Biology A2 Classified

A2 Biology Resource Pack
[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

THEORY QUESTIONS PAPER 4
1. ATP is described as the energy currency in all living organisms.

State the role of ATP in
a.
glycolysis,
b.
the light independent stage of photosynthesis,
c.
protein synthesis,
d.
the replication of DNA.
[2]
[2]
[2]
[2]
(N01/P3/Q5)
2. Oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is fuelled not only by the pyruvate produced from glucose
by glycolysis but also by fatty acids. The fatty acids are then broken down in a series of enzyme
controlled steps, in the matrix of mitochondria, which release 2C fragments after they form acetyl
coenzyme A.
a.
Explain what happens to the 2C fragments after they form acetyl coenzyme A.
[3]
b.
State the two main products of oxidative phosphorylation.
[2]
c.
Describe the role of oxygen in oxidative phosphorylation.
[2]
(N00/P3/Q5)
3. a. Outline the main features of the Krebs Cycle.
b. Describe the role of NAD in aerobic respiration.
c. Explain the small yield of ATP from anaerobic respiration.
[8]
[6]
[6]
(N02/P2/Q7)
4. a. Describe the process of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria.

b. Explain the roles of NAD in anaerobic respiration in both plants and animals.
[9]
[6]
(J08/P4/Q9)
5. a. Describe the process of glycolysis.

[7]
b. Describe the structure and synthesis of ATP and its universal role as the energy currency in all
living organisms.
[8]
(N09/P41/Q9)
6. a. Describe the importance of ATP in cells, giving two examples of processes in which it is used.
[3]
Cells generate ATP by adding a phosphate group (Pi) to ADP.
During the complete oxidation of glucose, cells have two ways of doing this:
substrate level phosphorylation
oxidative phosphorylation
Figs 2.1 and 2.2 are diagrams that show the main details of these two processes (not drawn to the same
scale).
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Page 1
b.
c.
d.
State precisely where these two processes occur in a cell.

substrate level phosphorylation
oxidative phosphorylation
[2]
Compare the relative amounts of ATP produced by the two processes when a molecule of
glucose is completely oxidised.
[2]
Only substrate level phosphorylation is possible in the absence of oxygen. Explain why oxidative
[3]
phosphorylation is not possible in the absence of oxygen.
(J03/P4/Q2)
7. Fig. 2.1 is an electron micrograph showing the main structural features of a mitochondrion in section.
a.
b.
Indicate clearly on the diagram where:

(i) oxidative phosphorylation occurs;
(ii) Krebs cycle occurs.
Describe two ways in which the structure of the mitochondrion is adapted for oxidative
phosphorylation.
[2]
[4]
c.
Explain how the lack of oxygen will affect the respiratory processes in the mitochondria.
References to processes in the cytoplasm are not required.
[3]
(J04/P4/Q2)
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8. Fig. 1.1 shows the molecular structure of ATP.
a.
b.
c.
Describe the main structural features of the molecule.

Explain how ATP is able to transfer energy in cells.
State how ATP is synthesized in mitochondria.
[3]
[3]
[4]
(J05/P4/Q1)
9. The metabolic pathway in which a hexose sugar, such as glucose, is broken down in respiration by
cells starts with glycolysis. Fig. 1.1 outlines the key stages of glycolysis.
a.
b.
c.
d.
State where in the cell glycolysis takes place.

Name substance A.
Explain why the hexose is converted to substance A.
Briefly describe what happens to pyruvate if yeast is deprived of oxygen.
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[1]
[1]
[2]
[4]
(J06/P4/Q1)
Page 3
10. (a) The respiratory quotient (RQ) is used to show what substrates are being metabolised in
respiration. The RQ of a substrate may be calculated using the formula below:
When the unsaturated fatty acid linoleic acid is respired aerobically the equation is:
CO2 + 16H2O + energy
C18H32O2 + 25O2
(i) Calculate how many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced when one molecule of linoleic acid is
respired aerobically.
[1]
(ii) Calculate the RQ for linoleic acid.
[1]
(b) Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers only during daylight hours. Nectar is rich in sugars.
Fig. 1.1 shows a hummingbird.
A study of aerobic respiration in captive hummingbirds was carried out. The hummingbirds were allowed
to feed freely and then made to fast for four hours in constant conditions. During this time their RQ values
were calculated every 40 minutes. Fig. 1.2 shows the results from this study.
Describe and explain the results shown in Fig. 1.2.
[4]
(c) Hummingbirds regulate their body temperature whereas butterflies do not regulate their body
temperature. Explain briefly the effect of an increase in temperature on the rate of respiration of a
butterfly.
[2]
(J09/P4/Q1)
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11. (a) The initial stages of respiration convert one molecule of glucose into two molecules of a 3C
compound.
State
(i) the name given to these initial stages
[1]
(ii) where these stages occur in cells
[1]
(iii) the total number of ATP molecules formed during these stages.
[1]
(b) Most of the ATP formed in respiration is produced within the mitochondria by oxidative
phosphorylation.
(i) State the location, in the mitochondrion, of oxidative phosphorylation.
(ii) Outline the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
[1]
[5]
(c) In an investigation, mammalian liver cells were homogenised (broken up) and the resulting
homogenate centrifuged. Samples of the complete homogenate and samples containing only nuclei, only
ribosomes, only mitochondria or only the remaining cytosol were incubated with:
1 glucose
2 pyruvate
3 glucose and cyanide
4 pyruvate and cyanide
Cyanide inhibits oxidative phosphorylation.
After incubation the presence or absence of carbon dioxide and lactate in each sample was determined.
The results are summarised in Table 7.1.
(i) With reference to Table 7.1, name the two organelles not involved in respiration.
[1]
(ii) Explain why carbon dioxide is produced when mitochondria are incubated with pyruvate but not when
they are incubated with glucose.
[3]
(iii) Explain why, in the presence of cyanide, lactate is produced but carbon dioxide is not.
[3]
(J10/P41/Q7)
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12. Fig. 7.1 is an outline diagram of the Krebs cycle. A two carbon acetyl group enters the cycle by
combining with a molecule of oxaloacetate. A molecule of citrate is formed which is decarboxylated
and dehydrogenated to regenerate the oxaloacetate. The letters P to V are steps in the cycle.
(a) (i) Explain what is meant by the following terms:

decarboxylation
dehydrogenation
[2]
(ii) Using the letters in the cycle, state where decarboxylation is taking place.
[1]
(b) Fig. 7.1 shows that fatty acids can be converted into acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA) by a process
known as oxidation. Both this process and the Krebs cycle require NAD. The hydrogen atoms released
reduce the NAD molecules.
(i) State the number of reduced NAD molecules that are formed in the Krebs cycle from one acetyl group
that enters the cycle from acetyl CoA.
[1]
(ii) State where the reduced NAD molecules are re-oxidised and describe what happens to the hydrogen
atoms.
[5]
(c) Describe the role of reduced NAD in respiring yeast cells in the absence of oxygen.
[4]
(d) Describe how the production of lactate in muscle tissue differs from anaerobic respiration in yeast.
[3]
(J10/P42/Q7)
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13. Fig. 2.1 is an electron micrograph of a mitochondrion.
Two stages of respiration occur in mitochondria. These are the Krebs cycle and oxidative
phosphorylation.
(a) Complete the table below by naming the structures labelled A and B and stating which of the stages
of respiration occur in each.
(b) Describe how the structure of a mitochondrion is adapted to carry out these two processes. [3]
(c) Describe briefly the role of NAD in respiration.
[3]
(d) Describe how photophosphorylation differs from oxidative phosphorylation.
[3]
(N02/P4/Q2)
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14. Fig. 2.1 shows the reduction of NAD that occurs during respiration.
(a) State two specific places in the eukaryotic cell where NAD is reduced.
[2]
(b) Describe the role of NAD in cellular respiration.
[3]
(c) Explain why NAD cannot be regenerated from reduced NAD in mitochondria in the absence of
oxygen.
[3]
(d) Yeast can respire aerobically and anaerobically. When there is insufficient oxygen, yeast cells switch
from aerobic to anaerobic respiration. This results in a significant increase in the rate of glucose uptake
and glycolysis in the yeast cells. Suggest why the rate of glycolysis increases significantly when yeasts
cells switch from aerobic to anaerobic respiration.
[2]
(N03/P4/Q2)
15. Fig. 1.1 shows the Krebs cycle and the reactions preceding it.
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(a) State precisely where the Krebs cycle occurs in cells.

[1]
(b) Label on Fig. 1.1 all the stages where
(i) decarboxylation reactions occur with a letter X.
[2]
(ii) dehydrogenation reactions occur with a letter H.
[2]
(c) Explain how NAD is regenerated.
[3]
(d) State how the formation of ATP in the Krebs cycle differs from the formation of ATP in oxidative
phosphorylation.
[1]
(N05/P4/Q1)
16. Carbohydrates and lipids are important fuels in generating ATP in animal cells.
(a) Explain the relative energy values of carbohydrate and lipid as respiratory substrates.
[3]
Aerobic respiration uses oxygen and produces carbon dioxide as a waste substance. Animal cell
metabolism can be analysed using the respiratory quotient, RQ. The RQ is the volume of the carbon
dioxide produced divided by the volume of the oxygen consumed.
(b) State typical RQ values for carbohydrates and lipids.
carbohydrate .....................................
lipid .....................................................
[2]
The Siberian hamster, a small rodent like a mouse, had its RQ measured at different air temperatures.
Fig. 1.1 shows the results of this experiment.
(c) Using the information in Fig. 1.1, describe and explain the relationship between RQ and air
temperature.
[4]
(d) State a circumstance under which the RQ value would rise to over 1.0.
[1]
(N06/P4/Q1)
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17. Fig. 6.1 shows the structure of ATP.
(a)
(i) Name the nitrogenous base labelled B.

[1]
(ii) Name the sugar labelled S.
[1]
(b) ATP is described as having a universal role as the energy currency in all living organisms. Explain
why it is described in this way.
[4]
(c) State precisely two places where ATP is synthesised in cells.
[2]
(N08/P4/Q6)
18. (a) Outline the need for energy in living organisms using named examples.
[9]
(b) Explain the different energy values of carbohydrate, lipid and protein as respiratory substrates. [6]
(N10/P42/Q10)
19. (a) Describe the structure of ATP and the role of ATP as the energy currency in all living organisms.
[8]
(b) Outline anaerobic respiration in mammalian cells and describe how it differs from anaerobic
respiration in yeast cells.
[7]
(N10/P43/Q10)
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20. (a) Define the term respiratory quotient (RQ).

(b) Explain the significance of the different values that may be obtained of RQ.
[1]
[2]
Two respirometers were set up as shown in Fig. 2.1.
(c) Outline how this apparatus is used to measure the rate of oxygen uptake by a known mass of
germinating seeds.
[4]
(d) Explain how the apparatus could be modified to measure the RQ of the germinating seeds.
[2]
(e) Explain why an increase in temperature from 15 C to 25 C will increase the rate of oxygen uptake in
germinating seeds.
[2]
(J02/P4/Q2)
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21. Aerobic respiration consists of three main processes.

Fill in the table to show the major products of each process.
[8]
(J07/P4/Q2)
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Section: L Energy and Respiration

Q1. (a) Complete the following passage about ATP by writing in the missing words.
All living organisms use energy. The most common immediate source of energy is adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
which is used in every cell for the movement of ions against a concentration gradient, known as
............................................... . ATP is known as the universal currency of energy. ATP is a phosphorylated nucleotide
which is known as a high energy molecule. It is made of an organic base, adenine, a 5 carbon sugar named
............................................... and three phosphate groups. ATP is very soluble in ............................................... and
easily transported within the cell. The removal of the outer phosphate group by the process of
............................................... releases energy. The energy released as a result of this reaction can be channelled
directly into other reactions in the cell. A certain proportion of this energy is lost as ............................................... .
ATP is continually broken down and is reformed at a fast rate by the process of respiration.
[5]
(b) During a sporting event an athlete may have to carry out anaerobic respiration in addition to aerobic respiration to
produce sufficient ATP. Fig. 7.1 outlines both processes in a muscle cell and shows how a liver cell is linked to these
processes.
You may refer to Fig. 7.1 in answering questions (i) to (v) below.
(i) Glucose produced in the liver cell can be released into the blood to maintain blood glucose concentration. State one
use of glucose within the liver cell.
[1]
(ii) Suggest why anaerobic respiration is said to be less efficient than aerobic respiration.
[2]
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(iii) Complete the table to indicate, within the muscle cell, the precise locations of glycolysis, the link reaction, the
Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.
(iv) Glucose is phosphorylated at the start of glycolysis in the muscle cell. Suggest why this phosphorylated glucose
does not diffuse out of the cell into the surrounding tissue fluid.
[2]
(v) Additional oxygen is required in the metabolic pathways involved in the conversion of lactate to glucose. State the
term given to this additional oxygen.
[1]
[Total: 15] (J11-P41-Q7)
Q2. The Krebs cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Fig. 6.1 outlines the steps of the Krebs cycle.
(a) With reference to Fig. 6.1 name the process occurring at:
(i) 1 and 3
(ii) 2, 4, 6 and 7
(iii) 5
[3]
(b) Name the compounds K and L.
[2]
(c) Most of the hydrogen atoms that are released by the Krebs cycle will take part in oxidative phosphorylation on the
cristae of the mitochondria. Outline the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
[5]
[Total: 10] (J11-P42-Q6)
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Q3. During the process of glycolysis, glucose is converted by a series of steps into two molecules of pyruvate.
Fig. 6.1 outlines glycolysis.
(a) With reference to Fig. 6.1, state the process occurring at:
(i) steps 1 and 2
(ii) step 3
(iii) step 4.
[3]
(b) Explain why glucose needs to be converted to hexose bisphosphate.
[2]
(c) Pyruvate can enter a mitochondrion when oxygen is present. Describe what happens to pyruvate in a yeast cell
when oxygen is not present.
[4]
[Total: 9] (N11-P41/2-Q6)
Q4. (a) Fig. 6.1 outlines anaerobic respiration in yeast cells.
Complete Fig. 6.1 by writing in the missing compounds.

[5]
(b) Describe how anaerobic respiration in mammalian cells differs from anaerobic respiration in yeast cells.
[3]
(c) Explain why anaerobic respiration results in a small yield of ATP compared with aerobic respiration.
[3]
[Total: 11] (N11-P43-Q6)
Q5.
(a) Describe how ATP is synthesised by oxidative phosphorylation.

(b) Using examples, outline the need for energy in living organisms.
[8]
[7]
[Total: 15] (J12-P41-Q9)
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Q6.
(a) Explain the role of ATP in active transport of ions and in named anabolic reactions.
[7]
(b) Outline the process of anaerobic respiration in both mammal and yeast cells.
[8]
[Total: 15] (J12-P42-Q9)
Q7. (a) Fig. 8.1 is an electronmicrograph of a section through a mitochondrion.
Name X and Y.
[2]
(b) Fig. 8.2 outlines the early stages of respiration.
With reference to Fig. 8.2:

(i) explain why ATP is needed at the start of glycolysis
[1]
(ii) state the role of NAD in glycolysis
[1]
(iii) state how many molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis
[1]
(iv) name the two types of reaction that occur during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA in the link reaction [2]
(v) name the location, in the mitochondrion, of the link reaction
[1]
(vi) describe what happens to the hydrogen released during the link reaction.
[2]
(c) Explain why ATP is regarded as the universal energy currency in organisms.
[5]
[Total: 15] (N12-P41/2-Q8)
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Q8. (a) Fig. 8.1 outlines some steps in glucose metabolism in mammalian cells.

(i) name the part of the cell where glucose is converted to pyruvate
(ii) explain why, in the absence of oxygen, pyruvate needs to be converted to lactate
(iii) name the enzyme responsible for the conversion of pyruvate to lactate
(iv) name the type of reaction and the type of bonds formed when glucose molecules are used to make glycogen.
[1]
[2]
[1]
[2]
(b) Describe how anaerobic respiration in yeast cells differs from anaerobic respiration in mammalian cells.
[4]
(c) The respiratory quotient (RQ) is used to determine the type of respiratory substrate, such as carbohydrate or lipid,
which an organism uses at any one time.
(i) State how the RQ is calculated.
[2]
(ii) State the typical RQ values obtained from the respiration of carbohydrates and lipids.
[2]
(iii) Suggest what would happen to the RQ value when respiration becomes anaerobic.
[1]
[Total: 15] (N12-P43-Q8)
Q9. (a) An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of oxygen consumption of
the lizard, Sauromalus hispidus. The body temperature of a lizard varies with environmental temperature. Several
lizards were fitted with small, airtight masks that covered their heads. Air was supplied inside the mask through one
tube, and collected through another. The differences between oxygen concentrations in the air supplied for inhalation
and the exhaled air enabled the researchers to measure the rate of oxygen consumption of the lizards. The rate of
oxygen consumption of each lizard was measured when it was at rest and when it was running. Measurements were
made at different temperatures ranging from 15 C to 40 C. Fig. 4.1 shows the results.
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(i) Running requires rapid use of ATP by muscle cells in the legs and heart of a lizard. With reference to the events
occurring inside a mitochondrion, explain why a faster use of ATP requires a greater rate of oxygen consumption. [4]
(ii) Explain the effect of temperature on the rate of oxygen consumption in Sauromalus when at rest.
[3]
(b) The researchers also measured the oxygen debt that was built up when a lizard was running. They measured this
for two species of lizard, Sauromalus hispidus and Varanus gouldi, at six different temperatures. The results are
shown in Table 4.1.
(i) The oxygen debts were found by using the masks described in (a). Suggest what measurements were taken, and
how these measurements were used to calculate the oxygen debt.
[2]
(ii) Compare the oxygen debt built up by a running Varanus with that of a running Sauromalus.
[3]
(iii) Varanus is a fast-moving carnivore. Sauromalus is a slow-moving herbivore. Explain how the results in Table 4.1
indicate that Varanus is well-adapted for its mode of life.
[3]
(iv) Most lizards, including Sauromalus, have very simple lungs with no alveoli. Varanus, however, has lungs that are
more like those of mammals, containing large numbers of air sacs similar to the alveoli of human lungs. Suggest how
this difference could account for the differences in the oxygen debts of Sauromalus and Varanus shown in Table 4.1.
[2]
[Total: 17] (J13-P41-Q4)
Q10. (a) The production of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the electron transport chain in a
mitochondrion.
(i) State the part of the mitochondrion in which the electron transport chain is found.
(ii) Describe briefly where the electrons that are passed along the electron transport chain come from.
(iii) Describe the role of oxygen in the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
[1]
[3]
[2]
(b) The brain depends on a constant supply of oxygen for aerobic respiration. Anaerobic respiration is not sufficient to
keep neurones in the brain alive. This is because neurons require especially large amounts of ATP. Up to 80% of the
ATP is used to provide energy for the Na+ / K+ pump. When a person suffers a stroke, blood flow to part of the brain is
stopped, so some neurones receive no oxygen. ATP production by oxidative phosphorylation stops. Fig. 4.1 shows
some of the ways in which the lack of ATP affects a neurone in the brain.
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(i) Explain why the membrane of the neurone depolarises when the Na+ / K+ pump stops working.
(ii) Suggest why calcium ions flood into the neurone when the Na+ / K+ pump stops working.
[4]
[2]
(c) The freshwater turtle, Trachemys scripta, is able to survive for long periods in conditions of very low oxygen
concentration. As in humans, the rate of activity of the Na+ / K+ pump in the neurones in its brain falls sharply.
However, in turtles this does not result in damage to these cells. A better understanding of how the neurones in the
turtles brain survive in these conditions could lead to new treatments for people who have suffered a stroke.
Experiments show that, in turtle brain neurones, in conditions of low oxygen availability:
most ion channels in the cell surface membranes immediately close
after about four hours, the quantity of mRNA involved in the synthesis of proteins used to build ion
channels, falls to less than one fifth of normal concentrations.
(i) Suggest how the closure of ion channels in the neurones of the turtle in very low oxygen concentrations could
allow the cells to survive.
[2]
(ii) Suggest what causes the quantity of mRNA for protein channels to fall.
[2]
[Total: 16] (J13-P42-Q4)
Q11. (a) The components of a molecule of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) are shown in Fig. 3.1.
With reference to Fig. 3.1, name components 1 and 2.
[2]
(b) Describe the consequences for the cell of the following statements.
Each cell has only a very small quantity of ATP in it at any one time.
The molecules, ATP, ADP (adenosine diphosphate) or AMP (adenosine monophosphate) rarely pass through the
cell surface membrane.
[2]
(c) Glucose is a respiratory substrate. Table 3.1 shows the yield of ATP from some other substrates.
(i) Explain the different yields of ATP from glycogen and palmitic acid.
[2]
(ii) Describe the circumstances in which alanine and lactate are used as respiratory substrates.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N13-P41/2-Q3)
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Q12. (a) Outline the role of oxygen in aerobic respiration.
[3]
(b) Table 3.1 shows the results of some measurements of the energy released by different respiratory substrates and
the water produced in the process.
(i) Describe and explain the differences in energy released by the three respiratory substrates.
[3]
(ii) Suggest why more water is produced from the metabolism of lipid than from the other two substrates.
[1]
[Total: 7] (N13-P43-Q3)
Miscellaneous Questions
Q13. Energy is obtained from both aerobic and anaerobic respiration during exercise.
(a) Give three differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
(3 marks)
(b) Two students did the same step-up exercise for 3 minutes. One of the students was fit. The other student was unfit.
The graph shows how the students heart rate changed during the exercise and after the exercise.
Suggest which student was the fitter. Draw a ring around your answer. Student X / Student Y. Give three reasons for
your answer.
(3 marks)
(c) Explain the advantage to the students of the change in heart rate during exercise.
(4 marks)
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Q14. In aerobic respiration, the Krebs cycle is regarded as a series of small steps. One of these steps is the conversion
of succinate to fumarate by an enzyme, succinate dehydrogenase.
(a) State the role played by dehydrogenase enzymes in the Krebs cycle and explain briefly the importance of this role
in the production of ATP.
[3]
(b) An investigation was carried out on the effect of different concentrations of aluminium ions on the activity of
succinate dehydrogenase. The enzyme concentration and all other conditions were kept constant. Fig 7.1 shows the
results of this investigation.
With reference to Fig. 7.1,

(i) describe the effect of the concentration of aluminium ions on the rate of production of fumarate
[2]
(ii) suggest an explanation for this effect.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N07-P4-Q7)
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10
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Section: L
Energy and Respiration
Practice Questions
Q1. Distinguish between:

a. an energy currency molecule and an energy storage molecule,
b. decarboxylation and dehydrogenation.
Q2. State the roles in respiration of:
a. NAD
b. coenzyme A
c. oxygen.
Q3. Copy and complete the table to show how much ATP is used and produced for each molecule of glucose respired
in various stages of respiration:
ATP used
ATP produced
net gain in ATP
Glycolysis
link reaction
Krebs Cycle
Oxidative phosphorylation
Total
Q4.
a. Explain why the energy value of lipid is more than twice that of carbohydrate.
b. Explain what is meant by Respiratory Quotient (RQ).
c. Copy and complete the table to show that different respiratory substrates have different RQs.
respiratory substrate
[2]
[2]
RQ
1.0
0.7
0.9
[3]
d. Measurements of oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide production by germinating seeds in a respirometer
showed that 25 cm3 of oxygen was used and 17.5 cm3 of carbon dioxide was produced over the same time
period.
i.
Calculate the RQ for these seeds.
[2]
ii.
Identify the respiratory substrate used by the seeds.
[1]
e. Dahlia plants store a compound called inulin, which is a polymer of fructose. The structure of fructose is
shown in the diagram.
Calculate the RQ when inulin is hydrolysed and then respired aerobically.
[2]
[Total: 12]
1
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Section: L
Practice Questions
Answers:
Q1.
a.
b.
energy currency: immediate donor of energy to all energy-requiring reactions in a cell;

energy storage: short-term (glucose, sucrose) or long-term (starch, glycogen, triglyceride) store of
chemical potential energy;
decarboxylation: a reaction in which carbon dioxide is removed from a compound;
dehydrogenation: a reaction in which hydrogen is removed from a compound;
Q2.
a.
b.
c.
NAD: a hydrogen carrier molecule: it accepts a hydrogen from one reaction and donates it to another;
coenzyme A: a carrier of an acetyl group from the link reaction to the Krebs cycle;
oxygen: the fi nal electron acceptor and hydrogen ion acceptor in oxidative phosphorylation: the
oxygen is reduced to water;
Q3.
Award the following values only.
Q4.
a Lipid has more hydrogen atoms per molecule than does carbohydrate;
most energy liberated in aerobic respiration comes from the oxidation of hydrogen to water;
[2]
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Section: L
Practice Questions
Q5.
3
(c) The role of NAD in Krebs cycle is as a coenzyme that readily accepts or gives up hydrogen, thus serving as an energy carrier
in order to remove the hydrogen protons and electrons from the Krebs cycle. These are then passed to the electron transport
system for ATP production in the inner membrane of the mitochondria during aerobic respiration.
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Section: L
Practice Questions
Q6.
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[SECTION: M PHOTOSYNTHESIS]
1. (a) Describe the main stages of the Calvin cycle.

(b) Outline the role of NADP in photosynthesis.
(c) Explain how ATP is synthesized using light energy in photosynthesis.
[8]
[6]
[6]
(N04/P2/Q10)
2. (a) Describe the structure of a chloroplast.

[9]
(b) Explain how the palisade mesophyll cells of a leaf are adapted for photosynthesis.
[6]
(J07/P4/Q10)
3. (a) Describe the structure of photosystems and explain how a photosystem fuctions in cyclic
photophosphorylation.
[9]
(b) Explain briefly how reduced NADP is formed in the light dependent stage of photosynthesis and
is used in light independent stage.
[6]
(J10/P42/Q9)
4. Fig. 1.1 is a diagram of a palisade cell from a dicotyledonous leaf.
(a) Describe how these cells are arranged in the leaf

[2]
(b) With reference to Fig. 1.1, explain how the structure of this cell is related to its function in
photosynthesis.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 1
Fig. 1.2 is a diagram of an electron micrograph of part of a chloroplast showing thylakoid membranes.
(c) Describe the role of the thylakoid membrane in photosynthesis.

(d) Describe how carbon dioxide is fixed in the stroma.
[4]
[2]
(J03/P4/Q1)
5. Fig. 4.1 is a diagram of a section through the undersurface of a dicotyledonous. leaf.
(a) Name the cells A and B.

[2]
(b) Explain the role of the pore shown, in relation to photosynthesis in the leaf.
[4]
(c) With reference to Fig. 4.1, list two visible features of the cell B that allows the pore to open and close.
[2]
(J05/P4/Q4)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 2
6. Fig. 5.1 shows the main stages of the Calvin cycle.
(a) State precisely where the Calvin cycle occurs in plant cells.
[1]
(b) Describe how carbon dioxide is fixed in the Calvin cycle.
[2]
(c) Explain how the products of photophosphorylation are used in the Calvin cycle.
[3]
(d) Explain what initially happens to the concentration of RuBP and GP if the supply of carbon dioxide is
reduced.
[3]
(J05/P4/Q5)
7. (a) An absorption spectrum is a graph of the absorption of different wavelengths of light by a
photosynthetic pigment. An action spectrum is a graph of the rate of photosynthesis at different
wavelengths of light.
Fig. 7.1 shows the absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b as well as an action spectrum.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 3

(i) compare the absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b,
(ii) explain the shape of the action spectrum,
(iii) explain why plants appear green .
[3]
[3]
[2]
(b) Fig. 7.2 is an electron micrograph showing a section through part of a chloroplast.
On Fig. 7.2, draw label lines and use the letters W and Y to identify the following structures:
W where the light-independent reactions occur
Y where chlorophyll is found
[2]
(c) Explain why increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide may increase the rate of production of
carbohydrates at high light intensities.
[5]
(J08/P4/Q4)
8. (a) Fig. 8.1 shows a scanning electron micrograph of a section through a leaf of the Christmas rose,
Helleborus niger.
Name M and N.
[2]
(b) Gases leave and enter the leaf through pores called stomata. Describe and explain how a stoma is
opened.
[6]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 4
(c) Fig. 8.2 outlines the main reactions in the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis.
(i) Name the process shown by the dotted arrows

.
(ii) Describe what happens to water at R.
(iii) State the product formed as electrons flow along S.
(iv) Explain briefly the role of reduced NADP in the light-independent stage.
[1]
[2]
[1]
[2]
(J09/P4/Q8)
9. (a) Explain how the palisade mesophyll cells of a leaf are adapted for photosynthesis.
[8]
(b) Outline the light-independent stage of photosynthesis.
[7]
(J10/P41/Q9)
10. Fig. 1.1 shows the flow of electrons in non-cyclic and cyclic photophosphorylation.
(a) State the precise location of photophosphorylation in a chloroplast.

Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[2]
Page 5
(b) Describe the role of light in photophosphorylation.

[2]
(c) Explain how non-cyclic photophosphorylation differs from cyclic photophosphorylation.
[4]
(d) Paraquat is a herbicide that prevents the flow of electrons from photosystem I and reduces oxygen to
a chemically reactive superoxide radical. This results in severe damage to chloroplasts. It is now possible
to make a crop plant resistant to such herbicides. Suggest a use for such plants.
[1]
(J02/P4/Q1)
11. Fig. 1.1 shows the changes in concentration of a 3C compound, glycerate phosphate, GP, and a 5C
compound, ribulose bisphosphate, RuBP, extracted from samples taken from actively
photosynthesising green algae in an experimental chamber when the light source was turned off.
(a) With reference to Fig. 1.1, describe what happens after the light source was turned off to the
concentration of
(i) GP;
[2]
(ii) RuBP.
[1]
(b) Explain, with reference to the Calvin cycle, the reasons for these observed changes in
(i) GP;
[2]
(ii) RuBP.
[2]
(c) State the two products of photophosphorylation that drive the Calvin cycle.
[2]
(N02/P4/Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 6
12. Large trees produce sun leaves on the outside of the canopy and shade leaves inside the canopy.
Fig. 1.1 shows the rate of carbon dioxide uptake or production of a sun leaf and a shade leaf when
exposed to increasing light intensity.
(a) With reference to Fig. 1.1, describe three ways in which the sun and shade leaf differ in their response
to increasing light intensity.
[3]
(b) Explain why the carbon dioxide uptake levels off in the shade leaf as the light intensity increases.
[3]
(c) The results shown in Fig. 1.1 were taken at a temperature of 20 C. Describe briefly how increasing
the temperature to 25 C would affect the results in the sun leaf.
[3]
(N03/P4/Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 7
13. Fig. 1.1 shows the arrangement of photosystems, protein complexes containing chlorophyll
molecules, on the thylakoid membrane of a plant chloroplast.
(a) Describe the photoactivation of chlorophyll.

[3]
(b) Explain how the photolysis of water occurs.
[3]
(c) Outline how ATP is formed in the chloroplast.
[3]
(d) Suggest an advantage of having photosystems, the electron transport chain and ATP synthase as
part of the thylakoid membrane.
[1]
(N04/P4/Q1)
14. (a) Describe how the structure of a dicotyledonous leaf is related to its functions in photosynthesis.
[7]
(b) Discuss the effects that variations in carbon dioxide concentration and light intensity have on the rate
of photosynthesis.
[8]
(N05/P4/Q6)
15. The lower epidermis of a dicotyledonous leaf is perforated with stomata. Each stoma is bounded by
two guard cells which control the size of the pore. Fig. 5.1 shows a scanning electron microscope
photograph of an open and a closed stoma.
(a) Calculate the length of the pore of the open stoma in Fig. 5.1.
Show your working.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[2]
Page 8
(b) Explain the importance of abscisic acid, ABA, in causing stomatal closure.
[4]
(c) Under conditions of low wind speed, the rate of transpiration decreases, even though the stomata of
the leaves are open. Explain why this is so.
[2]
(N06/P4/Q5)
16. (a) Describe the transfer of light energy to chemical energy in ATP during photosynthesis.
(b) Describe the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
[6]
[9]
(N06/P4/Q7)
17. In the majority of photosynthetic organisms, fixation of carbon dioxide occurs in the Calvin cycle.
Fig. 9.1 is an outline of this cycle.
(a) State,
(i) the name of the five carbon sugar in the cycle
[1]
(ii) the name of the enzyme that fixes carbon dioxide
[1]
(iii) where in the chloroplast the Calvin cycle occurs
[1]
(iv) the name of another compound that is produced in the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis that is
used in the Calvin cycle.
[1]
(b) Fig. 9.2 shows the changes in the relative concentrations of RuBP and GP produced in the Calvin
cycle before and after a light source is switched off. All other conditions are constant.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 9
Explain the changes in the relative concentrations of RuBP and GP after the light source is switched off.
[4]
(N08/P4/Q9)
18. (a) Fig. 8.1 shows the results from two experiments carried out to investigate the effect of light
intensity and carbon dioxide concentration on the rate of photosynthesis.
(i) Describe and explain the results shown in Fig. 8.1 for experiment 1.
[3]
(ii) Describe and explain the difference between the results for experiment 1 and experiment 2. [3]
(b) The optimum temperature for many plants living in temperate regions is approximately 25 C. Explain
why the rate of photosynthesis in these plants decreases at temperatures above 25 C.
[5]
(N09/P41/Q8)
19. (a) In the majority of plants the leaf is the main photosynthetic organ. List four ways in which the
structure of a dicotyledonous leaf is adapted for gas exchange.
[4]
In an experiment to investigate the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis, the following
procedure was carried out.
Discs were cut, using a cork borer, from the photosynthetic tissue of the brown alga, Fucus serratus, a
common seaweed of rocky shores.
3
Ten discs were placed in each of four beakers containing 50 cm of sea water. The discs are denser
than sea water and therefore initially sink to the bottom of the beaker.
Each beaker was illuminated with a bench lamp placed at different distances, d, from the beaker.
With time the discs began to rise to the surface of the water.
The time, t, in minutes, at which the fifth disc from each batch reached the surface was recorded.
The rate of photosynthesis was determined by calculating 1000 / t.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 10
A students set of results is shown in Table 8.1.
(b) Calculate the value for light intensity when the distance between beaker and lamp was
20 cm. Record the value in the space in Table 8.1.
[1]
(c) Explain why the discs rise to the surface after being illuminated for a length of time.
[3]
(d) Using the data in Table 8.1, describe the relationship between light intensity and the rate of
photosynthesis.
[2]
(e) The student found that there was no increase in the rate of photosynthesis when two lamps were
placed 5 cm from the beaker. Suggest why there was no increase in the rate of photosynthesis. [2]
(N09/P42/Q8)
20. (a) In flowering plants, the light-dependent reactions are carried out by photosynthetic pigments which
fall into two categories: primary pigments and accessory pigments. Outline the role played by
accessory pigments in the light-dependent reactions.
[2]
(b) Photosynthetic pigments are arranged in photosystems. There are two photosystems, PS I and
PS II. PS I takes part in cyclic photophosphorylation but PS II does not. Outline the differences
between cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
[4]
(c) The rate of photosynthesis is affected by several environmental factors. Fig. 8.1 shows the effect
of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis.
(i) Explain why the rate of photosynthesis levels out at 30 C.

[2]
(ii) On Fig. 8.1 continue the curve to indicate what would happen to the rate of photosynthesis if the
temperature was increased to 70 C.
[1]
(iii) Explain why you have continued the curve in this way.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 11
(d) A palisade mesophyll cell is adapted to carry out photosynthesis. The table below lists some of the
adaptations of a palisade mesophyll cell. Complete the table to show how these adaptations help the cell
to carry out photosynthesis.
(N10/P41/Q8)
21. (a) The rate of photosynthesis at different wavelengths of light can be measured and plotted as a
graph. This is called an action spectrum and is shown on Fig. 8.1.
Describe and explain the effects of different wavelengths of light on the rate of photosynthesis.
[4]
(b) (i) Name two products of the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis that are used in the lightindependent stage.
[2]
(ii) Describe how these two products are used in the light-independent stage of photosynthesis. [3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 12
(c) The rate of photosynthesis is affected by factors other than the wavelength of light. These factors may
act as limiting factors. Explain what is meant by the term limiting factor.
[2]
(d) Carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere may be a limiting factor in photosynthesis. Describe
how carbon dioxide reaches the photosynthetic cells in a leaf.
[4]
(N10/P43/Q8)
22.
(a) Describe how non-cyclic photophosphorylation produces ATP and reduced NADP.
[9]
(b) Outline the steps of the Calvin cycle.
[6]
(J11/P41/Q10)
23.
(a) Describe the photoactivation of chlorophyll and its role in cyclic photophosphorylation.[8]
(b) Explain briefly how reduced NADP is formed in the light-dependent stage and how it is used in
the light-independent stage.
[7]
(J11/P42/Q10)
24.
(a) Describe how the structure of a chloroplast is related to its functions.

[9]
(b) Describe how you would separate chloroplast pigments using chromatography.
[6]
(N11/P41/Q10)
25.
(a) Explain how the palisade mesophyll cells of a leaf are adapted for photosynthesis.
[7]
(b) Describe the structure of photosystems and explain how a photosystem functions in cyclic
photophosphorylation.
[8]
(N11/P43/Q10)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 13
Section: M
Photosynthesis
Q1. (a) Fig. 8.1 shows the effect of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis of a plant at a constant light intensity
and a carbon dioxide concentration of 0.03%.
(i) Suggest and explain why the rate of photosynthesis of the plant decreases to zero just above 40 C.
[5]
(ii) Draw, on Fig. 8.1, the likely curve if the same experiment were carried out on a C4 plant, such as sorghum. Give
reasons to explain your curve.
[3]
(b) Experiments were carried out to determine the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis of a species of
the unicellular protoctist, Chlorella. A cell suspension of
Chlorella was used.
The suspension of Chlorella was illuminated at a light intensity of 5 lux for 20 seconds.
The carbon dioxide uptake by Chlorella was measured at the end of the 20 second period of illumination.
The experiment was repeated at 10, 13 and 15 lux.
The suspension was maintained at a temperature of 20 C.
Table 8.1 shows the results of the experiments.
(i) Complete Table 8.1.

(ii) Use the data in the table to plot a graph on the grid below to show the effect of light intensity on the rate of
photosynthesis.
[1]
[3]
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: M
Photosynthesis
(iii) With reference to photosynthesis, state what is meant by a limiting factor.

(iv) State the limiting factor in these four experiments.
[2]
[1]
[Total: 15] (J12-P41-Q8)
Q2. Fig. 8.1 shows a diagram of a stoma, its guard cells and adjacent epidermal cells.
(a) Guard cells have chloroplasts while epidermal cells do not have chloroplasts. State one other difference, visible in
Fig. 8.1, between guard cells and epidermal cells.
[1]
(b) During stomatal closure:
(i) state precisely where abscisic acid (ABA) binds
(ii) identify the ion that diffuses from the guard cells to epidermal cells
(iii) compare the relative water potential of the guard cells with that of epidermal cells
(iv) describe the change in volume of the guard cells.
[1]
[1]
[1]
[1]
(c) The following experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis of
a water plant, Elodea.
Elodea was cut into three pieces, each 10 cm long.
Each piece of Elodea was placed in a glass tube, containing 0.5% sodium hydrogencarbonate solution, which was
then sealed with a bung.
Tube A was placed 10 cm away from a lamp.
Tube B was placed 5 cm away from a lamp.
Tube C was placed in a dark room.
An oxygen sensor was used to measure the percentage of oxygen in the solutions at the start of the experiment and
again at 5, 10 and 20 minutes.
The results are shown in Fig. 8.2.
Phone. 0347 4443879
Photosynthesis
Section: M
(i) State why sodium hydrogencarbonate solution was used.

[1]
(ii) Calculate the mean rate of oxygen production for tube A for the 20 minutes of the experiment. Show your
working.
[2]
(iii) Compare the results for tubes A and B.
[2]
(iv) Explain the results for tube C.
[2]
(v) Suggest what factor, which may have an effect on the rate of photosynthesis, was not taken into account in this
experiment.
[1]
(d) Fig. 8.3 shows the relationship between the light-dependent and light-independent reactions in a chloroplast.
Name the substances X and Y in Fig. 8.3.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J12-P42-Q8)
Q3. Outline the process of the photolysis of water and describe what happens to the products of photolysis.
[10]
(N12-P43-Q10a)
Q4. Describe the arrangement and location of chloroplast pigments and discuss their effect on absorption spectra. [8]
(N12-P42-Q10a)
Q5. (a) Fig. 1.1 shows a transverse section through a dicotyledonous leaf.
Name A, B and C.
[3]
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: M
Photosynthesis
(b) The leaf is the main photosynthetic organ in most plants. For the light-independent stage of photosynthesis to
occur, carbon dioxide must be present.
(i) Describe how carbon dioxide enters the leaf.
[2]
(ii) Name the compound that combines with carbon dioxide in the light-independent stage in a C3 plant.
[1]
(iii) Outline the role of reduced NADP in the light-independent stage.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J13-P41-Q1)
Q6. (a) A student investigated the effects of temperature and light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis of an aquatic
plant. Fig. 1.1 shows the results of the investigation.

(i) describe the results of the investigation
(ii) suggest explanations for the results for high light intensity above 30 C.
[3]
[2]
(b) (i) Name the process in the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis that produces oxygen.
[1]
(ii) Name the photosystem involved in the production of oxygen in the light-dependent stage.
[1]
(iii) Explain why the volume of oxygen released from the plant does not give a true rate of photosynthesis.
[1]
[Total: 8] (J13-P42-Q1)
Q7. Describe the structure of a chloroplast.
[7] (J13-P42-Q10a)
Q8. (a) An experiment was carried out into the effect of light of different colours on photosynthesis.
15 leaf discs from the same plant were obtained.
Five sealed test-tubes were set up, each containing three leaf discs in hydrogencarbonate indicator solution.
Hydrogencarbonate indicator solution changes colour at different pH values.
At the start of the experiment the indicator solution in all five test-tubes was orangered.
Four of the test-tubes were illuminated by light of a specific colour.
The test-tubes were illuminated for the same length of time.
The fifth test-tube was covered in black paper and was a control.
The results are recorded in Table 7.1.
When the pH increases, the indicator becomes purple and when the pH decreases, the indicator turns yellow.
(i) Explain the results for the leaf discs illuminated by blue light.
(ii) Explain why the indicator in the control went yellow.
Phone. 0347 4443879
[2]
[2]
Section: M
Photosynthesis
(b) Cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation take place in the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis.
(i) Describe the role of accessory pigments in photophosphorylation.
[2]
(ii) Write a balanced equation that summarises photolysis.
[1]
(iii) State precisely the location of photosynthetic pigments within a chloroplast.
[1]
[Total: 8] (N13-P41/2-Q7)
Q9. The light-dependent stage of photosynthesis takes place on the thylakoids of the chloroplast.
Fig. 7.1 shows some of the components involved in the light-dependent stage.
(a) With reference to Fig. 7.1, identify structures A and B.
[2]
(b) Describe the roles of the following substances in the light-independent stage of photosynthesis:
(i) RuBP
[2]
(ii) reduced NADP
[2]
(iii) ATP.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N13-P43-Q7)
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: M
Photosynthesis
Practice Questions
Q1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Edwardes College Peshawar
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: M
Photosynthesis
Practice Questions
Q2.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: M
Photosynthesis
Practice Questions
Q3. Complete the table to show the adaptations of a dicotyledonous leaf for photosynthesis. The first row has been
completed for you.
Feature of leaf
leaf mosaic
large surface area of leaf lamina
transparent upper epidermis
waxy cuticle on upper epidermis
stomata in lower epidermis
air spaces in spongy mesophyll
Adaptation for photosynthesis

helps plant to absorb as much light as possible
Q4. Complete the table to show the adaptations of a palisade mesophyll cell for photosynthesis.
Feature of palisade mesophyll cell
long cells arranged at right angles to the upper epidermis
Adaptation for photosynthesis

large surface area of contact between cells and air
thin cell walls

chloroplasts are restricted to a layer near the outside of
the cell where light can reach them
Q5. Rearrange the following statements to make a flow diagram of the mechanism of opening of stoma.
1. volume of guard cell increases
2. H+ transported out of guard cells
3. water enters guard cells by osmosis
4. K+ diffuses into guard cells
5. guard cells curve to open stomata
6. water potential of guard cells falls
+
7. K channels open
Q6.
a. Explain how the inner membrane system of a chloroplast makes it well adapted for photosynthesis.
b. Copy the table below and insert ticks or crosses to show which structural features are shared by a plan
chloroplast and a typical prokaryotic cell.
Q7.
a. When isolated chloroplasts are placed in buffer solution with a blue dye such as DCPIP or methylene blue
and illuminated, the blue colour disappears. Explain this observation.
[4]
b. Name the compound, normally present in photosynthesis, that is replaced by the blue dye in this
investigation.
[1]
Q8.
Distinguish between:
a. cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation
b. photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation
c. the roles of NAD and NADP in a plant.
3
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[2]
[2]
[2]
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: M
Q9.
Photosynthesis
Practice Questions
a. Draw a simple flow diagram of the Calvin cycle to show the relative positions in the cycle of the following
molecules:
CO2 (1C)
GP/PGA (3C)
triose phosphate (3C)
RuBP (5C).
[4]
b. Show the point in the cycle at which the enzyme rubisco is active.
[1]
Q10.
a. Explain what is meant by a limiting factor.

[1]
b. List four factors that may be rate-limiting in photosynthesis.
[4]
c. At low light intensities, increasing the temperature has little effect on the rate of photosynthesis. At high
light intensities, increasing the temperature increases the rate of photosynthesis. Explain these observations.
[5]
Q11.
a. Distinguish between an absorption spectrum and an action spectrum.

[4]
b. Pondweed was exposed to each of three different wavelengths of light for the same length of time. For each
wavelength, the number of bubbles produced from the cut ends of the pondweed were counted and are shown
in the table.
Wavelength of light/nm
450
550
650
Explain these results.
Mean number of bubbles produced in unit time

22
3
18
[4]
Answers: (Q3 to Q11)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: M
Photosynthesis
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Practice Questions
Phone. 0347 4443879
[SECTION: N REGULATION AND CONTROL]

1. (a) Define the term excretion and explain the importance of removing nitrogenous compounds from
the body.
[8]
(b) Describe the role of blood vessels associated with the kidney nephron.
[8]
(N01/P3/Q10)
2. (a) Describe how an action potential is transmitted along a myelinated neuron.
2+
(b) Explain the role of Ca ions in synaptic transmission.
(c) Describe how the endocrine system differs from the nervous system.
[8]
[6]
[6]
(N02/P2/Q8)
3. (a) Describe the function of liver in the breakdown of erythrocytes.

(b) Explain how the liver deaminates amino acids.
(c) Outline the function of liver in fat metabolism.
[8]
[6]
[6]
(N03/P2/Q9)
4. (a) Explain the principles of homeostasis.

(b) Describe the roles of insuline and glucagon in the regulation of blood glucose.
(c) Outline, with a named example, what is meant by the term endocrine gland.
[6]
[8]
[6]
(N05/P2/Q10)
5. (a) Describe how a nerve impulse crosses a cholinergic synapse.

(b) Explain the roles of synapses in the nervous system.
[9]
[6]
(J07/P4/Q9)
6. (a) Compare the roles of the endocrine and nervous systems in control and coordination in animals.
[8]
(b) Describe the part played by auxins in apical dominance in a plant shoot.
[7]
(J08/P4/Q10)
7. (a) Describe the structure of a motor neuron.
(b) Explain how an action potential is transmitted along a motor neuron.
[7]
[8]
(N08/P4/Q10)
8. (a) Describe the part played by the proximal convoluted tubules in the functioning of the kidneys.
[8]
(b) Explain how the collecting ducts in the kidneys may reduce the loss of water from the body.
[7]
(J09/P4/Q10)
9. (a) Describe a reflex arc and explain why such reflex arcs are important.
[7]
(b) Describe the structure of a myelin sheath and explain its role in the speed of transmission of a
nerve impulse.
[8]
(N09/P41/Q10)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 1
10. The pancreas act both as an exocrine and an endocrine gland.

(i)
Describe the parts of the pancreas involved in its endocrine functions.
[3]
(ii)
State precisely the group of compounds to which the pancreatic hormone insulin belongs.
[1]
(N09/P42/Q6a)
11. (a) Describe the structure of a kidney nephron and its associated blood vessels.
(b) Explain how glomerular filtrate is formed.
[7]
[8]
(J10/P41/Q10)
12. (a) Describe the structure of a myelinated sensory neurone.

(b) Explain how an action potential is transmitted along a sensory neurone.
[7]
[8]
(J10/P42/Q10)
13. Fig. 3.1 is a diagram that shows the events that occur between two neurones at a synapse.
(a) Name A to E.
[5]
(b) Draw a large arrow on the diagram to indicate the direction of the impulse across the synapse. [1]
(c) Describe the role of calcium ions in synaptic transmission.
[3]
(J03/P4/Q3)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 2
14. Fig. 3.1 is a diagram of a section through the proximal convoluted tubule of a kidney nephron showing
details of cell structure, as seen with the electron microscope.
(a) Name the structures A and B.

[2]
(b) Explain three ways in which the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule are adapted for selective
reabsorption.
[3]
(c) Describe the mechanism of glucose reabsorption into the blood from the lumen of the proximal
convoluted tubule of the kidney.
[3]
(d) Outline, in terms of water potential, how water is reabsorbed by the cells of the proximal convoluted
tubule.
[2]
(J04/P4/Q3)
15. (a) Explain how a synapse functions.
[9]
(b) Describe the role of glucagon in regulating blood glucose.
[6]
(J04/P4/Q6)
16. Fig. 3.1 is a diagram of a reflex arc.
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(a) Explain briefly how the stimulus at the finger produces an impulse in the sensory neurone.
[3]
(b) Describe the role of the motor neurone in the reflex arc.
[3]
(c) Suggest why nerve impulses can only travel in one direction through the reflex arc.
[2]
(J05/P4/Q3)
17. During the process of the excretion of nitrogenous waste in mammals, blood passes from the renal
artery into networks of capillaries called glomeruli. Fig. 3.1 is an electronmicrograph showing the
relationship between the capillaries and the renal capsule cells, called podocytes.
(a) Name structures A and B.

[2]
(b) Draw an arrow, on Fig. 3.1, to show the passage of fluid out of the capillary.
[2]
(c)
(i) Name the fluid that collects in the capsular space.
[1]
(ii) Describe how the composition of this fluid differs from blood plasma.
[2]
(d) Ultrafiltration involves the removal of small molecules, including urea, from the blood into the renal
capsule. Explain what is required for ultrafiltration to occur.
[3]
(J06/P4/Q3)
18. (a) Name the transmitter which is responsible for the transmission of nerve impulses across a
cholinergic synapse.
[1]
(b) Outline the role of calcium ions in synaptic transmission.
[4]
(c) Explain how a synapse ensures one-way transmission of nerve impulses.
[2]
(J06/P4/Q4)
19. Describe the role of insulin in the regulation of blood glucose concentration.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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[4]
(J07/P4/Q4a)
Page 4
20. Fig. 2.1 is a light micrograph of a small part of the pancreas.

[2]
(b) With reference to Fig. 2.1, explain why the pancreas is an endocrine gland.
[2]
(c) Insulin and glucagon are involved in the control of blood glucose concentration. When blood glucose
concentration rises, secretion of insulin increases. Outline two ways in which insulin affects the activity of
cells in the liver.
[2]
(d) Some forms of diabetes are caused by an inability to secrete insulin and can be controlled by regular
injections of insulin. Most of this insulin is now produced using genetically modified Escherichia coli.
Explain the advantages of using this type of insulin, rather than insulin obtained from animal sources.[2]
(J08/P4/Q2)
21. Describe the role of insulin in the regulation of blood glucose concentration.
[3]
(J09/P4/Q6a)
22. Fig. 3.1 shows part of an axon with its associated Schwann cells.
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(a) Explain how charged ions, such as Na+ and K+, are able to pass across membranes of nerve cells.
[2]
(b) Describe the role in impulse transmission along a nerve cell of
+
(i) Na ;
[2]
+
(ii) K .
[2]
(c) Describe the function of the myelin sheath.
[3]
(d) Suggest how the intensity of a stimulus can be passed along a single nerve cell.
[1]
(J02/P4/Q3)
23. Fig. 4.1 shows a kidney tubule, collecting duct and associated blood vessels.
(a) Describe the function of the

(i) glomerulus;
(ii) peritubular capillaries;
(iii) vasa recta.
(b) Explain the role of the collecting duct in controlling the water content of body fluids.
(c) Suggest two disadvantages of the use of dialysis machines in treating kidney failure.
[2]
[2]
[2]
[3]
[2]
(J02/P4/Q4)
24. The mammalian liver is made up of lobules that consist of liver cells (hepatocytes) arranged in plates.
Between these plates of cells are enlarged leaky capillaries called sinusoids.
Blood from both the hepatic portal vein and the hepatic artery flows through these sinusoids to the
central vein and eventually into the hepatic vein. Inside the sinusoids are Kupffer cells. Fig. 3.1 shows
a section of a liver lobule and its associated blood vessels.
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(a) Describe the role of the Kupffer cells in the homeostatic function of the liver.
[4]
(b) State how liver cells are involved in fat metabolism.
[3]
(c) Explain how urea produced by liver cells from the deamination of excess amino acids is transported to
the kidney for excretion.
[2]
(d) State how blood in the hepatic vein will differ after a heavy meal from blood in
(i) the hepatic portal vein;
[1]
(ii) the hepatic artery.
[1]
(N02/P4/Q3)
25. Figs 3.1 and 3.2 show the concentration of glucose and insulin in blood plasma before and after a
glucose drink.
(a) With reference to Fig. 3.1, describe the changes in blood glucose concentration after the glucose
drink.
[3]
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(b) With reference to Fig. 3.1 and Fig. 3.2, explain how the changes in blood glucose cause:
(i) an increase in the concentration of insulin in the plasma;
[2]
(ii) a subsequent fall in the concentration of insulin in the plasma.
[2]
(c) Describe the role of the hormone glucagon in maintaining the concentration of blood glucose. [3]
(N03/P4/Q3)
26. Fig. 5.1 is a drawing of a section of a liver lobule that has been injected with ink. The Kupffer cells are
clearly visible as a result of taking up carbon particles from the ink by phagocytosis.
(a) The Kupffer cells remove damaged red blood cells from the blood in the sinusoids. Explain what
happens to the haemoglobin.
[4]
(b) Describe how excess amino acids are deaminated by the hepatocytes.
[3]
(c) Outline the function of the hepatocytes in detoxification of a named toxic compound.
[3]
(N03/P4/Q5)
27. Fig. 2.1 shows the changes in membrane potential in an axon during the passage of a single impulse.
(a) Outline how the resting potential from A to B is maintained.

(b) Describe how the changes in the membrane bring about depolarization from B to C.
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[3]
[3]
Page 8
(c) Explain how the membrane is repolarised from C to D.

(d) State three differences between nervous and hormonal communication in mammals.
[3]
[3]
(N04/P4/Q2)
28. In mammalian kidneys, the loop of Henle is closely associated with the process of osmoregulation.
(a) Explain what is meant by osmoregulation.
[2]
Fig. 3.1 shows the water potential of renal fluid as it passes through the loop of Henle.
(b) Using the information given in Fig. 3.1, describe and explain what happens to the renal fluid as it
passes through the loop of Henle.
[5]
(c) Control systems often work by using negative feedback. These systems require a receptor and an
effector. In the process of osmoregulation name the receptor and effector involved.
[2]
(N06/P4/Q3)
29. (a) Describe how the structure of neurones speeds up the transmission of action potentials. [6]
(b) Explain, using a named example, how sensory receptors in mammals convert energy into action
potentials.
[9]
(N06/P4/Q6)
30. (a) Explain the role of negative feedback in homeostasis in mammals.
[4]
(b) The enzyme glucose oxidase catalyses the conversion of glucose to gluconic acid.
glucose + O2 + H2O gluconic acid + H2O2
Describe how glucose oxidase in a biosensor can give warning of low blood glucose concentration
(hypoglycaemia).
[4]
(N07/P4/Q4)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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Page 9
31. Fig. 8.1 shows the changes in potential difference (p.d.) across the membrane of a neurone over a
period of time. The membrane was stimulated at time A and time B with stimuli of different intensities.
(a) Stimulus B resulted in an action potential. Describe what is occurring at C, D and E.

[6]
(b) Suggest why stimulus A did not result in an action potential being produced whereas stimulus B did.
[2]
(N07/P4/Q8)
32. Fig. 7.1 shows a section through part of the cortex of a kidney.
(a) On Fig. 7.1, draw label lines and use the letters G and R to identify :
a glomerulus with the letter G.
a renal capsule with the letter R.
[2]
(b) State the name of the hormone that is involved in the control of the water potential of the blood. [1]
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Page 10
(c) Table 7.1 shows the concentration of some compounds in the fluids of a glomerulus, a renal capsule
and a collecting duct of the kidney.
With reference to Table 7.1,

(i) explain why proteins occur in the blood entering the glomerulus but not in the filtrate in the renal
capsule
[2]
(ii) explain why there is glucose present in the filtrate but not in the urine
[2]
(iii) explain the difference in the concentration of urea between the filtrate and urine.
[2]
(N08/P4/Q7)
33. Urea is the main nitrogenous waste product in humans. It is made in the liver and excreted by the
kidneys in urine.
(a) Define the term excretion.
[2]
(b) The kidneys regulate the water potential of body fluids. This is known as osmoregulation and
involves a negative feedback system. Outline the role of negative feedback in osmoregulation.[4]
(c) Investigations have shown that when a person remains in a cold environment for more than 15
minutes there is increased urine production. This is called cold diuresis. Suggest how exposure to
cold can lead to cold diuresis.
[2]
(N10/P43/Q7)
34.
(a) Explain the meaning of the term homeostasis with specific reference to the control of raised
blood glucose concentration in mammals.
[8]
(b) Describe the role played by ADH in osmoregulation in mammals.
[7]
(J06/P4/Q6)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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Page 11
Section: N Regulation and Control

Q1.
(a) Outline the ways in which the endocrine and nervous systems carry out their roles in control and
coordination in animals.
[8]
(b) Describe the part played by auxins in apical dominance in a plant shoot.
[7]
[Total: 15] (J11-P41-Q9)
Q2.
(a) Describe the role of abscisic acid (ABA) in the closure of a stoma.
(b) Describe the role of gibberellins in the germination of barley seeds.
Q3.
(a) Describe how a resting potential is maintained in an axon.

[9]
(b) Describe, using named examples, how sensory receptors in mammals generate action potentials.
[6]
[Total: 15] (N11-P41/2-Q11)
[8]
[7]
[Total: 15] (J11-P42/3-Q11)
Q4. (a) Table 7.1 shows the effect of several events on the blood concentration of glucose, insulin and glucagon in a
healthy person. Complete the table using the words increase, decrease or no effect. The first row has been
done for you.
(b) The concentration of glucose in the blood is controlled by the hormones insulin and glucagon. Describe the part
played by glucagon in the control of glucose in the blood.
[3]
[Total: 7] (N11-P43-Q11)
Q5. (a) When a part of the body is damaged or injured, action potentials are sent to the areas of the brain responsible
for the perception of pain. Explain how the structure of a sensory neurone can enable the action potentials to reach the
brain very quickly.
[2]
(b) The pain associated with osteoarthritis can be relieved using transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). It
uses electrical impulses to stimulate the nerve endings at, or near, the site of the pain. Self-adhesive electrodes are
stuck on the skin and attached to a small, portable power unit. Fig. 9.1 shows a TENS machine in use.
Phone. 0347 4443879

It is thought that TENS triggers the release of natural painkillers called endorphins, which are similar in shape to
painkilling drugs such as morphine. Fig. 9.2 shows synapses in a pain pathway from a damaged joint to the brain.
(i) Suggest how endorphins may act to reduce pain.

(ii) Suggest advantages of using TENS for pain relief instead of more conventional treatment.
[4]
[2]
[Total: 8] (N11-P43-Q9)
Q6.
(a) Describe the structure of a kidney, including its associated blood vessels.
[6]
(b) Describe the mechanisms involved in reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule and describe how
the epithelial cells of the proximal convoluted tubule are adapted to carry out this process. [9]
[Total: 15] (J12-P41/3-Q10)
Q7.
(a) Outline, with reference to blood glucose concentration, the principles of homeostasis in mammals.
[6]
(b) Describe the roles of the endocrine and nervous systems in control and coordination in mammals.
[9]
[Total: 15] (J12-P42-Q10)
Q8. (a) Nerve impulses have to cross synapses. The events that enable a nerve impulse to cross a cholinergic synapse
are listed in Table 1.1. The events are not listed in the correct order.
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Complete Table 1.2 to show the events in the correct order. Two of the events have been done for you.
(b) Synapses have many roles in nervous coordination in mammals.

(i) Explain how synapses ensure one-way transmission of nerve impulses.
[2]
(ii) In a learning activity, it is believed that the number of synapses between brain neurones increases. Suggest the
advantages of this increased number of synapses.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N12-P41/2-Q1)
Q9. (a) Fig. 1.1 shows a neurone forming three synapses with adjacent neurones.
.
Name A, B and C.
[3]
(b) Outline the role of structure A in synaptic transmission.
[3]
(c) The drug nicotine has a similar structure to acetylcholine. Suggest the effects on brain neurones of inhaling
nicotine from a cigarette.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N12-P43-Q1)
Q10. Describe the roles of gibberellins in stem elongation.
[5] (N12-P43-Q10b)
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Q11. (a) Fig. 6.1 outlines how a cholinergic synapse works.

(i) name A and B
(ii) name the process occurring at C
(iii) state the effect of B entering the post-synaptic neurone
(iv) explain the role of acetylcholinesterase in the synapse.
[2]
[1]
[1]
[3]
(b) Some synapses in the brain use the neurotransmitter dopamine. After the postsynaptic membrane has been
depolarised, dopamine leaves the receptor proteins and moves back into the presynaptic neurone through specific
transporter proteins. Schizophrenia is a condition in which there is a higher than usual concentration of dopamine in
certain areas of the brain. The drug phenothiazine has a similar shape to dopamine and is used to treat schizophrenia.
Suggest and explain what occurs at the synapse when phenothiazine is used in the treatment of schizophrenia.
[2]
(c) DRD4 is a dopamine receptor in humans. The gene coding for the DRD4 receptor has a large number of alleles, of
which an individual can have only two.
Three alleles of the DRD4 receptor gene have the following mutations:
a single base substitution
a 21 base-pair deletion
a 13 base-pair deletion.
The 13 base-pair deletion has the most serious consequences for the structure of the DRD4 receptor protein. Suggest
why this is so.
[3]
(d) One allele of the DRD4 gene has been found more frequently amongst individuals whose personality is described
as impulsive and exploratory. Describe the mechanism whereby an allele such as this could have become common in
the human population.
[3]
[Total: 15] (J13-P41-Q6)
Q12. (a) The human kidneys process 1200 cm3 of blood every minute. This 1200 cm3 of blood contains 700 cm3 of
plasma. As blood passes through the glomeruli of the kidneys, 125 cm3 of fluid passes into the renal capsules
(Bowmans capsules). This fluid is called the glomerular filtrate and is produced by a process called ultrafiltration.
(i) Calculate the percentage of plasma that passes into the renal capsules. Show your working and give your answer
to one decimal place.
[2]
(ii) Explain how the structures of the glomerular capillaries and the podocytes are adapted for ultrafiltration.
[4]
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(b) The glomerular filtrate then passes through the proximal convoluted tubule. Fig. 6.1 is a transverse section through
part of the proximal convoluted tubule.
(i) Name the structures labelled X.

[1]
(ii) Explain why the epithelial cells of the proximal convoluted tubule have many mitochondria in them.
[2]
(iii) Of the 125 cm3 of glomerular filtrate that enters the renal capsules each minute, only 45 cm3 reaches the loops of
Henl. Name two substances that are reabsorbed into the blood from the proximal convoluted tubule, apart from
water.
[2]
[Total: 11] (J13-P42-Q6)
Q13. (a) Table 6.1 shows the mean axon diameter and mean speed of conduction of nerve impulses for four different
animals.
With reference to Table 6.1, describe:

(i) the effect of myelination on the speed of conduction of impulses in mammals
(ii) the effect of axon diameter on the speed of conduction of impulses in amphibians.
[2]
[2]
(b) Explain how myelination affects the speed of conduction of impulses.

[3]
(c) Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an auto-immune condition of humans in which the bodys immune system attacks the
myelin sheaths which are then damaged. This leads to a decrease in information reaching the brain from sensory
receptors.
(i) Suggest how the myelin sheaths may be attacked.
[2]
(ii) Explain why this damage leads to a decrease in information reaching the brain from sensory receptors.
[2]
[Total: 11] (N13-P41/2-Q6)
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Q14. Fig. 6.1 is a trace that shows the changes that occur in the membrane potential of a neurone during an action
potential.
(a) Using the letter(s) A to F from Fig. 6.1, state which letter(s) corresponds to the following:
(i)
depolarisation
(ii)
hyperpolarisation
(iii)
the membrane is most permeable to potassium ions
(iv)
resting potential
[4]
(b) Saxitoxin is a powerful poison produced naturally by single-celled, eukaryotic, photosynthetic, marine organisms.
Shellfish may consume organisms containing saxitoxin but are unaffected. If humans were to eat shellfish containing
saxitoxin they would become very ill and may die.
(i) State the kingdom to which the organisms that produce saxitoxin belong.
[1]
(ii) Saxitoxin blocks sodium ion channels in the cell surface membranes of neurones. Describe the role of sodium ion
channels in the transmission of a nerve impulse.
[3]
(iii) Suggest why saxitoxin may be fatal to humans.
[2]
[Total: 10] (N13-P43-Q6)
Q15. The passage below summarises the effects of auxin on the growth of a shoot. Complete the passage by using the
most appropriate scientific term(s).
Auxin is synthesised in the growing tips of shoots (apical buds). It is transported from here down the shoot by
from cell to cell and also to a lesser extent by flow
in the . Auxin seems to be involved in determining whether a plant grows upwards or
whether it branches sideways. When the apical bud is actively growing, it tends to stop lateral buds from growing.
This is called apical . The plant grows upwards rather than branching out sideways.
However, if the apical bud is cut off, the lateral buds start to grow. It is thought that removal of the apical bud causes
the concentration of auxin in lateral buds to so the buds can now grow by cell
and cell .
[Total: 7] (N13-P43-Q9)
Q16. Describe the role of the hormone insulin in maintaining a constant blood glucose concentration.
[6] (N13-P43-Q11a)
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Regulation and Control
(ECP)
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Practice Questions
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Practice Questions
Answers:
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Practice Questions
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Section: N
Practice Questions
Question: The diagram shows a mammalian kidney nephron.
a. (i) Name the process, indicated by the arrows, taking place in the Bowmans capsule.
(ii) State two conditions which are necessary for this process to occur.
b. (i) By what process does water move out of the proximal convoluted tubule?
(ii) State what causes this movement.
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(ECP)
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[Section: O Inherited change]
1. Pure-breeding pea plants with round, yellow seeds were crossed with pure-breeding pea plants with
wrinkled, green seeds. The offspring all had round, yellow seeds. These seeds were grown and the
resultant plants allowed to self-pollinate. This produced 1112 offspring with the following
characteristics.
630 round, yellow seeds
202 round, green seeds
216 wrinkled, yellow seeds
64 wrinkled, green seeds
(a) Using the symbols R for round, r for wrinkled, B for yellow and b for green, draw a genetic diagram to
explain these results.
[4]
(b) Explain why the wrinkled, green seeds produced pure-breeding offspring, while the round, yellow
seeds did not.
[3]
(c) A ratio of 9:3:3:1 was expected.
A chi-squared test was carried out to test the significance of the differences between the observed and
expected results. This gave a value of 0.47.
With reference to the table of probabilities, explain how the value for the chi-squared test supports the
hypothesis that these are two pairs of segregating alleles at two loci.
[2]
(J02/P4/Q5)
2. Fig. 4.1 is a diagram drawn from a photomicrograph of an animal cell undergoing meiosis.
(a) Identify the stage of meiosis shown in Fig. 4.1.

(b) Describe the main events that will occur to complete meiosis from this stage.
(c) Describe two ways in which meiosis leads to variation.
3. (a) Distinguish between phenotype and genotype.

(b) Describe how artificial selection differs from natural selection.
(c) Define the terms
(i) gene;
(ii) allele.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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[2]
[4]
[4]
(J03/P4/Q4)
[2]
[3]
[2]
[3]
(J03/P4/Q5)
Page 1
4. Coat colour in cats is determined by a sex-linked gene with two alleles, black and orange.
When black cats are mated with orange cats, the female offspring are always tortoiseshell, their coats
show black and orange patches of various sizes, while the male offspring have the same coat colour as
their mothers.
B
(a) Using the symbols X for black and X for orange, draw genetic diagrams to account for both these
crosses.
[4]
(b) List the genotypes and their phenotypes of the offspring that may result from mating a tortoiseshell
female with a black male.
[4]
(c) Suggest an explanation for the tortoiseshell coat in terms of the activity of the X chromosomes.[1]
(J04/P4/Q5)
5. Fig. 2.1 is a diagram of pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
(a) State what stage of meiosis is shown.

(b) Describe what has occurred between the two homologous chromosomes.
(c) Explain how this can lead to variation.
(d) Describe two other sources of variation that are possible as a result of meiosis.
[1]
[3]
[2]
[4]
(J05/P4/Q2)
6. (a) The summer squash plant produces fruit that are either white or yellow in colour and
are either shaped like a disc or a sphere. The dominant phenotypes are white and discshaped
fruit. Using the symbols A for white and a for yellow and B for disc and b for sphere, draw a
genetic diagram to show what proportion of offspring will have yellow and sphere-shaped fruit if a
white and disc-shaped fruit plant, heterozygous for both genes is self-fertilised.
[6]
Sickle cell anaemia is a blood disease that is frequently fatal when homozygous. It is caused by an
autosomal recessive allele. Heterozygotes have sickle cell trait and appear normal. Malaria is a
potentially fatal infectious disease of the blood caused by the protoctist, Plasmodium. In parts of the world
where malaria is endemic the frequency of the sickle cell allele is high.
(b) Explain the possible health consequences, in such areas, for a person who is homozygous dominant
and for a person who is homozygous recessive for the sickle cell allele.
(i) homozygous dominant for the sickle cell allele
[1]
(ii) homozygous recessive for the sickle cell allele.
[1]
(c) Explain why heterozygotes have a strong selective advantage in areas where malaria occurs. [3]
(J06/P4/Q5)
7. (a) Sometimes a gene has more than two alleles, termed multiple alleles.
A B
o
The ABO blood group system in humans is controlled by a gene with three alleles, I , I and I . Alleles
A
B
I and I are codominant and Io is recessive to both. The blood group AB is the result of
codominance. Explain what is meant by codominance.
[3]
(b) In humans, a gene that codes for the production of a protein, called factor VIII, is located on the X
chromosome. The dominant allele for this gene produces factor VIII, but the recessive allele does not
produce factor VIII. A person who is unable to make factor VIII has haemophilia in which the blood fails to
clot properly. Explain why a man with haemophilia cannot pass haemophilia to his son but may pass
haemophilia to his grandson.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 2

B
(c) A gene for feather colour in chickens is carried on an autosome. This gene has two alleles, black (C )
W
and splashed-white (C ). When a male chicken with black feathers is mated with a female chicken with
splashed-white feathers, all the offspring have blue feathers. This also occurs when a male chicken with
splashed-white feathers is crossed with a female with black feathers.
Another gene may cause stripes on feathers (barred feathers). This gene is carried on the X
A
a
chromosome. The allele for barred feathers (X ) is dominant to the allele for nonbarred feathers (X ).
In chickens the male is homogametic and has two X chromosomes while the female is heterogametic and
has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
(i) A male chicken with black, non-barred feathers was crossed with a female chicken with splashedwhite, barred feathers. All the offspring had blue feathers, but the males were barred and the females
were non-barred. Using the symbols given above draw a genetic diagram to show this cross.
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(ii) Explain how a farmer could use a breeding programme to find out the genotype of a male chicken with
blue, barred feathers.
[3]
(J07/P4/Q7)
8. Colour blindness is a condition characterised by the inability of the brain to perceive certain colours
accurately.
The most common form is termed red-green colour blindness (RGC).
RGC results from a recessive allele.
0.6% of females worldwide have RGC.
8.0% of males worldwide have RGC.
Fig. 6.1 shows the occurrence of RGC in one family.
(a) Explain the meaning of the terms allele and recessive.

[2]
(b) Explain why females are less likely than males to have RGC.
[2]
(c) With reference to Fig. 6.1, and using the symbols R for the dominant allele and r for the recessive
allele, state the genotypes of the individuals 1, 4, 6 and 7.
[4]
(J08/P4/Q6)
9. (a) The inheritance of coat colour in horses is complex but all horses have one of two base colours,
red (chestnut) or black. The base colour is controlled in a simple monohybrid way.
When chestnut stallions and mares are mated the foals are always chestnut.
When black stallions are mated with black mares, either black or chestnut foals may be produced.
Draw a genetic diagram to show how two parents with black coat colour can produce a chestnut foal and
the probability of such an event occurring. Choose a letter symbol to represent coat colour.
[4]
(b) Five other genes can modify the base coat colour.
CR
One of these genes is the C gene. There are two alleles of this gene, C and C .
C does not affect the base coat colour.
CR
C may modify the base coat colour.
If a chestnut horse has at least one CCR allele its phenotype will be palomino, which is a light cream
colour.
If a black horse has at least one CCR allele its effect will not be noticeable in the phenotype.
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Page 4
Complete the genetic diagram below.
(J09/P4/Q7)
10. (a) Explain what is meant by the term gene mutation.
[2]
(b) Rickets is a childhood disorder involving the softening and weakening of bones. It is usually caused by
a lack of vitamin D, calcium ions or phosphate ions. A rare form of rickets that cannot be successfully
treated with vitamin D therapy is caused by a mutant allele on the X chromosome.
Fig. 6.1 shows a pedigree chart for a family that has a history of this condition.
Using the symbols

R
X for the mutant allele on the X chromosome
r
X for the non-mutant allele on the X chromosome state the genotypes of the following individuals 1, 3, 9
and 10.
[4]
(c) The gene in which this mutation occurs codes for a protein found in the cells of the proximal
convoluted tubule of the kidney. This protein is involved in phosphate ion transport across membranes.
Suggest why individuals with this mutant allele show symptoms of rickets.
[2]
[Total: 8](J10-P41-Q6)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 5
11. In humans a rare, sex-linked, recessive allele results in a change in the shape of the iris in the eye.
This condition is know as cleft iris (CI).
(a) Explain what is meant by the term sex linkage.
[2]
(b) Using suitable symbols complete the genetic diagram below.
(c) A woman who is heterozygous for CI becomes pregnant by a man with a normal iris. State the
probability that their child will have CI.
[1]
[Total: 8](J10-P42-Q6)
12. Fig. 4.1 shows the results of an animal cell that has undergone meiosis I.
(a) State which stage of meiosis II is shown.

(b) Describe the next stage of meiosis II.
(c) Describe what has happened before the start of meiosis to
(i) the nuclear membrane;
(ii) the centrioles.
(d) Name and explain two ways in which meiosis can lead to variation.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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[1]
[3]
[1]
[2]
[4]
[Total : 11](N02-P4-Q4)
Page 6
13. Scallops, which are bivalve molluscs, are important commercially throughout the world. The marine
bay scallop, Agropecten irradians, has three distinct shell colours, yellow, orange and black. The shell
y
o
b
colour is controlled by a gene with three alleles, yellow, S , orange, S , and black, S .
Scallops are hermaphrodite and are able to fertilise themselves to produce offspring. Single mature adult
specimens of yellow, orange and black scallops were collected and kept in separate tanks of seawater
until they produced young. The young were then scored for shell colour. The results were as follows.
yellow scallop 25 yellow and 8 black
orange scallop 31 orange and 9 black
black scallop
27 black
(a) Explain the results from the orange and black scallops, using the symbols given.
[6]
(b) Orange scallops are more valued for human consumption. Describe how a marine biologist could
produce a pure-breeding line of orange scallops for commercial exploitation using the offspring from the
single orange scallop.
[2]
[Total : 8] (N02-P4-Q5)
14. Resistance to the widely used poison warfarin is now extremely common in rats. Warfarin interacts
with vitamin K to prevent its normal functions in the blood clotting mechanism. Normal rats fed on
warfarin suffer a fatal haemorrhage. Resistant rats apparently do not use vitamin K in the same way
and maintain normal blood clotting times, even when they have eaten large amounts of warfarin.
Warfarin resistance in rats is determined by a single dominant allele. Animals carrying the allele for
resistance need large quantities of vitamin K.
When warfarin is used continually the percentage of resistant rats remains at about 50% of the total rat
population.
(a) Using the symbols R for the allele that confers warfarin resistance and r for the allele that produces no
resistance, draw a genetic diagram to explain how resistant rats can produce warfarin susceptible
offspring.
[4]
(b) Suggest why homozygous dominant rats are unlikely to survive in the wild.
[1]
(c) Describe how natural selection operates to maintain the proportion of resistant rats at about 50% of
the total population.
[3]
(d) Explain, with an example, how a mutation that results in the substitution of a single base may affect
the phenotype of an organism.
[3]
[Total : 11] (N03-P4-Q4)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 7
15. Fig. 4.1 shows four generations of a family in which some members of the family suffer from sickle
cell anaemia.
(a) Using the symbols H for the allele for normal haemoglobin and H for the allele for sickle cell
haemoglobin, state the genotypes of the following individuals. A and C.
[1]
(b) Draw a genetic diagram to show the probability of the parents A and B producing another child with
sickle cell anaemia.
[4]
[Total : 5] (N04-P4-Q4)
16. A maize plant produced a total of 381 grains, 216 purple and smooth, 79 purple and shrunken, 65
yellow and smooth and 21 yellow and shrunken.
(a) Using the symbols A for purple and a for yellow and B for smooth and b for shrunken, draw a genetic
diagram to explain these results.
[4]
(b) Explain why yellow shrunken grains breed true.
[2]
A chi-squared test was carried out to test the significance of the differences between the observed and
expected results.
(c) Complete the missing spaces in the Table 2.1

Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[3]
Page 8
(d) Use the calculated values of chi-squared test and the table of probabilities to find the probability of the
observed ratio of phenotypes differing significantly from the expected.
[1]
(e) State what conclusions may be drawn from the probability found in (d).
[2]
[Total : 12] (N05-P4-Q2)
17. The colour of the tips of the hair in Australian Shepherd dogs is controlled by a gene at the A locus.
There are three alleles at this locus which are:
s
A Black hair tips
y
A Red hair tips
t
A Copper hair tips
A cross between two dogs with copper hair tips will always produce offspring with copper hair tips. A
cross between two dogs with black hair tips may produce some offspring with red hair tips and some with
copper hair tips.
(a) State the offspring phenotypes and ratio of offspring phenotypes from the following crosses:
s t
y y
(i) A A A A
s t
t y
(ii) A A A A
y t
y t
(iii) A A A A
[6]
(b) A dog breeder wishes to know whether a dog with red hair tips is either homozygous or heterozygous
for this characteristic.
(i) State the cross needed to determine the dogs genotype.
[1]
(ii) Explain why the offspring of this cross will reveal the genotype of the dog.
[3]
[Total: 10] (N06-P4-Q2)
18. Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of two recessive alleles. It is
common amongst people of African origin. Malaria is a major cause of death in sub-Saharan Africa
where 90% of the worlds cases occur. Fig. 9.1 shows the distribution of sickle cell anaemia and
malaria in Africa.
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Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 9
(a) Explain why malaria is found in the areas shown but not in areas such as northern Europe and South
Africa.
[2]
(b) With reference to Fig. 9.1, explain the relationship between the distribution of sickle cell anaemia and
malaria.
[4]
[Total: 6] (N07-P4-Q9)
19. (a) Explain how meiosis and fertilisation can result in genetic variation amongst offspring.
[7]
(b) Explain, using examples, how the environment may affect the phenotype of an organism. [8]
[Total: 15] (N07-P4-Q11)
20. In mice there are several alleles of the gene that controls the intensity of pigmentation of the fur.
The alleles are listed below in order of dominance with C as the most dominant.
C = full colour
ch
C = chinchilla
h
C = himalayan
p
C = platinum
a
C = albino
The gene for eye colour has two alleles. The allele for black eyes, B, is dominant, while the allele for red
eyes, b, is recessive. A mouse with full colour and black eyes was crossed with a himalayan mouse with
black eyes. One of the offspring was albino with red eyes. Using the symbols above, draw a genetic
diagram to show the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring of this cross.
[6]
[Total: 6] (N08-P4-Q8)
21. (a) The fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, feeds on sugars found in damaged fruits. A fly with normal
features is called a wild type. It has a striped body and its wings are longer than its abdomen. There
are mutant variations such as an ebony coloured body or vestigial wings. These three types of fly are
shown in Fig. 7.1.
Wild type features are coded for by dominant alleles, A for wild type body and B for wild type wings.
Explain what is meant by the terms allele and dominant.
[2]
(b) Two wild type fruit flies were crossed. Each had alleles A and B and carried alleles for ebony body
and vestigial wings. Draw a genetic diagram to show the possible offspring of this cross.
[6]
(c) When the two heterozygous fruit flies in (b) were crossed, 384 eggs hatched and developed into adult
flies. A chi-squared (2) test was carried out to test the significance of the differences between observed
and expected results.
where
= sum of
O = observed value
E = expected value
(i) Complete the missing values in Table 7.1.
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Phone. 0347 4443879
Page 10
1]
(ii) Calculate the value for 2.
Table 7.2 relates 2 values to probability values. As four classes of data were counted the number of
degrees of freedom was 4 1 = 3. Table 7.2 gives values of 2 where there are three degrees of freedom.
(iii) Using your value for 2, and Table 7.2, explain whether or not the observed results were significantly
different from the expected results.
[2]
[Total: 14] (N09-P41-Q7)
A
22. In sickle cell anaemia the recessive allele HbS replaces the normal allele Hb .
S
The frequency of Hb is much higher in West Africa than in most parts of the world.
S
The frequency of Hb corresponds with the distribution of malaria.
(a) Explain what is meant by the term allele.
[1]
(b) State whether the likely life expectancy is high or low in West Africa for individuals with the
following genotypes. In each case give a reason for your answer.
A
A
Hb Hb ............................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
A
S
Hb Hb ............................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
S
S
Hb Hb ............................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................
[4]
(c) Explain why populations of West African descent living in the USA have a decreased frequency of
the HbS allele compared to West African populations.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N10-P41/2-Q6)
23. (a) Outline the behaviour of chromosomes during meiosis.
(b) Describe the ways by which gene mutations can occur.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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[9]
[6]
[Total: 15] (N10-P41/2-Q9)
Page 11
Section: O
Inherited Change
Q1. Canavan disease is a non sex-linked inherited condition that causes progressive damage to neurones of
the brain. Symptoms of the condition include a loss of motor skills and mental retardation. The symptoms
appear in early infancy and many children with this condition die by the age of four years. People with
Canavan disease lack an enzyme called aspartoacylase which breaks down N-acetyl aspartate. The build up
of N-acetyl aspartate can interfere with the formation of the myelin sheath, particularly in neurones of the
brain.
(a) Enzymes such as aspartoacylase display specificity. Outline what is meant by specificity of an enzyme.
[2]
(b) Complete the genetic diagram below to show how an unaffected man and an unaffected woman could
produce a child with Canavan disease.
[3]
(c) Explain the importance of the myelin sheath in the functioning of a neurone.
[3]
[Total: 8] (J11-P41-Q6)
Q2. Meiosis is a type of nuclear division, which produces gametes for sexual reproduction.
(a) Fig. 7.1 shows diagrams of the stages of meiosis, A to J, but they are not in the correct order.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Inherited Change
Section: O
Complete the table below by writing the stages of meiosis in the correct order. Some of the stages have
already been written in the table.
[4]
(b) Explain how meiosis can result in genetic variation amongst offspring.
[5]
[Total: 9] (J11-P42-Q7)
Q3. Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC) is a genetic condition caused by a dominant allele of the TSC gene,
which leads to abnormal growth of tissue in organs such as the heart, lungs and kidneys.
Children with TSC can, with treatment, lead reasonably normal lives. About 33% of people with TSC have
at least one parent with the condition.
(a) Explain the meaning of the terms dominant and gene.
[2]
(b) A couple wish to start a family. The man does not have TSC but the woman does have TSC. The
womans father does not have the condition. Complete the genetic diagram below to show the probability of
the couples first child having TSC.
key
TSC allele = T
normal allele = t
parental phenotypes man without TSC woman with TSC
parental genotypes
............................
............................
gametes
.......................................... .........................................
offspring genotypes ........................................................................................
offspring phenotypes ........................................................................................
probability of first child having TSC ............................................................................
[3]
(c) Suggest how a person may develop TSC when there is no family history of the condition.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N11-P41/2-Q9)
Q4. The fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, has many phenotypic variations and has been used in
experiments to demonstrate the principles of inheritance.
(a) The majority of fruit flies have red eyes but there is a variant with white eyes. Fig. 7.1 shows the redeyed and white-eyed variants of the fruit fly.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: O
Inherited Change
The gene for eye colour is located on the X chromosome. Using suitable symbols, draw a genetic diagram to
show the possible offspring of a cross between a heterozygous red-eyed female fruit fly with a white-eyed
male fruit fly.
(b) One of the genes controlling the clotting of blood in humans is also located on the X chromosome. A
rare variation of the gene, a recessive allele for haemophilia, can lead to a condition where the blood fails to
clot properly.
(i) State why a man who has haemophilia is unable to pass the condition on to his son.
[1]
(ii) Queen Victoria of Great Britain in the 19th century was a carrier of haemophilia, but did not have the
condition. State the term used to describe the genotype of a carrier.
[1]
(iii) Neither of Queen Victorias parents carried the allele for haemophilia. Suggest how Queen Victoria
could have become a carrier.
[1]
[Total: 8] (J12-P41-Q7)
Q5. (a) Explain what is meant by the term heterozygous genotype.
[2]
(b) The budgerigar, Melopsittacus undulatus, is a small type of parrot that is native to Australia. Fig. 7.1
shows a budgerigar.
A budgerigar can have blue, green, yellow or white feathers.

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Section: O
Inherited Change
Two genes, A/a and D/d, are involved in the inheritance of feather colour in budgerigars.
A bird which has at least one dominant allele A but is homozygous for d has blue feathers.
A bird which has at least one dominant allele D but is homozygous for a has yellow feathers.
A bird with at least one dominant A allele and one dominant D allele has green feathers.
A bird that is homozygous for a and d has white feathers.
(c) Two green-feathered budgerigars, heterozygous at both gene loci, were crossed. Draw a genetic diagram
of this cross to show the probability of producing offspring with yellow feathers.
[6]
[Total: 8] (J12-P42-Q7)
Q6. A group of plants, known as Rapid Cycling Brassicas (RCBs), has been developed for use in schools
and colleges for genetics experiments. When RCB seedlings develop they can have either purple stems or
non-purple stems. Their seed leaves can be either green or yellow-green. Purple stems and green seed leaves
are controlled by dominant alleles. The genes for stem colour and seed-leaf colour are located on separate
chromosomes.
(a) Explain what is meant by a dominant allele.
[2]
(b) Draw a genetic diagram to show the likely outcome of a cross between two RCB plants which are
heterozygous for both stem colour and seed-leaf colour. Use the symbols A / a for stem colour and B / b for
seed leaf colour.
[6]
[Total: 8] (N12-P41/2-Q6)
Q7. In mice, fur colour is controlled by a gene with multiple alleles. These alleles are listed below in no
particular order.
(a) Suggest explanations for the results of the following crosses between mice.
(i) Mice with agouti fur crossed with mice with black fur may produce all agouti offspring or some agouti
and some black offspring.
[2]
y b
(ii) Crosses between heterozygous parents with the genotype C C always produce a ratio of two yellow
mice to one black mouse.
[2]
(iii) Mice with yellow fur crossed with mice with black fur will produce one of the following outcomes:
some yellow offspring and some agouti offspring
some yellow offspring and some black and tan offspring
some yellow offspring and some black offspring.
[2]
(b) A test cross is used to determine the genotype of an organism. Describe how you would carry out a test
cross to determine the genotype of a black and tan mouse.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N12-P43-Q6)
Q8. Coat colour in cats is determined by a sex-linked gene with two alleles coding for black and orange.
When black cats are mated with orange cats:
the female offspring are always tortoiseshell (black and orange patches)
the male offspring are always the same colour as their mother.
(a) Explain what is meant by a sex-linked gene.
[2]
(b) Using the symbols B for the allele for black coat and O for the allele for orange coat, complete the
genetic diagram below.
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Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: O
(c) Explain why a male cat cannot have a tortoiseshell coat.
Inherited Change
[2]
[Total: 8] (J13-P41-Q7)
Q9. Resistance to the poison warfarin is now extremely common in rats. Warfarin inhibits an enzyme in the
liver, vitamin K epoxide reductase, that is necessary for the recycling of vitamin K. This vitamin is involved
in the production of substances required for blood clotting.
Rats susceptible to warfarin die of internal bleeding.
Rats that are homozygous for resistance to warfarin do not suffer from internal bleeding when their diet
provides more than 70 g of vitamin K per kg body mass per day.
Heterozygous rats are resistant to warfarin when their diet provides about 10 g of vitamin K per kg body
mass per day.
(a) Using appropriate symbols, complete the genetic diagram to show how two resistant rats can produce
warfarin-susceptible offspring.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: O
Inherited Change
(b) Rats that are homozygous for warfarin resistance have a low survival rate in the wild. Suggest why this
is so.
[1]
(c) Warfarin can be safely given to humans who are at risk of unwanted blood clots. The clotting time of the
blood is measured regularly and the warfarin dose is varied accordingly. Suggest, giving a reason, the type
of inhibition warfarin has on the enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase.
[2]
(d) The allele for warfarin resistance may have originated by a single base substitution and resulted in a
modified vitamin K epoxide reductase. Explain how a single base substitution may affect the phenotype of
an organism.
[3]
[Total: 9] (J13-P42-Q7)
Q10. A mutation in a gene in the fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, gives rise to white-eyed flies instead of
the normal red-eyed flies. The allele for red eyes (R) is dominant to the allele for white eyes (r). A student
crossed a red-eyed fly with a white-eyed fly. The results are shown in Table 1.1.
(a) In Drosophila, males possess two different sex chromosomes, X and Y, as in humans. Complete the
genetic diagram below to show how the results in Table 1.1 could have been produced.
(b) (i) The chi-squared (2) test can be used to analyse the results in Table 1.1. The expected ratio of redeyed females to white-eyed males is 1:1. Complete Table 1.2 and use this to calculate a value for chisquared (2).
key
= sum of
n = number of classes
E = expected value
Waleed Ahmad Khan
v = degrees of freedom
O = observed value
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: O
Inherited Change
[3]
(ii) Use your calculated value of 2 and the table of probabilities below, to test the significance of the
difference between observed and expected results.
[2]
[Total: 8]
(N13-P43-Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: O
Inherited Change
Practice Questions
Q1. Red Poll cattle are homozygous for an allele that gives red coat colour. White Shorthorn are homozygous for an
allele that gives white coat colour. When crossed, the offspring all have a mixture of red and white hairs in their coats,
producing a colour called roan.
a. Suggest suitable symbols for the two alleles of the coat colour gene.
b. List the three possible genotypes for the goat colour gene and their phenotypes.
c. Draw genetic diagrams to show the offspring expected from the following matings:
i. a Red Poll with a roan
ii. two roans.
Q2. A man of blood group B and a woman of blood group A have three children. One is group A, one group B and
one group O. What are the genotypes of these five people?
Q3. Draw a genetic diagram to explain why there is always an equal chance that a child will be male or female. (You
can do this in just the same way as the other genetic diagrams you have drawn, but using symbols to represent whole
chromosomes, not genes).
Q4. One of the genes in colour vision in humans is found on the X chromosome but not on the Y chromosome. The
dominant allele of this gene gives normal colour vision, whereas a recessive allele produces red green colour
blindness.
a. Choose suitable symbols for these alleles, and then write down all possible genotypes for a man and for a woman.
b. A couple who have both normal colour vision have a child with colour blindness. Explain how this may happen,
and state what the sex of the colour-blind child must be.
c. Is it possible for a colour-blind girls to be born? Explain your answer.
Q5. One of the genes for coat colour in cats is sex linked. The allele Co gives orange fur, whereas CB gives black fur.
The two allels are codominant, and when both are present the cat has patches of orange and black, which is known as
tortoiseshell.
a. Explain why male cats cannot be tortoiseshell.
b. Draw a genetic diagram to show the expected genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring from a cross between an
orange male and a tortoiseshell female cat. (Remember to show the X and Y chromosomes, as well as the symbols
for the alleles).
Q6. In a species of animal, it is known that the allele for black eyes is dominant to the allele for red eyes, and that the
allele for long fur is dominant to the allele for short fur.
a. What are the possible genotypes for an animal with black eyes and long fur?
b. How would you find out which genotype this animal had?
Q7.
a. Describe the essential differences between meiosis I and meiosis II.

b. State the similarity between meiosis II and mitosis.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: O
Inherited Change
Practice Questions
Answers:
Q1. a Symbols should use the same capital letter, with a different superscript for each allele. For example:
CR to represent the allele for red coat
CW to represent the allele for white coat
b
CRCR red coat
CRCW roan coat
CWCW white coat
R R
R W
c i Red Poll roan gives C C (red coat) and C C (roan coat) in a ratio of 1 : 1.
ii Roan roan gives CRCR (red coat), CRCW (roan coat) and CWCW (white coat) in a ratio of 1 : 2 : 1.
Q2. The child with blood group O must have the genotype IoIo. Therefore, each parent must have one Io allele. Th e
genotypes are therefore:
Man and the child with blood group B IBIo
Woman and the child with blood group A IAIo
Child with blood group O IoIo
Q5.
Q3.
Q4.
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Phone. 0347 4443879
Section: O
Inherited Change
Practice Questions
Q6.
Q7.
a
b
meiosis I: separates homologous chromosomes;

meiosis II: separates sister chromatids;
both separate sister chromatids;
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: P
Selection and Evolution
Q1.
(a) Describe why variation is important in natural selection.

[6]
(b) Explain the role of isolating mechanisms in the evolution of new species.
[9]
[Total: 15] (J05-P4-Q7)
Q2.
There are over 40 Galapagos Islands including the small and isolated island named Daphne
Major.
Only two species of Darwin finches are found on this island.
Studies were made every year from 1970 to 1989 on the beak size of the islands population
of ground finch, Geospiza fortis, by measuring the beak length of every bird (Fig. 4.1).
Larger finches with larger beaks are better at opening large seeds. From 1976 to 1978 there
was a drought and only 15% of the ground finches survived and these did not breed during
drought years.
All finches were reduced in number. The most conspicuous feature of the survivors of the drought
years was their large beak size.
The main environmental consequences of drought is the decline in food supply, mainly seeds.
During normal years, many grasses and herbs produce an abundance of small seeds. A few other
plants produce a much smaller number of large seeds which are not normally eaten.
(a) Describe how environmental factors appear to have acted, during drought years, on the beak size
of finches as an evolutionary force of natural selection.
[3]
Finches with small beaks were found to be smaller than finches with larger beaks.
(b) Explain the stabilizing force of natural selection on the beak size and size of birds in normal
years.
[3]
(c) Outline the mechanisms that may have let natural selection lead to the evolution of the thirteen
species of Darwin finches now found on the Galapagos Islands.
[2]
[Total : 8] (N05-P4-Q4)
Q3. (a) Describe the role of natural selection in evolution.
(b) Explain, using named examples, how mutation can affect phenotype.
[8]
[7]
[Total: 15] (J06-P4-Q7)
Q4. In Central America the Isthmus of Panama closed about 3 million years ago creating a land
bridge between North and South America. Snapping shrimps on the Caribbean side of the isthmus
appear almost identical to those on the Pacific side, having once been members of the same
population. When males and females from different sides of the isthmus were put together they
snapped aggressively instead of courting. They had become separate species. An outline of the
region is shown in Fig. 4.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 1
A2 Biology
Section: P
(a) The term species is often used in the context of evolution of new species. Explain the meaning of
the term species.
[2]
(b) State the likely isolating mechanism and type of speciation taking place.
[2]
(c) Explain how the process of speciation occurred in the snapping shrimp population.
[4]
[Total: 8] (N06-P4-Q4)
Q5. (a) Explain what is meant by artificial selection.
[4]
(b) In a plant breeding programme, corn, Zea mays, was bred in an attempt to produce a high yield of
protein in the grain. The results of this programme are shown in Fig. 8.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 2
A2 Biology
Section: P
(i) With reference to Fig. 8.1, calculate the percentage increase in grain protein by the end of the
experiment. Show your working.
[2]
(ii) Suggest why the protein yield does not increase steadily in each generation.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J07-P4-Q8)
Q6. (a) Explain how meiosis and fertilisation can result in genetic variation amongst offspring. [7]
(b) Explain, using examples, how the environment may affect the phenotype of an organism.
[8]
[Total: 15] (N07-P4-Q11)
Q7. The Atlantic herring, Clupea harengus, lives in large populations called shoals and may grow up
to 40 cm long. Fig. 8.1 shows the appearance of C. harengus.
The length of C. harengus shows wide variation. Fig. 8.2 shows the numbers of fish of different
lengths in a population of C. harengus. The arrows show the selection pressures, P and S.
(a) (i) Sketch a graph on the axes below to show the distribution of length of C. harengus, when
selection pressures P and S operate for a few years.
(ii) Name this type of natural selection.

Waleed Ahmad Khan
[1]
Phone. 0347 4443879 3
A2 Biology
Section: P
(b) (i) Sketch a graph on the axes below to show the distribution of length of C. harengus, when
selection pressure S alone operates for a few years.
(ii) Name this type of natural selection.

(iii) Suggest two examples of selection pressure S.
[1]
[2]
[Total: 8] (J08-P4-Q8)
Q8. (a) Explain the role of isolating mechanisms in the evolution of new species.
[8]
(b) Describe and explain, using an example, the process of artificial selection.
[7]
[Total: 15] (N08-P4-Q11)
Q9. Explain how natural selection may bring about evolution.
[8] (J09-P4-9b)
Q10. (a) Asellus aquaticus is a small freshwater crustacean. 200 A. aquaticus were released into a
pond where there had previously been none. The pond was favourable for their growth and
reproduction. Describe and explain the expected changes in the population size of A. aquaticus over
the following few months.
[5]
(b) In order for natural selection to occur a population must show phenotypic variation. Explain why
variation is important in natural selection.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N09-P41-Q2)
Q11. (a) A recent study of the house mouse, Mus musculus, on the island of Madeira resulted in the
following observations.
There are six distinct populations.
The mice are associated with human settlements.
The populations are located in different valleys separated by steep mountains.
Each population has a different diploid number of chromosomes.
As a result of these observations it has been suggested that speciation is taking place.
Fig. 2.1 is a map of Madeira showing the distribution of the six populations.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 4
A2 Biology
Section: P
Using the information in Fig. 2.1, state the likely isolating mechanism and the type of speciation
taking place.
[2]
(b) Explain how speciation is occurring in the house mouse populations of Madeira.
[5]
[Total: 7] (N09-P42-Q2)
Q12. Anole lizards are found throughout the Caribbean and the surrounding mainland. There are
many species. Each species is found only on one island or a small group of islands, apart from Anolis
carolinensis which is found in mainland Florida. Fig. 5.1 shows the distribution of four species of
anole lizards.
An investigation was carried out into the relationships between these four lizard species, using DNA
analysis. The base sequences of a region of mitochondrial DNA from the four species were
compared. The results are shown in Table 5.1. The smaller the number, the smaller the differences
between the base sequences of the two species.
(a) With reference to Table 5.1, state the species to which A. brunneus appears to be most closely
related.
[1]
(b) The researchers put forward the hypothesis that the three species, A. brunneus, A. smaragdinus
and A. carolinensis, have originated from three separate events in which a few individuals of A.
porcatus spread directly from Cuba to three different places. Explain how the results in Table 5.1
support the researchers hypothesis.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 5
A2 Biology
Section: P
(c) Explain how a population of A. porcatus that became isolated on an island could evolve into a
new species.
[4]
[Total: 8] (J10-P41-Q5)
Q13. The fruitfly, Drosophila, has many different species. Three of these species, Drosophila
pseudoobscura, D. persimilis and D. miranda, are thought to be closely related. Samples of these
three species were collected from the western United States of America. Fig. 5.1 shows where these
species naturally occur.
The base sequences of four regions of DNA of each species were sequenced. The divergence of these
base sequences in D. pseudoobscura and D. persimilis from the sequences in D. miranda was
calculated. The results are shown in Table 5.1.
(a) With reference to Table 5.1, describe the evidence that D. miranda may be more closely related
to D. persimilis than to D. pseudoobscura.
[2]
(b) Suggest why there is more divergence in some regions of DNA than in others.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 6
A2 Biology
Section: P
(c) The area where D. pseudoobscura is found is separated from the areas where the other two
species are found by a high range of mountains. Explain how the species D. pseudoobscura could
have evolved from a population of D. miranda.
[4]
[Total: 8] (J10-P42-Q5)
Q14. From 1975 to 1977 one of the Galapagos Islands, Daphne Major, experienced a severe drought.
A ground finch, Geospiza fortis, feeds on seeds on Daphne Major. Fig. 6.1 shows the ground finch,
G. fortis.
One of the few plants that survived the drought produced large seeds inside tough fruits.
Many G. fortis died during the drought and the population declined from 1400 in 1975 to 190 in
1977.
The mean beak depth of those G. fortis that died was 10.68 mm and the mean beak depth of those
that survived was 11.07 mm.
The mean beak depth of G. fortis before the drought was 10.86 mm.
(a) Calculate the percentage decrease in population size between the years 1975 and 1977. Show all
the steps in your calculation and give your answer to the nearest whole number.
[2]
(b) Suggest why some G. fortis were able to survive the drought while others died.
[3]
(c) Natural selection was taking place on Daphne Major. State the type of natural selection operating
on G. fortis during the drought and explain your answer.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N10-P43-Q6)
Q15. The hedgehog, Erinaceus europaeus, is a small carnivorous mammal native to Northern
Europe. Fig. 8.1 shows a hedgehog.
Hedgehogs were introduced onto a small group of islands off the west coast of Scotland in 1974. The
hedgehog population has increased so that there are now over 5 000 breeding pairs. These hedgehogs
have no natural predators on these islands and their diet consists mainly of birds eggs.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: P
Fig. 8.2 shows the hedgehog population density in the year 2000.
Table 8.1 shows the changes in the populations of the species of birds from 1983 to 2000.
(a) Using Fig. 8.2 and Table 8.1, describe the relationship between the hedgehog population density
and the changes in the populations of lapwings and redshanks.
[3]
(b) Suggest an explanation for the increase in the oystercatcher population on the south island,
despite the increase in the hedgehog population.
[2]
(c) Explain why the population of hedgehogs on one of these islands may eventually become a
different species from that on mainland Scotland.
[4]
[Total: 9] (J11-P41-Q8)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 8
A2 Biology
Section: P
Q16. The following passage is a summary of the main principles of natural selection. Some of the
words have been omitted. Write the most appropriate term in each space.
Individuals in a population have great ......................................................... potential and yet the
numbers in a population remain roughly ......................................................... . This is because many
die due to environmental factors and therefore do not reproduce. There is
......................................................... amongst members of a population and those with the features
best adapted to the environment survive. They reproduce and pass on their
......................................................... to their offspring. This may lead to a change in the
......................................................... pool of the population and over time may lead to evolutionary
change.
[5]
[Total: 5] (J11-P42-Q8)
Q17. The greenish warbler, Phylloscopus trochiloides, is a species of small bird that originated in
northern India, on the southern edge of the Himalayan mountain range. Fig. 1.1 shows a greenish
warbler.
Thousands of years ago, populations of the greenish warbler spread around the western and eastern
edges of the Himalayan mountain range to establish themselves in north-eastern Europe and Siberia.
A gradual change in characteristics occurred in these populations, leading to different forms of the
greenish warbler.
One example of gradual change is in the song of the male warbler, which is very distinctive and is
used in mating behaviour.
When greenish warblers from north-eastern Europe meet those from Siberia no mating takes place.
The greenish warblers from north-eastern Europe and Siberia are now considered to be two
separate species.
Fig. 1.2 shows the spread of the greenish warbler.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: P
(a) Explain what is meant by the term species.

[2]
(b) State the likely isolating mechanism taking place in populations of the greenish warbler.
[1]
(c) Explain how the process of speciation occurred in the greenish warbler populations.
[5]
[Total: 8] (J12-P41-Q1)
Q18. The seahorse, Hippocampus, is an unusual small fish. It gives birth to live young and it is the
male rather than the female that becomes pregnant. Fig. 1.1 shows a seahorse.
(a) In one species of seahorse, a type of natural selection called disruptive selection occurs. This is
where the extreme phenotypes are more likely to survive and reproduce than the intermediate
phenotypes.
Within a population, large females mate with large males and small females mate with small males.
Few intermediate-sized individuals are produced and they have a low survival rate.
(i) Sketch a graph on the axes below to show the distribution in size of seahorses as a result of
disruptive selection.
[2]
(ii) Explain how disruptive selection has been maintained in this species of seahorse.
[3]
(iii) State the term given to the type of selection where variation in a characteristic is maintained in
its existing form over time.
[1]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: P
(b) Two different species of seahorse are found in the coastal waters shown in Fig. 1.2.
Suggest how these two different species of Hippocampus could have arisen.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J12-P42-Q1)
Q19. Discuss the link between the frequency of sickle cell anaemia and the number of cases of
malaria.
[9] (N12-P41/2-Q9b)
Q20. (a) Describe how crossing over and independent assortment can lead to genetic variation. [9]
(b) Outline how artificial selection differs from natural selection.
[6]
[Total: 15] (N12-P43-Q9)
Q21. Sarawak is an area of south-east Asia that is largely covered by tropical rainforest. Logging has
been allowed in large parts of the forest. A study was carried out to estimate the population size of
different species of mammals living in the rainforest:
before logging
immediately after logging
two years after logging
four years after logging.
Table 8.1 shows the results of the study for six species of mammal. Where numbers were too small
to measure the population density, the species were recorded as present.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: P
(a) Calculate the percentage rise in the small squirrel population from before logging to two years
after logging. Show your working.
[2]
(b) Suggest why populations, such as that of the small squirrel, do not increase in size indefinitely.
[4]
(c) Suggest why marbled cats and small-clawed otters became extinct in this area but the other
mammals did not.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J13-P41-Q8)
Q22. The Death Valley region of Nevada in the USA used to have an extensive lake system.
Approximately 20 000 years ago the lakes started to dry up and now consist of isolated small pools.
Four different species of the desert pupfish have been found living in these pools. Evidence indicates
that over 20 000 years ago there was only one species of pupfish living in the lake system. Fig. 8.1
shows a desert pupfish.
(a) Explain how the change from an extensive lake system to just a few pools could have resulted in
the evolution of four new species of desert pupfish.
[5]
(b) State how environmental factors can act as stabilising forces of natural selection in an isolated
pool, after the initial evolution of a new species of desert pupfish.
[2]
(c) Suggest what may happen to the desert pupfish if water levels rise and the pools once more form
an extensive lake system.
[3]
[Total: 10] (J13-P42-Q8)
Q23. Mammoths are extinct mammals related to elephants. About three million years ago, the
ancestors of mammoths migrated from Africa into Europe and Asia. There, about 1.7 million years
ago, the steppe mammoth evolved and became adapted to the cooler conditions. Then, about 700 000
years ago, as the climate changed and the Arctic became much colder, the woolly mammoth evolved.
Woolly mammoths showed a number of obvious adaptations to reduce heat loss, including thick fur,
small ears and small tails.
(a) Explain how variation and natural selection may have brought about the evolution of the woolly
mammoth from the steppe mammoth.
[5]
(b) A frozen, 43 000 year old woolly mammoth was found in Siberia. Its DNA was extracted and
sequenced. The sequences of the genes coding for the and chains of haemoglobin were compared
with those of modern Asian elephants.
The results suggested that, when compared with Asian elephants:
there was only one different amino acid in the woolly mammoths chains
there were three different amino acids in the woolly mammoths chains.
Explain the likely effect of these differences on a molecule of mammoth haemoglobin.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: P
(c) Scientists synthesised woolly mammoth haemoglobin in order to investigate whether or not the
different haemoglobin was part of the mammoths adaptation to a cold climate. The affinity of
haemoglobin for oxygen is affected by the changes in temperature that can occur in mammals, for
example in active muscle tissue or close to the skin surface. It is advantageous for Arctic mammals
to have haemoglobin whose affinity for oxygen is only slightly affected by changes in temperature.
This is often achieved by using substances called red cell effectors, which bind to haemoglobin.
Fig. 2.1 compares the effect of temperature on the affinity for oxygen of woolly mammoth and Asian
elephant haemoglobin, with and without red cell effectors.
(i) Suggest why it is advantageous for Arctic mammals to have haemoglobin whose affinity for
oxygen is only slightly affected by changes in temperature.
[2]
(ii) Explain whether or not Fig. 2.1 provides evidence that woolly mammoth haemoglobin is better
adapted for a cold climate than Asian elephant haemoglobin.
[4]
[Total: 14] (N13-P41/2-Q2)
Q24. The evolutionary origin of the four-legged amphibians (such as frogs and toads) from fish has
been the subject of much debate for many years. Among living fish, the rarely-caught coelacanth and
the lungfish are thought to be most closely related to these amphibians.
Samples of blood were taken from two coelacanths that were captured recently near Comoros.
The amino acid sequences of the and chains of coelacanth and lungfish haemoglobin were
compared with the known sequences of amphibian adults and their aquatic larvae (tadpoles).
Organisms with more matches in the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain share a more recent
common ancestor than those with fewer matches. The comparisons with three species of amphibians,
Xenopus laevis (Xl), X. tropicana (Xt) and Rana catesbeiana (Rc) are shown in Table 2.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: P
(a) (i) Explain whether or not the information in Table 2.1 supports the suggestion that coelacanths
and amphibians share a more recent common ancestor than do lungfish and amphibians.
[4]
(ii) Suggest why adults and tadpoles of the same species of amphibian have different amino acid
sequences in their haemoglobin.
[2]
(b) Coelacanth haemoglobin has a very high affinity for oxygen, suggesting that coelacanths, which
have been captured at depths of between 200 m and 400 m, live in water that has a low concentration
of oxygen. Explain how an environmental factor, such as the low concentration of oxygen in deep
water, can act:
(i) as a stabilising force in natural selection
[3]
(ii) as an evolutionary force in natural selection.
[3]
(c) Explain the role of isolating mechanisms in the evolution of new species.
[3]
[Total: 15] (N13-P43-Q2)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Practice Questions
Q1. (a) Explain, with one example, how a mutation may affect the phenotype of an organism.
[4]
A mutation of the gene for the polypeptide chain of haemoglobin can result in sickle cell
anaemia, a lethal or near lethal condition. Only people who are homozygous for this allele have
sickle cell anaemia. All haemoglobin is affected in people who have sickle cell anaemia. At low
oxygen levels red blood cells are distorted (sickle shape) which leads to blockage of capillaries
and the destruction of many red blood cells by phagocytosis leading to severe anaemia.
Fig. 4.1 shows the distribution of malaria and the sickle cell allele.
(b) Explain why the sickle cell allele occurs at such high frequencies in some areas.
[4]
[Total: 8] [June; Paper 4; Question 4]
Q2. Four species of desert pupfish have evolved in the Death Valley region of Nevada since the
extensive lakes that existed there were reduced to isolated pools 20 00030 000 years ago.
(a) Explain how the drying up of an extensive lake system to just a few isolated pools could have
resulted in the evolution of four new species of desert pupfish.
[4]
(b) Indicate how environmental factors can act as stabilising forces of natural selection in an
isolated pool after the initial evolution of a new species.
[3]
(c) Suggest what may happen if water levels rose and the isolated pools once more formed an
extensive lake system.
[2]
[Total : 9] [Nov 2004; Paper 4; Q5]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Biodiversity and Conservation
Practice Questions
1.
List the main differences between a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell.
2. Which kingdoms contain heterotrophic animals?

3.
Ethnobotany is the study of how indigenous people use the plants that grow around them, for
example as medicines.Explain how ethnobotany might help biodiversity to be maintained.
4.
Explain the meanings of the following terms:

a. species;
b. population;
c. community.
5. a. What is the Red List?

b. Suggest why the Red List contains more vertebrates than invertebrates. (You may be able to think
of more than one reason.)
6.
Suggest why some animals cannot be bred in captivity.
7.
It has been suggested that seed banks put selection pressures on the seeds that are different from
those that plants would experience in the wild.
a. How might these selection pressures differ?
b. How might this affect the chances of success in returning the plants to the wild?
8. Copy and complete the table to show the features present in the five different classifactory
Kingdoms of living organisms. Use a tick () to show the presence of a feature and a cross () to
show its absence.
Feature
autotrophic
heterotrophic
cells have nuclei in
nuclear envelope
cells have internal
membranes
cells are differential to
form tissues
Prokaryota
Protoctista
Kingdom
Fungi
Plantae
Animalia
9. Distinguish between orthodox and recalcitrant seeds.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: Q
10. a. Explain what is meant by biodiversity.

[2]
b. Over half of the living species of plants and animals live in tropical rainforests. Suggest why this
is so.
[4]
c. Some rainforest species, for example the squirrel monkey in Costa Rica, are endangered. Suggest
four ways to conserve an animal species such as the squirrel monkey.
[4]
d. List four practical reasons why humans should try to maintain biodiversity.
[4]
[Total: 14]
11. a. In many cases, the reason for an organism becoming endangered is the loss of its habitat as a
result of human activity. List four ways in which human activity causes habitat loss.
[4]
b. In 1973, the population of African elephants in Kenya was about 167 000 animals, but by 1989
the population had dropped to about 16 000 animals. In 2010 the population had risen to about
36 000 animals. Suggest explanations for these changes.
[6]
c. Explain:
i. how captive breeding of animals, such as the scimitar-horned oryx, can held conserve an
endangered species;
[3]
ii. how genetic diversity can be maintained during a captive breeding programme.
[3]
[Total: 16]
12. (a) The table shows information about some organisms and their classification. Complete the table
by putting the correct kingdom for each organism described. The first one has been done for you.
Each kingdom may be required once, more than once or not at all.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: Q
(b) In traditional classification there were considered to be only two kingdoms; animals were in one
kingdom, and all other organisms were in the other. Suggest the advantages and disadvantages of such a
two-kingdom classification compared to the five kingdom classification often used today.
[4]
(c) A student stated that maintaining biodiversity is not important because there are already hundreds of
sorts of different animals and anyway, you just cant protect these protected species properly.
Discuss the extent to which this statement,
(i) defines biodiversity
(ii) addresses the need to maintain biodiversity
(iii) evaluates the available methods of protecting endangered species.
[6]
[Total: 15] (Y07-SP-Q4)
Exam Questions
Q1. (a) Fig. 1.1 shows the African elephant, Loxodonta africana, and two of its closest relatives, the
rock hyrax, Procavia capensis, and the dugong, Dugong dugong. The elephant and hyrax are terrestrial
animals, while the dugong is aquatic.
(i) Explain why the limbs of the elephant have a relatively larger diameter in proportion to overall body
size than those of the hyrax.
[2]
(ii) With reference to their environments, explain the differences in body shape and structure between
the elephant and the dugong.
[3]
(b) A survey was carried out to investigate the relationship between human population density and
elephant population density in Zimbabwe. Twenty five sites were sampled, all within a 15 000 km2 area
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: Q
in the north of the country. Elephant populations were estimated by flying over the area and counting
elephants seen from the air. The results are shown in Fig. 1.2. Each point represents the results from one
of the sites sampled.
(i) Describe, and suggest explanations for, the pattern shown by the elephant populations at low human
population densities.
[3]
(ii) Explain why elephant populations are very low in areas where human population density is high.
[2]
(c) In 1987, a scheme called Communal Areas Management Programme for Indigenous Resources
(Campfire) was introduced in some areas of Zimbabwe. Under this scheme, local people are allowed to
manage the wildlife and other resources on the land where they live. This includes allowing tourists to
hunt and kill wild animals, such as elephants. The hunters pay a trophy fee for each animal that they
kill. The number of elephants that can be hunted under this scheme is calculated to ensure sustainability.
(i) Suggest what is meant by the term sustainability.
[2]
(ii) Describe the information that will be needed in order to calculate the number of elephants that can be
killed each year.
[3]
[Total : 15] (N02-P6-Op1Q1)
Q2. (a) Fig. 2.1 shows the above-ground parts of the orchid Masdevallia caudata.
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Section: Q
(i) State one feature, visible in Fig. 2.1, that indicates that this plant is an angiospermophyte.
[1]
(ii) State two features, visible in Fig. 2.1, that indicate that this plant is a monocotyledon.
[2]
(iii) Describe the type of root system that you would expect to be present on this plant.
[2]
(iv) On the outline below of a transverse section of the stem of this orchid, sketch the positions of the
vascular bundles that you would expect to find.
[1]
(b) Table 2.1 lists three plant phyla and three features that may be found in them. Complete the table by
placing a tick to indicate when a feature is present in a phylum and a cross to indicate when it is not. (Do
not leave any boxes blank.)
(c) Describe two ways in which the life cycle of an angiospermophyte shows more complete adaptation
to life on dry land than that of a bryophyte.
[4]
[Total : 15] (N02-P6-Op1Q2)
Q3. (a) Describe what is meant by the term biodiversity.
(b) Explain why tropical rainforest is considered to have a very high ecological importance.
[2]
[3]
In Mexico, coffee is an important crop. Coffee trees grow well in areas in which tropical rainforest is
found and so the planting of coffee plantations frequently means that rainforest is destroyed.
Table 1.1 shows four different coffee-growing systems that are used in Mexico and also the results of a
survey into the number of different bird species found in each system.
(c) With reference to Table 1.1,
(i) explain the reasons for the pattern shown by the numbers of bird species in systems A, B, C and D;
[2]
(ii) suggest reasons for the greater yield of coffee from system D than from system A;
[2]
(iii) suggest why more pesticides are used in system D than in the other systems.
[2]
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A2 Biology
Section: Q
(d) In the shaded monoculture system, system C, the shade is usually provided by a single species of the
leguminous tree Inga. This tree has nodules containing Rhizobium on its roots.
Explain why coffee trees grown in this system require much lower inputs of fertiliser than when grown
in the unshaded monoculture system, system D.
[2]
(e) With reference to Table 1.1 and your own knowledge of the conservation of tropical rainforest,
describe international measures that could be taken to conserve biodiversity in the coffee-growing
areas of Mexico.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J03-P6-Op1Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 6
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q4. Fig. 2.1 shows the position and structure of the gills of a bony fish.
(a) Name the structures labelled A and B.

[2]
(b) Explain how the structure of the gill filaments is adapted to increase the rate of gaseous exchange.
[3]
(c) Fig. 2.2 shows how blood and water flow through the gills. The numbers represent the partial
pressure of oxygen, expressed in kPa.
Explain how this arrangement increases the efficiency of gaseous exchange.

(d) (i) Describe how a bony fish uses pumping movements of the mouth to ventilate the gills.
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[3]
[4]
A2 Biology
Section: Q
(ii) Mackerel ventilate their gills by pumping while they are stationary or moving slowly.
However, when swimming at high speeds, the mouth is simply held open to allow water to flow over the
gills (ram ventilation). Fig. 2.3 shows how the rate of mouth pumping varies with swimming speed in a
sample of mackerel.
Explain the shape of the curve shown in Fig. 2.3.
[3]
[Total: 15] (J03-P6-Op1-Q2)
Q5. (a) Fig. 1.1 is a diagram of a leafy liverwort.
(i) Name the structures A to C.

(ii) On Fig. 1.1, draw a label line to a structure which contains
haploid cells and label it H;
diploid cells and label it D.
(iii) State one feature, visible in Fig. 1.1, which is a diagnostic feature of bryophytes.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[3]
Phone. 0347 4443879 8
[2]
[1]
A2 Biology
Section: Q
(b) An investigation was carried out into the effect of relative humidity and watering regime on the
growth of the woodland bryophytes Dicranum majus and Rhytidiadelphus loreus. Pieces of the plants,
each with similar shoot densities and overall biomass, were grown in conditions of low (70%) and high
(85%) relative humidity. In each humidity,
one group of plants was watered on alternative days (1W 1D)
another group was watered for three days and then left dry for three days (3W 3D)
a third group was watered for six days and then left dry for six days (6W 6D).
These watering regimes were carried out over a period of 120 days, after which the plants were
harvested and their mean growth rates calculated. The results are shown in Fig. 1.2.
(i) State two factors, other than initial shoot density and biomass, which would need to be kept constant
during this experiment.
[1]
(ii) With reference to Fig. 1.2, describe the conclusions that can be drawn from these results.
[4]
(c) Explain why bryophytes are more sensitive to variations in relative humidity than
angiospermophytes.
[4]
[Total : 15] (N03-P6-Op1Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 9
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q6. (a) (i) Using the outline below, draw and label a diagram of the unicellular alga Chlorella.
[4]
(ii) Indicate the approximate scale of your diagram. [1]
(b) Fig. 2.1 shows the unicellular organism Vorticella.
(i) State three ways in which the structure of Vorticella, shown in Fig. 2.1, indicates that it should be
classified in the same group of unicellular organisms as Paramecium.
[3]
(ii) The cytoplasm of Vorticella often contains living cells of Chlorella. Suggest the nutritional
advantages to each organism of this arrangement.
[2]
Fig. 2.2 shows a method of sewage treatment known as an oxidation pond in which algae, such as
Chlorella, play an important role.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
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A2 Biology
Section: Q
(c) With reference to Fig. 2.2, explain why

(i) the algae grow only in the upper layers of the water;
[2]
(ii) their presence allows the growth of populations of aerobic bacteria.
[1]
(d) Suggest two uses for the algal biomass that accumulates in the oxidation pond.
[2]
[Total : 15] (N03-P6-Op1Q2)
Q7.
(i) Describe the special features of tropical rainforests which make their conservation particularly
important.
[6]
(ii) Explain the reasons for the current rapid loss of tropical rainforests.
[6]
(iii) Discuss the international measures that can be taken to conserve tropical rainforests. [8]
[Total : 20] (N03-P6-Op1Q3a)
Q8. The western lowland gorilla, Gorilla gorilla, has become an endangered species although it has no
known enemies, except humans. Gorillas are herbivorous, feeding on fruit, shoots, tree bark and leaves.
Fig. 1.1 shows a western lowland gorilla.
(a) Suggest three reasons why the western lowland gorilla has become an endangered species. [3]
(b) (i) Explain how captive breeding programmes in zoos may help in the protection of endangered
species, such as the western lowland gorilla.
[3]
(ii) State two disadvantages of captive breeding programmes.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J07-P4-Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 11
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q9. Fig. 1.1 shows two unicellular organisms, P and R. These organisms are members of different
kingdoms.
(a) Calculate the actual sizes, in m, of P and R, as shown by the lines on Fig. 1.1. Show your working.
[3]
(b) Identify the kingdom to which each organism belongs. Write your answers in the table below [1]
(c) Complete the table by listing five features which distinguish P from R. One has been completed for
you.
[5]
[Total: 9] (N07-P4-Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 12
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q10. Fig. 2.1 shows part of a tropical rainforest. Tropical rainforests have a high biodiversity.
(a) Explain what is meant by biodiversity.

(b) Suggest why tropical rainforests have a high biodiversity of animal species.
(c) Discuss why it is important to maintain biodiversity.
[3]
[2]
[4]
[Total: 9] (N07-P4-Q2)
Q11. (a) Fig. 1.1 shows the relationship between annual deforestation rates and annual human
population growth for six countries.
Describe the relationship shown in Fig. 1.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[2]
Phone. 0347 4443879 13
A2 Biology
Section: Q
(b) Over half of the species of plants and animals comprising the biodiversity of the Earth are thought to
exist in tropical rainforests.
(i) Explain the meaning of the term biodiversity.
[2]
(ii) Explain the economic reasons for maintaining biodiversity.
[4]
[Total: 8] (J08-P4-Q1)
Q12. The African hunting dog, Lycaon pictus, is a carnivore which hunts in packs in areas of East
Africa. Fig. 1.1 shows an African hunting dog.
(a) The African hunting dog has cells that are eukaryotic while bacteria have cells that are prokaryotic.
Describe the differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells with respect to their DNA. [2]
(b) In some parts of East Africa L. pictus is becoming an endangered species. Suggest reasons why L.
pictus is becoming an endangered species.
[3]
(c) One way of protecting L. pictus is to create conservation areas. Describe two other methods of
conserving endangered species such as L. pictus.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N08-P4-Q1)
Q13. (a) The African elephant, Loxodonta africana, is a large herbivorous mammal which eats tree
leaves. It has the longest gestation period of any land mammal and normally produces one offspring at a
time. Its habitat is mainly savannah. Suggest how human activities have caused the African elephant to
become endangered.
[3]
(b) The meerkat, Suricata suricatta, also lives in the savannah of southern Africa. It is a carnivorous
mammal and feeds on insects, worms, snails and other invertebrates. It grows up to 30 cm in length and
lives in large family groups in burrows. Fig. 3.1 shows a meerkat.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 14
A2 Biology
Section: Q
With reference to the information given, suggest why the meerkat is less likely than the elephant to
become endangered.
[3]
[Total: 6] (J09-P4-Q3)
Q14. (a) The squirrel monkey, Saimiri sciureus, of Costa Rica has become an endangered species.
Fig. 1.1 shows a squirrel monkey.
Explain what is meant by the term endangered species.

(b) Discuss possible ways in which the squirrel monkey could be protected.
[2]
[4]
[Total: 6] (N09-P41-Q1)
Q15. All living organisms are divided into five kingdoms. The table below lists some features possessed
by living organisms and some processes that they carry out. Place a tick or a cross in the table to indicate
the presence or absence of the feature or process in any or all members of the kingdom. The first row
has been done for you.
[6]
[Total: 6] (N09-P42-Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 15
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q16. The flatback turtle, Natator depressus, is an endangered species that nests on northern Australian
beaches. Fig. 1.1 shows a flatback turtle.
Each female lays approximately 50 eggs per nest, which is a smaller number than all other species of
marine turtle. The eggs are buried in the sand and when the hatchlings emerge each has a mass of
approximately 43 g. Unlike most marine turtles, flatback turtles spend most of their time in coastal
waters. This is where they feed and mate. Fig. 1.2 shows the numbers of female flatback turtles nesting
on a beach in northern Australia between 1993 and 2002.
(a) Calculate the mean rate of decrease in the numbers of females nesting between 1993 and 2002.
Show all the steps in your calculation.
[2]
(b) Suggest ways in which the flatback turtle could be protected.
[5]
[Total: 7] (J10-P41-Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 16
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q17. The American crocodile, Crocodylus acutus, was classified as an endangered species by the USA
in 1975. It is found in estuarine regions of southern Florida. Fig. 1.1 shows an American crocodile.
The salinity of the water was thought to play a part in the distribution of the American crocodile.
Fig. 1.2 shows the number of American crocodile nest sites in areas with water of varying salinity in
southern Florida.
(a) Describe the results shown in Fig. 1.2.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[3]
Phone. 0347 4443879 17
A2 Biology
Section: Q
(b) Much conservation work has been done in the Everglades National Park in Florida, which is a large
wetland area. As a result the number of nest sites has increased from 8 in 1975 to 31 in 2000. This has
led to a rise in the number of crocodiles.
(i) Calculate the percentage increase in nest sites between 1975 and 2000. Show your working. [2]
(ii) Suggest two reasons why the population of crocodiles in the Everglades National Park has increased.
[2]
[Total: 7] (J10-P42-Q1)
Q18. The Great Lakes, in North America, lie between the USA and Canada. A survey of birds of the
Lake Ontario area has shown the relative abundance of birds between 1995 and 2005. Table 1.1 shows
the feeding habits and the relative change in numbers of some of the birds in the survey.
(a) Using the information in Table 1.1 suggest reasons for the changes in numbers of these birds. [4]
(b) An ecosystem that has a wide range of species has a high biodiversity. Explain the benefits of
maintaining biodiversity.
[4]
[Total: 8] (N10-P41/2-Q1)
Q19. (a) A 50-year study of marine animal biodiversity in the coastal waters of Canada was carried out.
The percentage decrease in the number of marine animal species between 1950 and 2000 is shown in
Fig. 1.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 18
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Suggest explanations for the decrease in the number of marine animal species between 1950 and 2000.
[3]
(b) Explain what is meant by the term biodiversity.
[2]
(c) Discuss the benefits of maintaining the biodiversity of a marine ecosystem, such as that in the coastal
waters of Canada.
[3]
[Total: 8] (N10-P43-Q1)
Q20. The polar bear, Ursus maritimus, lives in the Arctic regions of the USA, Canada, Norway and
Russia. Polar bears move across the Arctic ice sheet to hunt prey such as seals.
Fig. 1.1 shows a polar bear.
The area over which the Arctic ice sheet extends varies throughout the year. Fig. 1.2 shows the variation
in the extent of the Arctic ice sheet for the months of July to November for the years 1979 and 2009.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 19
A2 Biology
Section: Q
(a) Calculate the percentage reduction in the area over which the ice sheet extends between 1979 and
2009 for the month of September. Give your answer to the nearest whole number. Show your
working.
[2]
(b) In 2008 the government of the USA classified U. maritimus as an endangered species because it is
under threat of extinction. Suggest what has caused U. maritimus to have become endangered. [3]
(c) U. maritimus is a eukaryote. Beneficial bacteria, which are prokaryotic cells, live in the gut of U.
maritimus. State three differences between the cells of U. maritimus and its gut bacteria.
[3]
[Total: 8] (J11-P41-Q1)
Q21. The natterjack toad, Bufo calamita, is an endangered amphibian species in the UK. It comes out of
hibernation in April and breeds in pools by sand dunes along parts of the UK coast. A young natterjack
toad will take about 10 weeks to develop from a fertilised egg. A natterjack toad feeds at night, by
running at its prey, mainly insects and worms, on the sand dunes. Fig. 1.1 shows a natterjack toad.
(a) Suggest what may have caused the natterjack toad to become an endangered species in the UK.[3]
(b) Fig. 1.2 shows the number of adult natterjack toads counted from 1989 to 1997 in one area of the
UK.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 20
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Calculate the mean annual number of adult natterjack toads counted from 1989 to 1997. Give your
answer to the nearest whole number. Show your working.
[2]
(c) The natterjack toad is heterotrophic.
(i) Explain what is meant by heterotrophic.
[2]
(ii) Name two kingdoms that are exclusively heterotrophic.
[1]
(d) Each year the International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
publishes a list of endangered species called the Red List. The Red List has a very high proportion of
vertebrates compared to invertebrates. Suggest one reason why the Red List has many more vertebrates
than invertebrates.
[1]
[Total: 9] (J11-P42-Q1)
Q22. The Ethiopian wolf, Canis simensis, is a member of the Canidae family of carnivores. Fig. 1.1
shows an Ethiopian wolf.
(a) Ethiopian wolves evolved from an ancestor similar to the grey wolf that crossed into Northern Africa
from Europe about 100 000 years ago. They live in the alpine grasslands and heathlands at, or above,
3000 m altitude in Ethiopia. State the most likely type of speciation that led to the evolution of the
Ethiopian wolf.
[1]
(b) A population of Ethiopian wolves is called a pack. Heterozygosity has been found to be low in all of
the packs of Ethiopian wolves that have been studied. Suggest why the heterozygosity may be low in
Ethiopian wolf packs.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 21
A2 Biology
Section: Q
(c) The Ethiopian wolf is classified as an endangered species by the International Union for the
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). It publishes an annual list of endangered species
called the Red List. Complete Table 1.1 to summarise four of the main reasons, with further explanation,
as to why the Ethiopian wolf has become an endangered species.
[4]
(d) According to the Red List, the number of endangered mammal species in 2007 was 349 and in 2008
was 448. Calculate the percentage increase in endangered mammal species between 2007 and 2008.
Give your answer to the nearest whole number. Show your working.
[2]
[Total: 9] (N11-P41/2-Q1)
Q23. The Bengal Tiger, Panthera tigris tigris, is an endangered mammalian species of Southern
Asia. It lives mostly in a forest habitat. Fig. 1.1 shows a Bengal Tiger.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 22
A2 Biology
Section: Q
(a) Table 1.1 shows the relationship between available forest habitat and Bengal Tiger numbers between
1970 and 2010.
Calculate the percentage decrease in the number of Bengal Tigers between 1970 and 2010. Give your
answer to the nearest whole number.
[2]
(b) Suggest methods to conserve the Bengal Tiger.
[4]
(c) The Bengal Tiger belongs to the kingdom Animalia. State two differences between members of the
kingdom Animalia and the kingdom Plantae.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N11-P43-Q1)
Q24. (a) The plant Rafflesia arnoldii, which grows in the jungles of South East Asia, is noted for
producing the largest flower of all plants.
The flower is reddish-brown and can grow up to one metre in diameter.
The flower gives off a smell similar to rotting flesh to attract flies, which then pollinate it.
Fig. 6.1 shows a flower of R. arnoldii.
R. arnoldii is classified as an endangered species. Suggest why R. arnoldii has become an endangered
species.
[3]
(b) (i) Explain the meaning of the term biodiversity.
[1]
(ii) Suggest reasons for maintaining plant biodiversity.
[4]
[Total: 8] (J12-P41/3-Q6)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 23
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q25. Corals are simple marine animals and usually exist in colonies of thousands of individuals. Fig. 7.1
shows a coral colony.
Corals absorb calcium carbonate from the sea to build their skeletons, which help to form large coral
reefs. Coral reefs provide a home for about 25% of known fish species and have the highest biodiversity
of any marine ecosystem.
(a) Corals, although they are animals, are sometimes mistaken for members of the plant kingdom. State
two ways in which corals differ from plants.
[2]
(b) Outline what is meant by the term ecosystem.
[2]
(c) Coral reefs are at risk of damage due to human activities. All the coral reefs in three regions were
classified as being at low, medium or high risk of damage. Table 7.1 shows the areas of coral reef at risk
of damage in these three regions.
(i) Complete Table 7.1, giving your answers to the nearest whole number.
(ii) Suggest how human activities could damage coral reefs.
[1]
[3]
[Total: 8] (N12-P41/2-Q7)
Q26. (a) Explain the need to maintain biodiversity in an ecosystem such as a tropical rainforest. [7]
(b) Discuss the advantages and the disadvantages of captive breeding programmes for mammals. [8]
[Total: 15] (J13-P41-Q9)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 24
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q27. (a) Bacteria are members of the kingdom Prokaryota. Describe the main features of a bacterial
cell.
[8]
(b) Outline the use of bacteria in the extraction of metals from ores.
[7]
[Total:15] (J13-P42-Q9)
Q28. (a) The tiger, Panthera tigris, is classified as an endangered species by the International Union for
the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). The IUCN publishes an annual list of
endangered species called the Red List. Fig. 8.1 shows the number of tigers in the wild between 1900
and 2010.
Calculate the overall rate of decrease in number of tigers between 1900 and 2010. Give your answer to
the nearest whole number.
[2]
(b) Describe the reasons why a named species has become endangered.
[4]
[Total: 6] (N13-P41-Q8)
Q29. (a) Describe the main features of an organism belonging to the plant kingdom.
[7]
(b) Describe the structure of a mitochondrion and outline its function in a plant cell.
[8]
[Total: 15] (N13-P41/2-Q11)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 25
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q30. The Atlantic cod, Gadus morhua, is fished for food.

(a) Fig. 8.1 shows the size of the stocks of Atlantic cod between 1968 and 2000.
Calculate the overall rate of decrease in size of the stocks of Atlantic cod between 1968 and 2000.[2]
(b) Suggest how the stocks of Atlantic cod may be increased.
[3]
[Total: 5] (N13-P43-Q8)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 26
A2 Biology
Section: Q
Q31. is a disease of the respiratory system.

During an asthma attack the membranes lining the airways release mucus and become inflamed.
This causes the muscles of the airways to contract and narrow the lumen of the airways, making
breathing difficult.
Most asthma attacks are triggered by allergens.
Allergens are harmless substances that, in some people, stimulate an immune response that leads to an
allergic reaction.
There has been a large increase in cases of asthma over the last 40 years.
(a) Many allergens that can trigger an asthma attack are inhaled during normal breathing.
Suggest two examples of these allergens.
[2]
(b) Over the past 20 years a study has been carried out on the 261 inhabitants of a remote island in the
South Atlantic called Tristan da Cunha.
There are only seven different family names on the island.
Half of the islanders displayed symptoms of asthma.
A gene, ESE3, is responsible for the normal deposition of collagen in the walls of the airways.
When the gene is faulty, too much collagen is produced and this can lead to asthma-like symptoms,
making breathing difficult.
This faulty gene has been found among the inhabitants of Tristan de Cunha.
(i) Collagen is also found in the walls of blood vessels.
State one property of collagen that enables it to carry out its main function in the walls of blood vessels
and airways.
[1]
(ii) Suggest why this form of asthma was very common amongst the population of Tristan da Cunha.
[3]
[Total: 6]
(N11-P41-Q8)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 27
A2 Biology
Section: R
Genetic Engineering, Gene Technology and Applied Genetics
Practice Questions
1. Summarise the advantages of using human insulin produced by gene technology for the treatment
of people with diabetes.
2. Explain the potential dangers of contact between genetically modified microorganisms and the
outside environment.
3. Gene therapy for cystic fibrosis would be successful if only one copy of the normal allele of the
gene was successfully inserted into the cells. Explain why this is so.
4. The table below shows enzymes that are used in gene technology. Copy and complete the table to
show the role of each enzyme.
Enzyme
Role
DNA ligase
DNA polymerase
restriction enzyme
reverse transcriptase
5. Rearrange the statements below to produce a flow diagram showing the steps involved in
producing bacteria capable of synthesizing a human protein such as human growth hormone
(hGH).
A. Insert the plasmid into a host bacterium.
B. Isolate mRNA for hGH.
C. Insert the DNA into a plasmid and use ligase to steal the nicks in the sugarphosphate chains.
D. Use DNA polymerase to clone the DNA.
E. Clone the modified bacteria and harvest hGH.
F. Use reverse transcriptase to produce cDNA.
G. Use a restriction enzyme to cut a plasmid vector.
6. a. Draw a genetic diagram to show how two heterozygous parents may produce a child with
cystic fibrosis. Use the symbols A/a in your diagram.
[3]
b. State the probability of one of the children of these parents suffering from cystic fibrosis. [1]
[Total: 4]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 1
A2 Biology
Section: R
Exam Questions
Q1. (a) Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by mutations of a gene coding for a transmembrane protein
(CFTR) which acts as an ion pore. A large number of different mutations of the gene have been
found.
(i) Describe briefly the symptoms of CF in humans.
[3]
(ii) Explain how CF is inherited.
[3]
(iii) Explain why a gene test for CF may not reveal the presence of the disease.
[2]
(b) Ion transport by cells expressing the normal allele for CFTR was compared with that by cells
expressing mutant alleles. The mutant cells chosen for study were all capable of producing a CFTR
protein and correctly inserting it into their cell surface membrane. The abilities of the cells to
transport HCO3 and Cl were measured and expressed as a HCO3 : Cl transport ratio. The results
are shown in Table 2.1.
(i) Explain why it was important that the CFTR protein was produced and correctly inserted into the
cell surface membrane of all mutant cells chosen for study.
[2]
(ii) With reference to Table 2.1, explain the cause of inadequate functioning of the pancreas in CF.
[3]
(iii) Suggest two consequences of inadequate functioning of the pancreas in CF.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J03-P6-Op4Q2)
Q2. (a) Describe how antibiotic resistance
(i) arises in a bacterium;
(ii) spreads through a population of bacteria.
[2]
[3]
A survey was made of the proportion of antibiotic-resistant gut bacteria in wild populations of bank
voles and wood mice in a part of England. The sample sites were so positioned that it was thought
that the animals would have had minimal contact with antibiotics or with domesticated animals
routinely treated with antibiotics. Bacteria were cultured from the faeces of the animals and their
resistance to various antibiotics determined. Table 2.1 shows the percentage of colonies of five
species of bacteria, 1 to 5, resistant to four broadspectrum antibiotics, A to D. Antibiotics C and D
have a similar molecular structure. Bacterial species 2 is closely related to species 3 and species 4 is
closely related to species 5.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 2
A2 Biology
Section: R
(b) With reference to Table 2.1, suggest why

(i) all five species of bacteria are relatively resistant to antibiotics C and D;
[3]
(ii) species 1 shows less resistance than the other species to antibiotic A;
[2]
(iii) none of the species of bacteria shows resistance to antibiotic B.
[2]
(c) It is often assumed that restricting the use of antibiotics will prevent the spread of antibiotic
resistance in bacteria. With reference to Table 2.1, comment on this assumption.
[3]
[Total : 15] (N02-P6-Op4Q2)
Q3.
(i) Describe how Downs syndrome arises in humans.

[7]
(ii) Describe how genetic screening is carried out.
[7]
(iii) Explain the need for genetic counselling after genetic screening has detected a disorder.
[6]
[Total : 20] (N02-P6-Op4Q3b)
Q4.
(i) Explain what is meant by the terms linkage and crossing-over.

[8]
(ii) Explain why genetic compatibility of the major histocompatibility (HLA) system is found
within a family.
[6]
(iii) Describe the consequences of a lack of genetic compatibility in transplant surgery. [6]
[Total: 20] (J03-P6-Op4Q3b)
Q5. The Mauritius pink pigeon is an endangered species. The wild population was reduced to sixteen
in 1993. In the 1970s, eleven birds, whose relationships were unknown, were taken from the wild
population to establish captive breeding programmes in Mauritius and in the
UK.
(a) The captive population in the UK began to show harmful effects of inbreeding. Describe the
harmful effects of inbreeding.
[3]
(b) The relationships of the captive birds were determined by genetic fingerprinting. Outline how
genetic fingerprinting is carried out.
[4]
(c) Explain how genetic fingerprinting can be used to keep inbreeding of the captive populations of
the Mauritius pink pigeon to a minimum in future.
[3]
(d) The aims of selective breeding and of maintaining a captive population of an endangered species
are very different.
Explain
(i) why selective breeding is carried out;
[2]
(ii) in what ways maintaining a captive population of an endangered species differs from
selective breeding.
[3]
[Total : 15] (N03-P6-Op4Q1)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 3
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q6. Either
(a) (i) Describe, with examples, how the alleles at one gene locus may interact with each other. [6]
(ii) Describe Huntingtons disease (HD) in humans and explain how it is inherited.
[8]
(iii) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of genetic screening for HD.
[6]
[Total : 20]
Or
(b) (i) Describe, using examples, the difference between continuous and discontinuous variation of
the phenotype.
[8]
(ii) Explain the genetic basis of continuous and discontinuous variation.
[6]
(iii) Describe two examples of the effect of the environment on the phenotype.
[6]
[Total : 20] (N03-P6-Op4Q3)
Q7. (a) People suffering from the sex-linked recessive genetic disease, haemophilia B, lack a blood
clotting protein called factor IX. In an experimental gene therapy, the dominant allele coding for
factor IX was added to the genome of adeno-associated virus (AAV). The genetically modified virus
was injected into the thigh muscles of three patients. All three patients then produced small quantities
of factor IX. AAV does not appear to stimulate the human immune system. Explain why it is
theoretically easier to perform gene therapy to correct a genetic disease caused by a recessive, rather
than by a dominant allele.
[3]
(b) The genetically modified AAV has now been injected into patients livers. Suggest why the liver
was chosen as the target organ for this gene therapy.
[2]
(c) State two potential hazards of this type of gene therapy.
[2]
[Total : 7] (J04-P6-Op4Q4)
Q8. (a) Mice and humans share a gene for a protein ion channel that is found only in the plasma
membrane (cell surface membrane) of the tails of spermatozoa. Mice homozygous for a mutation
which results in an inactive ion channel are sterile. Explain how a mutation can result in an inactive
ion channel.
[3]
(b) Sperm from mice homozygous for the mutation giving an inactive ion channel and from
homozygous normal mice were examined. Their rate of movement was measured and their ability to
fertilise eggs was tested by in vitro fertilisation (IVF) of intact eggs and eggs without their outer zona
pellucida. The results are shown in Table 1.1.
(i) Explain what is meant by in vitro fertilisation.

[2]
(ii) With reference to Table 1.1, compare the abilities of sperm from normal and mutant mice to
fertilise eggs successfully in vitro.
[4]
(iii) With reference to Table 1.1, suggest an explanation for the differences you have
described in (ii).
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 4
A2 Biology
Section: R
(c) The DNA coding for the ion channel was analysed by a process similar to genetic fingerprinting.
DNA from three different mice was used:
A a mouse homozygous for the normal ion channel;
B a heterozygous mouse;
C a mouse homozygous for the mutation giving an inactive ion channel.
The resulting genetic fingerprint is shown in Fig. 1.1.
With reference to Fig. 1.1, explain

(i)
the difference in the position of the bands from mouse A and mouse C in the genetic
fingerprint;
[3]
(ii)
the presence of two bands in the genetic fingerprint of mouse B.
[1]
[Total : 15] (N04-P6-Op4Q1)
Q9. (a) Explain the genetic basis of Downs syndrome in humans.
[3]
(b) State what is meant by genetic screening.
[1]
(c) In a study into diagnosis of Downs syndrome, the way in which 323 people with Downs
syndrome were initially diagnosed was recorded. All had been screened before 24 weeks of
pregnancy by one of four different tests, A, B, C or D, in approximately equal numbers.
The number of cases detected by each test, as well as the total number of cases missed by the tests,
and so detected only at or after birth, is shown in Table 4.1.
With reference to Table 4.1.

(i) calculate the percentage of cases of Downs syndrome that were detected before 24 weeks of
pregnancy. Show your working;
[2]
(ii) describe the differences in the success of the different screening tests in diagnosing Downs
syndrome before birth;
[3]
(iii) suggest one way of making use of tests A, B, C and D that would increase the percentage of
cases of Downs syndrome detected before birth.
[1]
[Total : 10] (N04-P6-Op4Q4)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 5
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q10. (a) Chloroquine-resistant (CQR) malarial parasites, Plasmodium falciparum, were first reported
in the 1950s and are now widespread. The resistance is caused by mutations of a gene called pfcrt.
(i) Distinguish between a gene mutation and a chromosome mutation.
[2]
(ii) Explain whether resistance to chloroquine in P. falciparum is an example of continuous or
discontinuous variation.
[2]
(iii) Explain why CQR P. falciparum are now widespread.
[4]
(b) Analysis of pfcrt in CQR P. falciparum from different parts of the world shows differences in
one section of the gene only. The amino acid sequences coded for by this section are shown in Table
1.1, together with the amino acid sequence coded for by the allele found in parasites that are still
susceptible to chloroquine (non-CQR).
The amino acid sequence coded for by the rest of the gene is the same in all cases.

(i) calculate the mean number of different amino acids coded for by CQR alleles in comparison with
the non-CQR allele. Show your working;
[2]
(ii) suggest why the CQR alleles from Africa and Asia code for such similar sequences.
[2]
(c) Each change from the sequence of amino acids coded for by the non-CQR allele can be produced
by altering a single base in the DNA code for each amino acid. Explain why altering a single base in
the DNA code for an amino acid can result in the presence of a different amino acid in a protein. [3]
[Total: 15] (J05-P6-Op4Q1)
Q11. (a) Some mothers of infants with Downs syndrome have a mutation of a gene coding for an
enzyme involved in the metabolism of methyl groups. A lack of methyl groups on DNA results in
mistakes in the segregation of chromosomes during cell division and in structural mutations of
chromosomes.
Explain how Downs syndrome may result from
(i) mistakes in the segregation of chromosomes during cell division;
[2]
(ii) structural mutations of chromosomes.
[2]
(b) The gene mutation referred to in (a) also affects the metabolism of the vitamin folic acid.
Abnormal folic acid metabolism is seen in mothers of infants with neural tube disorders (NTD).
Two groups of families, in Israel and in the Ukraine, were investigated to see whether there was any
link between the incidence of Downs syndrome and NTD. The results are shown in Table 3.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 6
A2 Biology
Section: R

(i) explain whether the observed numbers of Downs syndrome and NTD are significantly different
from the numbers expected;
[2]
(ii) describe the evidence for a link between Downs syndrome and NTD in these families.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J05-P6-Op4Q3)
Q12. (a) Explain why the sinoatrial node is known as the pacemaker of the heart.
[3]
(b) All cells of the heart of an early embryo mammal have intrinsic pacemaker ability, but this
activity is suppressed in the atria and ventricles as the heart develops. This lack of activity is caused
by the expression of a gene for extra potassium ion channels. In the presence of these channels the
cells have a strongly negative resting potential, which prevents the cells from reaching the threshold
to fire. A possible gene therapy for restoring a hearts lost pacemaker activity involves adding a
dominant mutant allele of the gene for this ion channel to atrium or ventricle cells.
(i) Explain the theoretical basis of gene therapy.
[3]
(ii) The normal and mutant alleles of the gene differ in their coding for three adjacent amino acids of
the ion channel:
The ion channel produced by the mutant allele is inactive.

Suggest why the ion channel produced by the mutant allele is inactive.
[2]
(c) This gene therapy was applied to cells from the left ventricles of guinea pigs. The electrical
activity of normal ventricle cells and of cells that had received gene therapy is shown in Fig. 1.1. The
cells received no external stimulation.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 7
A2 Biology
Section: R

(i) compare the electrical activity of normal ventricle cells with cells that had received gene therapy;
[3]
(ii) explain the differences in activity between the two types of cell;
[3]
(iii) suggest how this gene therapy might be used to restore lost pacemaker activity to a heart.
[1]
[Total: 15] (N05-P6-Op4Q1)
Q13. (a) Describe briefly the inheritance of cystic fibrosis.
[4]
(b) In Europe, the commonest mutation of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator
(CFTR) gene is F508. Deletion of three base pairs results in the loss of one amino acid,
phenylalanine, in the CFTR protein. In genetic screening for this mutation, a fragment of DNA
including the site of the deletion is cut out of the gene. The fragment is 100 base pairs (bp) long
when cut out of the normal allele and 97 bp long when cut from the mutant allele. The different
fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis.
The results of genetic screening for F508 of three individuals, A, B and C, are shown in Fig. 1.1.
(i) Describe how DNA fragments are separated in gel electrophoresis.

(ii) Identify the position of a 97 bp fragment on Fig. 1.1 by means of a labelled arrow.
(iii) Explain the result obtained from individual C.
[3]
[1]
[2]
(c) CFTR with the F508 mutation does not become part of plasma (cell surface) membranes.
A second mutation of CFTR, called R117H, results in the replacement of an arginine amino acid by
histidine. CFTR with this mutation does become part of plasma membranes.
Sweat gland cells were taken from three sets of volunteers:
homozygous for the normal CFTR allele;
heterozygous F508 and R117H;
homozygous for the F508 mutation.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 8
A2 Biology
Section: R
The conductance of hydrogencarbonate ions (HCO3 ) and chloride ions (Cl ) across the plasma
membranes was measured. The results are shown in Fig. 1.2.
(i) With reference to Fig. 1.2 and the information given in the question, explain the different effects
of the two CFTR mutations on ion conductance.
[3]
(ii) Calculate the percentage reduction in chloride ion (Cl ) transport by cells from heterozygous
volunteers, in comparison with cells from volunteers homozygous for the normal CFTR allele. Show
your working.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J06-P6-Op4Q1)
Q14. (a) State three differences between the inheritance of cystic fibrosis (CF) and of Huntingtons
disease (HD).
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 9
A2 Biology
Section: R
(b) In genetic testing for HD, fragments of DNA are cut from an individuals alleles and separated by
gel electrophoresis to determine their length.
Four members of a family affected by HD were tested:
A is the father of B and developed symptoms of HD in old age;
B is the mother of D and developed symptoms of HD in middle age;
C is the unaffected father of D;
D is the son of B and C and developed symptoms of HD as a child.
The results of the genetic test are shown in Fig. 3.1.

(i) describe the relationship between length of DNA fragment and age of onset of HD,
[2]
(ii) explain the differences in positions of DNA fragments from the different members of the family
in this test.
[3]
[Total: 8] (N06-P6-Op4Q3)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 10
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q1. (a) Describe the role of insulin in the regulation of blood glucose concentration.
[4]
(b) Fig. 4.1 shows some of the steps involved in the production of bacteria capable of synthesising human
insulin.
State the role of each of the following enzymes in the production of bacteria capable of synthesising human
insulin,
reverse transcriptase; DNA polymerase ; restriction enzymes (restriction endonucleases); DNA ligase. [6]
[Total: 10] (J07-P4-Q4)
Q2. (a) Outline the symptoms of cystic fibrosis (CF).
[4]
(b) CF is caused by a recessive mutation, b, on an autosome. Draw a genetic diagram to show, for parents
with genotypes BbXX and BbXY, the probability of having a daughter who suffers from CF. In your genetic
diagram, show the genotypes of the gametes and the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring.
[4]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 1
A2 Biology
Section: R
(c) One of the many mutations for CF results in the amino acid arginine being replaced by histidine in the
polypeptide encoded by the CF gene. Explain how a mutation may cause such a change in the amino acid
sequence of a polypeptide.
[4]
(d) A genetic test was performed on two individuals, D and E, to find the base sequences of a small part of
the CF gene. The different base sequences are shown diagramatically in Fig. 3.1. Individual E has CF.
With reference to Fig. 3.1, state,

(i) how the base sequence of E differs from that of D
(ii) the effect of this difference in the polypeptide produced by the two individuals.
[1]
[2]
[Total: 15] (N07-P4-Q3)
Q3. Fig. 2.1 is a light micrograph of a small part of the pancreas.

[2]
(b) With reference to Fig. 2.1, explain why the pancreas is an endocrine gland.
[2]
(c) Insulin and glucagon are involved in the control of blood glucose concentration. When blood glucose
concentration rises, secretion of insulin increases. Outline two ways in which insulin affects the activity of
cells in the liver.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 2
A2 Biology
Section: R
(d) Some forms of diabetes are caused by an inability to secrete insulin and can be controlled by regular
injections of insulin. Most of this insulin is now produced using genetically modified Escherichia coli.
Explain the advantages of using this type of insulin, rather than insulin obtained from animal sources. [2]
[Total: 8] (J08-P4-Q2)
Q4. Fig. 2.1 shows the CFTR (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) protein in a plasma (cell
surface) membrane.
(a) (i) Describe the normal function of the CFTR protein.

[2]
(ii) On Fig. 2.1, use the letter E to indicate the external face of the membrane. State how you identified this
face.
[1]
(b) Cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive allele of the CFTR gene.
(i) Explain the meaning of the term recessive allele.
[2]
(ii) Explain how cystic fibrosis affects the function of the lungs.
[3]
(c) As cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive allele of a single gene, it is a good candidate for gene therapy.
Trials were undertaken in the 1990s, attempting to deliver the normal allele of the CFTR gene into cells of
the respiratory tract, using viruses or liposomes as vectors. Explain how viruses deliver the allele into cells.[2]
(d) In some people with cystic fibrosis, the allele has a single-base mutation which produces
a nonsense (stop) codon within the gene.
(i) Explain how this mutation would prevent normal CFTR protein being produced.
[2]
(ii) A new type of drug, PTC124, enables translation to continue through the nonsense codon. Trials in mice
homozygous for a CFTR allele containing the nonsense codon have found that animals treated with PTC124
produce normal CFTR protein in their cells. The drug is taken orally, and is readily taken up into cells all over
the body. Using your knowledge of the progress towards successful gene therapy for cystic fibrosis, suggest
why PTC124 could be a simpler and more reliable treatment for this disease.
[3]
[Total: 15] (N08-P4-Q2)
Q5. (a) Describe the role of insulin in the regulation of blood glucose concentration.
(b) State two advantages of treating diabetes with insulin produced by gene technology.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[3]
[2]
Phone. 0347 4443879 3
A2 Biology
Section: R
(c) One of the steps in the production of bacteria capable of producing human insulin is the insertion of the
gene coding for human insulin into a plasmid vector. Fig. 6.1 shows one of the artificial plasmids constructed
to act as a vector.
(i) With reference to Fig. 6.1, explain the importance of the plasmid having a single target site for a particular
restriction enzyme, such as BamHI.
[2]
(ii) The genes for ampicillin resistance and tetracycline resistance on the plasmid allow the genetic engineer
to distinguish between bacteria that have taken up different circles of DNA. Complete the table to show
whether bacteria which have taken up each different circle of DNA are, or are not resistant to ampicillin, to
tetracycline or to both. Show presence of resistance with a tick () and absence of resistance with a cross
(
).
[3]
(d) (i) Explain why genes for antibiotic resistance are now rarely used as markers in gene technology.
[3]
(ii) Describe the use of one alternative marker gene that can be used instead of an antibiotic gene.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J09-P4-Q6)
Q6.
(a) Explain how changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA may affect the amino acid sequence in a
protein.
[7]
(b) Explain how natural selection may bring about evolution.
[8]
[Total: 15] (J09-P4-Q9)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 4
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q7. (a) A husband and wife who already have a child with cystic fibrosis (CF) elected to have their second
child tested for the condition while still a fetus in very early pregnancy. The results of the test, a DNA
banding pattern, were discussed with a genetic counsellor. The relevant DNA banding pattern produced by
electrophoresis is shown in Fig. 6.1.
With reference to Fig. 6.1, explain why,

(i) the fetus will develop CF,
[1]
(ii) the positions of the bands of DNA of the first child and of the fetus indicate that the mutant allele for CF
has a deletion in comparison with the normal allele.
[2]
(b) Explain briefly the need to discuss the result of the test with a genetic counsellor.
[4]
[Total: 7] (N09-P41-Q6)
Q8. (a) The pancreas acts both as an exocrine and an endocrine gland.
(i) Describe the parts of the pancreas involved in its endocrine function.
[3]
(ii) State precisely the group of compounds to which the pancreatic hormone insulin belongs.
[1]
(b) People with insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetes require regular injections of insulin. In the past the
insulin used came from animal sources such as pigs. Diabetics now use human insulin that has been
manufactured using gene technology. Describe the advantages of treating diabetics with insulin produced by
gene technology.
[3]
[Total: 7] (N09-P42-Q6)
Q9. Pompe disease is a rare neuromuscular disease caused by an autosomal recessive allele. This allele
prevents the production of an enzyme called acid alpha-glucosidase (AG), which breaks down glycogen in
muscle cells. Glycogen can build up in muscle cells causing damage to the cells. This damage leads to muscle
weakness which gets worse with time.
(a) Explain how two parents, both of whom produce normal amounts of AG, can produce a child with Pompe
disease.
[3]
(b) One form of treatment is enzyme replacement therapy where AG is given through regular injections.
(i) Suggest how AG may be manufactured.
[1]
(ii) Name the hormone that stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in liver cells.
[1]
(iii) State under what conditions glycogen would need to be broken down in liver or muscle cells.
[1]
(c) The MN blood group system is based on the presence of glycoproteins M and N, on the surface
membrane of red blood cells, which act as antigens. State what is meant by the term antigen.
[1]
(d) The type of MN antigen on the surface membrane of red blood cells is controlled by a single gene with
two alleles, LM and LN. The phenotypes of the MN blood group system are MM, MN and NN. Complete the
genetic diagram to show how the MN blood group is inherited.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 5
A2 Biology
Section: R
(e) Allele frequencies for LM and LN vary in different human populations throughout the world. Table 7.1
shows the LM and LN allele frequencies from five populations.
Discuss the data shown in Table 7.1.
[3]
[Total: 13] (N09-P42-Q7)
Q10. (a) Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an inherited disease.

(i) Explain briefly how two parents who do not have CF may have a child with CF.
[2]
(ii) Describe two ways in which CF affects the lungs.
[2]
(b) One potential way of treating CF is by using gene therapy.
(i) Outline, with reference to CF, what is meant by gene therapy.
[2]
(ii) Describe one possible advantage and one possible disadvantage of using gene therapy to treat CF. [2]
[Total: 8] (J10-P41-Q8)
Q11. Gene technology has many uses including the production of substances such as insulin.
(a) (i) Outline what is meant by gene technology.
[2]
(ii) Explain why genes for enzymes that produce fluorescent substances are used as makers in gene
technology.
[2]
(b) There is much controversy throughout the world regarding the use of genetically modified (GM) crops.
(i) Suggest two advantages of growing GM rice with an enhanced vitamin A content.
[2]
(ii) Suggest two disadvantages of growing GM crops.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J10-P42-Q8)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 6
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q12. The secretion of insulin by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas stimulates the liver to reduce the
blood glucose concentration.
(a) Describe how the liver reduces blood glucose concentration, when insulin is secreted.
[3]
(b) Almost all insulin used to treat type I diabetes is produced by genetically engineered bacteria or yeast. A
summary of this procedure is shown in Fig. 4.1.
(i) One way of carrying out step 1 is to collect mRNA from cells from the pancreas. The relevant mRNA is
then isolated and used to make DNA. Suggest why isolating the mRNA coding for insulin in a cell is easier
than isolating the DNA for insulin in a cell.
[2]
(ii) Outline the use of restriction enzymes in step 2.
[2]
(c) Most people with type I diabetes inject insulin. A recent product contains insulin that can be
administered using a nasal spray. The spray is inhaled and the insulin is taken up through the lungs.
Fig. 4.2 shows the concentration of insulin in the blood plasma in the 480 minutes after injecting or inhaling
insulin. In both cases, the insulin was of the same type, obtained from genetically engineered Escherichia
coli.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 7
A2 Biology
Section: R
Fig. 4.3 shows the concentration of glucose in the blood plasma in the 480 minutes after injecting or inhaling
insulin.
(i) Compare the results for injected insulin and inhaled insulin shown in Fig. 4.2.
[3]
(ii) With reference to Fig. 4.2, explain the differences in the blood glucose levels after injecting or inhaling
insulin shown in Fig. 4.3.
[3]
(iii) With reference to Figs. 4.2 and 4.3, suggest one advantage and one disadvantage of inhaling insulin
rather than injecting it.
[2]
[Total: 15] (N10-P41/2-Q8)
Q13. Many attempts have been made to find methods of using gene therapy to treat cystic fibrosis.
One approach uses viruses to deliver normal alleles of the CFTR gene into epithelial cells of the airways. Viral
delivery systems have two main problems:
The virus may trigger an immune response which destroys the infected cells.
Most non-pathogenic viruses are not very good at getting into cells, so very few cells receive the allele.
A team of researchers in the USA developed a new strain (AAV2.5T) of AAV, a nonpathogenic virus. AAV2.5T
has an improved ability to bind with epithelial cells of the airways. Genes for the CFTR protein and for an
enzyme, luciferase, were added to the DNA of the viruses. Luciferase produces a fluorescent green protein
when luciferin is added. The normal AAV strain and the AAV2.5T strain were added to cultures of epithelial
cells from the airways. After adding luciferin, the numbers of cells that had taken up the viral genes was
estimated using the intensity of the green fluorescence which developed. The results are shown in Fig. 5.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 8
A2 Biology
Section: R
(a) With reference to Fig. 5.1, compare the ability of the two viral strains, AAV and AAV2.5T, to infect
epithelial cells from the airways.
[2]
(b) Explain why the researchers added a gene for luciferase to the viral DNA.
[2]
(c) Suggest how delivering normal alleles of the CFTR gene into epithelial cells in the airways could relieve
the symptoms of cystic fibrosis.
[4]
[Total: 8] (N10-P43-Q5)
Q14. Almost 40% of adults with cystic fibrosis (CF) develop a form of diabetes known as cystic fibrosisrelated diabetes (CFRD). This is thought to happen because the build-up of thick secretions in the pancreas
destroys cells.
(a) Explain how the destruction of cells causes diabetes.
[4]
(b) The bacterium Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause chronic (long-lasting) lung infections. A person with
CFRD is likely to have poorer lung function and a greater likelihood of having a chronic lung infection than a
person who has CF but does not have CFRD.
An investigation was carried out to find out if the severity of damage to lung function in a person with CFRD
is affected by
their gender
whether or not they have a chronic P. aeruginosa infection.
The investigators measured lung function by recording the maximum volume of air that can be expelled
from the lungs in the first one second of a forced expiration. This is known as FEV1. The lower the median
FEV1, the poorer the lung function. Table 4.1 summarises the results of this investigation. All the 812 people
in the study had cystic fibrosis.
With reference to Table 4.1

(i) discuss whether or not there appears to be a positive correlation between having a chronic P. aeruginosa
infection and having CFRD
[2]
(ii) calculate the percentage difference between the FEV1 of males and females without CFRD and without P.
aeruginosa infection. Show your working
[2]
(iii) outline the conclusions that can be drawn concerning the relationship between gender and the severity
of lung damage in a person with CFRD and with P. aeruginosa infection.
[3]
(c) In a person with CF, damage to lung function and the increased likelihood of chronic infections are the
result of the secretion of thick mucus. Explain why thick mucus is secreted in the lungs of a person with CF.
[4]
[Total: 15] (J11-P41-Q4)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 9
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q15. Huntingtons Disease (HD) is a severe neurological disorder in which symptoms usually appear after the
person has reached sexual maturity. Symptoms include memory loss and changes in personality and mood.
HD is caused by a gene mutation on chromosome 4 in which the triplet code CAG is repeated many times.
The resulting allele is dominant.
(a) Explain what is meant by the terms gene mutation and triplet code.
[4]
(b) A couple wish to start a family. The man does not have HD but the woman does have the disease. The
womans father does not have the disease. Complete the genetic diagram below to show the probability of
the couples first child having HD.
key
Huntington allele = T
normal allele = t
parental phenotypes
man without HD
woman with HD
parental genotypes
............................
............................
gametes
..........................................
.........................................
offspring genotypes
........................................................................................
offspring phenotypes
........................................................................................
probability of first child having HD ............................................................................
[3]
[Total: 7] (J11-P42-Q9)
Q17. In humans, the gene RPE65 encodes a protein responsible for regenerating visual pigment in rod and
cone cells after they have been exposed to light. A recessive allele of this gene causes impaired vision from
birth, progressing to complete blindness in early adulthood. This condition is called LCA.
In 2008, trials were carried out into the possibility and safety of treating LCA using gene therapy.
(a) Suggest and explain why LCA is suitable for treatment using gene therapy.
[3]
(b) Six adults with this condition were used in the study. Genetically modified adenoviruses (a type of virus
that can cause respiratory infections) were used as vectors. The vectors were injected beneath the retina of
one eye of each of the participants. Suggest two ways in which the genome of the adenoviruses used as
vectors would differ from that of normal adenoviruses.
[2]
(c) Improvements were found in the vision of all the participants, but the small number in the trials made
most of these improvements not statistically significant. Suggest why these trials were designed to include
such a small number of participants.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N11-P41/2-Q5)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 10
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q18. Insulin can be produced on a large scale using gene technology and prokaryotes such as Escherichia
coli. Table 7.1 summarises the sequence of steps in one method of production of insulin by E. coli. Complete
Table 7.1 by adding one statement in each of the empty boxes.
[7]
[Total: 7] (N11-P41/2-Q7)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 11
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q19. (a) The steps involved in a method of production of human insulin by gene technology are listed in
Table 5.1. The steps are not listed in the correct order.
(i) Complete Table 5.2 to show the steps in the correct order. Two of the steps have been done for you.
[4]
(ii) Name the enzymes responsible for the following steps:
step A ...................................
step H ........................... ..............
[2]
(b) Explain two advantages of treating diabetes with human insulin produced by gene technology rather
than using insulin from animals.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N11-P43-Q5)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 12
A2 Biology
Section: R
Q20. (a) Table 7.1 shows the effect of several events on the blood concentration of glucose, insulin and
glucagon in a healthy person. Complete the table using the words increase, decrease or no effect.
The first row has been done for you.
[4]
(b) The concentration of glucose in the blood is controlled by the hormones insulin and glucagon. Describe
the part played by glucagon in the control of glucose in the blood.
[3]
[Total: 7] (N11-P43-Q7)
Q21.
(a) Explain how changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA may affect the amino acid sequence in a
protein.
[8]
(b) Explain how the allele for haemophilia may be passed from a man to his grandchildren. You may
use genetic diagrams to support your answer.
[7]
[Total: 15] (N11-P43-Q11)
Q22. Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs) are repetitive, non-coding sections of DNA. A particular VNTR
is located at the same locus in different individuals, but the number of repeats in that VNTR varies between
individuals.
(a) Explain how, in the process of genetic fingerprinting, gel electrophoresis is able to distinguish between
the VNTRs that occur at the same loci of different individuals.
[3]
(b) Gel electrophoresis is also used in genetic screening. The mutation of the -globin gene which gives rise
to sickle cell anaemia removes a recognition site of a restriction enzyme, R, as shown in Fig. 3.1. R cuts DNA
at the sites indicated by arrows ( ). The lengths of the resulting fragments are shown in kilobases (kb).
Fig. 3.2 shows an electrophoresis gel with a stained band of DNA from an individual who was homozygous
for the normal allele for -globin, HbA HbA. This band is the 1.1 kb fragment shown in Fig. 3.1. The 0.2 kb
fragment is not shown. Complete Fig. 3.2 by drawing the stained DNA that would result from an individual
who is heterozygous for the sickle cell allele, HbA HbS. Put your answer on to Fig. 3.2.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 13
A2 Biology
Section: R
(c) Describe the different circumstances in which this genetic screening for the sickle cell allele, HbS, might
be used.
[3]
[Total: 8] (J12-P41-Q3)
Q23. In order to sequence the DNA of a gene, it is first denatured to separate its two strands. Then, in the
presence of a large supply of each of the four nucleotides, the single-stranded DNA is replicated by DNA
polymerase.
(a) Explain what determines the sequence of nucleotides in the newly replicated strand of DNA.
[2]
(b) A low concentration of specially prepared nucleotides is also present. Once added to the chain, these
nucleotides do not allow the chain to continue growing. Each special nucleotide is labelled with a fluorescent
dye, using a different colour for each of the four bases. Fig. 3.1 shows a replicated DNA chain ending with
one of the special nucleotides.
With reference to Fig. 3.1 and to the information given, suggest why a special nucleotide with a C base was
not included by DNA polymerase at the first site requiring a C nucleotide.
[2]
(c) This method of sequencing a gene produces as many DNA fragments as there are nucleotides in the gene,
each fragment differing in length by one nucleotide. Fig. 3.2 shows part of a set of such fragments.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 14
A2 Biology
Section: R
These fragments are loaded onto a sequencing gel, shown in Fig. 3.3, and separated by electrophoresis.
(i) In what order will the fragments shown in Fig. 3.2 reach the light source and detector shown in Fig. 3.3?
[1]
(ii) Explain how gel electrophoresis separates these fragments of DNA.
[3]
[Total: 8] (J12-P42-Q3)
Q24.
(a) Outline, with reference to blood glucose concentration, the principles of homeostasis in
mammals.
[6]
(b) Describe the roles of the endocrine and nervous systems in control and coordination in
mammals.
[9]
[Total: 15] (J12-P42-Q10)
Q25. Green fluorescent protein (GFP) is a small protein that emits bright green fluorescence in blue light. It
was first isolated from the jellyfish, Aequorea victoria. The gene coding for GFP can be expressed in bacteria,
such as Escherichia coli, and so it is often used as a marker to show successful uptake of a gene by the
bacterium.
(a) (i) Outline how a gene from another species can be inserted into E. coli.
[3]
(ii) Explain how a marker gene, such as the gene for GFP, is used to show successful uptake of a gene for a
wanted protein.
[3]
(b) Genes for enzymes that produce fluorescent substances are often used as markers in gene technology.
GFP is not an enzyme. Suggest one disadvantage of using the gene for GFP to produce easily detectable
fluorescence, rather than using a gene for an enzyme that produces a fluorescent substance. Explain your
answer.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N12-P41/2-Q3)
Q26. The artificial plasmid, pBR322, was constructed to act as a vector. It has often been used to insert
human genes, such as the human insulin gene, into the bacterium, Escherichia coli. The plasmid was
constructed to include two genes, each giving resistance to a different antibiotic: an ampicillin resistance
gene and a tetracycline resistance gene. The plasmid also has a target site for the restriction enzyme, BamHI,
in the middle of the tetracycline resistance gene. A pBR322 plasmid was cut using BamHI and the cDNA gene
for human insulin inserted into it. Fig. 2.1 shows pBR322 and the recombinant plasmid.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 15
A2 Biology
Section: R
(a) With reference to Fig. 2.1, describe how a cDNA human insulin gene can be inserted into pBR322 that has
been cut by BamHI.
[4]
(b) Bacteria were then mixed with the recombinant plasmids. Those bacteria which had successfully taken
up recombinant plasmids were identified using the following steps:
step 1 the bacteria were spread onto culture plates containing nutrient agar and ampicillin and incubated
to allow colonies to form
step 2 some bacteria from each of the colonies growing on these plates were transferred to plates
containing nutrient agar and tetracycline, as shown in Fig. 2.2.
(i) Explain why the bacteria were first spread onto plates containing ampicillin.
[3]
(ii) Explain why it is important, for identifying bacteria that have successfully taken up the recombinant
plasmid, that on pBR322 the target site for BamHI is in the middle of the tetracycline resistance gene. [3]
(iii) Use a label line and the letter C to identify, on Fig. 2.2, a colony of bacteria that contain the recombinant
plasmid. Put your answer onto Fig. 2.2 on page 5.
[1]
(c) Plasmid vectors carrying antibiotic resistance genes are now rarely used in gene technology.
(i) Explain why antibiotic resistance genes are now rarely used.
[2]
(ii) State one type of gene that has replaced antibiotic resistance genes in plasmid vectors and indicate how
its presence can be detected.
[2]
[Total: 15] (N12-P43-Q2)
Q27. A number of diseases, such as dengue fever, are spread by mosquitoes. The incidence of this disease
has increased dramatically in recent years and this has been linked with the spread of the mosquito, Aedes
aegypti. In an attempt to reduce the numbers of A. aegypti, genetically modified (GM) male mosquitoes
were produced. One of the genes added to these mosquitoes, when switched on, results in the production
of a protein which is toxic to mosquitoes. In 2010, in the Cayman Islands and in Malaysia, GM male
mosquitoes were released into the wild to mate with females. All the resulting offspring died in the larval
stage.
(a) About 3 million GM male mosquitoes were released in the Cayman Islands. Suggest why releasing such
large numbers of male mosquitoes did not immediately increase the risk of transmission of dengue fever. [1]
(b) In Malaysia, both GM male and non-GM male mosquitoes were released in order to compare their
dispersal and life span in the wild. The GM mosquitoes could be identified because they also carried a gene
for green fluorescent protein (GFP). Explain why, in many examples of gene technology, fluorescent markers
are used in preference to antibiotic resistance genes.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 16
A2 Biology
Section: R
(c) In addition to the gene for GFP, the DNA that has been added to the GM mosquitoes consists of
a promoter
a gene coding for a toxic protein, tTA
a binding site for tTA.
When a GM mosquito larva hatches from an egg, the promoter induces the production of only a small
amount of tTA, so that the larva does not die immediately. In a process of positive feedback, the tTA
produced binds to the DNA as shown in Fig. 2.1. This increases the expression of the gene until the increased
concentration of tTA kills the larva.
(i) Suggest why this process is called positive feedback.

[1]
(ii) Explain why, in gene technology, a promoter needs to be transferred along with the desired gene. [3]
(iii) Switching on the gene coding for tTA in the mosquito larvae, rather than in the eggs, increases the
effectiveness of this method of controlling mosquito numbers. Suggest why this is so.
[2]
(d) GM mosquitoes carrying the tTA gene can live and reproduce normally when fed on a diet containing an
added chemical, A. With reference to Fig. 2.1:
(i) suggest how A could prevent death of the GM mosquitoes
[2]
(ii) suggest how large numbers of adult GM male mosquitoes can be produced for release into the wild, from
an original stock of GM males
[2]
(iii) suggest why there is little danger of the gene carried by these GM mosquitoes being passed to other
organisms from GM mosquitoes which escape or are released into the wild.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J13-P41-Q2)
Q28. The pink bollworm moth, Pectinophora gossypiella, is a pest of cotton crops. The size of its population
can be reduced by releasing large numbers of sterile male moths into cotton fields. The sterile male moths
mate with wild females from the cotton fields, but no offspring are produced. Over a period of three years,
20 million genetically modified (GM) sterile male moths were released in the USA. Each insect contained a
gene coding for a red fluorescent protein (DsRed) taken from a species of reef coral. The added DNA also
included a promoter.
(a) Explain why, in gene technology:
(i) genes for fluorescent proteins such as DsRed are now more commonly used as markers than are genes for
antibiotic resistance
[2]
(ii) a promoter needs to be included when transferring a gene from a coral into an insect.
[3]
(b) DsRed is visible at all stages of the life cycle of the moth, but the presence of the gene in a particular
individual can be confirmed by genetic fingerprinting, using gel electrophoresis.
(i) Outline the principles of gel electrophoresis.
[4]
(ii) Explain how the presence of the gene for DsRed in a moth can be confirmed once electrophoresis is
complete.
[2]
(c) DsRed allows sterile male moths to be distinguished from wild moths when caught in an insect trap in a
field of cotton plants. Suggest why it is important to be sure whether a moth caught in such a trap is a
released sterile male or a wild insect.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 17
A2 Biology
Section: R
(d) The United States Department of Agriculture has ruled that the release of sterile males to control insect
pest numbers is environmentally preferable to all other alternatives. Suggest what information would be
needed to determine whether the release of the sterile male moths, carrying the gene for DsRed, has a
damaging effect on the environment.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J13-P42-Q2)
Q29. (a) Huntingtons disease (HD) is an inherited disease of the central nervous system. The symptoms of
HD usually develop in adulthood and include uncontrollable muscular movements, short-term memory loss
and changes in mood. HD is caused by a dominant allele of the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. Explain
what is meant by the terms allele and dominant.
[2]
(b) The dominant allele of the huntingtin gene contains many repeats of a triplet sequence of nucleotides,
CAG. The age at which symptoms of HD first appear is linked with the number of CAG repeats.
This is shown in Fig. 1.1.
Describe the pattern shown in Fig. 1.1.

(c) A blood test to detect the dominant allele is available for people at risk of HD.
Suggest why some people at risk of HD may decide not to take the blood test.
[2]
[3]
[Total: 7] (N13-P41/2-Q1)
Q30.
(a) Explain what is meant by a gene mutation and outline the possible consequences of a gene
mutation for an organism.
[9]
(b) Explain how faulty CFTR proteins in cell surface membranes can lead to the symptoms of cystic
fibrosis.
[6]
[Total: 15] (N13-P41/2-Q10)
Q31.
(a) Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disease caused by an autosomal recessive allele. Gene therapy has
been attempted to treat CF since 1993. Outline the basic principles of gene therapy for the
treatment of CF.
[8]
(b) Describe the role of a genetic counsellor in dealing with genetic diseases in humans and discuss
the circumstances in which a couple might be referred to a genetic counsellor.
[7]
[Total: 15] (N13-P43-Q10)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 18
A2 Biology
Q32.
Section: R
(a) Describe the role of the hormone insulin in maintaining a constant blood glucose concentration.
[6]
(b) The hormone human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) is produced by a woman in the early stages
of pregnancy. Describe how a pregnancy test kit can detect the presence of HCG.
[9]
[Total: 15] (N13-P43-Q11)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879 19
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Practice Questions
1. Explain why the widespread use of antibiotics increases the likelihood that resistant strains of bacteria will
evolve.
2. Explain the difference between immunity to a disease and resistance to an antibiotic.
3. Summarize the advantages of using immobilized enzymes rather than enzyme solutions.
4. Suggest advantages of using an electronic biosensor to measure blood glucose concentration, rather than a
dip stick.
5. Suggest how treating cancer using monoclonal antibodies could cause fewer side-effects than treating it
using conventional anti-cancer drugs or radiotherapy.
6. Copy and complete the table below to compare continuous culture with batch culture.
Continuous Culture
Batch Culture
carried out in an open fermenter
nothing is added, and only waste gases are removed
product is removed continuously
the microorganisms exponential growth phase is short
difficult to control
fermenter can be used for different purposes at different times
potential losses from contamination are
large
7. a. Explain what is meant by an R plasmid.
b. Copy and complete the table to show the different ways in which genes for antibiotic resistance may be
passed from one bacterium to another.
Method of transmission
Transmitted to the same or to a Description of method of
different species of bacterium
transmission
vertical transmission
horizontal transmission
transduction
Key:
Method of transmission
vertical transmission
Transmitted to the same or to a

different species of bacterium
same species
horizontal transmission
same or different species
transduction
same or different species
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Description of method of transmission

The bacterial chromosome and R
plasmids replicate before cell division
and are passed to daughter cells.
A bacterium may pass a single-stranded
copy of an R plasmid to another in
conjugation via a conjugation tube. Each
bacterium synthesises a complementary
strand. Both donor and recipient
bacteria are resistant.
If the DNA of the R plasmid becomes
incorporated into the bacterial
chromosome, it may be transferred to
another bacterium by a bacteriophage
virus.
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
8. a. State four advantages of using an immobilized enzyme in biotechnology.

b. Describe how an enzyme can be immobilized in alginate beads.
[4]
[3]
[Total: 7]
9. a. Explain what is meant by a biosensor.

b. Copy and complete the following passage describing the action of a biosensor.
[2]
Many people with diabetes use a biosensor to test the concentration of ___(1)___ in their blood. The sensor
uses an immobilized enzyme ___(2)___, which converts glucose and oxygen into gluconolactone and
___(3)___. An electrode measures the drop in ___(4)___ concentration as it is used up in the reaction. The
electrode produces a tiny ___(5)___ current, the size of which is ___(6)___ to the concentration of glucose in
the blood. The current is read by a meter, which produces a reading for blood glucose concentration.
[6]
[Total: 8]
Key:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
glucose;
glucose oxidase;
hydrogen peroxide;
oxygen;
electric;
proportional;
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Exam Questions
Q1. Kefir is an unusual fermented drink that originated in Eastern Europe. It is made by adding a special
mixed culture of bacteria and yeast to milk. The yeast ferments lactose, whilst the bacteria produce a viscous
gum that holds the microorganisms together in gelatinous lumps. This allows the kefir grains to be separated
from the milk, once fermentation is complete. The finished product is a refreshing, fizzy drink.
(a) Fig. 1.1 shows the change in pH during fermentation.

(i) describe the processes that bring about the change in pH;
[2]
(ii) explain the shape of the curve.
[4]
(b) Explain how the drink becomes fizzy.
[2]
(c) The composition and flavour of kefir vary significantly depending on whether the source of milk is from a
cow, goat, sheep or horse. Suggest three reasons for this.
[3]
(d) Suggest two uses of kefir grains.
[2]
(e) State how the production of kefir is
(i) similar to yoghurt production;
[1]
(ii) different from yoghurt production.
[1]
[Total : 15] (N02-P6-Op2Q1)
Q2. There have been many recent advances in the use of tissue culture in the micropropagation of plants. One
technique now being used is the clonal propagation of expensive house plants, such as orchids.
(a) Explain briefly why two different tissue culture techniques are used in the propagation of two named
agricultural plants.
[4]
(b) (i) State why the plant tissue cultures are initially grown in sterile conditions.
[2]
(ii) State two suitable tissues from which to propagate plants, such as orchids.
[2]
(c) An investigation was carried out into the effect of different cytokinin concentrations on plant development
in tissue culture. All other factors were kept constant. The results obtained after six weeks are shown in Table
2.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
With reference to Table 2.1, state the conclusions that can be drawn from the investigation.
[3]
(d) Complete Table 2.2 by identifying four different ingredients of growth media, other than cytokinin. State
what each is used for in the developing plant tissues.
[4]
[Total : 15] (N2-P6-Op2Q2)
Q3. Either
(a) Describe and explain the role of microorganisms in
(i) sewage disposal;
(ii) composting;
(iii) extraction of heavy metals.
Or
(b)
[8]
[6]
[6]
[Total : 20]
(i) Explain what is meant by the terms monoclonal antibody and biosensor.
[6]
(ii) Discuss the uses of monoclonal antibodies in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
[8]
(iii) Describe how a biosensor can monitor blood glucose.
[6]
[Total : 20] (N02-P6-OpQ3)
Q4. (a) Define the term biotechnology.

[2]
(b) The extent to which the potential of biotechnology will be realised depends on public attitudes towards the
technology involved. Describe the factors that influence public opinion in determining the acceptability of the
technology.
[4]
(c) Fig. 1.1 shows the ethene production of a normal tomato and a Flavr Savr genetically modified tomato
left on a plant for three weeks prior to picking. Naturally produced ethene in fruits speeds up the ripening
process.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(i) Compare the production of ethene in normal tomatoes with that in genetically modified tomatoes.
[3]
(ii) Suggest what effect this genetic modification will have on the ripening of the tomatoes.
[2]
(iii) Explain the benefits that these genetically modified tomatoes might have for the grower and for the
shopkeeper.
[2]
(iv) Outline the ethical implications of consuming transgenic food products.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J03-P6-Op2Q1)
Q5. (a) (i) Explain how vaccination can control disease.
[3]
(ii) Outline the biosafety issues that arise from the use of live vaccines.
[4]
(iii) Describe the production of live vaccines.
[4]
(b) Fig. 1.1 shows the reported cases in the UK for pertussis (whooping cough) between the years 1980 and
2000.
(i) Suggest an explanation for the fall in the number of cases.

(ii) Suggest an explanation for the sudden change between 1990 and 1995.
[2]
[2]
[Total: 15] (J03-P6-Op2Q2)
Q6. Either
(a)
(i) Describe one example of soil-less culture.
(ii) Assess the advantages of soil-less culture over traditional farming methods.
(iii) Describe one use of tissue culture in agriculture.
[8]
[6]
[6]
[Total: 20]
Or
(b)
(i) Explain the role of biotechnology in the production of beer or wine.
[8]
(ii) Describe how recent advances in biotechnology are revolutionising the production of beer or wine. [6]
(iii) Describe the production of mycoprotein.
[6]
[Total: 20] (J03-P6-Op2Q3)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q7. (a) Explain the importance of good water management and the effective treatment of sewage.
[3]
(b) The flowchart, Fig. 1.1, summarises a modern sewage treatment process.
(i) Give one key difference between the processes going on in the activated sludge tank and in the digester.[1]
(ii) Explain the role of microorganisms in the activated sludge tank in preparing the sewage for disposal. [3]
(iii) Outline the role of named microorganisms in the production of biogas in a digester.
[3]
Fig. 1.2 shows a method of sewage treatment known as an oxidation pond in which algae, such as Chlorella,
play an important role.
(c) With reference to Fig. 1.2, explain why

(i) the algae grow only in the upper layers of the water;
[2]
(ii) their presence allows the growth of populations of aerobic bacteria.
[1]
(d) Suggest two uses for the algal biomass that accumulates in the oxidation pond.
[2]
[Total : 15] (N03-P6-Op2Q1)
Q8. (a) Discuss three possible benefits and three possible hazards arising from the use of biotechnology in
food production.
[6]
(b) The Food and Drug Administration in the USA have proposed regulations concerning food developed
through biotechnology. The proposed regulations would require food developers to notify the FDA at least
120 days in advance of their intent to market food or animal feed developed through biotechnology. Suggest
why the FDA have proposed these regulations.
[2]
(c) Some tortilla chips, a snack food sold in supermarkets and health food stores, were identified on the front
of the packet as organic. Explain what the general public understands by the word organic.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(d) Weeds are a serious threat to food crops, such as soya bean. General purpose (broad spectrum) herbicides
which would kill the normal soya bean plants can only be used before the crop emerges from the soil. Once
the shoots emerge, more selective (narrow spectrum) herbicides, or weedkillers, have to be used. A variety of
soya has been genetically modified to produce a protein which enables it to tolerate the general purpose
herbicide, glyphosate. Explain the benefits to the farmer of growing this variety of soya bean.
[5]
[Total : 15] (N03-P6-Op2Q2)
Q9. Either
(a) Discuss
(i) the benefits and
(ii) the disadvantages of donor insemination using sperm from a sperm bank.
(iii) Describe how seeds are stored in seed banks.
Or
(b)
[6]
[6]
[8]
[Total : 20]
(i) Explain the techniques used in enzyme immobilisation.

[7]
(ii) Discuss the advantages of enzyme immobilisation in the manufacturing industry.
[7]
(iii) Describe an experiment to demonstrate the use of immobilised enzymes.
[6]
[Total : 20] (N03-P6-Op2Q3)
Q10. (a) Fig. 1.1 shows the structure of an isolated virus.
(i) Name A to D.
(ii) Calculate the magnification of Fig 1.1. Show your working.
(b) State two characteristics that are used to distinguish viruses from prokaryotae and fungi.
(c) Describe precisely how viruses multiply in the human body.
(d) Fig.1.2 shows the number of HIV/AIDS cases diagnosed in a European country from 1983 to 1997.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[2]
[2]
[2]
[3]
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(i) Calculate for the period of 1989 to 1993, the mean rate of increase in HIV/AIDS cases. Show your
working.
[2]
(ii) State two methods of transmission of HIV/AIDS, other than by sexual contact.
[2]
(iii) Suggest two explanations for the trend in the incidence of HIV/AIDS from 1993 to 1997.
[2]
[Total : 15] (J04-P6-Op2Q1)
Q11. Mycoprotein, an alternative to meat, is produced by growing the fungus, Fusarium graminearum, in an
air-lift fermenter, similar to the one shown in Fig. 2.1.
(a) (i) With reference to Fig. 2.1, explain how an air-lift fermenter works.
[3]
(ii) List three nutrient growth requirements of Fusarium.
[3]
(b) Describe two ways in which Fusarium must be processed after fermentation to make it acceptable as a
human food product.
[2]
[Total : 8] (J04-P6-Op2Q2)
Q12. (a) Describe the roles of barley and yeast enzymes in beer production.
[4]
(b) Most beers contain starch. Recently, light beers of low energy content have become more popular. Light
beers have a low starch content. This is achieved by the addition of immobilised fungal amylase after the
mashing process.
(i) Explain the advantage of using immobilised enzymes in this process.
[4]
(ii) The effect of two different types of immobilised fungal amylase on the hydrolysis of starch is shown in
Table 3.1. In these reactions starch is not a limiting factor.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
With reference to Table 3.1, explain which of these enzymes would be used in the production of light beers
with a low starch content.
[2]
[Total : 10] (J04-P6-Op2Q3)
Q13. (a) Diabetes can be controlled by daily injections of insulin. The insulin used to be produced from pigs.
Genetically engineered (transgenic) microorganisms can now be used to produce human insulin.
(i) Explain what is meant by a genetically engineered microorganism.
[2]
(ii) State two problems that are avoided by using insulin produced by genetically engineered microorganisms
rather than insulin from pigs.
[2]
(b) Restriction enzymes can be used to cut DNA at specific sites. Genes such as the gene for insulin, can be
cut from the chromosome of one species and as a result of ligation joined to the chromosome of another
species forming recombinant (hybrid) DNA. Fig. 4.1 shows two chromosomes from different species. The
specific restriction enzyme sites (R1, R2, and R3) are shown.
Both chromosomes were cut at restriction site R1. The fragments were mixed and allowed to join to form
recombinant (hybrid) DNA. Sketch all the possible ways in which the fragments could join in the space
below.
[3]
[Total : 7] (J04-P6-Op2Q4)
Q14. (a) The number of bacteriophages in a liquid medium can be determined by serial dilution of the
medium. A small volume of each dilution, 5mm3, is plated on to agar plates that have a lawn of bacteria
growing on them. When the agar plates are incubated at 25C there are clear areas, known as plaques, in the
bacterial lawn. When one or more bacteriophages infect a bacterium, each infected bacterial cell lyses,
releasing many bacteriophages. The released bacteriophages then infect the surrounding bacteria,which also
lyse to leave plaques. Explain why the agar plates are incubated at 25C rather than 37C.
[2]
(b) To determine the number of bacterophages in a medium, three serial dilutions were made. Nine plates
were set up with bacteria lawns. These were used to make three replicate plates, A, B and C, for each of the
serial dilutions. After incubation, the number of plaques in each plate is shown in Table 1.1.
(i) With reference to Table 1.1, suggest why the number of plaques counted at the dilutions of 1.0x106 and
1.0x108 may be inaccurate or unreliable and should not be used to estimate bacteriophage numbers.
[3]
3
(ii) Calculate the number of bacteriophage particles per mm in the original liquid medium. Show your
working.
[2]
(c) Legionnaires disease is caused by the bacterium Legionella pneumophila. Outbreaks of legionnaires
disease have occurred after people have breathed mists that come from a water source. The disease is not
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
passed from person to person. It affects the lungs. An outbreak of legionnaires disease occurred in Cumbria,
UK, in the summer of 2002. The cumulative total number of deaths is shown in Fig. 1.1.
Describe the pattern in the number of deaths during the outbreak of legionnaires disease shown in Fig. 1.1.[2]
(d) (i) Legionnaires disease is not an infectious disease. Explain what is meant by an infectious disease. [2]
(ii) Describe the specialist structural features of laboratories working with pathogenic microorganisms that
prevent the spread of infectious diseases.
[4]
[Total : 15] (N04-P6-Op2Q1)
Q15. (a) Table 2.1 shows the distinguishing characteristics of the three groups of organisms collectively
known as microorganisms. Complete the table by filling in the empty boxes.
[3]
(b) List two ways in which the life cycle of a bacteriophage differs from that of a bacterium.
(c) Fig. 2.1 shows the cell wall and associated structures of a Gram positive bacterium.
Draw and label the cell wall of a Gram negative bacterium in the space below.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[2]
[2]
[Total : 7] (N04-P6-Op2Q2)
Phone. 0347 4443879
10
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q16. (a) Outline one method for the production of monoclonal antibodies.
[4]
(b) Monoclonal antibodies are used as diagnostic and therapeutic reagents. In some cases the monoclonal
antibody is coupled to another molecule. Suggest the advantage of coupling the monoclonal antibody to a
fluorescent molecule for diagnosis,
radioactive molecule for treatment.
[3]
(c) During pregnancy a hormone called human gonadotrophin (HCG) is released from the placenta. It
accumulates in the blood stream and is released in the urine. Detection of this hormone is the basis of some
home pregnancy kits in which HCG binds to specific monoclonal antibodies. The monoclonal antibodies are
incorporated into the surface of a plastic dipstick. Complete the correct sequence of the stages shown in Fig.
3.1 opposite, by writing the letter of each stage in the boxes provided below. The first two have been
completed for you.
[3]
[Total : 10] (N04-P6-Op2Q3)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
11
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q17. (a) Penicillin is produced in batch fermenters. Explain how a batch fermenter differs from a continuous
fermenter.
[3]
(b) Fig. 4.1 shows the number of reported cases, between the years 1982 and 1992, of a sexually-transmitted
disease caused by a bacterium resistant to penicillin.
Suggest why the steep rise in the incidence of this disease occurred between 1987 and 1992.
[2]
(c) Penicillin is produced as a secondary metabolite in batch fermenters. Fig. 4.2. shows the rate of penicillin
production when grown in various glucose concentrations.
Describe how the glucose concentration affects penicillin production.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[3]
[Total : 8] (N04-P6-Op2Q4)
Phone. 0347 4443879
12
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
June 2005 (P5, Op2 Q18-21 1-4)

Q18. (a) (i) Describe the organisation of the genetic material inside bacterial cells.
[3]
(ii) Describe a technique by which a pure culture of bacteria could be isolated from a sample of water.
[4]
(b) The forestomachs of baleen whales have been found to contain over 1000 different species of anaerobic
bacteria. Several species have been identified that can break down hydrocarbons, including naphthalene and
anthracene, which are found in crude oil.
(i) State two specific conditions required for the bacteria from the stomachs of baleen whales to grow in the
laboratory.
[2]
(ii) It is unlikely that these bacteria existed before crude oil pollution became a serious problem in the seas.
Explain how the bacteria that break down naphthalene and anthracene might have evolved in the stomachs of
whales.
[3]
(c) In the past, species of bacteria capable of breaking down crude oil into harmless products have only been
able to work on the surface of an oil spill. Trials are currently taking place on oil spills of up to 25dm3 in
volume, using these recently isolated bacteria from the stomachs of whales. Explain why the recently isolated
bacteria are likely to be more effective at breaking down oil spills.
[3]
[Total: 15]
Q19. In 1998, the drinking water for the town of Walkerton in Canada was contaminated with the pathogenic
bacterium, Escherichia coli O157:H7. This was due to untreated sewage being sprayed on rural land. As a
result many of the local population suffered severe abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. Two lysogenic
bacteriophages, VT1 and VT2, within E. coli have been shown to be responsible for toxin production resulting
in the symptoms of the disease.
(a) Explain the term lysogenic.
[2]
(b) A recommended treatment for the pathogenic E. coli is to use the antimicrobial agent norfloxacin (NFLX).
An investigation was carried out using the pathogenic E. coli in nutrient broth in four different concentrations
of NFLX. The cultures were incubated for two days and the increase in optical density of the cultures was
measured. The results are shown in Fig. 2.1.
(i) Describe how the concentrations of NFLX shown in Fig. 2.1 were made up from a stock solution of
100000 g cm3.
[3]
(ii) Explain the results shown in Fig. 2.1.
[3]
[Total: 8]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
13
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q20. (a) Fig. 3.1 is a photomicrograph of Penicillium.
Name A to D.
(b) Penicillin is produced from Penicillium in batch culture.
(i) Explain the term batch culture.
(ii) List three factors that must be carefully controlled during the process.
(c) Sketch two curves on Fig. 3.2 to illustrate
the growth of Penicillium;
the concentration of penicillin.
Label each curve.
[2]
[3]
[3]
[2]
[Total: 10]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
14
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q21. (a) The alcohol in beer is produced by yeast fermentation. Improvements in the biotechnology of beer
production have enabled brewers to produce beers with higher alcohol contents. Table 4.1 gives the final
alcohol and initial sugar content of a number of beers produced by the improved processes.
(i) With reference to Table 4.1, describe the relationship between the final alcohol content and the initial sugar
content.
[2]
(ii) Explain why it is not possible to produce beer with higher alcohol contents than some of those shown in
Table 4.1.
[2]
(b) Fig. 4.1 shows part of a haemocytometer grid. The chamber contains a sample of yeast cells from beer A
which has been diluted 1000 times. The large squares, with the double lines, measure 0.2mm 0.2 mm with a
depth of 0.1 mm.
Calculate the total number of cells in 1mm3 of beer A. Show your working.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[3]
[Total: 7]
15
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Nov 2005 (P5, Op2 Q22-24 1-3)

Q22. (a) Fig. 1.1 shows a pilot plant to grow a microorganism that produces a useful product.
To use on an industrial scale, the fermenter shown in Fig. 1.1 will have to be made much larger.
(i) State and explain two other alterations that could be made when scaling up this process.
[4]
(ii) To ensure the optimum rate of growth of microorganisms inside the fermenter, various environmental
factors must be monitored. State one environmental factor and explain why it must be monitored.
[2]
5
6
(b) A sample of the culture was taken from the pilot plant and used to make a range of dilutions: 10 , 10 and
107. 0.1 cm3 of each dilution was added to each of three separate agar plates. The plates were incubated and
the number of colonies that grew was counted. The results are shown in Table 1.1.
(i) With reference to Table 1.1, calculate the mean number of microorganisms in the 10-6 dilution. Show your
working.
[1]
3
(ii) Using your answer from (i), estimate how many microorganisms per cm were present in the original
sample taken from the pilot plant. Show your working.
[2]
(iii) Explain why the 10-6 dilution is the most suitable to use for this calculation.
[2]
(c) To monitor the growth of the microorganisms over a period of time, samples would be taken from the pilot
plant at regular time intervals. State one method, other than dilution plating, that could be used to measure this
growth and a disadvantage of your chosen method.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
16
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(d) Sketch a graph on the axes below to show the expected changes in numbers of microorganisms from the
start of the fermentation in the pilot plant.
[2]
[Total: 15]
Q23. Considerable quantities of sweeteners (glucose syrups) used in the confectionery industry are derived
from starch. The conversion of starch to sugars is brought about by enzymes. The first stage in the process
(known as liquefaction) is carried out at very high temperatures (about 95 C) and a pH of around 6.0 to 6.5.
In order that enzymes used in the second stage will work efficiently, it is necessary to reduce the pH to 4.5 and
the temperature to 60 C. Recent advances in enzyme technology have resulted in the isolation of an enzyme
from various thermophilic bacteria. This enzyme is called pullulanase and is effective in breaking down
certain bonds in starch molecules. The effects of temperature and pH on pullulanase activity are shown in
Figs. 1.1 and 1.2.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
17
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(a) State what is meant by thermophilic.

[1]
(b) With reference to Fig. 1.1 and Fig. 1.2, explain why it may be better to use pullulanase to convert starch to
sugars, rather than enzymes that are used at present.
[2]
(c) Outline the advantages of using immobilised enzymes in this process.
[2]
(d) Glucose syrups are generally produced using batch processing, though it is possible to use continuous
processing. List three differences between batch and continuous processing in the following table.
[3]
[Total: 8]
Q24. (a) Fig. 3.1 is a drawing showing asexual reproduction in Aspergillus, a fungus related to Penicillium.
Name A to D.
[2]
(b) Many micro-organisms show a tolerance to heavy metals in their environment. The fungus Aspergillus has
been used in Malaysia to extract cadmium from the effluent produced in the treatment of palm oil. The fungi
used to extract the cadmium were found on leaves of plants growing around the refinery. Aspergillus absorbs
the metal into its cells. The cells are extracted from the effluent and burnt. This removes the biomass, allowing
the recovery of the cadmium. Explain how you would attempt to grow, on a solid nutrient medium, colonies
of cadmium-tolerant Aspergillus isolated from the leaves of plants around the refinery.
[4]
(c) Other microorganisms have been isolated which can tolerate and accumulate heavy metals, such as copper
and lead. State two ways in which these microorganisms can be exploited industrially.
[2]
[Total: 8]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
18
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
June 2006 (P5, Op2 Q25-28 1-4)

Q25. The effluent from sewage treatment is routinely tested for the number of bacteria present. A serial
dilution of the effluent is made and 0.1 cm3 of each dilution plated onto a nutrient agar plate. After 24 hours,
the numbers of colonies of bacteria are counted. Table 1.1 shows the results of one test on sewage effluent.
(a) (i) Explain how a serial dilution is made.

[3]
(ii) State which of the dilutions might be used to find the number of bacteria in the effluent. Explain the
reasons for your choice.
[3]
(iii) Using the dilution you have chosen in (ii), calculate the number of bacterial cells per cm3 in the undiluted
effluent from the sewage treatment. Show your working.
[2]
(b) Outline how microorganisms are involved in the aerobic treatment of sewage.
[3]
(c) Dried solid sediment left from sewage treatment is suitable for use as fertiliser because it contains high
levels of nitrate formed by microbial action during sewage treatment. Describe how this nitrate is formed from
the organic molecules present in sewage.
[4]
[Total: 15]
Q26. Rice is the staple diet in many parts of the world. It lacks a number of important nutrients, including
carotene, from which vitamin A is synthesised. Adequate concentrations of vitamin A give protection from
night blindness. Higher concentrations act as an antioxidant that may give some protection from cancer and
heart disease. Golden rice, which contains carotene, was developed in Switzerland by genetically modifying
rice using genes from a daffodil (a flowering plant) and a bacterium. Fig. 2.1 shows an artificial DNA
sequence used.
Fig. 2.2 shows the main events in obtaining a transgenic plant.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
19
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(a) With references to Figs. 2.1 and 2.2

(i) outline how the genes might have been isolated from the donor organisms,
[2]
(ii) explain what is meant by
callus tissue ;
transgenic
[2]
(iii) explain the role of the Hyg resistance gene in this procedure.
[2]
(b) An agreement has been made between the commercial company that owns the production rights of golden
rice and its developers. This allows the developers to give the rice to government-run breeding centres in ricedependent countries. Local farmers will be able to grow the rice without paying a high fee. The commercial
company will market the rice in developed countries as a functional food that can improve health.
Suggest one reason why
(i) governments in rice-dependent countries are in favour of golden rice,
[1]
(ii) a commercial company may be able to market golden rice as a functional food in developed countries.[1]
[Total: 8]
Q27. Fig. 3.1 shows the hybridoma technique for growing monoclonal antibodies.
(a) With reference to Fig. 3.1

(i) explain how activated B lymphocytes are obtained,
[2]
(ii) state one reason why a cancer cell is used to form a hybridoma.
[1]
(b) Magic bullets are monoclonal antibodies linked to drugs. They are used to treat some types of cancer and
diseased organs.
(i) Magic bullets used to treat cancer have a cytotoxic (cell killing) drug attached. Explain why these can be
used to treat cancer without harming normal body cells.
[2]
(ii) Suggest why magic bullets carrying antibiotics are effective at lower dosage than antibiotics taken by
mouth.
[1]
(c) A random sample of individuals from an at risk population was tested for HIV using indirect ELISA
techniques. Serum from each test subject was added to HIV antigens bound to the surface of a glass well. A
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
20
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
human anti-HIV antibody with an enzyme attached was then added, followed by the substrate of the enzyme.
A coloured product was produced if the individual tested had HIV antibodies. The results of the survey are
shown in Fig. 3.2.
Explain why the serum of HIV positive individuals gave a coloured product.
[3]
[Total: 9]
Q28. Fig. 4.1 is an electronmicrograph of a bacterium.
(a) Name A to D.
[2]
(b) The bacterium in Fig. 4.1 is Gram positive. Describe the differences between the wall of this bacterium
and that of a Gram negative bacterium.
[3]
6
(c) To investigate the effect of the amount of oxygen on microbial growth, 2.5 10 cells of the bacterium
Aerobacter aerogenes were grown in a fermenter without oxygen. After 220 minutes air was passed through
the fermenter. Table 4.1 shows the population size at intervals during the investigation.
With reference to Table 4.1, explain how the data shows that the bacterium prefers aerobic conditions.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[1]
21
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(d) Fig. 4.2 is a diagram of one method by which air is supplied to an industrial fermenter.
(i) Explain why the air supply must be sterile.

(ii) Explain why this fermenter does not need a stirrer.
[1]
[1]
[Total: 8]
Nov 2006 (P5, Op2 Q29-31 - 1,2,4)

Q29. Fig. 1.1 shows the percentage of bacteria from human faeces that are resistant to antibiotics in relation to
the quantities of antibiotics used in each of a number of years over a period of forty years.
(a) (i) With reference to Fig. 1.1, describe how the quantity of antibiotics used changed during this 40 year
period.
[3]
(ii) Explain the relationship between the percentage of resistant bacteria and the quantity of antibiotics used.
[4]
(iii) Suggest one reason why the practice of adding antibiotics to animal feed should be restricted.
[1]
(b) Bacteria from the faeces of people suffering from diarrhoea were cultured. Standard samples of the
cultures were plated onto four different growth media, A, B, C and D to test for antibiotic resistance.
growth medium A did not contain any antibiotic
growth medium B contained the antibiotic ampicillin
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
22
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
growth medium C contained the antibiotic tetracycline

growth medium D contained both antibiotics.
Table 1.1 shows the results of these tests.
(i) Compare the effectiveness of ampicillin and tetracycline against these faecal bacteria.
[2]
(ii) Calculate the percentage of bacteria resistant to both ampicillin and tetracycline. Show your working. [2]
(c) The antibiotic ampicillin is a modified form of penicillin. Describe how penicillin acts on bacteria.
[3]
[Total: 15]
Q30. Fig. 2.1 shows the structure of the bacteriophage, .
(a) Name A to D.
[2]
(b) The bacteriophage, , is a virus that infects the bacterium Escherichia coli. State one structural difference
between a bacteriophage and a bacterium.
[1]
(c) Outline how the bacterium E. coli reproduces asexually.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
23
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(d) The bacteriophage has both a lytic and a lysogenic life cycle. Fig. 2.2 shows the lysogenic cycle of the
bacteriophage.
Outline the events occurring between

stages 1 to 2,
stages 2 to 3,
stages 3 to 4.
[3]
[Total: 9]
Q31. Fig. 4.1 shows two different ways of immobilising enzymes by entrapment.
(a) With reference to Fig. 4.1,

(i) suggest two reasons why enzymes in biological washing powders are now added to the detergent in
encapsulated form instead of powdered form,
(ii) state one disadvantage of immobilising enzymes.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[2]
[1]
24
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(b) Whole microorganisms can be immobilised in the same way as enzymes. Fig. 4.2 shows a fermenter
containing immobilised microorganisms used for continuous culture.
(i) Explain the term continuous culture.

[2]
(ii) Suggest why a continuous culture that uses immobilised microorganisms should not be stirred.
[1]
(c) Producing amino acids using an enzyme immobilised in a system similar to that shown in Fig. 4.2 is
approximately 60% less costly than using batch culture. Give two reasons why the cost of using an
immobilised enzyme system is less.
[2]
[Total: 8]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
25
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q1. (a) Three different strains, A, B and C, of a species of bacterium were grown on nutrient
agar in a divided petri dish until they formed lawns covering the agar. Three discs of filter
paper were soaked in a solution of a penicillin antibiotic and one disc placed in contact with each
of the bacterial strains for 10 minutes. After 24 hours, zones of clearance, indicating bacterial
cell death, were seen in the lawns of strains A and B. The appearance of the petri dish 24 hours
after addition of antibiotic is shown in Fig. 3.1.
(i) The effectiveness of the antibiotic is proportional to the area of the zone of clearance.
Measure the diameters (d) of each of the zones of clearance of bacterial strains A and B and
record them to the nearest mm in Table 3.1. Using r2, calculate the area in mm2 of the zone of
clearance for each strain of bacterium and record them in Table 3.1. Calculate the ratio of the
area for strain A to the area for strain B and record the ratio in Table 3.1.
[3]
(ii) Explain the different effects of the antibiotic on bacterial strains A, B and C.
[4]
(iii) Describe the role of natural selection in the spread of bacterial strains, such as A and B,
when an antibiotic is used.
[4]
(b) The -lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, are similar shaped molecules to the substrate of a
bacterial enzyme, transpeptidase. Explain the mode of action of -lactam antibiotics on
susceptible bacteria.[4]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
[Total: 15] (J07-P4-Q3)
Q2. A significant quantity of the metallic copper produced in some countries is obtained using
the chemoautotrophic bacterium, Thiobacillus ferro-oxidans, which is present in rocks in many
countries. The process, known as bioleaching, is shown in Fig. 5.1.
(a) Suggest the benefit to the bacterium of step 2.

[2]
(b) State two environmental disadvantages of extracting metals by bioleaching.
[2]
(c) Explain why the production of metallic copper by bioleaching can be cheaper than using
conventional mining methods.
[4]
[Total: 8] (J08-P4-Q5)
Q3. (a) Outline the hybridoma method for the production of a monoclonal antibody.
[4]
(b) Herceptin is a monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of some breast cancers. It binds
strongly to molecules of a receptor protein, HER2, that is produced in abnormally large
quantities in the plasma (cell surface) membranes of about 30% of human breast cancers.
Investigations have been made into the most effective way to use Herceptin to treat breast
cancer. One experiment investigated the ability of different treatments to induce cell death in
breast cancer cells. Herceptin and X-ray treatment were used both separately and together. The
results are shown in Fig. 4.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology

(i) compare the effects on breast cancer cells of the different treatments
[3]
(ii) calculate the percentage increase in the ability to induce cell death of using Herceptin and Xray treatment compared with using Herceptin only. Show your working.
[2]
(c) A second experiment investigated the effect of increasing doses of X-rays on the survival of
breast cancer cells in the presence and absence of Herceptin. The results are shown in Fig. 4.2.

(i) compare the effects of increasing doses of X-rays on cells in the presence and absence of
Herceptin
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(ii) suggest an explanation for the effect of Herceptin.
[2]
[Total: 14] (N08-P4-Q4)
Q4. The fungus Penicillium chrysogenum is grown in fermenters on an industrial scale to

produce penicillin, using a batch culture system.
(a) Explain why batch culture, rather than continuous culture, is used for the production of
penicillin.
[3]
(b) Temperature and pH are normally controlled in the fermenter. Temperature is kept constant,
while pH is held at a value of 5.5 for the first stage of the fermentation and then raised to 6.8 and
kept constant for the remainder of the fermentation period. Fig. 5.1 shows how the pH and the
concentration of penicillin in the culture change over time, when the pH is controlled and when
the pH is not controlled.
With reference to Fig. 5.1, describe and explain the differences in the concentration of penicillin
in the culture when the pH is controlled and when the pH is not controlled.
[4]
(c) Explain why penicillin affects bacteria but not viruses.
[2]
[Total: 9] (J09-P4-Q5)
Q5. Proteases that work in alkaline conditions are made in large quantities for use in the
detergent industry. The microorganism that is generally used for this is the bacterium Bacillus
subtilis.
An investigation was carried out to compare three potential production methods:
using free cells of B. subtilis
using B. subtilis cells immobilised in cubes of agar
using B. subtilis cells immobilised in beads of sodium alginate.
To immobilise the cells in agar, the agar was dissolved and cooled. A suspension of B. subtilis
was then added. The agar-bacterium mixture was poured into sterile dishes and allowed to
solidify. It was then cut into cubes with sides of 2 mm.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(a) (i) Explain why the agar was cooled before the suspension of B. subtilis was added. [1]
(ii) Describe how cells of B. subtilis could be immobilised in beads of alginate.
[3]
(b) A liquid medium containing glucose, a nitrogen source and various mineral ions was made
up, and 50 cm3 placed into each of three flasks. Samples of a culture of free cells of B. subtilis,
agar cubes containing immobilized B. subtilis and alginate beads containing B. subtilis were
placed in the three flasks. Each flask contained the same number of bacteria. All the flasks were
incubated at 37 C for 48 hours. Samples of the liquid medium in each flask were taken at six
hourly intervals and the concentration of protease measured.
(i) With reference to Fig. 3.1, compare the results for the free cells of B. subtilis and cells
immobilised in alginate beads.
[4]
(ii) Suggest why lower concentrations of protease were produced by B. subtilis
immobilised in agar cubes than B. subtilis immobilised in alginate beads.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(c) Two new cultures of immobilised B. subtilis were set up as described in (b). However, this
time a repeat batch fermentation method was used, in which the liquid medium was replaced
every 24 hours. This was continued until the cubes or beads had begun to disintegrate.
The results are shown in Table 3.1.

(i) calculate the percentage increase in the total protease produced when the bacteria were
immobilised in alginate rather than agar. Show your working.
[2]
(ii) explain why using bacteria immobilised in alginate rather than agar would be a more costeffective production of protease.
[3]
[Total: 15] (N09-P41-Q3)
Q6. (a) Cell walls of bacteria contain peptidoglycans. Peptidoglycans are long chains of the
sugars N-acetylmuranic acid (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) which alternate along the
chain. A short peptide chain of three to five amino acids is attached to each NAM and these form
cross-links with similar peptide chains from adjacent strands. Fig. 3.1 shows a diagram
representing part of a peptidoglycan structure.
(i) Name the type of reaction that takes place to assemble the peptide chains that form the crosslinks.
[1]
(ii) Describe the mode of action of antibiotics, such as penicillin, on bacteria.
[4]
(iii) Suggest the name of the type of enzyme that assembles the peptide chains that form the
cross-links in peptidoglycans.
[1]
(b) State why antibiotics, such as penicillin, have no effect on viruses.
[1]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(c) Bacteria may be Gram-positive or Gram-negative.

Fig. 3.2 shows a diagram of part of the cell walls of both Gram-positive and Gram-negative
bacteria.
Suggest why Gram-positive bacteria are more susceptible to the action of penicillin than Gramnegative bacteria.
[2]
(d) There is evidence that some bacteria have developed resistance to antibiotics. One form of
pneumonia, a serious lung disease, is caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. The
Canadian Health Service has carried out a survey to show how the resistance of S. pneumoniae to
penicillin has changed over the last 20 years. Fig. 3.3 shows the results of this survey.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Describe the results shown in Fig. 3.3 and explain how some strains of S. pneumonia may have
become resistant to penicillin.
[5]
[Total: 14] (N09-P42-Q3)
Q7. (a) The glycoproteins CD28 and CD40 are found on the surface of T-lymphocytes (T-cells).
They are binding sites for cell-signalling molecules and are essential for triggering the cloning of
T-cells in an immune response. A monoclonal antibody (mAb), which could block the CD40
signalling pathway, was produced from hamsters using the hybridoma method. Outline the
procedure, starting with a hamster, for producing mAbs suitable for use in another mammal, such
as a mouse.
[4]
(b) The ability of the mAb produced in (a) to prevent rejection of transplanted hearts in mice was
compared with that of a protein, P, which blocks the CD28 signalling pathway.
Four groups of mice were treated as follows:
group A no treatment
group B treated with protein P only
group C treated with mAb only
group D treated with both mAb and protein P.
Fig. 2.1 shows the percentage survival of the transplanted hearts in the four groups of mice over
a period of 80 days.
With reference to Fig. 2.1

(i) describe the effectiveness of the four different treatments
[4]
(ii) suggest an explanation for the differences in survival of the transplanted hearts in groups B
and D.
[2]
(c) Examination of the transplanted hearts showed that the hearts in group A had significant
damage to their coronary arteries, whereas in group D these blood vessels appeared normal.
Explain the importance of the coronary arteries of the heart.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(d) State two uses of mAbs in humans, other than preventing rejection of transplanted tissue.[2]
[Total: 15] (J10-P41-Q2)
Q8. The sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics can be tested using the disc diffusion method.
An inoculum of the bacteria is spread onto agar culture plates and then filter paper discs
impregnated with antibiotic are pressed onto the surface of the agar. The plates are incubated.
Bacteria grow as a lawn across the agar, but a circular zone (the zone of inhibition) appears
around any disc where bacterial growth is inhibited.
Two species of bacteria, A and B, were grown on separate culture plates in the presence of three
types of filter paper disc:
1 no antibiotic (control)
2 penicillin V, a natural penicillin
3 carboxypenicillin, a synthetic penicillin.
The appearance of the incubated plates is shown in Fig. 3.1.
(a) With reference to Fig. 3.1, explain the effect of penicillin V on bacterium A.
Bacteria A and B have different outer layers, as shown in Fig. 3.2.
(b) With reference to Fig. 3.1 and Fig. 3.2

(i) describe how the outer layers of bacterium B differ from those of bacterium A
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[3]
[2]
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(ii) explain the different effects of penicillin V on bacteria A and B

[2]
(iii) suggest how the synthetic penicillin, carboxypenicillin, is able to affect the growth of
bacterium B.
[2]
(c) Distinguish between batch culture and continuous culture of microorganisms.
[3]
(d) Explain why batch culture rather than continuous culture is used in the production of
penicillin.
[3]
[Total: 15] (J10-P42-Q3)
Q9. The disease-causing bacterium, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, may occur in the form of a
biofilm. A biofilm consists of a layer of bacteria, growing on a surface and attached to one
another. Such biofilms are difficult to control by antibiotics.
A mutant strain of P. aeruginosa has been found which produces biofilms that are
indistinguishable from those of the wild-type bacteria. However, the mutant strain differs from
the wild-type in its resistance to an antibiotic, A.
(a) Antibiotic A belongs to a group of antibiotics known as anti-pseudomonal penicillins.
(i) Describe the mode of action of penicillin on bacteria.
[3]
(ii) Explain why penicillin does not affect viruses.
[2]
(b) Wild-type and mutant bacteria were grown on solid culture media both with antibiotic A and
without antibiotic A. The subsequent change in numbers of living bacteria is shown in Fig. 2.1.
With reference to Fig. 2.1, describe the changes in numbers of the wild-type and mutant
bacteria on culture media with antibiotic A and without antibiotic A.
[4]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
10
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(c) The wild-type and mutant strains of this bacterium have different DNA sequences in part of a
gene coding for an enzyme which is needed to produce polymers of glucose, called glucans.
Glucans are secreted by bacteria and can bind to various molecules, including those of antibiotic
A. Explain
(i) how a mutation of a gene coding for an enzyme may result in an enzyme with reduced
activity,
[2]
(ii) the different effects of antibiotic A, shown in Fig. 2.1, on the wild-type and mutant strains of
bacteria.
[2]
(d) Explain the role of natural selection in the evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacteria.[3]
[Total: 16] (N10-P41/2-Q2)
Q10. Fig. 3.1 shows a method of producing monoclonal antibodies.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
11
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(a) (i) Name this method of producing monoclonal antibodies.

[1]
(ii) Describe what is meant by the term monoclonal antibody.
[2]
(iii) Describe, in detail, the molecular structure of one of the antibodies produced in step 6. You
may wish to use an annotated diagram to answer the question.
[3]
(b) The mutant myeloma cells used in step 2 are myeloma cells with a gene mutation that
prevents them from growing in a culture medium containing hypoxanthine, aminopterin and
thymidine (HAT).
(i) Suggest why cells with this gene mutation cannot grow in a culture medium containing HAT.
[2]
(ii) Explain why the mutant myeloma cells can grow in a culture medium containing HAT after
they have been fused with mouse spleen cells (steps 3 and 4).
[2]
(iii) Suggest why growing the fused cells in a culture medium containing HAT (step 4) is an
important part of the procedure shown in Fig. 3.1.
[2]
(c) Suggest advantages of using monoclonal antibodies for pregnancy testing.
[4]
[Total: 16] (N10-P43-Q3)
Q11. When gold is associated with mineral ores such as iron sulfide, the sulfides must be
oxidized to release the gold particles. Since the mid 1990s, gold has been extracted from such
ores by bioleaching. Suitable bacteria oxidise iron sulfide to soluble iron sulfate, releasing Fe3+
and SO4 2 ions. The reaction releases heat energy and temperatures within a heap of ore that is
being bioleached (a bioheap) can reach 70C or higher. Examples of bacteria used in this
bioleaching are shown in Table 2.1.
(a) With reference to Table 2.1, suggest

(i) a natural habitat for organisms such as S. thermosulfidooxidans and S. metallicus
[1]
(ii) why all three species of bacteria, rather than just one species, are mixed with ore in a
bioheap.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
12
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(b) The rate of oxidation of the iron in iron sulfide ore was compared in the presence and
absence of A. ferrooxidans at pH 2.0.
(i) With reference to Fig. 2.1, describe the effect of A. ferrooxidans on the oxidation of the ore.
[3]
(ii) Explain why bioleaching is now used on a large scale throughout the world.
[3]
(c) Gold-bearing sulfide ores often contain arsenic, which is potentially toxic to the bacteria used
in bioleaching. However, arsenic-resistant strains of A. ferrooxidans have been found in some
mines. The activity of two strains of the bacterium, in the presence and absence of arsenic ions,
is shown in Table 2.2.
Describe the results shown in Table 2.2 and explain the role of natural selection in the evolution
of arsenic-resistant bacteria.
[4]
[Total: 14] (J11-P41-Q2)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
13
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q12. (a) Outline how an enzyme can be immobilised in alginate.

[2]
(b) State two advantages, other than stability, of using an immobilised enzyme in an industrial
process compared with the same enzyme that has not been immobilised.
[2]
(c) Papain is a protease enzyme. Its activity at different temperatures, when immobilized onto an
inert support, was compared with its activity in solution.
With reference to Fig. 2.1, describe and explain the differences in activity of immobilized papain
and papain in solution.
[4]
[Total: 8] (J11-P42-Q2)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
14
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q13. (a) The first diagnostic test strip using immobilised enzymes was a dip stick to estimate the
concentration of glucose in urine. The dip stick is a thin strip of plastic with a cellulose pad
containing two enzymes and a colour reagent (chromogen) at one end. The pad responds with a
colour change after being dipped into a sample of urine that contains glucose. The colour can be
matched against a graded colour chart to give a semi-quantitative estimate of the concentration
of glucose in the sample, as shown in Fig. 2.1. The chart shows the colours of a negative reaction
() and three increasingly positive reactions (+, ++ and +++).
Explain why the estimate of glucose concentration achieved by this method is only semiquantitative.
[2]
(b) One of the two enzymes immobilised in the cellulose pad on the test strip is glucose oxidase,
which catalyses the following reaction:
This reaction does not result in the development of colour by the chromogen. This is
achieved by the activity of the second immobilised enzyme in the pad.
(i) Name the second immobilised enzyme in the pad.
[1]
(ii) Explain how the reaction catalysed by this enzyme results in the chromogen changing colour.
[2]
(iii) The cellulose pad on the test strip is covered by a layer of cellulose acetate, which is
permeable to glucose molecules, but not to larger molecules. Suggest why the layer of cellulose
acetate is present.
[2]
(c) Two young men, subjects A and B, were each given a standardised test dose of glucose after
fasting.
The blood glucose concentration of each subject was then measured immediately and at 30
minute intervals for two hours.
Samples of their urine were taken and tested at the same time intervals. The colour change of
each test strip was compared with the colour chart and recorded as , +, ++ or +++.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
15
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
The results of the investigation are shown in Fig. 2.2.
Results of urine tests:

(i) explain the differences between the blood glucose concentrations of A and B
[4]
(ii) suggest what is meant by the term renal threshold
[1]
(iii) describe the events in the kidneys, after ultrafiltration, that result in the increasing quantity
of glucose in Bs urine.
[3]
[Total: 15] (N11-P41/2-Q2)
Q14. (a) In the small intestine, the enzyme lactase hydrolyses the disaccharide lactose into the
monosaccharides glucose and galactose. A deficiency of lactase can lead to a condition known as
lactose intolerance. The lactose passes undigested into the large intestine resulting in diarrhoea.
Some babies are born with congenital lactase deficiency, which is an inherited condition, and
require lactose-free milk from birth. Suggest how two parents, who can digest lactose, can have a
child with congenital lactase deficiency.
[2]
(b) The enzyme lactase can be produced by biotechnology and then used to produce lactose-free
dairy products. Lactase is frequently used immobilised in alginate beads. Fig. 2.1 shows a
comparison between the activity of lactase free in solution and lactase immobilised in alginate
beads, over a range of temperatures. Equal concentrations of free lactase and immobilised lactase
were used.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
16
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology

(i) describe the effect of immobilisation on the activity of lactase
[3]
(ii) suggest explanations for the differences between the activity of immobilised lactase and free
lactase up to 40 C.
[2]
(c) State the advantages of using immobilised enzymes instead of free enzymes.
[3]
[Total: 10] (N11-P43-Q2)
Q15. Some of the steps in the production of monoclonal antibodies are shown in Fig. 2.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
17
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(a) With reference to Fig. 2.1, explain:

(i) what happens during an immune response (step 2)
(ii) what is meant by a hybridoma cell (step 4)
(iii) why hybridoma cells need to be formed (step 4)
(iv) how hybridoma cells producing anti-A antibody can be identified.
[4]
[1]
[2]
[1]
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an autoimmune disease in which T lymphocytes attack the
cartilage of joints by secreting a protein, TNF. When RA is untreated, joint damage increases
considerably. The monoclonal antibody, infliximab, is used to treat RA. Infliximab specifically
binds to TNF.
A trial was set up to compare the effectiveness of infliximab and a standard treatment for RA, the
anti-inflammatory drug, MTX.
Five groups of people with RA received the following treatments for one year:
group P MTX only
group Q MTX plus low dosage of infliximab at intervals of eight weeks
group R MTX plus low dosage of infliximab at intervals of four weeks
group S MTX plus high dosage of infliximab at intervals of eight weeks
group T MTX plus high dosage of infliximab at intervals of four weeks.
At the end of the years treatment, the proportion of people in each group with increased joint
damage was determined.
The number of people in each group is shown in brackets.

(i) describe the effect of infliximab treatment on these people
(ii) suggest why the results in groups Q and R do not follow the general trend.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[3]
[1]
Phone. 0347 4443879
18
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
(c) Explain the advantages of the use of monoclonal antibodies, compared with conventional
methods, in the diagnosis of disease.
[3]
[Total: 15] (J12-P41-Q2)
Q16. The bacterium, Treponema pallidum, causes the sexually-transmitted infectious disease,
syphilis. If left untreated, the disease can be fatal, but early diagnosis can lead to successful
treatment. One of the difficulties of diagnosing this disease in its early stages is the problem of
recognising T. pallidum among the other species belonging to the genus Treponema that live in
humans. These other treponemes are harmless.
A mouse was injected with some cells of T. pallidum.
(a) Outline the steps that would then be necessary to produce a clone of hybridoma cells
secreting an antibody against this bacterium.
[4]
(b) A monoclonal antibody, H9-1, has been developed that is specific to a surface protein on T.
pallidum, but which is not present on four other species of treponemes found in humans.
Each molecule of H9-1 carries a fluorescent yellow marker. One of the first visible signs of
syphilis is a painless sore. Suggest how H9-1 is used in the diagnosis of syphilis, using a sample
taken from a sore and placed on a microscope slide.
[3]
(c) Before the development of H9-1, two tests for the presence of T. pallidum were commonly
used:
dark-field microscopy (in which treponemes could be seen moving against a dark background)
testing for the presence of anti-treponemal antibodies in the blood plasma.
Suggest why, in the early stages of an infection, the presence of T. pallidum might not be
detected by either of these tests.
[2]
(d) The accuracy of the diagnosis of infection by T. pallidum using H9-1 was compared with that
using dark-field microscopy and with blood testing. The results are shown in Table 2.1.
A positive test result indicated that T. pallidum is present and a negative test result that it is
absent.
With reference to Table 2.1:

(i) compare the accuracy of diagnosis of the presence of T. pallidum using the different tests
[3]
(ii) suggest why blood testing for anti-treponemal antibodies gave two positive results in patients
later found not to have the infection.
[1]
(e) Describe briefly one use of a monoclonal antibody in the treatment of disease.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J12-P42-Q2)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
19
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q17. (a) Penicillin belongs to a group of antibiotics known as lactams, which all act in the
same way on bacteria. Describe how penicillin kills non-resistant bacteria.
[4]
(b) One of the ways in which a bacterium may be resistant to an antibiotic, such as a lactam, is
by having protein pumps in its cell surface membrane which expel the antibiotic from the
bacterium. The gene coding for such an efflux pump is carried on a plasmid. Outline how the
bacterium produces an efflux pump from a gene on a plasmid.
[3]
(c) A strain of the bacterium Pseudomonas aeruginosa, strain R, has a gene coding for an efflux
pump and is resistant to a lactam antibiotic.
The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of the lactam for strain R was determined.
The MIC is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that prevents a colony of the bacterium from
growing.
The MICs were also determined for two mutant strains derived from strain R, mutant strain 1
and mutant strain 2. Each of these strains differs from strain R in the expression of the gene
coding for the efflux pump.
The MICs for the three strains of P. aeruginosa are shown in Table 2.1.
With reference to Table 2.1, suggest:

(i) why the MICs for mutant strains 1 and 2 differ from that for strain R
mutant strain 1
mutant strain 2
[4]
(ii) how a population of strain R of P. aeruginosa could be replaced by mutant strain 2. [4]
[Total: 15] (N12-P41/2-Q2)
Q18. Penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) are proteins found in the cell surface membranes of
bacteria. PBPs catalyse the final steps in the production of a peptidoglycan cell wall.
(a) From the information given above, describe the likely molecular structure of a PBP. [2]
(b) Penicillin-resistant mutants of the bacterium, Staphylococcus aureus, produce a PBP, PBP2a,
that does not bind well with penicillin. Suggest how the presence of PBP2a in the cell surface
membrane provides S. aureus with resistance to the effects of penicillin.
[3]
(c) Explain why penicillin does not affect viruses.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N12-P43-Q3)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
20
A2 Biology
Section: S
Biotechnology
Q19. The filamentous fungus, Fusarium venenatum, can be grown in a fermenter and harvested
as mycoprotein. It is sold as a food in a number of different countries. The fungus is grown in
continuous culture in 150 000 dm3 airlift fermenters, in which the introduction of bubbles of
compressed air both oxygenates and stirs the contents. The fungus grows as narrow, branched
filaments, giving the harvested mycoprotein a naturally chewy, fibrous texture. Approximately
300 kg of fungus can be harvested per hour.
(a) Explain what is meant by the term continuous culture.
[2]
(b) After about six weeks, mutants may appear in the fungal population, for example, a more
highly-branched form of the fungus. The fermenter is emptied, cleaned and repopulated with the
original strain of F. venenatum every six weeks. Explain why the fermentation process should be
stopped before mutants appear.
[4]
(c) Approximately 12% of the harvested fungus is protein. Calculate the approximate mass of
protein harvested in one day during continuous culture. Show your working.
[1]
[Total:7] (J13-P41-Q3)
Q20. The filamentous fungus, Fusarium venenatum, is grown in continuous culture in large
fermenters to provide mycoprotein for human consumption.
(a) Explain what is meant by the term continuous culture.
[2]
(b) In an investigation into the growth of the fungus in culture, several factors were varied
including:
temperature
concentration of the carbon source
concentration of the nitrogen source.
Some of the results are shown in Table 3.1.
(i) Describe the effect of temperature on the growth of the fungus at the different concentrations
of the carbon source.
[3]
(ii) Explain why the fungus needs sources of carbon and nitrogen.
[3]
[Total: 8] (J13-P42-Q3)
Q21. (a) Describe the role of the hormone insulin in maintaining a constant blood glucose
concentration.
[6]
(b) The hormone human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) is produced by a woman in the
early stages of pregnancy. Describe how a pregnancy test kit can detect the presence of
HCG.
[9]
[Total: 15] (N13-P43-Q11)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
21
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Practice Questions
1. Summarise the advantages of outbreeding, as a series of bullet points.
2. Some of the most productive crop plants in the world are C4 plants. However, rice grows in tropical
regions and is a C3 plant. Research is taking place into the possibility of producing genetically
modified rice that uses the C4 pathway in photosynthesis. Explain how this could increase yields
from rice.
3. List the features that make sorghum well adapted to dry conditions.
4. List the features that make rice adapted to grow when partly submerged in water.
5. Explain why a tetraploid plant such as emmer wheat is fertile, whereas a diploid hybrid is infertile.
6. Use a genetic diagram to show why all the plants produced by crossing two different homozygous
strains of maize will have the same genotype.
7. Explain why farmers need to buy maize seed from commercial seed producers each year, rather than
saving their own seed to plant.
8. a. Copy and complete the table to show the differences between mesophyll and bundle sheath cells
in a C4 plants. Insert a tick () when an item is present in the cell and a cross (x) when it is not.
Item
Mesophyll cell
Bundle sheath cell
PEP carboxylase
rubisco
RuBP
enzymes of Calvin cycle
high concentration of oxygen
light-dependent reactions
contact with air spaces
Key:
b. Explain what is meant by photorespiration.

Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
9. Copy and complete the following passage describing the adaptation of rice for growing with its roots
submerged in water.
The stems and leaves of rice plants have very large ___(1)___ in tissue is called ___(2)___, which allow
oxygen to pass from the air to the ___(3)___. The roots are very shallow, giving them access to the
higher concentration of ___(4)___ in surface water. When oxygen concentration falls, the roots can
respire ___(5)___. This produces ___(6)___, which is toxic. However, the root cells are tolerant of
higher concentrations of this than are most cells and they also contain high concentrations of the enzyme
___(7)___ to break it down.
Key: air spaces, aerenchyma, roots, oxygen, anaerobically, ethanol/alcohol, alcohol dehydrogenase
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Exam Questions
Q1. Rice, Oryza sativa, is a grass that is grown as a cereal crop in many parts of the world. In most rice-growing
regimes, the rice fields are flooded with water while the rice is actively growing. Fig. 5.1 shows cultivation of
rice.
(a) (i) Describe one structural feature of the tissues in the submerged stems and leaves of rice that is an adaptation
for growth in water.
[2]
(ii) Explain the importance of the adaptation you have described in (i).
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(b) An investigation was carried out into the effect of flooding on the growth of the submerged stems of rice
plants. Young rice plants were grown in a container in which the level of water was increased in 10 cm steps, over
a period of seven days. The mean length of the submerged internodes (lengths of stem between two leaves) and
the concentration of ethene in the rice stems was measured each day. As a control, rice plants were grown in
identical conditions but the water level was kept constant throughout the seven days. The results are shown in Fig.
5.2.
(i) With reference to Fig. 5.2, describe the effect of increasing water level on the length of the submerged
internodes.
[2]
(ii) Suggest advantages to the rice plants of the effect that you have described in (i).
[2]
(iii) With reference to Fig. 5.2, describe the effect of increasing water level on the concentration of ethene in the
rice stems.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(c) Application of gibberellin can also affect the growth of rice plants. In a further investigation, various
concentrations of gibberellin were applied to submerged rice stems. The stems were placed, for three days in
closed containers, in which the air supply either contained pure air or contained ethene. Ethene is a gas that is
secreted by plant tissues and acts as a plant growth regulator.
(i) State the meaning of the term plant growth regulator.

[1]
(ii) Using your knowledge of the effects of gibberellin, and the results shown in Fig. 5.2, suggest an explanation
for the results shown in Fig. 5.3.
[3]
[Total: 14] (J07-P4-Q5)
Q2. Wheat, maize and sorghum are three of the most important cereal crops in the world.
(a) Fig. 5.1 shows the effect of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis of wheat plants.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(i) With reference to Fig. 5.1, describe the effect of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis of wheat plants.
[2]
(ii) Suggest why temperature affects the rate of photosynthesis in the way you have described in (i).
[2]
(b) The conditions in which young plants of wheat and maize are grown affects their ability to photosynthesise at
high and low temperatures when they are mature. Young maize and wheat plants were grown to maturity at high
and low temperatures. When they were mature, their rate of photosynthesis was measured at different
temperatures. The results are shown in Fig. 5.2.
(i) With reference to Fig. 5.2, compare the effect of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis of maize plants and
wheat plants that were grown at a high temperature when they were young.
[2]
(ii) Maize is a C4 plant. Explain how the structure of the leaves of maize plants enables them to photosynthesise
more effectively at high temperatures than wheat plants.
[3]
(iii) Low temperatures slow down the formation of the membranes inside chloroplasts in maize leaves, but not in
wheat leaves. Use this information to explain the differences between the results for maize and wheat grown at
low temperatures, shown in Fig. 5.2.
[2]
(c) Cereal crops frequently form the staple diet of human populations. Table 5.1 shows the oil and starch content
of maize and sorghum grains.
(i) Name the part of the maize grain in which oil and starch are stored.
[1]
(ii) With reference to Table 5.1, compare the energy values of maize and sorghum grains when the oil and starch they contain
are used as respiratory substrates.
[3]
[Total: 15] (N07-P4-Q5)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Q3. (a) Fig. 3.1 shows the male and female flowers of maize.
(i) With reference to Fig. 3.1, describe how the flowering habit of maize encourages wind-pollination.
[3]
(ii) In a maize plant, the anthers normally ripen before the stigmas are mature and ready to receive pollen. This
encourages cross-pollination. Explain the potential advantages of cross-pollination to a plant species.
[3]
(b) Cultivated maize is related to a wild Mexican grass, teosinte. Teosinte looks very different from maize. In
particular, teosinte has a very hard layer surrounding the fruit, making it impossible to use as an edible grain.
Archaeological excavations have found that maize in its edible form dates back at least 4000 years. It has been
argued that the structural differences between teosinte and maize grains are so great that it is unlikely that maize
could have been bred from teosinte so long ago. Investigations have been carried out into the genetic differences
between teosinte and maize. A gene on chromosome 4, tga 1, containing 1042 base pairs, was found to be
responsible for all of the structural differences between teosinte and maize. Fig. 3.2 shows the DNA base
sequence of the only part of tga 1 that always differs between teosinte and maize.
(i) Outline the principles of electrophoresis as used in sequencing this DNA.

[4]
(ii) Suggest how the difference in the base sequence of the tga 1 gene shown in Fig. 3.2 could cause large
differences in phenotype between teosinte and maize.
[2]
(iii) With reference to Fig. 3.2, explain how these results support the suggestion that it would have been relatively
easy for early farmers in Mexico to have bred maize from teosinte.
[3]
[Total: 15] (J08-P4-Q3)
Q4. Sorghum is a cereal crop that grows well in very dry (arid) conditions.
(a) Outline two structural features of sorghum that adapt it to survive in arid environments.
[2]
(b) An investigation was carried out to measure the effect of lack of water on the leaves of sorghum plants.
Several well-watered sorghum plants were kept in conditions of normal light and temperature.
Watering was then stopped for 6 days, and resumed on day 7.
The water potential of the cells in the leaves, the concentrations of abscisic acid in the leaves and stomatal
resistance were measured each day.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
A high stomatal resistance indicates that most stomata are partially or completely closed.

(i) describe and explain the changes in abscisic acid concentration over the 10 day period
[3]
(ii) explain the changes in stomatal resistance over this period.
[2]
(c) Explain how the changes you have described in (b) help sorghum to survive in arid conditions.
[2]
[Total: 9] (N08-P4-Q3)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Q5. (a) Fig. 4.1 shows a section through a maize fruit.
(i) Name the parts labelled A to D.

[2]
(ii) Describe the function of the endosperm.
[3]
(b) The corn earworm, is the larva of a moth Helicoverpa zea, that is a serious pest of maize. Insecticides
containing pyrethrum have long been used to control this insect. These act by irreversibly inhibiting the enzyme
acetylcholinesterase, which normally catalyses the hydrolysis of acetylcholine.
(i) Describe how an insecticide could irreversibly inhibit acetycholinesterase.
[2]
(ii) Suggest the effects on synapses of this irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
[2]
(c) Some populations of H. zea have developed resistance to pyrethrum. This occurs as the result of a point
mutation of the acetylcholinesterase gene. Many different such mutations have been identified in different
populations. Explain how a point mutation in the acetylcholinesterase gene could confer resistance to pyrethrum.
[3]
(d) A group of corn earworms was collected from a field where the farmer had reported resistance to insecticides
containing pyrethrum.
Another group was collected from a field where the insects showed no resistance (were susceptible).
Some individuals from these two groups were crossed with each other to form a hybrid group.
Insects from each of the three groups were then exposed to a range of concentrations of pyrethrum. The
percentage of the insects that were dead after 24 hours was recorded. The results are shown in Table 4.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(i) With reference to Table 4.1, compare the effect of the insecticide on the resistant group and on the hybrid
group.
[3]
(ii) Assuming that resistance is conferred by a single point mutation in the gene for acetycholinesterase, suggest
an explanation for the overall differences between all three groups of insects in Table 4.1.
[2]
[Total: 17] (J09-P4-Q4)
Q6. Modern varieties of wheat have developed from numerous hybridisation events between different species of
wild grasses. Fig. 4.1 shows some of the possible steps that are believed to have been involved in the development
of bread wheat, Triticum aestivum. The letters A, B and C represent three different sets of seven chromosomes.
(a) Complete Fig. 4.1 by writing letters to represent the sets of chromosomes in bread wheat. Write your answer
on Fig. 4.1.
[1]
(b) Explain why hybridisation between emmer wheat and goat grass 2 would have produced a sterile hybrid, if
doubling of chromosome number had not occurred.
[3]
(c) With reference to Fig. 4.1, suggest why Triticum urartu and Triticum turgidum are classified as different
species.
[2]
(d) Triticum turgidum emerged as a new species without being geographically isolated from Triticum urartu.
Outline how geographical isolation may result in speciation.
[3]
[Total: 9] (N09-P41-Q4)
Q7. (a) In Queensland, Australia, the effect of the water-holding capacity of soil on the yield of sorghum and
wheat was investigated.
Four test plots were prepared, two with high water-holding capacity (HWC) soil and two with low water-holding
capacity (LWC) soil.
Sorghum seeds were sown on one plot with HWC soil and one plot with LWC soil.
Wheat seeds were sown on the second plot with HWC soil and the second plot with LWC soil.
The plots were regularly watered or irrigated throughout the growing season.
The yield of sorghum and wheat from all four plots was measured at the end of the growing season.
Fig. 4.1 shows the results of this investigation.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
10
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(i) Describe and explain the results shown in Fig. 4.1.

[4]
(ii) State two factors, other than water, light and temperature that would have to be controlled during this
investigation to ensure that the results were valid.
[2]
(b) Sorghum is able to carry out photosynthesis at high temperatures by preventing photorespiration. Explain how
sorghum is able to prevent photorespiration.
[4]
[Total: 10] (N09-P42-Q4)
Q8. Fig. 4.1 is a photomicrograph of a transverse section through the leaf of a C4 plant.
(a) (i) Identify structures J to L.

[3]
(ii) Outline how this leaf anatomy adapts the plant for high rates of carbon fixation at high temperatures. [4]
(b) Sorghum is a C4 plant and Sorghum bicolor is a major food crop in dry tropical regions.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
11
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
The leaves of S. bicolor are covered with a layer of wax made up of a mixture of esters and free fatty acids, with a
melting point of 77 85 C. Waxes from the leaves of nontropical plants tend to have melting points lower than
this. For example, wax from the bayberry, Myrica sp., has a melting point of 45 C. Suggest how the wax on
sorghum leaves helps the plant to survive in dry, tropical regions.
[2]
(c) An investigation was carried out into the response of sorghum to being kept at a low temperature for a short
period of time. Soybean plants, which are better adapted than sorghum for growth in subtropical and temperate
climates, were used for comparison. Plants of sorghum and soybean were kept at 25 C for several weeks and then
at 10 C for three days. The temperature was then increased to 25 C again for seven days. Day length, light
intensity and carbon dioxide concentration were kept constant throughout. The uptake of carbon dioxide, as mg
CO2 absorbed per gram of leaf dry mass, was measured
at 25 C before cooling
on each of the three days at 10 C
for seven days at 25 C.
(i) Compare the changes in carbon dioxide uptake in sorghum and soybean during the three days at 10 C.[2]
(ii) During the cooling period, the ultrastructure of the sorghum chloroplasts changed.
The membranes of the thylakoids moved closer together, eliminating the spaces between them. The size and
number of grana became reduced. Explain how these changes could be responsible for the low rate of carbon
dioxide uptake by sorghum even when returned to a temperature of 25 C.
[4]
[Total: 15] (J10-P41-Q4)
Q9. Cereal crops, such as sorghum and rice, are a major source of nutrients all over the world.
(a) Explain why cereal crops are important components of many peoples diets.
[3]
(b) Alpha amylase is an enzyme produced in germinating seeds, where it hydrolyses starch. Fig. 4.1 shows the
effect of temperature on alpha amylase in germinating seeds of sorghum and rice.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
12
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(i) Name the part of the seed that contains starch.

[1]
(ii) With reference to Fig. 4.1, compare the effects of temperature on alpha amylase in sorghum and rice. [3]
(iii) With reference to the types of bonding in proteins, suggest how differences in the tertiary structure of alpha
amylase in rice and sorghum could explain the differences in their activities shown in Fig. 4.1.
[3]
(c) Sorghum does not grow well at low temperatures. An investigation was carried out into the response of
sorghum to low temperatures at different light intensities.
Sorghum plants were kept at 25 C in a light intensity of 215 W m-2 for several weeks, and then at 10 C for
three days.
The temperature was then increased to 25 C again for seven days.
The investigation was repeated at light intensities of 170 W m-2 and 50 W m-2.
Day length and carbon dioxide concentration were kept constant throughout.
The uptake of carbon dioxide, as mg CO2 absorbed per gram of leaf dry mass, was measured
at 25 C before cooling
at on each of the three days at 10 C
for seven days at 25 C.

(i) describe and explain the effect of light intensity on the rate of carbon dioxide uptake before cooling [3]
(ii) describe the effect of light intensity on the ability of sorghum plants to survive cooling.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J10-P42-Q4)
Q10. Rice, Oryza sativa, is a staple food in many parts of the world. Rice is often grown in fields that are flooded
with water for part of the growing season.
(a) The roots of young rice plants are highly tolerant of ethanol. Explain how this helps them to survive when the
fields are flooded.
[2]
(b) Rice grains have a similar structure to those of maize. The endosperm makes up most of the rice grain. The
endosperm is surrounded by an aleurone layer, which contains hydrolytic enzymes. Outside the aleurone layer is
the fused pericarp and testa, containing large amounts of cellulose.
(i) Describe the function of the endosperm.
[2]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
13
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Brown rice includes the pericarp and testa, whereas in white rice these have been removed during milling, along
with most of the aleurone layer. Table 5.1 shows the nutrient content of samples of white and brown rice.
(ii) With reference to the structure of rice grains, suggest why brown rice contains more protein than white rice.
[2]
(iii) Explain why brown rice contains less carbohydrate per gram than white rice.
[1]
(iv) Explain why the grains of cereals such as rice are staple foods in many parts of the world.
[2]
[Total: 9] (N10-P41/2-Q5)
Q11. Maize, Zea mays, is a cereal crop that is adapted for growth at high temperatures. However, it does not cope
with drought as well as some other crops, such as sorghum. An investigation was carried out into the effect of low
water availability on the activity of mitochondria taken from maize seedlings. Young seedlings were uprooted and
left in dry air for varying periods of time to reduce the water potential of their tissues.
(a) Explain why this treatment reduced the water potential of the maize seedling tissues.
[2]
(b) After drying in air, mitochondria were extracted from the tissues of the seedlings. The extracted mitochondria
were provided with succinate, which is one of the intermediate compounds in the Krebs cycle, and also with ADP
and inorganic phosphate. The rate at which the extracted mitochondria took up oxygen was measured. The results
are shown in Fig. 4.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
14
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(i) Describe the results shown in Fig. 4.1.

[2]
(ii) The mitochondria take up oxygen. Explain how this oxygen, plus the succinate, ADP and inorganic
phosphate, are used by the mitochondria.
[4]
(c) In a further experiment, it was found that mitochondrial membranes lost their normal structure when the water
potential was low.
(i) Suggest why membranes in cells lose their normal structure when the water potential is low.
[3]
(ii) Suggest how this could explain the results shown in Fig. 4.1.
[3]
(d) In tissues where water potential is low, the mitochondria of sorghum are affected in a very similar way to
those of maize. Describe two ways in which sorghum plants are adapted to prevent the development of low water
potentials in their tissues during drought conditions.
[2]
[Total: 16] (N10-P43-Q4)
Q12. Both sorghum and maize are important food crops in dry regions of the world, but sorghum is able to
produce higher yields than maize in very dry conditions. This is partly because sorghum plants have a smaller leaf
area than maize, and also because sorghum leaves have rows of motor cells along the midrib of the upper surface
of the leaf, allowing the leaves to roll up.
(a) Explain how these two features adapt sorghum plants for growth in very dry conditions.
[3]
(b) Sorghum is a staple food in Africa, but the major storage protein that it contains, kaffirin, is not easily digested
by protease enzymes. The main cause of this is cross-linking between kaffirin molecules. The digestibility of the
protein in five varieties of sorghum was measured when raw, and after cooking. Digestibility was measured as the
percentage of the protein that would be broken down to amino acids during digestion. The results are shown in
Fig. 5.1.
With reference to Fig. 5.1

(i) compare the digestibility of raw and cooked sorghum protein
[2]
(ii) using your knowledge of protein structure and enzyme activity, suggest reasons for the differences you have
described in (i).
[3]
[Total: 8] (J11-P41-Q5)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
15
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Q13. Maize, Zea mays, is a major cereal food crop. Unlike most crop plants, maize seed is produced by
hybridisation between two different inbred parental strains.
(a) (i) Explain why this is done.
[3]
(ii) Suggest one disadvantage of producing seed in this way.
[1]
(b) In the light-independent stage of photosynthesis, the enzyme rubisco catalyses the combination of carbon
dioxide with ribulose bisphosphate, RuBP. When the carbon dioxide concentration within the leaf is very low,
rubisco tends to combine oxygen, rather than carbon dioxide, with RuBP. This process is called photorespiration.
It reduces carbon dioxide assimilation and therefore reduces crop yields. Photorespiration is most likely to happen
in hot, dry conditions.
(i) Suggest why photorespiration is most likely to take place in hot, dry conditions.
[3]
(ii) Explain how the leaf anatomy of a maize plant reduces photorespiration, even in hot, dry conditions. [4]
(c) It is expected that the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere will increase in the future, which would
be expected to increase rates of photosynthesis in many crop plants.
Investigations were carried out into the effect of increased carbon dioxide concentration on the rate of
photosynthesis in maize.
Maize plants were grown in open-air trials, in the same field and were exposed to the same changes in the
weather.
50% of the plants were exposed to a normal carbon dioxide concentration.
50% of the plants were exposed to an increased carbon dioxide concentration.
The rate of photosynthesis was measured as the net assimilation rate of carbon dioxide.
Measurements were made at three-hourly intervals between 0700 hours and
1900 hours on three different days.
(i) Suggest an explanation for the lack of effect of carbon dioxide concentration on the rate of photosynthesis in
maize plants, shown by these results.
[2]
(ii) Suggest one explanation for the changes in the rate of photosynthesis between 0700 hours and 1900 hours on
day 1.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J11-P42-Q4)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
16
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Q14. Cultivated rice, Oryza sativa, is often grown in fields flooded with water.
(a) Explain how rice plants are adapted for growth with the roots submerged in water.
[3]
(b) Some varieties of cultivated rice are able to grow long internodes when they are submerged in water, keeping
the leaves and flowers above water level (an internode is a length of stem between leaves). These varieties are
known as deepwater rice. The snorkel genes SK1 and SK2, thought to be responsible for this response, were
identified in a variety of deepwater rice, C9285. A non-deepwater variety, T65, did not have these genes.
When submerged, rice plants produce the gaseous plant hormone ethene. This has a very low solubility in water,
so it accumulates in the aerenchyma tissue in the rice stems. Fig. 4.1 shows the concentration of ethene in the
aerenchyma of T65 and C9285 when the plants are submerged in water for 18 hours.
Fig. 4.2 shows the results of exposing T65 and C9285 to different concentrations of ethene in dry conditions.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
17
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(i) With reference to Fig. 4.1, describe the effect of submergence in water on the production of ethene in rice.
[2]
(ii) With reference to Fig. 4.2, compare the effect of ethene on internode elongation in C9285 and T65. [2]
(c) The snorkel genes were found to be expressed when the plant was exposed to ethene. The expression of these
genes results in increased production of gibberellin, GA. Fig. 4.3 shows the effect of submergence on GA
production in C9285 and in T65.
With reference to Fig. 4.3, and your knowledge of the functions of GA, suggest an explanation for the differences
in the effects of ethene in C9285 and T65 shown in Fig. 4.2.
[3]
(d) Cultivated rice has been developed from the wild rice species Oryza rufipogon and Oryza nivara. O.
rufipogon has a strong deepwater elongation response, but O. nivara has only a slight elongation response.
Another species, Oryza glumaepatula, shows a strong elongation response.
O. rufipogon has both the snorkel genes, SK1 and SK2.
O. nivara has SK1, but an addition (insertion) mutation has produced a stop triplet within SK2.
O. glumaepatula has SK2, but not SK1.
(i) Describe what this information indicates about the relative importance of the genes SK1 and SK2 in the
deepwater elongation response.
[2]
(ii) Explain how an addition mutation could produce a stop triplet.
[2]
(iii) Deepwater rice is the main food crop in many parts of the world that undergo flooding in the rainy season.
Many varieties of deepwater rice have lower yields than non-deepwater varieties. Suggest how a deepwater rice
variety with high yield could be produced, using artificial selection.
[3]
[Total: 17] (N11-P41/2-Q4)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
18
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Q15. (a) Fig. 4.1 shows the male and female flowers of maize.
(i) With reference to Fig. 4.1 suggest how the flowering habit of maize encourages wind pollination.
[3]
(ii) In a maize plant, the anthers normally ripen and release pollen before the stigmas are mature and ready to
receive pollen. This encourages cross-pollination. Explain two potential advantages of cross-pollination to a plant
species.
[2]
(b) The conditions in which wheat and maize are grown affect their ability to photosynthesise. Fig. 4.2 compares
the rate of photosynthesis of wheat and maize at different temperatures.

(i) compare the effect of temperature on the rates of photosynthesis of wheat and maize
(ii) explain the difference between the rates of photosynthesis of wheat and maize at 28 C.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[2]
[3]
19
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(c) Cereal grains are a major component of the human diet. Table 4.1 shows some of the nutrient contents of 100g
samples of grains of wheat, white rice and maize.
(i) With reference to Table 4.1 suggest reasons for the difference in protein content between wheat and white rice.
[2]
(ii) State, giving a reason, which type of grain would be beneficial for a person with anaemia.
[2]
[Total: 14] (N11-P43-Q4)
Q16. (a) Fig. 4.1 shows the structure of a male flower of maize, Zea mays.
With reference to Fig. 4.1, explain how two features of this flower adapt it for wind pollination.
[2]
(b) The corn borer, Ostrinia nubilalis, is an insect pest of maize. The larvae are caterpillars that eat the leaves of
the maize plants. The adults can fly. Adult corn borers do not feed on maize plants. Much of the maize that is
grown in the USA has been genetically modified to produce Bt toxin, which is lethal to insects that feed on the
leaves. However, many populations of the corn borer have now evolved resistance to the Bt toxin. Explain how
this resistance could have evolved.
[3]
(c) The recessive allele, r, of the gene in corn borers confers resistance to Bt toxin. Larvae that are homozygous
for the normal, dominant allele R, or that are heterozygous, are killed when they feed on Bt maize. State the
genotype of the corn borers that successfully turn from larvae into adults in the fields where Bt maize is grown.[1]
(d) In order to reduce the number of corn borers resistant to Bt toxin, farmers in the USA are required to grow up
to 50% of their maize as non-Bt varieties. The non-Bt maize is grown in separate areas, called refuges, close to
the fields of Bt maize. This is called the HDR strategy. Almost all corn borer larvae feeding on this non-Bt maize
have the genotypes RR or Rr.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
20
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
The HDR strategy assumes that, when these become adults, they will interbreed with the adults developing in the
Bt maize fields. Explain how the HDR strategy could reduce the proportion of corn borers that are resistant to the
Bt toxin.
[2]
(e) The HDR strategy works only if a high proportion of the adult corn borers developing in the Bt fields mate
with adult corn borers from the non-Bt refuges. An investigation was carried out to determine the extent to which
female corn borers mate with males from their own field, or from outside that field.
Several hundred male and female adult corn borers were marked and then released into a maize field that
contained no corn borers.
After 36 hours, as many corn borers as possible were recaptured from the field and the number of marked and
non-marked male and female corn borers was recorded.
The percentage of the marked females that had mated with marked males was also recorded.
This was repeated on four more occasions.
(i) With reference to the two shaded columns in Table 4.1, explain what the results indicate about the degree of
mixing between corn borers from different fields.
[3]
(ii) With reference to Table 4.1, suggest and explain the implications of the results of this investigation for the
effectiveness of the HDR strategy.
[4]
[Total: 15] (J12-P41-Q4)
Q17. Golden Rice is a genetically modified form of rice that produces relatively large amounts of carotene in
the endosperm. carotene is metabolised in the human body to produce vitamin A.
(a) Explain why rice has been genetically modified to produce extra carotene.
[2]
(b) The first types of Golden Rice produced only a very low mass of carotene per gram of rice. Research
continued to try to increase this. Fig. 4.1 shows the metabolic pathway by which carotene is synthesised in
plants, and the enzymes that catalyse each step of the pathway.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
21
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
The first types of Golden Rice contained a phytoene synthase gene, psy, from daffodils and a gene crtl, which
produced the two desaturase enzymes, from the bacterium Erwinia uredovora. Measurements of the quantities of
intermediates in this metabolic pathway in rice endosperm showed that there was always a large amount of GGDP
present, and that no phytoene accumulated in the tissues. Explain how this suggests it was not the enzymes
produced by the crtl gene that were limiting the production of carotene.
[2]
(c) Investigations were carried out to see if psy genes taken from species other than daffodils would enable rice
endosperm to produce greater quantities of carotene than the first types of Golden Rice.
Psy genes were isolated from the DNA of maize, tomatoes, peppers and daffodils.
The genes were inserted into different plasmids.
The promoter Ubi1, and crtl genes from E. uredovora, were also inserted into all of the plasmids.
The four types of genetically modified plasmids were then inserted into different cultures of rice cells.
The quantity of carotene produced by these rice cells was measured.
(i) Name the type of enzyme that would have been used to cut the psy gene out of the DNA of the plant cells.[1]
(ii) Explain why a promoter was inserted into the plasmids.
[2]
(iii) Explain whether or not these results support the hypothesis that the psy gene, not the crtl gene, was limiting
the production of carotene in genetically modified rice.
[2]
(d) The original choice of a psy gene from daffodils was made because daffodils produce large amounts of
carotene in their yellow petals, and because they are monocotyledonous plants, like rice. Suggest explanations for
the much lower production of carotene in rice containing the psy gene from daffodils than in rice containing the
psy gene from maize.
[2]
(e) Describe the possible disadvantages of growing Golden Rice.
[3]
[Total: 14] (J12-P42-Q4)
Q18. Flowers are the organs of sexual reproduction in plants. Before fertilisation and seed development can take
place, pollination must occur. This can be either self-pollination or cross-pollination, and can be carried out by
insects or by wind.
(a) Explain the meaning of the term self-pollination.
[2]
(b) Explain why cross-pollination may be more beneficial to a species than self-pollination.
[3]
(c) In maize, wind pollination occurs. An investigation was carried out to find out how the length of time that
maize pollen is in the air affects its ability to bring about fertilisation in a female flower.
Pollen grains were removed from maize flowers and left exposed to the air for varying times.
The pollen grains were then placed onto groups of female flowers.
The groups of fertilised flowers developed into ears, each containing many seeds. The number of seeds per ear
was counted.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
22
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(i) Describe the effect of exposure to the air on maize pollen.

[2]
(ii) A wild relative of maize, called teosinte, grows in Mexico. There are concerns that pollen from geneticallymodified maize could pollinate wild teosinte and transfer new genes to it.
Suggest how the results shown in Fig. 5.1 could be used to devise strategies that would reduce the possibility of
this happening.
[2]
[Total: 9] (N12-P41/2-Q5)
Q19. (a) Fig. 4.1 shows a light micrograph of a section through a wheat grain.
The structure of a wheat grain is very similar to that of a maize fruit.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
23
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
On Fig. 4.1, use label lines and letters to label each of the following parts.
A endosperm
B fused testa and pericarp (fruit coat)
C embryo
[3]
(b) Wheat grains are ground to make flour, which can be used for making bread. Whole grain flour is made from
the complete wheat grain. Refined (white) flour is produced from wheat grains from which the embryo, aleurone
layer and the fused testa and pericarp have been removed. Table 4.1 shows the carbohydrate, protein and dietary
fibre content of bread made from whole grain flour and white flour.
With reference to the structure of a wheat grain, explain the differences between the composition of the two types
of bread shown in Table 4.1.
[3]
(c) The glycaemic index, GI, of a carbohydrate-containing food is a measure of the effect of its consumption on
blood glucose concentration. If two foods containing the same mass of carbohydrate, but different GIs, are
consumed, the food with the higher GI will increase blood glucose concentration more rapidly than the food with
the lower GI. Suggest an explanation for each of the following.
(i) Foods containing starch have lower GIs than foods containing glucose.
[1]
(ii) Foods containing starch made up mostly of amylose have lower GIs than foods containing starch made up
mostly of amylopectin.
[2]
(d) A diet containing large amounts of foods with a high GI can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes. A
study was carried out into the effect of consuming whole cereal grains, refined cereal grains and fruit on the risk
of developing type II diabetes.
In 1986, questionnaires about diet were completed by 41 836 women, all between the ages of 5569 years old, in
Iowa, USA.
The women were then divided into five groups according to their range of intake of each food type.
In 1992 the same women were asked whether or not they had developed type II diabetes.
Their answers were used to calculate the relative risk of developing type II diabetes for each of the five groups.
For each food type, the group with the lowest intake of that food type was allocated a risk of 1.00.
Table 4.2 shows the results of this study.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
24
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(i) Describe the effect of increased intake of whole cereal grains on the risk of developing type II diabetes.
[3]
(ii) Explain why the results in Table 4.2 cannot be used to make a direct comparison of the effects of consuming
whole cereal grains and refined cereal grains on the risk of developing type II diabetes.
[2]
(iii) The results in Table 4.2 suggest that eating large quantities of fruit may slightly increase the risk of
developing type II diabetes. Suggest a reason for this.
[2]
[Total: 16] (N12-P43-Q4)
Q20. (a) Explain how the physiology of the leaves of a C4 plant, such as maize, is adapted for efficient carbon
fixation at high temperatures.
[7]
(b) Describe how, in photosynthesis, light energy is converted into chemical energy, in the form of ATP.
[8]
[Total: 15] (J13-P41-Q10)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
25
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Q21. The pink bollworm moth, Pectinophora gossypiella, is a pest of cotton crops. The size of its population can
be reduced by releasing large numbers of sterile male moths into cotton fields. The sterile male moths mate with
wild females from the cotton fields, but no offspring are produced.
Over a period of three years, 20 million genetically modified (GM) sterile male moths were released in the USA.
Each insect contained a gene coding for a red fluorescent protein (DsRed) taken from a species of reef coral. The
added DNA also included a promoter.
(a) Explain why, in gene technology:
(i) genes for fluorescent proteins such as DsRed are now more commonly used as markers than are genes for
antibiotic resistance
[2]
(ii) a promoter needs to be included when transferring a gene from a coral into an insect.
[3]
(b) DsRed is visible at all stages of the life cycle of the moth, but the presence of the gene in a particular
individual can be confirmed by genetic fingerprinting, using gel electrophoresis.
(i) Outline the principles of gel electrophoresis.
[4]
(ii) Explain how the presence of the gene for DsRed in a moth can be confirmed once electrophoresis is complete.
[2]
(c) DsRed allows sterile male moths to be distinguished from wild moths when caught in an insect trap in a field
of cotton plants. Suggest why it is important to be sure whether a moth caught in such a trap is a released sterile
male or a wild insect.
[2]
(d) The United States Department of Agriculture has ruled that the release of sterile males to control insect pest
numbers is environmentally preferable to all other alternatives. Suggest what information would be needed to
determine whether the release of the sterile male moths, carrying the gene for DsRed, has a damaging effect on
the environment.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J13-P42-Q2)
Q22. (a) Maize originated in the Americas, and 55% of the worlds maize production is from this part of the
world. Fig. 5.1 shows the mean yields of maize in the USA between 1860 and 2010.
Describe the changes in grain yield between 1860 and 2010.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[3]
Phone. 0347 4443879
26
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
(b) The greatest improvement in maize yields came after growers realised that maize hybrids have a much greater
yield than inbred lines.
Between 1860 and the 1930s, maize was allowed to pollinate naturally in the field. From the 1930s onward, maize
seed was produced using double-cross hybrids.
To produce a double-cross hybrid:
two different maize plants, A and B, are crossed to produce a hybrid, C
two other maize plants, X and Y, are crossed to produce a hybrid, Z
the hybrid C is then crossed with the hybrid Z, to produce the double-cross hybrid.
From 1960 onwards, maize seed was produced using single-cross hybrids. This involves crossing one inbred
(entirely homozygous) plant with a different inbred plant. Explain why single-cross hybrids are genetically
uniform, but double-cross hybrids are not.
[3]
(c) An experiment was carried out in 19961997 to investigate the relative effects of genotype and environment
on the yield of maize. Maize seeds with different inbreeding coefficients were used. The greater the inbreeding
coefficient, the greater the degree of homozygosity in the maize plants. Maize seeds with different inbreeding
coefficients were planted in two different areas in 1996, and in the same two areas in 1997.
Fig. 5.2 shows the results.
(i) Inbreeding depression is a reduction in vigour that results from inbreeding. Explain how the results in Fig. 5.2
demonstrate inbreeding depression in maize.
[2]
(ii) Explain how the results in Fig. 5.2 show that the environment affects maize yields.
[2]
[Total: 10] (N13-P41/2-Q5)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
27
A2 Biology
Section: T
Crop Plants
Q23. Maize was developed from a wild plant called teosinte, which grows from Mexico south to Argentina. It is
thought that cultivated maize was derived from teosinte only once. Maize has been found at archaeological sites
dated to 5500 years ago.
(a) Fig. 5.1 shows the genetic diversity at ten gene loci in teosinte and in cultivated maize. This was determined
by sequencing the DNA base pairs at each locus, and calculating how much each of these base sequences varied.
The gene loci are numbered in order of the degree of diversity in teosinte.
(i) Compare the genetic diversity of teosinte with that of cultivated maize.
[2]
(ii) Suggest reasons for the differences in genetic diversity between teosinte and cultivated maize.
[3]
(iii) Explain how these data support the idea that wild relatives of crop plants, such as maize, should be
conserved.
[2]
(b) Most farmers today grow maize from seeds that have been produced by crossing two different homozygous
parents. Explain why this is done.
[3]
[Total: 10] (N13-P43-Q5)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
28
Agricultural production has increased enormously in the last few decades, and seems set to rise
even further. These increases have been brought about mainly by the development of new
varieties of crops, animals and more intense methods of farming.
Maize Originating in Central America, maize is now third only to wheat and rice in world
production. It is widely grown in the USA (and Europe) as animal feed, and
is also the basis of Corn Flakes and Sweetcorn for human consumption.
This crop grows well where temperature is frost-free and light intensity
is high. There needs to be adequate water too though not as much as
rice needs.
It is grown as a staple food in much of Africa. However, for this purpose it
has a major drawback, since it is deficient in the essential amino-acids
tryptophan and lysine. This causes children after weaning (i.e. about 4-7 years
old) to become ill. Their livers greatly enlarge in an attempt to synthesise the
missing amino-acids and they suffer from Kwashiorkor. The symptoms include
stick-like arms and legs, thin, papery skin and a greatly swollen belly. Note that
these children are not starving they may have plenty of calories in their diet
but they are malnourished.
Geese (and, less commonly, ducks) fed largely on a diet of maize develop similar
symptoms. Their grossly enlarged, fatty livers are then used to make pat de fois gras mainly
in the Bordeaux region of France. This is a rare example of a farmer deliberately making an
animal seriously ill in order to maximise profit the reason why I will not eat it! Another example
is veal where calves are made anaemic, by depriving them of grass, in order to make their meat
paler.
One might assume that if maize crops are grown in conditions where light intensity and daytime
temperatures are high; then the conditions should favour photosynthesis, however this is not
necessarily the case as:
high temperatures increase the rate of transpiration, leading to the closure of the
stomata. Closing the stomata can cause a build up of oxygen from photosynthesis in the
leaves this can reduce the photosynthetic yield.
if plants are grown close together, then there will be competition for carbon dioxide.
Adaptations include:
A different biochemical pathway for photosynthesis (with an extra step) than that in most
cooler climate plants. Called the C4 pathway, these plants can fix carbon dioxide at low
levels as the four-carbon molecule malate. This molecule is then used to boost CO2 in
the regular C3 pathway in a different cell. This mechanism allows photosynthesis to
continue at higher rates, since the oxygen produced in the light reactions (see Module
5!) is no longer inhibiting the process. The normal limiting factor in the UK for
photosynthesis is low CO2 at our current CO2 levels of around 370 ppm (and
rising!). Normal C3 plants are inefficient and fail to grow at concentrations below about
200 ppm, whilst C4 plants can successfully fix CO2 at levels as low as 0.1 ppm. At 370
ppm, they grow faster.
Remember oxygen competitively inhibits the key carbon fixing enzyme in the lightindependent reactions of photosynthesis (see module 5!), called RUBISCO. i.e. beyond
dim, the brighter the light, the slower photosynthesis eventually becomes.
The roots are shallow but widespread, so maize often has small aerial roots at the base
of the stem to increase their ability to withstand buffeting by wind (called buttress
roots).
(Provided by: Illinois World Food and Sustainable Agriculture Program)
Sorghum Is the fifth commonly grown cereal in

the world and is another tropical C4 cereal, like
Maize (see above). Sorghum is adapted to hot,
arid, low-soil nutrient conditions, reflecting its
origins in the Sudan region of Africa. In the drier
regions of Africa and Central India it is often a
staple food, being made into a tasteless porridge,
but in the rest of the world it is used as animal
feed or as a source of oil and fibre. The USA is
the major grower of Sorghum for this purpose. In
the UK we come across it as millet used as
budgie food!
Sorghum is able to grow well in the very hot (over
35oC), dry regions of tropical Africa, southern
USA and central India. It is able to do this by
synthesising special heat-shock proteins very
rapidly when the temperature rises. It grows very
high up to 5 metres in a season and the multiple seed-heads produce many thousands of
small seeds from a single plant.
Xerophytic (= a plant normally found in dry conditions) adaptations include:
A dense root system that is very efficient at extracting water from the soil
(both wide and deep).
A thick waxy cuticle that prevents evaporative water loss through the leaf surface.
The presence of special cells (called motor cells) on the underside of the leaf that cause
the leaf to roll inwards in dry conditions. This traps moist air in the rolled leaf and
reduces water loss.
Reduced number of sunken stomata on leaves (they are in pits).
World sorghum growing areas

(provided by: syngenta foundation for sustainable agriculture)
Rice
The second most widely grown cereal (wheat is top!), rice
is grown throughout the tropical and Mediterranean
regions of the world. It requires a minimum temperature of
20oC in the growing season. It is the staple food of half the
Worlds population, being highly nutritious and needs little
post-harvest processing to make it edible. Despite its
Asian origins, it is a C3 plant; the USA is the worlds
biggest exporter, since most poor countries can barely feed their own populations. Of the two
main types of rice (mountain and plains rice) only the latter has any adaptations to an unusual
habitat - uniquely, it can grow in flooded conditions (though it is not a true hydrophyte or water
plant). This is the variety grown in SE Asia, where it is grown partly submerged in paddy fields
for some of its life. These flooded soils drown weeds, reducing competition.
The land is not needed for the seedling stage of growth either, so enabling up to 3 crops per
year. It is, however, expensive in labour though this is the traditional way of life for
women and children in this part of the world.
Adaptations of plains rice include:
Rice stem showing its hollow

and aerenchyma tissue
The stem of a rice plant has large air spaces (hollow aerenchyma) running the length of
the stem and into the roots. This allows oxygen (some formed in the plant from
photosynthesis) to penetrate through to the roots which are submerged in water.
The
roots
are
also
very
shallow,
allowing
access to oxygen that diffuses into the surface layer of the waterlogged soil.
When oxygen levels fall too low, the SEEDLING (only!) cells can respire
anaerobically, producing ethanol. Ethanol is normally toxic to cells, but the young root
cells of rice have an unusually high tolerance to it they have large levels of the
enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase in their cells. Adult plant roots are as intolerant of
flooding as any other crop. Note that this is a physiological adaptation, whilst all the
others mentioned in this section are physical or anatomicaladaptations.
When
germinating,
the
seed
grows
rapidly,
forcing
hollow
tube
or coleoptile upwards. This eventually breaks through the surface of the water, forming
a snorkel - through which the leaves eventually grow allowing oxygen to penetrate to
all parts of the plant.
Paddy fields are bogs made by flooding the field with river water and also the local sewage
(both animal and human). This makes the water rich in organic matter (if rather
smelly!). Microbes break down the sewage whilst others use this energy to fix nitrogen from
the air. Fish may also live there, feeding on the animal life. When the crop is about to flower,
the field is allowed to drain naturally and the bacteria break down in the soil releasing nitrogen
for the benefit of the rice crop (catching the fish would be easy too!). Thus a paddy field is both
sewage and fish farm and a fertilizer factory. Rice yield drops dramatically when weeds are
present, so this anti weed system is important.
Wheat
This is the worlds most widely-grown crop and is extensively grown throughout the temperate
regions of the world, both as human (flour) and animal feed. Bread wheat durum wheat - is
a hard wheat, with a high protein (gluten) content, which enables the dough to stretch when
rising. It is also excellent for making pasta! Spring-sown, it is the preferred variety of Eastern
Europe, Canada and the mid-west USA. Winter wheat is a soft wheat, with a low gluten
content and is good for making cakes and biscuits. It is grown throughout the UK and Western
Europe and in more temperate climates as it has a higher potential yield. It is also ideal for
animal feed, since it is easier to digest.
Adaptations and cropping yields of the major cereal crops
Crop
Yield
(kg/ha-1)
Area grown
(ha x 106)
Wheat
1000 - 4000
215
Warm, frost free

climate, fertile soil,
drought intolerant
Maize
1000 - 14500
139
Adapted to a wide
range of temperate
climates and soils
155
Tropical, paddy
varieties are aquatic,
drought intolerant
43
Wide range of soils.

Drought tolerant.
Grown in regions too
dry for maize.
1500 (mountain)
Rice
4500 (plains)
300 2000
Sorghum
[6500 if irrigated]
Growth requirements
Food values of some major crops

Crop
Energy (kJ/gm)
Protein (%)
Lipid (%)
Wheat
1420
12.1
2.1
Maize
1471
10.1
4.1
Rice
1296
8.1
2.1
Sorghum
1455
10.1
5.1
Potatoes
347
2.0
0.1
Peas
293
4.9
0.4
Lettuce
63
1.2
0.2
A2 Biology
Section: U
Human Reproduction (Aspects and Histology)
Practice Questions
1. Draw a table to compare the processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. List similarities as well
as differences between them.
2. Explain how the structure of a spermatozoan and the structure of an egg (secondary oocyte) adapt
them for their functions.
3. The graphs show part of a womans 28-day total contraceptive cycle.
The top row shows the days on which she took a combined
progesterone and oestrogen pill. The part of the graph below this
illustrates the changes in concentrations of progesterone and
oestrogen (steroids) in her blood. The bottom graph shows the
activity of the follicles in her ovaries.
a. How many days of her cycle are shown in these graphs?
b. Describe the patterns shown by the concentration of steroids in
the womans blood, and relate these to her pill-taking
schedule.
c. Describe the pattern shown by the level of follicular activity.
Explain how the concentrations of steroids in the blood can
cause the patterns you describe.
4. The graph shows the number of oocytes in a womans ovaries between her conception and 50
years of age.
a. Describe the changes in the number of oocytes in a

womans body from conception up to the age of 50.
b. Suggest a reason for the rapid decrease in oocytes in a fetus
between the ages of six and nine months after conception.
c. Use the graph to explain one reason for the decline of a
womans fecundity with age.
5. Suggest how acrosome of an intact sperm injected into an oocyte could damage the resulting
embryo.
6. State briefly the purposes of courtship in many species.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
(DG Mackean pp. 602)
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: U
7. The diagram shows a section of a mammalian ovary.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Name the structures labelled A, B, C, D and E.

[5]
State three structures that might be found within region X.
[3]
How does the chromosome number of structure A differ from the cells in layer D?
[2]
Name a hormone produced by structure C.
[1]
Describe the importance of the corpus luteum.
[4]
Suggest, with reasons, whether you consider the section of the ovary shown in the diagram to
be from a human or a small mammal.
[3]
g. Explain, with reference to negative feedback, the mechanism by which menstrual cycle is
controlled.
[4]
h. Describe the fate of structure A.
[3]
[Total: 25] (N91-P3/4-Q1)
8. The diagram shows changes in the blood concentration levels of several hormones involved in
pregnancy, birth and lactation.
a. With reference to the diagram, comment
on the patterns of secretion for the
following hormones:
i. progesterone
ii. oestrogen
iii. prolactin.
[6]
b. Outline the roles of the following hormones
in pregnancy, birth and lactation.
i. progesterone
ii. oestrogen
iii. prolactin.
[9]
c. Identify hormone X, giving a reason for your answer.
[2]
[Total: 17] (J92-P3A-Q2)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: U
Answers:
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: U
Exam Questions
Q1. (a) (i) Outline the main cellular changes associated with growth and development.
[8]
Describe the changes of the uterus that are caused by
(ii) oestrogen and
[6]
(iii) progesterone
[6]
during the menstrual cycle.
[Total : 20] (N02-P6-Op3Q3)
Q2. (a) Name the precise sites of production in the human male of the following hormones:
(i) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH);
(ii) luteinising hormone (LH) or interstitial cell stimulating hormone (ICSH);
(iii) testosterone.
[3]
(b) Fig. 2.1 shows the concentration of the hormones FSH, LH (ICSH) and testosterone in the blood of a
human male at different ages.
With reference to Fig. 2.1, describe and explain the changes in concentration of:
(i) FSH and LH (ICSH);
(ii) testosterone.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[4]
[4]
A2 Biology
Section: U
(c) Table 2.1 shows the mean mass of the human testis at different ages.
With reference to Table 2.1, calculate, showing your working in each case,
(i) the absolute growth rate of the testis between ages 14 and 18 years;
(ii) the relative growth rate of the testis between ages 14 and 18 years.
[2]
[2]
[Total : 15] (N03-P6-Op3Q2)
Q3. The fertility of a large group of European women aged between 19 and 39 was investigated. All were
trying to become pregnant. Neither the women, nor their partners, had any history of fertility problems.
The probability of pregnancy following intercourse on a given day relative to the day of ovulation (day 0) was
calculated for three different age groups of women. Their partners were either the same age or five years
older. The results of the investigation are shown in Fig. 2.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: U
(a) With reference to Fig. 2.1, describe the effect on the probability of pregnancy of
(i) womens age;
[3]
(ii) women having partners five years older than themselves;
[2]
(iii) day of intercourse relative to ovulation.
[2]
(b) Explain why intercourse two days before ovulation leads to the greatest probability of pregnancy in all age
groups of women.
[3]
[Total : 10] (J04-P6-Op3Q2)
Q4. (a) Describe briefly the process of fertilisation in humans.
[4]
(b) Mice and humans share a gene for a protein ion channel that is found only in the plasma membrane (cell
surface membrane) of the tails of spermatozoa. Mice homozygous for a mutation which results in an inactive
ion channel are sterile. Explain how a mutation can result in an inactive ion channel.
[3]
(c) Sperm from mice homozygous for the mutation giving an inactive ion channel and from homozygous
normal mice were examined. Their rate of movement was measured and their ability to fertilise eggs was
tested by in vitro fertilisation (IVF) of intact eggs and eggs without their outer zona pellucida. The results are
shown in Table 1.1.
(i) Explain what is meant by in vitro fertilisation.

[2]
(ii) With reference to Table 1.1, compare the abilities of sperm from normal and mutant mice to fertilise eggs
successfully in vitro.
[4]
(iii) With reference to Table 1.1, suggest an explanation for the differences you have described in (ii).
[2]
[Total : 15] (N04-P6-Op3Q1)
Q5. (a) State two roles of luteinising hormone (LH) in the human menstrual cycle.
[2]
(b) A number of healthy men and women were each given a single injection of gonadotrophin releasing
hormone (GnRH). The concentration of LH in their blood was measured at the time of the injection and at
intervals afterwards. The results are shown in Fig. 3.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: U

(i) describe the effect of injecting GnRH into men and women;
[3]
(ii) find the time after injection of GnRH at which the mean concentration of LH in men has fallen to half its
maximum value. Show your working;
[2]
(iii) state one factor that would have been taken into account when selecting a group of women for this
experiment.
[1]
Q6. (a) Spermatozoa (sperm) of the woodmouse, Apodemus sylvaticus, link together after ejaculation by
means of hooks on the sperm heads. They then swim as sperm trains of hundreds or thousands of cells.
The average velocity of sperm trains in media with different viscosities was compared with that of single
sperm. The range of viscosities used were those found in different parts of the female reproductive tract. The
results are shown in Fig. 2.1.

(i) compare the average velocities of sperm trains and single sperm;
(ii) explain the advantage of sperm forming sperm trains.
[2]
[3]
(b) The proportions of sperm that formed sperm trains and that had undergone the acrosome reaction at
different times after ejaculation were found. The results are shown in Fig. 2.2.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: U
(i) Explain what is meant by the acrosome reaction.

[3]
(ii) With reference to Fig. 2.2, suggest how sperm become detached from a sperm train.
[1]
(iii) State why it is important that some sperm do not undergo a premature acrosome reaction.
[1]
[Total: 10] (N05-P6-Op3Q2)
Q7. (a) Fig. 3.1 shows a diagram of the male urinogenital system.
Name P to S.
[2]
(b) Concern is being expressed world wide about the fall in sperm production. Fig. 3.2 shows the number of
sperm produced per cm3 in humans from 1973 to 1993.
(i) Calculate the percentage decrease in sperm production over the 20 years. Show your working.
(ii) Suggest how the changes in oestrogen concentration in drinking water may explain the fall in sperm
production.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
[2]
[1]
A2 Biology
Section: U
(c) Describe four differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans.
[4]
Q8. (a) Fig. 2.1 is a diagram of the stages in the development of one follicle in a human ovary.
(i) Calculate the actual length in m from X to Y across the ovarian follicle. Show your working.
[2]
(ii) Name structure Q and state its function.
[2]
(b) The germinal epithelium divides to form the primary oocytes.
(i) Name the type of cell division used to form a primary oocyte.
[1]
(ii) State the chromosome number present in one primary oocyte.
[1]
(iii) Outline how the primary oocyte continues its development.
[3]
[Total: 9] (N06-P6-Op3Q2)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Section: U
Q9. Fig. 6.1 is a photomicrograph of a section through the ovary of a mammal.
(a) Name A and B.
[2]
Fig. 6.2 shows part of the sequence of processes by which female gametes are produced.
(b) With reference to Fig. 6.2,

(i) name the cell at stage C;
(ii) draw a label line on Fig. 6.1 to a cell at stage C;
(iii) name the types of cell division that take place at P and Q.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Edwardes College Peshawar Phone. 0347 4443879
[1]
[1]
[1]
10
A2 Biology
Section: U
(c) Describe one way in which genetic variation between secondary oocytes is achieved during meiosis [3]
[Total: 8] (J07-P4-Q6)
Q10. Couples who are unable to conceive naturally may be able to have fertility treatment involving in-vitro
fertilisation (IVF).
(a) Outline the technique of IVF.
[4]
(b) Table 6.1 shows the success rate, in terms of live births, for IVF using eggs from women of different ages.
(i) Suggest reasons for the trend shown in Table 6.1.

[2]
(ii) The cost of one IVF treatment is about US$ 5000. In some countries, in-vitro fertilisation is offered free of
charge to couples who have not conceived within two years of trying. With reference to Table 6.1, put forward
an argument against the public funding of in-vitro fertilisation to all couples who request it.
[2]
[Total: 8] (N07-P4-Q6)
Q11. (a) Outline the role of calcium ions in the transmission of nerve impulses.
[3]
(b) It has been suggested that during maturation of a sperm, the uptake of calcium ions is necessary to produce
the vigorous movements of the sperms flagellum that allow it to penetrate the zona pellucida of an oocyte.
Uptake of calcium ions can be measured by staining the sperm with a non-toxic fluorescent stain.
Fluorescence increases as the concentration of calcium ions inside the sperm increases.
Sperm from two types of mice were investigated:
wild-type mice, whose sperm have a particular protein, P. P is an ion channel found in the plasma (cell
surface) membrane.
mutant mice whose sperm did not have protein P.
The results of the investigation are shown in Fig. 4.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
11
A2 Biology
Section: U
With reference to Fig. 4.1, describe and explain the different mean percentage increases in fluorescence of
(i) sperm from wild-type and mutant mice,
[3]
(ii) sperm heads and flagella.
[3]
(c) The ability of sperm from wild-type and mutant mice to penetrate oocytes was tested using in-vitro
fertilisation (IVF) of oocytes with and without a zona pellucida. The results are shown in Fig. 4.2.
(i) Explain what is meant by in-vitro fertilisation.

[2]
(ii) With reference to Fig. 4.2, explain the differences in the ability of sperm from wildtype and mutant mice
to penetrate oocytes in IVF.
[4]
[Total: 15] (J08-P4-Q4)
Q12. (a) Complete Table 5.1 to show, for each of the two hormones, follicle stimulating hormone
(FSH) and progesterone,
the site of secretion
the target tissue(s)
the action of the hormone during the human menstrual cycle.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
12
A2 Biology
Section: U
(b) Explain the biological basis of the oestrogen/progesterone contraceptive pill.
[3]
[Total: 9] (N08-P4-Q5)
Q13. (a) The steroid hormones oestrogen and progesterone are secreted by the ovary. State precisely the sites
of secretion of each.
[2]
(b) The most effective oral contraceptives for general use are the so-called combined oral contraceptives
(COCs), which contain both oestrogen and progesterone. Explain how COCs produce their effects.
[4]
(c) Describe two social implications of the use of contraceptives.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J09-P4-Q2)
Q14. (a) Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands. Explain what is meant by the term endocrine gland. [2]
(b) Fig. 5.1 shows the changes in concentration in the blood of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and
luteinising hormone (LH) during the first half of the menstrual cycle.
With reference to Fig. 5.1, describe,

(i) the changes that take place in the ovary during this time, as a result of the action of FSH
[2]
(ii) the role of LH.
[1]
(c) In preparation for in-vitro fertilisation (IVF), women are injected with FSH. Explain why treatment with
FSH is a necessary preparation for IVF.
[2]
(d) The standard treatment with FSH and clomiphene (clomifene) causes significant side-effects. Clomiphene
occupies oestrogen receptors, blocking a negative feedback mechanism.
(i) Explain briefly what is meant by negative feedback.
[1]
(ii) Outline the feedback mechanism that is blocked by clomiphene.
[1]
(e) Recently a so-called mild treatment has been introduced in the hope of avoiding the side-effects of the
standard treatment. This treatment does not use clomiphene. Instead, an antagonist to LH secretion is used.
The days in the first half of the menstrual cycle on which injections of FSH and clomiphene are given in the
two treatments are shown by asterisks (*) in Fig. 5.2.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
13
A2 Biology
Section: U
(i) With reference to the concentrations of LH shown in Fig. 5.1, show, using an asterisk on Fig. 5.2 when the
antagonist to LH secretion should first be given. Put your asterisk into the grey area on Fig. 5.2.
[1]
(ii) Suggest why an antagonist to LH secretion forms part of the mild treatment.
[1]
(f) The average dose of FSH given in the mild treatment is 1300 international units (IU), compared with an
average dose of 1800 IU in the standard treatment. This could lead to the mild treatment being less effective.
The outcomes of an investigation into the two treatments are shown in Table 5.1.
With reference to Table 5.1, compare the effectiveness of the two treatments.
[3]
(g) FSH consists of two polypeptide chains which are encoded by genes on different chromosomes. The two
genes, together with their promoters, have been inserted into bacteria to produce the hormone used in fertility
treatments. Explain briefly why promoters need to be transferred into the recipient bacteria together with the
two genes for the FSH polypeptides.
[2]
[Total: 16] (N09-P41-Q5)
Q15. (a) Fig. 5.1 shows a section through part of a human testis.
Name structures A and B.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[2]
14
A2 Biology
Section: U
(b) Spermatogenesis, the production of sperm, begins in the testes of a boy around the age of 11 and can
continue for the rest of his life. Fig. 5.2 outlines the sequence of events that occur during spermatogenesis.

(i) state which cell division is mitotic,
[1]
(ii) state which cells are haploid,
[2]
(iii) state what is happening to the cell during stage C.
[1]
(c) The middle piece of a spermatozoan contains many mitochondria. Suggest why a spermatozoan needs so
many mitochondria.
[2]
(d) Some couples have difficulty in conceiving. This could be due to a problem with either the male or female
reproductive systems.
(i) Suggest reasons why a man may be infertile.
[3]
(ii) In vitro fertilisation (IVF) is a widely used treatment for infertility. Explain what is meant by the term in
vitro fertilisation.
[2]
(iii) At one IVF clinic, over 1000 treatment cycles were monitored. The number of live births was recorded as
a percentage of the number of treatment cycles for each age group. The results are shown in Table 5.1.
The data in Table 5.1 show that there is a decrease in the percentage of live births per treatment cycle with
increasing age. Explain this trend.
[3]
[Total: 16] (N09-P42-Q5)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
15
A2 Biology
Section: U
Q16. Fig. 3.1 shows the structure of part of a seminiferous tubule of a human testis.
(a) Name cells E to H.

(b) Describe how cell F is produced from cell E in the process of spermatogenesis.
[4]
[4]
[Total: 8] (J10-P41-Q3)
Q17. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) both consist of two polypeptide
chains, the and chains.
The chains of FSH and LH are identical.
The chain of FSH has 111 amino acids and that of LH 121 amino acids.
FSH and LH bind to different receptors in the cell surface membranes of their target cells.
This binding leads to steroid synthesis by the target cells.
(a) Explain why FSH does not bind to a LH receptor.
[3]
(b) Name the cells of a human female that carry
(i) FSH receptors
[1]
(ii) LH receptors.
[1]
(c) Describe what happens when FSH binds to its receptors on its target cells.
[3]
[Total: 8] (J10-P42-Q2)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
16
A2 Biology
Section: U
Q18. A recent development in fertility treatment is called in-vitro maturation (IVM). This is both cheaper and
safer than the standard procedure used in in-vitro fertilisation (IVF), especially for women with polycystic
ovaries. Hormone treatment can be dangerous for women with this condition, in which a number of ovarian
follicles mature at the same time. IVF and IVM are compared in Fig. 3.1.
(a) With reference to Fig. 3.1, explain why women are treated with hormones for two weeks after being given
drugs to suppress ovulation at the beginning of IVF treatment.
[2]
(b) State the roles of mitosis and meiosis in producing an immature secondary oocyte.
[3]
(c) Suggest one advantage and one possible disadvantage of fertilising an oocyte by injecting a sperm into its
cytoplasm instead of mixing the oocyte with a sample of sperm.
[2]
[Total: 7] (N10-P41/2-Q3)
Q19. (a) Describe the maturation of a spermatid into a spermatozoon (sperm).
[4]
(b) A method of sorting damaged from undamaged sperm has undergone trials at an in vitro fertilisation (IVF)
clinic in Australia. It is hoped to use the procedure when attempting IVF with sperm from men with fertility
problems. The sorting process is shown in Fig. 2.1.
Sperm left in the upper chamber have, on average, twice as much damage to their DNA as those that move
into the lower chamber. In the body, sperm which mature normally move slowly through the epididymis,
gradually accumulating molecules of a negatively charged protein in their cell surface membranes.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
17
A2 Biology
Section: U
Other sperm move more quickly through the epididymis. With reference to the information given, including
that in Fig. 2.1, explain why only some of the sperm move into the lower chamber.
[3]
[Total: 7] (N10-P43-Q2)
Q20. (a) Outline the technique of in-vitro fertilisation (IVF).
[4]
(b) For IVF to be successful, a sperm must have an undamaged plasma (cell surface) membrane, an intact
acrosome (a sperms large lysosome) and be capable of producing ATP for movement. One method of
assessing the quality of a sample of sperm is to mix it with three chemical probes that bind to specific
components of the sperm. The probes fluoresce when the sperm are examined with a microscope using ultraviolet (UV) light, allowing their uptake to be determined.
The three probes fluoresce with different colours.
Probe 1 combines with DNA and fluoresces red, but can enter a sperm only when its plasma membrane is
damaged.
Probe 2 combines with sugars in the acrosome and fluoresces yellow, but can enter the acrosome only when
the acrosome membrane is damaged.
Probe 3 combines with mitochondria and fluoresces bright green in sperm with active mitochondria and less
brightly when the mitochondria are less active.
A sample of sperm was mixed with all three probes and examined using UV light. Complete Table 3.1 by
placing ticks () in the appropriate boxes to describe the appearance of sperm that would be suitable for use in
IVF.
(c) The technique of intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) involves injecting a single, chosen sperm into an
oocyte. This technique is often used when standard IVF has failed. Researchers in Hawaii think that the
acrosome of the sperm should be removed before the sperm is injected into the oocyte. Suggest one reason
why it might improve the success rate of ICSI to remove the acrosome before injecting a sperm into an
oocyte.
[1]
[Total: 8] (J11-P41-Q3)
Q21. (a) Fig. 3.1 shows a drawing of a section through an ovarian follicle.
State the names of the parts labelled A-D in Fig. 3.1.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[4]
18
A2 Biology
Section: U
(b) Outline the biological basis of the effect of the oestrogen/progesterone contraceptive pill.
[4]
(c) The zona pellucida of an oocyte is made up of ZP proteins. ZP3, which does not occur anywhere else in
the body, has a complex tertiary structure and acts as a receptor for sperm during fertilisation.
A new method of contraception, which does not involve the use of hormones, is in the early stages of
development. It involves blocking the expression of the gene coding for ZP3.
(i) Explain how blocking the expression of the gene coding for ZP3 acts as a contraceptive.
[3]
(ii) Explain why it is desirable to devise a method of contraception that does not involve oestrogen and
progesterone.
[2]
(iii) Explain why it is important, when blocking the expression of the gene coding for ZP3, that ZP3 is only
found in the zona pellucida.
[2]
[Total: 15] (J11-P42-Q3)
Q22. (a) Outline the differences in the process of gametogenesis in a man compared with that in a woman.[3]
(b) The hormone testosterone is secreted by Leydig cells in the testis. These cells form an endocrine gland.
Explain what is meant by an endocrine gland.
[2]
(c) In 2009, a research laboratory for family planning in Beijing announced that it had injected 1000 healthy,
fertile men with testosterone over a two-year period and found that only 10 of the men were then able to father
a child. The mens normal fertility was restored six months after their last injections.
The injections, each of 500 mg of testosterone, resulted in a reduced production of follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH) and of luteinising hormone (LH) in the injected men. Describe the similarities between the
effect of these testosterone injections on a fertile man with the effect of the oestrogen/progesterone
contraceptive pill on production of FSH and LH by a fertile woman.
[3]
[Total: 8] (N11-P41/2-Q3)
Q23. (a) Spermatogenesis, the production of male gametes, occurs in the testes of a human male from the age
of puberty. Fig. 3.1 outlines the sequence of events that occur during oogenesis.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
19
A2 Biology
Section: U
With reference to Fig. 3.1, state what is happening to cells during:

(i) process B
[1]
(ii) process D
[1]
(iii) process F.
[1]
(b) Female gametes develop inside follicles. Fig. 3.2 shows a section through a mature (Graafian) follicle in a
human ovary.
Table 3.1 below lists a number of statements about the mature follicle. Each statement refers to one of the
letters G, H, J and K shown in Fig. 3.2. Complete the table using the letters G, H, J and K.
(c) A man and a woman may be described as infertile if they have failed to conceive a child after 12 months of
trying. They may opt for in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) if the woman is producing some normal eggs. Outline the
technique of IVF.
[5]
(d) Not all pregnancies due to IVF treatment result in live births. In the USA in 2008 the figures were:
85% of these pregnancies result in live births for women under 35 years old
66% of these pregnancies result in live births for women between 3840 years old.
Suggest reasons for the difference in percentage for the two groups of women.
[2]
[Total: 14] (N11-P43-Q3)
Q24. (a) In girls, the first menstrual cycle occurs at the onset of puberty. Outline the role of progesterone in
the human menstrual cycle.
[3]
(b) An investigation was carried out into the effect of the diet of pregnant female rats on the mean age of onset
of puberty in their female offspring. Pregnant female rats were fed either a high fat diet or a normal diet. Their
offspring were also fed either a high fat diet or a normal diet. The percentage of offspring that had reached
puberty was measured at intervals until the offspring were 39 days old.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
20
A2 Biology
Section: U
(i) State the age at which 50% of offspring reached puberty when both the mother and her offspring ate a
normal diet.
[1]
(ii) During the 20th century, the average age of onset of puberty in European girls decreased from about 17
years to about 12 years of age. It has been suggested that a change to a richer diet is largely responsible for
this decrease. With reference to the data in Fig. 5.1, discuss the evidence that changes in diet may be
responsible for this decrease in the age of onset of puberty in European girls.
[4]
[Total: 8] (J12-41-Q5)
Q25. (a) Outline the biological basis of the effect of the contraceptive pill.
[2]
(b) In Uganda, many children are infected with HIV from their mothers. This is called vertical HIV
transmission. Uganda has used two ways of trying to reduce vertical HIV transmission. These methods are
to increase the use of antiretroviral drugs (ARVs) by HIV-infected pregnant women
to reduce, through contraception, the numbers of unwanted pregnancies.
Table 5.1 shows the percentage reductions in the number of children born with HIV infections and the number
of pregnancies in HIV-infected women, that were brought about as a result of the use of ARVs and
contraception in 2007. Table 5.1 also shows the predicted reductions in 2012 if usage of ARVs and
contraception increase as expected.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
21
A2 Biology
Section: U
(i) It is estimated that if no ARVs had been used in 2007, 27 000 children would have been born with HIV
infection. Calculate the actual number of children born with HIV infection in 2007. Show your working. [2]
(ii) With reference to Table 5.1, explain the difference between the effects of ARVs and contraception on the
numbers of pregnancies in HIV-infected women.
[2]
(iii) There is only a limited amount of money to spend on HIV prevention in Uganda.
With reference to Table 5.1, suggest arguments for spending at least as much money on increasing access to
contraception as on providing ARVs to HIV-infected pregnant women.
[3]
[Total: 9] (J12-P42-Q5)
Q26. (a) Fig. 4.1 shows the stages in spermatogenesis in a mammal.
(i) State the letter(s) of the arrow or arrows that represent mitosis.
(ii) Name the cells W, X and Y.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[1]
[3]
22
A2 Biology
Section: U
(b) Fig. 4.2 is a light micrograph of a transverse section through a seminiferous tubule in a mammalian testis.
On the sector indicated on Fig. 4.2, use label lines and letters to label:
G a cell in the germinal epithelium
M a maturing sperm cell
Y an area where spermatids are found.
[3]
(c) In all animals so far studied, the production of fully functional sperm is sensitive to temperature.
In the nematode worm, Caenorhabditis elegans, spermatogenesis takes place in a similar way to mammals.
Two proteins known as argonaute proteins are important in the development of sperm. They are coded for by
the genes alg-3 and alg-4. Table 4.1 shows the effect of mutations in one or both of these genes on the fertility
of male worms, at temperatures of 20 C and 25 C. Fertility was measured as the mean number of offspring
produced when the male worms mated with normal females.
(i) Describe the effect of increased temperature on the fertility of normal male worms.
[2]
(ii) Compare the effect of increased temperature on the fertility of alg-3 mutant male worms with the effect on
fertility of alg-4 mutant male worms.
[2]
(iii) An investigation showed that at 20 C the number of spermatids produced in worms with both mutations,
in alg-3 and alg-4, was the same as in normal worms. However, at 25 C, these mutant worms produced 29%
fewer spermatids than the normal worms. Microscopic examination of their testes showed that many of the
secondary spermatocytes had failed to complete meiosis. Use this information to state the letter of one arrow
Waleed Ahmad Khan
23
A2 Biology
Section: U
on Fig. 4.1 that represents a stage of spermatogenesis affected by mutations in both the alg-3 and alg-4 genes.
[1]
(iv) Table 4.2 shows the effect of temperature on the percentage of spermatids that developed full motility at
20 C and 25 C in normal worms and in worms with mutations in both alg-3 and alg-4.
With reference to Table 4.2, and the information in (iii), state the cause or causes of reduced fertility in these
mutant worms at each temperature.
at 20 C
at 25 C
[2]
[Total: 14] (N12-P41/2-Q4)
Q27. Many couples who are not able to have children naturally are treated using in-vitro fertilisation (IVF).
(a) Describe how and where fertilisation occurs during IVF.
[2]
(b) The embryos resulting from IVF are transferred into the mothers uterus. This is sometimes done after 3
days, and sometimes after 5 days. Suggest one advantage and one disadvantage of transferring the embryos
after 5 days rather than 3 days.
[2]
(c) Many IVF clinics usually transfer two or more embryos to the mothers uterus, to increase the chances of a
successful pregnancy occurring. However, this increases the risk of more than one embryo developing in the
uterus, which in turn increases the risk of problems with the pregnancy or birth. A study was carried out to
compare the success rates of transferring:
a single embryo that had been carefully chosen as being of top quality
a non-selected single embryo
two or more embryos.
Fig. 5.1 shows the results of this study.
(i) With reference to Fig. 5.1, explain why transferring a single top-quality embryo is now considered to be the
best method to maximise the chance of a successful pregnancy.
[3]
Waleed Ahmad Khan
24
A2 Biology
Section: U
(ii) State one ethical implication of transferring single top-quality embryos in IVF.
[1]
[Total: 8] (N12-P43-Q5)
Q28. (a) As part of the technique of In-vitro fertilisation (IVF), several oocytes are collected from a woman
who is undergoing treatment. Each oocyte is checked under a microscope. Explain why oocytes that have a
first polar body are used in the fertilisation process.
[2]
(b) It is possible to freeze embryos that are produced by IVF, using a solution containing sucrose and various
salts. The embryos can later be thawed and implanted.
A trial was carried out to compare the success rates of freezing oocytes in
solution A, the same solution as is used for freezing embryos
solution B, a different solution containing different concentrations of sucrose and salts.
Oocytes were placed into either solution A or solution B. They were then frozen and stored at a temperature of
33 C. Later, the oocytes were thawed and then fertilised, using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).
(i) When the oocytes were placed into solution A or solution B, they quickly reduced in size. Explain why this
happened.
[2]
(ii) Table 5.1 shows the results of the trial.
With reference to Table 5.1, explain which solution is the better solution to use.
[2]
(iii) Suggest one advantage of being able to freeze and thaw oocytes as part of the IVF procedure.
[1]
[Total: 7] (J13-P41-Q5)
Q29. Fig. 5.1 shows some of the steps involved in in-vitro fertilisation (IVF).
Waleed Ahmad Khan
25
A2 Biology
Section: U
(a) Explain how egg production is stimulated at step 1.

[2]
(b) Following step 3 in Fig. 5.1, the sperm sample is placed in a solution containing various nutrients and
other substances, for up to one hour, before being added to the eggs. Explain why this is done.
[2]
(c) In 2010, researchers found that they could predict with 93% certainty which embryos produced by in-vitro
fertilisation would develop into healthy babies when implanted into the uterus.
Their technique involved the use of time-lapse microscopy. The successful embryos met three criteria:
the first cytokinesis lasted between 0 and 33 minutes
the time interval between the first and second cell division was between 7.8 and 14.3 hours
the time interval between the second and third cell division was between 0 and 5.8 hours.
(i) Suggest one advantage of the use of this new technique in the IVF procedure.
[2]
(ii) Suggest one disadvantage of the use of this technique.
[2]
[Total: 8] (J13-P42-Q5)
Q30. (a) Blood samples were taken from a 29 year old woman each day for a period of 43 days.
The concentrations of oestrogen, progesterone and luteinising hormone (LH) in each sample were measured.
(i) Estimate the length of the womans menstrual cycle. Show how you worked out your answer.
[2]
(ii) The luteal phase is the part of the cycle when a corpus luteum is present in the ovaries. It begins
immediately after ovulation, and ends when menstruation starts. Use Fig. 4.1 to suggest when the luteal phase
began and ended.
[2]
(iii) Name the organ that secretes LH.
[1]
(iv) Describe the roles of LH in the menstrual cycle.
[3]
(b) An investigation was carried out to determine whether the ability of a woman to perform a task involving
spatial ability varied at different times of her menstrual cycle. The investigation involved 12 women. They
each performed 24 similar spatial tasks on day 2 and day 22 of their menstrual cycle, for six successive cycles.
The tasks involved mentally rotating 3-D shapes.
The researchers used two methods to determine the phase of the menstrual cycle.
Each woman was asked when her previous menstrual period had begun.
After each test, a blood sample was taken and the concentrations of oestrogen, progesterone and LH were
measured.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
26
A2 Biology
Section: U
(i) Suggest why the researchers used two methods to determine the phase of the menstrual cycle.
[2]
(ii) The mean score for women taking the tests on day 2 of their cycle was 10.50 out of 24. The mean score for
women taking the tests on day 22 of their cycle was 7.38 out of 24. Discuss whether or not these results
support the hypothesis that the concentration of oestrogen in the blood affects the ability to perform spatial
tasks.
[4]
[Total: 14] (N13-P41/2-Q4)
Q31. Many women use knowledge of their menstrual cycle as a family planning method, avoiding sexual
intercourse during the part of the cycle when it is possible for fertilisation to occur. This part of the cycle is
known as the fertile window. In women with regular, 28-day menstrual cycles, ovulation is likely to take place
on day 14. Most guidelines state that the fertile window lasts from day 10 to day 17 of the menstrual cycle.
(a) Explain why the fertile window begins several days before ovulation takes place.
[2]
(b) Fig. 4.1 shows how basal body temperature, and the concentration of luteinizing hormone, LH, varied
during one menstrual cycle of a woman. Basal body temperature is the temperature of the body just after
waking in the morning.
(i) On Fig. 4.1, sketch a curve to show the changes in the concentration of progesterone in the blood during
this menstrual cycle.
[2]
(ii) The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle begins when menstruation starts, and ends when ovulation
takes place. With reference to Fig. 4.1, suggest when the follicular phase began and ended during this
menstrual cycle.
[1]
(c) Three methods that a woman can use for determining her fertile window are:
method 1 using the date at which each menstruation begins to predict when ovulation will occur
method 2 using disposable urine dip sticks to measure the amount of LH breakdown products in urine (the
more LH in the blood, the more breakdown products are present in urine)
method 3 wearing an electronic device in the armpit that continuously measures body temperature.
(i) Suggest why using method 1 alone is not likely to be a very reliable method of avoiding conception. [2]
(ii) Explain how method 2 could be used to avoid conception.
[2]
(iii) Suggest why method 3 is likely to be a better predictor of ovulation than measuring basal temperature
with a thermometer each day.
[2]
(d) A study was carried out into the timing of the fertile window. The study involved 221 women who were
trying to get pregnant. Urine samples from each woman were tested for LH breakdown products every day for
several months. The women recorded the days on which they had sexual intercourse, and also the days on
which menstruation began. 136 of the women became pregnant during the study. The results were used to
calculate the probability of a woman being in the fertile window on each day of her cycle. The results for
women with regular 28-day cycles are shown in Fig. 4.2.
Waleed Ahmad Khan
27
A2 Biology
Section: U
Discuss what these results suggest about the guidelines that the fertile window lasts from day 10 to day 17 of
the menstrual cycle.
[4]
[Total: 15] (N13-P43-Q4)
Waleed Ahmad Khan
28
A2 Biology
Human Reproduction
Practice Question
Q1. (a) Fig. 4.1 is a diagram showing the blood supply of part of the placenta. The arrows show the
direction of blood flow.
Name A to D.
A .........................................................................
C .........................................................................
B .........................................................................
D ..................................................................... [2]
(b) (i) State three mechanisms involved in the transfer of named substances between mother and fetus.
1. ....................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
2. ....................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
3. ....................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................... [3]
(ii) State how the structure of the placenta is adapted for such transfer.
....................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................... [2]
[Total: 7]
June 2005; Paper 6; Option 3; Question 4
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Human Reproduction
Practice Question
Q2. (a) Fig. 1.1 is a diagram of a longitudinal section of a human spermatozoan (sperm).

(i) name the structures labelled A to D;
(ii) describe briefly the roles of structures A and B in fertilisation.
[2]
[2]
(b) The ability of sperm to penetrate oocytes whose zona pellucida had been removed was investigated.
Freshly ejaculated sperm were compared with sperm that had been frozen, stored and then thawed.
The percentage of oocytes penetrated by sperm at different times after ejaculation or thawing is shown
in Fig. 1.2.

(i) compare the ability of the two types of sperm to penetrate oocytes;
Waleed Ahmad Khan
[2]
Phone. 0347 4443879
A2 Biology
Human Reproduction
Practice Question
(ii) explain the differences in behaviour of the fresh (not frozen) sperm at different times after
ejaculation;
(iii) suggest an explanation for the behaviour of the frozen sperm immediately after thawing.
[3]
[2]
(c) A sudden increase in the concentration of calcium ions in a fertilised oocyte is important to activate
further development.
In an investigation into a possible trigger mechanism for this activation, the concentrations of three
chemicals were measured:
the concentration of the enzyme nitric oxide synthase in sperm that had and had not been in contact
with the zona pellucida of an oocyte;
the concentration of nitric oxide (nitrogen monoxide) in oocytes that had and had not been fertilised;
the concentration of calcium ions in fertilised oocytes injected with oxyhaemoglobin to absorb nitric
oxide and those not injected with oxyhaemoglobin.
The results of the investigation are summarised in Table 1.1. In the table, a indicates that the
concentrations of the chemicals increased and an X that they did not.
With reference to Table 1.1, outline a possible sequence of events for the activation of fertilised
oocytes.
[4]
[Total: 15]
June 2003; Paper 6; Option 3; Question 1
Waleed Ahmad Khan
Phone. 0347 4443879

Biology A2 Classified

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A2 Biology Resource Pack

[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

1. ATP is described as the energy currency in all living organisms.

4. a. Describe the process of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria.

5. a. Describe the process of glycolysis.

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

State precisely where these two processes occur in a cell.

Indicate clearly on the diagram where:

(ii) Krebs cycle occurs.

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

8. Fig. 1.1 shows the molecular structure of ATP.

Describe the main structural features of the molecule.

State where in the cell glycolysis takes place.

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

Describe and explain the results shown in Fig. 1.2.

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

(a) (i) Explain what is meant by the following terms:

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

13. Fig. 2.1 is an electron micrograph of a mitochondrion.

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

Waleed Ahmad Khan

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A2 Biology Resource Pack

[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

(a) State precisely where the Krebs cycle occurs in cells.

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

17. Fig. 6.1 shows the structure of ATP.

(i) Name the nitrogenous base labelled B.

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

20. (a) Define the term respiratory quotient (RQ).

Two respirometers were set up as shown in Fig. 2.1.

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[SECTION: L ENERGY AND RESPIRATION]

21. Aerobic respiration consists of three main processes.

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