 52) = 52C2
So, P(E) = (13C113C1) 52C2 = (13 x 13) x 2 / 52 x 51 = 13 / 102
Question Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that
either both are red or both are Kings ____ ?
Here, the both red cards have to be drawn from 26 red cards, so its event = 26C2
Or, both king cards have to be drawn from 4 King cards, so its event = 4C2
But there are Two Red Kings which are common in both Red cards & King cards so they
have been double counted. And, they will be taken out of two red king cards only so theyll be
deducted from concerned events.
So, Concerned Event = 26C2 + 4C2 2C2
Total Events (as two cards are to be drawn from 52) = 52C2
So, P(E) = (26C2 + 4C2 2C2) 52C2 = [ (26 x 25) + (4 x 3) 1 ] / 52 x 51 = 330 / 1326 = 55 /
221
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4. Balls:
In such questions, a bag contains certain balls and some ball(s) is(are) drawn.
I. One ball drawn:
Question In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked at
random. What is the probability that it is neither red nor green?
Solutions Total Events = 8 (red) + 7 (blue) + 6 (green) = 21
Since, the selected ball has to be neither red nor green then itd be Blue and blue balls are 7.
So, Concerned Event = 7 P(E) = 7/21 = 1/3
II. More than One ball drawn without replacement:
Question A box contains 10 black or 10 white balls. The probability of drawing two balls
of same colors?
Solution Total Events (as 2 balls are drawn) = 20C2
The balls drawn can either be both black color or both white color and for OR event we add
up the two events.
So, Concerned Event = 10C2 (if black) + 10C2 (if white)
P(E) = (10C2 + 10C2) 20C2 = 10 x 9 + 10 x 9 / 20 x 19 = 9 / 19
Question A box contains 10 black and 10 white balls. The probability of drawing two
balls of same colors?
Solution Total Events (as 2 balls are drawn) = 20C2

The balls drawn can be both black color or both white color. for And event we multiply the
two events.
First case If both ball is white
So, Concerned Event = 10C0 (if black) x 10C2 (if white)
P(E) = (10C0 x 10C2) 20C2 = 1 x 10 x 9 / 20 x 19 = 9 / 38
Second case If both ball is black
So, Concerned Event = 10C2 (if black) x 10C0 (if white)

P(E) = (10C2 x 10C0) 20C2 = 10 x 9 x 1 / 20 x 19 = 9 / 38
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Other Miscellaneous questions:
Qs 1. Four persons are chosen at random from a group of 3 men, 2 women and 4 children.
What is the probability of exactly two of them being children?
Solution Total People = 3 + 2 + 4 = 9
Since, 4 people are chosen from 9 so Total Event = 9C4
And, since 2 of the chosen people have to be children so these 2 person have to be from 4
children so Concerned Event for children= 4C2
And, other 2 people will be from Men & Women (3+2 = 5), their Concerned event = 5C2
Concerned Event (for all 4 people) = 4C2 5C2
P(E) = (4C2 5C2) 9C4 = (4 x 3 x 5 x 4) x (2 x3) / 9 x 8 x 7 x 6 = 10 / 21
Qs. 2. A and B give exam. Chance of husbands selection is 1/7 and of wifes selection is 1/5.
Find probability of only one of them is selected.
Solution P( husband selecting) = 1/7

P (husband not selecting) = 1 1/7 = 6/7
P( wife selecting) = 1/5
P (wife not selecting) = 1 1/5 = 4/5
Probability of only one of them is selected = P( husband selecting) P (wife not selecting) + P( wife
selecting) P (husband not selecting) = (1/7 x 4/5) + (1/5 x 6/7) = 10/35 = 2/7.
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14.Problem Based on Ages

To solve the Problem Based on Ages in Quant Section, students require the knowledge of
linear equations. This method needs some basic concepts as well as some more time than it
deserves. Sometimes it is easier to solve the problems by taking the given choices in account.
But this hit-and-trial method proves costly sometimes, when we reach our solution much later.
We have tried of questions. Although, we are not able to cover each type of questions in this
section, our attempt is to minimize your defficulties.
Have a look at the following questions:Ex. 1: The age of the father 3 years ago was 7 times the age of his son. At present, the
fathers age is five times that of his son. What are the present ages of the father and the
son?
Ex. 2: At present, the age of the father is five times the age of his son. Three years hence,
the fathers age would be four times that of his son. Find the present ages of the father and
the son.
Ex. 3: Three years earlier, the father was 7 times as old as his son. Three years hence, the
fathers age would be four times of his son. What are the present ages of the father and the
son?
Ex. 4: The sum of the ages of a mother and her daughter is 50 yrs. Also 5 yrs ago, the
mothers age was 7 times the age of the daughter. What are the present ages of the mother
and the daughter?
Ex. 5: The sum of the ages of a son and father is 56 yrs. After 4 yrs, the age of the father
will be three times that of the son. What is the age of the son?
Ex.6: The ratio of the ages of the father and the son at present is 6: 1. After 5 years, the
ratio will become 7 : 2. What is the present age of the son?
By the conventional method:Solution: 1.
Let the present age of son = x yrs
Then, the present age of father = 5xyr

3 years ago,
7(x 3)= 5x 3
Or, 7x 21 =5x 3
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Or, 2x =18
x = 9 yrs
Therefore, sons age = 9 years
Fathers age = 45 years
Solution: 2.
Let the present age of son = x yrs
Then, the present age of father = 5x yrs

3 yrs hence,
4(x+3)= 5x+3
Or, 4x + 12=5x +3
x= 9yrs.
Therefore, sons age = 9 yrs and fathers age = 45 yrs
Solution: 3.
Let the present age of son = x yrs and the present age of father = y yrs
3 yrs earlier, 7(x 3) = y 3 or, 7x y =18.(i)

3 yes hence, 4(x+3) = y +3
Or, 4x +12 = y + 3
or, 4x y = 9 (ii)
Solving (1) & (2) we get, x = 9 yrs & y =45 yrs

Solution: 4.
Let the age of the daughter be x yrs.
Then, the age of the mother is (50x x)yrs

5 yrs ago, 7(x 5) = 50 x 5
Or, 8x = 50 5 +35 = 80
x =10
Therefore, daughters age = 10 yrs and mothers age = 40yrs
Solution: 5.
Let the age of the son be x yrs.
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Then, the age of the father is (56 x) yrs.

After 4 yrs, 3(x+4) = 56 x +4
Or, 4x =56 +4 12 = 48
x = 12 yrs
Thus, sons age = 12 yrs.
Solutions: 6.
Present age =
After 5 yrs =
Father
Son
Sons age =
Fathers age =
Gradestack Method:Solution: 1.
Sons age =
=9 yrs
and fathers age = 9 5 = 45 yrs.
Undoubtably you get confused with the above method, but it is very easy to understand and
remember. See the following form of question.
Question: t1 yrs earlier the fathers age was x times that of his son. At present the fathers age
is y times that of his son. What are the present ages of the son and the father?
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Formula
Solution 2: Sons age =
= 9yrs and fathers age = 9 5 =45 yrs

To make more clear, see the following form:
Questions: The present age of the father is y times the age of his son. t2 yrs hence, the
fathers age become z times the age of his son. What are the present ages of the father and his
son?
Formula
Solutions.3:
Sons age =
= 9 yrs
To make the above formula clear, see the following form of question.
Questions: t1 yrs earlier, the age of the father was x times the age of his son. t2 yrs hence, the
age of the father becomes z times the age of his son. What are the present ages of the son and
the father?
Formula
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Solutions. 4:
Daughter s age =
Thus, daughters age = 10 yrs and mothers age = 40 yrs

Solutions. 5:
Sons age =
Note : Do you get the similarities between the above two direct methods? They differ only in
sign in the numerator. When the question deals with ago, a +ve sign exixts and when it deals
with after, a ve sign exists in the numerator.
Solutions. 6: Then what formula comes?
Father
Son
Present age =
After T yrs =
y
:
Then, Sons age =
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And, Fathers age =
Note:
1. While evaluating the difference of cross-product, always take +ve sign.
2. Both the above direct formulas look similar. The only difference you can find is in the
denominators. But it has been simplified as difference of cross-products to make it easier to
remember. So, with the help of one formula only you can solve both the question.
3. We suggest you to go-through both the methods and choose the better of the two.
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15.Mixture and Allegation

"One Topic, to rule them all"
Yes...Mixture and Alligation has its own charm. A good hold of it can help you in solving a wide
range of questions.
Alligation is a method of solving arithmetic problems related to mixtures of ingredients. Please
note that alligation method is applied for percentage value, ratio, rate, prices, speed, etc. and not
for absolute value. That is whenever per cent, per km, per hour, per kg, are being
compared, we can use Alligation.
Common trick for Ratio-Proportion and Mixture Alligation : Almost 50% of the questions
are solvable just by going through the options. Just go through the questions I have solved in this
article and you will know the approach.
Rule of Alligation
Ingredient A : Ingredient B = M - Y : X - M
Here Mean Price is something which applies on the whole thing. If two varieties of tea
costing Rs. X and Rs. Y respectively are mixed and sold at Rs. Z, then Z is the mean price
because it is price of the mixture.
Now I will take up some SSC CGL questions of Ratio-proportion and Mixture-Alligation.
Q.1
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Note that Rs. 180/kg and Rs. 280/kg are cost prices, while Rs. 320 is the selling price. To apply
the alligation formula, all the three prices should be similar. So we will convert SP into CP
Given SP = Rs. 320/kg, Profit = 20%
Hence CP = 320/1.2 = Rs. 800/3
So the Mean price is Rs. 800/3 per kg
Now you can apply the formulaType 1 : Type 2 = 280 - 800/3 : 800/3 - 180 = 2 : 13
Answer : (B)
Q. 2)
Both the containers have equal capacity. Let us assume that both containers are of 28 litres. Why
28? Because 28 is the LCM of (3 + 1) and (5 + 2) or 4 and 7. So taking the capacity as 28 litres
will make your calculations easier.
In Container 1, we have (3/4)*28 = 21 litres of milk and (1/4)*28 = 7 litres of water.
In Container 1, we have (5/7)*28 = 20 litres of milk and (2/7)*28 = 8 litres of water.
Total milk in both the containers = 21 + 20 = 41
Total water in both the containers = 7 + 8 = 15
Milk : Water = 41 : 15
Answer : (D)
Shortcut
Container 1 has 3 times more milk than water
Container 2 has 2.5 times more milk than water
When the contents of the two containers are mixed, the milk will still be more than water. How
much more ? Somewhere between 2.5 and 3 times
(D) is the only option where the quantity of milk is around 2.7 times (i.e. between 2.5 and 3) that
of the water.
Q. 3)
Milk in vessel A = 4/7

Milk in vessel B = 2/5
Milk in vessel C = 1/2 (because in vessel C, milk and water are present in 1:1 ratio)
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You have to mix 4/7 and 2/5, to produce 1/2. Hence 1/2 is the Mean Price.
A : B = (1/2 - 2/5)/(4/7 - 1/2) = 14 : 10 = 7 : 5
Q. 4)
Shortcut
Final ratio of the three varieties is 5 : 7 : 9
The question asks us the quantity of third variety of tea in the final mixture. From the above
ratio, it is clear that the quantity of the third variety is a multiple of 9. So 45 is the only option
possible.
Answer : (D)
Method
Let the three quantities be 4x, 5x and 8x
New quantities are 4x + 5, 5x + 10 and 8x + p
Now 4x + 5 : 5x + 10 : 8x + p = 5 : 7 : 9
(4x + 5)/(5x + 10) = 5/7 and (4x + 5)/(8x + p) = 5/9
Solving 1st equation, we get x = 5
Solving 2nd equation, we get p = 5
In the final mixture the quantity of the third variety is 8x + p = 8*5 + 5 = 45
Q. 5)
In this question we will use the below formula
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So from the above formula

(Quantity of acid left)/(Quantity of acid in the original mixture) = (1 - 4/20)^2 = 16:25
Answer : (A)
Q. 6)
Let the original quantities of A and B be 4x and x

In 10 litres, quantity of A = 4/5 * 10 = 8 litres
In 10 litres, quantity of B = (10 - 8) = 2 litres
New quantities of A and B are 2x and 3x
(Original Quantity of A) - (New quantity of A) = 8 litres[Because after taking out 10 litres of the
mixture, the quantity of liquid A reduced by 8 litres]
So, 4x - 2x = 8
or x = 4
Hence quantity of liquid A in original mixture = 4*4 = 16 litres
Answer : (C)
Note : In the above question, there were two different ratios 4:1 and 2:3, then too I took the same
constant of proportionality for them, i.e. 'x' because the following two conditions were met:
1. The volume of mixture did not change (Like in this question 10 litres were replaced, not
removed)
2. The two ratios had same no. of parts (4:1 and 2:3 both have 5 parts)
You can take different constant to solve the question, but that will make the calculations little
lengthy.
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Q. 7)
Since the ratio of alcohol and water is 1:4, hence quantities of alcohol and water in the mixture
are 3 litres and 12 litres respectively.
Total volume will become 18 litres after adding 3 litres water
% of alcohol = 3/18 * 100 = 50/3%
Answer : (B)
Q. 8)
Shortcut
Originally there are 1512 story books
Final ratio of Story books : Others = 15:4
That means the story books are a multiple of 15.
Just look at the options and see which number when added to 1512, will give a multiple of 15
Answer : (C)
Method
Let the no of story and other books be 7x and 2x respectively
Given 7x = 1512
x = 216
Now let the final quantity of story and other books be 15y and 4y respectively.
Since only story books are added to the collection, hence the quantity of other books has
remained unchanged.
So 2x = 4y or y = x/2 = 108
We have to find 15y - 7x = 15y - 14y = y [Since x = 2y]
So answer is 108.
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Q. 1)
Let the gain% of the remaining land be x%. Then
Given, 2/5 land is sold on loss and hence 3/5 land is sold on profit
So, Profit : Loss = 3:2
Hence 16 : (x - 10) = 3 : 2
16/(x - 10) = 3/2
or x = 62/3%
Answer : (B)
Q. 2)
His average speed for the entire journey = 61/9 km/hour
Time taken on foot : Time taken on bicycle = (9 - 61/9)/(61/9 - 4) = 4:5
Time taken on foot = 4/9 * 9 = 4 hours
Hence distance travelled on foot = (Speed on foot * Time taken on foot) = 4*4 = 16 km
Answer : (C)
Alternate method
This method is equally easy.
Let the distance travelled on foot be X km. Then distance travelled on bicycle = (61 - X)
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Now he travelled for 9 hours. Hence

X/4 + (61 - X)/9 = 9
Solve for X
You will get X = 16 km
Q. 3)
Number of legs per head = 420/180 = 7/3
Now cows have 4 legs while hens have 2 legs
Cows : Hens = 1/3 : 5/3 = 1 : 5

Now total number of cows and hens = total number of heads = 180
Number of cows = 1/6 * 180 = 30
Answer : (B)
Q. 4)
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A : B = 3 : 4 and B: C = 4 : 5
A:B:C=3:4:5
Average score of classes A, B and C =
Answer : (B)
Q. 5)
The man spends 75% of his income, that means he saves 25%
Hence Expenditure : Saving = 75 : 25 = 3 : 1
Let the % increase in the savings be x.
I have written 3 : 1 as 30 : 10 so that (% increase in income - % increase in expenditure) could

agree with 3 : 1 ratio. As we know 20 - 10 = 10, not 1.
So now from the figure we can see that x - 20 = 30
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Hence x = 50%
Answer : (C)
Q. 6)
If whole money is invested at 6%, then interest = 6% of 1500 = Rs. 90
If whole money is invested at 5%, then interest = 5% of 1500 = Rs. 75
Hence, Money invested at 6% : Money invested at 5% = 10 : 5 = 2 : 1

Money invested at 5% = 1/3 * 1500 = Rs. 500
Answer : Rs. 500
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PRACTICE
CRACK BOOK
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ENGLISH
PRACTICE SET
English
Directions (Q.1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you
Goldman Sachs predicted that crude oil price would hit $200 and just as it appeared that
alternative renewable energy had a chance of becoming an economically viable option, the
international price of oil fell by over 70%. After hitting the all-time high of $147 a barrel, a
month ago, crude fell to less than $40 a barrel, what explains this sharp decline in the
international price of oil? These have not been any major new discovery of a hitherto
unknown source of oil or gas. The short answer is that the demand does not have to fall by
a very sizeable quantity for the price of crude to respond as it did. In the short run, the price
elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low. Conversely, in the short run, even a relatively
big change in the price of oil does not immediately lower consumption. It takes months or
years, of high oil price to inculcate habits of energy conservation. World crude oil price had
remained at over $ 60 a barrel for most of 2005-07 without making any major dent in
demand.
The long answer is more complex. The economic slowdown in US. Europe and Asia along
with dollar depreciation and commodity speculation have all had some role in the downward
descent in the international price of oil. In recent years. The supply of oil has been rising but
not enough to catch up with the rising demand, resulting in an almost vertical escalation in
its price. The number of crude oil futures and options contracts have also increased manifold
which has led to significant speculation in the oil market. In comparison, the role of the
organization of petroleum exporting countries (OPEC) in fixing crude price has considerably
weakened. OPEC is often accused of operating as a cartel restricting output, thus keeping
prices artificially high. It did succeed in setting the price of crude during the 1970s and the
first half of the 80s. But, with increased futures trading and contracts, the control of crude
pricing has moved from OPEC to banks and markets that deal with futures trading and
contracts. It is true that most oil exporting regions of the world have remained politically
unstable, fuelling speculation over the price of crude. But there is little evidence that the
geopolitical uncertainties in west Asia have improved slide of oil price. OPEC has, in fact,
announced its decision to curtail output.
However, most oil importers will heave a sigh of relief as they find their oil import bills decline
except for those who bought options to import oil at prices higher than market prices. Exporting
nations, on the other hand, will see their economic prosperity slip. Relatively low price of crude is
also bad news for investments in alternative renewable energy that cannot

compete with cheaper and non- renewable sources of energy.
1. Why are oil-importing countries relieved?
1) Price of crude reached $147, not $200, as was predicted.
2) Discovery of oil reserve within their own territories
3) Demand for crude oil has fallen sharply.
4) There is no need for them to invest huge amounts of money in alternative
sources of energy
5)None of these
2. Which of the following factors is responsible for rise in speculation in crude oil
markets? a) OPEC has not been able to restrict the oil output and control prices
b) The supply of oil has been rising to match demand.
c) Existence of large number of oil futures and oil
contracts 1)only a2) both a & b3)only c4) all a,b,& c
5) None of these
3. What does the phrase the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low imply?
1) When the price rises the demand for crude oil falls immediately
2)A small change in demand will result in a sharp change in the price of crude
3) within a short span of time the price of crude oil has fluctuated sharply
4) speculation in oil does not have much of an impact on its price
5) none of these
4. Which of the following is /are TRUE in the context of the
passage? a) The decline in oil prices has benefited all countries.
b) Renewable energy sources are costlier than non renewable ones
c) lack of availability of alternative renewable energy resulted in rise in demand
for crude
1) Only b2) Both a & b3)both b & c4) only c
5) None of these
5. Which has the impact of the drop in oil prices been
1) exploration for natural gas resources has
risen 2)The dollar has fallen sharply
3) OPEC has decided to restrict its production of oil
4) Economic depression in oil-importing countries
5) Drastic fall in demand for crude oil
6. What led to alternative energy sources being considered economically feasible?
1) the price of oil rose by 70percent while renewable energy sources are cheap

2) exorbitant crude oil prices made alternative energy sources an attractive option
3) expert predictions that the price of oil would alternately escalate and plunge sharply
4) evidence that no new sources of oil and gas are available

5) none of these
7. What does the author want to convey by citing the statistics of 2005-07?
1) the prices of crude were rising gradually so people were not alarmed
2) the dollar was a strong currency during that period
3) many people turned to alternative renewable energy sources because of high
oil prices
4) if the price of oil is high for a short time it does not necessarily result in a drip
in consumption
5) people did not control their demand for fuel then, which created the current
economic slowdown
8. Which of the following factors is not responsible for the current drop in oil prices?
1) economic crisis in America, European and Asian nations
2) speculation in oil markets
3) weakening of the dollar
4) political stability in oil-exporting countries
5) all the above are not responsible for the current drop in oil prices
9. Which of the following NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
a) OPEC was established in 1970 to protect the interests of oil importing countries
b) when demand for oil exceeds supply there is a sharp rise in price
c) today futures trading markets set the oil prices to a large extent
1) only a2) only c 3) both a & c4) only b
5) none of these
10. Which of the following is the function of OPEC?
1) Controlling speculation in oil
2) ensuring profits are equally distributed among all its members
3) monitoring inflation in oil prices and taking necessary steps to lower it
4) guaranteeing political instability in oil-exporting countries does not impact output
5) determining prices of crude oil
Directions (Q.11-13) choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word

11. Inculcate
1) Modify
2) Construct
3) Initiate
4) Fix
5) Instill
12. Fuelling
1) Incentive
2) Supplying
4) Irrigating
5) Rescoring
3) Stimulating
13. Dent
1) Reduction
2) Break
3) Tear
4) Breach
5) Split
Directions (Q. 14-15) choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of
14. Conversely
1) compatibly 2) similarly 3) likely 4) aligning 5) Resembling 15. Weaken
1) Powerful
2) Nourish
3) Intense
4) Boost
5) Energise
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to
There are various sectors in India that are to be assessed for their strengths, weaknesses,
opportunities and threats. The total population in over 1 billon which will increase to 1.46
billion by 2035 to cross china. The huge population will result in higher unemployment and
deterioration of quality. Literacy, in India is yet another factor to be discussed. According
to 1991 census, 64.8% of the population was illiterate. The major downtrend of education
is due to child labour which has spread all over India and this should be totally eradicated
by way of surveillance and a good educational system implemented properly by the
government.
Pollution is one more threat to the environment and for the countrys prospects. This has
been experienced more in urban areas mainly in metropolitan cities. The water pollution by
the sewage seepage into the ground water and improper maintenance will lead to various
diseases which in turn will affect the next generation. In most of the cities there is no
proper sewage disposal. The government has to take effective steps to control population
which, in turn, will minimize the pollution.
Poverty questions the entire strength of Indias political view and minimizes the energetic
way of approach. The shortfall of rains, enormous floods, unexpected famine, drought,
earthquake and the recent tsunami hit the country in a negative way. The proactive

approach through effective research and analytical study helps us to determine the effects
in advance. Proper allocation of funds is a prerequisite. In developed countries like U.S.,
Japan precautionary methods are adopted to overcome this, but it has to be improved a lot
in our systems.
Increased population is one of the major reasons for poverty and the government is unable
to allocate funds for basic needs to the society. India has nearly 400million people living
below the poverty line and 90% of active population is in informal economy. The children
are forced to work due to their poverty and differential caste system. They work in match
industry for daily wages, as servants, mechanics, stone breakers, agricultural workers, etc.
To prevent child labour, existing laws which favour the anti child labour act should be
implemented by the government vigorously.
More population results in cheap cost by virtue of the demand supply concept. Most of the
foreign countries try to utilize this factor by outsourcing their business in India with a very
low capital. According to U.S., India is a Knowledge pool with cheap labour. The major
advantage is our communication and technical skill which is adaptable to any environment.
The cutting edge skill in IT of our professionals helps the outsourcing companies to
commensurate with the needs of the consumers in a short span. The major competitors
for India are china and Philippines and by the way of an effective communication and expert
technical ability, Indians are ahead of the race. The major metropolitan states are targeting
the outsourcing field vigorously by giving various amenities to the outsourcing companies
like tax concession, allotting land etc., to start their businesses in its cities without any
hurdles. Thereby most of the MNCs prefer India as their destinations and capitalize the
resources to maximize their assets. Infrastructure is another key factor for an outsourcing
company to start a business in a particular city. It includes road, rail, ports, power and
water. The increased input in infrastructure in India is very limited where chinas record is
excellent.
India in earlier days gave more importance to the development of industry and less
importance to other departments. But the scenario has quite changed now-a-days
by allocating a special budget of funds for security.
This is because of the frightening increase in terrorism all around the world especially
emerging after the 9/11 terror attack in U.S. in the last ten years, budget towards the
development of military forces is higher when compared to others. It shows that the threat
from our neighboring countries is escalating. India has to concentrate more on this
security factor to wipe out the problem in the way of cross-border terrorism.
Making India, a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a

variety of factors in order to progress rapidly. To quote china as an example is that they
demolished an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India
is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are
to be spent for the development and welfare of the country. Indias vision for a brighter
path will come true not only by mere words or speech, but extra efforts needed at all levels
to overcome the pitfalls.
16. Which of the following, according to the author, is /are a result(s) of increased
population in India?
A) Pollution
1)only A
B) Poverty
2)A and B
C) Unemployment
3) Only B
4) A and C
5) A and C
17. Why, according to the author, has the Indian government allotted more funds to
strengthen the military forces?
1) To improve security in order to counter increasing terrorism
2) As the security in India over the past ten years was grossly inadequate
3) As the US too has strengthened its military forces after the 9/11 attack
4) As the industry is developed enough and is not in need of any more funds
18. What is the authors main objective in writing this passage?
1) to exhort the government to garner support from its neighboring countries
2) To suggest to the government to follow chinas example blindly thereby
bringing about rapid development
3) To bring highlight the plight of the poor
4) To discuss the problems of child labour and suggest suitable remedies
5) To bring forth the problems associated with the Indias development and to
suggest measures to counter them
19. Why, according to the author, is India one of the favourite destinations for investment
by outsourcing companies?
A) Shorter response time for clients
B) Better technical skills
C) Availability of cheap labour.
1) only C
2) All A, B and C
3) B and C
4) A and B
5) only A
20. Which of the following is /are true in the context of the passage?
A) India leads the way in the amount invested in the development of infrastructure
B) political system in India is not influenced but poverty
C) Indian population would increase by approximately 50% in the next twenty five

years.
1)A and B
2) only B
3) only C
4) B & C
5) All of these
21. Which of the following is/are the facility (ies) available to MNCs investing in India?
A) Easy availability of land
B) Better infrastructure than china
C) Tax concessions
1)only C
2) All A , B & C
3) A & B
4) A & C
22. Which of the following, according to the author, is a result of poverty in India?
1) Lack of a robust security system
2) Child labour and the resulting dearth of education youth
3) Floods, famines and other calamities
4) Rapid increase in population
23. How, according to the author, can the effects of floods, famines, droughts, etc., be
minimized?
1) by limiting pollution thereby reducing the chances of such events taking place
2) by educating the children about the ill effects of such calamities who in turn
will help during the time of need
3) by following the U.S System of providing relief to the citizens
4) By allotting proper funds for research which can predict the outcome of
such calamities and thus design relief measure
Directions (Q.24-27) choose the word/group of words which is most similar
in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage
24. Surveillance
1) Spying 2) Cameras 3) Security 4) Observation 5) Alertness 25. Prerequisite
1) Result 2) Association 3) Necessity 4) Factor 5) Mystery 26. Prospects
1) Assimilation 2) Demand 3) Future 4) Brochure 5) Diagnosis 27.

Commensurate
1) Match
2) Extracting
3)Contemplating
4) Request
5) Employing
Directions (Q. 29-30) choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in

meaning to the word/group printed in bold as used in the passage.
28. Limited
1) Abundant 2) complete 3) Flowing 4) Inadequate 5) Encompassing 29. Differential
1) Solitude
2) Homogeneous
3) Synonymous
4) Unique
5) Different
30. Vigorously
1) Simply
2) Regularly
3) Roughly
4) Softly
5) Leniently
Directions (Q. 31-45) Read the following passages carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to
help you to locate them while answering some of the questions
Passage I
Despite the economic crunch worldwide that saw pulverization of some of the largest
banking and finance giants, Indian banking houses have managed to show positive growth
this quarter. Some of Indias leading national banks have posted a net profit rise of more
than 40% over the last quarter amid global turmoil. This would come as a big shot in the
arm for the investors and consumers of these banks even though apprehension in mounting
on other banking and broking firms worldwide. One of the main reasons behind the success
of these banks this quarter, would be their direct banking by the government of India.
People take solace in their investments in public sector watching the bailout packages being
cashed out by government all over the world to save big business houses.
Other private banks in India have also reported a substantial net profit over the last quarter.
Given the international and domestic scenario one cannot put this down as a mundane
achievement. While others are on a cost cutting spree and firing employees, Indian
companies are actually working on boosting staffing in banking and broking sectors. This
can be seen as a big boon in the days to come when the current recession eases and the
economy gradually comes back on the fast track. The finance minister has assured Indian
public about the sound health of all Indian banks. This could also be evident from the fact
that there have been no mergers and takeovers in Indian banking sector in a contrast to
world scenario where finance houses are looking for mergers to cut costs on operations. We
definitely are not looking to thrive; rather we are looking for growth. It is just that the
pace of growth is a little slow now as compared to a year or two before. These are hard
times to test the hard. The weak in business and career will be weeded out and it is
sometimes very beneficial for business on the long run.

31. What according to the author is the reason for the success of Indian national banks in
this quarter?
1) Indian National banks do not have any commitments in troubled foreign markets
2) These banks can never face financial crisis because of their sheer size
3) These banks are ready to give loans at a very low rate of interest
4) The public is ready to invest in these banks because of the knowledge that
these banks get strong support from the government
32. Which of the following statement is definitely true in the context of the passage?
A) India has not been affected by the economic slowdown
B) Indian Banks are showing growth in this quarter despite the recession.
C) While banking industry in the west was severely affected by recession in the past; it
is now gradually recovering and showing a positive growth.
1)Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) A and B
5) B and C
33. What, according to the author, will be a big boon in the days to come?
1) The economy coming back on the fast track
2) The slowing down of the economy
3) Increased hiring in India financial sector in times of economic slowdown
4) The cost cutting carried out by all the companies
34. Which of the following strengthens the finance ministers statement about the sound
health of Indian banks with respect to the passage?
A) There have been no acquisitions and mergers of Indian banks
B) The Indian banks are recording a positive growth
C) Layoffs have been observe world wide
1) A & B
2) A & C
3) Only A
4) Only B
5) All of these
35. How, according to the author, is the current recession beneficial?

1) worldwide, companies have realized that India is a strong power to reckon with
2) India is surging ahead of the other companies throughout the world
3) After the recession is over international companies will turn to India for investment
4) Recession is bringing down the prices of essential commodities
36. What does the phrase shot in the arm as used in the passage mean?
1) Shock
2) Fear
5) None of these
3) Encouragement
4) Anxiety

Directions (Q. 37-38): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar
in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage
37. PULVERIZATION
1) polarization 2) mashing 3) debasement 4) fall 5) crushing 38. TURMOIL
1) danger
2) shock
3) sadness
4) fear
5) chaos
Directions (Q.39-40): Choose the world/group of words which is most opposite

in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage
39. MUNDANE
1) extraordinary
2) regular
3) severe
4) visionary
5) routine
40. THRIVE
1) Succeed
2) deteriorate
3) worry
4) tremble
5) strive
Passage II
Modern bio-technology , especially the creation of genetically modified crops, is often
presented as a magic solution or universal panacea for the problems of poverty, inadequate
nutrition and even environmental degradation across the world. Conversely, there are people
who present the picture of tech generated monsters and major human health hazard being
created by science. Many of the technological changes currently in the process of being
utilized in agriculture can have unforeseen consequences, and their safety and future
viability are far from secure.
The reality, as always, is far more complex than either of these two extremes. Even today
the total food production in the world is adequate to feed the hungry of the world; the
problem is rather one of unequal distribution, which deprives a large part of the population
of even their minimal nutritional requirements. Similarly, farmers, especially in developing
countries, face many problems such as lack of infrastructure, poor or unstable market
access, volatile input and output prices etc., that bio- technology does not address, much
less solve. It is true that transgenic plants can offer a range of benefits which are above and
beyond those which emerged from more traditional innovations in cultivation. It is suggested
that such new technology offers more effective pest resistance of seeds and crops through
genetic control mechanisms, which also reduces the need for pesticide use and leads to
improved yield. A basic question, of course, is whether the new GM technology is safe, and
whether this is absolutely crucial since the effects may only be known much later. The jury is
still very much out on this matter, and the controversy does not appear to be resolved
quickly.

The trouble is that most governments in developing countries have relatively low food and
beverage regulatory standards, and public systems for monitoring and surveillance of such
items are poor or non-existent. This leaves them open for entry and even dumping of a
range of agricultural products of the new technology, which may not pass regulatory
standards in the more developed countries.
41. Which of the following is true in context of the passage?
1) Genetically modified crops have been universally recognized as a solution
to poverty and environmental degradation
2) the only way to improve the deficit in food requirement and food production in
the world is by adapting genetically modified crops
3) Genetically modified crops produce more yield as compared to yield from
the traditional methods
4) Taking advantage of absence of regulatory standards, scientists have been
dumping new products in the markets without appropriate approval
5) None is true
42. Why, according to the author, is genetic modification of crops not an answer to the
problem of hunger in the world?
A) People being highly doubtful of the long term effects of genetically modified
crops, do not buy the products grown by such methods
B) The problem of hunger in the world is not due to inadequate production of food
but due to unequal distribution of it
C) Many developing countries have banned genetically modified products as developed
countries have been using these countries as dumping grounds for new genetically
modified products
1) only A
2) Only B
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C

43. The author of the given passage seems to be definitely
1) Suggesting the use of traditional methods of agriculture as against bio-technology
by developing countries owing to their poor regulatory standards
2) In favour of utilizing bio-technology as a tool for alleviation of poverty from
the world
3) Urging the policy makers to improve infrastructural facilities so that farmers
can maximize the benefits of genetically modified crops
4) Unconvinced of the long term effects and rationale for immediate requirement
of genetically modified products

44. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to VOLATILE
1) Never-ending
2) Meager
3) Valuable
4) Irreversible
5) Stable
45. Choose the word/ group of words which is most similar in meaning to OPEN printed in
bold as used in the passage.
1) Vulnerable
2) Capable
3) Threatened
4) Uncertain
5) Weak
Directions (Q.46- 60): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
Passage
Frustration is a global cancer. It has spared no country. In Some countries, frustration
exists because these countries are populated by have-nots. In other countries, which are
populated by haves, frustration is among them also because they do have. As far as India
is concerned, its education system is breeding more and more frustration among both
students and teachers. And yet, no one sees what can be done to make it more meaning
ful. Many reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for one reason
or another. The authorities are now peddling the idea of autonomous colleges as a means of
toning of teaching standards. They argue that by allowing certain colleges to introduce their
own courses, hold seminars and above all, evolve their own method of assessing students,
students, students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they make out that such college will
have free hand in nearly everything except granting degrees. In theory, all this sounds
attractive enough. But there is little to show that the managements concerned are keen on
such reforms. Even today, nothing prevents a college from inviting guest speakers on the
specialized subjects or holding courses in English for vernacular students. But not a single
one of those who are now clamoring for autonomy has bothered to do so; it is no secret that
colleges which may be freed to an extent from university control are highly elitist. In
Mumbai, for example, there is a big cultural gulf between city colleges and suburban
college, if some of the former are now given a degree of autonomy, it will only heighten
this disparity.
The answer to the vexing problem of declining standards in higher education does not lie in
encouraging the growth of model institutions but in improving overall standards. This is, of
course, easier said than done. Since, more and younger people are seeking degrees, the only

solution, however unpalatable it may sound, is drastically to reduce the number of those who
are admitted to colleges. Even though there is political pressure on many state governments
to build new colleges and to reserve more seats for backward classes, it will be sheer folly to
expand such facilities recklessly without giving any thought to the quality of education
imparted. If admissions are made very selective, it will automatically reduce the number of
entrants. They should apply particularly to new colleges, many of which are little more than
degree factories. Only then can the authorities hope to bring down the teacher-student ratio
to manageable proportions. What is more, teacher should be given refresher courses every
summer vacation to brush up their knowledge. Besides, if college managements increase the
library budget it will help both staff and students a great deal. At the same time, however, it
will be unfair to deny college education to thousands of young men and women unless a
start, why cant the government disqualify graduates from securing certain jobs say. Class
III and IV posts? Once the degrees are delinked from jobs, at least in some important
departments, it will make many young people think twice before joining college
46. The authors chief concern seems to be
1) Frustration among students
2) Spread of college education
3) Standard of education
4) Autonomy of college
5) Delinking of degree
47. The authors attitude is
1) Cynical
2) optimistic
4) Conservative
5) Constructive
3) Critical
48. What, according to the passage, would be the result of granting autonomy to some
colleges?
1) The teacher-students ratio will come down
2) Disparity between city and suburban colleges will increase
3) Colleges will multiply
4) Some colleges would start selling degrees
5) All of the above
49. Which of the following is the most significant feature of the scheme of autonomous
colleges according to the passage?
1) They can introduce new course
2) They can hold seminars
3) They can evolve their method of assessment

4) They can award degrees
5) They can make admissions without restrictions
50. The author does not believe that
1) Colleges have the capacity to develop courses
2) College have the expertise for assessment
3) Some colleges are only degree factories
4) College managements are really keen on reforms
5) Some colleges are elitisted
51. To which of the following does the author give precedence?
1) Increasing library facilities
2)Holding refresher courses for teachers
3) Abolishing reservation for backward classes
4) Stopping opening of new colleges
5) Instituting entrance examinations
52. Where has the author slipped while making suggestions?
1) The teacher-student ratio be brought down
2) Improvement should not be restricted to select institutions
3) College teachers need refresher courses
4) Political pressures should be withstood
53. Frustration in the world is a result of which of the following?
I. large number of Haes
II. Large number of Have-nots.
III.cancerous cells
1)Only I
2) Only II
3) Only III
4) I and II
5) None of these
54. Which of the following is the main difficulty, according to the passage, in the way of
improving standards?
1) paucity of library facilities
2) paucity of funds
3) Ever increasing number of young men wanting degrees
4) grant of autonomy of college
5) absence of refresher courses
55. How, according to the passage, can the number of students taking college education
the reduced?
1) By making selective admissions

2) By reducing the number of colleges
3) By abolishing the reservations of seats for backward classes
4) By discouraging the founding of model institutions
5) by removing some of the students already admitted
56. Why, according to the passage, do more and more young men go in for college
education?
1) Because more and more colleges are opened
2) Because more and more seats are reserved for backward classes
3) Because employers insist on degrees even for clerical jobs
4) because many colleges help them get degrees easily
5) Because more and more facilities are made available
Directions (Q. 57-58): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning
to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
57. Vexing
1) annoying 2) Recurring 3) Irresolvable 4) Complex 5) Dangerous 58. Evolve
1) Introduce
2) Start
3) Develop
4) Abandon
5) Establish
Directions (Q.59-60): choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to

59. Folly
1) Right 2) Exact 3) Mistake 4) Action 5) Wisdom 60. Heighten
1) Widen
2) Decrease
3) Strengthen
4) Dissolve
5) Disappear
Directions (Q. 61-65): In each question, an incomplete statement followed by

two fillers is given. Form among fillers; pick up the one which can meaningfully
complete the sentence.
61. Last night some people had their dinner in a good hotel.. But there were many
people who suffered from food poisoning.
i) The host paid Lavish tips to the waiters
ii) The hotel management, however, was careless about the hygienic conditions in the
hotel
1) Only (i) 2) Only (ii) 3) Either (i) or (ii) 4) both (i) and (ii) 5) None of
these

62. Certain mammals live in ocean. . Their giant size is matter of curiosity for all of us.
i) Whale is an example of such mammals
ii) They look like fish and some of them like Whales are of enormous size
1)Only (i)
2) Only (ii)
3) Either (i) or (ii)
4) Both (i) and (ii)
5) None of these
63. She is very much fond of children .. The fact that she enjoys teaching them can be
attributed to this factor.
i) Though she doesnt get opportunity to interact with them, she observes them
carefully
ii) She glows with happiness while teaching them and some emotional bond
is generated between her and the children
1) only I
2) only ii
3) either (i) or (ii)
4) both (i) and (ii) 5) None of the above
64. Eradication of illiteracy has been one of the primary objectives of planning in India
.. Unless we have strong will power for taking such a vital step, the realization
of the objective is not possible.
i) Every student should come forward on his own for educating atleast twelve
illiterate persons in a year
ii) Non-availability of funds and lack of manpower are the major problems
1) only I
2) Only ii
3) either i or ii
4) Both i and ii5) None of the above

65. India has made rapid strides in promoting cultivation of potato .. Development of 26
high yielding varieties in the last one decade has changed the scenario of potato
production considerably
i) During the last three decades, use of nine hybrid varieties has increased the
yield ii) Besides, use of pesticides has reduced the loss in yield
1) only i
2) Only ii
4) Both (i) and (ii)
3) Either (i) or (ii)
5) none of these
Directions (Q. 66-70): In each question, an incomplete stem of sentence is given.

It is followed by five parts of a sentence numbered (1),(2),(3),(4) and (5) to
complete the incomplete stem. Pick out the most appropriate part to complete the
sentence meaningfully
66. Although initial investigations pointed towards him

1) The preceding events corroborated his involvement in the crime

2) The additional information confirmed his guilt
3) The subsequent events established that he was guilty
4) The subsequent events proved that he was innocent
5) He gave an open confession f his crime
67. It is not easy to remain tranquil when those around you
1) behave in a socially acceptable manner
2) exhibit pleasant mannerism
3) are losing their heads
4) agree to whatever you say
5) exhibit generous and magnanimous gestures
68. Since it is already midnight, we
1) had better leaving 2) ought to have leave
3) should take our leave4) might as well as leave
5) must have been leave
69. The employer appeared to be in such an affable mood that Rohit
1) decided to ask for a rise in his salary
2) was scared to talk to him about his leave
3) felt very guilty for his inadvertent slip
4) promised him that he would not commit mistake again
5) was pained to press his demand for a new flat
70. The officer who had neglected to file his income tax returns had to
1) return the files
4) play mischief
2) pay a fine
3) be rewarded
5) give warning
Directions (Q. 71-75): In each question below, two sentences or parts of sentences are
given with two blank spaces between them. From the three parts/sentences denoted
by (A),(B) and (C) given below each, find out which two can fill up the blanks
improper sequence (i.e. the order in which these are given in the answer options) to
make the sentence/group of sentences meaningfully complete.
71. Four years ago, I had a major surgery. (---------) (----------). I was too ill.
A) It left me disabled.
B) My attempt to go back to work could not succeed
C) I had fully recovered except for some minor weakness
1)Only B and A
2) Only C and A
4) Only A and B
5) Only A and C
3)Only B and C

72. Based on scientific research, scientists conclude that (------------)
(--------), they will live even more than a hundred years.
A) Keep themselves active all through
B) Exercise more, Ensure proper vitamin intake
C) Human species, If they regulate their diet,
1) Only (A) and (B)
2) Only (A)and (C)
4)Only(C) and (B)
3) Only (C) and (A)
5) Either (C) and (A) or (C) and (B)
73. The Central Governments plans to (--------) (---------) despite the fact that the
opposition parties united front had mobilized support of general public at the
outskirts of Mumbai
A)defy the curfew imposed to prevent the proposed rally from protesting against
the hike in petrol prices
B) curb the rally called for by the opposition succeeded due to ruling
partys announcement to
C) cancel all the trains entering Mumbai,
1) Only (A) and(B)
2) Only (B) and (A)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) Only (A) and(C)
5) either (B) and(C) or (A) and (C)
74. The economic gloom was exacerbated yesterday by Greek Prime Ministers surprise
announcement (----------) (----------), and vote might put the torturously conceived
package in jeopardy.
A) that was struck last week
B) that he would recommend the parliament to strike down the obnoxious deal
C) that his country would hold a referendum on the European debt deal
1) Only C and A
2) Only B and A
3) Only A and C
4) either C and A or B and A 5) None of these

75. The worlds most powerful nations were warned (-------) (----------) and trigger mass
social unrest.
A)that could cost millions of jobs around the globe
B) that international economy was on the brink of a deep new economic crisis
C) that the only solution was pumping a huge amount of money in the economy
1) Only C and A
2) Only B and A
4) Only C and B
5) None of these
3) Only B and C
Directions (Q.76-82): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the

appropriate word in each case.
With fairy lights up in shopping centers and crackers on offer in supermarkets, Britain is
already (76) up for Christmas. In this tough economic climate, many retailers are hoping
the festive season will be a chance for the public to (77) their financial difficulties. And, for
some companies, the millions of Britons now struggling to make ends meet are an early
Christmas present.
As banks stop lending and (78) eats away at the pay packets of those lucky enough to still
be in work, the past year has seen an (79) in high-cost credit lending in the UK. Payday
loan companies and hire purchase stores now (80) town centers around Britain, offering
astronomical interest rates on loans to those who have few other options to (81) their
outgoings. Last year, the pay day loan sector was worth bn, a fivefold increase in the past
few years. The pace of expansion is (82) too. Between April and May this year alone, There
was a 58 per cent rise in the number of people applying for a pay day loan via
money super market.com
76. 1) Paying
2) Sweeping
77. 1) Overcome 2) forget

78. 1) Interest 2) Taxing
79. 1) Explosion
80. 1)open
3)sustain
3) inflation
81. 1)Check 2) Reduce
3) Enshrine
3) Liberate
2) Sharpening
5) Giving
4) Endure5) Minimize
4)spending
2) Invasion3) Exploitation
2) Escalate
82. 1) Accelerating
3) Fuming 4) Gearing
4) Cater
5) expenditure
4) Epidemic 5)Abstention
5) Dominate
4) Cover 5) Enhance
3) Regulating 4) Falling
5) Evolving
Directions (Q. 83-87): The following questions consist of a single sentence with one
blank only. You are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E, & F as answer choices
and from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
83. _____ Before the clock struck& on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped
with people wearing black T- shirts and holding candles.
A) Minutes B) Time
1) (B) and( E)
C) Later
2) (A) and (C)
4) Quickly E) Since
3) (A) and (F)
4) (B) and (D)
5) (C) and (E)

84. The state should take steps to _____the process of teachers appointments as the
centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts
A) fasten
B) move
C)hasten
D) speed
E) early
F) quicken

1)(D )and( F)
2)(A) and (C)
3)( F) and (B)
4) (D) and (E)
5)( B) and (D)

85. A senior citizens son _____threatened her every day and physically harmed her,
forcing her to transfer her property to him
A)superficially
B) mistakenly
D) miserably
E)doubtfully
C) allegedly
F) purportedly
86. Medical teachers said that the management had continued to remain_____ to their
cause leading to the stretching of their strike.
A)unmoved
B) lethargic
C) unconcerned
D) apathetic
E) indifferent
F) bored
1) (B) and (C)
2) (C) and (F)
3) (A) and (E)
4)(A) and (D) 5) (D) and (E)
87. The parents had approached the high court to ____ the government order after their
children, who passed UKG were denied admission by a school.
(A) void
(B) quash
(C) annul
1) (A) and (D)
2) (B) and (C)
4) (E) and (F)
5)(C) and (D)
(D) stay
(E) lift
(F) post
3)(C) and (E)
Directions (Q. 88-92): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each
sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make
it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction
is required, mark 5) as the answer
88. US secretary of state made it clear that time running out for diplomacy over Irans
nuclear programme and said that talks aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a
nuclear weapon would resume in April.
1) Runs out
4) run
2) Was running out
3) Ran out
5) No correction required
89. While the war of the general rage on. Somewhere in small-town India, wonderful
things are happening, quietly and minus fanfare.
1) rage
2) raging
3) rages on
4) raged on
5) no correction required
90. According to WWF, the small island nation of Samoa was the first in switch off its
lights for earth Hour.
1) first to switch of
2) the first to switch off
3) the first of switch off

4) first in switch of
91. The campaign is significant because not just the youths are directly appealing to the
world but because their efforts challenge the chimera of normalcy in the area
1) Not just because
2) just not because
3) Not just
4) Because Just
92. The doctors association has threatened to go on indefinite strike support of their
teachers
1) On supporting to
2) to supporting
3) For support
4) In support of
Directions (Q.93-97): In each of the following questions four words are given, of
which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two
words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the
number of the correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval in
your answer sheet.
93. (A) consent(B)nascent(C) emerging (D) insecure

1)A-C
2)B-D
3)B-C
4)A-D
5)A-B
94. (A) elated(B)eccentric(C) explicit(D) abnormal

1)1-B
2)B-D
3)A-C
4)B-D
5) A-D
95. (A) abundance (B) incomparable (C) projection (D) plethora

1)A-C
2)A-B
3)C-D
4)B-D
5)A-D
96. (A) purposefully (B)inaccurately(C) inadvertently (D) unchangeably

1)A-C
2)A-B
3)B-C
4)B-D
5)A-D
97. (A) germane(B) generate (C) reliable (D) irrelevant

1)B-D
2)B-C
3)A-B
4)C-D
5)A-D
Directions (Q.98-107): Read the following passage carefully and fill in the
numbered blanks by choosing appropriate words from the choice given at the end
of the passage.
Day by day, her influence and dignity (98). First of all, she received the title of Noor light of the
Harem, but was afterwards distinguished (99) that of Noor Jahan Begam, Light of the world .
All her relations and connections were raised to honour and wealth. No grant of lands

was conferred upon (100) except under her seal. In addition to giving her the titles that
other kings bestowed, the emperor granted Noor Jahan the rights (101) sovereignty and
government. Sometimes, she would sit in the balcony of her place, while the nobles would
present themselves and listen to her dictates, (102) coin was struck in her name, with the
superscription:by order of the Jahangir, gold has a hundred splendours added to it by
receiving the impression of the name of Noor Jahan, the Queen Begam, On all farmans also
receiving (103) imperial signature, name of Noor Jahan, the Queen Begam was jointly
attached. At last, her authority reached such a pass that the king was such only in name,
repeatedly. He gave out (104) he had bestowed the sovereignty on Noor Jahan Begam and
would say,I require nothing beyond a sir of wine and half a sir of meat. It is impossible to
describe the beauty (105) wisdom of the queen. In any matter that was presented to her if
a difficulty arose, she (106) solved it. Whoever threw him upon her protection was
preserved from tyranny and oppression; and if ever she learnt that any orphan girl was
destitute and friendless, she would bring (107) her marriage, and give for a wedding
portion. It is probable that during her reign, not less than 500 orphan girls were thus
married and portioned.
98. 1) enhanced
2) increased
4) magnified
99. 1) by
5) none of these
2) for
3) of
100. 1) any 2) anyone

101. 1) to
102. 1) a
2) for
4) in
5) none of these
3) someone
3) beside
2) the 3) an
103. 1) the 2) an
3) heightened
4) no one
4) of
5)none of these
5) none of these
4) no 5) no word needed
3) of 4) no word needed
5) none of these
104. 1) what 2) which 3) that 4) no word needed 5) none of these

105. 1) and
2) as well as 3) also
106. 1) at once
107. 1) off 2) out
2) immediately
3) in 4) about
4) as
3) soon
5) none of these
4) quickly 5) none of these
5) none of these
Directions (Q. 108-112): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B),(C) ,(D)
,(E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer
the questions given below them.
A) If china is the worlds factory. India has become the worlds outsourcing centrekeeping in line with this image
(B) But Indias future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully in the creative
economy- not just in tech and software. But across design and entrepreneurship; arts,

culture and entertainment: and the knowledge- based professional of medicine finance and
law
C) while its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address
several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of
a sweeping transformation.
D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy
to a harnessing intellectual labour intangible goods and human creative capabilities
E) Its software industry is the worlds second-largest its tech outsourcing accounts for
more than half of the $300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert
F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming
an economic rock star
108. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the
rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
109. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) F
5) E
110. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) F
2) B
3) C
4) A
5) E
111. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) F
Directions (Q. 112-116): In each question below, a theme is partially presented in

two sentences. The complete theme comprises four logically arranged sentences.
Out of these four the middle two sentences are not given. Three possible fillers
denoted by (A) (B) & (C) are given below the partially provided theme. You have
to find out which two or none can fill the gap between the two given sentences in
the proper order to make the theme complete. Study the five alternatives order to
make the theme compete. Study the five alternatives (answer choices) carefully
and select one of them.
112. All our diverse experiences are manifestations of the mind ____,_______.The
quality of that action depends on whether your mind is disciplined or not
A) The internal Environment, the individuals physical body, and the place where
it abides, the external environment, arise through the force of action.
B) Depending on whether our mind is pacified or unruly, positive or negative,
actions are committed
C) This is why advice about reading someones body language is so important

1) Only B and A respectively
2) Only C and A respectively
3) Only B and C respectively
4) Only A and B respectively
5) Only A and B or C respectively

113. People of India want more implementation, not more promises and plans. ------ .----- This is because the approach to implementation and skills required must suit what
has to be done
A. they want executives who can implement and institutions that can get things done
B. Aligned plans are required to accelerate progress on many fronts in India
C. But first we must understand what is to be implemented
1)Only A and C respectively
2) Only B and C respectively
3) Only C and B respectively
5) Only A and B respectively

114. The low and declining share of agriculture in the economy means a drought in nearly a
third of the country would not have a significant impact on GNP growth. . .
. A big reversal in agriculture this year would, therefore, only knock off about
half a percentage point from the GDP growth
A. Human suffering is also going to be more
B. The higher prices of farm produce will partly make up for the lower production of
farmers
C. Agriculture and allied activities have only 17% share in GDP
1) Only A & B respectively
3) Only A and C respectively
2) only A and B or C respectively

4) Only C and B respectively

115. Information sharing plays a critical role in facilitating industrial processes. . .
... . A strong distribution network in FMCG sector is essential to ensure that
supplies reach retailers on time and iin the right quantities , avoiding either
over-supply or under supply
A. This sharing is the first step towards developing a high efficiency supply chain
B. In the fast moving consumer goods(FMCG) sector, a companys operations
depend largely on the effectiveness and efficiency of its supply chain
C. However , this is often one of the most focused industrial aspects, leading
to demand forecasting and losses for the company
2) Only C and A respectively
3) Only B and A or C respectively 4) Only A and B respectively

5) None of these

116. Buying a new car is just like a dream come true ------. ------- timely maintenance
increases its life, dependability and value
A. A car depicts the personality of its owner
B. Once brought, though, a car involves high investment
C. Expenditure on car maintenance becomes
imperative 1) Only B & A respectively 2) only B & C
respectively 3) Only C & B respectively 4) Only C and A
respectively 5) None of these
Directions (Q.117-121): Which of the phrases (1),(2),(3) and (4) given below each
sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it
grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is correct as it is given and
No correction is required , mark (5) as the answer.

117. A freezing morning accompanied by a dense cover of fog set the toning for the
coming weekend.
1) Keeping tone
2) Started the toning
4) Set the tone
3) Kept the tone
118. The jail is in the news again with the finding of a pistol and some
bullets 1) To finding 2) With find 3) Finding 4) On found
5) No correction Required
119. The space-crunched city throws up several stories of struggle that schools have had
put up with to win playgrounds for their students
1) Have had to put up to
3) Have had to put up with
2) Had put up on
4) Had to put up to
120. Emotions Rang high s both families were taken to the police station last night
1) emotions went higher
2) emotion became high
3) emotionally went high
4) Emotions ran high
121. Work at all the court complexes was paralyzed as lawyers went on a daylong strike as a mark of protest.
1) For a one day strike
3) On a days long strike
2) For a strike
4) On a day-long striking
Directions (Q.122- 126): The following questions consist of a single sentence with one
blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices

you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
122. Drugs worth Rs3 lakh were ---- from the apartment by the police
A) manufacturedB) ruptured C) seizedD) confiscatedE) brought
F) Compared
1) (A) and (D)
2) (B) and (C)
4) (E) and (F)
5)(C) and (D)
3) (C) and (E)
123. A man reportedly . Two passports with the same photograph but under different
names was arrested by the commissioners task force
A) possessingB) examining C) surrendering D) mastering
E) holdingF) fixating
1) (B) & (C)
2) (C) & (F)
4) (A) & (D)
5) (D) & (E)
3) (A) & (E)
124. The Hollywood star and the bollywood heroine are being ----- as the next big on
screen couple
A) labeled
B) explained
E)exclaimed
C) worshiped
D) touted
F) shouted
1) (B) & (D)
2) (A) & (C)
4) (A) & (D)
5) (C) & (D)
3) (B) & (F)
125. An organization --------- to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan
for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.
A)specified
B) inaugurated
E) succumbed
F) dedicated
1) (C) & (F)
2) (A) & (E)
C) committed
3) (C) & (E)
D) kicked off
4) (D) & (F)
5) (A) & (C)

126. The ability of a woman to do well does not .. on whether it is a mans world
or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities
A) trust
B) depend
C) reckon
D) live
E) rest
F)believe
1)(D) & (E)
2) (B) & (C)
3) (A) & (F)
4) (B) & (E)
5) (C) & (D)

Directions (Q.127-131): Below is given a single word with its meaning in different
contexts as options. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the
word when the context is changed. Select the correct alternative from 1),2),3), 4)
and (5) which represents all those synonyms

127. LABOUR
A) expedite
B) to move faster
C) controlled
1)only D
2) Both A and C
4)Only A,B,C and D
5) All (A),(B),(C) &(D)
D) toil
3) Only (B) ,(C) and (D)
128. MEAN
A)imply
B)understand
C)average
D)characterized by malice
1)only C
2) both (A ) ,(D)
3) Both(A), (C) & (D)
4) only (A) (B) & (D)
5)All (A),(B) (C) & (D)
129. REGULAR
A) present B) commonC) indiscriminateD) uniform
1) Only (D)
2) Both (B) and (D)
3) Both (A) and (C)
4) Only (B) (C) and (C)
5) All (A),(B),(C) and (D)
130. MASK
A)cover
B)hide
1)Only (A)
C)conceal
D) disguise
2)Both (B) and (D)
3)Only (B),(C) and (D)
4) only (A),(B) and (C)5) All (A),(B) (C) and (D)

131. ALONE
A)exclusively
1)only (A)
B)morose
C)solitary
D)human being
2)Both (A) and (C)
3) Both (B) and (C)
4) only (A), (C) and (D) 5) All (A),(B) (C) and (D)
Directions (Q.132-136): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical mistake /error in it. The number of that part of the sentence. Mark
the number of the part with error as your answer. If there is No error, mark 5)
132. We are yet starting 1)/offering this facility to 2)/ our customers as we are
3)/ awaiting approval from the board4)/ NO error 5)
133. The chairmen of all large 1)/public sector banks met with 2)/ senior RBI officials
to given its 3)/ suggestions about implementing the new policy 4)/No error 5)
134. They have not fully considered 1)/The impact that relaxing 2)/these guidelines
is likely 3)/to have with the economy. 4)/No error 5)
135. Had this notification 1)/been amended earlier, 2)/we could have stopped
3)/the transfer of funds4)/no error5)
136. There are many insurance 1)/disputes nowadays because of 2)/most people do not
fully 3)/ Understand the terms and conditions of their policies
4)/No error 5)
137. His comments came after / the research group said that

1
its/consumer confidence index were/ slumped to

its 3 4
lowest level. /no
error 5
Directions (Q.138-142): In each question a sentence with two words/groups of
words printed in bold type are given. One of them or both of them may have a
certain error. You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among
the four choices given below each sentence to replace the incorrect words/group
of words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If the
sentence is correct as it is, mark 5), No correction required, as your answer.
138. Many senior citizens are finding this difficult to affordable essential
commodities today.
1) it-afford
2) much-afforded
3) still-be affording
4) their-afford
139. He has raised some pertinent issues they require a serious discussion
1) pertinence-requiring
3) pertaining-that requires
2) pertinent-which require
4) pertinently will requires
140. In order to be compete today a company should innovative
1) competing-must
2) competent-is
3) competed-should have
4)competitive- should be
141. While the company make great strides on the environmental front it has updated its
HR practices
1) Make will update
4) Made did not update
2) Making-updating
3) has made-yet update
142. Corruption acted as a disincentive for investment and harm economic growth
1) actions-harmful
2) actively-harm
3) acts-harms
4) will act-harming
Directions (Q.143-147): Which of the phrases (1),(2),(3) and (4) given below each
statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful
and grammatically correct sentence ? if none of the sentences is appropriate, mark
(5) as the answer.

143. , the soil today is nowhere as rich in native minerals as it used to be
some centuries ago

1) As there is a growing consent among farmers regarding limiting the use of
chemical fertilizers
2)As the chemical inputs in agriculture improved the yield many folds
3) Owing to the uninhibited use of chemical inputs in agriculture
4) Awareness among farmers regarding the side effects of chemical farming
grew when
144. Although information technology has entered the homes, offices and hearts of
many citizens of India . .
1) India provides the highest number of IT experts to the world every year
2) Many people in rural areas still remain ignorant of its immense benefits
3) Government has done its best by funding research in this field appropriately
4) the face of communication in the years to come would change completely from
by the gone years
145. While the environment friendly-nuclear energy could make a large addition to
the energy resources .. ,
1) experts have a lot of expectations from this cleaner method of producing energy
2) the government is determined to extract maximum out of this technology in
the near future
3) international lobby has been pressurizing the developing nations to shift
their energy production from coal to nuclear power
4) the problem of locating adequate numbers of Uranium reserves to run the
reactors is yet to be sorted out
146. .. Experts proposed the idea of a common school system.
1) overlooking the fundamental right of quality education of every child in India
2) Since the curricular requirements of a rural child is different from an urban child
3) Based on the fact that difference in the quality of schools acts as a ground for
discrimination
4) Since a large percentage of Indian children are getting free education
147. As allegations of crores of rupees changing hands to permit illegal mining began
to fly thick and fast, .
1) government ordered an enquiry which exposed a nexus between mine operators

and bureaucrats
2) it caused great damage to the surrounding ecosystem and the environment
in general
3) the officials have been irresponsible in failing to bring it to the notice of the court in
time
4) the powerful mining lobby had bribed the officials to obtain permit for mining
on ecologically sensitive land
Direction (Q148-152): In each of the given sentences select the sentence
which would either follow or precede the given sentence in grammatically and
conceptually appropriate manner. The instruction is given at the end of every
statement.
148. Unfortunately, however, these slum dwellers are looked upon by the society as
an appendix causing ills in the urban society
which of the following sentences would immediately proceed the above sentence?
1) health officials have been warning the government against the transmission
of contagious diseases from the slum areas to other parts of the city
2) Slum dwellers not only play a significant role in urban economy but also
provide cheap labour for everyday work of the Cities
3) A recent report Suggested that 34 percent of government land is illegally occupied
by the slum dwellers
4) The slum dwellers live in sub human, unhygienic conditions in their tiny shanties
and are very often hubs for criminal activities
149. However, since the beginning of the nineties, free market forces have been
allowed to play for ensuring all round development in Indian markets as well.
Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence?
1) Entry of various market forces increased the competition faced by the
indigenous organizations manifold
2) The severe shortage of newest technology and products in the late 1980s
ended with the entry of foreign players in the Indian market
3) A major roadblock faced by the foreign investors was the poor infrastructural
facilities which was however overtaken by the prospects seen in the huge market
4) India had been following a very selective and conservative economic policy
during the late 1980s

150. The foreign embassy has put forward a demand to the government that
prosecution may be carried out on a foreign land and not in the country to which the
terrorists belong.
Which of the following sentences would immediately follow the above sentence?
1) Army arrested the terrorists responsible for kidnapping four foreign tourists after
a daylong operation
2) the foreign ministry has offered all possible help to the government for
hunting down the terrorists involved in it.
3) Government has politely declined the request to handover the arrested terrorists
for prosecution outside the country
4) The
arrested terrorists
were
sentenced to
life
imprisonment after being
prosecuted by a panel of international judges

5) none of the above
151. This is because most of the institutes for higher learning lack the basic
infrastructure, trained staff and equipment necessary for the physically challenged.
1) many physically challenged people have been performing as well as other

students perform in their studies
2) The
percent of illiterate, physically
challenged people
in
rural areas
is
considerably more than that in the urban areas

3) According to a recent survey, only two out of nearly 200 universities in India
have adequate number of books in Braille
4) Although government has been making many provision to improve higher
education in India, no attention has been paid to the education of the physically
challenged students
152. That was mainly because only two percent of the total farmers could actually
comprehend the lengthy procedures to obtain the loan and be benefited from it.
1) Many money lenders have been making the most out of this situation and
providing loans to the rest of the farmers at inflated prices
2) There is thus an urgent need to make the schemes and policy as simple and
farmer friendly as possible
3) A new loan scheme started by the government a couple of months ago proved to be

a huge failure and utterly unpopular among the farmers
4) This situation can be improved by providing mediators to carry out and follow-up
of the lengthy official procedure for the farmers
Directions (Q.153-157): Which of the phrases 1),2),3),and 4) given below each
statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it
grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction
is required, mark 5) as the answer
153. A twenty-first century economy cannot be held hostage by power cuts not travel
on nineteenth-century roads.
1) cannot be hold
2) can either be held
3)can neither be held
4) can either be hold

154. The companys Philosophies is to make sure that the employees are happy, have
the ability to be intellectually stimulated and contributes towards their growth.
1) contribute to their growth
2) contribute towards its growth
3) contributes towards its growing
4) contribute to its growing
155. Even though many companies are now penetrating rural India, it would help
to give India a real chance of witnessing a double-digit GDP growth
1) Despite many companies are
2) As many company is
3) Besides many companies are
4) Since many companies are
156. Today, governments are introducing more and more technology into their system
to address the needs of citizens at a pace fast than that of manual operations
1) faster than that of
2) faster than those for
3) fast than that for

4) more than that in
157. Making good school education a reality would require major changes in
existing school system with expansion at both secondary and elementary level
1) should requires major changes
2) would requires major change
3) must require some changes
4) require major changes
Directions (Q.158-162): Rearrange the following sentence (A),(B),(C)(D) & (E) and
(F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow:
A) In fact, according to mainstream economists, it is inevitable and a necessary evil in

any economy
B) It is thus important for every nation to maintain this reserve of labour force to
maintain an optimal level of unemployment
C) unemployment is popularly believed to be an index which measures the
economic condition of a nation
D) this is because it helps avert inflation by providing a reserve army of labour which
keeps wages in check
E) the problem, however, only emerges when governments indirectly facilitate
unemployment in order to curb inflation through various policies and frameworks, depriving a
large population of its fundamental rights
F) But contrary to popular belief unemployment is not always disadvantageous to
the economy of a state
158. Which of the following sentences should be the SIXTH (Last) after rearrangement?
1) A
2)B
3)C
4)E
5)F
159. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after rearrangement
1)A
2)B
3)C
4)D
5)E
160. Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after rearrangement?
1) A
2)B
3)C
4)E
5)F
161. Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD after rearrangement?
1)A
2)E
3)D
4)F
5)C
162. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) D
4) E
5) F

Directions (Q. 163-172): In the following passage there are blanks, each of
which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage
and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the
blanks appropriately. Find but the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
The world is going (163) a deep recession .At such a time, one thing we need in
abundance is jobs for the semi- skilled and unskilled. This is the only way in which
equal (164) of wealth can take place. The healthcare industry is (165) poised to
occupy this position. The IT industry hires people from the upper-middle strata and rick
families, usually engineers, (166) the health care industry hires nurses, to the tune of
eighty percent of the jobs created, from the lower economic strata.
Global health care is a $ 4.5 trillion industry (167) only to the agro industry. Even
then health care (168) only eight percent of worlds population. Policy makers should
(169) at health care industry as not only an industry which addresses pain but also as
one which can (170) the economy. The last century was driven by machines that
addressed human toil and it is strongly (171) that this century will be driven by health
care. This, however, will only happen if policy makers make a conscious effort to (172)
the right policies in place soon
163. 1)past
2) against 3) through
164. 1) earning 2) share 3) venture

165. 1) Commonly
2)ideally
168. 1)affords
169. 1) look
2) plan
170. 1) persuade
171. 1) thought
172. 1) derive
4) delivery 5) distribution
3) visits
3) weigh
2) ascertain
2) credited
2) frame
5) invariably
4) although 5)despite
2) second 3) lesser
2) cures
5) on
3) indefinitely 4) preferable
166. 1)whereas 2)unlike 3) besides

167. 1)encouraging
4) across
4) beating
4)reaches
4)admire
5) greater
5) provides
5) consider
3) influence
4)impede
5) estimate
3) identified
4) believed
5) supposed
3) figure
4) consider
5) put
Directions (Q.173-177): Which of the phrases 1),2)3) and 4) given below

should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the
sentence meaningful and grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it
is and no correction is required mark 5) as the answer
173. If the complaint is not addressed within thirty days bring the matter to notice
the RBI customer services department
1) before noticing

2) will be noticed by
3) through its notice of
4) to the notice of
174. Although microfinance initiatives are a very recent phenomenon in India, these have
significantly impact on millions of households across the country
1)are significant in impact
2) have had a significant impact
3) had significantly impacted
4) were a significant impact
175. Of the 21 crore households in need of financial inclusion, banks reach out
to around 5 crore households through self-help groups
1) households needy of
2) households needed
3) household that needs
4) household with needs
176. Increasing investing in technology will certainly help to reduced costs in the
long run
1) Increased costs in the long run
2) An increase investment of
3) With increase invested in
40 By increasing investment of
177. The prices of pulses have risen because production were low compared demand
1) lower compared to
2) is lower comparable
3) will be lower for
4) is lower than
Directions (Q.178-182): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in
bold type is given. These are numbered as 1), 2),3) and 4) . One of these four boldly
printed words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The

number of that word is your answer. If all the boldly printed words are correctly
spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark 5), i.e. all
correct, as your answer.
178. In order to curtail the substantial export of iron ore
1)
2)
recently the government has imposed an export tax. all correct

3) 4) 5)
179. Several medium and small sized companies successfully
1)
2)
survived the global financial crisis of 2008./ all

correct 4 5
180. One of the tangible benefits of appearing for a loan under
1)
2)
3)
This scheme is the interest rate concessions./All correct
181.
With
effect
from
April,
non-banking
finance
companies 1)
with good performances may be granted licenses to
2
convert into banks./All correct

4
182. In 2009, the largest remittances sent to India were

from 1 2
Oversees Indians living in North America./All
correct 3) 4 5
Directions (Q.183-190): Below is given excerpts from an interview with the chief
of an organization. Answer the questions based on the interview
National housing bank (NHB) came out with a reverse mortgage product four
years back. The idea was to give periodic income to senior citizens. Why did that
scheme never take off?
View? I wont say the scheme never took off. Probably, it did not meet expectations, which
were too high. It was essentially for liquefying the existing debt asset for the senior citizen. All
over the world, it is a niche programme and not a mass programme, where everybody

can get into it. In India, there are cultural issues. There are senior cizens who have told me
that their children treat them badly,but still want their house to go to them. Therefore, the
reverse mortgage product appeals only to some people. Those who dont have children or
who are single, or whose children have totally dissociated from them and settled abroad,
or who need it for a short period.
Yes, it (performance of old product) is a bit disappointing. But overall it is not too bad. In
our old product, we gave loans worth about rs.1800 cr. There are many people who dont
have a house, we cant cater to them. So the market itself is somewhat restricted.
Is awareness also a problem?
Yes, to some extent but awareness among senior citizens has improved significantly. So
there could be some issues of deliver; banks may not be very aggressively delivering this. So
they (senior citizens) may not be aware of the nuances of the product. Also, there is no
special incentive for senior citizens; banks charge normal interest rate. Then, the market is
limited
Earlier, the problem was that the maximum tenor available was 20years.Under the
new annuity scheme, the term can be up to a persons lifetime.
How is the new reverse mortgage product going to shape up after annuity has
been integrate with it? How has the response been so far?
People are still trying to understand; the annuity schemes are a little complicated. We
are getting a lot of enquiries arid sanctions have also taken place but not much
there is some confusion about how income from the new reverse mortgage product
will be taxed. So, will other banks launch the product?
There is no confusion. About 23-25 banks were already offering the old product. Today, both
schemes are available; it is the choice of the customer. In the old product, income is exempt
in the hands of senior citizens; in the annuity product, it is not exempt since the amount is
higher and for lifetime.
But under the income-tax act, any annuity is taxed. What we plan to do is to approach the
government before next years budget to make annuity under this new reverse mortgage
scheme tax-free since the old product is also tax-free. There is no difference between the
two products, except that we have structured it as annuity to take care of the longevity risk
which the insurance company can take. But the fundamental nature of the loan against
property. It is getting taxed because of the word annuity.
183. Which of the following is essential for availing the scheme?
1) owning a house
2) being a senior citizen

3) owning a house in particular states
4) being a senior citizen and owning a house
5) senior citizens not having regular income
184. The product being discussed is
1) loan for buying a house
2) loan for buying an old house by senior citizens
3) loan for buying a house in the name of senior citizens
4) loan against a house to the children of senior citizens
5) None of these
185. Which of the following can be inferred?
1) according to the chief, the scheme never took off
2) the product has not been launched by many countries
3) the product has been revised
4) the product has the potential to have a mass appeal
5) the product has not succeeded in any of the countries where it was lunched
186. Which of the following is a major action point?
1) trying to get tax exemption for the product
2) dropping the word mortgage from the scheme
3) increasing the tenure of the loan
4) merging two existing schemes
5) dropping the word reverse from the scheme
187. Which of the following may not have any role in proposing / revising
/launching /delivering or being a stake-holder role in the scheme?
1) banks
2) income tax department
3) stock exchange
4) insurance companies
5)government
188. To which of the following would this scheme appeal the least
1) those who dont have children
2)those who dont want to give their property to their children
3) those who are treated badly by their children
4) those who are staying with their children
5) those whose children have associate from them
189. To fundamental nature of loan is, loan against .

1) gold2) property3) annuity4) pension
5) guarantee
190. When was the annuity-linked such product launched?
1)four years back2) three years back3) 20years back
4) just on the day this interview is recorded

5) none of these
Directions (Q.191-200): Pick of the most effective word from the given words
to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete in the context
of the sentence
191. An important . Of Indian business has been its short-term focus.
1)draw
2) neglect
3) venture
4) figure
5) failing
192. The internet may not everything we do , but it has already revolutionized
business and will continue to do so.
1) mark
2) prove
3) change
4) help 5) stop
193. These two examples.. Those Indian companies are capable of acquiring a global
mind set.
1) need
2) write
3) generate
4) illustrate
5) follow
194. There is an old idea in economics that if a rich and a poor country are . By
trade, their standard of living should coverage in the long run.
1)mixed
2) linked
3) away
4) similar
5) meeting
195. All countries have consumer price indices, some more reliable than others, some
quite out of date, but all concerned with . Overall price changes
1) controlling
2) measuring
3) publishing
4) reducing
5) teaching
196. Changes in sales, for example, need not be analyzed with respect to other ,
because the sale of a product may naturally have its own patterns . ,Trends,
seasonal or cyclical fluctuations
1) variables
2) tools
3) statistics
4) regions
5) countries
197. In his first public comments, the president said with concern that the leak of
classified information from the battle field could potentially individuals
or operations.
1) strengthen
2) kill
3) jeopardize
4) disturb
5) identify
198. By the governments .. Some relief from raging price rise can happen anytime
in the next six months.

1) notice
2) reckoning
3) plan
4) suggestion
5) posting
199. Anger, the psychologists say, has as much to do with cooperation as with conflicts,
and emotions are used to .. Others into cooperating in the long run.
1) prod2) bringing 3) take4) invite 5) ask
200. What started as a matter of national pride seems to be coming in for .
from various quarters for a budget that has quadrupled
1) shame
2) feedback
3) loss
4) flak
5) increase

Answers:
1.5
2.3
3.5
4.1
11.5
12.3
13.1
14.2
21.4
22.2
23.4
24.4
31.4
32.2
33.3
34.5
5.3
6.2
7.4
15.4
16.5
17.1
18.5
25.3
26.3
27.1
28.1
35.1
36.3
37.5
38.5
47.5
48.2
41.3
42.4
43.4
44.5
45.2
46.3
51.2
52.4
53.5
54.3
55.1
56.3
8.4
57.4
9.1
10.5
19.2
20.3
29.2
30.5
39.1
40.2
49.3
58.3
50.4
59.5
61.5
62.2
63.2
64.1
65.4
66.4
67.3
71.4
72.5
73.3
74.1
75.2
76.4
77.2 78.1
79.1
80.5
81.4
82.1
83.3
84.1
85.1
86.5
87.2 88.2
89.3
90.2
91.1
92.4
93.3
94.2
95.5
96.1
97.5
107.1
68.3
98.2
69.3
99.4
60.2
70.2
100.2
101.1 102.1 103.1 104.3
105.1
106.2
111.1 112.1 113.1 114.4
115.4
116.1
117.4
118.5
119.4
121.5 122.5 123.3 124.4
125.1
126.4
127.1
128.3
129.2 130.5
131.2 132.1 133.3 134.4
135.5
136.2
137.3
138.1
139.2 140.4
141.4 142.3 143.3 144.2
145.4
146.3
147.1
148.2
149.1
150.3
151.4 152.3 153.3 154.2
155.4
156.1
157.5
158.4
159.3
160.2
161.1 162.5 163.3 164.5
165.2
166.1
171.4 172.5 173.4 174.2
175.5
176.1
181.2 182.3 183.4 184.5
185.3
191.5 192.3 193.4 194.2
195.2
167.2
108.4 109.5
110.3
120.4
168.4 169.1
170.3
177.4
178.1
179.2
180.3
186.1
187.3
188.4
189.2
190.5
196.1
197.3
198.2
199.1
200.4
QUANTITATIVE
APTITUDE
PRACTICE TEST
1.
The average age of 24 students and the principal is 15 years. When the principals
age is excluded, the average age decreases by 1 year. What is the age of the
principal?
1) 38
2.
2) 40
3) 39
4) 37
5) None of these
Three years ago, the average age of A,B and C was 27 years and that of B and C 5
years ago was 20 years As present age is
1) 30 Years
3.
2) 35 Years
3) 40 Years
4) 48 Years
5) None of these
Ajit Tendulkar has a certain average for 9 innings. In the tenth inning, he scores 100
runs thereby increasing his average by 8 runs. His new average is
1) 20
4.
2) 24
3) 28
4) 32
5) None of these
The average age of a family of 6 members is 22 years. If the age of the youngest
member be 7 years, what was the average age of the family at the birth of the
youngest member?
1) 15
5.
2) 18
3) 21
4) 12
5) None of these
The average age of 8 persons in a committee is increased by 2 years when two men
aged 35 years and 45 years are substituted by two women. Find the average age of
the two women.
1) 48
6.
2) 45
3) 51
4) 42
5) None of these
The average weight of a class of 29 students is 40 kg. if the weight of the teacher be
included, the average rises by 500 gm. What is the weight of the teacher?
1) 40.5 kg 2) 50.5 kg 3) 45 kg 4) 55 kg 5) None of these
7.
The age of Shaurya and Kauravki is in the ratio 2:6. After 5 years, the ratio of their
ages will become 6:8. Find the average of their ages after 10 years.
8.
If we take four numbers, the average of the first three is 16 and that of the last
three is 15. If the last number is 18, the first number is
1) 20
9.
2) 21
3) 23
4) 25
5) None of these
The average of ten numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 12, then the
average of the new set of number is
1) 7
2) 19
3) 82
4) 84
5) None of these
10. The average weight of 5 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them weighing 150
kg is replaced by another person. Find the weight of the new person.
1) 165 kg
2) 135 kg
3) 138 kg
4) 162 kg
5) None of these
11. The average age of a group of men is increased by 5 years when a person aged 18
years is replaced by a new person of aged 38 years. How many men are there in the

group?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
5) None of these
12. The average score of a class of 40 students is 52. What will be the average score of
the rest of the students if the average score of 10 of the students is 61.
1) 50
2) 47
3) 48
4) 49
5) None of these
13. Out of three numbers, the first is twice the second and three time the third. The
average of the three numbers is 88. The smallest number is
1) 72
2) 36
3) 42
4) 48
5) None of these
14. The average age of A, B, C and D five years ago was 45 years. By including X, the
present average age of all the five is 49 years. The present age of X is
1) 64 years
2) 48 years
3) 45 years
4) 40 years
5) None of these
15. Three years ago, the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years. A baby
having been born, the average of the family is the same today. What is the age of
the baby?
1) 1 year
2) 2 years
3) 6 months
4) 9 months
5) None of these
16. The average of x, y and z is 45. X is as much more than the average as y is less than
the average. Find the value of z.
1) 45
2) 25
3) 35
4) 15
5) None of these
17. The average salary per head of all the workers in a company is 95. The average
salary of 15 officers is `525 and the average salary per head of the rest in85. Find
the total number of workers in the workshop.
1) 660
2) 580
3) 650
4) 460
5) None of these
18. The average monthly expenditure of Ravi was 100 during the first 3 months. `2200
during the next 4 months and 4620 during the subsequent five months of the year.
If the total saving during the year was 2100. Find Ravis average monthly income.
1) 1858
2) 3108.33
3) 3100
4) 3133
5) None of these
19. 19 persons went to a hotel for a combined dinner party. 13 of them spent 79 each on
their dinner and the rest spent 4 more than the average expenditure of all the 19.
What was the total money spent by them?
1) 1628.4
2) 1534
3) 1492
4) 1942
5) None of these
20. There were 42 students in a hostel. Due to the admission of 13 new students, the
expenses of the mess increase by 31 per day while the average expenditure per
head diminished by 3. What was the original expenditure of the mess?
1) 633.23 2) 583.3 3) 623.3 4) 6325 5) None of these
21. A mixture of 70 litres of alcohol and water contains 10% of water. How much water

must be added to the above mixture to make the water 12.5% of the resulting
mixture?
1) 1 litre
2) 1.5 litre
3) 2 litres
4) 2.5 litres 5) None of these
22. What is 20% of 50% of 75% of 70?

1) 5.25
2) 6.75
3) 7.25
4) 5.5
5) None of these
23. Mr. Abhimanyu Banerjee is worried about the balance of his monthly budget. The
price of petrol has increased by 40%. By what percent should he reduce the
consumption of petrol so that he is able to balance his budget?
1) 33.33
2) 28.56
3) 25
4) 14.28
5) None of these
24. Ram sells his goods 25% cheaper than Shyam and 25% dearer than Bram. How
much percentage is Brams goods cheaper than Shyams?
1) 33.33%
2) 50%
3) 66.66%
4) 40%
5) None of these
25. In a mixture of 80 litres of milk and water, 25% of the mixture is milk. How much
water should be added to the mixture so that milk becomes 20% of the mixture?
1) 20 litres
2) 15 litres
3) 25 litres
4) 24 litres
5) None of these
26. A landowner increased the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot by 10% and
20% respectively. Find the percentage change in the cost of the plot assuming land
prices are uniform throughout his plot.
1) 33%
2) 35%
3) 22.22%
4) 25%
5) None of these
27. The height of a triangle is increased by 40%. What can be the maximum percentage
increase in length of the base so that the increase in area is restricted to a maximum
of 60%?
1) 50%
2) 20%
3) 14.28%4) 25%5) None of these
28. The salary of Amit is 30% more than that of Varun. Find by what percentage is the
salary of Varun less than that of Amit?
1) 26.12%
2) 23.07%
3) 21.23%
4) 27.27%
5) None of these
29. The price of sugar is reduced by 25% but inspite of the decrease, Aayush ends up
increasing his expenditure on sugar by 20%. What is the percentage change in his
monthly consumption of sugar?
1) +60%
2) -10%
3) +33.33%
4) 50%
5) None of these
30. The price of rice falls by 20%. How much rice can be bought now with the money
that was sufficient to buy 20 kg of rice previously?
1) 5 kg
2) 15 kg
3) 25 kg
4) 30 kg
5) None of these
31. 30% of a number when subtracted from 91, gives the number itself. Find the
number.

1) 60
2) 65
3) 70
4) 75
5) None of these
32. At an election, the candidate who got 50% of the votes cast won by 144 votes. Find
the total number of voters on the voting list if 80% people cast their vote and there
were no invalid votes.
1) 360
2) 720
3) 1800
4) 1500
5) None of these
33. In an examination, Mohit obtained 20% more than Sushant but 10% less than
Rajesh. If the marks obtained by Sushant are 1080, find the percentage marks
obtained by Rajesh if the full marks is 2000.
1) 86.66%
2) 72%
3) 78.33%
4) 77.77%
5) None of these
34. Ram spends 20% of the monthly income on his household expenditure, 15% of the
rest on books, 30% of the rest on cloths and saves the rest. On counting, he comes
to know that he has finally saved `9520. Find his monthly income.
1) 10000
2) 15000
3) 20000
4) 12000
5) None of these
35. The population of a village is 5500. If the number of males increases by 11% and the
number of females increases by 20%, then the population becomes 6330. Find the
population of females in the town.
1) 2500
2) 3000
3) 2000
4) 3500
5) None of these
36. Vickys salary is 75% more than Ashus Vicky got a raise of 40% on his salary while
Ashu got a raise of 25% on his salary. By what percent is Vickys salary more than
Ashus?
1) 96%
2) 51.1%
3) 90%
4) 52.1%
5) None of these
37. In an examination, 48% students failed in Hindi and 32% students in History, 20%
students failed in both the subjects. If the number of students who passed the
examination was 880, how many students appeared in the examination if the
examination consisted only of these two subjects?
1) 2000
2) 2200
3) 2500
4) 1800
5) None of these
38. As salary is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. The result is the
same as Bs salary increased by 20% and then reduced by 25%. Find the ratio of Bs
salary to that of As.
1) 4 : 3
2) 11 : 10
3) 10 : 9
4) 12 : 11
5) None of these
39. Two numbers X and Y are 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. Find by what
percentage is the number Y less than the number X.
1) 8%
2) 12%
3) 10%
4) 9%
5) None of these
40. A shopkeeper sold goods for 2400 and made a profit of 25% in the process. Find his
profit per cent if he had sold his goods for `2040.

1) 6.25%
2) 7%
3) 6.20%
4) 6.5%
5) None of these
41. A digital diary is sold for 935 at a profit of 10%. What would have been the actual
profit or loss on it, if it had been sold for 810?
1) 45
2) 40
3) 48
4) 50
5) None of these
42. By selling bouquets for 63, a florist gains 5%. At what price should he sell the
bonquets to gain 10% on the cost price?
1) 66
2) 69
3) 72
4) 72.50
5) None of these
43. A shopkeeper bought 240 chocolates at 9 per dozen. If he sold all of them at Re. 1
each, what was his profit percent?
1) 66(1/6)%
2) 33(1/3)% 3) 24%
4) 27%
5) None of these
44. A coal merchant makes a profit of 20% by selling coal at 25 per quintal. If he sells
the coal at 22.50 per quintal, what is his profit per cent on the whole investment?
1) 6%
2) 6.66%
3) 7.5%
4) 8%
5) None of these
45. The cost price of a shirt and a pair of trousers is 371. If the shirt costs 12% more
than the trousers, find the cost price of the trouser.
1) 125
2) 150
3) 175
4) 200
5) None of these
46. A pet shop owner sells two puppies at the same price. On one he makes a profit of
20% and on the other he suffers a loss of 20%. Find his loss or gain percent on the
whole transaction.
1) Gain of 4%
2) No profit no loss
3) Loss of 10%
4) Loss of 4%
5) None of these
47. The marked price of a table is 1200, which is 20% above the cost price. It is sold at
a discount of 10% on the marked price. Find the profit percent.
1) 10%
2) 8%
3) 7.5%
4) 6%
5) None of these
48. A shopkeeper marks the price of an article at 80. Find the cost price if after allowing
a discount of 10% he still gains 20% on the cost price.
1) 53.33
2) 70
3) 75
4) 60
5) None of these
49. A dozen pairs of gloves quoted at 80 are available at a discount of 10%. Find how
many pairs of gloves can be bought for 24.
1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 8
5) None of these
50. How much percent more than the cost price should a shopkeeper mark his goods, so
that after allowing a discount of 12.5% he should have a gain of 5% on his outlay?
1) 9.375
2) 16.66%
3) 20%
4) 25%
5) None of these
51. In order to maintain the price line, a trader allows a discount of 10% on the marked

price of goods in his shop. However, he still makes a gross profit of 17% on the cost
price. Find the profit per cent he would have made on the selling price had he sold at
the marked price.
1) 23.07%
2) 30%
3) 21.21%
4) 25%
5) None of these
52. A whole-seller allows a discount of 20% on the list price to a retailer. The retailer
sells at 5% discount on the list price. If the customer paid 38 for an article, what
profit is made by the retailer?
1) 10
2) 8
3) 6
4) 12
5) None of these
53. The cost price of 50 mangoes is equal to the selling price of 40 mangoes. Find the
percentage profit.
1) 20%
2) 25%
3) 30%
4) 50%
5) None of these
54. A owns a hose worth 10,000. He sells it to B at a profit of 15%. After some time, B
sells it back to A at 15% loss. Find As loss or gain percent.
1) 2.25% gain
2) 6.25% gain
3) 17.64% gain
4)17.25% gain
5) None of these
55. Anil bought an article at 200 and sold it at a profit of 10%. What would have been
the increase in the profit percent if it was sold for 230?
1) 5%
2) 10%
3) 15%
4) 20% 5) None of these
56. A makes an article for 120 and sells it to B at a profit of 25%. B sells it to C who sells
it for 198, making a profit of 10%. What profit percent did B make?
1) 25%
2) 20%
3) 16.66%
4) 15%
5) None of these
57. A shopkeeper sells sugar in such a way that the selling price of 950 gm is the same
as the cost price of one kilogram. Find his gain percent.
1) 100/17%
2) 150/17%
3) 5(5/19)%
4) 1/19%
5) None of these
58. A man sells an article at 5% above its cost price. If he had bought it at 5% less than
what he paid for it and sold it for 2 less, he would have gained 10%. Find the cost
price of the article.
1) 500
2) 360
3) 425
4) 400
5) None of these
59. A man buys two cycles for a total cost of 900. By selling one for 4/5 of its cost and
other for 5/4 of its cost, he makes a profit of 90 on the whole transaction. Find the
cost price of lower priced cycle.
1) 360
2) 250
3) 300
4) 420
5) None of these
60. An article cost 700 to a manufacturer who lists its price at 800. He sells it to a trader
at a discount of 5%. The trader gets a further discount of 5% on his net payment for
paying in cash. Calculate the amount that the trader pays to the manufacturer.

1) 722
2) 720
3) 725
4) 728
5) None of these
61. A firm dealing in furniture allows 4% discount on the marked price of each item.
What price must be marked on a dining table that cost 400 to assemble, so as to
make a profit of 20%?
1) 475
3) 500
2) 480
4) 520
5) None of these
62. A trader purchases apples at 60 per hundred. He spends 15% on the transportation.
What should be the selling price per 100 to earn a profit of 20%?
1) 72
2) 81.8
3) 82.8
4) 83.8
5) None of these
63. A dishonest dealer professes to sell at cost price but uses a 900 gram weight instead
of a 1 kilogram weight. Find the percent profit to the dealer.
1) 10%
2) 11.11%
3) 12.5%
4) 9.09%
5) None of these
64. A dishonest dealer marks up the price of his goods by 20% and gives a discount of
10% to the customer. He also uses a 900 gram weight instead of a 1 kilogram
weight. Find his percentage profit due to these maneuvers.
1) 8%
2) 12%
3) 20%
4) 16%
5) None of these
65. Ravana spends 30% of his salary on house rent, 30% of the rest he spends on his
childrens education and 24% of the total salary he spends on cloths. After his
expenditure, he is left with 2500. What is Ravanas salary?
1) 11,494.25
2) 20,000
3) 10,000
4) 15,000
5) None of these
66. A briefcase was sold at a profit of 10%. If its cost price was 5% less and it was sold
for 7 more, the gain would have been 20%. Find the cost price of the briefcase.
1) 175
2) 200
3) 225
4) 160
5) None of these
67. Cheap and Best, a Kirana shop bought some apples at 4 per rupee and an equal
number at 5 per rupee. He then sold the entire quantity at 9 for 2 rupees. What is
his percentage profit or loss?
1) 1.23% loss
2) 6.66%
3) 8.888%
4) No profit no loss
5) None of these
68. Deb bought 100 kg of rice for 1100 and sold it at a loss of as much money as he
received for 20 kg rice. At what price did he sell the rice?
1) 9 per kg
2) 9.1666 per kg
3) 9.5 per kg
4) 10.33 per kg 5) None of these
69. The profit earned when an article is sold for 800 is 20 times the loss incurred when it
is sold for 275. At what price should the article be sold if it is desired to make a profit
of 25%.
1) 300
2) 350
3) 375
4) 400
5) None of these
70. Find the difference between the simple and the compound interest at 5% per annum

for 2 years on a principal of 2000.
1) 5
2) 105
3) 4.5
4) 5.5
5) None of these
71. What is the difference between the simple interest on a principal of 500 being
calculated at 5% per annum for 3 years and 4% per annum for 4 years?
1) 5
2) 10
3) 20
4) 40
5) None of these
72. What is the simple interest on a sum of 700 if the rate of interest for the first 3 years
is 8% per annum and for the last 2 years is 7.5% per annum?
1) 269.5
2) 283
3) 273
4) 280
5) None of these
73. What is difference between compound interest and simple interest for the sum of
20,000 over a 2 year period if the compound interest is calculated at 20% and
simple interest is calculated at 23%?
1) 400
2) 460
3) 440
4) 450
5) None of these
74. Find the compound interest on Rs. 1000 at the rate of 20% per annum for 18
months when interest is compounded half-yearly.
1) 331
2) 1331
3) 320
4) 325
5) None of these
75. What is the rate of simple interest for the first 4 years if the sum of Rs. 360 becomes
Rs. 540 in 9 years and the rate of interest for the last 5 years is 6%?
1) 4%
2) 5%
3) 3%
4) 6%
5) None of these
76. Ajay borrows Rs. 1500 from two money lenders. He pays interest at the rate of 12%
per annum for one loan and at the rate of 14% per annum for the other. The total
interest he pays for the entire year is Rs. 186. How much does he borrow at the rate
of 12%?
1) 1200
2) 1300
3) 1400
4) 300
5) None of these
77. A sum was invested at simple interest at a certain interest for 2 years. It would have
fetched 60 more had it been invested at 2% higher rate. What was the sum?
1) 1500
2) 1300
3) 2500
4) 1000
5) None of these
78. A sum of money is borrowed and paid back in two equal annual installments of 882,
allowing 5% compound interest. The sum borrowed was
1) 1640
2) 1680
3) 1620
4) 1700
5) None of these
79. Two equal sums were borrowed at 8% simple interest per annum for 2 years and 3
years respectively. The difference in the interest was 56. The sum borrowed were
1) 690
2) 700
3) 740
4) 780
5) None of these
80. Shashikant derives an annual income of Rs. 688.25 from Rs. 10,000 invested partly
at 8% p.a. and partly at 5% p.a. simple interest. How much of his money is invested
at 5%?

1) 5000
2) 4225
3) 4800
4) 3725
5) None of these
81. Divide Rs. 6000 into two parts so that simple interest on the first part for 2 years at
6% p.a. may be equal to the simple interest on the second part for 3 years at 8%
p.a.
82
1) 4000, 2000
2) 5000, 1000
3) 3000, 3000
4) 2500, 3500
5) None of these
Sanjay borrowed `900 at 4% p.a. and 1100 at 5% p.a. for the same duration. He had
to pay 364 in all as interest. What is the time period in years?
1) 5 years
2) 3 years
3) 2 years
4) 4 years
5) None of these
83. If a certain sum of money becomes double at simple interest in 12 years, what would
be the rate of interest per annum?
1) 8.33
2) 110
3) 12
4) 14
5) None of these
84. A sum of money invested at simple interest triples itself in 8 years at simple interest.
Find in how many years will it become 8 times itself at the same rate?
1) 24 years
2) 28 years
3) 30 years 4) 21 years 5) None of these
85. If the simple interest is 10.5% annual and compound interest is 10% annual, find
the difference between the interests after 3 years on a sum Rs. 1000.
1) 15
2) 12
3) 16
4) 11
5) None of these
86. In a mixture of 40 liters, the ratio of milk and water is 4 : 1. How much water must
be added to this mixture so that the ratio of milk and water becomes 2 : 3.
1) 20 liters
2) 32 liters
3) 40 liters 4) 30 liters
5) None of these
87. If three numbers are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 and half the sum is 18, then the ratio of
squares of the numbers is :
1) 6 : 12 : 13
2) 1 : 2 : 4
3) 36 : 144: 324
4) 3 : 5 : 7
5) None of these
88. Rs. 2250 is divided among three friends Amar, Bijoy and Chandra in such a way that
th
1/6
th
of Amars share, 1/4
th
of Bijoys share and 2/5
of Chandras share are equal.
Find Amars share.

1) Rs. 720
2) Rs. 1080
3) Rs. 450
4) Rs. 1240
5) None of these
89.Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 1. If the larger number is 12 more than the
smaller number. Find the smallest number that should be subtracted from the
product of the numbers so that remainder is divisible by sum of the numbers.
1) 12
2) 18
3) 8
4) 15
5) None of these
90.The sum of three numbers is 124. If the ratio between the first and second be 4 : 9
and that between the second and third be 1 : 2. Find the difference between the
third number and the sum of first and second number.

1) 20
2) 72
3) 52
4) 36
5) None of these
91.In 24 liters mixture of milk and water the ratio of milk and water is 9 : 4. How much water
should be added in the mixture so that the ratio of milk of water becomes 4 : 9?
1) 25 liters
2) 20 liters 3) 30 liters 4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
92.Two numbers are such that the ratio between them is 3 : 5 but if each is increased by
10, the ratio between them becomes 5 : 7. The numbers are:
1) 3, 5
2) 7, 9
3) 13, 22
4) 15, 25
5) None of these
93.The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 7 : 5 and their expenditures are in the ratio 5
: 3. If each saves Rs. 1600, what are their incomes?
1) Rs. 5600, Rs. 4000
2) Rs. 7000, Rs. 5000
3) Rs. 14000, Rs. 10000
4) Rs. 72000, Rs. 32000 5) None of these
94.The ratio between two numbers is 7 : 4. If each number be increased by 2, the

ratio becomes 5:3. Find the difference of the two numbers.
1) 10
2) 12
3) 14
4) 16
5) None of these
95.A bucket contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the proportion 5 : 3. If 16 liters
of the mixture is replaced by 16 liters of liquid B, then the ratio of the two liquids
becomes 3 : 5. How much of the liquid B was there in the bucket?
1) 25 liters
2) 15 liters
3) 18 liters 4) 24 liters
5) None of these
96.A vessel contains liquids A and B in ratio 7 : 6. If 26 liters of the mixture are removed
and the same quantity of liquid B is added, the ratio becomes 6 : 7. What quantity
does the vessel hold?

1) 142 liters
2) 172 liters
3) 156 liters
4) 182 liters
5) None of these
97.In a school the number of boys and that of the girls are in the ratio of 2 : 3. If the
number of boys is increased by 20% and that of girls is increased by 10%. What
will be the new ratio of the number of boys to that of girls?
1) 4 : 5 2) 5 : 8 3) 8 : 11 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 98.The age of Mr.
Ramesh is four times the age of his son. After ten years the age of Mr.
Ramesh will be only twice the age of his son. Find the present age of Mr. Rameshs
son.
1) 10 years
2) 11 years
3) 12 years
4) 5 years
5) None of these
99.The age of a father 10 years ago was thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence, the
fathers age will be twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:
1) 8 : 5
2) 7 : 3
3) 5 : 2
4) 9 : 5
5) None of these
100. The ratio of the ages of father and son at present is 6 : 1. After 5 years, the ratio
will become 7 : 2. The present age of the son is:

1) 10 years
2) 9 years
3) 6 years 4) 5 years
5) None of these
101. 8 years ago, the ratio of the ages of Rachana and Archana was 4 : 3. If the ratio of
their present ages is 6 : 5 respectively, what is the ratio of the sum and difference of
their present ages?
1) 11 : 2
2) 11 : 4
3) 11 : 1
4) 11 : 3
5) None of these
102. The ratio of Ps and Qs ages is 3 : 5. If the difference between the present age of
Q and the age of P 3 years hence is 6 then what is the total of present ages of P and
Q? 1) 56 years 2) 65 years 3) 45 years4) 75 years 5) None of these
103. A train 540 m long is running with a speed of 72 km/hr. In what time will it pass a
tunnel 160 m long?
1) 40 sec
2) 30 sec
3) 35 sec4) 42 sec
5) None of these
104. Two trains start simultaneously from stations P and Q, 500 km apart and meet
after 5 hours. If the difference in their speeds be 20 km/hr, find their speeds.
1) 60 km/hr, 40 km/hr
2) 30 km/hr, 70 km/hr
3) 65 km/hr, 35 km/hr
4) 45 km/hr, 55 km/hr
5) None of these
105. Two trains are moving in the same direction at 25 km/hr and 15 km/hr. The faster train
crosses a man in the slower train in 9 seconds. Find the length of the faster train.
1) 50 m
2) 75 m
3) 25 m
4) 30 m
5) None of these
106. 250 meters long train crosses a platform of length 350 meters in 50 seconds. Find
the time for train to cross a bridge of 230 meters.
1) 45 sec
2) 50 sec
3) 40 sec
4) 54 sec
5) None of these
107. A boat travels upstream from B to A and downstream from A to B in 3 hours. If the
speed of the boat in still water is 9 km/hr and the speed of the current is 3 km/hr, the
distance between A and B (in km) is

1) 4
2) 6
3) 8
4) 12
5) None of these
108. A boat takes 3 hours to travel from place M to N downstream and back from N to M
upstream. If the speed of boat in still water is 4 km, what is the distance between
the two places?
1) 8 km
109. If
1) 48
2) 12 km
3) 6 km
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
of a number is 12 then 30 percent of the number will be.

2) 64
3) 54
4) 42
110. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is
5) None of these
of the sum of the number and the
number obtained by interchanging the position of the digits. What is the difference
between the digits the digits of that number?
1) 3
2) 2
3) 6
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

111. The ratio between a two-digit number and the sum of the digits of that number is
14 : 5. If the digit in the units place is 6 more than the digit in the tens place. What is
the sum of the digits of that number?

1) 10
2) 12
3) 13
4) 9
5) None of these
112. If the places of last two-digits of a three-digit number are interchanged, a new
number greater than the original number by 81 is obtained. What is the difference
between the last two digits of that number?
1) 7
2) 8
3) 9
4) 1
5) None of these
113. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference is 37. The difference of their
squares is
1) 37
2) 100
3) 63 4) 3700
5) None of these
114. The sum of two numbers is 175 and their difference is 75. The difference of their
squares is
1) 13025
2) 13125
3) 132154) 13152
5) None of these
115. The sum of squares of two numbers is 80 and the square of their difference is 36.
The product of the two numbers.
1)22
2) 44
3)58
4)116
5) None of these
116. When a number is added to another number the total becomes
percent of the
second number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number?
1) 3 : 7
2) 7 : 4
3) 7 : 3
4) 4 : 7
5) None of these
117. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 14 less than one-fourth of 176. What
is the middle number?
1) 10
2) 8
3) 6
4) 4
5) None of these
118. In a two-digit number, the digit at unit place is 1 more than twice of the digit at tens
place. If the digit at unit and tens place be interchanged, then the difference between
the new number and original number is less than 1 to that of original number. What is
the original number?
1) 52
2) 73
119. of a number is equal to
3) 25
4) 49
5) 37
of the second number. If 35 is added to the first number
then it becomes 4 times of second number. What is the value of the second number?
1) 125
2) 70
3) 404) 25
5) None of these
120. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 2 if 10 and the sum of the two numbers are added to
their product, square of sixteen is obtained. What could be the smaller number?
1) 14
2) 12
3) 164) 18
5) None of these
121. The numbers x, y, z are such that xy = 96050 and xz = 95625 and y is greater than

z by one. Find out the number z.
1) 425
2) 220
3) 525
4) 226
5) 225
122. If the sum of one-half, one-third and one-fourth of a number exceeds the number
itself by 4, what could be the number?
1) 24
2) 36
3) 72
4) 84
5) None of these
123. A number is greater than the square of 44 but smaller than the square of 45. If one
part of the number is the square of 6 and the number is a multiple of 5, then find the
number.
1) 1940
2) 2080
3) 1980
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
124. If a number is decreased by 4 and divided by 6 the result is 9. What would be the
result if 3 is subtracted from the number and then it is divided by 5?
1) 9
2) 10
3) 11
4) 11
5) None of these
125. The prices of a scooter and a television set are in the ratio 3:2. If a scooter costs Rs.
6000 more than the television set, the price of the television set is:
1) Rs. 18000
2) Rs. 12000
3) Rs. 10000
4) Rs. 6000
5) None of these
126. The monthly salary of A,B and C is in the proportion 2 : 3 : 5. If Cs monthly salary is
Rs. 1200 more than As monthly salary, Bs annual salary is :

1) Rs. 14400
2) Rs. 24000
3) Rs. 1200
4) Rs. 2000
5) None of these
127. An amount of Rs. 1250 is distributed among A, B and C in the ratio of 4 : 7 : 14.
What is the ratio between the difference of shares of B and A and the difference of
shares of C and B?
1) 7 : 3
2) 2 : 7
3) 3 : 7
4) 7 : 2
5) None of these
128. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by mixing metals in proportions
7 : 2 and 7 : 11 respectively. If equal quantities of alloys are melted to form a third
alloy C, the proportion of gold and copper in C will be :
1) 5 : 9
2) 5 :7
3) 7 : 5
4) 9 : 5
5) None of these
129. The sum of three numbers is 105. If the ratio between the first and second be 2 : 3
and that between the second and third be 4 : 5 then find the second number.
1) 35
2) 24
3) 36
4) 45
5) None of these
130. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. If the ratio of milk and
water is to be 1 : 2, then the amount of water to be further added is :
1) 42 litres
2) 56 litres
3) 60 litres
4) 77 litres
5) None of these
131. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 9 : 4. On adding 4 litres of water,
the ratio of milk to water becomes 3 : 2. Find the total quantity of the original

mixture.
1) 26 litres
2) 18 litres
3) 10 litres
4) 30 litres
5) None of these
132. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 12 : 5. On adding 8 litres of water,
the ratio of milk to water becomes 4 : 3. Find the quantity of milk in the mixture.
1) 24 litres
2) 10 litres
3) 14 litres
4) 16 litres
5) None of these
133. A sum of money is divided between two persons in the ratio of 2 : 9. If the share of
one person is Rs. 21 less than that of the other, find the sum.
1) Rs. 32 2) Rs. 44 3) Rs. 33 4) Rs. 36 5) None of these 134. The ratio of
the radius of two circles is 5 : 4. Find the ratio of their areas.
1) 16 : 25
2) 9 : 25
3) 25 : 9
4) 25 : 16
5) None of these
135. A certain amount was divided between Kavita and Reena in the ratio 4 : 3. If Reenas
share was Rs. 2400, the amount is:

1) Rs. 5600
2) Rs. 3200
3) Rs. 9600 4) 4800
5) None of these
136. One year ago the ratio between Laxmans and Gopals salary was 3 : 4. The
individual ratios between their last years and this years salaries are 4 : 5 and 2 : 3
respectively. At present the total of their salary is Rs. 4160. The salary of Laxman
now, is
1) Rs. 1600
2) Rs. 2560
3) Rs. 1040
4) 1800
5) None of these
137. When 35 per cent of a number is added to another number, the second number
increase by its 20 percent. What is the ratio between the second number and the first
number?
1) 4 : 7
2) 7 : 4
3) 8 : 5
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
138. An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the ratio of 5 : 8 : 12

respectively. If the total share of Q and R is four times that of P, what is definitely Ps
share?
1) Rs. 3000
2) Rs. 5000
3) Rs. 8000
139. An amount of money is to be divided among P,Q and R in the ratio of 4 : 9 : 16. If R
gets 4 times more than P, what is Qs share in it?
1) Rs. 1800
2) Rs. 2700
3) Rs. 3600
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
140. Dilip, Ram and Amar started a shop by investing Rs. 2700, Rs. 8100 and Rs. 7200
respectively. At the end of one year, the profit was distributed. If Rams share was Rs.
3600 their total profit was
1) Rs. 10800 2) Rs. 11600
3) Rs. 8000 4) 12000
5) None of these
141. A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and B are to do
of the work.

The share of C should be
1) Rs. 400
2) Rs. 300
3) Rs. 2004) Rs. 183
5) None of these
142. A sum of money is to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 7. If the total
share of A and B together is Rs. 1500 less than C, what is As share in it?
1) Rs. 1000 2) Rs. 1500 3) Rs. 2000 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 143. The
daily wage is decreased by 20% and a person now gets Rs. 16 per day. What
was his daily wage before the decrease?
1) Rs. 20
2) Rs. 25
3) Rs. 24
4) Rs. 21
5) None of these
144. The daily wage is decreased by 18% and person now gets Rs. 41 per day. What was
his daily wage before the decrease?
1) Rs. 51
2) Rs. 50
3) Rs. 454) Rs. 55
5) None of these
145. Due to fall in manpower, the production in a factory decreases by 24$. By what
percent should the working hour be increased to restore the original production?
1)
2)
3)
%4)
5) None of these
146. Two numbers are respectively 25% and 20% more than a third. What percentage is
the first of the second?
1) 104%
2) 104.16%
3) 104.26%
4) 105%
5) None of these
the first of the second?
1) 64 %
2) 65 %
3) 63 %
4) 62 %
5) None of these
the second of the first?
1) 75%
2) 72%
3) 85%4) 78%
5) None of these
149. Pradip spends 40 per cent of his monthly income on food items, and 50 per cent of
the remaining on clothes and conveyance. He saves one-third of the remaining
amount after spending on food, clothes and conveyance. If he saves Rs. 19,200 every
year, what is his monthly income?
1) Rs. 24000
2) Rs. 12000
3) Rs. 16000
4) Rs. 20000
5) None of these
150. The ratio of males and females in a city is 7 : 8 and the percentage of children
among males and females is 25% and 20% respectively. If the number of adult
females in the city is 156800 what is the total population?
1) 245000
2) 367500
3) 196000
4) 171500
5) None of these
151. Madans salary is 25% of Ranis salary and Ranis salary is 40% of Sudins salary. If
the total salary of all the three for a month is Rs. 12000, how much did Madan earn
that month?

1) Rs. 800
2) Rs. 8000
3) Rs. 600
4) Rs. 850
5) None of these
152. The average weight of 19 students was 25 kg. By the admission of a new student
the average weight is reduced to 24.8 kg. The weight of the new student is
1) 24.8 kg
2) 20.8 kg
3) 20.6 kg
4) 21 kg
5) None of these
153. The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers namely, 45 and 55 are discarded,
the average of remaining numbers is:
1) 36.50
2) 37.00
3) 37.50
4) 37.52
5) None of these
154. A cricketer score 180 runs in the first test and 258 runs in the second. How many runs
should he score in the third test so that his average score in the three tests would
be 230 runs?
1) 219
2) 242
3) 334
4) None of these
5) None of these
155. The average salary of 20 workers in an office is Rs. 1900 per month. If the
managers salary is added, the average becomes Rs. 2000 per month the managers
annual salary (in Rs.) is :
1) 24000
2) 25200
3) 45600
4) None of these
5) None of these
156. A class has 20 boys and 30 girls. The average age of boys is 12 years and that 10
girls is 11 years what is the average age of the whole class?
1) 11.4 years
2) 11.6 years
3) 11.2 years
4) 12 years
5) None of these
157. The average height of 30 boys, out of a class of 50, is 160 cm. if the average height
of the remaining boys is 165 cm, the average height of the whole class ( in cm ) is : 1)
161 2) 162 3) 163 4) 164 5) None of these
158. A group of 20 girls has average age of 12 years. Average age of first 12 from the
same group is 13 years. What is the average age of other 8 girls in the group?
1) 10
2) 11
3) 11.5
4) 10.5
5) None of these
159. The average age of 30 students and the class teacher is 20 years. If the class
teachers age is excluded, the average reduces by 1 year. What is the age of the class
teacher?
1) 39 years
2) 50 years
3) 40 years
4) 49 years
5) None of these
160.The average of Sureshs marks in English and History is 55. His average of marks in
English and Science is 65. What is the difference between the marks which he
obtained in History and Science?
1) 402) 60
3) 20
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
161. The average marks scored by Ganesh in English, Science, Mathematics and History is
less than 15 from that scored
by
him in
English, History, Geography and
Mathematics. What is the difference of marks in Science and Geography scored by

him?
1) 40
2) 50
3) 60
162. Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the
average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is :
1) 24
2) 36
3) 72
4) 108
5) None of these
163. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio between first and second be 2 : 3 and
that between second and third be 5 : 8, then the second number is :
1) 30
2) 20
3) 584) 48
5) None of these
164. The average weight of 3 men A, B and C is 84 kg. Another man D joins the group
and the average now becomes 80 kg. if another man E, whose weight is 3 kg more
than that of D, replace A, then average weight of B,C,D and E becomes 79 kg. the
weight of A is :
1) 70 kg
2) 72 kg
3) 75 kg
4) 80 kg
5) None of these
165. The average age of A, B, C, D, 5 years ago was 45 years. By including X, the
present average of all the five is 49 years. The present age of X is :
1) 64 years
2) 48 years
3) 45 Years
4) 40 years
5) None of these
166. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 5: 8. After four years, the ratio
between their ages will be 2: 3. What is Qs age at present?
1) 36 years 2) 20 years
3) 24 years
4) 32 years
5) None of these
167. Jayesh is twice as old as Vijay and half as old as Suresh. If the sum of Sureshs and
Vijays aged is 85 years, what is Jayeshs age in years?
1) 34
2) 36
3) 68
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
168. Present age of Rahul is 8 years less than Ritus present age. If 3 years ago Ritus
age was x, which of the following represents Rahuls present age?
1) x + 3
2) x 5
3) x 3 + 8
4) x + 3 + 8
5) None of these
169. If 6 years are subtracted from the present age of Randheer and the remainder is
divided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Anup is obtained. If Anup is 2
years younger to Mahesh whose age is 5 years, then what is the age of Randheer?
1) 2 : 3
2) 1 : 2
3) 3 : 2
4) 3 : 5
5) None of these
170. A shopkeeper sold saree at Rs. 266 each after giving 5% discount on labeled price.
Had he not given the discount, he would have earned a profit of 12% on the cost
price. What was the cost price of each saree?
1) Rs. 280
2) Rs. 260
171. An article when sold for
3) Rs. 240
Rs. 200 fetches
4) Rs. 250
25 per cent
5) None of these
profit. What would be the
percentage profit / loss if 6 such articles are sold for Rs. 1056?

1) 10 per cent loss
2) 10 per cent profit
4) 5 per cent profit
3) 5 per cent loss
5) None of these
172. A shopkeeper gave an additional 20 per cent concession on the reduced price after
giving 30 per cent standard concession on an article. If Arun bought that article for
Rs.1120, what was the original price?
1) Rs. 3000
2) Rs. 4000
3) Rs. 2400
4) Rs. 2000
5) None of these
173. Two chairs and three tables cost Rs. 1025 and 3 chairs and two tables cost Rs. 1100.
What is the difference between the cost of one table and that of one chair?
1) Rs. 75 2) Rs. 35 3) Rs. 125 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 174. The
cost price of an article, which on being sold at a gain of 12% yields Rs. 6 more
than when it is sold at a loss of 12%, is
1) Rs. 30
2) Rs. 25
3) Rs. 20
4) Rs. 24
5) None of these
175. When the price of pressure cooker was increased by 15%, its sale fell down by 15%.
The effect on the money receipt was :
1) no effect
2) 15% decrease
3) 7.5% increase
4) 2.25% decrease
5) None of these
176. Subhash purchased a tape recorder at
th of its selling price and sold it a 8% more
than its selling price. His gain is :

1) 9%
2) 10%
3) 18%
4) 20%
5) None of these
177. The loss incurred on selling an article for Rs. 270 is as much as the profit made after
selling it at 10% profit. The CP of the article is :
1) Rs. 90
2) Rs. 110
178. Out of a certain sum
3) Rs. 363
rd is invested at 3%
4) Rs. 300
5) None of these
th at 6% and the rest at 8%. If the
simple interest for 2 years from all these investments amount to Rs. 500, find the
original sum.
1) Rs. 5000
2) Rs. 6000
3) Rs. 5200
4) Rs. 5500
5) None of these
179. At what rate per cent simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 20
years? 1) 4% 2) 3% 3) 5% 4) 6% 5) None of these
180. The simple interest on a sum of money will be Rs. 600 after 10 years. If the principal
is trebled after 5 years, the total interest at the end of 10 years will be
1) Rs. 600 2) Rs. 900 3) Rs. 1200 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 181. If x is the
simple interest on y and y is the simple interest on z, the rate % and the
time being the same in both cases, what is the relation between x, y and z?
2
1) x = yz 2) y = xz 3) z = xy 4) xyz = 1 5) None of these 182. At what rate per

cent compound interest, does a sum of money become times it in

2 years?
1) 50%
2) 100%
3) 25%4) 40%
5) None of these
183. The compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 10% per annum is
Rs. 420. The simple interest on the same sum at the same rate and same time will be
1) Rs. 350 2) Rs. 375 3) Rs. 380 4) Rs. 400 5) None of these
184. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 20% per annum is Rs.
200. Find the compound interest at the same rate and for the same time.
1) Rs. 320 2) Rs. 220 3) Rs. 210 4) Rs. 225 5) None of these 185. The compound
interest on a certain sum for 2 years is Rs. 105 and simple interest is
Rs. 100. Find the rate of interest per annum and the sum.
1) 10% Rs. 500
2) 10% Rs. 10003) 20% Rs. 1000
4) 20%1500
5) None of these
186. Find the difference between the simple and compound interest on Rs. 500 for 3 years
at 4 per cent.
1) Rs. 2,432 2) Rs. 3,432 3) Rs. 2,342 4) Rs. 2,423 5) None of these 187. A certain
amount of money at compound interest grows up to Rs. 12960 in 2 years
and up to Rs.13176 in 3 years. Find the rate per cent per annum.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 2
4) 1
5) None of these
188. What sum of money at compound interest will amount to Rs. 562.38 in 3 years, if the
rate of interest is 3% for the first year, 4% for the second year and 5% for the third
year?
1) Rs. 400
2) Rs. 450
3) Rs. 500
4) Rs. 520
5) None of these
189. The difference between the simple and the compound interest compounded every six
months at the rate of 10 per cent annum at the end of two years is Rs. 124, 05. What
is the sum?
1) Rs. 10000
2) Rs. 6000
3) Rs. 1200
4) Rs. 8000
5) None of these
190. A certain sum is interested at compound. The interest accrued in the first two years
is Rs. 272 and that in the first three years is Rs. 434. Find the rate per cent.
1) 12
2) 7
3) 17
4) 25 %
5) None of these
191. A person travels 255 km in 7 hours in two stages. In the first part of the journey, he
travels by bus at the speed of 30 km per hr. In the second part of the Journey, he
travels by train at the speed of 45 km per hr. how much distance did he travel by bus?
1) 120 km 2) 135 km 3) 145 km 4) 125 km 5) None of these
192. A trader has 40 kg of tea, a part of which he sells at 12% profit and the rest at 8%
loss. He gains 9% on the whole. What is the quantity sold at 12% gain and 8% loss?

1) 30 kg, 10kg
2) 32 kg, 8 kg
3) 33 kg, 7 kg
4) 34 kg. 6 kg
5)None of these
193. A trader has 44 kg of rice, a part of which he sells at 26% profit and the rest at 18%
loss. On the whole his loss is 16%. What is the quantity sold at 26% profit and that at
18% loss?
1) 2 kg, 42 kg
2) 4 kg, 40 kg
3) 42 kg, 2 kg
4) 40 kg, 4 kg
5) None of these
194. Ritus expenditure and saving are in the ratio 5 : 2. Her income increases by 12%.
Her expenditure also increases by 14%. By how many % does her saving increase?
1) 14%
2) 7%
3) 8%
4) 9%
5) None of these
195. The present ratio of ages of A and B is 4:5. 18 years ago, this ratio was 11:16. Find
the sum total of their present ages.
1) 90 years
2) 105 years
3) 110 years
4) 80 years
5) None of these
rd
196. Rs. 3000 is distributed among A, B and C such that A gets 2/3
of what B and C
together get and C gets of what A and B together get. Find Cs share.
1) Rs. 750
2) Rs. 100
3) Rs. 800
4) Rs. 1200
5) None of these
197. If the ratio of the ages of Maya and Chhaya is 6:5 at present, and fifteen years from
now, the ratio will get changed to 9:8, then find Mayas present age.
1) 24 years 2) 30 years 3) 18 years 4) 33 years 5) None of these 198. A cask
contains a mixture of 49 liters of wine and water in the proportion 5:2. How
much water must be added to it so that the ratio of wine to water may be
7:4? 1) 3.5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8 5) None of these
199. A bag contains 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 Re. coins. There are 220 coins in all and the
total amount in the bag is Rs. 160. If there are thrice as many 1 Re. coins as there are
25 paise coins, then what is the number of 50 paisa coins?
1) 60
2) 40
3) 120
4) 80
5) None of these
200. In a co-educational school there are 15 more girls than boys. If the number of girls
is increased by 10% and the number of boys is also increased by 16% there would be
9 more girls than boys. What is the number of students in the school?
1) 140
2) 125
3) 265
4) 255
5) None of these
201. Raju can do 25% of work in 5 days. How many days will he take to complete the
work ten times?
1) 150 days
2) 250 days
3) 200 days
4) 180 days
5) None of these
202. Baba alone can do a piece of work in 10 days. Anshu alone can do it in 15 days. If
the total wages for the work is 50. How much should Baba be paid if they work

together for the entire duration of the work?
1) 30
2) 20
3) 50
4) 40
5) None of these
203. 4 men and 3 women finish a job in 6 days, and 5 men and 7 women can do the
same job in 4 days. How long will 1 man and 1 woman take to do the work?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5) None of these
204. A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 20 days. With the
help of C, they finish the work in 5 days. How long will it take for C alone to finish the
work?
1) 20 days
2) 10 days
3) 35 days
4) 15 days
5) None of these
205. A can do a piece of work in 20 days. He works at it for 5 days and then B finishes it
in 10 more days. In how many days will A and B together finish the work?
1) 8 days 2) 10 days 3) 12 days 4) 6 days 5) None of these 206. A and B undertake
to do a piece of work for Rs. 100. A can do it in 5 days and B can
do it in 10 days. With the help of C, they finish it in 2 days. How much should C be
paid for his contribution?
1) 40
2) 20
3) 60
4) 30
5) None of these
207. Twenty workers can finish a piece of work in 30 days. After how many days should 5
workers leave the job so that the work is completed in 35 days?
1) 5 days
2) 10 days
3) 15 days
4) 20 days
5) None of these
208. Arun and Vinay together can do a piece of work in 7 days. If Arun does twice as
much work as Vinay in a given time, how long will Arun alone take to do the work?
1) 6.33 days 2) 10.5 days 3) 11 days 4) 72 days 5) None of these 209. X number of
men can finish a piece of work in 30 days. If there were 6 men more,
the work could be finished in 10 days less. What is the original number of
men? 1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 15 5) None of these
210. Sashi can do a piece of work in 25 days and Rishi can do it in 20 days. They work for
5 days and then Sashi goes away. In how many more days will Rishi finish the work?
1) 10 days 2) 12 days 3) 14 days 4) 16 days 5) None of these
211. Raju can do a piece of work in 10 days, Vicky in 12 days and Tinku in 15 days. They
all start the work together, but Raju leaves after 2 days and Vicky leaves 3 days
before the work is completed. In how many days is the work completed?
1) 5 days
2) 6 days
3) 7 days
4) 8 days
5) None of these
212. Manoj takes twice as much time as Anjay and thrice as much as Vijay to finish a
piece of work. Together they finish the work in 1 day. What is the time taken by Manoj

to finish the work?
1) 6 days
2) 3 days
3) 2 days
4) 4 days
5) None of these
213. Apurava can do a piece of work in 12 days. Apurva and Amit complete the work
together and were paid Rs. 54 and Rs. 81 respectively. How many days must they
have taken to complete the work together?
1) 4 days
2) 4.5 days
3) 4.8 days
4) 5 days
5) None of these
214. In a fort there was sufficient food for 200 soldiers for 31 days. After 27 days 120
soldiers left the fort. For how many extra days will the rest of the food last for the
remaining soldiers?
1) 12 days
2) 10 days
3) 8 days
4) 6 days
5) None of these
215. Pipe A and B running together can fill a cistern in 6 minutes. If B takes 5 minutes
more than A to fill the cistern, then the time in which A and B will fill the cistern
separately will be respectively?
1) 15 min, 20 min
2) 15 min, 10 min
3) 10 min, 15 min
4) 25 min, 20 min
5) None of these
216. A takes 5 days more than B to do a certain job and 9 days more than C; A and B
together can do the job in the same time as C. How many days A would take to do it?
1) 16 days 2) 10 days 3) 15 days 4) 20 days 5) None of these 217. There are two
pipes in a tank. Pipe A is for filling the tank and Pipe B is for emptying
the tank. If A can fill the tank in 10 hours and B can empty the tank in 15 hours then
find how many hours will it take to completely fill a half empty tank?
1) 30 hours 2) 15 hours 3) 20 hours 4) 33.33 hours 5) None of these 218. A, B and C
can do some work in 36 days. A and B together do twice as much work as
C alone and A and C together can do thrice as much work as B alone. Fine the time
taken by C to do the whole work.
1) 72 days
2) 96 days
3) 108 days
4) 120 days
5) None of these
219. A can do some work in 24 days, B can do it in 32 days and C can do it in 60 days.
They start working together. A left after 6 days and B left after working for 8 days.
How many more days are required to complete the whole work?
1) 30
2) 25
3) 22
4) 20
5) None of these
220. Walking at of his normal speed, Abhishek is 16 minutes late in reaching his office.
The usual time taken by him to cover the distance between his home and his office is
1) 48 minutes 2) 60 minutes 3) 42 minutes 4) 62 minutes 5) None of these
221. Ram and Bharat travel the same distance at the rate of 6 km per hour and 10 km per
hour respectively. If Ram takes 30 minutes longer than Bharat, the distance travelled

by each is
1) 6 km
2) 10 km
3) 7.5 km
4) 20 km
5) None of these
222. Lonavala and Khandala are two stations 600 km apart. A train starts from Lonavala
and moves towards Khandala at the rate of 25 km/h. After two hours, another train
starts from Khandala at the rate of 35 km/h. How far from Lonavala will they will cross
each other?
1) 250 m
2) 300 km
3) 279.166 km
4) 475 km
5) None of these
223. Walking at of his normal speed, a man takes 2(1/2) hours more than the normal
time. Find the normal time.
1) 7.5 h
2) 6 h
3) 8 h
4) 12 h
5) None of these
224. Alok walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car and thus takes
a total time of 6 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by driving both
ways. How long would it have taken for him to walk both ways?
1) 8 h 45 min 2) 7 h 45 min 3) 5 h 30 min 4) 6 h 45 min 5) None of these 225.
Without stoppage, a train travels a certain distance with an average speed of 60
km/h, and with stoppage, it covers the same distance with an average speed of 40
km/h. On an average, how many minutes per hour does the train stop during the
journey?
1) 20 min/h
2) 15 min/h
3) 10 min/h
4) 10 min/h
5) None of these
226. Narayan Murthy walking at a speed of 20 km/h reaches his college 10 minutes late. Next
time he increases his speed by 5 km/h, but finds that he is still late by 4 minutes.
What is the distance of his college from his house?

1) 20 km
2) 6 km
3) 12 km
4) 10
5) None of these
227. A motor car does a journey in 17.5 hours, covering the first half at 30 km/h and the
second half at 40 km/h. Find the distance of the journey.
1) 684 km
2) 600 km
3) 120 km
4) 540
5) None of these
228. Sujit covers a distance in 40 minutes if he drives at a speed of 60 kilometer per hour
on an average. Find the speed at which he must drive at to reduce the time of the
journey by 25%?
1) 60 km/h
2) 70 km/h
3) 75 km/h
4) 80 km/h
5) None of these
229. Manish travels a certain distance by car at the rate of 12 km/h and walks back at the
rate of 3 km/h. The whole journey took 5 hours. What is the distance he covered on
the car?
1) 12 km
2) 30 km
3) 15 km
4) 6 km
5) None of these
230. Two trains A and B start simultaneously in the opposite direction from two points A

and B and arrive at their destinations 9 and 4 hours respectively after their meeting
each other. At what rate does the second train B travel if the first train travels at 80
km per hour?
1) 60 km/h
2) 100 km/h 3) 120 km/h
4) 80 km/h
5) None of these 231.
Two cars started simultaneously toward each other from town A and B that are 480 km
apart. It took the first car travelling from A to B 8 hours to cover the distance and the
second car travelling from B to A 12 hours. Determine at what distance from A the
two cars meet.
1) 288 km
2) 200 km
3) 300 km
4) 196 km
5) None of these
232. Two trains A and B start from station X to Y, Y to X respectively. After passing each
other, they take 12 hours and 3 hours to reach Y and X respectively. If train A is
moving at the speed of 48 km/h, the speed of train B is
1) 24 km/h
2) 96 km/h
3) 21 km/h
4) 20 km/h
5) None of these
233. A train requires 7 seconds to pass a pole while it requires 25 seconds to cross a
stationary train which is 378 meters long. Find the speed of the train.
1) 75.6 km/h 2) 75.4 km/h 3) 76.2 km/h 4) 21 km/h 5) None of these 234. A boat
sails down the river for 10 km and then up the river for 6 km. The speed of
the river flow is 1 km/h. What should be the minimum speed of the boat for the trip to
take a maximum of 4 hours?
1) 2 kmph
2) 3 kmph
3) 4 kmph
4) 5 kmph
5) None of these
235. A man rows 6 km/h in still water. If the river is running at 3 km per hour, it takes
him 45 minutes to row to a place and back. How far is the place?
1) 1.12 km
2) 1.25 km
3) 1.6875 km
4) 2.5 km
5) None of these
236. Two trains are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds of 40 kmph
and 20 kmph respectively. The faster train crosses a man in the second train in 36
seconds. The length of the faster train is
1) 200 meters
2) 185 meters
3) 225 meters
4) 210 meters
5) None of these 237.
Without stoppage, a train travels at an average speed of 75 km/h and with

stoppages it covers the same distance at an average speed of 60 km/h. How many
minutes per hour does the train stop?
1) 10 minutes
2) 12 minutes
3) 14 minutes
4) 18 minutes
5) None of these
238. A man can row 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. It is also known
that he can row 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream in 13 hours. Find the speed
of the man in still water.

1) 4 km/h
2) 6 km/h
3) 8 km/h
4) 12 km/h
5) None of these

239. Four-fifths of three-eighths of a number is 24. What is 250 per cent of that number?
1) 100 2) 160 3) 120 4) 200 5) None of these 240. Two-fifths of thirty per cent of
one-fourth of a number is 15. What is 20 per cent of
the number?
1) 90
2) 150
3) 100
4) 120
5) None of these
241. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 10. If the digits are reversed, the
number is decreased by 72. Find the number.
1) 91
2) 82
3) 73
4) 64
5) None of these
242. In a two-digit number the digit in the units place is more than the digit in the tens
place by 2. If the difference between the number and the number obtained by
interchanging the digits is 18. What is the original number
1) 46 2) 68 3) 24 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 243. A number consists of
two digits whose sum is 15. If 9 is added to the number, then
the digits change their places. The number is _____.
1) 69
2) 78
3) 87
4) 96
5) None of these
244. The difference between the digits of a two-digit number in one-ninth of the
difference between the original number and the number obtained by interchanging
the positions of the digits. What definitely is the sum of the digits of that number?
1) 5
245. The sum of
2) 14
3) 12
4) Data inadequate
the digits of a two-digit number is
5) None of these
of the difference between the
number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits. What
definitely is the difference between the digits of that number?
1) 5 2) 9 3) 7 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 246. The ratio between a twodigit number and the sum of the digits of that number is
4:1. If the digit in the units place is 4 more than the digit in the tens place. What
is the sum of the digits of that number?
1) 9
2) 10
3) 15
4) 12
5) None of these
247. If the place of last two-digits of a three-digit number are interchanged, a new
number greater than the original number by 63 is obtained. What is the difference
between the last two digits of that number?
1) 7
2) 5
3) 6
4) 8
5) None of these
248. The sum of squares of two numbers is 95 and the square of their difference is 37.
The product of the two numbers.
1) 18
2) 19
3) 29
4) 27
5) None of these
249. The product of two numbers is 36. The sum of their squares is 97. The sum of the

two numbers is _______.
1) 13
2) 12
3) 15
4) 11
5) None of these
250. The denominator of a fraction is 2 more than thrice its numerator. If the numerator
as well as denominator is increased by one, the fraction becomes . What was the
original fraction?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5) None of these
251.20.2 x 64 x 81.3 x 40.2 = 8?

1) 2.7
2) 2.5
3) 3.7
4) 3.2
5) None of these
252.83% of 6242 x 12% of 225 =?

1) 146286.42
2) 134263.18
3) 139883.22
4) 1562218.23
5) None of these
253. ? 25 12 = 248.76
1) 74628
2) 497.52
3) 62452
4) 870.66
5) None of these
254. 526 x 12 + 188 = 50 x?

1) 120
2) 160
3)140
4)110
5) None of these
4) 15
5) None of these
255. 622 322 + (?)2 = 3144

1) 17
2) 16
3) 19
256. 21952 + 33 =?
1) 58
2) 61
3) 63
4) 51
5) None of these
257. ? % of 5600 28 % of 3500 of 3500 = 1988

1) 58
2) 55
3) 51
4) 53
5) None of these
258. (8536 - 2209) x 0.3 =?

1) 2556.7
2) 2456.7
3) 2546.7
4) 2645.7
5) None of these
259. 5/8 + 1/4 + 7/12 =?

1) 1 11/24
2) 1 13/24
3) 1 9/26
4) 1 7/24
5) None of these
260. (3584 32 ) 11 = (?)

1) 10021
261. 15
25
2) 12001
40
1) 500
262. 186
94
286
1) 366
264. 649.6875
1) 4
48
25
3) 490
?
2) 14.8
302
5) None of these
4) 480
5) None
7.75
3) 12.5
402
4) 14
5) None
502
2) 318
3) 326
1299.375
866.25
2) 7
4) 10201
? 2560
2) 520
1) 13.5
263. 282
130
3) 10221
3) 10
4) 338
346.5
4) 12
99
5) None
22 ?
5) None

265. 5
26
19
121
1)81
765
819
1) 1445
267. 1108
1117
268. 25
1142
70
1) 6400
269. 154
1) 242
1280
4) 1275
954
4) 1204
2) 42
5) None
?
4) 7660
5) None
1954
3) 442
6066
5) None
1481
3) 6380
2) 554
1) 36
5) None
3) 1272
? 196 1005
1143
1191
260
226
4) 94
3) 1305
2) 7680
162
12
900 1008
2) 1300
30
3) 713
2) 1565
1) 1312
337
2) 357
266. 738
270.
41
4) 642
5) None
42511
3) 45
4) 64
5) None
Directions (271 - 275): Following table shows the total number of students appeared from
different cities, ratio of boys and girls among those appeared students, percentage of passed
students and number of passed girls among them.
Total
Appeared
7210
4800
5670
6400
7200
7080
S1
S2
S3
2 S4
S5
S6
Appeared
Boys : Girls
3:2
9:7
5:4
11 : 5
11 : 7
7:5
Pass %
60%
66%
70%
68%
57%
65%
Number of
girls Passed
1268
1146
1432
975
1224
1565
271. What is the average number of boys appeared in the examination from all six cities?
1) 3851
2) 3852
3) 3853
4) 3854
5) 3855
272. The total number of girls passed from City S4 is what percentage of the total number
of girls appeared from City S?

1) 43.25%
2) 48.75%
3) 52.5%
4) 55%
5) 62.5%
273. What is the total number of boys failed in the Examination from all six cities
together?
1) 6175
274. The total
2) 6180
3) 6185
number of girls passed in
4) 6190
the examination
5) 6195
is approximately what

percentage of the total number of girls appeared in the examination, talking all cities
together?
1) 42%
2) 50%
3) 56%
4) 64%
5) 72%
275. The total number of boys passed from City S2 is what percentage more than the
total number of girls passed from that city?
1) 70.2%
2) 76.5%
3) 78.4%
4) 80%
5) 82.8%
Directions (276-280): Following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of employees
in different departments of an organization. The table shows the ratio of male of female
employees among them .The total number of employees is 9000.
Department
Ratio
Male :
Female
D1
7 : 13
D2
7: 8
D3
4: 5
D4
22 : 23
D5
13: 17
D6
17 : 19
D7
8 : 13
D1,
D2, 14.50% 18%
D3,
12.20%
D4,
16.50%
D5, 9%
D6,
22.80%
D7, 7%
Male : Female

276. What is the total number of male employees working in the organisation?
1) 3930
2) 3940
3) 3950
4) 3960
5) 3970
277. The female employees of Department D3 are approximately what percentage of the
total employees working in Department D3?
1) 37.5%
2) 47.5%
3) 52.5%
4) 55.5%
5) 57.5%
278. The female employee working in Department D7 is what percentage more than the
male employees working in Department D7?
1) 32.5%
2) 45%
3) 52.5%
4) 57.5 %
5) 62.5%
279. In which of the following departments is the difference between male and female
employees the minimum?
1) D1
2) D2
3) D4
4) D5
5) D6
280. The total number of female employees working in an organization is approximately

what percentage of the total number of employees working in the organization?
1) 52.32%
2) 54.16%
3) 56.11%
4) 57.5%
5) 58.19%
Directions (281-285): Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the
questions given below: Time taken to travel (in hours) by six vehicles on two different days.
20
18
16
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
DAY - 1
Day - 2
Column2
Distance covered (in kilometers) by six vehicles on each day
Vehicle
Day 1
Day 2
832
864
516
774
693
810
552
765
935
546
703
636
281. Which of the following vehicle travelled at the same speed on both the days?
1) Vehicle A
2) Vehicle C
4) Vehicle B
5) None of these
3) Vehicle F
282. What was the difference between the speed of Vehicle A on Day 1 and the speed of
Vehicle C on the same day?
1) 7km/hr
2)12km/hr
3) 11km/hr
4) 8 km/hr
5) None of these
283. What was the speed of Vehicle C on Day 2 in terms of metres per second?
1) 15.3
2) 12.8
3) 11.5
4) 13.8
5) None of these
284. The distance travelled by Vehicle F on Day 2 was approximately what per cent of the
distance travelled by it on Day 1?
1) 80
2) 65
3) 85
4) 95 5) 90
285. What is the ratio of the speeds of Vehicle D and Vehicle E on Day 2?
1) 15:13
2) 17:13
3) 13:11
4) 17:14
5) None of these
Directions (286 - 290): Study the following pie-chart and table carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Percentagewise distribution of the number of mobile phones sold by a shopkeeper during six
months
Total number of mobile phones sold = 45000
Sales
November , 12%
October, 8%
December, 16%
Septemeber,
25%
July , 17%
August, 22%
The ratio between the numbers of mobile phones sold of Company A and Company
B during six months.
Month
Ration
July
8:7
August
4:5
September
3:2
October
7:5
November
7:8
December
7: 9
286. What is the ratio of the number of mobile phones sold of Company B during July to
those sold during December of the same company?
1) 119:145
2) 116:135
3) 119:135
4) 119:130
5) None of these
287. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by Company A during November were sold at a
discount, how many mobile phones of Company A during that month were sold
without a discount?
1) 882
2) 1635
3) 1638
4) 885
5) None of these
288. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of $ 433 on each mobile phone sold of Company B
during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that
company during the same month?

1) $ 6,49,900
2) $ 6,45,900
3) $ 6,49,400
4) $ 6,49,500 5) None of these
289. The number of mobile phones sold of Company A during July is approximately what
per cent of the number of mobile phones sold of Company A during December?
1) 110
2) 140
3) 150
4) 105
5) 130
290. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of Company B during August and
September together?
1) 10000
2) 15000
3) 10500
4) 9500
5) None of these
Directions (291 - 300): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements
and -Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the date in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the questions.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.
291. Rahul, Anurag and Vivek started a business together. In what proportion would the
annual profit be distributed among them?
I.Rahul got one fourth of the profit.
II. Rahul and Vivek contributed 75% of the total investment
292. What was the rate of interest on a sum of money?
I. The sum fetched a total of Rs. 2522 as compound interest at the end of 3 years.
II. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest at the end
of 2 years at the same rate was R 40.
293. Is a = b?
2
I. ( a 2 ) = (b-2 )
II. (a+b)(1/a + 1/b) = 4

294. Did Abhi make a profit on his sale?
I. If he had sold 5 pens less than he presently did for Rs 100, his profit would have
decreased by Rs 20.
II. If he had sold 50 paise less per pen, he would have lost Rs 10.
295. What are two numbers?
I. The larger number is 36 more than half the difference of the two numbers.
II. The two numbers are in the ratio 5:3.
296. In how many years can a simple interest of Rs. 6570 be obtained on an amount of
Rs. 36500?
I. The rate of simple interest is 6% per annum.
II. The difference between the simple interest is Rs. 402.084.
297. What is the number of teachers in the school?
I. Each teacher takes at least four lectures in a day.
II. There are 45 lectures in a week.
298. What is the area of the rectangular plot?
I. The length of the plot is one fourth of the area.
II. The length of the plot is thrice its breadth.
299. What is the cost of painting the four walls of a rectangular hall ?
I. Area of the hall is 600 m2 & Perimeter of the hall is 100 m.
II. Cost of painting is Rs 45/- per m2
300. What is Naseems share in the profit earned at the end of two years distributed
proportionately?
I. Pradeep, Naseem & Rajesh started a business investing Rs. 18,000/. Rs.27,
000/& Rs. 24,000/ respectively.
II. Share in profit received by Rajesh is 25% more than the share received by
Pradeep.

Answers:
1.3
2.3
3.3
4.2
5.1
6.4
7.1
8.2
9.4
10.2
11.2
12.4
13.4
14.3
15.2
16.1
17.1
18.2
19.4
20.1
21.3
22.1
23.2
24.4
25.1
26.4
27.3
28.2
29.1
30.3
31.3
32.4
33.2
34.3
35.1
36.1
37.2
38.3
39.3
40.1
41.2
42.1
43.2
44.4
45.3
46.4
47.2
48.4
49.1
50.3
51.2
52.3
53.2
54.4
55.1
56.2
57.3
58.4
59.3
60.1
61.3
62.3
63.2
64.3
65.3
66.1
67.1
68.2
69. 3
70.1
75.2
76.1
77.1
78.1
79.2
80.4
86.3
87.3
89.1
90.1
100.4
71.1
72.3
73.1
74.1
81.1
82.4
83.1
84.2
91.3
92.4
93.1
94.2
95.2
96.4
97.3
98.2
99.2
101.3
102.2
103.3
104.1
105.3
106.2
107.4
108.4
109.3
110.4
111.1
112.3
113.4
114.2
115.1
116.3
117.1
118.5
119.3
120.2
121.5
122.5
123.3
124.4
125.2
126.1
127.3
128.3
129.3
130.3
131.1
132.1
133.3
134.4
135.1
136.1
137.2
138.4
139.4
140.3
141.3
142.2
143.1
144.2
145.1
146.2
147.4
148.1
149.3
150.2
151.1
152.4
153.3
154.4
155.4
156.1
157.2
158.4
159.2
160.3
161.3
162.3
163.1
164.3
165.3
166.4
167.1
168.2
169.4
170.4
171.2
172.4
173.1
174.2
175.4
176.4
177.4
178.1
179.3
180.3
181.2
182.1
183.4
184.2
185.1
186.1
187.4
188.3
189.4
190.1
191.1
192.4
193.1
194.2
195.1
196.2
197.2
198.2
199.1
200.3
201.3
202.1
203.4
204.1
205.1
206.1
207.3
208.2
209.3
210.4
211.3
212.1
213.3
214.4
215.3
216.3
217.2
218.3
219.3
220.1
221.3
222.3
223.1
224.1
225.1
226.4
227.2
228.4
229.1
230.3
231.1
232.2
233.1
234.3
253.3
236.1
237.2
238.3
239.4
240.3
241.1
242.4
243.2
244.4
245.1
246.4
247.1
248.3
249.1
250.2
251.5
252.3
253.1
254.5
255.5
256.2
257.4
258.3
259.1
260.4
85.3
88.2
261.5
262.1
263.4
264.1
265.3
266.3
267.3
268.1
269.4
270.3
271.1
272.2
273.5
274.2
275.2
276.3
277.4
278.5
279.3
280.3
281.4
282.3
283.5
284.5
285.2
286.3
287.3
288.4
289.5
290.1
291.5
292.5
293.2
294.1
295.5
296.1
297.4
298.5
299.5
300.5
REASONING
PRACTICE TEST
Reasoning
1. If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is written
as OGUSSNC, then how will TOPICAL be written in that code?
1) VMRJECN
2) VMRHACJ
3) VMRJACJ
4) VNRJABJ
5) None of these
2. If SYSTEM is coded as SYSMET and NEARER, as AENRER, then FRACTION will be coded
as
1) CARFNOIT
2) NOITFRAC
3) FRACNOIT
4) CARFTION
5) None of these
3. In a certain code, COMPATIBLE is written as BQNPDDKAHS. How is STABILISED

1) TUBCJCDRHK
2) JCBUTEDTHM
4) JCBUTEFTJM
5) None of these
3) JCBUTCDRHK
4. If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is coded as SQHZMFKD, which word would be

coded as DWZLOKD?
1) EXAMPLE
2) FIGMENT
3) DISMISS
4) DISJOIN
5) None of these
5. In a code language, TUTORIAL, is written as DODNGLCF and DANCE is written as

YCJMZ, how can EDUCATION be written in that code?
1) ZYMODCLNJ
2) ZYOMCDLNJ
4) ZYOTNLCMD
5) None of these
3) ZYOMDCLNJ
6. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned odd numerical value
beginning A=1, B=3 and so on, what will be the total value of the letters of the word
INDIAN?
1) 86
2) 88
3) 89
4) 96
5) None of these
7. If DEER = 12215 and HIGH = 5645, how will you code HEEL?
1) 2328
2) 3449
3) 4337
4) 5229
5) None of these
8. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, I have no brother or sister but that mans
father is my fathers son. Whose photograph was it?
1) His own
2) His sons
4) His nephews
5) None of these
3) His fathers
9. Introducing Reena, Monika said, She is the only daughter of my fathers

only daughter. How is Monika related to Reena?
1) Aunt
2) Niece
4) Data inadequate
3) Cousin
5) None of these

10. Pointing to a lady, a man said, The son of her only brother is the brother of my
wife. How is the lady related to the man?
1) Mothers sister
2) Grandmother
4) Sister of father-in-law
3) Mother-in-law
5) Maternal aunt
11. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Amar said, Her mothers brother is the
only son of my mothers father. How is the girls mother related to Amar?
1) Mother
2) Sister
3) Aunt
4) Grandmother
5) None of these
12. A man said to a lady, Your mothers husbands sister is my aunt. How is the
lady related to the man?
1) Daughter
2) Granddaughter
4) Sister
5) Aunt
3) Mother
13. Pointing out to a lady, a girl said, She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother
of my fathers only son. How is the lady related to the girl?
1) Sister-in-law
2) Mother
4) Mother-in-law
5) Cousin
3) Aunt
Directions (14 - 17): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are six children playing football, namely A, B, C, D, E and F. A and E are brothers. F is
the sister of E. C is the only son of As uncle. B and D are the daughters of the brother of Cs
father.
14. How is C related to F?
1) Cousin
2) Brother
4) Uncle
5) None of these
3) Son
15. How many male players are there?

1) One
2) Three
4) Five
5) Six
3) Four
16. How many female players are there ?

1) One
2) Two
4) Four
5) Five
3) Three
17. How is D related to A?

1) Uncle
2) Sister
4) Cousin
5) None of these
3) Niece

18. If (i) M is brother of N; (ii) B is brother of N; and (iii) M is brother of D, then which
of the following statements is definitely true?
1) N is brother of B
2) N is brother of D
4) D id brother of M
3) M is brother of B
5) None of these
19. D, the son-in-law of B, is the brother-in-law of A who is the brother of C. How is A

related to B?
1) Brother
2) Son
4) Data inadequate
3) Father
5) None of these
Directions (20 - 24): Read the information given below and answer the questions that
follow :
1) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.
2) One couple has parents and their children in the family.
3) A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A.
4) D is the daughter of F who is the mother of E.
20. Who are the male members in the family?
1) A and C
2) C and F
5) None of these
3) A, B and D
21. Which of the following pairs is the parents of the children?

1) BC
2) CF
3) BF
5) None of these
22. Which of the following pairs in the parents of the couple?

1) AB
2) BC
3) AF
4) CF
5) None of these
23. How many female members are there in the family?

1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) cannot be determined
5) None of these
24. What relationship do D and E bear to each other?

1) Sister and Brother
2) Monther and son
3) Grandmother and Grand daughter
4) Sister
5) None of these
Directions (25 - 27): These questions are based on the following information:
1) P @ Q means P is mother of Q
2) P $ Q means P is husband of Q
3) P # Q means P is sister of Q
4) P * Q means P is son of Q

25. Which of the following indicates the relationship R is daughter of T?
1) T@B#F*R
2) T@B#R*F
3) R#F*B@T
4) R#F*B$T
5) None of these
26. M*H@D$K represents what relation of H with K?

1) Mother
2) Father
3) Father-in-law
5) None of these
27. If F # J * T $ R @ L, then which of the following is definitely true?

1) L is brother of J
2) F is sister of L
4) F is brother of L
5) None of these
3) F is brother of J
Directions (28 - 29): Read the information given below to answer the questions that
follow:
1) P X Q means Q is mother of P
2) P + Q means P is brother of Q
3) P Q means P is sister of Q
4) P / Q means Q is father of P
28. Which of the following definitely means X is grandson of D?
1) X x H D
2) A + X x H D
4) cannot be determined
5) None of these
3) A X x H D
29. Which of the following statements is superfluous to answer the above question?
1) (i) only
2) (ii) only
4) (iv) only
5) None of these
3) (iii) only
Directions (30 - 33): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Three ladies and four men are a group of friends i.e. P, K, R, Q, J, V and X. Each one has a
different profession i.e. Lawyer, Travel Agent, Air-hostess, Doctor, Professor, Consultant and
Jeweller and each one owns a different car i.e. Alto, Corolla, Santro, Lancer, Ikon, Scorpio
and Esteem, not necessarily in that order. None of the ladies is a Consultant or a Lawyer. R
is an Air-hostess and she owns an Ikon Car. P owns a Scorpio. K is not a Doctor. J is a
Jeweller and The Doctor owns Esteem car whereas the Professor owns Scorpio. The Travel
Agent owns an Alto. None of the ladies owns a Scorpio.
30. Who are the three ladies in the group?

1) V, R, K
2) R, P, J
3) R, K, Q

4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
31. What car does Q own?

1) Esteem
2) Lancer
3) Alto
4) Santro
5) None of these
32. Who owns the car Lancer?

1) V
2) X
3) K
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
33. What is the profession of K?

1) Doctor
2) Professor
3) Travel Agent
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
given below:
(i)
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven persons wearing a different colour shirt white, red,
black, green, yellow, blue and violet and a different colour trousers blue, red, white
black, cream, yellow and indigo. The persons, colour of the shirt and colour of the
trousers above are not necessarily in the same order. No person is wearing shirt and
trousers of same colour.
(ii)
B is wearing red colour shirt and is not wearing cream or yellow colour trousers. D is
wearing green colour shirt and indigo colour trousers. Colour of As shirt and Fs
trousers is same. Colour of Es shirt and Cs trousers is same. G is wearing blue shirt
and E is wearing blue trousers. F is not wearing any yellow dress. A is not wearing a
white shirt. Red and blue is not the combination of shirt and trousers of any of the
persons.
34. Who wears violet colour shirt?

1) C
2) F
3) C or F
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
4) Data inadequate
5) Non of these
35. What is the colour of Bs trousers?

1) White
2) Indigo 3) Red
36. What is the colour of As trousers?

1) Cream
2) Blue
3) White
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
37. What is the colour of Fs Shirt?

1) Green
2) Blue
3) Violet
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
38. What is the colour of Gs trousers?

1) Indigo
2) White
3) Cream
4) Red
5) None of these
Directions (39 - 43): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions

given below:
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing towards the centre of
the table in a restaurant. They have ordered for different items (Pizza, Strawberry, Vanilla,
Burger, Pastries and Patties) as their lunch. They are wearing T-shirts of different colours,
i.e. white, black, green, red, yellow and blue. Order of items for the lunch and colours of Tshirts are not necessarily according to the ordr of names.
I.
The persons who have ordered for Pizza, Vanilla and Pastries are neither in white Tshirt nor in black.
II.
The persons who are in green and yellow T-shirts have neither ordered for Pizza
nor for Vanilla.
III.
A is neither in white T-shirt nor on the immediate left of the person who has
ordered for Burger.
IV.
The only person who is between E and F eats Strawberry. The person who is on the
left side of the person in white T-shirt does not eat Patties.
V.
D has ordered for Burger and the colour of this T-shirt is green. He is facing the
person who has ordered for Strawberry.
VI.
One who has ordered for Pizza is seated opposite to the person wearing blue Tshirt, while the person whose T-shirt is of green colour is on the left of the person
who has ordered for Pastries.
VII.
One who has ordered for Patties is on the immediate right of the person in white Tshirt but one the immediate left of the person who has ordered for Vanillia.
VIII. C has not ordered for Vanilla while F has not ordered for Pizza.
39. Who among the following is the white T-shirt?

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) E
5) None of these
40. The only person, who is between E and D, is wearing T-shirt of the colour
1) Red
2) blue
3) black
4) yellow
5) None of these
41. Who among the following has ordered for Pastries?

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) E
5) None of these
42. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1) A Yellow-Burger
2) B Red Vanilla
4) F- Black Pastries
5) None of these
3) E-Red- Pizza
43. The colour of the T-shirt of the person, who has ordered for Patties, is
1) Red 2) yellow 3) blue 4) black 5) None of these Directions (44 - 48): Study the
given information carefully and answer the questions that

follow:
(i)
Eleven students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in the first row of

the class facing the teacher.
(ii)
D who is to the immediate left of F is second to the right of C.
(iii)
A is second to the right of E, who is at one of the ends.
(iv)
J is the immediate neighbor of A and B and third to the left of G.
(v)
H is to the immediate left of D and third to the right of I.
44. Who is sitting in the middle of the row?

1) B
2) C
3) G
4) I
5) None of these
45. Which of the following groups of friends is sitting to the right of G?

1) CHDE
2) CHDF
3) IBJA
4) ICHDF
5) None of these
46. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the above sitting
arrangement?
1) There are three students sitting between D and G
2) K is between A and J.
3) B is sitting between J and I.
4) G and C are neighbours sitting to the immediate right of H.
5) None of these
47. In the above sitting arrangement, which of the given statements is superfluous?
1) (i)
2) (ii)
3) (iii)
4) (iv)
5) None is superfluous
48. If E and D, C and B, A and H, and K and F interchange their positions, which of the
following parts of students is sitting at the ends?
1) D and E
2) E and F
3) D and K
4) K and F
5) None of these
Directions (49 - 53): Study the following information and answer the questions given
below:
Seven specialist doctors, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V visit a polyclinic on the four days Tuesday,
Wednesday, Friday and Saturday in a weak. At least one doctor but not more than two doctors
visits the polyclinic on each of these days. Each of them is specialist of different fields
ENT, Orthopaedics, Paediatrics, Neurologist, Ophtalmologist, Radiologist and Oncologist, S

visits on Friday with Radiologist, Paediatrician does not visit on Saturday nor with T and V
Oncologist U visits alone on Tuesday. Q visits on Wednesday and he is not Paediatrician. R
visits on Wednesday. V is not Radiologist. Paediatrician visits with ENT specialist. Neurologist
visits on Friday. P is neither Orthopaedics nor Radiologist.

49. What is the profession of S?
1) Ophthalmologist
2) Paediatrics
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
3) ENT
50. What is the speciality of P?

1) Paediatrics
2) Opthalmologist
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
3) ENT
51. On which of the following days do the specialists in Orthopaedic

and Ophthalmologist visit?
1) Wednesday
2) Friday
3) Saturday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
52. On which day of the week does T visit?
1) Wednesday
2) Friday
3) Saturday
4) Wednesday or Saturday5) None of these

53. Who among them visits the polyclinic along with P?
1) None
2) S
3) T
4) V
5) Either V or S
given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family belonging to three generations. There
are two married couples, one each of first and second generations respectively. They travel
in three different cars X, Y and Z so that no car has more than three members and there is
at least one female in each car. R, who is a granddaughter, does not travel with her
grandfather and grandmother. Q travels with his father T in car Y. V travels with her
granddaughter S in car X. P travels with her daughter in car Z.
54. In which car three members are travelling?

1) X
2) Y
3) Z
4) Either X or Y
55. How is W related to P?

1) Mother-in-law
2) Daughter
3) Sister
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
56. How many female members are there in the family?

1) Three
2) Four
3) Five
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
57. How is S related to T?

1) Granddaughter
2) Daughter
3) Niece
5) None of these

4)Data inadequate
5) None of these
58. Which of the following is one of the married couples?

1)QR
2) QS
3) ST
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
59. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and go in a semi-circle round a
hillock, and then turns left at right angles. In which direction is the river finally
flowing?
1) West
2) East
3) North
4) South
5) None of these
60. Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 meters, he turns to the
left and walks 25 meters straight. Again he turns to the left, walks a distance of 40
meters straight, again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 meters.
How far is he from the starting point?

1) 25 meters
2) 50 meters
3) 115 meters
4) 140 meters
5) None of these
61. Namita walks 14 meters towards west, then turns to her right and walks 14 meters
and then turns to her left and walks 10 meters. Again turning to her left she walks
14 meters. What is the shortest distance (in meters) between her starting point
and the present position?
1) 10
2) 24
3) 28
4) 38
5) None of these
62. Radha moves towards South-east a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards
West and travels a distance of 14 m. From hers, she moves towards North-west a
distance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 4 m towards East and stood
at that point. How far is the starting point from where she stood?
1) 3 m
2) 4 m
3) 10 m
4) 11 m
5) None of these
63. Gopal starts from his house towards West. After walking a distance of 30 meters,
he turned towards right and walked 20 meters. He then turned left and moving a
distance of 10 meters, turned to his left again and walked 40 meters. He now
turns to the left and walks 5 meters. Finally he turns to his left. In which
direction is he walking now?
1) North
2) South
3) East
4) South-west
5) West
64. A villager went to meet his uncle in another village situated 5 km away in the
North-east direction of his own village. From there he came to meet his father-inlaw living in a village situated 4 km in the south of his uncles village. How far
away and in what direction is he now?
1) 3 km in the North
4) 4 km in the West
2) 3 km in the East
5) None of these
3) 4 km in the East

65. Sanjeev walks 10 meters towards the South. Turning to the left, he walks 20
meters and then moves to his right. After moving a distance of 20 meters, he
turns to the right and walks 20 meters. Finally, he turns to the right and moves a
distance of 10 meters. How far and in which direction is he from the starting
point?
1) 10 meters North
2) 20 meters South
4) 10 meters South
5) None of these
3) 20 meters North
66. Of the five villages P, Q, R, S and T situated close to each other, P is to the west of
Q, R is to the south of P, T is to the north of Q and S is to the east of T. Then, R is
in which direction with respect to S?
1) North-west
2) South-east
3) South-west

67. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carom, P, R and S, Q are partners. S is to
the right of R who is facing west. Then, Q is facing
1) North
2) South
3) East
4) West
5) None of these
given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are nine houses. C is 2 km east of B. A is 1 km north of B and H
is 2 km south of A. G is 1 km west of H while D is 3 km east of G and F is 2 km north of G. I
is situated just in middle of B and C while E is just in middle of H and D.
68. Distance between E and G is

1) 1 km
2) 1.5 km
3) 2 km
4) 5 km
5) None of these
69. Distance between E and I is

1) 1 km
2) 2 km
3) 3 km
4) 4 km
5) None of these
70. Distance between A and F is

1) 1 km
2) 1.41 km
3) 2 km
4) 3 km
5) None of these
71. If South-east is called East, North-west is called West, South-west is called

South and so on, what will North be called?
1) East
2) North-east
3) North-west
4) South
5) None of these
72. A man is performing yoga with his head down and legs up. His face is towards the
west. In which direction will his left hand be?
1) North
2) South
3) East
4) West
5) None of these
73. One evening before sunset two friends Sumit and Mohit were talking to each other

face to face. If Mohits shadow was exactly to his right side, which direction was
Sumit facing?
1) North
2) South
3) West
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
74.Which is the third number to the left of the number which is exactly in the middle
of the following sequence of numbers?
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 2 4 6 8 9 7 5 3 1 9 8 7
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
6 5 4 3 2 1
5) 7
75.How many 6s are there in the following number series, each of which is
immediately preceded by 1 or 5 and immediately followed by 3 or 9?
2 6
3 7 5 6 42 9
6 7 1
6 13 4 1 6 3 9
1 56 9
2 3 1 6 5 4 3 2 1 9
6 3
1) Four
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
76.How many 4s are there preceded by 7 but not followed by 3?

5 9
3 2 1 7 4 26 9 7 46
8 0 1
1 3 2 8 7 4 1 3 8 3 2 5 6 7 4 3 9 5
8 74 6 3
1) Three
2) Four
3) Five
4) Six
5) None of these
77. Count 1 in the following sequence of numbers that is immediately followed by 2,

if 2 is not immediately followed by 3. How many such 1s are there?
12 1 3 4 5
1) 2
1 2 3 5 2 1 2
2) 4
3) 5
61
4 5 1 1 2 4 1 23 2
4) 7
1 75 2
1 2 5
5) 9
78.How many 7s are there in the following series which are preceded by 6 which is
not proceded by 8?
8
6 78
7 5
2) One
1) Nil
6 7
9 7
3) Two
1 6
4) Three
7 6
6 9
6 8 7
5) None of these
79.If the following series is written in the reverse order, which number will be fourth
to the right of the seventh number from the left?
7 3 9 7
1)0
0 38
4 6 2 1 0 5 11
2) 5
3) 9
13
4) 11
5) None of these
80.In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stands for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3
stands for Go, 4 stands for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence were
continued, which instruction will come next?
4
1) Wait
2) Sit
3) Go
5 3
4) Stop
4 5
5) Run
81.In a school, the following codes were used during physical exercise. 1 means
5 3

start walking, 2 means keep standing, 3 means start running at the same
spot, 4 means sit down. How many times will a student who performs the
following sequence without error from the beginning to the end have to sit
down?
12 3 4 2 3 1 4 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 4 4 1 2
1)2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
5) None of these
82.Thirty six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car,
there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the
third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters
in the second half of the row.
1)10
2) 12
3) 15
4) 17
5) None of these
83.Niting was counting down from 32. Submit was counting upwards the numbers
starting from 1 and he was calling out only the odd numbers. What common
number will they call out at the same time if they were calling out at the same
speed?
1)19
2) 21
3) 22
4) They will not call out the same number
5) None of these
84.If the numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in
ascending order, minimum number being on the top, which would come at the
ninth place from the top?

1)18
2) 21
3) 244) 275) 30
85.In a class of 35 students, Kunal is placed seventh from the bottom whereas Sonali
is placed ninth from the top. Pulkit is placed exactly in between the two.
What isKunals position from Pulkit?

1) 9
2) 10
3)11
4) 13
5) None of these
86.In a class, among the passed students, Amisha is twenty-second from the top
and Sajal, who is 5 ranks below Amisha, is thirty-fourth from the bottom. All
the students from the class have appeared for the exam. If the ratio of the
students who passed in the exam to those who failed is 4:1 in that class, how
many students are there in the class?
1) 60 2) 75 3) 90 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 87.N ranks fifth in a
class. S is eighth from the last. If T is sixth after N and just in
the middle of N and S, then how many students are there in the class?
1)23 2) 24 3) 25 4) 26 5) None of these
88.In a row of 40 boys, Satish was shifted 10 places to the right of Rohan and

Kewal was shifted 10 places to the left of Vilas. If Vilas was twenty-sixth from the
left and there were three boys between Kewal and Satish after shifting, what
was the position of Rohan in the row?

1)10th from the right end
2) 10th from the left end
3)39th from the right end
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
89.Sangeeta remembers that her fathers birthday was certainly after eighth but
before thirteenth of December. Her sister Natasha remembers that their fathers
birthday was definitely after ninth but before fourteenth of December. On which
date of December was their fathers birthday?
th
th
1) 10
th
2 11
3) 12
4) Data Inadequate
5) None
90. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INSTRUCTION which have as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) None of these
91. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which
has as many letters in the same sequence between them in the word as in the
English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
92. If the letters in the word POWERFUL are rearranged as they appear in the English
alphabet, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the
rearrangement?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
93. Which of the following will be the changed form of the word OBLIQUE when the
word is written again by substituting each vowel by the second letter following it in
the English alphabet and substituting each consonant by the third letter following it
in the English alphabet?
1) MEDGTSD
2) QEOKTXG
3) QEOKTWG
4) RDNLSXH
5) None of these
94.APPREHENSION
1) Four
2) Five
3) Six
4) Seven
5) None of these
95. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CLEARING each of which has
two letters between them in the word as also in the alphabet?
1) Nil
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
96. Find the two letters in the word EXTRA which have as many letters between them
in the word as in the alphabet. If these two letters are arranged in alphabetical
order, which letter will come second?

1) A
2) E
3) R
4) T
5) X
97. If the order of letters of each of the following words is reversed, then which of the
following will be the meaningful word? If more than one such word can be formed,
mark S as the answer and if no such word can be formed, mark X as the answer.
NAIL, PAIL, RAIL, MADAM, REST
1) PAIL
2) RAIL
3) MADAM
4) S
5) X
98. If the positions of the first and the sixth letters in the word DISTRIBUTE are
interchanged; similarly the positions of the second and the seventh, the third and
the eighth and so on, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left after
interchanging the positions?
1) E
2) I
3) S
4) T
5) None of these
99. The positions of the first and the eighth letters in the word WORKINGS are
interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the seventh letters are
interchanged and the positions of the third letter and the sixth letter are
interchanged and the
positions of the remaining two letters are interchanged with
each other, which of
the following will be the third letter to the left of R after
rearrangement?
1) G
2) I
3) N
4) S
5) None of these
100. If the positions of the fifth and twelfth letters of the word GLORIFICATIONS are
interchanged, and likewise the positions of the fourth and fourteenth letters, the
third and tenth letters, the second and eleventh letters and the first and thirteenth
letters are interchanged, which of the following will be the twelfth letter from the
right end?
1) I
2) O
3) R
4) T
5) None of these
Directions(101 106): Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and
answer the questions given below :
FJMPOWRNBEYCKAVLDGXUHQISZT
101.Which letter is tenth to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle
letter between F and D?
1) D
2) G
3) H
4) U
5) None of these
102.Four of the folloiwng five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the
above arrangement and hence form a
group. Which one does not belong to that
group?
1) BRY
2) ECN
3) HXI
4) OMR
5)
103. FMJ:TSZ in the same way as JMP: ?
KYV

1) IZS
104.
2) ZSI
4) ISZ
5)SIQ
Which of the following pairs of letters has as many letters between them in the
above
arrangement as there
1) AI
105.
3) ZIS
2) EL
3)LS
4)MO
are between them in the English alphabet?
5)MR
If each letter is attached a value equal to its serial number in the above
arrangement starting from your left, then what will be the sum of the numbers
attached to all the vowels in the arrangement?
1) 50
2) 58
3) 63
4) 73
5) None of these
106. Each of the vowels in the word MAGNIFY is replaced by number 2 and each
consonant is replaced by a number which is the serial number of that consonant in
the word, i.e., M by 1, G by 3 and so on. What is the total of all the numbers once
the replacement is completed?
1) 22
2) 24
3) 25
4) 26
5) None of these
Directions (107-115): Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and
answer the questions given below :
M K K I D N E T T Q O B F H A A G T U U X W L S RI
Each of these letters gets a numerical value based on its position in the above arrangement,
such as, 1 for M, 2 for K, 4 for I and so on.
107. What is the sum of the values of the group of letters ARM?
1) 32
2) 33 3) 34
4) 35
5) None of these
108. The value of the which of the following consonants, when added to that of the
vowel following immediately, amount to 11?
1) H
2) K
3) N
109. Value of A
A) DO
111.
C) MH
2) Only B
110. The sum

1) N
5) None of these
is exactly equal to the total value of which of the following pairs?
B) QE
1) Only A
4) R
2) K
3) Only C
of the value
3) U
4) X
4) Both A and B
of OB is exactly equal
5) None of these
to which of
the following?
5) None of these
If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, fifth, eighth and tenth
letters of the word DISTRIBUTE, which of the following will be the third letter of
that word? If no such word can be made, give X as the answer and if more than
one such words can be made, give M as the answer.
1) S
2) R
3) E
4) X
5) M
112. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the fifth, the

seventh and the tenth letters of the word OMNISCENT, which of the following will be
the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give J as the answer
and if more than one such words con be made, give Q as the answer.
1) I
2) M
3) S
4) J
5) Q
113. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, the fourth, the seventh and
the eleventh letters of the word INTERPRETATION, which of the following will be third
letter of that word? If more than one such words can be made, give M as the
answer and if no such word can be made, give X as the answer.
1) I
2) R
3) T
4) X
5) M
114.If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the fifth, the sixth
and the seventh letters of the word GENEROSITY, then which of the following will be
the first letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, then give X as the
answer; if two such words can be formed, give W as the answer and if more than two
such words can be formed, give M as the answer.
1) R
2) S
3) W
4) X
5)M
115. If each of the vowels in the word BREAK is kept unchanged and each of the
consonants is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, how many
meaningful words can be formed with the new letters using each letter only once in
each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions(116 -120):Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer
the questions given below :
8CM@NT2Y6SQ$7*W#Z3UE%A4
116. How many symbols are there in the above series each of which is immediately
preceded and also immediately followed by a vowel?
1) Nil
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
117. If all the vowels are dropped from the above series, which of the following
would be the eighth element to the right of the thirteen th element from the left
end?
1) 4
2) 8
3) %
4) C
5) None of these
118. If each symbol is first converted into a numberal and then all the numerals are
coverted into English letters, how many converted English letters will be there in
the above arrangement of elements?
1) 7 2) 12
3) 13
4) 25
5) None of these

119. What should come in place of the questions mark in the following series based on
the above arrangement?
CMA NE 2Y3
1) Q #
2)S #
$7*
3) S 6
5) None of these
4) S Z
120. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way with respect to their position in
the above arrangement. Which is the one that is different from the other four?
1) 6 2
3) E 3 #
2) Q #
4) T M N
5) S Y T
Directions(121-125): Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer
the questions given below :
M1E$RB3AK7#9$UDIN46%FH2@8W
121. How many such consonants are there in the above sequence each of which is
immediately followed by a number and immediately preceded by a vowel?
1) Nil
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four
122. Four of the following five are alike in a cerain way and so form a group, based on
the above arrangement. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) %
H N 2) I 4 $ 3) 9 D 4)3 5 $ 5) $ B M
123.How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a consonant?
1) Nil 2)One
3)Two
4) Three
5) None of these
124. If the order of the first fifteen elements in the above arrangement is reversed, then
which
of
the
following
will
be
the
eighth
to
the
left
of
the
twelfth
letter/number/symbol from the right end?

1) A 2)
3) 3
4) K
5) None of these
125. What should come in place of questions mark in the following series based on the
above arrangement?
EBM
1) N % D
A B9 D ?
2) N F D
H 8 %
3) 4 F D
4) I 6 D
5) None of these
Directions (126-130):Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letternumbersequence given below:

2PJ@8$LB1V#Q6GW9KCD35FR7AY4
126. How many symbols and numbers are there in the sequence which are either

immediately preceded or immediately followed by the letter which is from the first
half of the English alphabet?
1) 6
2) 7
3) 8
4) 9
5) None of these
127. Four of the folloiwng five ar similar in relation to their positons in the above
sequence and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group? 1) Q K 5 2) L 6 D 3) P L 4) 1 G 5) K 4
128. Each symbol exchange its postion with its immediate right symbol/ letter/ number.
Now, how many letters are there in the sequence which are immediately followed by
a number and immediately preceded by a symbol?
1) Nil
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
129. P @ L is to Y75 in the same way as $ 1 # is to

1) R
2) F 3
3) 5
4) 5 D
5) None of these
130. Which of the following indicates the total number of symbols, letters and numbers
respectively, which get eliminated from the sequence when every second element of
the sequence from your left is dropped from the sequence?
1) 5, 8, 2 2) 6, 9, 1 3) 5, 8 ,1 4) 5, 9, 1 5) None of these Directions (137 - 137):
In the following questions, the symbols @, , %, * and $ are used with the following
meanings as illustrated below:
P @ Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q;
P Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q;
P % Q means P is greater than Q;
P * Q means P is smaller than Q;
P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the two conclusions I and II given below them are definitely true?
Give answer 1) if only conclusion I is true; 2) if only conclusion II is true; 3) if either conclusion
I or II is true; 4) if neither I nor II is true; and 5) if both conclusions I and II are
true
131. Statements :
Conclusions :
132. Statements:
Conclusions :
133. Statements :
M@R, R%T, T$K

I. K*M
II. T*M
H%J, BJ, B@F

I. F$J
II. J%F
D$M, M%W, W@R

Conclusions :
134. Statements :
Conclusions :
135. Statements :
Conclusions :
136. Statements :
Conclusions :
137. Statements :
Conclusions :
I. R*D
II. WD
AN, N*V, V$J

I. J@N
II. AV
K*T, T@B, BM
I. M%T
II. KB
B@H, H*M, M$N

I. B@N
II. N%H
WR, J@R, J*K

I. J@W
II. K%R
Directions (138 - 144): In the following questions, the symbols @, , $, % and # are
used with the following meanings as illustrated below:
A $ B means A is not smaller than B;
A # B means A is not greater than B;
A @ B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B;

A B means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B;
A % B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them are definitely true and give
your answer accordingly.
138. Statements :
H%J, JN, N@R
Conclusions :
I. R % J
II. H @ J
1)Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
III. N @ H
5) None is true
139. Statements :
M@J, J$T, TN
Conclusions :
I. N # J
1) None is true
5) None is true
II. T % M
III. M @ N

140. Statements :
DK, K#F, F@P
Conclusions :
I. P @ D
II. K # P
2) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
III. F$D
5) None of these
141. Statements :
R#D, D$M, MN
Conclusions :
I. R # M
II. N # D
1)Only I is true
2) Only II is true
III. N $ R
3) Only III is true4) None is true

5) All are true
142. Statements :
KP, P@Q, Q$R
Conclusions :
I. K @ R
II. R % PIII. Q % K
1)Only I and II are true
3) Only III is true4) All are true

5) none of these
143. Statements :
Conclusions :
K#N, N$T, T%J

I. J @ N
II. K @ TIII. T @ K
1)None is true
5) none of these
144. Statements :
M@D, DV, V$W
Conclusions :
I. W @ MII. M % VIII. D $ W
1)Only I and II are true
3) Only III is true
5) none of these
Directions (145 - 154): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numberd I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the questions:
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to the answer the question
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I alone are not sufficient to the answer the question
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question

4) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question
5) If the data in both statements I and II to gether are necessary to answer the question.
145. What does nip stand for in a code language?
I. In the code language, that is very beautiful is writer as se nip srenum.
II. In the same code language, my house is beautiful is written as nip stosre tip.
146.
How is J related to P?
I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P.
II. Ps mother is married to Js husband who has one son and two daughters.
147. How is Tanya related to the man in the photograph?

I. Man in the photograph is the only son of Tanyas grandfather.
II. The man in the photograph has no brothers or sisters and his father is Tanyas
grandfather.
148. Who is Cs partner in a game of cards involving four players A, B, C and D?
I. D is sitting opposite to A.
II. B is sitting right of A and left of D.
149. Among A, B, C, D and E, who is in the middle while standing in a row?
I. C, who is third to the left of D, is to the immediate right of A and second to
the left of E.
II. C is second to the left of E, who is not at any of the ends and who is third to the
right of A. D is at one of the ends.
150. When is Manohars birthday this year?
I. It is between January 13 and 15, January 13 being Wednesday.
II. It is not on Friday.
151. What does come represent in a code language?
I. pit natac means come and go in that code language.
II. ja ta da means you are good in that code language.
1) Only I and III
2) Only II and III
3) Only I and III
4) All I, II and III
5) None of these
152. How is the girl in the photograph related to Kunal?
I. Pointing to the photograph, Kunal said, She is the mother of my fathers
only granddaughter.
II. Kunal has no siblings.
III. Pointing to the photograph, Kunal said, She is the only daughter-in-law of my

mother.
1) Any two of the three
2) Only I and II
3) Only II and III
4) Either only III or only I and II
5) None of these
153. Four subjects Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology were taught in
four consecutive periods of one hour each starting from 8.00 a.m. At what time
was the Chemistry period scheduled?
I. Mathematics period ended at 10.00 a.m., which was preceded by Biology.
II. Physics was scheduled in the last period.
III. Mathematics
period
was
immediately
followed
by
chemistry. 1) Only I 2) Either I only or II only

3) Only II
4) Only II and III
5) Only I and either II or III

154. Village T is in which direction with respect to village R?
I. T is to the North of W which is to the West of S.
II. T is to the North-West of S.
III. W is to the North-West of R.
1) Any two of the three
2) Only I and II
3) Only II and III
4) Only I and III
5) None of these
Directions(155 - 164): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Deputy Personnel Managers in an
organization: The candidate must
A. be a graduate in any subject with at least 60% marks.
B. be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 1.6.2006.
C. have post-qualification work experience of at least four years in the Personnel
department in an organization.
D. have obtained post-graduate degree/diploma in management with at least 55%
marks.
E. have secured at least 50% marks in interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the criteria except
(i) At 1) above, but has secured at least 65% marks in post-graduate degree
diploma in management, his/her case is to be referred to VP-Personnel.

(ii) At 3) above, but has post-qualification work experience of at least two years as
Assistant Personnel Manager in an organization, his/her case is to be referred
to SVP-Personnel.
In each of the questions below is given the detailed information of one candidate. You have to
take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided in each case and
conditions and sub-conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the
information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.6.2006.
Mark answer
1) If the candidate is to be selected;
2) If the candidate is not to be selected;
3) If the data provided are not adequate to arrive at a decision;
4) If the case is to be referred to VP-Personnel;
5) If the case is to be referred to SVP-Personnel.
th
155. Vipin Yadav was born on 7
December, 1976. He has been working in the
personnel department of an organization for the past four years after obtaining his
post-graduate degree in management with 60% marks. He has secured 50% marks
in interview and 62% marks in graduation.
156. Asha Sachdev has secured 55% marks in graduation and 60% marks in interview. She
has been working in the personal department of an organization after obtaining
her post-graduate degree in management with 68% marks. She was born on
th
November, 1975.
157. Nikita Anand has secured 65% marks in graduation. She has also secured 60%
works in her post-graduate diploma in management. She has been working as
Assistant Personnel manager for the past three years in an organization after
completing her post-graduate diploma. She has secured 65% marks in the
th
interview. She was born on 14
th
158. Gagan Kapadia was born on 4
September.
March, 1974. He has secured 55% marks in
interview. He has been working for the past six years in the Personnel department
of an organization. He has secured 60% marks in the post-graduate degree in
management. He has also secured 65% marks in graduation.
159. Harshit Saxena has been working as Assistant Personnel Manager in an
organization for the past two years after completing his post-graduate diploma in
management with 60% marks. He has secured 65% marks in graduation and 50%
marks in interview.
th
160. Varun Nagpal was born on 27
July, 1979. He has been working for the past five

years in the personnel department of an organization after securing his postgraduate management degree with 65% marks. He has secured 50% marks in
the interview.
rd
161. Kanak Mathur has secured 60% marks in graduation. She was born on 3
June,
1972. She has been working as Assistant personnel Manager for the past four
years in the organization after completing her post-graduate degree in
management with 60% marks. She has secured 55% marks in interview.
th
162. Manick Rastogi was born on 10
June, 1974. He has secured 55% marks in
graduation. He has been working for the past four years in the personnel department
in an organization after completing his post-graduate degree with 62% marks. He
has secured 56% marks in interview.
163. Lakshya patel has secured 52% marks in the interview. He has been working in the
personnel department of an organization for the past five years after completing his
th
post-graduate degree in management with 66% marks. He was born on 16

August, 1977. He has secured 58% marks in graduation.
164. Nitin Goswami has secured 50% marks in the interview. He has been working in the
Personnel Department of an organization for the past five years after completing his
th
post-graduate diploma in management with 62% marks. He was born on 13

may, 1975. He has secured 57% marks in graduation.
Directions(165 - 172): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below it:
Following are the conditions for drawing a list of suitable candidates to be called for
interview after a written test for recruitment is conducted for supervisory-level persons for a
reputed company providing software and services. The candidate must A. be holding a degree in basic science with 60% or above or engineering
degree with 45% and above marks.
B. have passed the written examination with 65% or above marks.
C. be in the age group of 24 years to 30 years as on 1.4.2007
D. have experience in a computer company for a minimum period of 3 years
after having obtained diploma in computer with 60% or above marks.
E. be presently drawing a monthly salary of Rs. 8000 and above.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the criteria except
(i) At A) above, be referred to the Manager (Recruitment).
(ii) At B) above, but has obtained more than 75% marks in M.Sc. or Engineering

degree, be referred to the Assistant General Manager (A.G.M.).
(iii) At C) above be referred to the General Manager (G.M.).
Based on these criteria and the information provided below, decide the course of
action in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided is not
adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be Data
inadequate. These cases are given to you as on 1.4.2007.
165. Aseem Garg has done his Masters degree in Science and then completed his
diploma in computers with 64% marks form a reputed institute. For the last four
years, he has been working in a computer company. His age is 27 years and his
present salary is Rs. 8,500. He obtained 68% marks in the written examination.
1) Call for interviews
2) Do not call for interview
4) Data inadequate
5) Refer to A.G.M.
3) Refer to Manger (Rec.)
166. Vaibhav Narula did his B.sc. with 70% marks followed by diploma in Computers
with 69% marks. He is employed from June 2003 in a computer firm with a salary
of Rs. 9,700. He was born in October 1983. He has passed the written examination
with 72% marks.
2) Refer to G.M
3) Data inadequate
4) Refer to Manager (Rec.)
5) Call for interview
167.Abhay Kaushik did his diploma in computers at the age of 22years after
completing his B.sc. Immediately after completing his diploma; he got job in a
company and is employed for the last four years with a salary of Rs. 10,500. He has
got more than 65% marks in all examinations including the written examination.
1) Call for inerview
2) Refer to A.G.M
4) Refer to Manager(Rec.)
5) Data inadequate
168.Amita Sehgal completed her B.sc. at the age of 21 years, completed her one years
diploma in computers immediately and got a job from June 2004. She draws a
monthly salary of Rs. 11,000. She has cleared all her examination including
written examination with a minimum of 68% marks.
4) Data inadequate
2) Refer to G.M
3) Refer to A.G.M
169. Tanisha chatterjee, aged 27 years, is a graduate in Science with diploma in

Computers and has been working for the last three and a half years in a computer
firm. Her present monthly salary is Rs.10, 500. She has passed her graduation,

diploma and written examination with 55%, 70% and 68% marks respectively.
1) Data inadequate
5)Refer to G.M.
170. Ashwin Seth has been working in a computer company for the last 6 years after
completing his diploma in Computers with 62% marks. He has passed his
Engineering 28 years of age in September 2005.
1) Refer to A.G.M
2) Refer to G.M
3) Data inadequate
4) Do not call for interview 5) Call for interview

171.Ritesh Chadha, born on 12.2.1978, is employed in a computer company for the
last five years and is presently drawing a monthly salary of Rs.9, 500. He has
successfully completed his degree in Engineering with 64% marks, diploma in
computers and written examination with 65% and 60% marks respectively.
5) Refer to G.M.
3) Data inadequate
172. Devyani San Gupta is working in supervisory capacity for the last 4 years in a
computer company after having completed her Engineering degree with 55% and
diploma in Computers with 70% marks. She has secured 72% marks in the written
th
examination. Her date of birth is 15
January, 1977 and her present salary is
Rs. 10,000.
1) Refer to G.M.
4) Data inadequate
Directions(173 - 179): Read the following information carefully and answer the given
questions:
A public charitable trust desires to select Medical Officers for its rural hospital based on
the following criteria:
The applicant must
(i) Be holding MBBS degree with minimum 50% marks.
(ii) Have minimum 4 years of experience of full-time practice in rural areas.
(iii) Be ready to execute a bond of 3 years of service.
(iv) Have good knowledge of the local language.
In case of the applicant who satisfies all other criteria except
(A) At (ii) above, but has 4 years of full-time experience of practice either in urban
or semi-urban area and spent at least 5 years in rural areas any time during his
life, be referred to Secretary of the Trust.

(B) At (iv) above, but has working knowledge of Hindi, be referred to Assistant
Secretary of the Trust.
(C) At (i) above, but has minimum 45% marks at MBBS and has done M.S. or M.D.
with minimum 50%, be referred to the Chief Medical Officer (C.M.O.).
(D) At (iii) above, but is ready to give Rs. 25,000 as security money, be referred to
the President of the Trust.
Based on these criteria and the information provided below, decide the course of
action in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided is not
adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be Data
inadequate. All cases given to you fulfill criterion of age and therefore no details
of age are provided. The cases are given to you as on the present day.
173. Gauri did her M.D. after doing her MBBS. She is ready to execute three years bond
of service. She has good command over local language as well as Hindi. She has
practiced for 5 year in remote village out of her love for social services. She has
obtained 77%, 88% 47% and 56% at SSC, HSC, MBBS and M.D. respectively.
1) To be selected
2) Not to be selected
4) Data inadequate
5) Refer to the C.M.O
3) Refer to Assistant Secretary
174. Raghav has studied in rural areas while doing his schooling. His father is a farmer.
He completed his MBBS from Mumbai and has six years of practice in a big city. He
has good knowledge, of the local language and working knowledge of Hindi. He is
ready to execute 3 years bond of service. He has done M.S. with 53% marks.
4) Data inadequate
2) Refer to the Secretary
3) To be selected
175. Payal, after obtaining her MBBS and M.S., decided to practice in her native village
for five years. She knows very well the local language. Her dispensary and small
hospital were very popular in the nearby villages. She plans to go to USA. And U.K
after spending 4 more years in India. She has secured more than 60% marks in all
the examinations right from SSC to M.S. She has secured more than 60% marks in
all the examinations right from SSC to M.S. She is ready to execute a bond of 3
years of service.
1) To be selected
4) Data inadequate
2) Refer to C.M.O
5) None of these
176. Dr. Arvind Swamy has stood first at MBBS after having obtained 78% marks. He
also completed M.S with distinction. Dr. Swamy in fluent in the local language. He

practiced for three years in a rural hospital and for one year in a multi-specialty
hospital in a big city.
1)To be selected
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
3) Refer to the president
177. Vivek has secured 47% marks at MBBS and has his M.D. with 62% marks. He has 5
years experience of running a dispensary in a village and can read, write and
speak the local language. He is ready to give a bond of only two years of service
and is unable to give security money as he wants to start a rural hospital state.
2) Data inadequate
4) To be selected
5) Refer to the president
178. Gaurav is the son of a local politician, born and brought up in village till up to SSC.
Afterwards he studied in a big city and did his MBBS with 69% marks followed by
M.S. with 57% marks. He is ready to execute a bond of service for 3 years only. He
has very good knowledge of the local language. He has done 4 years practice in the
urban areas. He plans to start a rural hospital after this experience.
1) To be selected
4) Refer to the Secretary
3) Data inadequate
5) Refer to the C.M.O.
179. Yuvraj is born and brought up in a big urban city. His father is an industrialist. He
has secured 87%, 56% and 48% at HSC, MBBS and M.D. respectively. He is willing
to give a bond of 3 years of service. He has worked for 5 years in a rural hospital
but can hardly speak the local language. However, he has working knowledge of
Hindi. After this experience he plans to settle aboard.
1) To be selected
2) Not to be selected 3) Refer to the Assistant Secretary
4) Refer to the President 5) Data inadequate

180. Shyam walks 5 km towards East and then turns left and walks 6 km. Again he turns
right and walks 9 km. Finally he turns to his right and walks 6 km. How far is he from
the starting point?
1) 26km
2) 21km
3) 14km
4) 9km
5) None of these
181. If in a certain code, MIRACLE is written as NKUEHRL and GAMBLE coded in that
language
1) JDOCMF 2) CLEMNK
3) HCPFQK 4) AELGMN 5) None of these
182. If GOLD is coded as HOME, COME is coded as DONE and CORD is coded as DOSE,
how would you code SONS?
1) TPOT
2) TOOT
3) TOOS
4) TONT
5) None of these
183. In a certain code language, BORN is written as APQON AND LACK is written as

KBBLK.
1) FSHCD
2) HSJED
3) FOHCD
4) FSHED
5) None of these
184. In a certain code, COVALENT is written as BWPDUOFM and FORM is written as

PGNS. How will SILVER be written in that code?
1) MJTUDQ 2) KHRSFW
3) MJTWFS 4) MJTSFW 5) None of these
185. In a certain code, RAIL is written as KCTN and SPEAK is written as CGRUM. How
will AVOID be written in that code?
1) FKQXC 2) KQXCF 3) KRXCF 4) NBWTRF 5) None of these 186. If in a
certain code, CERTAIN is coded as XVIOZRM, SEQUENCE is coded as
HVJFVMXV, then how would MUNDANE be coded?
1) NFMWZMX
2) NFMWZMV
3) NFMXZMV 4) NFMXYMV 5) None of these
187.Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Shaloo said, Her sons father is the son-inLaw of my mother. How is Shaloo related to the lady?
1) Aunt
2) Sister
3) Mother
4) Cousin
5) None of these
188. Pointing to Ketan, Namrata said, He is the son of my fathers only son. How is
Ketans mother related to Namrata ?
1) Daughter
2) Aunt
3) Sister
4) Sister-in-law
5) Brother-in-law
189. Pointing towards a girl in the picture, Sarita said. She is the mother of Neha
whose father is my son. How is Sarita related to the girl in the picture?
1) Mother
2) Aunt
3) Cousin
4) Data inadequate5) None of these
190. Pointing to Kapil, Shilpa said, His mothers brother is the father of my son Ashish.
How is Kapil related to Shilpa?
1) Sister-in-law 2) Nephew
3) Niece
4) Aunt
5) None of these
191. Pointing to a woman, Naman said, She is the daughter of the only child
of my grandmother. How is the woman related to Naman?
1) Sister
2) Niece
3) Cousin
192. Pointing to the woman in the picture, Rajiv said, Her mother has only one
Grandchild whose mother is my wife. How is the woman in the picture related to
Rajiv?
1) Cousin
2) Wife
3) Sister
4) Daughter-in-law5) None of these
193. Ps father is Qs son. M is the paternal uncle of P and N is the brother of Q. how is
N related to M?
1) Brother
2) Nephew
3) Cousin
194. In a shop, there were 4 dolls of different heights A, B, C and D.D is neither as
tall as A nor as short as C, B is shorter than D but taller than C. If Mani wants to

Purchase the tallest doll, which one should she purchase?
1) Only A 2) Only D 3) Either A or 4) Either B or D 5) None of these 195. D is
taller than C and E. A is not as tall as E. C is taller than A. D is not as tall as B.
Who among them in next to the tallest one?
1) A
2) D
3) B or D
196. A man is facing west. He turns 45 in the clockwise direction and then another 180
0
in the same direction and then 270 in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction
is he facing now?
1) South
2) North-West 3) West
4) South-West
197. How many such digits are there in the number 831729564, each of which is as
far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in
descending order?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
198. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If
Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?
1) East
2) West
3) North
4) South
5) None of these
199. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points
to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M.?
1) South -West 2) West 3) North 4) South 5) None of these 200. Sachin walks
20 km towards North. He turns left and walks 40 km. He again turns
left and walks 20 km. Finally he moves 20 km after turning to the left. How far is
he from his starting position?
1) 200km
2) 300km
3) 500km
4) 600km
5) None of these
Directions (201-203) : Study the following five numbers and answer the questions give
below :
517
325
639
841
792
201. What will be the first digit of the second highest number after the positions of
only the second and the third digits within each number are interchanged?
1) 2
2) 7
3) 8
4) 9
5) None of these
202. What will be the last digit of the third number from top when they are arranged
in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 5
4) 7
5) None of these
203. What will be the middle digit of the second lowest number after the positions of
only the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 5
4) 7
5) None of these
Directions (204-206) : Answer these questions based on the set of numbers given below :
738
429
156
273
894
204. Which of the following will be the last digit of the second highest number after
the positions of the digits to each number is reversed?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 4
4) 7
5) 8
205. What will be the differences between the first digit of the highest number as well
as of the lowest number after the positions of the first two digits in each number
are reversed?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7 5) None of these 206. Which of the following will be the
second digit of the third number from the top
when they are arranged in descending order, after the first digit in each
number is changed to its next higher digit?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 5
4) 7
5) 9
Directions (207-215) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below it :
(I)
Kamal is available at home from 12 noon to 4 p.m. on Tuesday. Thursday

and Sunday.
(II)
His younger brother Navin is available at home on Monday, Thursday,

Friday and Sunday between 10 a.m. to 2 p.m.
(III) The eldest brother Rajiv is available between 9 a.m. to 12 noon on Monday
Wednesday and Thursday and 2 p.m. to 4 p.m. on Friday, Saturday and Sunday.
207. At a time, on which day of a week all the three brothers are available at home?
1) None
2) Sunday
3) Thursday 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
208. For how many days only one brother is available at a particular time in a week?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) None of these
209. On which day(s) of a week, the youngest and the eldest brothers are available
at home at the same time?
1) Only Monday 2) Only Thursday
5) Both Sunday and Friday
3) Only Friday 4) Both Monday and Thursday

210. If day after tomorrow is Saturday, what day was three days before Yesterday?
1) Sunday
2) Monday
3) Thursday 4) Saturday
5) None of these
211. If < means minus, > means plus, = means multiplied by and $ means
divided by, then what would be the value of 27 > 81 $ 9 < 6?
1) 6
2) 33
3) 36
4) 54
5) None of these
212. If Q means add to, J means multiply by, T means subtract from and K means
divide by, then 30 K 2 Q 3 J 6 T 5 = ?
1) 18
2) 28
3) 31
4) 103
5) None of these
213. If P denotes +, Q denotes x, R denotes + and S denotes -, then what is the

value of 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 ?
1) 53
2) 59
3) 63
4) 65
214. If P denotes multiplied by, T denotes subtracted from, M denotes added to

and B denotes divided by, then 28 B 7 P 8 T 6 M 4 = ?
1)
2) 30
3) 32
4) 34
5) None of these
215. If implies =, x implies <, + implies >m implies x, > implies +, < implies +,
= implies -, identify the correct expression.
1) 1 3 > 2 + 1 5 = 3 1 < 2
2) 1 3 > 2 + 1 x 5 = 3 x 1 > 2
3) 1 x 3 > 2 + 1 x 5 x 3 1 > 2
4) 1 3 > 2 + 1 x 5 + 3 1 > 2
5) None of these
Directions (216 - 218):

If > denotes +, < denotes -, + denotes +, ^ denotes x, - denotes =, x denotes > and =
denotes <, choose the correct statement in each of the following questions.
216. 1) 6 + 3 > 8 = 4+ 2 < 1

3) 8 < 4 + 2 = 6 > 3
2) 4 > 6 + 2 x 32 + 4 < 1
4) 14 + 7 > 3 = 6 + 3 > 2
5) None of these
217. 1) 13 > 7 < 6 + 2 = 3 ^ 4
3) 9 < 3 > 2 > 1 x 8 ^ 2
2) 9 > 5 > 4 18 + 9 > 16

4) 28 + 4 ^ 2 = 6 ^ 4 + 2
5) None of these
218. 1) 9 > 7 < 7 + 7= 4
3) 7 < 7 + 7 = 6
2) 7 ^ 7 > 7 + 7 = 7 ^ 7 > 1
2) 7 + 7 > 7 = 8
5) None of these
219. Which of the following meanings of the arithmetical signs will yield the value zero

for the expression given below ?
200 100 + 300 x 200 10 2 + 40
1) + means , means x, x means , means +
2) + means , means , x means +, means x
3) + means x, means , x means , means +
4) + means , means +, x means , means x
5) None of these
220. By applying which of the following meanings of arithmetical signs, will the value of
700 10 + x 35 + 70 be zero?
1) x means , + means x, means +, means
2) x means , + means , means x, means +
3) x means +, + means , means x, means
4) x means , + means , means x, means +
5) None of these
Directions (221 - 224): These questions are based on the following information. Study it
carefully and answer the questions.
(i) A x B means A is father of B
(ii) A B means A is daughter of B
(iii) A + B means A is sister of B
(iv) A - B means A is father of B
221.In F R x H L, how is H related to F?

1) Father
2) Brother
3) Sister
5) None of these
222.Which of the following indicates N is mother of K?
1) K + L N x F
2) K + L N M
4) N x F + K
5) None of these
3) H x F + K
223.In F R + H T how is F related to T?

1) Son-in-law
2) Daughter-in-law
3) Son
4) Daughter
5) None of these
224.In G x T + Q M, how is M related to G?
1) Brother
2) Sister
3) Sister-in-law
5) None of these
225.Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man said, Her sisters father is the only son

of my grandfather. How is the man related to woman in the photograph?
1) Uncle
2) Father
3) Son
4) Brother
5) Grandson
226.Pointing to a boy, Meena says, He is the son of my grandfathers only son. How is
the boys mother related to Meena?
1) Mother
2) Aunt
3) Sister
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
227.Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
If A x B means A is father of B
If A + B means A is daughter of B
If A B means A is son of B
If A - B means A is sister of B
What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that P is the son-in-law
of S in the expression : P x Q + R T ? S
1) +
2) x
3) -
4)
5) Either + or
Directions (228 - 232 ): Read the information carefully and answer the
following questions:
If A + B means A is the father of B
If A x B means A is the sister of B
If A $ B means A is the wife of B
If A % B means A is the mother of
B If A B means A is the son of B
228.What should come in place of the question mark (?) to establish that J is the
brother of T in the expression?
JP%H?T%L
1) x 2) 3) $ 4) Either or x 5) Either + or 229.Which among the
given expressions indicate that M is the daughter of D?
1) L % R $ D + T x M
2) L + R $ D + M x T
3) L % R % D + T M
4) D + L $ R + M x T
5) L $ D R % M T
230.Which among the following options is true if the expression
I + T % J x L K is definitely true?
1) L is the daughter of T

2) K is the son-in-law of I
3) I is the grandmother of L
4) T is the father of J
5) J is the brother of L
231.Which among the following expression is true if Y is the son of X is definitely false?
1) Q % L x T x Y X
2) W + L x T x Y X
3) X + L x T x Y W
4) W $ X + L + Y + T
5) W % X + T x Y L
232.What should come in place of the question mark (?) to establish that T is the
sister-in-law of Q in the expression?
R%TxP?Q+V
1)
2) %
3) x
4) $
5) Either $ or x
Directions (233 - 235): Following questions are based on the information given below:
(i) P x Q means P is mother of Q.
(ii) P Q means P is sister of Q.
(iii) P + Q means P is brother of Q.
(iv) P - Q means P is father of Q.
233.Which of the following means K is son of R?
1) R x K
2) R K
3) K + T x R
4) R J K + M
5) None of these
234.Which of the following means M is paternal uncle of T?

1) M + J T
2) M + J x T 3) M J T
4) M + J + T
5) None of these
235.Which of the following means D is cousin of W?

1) D M + W
2) D + M W
3) D x T + W
4) D T N x W 5) None of these
236.The positions of how many digits in the number 7136985 will remain unchanged
when the digits are rearranged in ascending order?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four
237.Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
1) Gold
2) Silver
3) Platinum
4) Mercury
5) Lead
238.How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CREDITABLE each of which has
as many letters between them as they have in English alphabet?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) More than four
239.In a certain code BEND is written as '6392' and RAIN is written as '5149'. How is

DARE written in that code?
1) 2153
2) 2351
3) 2315
4) 2135
5) None of these
240.If yellow is called blue, blue is called red, red is called pink, pink is called black and
black is called orange then what is the colour of blood?
1) yellow 2) orange 3) pink 4) blue 5) None of these 241.If + means -, means , means x and x means +, what is the value of
125 - 5 x 10 13 + 28 = ?
1) 129
2) 127
3) 149.15
4) 150
5) None of these
242.In a certain code KINGDOM is written as JMCLJHP. How is QUANTUM written in that
code?
1) VOLVPZS 2) SZPLOVV 3) RVBOUVN 4) PZSLVOV 5) None of these 243.Four of
the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group?
1) 93
2) 26
3) 34
4) 69
5) 42
244.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
1) Goggles
2) Accessories 3) Bangles 4) Ring 5) Watch
245.Pointing to a boy, Divya said, "He is the son of my father's only brother". How is
Divya related to that boy?
1) Sister 2) Cousin
3) Daughter 4) Data Inadequate 5) None of these
246.If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the fourth, the sixth,
the ninth, and the eleventh letters of the word QUALIFICATION, which of the following
will be the third letter of that word? If more than one such word can be formed, give M
as the Answer and if no such word can be formed, give 'N as the answer.
1) A
2) I
3) L
4) M
5) N
247.In a certain code GOAL is written as AGLO and BEAR is written as ABRE. How is SEND
1) NSDE
2) NDES
3) DENS
4) SNED
5) None of these
248.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
1) Stone
2) Sand
3) Cement
4) Rock 5) Pebble
249.'MP' is related to 'OR' and 'DG' is related to 'FI' in the same way as 'RU' is related
to 1) TX 2) TW 3) TV 4) UW 5) None of these
250.What should come next in the following letter sequence?
AABABCA B C DABCDEABCDEFAB

1) D
2) E
3) G
4) C
5) F
Directions (251 - 255): In each of the questions below a group of letters is given followed
by four groups of digit/symbol combinations numbered. 1, 2, 3 and 4. Letters are to be
coded as per the codes and conditions given below. You have to find out which of the
combinations 1, 2, 3 and 4 is correct and indicate your answer accordingly. If none of the
four represents the correct code, mark 5, i.e. None of these, as your answer.
Letter:
Code:
Conditions:
i) If the first as well as the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as '0'.
ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as 'Z'.
iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as
'*'. 251.ONSIRT
1) 2#1@95
2) Z#@195
3) Z#19@Z
4) Z#1@95
5) None of these
252.KIUBSR
1) 3@7619
2) 0@7610 3) 3@7691
4) 3@6719 5) None of these
253.BKAEUG
1) 3@7619
2) 63$470
3) 03$47%
4) 63$47% 5)None of these
254.STOKGA
1) 1523%$
2) 1523%*
3) * 523%*
2) 0981#0
3) 298#10
4) *523%$ 5)None of these
255.ORHSNU
1) 098#17
4) 2981#7
5) None of these
Directions (Q.256-260): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight family member Dhruv, Garima, Avinash, Varsha, Aakash, Deepti, Charu and Moksh are
sitting around a square table in such a way that two persons sit on each of the four sides of
the table facing the centre. Member sitting on opposite sides are exactly opposite each other.
Aakash and Garima are exactly opposite each other. Deepti is immediately to Garima. Dhruv
and Moksh are sitting on the same side. Moksh is exactly opposite Avinash, who is the

immediately left of Varsha. Dhruv is towards right of Deepti.
256.Which of the following statements is definely true?
1) Charu is opposite Varsha. 2) Deepti is to the left of Garima.
3) Avinash is towards the right of Aakash. 4) Moksh is toward the right of Aakash.
5) None of these
257.Who is sitting opposite Dhruv?
1) Charu 2) Deepti 3 3) Varsha 4) Moksh 5) None of these
258.Who is sitting oppositing Deepti?
1) Moksh 2) Charu 3) Varsha 4) Charu or Varsha 5) None of
these 259.Who is next to Varsha in anti-clockwise direction?
1) Garima 2) Avinash 3) Dhruv 4) Deepti 5) None of these
260.Which of the following pairs of persons has both the persons sitting on the same side
with first person sitting to the left of second person?
1) Aakash - Charu 2) Moksh - Charu 3) Dhruv - Aakash
4) Avinash - Charu 5) None of these
Directions (261 - 272): These questions are based on the following series.
AB6RV5GH4Q32*IJK1$EWLMNC
UOPSFTX#7Y
261.The all the vowels and shaded symbols are removed from the above series
while the order of the remaining elements remains unchanged, then which
element will be third to the right of the eleventh element from the right of the
new series?
1) S
2) L
3) C
4) 4
5) None of these
262.By using any three belonging to the second half of the given series, how
many meaningful words can be formed?
1) Nine
2) Ten
3) More than ten
4) Less than eight
5) None of these
263.Which element is the fifteenth elements to the right of the thirteenth

elements from the left in the new series if only the elements of the
second half of the original series are reversed?
1) F
2)
3)
4) U
5) None of these
264.Which of the following groups of elements should come in the place of
question-mark(?) in the series given below formed by elements of the
series given above?
1) EW
2) CN
GH4
3)C
32*JK1
4) NV
5) None of these
265.EW is related with LM in some particular way. In the same way V5

is related with which of the following?
1) AB
2) H4
3) GH
4) G4
5) None of these
266.How many pairs of letters are there in the RUMINATION which have the
same number of letters between them in the English alphabet?
1) Zero
2) One
3) Two
4)Three
5) None of these
267.If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, the third, the fifth and
the ninth letters of the word AIROCITIES, using each letter only once, which of
the following will be the fourth letter of that word? If two such words can be
made give X as the answer. If more than two words can be made give Z as the
answer. And if no such word can be made give Y as the answer.
1) X
2) Y
3) Z
4) E
5) None of these
268.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which of the following is the one that does not belong to the group?
1) Hockey 2) Polo
3) Tennis
4) Cricket 5) Golf
269.Cricket is related to Oval in some way. In a similar way which of the

following is related to Diamond?
1) Badminton
2) Baseball
3) Billiards
4) Basketball
5) Golf
270.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) Follow
2) Chase
3) Pursue
4) Hound
5) Investigate
271.In a code language 3690 means you will help me, 1369 means I will help
you, 12469 means why I will help them, and 748 means kill them doctor.
On the basis of the above information the code for which of the following cant be
obtained with certainty?
1) me
2) why
3) you
4) them 5) doctor
272.If the first and the second letters of the word MISJUDGEMENTS are
interchanged with the last and the second last letters, And similarly the third and
the fourth letters are interchanged with the third and the fourth letters from the
last respectively, and so on, then what will be the 5th letter to the right of the 3rd
letters from the left?
1) E
2) G
3) D
4) T
5) None of these
Directions (273 - 275): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions follow it.
i) PQ means Q is the mother of P
ii) P-Q means Q is the brother of P

iii) P+Q means Q is the father of P
iv) PQ means Q is the sister of P.
273.Which of the following means M is the son of K?
1) M + L K
2) L M + K
3) M L K
4) L - M X K 5) None of these
274.Which of the following means D is the aunt of B?

1) A B C+ D 2) A B C D
3) A+BCD
4) D-C+BA
5) None of these
275.Which of the following statements is/are redundant to answer the previous
question no. 14?
1) Only (i)
2) Only (ii)
3) Only (ii)and (iii) 4) Only either (i) or (ii)
5) None of these
Directions (276 - 284): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions based on it.
A family consists of six members Pratima, Omprakash, Rajesh, Shailesh, Tina and Urmila.
There are only three females in the family-Pratima, Tina and Urmila.
The family consists of three couples, four pairs of brother and sister, one pair of brothers and
one pair of sisters.
Urmila is not the sister of Pratima or Omprakash. Shailesh is not married to either Urmila or
Tina. Urmilas husband is neither Omprakash nor Shailesh. Rajesh is the brother of both
Omprakash and Pratima.
276.Who is Shaileshs wife?
1) Either Pratima or urmila
2) Tina
3) Pratima
4) Urmila
5) None of these
277.Which of the following is not a pair of brother and sister?

1) Pratima and Omprakash
4) Tina and Shailesh
2) Pratima and Rajesh
3) Rajesh and Tina
5) None of these
278.Which of the following is a pair of husband and wife?

1) Rajesh and Urmila
2) Shailesh and Tina
4) Omprakash and Pratima
3) Rajesh and Tina
5) None of these
279.Which of the following statements is false?

1) Rajesh is Urmilas husband
2) Pratima is Urmilas sister-in-law
3) Rajesh has the same relation with Tina as Shailesh has with Urmila.
4) Pratima is not Shaileshs siter.
5) None of these
280.Four of the following five similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one
does not belong to the group?

1) Watchman
2) Retailer
3) Abattoir
4) Boatman
5) Physician
281.If every third letter from the following English alphabet is dropped, which
letter will be fourth to the right of fourteenth letter from your right?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVXYZ
1) M
2) N
3) E
4) A
5) None of these
282.In a class Seema is 10th from the first and Bablee is 20th from the bottom.Raju is
11 ranks below Seema and 21ranks above Bablee. How many students are in the
Class if list includes all the students of the class?
1) 60
2) 61
3) 62
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these.
283.Listen is to Hear as Look is to

1) Watching
2) See
3) Observe
4) Notice
5) None of these
284.If TOUR is coded as 1234, CLEAR as 56784 and SPARE as 90847, then
SCULPTURE will be coded as
1) 983602358
2) 953601347
3) 963601354
4) 945602460
5) None of these
Directions (285 - 290): Study the following information to answer the question.
A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers. Rearranges them following
a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of
rearrangement.
Input :-96 18 33 44 22 68 39
Step 1:-96 18 33 44 22 68 39
Step 2:-96 68 18 33 44 22 39
Step 3:-96 68 44 18 33 22 39
Step 4:-96 68 44 39 18 33 22
Step 5:-96 68 44 39 33 18 22
Step 6:-96 68 44 39 33 22 18
This is the final arrangement and step VI is the step for this input.
285.If97 47 23 79 27 11 19 31 is the first step of an input which of the following
steps will be 97 79 47 31 27 11 19 23 ?
1) Third
2) Fourth
3) Fifth
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
286.How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input?
Input: 73 31 37 67 19 29 43 13
1) Five
2) Six
3) Seven
4) Eight
5) None of these
287.Following is the step III for an input. What will be the first for the input?
Step III: 97 83 79 13 19 11 53 61

1) 19 11 53 13 97 83 79 61
2) 19 53 13 79 97 11 83 61
3) 11 53 61 13 19 97 83 79
5) None of these
288.Following is the step III of an input. What will be the fifth step?
Step III: 79 61 53 41 19 11 43 13
1) 79 61 53 43 41 19 11 13
3) 23 19 17 13 11 05 03 02
2) 02 03 05 11 13 17 19 23
4) 23 17 19 13 11 05 03 02
5) None of these
289.Which of the following is the last step for the following input?
Input: 05 11 17 02 19 13 03 23
1) 23 19 17 13 11 05 02 03
2) 02 03 05 11 13 17 19 23
3) 23 19 17 13 11 05 03 02
4) 23 17 19 13 11 05 03 02
5) None of these
290.For any given input (having eight terms) for the given number arrangement
machine, what may be the maximum number of steps in which the given input
gets fully arranged?

1) Seven
2) Eight
3) Nine
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (291-295): In each question below is given a statement followed by two

assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer
1) if only assumption I is implicit.
2) if only assumption II is implicit.
3) if either I or II is implicit.
4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
5) if both I and II are implicit.
291.Statement: In an attempt to make the conditional access system consumerfriendly, the government issued a notification asking cable operators to declare
pay channel rates by June 15.
Assumptions:
I.Cable operator may not be able to declare pay channel rates by June 15 due
to lack of adequate time.
II.Everyone has their own business compulsions and wish to test their own
market.
292.Statement: Despite a draconian crackdown against software pirates announced
by country X last year, the country remains the worlds third largest market for
bootleg computer programs. A journalist

Assumptions:
I. Computer piracy is declining globally but increasing in country X.
II. A draconian crackdown against software pirates may bring the bootleggers to
heel.
293.Statement: Problems with your spouse and too little time to hash things
out? Online couple therapy may be for you. An advertisement
Assumptions:
I. People may have faith in online therapy.
II. Couples on the run expect comparable result from online chats mediated by
a Professional and face-to-face therapy on a psychologists couch.
294.Statements: If you see any street lights on during the day, or notice
pilferage of electricity, do inform us. A notice by NDPL to common people
Assumptions:
I.Watching TV together and using one fan/cooler/Ac will help
conserve electricity.
II.Power generation is limited; joint efforts to conserve power would
help maintain reliable supply of electricity.
295.Statements: One of the group of militants of our organization, which had been
successful in making its way into the Indian territory, kidnapped a local resident of
the area and forced him to act as a guide.
Assumptions:
I. Local residents of a particular area possess good knowledge about the path in and
around the area.
II.Despite the use of force against an individual, he or she may guide properly and
accurately.
Directions (295 - 300): In each of the questions below are given three statements
followed by three conclusions numbered I ,II and III. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically do(es) not
follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
(1) Only Conclusion I do not follow.
(2) Only Conclusion II does not follow.
(3) Only Conclusion III does not follow.
(4) Both conclusions I & II do not follow.

(5) None of these
296.Statement: Some groups are sets.

No set is a solid.
All solids are liquids.
Conclusions: I. Some sets are definitely not liquids.
II. Some solids are not groups.
III. Some groups being not liquids is a possibility.
297.Conclusions: I. some solids being set is a possibility.

.
II. Some liquids are solids.

III. Some liquids being not solid is a possibility
298.Statement: All pairs are cold.

All cold is hot.
No hot is clean.
Conclusions: I. At least some cold is clean
II. Some cleans are definitely not hot.
III. Some pairs being not cold is a possibility.
299.Conclusions: I. All hot being pair is a possibility.

II. All cold being clean is a possibility.
III. All pairs being clean is a possibility.
300.Statement: Some gel pens are ink pens.

All ink pens are liquids.
No liquid is a solid.
Conclusions: I. All solids being gel pens is a possibility.
II. All gel pens being liquid is a possibility.
III. All ink pens being gel pens is a possibility.

Answers:
1.3
2.1
3.3
4.1
5.2
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28.5
31.5
32.1
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35.1
36.5
37.4
38.3
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40.4
41.1
42.3
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47.5
48.3
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54.2
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56.3
57.1
58.5
59.2
60.5
61.2
62.3
63.1
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67.1
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69.1
70.1
71.3
72.1
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80.5
81.3
82.3
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85.2
86.2
87.3
88.4
89.4
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91.3
92.2
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98.1
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102.2
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104.4
105.5
106.5
107.5
108.5
109.3
110.5
111.2
112.3
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114.3
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117.3
118.3
119.2
120.4
121.3
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123.2
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125.1
126.3
127.3
128.3
129.5
130.4
131.5
132.3
133.1
134.4
135.4
136.2
137.5
138.4
139.5
140.4
141.2
142.4
143.1
144.3
145.4
146.2
147.3
148.3
149.3
150.1
151.3
152.4
153.5
154.4
155.5
156.3
157.1
158.5
159.1
160.4
161.4
162.2
163.3
164.2
165.4
166.2
167.1
168.5
169.3
170.3
171.2
172.1
173.5
174.4
175.1
176.2
177.1
178.4
179.3
180.3
181.3
182.2
183.4
184.4
185.2
186.2
187.2
188.4
189.5
190.2
191.1
192.2
193.5
194.1
195.2
196.4
197.1
198.3
199.4
200.1
201.2
202.2
203.2
204.4
205.4
206.1
207.1
208.4
209.4
210.1
211.5
212.2
213.1
214.2
215.4
216.3
217.2
218.1
219.2
220.3
221.2
222.3
223.1
224.5
225.4
226.2
227.5
228.1
229.2
230.2
231.4
232.4
233.4
237.4
238.3
239.1
240.3
241.2
242.4
243.5
244.2
245.2
246.2
247.1
248.3
249.2
250.4
251.5
252.1
253.4
254.3
255.2
256.3
257.3
258.2
259.1
260.5
261.1
262.3
263.3
264.1
265.2
266.3
267.3
268.5
269.5
270.5
271.5
272.3
273.4
274.2
275.2
276.3
277.3
278.1
279.3
280.3
281.1
282.2
283.2
284.2
285.2
286.5
287.4
288.4
289.3
290.1
291.4
292.2
293.1
294.2
295.5
296.4
297.1
298.5
299.5
300.5
24.4
234.1
25.4
235.5
236.3
29.3
30.3
IBPS PREVIOUS YEARS

PAPERS WITH
SOLUTION
By :
GOVERNMENTADDA
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100.
IBPS PO CWE - I
SOLVED PAPER
HELD ON 18-09-2011

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IBPS Common Written Exam PO - I

Test -I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
1. A school bus driver starts from the school, drives 2 km towards North, takes a left turn
and drives for 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives for 8 km before taking a left turn
again and driving for further 5 km. The driver finally takes a left turn and drives 1 km
before stopping. How far and towards which direction should the driver drive to reach the
school again?
1) 3km towards North
2) 7 km towards East 3)6 km towards South
4) 6 km towards West
5) 5 km towards North
Directions (Q. 2-3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
which follow.
A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors
numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered one, the floor above it is numbered two,
and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6).
A lives on an even-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D
and F live. F lives on a floor above D's floor. D does not live on the floor numbered two. B
does not live on an odd-numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F's floor.
E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B
lives.
2. Who among the following live on the floors exactly between D and F?
1) E, B
2)C,B
3) E,C
4)A,E
5)B,A
3. On which of the following floors does B live?
1) Sixth
2) Fourth
3) Second
4) Fifth
Directions (Q. 4-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a five-letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there
are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one
letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.
4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?
1) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
2) P is not placed immediately next to A.
3) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
4) P is placed second to the right of E.
5) None is correct
5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?
1) SPAEL
2) PEALS
3) LEAPS
4) SEPAL
5) LAPSE
Directions (Q. 6-10): In each question below are given two/three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly
known
facts.
Give
answer

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1) if only conclusion I follows.

2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
(Q. 6-7):
Statements: All gliders are parachutes.
No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.
6. Conclusions:
I. No helicopter is a glider.
II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility.
7. Conclusions:
I. No glider is an airplane.
II. All gliders being helicopters is a possibility.
8. Statements: Some mails are chats.
All updates are chats.
Conclusions:
L All mails being updates is a possibility.
II. No update is a mail.
(Q. 9-10):
Statements: No stone is metal.
Some metals are papers. All papers are glass.
9. Conclusions:
I. No glass is metal.
II. At least some glasses are metals.
10. Conclusions:
I. All stones being glass is a possibility.
II. No stone is paper.
Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input: sine 88 71 cos theta 14 56 gamma delta 26
Step I. cos sine 71 theta 14 56 gamma delta 26 88
Step II. delta cos sine theta 14 56 gamma 26 88 71
Step III. gamma delta cos sine theta 14 26 88 71 56
Step IV. sine gamma delta cos theta 14 88 71 56 26
StepV. theta sine gamma delta cos 88 71 56 26 14
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find
out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input for the questions:
Input: for 52 all 96 25jam road 15 hut73 bus stop 38 46 (All the numbers given in the
arrangement are two-digit numbers.)
11. Which word/number would be at 8th position from the right in step IV?
1) 15
2) road
3) hut
4) jam
5) stop
12. Which step number would be the following output? bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop
38 46 96 73
1)There will be no such step.

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2) III
3) II
4) V
5) VI
13. Which of the following would be step VII?
1).stop road jam hut for bus all 15 96 73 5246 38 25
2) road jam hut for bus all stop 15 25 38 46 52 73 96
3) stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 5246 38 25 15
4). jam hut for bus all 25 road stop 15 96 73 52 46 38
5) There will be no such step.
14. Which word/number would be at 6th position from the left in step V?
1)25
2) stop
3) jam
4) all
5) road
15. Which of the following would be step III?
1) hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
2) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut 38 stop 96 46 73 52
3) hut for bus all jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 25
4) for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
5) None of these
Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Representatives of eight different banks, viz A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around
a circular table, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them
is from a different bank, viz UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of
Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and
Dena Bank.
F sits second to the right of the representative of Canara Bank. The representative of
Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative of Canara Bank. Two
person sit between the representative of Bank of India and B. C and E are immediate
neighbours. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative
of Canara Bank. The representative of Bank of Maharashtra sits second to the right of D.
D is the representative of neither Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the
representative of UCO Bank are immediate neighbours. B is not the representative of
UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative of Oriental Bank of
Commerce.
H sits third to the left of the representative of Dena Bank. The representative of Punjab
National Bank sits second to the left of the representative of Syndicate Bank.
16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and
thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) H-UCO Bank
2) A-Canara Bank
3) D - Bank of Maharashtra
4) E - Syndicate Bank
5) F - Punjab National Bank
17. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
1) B is the representative of Bank of Maharashtra.

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2) C sits second to the right of H.

3) The representative of Dena Bank sits on2 the immediate left of the representative of
UCO Bank.
4) A sits second to the right of the representative of Bank of India.
5) The representatives of Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate
neighbours.
18. Who among the following sit exactly between B and the representative of Bank of India?
1) A and the representative of UCO Bank
2) F and G
3) H and the representative of Bank of Maharashtra
4) H and G
5) Representatives of Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce
19. Who among the following is the representative of Oriental Bank of Commerce?
1) A
2) C 3) H 4) G 5) D
20. Who amongst the following sits second to the left of B?
1) C
2) H
3) The representative of Canara Bank
4) The representative of Punjab National Bank
5) G
Directions (Q. 21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three
statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
21. How many daughters does W have?
I. B and D are the sisters of M.
II. M's father T is the husband of W.
III. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.
1) Only I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
2) All I, II and III are required to answer the question.
3) Only II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
4) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
5) Only I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
22. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F, each having a different height, is the tallest?
I. .B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III.. D is taller than only F.
5) All I, II and III even together are not sufficient to answer the question.
23. Towards which direction is Village J from Village W?
I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to the north of Village T.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the south of Village T.

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III. Village M is to the north-east of Village J and to the north of Village Z.

1) Only III is sufficient to answer the question.
2) Only II and III sufficient to answer the question.
4) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.
5) None of these
24. On which day of the week did Suresh visit Chennai? (Assume that the week starts from
Monday.)
I. Suresh took a leave on Wednesday.
II. Suresh visited Chennai the day after his mother's visit to his house. DL Suresh's
mother visited
III. Suresh's house on neither Monday nor Thursday.
4) All I, II and HI are required to answer the question.
5) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.
25. How is 'go' written in a code language?
I. 'now or never again' is written as 'torn ka na sa' in that code language.
II.'you come again now' is written as 'ja ka ta sa' in thatcode language.
III. 'again go now or never' is written as 'na ha ka sa torn' in that code language.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are going to three destinations Delhi, Chennai and Hyderabad
in three different vehicles - Honda City, Swift D'Zire and Ford Ikon. There are three
females among them-one in each car. There are at least two persons in each car.
R is not travelling with Q and W. T, a male, is travelling with only Z and they are not
going to Chennai. P is travelling in Honda City and is going to Hyderabad. S is the sister
of P and is travelling by Ford Ikon. V and R are travelling together. W is not going to
Chennai.
26. Members of which of the following cars are going to Chennai?
1) Honda City 2) Swift D' Zire
3) Ford Ikon 4)Either Swift D'Zire or
Ford Ikon
5) None of these
27. In which car are four members travelling?
1) None
2) Honda City
3) SwiftD'Zire 4) Ford Ikon
5) Either Honda City or Ford Ikon
28. Which of the following combinations represents the three female members?
1) QSZ
2) WSZ
3) PSZ
5) None of these

29. Who is travelling with W?

l) Only Q
2) Only P
5) None of these
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3) Both P and Q 4) Cannot be determined
30. Members of which of the following combinations are travelling in Honda City?
1)PRS
2) PQW
3) PWS
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
31. It has been reported in recent years that a very large number of seats in engineering
colleges in the country remain vacant at the end of the admission session. Which of the
following may be the probable cause of the above effect?
1) There has-been a considerable decrease in hiring of engineering graduates due to
economic slowdown in the recent years.
2) Students have always preferred to complete graduation in three years, time instead of
four years for engineering.
3) The Govt. has recently decided to provide post- qualification professional training to
all engineering graduates at its own cost.
4) There has always been a very poor success rate among the engineering students.
5) None of these
32. The condition of the roads in the city has deteriorated considerably during the first two
months of monsoon and most of the roads have developed big potholes. Which of the
following can be a possible effect of the above cause?
1) The municipal corporation had repaired all the roads in the city before the onset of
monsoon with good quality material.
2) A large number of people have developed spine- related injuries after regularly
commuting long distances by road within the city.
3) The municipal corporation has been careful in choosing the contractors for repairing
roads in the past.
4) People always complain about potholed roads during the monsoon months.
5) None of these
33. Majority of the students who appeared in the final examination of postgraduate course in
management in the local college have secured first class, which is comparatively higher
than the performance of students of other management colleges in the state. .
Which of the following may indicate that the results are not in line with the general
trend?
1) The students of the local college are qualitatively better than those of other colleges.
2) The authorities of the other management colleges in the state are stricter in their
standard of evaluation.
3) The students of other management colleges in the state performed better than the
students of the local college in all the previous examinations.
4) The local management college recently retrenched many of its regular faculty
members.
5) None of these
34. It has been reported in many leading newspapers that the current year's monsoon may be
below the expected level as many parts of the country are still not getting adequate
rainfall.

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Which of the following can be a possible fallout of the above situation?

1) People from those affected areas with less rainfall may migrate to urban areas.
2) Govt.. may announce exgratia payment to all the farmers affected in these areas.
3) Govt. may declare these areas as drought-affected.
4) People may blame the govt. and agitate for not getting adequate water for cultivation.
5) None of these
35. There has been a spate of rail accidents in India in the recent months killing large
numbers of passengers and injuring many more. This has raised serious doubts on the
railway's capability of providing safety to travellers. Which of the following statements
substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?
1) Indian Railways is known for providing best comfort to its passenger.
2) People have no option other than travelling by rail over long distances.
3) The railway tracks at many places have been found to be stressed due to wear and tear
in the recent times.
4) Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the
event of such disasters.
5) None of these
36. A few travellers were severely beaten up by villagers recently in a remote rural part of
the state as the villagers found the movement of the travellers suspicious. The district
authority has sent a police team to nab the culprits. Which of the following inferences
can be drawn from the above statement? (An inference is something which is not directly
stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)
1) The villagers dislike the presence of strangers in their vicinity.
2) Villagers are generally suspicious in nature.
3) Travellers prefer to visit countryside.
4) The govt. generally provides protection to travellers across the country.
5) None of these
37. There has been a considerable drop in sales of four- wheelers during the past six months
when compared to the number of four-wheelers sold during this period last year.
Which of the following can the probable cause(s) of the above phenomenon?
(A) The govt. imposed higher excise duty on four- wheelers at the beginning of this year.
(B) The petrol prices have risen considerably during the past eight months.
(C) The rate of interest on home and car loans have been rising for the past seven
months.
1) All (A), (B) and (C)
2) Only (A) and (C) 3) Only (B) and (C) 4) (B) Only
5) (A) Only
38. There is an alarming trend of skewed sex ratio against women in India during the past
decade and the situation may go out of hand if adequate steps are not taken to stop female
foeticide.
Which of the following can be an effective step to reverse the trend?
(A)The govt. should immediately completely ban the use of scanners/sonography on
expecting mothers at all health centres.
(B) The govt. should announce a substantial incentive scheme for couples who have at
least one girl child.
(C) The govt.should launches a nationwide campaign to create awareness against female
foeticide.

1) Only (A)
2) Only (A) and (B)
4) All (A), (B) and (C)
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3) Only (B) and (C)

5) None of these
39. A very large number of technically qualified young Indians are coming out of colleges
every year though there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful employment.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
1) Technically qualified persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like B
A/ B Sc / B Com etc.
2) The govt. has not done effective planning for engaging technically qualified personnel
while authorizing the setting up of technical colleges.
3) huge gap exists between the level of competence of technically qualified graduates
and requirements of the industry.
4) Majority of the technically qualified persons are migrating from India to developed
countries for better opportunities.
5) None of these
40. The govt. appealed to all cititzens to use potable water judiciously as there is an acute
shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity incoming months. Which of
the following assumption is implicit in the above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) People may igonore the appeal and continue using water as per their consideration.
2) Govt. may be able to tap those who do not resopond to the appeal.
3) Govt. may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the event of crisis.
3) A large number of people may positively respond to the govts appeal and help tide
over the crisis.
4) Only the poor are going to suffer from this shortage of water supply.
Directions (Q. 41- 45): The first figure in the first unit of the Problem figures bears a
certain relationship to the second figure. Similarly, one of the figures in the Answer
Figures bears the same relationship to the second figure in the second unit of the
Problem Figures, You are, therefore, to locate the figure which would fit in the question
mark.

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Directions (Q. 46- 50): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five
Answers Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the
sequence were continued?
Test -II: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 51 55): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
51. 3463 295 18611 = ? + 5883
1) 997091
2) 997071
3) 997090
4) 999070
5) None of these
4)12.8
5) None of these
52. (23.1)2 + (48.6)2 - (39.8)2 = ? + 1147.69

1) (13.6)2
2) 12.8
195
39
5
28
+
=?
65
308
44
26
1
1)
2) 0.75
3
3) 163.84
53.
3) 1
1
2
4)
1
2
5) None of these

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54. [(3 8 + 8 ) (8 8 + 7 8 )] - 98 = ?
1) 2 8
55. 11449
1) 3844
2) 8 8
3) 382
4) 386
5) None of these
4) 3638
5) None of these
6241 - (54) = ? + (74)

2) 3721
3) 3481
Directions (Q. 56 60): What approximate value should come in place of question mark
(?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
56. 39.897% of 4331 + 58.779% of 5003 =?
1) 4300
2) 4500
3) 4700
4) 4900
5) 5100
57. 43931.03 2111.02 401.04 =?

1) 8800
2) 7600
3) 7400
4) 9000
5) 8300
58.
59.
6354 34.999 = ?
1) 3000
2) 2800
3) 2500
4) 3300
5) 2600
4663 + 349 = ? 21.003

1) 7600
2) 7650
3) 7860
4) 7560
5) 7680
3) 30
4) 70
5) 90
60. 59.88 12.21 6.35 =?

1) 10
2) 50
Directions (Q. 61 65): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find
out the wrong number.
61. 7
1) 7
12
2) 12
62. 6
1) 91
91
584
2935
2) 70558
3) 584
63. 9050
1) 3478
5675
2) 1418
64. 1
4
25
1) 3125 2) 823543
40
222
3) 40
1742
4) 1742
17390
5) 208608
208608
11756
4) 2935
35277
5) 35277
70558
3478
2147
1418
1077
3) 5673
4) 2147
5) 1077
256
3) 46656
65. 8424
4212
2106
1) 131.625
2) 1051
3125
4) 25
1051
3) 4212
46656
5) 256
526.5
4) 8424
950
823543
263.25
131.625
5) 263.25
66. Rubina could get equal number of Rs. 55, Rs. 85 and Rs. 105 tickets for a movie. She
spends Rs. 2940 for all the tickets. How many of each did she buy?
1) 12
2) 14
3) 16
5) None of these

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67. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 22,500 at the end of four years is Rs.
10,800. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same
rate of interest at the end of two years?
1) Rs. 16, 908
2) Rs. 5, 724
3) Rs. 28, 224
4) Rs. 8, 586
5) None of these
68. The ratio of the present age of Manisha and Deepali is 5 : X.Manisha is 9 years younger
than Parineeta. Parineetas age after 9 years will be 33 years. The difference between
Deepalis and Manishas age is the same as the present age of Parineeta. What should
come in place of X?
1) 23
2) 39
3) 15
5) None of these
69. Ramolas monthly income is three times Ravinas monthly income, Ravinas monthly
income is fifteen percent more that Ruchikas monthly income. Ruchikas monthly
income is Rs. 32,000. What is Ramolas annual income?
1) Rs. 1, 10, 400
2) Rs. 13, 24, 800
3) Rs. 36, 800
4) Rs. 52, 200
5) None of theses
70. An HR Company employs 4800 persons, out of which 45 percent are males and 60
percent of the males are either 25 years or older. How many males are employed in that
HR Company who are younger than 25 years?
1) 2640
2) 2160
3) 1296
4) 864
5) None of these
71. Seema bought 20 pens, 8 packets of wax colours, 6 calculators and 7 pencil boxes, The
price of one pen is Rs. 7, one packet of wax colour is for Rs. 22, one calculator is for Rs.
175 and one pencil box costs Rs. 14 more than the combined price of one pen and one
packet of wax colours. How much amount did Seema pay to the shopkeeper?
1) Rs. 491
2) Rs. 1, 725 3) Rs. 1, 667 4) Rs. 1, 527 5) None of these
72. The average marks in English of a class of 24 students is 56. If the marks of three
students were misread as 44, 45 and 61 in lieu of the actual marks 48, 59 and 67
respectively, then what would be the correct average?
1) 56.5
2) 59
3) 57.5
4) 58
5) None of these
73. In a test, a candidate secured 468 marks out of maximum marks A. Had the maximum
marks A converted to 700, he would have secured 336 marks. What was the maximum
marks of the test?
1) 775
2) 875
3) 975
4) 1075
5) None of these
74. Six elevenths of a number is equal to twentytwo percent of the second number. The
second number is equal to one-fourth of the third number. The value of the third number
is 2400. What is 45% of the first number?
1) 109.8
2) 111.7
3) 117.6
4) 123.4
5) None of these
75. In an enterance examination, Ritu scored 56 percent marks, Smita scored 92 percent
marks and Rina scored 634 marks. The maximum marks of the examination is 875. What
is the average marks scored by all the three girls together?
1) 1929
2) 815
3) 690
4) 643
5) None of these

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Directions (Q. 76-80): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions
that follows.
An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.
76. If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red or at least
one is red?
133
199
26
1
4)
3)
1)
2)
91
7
364
191
5) None of these
77. If three marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that at least one is yellow?
1
165
3
199
1)
3)
4)
2)
3
364
364
11
5) None of these
78. If eight marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that there are equal numbers
of marbles of each colour?
361
60
1
4
2)
3)
4)
1)
1001
7
728
1
5) None of these
79. If three marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that none is green?
2
253
10
14
1)
2)
3)
4)
7
728
21
91
30
5)
91
80. If four marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that two are blue and two are
red?
10
17
9
2
1)
3)
2)
4)
7
1001
14
364
Directions (Q. 81 85): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
The number of person visiting six different Super-markets and the percentage of Men,
Women and Children visiting those Super markets
81. The number of men visiting Super market D forms approximately what percent of the
total number of person visiting all the Super markets together?

1) 11
2) 5.5
3) 13
4) 9
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5) 7.5
82. The number of children visiting Super Market C forms what percent of the number of
children visiting Supermarket F? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1) 91.49
2) 49.85
3) 121.71
4) 109.30
5) None of these
83. What is the total number of children visiting Super markets B and D together?
1) 18515
2) 28479
3) 31495
4) 22308
5) None of these
84. What is the average of women visiting all the Super markets together?
1) 24823.5
2) 22388.5
3) 26432.5
4) 20988.5
5) None of these
85. What is the ratio of the number of women visiting Supermarket A to that of those visiting
Supermarket C?
1) 35 : 37
2) 245 : 316 3) 352 : 377 4) 1041 : 1156
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 86 - 90): Study the following pie-chart and answer the questions given
below:
Preference of students for six beverages A, B, C, D, E and F in terms of degrees of angle
in the pie-chart
86. What is the difference between the total number of students who prefer beverage A and C
together and the total number of students who prefer beverage D and F together?
1) 959
2) 955
3) 952
4) 954
5) None of these
87. What is the ratio of the number of students who prefer beverage F to the number of
students who prefer beverage A?
1) 3 : 11
2) 3 : 13
3) 6 : 11
4) 5 : 11
5) None of these
88. The number of students who prefer beverage E and F together is what percent of the total
number of students?
1) 18
2) 14
3) 26
4) 24
5) None of these
89. The number of students who prefer beverage C is approximately what percent of the
number of students who prefer beverage D?
1) 7
2) 12
3) 18
4) 22
5) 29

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90. How many students prefer beverage B and Beverage E together?

1) 2312
2) 2313
3) 2315
4) 2318
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 91 -95): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Percentage of Marks obtained by different students in different subjects of MBA
SUBJECTS (Maximum Marks)
Stratic
Brand
Compensation Consumer
Service
Training &
Behaviour Marketing Development
Students Management Management Management
(150)
(100)
(150)
(125)
(75)
(50)
Anushka
66
75
88
56
56
90
Archit
82
76
84
96
92
88
Arpan
76
66
78
88
72
70
Garvita
90
88
96
76
84
86
Gunit
64
70
68
72
68
74
Pranita
48
56
50
64
64
58
91. How many marks did Anushka get in all the subjects together?
1) 369
2) 463
3) 558
4) 496
5) None of these
92. The marks obtained by Garvita in Brand Management is what percent of the marks
obtained by Archit in the same subject? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1) 86.36
2) 101.71
3) 111.79
4) 133.33
5) None of these
93. What is the average marks obtained by all students together in Compensation
Management?
1) 116
2) 120
3) 123
4) 131
5) None of these
94. Who has scored the highest total marks in all the subjects together?
1) Archit
2) Gunit
3) Pranita
4) Garvita
5) Arpan
95. How many students have scored the highest marks in more than one subject?
1) three
2) two
3) one
4) none
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 96 100): Study the following graph and answer the questions that
follow:
No. of students (in thousand) who opted for three different specializations during the
given five years in a university

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96. Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects, in the year
2009, 38% were girls. How many boys opted for Mathematics in the same year?
1) 1322
2) 1332
3) 1312
5) None of these
97. If the total number of students in the university in the year 2007 was 455030, the total
number of students who opted for the given three subjects was approximately what
percent of the students?
1) 19
2) 9
3) 12
4) 5
5) 23
98. What is the total number of students who opted for Hindi and Mathematics in the years
2006, 2007 and 2009 together?
1) 97000
2) 93000
3) 85000
4) 96000
5) None of these
99. The total number of students who opted for Mathematics in the years 2005 and 2008
together is approximately what percent of the total number of students who opted for all
three subjects in the same year?
1) 38
2) 28
3) 42
4) 32
5) 48
100. What is the ratio of the number of students who opted for English in the year 2006 and
2008 together to the number of students who opted for Hindi in the year 2005 and 2009
together?
1) 11 : 5
2) 12 : 7
3) 11 : 7
4) 12 : 5
5) None of these
Test -III: General Awareness

101. Which of the following countries recently conferred its Highest State Honour on Late
Mrs Indira Gandhi for her contribution in its 'Liberation war' ?
1) South Sudan
5) Croatia
2) Bangladesh
3) Bhutan
4) Slovakia
102. Which of the following statements is true?

1) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public.
2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public
3) Banks can accept only time deposits from public
4) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public.
5) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government.
103. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is
1) not regulated by RBI.

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2) regulated by State Governments.

3) regulated by Central Government.
4) regulated by RBI.
5) regulated by Finance minister.
104. Which of the following is a correct statement?
1) State Bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
2) A nationalised bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
3) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
4) RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India.
5) None of these
105. The Home Minister of India was recently on a visit to Bangladesh, where both the
countries signed a Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP). What are the
major points of this agreement?
(A) The plan will help in resolving the long-pending border dispute between both the
nations.
(B) The head count of the people living in enclaves on the border will be completed
within next six months' time.
(C) India assured that no BSF Jawan will open fire on the people crossing the borders
unless there is an attack on them.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only C
4) All (A), (B) and (C)
5) Both (A) and (C)
106. The Govt. of India recently decided to raise the price of oil products like; diesel,
petrol and cooking gas. However some taxes on these products were reduced or
scrapped altogether. What were these taxes which were reduced or scrapped?
(A)Customs Duty
(B)VAT
(C)Excise Duty
1) Only (A)
2) Both (A) and (B)
3) Both (A) and (C)
4) Both (B) and (C)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
107. The President of India was recently on a visit to South Korea and Mongolia. During
her visit some agreements were signed by both the countries. Which of the
following was a common area on which India signed agreements with South Korea
and Mongolia both?
1) Peaceful use of Nuclear energy
2) Export of edible oil to South Korea and Mongolia
3) Providing technical help to become self-sufficient in production of foodgrains
4) Willingness of both the countries to support India's bid to have permanent seat in
UN Security Council
5) To hold Olympic games in 2022 in New Delhi jointly with South Korea and
Mongolia
108. Iran recently threatened that it would stop supply of oil to India if the payment issue
is not sorted out quickly What is the problem in payment to Iran?
(A)The oil supplied by Iran is of substandard quality Hence India suspended the
supply and stopped the payment.
(B) Indian banks have stopped transfer of money to Iran as UN has imposed
sanctions on Iran.

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(C) India is bound to purchase oil only from OPEC members. Iran has abandoned
the membership of OPEC, which has created a problem in payments
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) All (A), (B) and (C)
5) None of these
109. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of
1) Both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
2) Savings bank accounts and current accounts
3) Both savings bank accounts and loan accounts
4) Both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only
5) Both current accounts and fixed deposit accounts
110. Yingluck Shinawatra has won the recently held elections to become the first woman
Prime Minister of
l) Myanmar 2) South Korea 3) North Korea 4) Thailand
5) China
111. Which of the following is a correct statement?
1) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts.
2) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts.
3) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same.
4) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank.
5) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits.
112. The Lokayukta of which of the following States had submitted a report on illegal
mining of iron ore in the State?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Tamil Nadu
3) Karnataka 4) Odisha
5) None of these
113. The usual deposit accounts of banks are
1) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts
2) Current accounts, post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
3) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
4) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
5) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts
114. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are
1) repayable after an agreed period.
2) repayable on demand.
3) not repayable.
4) repayable after death of depositors.
5) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank's choice.
115. Almost all the major economies of the world had reacted sharply on the issue of the
USA's ceiling limit on its debt. Why was the issue so important for other nations,
which otherwise was an internal matter for the USA? (This was during the month of
July 2011, till Senate's decision.)
(A)The Senate's decision on the issue might have caused the US dollar to weaken
further or get strengthened in international markets.
(B) Weakening of the dollar might have pushed up Euro and other major currencies
up and some European countries which were already in trouble would have
faced a new crisis.
(C) Debt limit was directly related to liquidity position of banks in USA.

(1) Only (A)

(2)Only (B)
(4) Only (B) and (C) both
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(3) Only (A) and (B) both

(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
116. Which of the following is not a Millennium Goal set by the UNO?
1) eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
2) reduce child mortality
3) ensure environmental sustainability
4) combat terrorism and bring people in main stream of society
5) to achieve universal primary education
117. Financial inclusion means provision of
1) financial services, namely, payments,remittances, savings, loans and insurance
at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
2) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
3) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
4) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
5) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same.
118. Which of the following statements containing results of India's recent Census is not
correct?
1) Kerala has about 94% literacy, the highest in India.
2) The sex ratio in India is 940.
3) Male literacy is lower than female literacy in seven most developed states.
4) Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State in India.
5) The population of India has increased by 181 million during the decade 20012011.
119. Which of the following is known as cross-selling by Banks?
(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder
(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor
(C) Issuance of cash against cheque presented by a third party
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Both (A) and (C)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
120. Angela Merkel was recently in India to receive Jawaharlal Nehru Award for
International Understanding for the year 2009. What has been her contribution to
international politics which made her the 'Best Choice' for the award?
(A) She played a major role in restarting negotiations between Russia and USA
on 'START'.
(B) She initiated 'Health Care Reforms' in Germany and solved problems related
to 'future energy development.'
(C) She played a crucial role in negotiation of the Treaty of Lisbon' and Berlin
declaration.
1) Only (B) and (C)
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (C)
5) None of these
121. Japan won the women's Football World Cup 2011 by defeating
1) England
2) Germany
3) Argentina
4) USA
5) China

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122. Which of the following states became the first state in the country to launch
RBI's e-payment system for commercial tax payers''
l) Andhra Pradesh 2)Kerala
3)Gujarat
4) Maharashtra
5) Kamataka
123. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called
1) payment of the cheque
2) drawing of the cheque
3) cancelling of the cheque
4) dishonour of the cheque
5) taking of the cheque
124. Mortgage is a
1) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank.
2) security on movable property for loan given by bank.
3) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
4) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
5) security on immovable property for a deposite received by a loan
125. The worlds highest Rail Bridge is being constructed in the state of Jammu &
Kashmir. This bridge will be on which of the following rivers?
1) Jhelum
2) Chenab
3) Indus
4) Ravi
5) None of these
126. Which of the following films was not directed by Manikaul, who died recently?
1) 3 Idiots
2) Ghashiram Kotwal 3) Uski Roti
4) Dividha
5) Ashadh Ka Ek Din
127. The president of which of the following countries was accused of violation of War
Powers Act of his country when he decide to attack Libya with other NATO
countries in June 2011?
1) USA
2) France
3) Germany 4) Spain
5) Italy
128. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt. of India to provide
an identity to its al resident citizens and also to identify people who are poorest,
often the last to stand up to ask for their share in govt. schemes or lack identity?
1) Public Provident Fund Scheme
2) Indira Gandhi Old Age Pension scheme
3) Social Security Scheme for Gramin Dak Sevaks
4) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
5) Aadhaar Card scheme
129. Which of the following types of accounts are known as Demat Accounts?
1) Accounts which are Zero Balance Accounts
2) Accounts which are opened to facilitate repayment of a loan taken from the
bank. No other business can be conducted from there.
3) Accounts in which shares of various companies are traded in electronic form
4) Accounts which are operated through internet banking facilty
5) None of these
130. Who amongst the following won the Wimbledon Mens Finals 2011, which was also
his first Wimbledon Title?

1) Rafael Nadal
4) Lleyton Hewitt
2) Novak Djokovie
5) None of these
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3) Robert Bruce
131. Who is the chairman of the committee constituted by RBI to study Issues and
Concerns in the Micro Finance Institutions (MFI) Sector?
1) YH Malegam
2) Dr KC Chakraborty
3) C Rangrajan
4) M Damodaran
5) Smt Usha Thorat
132. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is
1) Rs. 1 lac
2) Rs. 2 lacs
3)Rs. 5 lacs
5) No upper limit is prescribed
4) Rs. 50 lac
133. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate

agents is known as
1) General Insurance
2) Non-life insurance
3) Bancassurance
4) Insurance
5) Deposite insurance
134. In order to attract more foreign exchange the Govt. of India decided to allow foreign
investment in LLP firms. What is full form of LLP as used in this reference?
1) Local Labour Promotion 2) Low Labour Projects
3) Limited Loan
Partnership 4) Longer Liability Partnership
5) Limited Liability Partnership
135. NEFT means
1) National Electronic Funds Transfer system
2) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer System
3) National Efficient Fund Transfer Solution
4) Non Effective Funds Transfer System
5) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer System
136. Who among the following has been appointed as a director on board of Bank of
America-the first non-American on the board of the one of the largest financial
institutions in the world?
1) Azim Premji
2) Ratan Tata
3) Mukesh Ambani 4) KV Kamath
5) Chanda Kochar
137. When the rate of inflation increases
1) purchasing power of money increases
2) purchasing power of money decreases
3) value of money increases
4) purchasing power of money remains unaffected
5) amount of money in circulation decreases
138. POSCO is in the process of establishing its plants in India. What does the letter P
denote in the name POSCO?
1) Popular
2) Pallin
3) Pohang
4) Paradeep
5) Peterburg
139. Who amomg the following has become the chief Minister of a State in India for third
consecutive term?
1) Tarun Gogoi
2) Nitish Kumar
3) J Jayalalitha

4) Mamta Banerjee
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5) None of these
140. Who among the following is the winner of Man Booker Prize 2011?
1) Andrea Levy
2) Nicola Barker
3) Tom McCarthy
4) Linda Grant
5) Philip Roth
141. Interest on savings bank account is now calculated by banks on
1) minimum balance during the month
2) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
3) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
4) maximum balance during the month
5) daily product basis;
142. The third International Conference of the Trade Unions was organized in June 2011
in
1) Vienna
2) Moscow 3) London
4) Paris
5) Berlin
143. A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, Internet as well as
ATM network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is
known as
1) investment banking
2) core banking
3) mobile banking
4) national banking
5) specialised banking
144. The Govt. of India recently decided to lift the four-years- old ban on export of
wheat. What was the reason for the same?
(A) India had a bumper crop of wheat during last two years. Hence it has excess
stock of wheat.
(B) As per the Food Security Act, India is bound to provide 10 million tones of
wheat to World food grain stock every year. India defaulted last year. This year
it does not want to be one.
(C) As advised by the Supreme Court of India, the money received from export
should be used to pay subsidy to the farmers.
l) Only(B)
2) Only (A)
3) Only (C)
4) Both (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
145. Which of the following is not considered a money market instrument?
1) Treasury bills
2) Repurchase Agreement
3) Commercial Paper
4) Certificate of Deposit
5) Shares and bonds
146. With a view to facilitating payment of balance in the deposit account to the person
named by the depositor without any hassles in the event of death of the account
holder, the following facility was introduced for bank accounts in our country:
1) Will
2) Registration
3) Nomination
4) Indemnity
5) Guarantee
147. The Govt. of which of the following states has agreed to give captive mines of iron
ores to all the companies who are willing to establish plants there?
1) West Bengal 2) Odisha
3) Jharkhand
4) Bihar
5) Karnataka
148. 'Gorkhaland Council', which was recently in news, is a body set up for
administration
of
which
of
the
following
Districts?

1) Siliguri
5)Gangtok
2) Bagdogra
3) Malda
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4) Darjeeiing
149. Banks in our country normally publicise that additional interest rate is allowed on
retail domestic term deposits of
1) Minors
2) Married women
3) Senior citizens
4) Govt employees 5) Rural residents
150. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalised bank is
1) RBI
2) NABARD
3) LICI
4) Govt. of India
5) IBA
Test-IV: Computer Knowledge
151. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click
1) Uppercase
2) Upper all
3)Capslock
4) Lock Upper
5) Large Size
152. A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people's computers to
get information illegally or do damage is a
1) hacker
2) analyst
3) instant messenger
4) programmer
5) spammer
153. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be
1) distributed
2) free
3) centralized
4) open source
5) None of these
154. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym
1)CD
2) DVD
3) ROM
4)RW
5)ROS
155. The most common type of storage devices are
1) persistent
2) optical
3) magnetic
4)flash
5) steel
156. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable
are known as
1) an ASCII code
2) a magnetic tape
3) a bar code
4) an OCR scanne
5) None of these
157. A Web site's main page is called its
1) Homepage
2) Browser page
5) None of these
3) Search Page
4) Bookmark
158. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of
1) control
2) output 3) processing
4) feedback
5) input
159. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is

1) dragging
5) None of these
2) dropping
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3) right-clicking
4) shift-clicking
160. Computers use the number system to store data and perform calculations.
1) binary
2) octal
3) decimal
4) hexadecimal
5) None of these
161.
are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by

falsifying their identity.
1) Phishing trips
2) Computer viruses 3) Spyware scams
4) Viruses
5) Philshing scams
162. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends?

1) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
2) It is unethical because files are being given for free.
3) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
4) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
5) It is not unethical anyone can access a computer
163. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?
1) CTRL + A
2) ALT + F5
3) SHIFT + A
4) CTRL + K
5) CTRL + H
164. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically,
click the
button and then point to AutoFit Contents.
1) Fit to Form
2) Format
3) Autosize 4) Contents 5) Autofit
165. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is
1) multiprogramming
2) multitasking
3) time-sharing
4) multiprocessing
5) None of these
166. A disks content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be
changed or erase by the user is
1) memory-only
2) write-only
3) CPU
4) CD-ROM
5) ROM
167. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?
1) RAM
2) Floppy
3) CPU
4) CD-ROM
5) ROM
168. The default view in Excel is
1) Work
2) Auto
5) None of these
view.
3) Normal
169. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel?

1) Namebox
2) Row Headings
4) Taskpane
5) None of these
4) Roman
3) Formulabar
170. In word you can force a page break

1) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key

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2) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + enter
3) by using the Insert / Section Break
4) by changing the font size of your document
5) None of these
171. Grouping and processing all of a firms transactions at one time is called
1) a database management system
2) batch processing
3) a real-time system
4) an on-line system
5) None of these
172. Help menu is available at which, button?
l) End
2) Start
5) Reboot
3) Turnoff
173. You can keep your personal files/folders in

1) My folder
2) My Documents 3) My Files
5) None of these
4) Restart
4) My Text
174. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs,
workstations, and other computers is a(n)
1) supercomputer 2) minicomputer
3) laptop
4) server
5) None of these
175. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is
turned off.
1) RAM
2) motherboard
3) secondary storage device
4) primary storage device
5) None of these
176. The folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to
send.
1) Drafts
2) Outbox
3) Address Book
4) Sent Items
5) Inbox
177. You can a search by providing more informationthe search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results.
1) refine
2) expand
3) load
4) query
5) slowdown
178. The contents of are lost when the computer turns off.
1) storage
2) input
3) output
5) None of these
4) memory
179. The enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser
window.
1) tab box
2) pop - up helper
3) tab row
4) address bar
5) Esc key
180. A DVD is an example of a(n)
1) hard disk
2) optical disc
3) output device

4) solid-state storage device
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5) None of these
181. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a
1) tab
2) cell
3) box
4) range
5) None of these
182. ---------is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and
sectors.
1) Tracking
2) Formatting
3) Crashing
5) None of these
4) Allotting
183. Which ports connect special types of music instruments to sound cards?
1)BUS
2) CPU
3) USB
4) MIDI
5)'MINI
184. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer
is called
1) downloading
2) uploading
3) FTP
4) JPEG
5) downsizing
185. --------- In Excel allows users to bring together copies of workbooks that other users
have worked on independently.
1) Copying
2) Merging
3) Pasting
4) Compiling
5) None of these
186. If you want to connect to your own computer through the Internet from another
location, you can use
1) e-mail
2) FTP
3) instant message
4) Telnet
5) None of these
187. To reload a Web page, press the
1) Redo
2) Reload
5) Refresh
button.
3) Restore
4) Ctrl
188. Mobile Commerce is best described as

1) The use of kiosks in marketing
2) Transporting products
3) Buying and selling goods/services through wireless handheld devices
4) Using notebook PCs in marketing
189.
Video processors consist of

and
images.
1) CPU and VGA
2) CPU and memory
4)VGI and DVI
5) None of these
190.
, which store and process

3) VGA and memory
are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
1) Control words
2) Control structures
3) Reserved words
4) Reserved keys
5) None of these

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191. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media
to the hard disk called?
1) configuration
2) download
3) storage
4) upload
5) installation
192. This first step in the transaction processing cycle captures business data through
various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website.
1) Document and report generation
2) Database maintenance
3) Transaction processing start-up
4) Data Entry
193. When the pointer is positioned on a like a hand.
1) Grammar error
2) Formatting error
4) Spelling error
5) Hyperlink
194. The computer abbreviation KB usually means
1) Key Block
2) Kernel Boot
4) Kit Bit
5) Kilo Byte
3) Screen Tip
3) Key Byte
195.Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?

1) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large amount of data and information.
2) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks
do.
3) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media.
4) All the above
5) None of these
196. A (n)
is a special visual and audio effect applied in Powerpoint to text or
content.
1) animation
2) flash
3) wipe
4) dissolve
5) None of these
197. Which of the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed
magnetic disks to store data/ information?
1) floppy diskette
2) hard disk
3) permanent disk
4) optical disk
5) None of these
198. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog
signal that can travel over telephone lines is called a
1) red wire
2) blue cord
3) tower
4) modem
5) None of these
199. Personal computers can be connected together to form a

1) server
2) supercomputer
3) network
5) None of these
4) enterprise

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200. A ----- is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the
search criteria.
1) blog
2) hit
3) link
4) view
5) success
Test V: English
Directions (Q. 201-205): In each of the following questions, a short passage is given
with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the
best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and
coherent.
201. Poverty is the state of majority of world's people and nations. Why is this?Have they
been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight?
What about their governments? Have they pursued policies that actually harm
successful development? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real.
But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the
increasing inter-connectedness promised by globalisation are global decisions,
policies and practices. These are typically influenced, driven or formulated by the
rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such
as multinational corporations, institutions and influential people. In the face of such
enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are
often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the
majority struggles.
1) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
2) What is the government doing about it?
3) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
4) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
5) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing.
202. Women's rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global
well-being. A major global women's rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the
world's nations a few decades ago. These range
from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more
than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women
throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most
poverty. Many may think that women's rights are only an issue in countries where
religion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But
reading the report about the United Nation's Women's Treaty and how an increasing
number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality
furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the
importance of women's rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.
1) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
2) Why is it then, that women still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
3) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say
about a decade ago.
4) Women's activists across nations have implored the respective governments to
take! this seriously.
5) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in
all areas of life.

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203.Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more
of the sun's rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming
whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. However, it is believed that global
dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died,
because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain
formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By
cleaning up global dimming- causing pollutants without tackling greenhouse gas
emissions, rapid warming has been observed and various human health and
ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave in
2003, which saw thousands of people die.
1) This, though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate
change.
2) This phenomenon thus is part of the climate change problem.
3) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global
warming.
4) At first, it sounds like an ironic saviour to climate change problems.
5) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate- change is definitely here.
204. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world. Particularly, rush
to technical andhigher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has
become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and upgradation in the course
structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also,
qualification in higher education gives added advantage to face competition
successfully in the job market.
1) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission
fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
2) Naturally, there is too much rush and competition in every field.
3) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
4) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge
expansion around the world.
5) In the next decade, it will become the most populous.
205. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that the notebook market which has been
growing faster than the
desktop market for the past three years is expected to
overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from
governments and institutions and demand from consumers and sectors such as
education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research
agencies, the year 2010 - 11 saw notebook volumes rise and for the first time, a
million-plus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has
grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a
very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level
notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break
the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the
drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It's simple. With
notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come
down
.
1) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government
tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
2) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has
passed tenders for the same.

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3) Thereby making them more expensive.

4) Thus, the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred
technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced
notebooks.
5) Thus, notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.
Directions (Q. 206-210): Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D),
(E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then
answer the questions given below them.
(A) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is
talking about NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by
percentile for measuring either aptitude
or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a programme.
(B) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures
absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a
perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the
pre- specified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(C) In most of these books, the authors classify a measurement strategy as either
norm-referenced (NRM) or criterion-referenced (CRM).
(D) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is
the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others
resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(E) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by
various authors.
(F) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific achievement or diagnostic tests
intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what per cent they
have achieved mastery of the taught or learned material.
(G) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing
on the categories of "test characteristics" and "logistical dimensions".
206. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) G
2)B
3)C
4)D
5)E
207. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2)B
3)C
4) F
5)E
208. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after
rearrangement?
1) A
2)B
3)C
4) D
5) E
209. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2)B
3)G
4) D
5) E
210. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) F
Directions (Q. 211-215): The following questions consist of a single sentence with
one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices
you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence
meaningfully
complete.

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211. Drugs worth Rs. 3 lakh were from the apartment by the police.
(A) manufactured
(B) ruptured
(C) seized
(D) confiscated
(E) bought
(F) compared
1) (A) and (D)
2) (B)and(C)
3) (C)and(E)
4) (E) and (F)
5) (C)and(D)
212. A man reportedly two passports with the same photograph but under different
names was arrested by the commissioner's Task Force.
(A) possessing
(B) examining
(C) surrendering
(D) mastering
(E) holding
(F) fixating
1) (B) and(C)
2) (C)and(F)
3) (A) and (E)
4) (A) and (D)
5)(D)and(E)
213.The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being
onscreen couple.
(A) labelled
(B) explained
(C) worshiped
(E) exclaimed
(F) shouted
1) (B) and (D)
2) (A) and (C)
3)(B)and(F)
5) (C) and (D)
as the next big

(D) touted
4)(A)and (D)
214. An organization ------- to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for
reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.
(A) specified
(B) inaugurated (C) committed
(D)kickedoff
(E) succumbed
(F) dedicated
l ) (C) and (F)
2) (A) and (E)
3) (C) and (E)
4) (D) and (F)
5) (A) and (C)
215. The ability of a woman to do well does not on whether it is a man's world or not,
because everyone has his/her own opportunities.
(A) trust
(B) depend
(C) reckon
(D) live
(E) rest
(F) believe
1) (D) and (E)
2) (B) and (C)
3) (A) and (F) 4) (B) and (E)
5) (C) and (D)
Directions (Q. 216-220): Below is given a single word with its meaning in different
contexts as options. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the
word when the context is changed. Select the correct alternative from 1), 2), 3), 4)
and 5) which represents all those synonyms.
216. LABOUR
(A) expedite
(B) to move faster
(C) controlled
(D)toil
1) Only (D)
2) Both (A) and (C)
3) Only (B), (C) and (D)
4) Only (A), (C) and (D) 5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
217. MEAN
(A) imply
(B) understand (C) average (D)characterized by malice
1) Only(C)
2) Both (A) and .(D)
3) Only (A), (C) and (D)
4) Only (A), (B) and (D) 5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

218. REGULAR
(A) present
(D) uniform
1) Only(D)
(B) common
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(C) indiscriminate
2) Both (B) and (D)

3) Both (A) and (C)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
219. MASK
(A) cover
(B) hide
(C) conceal
(D) disguise
1) Only (A)
2) Both (B) and (D)
4) Only (A), (B) and (C) 5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
220. ALONE
(A) exclusively
(B) morose
1) Only (A)
2) Both (A) and (C)
3) Both (B) and (C)
4) Only (A), (C) and (D)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(C) solitary
(D) human being
Directions (Q. 221-235): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each,
five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
As the country embarks on planning (221) the 12th Plan (2012-17) period, a key question
mark (222) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements.
Growth is energy-hungry and the aspirations of growing at 9-10% will (223) huge
demands on the energy resources of the country. In this energy jigsaw, renewable energy
will (224) like never before in the 12th Plan and the (225).
By the rule of the thumb, India will (226) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts
of capacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and
sustained (227) by some parts of the governmentthe Bureau of Energy Efficiency, in
particular, needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy
intensity of economic growth. However, even the tempered demand numbers are (228) to
be below 80Gw. As against this need, the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely
to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but
at a much (229) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything
substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be (230) in
the foreseeable future. Among imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than
15-20Gw equivalent can be (231) to be added in the five-year time block.
(232) (233) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has
touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the
electricity grid (234) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw.
Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are
reaching remote places and (235) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably
failed.
221. 1) against
4) at
2) for
5) on
3) onwards
222.1) that
4) who
2) inside
5) where
3) always

223.1) forward
4) demand
2) subject
5)replace
3) place
224.1) pass
4) find
2) publish
5) light
3)feature
225.1) likewise
4) after
2) publicity
5) earlier
3) next
226.1) waste
4) generate
2) require
5) consumed
3) highlight
227.1) structures
4) practices
2) efforts
5) developmental
3) projections
228.1) sure
4) unlikely
2) unsure
5) likely
3) unexpected
229. 1) nominal
4) lower
2) excelled
5)expected
3) higher
230.1) failure
4) maximum
2) success
5) marginal
3) dangerous
231.1) certain
4) expected
2) linked
5) sure
3) remarked
232.1) When
4) If
2) But
5) As
3) However
233. l)for
4) ever
2) with
5) against
3) is
234.1) through
4) against
2) project
5) capacity
3) versus
235. 1) lightening
4) saving
2) making
5) generating
3) touching
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Direction (Q. 236 243): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
In a reversal of the norm elsewhere, in India policymakers and economists have become
optimists while bosses do the worrying. The country's Central Bank has predicted that
the country's economy is likely to grow at a double-digit rate during the next 20-30
years. India has the capability with its vast labour and lauded entrepreneurial spirit. But
the private sector, which is supposed to do the heavy lifting that turns India from the

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world's tenth largest economy to its third largest by 2030, has become fed up. Business
people often carp about India's problems but their irritation this time has a nervous edge.
In the first quarter of 2011, GDP grew at an annual rate of 7.8 per cent; in 2005-07, it
managed 9-10 percent. The economy may be slowing naturally as the low interest rates
and public spending that got India through the global crisis are belatedly withdrawn. At
the same time, the surge in inflation caused by exorbitant food prices has spread more
widely, casting doubt over whether India can grow at 8-10 per cent in the medium term
without overheating.
In India, as in many fast-growing nations, the confidence to invest depends on the
conviction that the long term trajectory is intact and it is that which is in doubt. Big
Indian firms too. sometimes, seem happier to invest abroad than at home, in deals that
are often hailed as symbols of the country's growing clout but sometimes speak to its
weaknessespurchases of natural resources that India has in abundance but struggles to
get out of the ground. In fact, a further dip in investment could be self- fulfilling: if fewer
roads, ports and factories are built, this will hurt both short-term growth figures and
reduce the economy's long term capacity.
There is a view that because a fair amount of growth is assured the government need not
try very hard. The
liberalisation that began in 1991 freed markets for products and gave rise to vibrant
competition. At the same time what economists call factor markets, those for basic inputs
like land, power, labour etc, remains unreformed and largely under state control, which
creates difficulties. Clearances today can take three to four years and many employers
are keen to replace workers with machines despite an abundance of labour force. This
can be attributed to labour laws which are inimical to employee creation and an
education system that means finding quality manpower a major problem. In fact, the
Planning Commission concluded that achieving even nine per cent growth will need
marked policy action in unreformed sectors. Twenty years ago it was said that the
yardstick against which India should be measured was its potential and it is clear that
there remains much to do.
236. Why are employers reluctant to hire Indian labour force?
(A) India's labour force is overqualified for the employment opportunities available.
(B) High attrition rate among employees stemming from their entrepreneurial spirit
(C) Labour laws are not conducive to generating employment.
1) Only (C)
2) All (A), (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4) Only (A) & (B)
5) None of these
237. What is the state of India's basic input sectors at present?
(1) These sectors attract Foreign Direct Investment because of their vast potential.
(2) These sectors are lagging as projects are usually awarded to foreign companies.
(3) These sectors are stagnating and badly in need of reforms.
(4) These sectors are well regulated as these are governed by the State.
(5) None of these
238. Which of the following can be said about the Indian economy at present?
(1) It can comfortably achieve double-digit growth rate at present.
(2)High food prices have led to overheating of the economy.
(3)Citizens are affluent owing to laxity in regulation.
(4) Private sector confidence in India's growth potential is high.

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(5)Unreformed sectors are a drag on economic growth. 139. What impact has the
GDP growth of 7.8 per had?
239. What impact has the GDP growth of 7.8 percent had?
(A) Indian Industry is anxious about India's economic growth.
(B) India has achieved status as the world's third largest economy at present.
(C) Foreign investment in India has drastically increased.
1) Only (A)
2) All (A), (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4) Only(A) and (B) 5) None of these
240. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word 'marked' given in
bold as used in the passage?
1) Decreased
2) Ignored
3) Clear
4) Assessed
5) Imperceptible
241.What is the author's main objective in writing the passage?
1) Showcasing the potential of India's growth potential to entice foreign investors
2) Exhorting India to implement measures to live up to its potential
3) Recommending India's model of development to other developing countries
4) Berating the private sector for not bidding for infrastructure development projects
5) Criticising the measures taken by India during the global economic crisis
242. What measures do experts suggest to be taken to ensure targeted economic growth?
1) Lowering of interest rates to help industries hit by recession
2) Prolonged financial support for basic input industries
3) Incentives to Indian companies to invest in infrastucture
4) Formulation of policies and their implementation in factor markets
5) Stringent implementation of licensing system
243. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word 'clout' given in bold
as used in the passage?
1) Strike
2) Standing
3) Force
4) Launch
5) Achieve
Directions (Q. 244-250): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you
In many countries, a combustible mixture of authoritarianism, unemployment and youth
has given rise to disaffection with strongmen rulers, which has, in turn, spilled over into
uprisings. Young people in these countries are far better educated than their parents were.
In 1990, the average Egyptian had 4.4 years of schooling; by 2010, the figure had risen to
7.1 years. Could it be that education, by making people less willing to put up with
restrictions on freedom and more willing to question authority, promotes
democratisation? Ideas about the links between education, income and democracy are at
the heart of what social scientists have long studied. Since then plenty of economists and
political scientists have looked for statistical evidence of a causal link between education
and democratisation. Many have pointed to the strong correlation that exists between
levels of education and measures like the pluralism of party politics and the existence of
civil liberties. The patterns are similar when income and democracy are considered.
There are outliers, of courseuntil recently, many Arab countries managed to combine
energy-based wealth and decent education with undemocratic political systems. But some
deduce from the overall picture that as China and other authoritarian states get more

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educated and richer, their people will agitate for greater political freedom, culminating in
a shift to a more democratic form of government.
This apparently reasonable intuition is shakier than it seems. Critics of the hypothesis
point out that correlation is hardly causation. The general trend over the past half-century
may have been towards rising living standards, a wider spread of basic education and
more democracy, but it is entirely possible that this is being driven by another variable.
Even if the correlation were not spurious, it would be difficult to know which way
causation ran. Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic
countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of
Kenyan girls in 69 primary schools whose students were randomly selected to receive a
scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid.
Previous studies had shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and
increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly
increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study, the authors tried to see
how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the women in
question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in
improving their own fives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do
it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more
active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated
people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often
express disdain for the messiness of democracy, yearning for the kind of government
that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway fines and bridges at
a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.
244.Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word 'promotes' given in
bold as used in the passage?
1) Upgrades
2) Prefers
3) Recommends
4) Advocates
5) Publicises
245.In the context of the passage, which of the following characterize (s) democracies?
(A)Active participation of majority of educated citizens in electoral process
(B) Fast, paced economic growth and accountability of those in power
(C) Better standards of living and access to higher education
1) All (A), (B) and (C)
2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B)
5) None of these
246. What, according to the author, has led to uprisings in authoritarian countries?
1. Lack of access to education
2. Vast numbers of uneducated and unemployable youth
3. Frustration with the existing system of governance
4. Unavailability of natural energy resources like coal and oil
5. Government's over-ambitious plans for development
247. What does the phrase "messiness of democracy" convey in the context of the
passage?
1. Democratic nations are chaotic on account of individual freedoms.
2. Most democratic countries frequently have violent revolts among their citizens.
3. The divide between the poor and the educated is growing wider in democracies.
4. High levels of pollution on account of frantic pace of infrastructure development
5. Resigned acceptance of intrinsic corruption in the education system

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248. Which of the following is/are true about China in the context of the passage?
(A) China's citizens are in favour of a more representative form of government.
(B) China has made huge strides in infrastructure development.
(C) China is in the midst of a political revolution.
1) None
2) Only (A)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4)Only (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
249. What conclusion can be drawn from the statistics cited about Egypt's education
system?
1) Job prospects have been on the rise in Egypt in recent times.
2) Authoritarian leaders have played a vital role in reforming Egypt's education
system.
3) Egypt has one of the youngest and best educated demographies in the world.
4) Egypt is likely to be a successful vibrant democracy.
5) There has been a rise in education levels in Egypt in recent times.
250.Which of the following most aptly describes the central theme of the passage?
1) Democratic nations are richer and have a better track record of educating their
citizens.
2) Education does not necessarily lead to greater enthusiasm for a democratic form
of government. .
3) Educated societies with autocratic form of government enjoy a better quality of
life than democracies.
4) Citizens can fulfill their personal aspirations only under a democratic form of
government.
5) Democracy makes citizens more intolerant as it does not restrict personal
freedoms.

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Answers
1. 5;
Remaining distance = 8 - (2 + 1) = 5 km Hence, the driver requires to travel 5 km towards
North to reach the school again.
(2 -3):
Person
Floor
2. 4; D lives on first floor and F on fourth floor. Hence, A and E, living on second and third
floor respectively, is the required answer.
3. 1
(4-5): Letters - L, P, S, A, E
There is only one possible arrangement, which
is L E A P S.
4. 4
5. 3
6. 2; All gliders are parachutes + No parachute is an airplane = A + E = E = No glider is an

airplane + All airplanes are helicopters = E + A = O* = Some helicopters are not
gliders. Hence I does not follow. No parachute is an airplane + All airplanes are
helicopter = E + A = O* = Some helicopters are not parachutes. That leaves us with the
possibility of II.
7. 5; I follows (see above). Again, we get Some helicopters are not gliders. That leaves us
with the possibility of II.
8. 1; There are not negative statements.
9. 2; Some metals are papers + All papers are glass = I + A = I = Some metals are glasses
conversion Some glasses are metals (I).
10. 1; No stone is metal + Some metals are glasses = E + I = O* = Some glasses are not
stones. That still leaves us with the possibility in conclusion I. No stone is metal +
Some metals are papers = E + I = O* = Some papers are not stones. Hence II does not
follow.
(11-15):
Input: for 52 all 96 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46
Step I. all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut 73 bus stop 38 46 96
Step II. bus all for 52 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73
Step III. for bus all 25 jam road 15 hut stop 38 46 96 73 52
Step IV. hut for bus all 25 jam road 15 stop 38 96 73 52 46
Step V. jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38
Step VI. road jam hut for bus all 15 stop 96 73 52 46 38 25
Step VII. stop road jam hut for bus all 96 73 52 46 38 25 15
11. 2; Step IV: hut for bus all 25 jam road
15 stop 38 96 73 52 46 Eighth from the right - road.
12. 3
13. 3
14.1; Step V: Jam hut for bus all 25 road 15 stop 96.73 52 46 38
Sixth from the left 25
15. 4
(16-20):
16. 2
17. 5
18. 3
19. 5
21. 3.
22. 4; I. E > B > A

II. C > _ > _
III. _ > _ > _ > _ D > F
So, E > B > A > C > D > F
23. 5;
38
20. 4
24. 5;
Mon Tue
X
II
III
Wed
leave
I
Thu
II
Fri
X
III
Sat
III
Sun
III
25.1; I. Now or never again-torn ka na sa III. again go now or never-na ho ka sa torn so. So,
code for 'go' is ho.
(26 30):
26. 3
27. 1
28. 4
29. 3
30. 2
31. 1; Economic slowdown affects the hiring of engineering graduates. Due to this reason
admissions in colleges has been affected.
32. 2; Big potholes on a road may affect people with spine-related injuries commute long
distances by road within the city.
33. 3
34. 3
35. 3
36. 4; The govt provides security to tourists across the country. That is why the govt has sent
a police team to nab the culprits.
37. 3
38. 3; Extreme action (complete ban) is not a solution to the problem.
39. 4
40. 4
41. 1; From fig H to I: The upper and the left element rotate by 90 ACW and go to right
and upper respectively while one of their heads gets inverted. The lower element rotates 90
CW and goes to the left. The left element also rotates by 90 CW, one of its head gets
inverted and goes to lower position.
42. 3
39
43. 1; From fig II to I: The upper and middle elements are encircled by the middle and
lower elements respectively. The- lower element gets enlarged in its place and a clone of
the upper element comes inside it.
44. 2; From fig II to I: The left middle goes to upper middle, upper middle to centre. The
lower middle goes to lower right right middle lower middle.
45. 3; From fig II to 1: The vertical bar rotates by 90 ACW while the horizontal bar rotates
by 90 CW. The upper-left element goes to upper right lower leftlower right upper left.
46. 5; In alternate steps the uppermost element goes to lowermost, the other elements shift
one step Upward and the element reaching the uppermost position is replaced by a new one.
47. 2; In each step the elements shift one side ACW, rotate by 180 and a new element is
added on the ACW end.
48. 3; In each step the elements interchange places in pairs and one element is replaced by a
new one alternately on either side.
49. 2; In alternate step the elements of the upper row shift towards left and a new element
appears on the left end.
50. 1; In alternate steps the first, the third and the fourth elements from ACW end shift halfa-side ACW. The second from ACW shifts one-and-a-half side ACW while the CW end
shifts two sides.
51. 1
52. 3; 533.61 + 2361.96 1584.04
= ? + 1147.69
or, ? = 1311.53 1147.69 = 163.84
53. 4;
195
44
5
28
+
65
308
39
26
=
54. 3;
4
5
13 1
8 +5
=
=
13
26
26
26 2
[ 8 (3 +1)
8 (8 + 7)] - 98
= [4 8 15
8 ] - 98
= [60 8] - 98
= 480 - 98 = 382
40
55. 2;
11449
6241 - (54) 2 - (74) 2 = ?
or, ? = [107 79] - 2916 - 5476

= 8453 - 2916 - 5476 = 61
or, ? = (61) 2 = 3721
56. 3;
40
4330
5000
+ 59 +
100
100
= 1732 + 2950 = 4682

57. 5;
58. 2;
6354 34.993 = 80 35 = 2800
59. 5; 17 + 349 = ? 21
or, 366 21 = ?
or, ? = 7686 = 7680
60. 3; 60 12 6 = 30
61. 4; (7-1) 2 = 12
(12 2) = 12
(40 3) 6 = 222 (222
4) 8 = 1744 (1744
5) 10 = 17390
(17390 6) 12 = 208608
62. 3; .... 7 + 72 , ... 6 + 62 , 5 52 ,...
63. 5; 153 , - 133 , - 113 , - 93 , - 73 , - 53
64. 4; 11 = 1; 22 = 4; 33 = 27; 44 = 256; 55 = 3125; 66 = 46656; 77 = 823543
65. 2; All terms are divided by 2.
66. 1; Let her buy x tickets.
Then total money spent
41
= 55x + 85x + 105x

or, 245x = 2940
67. 2;
r=
or, x = 12
10800 100
= 12%
22500 4
2
12
CI = 22500 1 +
- 22500
100
= 22500
112
112
- 22500
100
100
= 28224 - 22500 = 5724

68. 5; Parineetas present age = 24 yrs.
Manishas present age = 15 yrs (24 9)
Deepalis present age = 15 + 24 = 39 yrs.
Ratio of the present age of Manisha and Deepali = 15 : 39 = 5 : 13
x = 13
69. 2;
Ravina's monthly income

= 32000 115 = Rs. 36800
100
Ramola's monthly income = 3 36800
= 110400
Ramola's annual income = 2160
= 1324800
70. 4; Total = 4800

45% of males = 2160
40% are younger than 25 years = 864
71. 3; Total amount = 20 7 + 8 22 + 6 175 + 7 43 = 1667
42
72. 5; Total marks = 24 56 = 1344

Total of actual marks = 1344 (44 + 45 + 61) + (48 + 59 + 67) = 1368
1368
Actual Average =
= 57
24
73. 3; Covered maximum marks = 700
Covered marks = 336
366 100 = 48%
% marks =
700
468 is 48% of maximum marks A
468 100 = 975
A=
48
74. 5;
2nd No. = 600

22% of 2nd No. = 600 22 132
100
That is
6
of 1st No.
11
1st No. = 132 11 = 242

6
45% of 1st No. = 108.9
75. 4;
Ritu's marks = 875 56

100
= 490
Smita's marks = 875 92 = 805
100
Rina's marks = 634
Total marks = 1929
Average =
1929
= 643
3
43
76. 5;
C 2 + 2 C1
14
C2
12
C1
25
91
77. 3; At least one marble is yellow. That means one yellow marble or two yellow marbles
or three yellow merbles.
11
C
165
1 - 14 3 =
C3
364
4
78. 3;
60
C 2 5 C 2 2 C 2 3C 2
=
14
C8
1001
10
79. 5;
14
80. 1;
C3
10 9 8
30
=
=
91
C3
14 13 12
10
C 2 2C2
=
14
1001
C4
81. 5;
22755
100 = 7.5% (approx)
303600
82. 4;
9128
100 = 109.30%
8351
83. 3; 13180 + 18315 = 31495

84. 1; 19008 + 28337 + 20538 + 14430 + 29645 + 36983 = 148941
148941
= 24823.5
6
19008 352
=
85. 3;
20538 377
Average =
86. 3; Difference between their degrees = 144 93.6 = 50.4

No. of students = 50.4 6800 = 952
360
3
21.6
=
79.2 11
64.8 + 21.6 100 = 24%
360
87. 1; Ratio =
88. 4;
44
89. 2;
14.4 100 = 11.76 = 12%

122.4
90. 1;
57.6 +64.8 6800 = 2312

360
91. 2; Total marks = 99 + 75 + 132 + 70 + 42 + 45 + = 463

88 100 = 115.78
92. 3; Reqd % =
76
93. 1; Total marks of students
= (88 + 84 + 78 + 96 + 68 + 50) 150
100
= 464 150 = 696
100
Average = 696 116
6
94. 4
95. 5; Garvita and Archit
96. 4
40.000 100 = 8.79% = 9%
455030
97. 2;
98. 5; Total No. of students in Hindi in 2006, 2007 and 2009 = 400
And total no. of students in Maths in 2006,
Total no. of students = 95000
15 + 30
45
100 =
99. 4;
100 = 32.14%
55 + 85
140
100. 1;
25000 + 30,000
11
55000
=
=
5000 + 20,000
25000
5
= 11 : 5
101. (2)
107. (4)
102. (4)
108. (2)
103. (4)
109. (2)
104. (4)
110. (4)
45
105. (5)
111. (1)
106. (3)
112. (3)
113. (4)
114. (1)
119. (5)
120. (2)
125. (2)
126. (1)
131. (1)
132. (5)
137. (2)
138. (3)
143. (2)
144. (2)
149. (3)
150. (4)
155. (3)
156. (3)
161. (1)
162. (3)
167. (5)
168. (3)
173. (2)
174. (4)
179. (3)
180. (2)
185. (2)
186. (4)
191. (5)
192. (3)
197. (2)
198. (4)
203. (4)
204. (2)
(206 210): ECGAFDB
206. (5)
207. (4)
212. (3)
213. (4)
218. (2)
219. (5)
224. (3)
225. (3)
230. (5)
231. (4)
236. (1)
237. (3)
242. (4)
243. (3)
248. (4)
249. (4)
115. (3)
121. (4)
127. (1)
133. (3)
139. (1)
145. (5)
151. (1)
157. (1)
163. (1)
169. (3)
175. (3)
181. (2)
187. (5)
193. (5)
199. (3)
205. (1)
116. (4)
122. (5)
128. (5)
134. (5)
140. (3)
146. (3)
152. (1)
158. (5)
164. (3)
170. (2)
176. (1)
182. (2)
188. (3)
194. (5)
200. (2)
117. (1)
123. (4)
129. (3)
135. (1)
141. (3)
147. (2)
153. (5)
159. (3)
165. (4)
171. (2)
177. (1)
183. (4)
189. (4)
195. (1)
201. (1)
118. (3)
124. (2)
130. (2)
136. (3)
142. (4)
148. (4)
154. (4)
160. (1)
166. (5)
172. (2)
178. (4)
184. (1)
190. (4)
196. (1)
202. (5)
208. (2)
214. (1)
220. (2)
226. (2)
232. (5)
238. (5)
244. (3)
250. (2)
209. (3)
215. (4)
221. (2)
227. (2)
233. (5)
239. (1)
245. (5)
210. (3)
216. (1)
222. (1)
228. (4)
234. (1)
240. (5)
246. (3)
211. (5)
217. (3)
223. (3)
229. (3)
235. (3)
241. (2)
247. (1)
46
IBPS PO 2012
Questions: 250
Max Time: 2 Hours 30 mins
Maximum Marks: 250

Negative Marks: 25%
Section I
(3) Step IV
(4) Step III
(5) There is not such step
Number of Questions: 50
2. Which word/number would be at 5th position
from the right in Step V?
Directions for questions 1 to 4: Study the following

information carefully and answer the given questions.
(1) 14
(4) best
A word and number arrangement machine when

given an input line of words and numbers rearranges
them following a particular rule in each step. The
following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits
numbers.)
(3) feet
3. How many elementws (words or numbers) are

there between feet and 32 as they appear in the
last step of the output?
(1) One
(4) Five
Input : tall 38 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56

barn
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56
barn alt
Step II : 28 13 talk 48 ruse 99 76 32 wise jar high 56
alt barn
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt
barn high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn
high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high
jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar
rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise
tall wise
(2) Three
(5) Seven
(3) Four
4. Which of the following represents the position of

why in the fourth step?
(1) Eight from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth form the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left
Directions for questions 5 to 11: Study the
following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the
desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out
in each of the following questions the appropriate
step for the given input.
Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain

68 92
(All the numbers are two digits numbers)
1. Which step number is the following output?

32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best
ink
(1) Step V
(2) 92
(5) why
(2) Step VI
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle

facing the center but not necessarily in the same
order.
B sits second to left of Hs husband. No female is
an immediate neighbor of B.
Ds daughter sits second to right of F. F is the
sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbor of Hs
husband.
Only one person sits between A and F. A is the
father of G. Hs brother D sits to the immediate
left of Hs mother. Only one person sits between
Hs mother and E.
Only one person sits between H and G. G is the
mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbor of E.
5. What is position of A with respect to his motherin-law?
(3) Ds mother-in-law
(4) A
(5) G
(1) Immediate left

(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left
Directions for questions 12 to 18: In each group of

questions below are two/three statements followed
by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two/three statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give Answer:
6. Who amongst the following is Ds daughter?

(1) B
(4) G
(2) C
(5) H
(3) E
7. What is the position of A with respect to his

grandchild?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1) Immediate right

(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left
12. Statements:
A. Some exams are tests.
B. No exam is a question
8. How many people sit between G and her uncle?

(1) One
(4) Four
If only conclusion I follows.

If only conclusion II follows.
If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
If either conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
If both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.
Conclusions:
I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.
(2) Two
(3) Three
(5) More than Four
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

was based on the given information and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G
13. Statements:
A. All forces are energies.
B. All energies are powers.
C. No power is heat.
Conclusions:
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is forces.
10. Which of the following is true with respect to the

given seating arrangement?
(1) C is the cousin of E
(2) H and Hs husband are immediate neighbor
of each other
(3) No female is an immediate neighbor of C
(4) H sits third to left of her daughter
(5) B is the mother of H
14. Statements:
A. All forces are energies.
B. All energies are powers.
C. No power is heat.
Conclusions:
I. No energy id heat
II. Some forces being that is a possibility.
11. Who sits to the immediate left of C?

(1) Fs grandmother
(2) Gs son
4
15. Statements:
A. No note is a coin.
B. Some coins are metals.
C. All plastics are notes.
(4) 61
20. Which of the following is true with respect to the

given information?
Conclusions:
I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.
(1) Ds score was definitely less than 60

(2) F scored the maximum marks
(3) Only two people scored more than C
(4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
(5) None is true
16. Statements:
A. No note is a coin.
B. Some coins are metals.
C. All plastics are notes.
21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13

marks more than Fs marks. Which of the
following can be Ds score?
Conclusions:
I. Not metal is plastic
II. All notes are plastic.
(1) 94
(4) 78
17. Statements:
A. Some symbols are figures.
B. All symbols are graphics.
C. No graphic is a picture.
(3) 89
Eight person form different viz, UCO bank, Syndicate

bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena bank, Oriental Bank of
Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are
sitting in two parallel rows containing four people
each, in such a way that there is an equal distance
between adjacent persons. In row 1, A, B, C and D
are seated and all of them are facing with south. In
row 2, P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are
facing north. Therefore, in the given seating
arrangement each member seated in a row faces
another member of the other row. (All the
information given above does not necessarily
represent the order of seating as in the final
arrangement)
18. Statements:
A. All vacancies are jobs.
B. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions:
I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies
possibility.
is

questions.
Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored

different marks in an examination. C scored more
than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not
score the least. The one who scored the third highest
marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.
19. Which of the following could possibly be Cs

score?
(2) 91
(2) 60
(5) 81

questions.
Conclusions:
I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.
(1) 70
(5) 81
(3) 86
5
C sits second to right of the person from Bank of

Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the
person from Bank of Maharashtra.
Only one person sits between R and the person
for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from
PNB faces the person from Canara bank.
The person from UCO bank faces the person from
Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P
does not face the person from Bank of
Maharashtra.
(2) Canara bank

(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Indian bank
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce
Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who

faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the
line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does
not face the person from Syndicate bank.
27. Four of the following five are alike In a certain

way based on the given seating arrangement and
thus from a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
22. Which of the following is true regarding A?

(1) The person from UCO bank faces A
(2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an
immediate neighbor of A
(3) A faces the person who sits second to right of
R
(4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
(1) Canara bank

(2) R
(3) Syndicate bank (4) Q
28. Who amongst the following is from Syndicate
bank?
23. Who is seated between R and the person from

PNB?
(1) C
(4) D
(1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce

(2) P
(3) Q
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) S
(2) R
(5) A
(3) P
29. C is from which of the following banks?

(1) Dena bank
(3) UCO Bank
(4) Syndicate bank
(5) Canara bank
24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of

the rows?
(1) D and the person from PNB
(2) The person from Indian bank of UCO bank
(3) The person from Dena bank and P
(4) The person from Syndicate bank and D
(5) C, Q
Directions for questions 30 to 34: Each of the

question below consists of a question and three
statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read all the three statements and give answer:
25. Who amongst the following faces the person

Bank of Maharashtra?
(1) If the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to

answer the question, while the data in statement
III are not required to answer the question
(2) If the data in statement I and III are sufficient to
(3) If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to
(4) If the data in either Statement I alone or
statement II alone or Statement III alone area
sufficient to answer the question.
(1) The person from Indian Bank

(2) P
(3) R
(4) The person from Syndicate bank
(5) The person from Canara Bank
26. P is related to Dena bank in the same way as B is
related to PNB based on the given arrangement.
To who amongst the following is D related to,
following the same pattern?
(1) Syndicate bank
6
(5) If the data in all statement I, II and III together

are necessary to answer the question.
33. How is One coded in the code language?

I. one of its kind is coded as zo pi ko fe and
in kind and cash is coded as ga to ru ko
II. its point for origin is coded as ba le fe mi
and make a point clear is coded as yu si
mi de
III. make money and cash is coded as tu mi
ru hy and money of various kind is coded
as qu ko zo hy.
30. Among six people P,Q,R,S,T and V each lives on a

different floor of a six storey building having six
floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is
numbered 1, the floor above it number 2 and so
on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who
lives on the topmost floor?
I. There is only one floor between the floors on
which R and Q live. P lives on an even
numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q
lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not
live on the topmost floor.
III. S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are
two floors between the floors on which S and
P live. T lives on a floor immediately above
Rs floor.
34. Are all the four friends viz, A, B, C and D who are
sitting around a circular table, facing the center?
I. B sits second to right of D. D faces the center.
C sits to immediate right of both B and D.
II. A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an
immediate neighbour of A. C sits to
immediate right of D.
III. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C.
B sits to the immediate left of A. C sits to the
immediate right of B.
31. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is

ANSWER the word formed after performing the
following operations using these six letters only?
Directions for question 35: Read the following

information carefully and answer the question which
follows.
I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not

placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or
right) to E. W is placed immediately next
(either left or right) to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to
S. The word does not begin with R. A is not
placed immediately next to W.
Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the

organic farming area of their farms would be
heavily fined.
35. Which of the following statement is an
assumption implicit in the given statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken
for granted)
32. Point D is in which direction with respect to point

B?
(1) Chemical fertilizers harm the crop.

(2) A farms area for organic and chemical
farming is different.
(3) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers
in the chemical farming area would be
penalized as well.
(4) All farmers undertake both these kinds of
farming (chemical as well as organic) in their
farms.
(5) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for
chemical farming.
I. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to

the north of Point B. Point D is 9m from Point
B.
II. Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is
4m from Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B.
III. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is
exactly midway between Points A and E.
IV. Point F is to the south of Point E. Point D is to
the west of Point F.
(C) Supermarkets helps the smaller brands to break

into
newer
markets
without
investing
substantially in distribution.
(D) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10%
higher than the amount charged to the bigger
brands.
(E) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands,
visibility of the smaller at local grocery stores is
much lower as compared to the supermarkets.
(F) Smaller brands are currently making substantial
losses in their business.
Directions for question 36: Read the following

information carefully and answer the question which
follows.
Small brands are now looking beyond local
grocery stores and are tying up with
Supermarkets such as Big Bazaar to pull their
business out of troubled waters.
36. Which of the following can be inferred from the
given information? (An inference is something
that is not directly states but can be inferred from
the given information)
37. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C),

(D), (E) and (F) can be assumed from the
facts/information given in the statement? (An
assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted)
(1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be

available at local grocery stores in the near
future.
(2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger
one in a supermarket set-up.
(3) There is a perception among small brands
that sale in a supermarket is higher than that
of small grocery stores.
(4) Supermarkets generate more revenue by
selling products of bigger brands as
compared to the smaller ones.
(5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups
with supermarkets as compared to small
grocery stores.
(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (B) and (C) (4) Both (D) and (E)
(5) Only (F)
(D), (E) and (F) represents a disadvantage of the
small grocery stores over the Supermarkets from
the perspective of a smaller brand?
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (E)
(4) Only (F)
(5) Both (B) and (C)
Directions for questions 37 to 40: Read the

following information carefully and answer the
question which follows.
39. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E)
mentioned above represents a reason for the
shift from local grocery stores to supermarkets
by the smaller brands?
Small brands are now looking beyond local

grocery stores and are tying up with
Supermarkets such as Big Bazaar to pull their
business out of troubled waters.
(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (D)
(4) Both (A) and (D)
(5) Both (C) and (E)
These questions are based on the information given

above and the sentences labeled (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
and (F), as given below.

(E) and (F) mentioned above should prove that
the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving
to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?
(A) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product

of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand,
makes much more profit from the local grocery
stores than from the supermarkets.
(B) As the Supermarkets have been set up only in
bigger cities at present, this step would fail to
deliver result in the smaller cities.
(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (E)
(4) Only (F)
(5) Both (B) and (E)
Directions for questions 41 to 45: In each of the

questions given below, which one of the five Answers
Figures on the right should come after the Problem
Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
44.
T
B
K
K
P
3 T
(i)
3 C
(ii)
(ii)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
(v)
(iv)
(iii)
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
PB
(3) (iii)
CS
S
S
S
B
A B0
(i)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
C 0A
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
S
B
C
T
(iii)
(iv)
C
T
(ii)
S
B
C
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
(v)
(3) (iii)
Directions for questions 46 to 50: In each of the

following questions below, the figures follow a
series/sequence (like Q. 41-45). One and Only one out
of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequences.
The number of that figure is your answer.
(v)
(iv)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
PA B
S T
S
T
(i)
BP A0
(iii)
(ii)
P
A
0 0
C A P 0 A B0
S PB
(3) (iii)
PB C
(v)
(iv)
45.
42.
AS
3 Z
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
P 0
3 C
(iii)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
(i)
41.
B3
(3) (iii)
46.
43.
N B
= =
BN
C SS
O C O
O S
C
B=
NN
S O
CN
S C
O
(i)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
(ii)
BB
NN
C
S OS
O S
C
S OS O
C C
B
(iii)
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
(iv)
BS O
C
NB
A
S
D
T
(i)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
(v)
(3) (iii)
(ii)
N
D
(iii)
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
(iv)
S
D
A
(v)
(3) (iii)
47.
(4) 2476
[(
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
(iv)
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
(5) None of these

)
(1) 143
(4)
(v)
(3) (iii)
(i)
S S
S S
(ii)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
(iii)
(iv)
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
(v)
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(5) None of these
(
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
(iii)
( )
(1) 37
(4) 28
(2) 33
(3) 34
(5) None of these
( )
( )
( )
(ii)
(3) (iii)
49.
(i)
(2)
(3) 134
(5) None of these
(1) 280.4
(4) 285.4
LL
53. (4444 40 ) + (645 25) + (3991 26) = ?
48.
SSS
)]
(iv)
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
(v)
( )
( )
Directions for questions 56 to 60: What

approximate value should come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following questions?
(Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact
value.)
(3) (iii)
50.
(1) 250
(4) 100
(i)
(1) (i)
(4) (iv)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(2) (ii)
(5) (v)
(2) 140
(5) 280
(3) 180
(v)
(3) (iii)
( )
(1) 48
(4) 18
(2) 38
(5) 58
(3) 28
(1) 4810
(4) 4930
(2) 4980
(5) 4850
(3) 4890
Section II
Directions for questions 51 to 55: What will come
in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions?
59. 23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?
51. 4003 77 21015 = ? 116

(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(1) 6460
(4) 6630
(3) 2467
10
(2) 6420
(5) 6360
(3) 6320
60. 335.01 244.99 55 = ?

(1) 1490
(4) 1590
(2) 1550
(5) 1400

following graph and table carefully and answer the
question given below.
(3) 1420
TIME TAKEN TO TRAVEL (IN HOURS) BY SIX

VEHICLES ON TWO DIFFERENT DAYS.
Directions for questions 61 to 65: In each of these

questions a number series is given. In each series
only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number.
TIME (IN HOURS )
20
61. 5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621

(1) 5531
(4) 5135
(2) 5425
(5) 5506
(3) 4621
62. 6 7 9 13 26 37 69
(1) 7
(4) 37
(2) 26
(5) 9
15
10
5
(3) 69
0
A
63. 1 3 10 36 152 760 4632

(1) 3
(4) 760
(2) 36
(5) 152
(2) 9
(5) 219
(2) 2
(5) 45
Day 2
DISTANCE COVERED (IN KILOMETERS) BY SIX

VEHICLES ON EACH DAY
Vehicle
A
B
C
D
E
F
(3) 34
65. 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(1) 1
(4) 157.5
C
Day 1
(3) 4632
64. 4 3 9 34 96 219 435

(1) 4
(4) 435
(3) 6
Day 1
832
516
693
552
935
703
Day 2
864
774
810
765
546
636
66. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the

same speed on both the days?
(1) Vehicles A
(3) Vehicles F
(5) None of these
(2) Vehicles C
(4) Vehicles B
67. What was the difference between the speed of

vehicles A on day 1 and the Speed of vehicle C on
the same day?
(1) 7 km/hr
(3) 11 km/hr
(5) None of these
11
(2) 12 km/hr
(4) 8 km/hr
68. What was the speed of vehicle C on day 2 in

terms of meters per second?
(1) 15.3
(4) 13.8
75. In how many different ways can the letters of the

word THERAPY be arranged so that the vowels
never come together?
(2) 12.8
(3) 11.5
(5) None of these
(1) 720
(4) 3600
69. The distance travelled by vehicle F on day 2 was

approximately what percent of the distance
travelled by it on day 1?
(1) 80
(4) 95
(2) 65
(5) 90
(3) 85
70. What is the respective ratio between the speeds

of vehicles D and vehicle E on day 2?
(1) 15 : 13
(4) 17 : 14
(2) 17 : 13
(3) 13 : 11
(5) None of these
71. An article was purchased for Rs. 78,350/- .Its

price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a
discount of 20% on the marked up price. What
was the profit percent on the cost price?
(1) 4
(4) 3
(2) 7
(5) 6
(3) 5
72. What X is subtracted from the numbers 9, 15 and

27, the remainders are in continued proportion.
What is the value of X?
(1) 8
(4) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(5) None of these
73. What is the difference between the simple and

compound interest on Rs. 7,300/- at the rate of 6
p.c.p.a. in 2 years?
(1) Rs. 29.37/(3) Rs. 31.41/(5) Rs. 21.34/-
(2) Rs. 26.28/(4) Rs. 23.22/-
74. Sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What

is 41% of the highest number?
(1) 301.51
(4) 306.35
(2) 303.15
(5) 309.55
(3) 308.73
12
(2) 1140
(5) 4800
(3) 5040
Directions for questions 76 to 80: Study the following pie-chart and table carefully and answer the question give
below :
PERCENTAGEWISE DISTRIBUTION OF THE NUMBER OF MOBILE PHONES SOLD BY A SHOPKEEPER DURING
SIX MONTHS
Total number of mobile phones sold = 45,000

November
December
12%
16%
October
8%
July
17%
September
25%
August
22%
many mobile phone of company A during that

month were sold without a discount?
The respective ratio between the number of

mobile phones sold of company A and company B
during six months
Months
Ratio
July
8:7
August
4:5
September
3:2
October
7:5
November
7:8
December
7:9
(1) 882
(4) 885
78. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of Rs. 433/- on

each mobile phone sold of company B during
October, what his total profit earned on the
mobile phones of that company during the same
month?
(1) Rs. 6,49,900/(3) Rs. 6,49,400/(5) None of these
76. What is the respective ratio between the number

of mobile phones sold of company B during July
and those sold during December of the same
company?
(1) 119 : 145
(3) 119 : 135
(5) None of these
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(5) None of these
(2) Rs. 6,45,900/(4) Rs. 6,49,500/-
79. The number of mobile phone sold of company A

during July is approximately what percent of the
number of mobile phones sold of company A
during December?
(2) 116 : 135

(4) 119 : 130
(1) 110
(4) 105
77. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by company A

during November were sold at a discount, how
13
(2) 140
(5) 130
(3) 150
80. What is the total number of mobile phones sold

of company B during August and September
together?
(1) 10,000
(4) 9,500
83. If the remaining area of the bank is to be carpeted

at the rate of Rs. 110/- per square meter, how
much will be the increment in the total cost of
renovation of bank premises?
(2) 15,000
(3) 10,500
(5) None of these
(1) Rs. 5,820/(3) Rs. 3,689/(5) None of these

following information and answer the questions that
follow:
84. What is the percentage area of the bank that is

not to be renovated?
The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The

renovation is in terms of flooring certain areas are to
be floored either with marble or wood. All
rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to
be renovated comprises of a hall for customer
transaction measuring 23m by 29m, branch
managers room measuring 13m by 17m, a pantry
measuring 14m by 13m, a record keeping cum server
room measuring 21m by 13m and locker area
measuring 29m by 21m. The total area of the bank is
2000 square meters. The cost of wooden flooring is
Rs. 170/- per square meter and the cost of marble
flooring is Rs. 190/- per square meter. The locker
area, record keeping cum server room and pantry are
to be floored with marble. The branch managers
room and the hall for customer transaction are to be
floored with wood. No other area is to be renovated
in terms of flooring.
(1) 2.2
(4) 4.4
(2) Rs. 2,30,206/(4) Rs. 2,42,440/-
86. A certain amount was to be distributed among A,

B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 respectively but was
erroneously distributed in the ratio 7 : 2 : 5
respectively. As a result of this, B got Rs. 40 less.
What is the amount?
(1) Rs. 210/(3) Rs. 230/(5) None of these
(2) Rs. 270/(4) Rs. 280/-
87. Rachita enters a shop to buy ice-creams, cookies

and pastries. She has to buy atleast 9 units of
each. She buys more cookies than ice-creams and
more pastries than cookies. She picks up a total of
32 items. How many cookies does she buy?
(2) 1887 : 2386

(4) 1829 : 2527
(1) Either 12 or 13
(3) Either 10 or 11
(5) Either 9 or 10
82. If the four walls and ceiling of the branch

managers room (The height of the room is 12
meters) are to be painted at the cost of Rs. 190/per square meter, how much will be the total cost
of renovation of the branch managers room
including the cost of flooring ?
(2) 2.4
(3) 4.2
(5) None of these
85. What is the total cost of renovation of the hall for

customer transaction and the locker area?
81. What is the respective ratio of the total cost of

wooden flooring to the total cost of marble
flooring?
(1) 1879 : 2527
(3) 1887 : 2527
(5) 1887 : 2351
(2) Rs. 4,848/(4) Rs. 6,890/-
(2) Either 11 or 12
(4) Either 9 or 11
88. The fare of a bus is Rs. X for the first five

kilometers and Rs. 13/-per kilometer thereafter.
If a passenger pays Rs. 2402/- for a journey of
187 kilometers, what is the value of X?
(1) Rs. 29/(2) Rs. 39/(3) Rs. 36/(4) Rs. 31/(5) None of these
(2) Rs. 2,16,660/(4) Rs. 2,11,940/-
14
94. Rs. 73,689/- are divided between A and B in the

ratio 4 : 7. What is the difference between thrice
the share of A and twice the share of B?
89. The product of three consecutive even numbers

is 4032. The product of the first and the third
number is 252. What is five times the second
number?
(1) 80
(4) 70
(2) 100
(5) 90
(1) Rs. 35,699/(3) Rs. 20,097/(5) Rs. 13,398/-
(3) 60
90. The sum of the ages of 4 members of a family 5

years ago was 94 years. Today, when the
daughter has been married off and replaced by a
daughter-in-law, the sum of their ages is 92.
Assuming that there has been no other change in
the family structure and all the people are alive,
what is the difference in the age of the daughter
and the daughter-in law?
(1) 22 years
(3) 25 years
(5) 15 years
95. A and B together can complete a task in 20 days.

B and C together can complete the same task in
30 days. A and C together can complete the same
task in 40 days. What is the respective ratio of the
number of days taken by A when completing the
same task alone to the number of days taken by C
when completing the same task alone?
(1) 2 : 5
(4) 1 : 5
(2) 11 years
(4) 19 years
( )
( )
( )
900
92. Akash scored 73 marks in subject A. He scored

56% marks in subject B and X marks in subject C.
Maximum marks in each subject were 150. The
overall percentage marks obtained by Akash in
all the three subjects together were 54%. How
many marks did he score in subject C?
(1) 84
(4) 73
(3) 3 : 7
THE GRAPH GIVEN BELOW REPRESENTS THE

PRODUCTION (IN TONNES) AND SALES (IN
TONNES) OF COMPANY A FROM 2006 2011.
PRODUCTION AND SALES (In Tonnes)
( )
(2) 2 : 7
(5) 3 : 5

following information and answer the questions that
follows.
91. A bag contains 13 white and 7 black balls. Two

balls are drawn at random. What is the
probability that they are of the same colour?
( )
(2) Rs. 46,893/(4) Rs. 26,796/-
(2) 86
(3) 79
(5) None of these
93. The area of the square is 1444 square meters.

The breadth of a rectangle is 1/4th the side of the
square and the length of the rectangle is thrice
the breadth. What is the difference between the
area of the square and the area of the rectangle?
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
Years
Production
(1) 1152.38 sq. mtr. (2) 1169.33 sq. mtr.

(3) 1181.21 sq. mtr. (4) 1173.25 sq. mtr.
(5) None of these
Sales
The table given below represents the respective ratio

of the production (in tonnes) of Company A to the
15
Section III
production (in tonnes) of Company B, and the

respective ratio of the sales (in tonnes) of Company A
to the sales (in tonnes) of Company B.
Year
2006
2007
2008
2009
2010
2011
Production
5:4
8:7
3:4
11 : 12
14 : 13
13 : 14
Sales
2:3
11 : 12
9 : 14
4 :5
10 : 9
1:1
101. A money deposited at a bank that cannot be

withdrawn for a preset fixed period of the time is
known as a _______.
(1) Term deposit
(2) Checking Account
(3) Savings Bank Deposit
(4) No Frills Account
(5) Current Deposit
96. What is the approximate percentage increase in

the production of Company A (in tonnes) from
the year 2009 to the production of Company A (in
tonnes) in the year 2010?
(1) 18
(4) 27
(2) 38
(5)32
102. A worldwide financial messaging network which

exchanges messages between banks and financial
institutions is known as _______.
(3)23
(1) CHAPS
(4) SFMS
97. The sales of Company A in the year 2009 was

approximately what percent of the production
of Company A in the same year?
(1) 65
(4) 83
(2) 73
(5) 69
(2) 649
(5) 618
(3) 79
(1) Ministry of Rural Development

(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(4) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(5) Ministry of Finance
(3) 675
99. What is the respective ratio of the total

production (in tonnes) of Company A to the total
sales (in tonnes) of Company A?
(1) 81 : 64
(4) 71 : 55
(2) 64 : 55
(5) 81 : 55
104. Which of the following was the issue over which

India decided to vote against Sri Lanka in the
meeting of one of the UN governed bodies /
agencies?
(3) 71 : 81
(1) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka.

(2) Allowing China to establish a military base in
India ocean.
(3) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in
the meeting of the WTO.
(4) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an
independent country governed by LTTE.
(5) Sri Lankas claim to become a permanent
member of UN Security Council.
100. What is the respective ratio of the production of

Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2006 to
production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year
2008?
(1) 2 : 5
(4) 3 : 5
(2) 4 : 5
(5) 1 : 4
(3) NEFT
103. Which of the following Ministries alongwith

Planning Commission of India has decided to set
up a Corpus Fund of Rs. 500 crore, so that Tribals
in Naxal-hit areas can be provided proper means
of livelihood?
98. What is the average production of Company B (in

tonnes) from the year 2006 to the year 2011?
(1) 574
(4) 593
(2) SWIFT
(5) CHIPS
(3) 3 : 4
16
105. The term Smart Money refers to _______.
(3) European Union (4) SAARC

(5) G-20
(1) Foreign Currency

(2) Internet Banking
(3) US Dollars
(4) Travelers cheques
(5) Credit Cards
110. As per newspaper report, India is planning to use

SEUas fuel in its 700 MW nuclear reactors being
developed in new plants. What is full form of
SEU as used here?
106. Which one of the following is not a Money

Market Instrument?
(1) Safe Electrical Units

(2) Small Electrical Units
(3) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(4) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(5) Safely Enriched Uranium
(1) Treasury Bills

(2) Commercial Paper
(3) Certificate of Deposit
(4) Equity Shares
(5) None of these
111. Technological Advancement in the resent times

has given a new dimension to banks, mainly to
which one of the following aspects?
107. Which one of the following is a retail banking

product?
(1) New Age Financial Derivatives

(2) Service Delivery Mechanism
(3) Any Banking
(4) Any Type Banking
(5) Multilevel Marketing
(1) Home Loans

(2) Working capital finance
(3) Corporate term loans
(4) Infrastructure financing
(5) Export Credit
112. When there is a difference between all receipts

and expenditure of the Govt. of India, both capital
and revenue, it is called _______.
108. Which of the following Statements is TRUE about

political situation in Mali, where a military coup
burst out recently?
(1) Revenue Deficit

(2) Budgetary Deficit
(3) Zero Budgeting
(4) Trade Gap
(5) Balance of payment problem
(1) General elections were due there in March /

April 2012 but did not take place.
(2) The country was under the control of US
army since last 18 months.
(3) Army of the country was not happy as
Amadou Toure was made President without
elections for the next five years.
(4) Coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure ,
the Military Chief got seriously injured in a
bomb blast.
(5) NATO and its associates had panned a coup
there.
113. Which of the following is NOT a function of the

Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Fiscal Policy Functions
(2) Exchange Control Functions
(3) Issuance, Exchange and destruction
currency notes
(4) Monetary Authority Functions
(5) Supervisory and Control Functions
109. In the summit of which of the following

organizations / group of Nations it was decided
that all members should enforce Budget
Discipline?
(1) G-8
of
114. Which of the following is NOT required for

opening a bank account?
(1) Identity Proof
(2) Address Proof
(2) OPEC
17
(3) Recent Photographs

(4) Domicile Certificate
(5) None of these
(1) It was carrying objectionable material.

(2) It was involved in sea piracy.
(3) It was detained as the crew killed two Indian
fishermen.
(4) The ship started sailing without making
payments of iron ore it loaded.
(5) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear
waste in deep sea.
115. The Golden Jubilee of Afro Asian Rural

Development organization was organized in
which of the following places in March 2012?
(1) Dhaka
(4) Kuala Lampur
(2) Tokyo
(5) New Delhi
(3) Cairo
121. Which of the following agencies / organizations

recently gave go ahead verdict to Indias one of
the most controversial project of Inter linking
rivers? (some of the rivers are international
rivers)
116. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by

DICGC?
(1) Rs. 2,00,000 per depositor per bank
(2) Rs. 2,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(3) Rs. 1,00,000 per depositor per bank
(4) Rs. 1,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(5) None of these
(1) UN Food and Agriculture Organisation

(2) World Meteorological Organisation
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) Central Water Commission
(5) Supreme Court of India
117. The present Foreign Trade Policy of India will

continue till _______.
122. Who among the following was the captain of the

Australian Team which played 4 Test matches
against India in January 2012 and won all of
them?
(1) December 2012 (2) March 2013

(3) March 2014
(4) June 2013
(5) December 2014
(1) Ricky Ponting

(2) Michael Clarke
(3) Nathan Lyon
(4) Stuart Clark
(5) Andrew Symonds
118. With reference to a cheque which of the following

is the drawee bank?
(1) The bank that collects the cheque
(2) The payees bank
(3) The endorsees bank
(4) The endorsers bank
(5) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn
123. The committee on review of National Small

Saving Fund (NSSF) was headed by _______.
(1) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(2) Mr. U. K. Sinha
(3) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(4) Mrs. Shyamala Gopinath
(5) Dr. Usha Thorat
119. In which of the following fund transfer

mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank
to another and where the transaction is settled
instantly without being bunched with any other
transaction?
(1) RTGS
(4) EFT
(2) NEFT
(5) MT
124. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the

business of _______.
(3) TT
(1) All scheduled commercial banks excluding

RRBs
(2) All scheduled commercial banks including
RRBs
(3) Only Public Sector Banks
(4) All Banking Companies
120. What was the reasons owing to which Enrica

Lexie, an Italian ship was detained by the port
Authorities in Kerala and was brought to Cochin
port for inspection and search?
18
(5) All scheduled commercial banks except

private banks
130. As per the provisions in the Food Security Bill

2011, per month how much food grain should be
given to each person of the target group?
125. The 5th Asian Indoor Athletics Championship was

organized in February 2012 in _______.
(1) Bangladesh
(4) China
(1) 5 kg
(4) 10 kg
(2) India
(3) Qatar
(5) South Korea
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1) Provision of adequate credit for agriculture,

SME and Export
(2) Removal of control by a few capitalists
(3) Provision of credit to big industries only
(4) Access of banking to masses
(5) Encouragement of a new class of
enterpreneurs
Prevention of Corruption Act

Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act
Sharda Act
Right to Education Act
MG National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act
132. Which of the following states has launched Panch

Parmeswar Yojana under which panchayats are
allowed to use the fund for developing
infrastructure and basic amenities in villages?
127. Who among the following was the Chief Guest at

the three-day Pravasi Bharatiya Divas function
held in January 2012?
(1) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Gujarat
(5) Tamil Nadu
(1) Kamla Persad Bissessar

(2) Ram Baran Yadav
(3) Lakshmi Mittal
(4) Salman Rushdie
(5) Benjamini Netanyahu
(2) Maharashtra
(4) Madhya Pradesh
133. Base Rate is the rate below which no Bank can

allow their lending to anyone. Who sets up this
Base Rate for Banks?
128. Which of the following banks is headed by a

women CEO _______
(1) Individual Banks Boards

(2) Ministry of Commerce
(3) Ministry of Finance
(4) RBI
(5) Interest Rate Commission of India
(1) Bank of Baroda

(2) HDFC Bank
(3) Central Bank of India
(4) Punjab National Bank
(5) ICICI Bank
134. National Table Tennis Championship

organized in January 2012 in _______.
129. As per revised RBI Guidelines, Provision on

secured portion of loan accounts classified as
Doubtful Assests for than one year and upto 3
(three) years is to be made at the rate of _______.
(2) 20%
(5) 30%
(3) 9 kg
131. Which of the following acts in vogue in India is

against the thinking of raising school fee as per
demand of the market forces?
126. Nationalization of banks aimed at all of the

following except _______.
(1) 15%
(4) 25%
(2) 7 kg
(5) 20 kg
(1) Mumbai
(3) Hyderabad
(5) Jaipur
(3) 40%
was
(2) Delhi
(4) Lucknow
135. Who among the following is the author of the

book Nirbasan?
(1) Mahashweta Devi
(2) Taslima Nasreen
19
(3) Sunil Gangopadhyay

(4) Vikram Seth
(5) Kiran Desai
(3) Non performing Asset

(4) Out of order accounts
(5) Overdrawn accounts
136. What is a Debit Card?
141. Axis Bank is a _______.
(1) It is a card issued by a Rating Agency

(2) It is a card which can be used for
withdrawing cash or making payment even
in the absence of any balance in the account
(3) It is a card which can be used for
withdrawing cash or making payment if
there is balance in the account
(4) It is a card which carries prepaid balance
(5) It is a card which can be used for making STD
calls
(1) Public Sector Bank

(2) Private Sector Bank
(3) Co-operative Bank
(4) Foreign Bank
(5) Gramin Bank
142. By increasing repo rate, the economy may
observe the following effects: _______.
(1) Rate of interest on loans and advances will be
costlier
(2) Industrial output would be affected to an
extent
(3) Banks will increase rate of interest on
deposits
(4) Industry houses may borrow money from
foreign countries
(5) All of these
137. Who among the following Indian Lawn Tennis

player won a Doubles of Australian open 2012?
(1) Mahesh Bhupati
(2) Kamlesh Mehta
(3) Leander Paes
(4) Sania Mirza
(5) Achanta Sarath Kamal
143. Increased interest rates, as is existing in the

economy at present will _______.
138. Akula 11 Class K 152 Nerpa was inducted in

Indian Navy recently. These are _______.
(1) Lead to higher GDP growth

(2) Lead to lower GDP growth
(3) Mean higher cost of raw materials
(4) Mean lower cost of raw materials
(5) Mean higher wage bill
(1) Aircrafts
(2) Radar System
(3) Submarines Missiles
(4) Warship
(5) Submarines
144. Which of the following schemes is launched to

provide pension to people in unorganized sectors
in India?
139. Which of the following awards was conferred

upon Late Mario De Miranda (Posthumously) in
January 2012?
(1) Swabhiman
(3) Jeevan Kalyan
(5) Swavalamban
(1) Padma Vibhushan

(2) Bharat Ratna
(3) Kalidas Samman
(4) Saraswati Samman
(5) Padmashri
(2) Jeevan Dhara

(4) ASHA
145. The 10th Basic Ministerial Meeting on Climate

Change was organized in February 2012 in
_______.
140. Bad advances of a bank are called _______.
(1) Tokyo
(4) Moscow
(1) Bad debt

(2) Book debt
20
(2) Beijing
(5) New Delhi
(3) Manila
146. Finance Ministry has asked the Reserve Bank of

India to allow common ATMs that will be owned
and managed by non-banking entities hoping to
cut transaction cost for banks. Such ATMs are
known as _______.
(2) File an appeal before the Finance Minister

(3) File an appeal before the Banking
Ombudsman again
(4) File an appeal before the Dy. Governor RBI
(5) Simply close the matter as going to court
involves time and money
(1) Black Label ATMs

(2) Offsite ATMs
(3) on site ATMs or Red ATMs
(4) third party ATMs
(5) White Label ATMs
Section IV
151. _______ allows users to upload files to an online
site so they can be viewed and edited from
another location.
147. Which of the following schemes of the Govt. of

India has provided electricity to 99000 villages
and total 1.7 crore household uptill now?
(1) General purpose applications

(2) Microsoft Outlook
(3) Web hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of these
(1) Kutir Jyoti

(2) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(3) Bharat Nirman
(4) PURA
(5) SEWA
152. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins

so that the text is centered vertically on the
printed page?
148. Ranbir Kapoor was awarded Best Actor Award in

57th Filmfare Award Function for his
performance in _______.
(1) Vertical justifying

(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering
(1) No One Killed Jessica

(2) Stanley ka Dabba
(3) 7 Khoon Maaf
(4) Rockstar
(5) Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara
153. Which of these is not a means of personal

communication on the Internet?
149. An ECS transaction gets bounced and you are

unable to recover your money from your
customer.
Under which Act criminal action can be initiated?
(1) Chat
(2) Instant messaging
(3) Instanotes
(4) Electronic mail
(5) None of these
(1) Indian Penal Code

(2) Negotiable Instruments Act
(3) Criminal Precedure Code
(4) Payment and Settlement Act
(5) Indian Contract Act
154. What is the overall term for creating, editing,

formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text
document?
150. Mr. Rajendra had filed a complaint with Banking

Ombudsman but is not satisfied with the decision.
What is the next option before him for getting his
matter resolved?
(1) Word processing

(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation
(1) Write to the CMD of the Bank

21
155. Fourth generation mobile technology provides

enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of
both _______ data, including full-motion video,
high-speed
Internet
access,
and
videoconferencing.
(1) documentation (2) output

(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) Directory
161. Forms that are used to organize business data
into rows and columns are called _______.
(1) Video data and information

(2) Voice and non voice
(3) Music and video
(4) Video and audio
(5) None of these
(1) transaction sheets

(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet spreads
(5) spreadsheets
156. _______ is a form of denial of service attack in

which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN
packets to every port on the server using fake IP
addresses.
162. In Power Point, the Header & Footer button can

be found on the Insert tab in what group?
(1) Illustration sheets
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group
(5) None of these
(1) Cyber gaming crime

(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flooding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of these
163. A (n) _______ is a set of programs designed to

manage the resources of a computer, including
starting the computer, managing programs,
managing memory, and coordinating tasks
between input and output devices.
157. Which of these is a point and device?

(1) mouse
(4) CD-ROM
(2) scanner
(5) keyboard
(3) printer
158. The letter and number of the intersecting column

and row is the _______.
(1) cell location
(3) cell address
(5) cell contents
(1) application suite

(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)
(2) cell position

(4) cell coordinates
164. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not

include _______.
159. A set of rules for telling the computer what

operations to perform is called a _______.
(1) photo image charts, and graphs

(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
(4) full motion video
(5) content templates
(1) Procedural language

(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language
165. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data

organized in rows and columns is called a _______.
160. A detailed written description of the

programming cycle and the program, along with
the test results and a printout of the program is
called _______.
(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
22
(4) database record manager

(5) EDI creator
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after

the g in gross, then type the word and
followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor
before the g in gross, then type the word and
followed by a space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor
after the g in gross, then type the word and
followed by a space
(5) None of these
166. In the absence of parentheses, the order of

operation is _______.
(1) Exponentiation, addition or subtraction,
multiplication or division
(2) Addition or subtraction, multiplication or
division, exponentiation
(3) Multiplication or division, exponentiation,
addition or subtraction
(4) Exponentiation, multiplication or division,
addition or subtraction
(5) Addition or subtraction, exponentiation,
multiplication or division
171. A program, either talk or music, that is made

available in digital format for automatic
download over the internet is called a _______.
(1) wiki
(4) blog
167. To find the Paste Special option, you use the

Clipboard group on the _______ tab of Power Point.
(1) Design
(3) Page Layout
(5) Home
(3) vodcast
172. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the

presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for
rearranging slides?
(2) Slide show

(4) Insert
(1) Slide Sorter

(3) Slide Master
(5) Slide Design
168. A (n) _______ is one that is ready to run and does

not need to be altered in any way.
(1) interpreter
(3) compiler
(5) executable
(2) broadcast
(5) podcast
(2) Slide Show

(4) Notes Page
173. Different components on the motherboard of a

PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel
electrical conducting lines. What are these lines
called?
(2) high level

(4) COBOL
169. Usually downloaded into folders that hold

temporary Internet files, _______ are written to
your computers hard disk by some of the
websites you visit.
(1) Conductors
(3) Connectors
(5) None of these
(2) Buses
(4) Consecutives
174. What is the name given to those applications that

combine text, sound, graphics, motion video,
and/ or animation?
(1) anonymous files (2) behavior files

(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies
(1) motion ware

(3) videoscapes
(5) maxomedia
170. What is the easiest way to change the phrase,

revenues, profits, gross margin, to read revenues,
profits, and gross margin?
(2) anigraphics
(4) multimedia
175. A USB communication device that supports data

encryption for secure wireless communication
for notebook users is called a _______.
(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor

before the g in gross, then type the word and
followed by a space
(1) USB wireless network adapter

(2) wireless switch
23
181. _______ a document means the file is transferred

from another computer to your computer
(3) wireless hub

(4) router
(5) None of these
(1) Uploading
(2) Really Simply Syndication (RSS)
(3) Accessing
(4) Downloading
(5) Upgrading
176. A (n) _______ language reflects the way people

thick mathematically
(1) cross platform programming
(2) 3GL business programming
(3) event driven programming
(4) functional
(5) None of these
182. Which computer memory is used for storing

programs and data currently being processed by
the CPU?
(1) Mass memory
(2) Internal Memory
(3) Non volatile memory
(4) PROM
(5) None of these
177. When entering text within a document, the Enter

key is normally pressed at the end of every _______
(1) Line
(3) Paragraph
(5) file
(2) Sentence
(4) word
183. Computers that control processes accept data in a

continuous _______.
178. When a real time telephone call between

people is made over the Internet using
computers, it is called _______.
(1) data traffic pattern

(2) data highway
(3) infinite loop
(4) feedback loop
(5) slot
(1) a chat session

(2) an e-mail
(3) an instant message
(4) Internet telephony
(5) None of these
184. What refers to a set of characters of a particular

design?
179. Which of the following is the first step in sizing a

window?
(1) keyface
(3) calligraph
(5) typeface
(1) Point to the title bar

(2) Pull down the View menu to display the
toolbar
(3) Point to any corner or border
(4) Pull down the View menu and change to
large icons
(5) None of these
(2) formation
(4) stencil
185. _______ is used by public and private enterprise to

publish and share financial information with each
other and industry analysts across all computer
platforms and the Internet.
(1) Extensible Markup Language (EML)
(2) Extensible Business Reporting Language
(XBRL)
(3) Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
(4) Sales Force Automation (SFA) software
(5) None of these
180. Which of the following software could assist

someone who cannot use their hands for
computer input?
(1) Video conferencing
(2) Speech recognition
(3) Audio digitizer
(4) Synthesizer
(5) None of these
24
186. Which part of the computer is used for

calculating and comparing?
(1) ALU
(3) Disk Unit
(5) None of these
191. Your business has contracted with

company to have them host and
application for your company over the
The company providing this service
business is called an _______.
(2) Control Unit

(4) Modem
another
run an
Internet.
to your
(1) Internet service provider

(2) Internet access provider
(3) Application service provider
(4) Application access provider
(5)Outsource agency
187. The method of Internet access that requires a

phone line, but offers faster access speeds than
dialup is the _______ connection.
(1) cable access
(2) satellite access
(3) fiberoptic service
(4) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
(5) modem
192. A (n) _______ allows you to access your e-mail from

anywhere.
(1) Forum
(3) Message Board
(5) None of these
188. _______ software creates a mirror image of the

entire hard disk, including the operating system,
applications, files, and data.
(2) Webmail interface

(4) Weblog
193. Which of the following would you find on

LinkedIn?
(1) Operating system

(2) Backup software
(3) Utility programs
(4) Driver imaging
(5) None of these
(1) Games
(4) Applications
(2) Connections (3) Chat

(5) None of these
194. _______ is a technique that is used to send more

than one call over a single line.
189. What is a URL?
(1) Digital transmission

(2) Infrared transmission
(3) Digitizing
(4) Streaming
(5) Multiplexing
(1) a computer software program

(2) a type of programming object
(3) the address of a document or page on the
World Wide Web
(4) an acronym for unlimited Resources for
Learning
(5) a piece of hardware
195. The Search Companion can _______.

(1) Locate all files containing a specified phrase
(2) Restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(3) Locate all files containing a specified phrase
and restrict its search to a specified set of
folders
(4) Cannot locate all files containing a specified
phrase or restrict its search to a specified set
of folders
(5) None of these
190. What is the significance of a faded (dimmed)

command in a pull down menu?
(1) The command is not currently accessible
(2) A dialog box appears if the command is
selected.
(3) A Help window appears if the command is
selected.
(4) There are no equivalent keystrokes for the
particular command
(5) none of these
25
Section V
196. Which of the following cannot be part of an email

address?
(1) Period (.)
(3) Space ( )
(5) None of these
(2) At sign (@)

(4) Underscore (_)
Directions for questions 201 to 215: Read the

following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been
printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
197. Which of the following must be contained in URL?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
a protocol identifier
the letters, www.
The unique registered domain name
www. and the unique registered domain
name
(5) a protocol identifier, www. and the unique
registered domain name
When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The

problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you
tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011
was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday
forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So lets try
a contrarians forecast instead.
Lets start with the global economy. We have seen a
steady flow of good news from the US. The employment
situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer
sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on
discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has
picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post
better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5 1.8
percent being forecast currently.
198. Which of the following information systems

focuses on making manufacturing processes
more efficient and of higher quality?
(1) Computer aided manufacturing
(2) Computer integrated manufacturing
(3) Computer aided software engineering
(4) Computer aided system engineering
(5) None of these
Japan is likely to pull out a recession in 2012 as post

earthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum
and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay
off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a
respectable 2 percent for 2012.
199. A mistake in an algorithm that causes incorrect

results is called a _______.
(1) logical error
(2) syntax error
(3) procedural error (4) compiler error
(5) machine error
The hard landing scenario for China remains and

will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further
from the 9 percent that it expected to clock in 2011 but
is unlikely to drop below 8 8.5 percent in 2012.
Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps
already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post
mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion had
dwindled over the last few months-peripheral
economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new
governments in place and have made progress towards
genuine economic reform.
200. A device for changing the connection on a

connector to a different configuration is _______.
(1) a converter
(2) a component
(3) an attachment
(4) an adapter
(5) Voltmeter
Even with some of these positive factors in place, we

have to accept the fact that global growth in 2012 will
be tepid. But there is flipside to this. Softer growth
means lower demand for commodities and this is likely
to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower
26
commodity inflation will enable emerging market

central banks to reverse their monestary stance. China,
for instance, has already reversed its stance and has
pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised
for a reversal in its rate cycles as headline inflation
seems well on its way to its target of 7 percent for
March 2012.
voting rights for institutional shareholders in banks,

FDI in retail etc. These can have an impact only at the
margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease
the FIIs through these reforms they will invest in our
markets when momentum picks up and will be the first
to exit when the momentum flags, reforms or not.
The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually
raise our sustainable long term growth rate. These
have to come in areas like better targeting of subsidies,
making projects in infrastructure viable so that they
draw capital, raising the productivity of agriculture,
improving healthcare and education, bringing the
parallel economy under the tax net, implementing
fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct
tax code and finally easing the myriad rules and
regulations that make doing business in India such a
nightmare. A number of these thing do not require new
legislation and can be done through executive order.
That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend

in commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions,
particularly the continuing face off between Iran and
the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make
sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of
buying oil in the spot market.
As inflation fears abate and emerging market central
banks begin to cut rates, two things could happen.
Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest
rate and better credit availability. This could set a floor
to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within
these economics. Second, as the fear of untamed,
runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global
investors comfort levels with their markets will
increase.
201. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to

the passage?
(1) Chinas economic growth may decline in the
year 2012 as compared to the year 2011
(2) The European economy is not doing very
well
(3) Greece is on the verge of bringing about
economic reforms
(4) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive
growth and thus pull out of recession
(5) All are true
Which of the emerging markets will outperform and

will get left behind? In an environment in which global
growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that
have a powerful domestic consumption dynamic should
lead, those dependent on exports should, prima facie,
fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange
rate could not have come at a better time. It will help
Indian exporters gain market share even if global trade
remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to
massive import substitution that favours domestic
producers.
202. Which of the following will possibly be a result of

softer growth estimated for the year 2012?
(A) Prices of oil will not increase.
(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.
Lets now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is

important not to confuse a short run cyclical dip with
a permanent de rating of its long term structural
potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can
be in the range of 7 10 percent depending on policy
action. Ten percent if we get everything right, 7 percent
if we get it all wrong. Which policy and reforms are
critical to taking us to our 10 percent potential? In
judging this, lets again be careful. Lets not go by the
laundry list of reforms that FLLs like to wave : increase
in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater
(1) Only (B)

(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (A) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
27
203. Which of the following can be said about the

present status of the US economy?
206. Why does the author not recommend taking up

the reforms suggested by FIIs?
(1) There is not much improvement in the

economic scenario of the country from the
year 2011.
(2) The growth in the economy of the country, in
the year 2012, would definitely be lesser
than 1.8 percent.
(3) The expenditure on clothes and electronic
commodities, by consumers, is lesser than
that in the year 2011.
(4) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy
would do better than what has been forecast.
(5) The pace of change in the employment
scenario of the country is very slow.
(1) These will bring about only minor growth

(2) The reforms suggested will have no effect on
the economy of our country, whereas will
benefit the FIIs significantly
(3) The previous such recommendations had
backfired
(4) These reforms will be the sole reason for our
countrys economic downfall
(5) The reforms suggested by them are not to be
trusted as they will not bring about any
positive growth in India.
207. Which of the following is TRUE as per the
scenario presented in the passage?
204. Which of the following is possibility the most

appropriate title for the passage?
(1) The highest growth rate that India can expect

is 7 percent
(2) The fall in exchange rate will prove beneficial
to India
(3) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by FIIs
would benefit India tremendously
(4) The reforms suggested by the author require
new legislation in India
(5) None is true.
(1) The Economic Disorder

(2) Indian Economy Versus The European
Economy
(3) Global Trade
(4) The Current Economic Scenario
(5) Characteristics of The Indian Economy
205. According to the author, which of the following
would characterise Indian growth scenario in
2012?
208. According to the author, which of the following

reforms is/are needed to ensure long term
growth in India?
(A) Domestic procedures will take a hit because

of depressed global trade scenario.
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption,
India will lead.
(C) Indian exports will have a hard time in
gaining market share.
(A) Improving healthcare and educational

facilities.
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation.
(C) Improving agricultural productivity.
(1) Only (B)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
(1) Only (B)

(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
28
Directions for questions 209 to 212: Choose the

word/group which is most similar in meaning to the
word/group of word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Directions for questions 216 to 220: Rearrange the

following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph,
then answer the questions given below them.
209. DRAW
(A) If China is the worlds factory, India has become

the worlds outsourcing center keeping in line
with this image.
(B) But Indias future depends crucially on its ability
to compete fully in the Creative Economy not
just in tech and software, but across design and
entrepreneurship;
arts
culture
and
entertainment; and the knowledge based
professions of medicine, finance and law.
(C) While its creative assets outstrip those of other
emerging competitors, India must address
several challenges to increase its international
competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a
sweeping transformation.
(D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the
world is moving from an industrial economy to a
Creative Economy that generates wealth by
harnessing intellectural labour, intangible goods
and human creative capabilities.
(E) Its software industry is the worlds second
largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more
than half of the $ 300 billion global industry,
according to a technology expert.
(F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any
indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic
rock star.
(1) entice
(4) attract
(2) push
(5) persuade
(3) decoy
(2) achieve
(5) regulate
(3) time
(2) gear
(5) retreat
(3) hurl
210. CLOCK
(1) watch
(4) second
211. ABATE
(1) rise
(4) lessen
212. EMERGING
(1) raising
(3) noticeable
(5) uproaring
(2) developing
(4) conspicuous
Directions for questions 213 to 215: Choose the

word/group which is most opposite in meaning to the
word/group of word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
213. MYRIAD
(1) trivial
(4) effortless
(2) difficult
(5) countless
(3) few
(2) high
(5) little
(3) warm
216. Which of the following should be the SIXTH

(LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
214. TEPID
(1) moderate
(4) irregular
(1) A
(4) D
(3) C
217. Which of the following should be the THIRD

sentence after the rearrangement?
215. MYTH
(1) reality
(3) contrast
(5) falsehood
(2) B
(5) E
(2) belief
(4) idealism
(1) A
(4) D
(2) B
(5) E
(3) C
218. Which of the following should be the FIFTH

(1) A
(4) F
29
(2) B
(5) E
(3) C
224. Medical teachers said that the management had

continued to remain _______ to their cause leading
to the stretching of their strike.
219. Which of the following should be the FIRST

(1) F
(4) A
(2) B
(5) E
(3) C
220. Which of the following should be the SECOND

(1) A
(4) D
(2) B
(5) F
(3) C
Directions for questions 221 to 225: The following

questions consist of a single sentence with one blank
only. You are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E
and F as answer choices and from the six choices you
have to pick two correct answers, either of which will
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(B) Time
(E) Since
(1) (B) and (E)

(3) (A) and (F)
(5) (C) and (E)
(2) (A) and (C)

(4) (B) and (D)
(C) Later
(F) Seconds
(B) move
(E) early
(1) (D) and (F)

(3) (C) and (F)
(5) (B) and (D)
(2) (A) and (C)

(4) (D) and (E)
(B) mistakenly
(D) miserably
(F) purportedly
(1) (C) and (F)

(3) (C) and (E)
(5) (A) and (C)
(2) (A) and (E)

(4) (D) and (F)
(2) (C) and (F)

(4) (A) and (D)
(A) void
(D) stay
(B) quash
(E) lift
(1) (A) and (D)

(3) (C) and (E)
(5) (C) and (D)
(2) (B) and (C)

(4) (E) and (F)
(C) annul
(F) post
226. The Government has asked individuals (1)/ with

income of over Rs. 10 lakh to (2)/ electronic file
tax return for the year 2011 2012, (3)/
something which was optional till last year.(4)/
No error (5)
(C) hasten
(F) quicken
227. The power tariff has already (1)/ been increased

twice in (2)/ the last 15 months and the
Electricity Board has also (3)/ levied additional
monthly charges to consumers. (4)/ No error (5)
223. A senior citizens son _______ threatened her every

day and physically harmed her, forcing her to
transfer her property to him.
(A) superficially
(C) allegedly
(E) doubtfully
(1) (B) and (C)

(3) (A) and (E)
(5) (D) and (E)
Directions for questions 226 to 235: Read each

sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any).
222. The States should take steps to _______ the process

of teachers appointments as the Center has
already sanctioned six lakh posts.
(A) fasten
(D) speed
(B) lethargic
(D) apathetic
(F) bored
225. The parents had approached the high court to

_______ the government order after their children,
who passed UKG, were denied admission by a
school.
221. _______ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday

night, India Gate was swamped with people
wearing black tee shirts and holding candles.
(A) Minutes
(D) Quickly
(A) unmoved
(C) unconcerned
(E) indifferent
228. Despite of curfew (1)/ in some areas, minor (2)/

communal incidents were reported (3)/ from
different areas of the walled city. (4)/ No error
(5)
30
229. This comes (1)/ at a time (2)/ when fund

allocation (3)/ is been doubled.(4)/ No error (5)
237. While the war of the generals rage on,

somewhere in small town India, wonderful things
are happening, quietly and minus fanfare.
230. As the prison will get (1)/ an official telephone

facility soon, the prisoners (2)/ wont have to
make calls in discreet manner (3)/ manner
through smuggled mobile phones.(4)/ No error
(5)
(1) rage
(2) raging
(3) rages on
(4) raged on
(5) No correction required
238. According to WWF, the small island nation of
Samoa was the first in switch off its lights for
Earth Hour.
231. The area was plunged into (1)/ darkness mid a

wave of (2)/ cheering and shouting (3)/ slogans
like Save The Earth.(4)/ No error (5)
(1) first to switch of

(2) the first to switch off
(3) the first of switch off
(4) first in switch of
232. The poll contestants approached (1)/ the

commission complaining that the hoardings (2)/
violated the code of conduct (3)/ and influenced
public perception.(4)/ No error (5)
239. The campaign is significant because not just the

youths are directly appealing to the world but
because their efforts challenge the Chimera of
normalcy in the area.
233. The country has (1)/ adequate laws but problems

(2)/ arise when these are not (3)/ implemented
in letter and spirit. (4)/ No error (5)
234. The Management feels that (1)/ the employees of
the organization are (2)/ non productive, and
do not want (3)/ to work hard. (4)/ No error (5)
(1) not just because (2) just not because

(3) not just
(4) because just
235. As far issue of land encroachment (1)/ in villages

in concerned, people will (2)/ have to make a
start from their villages by (3)/ sensitising and
educating the villagers about this issue. (4)/ No
error (5)
240. The doctors association has threatened to go on

indefinite strike support of their teachers.
(1) on supporting to
(2) to supporting
(3) for support
(4) in support of
Directions for questions 236 to 240: Which of the

phases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence
should replace the phrase printed in bold to make the
sentence grammatically correct, if the sentence is
correct, as it is given and No correction required
mark (5) as the answer.
Directions for questions 241 to 250: In the following

passage, there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested,
one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
236. US secretary of state made it clear that time

running out for diplomacy over Irans nuclear
programme and said that talks aimed at
preventing Tehran from acquiring an nuclear
weapon would resume in April.
Greenhouse gases are only (241) of the story when it

comes to global warming. Changes to one part of the
climate system can (242) additional changes to the
way the planet absorbs or reflects energy. These
secondary changes are (243) climate feedbacks, and
they could more than double the amount of warming
(1) runs out

(2) was running out
(3) ran out
(4) run
31
caused by carbon dioxide alone. The primary

feedbacks are (244) to snow and ice, water vapour,
clouds and the carbon cycle.
248.
Perhaps the most well (245) feedback comes from

melting snow and ice in the Northern Hemisphere.
Warming temperatures are already (246) a growing
percentage of Artic sea ice, exposing dark ocean water
during the (247) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on
land is also (248) in many areas. In the (249) of snow
and ice, these areas go from having right, sunlight
reflecting surfaces that cool the planet to having dark,
sunlightabsorbing surfaces that (250) more energy
into the Earth system and cause more warming.
(2) part
(4) issue
(1) raise
(4) stop
(2) brings
(5) cause
(3) refer
(1) sensed
(4) but
(2) called
(5) term
(3) nothing
(1) due
(4) those
(2) results
(5) because
(3) reason
(1) done
(4) bestowed
(2) known
(5) said
(3) ruled
(1) mastering
(4) calming
(2) sending
(5) increasing
(3) melting
(1) makeshift
(3) troubled
(5) absent
(2) ceasing
(4) perpetual
(2) manufactured
(4) generating
(1) progress
(3) existence
(5) absence
(2) reduced
(4) midst
(1) repel
(4) bring
(2) waft
(5) access
249.
250.
241.
(1) whole
(3) material
(5) most
(1) dwindling
(3) descending
(5) supplied
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
32
(3) monitor
Solution Key
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
5
4
2
3
4
3
1
3
2
5
1
4
2
1
5
4
5
2
1
5
1
2
5
4
1
4
4
3
5
5
1
2
5
4
2
3
3
3
4
4
2
1
4
3
2
3
4
5
1
1
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
4
1
2
5
2
3
2
3
5
1
1
2
4
4
1
4
3
5
5
2
1
5
2
5
4
5
3
4
1
1
3
5
5
2
1
1
3
3
1
1
4
2
4
5
4
4
2
3
5
3
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150
1
2
1
1
5
4
2
4
3
3
2
2
1
4
5
3
3
4
1
3
5
2
4
2
4
3
1
5
3
2
4
4
1
4
2
3
3
5
1
1
2
5
2
5
5
5
1
4
4
3
151
152
153
154
155
156
157
158
159
160
161
162
163
164
165
166
167
168
169
170
171
172
173
174
175
176
177
178
179
180
181
182
183
184
185
186
187
188
189
190
191
192
193
194
195
196
197
198
199
200
4
5
3
1
1
3
1
3
5
1
5
3
5
5
1
4
5
5
5
1
5
1
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
2
4
2
4
5
2
1
4
2
3
1
3
2
3
5
3
3
5
1
1
4
201
202
203
204
205
206
207
208
209
210
211
212
213
214
215
216
217
218
219
220
221
222
223
224
225
226
227
228
229
230
231
232
233
234
235
236
237
238
239
240
241
242
243
244
245
246
247
248
249
250
3
5
4
4
2
1
2
5
4
2
4
2
3
2
1
4
5
3
1
2
3
3
1
5
2
3
4
1
4
1
2
5
3
5
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
5
2
1
2
3
4
1
5
4
33
IBPS Bank
PO/MT CWE - III
Based on Memory
Held on : 26.10.2013
REASONING
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
are sitting around a circular table. A and B
are facing towards the centre while other six
people are facing opposite to the centre. A is
sitting second to the right of H. B sits third to
the left of A. D sits second to the right of G.
G is immediate neighbour of neither B nor A.
E and F are immediate neighbours and are
facing outside.
1.
What is the position of C with respect to D?

1) Third to the right 2) Third to the left
3) Fourth to the left 4) Fourth to the right
5) Second to the left
2.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of G?

1) C
3) F
5) None of these
3.
Which of the following pairs represents the

people who are immediate neighbours of C?
1) B and G
3) G and H
5) None of these
4.
2) B and H
4) D and G
Who is sitting third to the left of G?

1) A
3) E
5) Either E or F
5.
2) D
4) H
2) D
4) F
How many people are there between B and

D?
1) Two
3) Three
5) None
2) Four
4) One
Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Following are conditions for selecting Human

Resources (HR) Manager in a company.
The candidate must
(i)
have secured at least 55 percent marks

in the Entrance Examination
(ii) have a Graduate Degree with at least

60 percent marks
(iii) have a Post Graduate Degree / Diploma
in the Human Resources Management
/ Management
(iv) be less than 30 years of age as on
01.09.2013
(v) have secured at least 55 percent marks
in the Higher Secondary School Examination.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all
other conditions.
Except
(a) at (i) above, but has secured 65 percent
marks in the final semester in the Management and 45 percent marks in the
Entrance Examination, will be recruited
as Head HR.
(b) at (ii) above, but has post qualification
work experience of one year in a company and has 50 percent marks in the
Higher Secondary School Examination
will be recruited as CEO of the Company.
In each question below are given details of
one candidate. You have to take one of the
following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and
sub-conditions given above and mark the appropriate course of action as your answer.
You are not to assume anything other than
the information provided in each question. All
these cases are given to you as on 01.09.2013.
6.
Shiva Kumar Kamath was born on August

13, 1987 and he has complete his Post Graduate in the Human Resources Management.
He has secured 65 percent marks in the Entrance Examination and 60 percent in the
Higher Secondary School Examination. He
has completed his Graduation with 62 percent marks.
1) can be recruited as Head HR of the company
2) can be recruited as Manager HR of the
company
3) Data and inadequate to take a decision
4) can be recruited as CEO of the company
5) cannot be recruited in the company
7.

company
10.
Rahil Khan is a Post Graduate in the Business Management System. He was born on
April 9, 1988. He has secured 64 percent
marks in Graduation and 70 percent marks in
the Higher Secondary School Examination.

company

company
8.
Nakul Bhatnagar was born on May 17, 1985

and is a Post Graduate in Business Management System. He has secured 71 percent
marks in the final semester and 50 percent
marks in the Entrance Examination. He has
secured 60 percent marks in the Higher Secondary School Examination. He has completed
Graduation with 63 percent marks.
company
9.
Manohar Tambe, a Graduate with 58 percent

marks, was born on March 3, 1984. He has a
Diploma in the Human Resources Management. He has been working in a company for
the past two years and has 60 percent marks
in the Higher Secondary School Examination.
He secured 60 percent marks in the Entrance
Examination.
Swati Shinde was born on January 1, 1986.

She has work experience of five years in
Human Resources Team of Law. She has secured 60 percent marks in the Higher Secondary School Examination and 65 percent
marks in the Entrance Examination. She has
secured 58 percent marks in the Graduation.
She has completed her Diploma in Management with distinction.
Directions (11-15): In each of the question below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I,
II, III and IV. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which
of the four given conclusions logically
follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts and select the
appropriate answer.
11.
Statements:
Some numbers are digits.
All digits are alphabets.
No alphabet is a vowel.
All consonants are vowels
Conclusions:
I.
No digits is a vowel.
II.
No alphabet is a consonant.
III. No vowel is a number.

IV. All vowels are numbers.
1) Only I and III follow
2) Only II and IV follow
2
3) Only I and II follow

4) Only I, II and III follow
5) Only I, II and either III or IV follow
12.
III. No profession is a work.

IV. At least some works are professions.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Statements:
All documents are files.
Some files are papers.
All papers are certificates.
No certificate is a manuscript.
Conclusions:
I.
At least some documents are papers.
II.
No manuscript is a document.
III. At least some certificates are files.

IV. No paper is a document.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
13.
Only I, II and IV follow

Only II and III follow
Only I and IV follow
Only III follow
None of these
Statements:
No group is people.
All people are animals.
All animals are plants.
All plants are roots.
Conclusions:
I.
No group is a plant.
II.
All people are plants.
III. At least some groups are plants.

IV. All plants are groups.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
14.
Only II follows
Only II and III follow
Only III and IV follow
None of these
Statements:
Some jobs are vacancies.
All jobs are works.
No work is a trade.
All professions are trades.
Conclusions:
I.
At least some works are jobs.
II.
No vacancy is a trade.
15.
All I, II, III and IV follow

Only II, III and IV follow
None follows
Only I and III follow
Statements:
All marks are grades.
No grade is a score.
All letters are scores.
All scores are characters.
Conclusions:
I.
At least some letters are grades.
II.
At least some scores are grades.
III. At least some characters are marks.

IV. Some characters are letters.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Only II and IV follow

Only IV follows
Only I and III follow
All I, II, III and IV follow
None follows
Directions (16-20): Study the following

information carefully and answer the
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are
having different hobbies, viz., Travelling, Reading, Dancing, Painting, Sculpting, Singing and
Pottery making, but not necessarily in the
same order. Each of them belong to different
State, viz., Punjab, Odisha, Kerala, Rajasthan,
Maharastra, Gujarat and Karnataka, but not
necessarily in the same order. A belongs to
Maharastra. D likes pottery making. The person who likes sculpting is from the State of
Odisha. The person who likes dancing is from
the State of Gujarat. F does not belong to
Gujarat, Odisha, Punjab or Rajasthan. F does
not like singing, reading or painting. B does
not belong to Kerala, Odisha, Punjab or
Rajasthan. B does not like painting, travelling, reading or singing. C does not like sculpting and he is not from Rajasthan or Punjab.
Neither D nor G belongs to Punjab. A does
not like reading. The person from Kerala likes
singing.
16.
17.
18.
Who among the following likes singing?
Step V
1) A
2) C
3) E
4) G
93 44 34 11 night pace 27 joy

day easy
Step VI
93 44 34 11 night pace 27 day

easy joy
Which one of the following combinations is

true according to the given information?
Step VII :
93 44 34 27 11 night pace day

easy joy
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Step VIII :
93 44 34 27 11 pace day easy

joy night
Step IX
93 44 34 27 11 day easy joy

night pace
A - Travelling - Maharastra
C - Dancing - Gujarat
E - Reading - Karnataka
D - Pottery Making - Rajasthan
All are true
And Step IX is the last step of the rearrangement as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per rules followed in the above steps, find
out in each of the questions the appropriate
step for the given input.
Who among the following belongs to the State

of Karnataka?
1) B
2) D
3) F
4) E
19.
20.
Input for the questions:
Which of the following combinations is true

about G?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Sculpting - Odisha
Pottery Making - Karnataka
Dancing - Gujarat
Singing - Kerala
Travelling - Karnataka
class 25 war 15 race 73 heap 58 just 88

take 38
21.
2) Sculpting
4) Pottery making
22.
Input
11 day 34 night 93 pace 27 easy

44 joy
Step I
93 11 day 34 night pace 27 easy

44 joy
Step II
93 11 34 night pace 27 easy 44

joy day
Step III
93 44 11 34 night pace 27 easy

joy day
Step IV
93 44 11 34 night pace 27 joy

day easy
Seventh from the left end

Eighth from the right end
Fifth from the left end
Fifth from the right end
Sixth from the left end
Which of the following is the ninth from the

right in Step VI?
1) race
3) war
5) 15
Directions (21- 25): Study the following

information carefully and answer the
A word and number arrangement machine
when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and various steps rearrangement.
(All the numbers are two digit numbers).
What is the position of war in the Step VII?

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
The person who belongs to Punjab, likes

1) Travelling
3) Painting
5) Reading
23.
What is the position of 15 in the Step IX?

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
24.
Seventh from the left end

Eighth from the left end
Fifth from the right end
Seventh from the right end
Eighth from the right end
How many Steps are required to complete

this arrangement?
1) Eleven
3) Ten
5) None of these
25.
2) 25
4) 58
2) Twelve
4) Nine
Which of the following represents the Step

X?
1) 88 73 58 38 25 war 15 race take class
heap just
2) 88 73 58 38 25 15 class heap just race
take war
4
3) 88 73 58 38 25 15 war class heap just race

take
4) 88 73 58 38 25 15 war take class heap just
race
5) There is no such Step
28.
O $ B, B @ S, S # E, E R
Conclusions
I.
Directions (26-30): In the following ques-
tions, the symbols , #, @,

and $ are
used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
29.
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor

smaller then Q.
N, S $ N, S
30.
III. S
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
27.
II. S
IV.W A
31.
Conclusions
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
P, P $ I, P @ T
P#D
II.
II.
CD
IV.
T#A
Only I, III and IV are true

Only I, II and IV are true
Only I, II and III are true
All I, II, III and IV are true
P$T
IV. I D

Only III is true
Only III and IV are true
Only II, III and IV are true
Statements
A@U
II.
III. R U
IV.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
D # E, E T, T @ C, C # A
III. A
Statements
I.

Only II, III and IV are true
None is true
None of these
D#A

Only III is true
Conclusions
Statements
I.
B#E
U @ N, N $ F, F $ A, A
W, W R
Conclusions
I. R $ A
IV.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Statements
A
III. B # R
III. T $ S
26.
I.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the conclusions given below them
are definitely true?
II.
D S, S
P
Q means P is neither smaller than or
equal to Q.
SO
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

P # Q means P is neither greater than nor
equal to Q.
Statements
R
UA
N
Only II is true
Only I, II and IV are true
Only II and either I or IV are true
How many 3-digit number can be formed

using the 4th, 7th and 9th digits of the number
937862541 each of which is completely divisible by 7?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
32.
Point R is 10 metres north of point A. Point K

is exactly in the middle of the points R and A.
Point N is 7 metres east of point A. Point M
is 7 metres east of point K. Point S is 6 metres
north of point M. What is the distance between points S and N?
1) 13 metres
3) 11 metres
2) 16 metres
4) 12 metres
5
5) None of these
33.
In a certain code language the word COSTLY

is written as WORVMF and the word
PRAISE is written as CVGDPS. How will
the word SOCCER be written in that code
language?
1) PHAFMV
3) PGAENU
5) None of these
34.
Six people A, B, C, D, E and F live on six

different floors of a building. The ground floor
is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered
2 and so on. C lives on the floor immediate
below the floor of A. E lives on the floor immediate below the floor of D. Three people
live between the floors of F and E. B does
not live on the topmost floor. A does not live
on any of the floors below than D. E and F
live on the even numbered floors. Who lives
on 5th numbered floor?
1) A
2) C
A certain amount was distributed among six

people A, B, C, D, E and F. B received
more than only A. F received more than B. F
received less than C. E received more than
C but he did not get the highest amount. Who
among the following received less amount than
C?
2) A, B
4) A, B, F
Directions (39-40): Each of the questions

below consists of a question and three
statements numbered I, II and III given
below it. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
39.
Who is the daughter in law of B?

I.
I is the brother of D. S is the wife of Js

nephew.
II.
R is the brother of N. T is the son of N.

S is the mother of T.
III. B is the wife of D. D is the father of N.

D has two children.
1) Only I and III
2) All I, II and III are required to answer the
question
3) Only II and III
4) Questions cannot be answered even with
all I, II and III
5) Only I and II
2) N
4) M
2) TQMP
4) TPOS
4) F
1) A, F
3) B, F
5) None of these
2) not
4) he
In a certain code language DHIE is written

as WSRV and AEFB is written as ZVUY.
How will GKLH be written in that code language?
1) SQNR
3) TRDO
5) None of these
37.
2) BJWQRA
4) AKXPSB
Eight people M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T

are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre but not necessarily in the same order.
N sits second to the left of M. Three people
are sitting between N and S. P is the immediate neighbour of S. R and N are not immediate neighbours. O sits second to the left of P.
Only three people sit between R and O. Who
among the following is sitting third to the right
of R?
1) Q
3) T
5) O
36.
38.
In a certain code language he was not absent is written as ja si fe ra; absent case
was not is written as ga fa je ra and no
one was absent is written as da ge ra fe.
What does si stands for?
1) was
3) one
5) case
35.
3) D
5) B
40.
How many students are there in the class?

I.
There are more than 22 but less than 36

students in the class.
II.
If students of the class are divided into

groups each group has exactly 11 students.
III. There are more than 29 but less than 45

student in the class.
1) Only II and III
2) Only II and either I or III are required to
answer the question
3) Only II and III
4) All I, II and III are required to answer the
question
5) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question

41.
Many sociologists have argued that there is a

functional relationship between education and
economic systems. They point to the fact that
mass formal education began in industrial society and is an established part of all industrial societies.
3) The rate of enrolment in the College XYZ

has come down in the recent years
4) Majority of the institutes have contradicted
the finding of the magazine Pulse
5) None of these
44.
Which of the following inferences can be

drawn from the above statements?
1) Formal education has suffered a setback
due to industrial society
2) Industrial society is responsible for expansion of education of the mass level
3) Formal education can be traced to industrial society.
4) Industrial society changed the pattern of
education
5) None of these
42.
Statements: A country X has no national gun

act. There is no firearm control and licensing
mechanism in the country. The general public is free to acquire gun. The people require
arms for their safety. This has ultimately increased the crime rate considerably in the
country.
Which of the following can be concluded

from the facts given in the statements?
1) This could lead to chaos and confusion in
the world.
2) Person can know how long life is left and
he could live his life happily
3) The new wrist watch has altered the life
pattern of the people
4) The statements implies that death is certain
5) None of these
45.
Should the gun or firearm not be licensed?

1) It is not necessary to license the gun or
fire arm.
2) The gun or fire arm act is opposed by the
people of country
3) The Government should make all necessary arrangement to enact fire arm act.
4) Many countries in the world have no fire
arm act.
5) None of these
43.
Statements: The United States based FMCG

Company has developed a new deodorant.
The company selected a media person couple
for its promotion and marketing. They marketed it through television, radio, print, hoarding and social media.
Which of the assumptions is implicit in the
above statements?
(An assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted)
1) People do not pay heed to the advertisements and buy such goods which are available easily
2) Marketing through electronic media has
not proved to be very effective
3) People want to see film stars and famous
sports personality in the advertisement of
an FBCG product
4) Some people may tend to buy the deodorant of the United States based FMCG
company
5) None of these
Statement: According to a survey conducted

by a magazine Pulse, College XYZ ranked
best among all the MBA institutes in the country.
Which of the following statements substantiates the fact expressed in the above statement?
1) A large number of students of College
XYZ find better placement after completing their course.
2) There are many institutes which have better infrastructure than the College XYZ
Statements: There are several types of wrist

watches in the world. A new type of digital
wrist watch has been introduced in the market which can calculate the life span of a person. The wrist watch stops when the person
dies.
46.
Statement: The luxury car manufacturer

Phantom has increased the price of its stunning, fastest Limousine Cr by about 45 percent.
7
Which of the following can be a best possible reason for the above step taken by car
manufacturer?
a candidate
5) None of these
49.
1) The government is planning to review

taxes on the raw materials for manufacturing cars
2) The car sales market is going through a
jubilant phase as the volume of sales has
picked up considerably in the recent past.
3) The Limousine car is the best in its segment and no other car is posting any challenge to this car
4) Car buyers prefer to buy Limousine car
as it provides efficient service after sale.
5) None of these
47.
Statement: Experts define the social entrepreneurship as such that pursues opportunities to serve the mission to give solutions to
social problems. Business entrepreneurs typically measure performance in profit and return.
Which of the following can be concluded
from the above statements?
1) It is possible to address social problems
while making business profitable.
2) Social entrepreneurship is different from
the business entrepreneurship
3) Business entrepreneurship does not care
social problems while devising their business policy.
4) Business entrepreneurship is more important than social entrepreneurship
5) None of these
48.
Statement: A first past the post electron is

one that is won by the candidate with more
votes than others. Highest vote, majority vote
and plurality voting system use a first past
the post voting method but there are subtitle
differences in the method of execution. Which
of the following can be the best reason for
the assertion made in the above statement?
1) It is not possible to execute the plurality
voting system
2) The plurality voting system uses very complex procedure so it is not a practical approach
3) A system which is simple gets wide acceptance
4) The method is not so important in electing
Statement: According to a survey innumerable diseases and unhealthy habits from the
recent pandemic to cancer, AIDS and obesity have plagued the mankind.
Which of the following may be the most plausible cause of the situation given in the above
statements?
1) The lifestyle and food habits of people are
responsible for this state
2) Environmental degradation has led to the
present situation
3) The people remain ignorant above their
health
4) Technological advancement and fast pace
of life are contributing to the spread of diseases
5) None of these
50.
Statements: The X Finance company has

launched a new tractor loan scheme. It has
brought prosperity among the farmers.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the above statements?
(An assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted)
1) The prosperity of farmers solely depends
upon the tractor loan scheme
2) Tractor is an important input for farmers
to enhance the farm activities
3) Earlier there was no tractor loan scheme
for farmers
4) Farmers do not prefer to take loans for
buying tractors
5) None of these
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (51-60): Read the following
passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have
been printed in bold to help you locate
Following the end of the Second World War,
the United Kingdom enjoyed a long period
without a major recession (from 1945 - 1973)
and a rapid growth in prosperity in the 1959s
8
and 1960s. According to the OECD, the annual rate of growth (percentage change) between 1960 and 1973 averaged 2.9%, although
this figure was far behind the rates of other
European countries such as France, West
Germany and Italy.
However, following the 1973 oil crisis and the
1973-1974 stock market crash, the British
economy fell into recession and the government of Edward Heath was ousted by the
Labour Party under Harold Wilson. Wilson
formed a minority government on 4 March
1974 after the general election on 28 February ended in a hung parliament. Wilson subsequently secured a three seat majority in a
second election in October that year.
The UK recorded weaker growth than many
other European nations in the 1970s; even
after the early 1970s recession ended, the
economy was still blighted by rising unemployment and double-digit inflation.
In 1976, the UK was forced to request a loan
of $ 2.3 billion from the International Monetary Fund. The then Chancellor of the Exchequer Denis Healey was required to implement public spending cuts and other economic
reforms in order to secure the loan. Following the Winter of Discontent, the government
of James Callaghan lost a vote of no confidence. This triggered the May 1979 general
electron which resulted in Margaret
Thatchers Conservative Party forming a new
government.
level since the early 1990s, although still far

lower than some other European nations.
However, interest rates have reduced to 0.5
% pa. During August 2008 the IMF warned
that the UK economic outlook had worsened
due to a twin shock : financial turmoil and
rising commodity prices. Both developments
harm the UK more than most developed countries, as the UK obtains revenue from exporting financial services while recording deficits
in finished goods and commodities, including
food. In 2007, the UK had the worlds third
largest current account deficit, due mainly to
a large deficit in manufactured goods. During May 2008, the IMF advised the UK government to broaden the scope of fiscal policy
to promote external balance. Although the
UKs labour productivity per person employed has been progressing well over the
last two decades and has overtaken productivity in Germany, it still lags around 20% behind France, where workers have a 35 hour
working week. the UKs labour productivity
per hour worked is currently on a par with
the average for the old EU (15 countries).
In 2010, the United Kingdom ranked 26th on
the Human Development Index.
During the 1980s most state-owned enterprises were privatised, taxes cut and markets
deregulated. GDP fell 5.9 % initially but
growth subsequently returned and rose to 5%
at its peak in 1988, one of the highest rates of
any European nation.
The UK entered a recession in Q2 of 2008,

according to the Office for National Statics
and exited it in Q4 of 2009. The subsequently
revised ONS figures show that the UK suffered six consecutive quarters of negative
growth, making it the longest recession since
records began. As of the end of Q4 2009,
revised statistics from the Office for National
Statistics demonstrate that the UK economy
shrank by 7.2% from peak to trough. The Blue
Book 2013 confirms that UK growth in Q2
of 2013 was 0.7 %, and that the volume of
output of GDP remains 3.2% below its prerecession peak; The UK economys recovery has thus been more lackluster than previously thought. Furthermore The Blue Book
2013 demonstrates that the UK experienced
a deeper initial downturn than all of the G7
economies save for Japan, and has experienced a slower recovery than all but Italy.
The UK economy had been one of the strongest economies in terms of inflation, interest
rates and unemployment, all of which remained relatively low until the 2008-09 recession. Unemployment has since reached a peak
of just under 2.5 million (7.8 %), the highest
A report released by the Office of National

Statistics on 14 May 2013 revealed that over
the six-year period between 2005 and 2011,
the UK dropped from 5th place to 12th place
in terms of household income on an international scale the drop was partially attrib-
A new period of neo-liberal economics began in 1979 with the election of Margaret
Thatcher who won the general election on 3
May that year to return the Conservative Party
to government after five years of Labour government.
uted to the devaluation of sterling over this

time frame. However, the report also concluded that, during this period, inflation was
relatively less volatile, the UK labour market was more resilient in comparison to other
recessions, and household spending and
wealth in the UK remained relatively strong
in comparison with other OECD countries.
According to a report by Moodys Corporation, Britains debt-to-GDP ratio continues to
increase in 2013 and is expected to reach 93%
at the end of the year. The UK has lost its
triple. A credit rating on the basis of poor economic outlook. 2013 Economic Growth has
surprised many Economists, Ministers and the
OBR in the 2013 budget projected annual
growth of just 0.6 %. In 2013 Q1 the economy
grew by 0.4 % Q2 the economy grew by 0.7
% and Q3 the economy is predicted to have
grown at 0.8%.
51.
2) 1976
4) 1982
2) 2.34%
4) 5.9%
54.
56.
A report of Office of National Statistics revealed that between 2005 and 2011, the UK
dropped from 5th place to 12th place in terms
of
According to a report by Moddys, Britains

debt to GDP ratio is expected to reach ____
at the end of 2013.
2) 80 percent
93 percent
In 2007, the United Kingdom had the worlds

third largest current account deficit due mainly
to large deficit in
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
manufactured goods
high inflation
agricultural produces
exports
imports
Directions (57-58): In the following questions, choose the word/group of words

which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to
the word / group of words printed in
BOLD as used in the passage.
57.
Broaden
1) narrow
3) scatter
5) broadcast
58.
2) widen
4) brittle
on a par
1) up to a scratch
3) equal to
5) on the contrary
During August 2008, International Monetary

Fund warned that the United Kingdom economic outlook had worsened due to a twin
shock. What were the twin shocks?
1) Financial turmoil and decreasing commodity prices
2) Financial turmoil and rising commodity
prices
3) Increasing exports and decreasing imports
4) Low industrial growth and increasing imports
5) None of these
exports on an international scale

imports on an international scale
household income on an international scale
agricultural productivity
None of these
1) 90 percent
3) 87.3 percent4)
5) None of these
According to the OECD, the annual rate of

growth of United Kingdoms economy between 1960 and 1973 averaged.
1) 2.9%
3) 2.87%
5) None of these
53.
55.
A new period of neo-liberal economics began in United Kingdom with the election of
Margaret Thatcher after five years of Labour
government. Margaret Thatcher came in
power in
1) 1980
3) 1979
5) None of these
52.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
2) of same value
4) in contrast
Directions (59-60): In the following questions, choose the word/group of words

which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning
to the word/group of words printed in
BOLD as used in the passage.
59.
Volatile
1) stable
3) sincere
5) buxom
60.
2) unstable
4) voracious
Reveal
1) bring out
3) concede
5) confer
2) concentrate
4) conceal
10
Directions (61-65): Read each sentence

to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will
be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is
no error, the answer is (5). i.e., No error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if
any.)
61.
62.
These companies have been asked (1) / to

furnish their financial details (2) / and information about (3) / its board members. (4) /
No error (5)
The scheme which will be launched (1) / during the next two years (2) / require an additional investment (3) / of one hundred crores.
(4) / No error (5)
63.
Road developers unable (1) / to complete their

projects (2) / on time will not be (3) / awarded
new ones. (4) / No error (5)
64.
We have taken on (1) / the responsibility of

(2) / arranging the required training (3) / and
supervise the new staff. (4) / No error (5)
65.
The government has signed (1) / a memorandum of understanding with (2) / the company
to set up (3) / a plant in the state. (4) / No
error (5)
Directions (66-70): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and
(F) to make a meaningful paragraph and
answer the questions which follow.
(A) However while reading they would not
know when to pause and what to emphasize.
(B) Since then their use has been regularized and the punctuation rules have been
followed by all.
(C) In earlier days, people learnt by reading
out loud.
(D) But not every day used the same punctuations for the same thing.
(E) To address this problem, various signs
depicting various punctuations were introduced.
(F) Thus firmer guidelines regarding punctuations were framed so that everyone
used them in similar way.
66.
Which of the following sentences should be

the SECOND after rearrangement?
1) A
3) D
5) F
67.

the THIRD after rearrangement?
1) A
3) D
5) C
68.
2) C
4) E

the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?
1) C
3) D
5) F
70.
2) E
4) F

the FIFTH after rearrangement?
1) B
3) A
5) F
69.
2) B
4) E
2) E
4) B

the FIRST after rearrangement?
1) A
3) C
5) E
2) B
4) D

passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words /
phrases have been printed in BOLD to
help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
The great recession hasnt been great for free
trade. An unemployment has risen throughout the world, governments have become
more focused on protecting their own industries than on promoting international commerce. The U.S., though typically an enthusiastic supporter of open markets, in duded
buy American clauses in its stimulus package and propped up its failing auto industry
with handouts.
But according to the Asian Development Bank
(ADB), in the part of the world that was hit
hardest by the trade crash-Asia, the number
of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) signed
by Asian countries has grown from just three
in 2000 to 56 by the end of August 2009. Nineteen of those FTAs are among 16 Asian
economies, a trend that could help the region
become a powerful trading bloc.
11
The drive to lower trade barriers has taken

on fresh urgency amid the recession. As
Asian manufacturing networks become more
intertwined and as Asian consumers become wealthier regional commerce is becoming critical to future economic expansions. Intraregional trade last year made up
57% of total Asian trade, up from 37% in 1980.
In the past Asia produced for America
and Europe, now Asia is producing for
Asia.
of course, Asia is still dependent on sales to
the West. But FTAs could reduce the regions
exposure to the United States by giving Asian
companies preferential treatment in selling to
Asian companies and consumers. There benefits could come with downsides, however.
According to experts, FTAs create a nonlevel playing field with advantages for Asian
countries. If the most dynamically growing
part of the global economy gives the U.S. restricted access it will impact global balance.
Companies in countries like the United States
left out of the trade pacts could face disadvantages when trying to tap fast-growing
Asian markets. This, in turn, could have a
negative impact on efforts to rebalance excessive debt in the U.S. and excessive savings in Asia. Still, the benefits of greater regional integration could prove powerful enough
to overcome the roadblocks. In Asia, the only
thing everyone agrees upon is business. If it
does, the world economy may never be the
same.
71.
73.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the

context of the passage?
(A) Political and economic rivalries between
Asian countries are not-existent today.
(B) Asian countries hold America responsible for the recession and have imposed
economic sanctions against the U.S.
(C) America has adopted a protectionist
strategy after the recession.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (B) 4) Only (C)
5) None of these
74.
Which of the following describes expert predictions about trade pacts between Asian
countries?
1) These will be beneficial and are likely to
give rise to a common Asian currency
2) Tariffs will be lowered and bureaucratic
regulations will become transparent
3) Widening of differences between participant and non-participant countries will
hamper global stability
4) Regional conflicts will increase as competition and inequities between Asian nations will intensify.
5) They are likely to be short-lived as it will
be difficult to get participating nations to
arrive at a consensus
What do the Asian Development Bank statistics indicate?

1) Asian economies are financially more
sound than those of the developed world.
2) The financial crisis impacted the West far
more than it did Asia.
3) Asian countries have aligned themselves
on lines similar to the European Union.
4) Western countries are skeptical about
trading with developing countries.
5) Asian countries have been actively opening their markets to one another.
72.
owing to Americas protectionist policy.

3) The aim of empowering the poorer Asian
economies and bring them on par with
Western economies
4) The desire to achieve conditions conductive to global consensus on trade regulations and tariffs
5) Widespread panic in Europe and Asia as
Asian economies are yet to recover from
the recession
75.
Which of the following has/have NOT been

(an) impact (s) of the recession?
(A) Various trade agreements signed between developed and Asian countries
have not been honoured.
What has given rise to the large number of

trade agreements between Asian countries?
(B) The U.S. government has restructured

the automobile industry.
1) The need to insulate Asian economies from

overexposure to the American economy
2) Angry reaction among Asian countries
(C) Regional conflicts in Asia have substantially reduced

12
1) Only (C)
2) Only (A)
3) Only (A) and (B) 4) All (A), (B) and (C)
5) None of these
76.
According to the author what danger does

creating an Asian trading bloc pose?
1) Political instability in Asia will rise as some
countries are wealthier than others
2) American consumers have ceased their
demand for Asian goods
3) Unemployment in Asian countries will rise
as many plants will be forced to close
down
4) it will alter the balance of power in the
World with small Asian countries becoming most dominant.
5) None of these
77.
What is the author trying to convey through

the phrase In the past Asia produced for
America and Europe, now Asia is producing for Asia?
1) The number of wealthy consumers in Asia
out number those in America and Europe
together
2) Asian countries do not support free trade
and continue to trade among themselves
despite the recession
3) Goods manufactured in Asian countries
often fail to meet the standards set by developed countries
4) Asian countries no longer export to Western markets alone and now cater to Asian
markets as well
5) Interregional trade barriers between Europe and Asia have weakened considerably.
78.
Which of the following is most opposite in

meaning to the word CRITICAL as used
in the passage?
1) Unimportant
3) Approval
5) Steady
79.
Which of the following is most similar in

meaning to the word FRESH as used in
the passage?
1) Additional
3) Original
5) Modern
80.
2) Complimentary
4) Sale
2) Renewed
4) Healthy
Which of the following can be said about the
American economy in the context of the passage?

(A) Most American companies have opted
to withdraw from Asia.
(B) Americas stand on free trade has altered because of the recession.
(C) The American economy is far too dependent on Asia for trade.
1)
3)
4)
5)
Only (A)
2) Only (B)
Only (C)
All (A), (B) and (C)
None of these
Directions (81-90): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against
each, five words are suggested. One of
which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word to each case.
Indian culture is rich and (81) and as a result
unique in its very own way. Our manners, way
of communicating with one another etc. are
one of the important components of our culture. Even though we have accepted modern
means of living, improved our lifestyle, our
values and beliefs still remain unchanged. A
person can change his way of clothing, way
of eating and living out the rich values in a
person always (82) unchanged because they
are deeply rooted within our hearts, mind, body
and soul which we receive from our culture.
Indian culture (83) guests as god and serves
them and takes care of them as if they are a
part and parcel of the family itself. even
though we dont have anything to eat, the
guests are never left hungry and are always
looked after by the members of the family.
Elders and the respect for elders is a major
component in Indian culture. Elders are the
(84) force for any family and hence the love
and respect for elders comes from (85) and
is not artificial. An (86) takes blessings from
his elders by touching their feet. Elders drill
and pass on the Indian culture within us as
we grow.
Respect one another is another lesson that
is taught from the books of Indian culture. All
people are alike and respecting one another
is ones duty. In foreign countries the relation
(87) the boss and the employee is like a (88)
13
and slave and is purely monetary whereas in

Indian culture the relation between the boss
and the employee is more like homely relations unlike foreign countries.
QUANTITIVE APTITUDE
information carefully to answer the questions given below.
Helpful nature is another (89) feature in our

Indian culture. Right from our early days of
childhood we are taught to help one another
(90) help and distress. If not monetary then
at least in kind or non-monetary ways. Indian
culture tells us to multiply and distribute joy
and happiness and share sadness and pain. It
tells us that by all this we can develop cooperation and better living amongst ourselves
and subsequently make this world a better
place to live in.
In a college, 150 students of MBA are

enrolled. The ratio of boys and girls is 7 : 8
respectively. There are three disciplines
namely marketing. HR and finance in the
college. In marketing discipline there are 50%
girls of their total number and the boys are
40% of their total number. In HR discipline,
girls are 30% of their total number. Finance
discipline has girls, 20% of their total number
and boys 30% of their total number. 7 boys
and 9 girls are in HR and marketing both. 6
boys and 7 girls are in HR and finance both.
5 boys and 8 girls are in marketing and finance
both. 2 boys and 3 girls are enrolled in all three
disciplines.
Even though India is a country of various religions and caste our culture tells us just one
thing phir bhi dil hai Hindustani.
81.
1) diverse
3) poor
5) reverse
2) averse
4) reconciliatory
82.
1) remains
3) remaining
5) reformed
2) remain
4) reverent
83.
1) ill-treat
3) treats
5) behave
2) deals in
4) treated
84.
1) diversive
3) deriving
5) driving
2) devastating
4) deriving
85.
1) within
3) proximity
5) outsourcing
2) surrounding
4) outside
86.
1) individual
3) enriched
5) individuals
2) illiterate
4) elder
87.
1) among
3) between
5) in
2) with
4) of
88.
1) master
3) owner
5) employer
2) zamindar
4) warden
1
1) 13 %
3
1
2) 33 %
3
89.
1) striken
3) negative
5) horrifying
2) striking
4) damnable
2
3) 14 %
3
5) None of these
2
4) 16 %
3
90.
1) for need
3) in need of
5) required
2) needful
4) for want of
91.
What percentage of students are enrolled in

all three disciplines?
1) 3.3%
3) 8.5%
5) None of these
92.
What is the respective ratio of boys and girls

only in marketing discipline?
1) 13 : 9
3) 9 : 11
5) None of these
93.
95.
2) 9 : 13
4) 11 L 9
The ratio of number of boys in marketing and

finance both and that of girls in finance only
is
1) 5 : 3
3) 5 : 4
5) None of these
94.
2) 7.2%
4) 9.32%
2) 3 : 5
4) 4 : 7
By what present is the number of boys in

marketing more than the number of girls in
HR discipline?
The ratio of boys and girls enrolled in HR discipline only is respectively

1) 10 : 11
3) 7 : 5
2) 9 : 10
4) 5 : 7
14
5) None of these
II.
Directions (96-100): Each of the following questions consists of a question followed by three statements I, II and III.
You have to study the question and the
statements and decide which of the statement (s) is/are necessary to answer the
question.
96.
What is the speed of boat in still water?

I.
The boat covers 12 km in 2 hours in

downstream.
II.
The boat covers same distance in 4 hours

in upstream.
III. The speed of stream is one third of that

of boat in still water.
1)
2)
3)
4)
Both I and II
I and either II or III
All I, II and III
Question cannot be answered even with
the information in all three statements
5) None of these
97.
The simple interest incurred on the sum

in 1 year is ` 600.
III. The borrowed sum is ten times the

amount earned as simple interest in two
years.
1) Only I
3) Both II and III
2) Only III
4) Either I or III
100. What is the area of the given right angled triangle?

I.
The length of hypotenuse is 5 cm.
II.
The perimeter of triangle is four times

of its base.
III. One of the angles of triangle is 60

1) Only II
2) Only III
3) Either II or III
4) Both I and III
5) Question cannot be answer even with the
information in all three statements
What is the speed of train?

I.
The length of train is 240 metre.
II.
The train crosses a pole in 24 seconds.
III. The train crosses a platform in 48 seconds.

1) Both I and III
3) Both II and III
5) None of these
98.
2) Both I and II
4) Any two of three
What is the age of class teacher?

I.
There are 11 students in the class.
II.
The average age of students and the

teacher is 14 years.
III. The average age of the teacher and students is 3 years more than that of students.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
99.
Both I and III

Both I and II
II and either I or III
All I, II and III
None of these
Sri Gupta borrowed a sum at compound interest. What is the amount returned in 2
years?
I.
The rate of interest is 5% per annum.

15
Directions (101-105): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions given
below.
Number of selected employees in different grades/ranks by three companies during 2012.
Number of Selected Employees
Company A
Company B
Company C
800
750
700
650
600
550
500
450
400
350
300
250
200
150
100
50
0
Finance
Manager
Assistant
Finance
Manager
IT
Manager
101. What is the average number of selected employee by company A in all grades taken together?
1) 450
3) 475
5) None of these
2) 460
4) 375
102. What is the respective ratio of selected employees for the post of assistant IT managers
by all the companies A, B and C together?
1) 9 : 10 : 11
3) 11 : 10 : 8
5) None of these
2) 10 : 8 : 11
4) 10 : 11 : 8
103. By what percent is the number of selected

employees for finance managers by company
C more than that of selected employees by
company B for the same post?
1) 35%
3) 25%
5) None of these
2) 30%
4) 40%
104. What is the average number of selected em-
Assistant
IT
Manager
Marketing Assistant
Manager Marketing
Manager
ployees for the post of assistant marketing

managers by all companies taken together?
1) 570
3) 620
5) None of these
2) 520
4) 720
105. What is the respective ratio of selected employees for IT managers by all companies A,
B and C ?
1) 6 : 4 : 7
3) 4 : 7 : 9
5) None of these
2) 5 : 3 : 7
4) 8 : 7 : 6
106. Three men A, B and C start a business together. They invest ` 30000, ` 24000 adn
` 42000 respectively in the beginning. After
4 months. B took out ` 6000 and C took out
` 10000. They get a profit of ` 11960 at the
end of the year, Bs share in the profit is
1) ` 2700
3) ` 2900
5) None of these
2) ` 2803
4) ` 2785
16
107. The edge of an ice cube is 14 cm. The volume of the largest cylindrical ice cube that
can be formed out of it is
1) 2200 cu. cm
3) 2156 cu. cm
5) None of these
2) 2000 cu. cm
4) 2400 cu. cm
108. A sum of ` 16800 is divided into two parts.

One part is lent at the simple interest of 6%
per annum and the other at 8% per annum.
After 2 years total sum received is ` 19000.
The sum lent at 6% of simple interest is
1) ` 12200
3) ` 11000
5) None of these
2) ` 12000
4) ` 10000
109. The percent age of Romila is one fourth of

that of per father. After 6 years the fathers
age will be twice the age of Kapil. If Kapil
celebrated fifth birth day 8 years ago. What
is Romils percent age?
1) 7 years
3) 8 years
5) None of these
2) 7.5 years
4) 8.5 years
110. In an examination, 30% of total students failed

in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% failed
in both subjects. Find the percentage of those
who passed in both the subjects.
1) 35.7 %
3) 40%
5) 44%
Total number of students studying commerce

= 4200
2) 35%
4) 45%
Directions (111-115): The following questions are based on the pie-charts given
below.
Percentage wise Distribution of students
studying in Arts and commerce in
seven different institutions.
Different institutions
A, B, C, D, E, F and G
Total number of students studying Arts = 3800
G
A
12% 15% B
F
8%
13%
C
E
17%
14%
D
21%
F
13%
G A
11% 12%
E
18%
111.
B
17%
C
D 15%
14%
What is the total number of students studying

Arts in institutes A and G together?
1) 1026
3) 1226
5) 1306
2) 1126
4) 1206
112. How many students from institute B study

Arts and Commerce?
1) 1180
3) 1018
5) 1408
2) 1108
4) 1208
113. The respective ratio between the number of

students studying Arts and commerce from
institute E is
1) 27 : 14
3) 19 : 16
5) None of these
2) 19: 27
4) 19 : 28
114. The ratio between the number of students

studying Arts from institute E and that of students studying commerce from institute D is
1) 12 : 17
3) 19 : 21
5) None of these
2) 12 : 7
4) 17 : 19
115. How many students from institutes B and D

together study commerce?
1) 1320
3) 1202
5) None of these
2) 1302
4) 1220
Directions (116-120): In each of the following questions, two equations are

given. You have to solve those equations
and give your answer If
1) x < y
3) x = y
2) x > y
4) x y
5) x y
116. I. x 2 24x 114 0
II. y 2 26y 169 0
17
120. I. 10x 2 7x 2 1 0
117. I. 2x 2 3x 20 0
II. 35y2 12y 1 0
II. 2y2 19y 44 0
Directions (121-125): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.
118. I. 6x 2 77x 121 0

II. y 2 9y 22 0
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six different subjects
119. I. x 2 6x 7 0
II. 2y2 13y 15 0
Subject
History
(Out of
50)
76
Geography
85
Maths
(Out of
150)
69
Science
(Out of
100)
73
English
(Out of
75)
64
Hindi
(Out of
75)
88
Bharat
84
80
85
78
73
92
Umesh
82
67
92
87
69
76
Nikhil
73
72
78
69
58
83
Pratiksha
68
79
64
91
66
65
Ritesh
79
87
88
93
82
72
Student
Amit
(Out of 50)
1) 401.75
3) 402.75
5) None of these
121. What is approximately the integral percentage of marks obtained by Umesh in all the
subjects?
1) 80%
3) 86%
5) 77%
2) 84%
4) 78%
122. What is the average percentage of marks

obtained by all subjects in Hindi? (approximated to two places of decimal)
1) 77.45%
3) 75.52%
5) None of these
2) 112
4) 138
127.
22.9889 0.002 ? 23
1) 23
3) 23
5) None of these
128.
2) 46
4) 34
2) 1
4) 24
1000000.000001 ?
1) 1000
3) 1000.001
5) 999
2) 100
4) 10000
129. 134% of 3894 + 38.94 of 134 = ?
124. What is the average marks obtained by all

the students in geography?
1) 38.26
3) 37.16
5) None of these
21 3.9 2.9 8.99 ?
1) 42
3) 44
5) 36
2) 79.33%
4) 73.52%
123. What is the average marks of all the students

in mathematics?
1) 128
3) 119
5) 144
126.
2) 410.75
4) 420.75
2) 37.26
4) 39.16
125. What are the total marks obtained by Ritesh

in all the subjects taken together?
1) 11452
3) 10452
5) None of these
2) 10000
4) 1100
130. 103 1003 999999999 10? 10?

1) 6
3) 7
5) 12
2) 9
4) 10
18
Directions (131-135): Study the following bar diagram and table carefully to answer the questions.
Number of employee
Number of employees working in five

different companies. A, B, C, D and E
900
840
800 760
720
700
640
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
134. What is the ratio of female employees working in companies D and E respectively?
1) 17 : 22
3) 15 : 22
5) None of these
2) 22 : 17
4) 22 : 15
135. By what per cent is the number of total employees of company C more than that of company D?
1) 12.5%
3) 21%
5) 16%
2) 16.5%
4) 20%
Directions (136-137): Study the following diagram to answer the questions.
Company
Ratio of male and female employees

Compamy
male
Female
13
11
23
12
131. What is the number of male employees taking all the companies together?
1) 2084
3) 2064
5) 2066
2) 2048
4) 2046
132. What is the approximate average number of

female employees taking all the companies
together?
1) 340
3) 335
5) 321
2) 315
4) 325
133. By what per cent is the number of male employee working in companies A and C more
than that of female employees working in
companies B and D?
1) 164
3) 144
5) 184
2) 146
4) 154
136. If what diameter of each circle is 14 cm and

DC = CE, the area of BDE is
1) 784 sq. cm
3) 874 sq. cm
5) None of these
2) 748 sq. cm
4) 441 sq. cm
137. The area of the shaded region of square

ABCD is
1) 186 sq. cm
3) 188 sq. cm
5) None of these
2) 168 sq. cm
4) 198 sq. cm
138. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours.
1
hours to fill the
3
tank. The leak can drain all the water of the
tank in
Because of a leak, it took 2
1
hours
3
3) 8 hours
5) None of these
1) 4
2) 7 hours
4) 14 hours
139. A person travels from P to Q at a speed of 40

kmph and returns to Q by increasing his speed
by 50%. What is his average speed for both
the trips?
1) 36 kmph
3) 48 kmph
5) None of these
2) 45 kmph
4) 50 kmph
19
140. A shopkeeper sells two watches for ` 308

each. On one he gets 12% profit and on the
other 12% loss. His profit or loss in the entire
transaction was
1) 1
11
% loss
25
2
% loss
25
5) None of these
3) 3
2) 1
11
% gain
25
4) 3
2
% gain
25
GENERAL AWARENESS
(With special reference to Banking Industry)
141. Which new law was recently passed by the
Indian Parliament to adopt corporate structures for carrying out business?
1) Corporate Business Bill 2011
2) Business Ethics and Corporatization Bill
2012
3) Ethics and Standard Bill 2013
4) Companies Bill 2012
5) None of these
142. What is the purpose of celebrating Rajiv
Gandhi Sadbhavana Divas?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
To promote national integration

To promote communal harmony
To eschew violence
To promote goodwill among the people
None of these
143. The central bank of which country has the

largest foreign reserves in the world?
1) China
2) Saudi Arabia
3) European Union 4) Switzerland
5) Japan
144. The targets set under priority sector lending
for domestic and foreign banks operating in
India with more than 20 branches is _____
of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or
credit equivalent amount of Off-Balance
Sheet Exposure, which ever is higher.
1) 18 per cent
3) 32 per cent
5) 50 per cent
2) 24 per cent
4) 40 per cent
145. Under the Manodhairya Yojana which was

approved by the Maharastra Cabinet in September 2013, a compensation of ` 3 lakhs
will be given to victims of

1) Caste prejudice 2) Acid attack
3) Communal riot
4) Domestic violence
5) All of the above
146. Shri Ramesh Abhishek is the Chairman of
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Competition Commission of India

Securities and Exchange Board of India
Forward Markets Commission
Confederation of Indian Industry
Insurance Regulatory Development Authority
147. As per the Income Tax laws in India, the

maximum amount not liable to tax in case of
an individual aged 60 years and above is
1) ` 150000
3) ` 200000
5) ` 300000
2) ` 180000
4) ` 250000
148. According to the MSMED Act 2006, medium

enterprise is an enterprise where the investment in equipment is more than _____ but
does not exceed ` 5 crore.
1) ` 50000
3) ` 10 lakhs
5) ` 2 crore
2) ` 2 lakh
4) ` 1 crore
149. According to the RBI Annual Monetary

Policy Statement 2012-13, Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) can borrow _____ of
their Net Demand and Time Liabilities under
the Marginal Standing Facility scheme.
1) 1 percent
3) 2 percent
5) 3 percent
2) 1.5 percent
4) 2.5 percent
150. Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister rolled out

the ambitious food security scheme in September 2013. What is the name of this
scheme?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Rajiv Gandhi Ann Yojana

Aam Aadmi Ann Yojana
Mahatma Gandhi Antyodaya Yojana
Shatabdi Ann Yojana
Bharat Antyodaya Yojana
151. In business, disinvestment means to sell off

certain assets. Which of the following can
come under these assets?
1) A manufacturing plant
2) A division or subsidiary
20
3) A product line
4) Both 2 and 3
5) All of the above
158. International Standards on Combating Money

Laundering and the Financing of Terrorism
& Proliferation are framed by
152. In a notification issued on 16 September 2013,

the Reserve Bank of India laid down that
where the gold jewellery pledged by a borrower at any one time or cumulatively on loan
outstanding is more than _____, NBFCs must
keep record of the verification of the ownership of the jewellery.
1) 2 grams
3) 16 grams
5) 24 grams
2) 8 grams
4) 20 grams
153. Which India movie has been nominated as

Indias official entry to 2014 Oscars?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Bhaag Malkha Bhaag

The Good Road
Celluloid
The Lunchbox
English Vinglish
154. In the Master Circular on Customer Service

in Banks, issued by the RBI on 1 July 2013,
Banks were mandated to send online alerts
to the cardholders for all Card Not Present
(CNP) transactions for the value of _____
and above.
1) ` 1000
3) ` 5000
5) ` 50000
2) ` 2500
4) ` 100000
155. Which of the following rates is not controlled

by the Reserve Bank of India?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
CASH Reserve Ratio

Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Cess
Marginal Standing Facility
Repo Rate
156. As per a notification issued by the Central

Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) on 23 September 2013, when will the General Anti
Avoidance Rules (GAAR) come into force?
1) December 2013 2) January 2014
3) October 2015
4) April 2016
5) September 2017
157. With which sports is Pullela Gopichand associated?
1) Golf
3) Tennis
5) Squash
2) Billiards
4) Badminton
1) KYC
3) TAPI
5) SWIFT
2) FATF
4) ICOA
159. The National Payment Corporation of India

(NPCI) has launched a mobile based payment
facility. This facility is known as
1) NEFT
3) IMPS
5) INSTAPAY
2) RTGS
4) USSD
160. The State Bank of India (SBI) on 17 August,

2013 achieved another milestone by opening
its _____ branch in Tamil Nadu.
1) 2000th
3) 10000th
5) 20000th
2) 5000th
4) 15000th
161. Who, at present is the Chairman of the State

Bank of India?
1) Ashwini Kumar 2) D. P. Singh
3) Seema Goyal
4) Rajeev Rishi
5) Arundhati Bhattacharya
162. India recently signed Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with _____ to prevent income tax evasion by entities in both
the countries.
1) Lativa
3) Argentina
5) Mauritius
2) Belgium
4) Switzerland
163. Five Year Plans in India is monitored by

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
National Development Council

Planning Commission
Finance Minister
Inter State Council
Finance Commission
164. In which state is Sunderbans situated?

1) Odisha
3) Jharkhand
5) Uttarakhand
2) West Bengal
4) Assam
165. Which of the following is not controlled by

the Securities and Exchange Board of India?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Market Intermediaries
Investors
Ponzi Schemes
Derivatives
Insurance
21
166. In case of dishonor of cheque for insufficiency of funds in the account, a court can
punish a person for _____ imprisonment or
with fine, if the cheque issued by drawer returned by the bank unpaid.
1) 3 months
3) 1 years
5) 3 years
2) 6 months
4) 2 years
167. What does NOFHC stand for?

1) New Operational Financial Hedge Corporation
2) Northern Ontario Heritage Fund Corporation
3) Non-Operative Financial Holding Company
4) New Outstanding Fund of Hedge Companies
168. What is the name of Indias first indigenous
aircraft carrier which was launched recently?
1) Sindhurakshak
3) Pratap
5) Vikramaditya
2) Vikrant
4) Shaurya
169. Which one is not a member nation of BRICS?

1) Brazil
3) South Africa4)
5) Chile
2) Russia
India
170. The 108th birthday of Indian Hockey icon

Dhyanchand was recently celebrated as
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
National Hockey Day

National Sports Day
National Day fro Olympics
National Medals Day
National Icon Day
171. Who is the author of Fault Lines: How Hidden Fractures Still Threaten the World
Economy?
1) Amartya Sen
3) Kaushik Basu
5) Y. V. Reddy
2) Raghuram Rajan
4) Bimal Jalan
172. The Global Competitiveness Report 20132014, brought out by the World Economic
Forum, uses _____ pillars to assess the competitiveness of nations.
1) 5 pillars
3) 10 pillars
5) 15 pillars
2) 8 pillars
4) 12 pillars
173. What is the full form of SIDBI?

1) Small Industries Development Bank of
India
2) Service Infrastructure Development Bank
of India
3) Small Scale Industrial Development Bank
of India
4) Securities & Investment Derivatives Bank
of India
5) Steel Industries Developmental Bank of
India
174. Who, at present, is the Chairman of the
Unique Identification Authority of India
(UIDAI)?
1) N. K. Singh
2) Nandan Nilekani
3) R. S. Sharma
4) S. K. Swamy
5) Dinesh Aggarwal
175. Who was recently sworn-in as Indias first
woman Chief Information Commissioner?
1) Deepak Sandhu 2) Nirmala Singh
3) Ketaki Sharma 4) Sneha Gupta
5) Manorama Shrivastva
176. To disburse short term crop loans to the small
and marginal farmers, RRB Credit Refinance
Fund is being set up by
1) RBI
2) SEBI
3) NABARD
4) FICCI
5) Union Ministry of Finance
177. Which secure system was introduced by the
Reserve Bank of India in 2005 for facilitating
one-to-one funds transfer requirements of
individuals/corporates?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Electronic Clearing Service

National Electronic Funds Transfer
Real Time Gross Settlement
Cheque Truncation
Oversight of Payment and Settlement Systems
178. Which is the term for the process of stopping

the flow of the physical cheque issued by a
drawer at some point with the presenting bank
en-route to the drawee bank branch?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Cheque Coding
Cheque Truncation
Cheque Embossing
Cheque Barring
Cheque Bar-coding
22
179. Which company recently launched the first

white label ATM (WLA) of India?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
EBS
Tata Communications Payment Solutions
Direct Pay
ICICI Merchant
State Bank of India
180. The reactor of Indias first indigenous nuclear

submarine recently went critical. What is the
name of this submarine?
1) INS Arihant
2) INS Chakra
3) INS Sindhughosh 4) INS Aridhaman
5) INS Ghatak
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
181. GUI stands for _____
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Gnutella Universal Interface

Graphical User Interface
Graphical Uninstall/Install
General Utility Interface
None of these
182. A _____ is a design tool that graphically

shows the logic in a solution algorithm.
1) flow chart
3) structure chart
5) None of these
2) hierarchy chart
4) context diagram
183. A file that contains definitions of the paragraph and character styles for your document
and all things you customised like toolbars and
menus is called a _____.
1) guide
3) base document
5) None of these
2) pattern
4) template
184. Programs designed specifically to address

general-purpose applications and special purpose applications are called _____.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
operating system
system software
application software
management information systems
None of these
185. A _____ contains buttons and menus that

provide quick access to commonly used commands.
1) toolbar
3) window
5) None of these
2) menu bar
4) find
186. For selecting or highlighting, which of the following is generally used?

1) Icon
3) Mouse
5) None of these
2) Keyboard
4) Floppy Disk
187. What does storage unit provide?

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Place for typing data

Storage for information and instruction
Place for printing information
All of the above
None of these
188. Which type of memory is closely related to

processor?
1) Main Memory
3) Disk Memory
5) None of these
2) Secondary Memory
4) Tape Memory
189. Which device is used to access your computer by other computer or for talk over
phone?
1) RAM
3) Modem
5) None of these
2) CD ROM Drive
4) Hard Drive
190. Permanent Memory in computer is called

1) RAM
3) CPU
5) None of these
2) ROM
4) CD ROM
191. Reusable optical storage will typically have

the acronym _____
1) CD
3) ROM
5) None of these
2) DVD
4) RW
192. _____ is processed by the computer into information.

1) Data
3) Alphabets
5) None of these
2) Numbers
4) Pictures
193. A _____ is an electronic device that process

data, converting it into information.
1) computer
3) case
5) None of these
2) processer
4) stylus
194. File extensions are used in order to

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
name the file

ensure the filename is not lost
identify the file
identify the file type
None of these
23
195. The most common type of storage devices

are _____.
1) persistent
3) magnetic
5) None of these
2) optical
4) flash
196. _____ has invented the mechanical calculator for adding numbers.
1) Charles Babbage 2) Newton
3) Pascal
4) Peano
5) E. F. Codd
197. A unit of hardware used to monitor the computer processing
1) Terminal
3) CPU
5) Client
2) Console
4) Server
198. Which of these is not a feature of a reentrant

procedure
1) multiple users can share a single copy of
a program during the same period
2) The program code can modify itself
3) The local data for each user process must
be stored separately
4) The temporary part is the code
5) The temporary part is the pointer back to
the calling program and local variables used
by that program
199. What is the split-MAC architecture

1) The split-MAC architecture uses MAC
addresses to create a forward/filter table
and break up broadcast domains
addresses on the wireless network and IP
addresses on the wired network
3) The split-MAC architecture allows the
splitting of 802.11 protocol packets between the AP and the controller to allow
processing by both devices
addresses to create a forward/filter table
and break up collision domains
5) All of these
200. In _____ normal form, all non-key fields of
data structure are dependent on the whole
key.
1) First
3) Third
5) Fifth
2) Second
4) Fourth
24
(ii) Some numbers are digits particular

Affirmative (I-type)
KEY & SOLUTIONS

(1-5):
H
G
(iii) No alphabet is a vowel Universal

Negative (E-type)
(iv) Some alphabets are not vowels

Particular Negative (O-type)
C
B
E/F
11.
E/F
1.
(2) C is third to the left of D.
2.
(4) H is sitting to the immediate right of G.
3.
(1) B and G are immediate neighbours of G.
4.
(5) Either E or F is sitting third to the left of

G.
5.
All digits are alphabets

I + A I-type of Conclusion.
Some numbers are alphabets.
All digits are alphabets
(3) There are three people between B and

D.
(6-10):
te
i da
nd
Ca
Shiva
Rahil
Nakul
Manohar
Swati
A + E E-type of Conclusion.
Canditions
No digit is a vowel.
( i) or (a) (ii) or (b) (iii) (iv) (v)
NG
This is Conclusion I.
All consonants are vowels.

No vowel is an alphabet.
NG: Not Given

6.
(3) Some numbers are digits.
(2) Shiva Kumar Kamath satisfies all the

conditions. Therefor e, he can he
recr uited as Manager HR of the
company.
7.
(3) There are no information regarding

conditions (i) or (a).
8.
(1) Nakul Bhatnagar satisfies conditions (a),

(ii), (iii), (iv) and (v). Therefore, he can
be recruited as the Head HR of the
company.
9.
(4) Manohar Tambe satisfies conditions (i),

(b), (iii), (iv) and (v). Therefore, he can
be recruited as the CEO of the company.
10.
(4) Swati Shinde satisfies conditions (i), (b),

(iii), (iv) and (v). Therefore, she can he
recruited as the CEO of the company.
(11-15):
(i)
No consonant is an alphabet.
Conclusion II is Converse of it.
Some numbers are alphabets

I + E O1 - type of Conclusion.
Some vowels are not numbers.
12.
(4) Some files are papers.

I + A I-type of Conclusion.
Some files are certificates.
All digits are alphabets Universal

Affirmative (A-type).
Conclusion III is Converse of it.
25
13.
(1)
All jobs are works.
No certificate is a manuscript.
No work is a trade.
No paper is a manuscript.
No job is trade.
No group is people.
All professions are trades.
No trade is a work.
E + A O1 - type of Conclusion.
No profession is a work.
Some animals are not groups.
This is Conclusion III.

Conclusion I is Converse of the second

Premise.
15.
(2)
All marks are grades.
A + A A - type of Conclusion.
No grade is a score.
This is Conclusion II.
No mark is a score.
All letters are scores.

All scores are characters.
All people are roots.
A + A A-type of Conclusion.
Conclusion IV is Converse of it.

(16-20):
14.
Person
Hobby
State
Painting
Maharastra
All animals are roots.
Dancing
Gujarat
(5) Some vacancies are jobs.
Singing
Kerala
Pottery
making
Rajasthan
Reading
Punjab
I + A I - type of Conclusion.
Travelling
Karnataka
Some vacancies are works.
Sculpting
Odisha
All jobs are works.
16.
(2) C likes singing.

26
17.
(4) The combinations D-Pottery MakingRajasthan is correct.
18.
(3) F belongs to Karnataka.
19.
(1) G-Sculpting - Odisha is correct.
20.
(5) E belongs to Punjab and he likes reading.
heap just race take war

And, Step XI is the last step.
21.
(5) The word war is sixth from the left

end in step VIII.
22.
(2) 25 is the ninth from the right in Step

VI.
23.
(4) 15 is seventh from the right end in Step

IX.
24.
(1) Eleven Steps were required to complete

the arrangement.
25.
(3) Option (3) is the Step X.
(21-25):
After careful analysis of the given input
and various steps of rearrangement, it is
evident that in the first step the highest
number is placed at the extreme left
position and in the second step the word
which comes first in the alphabetical
order is placed at the extreme right
position. In the next step second highest
number is placed at the second position
from the left. After that step the word
which comes second in the alphabetical
order is placed at the extreme right
position. These two steps are continued
alternatively till all the numbers get
arranged in the descending order from
the left and all the words get arranged
in alphabetical order after the numbers.
(26 - 30):
(i)
P Q P Q P Q
(ii)
P # Q P Q P Q
(iii) P @ Q P Q, P Q P Q
(iv) P Q P Q P Q
(v)
#
#
input :
class 25 war 15 race 73 heap
58 just 88 take 38
Step I
:
88 class 25 war 15 race
73 heap 58 just take 38
P $ Q P Q P Q
26.
(3)
Step II :
88 25 war 15 race 73
heap 58 just take 38 class
A N A N
S $ NS N
S WSW
Step III :
88 73 25 war 15 race
heap 58 just take 38 class
WR W R
Step IV :
88 73 25 war 15 race 58
just take 38 class heap
Now, A N S W R
Step V :
88 73 58 25 war 15 race
just take 38 class heap
Conclusion
Step VI :
88 73 58 25 war 15 race
take 38 class heap just
I.
R $ A R A : Not True
II.
S R S R : Not True
Step VII :
88 73 58 38 25 war 15
race take class heap just
III. S A S A : Not True
Step VIII :
88 73 58 38 25 war 15
take class heap just race
IV.
Step IX :
88 73 58 38 25 15 war
take class heap just race
Step X :
88 73 58 38 25 15 war
class heap just race take
Step XI
88 73 58 38 25 15 class
27.
W A W A : Not True
(1) D # E D < E
ET E T
T@C T=C
C #A C <A
27
Now, D < E T = C < A
III. R U R U : Not True
Conclusions
IV. U
I.
D # A D < A : True
II.
C D C D : Not True
III. A E A E : True
(4) O $ B O B
U > A : Not True
U is either greater than or equal to A.

Therefore, either I or IV is true.
31.
(3) 9 3 7 8 6 2 5 4 1
518
581
74;
83
7
7
IV. T # A T < A : True

28.
32.
(3)
B@S B=S
S#E S<E
ER E R
Now, O B = S < E R
Conclusions
I.
II.
5m
S O S R : True
R
6m
5m
S R > S : True
5m
N
7m
North
III. B # R B < R : True

IV. B # E B < E : True
29.
East
West
(2) D S D S
S
P S > P
South
Required distance = (6 + 5) metres
P$I P I
P@T P=T
= 11 metres
33.
(1)
Now, D S > P = T I
Conclusions
I.
P # D P < D : Not True
II.
P $ T P T : Not True
C O S T L Y
III. T # S T < S : True

IV. I D I D : Not True
30.
W O R V M F
2
+3
2
+3
2
+3
(5) U @ N U = N
N$T N F
P R A I S E
2
+3
2
+3
2
+3
F$A F A
A R A> R
Now, U = N F A > R
Conclusions
I.
A @ U A = U : Not True
II.
R N > R : True
C V G D P S
Similarly,
28
E>C>F
S O C C E R
P H A F M V
2
+3
2
+3
2
+3
D> E > C > F > B >A

39.
(3) From statements II and III it is clear that

S is the daughter-in-law of B.
B is the mother of N and R.
T is the son of N and S is the mother of
T.
So, S is the wife of N.
34.
35.
(4)
40.
he was not absent
ja si fe ra
absent case was not
ga ja fe ra
no one was absent
da ge ra fe
From statements II and III there may

be 33 or 44 students in the class.
41.
(2) From the given statements, it is clear that

industrial society is responsible for
expansion of education of the mass
level.
42.
(3) Obviously, the Government should make

all necessary arrangement to enact fire
arm act. Fire arms should not be let free.
It should be regulated and controlled by
the competent authority.
43.
(1) Obviously option (1) substantiates the

fact given in the statement.
44.
(4) It is well known that human being is

mortal.
45.
(4) We know that some people get

influenced by the attractive
advertisement.
46.
(3) The company decided to increase the

price of car as there is no other car in
the market in comparison to the
Limousine car.
Therefore,
47.
G K L H

T P O S
(2) Obviously, social entrepreneurship is

different
from the business
entrepreneurship.
48.
(3) Obviously a system which is simple is

preferred by majority of people.
49.
(1) Obviously, the lifestyle and food habits

are mainly responsible for the present
situation.
4 C
50.
3 D
2 E
(2) Tractor is very useful for farmers to

carry a host of farm activities.
51.
(3) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (3)
1 B
55.
(4) 56. (1)
(2)
N
Q/T
O
M
Q/T
R
P
S
N is sitting third to the right of R.

36.
(4)
D H I

W S R
Pairs of Opposite Letters.

A E F B

Z V U Y
37.
(1)
5 A
38.
(1) From statements I and II, there are 33

students in the class.
(4) F > B > A

29
57.
(2) Broaden (Verb) = to affect or make

something affect more people or things;
widen. The party needs to broaden its
appeal to voters.
58.
(2) On a par with somebody/something

= as good, bad, important as somebody.
59.
(1) Volatile (Adjective) = changing easily,

likely to change suddenly : unstable.
60.
(4) Reveal (Verb) = disclose; to make

something known to somebody.
79.
Hence, the words fresh and modern

are synonymous.
80.
(2) Only (2)
81.
(1) 82. (2) 83. (3) 84. (5) 85. (1)
86.
(1) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (2) 90. (3)
Calculations (91--95):
(4) The subject there companies is Plural.

Hence, their board members should be
used.
(3) The subject the scheme is Singular.
Hence requires and additional
investment should be used.
65.
(5) 66. (1) 67. (2) 68. (5)
69.
(4) 70. (3)
71.
(5) Asian countries have been actively

opening their markets to one another.
72.
(4) The desire to achieve conditions

conductive to global consensus on trade
regulations and tariffs.
73.
(3) Only (1) and (2)
74.
(3) Widening of differences between

participant and nonparticipant countries
will hamper global stability.
75.
(4) All (1), (2) and (3)
76.
(4) It will alter the balance of power in the

World with small Asian countries
becoming most dominant.
78.
(4) Asian countries no longer export to

Western markets alone and now cater
to Asian markets as well.
(1) The word Critical (Adjective) as used
in the passage means : extremely
important because a future situation will
be affected by it; crucial; serous.
Hence, the words critical and
unimportant more antonymous.
28
40
GR n(Q)
21
24
Finance n(R)
21
16
HR + Marketing n(P Q)
HR + Finance n(Q R)
Marketing + Finance n(P R) 5
Boys
rke
ting
(4) For congruence, and supervising the

new staff should be used.
Marketing n(P)
18
Ma
64.
Girls
10
HR
12
Finance
Girls
ing
(5)
Boys
rke
t
63.
77.
Girls = 150 70 = 80
26
Ma
62.
7
150 70
15
Boys
Conceal (Verb) = to hide something.

61.
(5) The word Fresh (Adjective) means :

new; made or experienced recently.
6
3
4
91.
11
HR
4
Finance
(1) Required percentage
5
10
1
100 3 %
150
3
3
= 3.3 %
92.
(2) Required ratio = 18 : 26

= 9 : 13
93.
30
94.
(4) Required percentage
28 24
100
24
Thus we can find C.I. and amount.

100. (4) From statement I and III,
50
2
16 %
3
3
95.
96.
(2) From statements I and II.
60
Rate downstream
= u + v = 6 kmph
Rate upstream
= u v = 3 kmph
1
(u v) (u v)
2
1
9
6 3 kmph
2
2
From statements I and III.

u + v = 6 kmph
97.
AB
5
cos BC
AC
2
5
a , b 5 and 60
2
We get area by A
101. (1) Required average
1
ab sin C
2
2700
450
6
102. (2) Required average = 500 : 400 : 550
u
6
3
= 10 : 8 : 11
103. (3) Required percentage
18 9
kmph
4 2
240
24
= 10 m/sec
(4) From all three statements,
Average age of 11 students + 3
800 700 660

3
2160
720
3
105. (1) Required ratio
Total age of 11 students + 1 teacher
14 12 168 years
250 200
200 25%
200
104. (4) Required average
(2) From statements I and II.

Speed of train
98.
4u = 18
u
= 300 : 200 : 350 = 6 : 4 : 7

106. (2) Ratio of equivalent capitals for 1 month
30000 12 : (24000 4 18000 8)
Average age of 11 students
: (42000 4 32000 8)
= 14 3 = 11 years
= 90 : 60 : 106
Their total age 11 11 121 years
Teachers age = 168 121 = 47 years
99.
(4) From statements II and III,
= 45 : 30 : 53
Sum of ratios = 45 + 30 + 53 = 128
Bs share
SI for two years = ` 1200

Principal 10 1200 = ` 12000
30
11960 ` 2803
128
31
107. (3) Radius of cylinder
14
7 cm
2
Height of cylinder = 14 cm
38 14 : 42 18
Required volume r 2 h
22
7 7 14
7
3800 8 4200 17
:
100
100
= 19 : 27
= 2156 cu.cm
108. (1) Sum lent at 6% rate of interest = ` x
3800 14 4200 14
:
100
100
= 19 : 21
S.I. = 19000 16800
115. (2) Required answer
= ` 2200
x 6 2 (16800 x) 8 2
2200
100
100
4200 17 4200 14
100
100
= 714 + 588 = 1302
12x 16800 16 16x 220000
4x = 268800 220000
4x = 48800
x 24x + 144 = 0
x 12x 12x + 144 = 0

x(x 12) 12 (x 12) = 0
x = ` 12200
(x 12)(x 12) = 0
109. (2) Kapils present age = 12 years
x = 12
After 6 years, Kapils age = 18 years
II.
Fathers present age = 36 6
(y 13) = 0
= 36 years
Romilas present age
1
30 7.5 years
4
110. (3) n(A) = 35, n(B) = 45, n(A B) 20
n(A B) n(A) n(B) n(A B)

= 35 + 45 20 = 60
111.
116. (1) I:
Percentage of failed students in

Hindi or English or both = 60%
Successful students = 40%
(1) Required answer
27
3800
2016
100
112. (3) Required answer
3800 8 4200 17
100
100
y 26y + 169 = 0
y 13 = 0
y = 13
Clearly, x < y
117. (4) I.
2x + 3x 20 = 0
2x + 8x 5x 20 = 0
2x (x + 4) 5(x + 4) = 0
(x + 4) (2x 5) = 0
5
2
2y + 19y + 44 = 0
x = 4 or
II.
2y + 11y + 8y + 44 = 0
y(2y + 11) + 4(2y + 11) = 0
(y + 4) (2y + 11) = 0
y = 4 or
11
2
Clearly, x y
= 304 + 714 = 1018

32
118. (5) I.
6x + 77x + 121 = 0
6x + 66x + 11x + 121 = 0
6
69
75
75
100
100
6x (x + 11) + 11(x + 11) = 0
= 41 + 33.5 + 138 + 87 + 51.75 + 57
(x + 11) (6x + 11) = 0
= 408.25
x = 11 or
II.
11
6
y + 11y 2y 22 = 0
Required percentage
122. (2) Required average of percentage in Hindi
y(y + 11) 2(y + 11) = 0

(y 2)(y + 11) = 0
88 92 76 83 65 72
6
476
79.33
6
y = 2 or 11
119. (2) I.
x 6x 7 = 0
x 7x + x 7 = 0
408
100 80
500
123. (3) Average marks in mathematics
x(x 7) + 1(x 7) = 0
(x + 1)(x 7) = 0
x = 1 or 7
II.
150(69 85 92 78 64 88)
100 6
150 476
119
100 6
2y + 13y + 15 = 0
2y + 10y + 3y + 15 = 0
2y (y + 5) + 3(y + 5) = 0
124. (4) Average marks in geography
(y + 5) (2y + 3) = 0
3
y = 5 or
2
120. (4) I.
470 1
6 100
50
10x 7x + 1 = 0
10x 5x 2x + 1 = 0
5x(2x 1) 1(2x 1) = 0
50(85 80 67 72 79 87) 1
6
100
= 39.16
125. (1) Marks obtained by Ritesh
(5x 1)(2x 1) = 0
50
1
1
or
5
2
II.
35y 12y + 1 = 0
35y 7y 5y + 1 = 0
+ 43 + 48.75 = 401.75
126. (1)
1
1
x or
7
5
121. (1) Total marks obtained by Umesh
40 33.5
92
150 87
100
75 66
86
65
50
75
100
100
100
= 34 + 39.5 + 96 + 91 + 49.5
7y (5y 1) 1(5y 1) = 0
(7y 1) (5y 1) = 0
68
79
64
50
150
91
100
100
100
? 21 4 3 9
21 + 12 + 9 = 42
127. (2)
23
23
?
?
23
1
23
33
134. (4) Required ratio = 352 : 240 = 22 : 15
128. (1)
? 1000000 1000
129. (3)
3900 134
?
134 39
100
135. (1) Required percentage
2 39 134 10452
720 640
100
640
= 12.5 %
130. (2) 103 106 109 10? 10?

9
136. (1) In BDE ,

?
10 10 2 10
De = 28 + 28 = 56 cm
?9
BC = 28 cm
131. (1) Men: Company A
13
760 520
19
Company B
4
840 480
7
Company C
7
720 336
15
Company D
9
640 288
20
Company E
23
700 460
35
Total = 520 + 480 + 336 + 288 + 460

= 2084
132. (2) Women:
1
BDE DE BC
2
1
56 28 784 sq.cm
2
137. (2) Area of square 28 28 784 sq.cm
Area of four circles 4r 2
22
7 7 616 sq.cm
7
Area of shaded region

= 784 616 = 168 sq. cm
138. (4) Part of tank emptied in 1 hour by the
leak
Company A 760 520 = 240
1 3 1

2 7 14
Company B 840 480 = 360
The leak will empty the tank in 14 hours.
Company C 720 336 = 384

Company D 640 288 = 352
139. (3) Speed of return
Company E 700 460 = 240

Required average
Average speed
240 360 384 352 240

5
1576
315
5
133. (3) Male employees in companies A and C
= 520 + 336 = 856

Female employees in companies B and
D
= 360 + 352 = 712
40 150
60 kmph
100
2 40 60
40 60
4800
48 kmph
100
140. (1) Loss percent

2
Common gain or loss
%
10
36
11
12
% % 1 %
25
25
10
Difference = 856 712 = 144

34
141. (4) The Rajya Sabha, in August 2013, passed

the Companies Bill, 2012 to overhaul
auditing, impose stiffer penalties for fraud
and create more government over sight
of businesses. This law will replace
Indias 57- years-old corporate
legislation that had failed to keep up with
changes in business practices.
142. (5) The birth anniversary of late Prime
Minister of India Shirt Rajiv Gandhi on
20th August is observed as Sadbhavana
Diwas nation - Wide every year. The
theme of Sadbhavana is to promote
national integration and communal
harmony among people of all religions,
languages and regions. the idea behind
observance of Sadbhavana Diwas is to
eschew violence and to promote good
will among the people.
143. (1) As of October 2013, Chinas central
bank has $ 3.66 trillion in foreignexchange reserves. That is more than
the combined reserves of the four
runners-up: Japan, the euro zone, Saudi
Arabia and Switzerland.
144. (4) The targets set under priority sector
lending for Domestic commercial banks
/ Foreign banks with 20 and above
branches is 40 percent of Adjusted Net
Bank Credit (ANBC) or credit equivalent
amount of off - Balance Sheet Exposure,
whichever is higher. For Foreign banks
with less than 20 branches, it is 32
percent of ANBC or credit equivalent
amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure,
whichever is higher.
145. (2) The Manodhairya Yojana is targeted for
victims of various crimes, especially
rape, child sex abuse and acid attacks.
The highest compensation is for people
who suffer from complete disfigurement
of face or physical handicap in case of
an acid attack. Such victims will be given
a compensation of ` 3 lakhs.
146. (3) Shri Ramesh Abhishek is the Chairman
of the Forward Markets Commission.
Abhishek is an IAS officer of 1982 Bihar
cadre. Forward Markets Commission
(FMC) headquartered at Mumbai, is a
regulatory authority which is overseen
by the Ministry of Finance, Govt. of
India.
147. (4) The maximum amount not liable to tax
in case of an individual (below 60 years
of age) is ` 2 lakhs; : in the case of an
individual aged 60 years and above, the
maximum amount not liable to tax is `
250000. Further, in the case of individuals
aged 80 years and above, the proposed
maximum amount not liable for tax is `
500000.
148. (5) The Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises Development (MSMED)
Act, 2006 gives definition of micro, small
and medium enterprises. As per this act,
a medium enterprise is an enterprise
where the investment in equipment is
more than ` 2 crore but does not exceed
` 5 crore. For plant and machinery, the
investment should be more than ` 5
crore but does not exceed ` 10 crore.
149. (3) As announced in the Reserve Bank of
Indias Annual Monetary Policy
Statement 2012-13 on April 17, 2012, in
order to provide greater liquidity cushion,
it was decided to raise the borrowing
limit of SCBs under the MSF from 1
percent to 2 percent of their NDTL
outstanding at the end of the second
preceding fortnight with immediate
effect. This was done in accordance
with powers conferred by subsection
(2A) of Section 24 of the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949.
150. (1) Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister
Virbhadra Singh rolled out the ambitious
food security scheme named Rajiv
Gandhi Ann Yojana on 20 September
2013. Under the scheme, the
government process to provide 5 kg of
rice, wheat and coarse cereals per
month per individual at a fixed price of
` 3, 2, 1, respectively..
151. (5) In business, disinvestment means to sell
off certain assets such as a
manufacturing plant, a division or
subsidiary, or product line. Also known
as divestiture, it is made for either
financial or social goals. Divestment is
the opposite of investment or capital
expenditures.
35
152. (4) In the notification issued on 16

September 2013, the Reserve Bank laid
down certain fair practices to be adopted
by NBFCs lending against the collateral
of gold. In this regard, it was decided
that where the gold jewellery pledged
by a borrower at any one time or
cumulatively on loan outstanding is more
than 20 grams, NBFCs must keep
recor d of the verification of the
ownership of the jewellery.
body that develops and promotes policies

to protect the global financial system
against money laundering, terrorist
financing and the financing of
proliferation of weapons of mass
destruction.
The
FATF
Recommendations are recognised as the
global anti-money laundering (AML) and
counter terrorist financing (CFT)
standard.
153. (2) Gyan Correas debut Gujarati movie The

Good Road was on 21 September 2013
nominated as Indias official entry to
2014 Oscars in the Best foreign Film
category. The film tells the story of a
boy who is lost and found while his family
is on a holiday trip to the Kutch.
159. (3) In a bid to make mobile payments more

mainstream, National Payments
Corporation of India (NCPI) launched
IMPS Merchant Payments in September
2012. It is a value added service which
enables mobile banking customers to
make payments to merchants/enterprises
using their mobile phones.
154. (3) According to the Master Circular, Banks

were mandated to send online alerts to
the cardholders for all Card Not Present
(CNP) transactions for the value of `
5000/- and above. Recently, incidents of
unauthorized / fraudulent withdrawals at
ATMs have come to the notice of RBI.
160. (4) The 15000th Branch of the SBI was

inaugurated by Union Finance Minister
P. Chidambaram at Tamil Nadus
Sooranam, a Christian dominated area,
on 17 August 2013. the 15001st branch
of the bank was opened at nearby
Kalayarkovil.
155. (3) The Reserve Bank of India controls the

flow of money in the economy with the
help of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), SLR
(Statutory Liquidity Ratio), Marginal
Standing Facility (MSF), Bank Rate,
Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rates, etc.
Cess is a type of tax which is imposed
and regulated by the Government. It is
a synonym for tax, duty, fee, etc.
161. (5) Arundhati Battacharya took over as the

new chairperson of the State Bank of
India (SBI) on 7 October 2013, becoming
the first woman to be appointed to the
top job at the countrys largest lender.
Bhattacharya is also the first woman to
ever lead a Fortune 500 company in
India.
156. (4) General Anti Avoidance Rules (GAAR),

which seeks to check tax evasion by
investors routing their funds through tax
havens, will come into effect from April
1, 2016. It will apply to entities availing
tax benefit of at least ` 3 crore. The
GAAR provisions were introduced in the
2012-13 Budget by then Finance
Minister Pranab Mukherjee.
157. (4) Pullela Gopichand is a former Indian
badminton player. He won the All
England
Open
Badminton
Championships in 2001, becoming the
second Indian to achieve this feat after
Prakash Padukone.
158. (2) The Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
is an independent inter-governmental
162. (1) India, on 18 September 2013, signed

Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
(DTAA) with Latvia. Lativa is the third
Baltic country with which DTAA has
been signed by India. The pacts have
already come into force with Lithuania
and Estonia.
163. (2) The Planning Commission is entrusted
with the supervision of 5 year plans in
India. It has been entrusted with the
responsibility of the creation,
development and execution of Indias
five year plans.
164. (2) The Sundarbans covers parts of
Bangladesh and the Indian state of West
Bengal. it is the largest single block of
tidal halophytic mangrove forest in the
world and a UNESCO World Heritage
36
Site.
165. (5) Insurance in India is regulated and
developed by the Insurance Regulatory
Development Authority (IRDA). It was
constituted by a Parliament of India act
called Insur ance Regulatory and
Development Authority Act, 1999.
166. (4) The issue of dishonor of cheque is dealt
under the Negotiable Instruments
(Amendment and Miscellaneous
Provisions) Act. 2002. Section 138 of the
Act Deals with the dishonor of cheque
for insufficiency of funds in the account.
It provides that a person shall be
punishable for two years imprisonment
or with fine, if the cheque issued by
drawer returned by the bank unpaid.
167. (3) The Reverse Bank, on 3 June 2013, said
new bank promoters can hold only up to
49% in the proposed non operative
financial holding company (NOFHC)
under any format and that individuals
cannot form a group to set up the bank
holding company. A non Operative
Financial Holding Company only invest
money in other companies. It does not
take part in day to day operation.
168. (2) The Indian navy launched its first
indigenous aircraft carrier Vikrant at
Kochi on 12 August 2013, making India
only the fifth in the world with capability
to build such vessels. The warship, which
has been named Vikrant after Indias first
ever aircraft carrier that was inducted
in 1961, is the largest ever to be built in
India.
169. (5) BRICS is the acronym for an association
of five major emerging national
economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China
and South Africa. The grouping was
originally known as BRIC before the
inclusion of South Africa in 2010.
170. (2) The National Sports Day is celebrated
in India on in remembrance of Hockey
Wizard Dhyan Chand. The day is
celebrated on 29 August which is the
birthday of Dhyan Chand. He was
known as The Wizard for his superb
ball control.
171. (2) RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan is the

author of Fault Lines : How Hidden
Fractures Still Threaten the World
Economy. In this book, Rajan traces the
deepening fault lines in a world overly
dependent on the indebted American
consumer to power global economic
growth and stave off global downturns.
172. (4) The report uses 12 broad categories
(pillars) to rate competitiveness in 148
countries. the WEF report includes
rankings of nations with the most
effective antimonopoly policy, which
assesses which nations competition
regulations promote competition most
effectively.
173. (3) Small Industries Development Bank of
India is an independent financial
institution aimed to aid the growth and
development of micr o, small and
medium-scale enterprises (MSME) in
India. It is the principal financial
institution for the promotion, financing
and development of the Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector and
for co-ordination of the functions of the
institutions engaged in similar activities.
174. (2) Nandan Nilekani is an Indian
entrepreneur and the Chairman of the
Unique Identification Authority of India
(UIDAI). Nilekani is a co-founder of
Infosys and served as its CEO from
March 2002 to April 2007.
175. (1) Deepak Sandhu, on 5 September 2013,
became the first woman Chief
Information Commissioner of the
country. A former Indian Information
Service officer of 1971 batch, she was
administered the oath of office by
President Pranab Mukherjee.
176. (3) A short term RRB Credit Refinance
Fund is being setup to enhance the
capacity of Regional Rural Banks to
disburse short term crop loans to the
small and marginal farmers. NABARD
is being provided with ` 10000 crores
for refinancing the RRBs through this
fund.
177. (2) In November 2005, a more secure
system was introduced for facilitating
one-to-one funds transfer requirements
37
of individuals/corporates. Available
across a longer time window, the NEFT
system provides for batch settlements
at hourly intervals, thus enabling near
real-time transfer of funds.
178. (2) Truncation is the process of stopping the
flow of the physical cheque issued by a
drawer at some point with the presenting
bank en-route to the drawee bank
branch. In its place an electronic image
of the cheque is transmitted to the
drawee branch by the clearing house,
along with relevant information like data
on the MICR band, date of presentation,
presenting bank, etc.
179. (2) Tata Communications payment Solution
(TCPS), a wholly owned subsidiary of
Tata Communications, on 28 June 2013,
launched first white label ATM (WLA)
of the country at Chandrapada, a tier-V
town near Mumbai. It has been branded
Indicash by the company. The Reserve
Bank of India had allowed corporates in
2012 to set up white label ATMs to
increase the penetration of ATMs in
several areas of the country.
180. (1) The miniature reactor on board Indias
first indigenous nuclear submarine INS
Arihand went Critical: on 10 August
2013, paving the way for its operational
development by the Navy. The nuclear
submarine will help India achieve the
capability of going into high seas without
the need to surface the vessel for long
durations.
196. (3) The mechanical calculator was invested

in 1642 by Blaise Pascal, it was called
Pascals Calculator or Pascaline.
197. (2) A console is a physical device consisting
of a keyboard and a screen. The term
console usually refers to a terminal
attached to a minicomputer or mainframe
and used to monitor the status of the
system.
198. (2) A useful concept, particularly in system
that supports multiple users at the same
time, is that of the reentrant procedure.
A reentrant procedure is one in which a
single copy of the program code can be
shared by multiple users during the same
period of time. Re entrance have two
key aspects : The program code cannot
modify itself and the local data for each
user must be stored separately.
199. (4) The split-MAC architecture allows the
splitting of 802. 11 protocol packets
between the Cisco LWAPP-based AP,
which handles real-time portions of the
protocol, and the WLAN controller, and
the WLAN controller, which handles
those items that are not time sensitive.
200. (2) Table is in 2NF if and only if, it is in 1
NF and every non prime attribute of the
table is either dependent on the whole
of a candidate key or on another non
prime attribute.
181. (2) 182. (1) 183. (4) 184. (3)

185. (1) 186. (3) 187. (2) 188. (1)
189. (3) 190. (2) 191. (4) 192. (1)
193. (1) 194. (4) 195. (2)
38
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IBPSPO PRE 1
(Based on IBPS PO (Prelims) latest
pattern for IBPS PO EXAM)
No. of Questions : 100
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
This Booklet contains three tests as follows :

Test I - English Language
Q.Nos.
1-30
Test II - Quantitative Aptitude
Q.Nos.
31-65
Test III- Reasoning
Q.Nos.
66-100
You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hour to
answer all the three tests. The tests are not
separately timed. You may distribute the time as
you please but remember that to qualify in the
written test as a whole you have to qualify on each
of the three tests separately.
Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are
printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi
version is printed on the left hand side page and the
English version on the right hand side page.
There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by
you. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted
as penalty.
Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in
this booklet itself and not on the answersheet.
For this purpose use the empty space in the margin
or anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not
use any other paper.
Indicate your answers on the separate
answersheet (given at the end of the booklet),
using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on
the answersheet for indicating your answers.
Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for
answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces
for answering the 100 questions given in this
booklet.
Do not open the booklet until you are told to do
so. When the instruction for opening the booklet
is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the
left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the
sticker and tear it to open the booklet.
Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all
the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are
properly printed in your booklet and then begin
answering the test. In case the booklet is defective
get it replaced by another test booklet.
Time : 1:00 hrs
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Test I
English Language
Directions (Q. 110): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases
have been given in bold to help youlocate them while answering some of the questions.
Today, India is sitting on a goldmine of raw talent waiting to be nurtured and developed and added to the growing human
resource pool. At last count, India had a staggering 600 million people, or more than 50% of its population, below the age of
25a historic number that will seek out employment for the next one decade. According to Census 2011 and the National
Sample Survey Office, an estimated 105 million fresh entrants to the workforce will require skill training by 2022, which is
around 15 million everyyear. Not only that, some 300 million of the current working population will need additional training
over the next seven years. A World Bank report says that India is one of the few countries where the working-age population
will continue to grow at least until 2040, propelling the country from a developing nation to a developed nation and better
economic prospects and livelihood for its people.
This is a huge challenge, not only for the government but also for the private sector and educational institutions. Both
the public and private sector have risen to the task of equipping the youth with specialised training, making them employable
in the job market, and ensuring there is no mismatch between demand and supply in the coming years. Already, Indian
employers across major sectors have forecast an overall increase of 23% in hiring outlook for next year. While the numbers are
heartening, are the new recruits suitable for skilled jobs?
The government has introduced two path-breaking initiativesMake in India and Skill Indiaaimed at creating
employment opportunities and encouraging entrepreneurship with the help of key stakeholders. The government has already
set the ball rolling. It has relaxed FDI norms to encourage both domestic and foreign companies to manufacture in India and
sell their products abroad. Make in India is expected to increase manufacturing activity across various sectors as well as
enhance its contribution to GDP. The increasing use of modern technology in the workplace or assembly line under Make in
India would mean that existing and future employees and workers will necessarily require highly-skilled training. Imparting
technical skills, especially to the youth at an early age, will bring out their latent talent and prepare them for high-tech jobs.
Likewise, the Skill India initiative is well on track with the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister recentlyapproving
the countrys first integrated National Policyfor Skill Development and Entrepreneurship 2015. Thepolicy recognises the need
for an effective and a balanced roadmap to promote entrepreneurship as the key to a successful skills strategy. It envisions
the creation of an ecosystem of empowerment by skilling on a large scale at speed with high standards and to promote a
culture of innovation-based entrepreneurship which can generate wealth and employment so as to ensure sustainable livelihoods
for all citizens in the country. The government has formulated over 73 skill development schemes and programmes focusing
on various sectors and these will be implemented through more than 20 ministries and departments. It will also emphasise on
placement, post-training.
The government has drawn up a concrete plan under its skill development policy. It involves delivery of modular
employable schemes, upgrading of existing institutions with World Bank and Indian government funding, improvement of
training institutes under public-private partnership, the National Skill Development Corporation, and establishing 50,000 skill
development centres across the country. Availing of these measures and facilities will be young entrepreneurs who will be
encouraged to set up business ventures and create skilled jobs. However, such entrepreneurship can be successful only if the
government, without delay, reforms the existing labour laws and does away with archaic regulations. It also needs to develop
sound infrastructure in a way that the demand for talent does not exceed supply, as is the case now.
A young persons transition from education to employment is never an easy one and Skill India can make that
transformation smooth. The government has shown that it has the will to pursue skill development. Forward-looking companies
and large corporates must now work along with the government to make this dream of the nation into a reality.
1.
Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
1) Leadership Development
2) Empowering Youth of India
3) Redefining the Human Resources
4) Planning for Future Generation
5) The Skill Development Program
2.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'propelling' as used in the passage?
1) Driving
2) Discouraging
3) Dissuading
4) Repressing
5) Supporting
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3.
Which of the following is an adverse impact of 'Skill India' initiative according to the author?
1) The focus of this programme is only on creating jobs.
2) It does not provide information about the availability and effectiveness of training programs.
3) It will provide better opportunities to those countries, which are interested to open their training institutes in India.
4) All of the above
5) None of these
4.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'staggering' as used in the passage?
1) Reviving
2) Transforming
3) Overwhelming
4) Planning
5) Entering
5.
Which of the following facts is true as per the passage?

1) India cannot win the skill development challenge.
2) India has trained its burgeoning youth workforce.
3) India wants to empower the youth with the necessaryskill training and knowledge.
4) India is facing lack of human resource.
5) Only 1) and 2)
6.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word 'envisions' as used in the passage?
1) Awaits
2) Hopes
3) Entertains
4) Doubts
5) Anticipates
7.
What is the meaning of the phrase 'set the ball rolling'

1) To start working in the same direction in order to encourage others
2) The key driving force behind economic expansion
3) To give relaxation on tax
4) Ready to compromise
5) None of these
8.
Which of the following statements is not true about skill development policy?
1) India will revise its national skill development policy.
2) The Ministryof Skill Development and Entrepreneurship has started consulting 18 government departments who are
part of the skill mission.
3) The government is looking at branding the skill development programme.
4) Instead of opening training centers directly, the programmes will be implemented in partnership with private firms.
5) All of the above
9.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'concrete' as used in the passage?
1) Substantial
2) Particular
3) Specific
4) Objective
5) Abstract
10.
What are the challenges for Indian government?

1) To balance the mismatch between demand and supply of skilled youth.
2) Involvement of Industry and employers in the skill training is almost nil.
3) Funding of training
4) To maintain quality of training
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 11-15): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are
five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.
11.
India is
a service industries
1) dealing, escalation
4) facing, monopoly
12.
India through its
due to arbitrage of human intelligence.

2) enjoying, plethora
3) experiencing, boom
5) maintaining, clamour
entrepreneurial
has arrived on the central stage of the world.
1) fundamental, brands
4) manipulated, base
2) enriched, sustenance
5) sheer, ability
13.
The market now has come to a

1) standpoint, approach
4) destiny, uniformity
where only long-term investors will have an

.
2) level, edge
3) stage, uniformity
5) realm, appeal
14.
The nuclear deal with the US is

1) intended, ease
4) equipped, enervate
to
Indias energy problems.
2) balanced, lessen
5) oriented, drag
15.
3) logistic, gain
3) focussed, target
Escalating oil prices on international markets

to
the world is running out of oil.
1) tends, derive
2) inclined, show
3) subjects, hint
4) appear, indicate
5) allows, deliberate
Directions (Q. 1620) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If thereis 'Noerror' the answer is 5).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
16.
The task for most of us 1)/ is hard enough to make us well pleased 2)/ with even such imperfect 3)/ shelter we find in daily
use and customs 4)/ No error 5)
17.
Theywere lured with advertising and marketing techniques 1)/ and then finally, 2)/ once they becameready customers,
3)/ they were given loans to help them by more and more. 4) / No error 5)
18.
Interesting thing about material things 1)/ is that they only give 2)/ an illusion of happiness; 3)/however, such happiness
is always momentary in nature. 4)/ No error 5)
19.
This research indicates that 1)/ we can no longer avoid 2)/ significant warm 3)/ during this century4)/ No error 5)
20.
It is intriguing, 1)/ especially when 2)/ some have been paying a much high price on fuel 3)/ as compared to their poorer
counterparts. 4)/ No error 5)
Directions (Q. 21-25): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence soas
to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Suddenly the dog saw a wolf entering the house.
(B) He became alert and finally killed the wolf.
(C) The dog was sleeping beside the child guarding him against any danger.
(D) One day he and his wife went to the market leaving behind their child who was sleeping.
(E) He used to leave the dog as a guard whenever he went out.
(F) There was a hunter who had a faithful dog.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) (F)
2) (E)
3) (B)
4) (A)
5) (C)
Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) (A)
2) (B)
3) (C)
4) (D)
5) (E)
Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) (A)
2) (B)
3) (D)
4) (C)
5) (E)
Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) (A)
2) (B)
3) (C)
4) (D)
5) (E)
Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) (F)
2) (E)
3) (D)
4) (C)
5) (B)
Directions (Q. 26 30) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
number. Find the suitable word fromthe options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to
make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
Like many things else, there are two sides to the technology story, especially in the Indian context. Information Technology
or IT has become a major contributor to the GDP growth in India, largely(26) bythe IT services industry. Today, India is a force
to (27) with in the IT domain on a global scale, (28) some of the biggest companies on the planet. And yet, in spite of
revolutionising the IT Services business, there has been little change wrought by IT back home. Adoption of technology,
especially in the government domain (which has a mass rural interface) has been rather (29) and slow in the uptake. For years,
Indians across the spectrum read stories about the magic of IT, and yet were (30) by it.
26.
1) demotivated
4) issued
2) driven
5) worsened
3) demanded
27.
1) revert
4) reckon
2) displace
5) dump
3) abandon
28.
1) weakening
4) missing
2) failing
5) decreasing
3) powering
29.
1) muted
4) strengthen
2) conducted
5) articulated
3) expressing
30.
1) extracted
4) figured
2) irrelevant
5) untouched
3) pertinent
Test II
Directions (Q. 31-35): In each of these questions two equations I & II are given. You have to solve the equations and
give answer.
1) if x < y
2) if x > y
3) if x y
5) if x = y or relation can't be established
4) if x y
31.
I. 6x2 + 5x + 1 = 0
II. 20y2 + 9y + 1 = 0
32.
I. 3x2 + 2x 1 = 0
II. 2y2 + 7y + 6 = 0
33.
I. 3x2 + 15x +18 = 0
II. y2 + 7y +12 = 0
34.
I. x =
35.
I. x2 +13x + 42 = 0
II. 9y2 12y + 4 = 0
II. y2 = 36
Directions (Q. 36 40): In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
13, 13, 26, 76, 312, 1560

1) 13
2) 76
3) 26
4) 1560
5) 312
20, 27, 37, 49, 66, 85

1) 20
2) 66
3) 49
4) 27
5) 85
8, 9, 17, 44, 106, 233

1) 8
2) 17
3) 233
4) 106
5) 44
16, 32, 50, 72, 98, 128

1) 98
2) 72
3) 50
4) 128
5) 16
5, 15, 40, 100, 240, 580

1) 5
2) 240
3) 100
4) 580
5) 15
Directions (Q. 41-45): Following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total 80,000 students of a university in
different disciplines and the table shows the ratio of male and female students of these disciplines.
Manage-
Medicine
ment
15%
10%
Engineering
24%
Science
14%
Dicipline
Arts
20%
Commerce
17%
Male
Female
Science
Arts
Commerce
Engineering
Medicine
Management
41.
42.
43.
How many male students are studying in Engineering?

1) 19.2 thousand
2) 12.8 thousand
3) 6.4 thousand
4) 16 thousand
5) None of these
How many female students are studying in Medicine?

1) 4.8 thousand
2) 3.2 thousand
3) 8 thousand
4) 6 thousand
5) None of these
What is the difference between male and female students in Commerce discipline?
1) 7200
2) 6400
3) 800
4) 1000
5) None of these
44.
Number of students studying in Management is what percentage of the number of students studying in Arts?
1) 85%
2) 75%
3) 70%
4) 15%
5) None of these
45.
Number of male students studying in Science is how much percentage more/less than that of the number of female
students studying in same discipline?
1
1
1) 25% more
2) 33 % more
3) 16 % less
4) 24% less
5) None of these
2
3
Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Managers with Overall Highest Ratings on Various Competencies from their Respective
Departments in an Assessment Centre
Competencies
Leadership
Interpersonal skills
Creativity
Problem solving
Negotiation
Team Building
46.
HR
50
45
40
50
46
50
Finance
48
45
35
40
30
41
Departments
Sales
50
45
42
35
50
40
Expots
50
45
40
30
50
48
What are the approximate average ratings of the IT manager on all the competencies?
1) 42
2) 36
3) 48
4) 30
IT
45
20
45
42
26
40
5) 45
47.
Manager from which department got the second highest overall ratings on all the competencies together?
1) IT
2) HR
3) Exports
4) Sales
5) Finance
48.
Which competency had the lowest ratings compared to the other competencies amongst the managers of various
departments?
1) Negotiation
2) Creativity
3) Team Building
4) Problem solving
5) None of these
49.
What is the difference between the overall ratings of the Exports manager and the overall ratings of the Finance
Manager?
1) 25
2) 22
3) 26
4) 23
5) None of these
50.
The ratings of the IT manager on the dimension of Interpersonal Skills is what per cent of the average rating of the
managers from other departments on the same dimension? (upto two decimal places)
1) 44.44
2) 30.36
3) 42.45
4) 34.44
5) None of these
7
51.
52.
of its selling price, a trader incurs a loss of 25%. What will be the approximate profit percent
By selling a mobile at
16
if the trader sells it at the actual selling price?
1) 68%
2) 78%
3) 72%
4) 66%
5) 76%
An unbiased coin istossed. If thetail turnsup aperson gains` 60. If the heads turns up he losses ` 10. If 6 unbiased
coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability that he gain ` 10 overall?
1) 5/32
2) 4/31
3) 3/32
4) 5/31
5) 7/32
53.
Apark is in the form of a rectangle of dimension 160 m and 140 m. At the centre of the park a circular lawn is constructed.
The area of park excluding the lawn in 21784 m2. Find the radius of lawn.
1) 3.5 m
2) 7 m
3) 14 m
4) 10.5 m
5) 28 m
54.
The digits at the unit place of a number is equal to the digits at the tens place of half of that number and digits at the tens
place of that number is less than the digits at unit place of half of the number by 1. If the sum of digits of the number is
seven, then what is the number?
1) 52
2) 25
3) 61
4) 43
5) 70
55.
Karthik is one more than four times as old as his daughter. After 12 years, the sum of their ages will be 80 years. Find th
ratio of the present ages of Karthik and his daughter.
1) 48 : 11
2) 45 : 11
3) 45 : 13
4) 45 : 17
5) 49 : 11
56.
A batsman in his 18th innings makes a score of 102 and there by increases his average by 5. What ishis average after 18
innings?
1) 17
2) 15
3) 21
4) 20
5) 18
57.
Anu takes as much time as Bhusan and Divya together take to finish a piece of work. If Anu and Bhusan together
complete the work in 20 days. Divya alone can do the same work in 25 days. In how many days Bhusan alone complete
the work?
1) 170 days
2) 175 days
3) 180 days
4) 200 days
5) 210 days
58.
A car travels a distance of 96 km at a uniform speed. If the speed of car is 2 km/hr more, it takes 4 hours less to cover the
same distance. Find the original speed of car.
1) 8 km/hr
2) 4 km/hr
3) 6 km/hr
4) 36 m/s
5) 24 m/s
59.
If a train crosses 420 m and 244 m long bridge in 24 seconds and 16 seconds respectively. Find the length and speed of
the train.
1) 102 m, 24 m/s
2) 102 m, 22 m/s
3) 108 m, 22 m/s
4) 108 m, 24 m/s
5) 180 m , 22 m/s
60.
Aman can row 8 km/hr in still water. If the river is running at 4 km/hr, it takes 3 hours to row toa place and come back. How
far is the place?
1) 8.5 km
2) 12 km
3) 8 km
4) 12. 5 km
5) 9 km
Directions (Q. 61-65): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have todecide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and give answer:
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
61.
62.
What is the present age of Rishu?

I. Four years ago the ratio of the ages of Rishu and Mishu was 3 : 4.
II. Eight years hence the ratio of the ages of Rishu and Mishu will be 9 : 10.
What is the percentage profit gained by the shopkeeper?
I. The cost price of 6 articles is equal to the selling price of 4 articles.
2
II. The cost price is 66 % of the selling price.
3
63.
64.
65.
What is the rate of interest per annum?

I. The difference between the amount of compound interest and simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs 50,000 at
the end of three years is Rs 6400.
II. The simple interest after three years for Rs X is 60% of Rs X, whereas the compound interest after three years for
Rs X is 72.8% of Rs X.
X is a two-digit number. What is the value of X?
I. The sum of the two digits of the number is equal to the difference of the two digits of the number.
II. The difference between the two digits is more than 7.
What is the ratio of the savings of A, B and C?
I. The incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio 7 : 9 : 12.
II. The expenditures of A, B and C are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 15.
Test III
Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 66-71): Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.
(i) Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people in each such that theyare equidistant from each
other. In row 1: A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting facing South. In row 2: P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting facing North but
not necessarily in the same order..
(ii) Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member sitting in a row faces another members of the other row.
(iii) Three persons sit between C and D. Either C or D sits at an extreme end of the line. The one who faces D sits third
to the left of R. S faces the one who sits third to the left of A and he cannot sit adjacent to R. The immediate
neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A.
(iv) Only one person sits between Pand T, who is facing the one sitting on the immediate right of E. Neither E nor F faces
R. V and Q cannot sit adjacent to each other.
66.
67.
Which of the following faces B?

1) P
2) Q
3) T
Which of the following sit at the extreme ends of the row?

1) D, Q
2) T, F
3) E, S
4) R
5) S
4) B, T
5) F, Q
68.
If E is related to P in the same way as C is related to S, then which of the following is A related to, following the same
pattern?
1)V
2) R
3) Q
4) T
69.
How many persons are sitting between E and F?

1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four
70.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the
1) PD
2) QF
3) QA
4) SB
5) TE
71.
Which of the following is true regarding P?

1) Q is an immediate neighbour of P.
2) P faces the immediate neighbour of B.
3) P sits second from the left end of row.
4) P sits at one extreme ends.
5) P faces the one who is second from the right end of the row.
72.
Which of the following expression is definitely true if the given expressions T R and L > M are to be definitely true?
1) R > S = P M = T K < L
2) P > R = S M = T < K L
3) L > K T = P < M = R S
4) R > P = S > M T < K L
5) None of these
73.
Which of the following symbols will replace the question mark in given expression in order to make the expressions
R T and S > V definitely true?
P>R=M?S=T?KV
1) < , >
2) ,
3) , >
4)<,
5) None of these
74.
In which of the following expressions is L > M definitely false?

1) K N > M < S L
2) L > S = Z > M < P
4) K = N L < P Y < M
5) None of these
75.
Study the following information carefully and answer the given question:
X + Y means X is the daughter of Y.
X Y means X is the father of Y.
X Y means X is son of Y.
3) Y > Z = M < S = X < L
X Y means X is the wife of Y.

What will come in place of question mark (?) to establish the relation that P is the mother of L in the following
expression?
L+NM?P
1)
2)+
3)
4)
5) Either + or
Directions (Q. 7680): In each questions given below two/three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered
Iand II. You have to take all the given statementstobe true evenifthey seemtobe at variance from the commonly knownfacts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from all the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusion I and II follow.
(7677) :
Statements:
Some players are energetics.

No player is short.
At least some short are man.
76.
Conclusions: I. No player is man.

II. Some energetic being man is a possibility.
77.
Conclusions: I. All short can never be energetic.

II. All players are energetic.
(7879) :
Statements:
All beds are covers.

No cover is a pillow.
Some pillows are red.
78.
Conclusions: I. No pillow is a bed.

II. Atleast some covers are red.
79.
Conclusions: I. All bed can never be red.

II. Some pillows are covers.
80.
Statements:
Some books are good.

All good are toys.
Conclusions: I. Atleast some books are toys.
II. No toy is a book.
Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight friends Saurav, Seema, Rakesh, Mukesh, Neha, Meena, Rajeev and Ramesh are going to watch a movie and they
sit in the first row facing North. Seema is not sitting at any of the two ends. Only one person is sitting between Mukesh and
Seema. Mukesh and Meena are sitting adjacent to each other, while none of them is sitting at the endof the line. Rakesh is not
adjacent to Ramesh. Neha is sitting second to the right of Rakesh. Rajeev sits fourth to the left of Ramesh. Ramesh's position
is either at the sixth from the left end or fourth from the right of the line.
81. What is the position of Meena with respect to Rajeev?
1) Immediate adjacent
2) Second to right
4) Sixth to left
5) None of these
82. How many persons are sitting between Rakesh and Mukesh?
1) One
2) Two
3)Three
3) Fourth left
4) Four
5) None of these
83. Which of the following persons is sitting between the persons who are fifth from left and third from right?
1) Ramesh
2) Saurav
3) Mukesh
4) Seema
5) None
84. Which of the following pairs sit at extreme ends?
1) Rajeev, Seema
2)Meena, Ramesh
4) Rakesh, Saurav
5) None of these
3) Rajeev, Mukesh
85. If 'Neha' is related to 'Ramesh', 'Meena' is related to 'Seema', then in the same pattern ' Mukesh' is related to who among the
following?
1) Meena
2) Rakesh
3) Ramesh
4) Saurav
5) None of these
Five students Gautam, Jayant, Dheeraj, Hitesh and Hardik each belonging to a different cities among Vishakhapatnam,
Mangalore, Jaipur, Surat and Udaipur, (not necessarily in the same order;) appear in five different bank examination among SBI,
CBI, IDBI, NABARD and PNB each of which is held at a different test centre among Mysore, Goa, Shimla, Nainital and Kochi
but not necessarily in that order. No student appears in more than one examination. The student who appears in exam of
NABARD bank at Mysore is neither from Surat nor from Udaipur. Hardik and Gautam appears in CBI and PNB banks exam
respectively. The student whose test center is at Goa, neither appears in SBI nor in PNB exam and isnot from Jaipur. Jayant,
whoappears in SBI exam is from Mangalore and his test centre is not Shimla. Hitesh is neither from Jaipur nor from Udaipur and
appears neither in NABARD nor in PNB bank exam. IDBI bank exam is held at Kochi. Dheeraj is from Vishakhapatnam.
86.
Which among the following is the test centre for SBI exam?
1) Goa
2) Nainital
4) Goa or Shimla
5) Nainital or Shimla
3) Shimla
87.
If by mistake, the student from Surat and Dheeraj reach each others test centres, then which exam does the student
from Surat appear?
1) NABARD
2) CBI
3) PNB
4) SBI
5) IDBI
88.
Which of the following students is from Udaipur?

1) Gautam
2) Hitesh
3) Hardik
4) Dheeraj
5) Jayant
89.
Which of the following statements must be true?

1) Gautam belongs to Jaipur.
2) Hitesh appears in SBI examination.
3) The test centre for the PNB examination is Goa.
4) The Student whose test centre is Mysore is Hardik.
5) The student who appears in Kochi belongs to Vishakhapatnam.
90.
Which of the following is the correct order of the student, his belonging city, test taken and test centre allotted to
him, respectively?
1) Dheeraj, Vishakhapatnam, IDBI, Kochi
2) Gautam, PNB, Jaipur, Shimla
3) Hitesh, Surat, SBI, Mysore
4) Hardik, Mangalore, CBI, Goa
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 91-95): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language peeter brings heater is written as su to mu, heater is two seater is written as mu lu ch pa,
one seat is black is written as lt mp lu kl, black brings darkness is written as kl to ct and darkness is for peeter is written
as ct lu pt su.
91.
92.
How brings is written in that code language?

1) su
2) kl
3) to
4) mu
What is the meaning of for?

1) ct
2) lu
4) su
5) None of these
3) pt
93.
94.
95.
How peeter is black can be written in that language?

1) su lu ct
2) lu su lt
3) su mu to
4) su lu kl
How one for two can be written in that language?

1) lt ch pt
2) lt ch lu
4) lt pt ct
3) ch lu ct
What is the meaning of mu lu kl?

1) heater is brings
2) heater is peeter
4) peeter is black
3) heater is black
Directions (Q. 96-100): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have todecide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer:
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
96.
On which day of the week did Mohan visit Bangalore?

I. Mohan took leave on Wednesday.
II. Mohan visited his brother on Friday, the previous day of his visit to Bangalore.
97.
How is come written in a code language?

I. come and go is written as pit ka ja in that code language.
II. go and tell is written as ja ma ka in that code language.
98.
How is Sunil related to Sandeep?

I. Sunils mother is sister of Sandeeps father.
II. Sandeeps uncle is grandfather of Sunils brother.
99.
Who among P, Q, R, T and W is the oldest?

I. R and T are older than P and W.
II. Q is older than P but younger than R.
100. What is T's position with respect to W when T, W, R, J and M are sitting around a circle facing the centre?
I. R is second to the left of M and second to the right of W.
II. J is not an immediate neighbour of M.
IBPSPO-PT-B-001
1. 2
6. 4
11. 3
16. 4;
17. 1;
18. 1;
19. 3;
20. 3;
21. 4
26. 2
2. 1
3. 5
4. 3
7. 1
8. 5
9. 5
12. 2
13. 1
14. 1
Add as before we
Replace with with through
Add the before Interesting
Replace warm with warming
Replace high with higher
22. 5
23. 3
24. 2
27. 4
28. 3
29. 1
31. 1;
I.
x=
II. y =
x=
3 2 1
1
,
=
,
6 6
2
3
4 1
1
,
=
,
20 20
5
4
Hence, x < y
32. 2; I.
x=
3 +1 = 1,
,
3 3
1
3
II. y = 4 , 3 = 2,
3
2
62 2 = 72
72 2 = 98
82 2 = 128
5. 3
10. 1
15. 4
40. 4;
25. 1
30. 5
41. 2; No. = 80 24 2 = 12.8 thousand

100 3
10 3
= 4.8
42. 1; No. = 80
100 5
17
43. 3; Diff. = 80000
(9 8) = 800
100
17
15
100 = 75%
44. 2; Required percentage =
20
45. 2; 4 3 = 1
Hence, x > y.
33. 4; I.
x=
II. y = 4
Required percentage =
= 3,2
Hence, y x , x y.
34. 5; I. x =
II. y =
2
3
6
9
6
2 2
9 = 3, 3
46. 2; Required average =
1
1
100 = 33 % more
3
3
45 + 20 + 45 + 42 + 26 + 40
6
= 36.3 = 36 (Approx.)
47. 3; Overall ratings of HR = 50 + 45 + 40 + 50 + 46 + 50 = 281
Overallratings of Finance = 48 + 45 + 35 + 40 + 30 + 41 = 239
Overall ratings of Sales = 50 + 45 + 42 + 35 + 50 + 40 = 262
Overall ratings of Exports = 50 + 45 + 40 + 30 + 50 + 48 = 263
and Overall ratings of IT = 45 + 20 + 45 + 42 + 2+ 40 = 218
48. 4;
Hence, x = y
35. 3; I. x =6, 7
II. y = 6
Hence, x y
36. 2;
49. 5;
2nd highest overall ratings is for exports.

Rating for Negotiation = 46 + 30 + 50 + 50 + 26 = 202
Rating for Creativity = 40 + 35 + 42 + 40 + 45 = 202
Rating for Team Building = 50 + 41 + 40 + 48 + 40 = 219
Rating for Problem Solving = 50 + 40 + 35 + 30 + 42 = 197
Rating for Leadership = 50 + 48 + 50 + 50 + 45 = 243
and rating for Interpersonal skills
= 45 + 45 + 45 + 45 + 20 = 200
It
is
the
lowest
for
problem solving.
Required difference = 263 - 239 = 24

20 100
50. 1;
37. 3;
218
=
Required % = 45 + 45 + 45 + 45 =
2000 4
180
= 44.44
4
51. 3;
Let actual SP = ` 160

Loss = 25%
38. 4;
Traders SP =
16
160 = ` 70
CP 70
100 = 25
CP
39. 5; The series is:
32 2 = 18 16
42 2 = 32
52 2 = 50
100CP 7000 = 25 CP
75 CP = 7000
CP ` 93
96
Profit percentage =
52. 3;
x = t
160 93
93 100 72%
96
And,
Since, he gains ` 10 in 6 tosses,

Possible outcomes = T, H, H, H, H, H
Probability of r tails if n coins are tossed
n
53. 3; l b
ncr
96
96
x+2
96
x+2
= 4
96x + 192 96x = 4x (x + 2) x (x + 2) = 48
x = 6 km/hr
59. 3; Let the length of train be l m and speed be x
C6 1 = 6
3
=
64 32
2
m/sec
l + 420
= 24 .........(i)
r 2 = 21784
l + 244
= 16 ...........(ii)
x
From (i) and (ii), we get
2
160 140 r = 21784
l + 420 3
=
l + 244 2
r 2 = 22400 21784 = 616
r2 = 616
2l + 840 = 3L + 732 l = 108 m
7
22
108 + 420
= 196
r = 14 m
54. 1; Let half of the number be 10x + y
and the number = 10u + v
From the given conditions,
v = x and u = y 1
Thus, the number = 10 (y 1) + x
2(10x + y) = 10 (y 1) + x
60. 5;
d d
d + 3d
+ =3
=3
12 4
12
4d = 36 d = 9 km
61. 5; From I: We get
And, u + v = 7
R4 3
M 4 = 4
y1+x= 7
x + y = 8 .......(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get x = 2 and y = 6
Number = 10 5 + 2 = 52
55. 2; Let the present age of Karthiks daughter be x years
Karthiks present age = 4x + 1
(x + 12) + (4x + 13) = 80
25 + 20
(6 4)
100 = 50%
4
From II: Required per cent profit
1
500
=
45 = 11 days
9
Since, Anus days = (Bhusan + Divya)s days
100
(Bhusan + Divya) can do in
2=
9
Bhusan alone can do it in
200
days
200
9 = 25 200 = 200 days

200
25
25
9
58. 3; Let the original speed be x km/hr

and original time taken be t hrs
R+8 9
M + 8 = 10
25 20
Required average = 102 5(18 1) = 102 85 = 17
57. 4; (Anu + Bhusan) + Divya can do the work in
From II: We get
From I and II: We get

R = 10 and M = 12
Hence Rishu's present age = 10 years
62. 3; From I: Required per cent profit
5x + 25 = 80 5x = 55 x =11
Required ratio = 45 : 11
25
km
d
d
+
=3
8 +4 8 4
20x + 2y = 10y 10 + x
8y 19x = 10.......(i)
56. 1;
and x =
= 22 m/s
24
Let the distance of the place of d
(100 66 23 ) 100
66 2 3
= 50%
63. 3; From I: We have

r2
300 + r
5000
0
6400 =
2
100
100
r = 20%
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IBPS PO PRE 2
Read the directions (given below) carefully.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.

Q.Nos.
1-30
Q.Nos.
31-65
Test III- Reasoning
Q.Nos.
66-100
You will be given an aggregate time of 1:00 hour to answer
all the three tests. The tests are not separately timed.
You may distribute the time as you please but remember
that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to
qualify on each of the three tests separately.
Tests of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are printed
in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is printed
on the left hand side page and the English version on
the right hand side page.
There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you.
For each question for which a wrong answer has been
given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned
to that question will be deducted as penalty.
Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this
booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this
purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere
else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper.
Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet
(given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil. Follow
the instructions given on the answersheet for indicating
your answers.
Your answersheet contains answer-spaces for answering
100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for answering the
100 questions given in this booklet.
Do not open the booklet until you are told to do so.
When the instruction for opening the booklet is given,
do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert
the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it
to open the booklet.
Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the
pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly
printed in your booklet and then begin answering the
test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by
another test booklet.
Time : 1:00 hrs
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Test I
English Language
Directions (Q. 15) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form
a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) It has fought unitedly against the British rule under the Leadership of the Mahatma Gandhi.
(B) The same spirit is needed for the continuous growth and happiness of the Nation.
(C) So, National Integration is essential forever.
(D) Because of its spirit of unity it got Independence on 15th August, 1947.
(E) India is a democratic country.
(F) Only when there is peace, we can develop into a great Nation.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement?

1) D
2) A
3) E
4) F
5) C
Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) A
3) F
4) D
5) E
Which of the following would be the 'LAST(SIXTH)' sentence after rearrangement?

1) F
2) D
3) C
4) B
5) A
Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement?

1) D
2) A
3) F
4) E
5) B
Which of the following would be the 'FIFTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) A
3) E
4) D
5) F
Directions (Q. 6-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate words without changing the meaning of the passage.
Capital investment is essential for (6) of productive capacity and adding new capacity for current and future industrial
growth. The (7) of this article is to make an assessment of capital investment in the private corporate sector, which would
provide important insights into the business expectations about performance of economy in (8), and the infrastructure and
manufacturing sectors in (9). The method of (10) growth in corporate investment should, ideally, be based on the available
means of financing an investment project.
6.
1) installation
2) maintenance
3) aggravation
4) generation
5) modernization
7.
1) problem
2) objective
3) summary
4) essence
5) moral
8.
1) abstract
2) globe
3) development
4) general
5) details
9.
1) particular
2) question
3) view
4) future
5) industrialisation
10.
1) reinventing
2) augmenting
3) estimating
4) amplifying
5) checking
Directions (Q. 11 -20): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certainwords/ phrases
Values are those principles or standards, which help better the quality of life. Values codify the dos and don'ts of
behaviour. They form the basics of character formation and personality development. The values thatspring from within or the
core of the heart, like love, compassion, sympathy, empathy, tolerance, etc lay the foundation for the external practiced values
like honesty, discipline, punctuality and loyalty. The most important to remember is that "values are priceless, while valuables
are priced." In today's fast paced competitive world, man seems to have compromised on his values, integrity and character, in
a bid to earn, use and possess more and more of material wealth. As a result, we see rampant corruption, unlawful activities,
inhuman behaviour and immoral consumption, which is slowly breaking the verystructure of our society, nation and the world.
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Therefore, there is an urgent need to re-introduce value based spiritual education dealing specifically with human values", to
redesign the fabric of our educational system. A child's mind is like soft clay and can be moulded to any desired shape. Thus,
this is the right time and age to impart value education so that the right impressions formed in the child's mind will guide him
throughout his life. Such life will definitely be based on moral and just principles. School is thecommon platform for all children
coming from various backgrounds. In an interactive and learning environment of the school, where a child spends a maximum
of eight hours of waking time, the human values can be easily evoked in him bymaking him "experience" and "live" the values.
Teachers, in turn, present themselves as role models to be emulated. The basic approach to impart value education is "love".
This is the most vital aspect to implement value education in three ways: the independent approach, the integrated approach,
and the subtle approach. Sahaj marg the "natural path" is a system of practical training in spirituality. The goal of sahaj marg
is inner perfection, god realisation or merger with the ultimate. In Shri Ram Chandra Mission, theymeditate on the heart and
through meditation regulate the mind. Their present spiritual master is Pujyashri Parthasarathi Rajagopalachari. The Sahaj
Marg Research and Training Institute, a global wing of Shri Ramchandra Mission, has its headquarters at Chennai. Theyhave
been actively involved in conducting training programmes for abhyasis of the mission, and workshops and value education
seminars for teachers and educationists. They also runs echoes pre-primary school, where they also conduct essay writing on
subjects pertaining to spirituality on all India basis for school children, college students and youth. Summer camps andopen
forums are conducted to cater to the needs of children, the youth and women. The basic values are explained through
experiments in science and other curricular subjects and also through charts. True, children learn more by observation,
perception, experience and intuition, rather than by being told or taught about values. They assimilate the codes of behaviour
from the direct environment at home and at school, which eventually leads to the formation of character. Hence both parents
and teachers, need to present themselves as role models, whom the children can look up to, for guidance. To be effective role
models "self-realisation" is the key, for it brings about an internal balance and harmony, which in turn is reflected externally by
right conduct, character and personality. To achieve such a result we need to regulate our minds and purify our hearts by the
constant practice of meditation. So, value based spiritual education must be made compulsory at school level, atleast.
11.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word 'rampant' as used in the passage.
1) Controlled
2) Wanton
3) Impetuous
4) Predominant
5) Spreading
12.
Which of the following best describes 'values' as given in the passage?

1) Standards of behaviour
2) One's judgement of what is important in life
3) It is considered to be priced
4) Both 1) and 2)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
13.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'evoked' as used in the passage.
1) Suppressed
2) Halted
3) Stifled
4) Shifted
5) Induced
14.
According to the author, how can the lack in values be controlled?

1) Byhaving high opinion.
2) By increasing the awareness of Yoga.
3) By re-establishing value based spiritual education.
4) Through self control
5) None of these
15.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'assimilate' as used in the passage?
1) Comprehend
2) Misinterpret
3) Sense
4) Incorporate
5) Ingest
16.
Which of the following is not a mode of learning for a child?

1) Self-experience
2) Heedlessness
4) Insight
5) Sensation
3) Perception
17.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'pertaining' as used in the passage?
1) Relating
2) Responding
3) Thinking
4) Feeling
5) Inspiring
18.
Find the correct statement on the basis of the given passage.

1) India is badly in need of Value Based Education.
2) Values education is a process of teaching and learning about what a society deems important.
3) Values education is used to influence student's attitude and behaviour.
4) All of the above
5) None of these
19.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'Emulated' as used in the passage?
1) Imitated
2) Followed
3) Perceived
4) Challenged
5) Neglected
20.
What does the author mean by the phrase 'self realisation'?

1) An analysis of one's dark sides
2) An expression of one's pessimism
3) The experience of self- awareness
4) Basic values in someone
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 2125): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomaticerror in it. The
21.
We are living in the mid of 1)/ a great chemical experiment, 2)/ and some serious consequences are 3)/ becoming apparent
to scientists.4)/ No error 5)
22.
If you get a call from your bank operator 1)/ asking for your account details 2)/ to be updated in accordance with the new
RBI guidelines 3)/ do not fall for the trap. 4) /No error 5)
23.
It has to emphasised that 1)/ any country which does not have a good university education 2)/ will never be listed as an
independent country 3)/ and will never be able to progress. 4)/No error 5)
24.
It lays today 1)/ on the mercy of nuclear weapons, 2)/ which has the power to 3)/ destroy us completely lest controlled
wisely. 4)/ No error 5)
25.
Buffer funds can be provided 1)/ to gram panchayats and post offices 2)/ to avoid bottleneck 3)/in the flow of funds. 4)/
No error 5)
Directions (Q. 26-30): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are
five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.
26.
There can be no arguing against a

1) trend, awareness
4) system, procurement
27.
The government should

1) negotiate, reasonable
4) raise, genuine
28.
Malnourishment of Indian children is mostly due to traditional taboos

their
.
1) containing, unavailability
2) embraced, locality
4) raised, nutrition
5) inserted, quality
29.
30.
of mass public
2) notion, welfare
5) backdrop, campaign
with the industry about what would be a

2) deal, transparent
5) refrain, uniform
During his mandate, the secretary-general will face the

change.
1) grave, drawing
2) pressing, forging
4) umpteen, sentencing
5) detrimental, inking
The key for today's UN is not to
1) bargain, offload
4) amend, respond
and distribution of medicines, as in the UK.

3) phenomenon, acceptance
more goals, but to

2) address, justify
5) create, implement
price for certain essential drugs.

3) appeal, negotiable
with certain vital foods, and not due to
3) associated, scarcity
challenge of
a global agreement on climate
3) massive, framing
those that have been set before.
3) superceded, avail
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Test II
Directions (Q. 31-35): What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following series?
31.
218
279
1) 589
3) 591
4) 592
5) 593
32.
6 15 37 78 144 ?
1) 292
2) 241
3) 284
4) 291
5) None of these
3 17 106 748 5992 ?

1) 59309
2) 53920
3) 53938
4) 17109
5) None of these
50 68
1) 180
3) 198
4) 218
5) 265
3) 72
4) 84
5) 90
33.
34.
35.
347
422 504
2) 590
90 116 146 ?
2) 171
12 20 30 42 56 ?
1) 12
2) 62
Directions (Q. 3640): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
36.
37.
38.
9260 386 225.01 = ?

1) 4500
2) 4700
3) 3700
4) 5400
5) 5700
129.98% of 2500 + 120.1% of 1255 = ?

1) 4756
2) 5756
3) 7755
4) 5566
5) 3756
3) 377
4) 374
5) 348
494.82 9.01 22.98 = ? 5

1) 6235
2) 6325
3) 6135
4) 6335
5) 6025
121.01 292.08 368.98 9 2 = ? 8

1) 422153
2) 262543
3) 362153
4) 372160
5) 322153
840 3 1729 = ?
1) 372
39.
40.
2) 360
Directions (Q. 41-45): In the following questions twoequations numbered I and II are given. You have tosolve both the
equations and give answer.
1) If x > y
2) If x y
3) If x < y
4) If x y
5) If x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
41.
I. 3x2 + 13x+ 14 = 0
42.
3 3
I. x 2 = 841
II. 5y2 + 18y+ 16 = 0

6 14
3
17
II. y 2

= 729
43. I. 5x + 2y= 31
II. 3x + 7y= 36
44. I. x2 12x + 32 = 0
II. y2 + 7y + 12 = 0
45.
I. 2x2 + 11x+ 12 = 0
II. 5y2 + 27y+ 10 = 0
The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by six students in six subjects
Subjects
Full marks
Students
A
B
C
D
E
F
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Mathematics
80
English
100
Economic
150
History
200
Hindi
100
Geography
70
60
70
80
90
50
40
70
80
85
95
40
80
50
50
60
80
90
40
40
50
60
80
70
60
80
60
90
60
70
40
80
60
60
40
100
60
What is the percentage of marks obtained by B in all the subjects together?

1) 61%
2) 58%
3) 60%
4) 59%
5) None of these
Which student got the second highest marks in all the papers together?
1)A
2) C
3) D
4) E
5) None of these
What is the average marks obtained by E in all the six subjects?

1) 82.6
2) 82.5
3) 82.4
4) 82.1
5) None of these
What is the average marks obtained by the six students in the subject History?
1) 144
2) 60
3) 120
4) 130
5) None of these
What is the respective ratio of marks obtained by A and C in Mathematics, Economics and Geography together?
1) 196 : 179
2) 179 : 196
3)176 : 197
4) 179 : 199
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 51-55) : Study the piechart carefully and answer the questions given below.
The piechart given below shows the expenses of a student living in two months.
May = ` 14000
Clothes,
8%
Education,
20%
Miscellane
ous, 12%
June = ` 18000
Clothes,
7%
Education,
19%
Rent, 32%
Miscellane
ous, 12%
Food, 28%
Rent, 33%
Food, 29%
51.
What is the average of expenses on rents and miscellaneous in June and expenses on food and clothes in May?
1) ` 3155
2) ` 3285
3) ` 3151
4) ` 3025
5) ` 3051
52.
What is the approximate percentage increase in expenses on food from May to June?
1) 34%
2) 33%
3) 39%
4) 36%
5) 42%
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53.
The expenses on clothes in June is what per cent more or less than the expenses on education in May?
1) 68% less
2) 58% more
3) 52% more
4) 55% less
5) 65% less
54.
The total miscellaneous expenses of both the months together is:

1) ` 3804
2) ` 3640
3) ` 3998
4) ` 3848
5) ` 3840
55.
The expenses on rent in June is approximately is what percent more than the expense on clothes in May?
1) 430%
2) 420%
3) 375%
4) 360%
5) 425%
56.
In a box there are 4 red, 5 yellow and 3 green balls. If three balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that 2 are
green and 1 is red?
1
13
3
3
5) None of these
1)
4)
2)
3)
55
55
55
11
If a total of 8 students appear in an examination, in how many ways can their result be annuounced?
1) 512
2) 256
3) 64
4) Can't be determined 5) None of these
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 250% and denominator of fraction is increased by 140%, the resultant
7
. What is original fraction?
fraction is
12
2
1
7
3
5) None of these
1)
2)
3)
4)
5
5
5
7
On Children's Day 5400 sweets were to be equally distributed among a certain number of students. But on that particular
day 100 students were absent. Hence every child got nine sweet extra. How many children were originally supposed to
be there?
1) 200
2) 300
3) 500
4) 270
5) 400
Aman can row at 8 kmph in still water. When the river is running at 1.5 kmph, it takes him 1 hour to row to a certain place
and return to starting place. How far is that place?
1) 2.88 km
2) 3.86 km
3) 3 km
4) 4 km
5) None of these
The difference between the compound interest and simple interest at 5% p.a for 3 years is `122. Find the principal.
1) `15000
2) `8000
3) `16000
4) `18000
5) None of these
A alone can complete a piece of work in 18 days while B alone can complete the same work in 15 days. If they work
alternate day with A beginning the work, in how many days will the work be completed?
2
2
3
2
14
16
16
15
days
5) None of these
1)
days
2)
days
3)
days
4)
5
5
5
5
A dealer sold a watch at a loss of 3.5%. Had he sold it for `1000 more, he would have gained 6.5%. For what value
should he sell it in order to gain 15.5%?
1) `10000
2) `11550
3) `12550
4) `11505
5) None of these
Aand B enter into a partnership with the capitals in the ratio of 8 : 15. After 3 months, A withdrew
th of his capital and
4
B withdrew
65.
1
5
th of his capital. The gain at the end of 10 months was `113750. Find the Bs share of profit.
1) `75250
2) `72750
3) `38500
4) `35800
5) None of these
A and B are two stations 450 km apart. A train starts from station A at 2:00 pm and travels towards B at the speed of 45
km/hr. Another train starts from station B at 4:00 pm and travel towards Aat the speed of 75 km/hr.At what time will they
meet?
1) 6.00 pm
2) 5:00 pm
3) 7:00 pm
4) 9:00 pm
5) None of t
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Test III
Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 66-70): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The
statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
66.
Statements: K J S, T > S, T > Q

Conclusions: I. T > J
II. K Q
67.
Statements: L M < N, R > N, M = E

Conclusions: I. LE
II. R> E
68.
Statements: W > X = Y, Y > D = B A

Conclusions: I. A < X
II. W > B
69.
Statements: A > B, J A, Z > J M

Conclusions: I. M B
II. Z A
70.
Statements: P < D = E, M J < D, M > L

Conclusions: I. D > J
II. L P
Directions (Q. 7180): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below .
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V belong to seven different states, viz. Gujarat, Mizoram, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh,
Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Uttarakhand but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them likes a different animal, viz, Dog,
Tiger, Cat, Cow, Lion, Monkey and Elephant but not necessarily in the same order. Q likes neither Monkey nor Lion. S belongs
to Tamil Nadu. R belongs to Gujarat and likes Dog. T and U do not belong to Madhya Pradesh. The one who belongs to
Madhya Pradesh likes Tiger. Neither Elephant nor Lion is liked by S. Q hails from Delhi. The one wholikes Monkey is either
from Delhi or from Mizoram. U does not like Lion or Elephant P. likes Cat. V is not from Punjab. Uis from Mizoram.
71.
72.
73.
74.
Who among the following likes Monkey?

1) Q
2) P
5) None of these.
3) U
S likes which of the following animal?

1) Cow
2) Tiger
4) Lion
5) None of these
3) Cat
The one who likes Monkey is from which of the following states?
1) Mizoram
2) Tamil Nadu
4) Uttarakhand
5) None of these
3) Delhi
If the person who likes Lion is from Uttarakhand, then the person who likes Cat is from which of the following states?
1) Gujarat
2) Mizoram
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Punjab
5) Cannot be determine
75.
Which of the following statements is/are true?

1) The one who likes Monkeys is from Uttarakhand.
2) S hails from Tamil Nadu and likes Cow.
3) The one who is from Gujarat likes Tiger.
4) All are true
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 76-80) : In each question below are three / two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts Give
answer
1) If only conclusion I follows
2) If only conclusion II follows
3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5) If both conclusions I and II follow
(76-78):
Statements:
All stars are moons.

No moon is a sun.
All suns are planets.
76.
Concluion:
77.
Conclusion: I. No star is a sun.

II. All stars being planets is a possibility.
78.
Statements: Some computers are laptop.

All i-pads are laptops.
Conclusion: I. All computers being i-pad is a possibility.
II. No i-pad is a computer.
(79-80):
Statements:
I. No planet is a star.
II. All moons being planets is a possibility.
No bottle is a glass.
Some glasses are jugs.
All jugs are bowls.
79.
Conclusion:
I. No bowl is a glass.
II.All bowls being glasses is a possibility.
80.
Conclusion:
I. All bottles being bowls is a possibility.

II. No bottle is a jug.
Six employees - P, Q, R, S, T and U are working in different departments of ABC institute viz. Computer, Typing,
Accounts, Teaching, Processing and Administration but not necessarily in the same order. Two of them are females and four
are males.
R is a lady working in processing department. Q or S do not work in Computer department. T is working in Typing
department. P is a lady and does not work in Accounts Department. U is a Teacher and S is not an Accountant.
81.
82.
In which of the following departments S is working?

1) Account
2) Processing
4) Administration
5) None of these
3) Computer
Who is working in Computer Department?

1) P
2) Q
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
3) R
83.
Which of the following combinations of person and department is definitely true?

1) Q - Typing
2) S - Processing
3) Q - Accounts
4) P - Administration
5) None of these
84.
How many such numerals are there in the number 9864725, which will remain at the same position when rearranged in
ascending order from left to right?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
85.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GENERALIZE, each has as many letters between them in the
word as in the english alphabet ?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions (Q. 8690): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W take different classes of different subjects viz. Physics, Maths, Hindi, Chemistry,
Bio, English, Geography and Sociology but not necessarily in the same order. They take this class from Monday to Saturday
but not more than two subjects on each of the day.
Chemistry class is taken by Q and on Saturday.
T takes class on Saturday but neither of English nor of Biology.
One who takes class on Monday taught Sociology. U takes class on Tuesday.
Only on Wednesday and Saturday there are two classes, P takes English class.
Hindi is taught by R and this class is either on Wednesday or on Saturday.
V goes class on Monday. W teaches either Maths or Physics. Maths class is taken on Saturday.
Geography class is taken on Tuesday.
W does not take class either on Wednesday or Friday.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
Who among the following teaches 'Maths'?

1) W
2) T
3)U
4)V
5) None of these
Who among the following takes class on Saturday?

1) T
2) Q
4) Both 1 and 2
5) None of these
3) One who teaches Hindi
Which of the following match correctly?

1) R Hindi Wednesday
2) T Geography Tuesday
4) S Physics Monday
5) None of these
3) P English Friday
Who among the following teaches on Friday?

1) S
2) P
3)V
4) W
5) Either 1 or 2
'Bio' class is taken on

1) Saturday
2) Monday
4) Friday
5) Either 3 or 4
3) Wednesday
Directions (Q. 91-95): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code language all is always right is written aspo he ki si; all are well is written as gi sa ki; well thought
is new is written as gi po ho pe and always thought new ideas is written as he pe ho fa.
91.
92.
Which of the following may represent all ideas are right?

1) sa ki fa si
2) po sa gi fa
4) ho pe gi sa
5) gi sa ki he
3) pe hi ki sa
What does ho stands for?

1) thought
4) is
3) new
2) well
5) either thought or new.
93.
94.
95.
What is the code for 'idea'?

1) ho
4) pe
2) fa
3) si
Po ki gi could be a code for which of the following?

1) all is right
2) all is well
4) always is right
5) None of these
3) all are right
What is code for always?

1) gi
4) pe
3) ho
2) he
5) po
Directions (Q. 96-100): On the basis of the information given below, answer the following questions:
Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows. Jimmey, Juli, Jeena, Julian, Jack and Jaz are sitting in Row I and are facing
south. Tinku, Minku, Keri, Kunj, Komal and Shail are sitting in Row II, facing north.
Komal sits second to the left of Tinku, who is not at any of the ends. Jeena is on the immediate left of the one who is
facing Tinku. There are exactly two persons between Jimmy and Jack. Neither Jimmey nor Jack sits atanyof the extreme ends
and neither Komal nor Tinku faces either Jack or Jimmy. Julian is facing Shail, who is sitting at an extreme end and Juli is not at
any of the ends. Jack is not sitting adjacent to Julian. Minku is not facing Jimmy and between Minku and Kunj there are as
many persons as there are between Jeena and Jaz.
96.
97.
Who among the following sit at extreme ends?

1) Minku, Jeena
2) Komal, Jimmey
4) Juli, Keri
5) None of these
3) Komal, Jaz
Who is facing Jeena?

1) Kunj
4) Can't be determined
3) Keri
2) Minku
5) None of these
98.
Jack is related to Tinku in the same way as Jimmey is related to Shail. Keri is related to which ofthe following in the
same pattern?
1) Juli
2) Komal
3) Kunj
4) Shail
5) None of these
99.
Which of the following is true?

1) Jaz is sitting opposite of Minku
2) Tinku is on the immediate left of Kunj
3) There is exactly one person sitting between Juli and Julian
4) Jeena is facing the neighbour of Kunj
5) None of these
100. How many persons are sitting between Tinku and Shail?
1) Three
2) One
4) Two
3) Four
(15): E A D B F C
1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4.1
6. 2
7. 2
8. 4
9. 1
11. 1
12. 4
13. 5
14. 3
16. 2
17. 1
18. 4
19. 5
21. 1; Replace mid with midst
22. 5; No error
23. 1; Add be after to
24. 3; Replace has with have
25. 3; Replace bottleneck with bottlenecks
5. 5
10. 2
15. 2
20. 3
26. 4
27. 1
28. 3
29. 2
30. 5
31. 5; The series is: +61, +68, +75, +82, + 89
+9, +22, +41, +66, + 97
3 5 + 2, 17 6 + 4, 106 7 + 6, 748 8 + 8,
5992 9 + 10 = 53938
50 + 18 = 68
68 + 22 = 90
90 + 26 = 116
116 + 30 = 146
146 + 34 = 180
3 + 32 = 12
4 + 42 = 20
5 + 52 = 30
6 + 62 = 42
7 + 72 = 56
8 + 82 = 72
36. 4; ? 9260 386 225 24 225 = 5400
37. 1; ? 130 25 +
120 1255
= 3250 + 1506 = 4756
100
38. 5;
841 3 1728 = 29 12 = 348
39. 2; ? (495 9 23) 5 = 6325

40. 3; ? (121 292 369 9 2) 8 = 362153
41. 5; I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0
or, 3x2 + 6x + 7x + 14 = 0
or, 3x(x + 2) + 7(x + 2) = 0
7
or, x = -2,
3
II. 5y2 + 18y + 16 = 0
2
or, 5y + 10y + 8y + 16 = 0
or, 5y(y + 2) + 8(y + 2) = 0
8
or, y = -2,
5
The relationship cannot be established
8
3
2 3
( x ) = 841
or, ( x ) = 841
42. 5; I.
or, x2 = 841
or, x = 29
II.
43. 1;
( y)
1 6 14

2 9 3
= 729
or, y2 = 729
or, y = 27
The relationship cannot be established.
I. 5x + 2y = 31
II. 3x + 7y = 36
Solving (I) and (II) we get
15x + 6y = 93
15x + 35y = 180
29y = 87
x=5
y=3
Hence, x > y
44. 1; I. x2 12x + 32 = 0
or, x2 12x + 32 = 0
or, x = 8, 4
II. y2 + 7y + 12 = 0
or, y = 4, 3
Hence, x > y
45. 5; I. 2x2 + 11x + 12 = 0
or, x =
or, x = -4,
3
2
3
2
II. 5y2 + 27y + 10 = 0

or, y =
25 2
,
5 5
2
or, y = 5,
5
The relationship cannot be established.
(46-50): Marks obtained by the six students:
Sub
Stu
Math
Eng
Eco
His
A
B
C
D
E
F
48
56
64
72
40
32
70
80
85
95
40
80
75
75
90
120
135
60
80
100
120
160
140
120
46. 4; Required percentage marks
Hindi Geog
80
60
90
60
70
40
56
42
42
28
70
42
(56 + 80 + 75 + 100 + 60 + 42)

413
100 = 59%
= (80 + 100 + 150 + 200 + 100 + 70)100 =
700
47. 4; Student
Total marks
A
409
B
413
C
491
D
535
x2 + 27x 18x 486 = 0

x (x + 27) 18 (x + 27) = 0
x = 18, 27 we neglect the negative value
E
F
495
374
495
48. 2; Required average marks =
= 82.5
6
49. 3; Required average marks
5400
80 + 100 +120 +160 +140 + 120

720
= 6 = 120
6
50. 2; Required ratio = 179 : 196.
51. 2; Required average
60. 2;
x
x
then, 9.5
+ 6.5 = 1
33 +12
28 +8
18000 +
14000
100
100
=
4
6.5 x + 9.5 x = 9.5 6.5
45180 + 36140
=
4
52. 2;
9.5 6.5
61. 3;
29180 28140
100
28140
3.86 km.
Difference (100)3
r 2 (300 + r)
122 100 100 100

25 305
= ` 16,000
2800 1260
2800
100 = 55%
54. 5; Required total = 12 140 + 12 180

= 1680 + 2160 = ` 3840
55. 1; Expenses on rent in June = 33 180 = ` 5940
Expenses on clothes in May = 8 140 = ` 1120
56. 4; Required probability =
57. 2; There are two possibilities for every student either

fail or pass
Total Number of ways = 28 = 256
x
Let the fraction be y .
Then,
x+
250x
100 = 7 100x + 250x = 7 350x = 7

100y + 140y 12
140y 12
240y 12
y+
100
x
7 240 2
=
=
y 350 12
5
Let each student got x sweet then
5400
100 (x+9)= 5400

x
54
x 1 (x + 9) = 54
(54 x) (x + 9) = 54x
x2 + 9x 486 = 0
62. 2;
(A and B)s 1 day is work =
18
1
15
11
(Total 2days work) =
90
88
16 days work =
90
Remaining work = 1
88
90
5940 1120
100
430%
1120
3
4
C2 C1
3 4 6
3
=
=
12
12 1110 55
C3
Required percentage more =
59. 2;
16
5220 3920
100 33%
3920
Required percentage less =
x=
Principal =
53. 4; Expenses on clothes in June = 7 180 = ` 1260

Expenses on education in May = 20 140 = ` 2800
58. 1;
8100 + 5040 = ` 3285

=
4
Required percentage increase
Hence, Number of Student =

= 300
18
Man's rate downstream = (8 + 1.5) = 9.5 kmph
Man's rate upstream = (8-1.5) = 6.5 kmph
Let required distance be x km.
1
45
is to be done by A
1
45
A complete the remaining = 1 = 18 = 2 days
45
5
18
Hence, total number of days = 16
2
5
days
63. 2; According to the question,

Let C.P be x
106.5x 96.5x
= 1000
100
100
x=
1000100
10
= 10,000
100 +15.5
1155
= 10000
1000
100
Selling Price = 10000
= `11550
64. 1; Let As Capital = 8
Bs Capital = 15
Profit Sharing Ratio
A : B = 8 3 + 6 7 : 15 3 + 12 7
= 66 : 129
= 22 : 43
22
As Share of profit = 113750
65
= 38,500
B's share in profit = 113750
65
65. 3;
(7175):
43
= 75,250
A 450 km B
|
2:00 p.m 360 km 4: 00 p.m
45 kmph
75 kmph
Distance travelled by A in 2 hours = 2 45 = 90 km
Remaining distance = 450 90 = 360 km
360
Time = 45 + 75 = 3hour
Time of meeting = 7:00 pm

66. 1; Given statements: K J S
... (i)
T>S
... (ii)
T>Q
... (iii)
Combining all these statements, we get
KJS<T>Q
Thus, T > J is true. Hence I is true. We cant compare K and
Q. Hence II (K Q) is not true.
67. 5; Given statements: L M < N
... (i)
R>N
... (ii)
M=E
... (iii)
LM=E<N<R
Thus, L E is true. Hence I is true.
Again R > E is true. Hence II is also true.
68. 5; Given statements: W > X = Y
... (i)
Y > D = B A
... (ii)
W>X=Y>D=BA
Thus, X > A or A < X is true. Hence I is true.
Again, W > B is true. Hence II is true.
69. 4; Given statements: A > B
... (i)
JA
... (ii)
Z>JM
... (iii)
Z>JA>B
or, M J A > B
Thus, M > B is true. Hence I (M B) is not true.
Again, Z > A. Hence II (Z A) is not true.
70. 1; Given statements: P < D = E
... (i)
MJ<D
... (ii)
M>L
... (iii)
P<D=E>JM>L
Hence D > J is true.
Thus, I is true. But we cant compare L and P. Hence II
(L P) is not true.
71. 3
72. 1
73. 1
74. 4
75. 2
76. 2; All stars are moons (A) + No moon is a sun (E) = A+ E = No
start is a sun (E) + All sun are planets (A) = E + A = O* =
Some planets are not starts. Hence conclusion I does not
follows.
But, No moon is a Sun (E) + All suns are planets (A) = E + A
= O*. Some planets are not moons. It means all moons
being planets is a possibility. Thus conclusion II follows.
77. 5; All starts are moons (A) + No moon is a sun (E) = No star is
a sun. Hence conclusion I follows.
No start is a sun (E) + All suns are planets (A) = E + A = O*.
Some planets are not starts. It means. All starts being planets
is a possibility. Conclusion II follows.
78. 1; All i-Pads are laptops + Some computers are Laptops = A +
I = No conclusion but some relation between i_Pads and
Computer.
Hence, All computers being i-Pads is a possibility. Conclusion
I follows.
79. 2; No bottle is glass + Some glasses are jugs = E + I = O*
Some jugs are not bottles. Some glasses are jugs (I) + All jugs
are bowls (A) = I + A= I. Some glasses are bowls. It means All
bowls being glases is a possibility. Hence conclusion II
follows. But conclsuion I does not follows.
80. 1; No bottle is glass + Some glasses are jugs = E + I = O*. Some
jugs are not botles + All jugs are bowls (A) Some relation
between bottles and bowls.
Hence, All botles, being bowls is a possibility. Conclusion I
follows.
(81-83):
81. 4
84. 2;
85. 5;
82. 1
83. 3
(8690):
Persons
P
Q
R
S
T
U
V
W
86. 2
(91-95):
Subjects
English
Chemistry
Hindi
Bio
Maths
Geography
Sociology
Physics
87. 4
Days
Wednesday/Friday
Saturday
Wedneday
Wednesday/Friday
Saturday
Tuesday
Monday
Thursday
88. 1
89. 5
90. 5
are sa
all ki
is po
always he
right si
well gi
thought ho/pe
new ho/pe
ideas fa
91. 1
92. 5
93. 2
94. 2
95. 2
(96-100):
Jaz Jack Juli Jeena Jimmey Julian
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Row 1 (facing South)
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Row 2 (facing North)
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Komal Miku Tinku Keri
96. 3
97. 3
Kunj Shail
98. 1
99. 4
100. 4
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IBPSPO PRE 3
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.

Q.Nos.
1-30
Q.Nos.
31-65
Test III- Reasoning
Q.Nos.
66-100
answer all the three tests. The tests are not
separately timed. You may distribute the time as you
please but remember that to qualify in the written test
as a whole you have to qualify on each of the three
tests separately.
printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version
is printed on the left hand side page and the English
version on the right hand side page.
you. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in
this booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For
this purpose use the empty space in the margin or
anywhere else you find in this booklet. Do not use
any other paper.
Indicate your answers on the separate
answersheet (given at the end of the booklet), using
HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the
answersheet for indicating your answers.
answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for
answering the 100 questions given in this booklet.
When the instruction for opening the booklet is
given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the
left. Insert the blunt end of your pencil under the
sticker and tear it to open the booklet.
Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all
the pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are
properly printed in your booklet and then begin
answering the test. In case the booklet is defective
get it replaced by another test booklet.
Time : 1:00 hrs
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Test I
English Language
Directions (Q. 15) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to
form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) It has, for instance, the highest literacy rate among all states, and was declared the first fully literate state about
a decade back.
(B) Probably as a side-effect of economic and social development, suicide rates and alcoholism are also very high.
(C) Other parameters such as fertility rate, infant and child mortality are among the best in the country, if not the best.
(D) The state of Kerala, a small state in the South Western coast of India, has been different from the rest of the
country in many ways for the last few decades.
(E) Life expectancy of, both males and females, is also very high, close to that of the developed world.
(F) The total fertility rate has been below the replacement rate of 2.1 for the last two decades.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Which of the following would be the 'SECOND' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B
2) D
3) C
4) E
5) A
Which of the following would be the 'LAST (SIXTH)' sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) F
3) B
4) C
5) E
Which of the following would be the 'THIRD' sentence after rearrangement?

1) E
2) C
3) A
4) F
5) B
Which of the following would be the 'FOURTH' sentence after rearrangement?

1) F
2) B
3) D
4) C
5) E
Which of the following would be the 'FIRST' sentence after rearrangement?

1) A
2) D
3) E
4) F
5) C
Directions (Q. 6 10): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
number. Find the suitable word fromthe options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to
make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
It may not be a windfall gain but definitely signals an increase in (6) business opportunity. The rise in e-commerce and
e-commerce (7) transactions has meant a significant jump in banking transactions. Numbers clearly (8) this story. Industrywide data provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) website suggests that outstanding credit card loans stood at `30,300
crore as on 31 December 2014, up 24% from `24,400 crore a year ago. This scenario means that banks now have to deal with
much more data than ever before and a (9) and scalable IT infrastructure is the (10) of the day.
6.
1) potential
2) upgrading
3) approach
4) leading
5) pace
7.
1) retry
2) recommending
3) driven
4) connected
5) geared
8.
1) expected
2) role
3) view
4) consult
5) validate
9.
1) ultimately
2) robust
3) recent
4) realised
5) little
10.
1) client
2) decision
3) link
4) order
5) pleasure
Directions (Q. 11-15): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below should replace the phrasegiven in bold in the
following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no
correction is required, mark 5) as the answer.
11.
It is now well-known that the world response to the Asian tsunami disaster with an outpouring of generosity.
1) world responded to
2) worlds response to
3) world had a response
4) world responding for
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12.
The most important quality a chief executive candidate should have a noble character.
1) must have a
2) should have to be
3) should be
4) should have is a
13.
What is needed now is not mere declarations or promises, but actions-actions to fulfill the promises alr eady made?
1) promises were already made
2) already made promises
3) promises that we make
4) promises which already made
14.
What we have done is from humanity point of view?

1) have been doing was
2) had done being
4) have been doing were
15.
3) have done were
Despite considerable achievements in other areas, humans still cannot control weather and probably never be able to do
so.
1) probably not be able
2) perhaps be never have ability
3) probably will never be able
4) probably never be enabled
Directions (Q. 1620): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choose the set of words for each pair of blanks that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
16.
It would be a project for the entire world's nations

1) of, it
3) that, pact
5) like, it
take
2) to, pact
4) to, part
in.
17.
Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere

1) looked, bust
3) suffered, demand
5) proven, grew
18.
This can be seen as a big boon in the days to come when the current recession
comes
on to the fast track.
1) poses, close
2) arise, forth
3) exist, down
4) perceive, out
5) eases, back
19.
The jury is still very much

1) for, declared
3) short, issued
5) bigger, allowed
20.
Subsidised food grain is necessary in the times, but its

1) momentum, reform
3) effectiveness, depend
5) requirement, impolite
set to
as credit tightened and buyers evaporated.
2) ensured, lead
4) negated, gain
and the economy gradually
on this matter, and the controversy does not appear to be

2) out, resolved
4) large, modified
quickly.
will
a lot on the distribution system.
2) opponents, based
4) disadvantages, show
Directions (Q. 21-30): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are
given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The Islamic State (IS), which has morphed from ISIS or ISIL (Islamic State in Iraq and the Levant), which in turn morphed
from al-Qaeda, is a dangerous and worrisome phenomenon, with the potential of changing the political and geographical map
of West Asia. The entire international community, not just America and the West, ought to be concerned and join forces to
combat this menace.
Much of the world, including many in India, ascribes most of the ills afflicting the region of West Asia today to the
United States. There is justification for this belief to some extent. In particular, it can be asserted, with reasonable objectivity,
that the illegal invasion of Iraq in 2003 by the George W Bush administration on the most egregious excuse of non-existent
weapons of mass destruction is largely responsible for the chaotic and explosive situation in West Asia. That single misadventure
cost America more than 4,500 lives and $1 trillion, but the cost being borne by the region and its people, as well as by people
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beyond the region, is incalculable in terms of instability, growth of terrorism and the sectarian strife that it ignited.
The motivation of the Bush administration was a mix of oil and Israeli pressure. It deflected attention and resources from
what was then a winnable war on al-Qaeda. But that is all history. There is also the gross mishandling of the Syrian situation
by the West, which has made possible the emergence of phenomena such as Jabhat al-Nusra and the IS. However, now is not
the time to apportion blame or responsibility; there will be time enough for that. Hillary Clinton, who has already launched her
presidential campaign in anticipation of the Democratic Partys nomination, has openly criticised her former boss, President
Barack Obama, for lack of firmness in dealing with the Bashar al-Assad regime. The priority ought to be to collectively
deliberate on how to confront the present and clear danger posed by the IS.
The IS is a bigger threat than its progenitor, al-Qaeda. It has by far more funds than al-Qaeda; indeed, it is the richest
terrorist organisation in the world. It has modern weaponry, including tanks and anti-aircraft missiles, looted from the Iraqi
army that was equipped by the Americans, as well as from the Assad regime. It has a force of more than 10,000 fighters capable
of waging set-piece battles. It is tech-savvy and uses social media most effectively, not only in Arabic but also in several
European and Asian languages. It collects taxes and imposes its brand of law and order. It calls itself a Khilafat or caliphate, and
its CEO calls himself the Amir; he is both the secular and religious leader. The IS has the ideology that appeals to Muslim youth
across the world. All in all, the IS is a deadly entity and should be treated as such. The geographical map of the region has
already changed and will change further. The boundary between Iraq and Syria has been obliterated for all practical purposes,
with IS fighters operating freely on both sides. Indeed, the capital of this Islamic state is in Raqqa in Syria. It has also captured
at least one village in Lebanon. It will no doubt manage to add to the instability in Jordan. If Jordan gets infected, can Saudi
Arabia remain immune for long?
21.
Which of the following is primarily responsible for the chaotic and explosive situation in West Asia?
1) The origin and expansion of al-Qaeda
2) The illegal invasion of Iraq by the George W Bush administration on the excuse of non-existent weapons of mass
destruction
3) The gross mishandling of the Syrian situation by the West
4) The emergence of phenomena such as Jabhat-al-Nusra and the IS
5) All the above
22.
What has/have been suggested by the author to combat the dangerous and worrisome phenomenon of the Islamic State
(IS)?
(A) Syria and Iraq must come together and fight unitedly against the IS.
(B) America and the West should join forces and attack the Islamic state.
(C) The entire international community ought to join forces to combat the IS.
1) All (A), (B) and (C)
2) Only(A) and (B)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4) Only (B)
5) Only (C)
23.
What has been the repercussion of the invasion of Iraq byAmerica in 2003?
1) More than 4500 Americans lost their lives.
2) It cost America $1 trillion.
3) Growth of terrorism in Iraq and its surrounding regions
4) Emergence of sectarian strife in Iraq
5) All the above
24.
Find the incorrect statement on the basis of the given passage.

1) The IS is the richest terrorist organisation in the world.
2) The IS is tech-savvy and uses social media in Arabic, European and Asian languages.
3) The ideology of the IS appeals to Muslim youths across the world.
4) The IS has failed to capture any part of Lebanon till date.
5) The IS has successfully destroyed the boundary between Iraq and Syria.
25.
Why has Hillary Clinton openly criticised President Barack Obama? Answer in the context of the passage.
(A) Because President Barack Obama did not deal firmly with the Bashar al-Assad regime.
(B) Because President Barack Obama did nothing to stop the growth of al-Qaeda.
(C) Because President Barack Obama is not competent enough to handle such a grave situation as has emerged in the
West Asia.
1) Only (A)
4) Only(A) and (B)
2) Only (B)
5) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (C)
Directions (Q. 26-28): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in the passage.
26.
27.
28.
Egregious
1) concealed
2) outrageous
3) serene
4) mild
5) convincing
Confront
1) dodge
2) avoid
3) surrender
4) backdown
5) encounter
Obliterated
1) curved
2) created
3) destroyed
4) built
5) restored
Directions (Q. 29-30): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in the passage.
29.
30.
Afflicting
1) supporting
2) oppressing
3) grieving
4) agonising
5) hurting
Ignited
1) started
2) put out
3) flared up
4) inflamed
5) kindled
Test II
Directions (Q. 31 35): In each of these questions, twoequations numbered I and II with variablesxandy are given. You
have to solve both the equations to find the value of xand y. Give answer:
1) if x > y
2) if x y
3) if x < y
4) if x y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
31.
I. x 9 3x + 60 = 0
II. y 14 2y + 96 = 0
32.
I. 20x2 159x + 304 = 0
II. 25y2 120y + 108 = 0
33.
I. x2 5 5 x + 30 = 0
II. y2 7 7 y + 84 = 0
34.
I. 10x + 6y = 27
II. 45x + 24y= 113
35.
I. x2 14x+ 45 = 0
II. y2 20y + 99 = 0
Directions (Q. 36 40): In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
289, 360, 529, 841, 961, 1369

1) 289
2) 961
3) 529
4) 1369
197, 233, 297, 396, 541, 737

1) 396
2) 297
3) 541
4) 197
5) 737
157, 183, 210, 241, 273, 307

1) 210
2) 183
3) 241
4) 157
5) 273
92, 108, 124, 140, 156, 170

1) 92
2) 170
3) 156
4) 124
5) 140
154, 286, 396, 484, 550, 595

1) 286
2) 396
3) 595
4) 550
5) 484
5) 360
Directions (Q. 4145): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
41.
3?
= (792 46) 2277
1) 4913
42.
43.
44.
45.
2) 5832
4) 3375
5) 4096
(183425 43268 32417 27650) 10404 = ?

30
1) 272306
2) 292316
3) 272316
4) 271106
5) 274016
0.8 + 8 + 8.88 + 8.8 + 8.08 + 888 = ?

1) 911.56
2) 921.56
4) 922.56
5) 926.56
76 39 + 22 48 + 15 28 = ? 1800
1) 322
2) 302
3) 17576
3) 1272.06
3) 312
4) 333
3) 313
4) 306
5) 292
(39)2 229 = ? 4
1) 333
2) 323
5) 302
Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Percentage of students in six different colleges
Total number of students = 3500
E
7%
F
12%
Percentage of girls in each of the colleges

Total Number of Girls = 1800
F
17%
A
21%
E
8%
B
9%
D
18%
47.
B
10%
D
11%
C
31%
C
33%
46.
A
23%
What is the number of girls in College D?

1) 188
2) 192
3) 176
Which college has the lowest number of girls?

1) B
2) F
3) E
4) 164
5) None of these
4) D
5) None of these
48.
The number of boys from College A form what per cent of total number of students from that college ? (rounded off to two
digits after decimal)
1) 56.29
2) 22.83
3) 38.41
4) 43.67
5) None of these
49.
What is the total number of boys from colleges E and F together?

1) 310
2) 215
3) 283
4) 251
5) None of these
Which college has the maximum number of boys?

1) C
2) D
3) A
4) B
5) None of these
50.
51.
Biswas borrowed a sum of Rs 30,000. He took a part of it at 12% per annum rate of simple interest and the remaining at
10% per annum. At the end of two years, he returned Rs 36480 and discharged his loan. What was the sum borrowed at
12% per annum rate of interest?
1) Rs 16000
2) Rs 18000
3) Rs 17500
4) Rs 12000
5) None of these
52.
The value of a flat appreciates at 10% every year. If its present market value is Rs 1996500, what was its value three years
ago?
1) Rs 1525000
2) Rs 1565500
3) Rs 1525600
4) Rs 1565000
5) None of these
53.
The numerator of a fraction is increased by
1
4
1
and the denominator is decreased by
, the fraction thus obtained is
33
64
What was the original fraction?

1)
9
11
2)
3)
3
7
4)
7
9
5) None of these
3
54.
of its length and its area is 300 square metres. What will be the area (in metre2) of
4
the garden of breadth 1.5 metres developed around the field?
1) 96 m2
2) 105 m2
3) 114 m2
4) Can't be determined 5) None of these
The breadth of a rectangular field is
55.
In a two-digit positive number, the unit's digit is equal to the square of tens digit. The difference between the two-digit
number and the number formed by interchanging the digits is 54. What is the 40% of the original number?
1) 15.6
2) 39
3) 37.2
4) 24
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 56-60): Study the table and answer the following questions:
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six different subjects
56.
57.
58.
59.
Subject
Max. Mark
P
Q
English
150
77
69
Maths
200
89
71
Science
100
55
78
Hindi
80
85
79
Geog
50
76
67
History
150
79
84
82
69
65
65
87
92
S
T
U
73
58
66
76
54
61
67
74
62
82
72
64
68
62
73
70
86
78
What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by R in all the subjects together?
1) 74.66%
2) 74.64%
3) 76.64%
4) 76.44%
5) None of these
Approximately, what is the % of marks obtained by U in English, Hindi and Geography together?
1) 66.86%
2) 66.68%
3) 68.66%
4) 68.68%
5) None of these
What is the average marks obtained by all the students in Maths?
1) 145
2) 150
3) 130
4) 140
5) None of these
What are the total marks obtained by P in all the subjects together?
1) 533
2) 453
3) 573
4) 543
5) None of these
60.
What is the difference in the total marks obtained by Q in Science and History and that obtained by S in the same
subjects?
1) 36
2) 34
3) 32
4) 30
5) None of these
61.
In a partnership business A invests Rs 30,000 for three years, B invests Rs 40,000 for 2
years, C invests Rs 20,000 for

2
two years and D invests Rs 10,000 for five years. Out of the total profit made, C gets a share of 16% as a 'working partner'
before the profit is further distributed amongst all of them. What would be the share of C in the total profit of Rs 1,20,000?
1) Rs 32,400
2) Rs 36,000
3) Rs 36,300
4) Rs 28,800
5) Rs 33,600
62.
Atap Pcan fill a tank in 10 hours. Another tap Q can empty the tank in 11 hours. The taps P and Q are opened already for
one hour each. If P is opened first then after how many hours will the empty tank get filled?
1) 220 hours
2) 110 hours
3) 200 hours
4) 202 hours
5) None of these
63.
Six coins of equal weight, made of gold and silver mixed, were melted together and recast. In one, gold and silver were
in the ratio 2 : 3; in two others, of 3 : 5; and in the rest of 5 : 4. In what ratio were the gold and silver be mixed in the new
coins?
1) 169 : 191
2) 169 : 192
3) 169 : 197
4)169 : 181
5) Data inadequate
64.
Atrain leaves Pfor Q at the same time that a train leaves Q for P. The two trains meet at the end of 6 hours. The train from
Pto Q travelles 8 kilometres an hour more than the other. What would be the speed of the slower train if the distance from
P to Q is 528 kilometres?
1) 40 km/hr
2) 30 km/hr
3) 48 km/hr
4) 50 km/hr
5) Data inadequate
65.
The cost of 8 pens and 4 pencils is `176 and the cost of 2 pens and 2 pencils is `48. What is the cost of one pen?
1) `16
2) `14
3) `12
4) `18
5) None of these
Test III
Reasoning Ability
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers it rearranges them following
a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and its rearrangement.
Input:
wing basket 29 31 vain teacher criticise 48 present 58 statement 32 39
Step I:
wing basket 31 vain teacher criticise 48 present 58 statement 32 39 29
Step II:
vain wing basket teacher criticise 48 present 58 statement 32 39 29 31
Step III: teacher vain wing basket criticise 48 present 58 statement 39 29 31 32
Step IV: statement teacher vain wing basket criticise 48 present 58 29 31 32 39
Step V:
present statement teacher vain wing basket criticise 58 29 31 32 39 48
Step VI: criticise present statement teacher vain wing basket 29 31 32 39 48 58
Step VII: basket criticise present statement teacher vain wing 29 31 32 39 48 58
And step VII is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate
steps for the given input.
Input: walk critical 46 grammar 52 49 25 seat 36 money right 21
66.
67.
How many steps are required to complete the arrangement based on the given input?
1)Six
2) Five
3) Seven
4) Eight
5) None of these
Which of the following is third to the left of 'seat' in step V?

1)46
2) right
3)grammar
4) money
5) None of these
4)25
5) None of these
68.
Which of the following is the second last step of the above input?
1) grammar money right seat walk critical 52 21 25 36 46 49.
2) grammar moneyright seat walk critical 49 52 21 25 36 46
3) grammar money seat right walk critical 52 21 25 36 46 49
4) seat grammar money right walk critical 52 21 25 36 46 49
5) None of these
69.
Which of the following is second from the right in step III?

1) 52
2)46
3)21
70.
Which of the following element is exactly between fifth from right and sixth from left in step II?
1)49
2) money
3) seat
4)21
5)52
Directions (Q. 7175): In each questions given below three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I,
II and III. You have to take all the given statements to be true even if they seen to be at variance from the commonly known
facts. Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows from all the given statement disregarding commonly known
facts. Give answer:
1) if I and II follow
2) if I and III follow
3) if all I, II and III follow
4) if II and III follow
5) None of these
71.
Statements:
All leaders are citizens.

Some citizens are voters.
All voters are teachers.
Conclusions: I. Every teacher is citizen.
II. Some citizens are teachers.
III. All voters being leaders is a possibility.
72.
Statements:
No student is a foreigner.
All foreigners are teachers.
Each teacher is director.
Conclusions: I. Some teachers are not students.
I. No foreigner is a student.
II. All foreigners are directors.
73.
Statements:
74.
Statements:
75.
Statements:
Some pens are pencils.

All pencils are books.
No book is a copy.
Conclusions: I. All pencils are copies.
II. Some books are pens.
III. No pen is a copy.
All kites are planes.
No plane is a ship.
Some ships are boats.
Conclusions: I. Some boats are not plane.
II. No kite is a plane.
III. All planes being kites is a possibility.
Some profits are losses.
All losses are discounts.
Some discounts are gifts.
Conclusions: I. All discounts are profits.
II. Some gifts are discounts.
III. Some losses are gifts.
Directions (Q. 7680): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have todecide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient toanswer the questions. Read both the
statements and give answer:
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
76.
Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the immediate neighbour of R and P. All are sitting in a row facing North.
I. R is third to the left of T, who sits at one of extreme ends. P is not the immediate neighbour of R.
II. S sits exactly in the middle.
77.
Among A, B, C, D and E who is the shortest?

I. A is taller than B, who is not taller than C, D or E.
II. Only C is shorter than E.
What is Vivek's rank from the bottom in a class of forty student?
I. Sumit's rank is sixteenth from the bottom that is five ranks below than Vivek's rank.
II. Ravi's rank is eighth from the top, Vivek's rank is not below than Ravi's rank from the top.
How is P related to T?
I. K has two sons T and S, T's mother N is sister of P.
II. T and R are daughters of J. R's father M is father-in-law of P.
What is the code for 'star'?
78.
79.
80.
I. In a certain code language ''star shines in the sky' is written as 'ne te ke sn es' 'the sky is in blue colour' is written as
'ke es sn cr le'
II. 'star are in the sky' is written as 'sn jee ke ra es'
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four peoples in each in such a way that there is an equal distance
between adjacent persons. In first row - Mukesh, Manav, Mahesh and Manas are seated (but not necessarily in the same
order) and all of them are facing north. In second row - Monu, Mayank, Mridul and Manish (but not necessarily in the same
order) and all of them are facing south.
Mahesh sits second to right of Mukesh. Manish sits immediate right of the person facing Mahesh. Only one person sits
between Monu and Mridul. Mridul does not face Mukesh. Manav is an immediate neighbour of Mahesh. Manav does not face
Manish.
81. Who sits between Manav and Manas?
1) Monu
2) Manish
3) Mahesh
4) Mayank
5) None of these
82. If Mayank is related to Mukesh and Mridul is related to Manas, the in same pattern Mahesh is related to which of
the following?
1) Manav
2) Manish
3) Monu
5) None of these
83. Who faces Manav?
1) Monu
2) Mridul
3) Manish
4) Mayank
5) None of these
84. Who sit at extreme ends of the line?
1) Mayank- Mukesh
2)Manish-Manav
3)Mridul- Manas
4)Mahesh- Mayank
5) None of these
85. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their sitting positions. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
1) Monu - Manav
2) Mridul - Mahesh
3) Manish - Manas
4) Mayank - Manav
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 86-87): In the following questions four options are similar in a certain way and hence from a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
86. 1) Eyes
2) Kidney
3) Lung
4) Heart
5) Ears
87. 1) DGJM
2) KNQT
3) NQTM
4) EHKN
5)VYBE
Directions (Q. 88-90): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a six-letter English word (which mayor maynot be a meaningful English word) there are two letters between C and U.
S is not immediately next to L. There is only one letter between A and S. S is not immediately next to E. U is towards the right
of L. L is immediate next to C. E is not towards immediate next to L.
88. Which of the following is true with respect to the word thus formed?
1) A is at one of the extreme ends of the word.
2) There are three letters between A and E in the word thus formed.
3) L is placed at fifth from the right end.
4) U is immediate next to L.
5) None of these
89.
90.
Which of the following words can be formed based on the given conditions?
1) CLUASE
2) CLAUSE
3)ALUCSE
4) SCLUAE
5) LECUSA
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word thus formed, based on the given condition, each of which has as
manyletters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabetical series?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) More than four
Directions (Q. 91 96): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a family, eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily
in the same order. Their arrangements are
S's father is sitting second to the left of his nephew. Q is the son of U, who is second to the right of her son.
S is the father of V and one person sits between V and T. S's wife is opposite of T.
Q's brother T, who is the immediate neighbour of R's son. Q is the father of W. No male is adjacent to R.
U is the sister of R and R is not sitting to the left of Q.
P is the mother of V.
91.
What is the position of R with respect to his daughterinlaw?

1) Second to the left
2) Second to the right
4) Immediate right
92.
How is T related to R?
1) Daughter
2) Niece
93.
How is T related to W?
1) Father
4) Brother
94.
95.
96.
3) Son
2) Uncle
What is the total number of males in the family?

1)Six
2) Three
4) Two
5) None of these
How many children does U have?
1) One
2) Three
3) Five
3) Immediate left
4) Nephew
5) None of these
3) Fatherinlaw
4) Four
5) Two
How many persons is/are between Q and his/her uncle in clockwise direction counting with Q?
1) One
2) None
3) Two
4) Four
A business school with six professorsAshok, Birendra, Chetan, David, Ervin and Faizal has decided to implement a new
scheme of management course . Each professor has to coordinate one course and support another course. This semester David's
support course is Finance while three other professors are its coordinators. Ervin and Faizal have marketing as one of their courses.
Faizal coordinates Operations, which is a support course for both Chetan and Ervin. Finance and IT are Ashok's courses. Both
Ashok and David have the same courses. Strategyis a support course for only one of the professors. The courses are IT, Strategy,
Operations, Finance and Marketing.
97.
98.
99.
Who among the following are coordinating Finance course?

1) Ashok, Chetan and David
2) Birendra, Chetan and David
4) Ashok, Birendra and Chetan
5) None of these
3) Faizal, Chetan and Ashok
Who supports Marketing?

1) Faizal
4) Both Ashok and Chetan
3) Both Ervin and Chetan
2) David
Who supports strategy and coordinates Finances?

1) Ashok
2) Birendra
4) Ervin
5) Either 1 or 2
100. Faizal is supporting which management course?

1) IT
2) Strategy
4) Finance
5) Marketing
3) Chetan
3) Operation
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IBPSPO PRE 4
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.

Q.Nos.
1-30
Q.Nos.
31-65
Test III- Reasoning
Q.Nos.
66-100
answer all the three tests. The tests are not separately
timed. You may distribute the time as you please but
remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole
you have to qualify on each of the three tests
separately.
printed in both Hindi and English. The Hindi version is
printed on the left hand side page and the English
version on the right hand side page.
you. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks
assigned to that question
will be deducted as
penalty.
Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this
booklet itself and not on the answersheet. For this
purpose use the empty space in the margin or anywhere
else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other
paper.
Indicate your answers on the separate answersheet
(given at the end of the booklet), using HB Pencil.
Follow the instructions given on the answersheet for
indicating your answers.
answering 100 questions. Use 100 answer spaces for
answering the 100 questions given in this booklet.
When the instruction for opening the booklet is given,
do not try to remove the wire staples at the left. Insert
the blunt end of your pencil under the sticker and tear it
to open the booklet.
Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the
pages containing questions from 1 to 100 are properly
printed in your booklet and then begin answering the
test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by
another test booklet.
Time : 1:00 hrs
Test I
English Language
Directions (Q. 15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The
1.
This magazine offers 1)/ very enlighten and useful information 2)/ regarding the REITs 3)/ in India. 4)/ No error 5)
2.
Soon women started coming to her 1)/ for advice on marital problems, 2)/ then for large issues 3)/ of safety and security.
4) /No error 5)
3.
Shreya first tried to move away 1)/ from the family tradition to practise law 2)/ when she took off 3)/ to the UK to study
physics. 4)/No error 5)
4.
It is important to use 1)/ technology an enabler via mobile banking 2)/ because large numbers of Indians 3)/ are using
mobile phones. 4)/ No error 5)
5.
This is certainly 1)/ not the first time 2)/ that the government of India 3)/is testing waters with digitization. 4)/ No error 5)
Directions (Q. 6-10): Given below are five sentences, ie A), B), C), D) and E). Arrange them in a proper order so as to
forma meaningful paragraph and then answer the following questions.
(A) There can be no two opinions that the private sector is much more efficient in planning, implementation and capital
utilisation.
(B) We have an increasing number of medical tourists from not only our immediate neighbourhood but from developed
nations as well.
(C) The question, however, is how to engage them successfully.
(D) India today produces the largest number of doctors, nurses and medical technicians in the world.
(E) Yet the vast majority of Indians languish without adequate healthcare facilities, despite increasing budgetary
allocations.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Which will be the third sentence in the paragraph?

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Which will be the last sentence in the paragraph?

1) E
2) D
3) C
4) B
5) A
Which will be the first sentence in the paragraph?

1)A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Which will be the fourth sentence in the paragraph?

1) E
2) D
3) C
4) B
5) A
Which will be the second sentence in the paragraph?

1)A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Directions (Q. 11- 15): Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/ phrase given in bold
in the sentence tomake it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and nocorrection is required, mark
(5), i.e. ( No correction required), as the answer.
11.
It is argued that increases in energy costs is resulted in cost-push inflation.

1) are resulting in
2) is resulting in
3) are resulting at
4) do result at
12.
There would be the ways less sensible to spend it.

1) sensible way least
2) the sensible ways less
4) less sensible ways
3) the less ways sensible
13.
He wants to use stimulus of advance his long term priorities.

1) to use stimulus for
2) to use the stimulus to
4) to stimulus for making
3) to stimulus for using
14.
PM's goal to exploiting this crisis in the best sense of the word, to start pursuing his vision of a greener, fairer, more
competitive, more sustainable economy.
1) goal to exploit
2) goal not to exploit
3) goal is to exploit
4) goals are exploiting
15.
We must remember the substance of which life is made.

1) would remember
2) shall remind
4) hardly remind
3) have remember
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each of the following sentences, there are two blank spaces, Below each sentence there are
five pair ofwords denotedby numbers(1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out, whichpair of wordscanbe filled upinthe blanks in the
sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
16.
If the banks desire to

1) lose, concentrate
4) maximise, traditional
profit, they should get rid of

2) increase, populist
5) make, unsteady
17.
He was imature in his young age when he became completely

1) collapsed, army
2) engrossed, people
4) seized, soldiers
5) broken, rules
18.
The man who does not

1) see, good
4) see, worse
19.
Being, a kind hearted master, he never

too
1) does, much
2) entrusts, easy
4) imposes, much
5) assigns, little
20.
On account of the
1) dearth, emaciated
4) sacrifice, agitated
measures.
3) earn, unhealthy
by German
and writing of Shakespeare.
3) captivated, literature
that the good of every living creature is him

is a fool.
2) know, had
3) understand, ugly
5) understand, better
work on his servants.
3) performs, little
of grass on the arid plains the cattle became

2) dearth, flippant
5) crisis, jubilant
.
3) abundance, arrangement
Directions (Q. 2130): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases
As more Indians become tech savvy even fraudsters seem to be getting savvier. The number of cyber frauds has jumped
substantially as more customers start using mobile banking, NEFT and RTGS.
Whether its financial transactions, customer experience, marketing of new products or channel distribution, technology
has become the biggest driver of change in the financial services sector. Most financial institutions are therefore insisting on
cashless and paperless transactions.
According to the Reserve Bank of India of 58 crore total bank account holders around 2.2 crore bank account holders
use mobile banking applications. The mobile banking transactions have jumped from ` 1,819 crore in 2011/12 to ` 10,000 crore
in 2014/15. The mobile frauds jumped from less than ` 10 crore in 2011/12 to around ` 70 crore in 2014/15.
The biggest kind of frauds in the banking sector include: documentation frauds, diversion of funds, identity theft and
cyber related theft targeting customers directly. In cyber frauds the customers were cheated through site cloning, hacking,
debit card scheming, social engineering and computer viruses amongst others.
Mobile banking application being mapped to an incorrect mobile number: For bank customers who do not use mobile
banking, an employee of the bank could attach an associates mobile number to the bank account and install a mobile
application on his mobile device. The customers account is compromised by the associate and he or she does not get any
notification about the same.
According to the report the heavy reliance on telecom operators for its services, the prevention and detection of frauds
in mobile banking have become even more complex
21.
Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
1) Internet banks rely heavily on noninterest income.
2) Internet banking has gained worldwide acceptance as a new delivery channel for performing various banking
transactions.
3) Internet banking model offers advantages only for customers.
4) Only 1) and 3)
5) All of the above
22.
What is the main issue the passage is talking about?

1) Cyber frauds
2) Online banking
4) RTGS
5) Mobile banking
3) NEFT
23.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'substantially' as used in the passage?
1) Rarely
2) Randomly
3) Slightly
4) Extensively
5) Rightly
24.
According to the passage, which of the following is the most important driver of development in the financial services
sector?
1) Net banking
2) Cyber crime
3) Information technology
4) RBI
5) None of these
25.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'prevention' as used in the passage?
1) Inhibitor
2) Forestalling
3) Determent
4) Avoidance
5) Continuation
26.
Which of the following statement is correct according to the passage?

1) Internet banking is the efficient tool for the banks.
2) There is single banking software vendor in India.
3) Only few banks have launched mobile banking alerts for its customers.
4) Mobile banking users would double globally in the next two years.
5) None of these
27.
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word 'cloning' as used in the passage?
1) Producing
2) Aborting
3) Duplicating
4) Destroying
5) Mitigating
28.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'insisting' as used in the passage?
1) Straining
2) Claiming
3) Tolerating
4) Rejoicing
5) Activating
29.
As referred to in the passage, which of the following is a type of extortion in the banking sector?
1) Alteration of funds
2) Conformity of funds
3) Agreement on transactions
4) Verification of identity
5) Lack of documentation
30.
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word 'compromised' as used in the passage?
1) Disapproved
2) Conciliated
3) Adjusted
4) Arbitrated
5) Disputed
Test II
Directions (Q. 3135): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
97, 218, ?, 274, 15, 346

1) 73
2) 59
3) 49
4) 42
5) 234
84, 128, 258, 647, 1943, ?

1) 6802.5
2) 7774
3) 4859.5
4) 5829
5) 8745.5
382, 554, ?, 994, 1262

1) 760
2) 758
3) 774
4) 802
5) 779
108, 123, 153, ?, 333, 573

1) 218
2) 243
3) 233
4) 198
5) 213
1728, 1575, 1428, ?, 1152

1) 1245
2) 1269
3) 1315
4) 1215
5) 1287
Directions (Q. 3640): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
17690 + 7568 = ?
1) 240
2) 220
3) 210
4) 235
5) 230
114.9% of 438 + 13.94% of 1005 = ? 125

1) 770
2) 760
3) 779
4) 762
5) 775
18.9 25.01 13.01 = ?

1) 6185
2) 6275
3) 6175
4) 6195
5) 6075
49.1% of 800 + 81.9% of 900.01 = ?

1) 1130
2) 1142
3) 118
4) 1146
5) 1138
(82051.98 280.92) 4.15 = (?)2 + (?) + 1

1) 10
2) 8
3) 4
4) 6
5) 12
Directions (Q. 41 45): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are
given. You have tosolve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer:
1) if x > y
2) if x y
3) if x < y
4) if x y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined.
II. y2 6y + 8 = 0
41.
I. 7x2 17x+ 6 = 0
42.
I. 2x2 11x+ 12 = 0
43.
I. x2 + 2x 80 = 0
44.
I. 7x + 3y = 50
II. 2x + 17y = 18
45.
I. 3x2 31x+ 76 = 0
II. 2y2 17y + 35 = 0
II. 2y2 + 25y + 77 = 0

II. 2y2 39y + 190 = 0
Directions (Q. 46 - 50): Study the piechart carefully and answer the questions given below.
Percentagewise distribution of people
Total table shows the ratio of male to
speaking different language in Delhi.
female to children speaking each language.
Urdu
6%
Bangla
4%
Tamil
7%
English
26%
Oriya
5%
Punjabi
22%
Hindi
30%
Number of people speaking Punjabi = 15400
Language
M: F : C
Punjabi
5:6:3
Hindi
7:5:2
English
9:6:7
Bangla
3:2:2
Tamil
8:4:2
Urdu
3:2:1
Oriya
4:5:5
46.
The total number of Tamil and Punjabi speaking female is approximately what per cent of the total number of females in
Delhi?
1) 24%
2) 30%
3) 28%
4) 33%
5) 36%
47.
The number of Bangla speaking children is approximately what per cent of the number of Urdu speaking male in Delhi?
1) 38%
2) 41%
3) 32%
4) 44%
5) 36%
48.
What is the ratio of total number of males to the total number of children in the city?
1) 6721 : 3409
2) 6720 : 3519
3) 6820 : 3619
4) 6721 : 3419
5) 6720 : 3419
49.
The number of English speaking males are approximately what per cent more than those male who are speaking Oriya?
1) 410%
2) 425%
3) 644.5%
4) 415%
5) 435%
50.
Total number of Hindi speaking females are approximately what per cent of the Punjabi speaking people?
1) 48.7%
2) 42.7%
3) 41.7%
4) 51.4%
5) 44.9%
51.
Birju solved 90 per cent of the questions in an examination correctly. In the first section he solved 34 questions correctly.
In the second section he solved 80% questions correctly. What is the total number of questions in the second section
if the first section consists of 35 questions? (Assume that the question paper consists of only two sections.)
1) 20
2) 25
3) 30
4) 40
5) 50
52.
An aeroplane covers the four sides of a square field at speeds of 100, 200, 300 and 400 km per hour. Then the average
speed of the plane in the entire journey is
1) 200 km/hr
2) 192 km/hr
3) 250 km/hr
4) 198 km/hr
5) None of these
53.
If the ages of A and B are added to twice the age of C, the total becomes 210. If the ages of B and C are added to thrice
the age of A, the total becomes 230. And if the age of A is added to the thrice the age of B and thrice the age of C, the total
becomes 370. What is the age of A?
1) 40 years
2) 50 years
3) 60 years
4) Data inadequate
5) 30 years
54.
A certain sum of money amounts to Rs 2835 in 7 years at 5% per annum. In how manyyears will it amount to Rs 3255 at
the same rate?
1) 9 years
2) 10 years
3) 10.5 years
4) 11 years
5) None of these
55.
A path, all around the inside of a rectangular park 47 m by 45 m, occupies 516 sq m. What is the width of the path?
1) 2 m
2) 2.5 m
3) 3 m
4) 6 m
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 56-60): Study the following bar diagram carefully and answer the questions given below:
The consumption of three different fertilizers in nutrients terms are given:
Nitrogenous fertilizers
Phosphatic fertilizers
Potassic fertilizers
11310
10920
11353
10901
12000
11592
14000
10000
1667
4382
1567
4215
1567
1332
1373
2000
3914
4000
4112
6000
4799
8000
0
2006-07
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
64.
65.
2008-09
2009-10
2010-11
Find the average of phosphatic fertilizers from 2006-07 to 2009-10?

1) 4620
2) 4062
3) 4260
4) 2460
5) None of these
In which of the following did years the consumption of potassic fertilizers increase/decrease maximum?
1) 2006-07
2) 2007-08
3) 2008-09
4) 2009-10
5) 2010-11
What is the difference between the total consumption of Nitrogenous fertilizers and phosphatic fertilizers in 2009-10 and
2010-11?
1) 16333
2) 13633
3) 13363
4) 16336
4) None of these
The consumption of potassic fertilizer in 2010-11 in approximately what percent of that ferilizer in 2007-08?
1) 125.5%
2) 122.15%
3) 155.15%
4) 125.15%
5) None of these
Which year the consumption of all the fertilizers are maximum?
1) 2007-08
2) 2006-07
3) 2009-10
4) 2008-09
5) 2010-11
Approximately what will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs 37,000 after three years at the rate of 12 per cent per
annum?
1) Rs 17,760
2) Rs 14,982
3) Rs 18,870
4) Rs 15,982
5) Rs 19,760
The length of a rectangle increases by 20% and the breadth by 30%, then the area of the rectangle will increase by 1) 56%
63.
2007-08
2) 25%
3) 22 2 3 %
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
In how many different ways can the letters of the word ENGINEER be arranged so that the vowels always come together?
1) 240
2) 64
3) 264
4) 304
5) None of these
Five men, four women and three children can complete a work in 10 days. Aman does double the work a woman does and
a child does one-fourth the work a man does. How many women can complete the work in 31 days?
1) 6
2) 5
3) 4
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Shivendra started a business investing Rs 80,000. After three months Birju joined him with an amount of Rs 90,000 and
after another three months Raju joined him with an amount of Rs 1,20,000. Profit earned at the end of three years from the
time Shivendra started the business should be distributed in what ratio among Shivendra, Birju and Raju respectively?
1) 33 : 32 : 40
2) 32 : 31 : 40
3) 32 : 33 : 40
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Test III
Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q.6670): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
In a certain code language' interview is for job' is written as 'pic do zi nic', 'facing interview is tough' is written as 'qp zi gt
do', 'good job is tough' is written as 'pic zi gt dg' and 'face challenge for job' is written as 'pic nic lq zee'.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
What is the code for 'facing'?

1) qp
2) either pa or zee
3) lq
4) gt
5) None of these
What does 'do' stand for?

1) is
2) interview
3) facing
4) job
5) None of these
4) ze pic
5) None of these
Which of the following may be the code for 'challenge job'?

1) pic zee
2) pic pq
3) Either 1 and 2
Which of the following is represented by the code 'dg pic nic'?
1) doing good job
2) for good job
5) None of these
Which of the following is code for 'challenge'?
1) lq
2) nic
3) zee
3) for good interview
4) Either 1 or 3
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 7175): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The
statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer:
1) If only conclusion I is true.
2) If only conclusion II is true.
3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) If both conclusions I and II are true.
71.
Statements: K > R = T,
Conclusions: I. T > Q
II. T R
T > Q <K
72.
Statements: T N < S,
Conclusions: I. S > P
II. T > P
N > P <S
73.
Statements: J F > M > T,

Conclusions: I. F > Q
II. J > M
74.
Statements: K > T A = H D,
Conclusions: I. K N
II. TN
H= EN=D
75.
Statements: Q < T N = P < K,

Conclusions: I. T < K
II. Q < N
M < Q > J,
F > A Q > M
M >J
Directions (Q. 7680): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below .
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are eight persons sitting in two rows four in each row. R, S, W and U are facing towards North
and Rest of them facing south. They are at equal distance to each other in their respective rows. They sit is such a way that
each of them of one row is facing to another one of the other row. W is facing to the person who is third to the right Q. P is
not facing U. There is no any person right to R. V who is second to the left of T is not facing S.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
Who among the following facing T?

1) W
2) S
Who is second to the left of U?
1) S
4) P
3) U
4) R
2) W
5) None of these
5) P
3) R
How many persons between Q and the person facing S?

1) Two
2) Three
4) One
5) None
3) Four
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way. Find out the odd one .
1) T
2) Q
3) U
4) R
5) None of these
'Who is second to the left of R?

1) W
2) S
5)V
3) T
4) P
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six teachers. They teach different subjects. Those subjects are Hindi, English, Mathematics,
Sanskrit, General Studies and Science. Also, all the teachers teach in different schools. The schools are I, J, K, L, M and N. The
name of the subjects and schools are not necessarily in the same order as the names of the teachers.
P teaches in the school L. Hindi is taught in the school N. Q teaches Science in the school I. R does not teach in the
school J or K. General Studies is not taught by P, S, T or U. S does not teach in the school N or K. Neither English nor
Mathematics is taught in the school J.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
Mathematics is taught by
1) P
2) T
3) U
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
R teaches in which school?

1) J
2) K
3) M
4) N
5) None of these
Who among the following teaches in the school N?

1) T
2) U
3) S
4) P
5) Either T or U
In which school does S teach?

1) J
2) L
4) I
5) None of these
3) M
Which of the following is/are definitely false?

I. U teaches in the school N.
II. T teaches Hindi.
III. J teaches English.
1) Only III
2) Only II and III
5) None of these
3) Any one of the three
Directions (Q. 8690): In each questions given below two/three/four statements are followed by two/three conclusions.
You have to take all the given statements tobe true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows fromall the given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.
(8687): Give answer
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusion I and II follow.
86.
Statements: Some exams are hard.

Conclusions: I. No good is hard.
No exam is good.
II. Some hard are definitely not exams.
87.
Statements:
All good are naughty.

Some brilliant are daring.
II. No daring being naughty is a possibility.
Some boys are good.

No naughty is brilliant.
Conclusions: I. Some brilliants are boys.
(8890): Give answer

1) If only conclusion I does not follow.
2) If only conclusion II does not follow.
3) If only conclusion III does not follow.
4) If both conclusion I and II do not follow, but conclusion III follows.
5) None of these
88.
89.
90.
Statements: No red is white.

No pink is blue.
Conclusions: I. At least some red are pink.
III.Some white are not blue.
All pink are white.
Statements: No corner is a centre.

All sides are corner.
Conclusions: I. No side is a corner.
III.Some corners are not middle.
No centre is middle.
Statements: Some sets are papers.

All copies are books.
Conclusions: I. All sets being paper is a possibility.
III.All copies are paper.
No paper is a book.
II. At least some white are not pink.
II. All middle is definitely not centre.
II. All book being copies is a possibility.
'A B' means 'A is the son of B'.
'A B' means 'A is the sister of B'.
'A+ B' means 'A is the brother of B'.
'AB' means 'A is the mother of B'.
91.
92.
93.
94.
How is D related to M in the expression 'D F + K M'?

1) Mother
2) Aunt
3) Sister
4) Daughter
5) None of these
How is D related to M in the expression 'D F K M'?

1) Sister
2) Father
3) Daughter
4) Aunt
5) None of these
Which of the following means that 'F is the husband of K'?

1) K D M + F
2) K D + M F
3) K D M + F
4) K D M + F
5) None of these
How is M related to K in the expression 'K D + M F'?

1) Nephew
2) Aunt
3) Uncle
4) Niece
5) None of these
95.
Four of the following five alternatives are same in a certain way and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not
belong to the group.
1) 824
2) 263
3) 645
4) 669
5) 488
Five persons A, B, C, D and E all of different heights, different weights and different ages, are ranked in the decreasing
order of their height, weight and age, eg. the tallest person is ranked first and shortest person is ranked fifth and so on. No
person has the same rank in any of the two categories. The tallest person is ranked fourth in weight and second in age. the
person who is ranked third in weight is the shortest as well as the oldest. D is second eldest and E is ranked third in age. B is
not the shortest. The person, who is the heaviest is the third tallest and is the youngest. A, who is the second tallest, is the least
in weight
96. What were the rankings of C in height, weight and age respectively?
1) 3-5-1
2) 5-3-1
3) 3-4-1
4) 3-1-5
5) 1-3-5
97.
Who is fourth heaviest in the group?

1) B
2) D
3) C
4) E
98.
The highest rank of E is1) second in height 2) second in weight
3) third in height
4) third in weight
99.
Which of the following is definitely true regarding the given informations?

1) The person, who is ranked second in age, is ranked fourth in weight and third in height.
2) The person, who is ranked second in weight, is ranked fourth in terms of height and third in terms of age.
3) The person, who is ranked fourth in height, has the least weight and is ranked third in age.
4) The person, who is ranked fourth in height, is ranked third in weight and second in age.
5) None of them is true
100. What is false about B?

1) All the remaining people are lighter than B
2) B is youngest among all the persons
3) Be exactly between E and A when they are standing according to their heights
4) When arranged in ascending order of their weights, B is at the last position
5) None of these
IBPSPO-PT-B-004
y = 4, 2
1. 2; Replace enlighten with enlightening
y x or x y
42. 1; I. 2x2 3x 8x + 12 = 0
2. 3; Replace large with larger

3. 2; Replace to practise with of practising
4. 2; Add as before an
(x 4) (2x 3) = 0
5. 5;
6. 2
No error
7. 5
8. 4
9. 3
10. 5
11. 1
16. 2
12. 4
17. 3
13. 2
18. 1
14. 3
19. 4
15. 5
20. 1
21. 4
22. 1
23. 4
24. 3
25. 5
26. 1
27. 3
28. 3
29. 1
30. 1
x = 4,
2
II. 2y2 + 11 y + 14y + 77 = 0
(y + 7) (2y + 11) = 0
11
y = 7,
2
31. 3;
97
218
274
49
15
346
43. 3;
+112
132
+152
172
x>y
I. x2 + 10x 8x 80 = 0
(x 8) (x + 10) = 0
x = 8, 10
+192
32. 1;
II. 2y2 19y 20y + 190 = 0
128
84
233
272
312
352
647
258
3
+2 2 +2
2
33. 2; The series is :
192 + 21 = 382
5
+2
2
1943
(y 10) (2y 19) = 0
6802.5
19
7
+2
2
3 +2
y = 10,
44. 1; I. 14x + 6y = 100
II. 14x + 119y = 126
+ 25 = 554
+ 29 = 758
+ 33 = 994
+ 37 = 1262
+
__________________
113y = 226
y = 2
and x = 8
x>y
123
108
+15
153
+30
213
+60
333
+120
573
45. 5;
I. 3x2 19x 12 x + 76 = 0
(3x 19) (x 4) = 0
+240
19
x=
The series is:
(42)2 (6)2 = 1728

(40)2 (5)2 = 1575
(y 5) (2y 7) = 0
7
(36)2 (3)2 = 1287
y = 5,
(34)2 (2)2 = 1152
36. 2; ?
?
17689 + 7569 = 133 + 87 = 220
14
438 +
1005 +125
100
100
49
800 +
100
40. 2;
82
900 = 392 + 738 = 1130
100
(?)2 + (?) [(82052 281) 4] 1

2
(?) + ? = 73 1 = 72
41. 4;
(4650):
Male
Female
Children
Punjabi
22154=3388
1210
1452
726
Hindi
30154=4620
2310
1650
660
English
26154=4004
1638
1092
1274
Bangla
4154=616
264
176
176
Tamil
7154=1078
616
308
154
Urdu
6154=924
462
308
154
Oriya
5154=770
220
275
275
6720
5261
3419
115
= 503.7 + 140.7 + 125 = 769.4 770
No relationship between x and y exists
38. 3;? 19 25 13 = 6175

39. 1;
,4
II. 2y2 7y 10y = 35 = 0
(38)2 (4)2 = 1428
37. 1;
y > x or x < y
34. 5;
35. 5;
I. 7x2 14 x 3x + 6 = 0
(7x 3) (x 2) = 0
3
x=
,2
II. y2 4y 2y + 8 =0
(y 4) (y 2) = 0
46. 4; Required percentage = 308 +1452 100 33%

5261

48. 5;
176
57. 3; In 2007-08 =
Required percentage more =

Required percentage =
In 2008-09 =
220
58. 2;
200
300
2008-09 = 17958
2007-08 = 16797
2010-11 = 17359
2009-10 = 16702
Maximum in 2008-09.
61. 2; Required compound interest
100 100 100 100
400
4800
= 192 km/hr
= 51982.336 37000 = 14982.336

20 30
20 + 30 +
=
56%
62. 1;
100
63. 1; There are eight letters in the word ENGINEER. Among these
25
letters, vowels are E, I, E and E. Among these vowels 'E'
occurs thrice. Similarly, there are four consonants. Among

these consonants 'N' occurs twice. According to the given
condition consider all the vowels as one letter. In this way
We have
A + B + 2C = 210 years .... (i)
3A + B + C = 230 years ... (ii)

A + 3B + 3C = 370 years ... (iii)
5 letters can be arranged in
From (ii) and (iii), we get

4A + 4B + 4C = 230 + 370 = 600 years ... (iv)
A + B + C = 150 years
Now, using (ii), we get
Rs 2835 = (100 + 7 5) % of the sum
55. 3;
135 3255
% of the sum = 155% of sum
Rs 3255 =
2835
Since the rate of interest is 5% per annum, the sum will
amount to Rs 3255 in (55 5 =) 11 years.
Suppose the width of the path is x metres. Then we have
47m
ways
Hence, number of arrangements in which vowels are always

5! 4!
= 240
together = 2! 3!
64. 2; We have,
(i) efficiency of 1 man = efficiency of 4 children
(ii) efficiency of 1 woman = efficiency of 2
According to the given information,

(5 4 + 4 2 + 3 =) 31 children can finish the work in 10
days. To finish the work in 31 days we need a strength equal

to the efficiency of 10 children, ie 5 women.
65. 3; Shivendra
Birju
Raju
80,000 36
(6670):
: 90,000 33 : 1,20,000 30
33
40
interview is for job pic do zi nic

facing interview is tough qp zi gt do
good job is tough pic zi gt dg
face challenge for job pic nic lq zee
47 45 - [(45 - 2x) (47 - 2x)] =

or, (45 - 2x) (47 - 2x) = 1599
From (i), (ii) and (iii), is zi

From (ii), (iii) and (v), tough gt
516
From (i), (ii), (v) and (iv), job pic
Solving the above equation, we get
From (i), (ii) and (v), interview do
x= 3m
3914 + 4112 + 4799 + 4215

56. 3;
Average =
= 4260
children
(iii) efficiency of 1 man = efficiency of 2 women
= 32
45m
ways and the four vowels can
3!
Path
xm
4!
be arranged in
or, 2A = 80 years
A = 40 years
Here,
5!
2!
(3A + B + C) - (A + B + C) = 230 - 150
54. 4;
100 = 125.15%
112 112 112 112
37000
= 37000
1200 4
4800
=
12 + 6 + 4 + 3
1332
60. 4; 2006-07 = 16188
Total time
= 1200 + 1200 + 1200 + 1200
53. 1;
Difference = 22230 8597 = 13633.
1667
Total dis tan ce
100
100 = 6.38%
1567
In 2010 - 11 =
x = 25
52. 2; Suppose one side of the square

= 1200 km (LCM of 100, 200, 300 and 400)
100
100 = 17.64%
34 + x 80
100 90
=
35 + x
100
Average speed =
1332
In 2009-10 = No change
1650
100 48.7%
3388
51. 2; Suppose the number of questions in the second section was
x. Then we have
50. 1;
235
100 644.5%
100 = 2.99%
1373
Required ratio = 6720 : 3419
1638 220
49. 3;
41
100 38%
462
From (iii), (v), (vi) and (vii), good dg
...(i)
...(ii)
...(iii)
...(iv)
...(v)
...(vi)
...(vii)
...(viii)
...(ix)
From (i), (iv) and (vii), for nic

From (ii), (v), (vi) and (viii), facing qp
66. 1
69. 2
71. 1;
Thus conclusion I is true.

Again,
...(x)
...(xi)
From (iv), (vii) and (x), face/ challenge lq/zee ...(xii)

67. 2
68. 1
70. 4
Given statements:
K > R= T...............(i)
Comparing Q & N, we get, Q < N

Thus conclusion II is true.
T
(76-80):
P V Q
South
R > Q < K............(ii)

Combining (i) and (ii), we get
W S U
R
North
Comparing T and Q, we get

T > Q.
Thus only conclusion I is true and conclusion II is not true.

72. 5; Given statements:
T N < S ................(i)
N > P < S.................(ii)
76. 1
(81-85):
T > P. Thus conclusion II is true.

J F > M > T ...........(i)
F > A Q > M.........(ii)
79. 3
80. 2
Subject
English, Math
School
L
Science
General Studies
S
T
U
Sanskrit
Hindi/English, Math
Hindi/English, Math
J
K/N
K/N
Comparing S and P, we get
78. 4
Teacher
P
S > P, Thus I is true.

Comparing T and P.
77. 2
81. 4
82. 3
83. 5
84. 1
85. 1
86. 4; Some exams are hard (I) conversion Some hard are
exam (I) + No exam is good (E) = I + E = O = Some hard are

not good.
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

87. 2; Some boys are good (I) + All good are naughty (A) = I + A =
I = Some boys are naughty.
Again, Some boys are naughty (I) + No naughty is brilliant
(E) = I + E = O = Some boys are not brilliant.
Comparing F and Q,
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
We get, F > Q . Thus I is true.
Now, No naughty is brilliant (E) + Some brilliant are daring

(I) = E + I = O = Some naughty are not daring. Hence,
Again, comparing (J and M), we get

J > M. Thus conclusion II is also true.
conclusion II follows.
88. 5;
K > T A = H D ......(i)
H = E N = D..............(ii)
No red is white (E) + All pink are white (A) conversion
Some white are pink (I) = E + I = O = Some red are not

pink.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Again, conclusion II may not follow from second
statement.
Again, All pink are white (A) conversion Some white

Comparing (K & N), we get
K > N. Thus conclusion I is not true.
are pink (I) + No pink is blue (E) = I + E = O = Some white

are not blue. Hence, conclusion III follows.
89. 5; Conclusion I does not follow from third statement.
No center is middle conversion No middle is a center.

Hence, conclusion II follows.
Again,
Comparing (T & N).
T N
Thus conclusion II is true.

Q < T N = P < K.........(i)
No center is a middle (E) + No corner is a center (E) = E +
E = No conclusion. Hence, conclusion III may follows.

90. 3; First conclusion follows from first statement and second
statement follows from third statement. Thus, both
conclusion I and II follow.

Again, No paper is a book (E) +
M < Q > J......................(ii)

M > J ...........................(iii)
All copies are book
conversion Some books are copies (I) = E + I = O* =

Some copies are not paper.
Combining (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
Hence, conclusion III does not follow.

91. 4;
M
Comparing T & K, we get, K > T

D
F (+)
(+)
GOVERNMENTADDA.COM
IAS4INDIA.COM
Hence D is the daughter of M.

92. 1;
()
K
()
F(+)
Hence D is the sister of M.

93. 2;
K()
F(+)
(+)
(+)
Hence F is the husband of K.
94. 2;
(+)
()
K(+)
Hence, M is the Aunt of K.
95. 3; 824 = 8 2 4 = 4
263 = 2 6 3 = 4
669 = 6 6 2 = 4
488 = 4 8 8 = 4
645 = 6 4 5 = 4.8 ()
(96-100):
Rank
Heights
Weights
Ages
96. 2
97. 2
98. 2
99. 2
100. 5
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