LANGUAGE TESTING

The purpose of the test

The purpose of the test is to know the ability of the student in mastering some lesson (topic)
that have been learnt by them before the test is held. The test itself is mid-semester test.
The target of English test
The target of this test is for the second grade in Junior High School students.
Sex

: female and male, most of them are female.

Age

: around 13-14 years old.

Mother tongue

: Indonesian (Malay).

Social situation

: in town, high class status.

Educational background

: good progress in learning English and most of them taking

English course.

The component of language

The components of language that covered in this test are vocabulary, grammar, speaking skill,
reading skill and writing skill. Vocabulary and grammar are tested in reading skill.
Maximum score
The maximum score of this test for reading and speaking skill is 100. But for writing skill the
maximum score is 90. The lowest score is 60. If the students does not achieve the minimum
score, the students will be failed and need to join in Remedial test.
Test format
a. Reading Skill
In reading test, there are 25 questions and the time for doing this test is 60 minutes. These
questions have 3 models of the test:
1. True or false. In this model, the student should comprehend the reading passage and after
that they are given some questions, and they should decide the questions are true or false.
In this model there are 5 questions, the point for each number is 2, if students are able to
answer all questions correctly, they will get 10 total points.
2. Fill in the blank. In this model, the students should comprehend the text and after that
they must answer the question based on appropriate answers and fill them at the
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blank/empty place at those questions. In this model, there are 5 questions, the point for
each number is 3, and so if the students are able to answer the questions correctly, they
will get 15 total points.
3. Multiple choices. In this model, the students are given a question with four answers, they
must choose an appropriate answer and make a symbol (X) to answer the questions, in
this model, there are 25 questions, and the point for each number is 1. So if the students
can answer all questions correctly, they will get 25 total points.
B. Speaking
In speaking skill, the teacher asked the students to make dialogue in pairs that have been
chosen by the teacher. The test sheet provides 20 topics. The teacher chooses the topic
randomly for the students. for each pair of students should make the dialogue in 5 minutes.
The time for this test is 60 minutes. The components that will be scored are the fluency, the
pronunciation, grammar that used, and the content should be same with the topics. The
highest point for each component is 25.
C. Writing
In writing skill, the test sheet provides 20 pictures. The teacher should choose the picture
randomly for the students. The word count minimum must be in 150 words. The text type for
the writing test is descriptive text. The students just have 45 minutes to write the writing test.
The components that will be scored are the idea of the writing, the grammar or structure, and
the tidiness of the writing. The point for idea is 40, for grammar 35 and for tidiness are 15.
Validity and Reliability
Content validity
The tests are taken from:
1. Grafindo: Contextual English Developing Competencies in English Use for SMP
Kelas II by Titie Suriyah K. dkk
2. Lembar Kerja Siswa: GURITA (Gigih untuk Meraih Cita), 2008, bahasa Inggris untuk
SMP kelas 8.
Measurement validity
Measurement validity can be seen after the try out.
Result validity
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Reliability
In this test, the level of difficulties for each model is same.
Ethic and Fairness
1. The side who are responsible in designing and developing the test are the teacher.
2. When the test is held:
Ethic
a. Teacher
The test sheet is kept and is brought by the teacher
The test sheet is given by the teacher
Teacher should come on time
- Teacher may not open the cover of the test sheet before come to the test
-

room.
Teacher may not walk around to the student in test time, except when

the teacher takes the attendance from the students.

Teacher should fair for all students.
Teacher may not add additional time for students, except with

particular excuse.
b. Student
- Students should wear tidy uniform and black shoes.
- Students should come on time. (7 a.m)
- Students should sit on the seat based on the map.
- Students may not open the test sheet before the next instructions from

the teacher.
Students may not cheating and make noisy in the classroom.
The students may not go outside before the bell is rung.
The students should put the test sheet on their own table when the time

of test finished.
Fairness
a. Students with any permission like sick, etc., so the students can follow the
test on another time.
b. Students in accepting reasonable, example: late; can follow the test and
have additional time.
c. Students do cheating will be forbidden.
d. Students provide own tool and borrowing them forbidden.

Post of Administration
The test is kept by the staff correctors at the school. The test sheet is corrected
by the staff of corrector and given away to the staff of processing the grading.
The scores are given by the subject teacher and the corrector. The score may
not announce to the students before in report time.
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Try Out
Try out is given a month before the real test is given. It will hold in the school at 26 classes.
The number of students for each class is 20 persons. The total number of students that follow
the try out is 520 students.

READING TEST
PART A
Instruction:
Read and comprehend the text and answer the question carefully. There will be a text and you
should determine whether it is the right answer or not based on the text, and you should make
a circle in your answer (there are only two choices, true or false).
Example:
The Cheetah
The Cheetah is sometimes called the hunting leopard but it is quite distinct animal. The
body is more slender and the legs are longer, while its coat has single spots, not rosettes. It
reaches a length of just over one meter, with tail about 75 centimeters long.
The question:
1. Leopards coat has three spots

To answer the question, initially you should comprehend the text, when you see the second
sentence; you will know that there is a clue or stated answer there. The question said that
leopards coat has three spots but in the text the leopards coat has single spots. It means that
the best answer for the question number one is FALSE.

The Wolf and the Lamb

A lamb had lunch with some sheep one day. She soon found some sweet grass at the
edge of the field. Farther and farther she went, away from the others.
She enjoyed herself so much that she did not notice a wolf coming nearer to her.
However, when she knew the wolf coming she was afraid and said, Please, please dont eat
me. My stomach is full of grass. If you wait a while, I will taste more delicious.
The wolf thought that was a good idea, so he sat down and waited. After a while, the
lamb said, If you allow me to dance, the grass in my stomach will be digested faster. Again
the wolf agreed.
While the lamb danced, she had a new idea. She said, Please take the bell from
around my neck. If you ring it aloud, I will be able to dance faster.

The wolf took the bell and rang it aloud. The farmer heard the bell ringing and
quickly sent his dogs to find the missing lamb. The barking dogs frightened the wolf away
and saved the lambs life.
Circle T if it is true and circle F if it is false.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A lamb ate grass with some wolfs.

The wolf came when a lamb enjoyed the grass.
The lamb slept and the wolf rang the bell.
The wolf did not ring the bell.
The farmer sent his dog to help the lamb.

T
T
T
T
T

F
F
F
F
F

PART B
Instruction:
In reading part B. you will be given a text and you should read the text carefully. After
reading the text, you will get some questions with uncompleted answer. So you need to find
the best answer to make the questions become complete (based on the text given).
Example:
Why the sun and the moon live in the sky
a long time ago, the Sun and the Moon are a married couple who lived on the earth and
were great friends of the Sea. One day, they invited the Sea to visit them. So the Sea go along,
with the fish and all the members of his family. Surprisingly, the water begin to rise, so that
the Sun and the Moon have to climb up to the roof because they dont want to be drowned,
then they climbed up into the sky, where they have remain ever since.
Question:
1. The Sun and the Moon..Sea to visit them
To answer the question, you should read the text carefully because most of the clues are
stated in the text. After reading the question number one, you can see in the second sentence.
The question and the second sentence have the similar point: to invite the sea. So the best
answer is invited.

The Fox and the Stork

A selfish fox invited a bird to dinner at his home. That evening, the bird came to foxs
home and knocked on the door. The fox opened the door and said, Please come in and enjoy
my food.
The fox invited the bird to sit down on the chair. She was very hungry and the food
smelled delicious! The fox served soup in the plate and he ate all his soup very quickly.
However, the bird could not eat the soup. The poor bird just smiled politely and stayed
hungry.
The selfish fox asked, Bird, why did not you eat your food? Dont you like it?
The bird replied, I am very happy with your invitation. Tomorrow evening, please
join me for dinner at my home.
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The next day, when the fox arrived at the birds home, he saw that they also had soup
for dinner. This time the soup was on the cattle. The bird drank the soup easily but the fox
could not eat the soup. This time it was his turn to go hungry.
Fill in the blank with the appropriate answer based on the text above.
6. The fox the bird to enjoy the food in dinner time.
7. The fox served and put the food in the ..
8. For the next day, the bird invited fox to . to birds home.
9. The bird ate the soup on the cattle.
10. So, the fox felt the birds feeling when the bird came to home.
PART C
Instruction:
In this part, you will be given some texts, grammar, dialogues and etc, with four choices for
those questions, so you should read the text carefully and choose the best answer by giving
the (X) symbol.
Example:
1. The bird..in the cage
a. Is
b. Am
c. are
d. Will
To answer the question, you should concern the subject. For question no. 1. The subject is
singular, so the right answer is (A).
11. A: There .. many students that failed the test.
B: Are you sure?
a. are
c. has
b. were
d. is
12. A: Tomorrow is my birthday party. Would you come to my party?
B: It sounds great, but I should do my homework.
From the conversation, we can see B did..
a. acceptance
c. rejection
b. warning
d. giving opinion
13. I see my mother entering .. sugar to make this cake.
a. many
c. much
b. any
d. a
14. A: is this pencil?
B: It is Rp. 2.500,00.
a. How much
c. How many
b. How often
d. How
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15. There three coconut threes in front of my home.

a. was
c. has
b. is
d. are
This text is for number 16-20.
Rafflesia Arnoldi
The vast archipelago and the great number of islands have made Indonesia the home
of a large variety of plant life. The Indonesia flora ranges from the tiny orchid to the giant
rafflesia plant. No wonder many botanists are curious to study these plants.
The Rafflesia Arnoldi is the biggest flower in the world. It is unusual because of its
large size. It has a flower almost a meter in diameter and 1.40 meters in height.
Rafflesia is derived from the name of British Governor General Sir Thomas Stamford
Raffles, who once governed and built the Botanical gardens in Bogor. Though it is called
after Raffles, the man who discovered the plant was Beccary, an Italian botanist who visited
Sumatra in 1928.
Rafflesia consists of two parts: the stick-like part, which grows in the middle and the
petals around and below it.
The Rafflesia plant begins to flower in its tenth year. It blooms three of four times a
year. Before it begins to flower, the leaves and the stem become dry look dead, but the main
root in the ground is still alive.
While the flower is blossoming, it has very unpleasant smell, which attracts insects,
especially green flies. They seem eager to explore the flower. But if the flies touch the bottom
part of the stick, like center, they die.
16. Why are many botanists curious to study about Indonesian flora? Because...
a. Indonesia is a vast archipelago
b. Indonesia has a great number of islands
c. Indonesia is the home of a large variety of plant life
d. Indonesia has the biggest flower in the world
17. Who discovered Rafflesia plant?
a. British Governor General
b. Arnoldi
c. Stanford Raffles
d. Beccary
18. Parts of Rafflesia plant is the main idea of paragraph...
a. Two
b. Four
c. Three
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d. Five
19. The vast archipelago and the great number of islands have made Indonesia the home
of a large variety of plant life. (paragraph one) the underlined word means...
a. Small
b. Large
c. Many
d. A lot of
20. They seem eager to explore the flower (paragraph 5). The word they refers to.....
a. Flowers
b. Insects
c. Green files
d. People
21. Nonik : Id like you to come to Tomy birthday party tomorrow.
Krisna : Thats very kind of you. But......there is no one at home.
a. I am afraid I cant
b. Thank you
c. Wed love to
d. Okay
22. Budi : There is a good film at studio one, Harry Potter is on there. Id be glad if
You could watch it with me.
Meme : ......I like the story of Harry Potter
a. Im not sure I can
b. Thats very kind of you but I have much work to do
c. How nice of you
d. I am afraid I cant
23. Amelia: Thats a lovely dress. Is it new?
Dian : Yes, it is. It is a birthday present from my mother.
Amelia: The color really looks nice on you
Dian : Thank you
The underlined sentence expressed....
a. Invitation
b. Agreement
c. Praise
d. Wish
24. Fredy : There is a good film in Atrium tonight....
Siska : Id love to
a. Id be glad if you could see it with me
b. Dont see it
c. Do you like it?
d. Dont go away
25. Susi : Will you come to my party next week?
Dony : Maybe, but Im not sure
Susi : Please, Dony
Dony : OK. I will come if....
a. I am busy
b. I have time
c. You are not alone
d. It rains
26. The lamp......above the table
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a. Are
b. Is
c. Was
d. Were
27. Ica
: Do you cook this omelet by yourself?
Ana : Yes, of course, how about the taste?
Ica
: The omelet is delicious
Ana : .............thank you
a. Im not sure
b. Im glad you like it
c. I dont think so
d. No problem
This conversation is for number 28 30.
Mom : How beautiful is it!
Man : Thank you. It is suitable for you, madam.
Mom : Is it OK to pay for it with Rp. 5.000,00?
Man : Oh, Im not sure madam. It is made by pure cotton so it should more than
Rp. 5.000,00
Mom : Alright, How .............. I have to pay?
Man : Rp. 10.000,00
Mom : Oh, OK.
28. The expression that underlined is about...
a. Agreement
b. Annoying
c. Praises
d. Happiness
29. Alright, How .............. I have to pay?
The word to fill in that blank is...
a. Many
b. Much
c. A few
d. A little
30. The man on the conversation is...
a. Costumer
b. Buyer
c. Salesman
d. Seller
This text is for number 31-35
Rhinoceros is one of protected animals live in Ujung Kulon. Unlike other rhinos, it
has one horn above its nose. Some people call it one-horned rhinoceros from java. This kind
of rhino is very rare in Indonesia, even in the world.

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One-horned rhinoceros is a big animal. It has a thick skin. It has a short neck, so it is
difficult to turn its head to either side. It cannot see well. Instead, its hearing and sense of
smell are good.
The big animal eats leaves, twigs, and certain kind of grass. It searches for food in the
afternoon after the sun goes down. During the hot part of the day, it plays in the mud turning
and rubbing its body to feel cooler.
31. Why is the rhino found in Ujung Kulon unlike any other rhinos?
a. Its body is smooth
b. It has only one horn
c. Its very famous for its skin
d. We can find it anywhere in Java
32. The third paragraph tells us about
a. A rhino feeds on plants
b. A rhinos horn
c. A rhino searches for food in the morning
d. A rhino can easily turn its head to either side
33. According to the text, a rhino is an animal, which has
a. Good eyesight
b. Good sense of smell
c. Thin and soft-skin
d. Two horn on its nose
34. A rhino cannot easily turn its head to either side because
a. It has thick skin
b. It has short neck
c. It has a bad eyesight
d. It has a good smell
35. It searches for food in the afternoon. (Paragraph 3), the underlined word means
a. Looks for
c. Looks at
b. Looks after
d. Looks up

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SPEAKING TEST
Instruction:
In this section, you will be given 20 situations with different topic. The teacher will choose
one of those for your speaking test with the duration 5 until 7 minutes. Do this conversation
in pairs. Grammar, Pronunciation and fluency will be scored by your teacher. So do this test
well. Do your best.
1. Tonight is your birthday. You want to invite your friends to celebrate it.
Unfortunately, one of your friends can not come. Please make the dialogue about this
situation.
2. Suppose you are in the traditional market to buy something. You find a good thing but
you do not know how much you have to pay for it. Make conversation between you
and seller for it!
3. There are new things that your friend has. Those are very beautiful and suit on
him/here. Make the conversation by using the expression of praise about this
situation.
4. There is a good movie in cinema, you want to invite your friend whether your friend
want to go with you or not.
5. Your friend got sick. You want to see her. Please make conversation about asking to
see your friend.
6. Yesterday, you lose your textbook, unfortunately, that book will be used today. So you
want to ask your friend to borrow her textbook.
7. Your friend invites you to go party in her house tonight, but you cant go because you
have to study for test next morning. Please make a dialogue about it.
8. You feel really interesting with your friends new dress. So, you also want to know
about that price.
9. Your friend buys a new watch that watch is very nice in her hands and you want to
give compliment for her.
10. Your friend asks you to join in group work. Because you have spare time, so you want
to join them.
11. You invite your friends to make a cake in your house.
12. Your friend tells you about her holiday in going to the zoo. You want to know how
many animals in that zoo.
13. You and your friend watch a film together. Your friend asks your opinion about the
movie. In your opinion that movie is boring and you will feel free to watch another
movie.
14. Your friend cant accompany you going to post office because her mother is sick. You
want to express your sorry feeling and wish her mother get well soon.
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15. You have homework to do. Your friend invites you to play a game. You will reject
him and explain your reason.
16. Your little brother asks you how lion looks like. You will describe the lion to make
him understand.
17. Your classmate needs red marker but he has the blue one. Besides, you have the red
one but not the blue one while you need the blue one. Please make conversation for
lending and borrowing each other.
18. You accompany your friend to buy a new dress. Your friend chooses one but in your
opinion that dress is not suitable for him. Please make conversation how to share your
opinion.
19. You come late in your friends birthday party. You will apologize to her and tell your
reason.
20. It is your first day school in junior high school. Your parents ask how your school
looks like. You will describe your school.

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WRITING TEST
Instruction:
In this section, you will be given 20 different pictures. And in this part, the teacher will chose
one of those pictures and you will be asked to write everything to describe the picture. To
write this, you should concern about the ideas, grammar, content and etc, because those
aspect will be scored.

Picture 1

Picture 3

Picture 5

Picture 2
15

Picture 4

Picture 6

16

Picture 7

Picture 8

Picture 9

Picture 10

Picture 11

Picture 12

Picture 13

Picture 14

Picture 15

Picture 16

Picture 17

Picture 18

Picture 19

Picture 20

Choose a picture and tell it into a descriptive paragraph. Write the text minimum in 150
words.