JAR PHYSICS REVISION 4

1.

The latent heat of fusion of a substance is defined as the amount of heat required to:
a)
change 1 kg of a solid at its melting point into a liquid
b)
change 1 kg of a liquid at its melting point into a gas
c)
change 1 kg of a liquid at its boiling point into a gas.

2.

A flying control system uses a fibre optic cable. Which of the following statements is true:
a)
The sensor needs electrical power.
b)
The sensor and transmitter both require electrical power.
c)
The sensor inputs to the transmitter, which needs power to send the signal down the fibre optic cable.

3.

Two loudspeakers produce sounds of the same frequency but different amplitudes. The sounds produced have:
a)
the same pitch but different intensity
b)
different pitch but the same intensity
c)
different pitch but the same quality.

4.

Sound is:
a)
electromagnetic radiation
b)
transverse wave
c)
longitudinal wave

5.

Which of the following is closest to the speed of sound in air at sea level?
a)
9.81 m/s
b)
340 m/s
c)
300 000 km/s

6.

For light striking a plane mirror, the angle of incidence equals:

a)
the angle of refraction
b)
the angle of reflection
c)
the angle of diffraction.

7.

When travelling into a material with a lower refractive index, light bends:
a)
away from the normal
b)
towards the normal
c)
along the normal.

8.

Which of the following does not change when light is refracted?

a)
speed
b)
wavelength
c)
frequency.

9.

Attenuation in a fibre optic cable is caused by:

a)
scattering and microbends
b)
absorption and scattering
c)
microbends and absorption.

10.

The speed of light is:

a)
3 x 108 m/s
b)
3 x 108 km/s
c)
3 x 108 km/h

11.

For a diffusing lens, the image is:

a)
real
b)
behind the lens
c)
in front of the lens.

12.

A fuel has a heat of combustion (calorific value) of 42 MJ/kg. This means that:
a)
42 kg produce 1 MJ of heat when burnt
b)
1 kg produces 42 MJ of heat when burnt
c)
42 kg produces 42 MJ of heat when burnt.

13.

Which statement is true for a gas that expands at constant temperature?

a)
heat has been supplied to the gas
b)
work has been done on the gas
c)
its volume is constant.

14.

In an adiabatic compression:
a)
no heat is supplied to the gas
b)
no work is done on the gas
c)
there is no temperature change in the gas.

15.

A gas is initially at 27C and 100 kPa. It is heated at constant volume until its temperature increases to 87C. What
is its new pressure?
a)
90 kPa
b)
120 kPa
c)
322 kPa

16.

An isobaric change is one with:

A
constant pressure
B
constant temperature
C
constant volume.

17.

Temperature is a measure of:

a)
the average heat energy of the particles in a substance
b)
the average kinetic energy of the particles in a substance
c)
the average potential energy of the particles in a substance.

18.

Aluminium alloy has a density of 2720 kg/m3. A cube of the metal has side of length 2 cm. What is its mass?
A
21.8 g
B
340 g
C
21.8 kg

19.

A U-tube manometer uses liquid of density 900 kg/m3. It is being used to measure the gauge pressure of a gas in a
pipe. If the gauge pressure in the pipe is 1.8 kPa, which of the following is closest to the difference in levels of liquid
in the arms of the manometer?
a)
200 mm
b)
500 mm
c)
1620 mm

Questions 20 and 21 concern the gear system connecting two shafts. Torque is being transmitted between the shafts using
gear A (the driver) and gear B (the driven). Gear A has 25 teeth while gear B has 75 teeth.

n = 25

n = 75

20.

When a torque of 100 ftlb is applied at the input shaft, what will be the torque on the output shaft?
a)
33 lbft
b)
100 lbft
c)
300 lbft

21.

When the input shaft is turning at 3000 rpm, what will be the speed of the output shaft?
a)
1000 rpm
b)
3000 rpm
c)
9000 rpm

22.

A block of weight 50 N is resting on a rough, horizontal surface. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between
the block and the surface are 0.45 and 0.40 respectively. What is the size of the minimum force required to keep the
block moving at constant speed across the surface?
a)
20 N
b)
22.5 N
c)
50 N

23.

An aircraft (mass 75 tonnes) is travelling at constant height and with a velocity of 360 km/h in a circular arc of radius
1.5 km. What is the size of the centripetal force acting on the aircraft?
a)
500 N
b)
50 kN
c)
500 kN

24.

A golfer strikes a ball. The ball travels a distance of 100 metres and reaches a maximum height of 15 m. Assuming
air resistance is negligible, which statement about the motion of the ball is true?
a)
Its velocity is constant.
b)
The horizontal component of its velocity is constant.
c)
The vertical component of its velocity is constant.

25.

A machine has a velocity ratio of 5. Which of the following is a possible value for its mechanical advantage?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6

26.

Methane (CH4) burns in oxygen (O2) to produce carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapour (H2O) according to the
following equation:
CH4 + nO2 CO2 + 2H2O
What is the value of n?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2

27.

Isotopes of an element have:

a)
the same mass number and the same atomic number
b)
the same mass number, but different atomic numbers
c)
different mass numbers, but the same atomic number.

28.

Which of the following statements is true about a single, complete atom?

a)
In the nucleus, the number of protons is always equal to the number of neutrons.
b)
The number neutrons in the nucleus is always equal to the number of protons orbiting the nucleus.
c)
The number of protons in the nucleus is always equal to the number of electrons orbiting the nucleus.

Questions 29 and 30 concern a test rocket of mass 300 kg. It is being fired vertically upwards. Its engine is switched on for 20
seconds, during which time the rocket accelerates uniformly at 40 ms-2.
29.

Which of the following is closest to the thrust of the rockets engine?

a)
3 kN
b)
12 kN
c)
15 kN

30.

Which of the following is closest to the gain in momentum of the rocket?

a)
750 kgms-1
b)
240 000 kgms-1
c)
300 000 kgms-1

31.

An aircraft is flying straight and level at a steady speed of 720 km/h. Drag on the aircraft amounts to a force of 6 kN.
What is the power output of the aircrafts engines?
a)
1200 kW
b)
4320 kW
c)
7200 kW

32.

A car of mass 3000 kg decelerates uniformly from a speed of 15 ms-1 to rest in a time of 10 seconds. How much heat
is dissipated in the cars brakes?
a)
33.75 kJ
b)
150 kJ
c)
337.5 kJ

33.

Nitrobenzene has the chemical formula C6H5NO2. How many different elements are there in a nitrobenzene
molecule?
a)
4
b)
14
c)
60

34.

A wagon of mass 2000 kg is travelling at 8 m/s when it collides and locks onto another wagon with a mass of 3000
kg. What is the speed of the wagons after the collision?
a)
2.5 m/s
b)
3.2 m/s
c)
10 m/s

35.

A chemical element consists of:

a)
atoms
b)
molecules
c)
ions

Questions 36, 37 and 38 concern an aircraft of mass 72 tonnes landing on a runway. On touch down it is travelling at a speed
of 50 m/s. It retards uniformly at 2 m/s2 and comes to rest.
36.

How far does the aircraft travel down the runway before it comes to a halt?
a)
180 m
b)
625 m
c)
1800 m

37.

Which of the following is closest to is the average braking force on the aircraft?
a)
144 kN
b)
1440 kN
c)
144000 kN

38.

The work done by the brakes in bringing the aircraft to a halt is equal to:
a)
the work done by the aircraft engines
b)
the loss in potential energy of the aircraft
c)
the loss in kinetic energy of the aircraft

39.

A vibration has a fundamental frequency of 100 Hz. Which of the following frequencies is the 2 nd harmonic?
a)
50 Hz
b)
200 Hz
c)
400 Hz

40.

A simple pendulum has a bob of mass m and a natural frequency f. If the mass of the bob is increased to 2m, which
of the following is true?
a)
The natural frequency of the pendulum falls.
b)
The natural frequency of the pendulum is unchanged.
c)
The natural frequency of the pendulum increases.

41.

An aircraft of mass 40 tonnes climbs at a steady speed from an altitude of 6000 m to an altitude of 8000 m. Which of
the following is closest to its gain in potential energy?
a)
0
b)
800 kJ
c)
800 MJ

42.

After touchdown, three forces slow an aircraft on the runway: retro-thrust from the engines, drag from the flaps and
friction in the brakes. Assuming the retro-thrust and braking forces are constant, the deceleration of the aircraft as it
slows down will:
a)
increase because the drag will decrease
b)
decrease because the drag will decrease
c)
increase because the drag will increase.

Questions 43 and 44 concern a diver. He is working at a depth of 30 m in a lake where the density of water is 1000 kg/m 3.
Atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa.
43.

Which of the following is nearest to the hydrostatic pressure on the diver?

a)
0
b)
300 Pa
c)
300 kPa

44.

Which of the following is nearest to the total pressure on the diver?

a)
0
b)
100 kPa
c)
400 kPa

45.

A barometer uses mercury of density 13560 kg/m3. On a particular day the mercury column is 763 mm high. What is
the atmospheric pressure?
a)
13560 x 763 kPa
b)
13.56 x 9.81 x 0.763 kPa
c)
13560 x 9.81 x 0.763 kPa

46.

The diagram below shows uniform beam. The beam has a weight of 50 N and a length of 300 mm. It is simply
supported at ends A and B, is carrying a load of 20 N as shown and it is in equilibrium:
300 mm
75 mm

B
20 N

The reactions from the supports on the beam are:

a)
b)
c)

5 N, 15 N
15 N, 55 N
30 N, 40 N

Questions 47 and 48 concern the pair of concurrent, coplanar forces shown below:

300 N
90
400 N
47.

What is the magnitude of the resultant of the forces?

a)
265 N
b)
500 N
c)
700 N

48.

What is the direction of the resultant of the forces?

a)
037
b)
053
c)
090

49.

50.

A diesel engine uses 120 kg of fuel in two hours. The calorific value of the fuel is 45 MJ/kg and the thermal efficiency
of the engine is 22%. The output power of the engine is:
a)

0.22 x 45 x 106
2 x 3600 x 120

b)

120 x 45 x 106
0.22 x 2 x 3600

c)

0.22 x 120 x 45 x 106

2 x 3600

Which of the following diagrams is the best illustration of the velocity profile of laminar flow in a pipe?

a)
51.

52.

c)

A copper bar has a length of 2.500 m at 20C. It is heated until it reaches a length of 2502.2 mm. If the coefficient of
linear expansion is 17 x10-6 K-1, to what temperature has the bar been heated?
a)

2.2 x 10-3
2.500 x 1.7 x 10-6

b)

2.500 x 1.7 x 10-6

2.2 x 10-3

c)

20C

+ 20 C
+ 20

2.2 x 10-3
2.500 x 1.7 x 10-6

C
C

A man of mass 70 kg is standing on bathroom scales in a lift. At a particular instant the reading on the scales is
75 kg. The lift could be:
a)
b)
c)

53.

b)

decelerating as it moves upwards

accelerating as it moves downwards
accelerating as it moves upwards.

The diagram below shows the belt drive between two pulleys:
belt

pulley A

pulley B

Pulley A has seized. The tension in the upper and lower runs of the belt are 80 N and 50 N respectively. The force
of friction from pulley A on the belt is:
a)
b)
c)
54.

30 N
65 N
130 N

A car decelerates uniformly from 21m/s to 15 m/s in 4 seconds. The acceleration and distance travelled are:
A
B

Acceleration (m/s2)
-1.5
-1.5

Distance (m)
72
96

55.

C
6
108
Which of the following groups contains two scalar quantities and one vector quantity?
a)
b)
c)

56.

A woman sees a fork of lightning strike an aerial that she knows is 2 km away. How long will it be before she hears
the thunder?
a)
b)
c)

57.

mass, weight, velocity

acceleration, time, speed
momentum, velocity, force.

0.165 seconds
6.1 seconds
9.3 seconds.

The diagram shows a transverse wave. Which letter shows the amplitude of the wave?

B
A

C
58.

A gas has initial volume 4.5 litres and initial pressure 12 bar. It is compressed isothermally to a volume of 0.9 litres.
What is its new pressure?
a)
b)
c)

59.

10.8 bar
48.6 bar
60 bar.

A sample of gas has the following initial conditions:

gauge pressure = 25 kPa
volume = 600 cm3
temperature = 20C
It is compressed to a volume of 400 cm3 and temperature of 27C. Atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa. What is its
new gauge pressure?

60.

a)

125 x 600 x 300

293 x 400

kPa

b)

125 x 600 x 300 - 100

293 x 400

kPa

c)

125 x 600 x 400 - 100

293 x 300

kPa

An aluminium block has a mass 8.5 kg. Its specific heat capacity is 0.9 kJ/kg. How much energy is required to heat
it from 20C to 300C?
a)

8.5 x 0.9 x 280 J

b)

8.5 x 900 x 280 J

c)

8.5 x 0.9 J
280