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A n sw e r G i v e n : D
Gate Operator
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Explanation Video
(https://d38ds75vr7wl2y.cloudfront.net/images/3216/Videos/ME3216_Q1.mp4)
Total Comments: 0
Copyright Gateforum. All rights reserved.

A n sw e r G i v e n :
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Explanation Video
A n sw e r G i v e n : A
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48
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49
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50
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51
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52
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krishnakant patel added 1 months ago

sir plz explane on board...
Total Comments: 1
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18
Ashish Rastogi added 1 months ago
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87
74
Its 50 for sure
ARKADEEP CHAUDHURY added 1 months ago
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Sir, Kindly follow the results obtained from Mohrs circle. Max. Shear plane is at 45 degree if and only if the stresses are equal. Then the
45 degree plane is subject to pure shear.
PRATIK TAGADE added 1 months ago
sir ans is 50
Tambe angad added 1 months ago

sahi karo isko
Harshit Pandey added 1 months ago
it is 50.. even by Mohrs circle.
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A n sw e r G i v e n : B
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Explanation Video
Total Comments: 5
Harshit Kumar Gupta added 1 months ago
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423
Pressure is always Intensive ...If in a room there is gas of pressure 30 MPa even after dividing (Cuttinng) room into two sections
pressure remains same..just like temperature and specific volume
ASHUTOSH KOTHIWALA added 1 months ago
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it is. consider incompressible fluids ... not only gases
Koushik S added 1 months ago
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How is Pressure intensive?
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How is Pressure intensive?

How is pressure intensive.?
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Explanation Video
Total Comments: 6

how
kishore siripurapu added 1 months ago

Question from GATE2013
SOURAV GHOSH added 1 months ago
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Here from T1 temperature linearly decreases to T2.If beta is positive,then as temperature decreases the value of k also decreases. As
per Fouriers Law keeping all other parameters constant Temperature gradient is inversely proportional to k. If k decreases the temp
gradient ie slope of the T curve must increase,from T1 to T2 as shown in option B.
Md Zia Khurshid added 1 months ago
how Tone equals TB in the video the teacher himself does not know what he is teaching explanation videos are totally useless
tom paul a added 1 months ago

why there is a difference in left side and right side temp variation
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Total Comments: 9
Alok Sharma added 1 months ago
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consider moon between sun and earth and then apply kennedy theorm
anand kumar soni added 1 months ago

gate forum pagal ho gya hai
CHANDAN KUMAR added 1 months ago

pls anybody explain
kishore siripurapu added 1 months ago

NO EXPLANATION IN EXPLANATION VIDEO
Md Zia Khurshid added 1 months ago

the explanation videos are crap and are just a gimmick...
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Explanation Video
Total Comments: 4
Sanket Joshi added 1 months ago
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wrist pin=gudgeon pin connection betn piston and connectng rod
CHANDRAMOULI GHOSH added 1 months ago

its basically the gudgeon pin. n it has da same design as the pin in the knuckle joint. i hope it is the answer he was looking for
Rahul singh added 1 months ago

Tuhin it is also called piston pin. i think now u understand
TUHIN DAS added 1 months ago

What Kind of explanation is this????? Its just the dictation to the Question. Can some one tell me what is a wrist pin in a diesel engine.
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Explanation Video
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Explanation Video
Satheesh L added 1 months ago
Total Comments: 5
answer should be c or b

it is elastic strain hardening
MANDAR added 1 months ago

i think ans should be c
i think ans should be c
CHANDRAMOULI GHOSH added 1 months ago
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i didnt get this either. for strain hardening..there will be little strain produced for large amount of stress but here the opposite is
happening. how this can be strain hardening??
TUHIN DAS added 1 months ago
Sir U are just dictating the question.....
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Explanation Video
Total Comments: 4
Pawan Pandey added 1 months ago

Its exponential distribution.ans is correct.
ANAND MOORTHY added 1 months ago

how is it normal distribution ?
MAYUR MISAL added 1 months ago
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sir plzzzzz corrct it...... itzzz normal distribution...

its normal distribution
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MAYUR MISAL added 1 months ago

can any one xpln super critical,sub crtcl activity plzzzz???
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A n sw e r G i v e n : 6 2 . 1 2
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A n sw e r G i v e n : . 2
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Arun mathews added 2 days ago
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just do the math and we will get that V1=1.001 times V2..ie dV divided by V wil be .001

just do the math and we will get that V1=1.001 times V2..ie dV divided by V wil be .001

ya exactly .... density and volume are inversely proportional

can anyone explain how density rise is substituted as dv by v
A n sw e r G i v e n : 2 0
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Total Comments: 2
NAVEEN P added 1 months ago
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thank you SIR.
Sanjay Dhas added 1 months ago
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thank you for nice explanation.
A n sw e r G i v e n : 2 . 6 7
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Total Comments: 4
3216_Q21.mp4)
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622
increase the range... i used the same method... my ans was 2.698 and limit is 2.697
Mihir Makwana added 1 months ago
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runner area is same as that of sprue base. so their discharge will be same
Krishna Chaturvedi added 1 months ago
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why we not take runner dischrge ????
Rachit Ranjan added 1 months ago
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it is approx 3 sec. ..............isnt it right
A n sw e r G i v e n : 4 0 0
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A n sw e r G i v e n : C
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Rishi Sharma added 16 hours ago
Total Comments: 4
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both a and c is correct . upto h its clerance fit then followed by transition and interference.
pankaj chaurasia added 1 months ago

c
RAVI ROSHAN VERMA added 1 months ago

ans c correct. in ans a there is zero clearance.

in this case both a and C are correct... please conform this ...
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Total Comments: 7
shital jain added 1 months ago
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Friends Draft allowance means inclination for the vertical faces. In this vertical dimensions ie height of casting will remain same. Only
horizontal dimensions will chance because of the allowance provided.
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draft is provided on vertical surface bur as the part of dimension.. if vertical dimension change than obviously top horizontal surface of
pattern will also change ...
ADNAN AHMAD added 1 months ago
for draft a taper is provided n thus both horizontal as well as vertical dimensions will get affected
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concept ki maa behan kuo kar rahe ho
kONERU SUDHEER added 1 months ago
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It is horizontal as the pattern gets moved in horizontal direction
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ansssss is o plz correct it

in que limit is from 0 to infinity and solved by using 0 to t ....
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in que limit is from 0 to infinity and solved by using 0 to t ....
A n sw e r G i v e n : 3 9 . 7 8
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the answer is 47.74..this is wrong..4 stroke engine prouces 1 unit of power for two rotations..
Achu R added 1 months ago

4S engine cycle is 4pi and they have divided the N with 2 in the first equation and plugging in that value in the second equation

we can also use basic formula 2piNTby60 just use N as 1000 we get 47.74
Manish Mauta added 1 months ago
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i think for work done per cycle Theta should be 2pi and not 4pi. And they have already divided N by 2, to compensate for 4 stroke
engine.
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Total Comments: 5
ABHISHEK DAS added 8 days ago
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if we consider the efficiency given is overall efficiency then we can find the shaft power.corresponding to that we can find the specific
speed
Nimit Nandu added 1 months ago
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the ans i correct bt calculation is wrong in the given formula power has to be taken in kilowatts

while estimating the sp. speed of turbine always take shaft power for calculatn

is this calculation right? i have applied the same equation and ended up getting a different answer

why p is 5238.540???
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Explanation Video
(https://d38ds75vr7wl2y.cloudfront.net/images/3216/Videos/ME-
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yea pls explain...ans is d
Manoj Kumar added 1 months ago
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how c is correct
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AMOL KULKARNI added 12 days ago
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i have got C
PANKAJ KUMAR BHARDWAJ added 1 months ago

PAGAL HO GYE HO BOSS ....HP=746 W NOT .746
PANKAJ KUMAR BHARDWAJ added 1 months ago

PAGAL HO GYE HO BOSS ....HP=746 W NOT .746
VED MUKHERJEE added 1 months ago
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40
bakayeru..konoyaru
Sourav Pal added 1 months ago

1HP= 746 W..why 0.746 W taken
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A n sw e r G i v e n : . 2 3
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DEEP its horizontal plane and even if its vertical nothing changes, as water cant dwell inside the tube it has to get same way out, and
continuity equation works well here.
its horizontal plane dude not a vertical

dude its horizontal plane

yes i agree with u but if u consider atm pressure at entry of pipe and 0 pressure at just inside at exit flow may be possible

yes i agree with u but if u consider atm pressure at entry of pipe and 0 pressure at just inside at exit flow may be possible
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A n sw e r G i v e n : 2 0 0 0 0 0 0
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A n sw e r G i v e n : . 8 2
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ans 0.511364
Deepak Sabnani added 6 days ago

0.5222 correct it please

It must be Feed as t1=fsin(SCEA) and SCEA is considered here as 90 while width of cut w=d(dividedby)(SinSCEA)
RAVI ROSHAN VERMA added 1 months ago
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o.511, since for orthogonal turning , uncut thickness=feed, depth of cut= width of cut.. so correct your answer gateforum
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.5111
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A n sw e r G i v e n : 8 8 . 8 9
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A n sw e r G i v e n : . 7 5
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Arun Chenna added 14 hours ago
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excellent question!!!!

the answer is C..

i think area will be less than calculated so load will be also less than calculated... so there is only 1 option
shital jain added 1 months ago
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11
Here we are approximating the area of hole as rectangular. In actual it is not. The actual area of hole will be less than calculated by
assuming it to be a rectangular. Hence load carrying capacity will be slightly more than calculated. Hence C should be the right ans.
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Total Comments: 1

Is endurance will be more than yield strength? endurance strength will always be below yield strength.
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Total Comments: 9
Manickavasagan T added 12 days ago
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free body dia cannot be drawn when the forces are unbalanced... ans is 3. there will be a tension of 7 acting at the fixed end
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how can we take p1 is 10, there is a reaction induced in the support in horizontal direction tensile in nature. calculating the deformation
in section p1 , p1 should not be equal to 10.
SUDIP SHYAM added 1 months ago
i got p3 as 11 so the total change should be 3
RUSHIKESH ASHTIKAR added 1 months ago

We dont consider Free body diagram bcuz the net deformation will be the same even if we consider individual columns.
Tushar Mundhada added 1 months ago

Ace ne yahi padaya hai... Thats Correct Dude....JSKR
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71
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Akhil R added 1 months ago
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alpha value of steel is given wrong in question, and taken correct in the answer......... disgusting....

Ajay ..you are correct..
Bhimrao added 1 months ago

calculated deformation of steel is wrong . so given ans. is wrong
Ajey Singh added 1 months ago
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stress Al:-82.26Mpa stree St:-164.5Mpa thermal elong of steel has been wrongly calculated... friends pls confirm....
bharat bhushan added 1 months ago

here temperature difference is given in farenheit. we have to make it celsius.
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A n sw e r G i v e n : 7 9 . 2 7
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SAGNIK and MIHIR u ppl r right...temp at inlet of h.p comp. is 410.62K and work done is 151.93
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Actually answer is correct....word Perfect Intercooling is the Keyword itmeans P3=Root(P1P2) as wella s T at nlet of second pump to be
Same..refer TS Diagram of perfect Intercooling...
Mihir Makwana added 1 months ago
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T has to be 410.62 and work done must be 151.933kJ . plz confirm
SAGNIK NANDAN added 1 months ago

But it is required to find the work done in H.P cylinder. So the temperature at the inlet of the H.P cylinder is to be taken..which CANNOT
be 300K.
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Explanation Video
(https://d38ds75vr7wl2y.cloudfront.net/images/3216/Videos/ME3216_Q48-49.mp4)
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ans is 964.781
Suresh S added 1 months ago

Yep...964.78 is only correct

964.78.... correct it

acha laga jan k ki mai eklauta nahi jiska ans kamino ne galat kiya ...

Ans should be 964
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yes guys ans is 1150

im getting 700

is this calculation right?
A n sw e r G i v e n : . 1 2 5
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A n sw e r G i v e n : 2 7 6 . 2 4
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Total Comments: 8
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ans is 276.03...considering outer radius of pipe as 0.055 and not 0.05....and guys if K for pipe is not given...consider it as infinity..ie pipe
is highly conductive and forgt it
in this case K of insulation should be given , again there will be convective ht form both inside and outside .. this condition is not mention
... for that case h will be diffrent... and if this is the case than only outer convective H.T. coefficent should be use as it is seprately given for
this quest.
i considered the pipe also as a participant as it does provide thermal resistance to heat flow and got the answer with in the tolerable limit.
Because of this possible confusions they have set tolerance limit relatively high i guess...
irshad alam added 1 months ago
mr BOSE, pipe outer surface is considered 100c, pipe thickness is not gien and will nt be consider as participant to transfer heat
Saurabh Bose added 1 months ago

The conduction through the pipe as well as the insulation thickness should be considered.Why are so many mistakes in this test? Do
they even correct it after the comments?
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HAREESH MOHAN added 1 months ago
Total Comments: 2
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correct answer is A... V should be in cu.m per kg...
Ajey Singh added 1 months ago

then why it a written that V is in cu. m per Kg at the last....
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In formula it is Back Rake angle only..but we are writing it rake angle carelessly
Tapan Virmani added 1 months ago
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how u can take back rake angle as rake angle , both are different things
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(https://d38ds75vr7wl2y.cloudfront.net/images/3216/Videos/ME-
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krishnakant patel added 1 months ago

Ashish Rastogi added 1 months ago

Its 50 for sure

ARKADEEP CHAUDHURY added 1 months ago

Tambe angad added 1 months ago

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Harshit Kumar Gupta added 1 months ago

it is. consider incompressible fluids ... not only gases

Koushik S added 1 months ago

How is Pressure intensive?

Koushik S added 1 months ago

How is Pressure intensive?

Koushik S added 1 months ago

ASHUTOSH KOTHIWALA added 1 months ago

kishore siripurapu added 1 months ago

SOURAV GHOSH added 1 months ago

tom paul a added 1 months ago

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Alok Sharma added 1 months ago

anand kumar soni added 1 months ago

CHANDAN KUMAR added 1 months ago

kishore siripurapu added 1 months ago

Md Zia Khurshid added 1 months ago

View more comments

Sanket Joshi added 1 months ago

wrist pin=gudgeon pin connection betn piston and connectng rod

CHANDRAMOULI GHOSH added 1 months ago

Rahul singh added 1 months ago

TUHIN DAS added 1 months ago

Satheesh L added 1 months ago

Tambe angad added 1 months ago

MANDAR added 1 months ago

i think ans should be c

CHANDRAMOULI GHOSH added 1 months ago

Pawan Pandey added 1 months ago

ANAND MOORTHY added 1 months ago

MAYUR MISAL added 1 months ago

sir plzzzzz corrct it...... itzzz normal distribution...

PRATIK TAGADE added 1 months ago

MAYUR MISAL added 1 months ago

Arun mathews added 2 days ago

Arun mathews added 2 days ago

MANDAR added 1 months ago

Satheesh L added 1 months ago

NAVEEN P added 1 months ago

thank you SIR.

Sanjay Dhas added 1 months ago

thank you for nice explanation.

ASHUTOSH KOTHIWALA added 1 months ago

Mihir Makwana added 1 months ago

Krishna Chaturvedi added 1 months ago

why we not take runner dischrge ????

Rachit Ranjan added 1 months ago

it is approx 3 sec. ..............isnt it right

Rishi Sharma added 16 hours ago

pankaj chaurasia added 1 months ago

RAVI ROSHAN VERMA added 1 months ago

MANDAR added 1 months ago