Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

1. Which best describe the sound wave?

6. Calculate a half wavelength sound for

a. It may be longitudinal

sound of 16000 Hz

b. It is always transverse

a. 35 ft

c. It is always longitudinal

b. 10 ft

d. All of the above

c. 0.035 ft
d. 100 ft

2. Which of the following cannot travel

through a vacuum?

7. The lowest frequency that a human ear

a. Electromagnetic wave

can hear is

b. Radio wave

a. 5 Hz

c. Soundwave

b. 20 Hz

d. Light wave

c. 30 Hz
d. 20 Hz

3. Through which medium does sound

travel fastest?

8. Sound that vibrates at frequency too

a. Air

high for the human ear to hear (over

b. Water

20 kHz)

c. Steel

a. Subsonic

d. Mercury

b. Ultrasonic
c. Transonic

4. Speed that is faster than that of sound.

d. Stereo

a. Ultrasonic
b. Supersonic

9. The frequency interval between two

c. Subsonic

sounds whose frequency ratio is 10

d. Transonic

a. Octave
b. Half octave

5. What is the speed of sound in air at

c. Third-octave

20C?

d. Decade

a. 1087 ft/s
b. 1100 ft/s
c. 1126 ft/s
d. 200 ft/s

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

10. A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves

14. The amplitude of sound waves, the

higher than a 500 Hz sound

maximum displacement of each air

a. 2

particle, is the property which perceive

b. 5

as _____ of a sound

c. 4

a. Pitch

d. 8

b. Intensity
c. Loudness

11. Sound waves composed of but one

d. Harmonics

frequency is a/an

a. Infra sound

15. It is the weakest sound that average

b. Pure tone

human hearing can detect.

c. Structure borne

a. SPL = 0 dB

d. Residual sound

b. Threshold of hearing
c. Reference pressure = 2 x 10-

12. Sound wave has two main

5N/m2

characteristics which are

d. A, b, c

a. Highness and loudness

b. Tone and loudness

16. What is a device that is used to

c. Pitch and loudness

measure the hearing sensitivity of a

d. Rarefactions and compressions

person?

a. Audiometer
13. When waves bend away from straight

b. OTDR

lines of travel, it is called

c. SLM

a. Reflection

d. Spectrum analyzer

b. Diffraction
c. Rarefaction

17. What is the device used in measuring

d. Refraction

sound pressure levels incorporating a

microphone, amplification, filtering and
a display.

a. Audiometer
b. OTDR
c. SLM
d. Spectrum analyzer

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

18. What weighted scale in a sound level

22. A measure of the intensity of sound in

meter gives a reading that is most

comparison to another sound intensity

closely to the response of the human

a. Phon

ear?

b. Decibel

a. Weighted scale A

c. Pascal

b. Weighted scale B

d. Watts

c. Weighted scale C
d. Weighted scale D

23. Calculate the sound intensity level in

dB of a sound whose intensity is 0.007

19. For aircraft noise measurements, the

W/m2.

weighting scale that is used is _____.

a. 95 dB

a. Weighted scale A

b. 91 dB

b. Weighted scale B

c. 98 dB

c. Weighted scale C

d. 101 dB

d. Weighted scale D
24. What is the sound pressure level for a
20. It is the device used to calibrate an

given sound whose RMS pressure is

SLM?

200/m2?

a. Microphone

a. 200 dB

b. Pistonphone

b. 20 dB

c. Telephone

c. 140 dB

d. Filter

d. 14 dB

21. _____ is the sound power measured

25. What is the sound intensity for an RMS

over the area upon which is received.

pressure of 200 Pascal?

a. Sound pressure

a. 90 W/m2

b. Sound energy

b. 98 W/m2

c. Sound intensity

c. 108 W/m2

d. Sound pressure level

d. 88 W/m2

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

26. The sound pressure level is increased

b. Sound concentration

by _____ dB if the pressure is doubled.

c. Sound shadow

a. 3

d. Reverberation

b. 4
c. 5

31. Required time for any sound to decay

d. 6

to 60 dB

a. Echo time
27. The sound pressure level is increased

b. Reverberation time

by _____ dB if the intensity is doubled.

c. Delay time

a. 3

d. Transient time

b. 4
c. 5

32. A room containing relatively little

d. 6

sound absorption

a. Dead room
28. If four identical sounds are added what

b. Anechoic room

is the increase in level in dB?

c. Live room

a. 3

d. Free-field

b. 4
c. 5

33. A room in which the walls offer

d. 6

essentially 100% absorption, therefore

simulating free field conditions.

29. The transmission of sound from one

a. Dead room

room to an adjacent room, via

b. Anechoic room

common walls, floors or ceilings.

c. Live room

a. Flanking transmission

d. Closed room

b. Reflection
c. Refraction

34. Calculate the reverberation time of the

d. Reverberation

room, which has a volume of 8700 ft3

and total sound absorption 140 sabins.

30. _____ is the continuing presence of an

a. 0.3 sec

audible sound after the sound source

b. 3.5 sec

has stop.

c. 3 sec

a. Flutter echo

d. 0.53 sec

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

39. _____ is a type of loudspeaker driver
35. It is an audio transducer that converts

with an effective diameter of 5 inches

acoustic pressure in air into its

used at midrange audio frequency.

equivalent electrical impulses

a. Tweeter

a. Loudspeaker

b. Woofer

b. Amplifier

c. Mid-range

c. Baffle

d. A or C

d. Microphone
40. _____ is measure of how much sound
36. _____ is a pressure type microphone

is produced from the electrical signal.

with permanent coil as a transducing

a. Sensitivity

element.

b. Distortion

a. Dynamic

c. Efficiency

b. Condenser

d. Frequency response

c. Magnetic
d. Carbon

41. It describes the output of a microphone

over a range of frequencies.

37. A microphone which has an internal

a. Directivity

impedance of 25 k is _____ type.

b. Sensitivity

a. High impedance

c. Frequency response

b. Low impedance

d. All of the above

c. Dynamic
d. Magnetic

42. A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic

power of 1 mW if the electrical input is

38. A microphone that uses the

10 W. What is its rated efficiency?

piezoelectric effect

a. -10 dB

a. Dynamic

b. -20 dB

b. Condenser

c. -30 dB

c. Crystal

d. -40 dB

d. Carbon

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

43. An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a

47. It is an enclosure used to prevent front

loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of

and back wave cancellation.

the loudspeaker is -60 dB. What is the

a. Loudspeaker

maximum intensity 300 ft from it?

b. Driver

a. 10 dB

c. Baffle

b. 20 dB

d. Frame

c. 30 dB
d. 40 dB

48. A circuit that divides the frequency

components into separate bands in

44. Speaker is a device that

order to have individual feeds to the

a. Converts sound waves into

different drivers.

current and voltage

a. Suspension system

b. Converts current variations into

b. Dividing network

sound waves

c. Magnet assembly

c. Converts electrical energy to

d. Panel board

mechanical energy

d. Converts electrical energy to

49. _____ is early reflection of sound.

electromagnetic energy

a. Echo
b. Pure sound

45. The impedance of most drivers is about

c. Reverberation

_____ ohms at their resonant

d. Intelligible sound

frequency.

a. 4

50. Noise reduction system used for film

b. 6

sound in movie.

c. 8

a. Dolby

d. 10

b. DBx
c. dBa

46. It is a transducer used to convert

d. dBk

electrical energy to mechanical energy.

a. Microphone
b. Baffle
c. Magnetic assemble
d. Driver

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

51. Using a microphone at less than the

55. What is the process of sending voice,

recommended working distance will

speech, music or image intended for

create a _____ which greatly increases

reception by the general public?

the low frequency signals.

a. Navigation

a. Roll-off

b. Telephony

b. Proximity effect

c. Broadcasting

c. Drop out

d. Mixing

d. None of the choices

56. What is the frequency tolerance for the
52. What is the unit of loudness?

RF carrier in the standard AM radio

a. Sone

broadcast band?

b. Phon

a. Zero

c. Decibel

b. 20 Hz

d. Mel

c. 10 Hz
d. 20 KHz

53. A unit of noisiness related to the

perceived noise level

57. The transmitting antenna for an AM

a. Noy

broadcast station should have a _____

b. dB

polarization.

c. Sone

a. Vertical

d. Phon

b. Horizontal
c. Circular

54. What is the loudness level of a 1kHz

tone if its intensity is

d. Elliptical

1 x 10-

5W/cm2?

58. The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM

a. 100 phons

to 6 AM local time

b. 105 phons

a. Daytime

c. 110 phons

b. Nighttime

d. 100 phons

c. Bed time
d. Experimental
period

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

59. The service area where the signal is

d. 88-108 MHz

not subject to fading and co-channel

interference.

63. The center to center spacing between

a. Primary Service Area

two adjacent stations in the Phil. AM

b. Secondary Service Area

BC band is ____.

c. Intermittent Service Area

a. 9 kHz

d. Quarternary Service Area

b. 200 kHz
c. 36 kHz

60. It is a resistive load used in place of an

d. 800 kHz

antenna to test a transmitter under

normal loaded condition without

64. How many AM stations can be

actually radiating the transmitters

accommodated in a 150-kHz

output signal.

bandwidth if the highest modulating

a. Auxiliary Tx

frequency is 10 kHz?

b. Main Tx

a. 10

c. Secondary Tx

b. 15

d. Artificial Antenna

c. 7
d. 14

61. The operating power of the auxiliary

transmitter shall not be less than

65. Short wave broadcasting operates in

_____% or never greater than the

what band?

authorized operating power of the main

a. MF

transmitter.

b. HF

a. 5

c. VHF

b. 10

d. VLF

c. 15
d. 20

66. What does the acronym STL stand for?

a. Station-to-link

62. What are the frequency limits of the

b. Signal-to-loss-ratio

MF BC band?

c. Shout-to-live

a. 300-3000 kHz

d. Studio-to-transmitter-

b. 3-30 MHz

link

c. 535-1605 kHz

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

67. One of the main considerations in the

71. What is the radio transmission of two

selection of antenna site is (AM)

separate signals, left, and right, used

a. Conductivity of the soil

to create a multidimensional effect on

b. Height of the terrain

the receiver?

c. Elevation of the site

a. SCA

d. Accessibility

b. Stereo system
c. Pilot transmission
d. Monophonic transmission

68. One of the broadcast transmission

auxiliary services is:

72. The carrier frequency tolerance for FM

a. Remote pick-up

broadcasting is _____.

b. STL

a. 25 kHz

c. Communication, Coordination

b. 2 kHz

and Control

c. 20 kHz

d. All of the

d. 30 kHz

above

73. What is the modulation used by the

69. What is the spacing between any two

stereophonic subcarrier?

adjacent channels in the FM broadcast

a. FM

band?

b. PM

a. 20 KHz

c. ISB

b. 36 KHz

d. DSB

c. 200 KHz
d. 800 KHz

74. What is the pilot signal for stereo FM?

a. 4.25 MHz

70. The first channel in the FM BC band

b. 10 kHz

has a center frequency of

c. 19 KHz

a. 88 MHz

d. 38 KHz

b. 88.1 MHz
c. 88.3 MHz
d. 108 MHz

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

75. With stereo FM transmission, does a

79. A monaural FM receiver receives only

monaural receiver produce all the

the _____ signal of a stereo multiplex

sounds that a stereo does?

transmission.

a. Yes

a. L + R

b. No

b. L R

c. Either a or b

c. Both a & b

d. Neither a or b

d. 67 KHz

76. Where is de-emphasis added in a

80. When fed to the stereo FM modulator,

stereo FM system?

in what form are the L R signals?

a. Before the matrix at the TX

a. AF

b. Before the matrix at the RX

b. DSBSC

c. After the matrix at the TX

c. 19 kHz

d. After the matrix at the

d. 38 kHz

RX

81. An additional channel of multiplex

77. Where is the pre-emphasis added in a

information that is authorized by the

stereo FM system?

FCC for stereo FM radio stations to

a. Before the matrix at the TX

feed services such as commercial-free

b. Before the matrix at the RX

programming to selected customers.

c. After the matrix at the TX

a. STL

d. After the matrix at the

b. EBS

RX

c. EIA
d. SCA

78. The normal frequency for an SCA

subcarrier is _____ KHz.

82. The class of FM station, which has an

a. 67

authorized radiated power not

b. 76

exceeding 125 KW:

c. 38

a. Class C

d. 19

b. Class A
c. Class D
d. Class B

10

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

83. An FM broadcast station, which has an

d. 15 kHz

authorized transmitter power not

modulation

exceeding 10 KW and ERP not

exceeding 30 KW:

a. Class D

87. How many commercial FM broadcast

b. Class C

channels can fit into the bandwidth

c. Class A

occupied by a commercial TV station?

d. Class B

a. 10
b. 20

84. A class of FM station which is limited in

c. 30

antenna height of 500 ft. above

d. 40

average terrain

a. Class D

88. How many international commercial

b. Class C

AM broadcast channels can fit into the

c. Class A

bandwidth occupied by a commercial

d. Class B

TV station?

a. 100
85. What type of broadcast service might

b. 200

have their antennas on top of hills?

c. 125

a. FM

d. 600

b. AM
c. TV

89. What kind of modulation is used for the

d. A & C

sound portion of a commercial

broadcast TV transmission?

86. How are guardbands allocated in

a. PM

commercial FM stations?

b. FM

a. 25 kHz on either sides of the

c. C3F

transmitting signal

d. AM

b. 50 kHz on each side of the

carrier

c. 75 kHz deviation

11

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

90. Estimate the bandwidth occupied by

b. 4.5 MHz

the sound portion of a TV transmission

c. 5.75 MHz

in US.

d. 0.25

a. 25 kHz

MHz

b. 800 kHz
c. 80 kHz

94. What is the separation between the

d. 200 kHz

lower limit of a channel and the aural

carrier?

91. What is the main reason why television

a. 1.25 MHz

picture signal uses amplitude

b. 4.5 MHz

modulation, while voice is frequency

c. 5.75 MHz

modulated?

d. 0.25

a. Better efficiency

MHz

b. Eliminate attenuation of both

video and audio

95. What is the visual carrier for channel

c. Maintain synchronized scanning

12?

between transmit and received

a. 205.25 MHz

video

b. 55.25 MHz

d. To minimize interference

c. 65.75 MHz

between signals at received

d. 59.75 MHz

end

96. What is the aural carrier for channel 3?

92. The picture and sound carrier

a. 61.25 MHz

frequencies in a TV receiver are _____

b. 55.25 MHz

respectively.

c. 65.75 MHz

a. 41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz

d. 59.75

b. 45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz

MHz

c. 41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz

97. What is color subcarrier for channel 2?

d. 45.75 MHz, 41.25

a. 68.83 MHz

MHz

b. 211.25 MHz

93. What is the separation between visual

c. 58.83 MHz

and aural carrier in TV broadcasting?

d. 214.83

a. 1.25 MHz

MHz

12

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

102.
98. If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23

What is eliminated by using

interlaced scanning?

is 529.75 MHz, what is the frequency

a. Noise

of the tuners local oscillator, when

b. Excessive BW

turned to this channel?

c. Frame

a. 571 MHz

d. Flicker

b. 511 MHz
c. 498 MHz

103.

d. 500

What percentage of the

primary colors used in color TV are

MHz

needed to produce the brightest white?

a. 30% red, 59% green, 11%

99. What is the frequency tolerance in the

blue

color carrier of TV broadcasting?

b. 33% red, 33% green, 33%

a. 2 kHz

blue

b. 20 Hz

c. 50% red, 28% green, 22%

c. 10 Hz

blue

d. 1 kHz

d. 58% red, 20% green, 22%

blue

100.

What is the exact picture

carrier frequency for frequency for

104.

channel 7 offset by 10 KHz?

The color with the most

luminance is

175.25 MHz

a. Red

175.26 MHz

b. Yellow

174 MHz

c. Green

175.24 MHz

d. Blue

101.

TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are

known as _____.

a. Mid band UHF

b. Low band UHF
c. High band VHF
d. low band UHF

13

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

105.

Suppose the signal from a color

television signal? a) red, b) violet, c)

camera has R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2,

yellow, and

d) blue

where 1 represents the maximum

a. A and B

signal possible. Determine the value at

b. B and C

the luminance signal

c. C and D

a. 0.498

d. A and D

b. 0.254
c. 0.1325

The studio camera produces a

110.

d. 1.4

luminance signal that contains

information about

106.

In the previous problem,

a. The musical content

calculate the chrominance signal

b. The speech content

a. 0.305

c. The brightness of the scene

b. 0.304

d. The color content of the scene

c. 0.498
d. 0.022

Brightness variations of the

111.

picture information are in which signal?

107.

The three complementary

a. I

colors are:

b. Q

a. White, yellow, cyan

c. Y

b. Black, white, gray

d. Z

c. Yellow, magenta, cyan

d. Violet, indigo, fushcia

Which of the following is the

112.

color video signal transmitted as

108.

When the colors Magenta and

amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz

Yellow are mixed the resultant color is:

C signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3

a. Red

MHz?

b. White

a. I signal

c. Blue

b. Q signal

d. Green

c. Y signal
d. X signal

109.

Which of the following consist

of two of the three primary colors in

14

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

113.

Which of the following is the

c. 3

color video signal transmitted as

d. 1/3

amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz

C signal in quadrature with bandwidth

117.

of 0 to 0.5 MHz?

What is the difference between

the sound carrier and color subcarrier

a. I signal

frequencies?

b. Q signal

a. 1.25 MHz

c. Y signal

b. 3.58 MHz

d. Z signal

c. 4.5 MHz
d. 0.92 MHz

114.

The _____ affects the

difference between black and white on

118.

the picture tube and controls the gain

What does aspect ratio mean?

a. Ratio of the screen width to its

of the video amplifier

height

a. Brightness control

b. Ratio of the screen height to its

b. Volume control

width

c. Power control

c. Ratio of the screen diagonal to

d. Contrast control

its width

d. Ratio of the screen diagonal to

115.

Which of the following is not a

its height

requirement for a color TV signal?

119.

a. compatibility with b lack and

What is the aspect ratio for

HDTV system?

white receivers

a. 4/3

b. Within 6 MHz bandwidth

b. 9/7

c. Simulate a wide variety of

c. 19/6

colors

d. 16/9

d. Functional with baron super

antenna

116.

120.

How many electron beams

The signal that will give the

exact color wavelength is _____.

actually leave the electron gun of a

a. Hue

single-gun color CRT?

b. Saturation

a. 1

c. Carrier

b. 2

d. Monochrome

15

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

What scheme is employed to

125.
Which of the following

121.

cause the electron beam in the TV

represents the intensity of a given

receiver and the electron beam in the

color?

studio camera to track identically?

122.

a. Hue

a. Interlacing

b. Saturation

b. NTSC

c. Carrier

c. Interleaving

d. Monochrome

d. Transmission of sync pulses

The _____ ensures that the

Equalizing pulses in TV are sent

126.

electron beam will strike the correct

during

phosphor dot on the TV screen.

a. Horizontal blanking

a. Coating

b. Vertical blanking

b. Aperture Mask

c. The serrations

c. Diplexer

d. Equalizing intervals

d. Duplexer
127.
123.

In a TV receiver, what is the

electron beam in a CRT from right to

horizontal signal frequency?

124.

What is the return of the

left or from bottom to top?

a. 30 Hz

a. Relay

b. 60 Hz

b. Flyback

c. 15750 Hz

c. Utilization

d. 157625 Hz

d. Resolution

In a TV receiver, what is the

128.

vertical signal frequency?

What is the North American TV

standard video?

a. 30 Hz

a. PAL

b. 60 Hz

b. SECAM

c. 15750 Hz

c. NTSC

d. 157625 Hz

d. FCC

16

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

129.

What is the maximum

133.

allowable frequency deviation in the

How many horizontal lines are

used to develop a TV raster?

audio section of a TV signal for

a. 615

PAL/SECAM?

b. 525

a. 25 kHz

c. 750

b. 50 kHz

d. 15750

c. 75 kHz
d. 100 kHz

134.

The channel width in the U.S.

TV system is :

130.

What is the frame frequency in

a. 2 MHz

the US TV system?

b. 6 MHz

a. 30 Hz

c. 7 MHz

b. 60 Hz

d. 8 MHz

c. 15750 Hz

135.

d. 157625 Hz

It is the popular TV camera

designed with much smaller package

and lower cost than its earlier designs

131.

What is the highest video

a. Image orthicon

frequency set by the FCC for

b. Iconoscope

commercial TV?

c. Vidicon

a. 4.2 MHz

d. Plumbicon

b. 15 MHz
c. 6 MHz

136.

d. 5.5 MHz

In a composite video signal,

what is the relationship between the

amplitude of the signal and the

132.

What determines the maximum

intensity of the electron beam in the

number of vertical picture elements?

receiver picture tube?

a. Number of frames per second

a. The greater the amplitude the

b. Number of lines on the screen

darker the picture

c. Number of pixels

b. The lower the amplitude the

d. Number of fields per second

darker the picture

c. The greater the amplitude the

lighter the picture

d. No effect

17

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

137.

If there are 625 lines per TV

141.

picture then the number of lines per

The camera tube that uses

selenium, arsenic and tellurium

field are:

a. Plumbicon

a. 1250

b. Vidicon

b. 312.5

c. Saticon

c. 625

d. Silicon Vidicon

d. 2500
138.

What is the process of placing

142.

the chrominance signal in the band

The components of composite

video signal are:

space between portions of the

a. Chroma signal

luminance signal?

b. Blanking pulse

a. Interlacing

c. Synchronizing pulse

b. Fitting

d. All of these

c. Sneaking

143.

d. Interleaving
139.

What is the smallest amount of

information that can be displayed on a

How much time elapses

television screen?

between the start of one horizontal

a. Blip

sync pulse and the next?

b. Burst

a. 10.2 s

c. Pixel

b. 63.5 s

d. Bits

c. 16.67 s

144.

d. 100 s
140.

It is the quality of the TV

picture after imperfections

Which of the following

a. Aspect ratio

frequencies is wrong?

b. Utilization ratio

a. 15,750 Hz for horizontal sync

c. A1

and scanning

d. Monochrome

b. 60 Hz for vertical sync and

145.

scanning

What section of a TV receiver

determines the bandwidth and

c. 31,500 Hz for the equalizing

produces the most signal gain?

pulses and serrations in the

a. RF amplifier

vertical sync pulse

b. Audio amplifier

d. 31,500 Hz for the vertical

c. IF amplifier

scanning frequency

d. Tuned circuit

18

Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]

19