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Table of Contents

Infographic-1 GST 2016
Infographic 2 -Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code- 2016
Infographic 3 - Uniform Civil Code
Infographic 4 - Brexit
Infographic 5 - Union Budget 2016
Infographic 6 - Railway Budget 2016
Analysis of CSAT Paper- 1 & 2 (2016)
Cutoff Marks- UPSC Civil Services Exam 2015
Bills And Acts 2016
Budget 2016-17
Diary Of National Events in 2016
Policies and Schemes 2016
Csat Paper-1 2016 Solved Paper
Csat Paper-2 2016 Solved Paper
Section A History of India
1. Ancient History
2. Medieval History
3. Modern History
4. Indian National Movement
Section B Geography
1. Physical Geography
2. World Political Geography
3. Geography of India
4. Agriculture
Section C Indian Polity & Governance
1. Constitution
2. Indian Government and Administration
3. Panchayati Raj & Public Policy
4. Judiciary & Legal Rights
Section D Economic & Social Development
1. Structure of the Indian Economy
2. Planning and Economic Development
3. Agriculture in the National Economy
4. Indian Industries
5. The Tertiary Sector in the Indian Economy
Section E General Science
1. Physics
2. Chemistry
3. Biology
4. Ecology, Biodiversity & Climate Change
Section F Mental Ability & Management Ability

1. Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical Reasoning

2. Arithmetic
3. Geometry & Mensuration
4. Permutation, Combination & Probability
5. Time and Distance
6. Data Interpretation
7. General Comprehension
8. English Language (Comprehension)
9. Interpersonal Skills, Communication & Decision Making
Section G General Knowledge
1. World Panorama
2. Indian Panorama
3. Sports & Games
Section H Current Affairs
1. International
2. National
3. Sports & Games
4. Science & Technology
Essay-List Topicwise(1993-2015)
GS -1 to 4 Main Exam (2013-2015)
Case Studies: 2013 Paper


Rajya Sabha passes Maternity Benefits
Lok Sabha passes Taxation Laws (Amendment)
(Amendment) Bill, 2016
Bill, 2016

Rajya Sabha has passed the amendment on August

Lok Sabha has passed the Taxation Laws (Amendment)
11, 2016 which aims to raise maternity leave for
Bill on August 10, 2016, that seeks to amend the Income
women from 12 to 26 weeks.
Tax Act, 1961, and Customs Tariff Act, 1975.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi gave his ex-post facto

Income Tax Act, 1961Demerger of public sector
consent for amendments to the Maternity Benefit Act,
companies: The Companies Act, 1956 allows
1961 by introducing the Maternity Benefit
companies to demerge (split) into multiple companies.
(Amendment) Bill 2016.
As a result of the demerger, the income, expenses, and

The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, protects the

profits of the parent company are transferred to the
employment of women during the time of maternity
resultant companies. The Income Tax Act, 1961 takes
and entitles them of a full paid absence from work to
into account these transfers from the parent company
take care for the child. The amendment bill seeks to
for taxation of resultant companies. The Bill clarifies
increase maternity leave to 26 weeks in all
that these provisions will apply in case a public sector
establishments, including private sector.
company demerges, and the resultant company is no
longer a public sector company.

The act is applicable to all establishments employing

10 or more persons. The bill also provides 12 weeks leave
Deduction in respect of employment of new employees:
The Income Tax Act, 1961 allows businesses to obtain
for commissioning and adopting mothers and makes
a deduction on taxable income to the extent of 30% of
it compulsory to provide crche facility for establishment
the cost of recruiting a new employee. The Act requires

where the number of workers is 50 and above.

that the employee should have been employed for a

There is already a provision of 26-week or 6-month

minimum of 240 days in the previous year. The Bill
maternity leave for the government employees, most
relaxes this limit to 150 days for businesses which
private sector firms offer maximum three months of
manufacture apparel.
such leave. The bill may also have an enabling
Customs Tariff Act, 1975Customs duty on marble
provisions to al ow working mothers to exercise workand granite blocks and slabs: Currently, the customs
from-home option.
duty on imports of granite and marble used for certain
purposes are charged at 10%. The Bill proposes to
Central Agricultural University (Amendment)
increase this to 40%.
Bill, 2016
Rajya Sabha passes The Constitution (122nd

Lok Sabha passed a bill on August 9, 2016 and Rajya

Amendment) (GST) Bill, 2014
Sabha on August 11, 2016 to include Nagaland under
the jurisdiction of Imphal Central Agriculture
Rajya Sabha gave its approval on August 3, 2016 and
University (CAU) to help the north-eastern state
Lok Sabha on August 8, 2016 for the crucial 122nd
achieve higher growth in animal husbandry sector.
Constitutional amendment to turn the bill into law.

The Central Agricultural University (Amendment)

The Lok Sabha had already passed the key provisions
Bill, 2016, was introduced by Minister of State for
of the bill on May 06, 2015.
Agriculture Sudarshan Bhagat.

The Bill amends the Constitution to introduce the

The Bill proposes to amend the Central Agricultural

goods and services tax (GST).
University Act, 1992.

Parliament and state legislatures will have concurrent

powers to make laws on GST. Only the Centre may

The Act provides for the establishment of a University

levy an integrated GST (IGST) on the interstate supply
in the north eastern region for the development of
of goods and services, and imports.
agriculture, and advancement of research in Alcohol for human consumption has
been exempted
agriculture and allied sciences. It states that the
from the purview of GST. GST will apply to five
University is responsible for teaching and research in
petroleum products at a later date.
the field of agriculture for the north eastern states.

The GST Council will recommend rates of tax, period

The Act defines the north eastern region as comprising

of levy of additional tax, principles of supply, special
the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya,
provisions to certain states, etc. The GST Council will
Mizoram, Sikkim and Tripura. The Bill amends this
consist of the Union Finance Minister, Union Minister
definition to include the state of Nagaland.
of State for Revenue, and state Finance Ministers.
Bills and Acts 2016

The Bill empowers the Centre to impose an additional

The bill is part of measures planned by the
tax of up to 1%, on the inter-state supply of goods for
Government to tackle the problem of black money.
two years or more. This tax will accrue to states from
A transaction is considered as benami (meaning
where the supply originates.
nameless) where a property is transferred to or is held

Parliament may, by law, provide compensation to

by a person and the consideration for such property
states for any loss of revenue from the introduction of
has been provided or paid by another person.
GST, up to a five year period.

People keeping benami properties to evade taxes will

Indias 29 states currently levy their own sales taxes,

get up to seven years rigorous imprisonment and fine,
dividing the Indian market. GST aims to provide a
as per a new law aimed at checking black money in
uniform tax structure across the country.
real estate sector.
Union Cabinet approves Motor Vehicle
Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Bill, 2016
(Amendment) Bill, 2016

The Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Bill, 2016

The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister

was introduced in Lok Sabha on July 19, 2016.
Narendra Modi has given its approval on August 03,
The Bill seeks to amend the Institutes of Technology
2016 for Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Bill 2016.
Act, 1961, which declares certain Institutes of

The fine for driving without license goes up ten times

Technology as institutions of national importance.
t 5,000 while penalty for drunken driving increases
The Bill also seeks to add six new Indian Institutes of
fivefold t 10,000.
Technology (IITs) in Tirupati, Palakkad, Goa, Dharwar,

The significant provisions include increase in

Bhilai, and Jammu.
compensation for Hit & Run cases from ` 25000 t 2
It seeks to bring the Indian School of Mines, Dhanbad
lakhs. It also has provision for payment of compensation
within the ambit of the Act. All these institutions will
up t 10 lakh in road accidents fatalities.
be declared as institutions of national importance.

For offences by juveniles, the guardian/owner shall

The Bill provides for the incorporation of IIT (Indian
be deemed to be responsible. They will have to pay a
School of Mines), Dhanbad. It states that until the
fine of ` 25,000 apart from three-year imprisonment.
statutes in relation to IIT (Indian School of Mines),
The juvenile will be tried under the Juvenile Justice
Dhanbad are made under the Act, the statutes
Act and registration of his or her motor vehicle will

applicable to IIT Roorkee will apply to it.

be cancelled.

In the area of road safety, bill proposes to raise penalties

to act as restraint against traffic violations. Stricter
Indian Medical Council (Amendment Bill), 2016
provisions are being proposed in respect of offences The Indian Medical Council
(Amendment) Bill, 2016
like juvenile driving, drunken driving, driving without
was introduced by Minister of Health and Family
license, dangerous driving, over-speeding, overloading,
Welfare, Mr. Jagat Prakash Nadda in Lok Sabha on
etc. Stricter provisions for helmets have been
July 19, 2016.
introduced along with provisions for electronic The Bill seeks to amend the Indian
Medical Council
detection of violations.
Act, 1956.

To bring agreement of the registration and licensing The Act provides for the
constitution of the Medical process, it is proposed to create National Register for
Council of India (MCI).
Driving Licence and National Register for Vehicle The MCI regulates: (i) standards
of medical education, registration through Vahan & Sarathi platforms.
(ii) permission to start colleges, courses or increase
This will assist uniformity of the process across the
the number of seats, (iv) registration of doctors, (v)
standards of professional conduct of medical
practitioners, among others.
Benami Transaction Bill 2016

The provisions of the bill will come into force from

May 24, 2016.

The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment

The Bill seeks to introduce a uniform entrance
Bill, 2016 was passed by the Rajya Sabha on Augut 2.
examination for all medical educational institutions.
It was already passed by Lok Sabha in the last week of
This would be applicable at the undergraduate and
July 2016.
the post-graduate level.

The bill has provision for confiscating benami (proxy)

The Bill has the provision in case a state has not opted
for the uniform entrance examination, then the

The bill seeks to establish adjudicating authorities and

examination will not be applicable at the
an appellate tribunal to deal with benami transactions
undergraduate level for the academic year 2016-17.
as also specify penalty for entering into benami
This provision will apply to state government seats
in government and private medical colleges.
Bills and Acts 2016
NIT, Science Education & Research (Amendment)
Key Provisions :
Bill, 2016

The bill enables the leader of the single largest

opposition party in the Lok Sabha in the absence of a

The National Institutes of Technology, Science

recognised Leader of Opposition to be a member of
Education and Research (Amendment) Bill, 2016 was
the selection committee that would select the
passed by the Parliament on August 2.

The bill was first passed in Lok Sabha in July 2016.

It amends section 44 of parent Act that deals with
Now the bill will go for presidential assent as per
provision of furnishing of details of assets and
Article 111 of Constitution.
liabilities of public servants within 30 days of joining

The Bill seeks to establish the National Institute of

the government service.
Technology (NIT), Andhra Pradesh as an institute of
The amendment has removed the period of 30 days.
national importance.
Now the public servants will make declaration of their

The NIT, Andhra Pradesh will be established under

assets and liabilities in the form and manner as

the National Institutes of Technology, Science
prescribed by government.
Education and Research (NITSER) Act, 2007.

It gives extension of the time given to public servants

The NIT will be deemed as an institute of national

and trustees and board members of Nonimportance status as on August 20, 2015, the day on
Governmental Organisations (NGOs) to declare their
which the Union government approved its
assets and those of their spouses.

In this case public servants and trustees and board

members of NGOs must be receiving government
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Bill, 2016
funds of more than ` 1 crore or foreign funding of more
than ` 10 lakh.

The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Bill, 2016 was

passed on July 29 by the Parliament after it was
Parliament passes Child Labour (Prohibition and
approved by the Rajya Sabha.
Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2016

The bill provides for establishment of funds under the

public accounts of the Centre and State levels for
Lok Sabha has passed the Child Labour (Prohibition
compensatory afforestation.
and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2016, despite

It establishes National Compensatory Afforestation

opposition by several MPs.
Fund (NCAF) under the Public Account of India, and a
The Bill, passed by the Rajya Sabha on July 19, 2016.
State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the
The Bill seeks to improve the Child Labour
Public Account of each state.
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, which

The payments into the funds include compensatory

prohibits the employment of children below 14 years

afforestation, net present value of forest (NPV), and

in 83 hazardous occupations and processes. The
any project specific payments.
amendment extends this ban on employment of

The NCAF will get 10% of funds collected and the

children under 14 across all sectors, prohibits the
remaining 90% will go to respective State Fund.
employment of adolescents aged 14-18 years in risky
occupations and introduces more severe jail term and

The collected funds will be utilised for afforestation,

fines for offenders: a jail term of six months to two
regeneration of forest ecosystem, wild life protection
years and a fine of ` 20,000 t 50,000.
and forest related infrastructure development.

The opposition by members was mainly to the fact

It establishes National and State Compensatory

that children under 14 years will be allowed to work
Afforestation Fund Management and Planning
in family businesses, outside of school hours and
Authorities to manage the funds.
during holidays, and in entertainment and sports.

The determination of NPV will be delegated to an

MPs objected to the definition of family which includes
expert committee constituted by the central
not only parents and siblings but also the siblings of
either parent.

The Bill brings down the list of hazardous

Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Bill, 2016
occupations from the earlier 83 to just three: mining,
inflammable substances, and hazardous processes

The Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Bill, 2016

under the Factories Act. Read together, with the
was passed by the Lok Sabha on July 27, 2016.
family enterprises clause, critics say, children can be
made to work in carpet, zari and bidi units, mica or

The bill seeks to amend the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act,

diamond cutting, scavenging, brick kilns,
2013 which provides Lokpal (at Centre) and Lokayukta
slaughterhouses, handling e-waste or as domestic
(at States) statutory backing to inquire into allegations
help. Several MPs objected to the clause that also gives
of corruption against certain public functionaries and
the Centre the right to add to the list of non-hazardous
for related matters.
Bills and Acts 2016
Lok Sabha passes Bill for new NIT in Andhra

They also lack of access to education and employment

opportunities, ending up into organised groups, forced
begging or demanding money.

The National Institute of Technology, Science,

Education and Research (Amendment) (NITSER) Bill,
Parliament passes Insolvency and Bankruptcy
2016 was passed by the Lok Sabha on July 22. The bill
seeks to establish a National Institute of Technology
Code Bill, 2016
(NIT) in Andhra Pradesh as an institute of national
Rajya Sabha passed the major economic reform Bill
importance under the NITSER Act, 2007 with effect
moved by the Government i.e. Insolvency and
from August 2015.
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 on 11th May 2016.
Key Facts:

The Lok Sabha had earlier passed the Bill on 5th May,

The NIT in Andhra Pradesh has been established in

line with the provisions of Andhra Pradesh
The objective of the new law is to promote
Reorganisation Act, 2014.
entrepreneurship, availability of credit, and balance

The Reorganisation Act, 2014 provides for a NIT for

the interests of all stakeholders by consolidating and

the state after its bifurcation as the existing NIT went

amending the laws relating to reorganization and
to Telangana.
insolvency resolution of corporate persons,

Union Government has allocated 40 crore rupees in

partnership firms and individuals in a time bound
the current financial year for the establishment of the
manner and for maximization of value of assets of such
new NIT.
persons and matters connected therewith or

Besides an outlay of 226 crore rupees has been made

incidental thereto.
for the institute over the next three years.

The essential idea of the new law is that when a firm

defaults on its debt, control shifts from the
shareholders/promoters to a Committee of Creditors,
Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill,
who have 180 days in which to evaluate proposals
from various players about resuscitating the company
or taking it into liquidation.

The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill,

2016 was approved by the Union Cabinet on July 21
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is a
to protect transgenders from discrimination. Through
comprehensive and systemic reform, which will give
this Bill the Union Government has evolved a holistic
a quantum leap to the functioning of the credit market.
mechanism for the social, economic and educational
empowerment of marginalized transgenders
Anti-Hijacking Bill, 2016
Key Facts:
The Anti-Hijacking Bill, 2016 Parliament was passed by

The Bill will benefit a large number of transgender the Lok Sabha on May 10 to
widen ambit of law dealing persons, mitigate the stigma, discrimination and abuse
with this anti-hijacking crime. The Bill was first passed in against them and also
bring them into the mainstream the Rajya Sabha. Now the Bill will go for Presidential
assent of society.

as per Article 111 of Indian Constitution.

It will lead to greater inclusiveness and will make the Key provisions of the Bill :
transgender persons productive members of the
The Bill defines hijacking as seizing control of an
aircraft in service, unlawfully and intentionally, by

The Bill will make all the stakeholders responsive and

coercion, technological means or by exercising force
accountable for upholding the principles underlying
or any other form of intimidation.
the Bill.

It covers several acts within the definition of hijacking.

It will bring greater accountability on the part of the

It includes (i) attempt and abetment of hijacking (ii)
Union Government and State Governments/UT
organizing or directing others to commit hijacking and
administrations for issues concerning Transgender
(iii) making a credible threat to commit hijacking.

The Bill provides for the death penalty for hijackers

Background Transgender community is among one of

even if ground airport personnel and handling staff
the most marginalized communities in the country
because they dont fit into the stereotypical categories
are killed during such acts.
of gender of men or women.

Under it, hijacking and the related offences shall be

They face problems ranging from social exclusion,

extraditable which means that for such offences, one
ostracism and discrimination, as well as verbal,
country may transfer the accused to another countrys
physical and sexual abuse.
legal jurisdiction.
Bills and Acts 2016

The Bill will not allow refusing the request for

transactions relating to both residential and
extradition on the ground that hijacking is a political
commercial projects and their timely completion and
offence or is connected to a political offence.
handover. It will also look after complaints at both

The current law, The Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 which

appellate tribunals and regulatory authorities within
was last amended in 1994, will be repealed after
60 days ensuring timely resolution of disputes.
passage of this new Bill.

The Real Estate Bill enables the people meet their

The Bill has been framed in line with the International

genuine aspirations of owning a house including those
convention including Beijing Protocol, 2010.
of urban poor by giving a fillip to affordable housing
initiative under which the Government intends to

It was introduced for more vigilant for the safety and

enable construction of 2 crore by the year 2022 under
security of passengers in case of hijacking.
Prime Ministers Awas Yojana (Urban).

It will help to overcome drawbacks of the existing crisis

management system in dealing with cases of hijacking.
Parliament passes Industries (Development and
Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2015
Parliament passes Mines and Minerals Amendment
Bill, 2016

The Industries (Development and Regulation)

Amendment Bill, 2015 was passed by the Parliament

Parliament passed the Mines and Minerals

on April 29. The Bill amends the Industries
(Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill 2016.
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1951. It was first
The Bill amends the Mines and Minerals (Development
was passed in Lok Sabha in December 2015 and later
and Regulation) Act, 1957.
in Rajya Sabha in April 2016. Now it will go for

The Bill was passed in the Lok Sabha on 16th March
Presidential assent as per Article 111 of the Indian
2016 and in the Rajya Sabha on 2nd May 2016.

The Bill allows for the transfer of mining leases which Key facts :
have been granted through procedures other than
The bill seeks to bring industries engaged in the
auction, and where the minerals are used for captive
manufacture of potable alcohol under the exclusive
control of States in all respects.

The Bill adds a definition of leased area, as the area

The bill amends 1st schedule of the parent Act to bring
within which mining operations can be undertaken.
required changes for regulating industries
This will also include the non-mineralised area
manufacturing potable alcohol. However, Union
required for the activities defined under mine in the
Government will continue to be responsible for
Mines Act, 1952.
formulating policy and regulating foreign

The Mines and Minerals (Development and

collaboration for all products of fermentation
Regulation) Act, 1957 regulates the mining sector in
industries, including industrial and potable alcohol.
India and specifies the requirement for obtaining and
granting leases for mining operations.
Industries (Development and Regulation) Act,
Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act,
2016 comes into force

It provides for development and regulation of certain

industries including telecommunications,

Rajya Sabha passed the Real Estate (Regulation and

transportation, metallurgical, fermentation (which
Development) Bill, 2016 which aims to guard the
includes production of alcohol) among others.
interests of numerous aspiring house buyers

The 1st schedule of the Act includes all industries that

alongside enhancing the credibility of construction
are regulated under the Act Background In the Bihar
industry by promoting transparency, accountability
Distillery versus Union of India case (1997), Supreme
and efficiency in execution of projects.
Court had demarcated the regulation of production of

The Bill seeks to set up an effective regulatory

alcohol between Centre and states.
mechanism for orderly growth of the sector which is
The apex court had ruled that Union Government
the second largest seasonal employer after agriculture.
should regulate the production of alcohol for industrial

It provides that 70 percent of sale proceeds will have

use and states should regulate the production of
to be kept aside by the developer in an escrow account
alcohol for potable purpose (domestic consumption).
which is a financial instrument held by a third party
It also had held that where the removal or clearance is
on behalf of the other two parties in a transaction.
for industrial purposes, the levy of excise duty and all

The Bill will set up state-level real estate regulatory

other control should be with the Union Government.
authorities and appellate tribunals to monitor
The Bill conforms to the Supreme Courts decision.
Bills and Acts 2016
Parliament passes Constitution (Scheduled
Maharashtra becomes first state to pass law
Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2016
against social boycott

Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment)

The Maharashtra Prohibition of People from Social
Bill, 2016 was passed by the Parliament on April 28 to
Boycott (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Bill,
include certain communities in the list of Scheduled
2016 was unanimously passed by the Maharashtra
Castes (SC) from 4 states. The bill seeks to amend
legislature on April 14 to end the menace social boycott
Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 to include

practiced by extra-judicial institutions like caste and

certain communities from Chhattisgarh, Haryana,
community panchayats. With this Maharashtra
Kerala and West Bengal in the list. It also has
became first state in the country to adopt a
provisions for exclusion of certain communities from
comprehensive law to root out oppression carried out
Odisha and removal of area restriction in respect of
by parallel justice delivery system (kangaroo court)
certain communities.
in the name of age-old traditions, caste and religion.
Key facts :
Key Features of the Bill :

The bill was introduced in the Parliament by Union

The Bill terms social boycott as a crime and says
anybody indulging in it would face imprisonment
Social Justice Minister Thawar Chand Gehlot as per
maximum up to three years and a fine of 1 lakh rupees
the provisions of Article 341 of the Constitution.
or both.

In Chhattisgarh, it includes Sais, Sahis, Sarathi,

The bill disallows social boycott of any individual or
Soot-Sarathi, Thanwar communities in the list.
groups by caste panchayats or groups of individuals

In Haryana, the bill seeks the inclusion of (i) Aheria,

or gavki or by its members or by social or
Aheri, Hari, Heri, Thori, Turi and (ii) Rai Sikh
economically influential persons.
communities in the list.

Persons involved in practice of social boycott for

In Kerala, it includes Peruvannan community in the

reasons like rituals of worship, inter-caste marriage,
list and Modification in the area of specification of
any connection to lifestyle, dress or vocation will face
Malayan community.
stringent punishment.

The offence registered under the act will be

In West Bengal, the bill seeks the removal of area

congnizable and bailable. It will be tried by a judicial
restriction of Chain community.
magistrate of the first class.

In Odisha, exclusion of Bariki and Kummari

The victim of social boycott or any member of the
communities in the list.
victims family can file a complaint either to police or

Article 341 empowers Parliament to include or exclude

directly to the magistrate.
castes from the list of Scheduled Castes in the
The bill has indicated speedy trial within six months
notification. It also empowers the President to specify
of filing chargesheet in such cases in order to ensure
castes which will be deemed as Scheduled Castes
time-bound results.
through a notification.

Government will recruit social boycott prohibition

officers to ensure monitoring and to detect offences
and assist the magistrate and police officers in tackling
Parliament passes Sikh Gurdwaras (Amendment)
such cases.
Bill, 2016

In recent times, Maharashtra had witnessed an

The Sikh Gurdwaras (Amendment) Bill, 2016 which

increasing number of incidents of social boycott and
was introduced in Rajya Sabha on March 15, 2016 by
violence at the behest of caste panchayats. However,
the Minister of Home Affairs, Mr. Rajnath Singh. The
existing laws were found to be inadequate in dealing
bill was passed by the House on March 16, 2016. It
with such practices. For years, number of activists
seeks to amend the Sikh Gurdwaras Act, 1925.
and academicians in the state were demanding
stringent law to root out menace of social boycott from

The bill introduced in Rajya Sabha envisages

the state.
amending 91-year-old Sikh Gurdwaras Act to exclude

Sehajdhari Sikhs from voting in elections to Sikh

religious bodies.
Jat Reservation Bill in Haryana

The bill proposes to remove the exemption given to The Haryana Backward Classes
(Reservation in services Sehajdhari Sikhs in 1944 to vote in the elections to and
admission in educational institutions) Bill, 2016 was select the members of the
board and the committees unanimously passed by the Haryana Legislative
Assembly constituted under the act.
in May 2016.
Bills and Acts 2016
Key Provisions of the bill :

The Enemy Property Act 1968 was enacted to take

It seeks to provide reservation in services and

over the properties owned by people who left for
admission in educational institutions to persons
Pakistan or China when India was at war with the
belonging to backward classes including Jats and five
two countries. Such properties were vested in the
other castes.
Mumbai-headquartered Custodian of Enemy

The backward classes have been divided into three

blocks as Block A, Block B and Block C. Jats, Jat Sikhs,
Approximately 16,000 properties across the country
Ror, Bishnoi, Tyagi and Mulla/Muslim Jat have been
have either been or are being taken over by
included in the Block C.
the CEP under the 1968 Act. Of these, the process

It provides to give 10% reservation to these castes for

to take over 9,400 properties estimated to be
class III and class IV posts and 6% in class 1 and class
worth ` 1 lakh crore, or ` 1,000 billion has been
2 posts.

These castes will be given 10% reservation for

The amendments states that once an enemy property
admission in educational institutions. State Legislative

is vested in the Custodian, it shall continue to be vested

Assembly also passed Haryana Backward Classes
in it as enemy property irrespective of whether the
Commission Bill, 2016 for institution of a permanent
enemy, enemy subject or enemy firm has ceased to be
Backward Classes Commission.
an enemy due to reasons such as death.

The new Bill ensures that the law of succession

does not apply to enemy property; that there cannot
Aadhaar Act, 2016 notified
be transfer of any property vested in the Custodian
The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other
by an enemy or enemy subject or enemy firm and that
Subsidies, benefits and services) Act, 2016 has been notified
the Custodian shall preserve the enemy property till
it is disposed of in accordance with the Act.
by the Union Government on March 28. The Act will
provide statutory backing for transfer of subsidies and
benefits to eligible people having Aadhaar (UID) number.
Parliament passes Carriage by Air amendment
Key facts :
Bill, 2015

The act seeks to provide efficient, transparent

The bill which will enhance compensation for air
and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and
travellers in case of death, injury, loss of baggage and
services to individuals residing in India by assigning
even inordinate delay in flights was passed by the
them unique identity numbers (UID) or Aadhaar
Rajya Sabha on 2nd March 2016.

The Carriage by Air (Amendment) Bill, 2015 was

It will be used for all benefit that will be linked to

introduced in Lok Sabha on 7th August 2015 by the
consolidated fund of India or the expenditure incurred
Minister of Civil Aviation, Mr. P. Ashok Gajapathi Raju.
from it.

The Bill amends the Carriage by Air Act, 1972. The

Both central and state governments can use Aadhaar

Act regulates carriage by air and gives effect to the
for disbursal for benefits and subsidies. However the
Warsaw Convention, 1929, the Warsaw Convention
Aadhaar number cannot be used as a proof of
as amended by the Hague Protocol, 1955, and the
citizenship or domicile.
Montreal Convention, 1999.

Civil aviation minister Ashok Gajapathi Raju

The Act gives statutory for establishment of the

remarked that the bill would bring legislative
Unique Identification Authority of India consisting of
character to international character with respect to
a Chairperson (part time or full time) and two
compensation for air passengers.
Members (part time).

Those individuals not having Aadhaar number shall

Lok Sabha passes Election Laws (Amendment)
be offered alternate and viable means of identification
for delivery of the subsidies, benefits or service.
Bill, 2016

The Election Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2016, introduced

Lok Sabha passes Enemy Property (Amendment
by Law Minister DV Sadananda Gowda, seeks to
and Validation) Bill, 2016
amend Section 11 of the Delimitation Act, 2002 and
Section 9 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

Lok Sabha passed the Enemy Property (Amendment

The bill seeks to amend two electoral laws to allow a
and Validation) Bill, 2016 on 9th March.
limited delimitation exercise in West Bengal for

The Bill seeks to amend the Enemy Property Act, 1968

granting voting rights to people who became Indian
and the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised
citizens following the exchange of enclaves with
Occupants) Act, 1971.

Bills and Acts 2016

With the term of the 294-member West Bengal

This will raise the ceiling of the impost from ` 25 to
Assembly ending on 29th May and elections to be held
` 200 per quintal, a measure that will help sugarcane
ahead of that, there is need for early passage of the bill
growers and cash-starved mills.
and the Government is hopeful that it would be passed The Sugar Cess
(Amendment) Bill, 2015 was
by both the houses in the next two days without
introduced in the Lok Sabha by Mr. Ram Vilas Paswan,
Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
Distribution on December 11, 2015. The Bill proposes
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities)
to amend the Sugar Cess Act, 1982.
Amendment Act, 2015 comes into force

The amended law for prevention of atrocities against

Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2016
the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes was Union Cabinet chaired by the
Prime Minister
enforced from January 26, 2016 after the central
Narendra Modi gave its approval for introduction of
governments approval.
the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2016 on 24th August.

The SC/ST Bill was unanimously passed by the Rajya

Sabha on December 21, 2015 without a debate, and
The Bill will regulate surrogacy in India by
had been awaiting a formal notification. The Lok Sabha
establishing National Surrogacy Board at the central
had passed the bill on 4thAugust, 2015.
level and State Surrogacy Boards and Appropriate
Authorities in the State and Union Territories. The

After the enforcement, there will be stricter

legislation will ensure effective regulation of
prosecution for new offences of atrocities, such as
surrogacy, prohibit commercial surrogacy and allow
tonsuring of head, moustache, or similar acts, which
ethical surrogacy to the needy infertile couples.
are derogatory to the dignity of members of the SC/ST

community, garlanding with chappals, denying access

All infertile Indian married couple who want to avail
to irrigation facilities or forest rights, dispose or carry
ethical surrogacy will be benefited. Further the rights
human or animal carcasses, or to dig graves, using or
of surrogate mother and children born out of
permitting manual scavenging, dedicating an SC/ST
surrogacy will be protected. The Bill shall apply to
woman as devadasi, abusing in caste name,
whole of India, except the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
perpetrating witchcraft atrocities, imposing social or
The major benefits of the Act would be that it will
economic boycott, preventing SC/ST candidates from
regulate the surrogacy services in the country. While
filing of nomination to contest elections, hurting an
commercial surrogacy will be prohibited including
SC/ST woman by removing her garments, forcing a
sale and purchase of human embryo and gametes,
member of these communities to leave house, village
ethical surrogacy to the needy infertile couples will
or residence, defiling objects sacred to members of SC/
be allowed on fulfil ment of certain conditions and for
ST, touching or using words, acts or gestures of a sexual
specific purposes. As such, it will control the unethical
nature against members of the community.
practices in surrogacy, prevent commercialization of
surrogacy and will prohibit potential exploitation of
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
surrogate mothers and children born through
Children) Act, 2015 comes into force

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children)

No permanent structure is proposed to be created in
Act, 2015 has come into force from January 15,
the Draft Bill. Neither there are proposals for creating
2016 and repeals the Juvenile Justice (Care and
new posts. The proposed legislation, while covering
Protection of Children) Act, 2000.
an important area is framed in such a manner that it

The Bill was passed by Lok Sabha on 7th May, 2015and

ensures effective regulation but does not add much
Rajya Sabha on 22nd December, 2015 and received

vertically to the current regulatory structure already

Presidential assent on 31st December, 2015.
in place at the central as well as states. Accordingly,

Under Section 15, special provisions have been made

there will not be any financial implications except for
to tackle child offenders committing heinous offences
the meetings of the National and State surrogacy
in the age group of 16-18 years.
Boards and Appropriate Authorities which will be
met out of the regular budget of Central and State
President gives assent to The Sugar Cess

The 228th report of the Law Commission of India has

(Amendment) Bill, 2015
also recommended for prohibiting commercial

President Pranab Mukherjee gave his assent to the

surrogacy and allowing ethical altruistic surrogacy
Sugar Cess (Amendment) Bill, 2015 on 8th January,
to the needy Indian citizens by enacting a suitable
Pashudhan Bima Yojana
Features of the Portal:

The portal provides provisions for online monitoring

Haryana Government launched the Pashudhan Bima
of KVKs which will include reporting of major events
Yojana in Jhajjar on 29th July. The Yojna was launched by
on regular basis and submission of monthly reports
the states Animal Husbandry and Dairying Minister, O P
Dhankar. The Yojna was started in accordance to the
recommendations made in Swaminathan Report. Animal
The portal will also provide information on different
Husbandry and Dairying Department has set a target to
services being provided by different KVKs.
cover one lakh cattle under Pashudhan Bima Yojana.

Weather and Market related informations can also be

Key Facts:
accessed by the farmers and others.

Pashudhan Bima Yojana will provide insurance cover

The forthcoming programmes will also be available
to cattle breeders in the state at different premium
on the website which will benefit farmers and youth
rates for different animals.
in joining different training programmes being

Insurance cover will be provided at a premium of

organized by KVKs.
` 100 for cows, buffaloes, bulls, camels and at ` 25 for

Question and answer facility will also be available

sheep, goat and pig for a period of three years.
for the farmers.

Under it, the insurance companies would give

Agriculture related information of the districts will
compensation in case of death of animal (cattle). The
also be available on the portal.
scheme is free of cost for cattle breeders from the
The farmers and the Agricultural Officers may register
scheduled castes.
themselves and seek different informations related to

The state Animal Husbandry and Dairying

Department has set a target to cover one lakh cattle
under Pashudhan Bima Yojana.
Namami Gange programme
Rajasthan becomes first state to approve sewage
Union minister Uma Bharti on 7th July launched 43 projects
& waste water policy
worth ` 250 crore under Namami Gange programme in
Uttarakhand. The government has lined up 1,000 projects
Rajasthan has become the first state to give go-ahead to in different states
including Delhi, Uttarakhand, Uttar the sewage and waste water policy, in the
country. The Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal as part of the state cabinet
meeting chaired by the Chief Minister National Mission for Clean Ganga. Bharati said
the second Vasundhara Raje in Jaipur approved the first-of-its-kind phase of the
project will begin by October 2018.

Key Facts :
Key Facts :

The Namami Gange Programme aims at cleaning the

Under this policy, all district headquarters, heritage

holy river and ensuring its unfettered flow. Union
cities, and cities in the state which have more than
government has allocated ` 20,000 crore budget for it.
one lakh population will be included.

Under it, projects such as modernization and

Waste water treated under it will be used in irrigation

redevelopment of Ghats, crematoriums and other
and agricultural work. The requirement of next 30
development activities will be undertaken.
years will be covered in this poilcy.

Besides it will also undertake project for development

It will be compulsory for every house in the state to

of sewage infrastructure and treatment, tree plantation,
connect with sewage system in those cities which
afforestation, pilot drain project, interceptor drain
have 100% sewage system in next five years.
project, trash skimmers and conservation of
KVK Portal

The projects were launched simultaneously in five

basin states of the river Ganga viz. Uttarakhand, Uttar
The Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare,
Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. Besides,
Shri Radha Mohan Singh formally launched Krishi Vigyan
projects were also launched in Delhi and Haryana
Kendra (KVK) portal (http://kvk.icar.gov.in) on 8th July in
through which Gangas largest tributary Yamuna
New Delhi.
Policies and Schemes 2016

In Uttar Pradesh alone total 112 projects were Salient features:

launched through this ambitious scheme. 47 projects

The Central Government will provide interest
were inaugurated at various locations in Uttrakhand.
subvention of 5 per cent per annum to all farmers for
20 projects were inaugurated at various locations
short term crop loan upto one year for loan upt 3
in West Bengal. 26 projects were inaugurated in
lakhs borrowed by them during the year 2016-17.
Farmers will thus have to effectively pay only 4% as
interest. In case farmers do not repay the short term
crop loan in time they would be eligible for interest
National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme
subvention of 2% as against 5% available above.
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra
The Central Government will give approximately
Modi approved a National Apprenticeship Promotion
` 18,276 crores as interest subvention for 2016-17.
Scheme on 5th July. The Scheme has an outlay of ` 10,000
In order to give relief to small and marginal farmers
crore with a target of 50 lakh apprentices to be trained by
who would have to borrow at 9% for the post harvest
storage of their produce, the Central Government has
approved an interest subvention of 2% i.e an effective
Features of the scheme :
interest rate of 7% for loans upto 6 months.

The Scheme would be implemented by Director

To provide relief to the farmers affected by Natural
General of Training (DGT) under Ministry of Skill
Calamities, the interest subvention of 2% will be
Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It
provided to Banks for the first year on the restructured
provides for incentivizing employers to engage
apprentices. 25% of the total stipend payable to an
In case farmers do not repay the short term crop loan
apprentice would be shared with employers directly
in time they would be eligible for interest subvention
by Government of India. It is for the first time a scheme
of 2% as against 5% available above.
has been designed to offer financial incentives to
employers to engage apprentices. In addition, it also

Union Government launches National Green

supports basic training, which is an essential
Highways Mission
component of apprenticeship training. 50% of the total
expenditure incurred on providing basic training Union Minister of Road Transport &
Highways and
would be supported by Government of India.
Shipping Nitin Gadkari launched the initial plantation

The Scheme will catalyze the entire apprenticeship drive on 1,500 km of National
Highways at a cost of about
` 300 crore under the National Green Highways Mission in
ecosystem in the country and it will offer a win-win New Delhi on 1st July.
situation for all stakeholders. It is expected to become Key features:
one of the most powerful skill-delivery vehicle in the

NGHM was launched under the Green Highways

Policy, 2015 to provide a holistic vision of developing

The National Policy of Skill Development and

eco-friendly and green National Highways.
Entrepreneurship, 2015 launched by the Prime The mission aims to provide a
green canopy along
Minister focuses on apprenticeship as one of the key
100,000 km of highways and create jobs for 1 million
components for creating skilled manpower in India.
The present scheme also aims to achieve the objective It has been initiated to
engage corporates, Public Sector as stated in the National Policy, 2015. The policy
units, Government organizations and other institutions
proposes to work pro-actively with the industry
for developing green corridor along National
including MSME to facilitate tenfold increase
Highways through plantation and allied activity on
opportunities in the country by 2020-20.
median, avenue and other available nearby land
patches .
Interest Subvention Scheme

The funds for the mission will be met by Green Fund

corpus which is 1 per cent of the total project cost set
Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra
aside for plantation purposes. The afforestation across

Modi approved the Interest Subvention Scheme for farmers

National Highways is expected to help in sequestering
for the year 2016-17 on 5th July. The Government has
approximately 12 lakh metric ton carbon annually.
earmarked a sum of ` 18,276 Crore for this purpose. This
It will also generate jobs and can be a game-changer
will help farmers getting short term crop loan payable
for agriculture and rural economy. In future, the
mission will be linked with the Mahatma Gandhi
within one year up t 3 lakhs at only 4% per annum.
National Rural Employment Guarantee scheme.
Policies and Schemes 2016
Ramayana Circuit & Krishna Circuit under

All unorganised workers will be registered under the

Swadesh Darshan Scheme
Unorganised Workers Social Security Act, 2008 and
enrolled as beneficiaries under Chandranna Bima
The 1st Meeting of National Committee on Ramayan
Circuit and National Committee on Krishna Circuit under SERP shall facilitate
registration of unorganised Swadesh Darshan Scheme of Ministry of Tourism held
workers and their enrollment in the Chandranna Bima
the chairmanship of the Minister of Tourism & Culture Dr.
Mahesh Sharma on 14th June.
Scheme, data entry, maintenance of data base, hard
copies of signed applications and other connected
Key facts:

Under Ramayana Circuit, 11 destinations spread Assistant Labour Officer of the

Labour Department
across 6 states have been proposed. The destinations
covered are: Ayodhya, Nandigram, Shringhverpur &
shall be the Registering Authority.
Chitrakoot (Uttar Pradesh); Sitamarhi, Buxar &
The registered unorganised workers will be enrolled
Darbhanga (Bihar); Jagdalpur (Chattisgarh);
as members under State Accident Death and Disability
Bhadrachalam (Telangana); Hampi (Karnataka); and
Scheme and under Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY)
Rameshwaram (Tamil Nadu). Expert committee

and will also be covered under the Pradhan Mantri

suggested to include Chitrakoot (Madhya Pradesh),
Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY).
Nashik & Nagpur (Maharashtra) and Mahendragiri
(Odisha) in the proposed circuit.
UJALA Scheme

Under Krishna circuit, 12 destinations spread across

5 states have been proposed. The destinations covered The National LED
programme Unnat Jyoti by Affordable are: Dwarka (Gujarat); Nathdwara, Jaipur &
Sikar LEDs for All (UJALA) was launched by the Union
(Rajasthan); Kurukshetra (Haryana), Mathura, Government on May 1. The scheme
was launched by Union
Vrindavan, Gokul, Barsana, Nandgaon & Govardhan Minister for State (IC) for Power,
Coal and Renewable (Uttar Pradesh); Puri (Odisha). The destinations were Energy
Piyush Goyal in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
approved by the expert committee.
Key facts :

Further, projects worth more than Three Hundred

Crores Rupees were approved in-principle in Uttar
The UJALA scheme is being implemented by Energy
Pradesh under both the circuits.
Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), a joint venture of

The Ministry of Tourism has launched the Swadesh

PSUs under the Union Ministry of Power.
Darshan Scheme in 2014-15 with an aim to develop
It is LED based Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme
theme based tourist circuits in the country on the
principles of high tourist value, competitiveness and
Under the scheme, 3 crore LED Bulbs will be
sustainability in an integrated manner by synergizing
distributed in Madhya Pradesh in the next 6 months.
efforts to focus on needs and concerns of all
stakeholders to enrich tourist experience and enhance
People of Madhya Pradesh will get subsidised 9W
employment opportunities.
energy efficient LED bulbs by paying just 85 rupees

Under the Swadesh Darshan scheme, thirteen

per LED bulb.
thematic circuits have been identified, for

The scheme will help reduce electricity bills of

development namely: North-East India Circuit,
consumers, contribute to the energy security of India
Buddhist Circuit, Himalayan Circuit, Coastal Circuit,
and also help in environment protection.
Krishna Circuit, Desert Circuit, Tribal Circuit, Eco
It will help in saving energy around 24 crore units
Circuit, Wildlife Circuit, Rural Circuit, Spiritual
every year.
Circuit, Ramayana Circuit and Heritage Circuit.
Bhimrao Ambedkar Awas Yojana
Chandranna Bima Yojana
The Bhimrao Ambedkar Awas Yojana for widows was
Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N Chandrababu Naidu has launched on 14 April by
the Jharkhand Chief Minister launched Chandranna Bima Yojana in Vijayawada on
1st Raghubar Das. The objective of the scheme is to create May. The Yojna launched
on the occasion of May Day is an equality and harmony in society, ensuring all
round insurance scheme for the working class people.
Salient features of the scheme:
Highlights of the Yojana :

All unorganised workers in the State in the age group

of 18 to 70 years are eligible to be registered as
The programme is with a budget allocation of 80 crore
unorganised workers and enrolled as beneficiaries of
rupees and a target of 11000 units (houses) for widows
the Chandranna Bima Scheme.
was set in 2016-17 financial year.
Policies and Schemes 2016

An amount of 75000 rupees would be granted to build

The benefits will also be extended to family pensioners
a house in districts in hilly terrains and 70000 rupees
including war widows and disabled pensioners.
in plains and the amount would be distributed among All arrears will be paid in
four half-yearly instalments.
the beneficiaries in three instalments in their bank
However all widows, family pensioners including
those in receipt of Gallantry award will be paid

The widows would also get pension.

arrears in one instalment.

Pension will be re-fixed every five years and future

Adarsh Vidyalaya Project
enhancements in rates of pension would be
automatically passed to the past pensioners.
Adarsh Vidyalaya (AV) project was launched by the Armed forces personnel who
retire voluntarily would Odisha Government on April 7 to provide modern schools
be not covered under OROP scheme. However, it will
facilities on the lines of Kendriya Vidyalayas in the
be applicable to personnel who have already retired
underdeveloped rural areas of the state. It was launched
by Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik at Sasan
Ambagaon village in his home constituency Hinjli in
Ganjam district.
Stand up India scheme for SC/ST & Women
Key features:
The Stand-up India scheme was launched on April 6 by

Schools under AV project will provide free education Prime Minister Narendra Modi
to provide credit to to students of the classes from VI to XII along with free
Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), and women uniforms and other study
borrowers in the non-farm sector. The scheme is intended
to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women and

These schools will be affiliated under the Central Board further gives a push to
governments financial inclusion of Secondary Education (CBSE) and shall have
hostel programme.
facility in future.
Main features of the scheme:

Under this project, one Adarsh Vidyalaya will be set

up in each of the 314 revenue blocks of the state.

Composite loan between 10 lakh rupees and up to 1

crore rupees will be provided to SC/ST and women

They will be managed by the Odisha Adarsh

and also inclusive of working capital component for
Vidyalaya Sangathan (AVS) and will be formed on
setting up any new enterprise.
the lines of the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS). Debit Card (RuPay) for

withdrawal of working capital:

In these schools, English will be the first language and

Credit history of borrower to be developed of these
Odia will be the second language as medium of
under-banked sections of society.

Refinance window through Small Industries

The project will be implemented in phases and in the

Development Bank of India (SIDBI) with an initial
first phase 100 such schools will start functioning on
amount of 10,000 crore rupees.
5 April 2016.

Creation of a corpus of 5,000 crore rupees for credit

The teacher-pupil ratio of these schools will be 1:25

guarantee through National Credit Guarantee Trustee
and classroom-student ratio of 1:40. 50 per cent of total
Company (NCGTC).
seats will be reserved for the girls and scheduled
Handholding support for borrowers with
comprehensive support for pre loan training needs,
facilitating loan, factoring, marketing etc.
One Rank One Pension Scheme

Web Portal for online registration and support

services will be provided.
One Rank One Pension (OROP) scheme was given ex-post
Under the scheme, 1.25 lakh bank branches will
facto approval on 7 April by the Union Cabinet for
provide loans up to 1 crore rupees to SC/ST and women
implementation of retrospectively with effect from 1st July,
entrepreneurs. Thus it will help in creating 2.5 lakh
2014. Decision in this regard was taken by Union Cabinet
entrepreneurs throughout the country.
meeting chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New
Delhi. OROP will provide ex-servicemen of the same rank
and same length of service uniform pension regardless of
Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana Gramin
date of retirement.

The implementation of the rural housing scheme of Pradhan

Key facts :
Mantri Awaas Yojana- Gramin was given approval by the

The benefits of OROP will be given with effect from Union Cabinet on March 25.
Under the scheme, financial 1st of July 2014 and it will benefit ex-servicemen of all
assistance will be provided for construction of pucca houses three services- Army,
Navy and Air Force.
to all houseless and households living in dilapidated houses.
Policies and Schemes 2016
Key facts:

The victims will receive medical care for first 48 hours

The expenditure involved in implementing the project

and get treatment at any hospital. All hospitals will
is ` 81975 crore in a span of 3 years from 2016-17 to
be directed not to reject accident victims.

A software covering hospital registration, patient

Under the scheme, it is proposed to provide assistance

registration, claims submission and packages will
to one crore households for construction of pucca
be installed for the proper implementation of the

It will be implemented in rural areas throughout the

Emergency toll free helplines will also be set up to
country except in Delhi and Chandigarh.
help accident victims.

The beneficiaries will be identified using Socio

Economic and Caste Census (SECC)-2011 data ensuring
Swachh Himachal Padhai bhi, Safai bhi
total transparency and objectivity.

The cost of houses would be shared between Centre Swachh Himachal Padhai bhi,
Safai bhi campaign was and States Governments in the ratio 60:40 in plain
launched by Himachal Pradesh Cricket Association (HPCA) areas and 90:10 for North
Eastern and hilly states.

on February 20 in Dharamsala. With this unique campaign,

Under this scheme, annual list of beneficiaries will be HPCA became the first cricket
association in the country to identified from the total list through participatory work
towards Swatch Bharat Abhiyan initiated by the process by the Gram Sabha.
Union Government.

Funds will be transferred electronically directly to the Key facts:

account of the beneficiary.

The campaign aims at involving youth to promote

He will be able to track the progress of his payments

good health and sanitation in urban and rural areas
through the app. Inspection will be done though a
in the Himalayan state.
mobile app.

Its objective is to showcase Himachals beauty as

Locally appropriate house designs, will be mainly

Indias cleanest and greenest state.
practised to address the natural calamities.

Under the scheme, the game of cricket will be linked

The beneficiary is entitled to 90 days of unskilled

with Swatch Bharat Abhiyan and youth will be
labour from MGNREGA. This will be ensured through
termed as Swatch Captain and teachers as Swatch
a server linkage between PMAY and MGNREGA.
Coach. They will start cleanliness drive with the help

The additional requirement of building materials,

of students from universities, educational institutes
bricks using cement stabilised earth or fly ash will be
and then in their local neighbourhood.
taken up under MGNREGA.

National Technical Support Agency will be established

Udyam Aakansha scheme to promote SMEs
to provide technical support to the Centre and
States to ensure their quality of construction of the Chhattisgarh government has
launched Udyam

Aakansha Scheme for promoting micro, small and medium
enterprises in the state on February 9.
Mukhyamantri Santwana Harish Yojana for free
Highlights of the scheme:
treatment to accident victims in Karnataka

The scheme would facilitate free online registration

and self-certification to the investors interested in
Mukhyamantri Santwana Harish Yojana was launched on
investment on micro, small and medium enterprises
March 8 by the Karnataka Government to provide free
and service businesses.
treatment to road accident victims for the first 48 hours in
the nearest government or private hospital.

The investors can enrol themselves online through

The scheme is named after Harish Nanjappa, who donated
website of the Industries department which will be
his eyes moments before his death in a road accident in
based on self-certification process.
February 2016.

For the online registration, investors need not submit

Highlights of the scheme :
any documents nor have to pay any fee.

The scheme will provide assistance to victims of road

Chhattisgarh is among some leading states where this
accidents across the state irrespective of their financial
scheme has been initiated.
status or nationality.

Keeping in view the objective of promoting the ease

Immediate medical relief will be provided to victims

of doing business, the process of registration
during the Golden Hour with financial aid up to 25000
and self-certification for entrepreneurs has been
during the first 48 hours of treatment.
Policies and Schemes 2016
National Capital Goods Policy 2016

The balance 778 crore rupees outstanding debt will
be re-priced or issued as state guaranteed DISCOM
National Capital Goods Policy 2016 was unveiled by Union
bonds at coupon rates of around 3%.
Ministry of Heavy Industries on 15 February 2016. The
The debt restructuring of state DISCOMs will lead to
policy, with the theme Building India of Tomorrow, seeks
annual saving in interest cost to the tune of around
to achieve the vision of Make in India initiative and
` 117 crore.
establishes India as a global manufacturing hub by The financial restructuring of
debt under this scheme unlocking the potential for capital goods sector.
will help Bihar to speedily provide power to around
Main Features:
160.60 lakh households in 1,152 villages that are still

Vision: To increase the share of capital goods

without electricity.
contribution from present 12 to 20 percent of total
manufacturing activity by 2025
Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

Mission: To become one of the top capital goods

producing nations of the world by raising the total Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
was introduced by the production to over twice the current level
Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley on 29 February 2016

To raise exports to a significant level of at least 40 in the Union Budget for 2016-17.
The scheme is aimed at percent of total production and thus gain 2.5 percent
energising rural India and transforming lives of rural share in global exports of
capital goods
Key Features of the scheme :

To improve technology depth in Indian capital goods

from the current basic and intermediate levels to
The scheme seeks to develop governance capabilities
advanced levels
of Panchayat Raj Institutions (PRIs) to deliver on the
Sustainable Development Goals.

Objectives: Increase total production to achieve total

production in excess of 5 lakh crore rupees by 2025

Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan has been proposed

from the current 2.2 lakh crore rupees
with allocation of ` 655 crore.

To increase domestic employment from the current

The scheme will help Panchayat Raj Institutions
15 lakhs to at least 50 lakhs by 2025 thus providing
deliver Sustainable Development Goals.
additional employment to over 35 lakhs people

It will cover 52,000 village panchayats.

To increase the share of domestic production in Indias

capital goods demand from 56% to 80% by 2025 and
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Antyodaya Yojana
in the process improve domestic capacity utilization
to 80-90 percent

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Antyodaya Yojana for urban

and rural poor was launched by the Union

To improve skill availability by training 50 lakhs

Government on 25 September 2014. The Yojana aims
people by 2025
at alleviating urban and rural poverty through

To improve technology depth in capital goods subenhancement of livelihood opportunities through skill
sectors by increasing research intensity in India from
development and other means.
0.9 percent to at least 2.8 percent of GDP.

The scheme has two components one for urban India

and other for rural India. The Urban component will
Bihar join UDAY Scheme
be implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing &
Urban Poverty Alleviation while rural component

Bihar has become the sixth state to join Union

named as Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya
Governments UDAY (Ujwal Discom Assurance
Yojana will be implemented by the Union Ministry of
Yojana) Scheme for financial restructuring of debt of
Rural Development.

power distribution companies.

Other 5 states are Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh,

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya
Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat to become part
of the scheme.

A tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) Under the Yojana, the Union

Ministry of Rural Development was signed between Bihar government, State Power
will launch skill development training centres on a large Distribution companies
(DISCOMs) and Union Power scale to address the problem of unemployment
particularly ministry.
in rural India.

Under the scheme, Bihar government would take over Main Highlights of the
Rural Scheme :
75% or 2,332 crore rupees of the state DISCOMs total
The Yojana aims at training 10 lakh (1 million) rural
debt of 3,110 crore rupees as of September 2015.
youths for jobs in three years, that is, by 2017.
Policies and Schemes 2016

The minimum age for entry under the Yojana is 15 Highlights of the scheme :
years compared to 18 years under the Aajeevika Skills
The scheme will provide health cover up-t 1 lakh
per family.

Skill development training centres to be launched so

For senior citizens of the age 60 years and above
as to address the unemployment problem in the rural
belonging to this category, an additional top-up
package up t 30,000 will be provided.

The skills imparted under the Yojana will now be

About 2.2 lakh new patients of end stage renal disease
benchmarked against international standards and
get added every year resulting in additional demand
will complement the Prime Ministers Make In India
for 3.4 crore dialysis sessions.

With approximately 4,950 dialysis centres in India,

The Kaushalya Yojana will also address the need for

largely in the private sector and concentrated in the
imparting training to the differently-able persons and
major towns, the demand is only half met.
chip in private players including international players
Every dialysis session costs about ` 2,000 - an annual
to impart the skills to the rural youths.
expenditure of more than ` 3 lakh. Besides, most
families have to undertake frequent trips, often over
long distances, to access dialysis services, incurring
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Antyodaya Yojana for
heavy travel costs and loss of wages.
urban areas

Finance Minister has also proposed to exempt certain

It extends the coverage to all the 4041 statutory cities and
parts of dialysis equipment from basic customs duty,
towns, there by covering almost the entire urban
excise/CVD and SAD to further reduce the cost.
population. Currently, all the urban poverty alleviating
programmes covered only 790 towns and cities.
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
Main Highlights of the Urban Scheme:
On May 1, the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
The scheme will focus on
was launched. The scheme will benefit the poor, especially

Imparting skills with an expenditure of 15000 rupees the women. The scheme aims
to provide cooking gas to 18000 rupees on each urban poor
connections to five crore below-poverty-line beneficiaries

Promotion of self-employment through setting up over the next three years.

individual micro-enterprises and group enterprises Salient features of the
with interest subsidy for individual projects costing
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
2 lakhs rupees and 10 lakhs rupees for group
approved 8000 crore rupees for the next 3 years
starting from financial year 2016-17.

Training urban poor to meet the huge demand from

PM Ujjwala Yojana will provide 5 crore LPG
urban citizens by imparting market oriented skills
connections to BPL Families.
through City Livelihood Centres.

A budgetary provision of the scheme is 2000 crore

Enabling urban poor form Self-Help Groups for

meeting financial and social needs with a support of
5 crore LPG connections will be provided to BPL
10000 rupees per each group.
families with a support of 1600 rupees.

Connections will be given in the name of Women

National Dialysis Services Programme

Identification of BPL families will be made in

With an aim to help poor patients suffering from renal
consultation with State Governments and Union
(kidney) disease, who require regular dialysis, the
government has started a National Dialysis Services

EMI Facility for meeting the cost of Stove and Refill

BUDGET 2016-17

Allocation of Pradhanmatri Gram Sadak Yojna to be

increased t 19,000 crore
Finance minister Arun Jaitley on Monday presented the ` 38,500 crores allocated
Union Budget 2016-17 in the Lok Sabha on 29th February
2016. Here are some of the highlights of the budget:

` 5,500 crores allocated to PM Fasal Bima Yojana

Amidst global headwinds, the Indian economy has

300 rurban clusters to be set up under Shyama Prasad

held its own

Mukherji Rurban Mission

Infaltion has come down even though there was a fall

100% rural electrification to be achieved by 1st May,
in monsoons

Foreign exchange reserves are at highest ever level

` 87,765 crores for rural development as a whole have

been allocated in the budget

CPI inflation has declined to 5.4%

6 crore additional households to be covered under

The growth of GDP has accelerated to 7.6%

digital literacy scheme in next 3 years

Government has to prioritize expenditure. Focus on Appreciation for 75 lakh

middle class and lower
the rural and social sectors, infrastructure and
middle class for willingly giving up LPG subsidy
recapitalization of bank

New restructured scheme to increase the governance

Recapitalization of banks will be done during next

capabilities of PRIs to be launched: Rashtriya Gram
financial year
Swaraj Abhiyan

Nominal premium and highest ever compensation in ` 9,000 crores allocated to

Swaccha Bharat Abhiyaan case of crop loss under the PM Fasal Bima Yojana

Allocation of ` 35,984 crore for farm sector

Aim to double the income of farmers in five years. `

35,984 crores total allocation for farmers welfare

Govt to set apart ` 412 crore to encourage organic


Farm, rural sector, infra, social sector to have more

government expenditure

` 2.87 lakh crore to be given grant-in-aid for gram

panchayats and municipalities; it is quantum jump of

Dedicated irrigation fund worth ` 20,000 crore to be

set up under NABARD

Stand Up India scheme allocated ` 500 crore for SC, ST

A unified agriculture market e-platform will be

and women entrepreneurs
dedicated to the nation on the birthday of Dr. BR

2 projects under Stand Up India to be promoted per

bank branch per category

5 lakh acres to be brought under organic farming over

three years

62 new Navodaya Vidyalayas will be opened in the

next 2 years

Aim to double farmers income in 5 years.

` 35,984 crore allocation for their welfare

National Skill Development Mission has imparted

65 eligible habitats to be connected via 2.23 lakh km of

training to 76 lakh youth.
road. Current construction pace is 100 km per day

1,500 multi skill training institutes to be set up

Government is launching a new initiative to provide

Objective to skill 1 crore youth in the next 3 years
cooking gas to BPL families with state support
under the PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana

Will enact a law to confer benefits on deserving

Health insurance of upt 1 lakh per family.

sections on aadhar platform.

300 generic drug stores to be opened under PM Jan

Govt to provide incentive for deepwater gas

Aushadi Yojana

85% of stalled road projects back on track

Work for passage of insolvency and bankruptcy laws,

` 97,000 crore allocated to road sector including
to undertake significant reforms
Budget 2016-17

Total outlay for infrastructur 2,21,246 crores in

Service Tax Exemption for services under the Deen
Dayal Gram Jyoti Yojana

Target of 10,000 km of national highway and

HRA deduction up from 24,000 to 60,000 per annum
upgradation of 50,000 km of state highways in 2016/ 100% deduction for profits of
undertakings from
housing projects in cities during Jun16 - Mar19

` 1,000 crore for higher education financing

Krishi Kalyan cess to be imposed on all taxable services

Govt drawing a comprehensive plan to exploit nuclear

for agricultural sector
energy to be implemented in the next 15-20 years

15% surcharge on income tax for those with incomes

100% FDI to be allowed through FIPB route in Food

Products Produced and Marketed in India
exceeding 1 crore per annum

New Financial Data Management Centre to facilitate

Clean energy cess increased from ` 200/ton to 400/ton

integrated data analysis
on coal, lignite and peat

Department of Disinvestment to be renamed as

Limited period compliance window for taxpayers to
Department of Investment and Public Asset
declare undisclosed income. Declarations to have
immunity from prosecutions

RBI Act to be amended to give statutory backing for

Govt to introduce bill to amend Companies Act for
monetary policy
ease of doing business; to enable registration of

Amount sanctioned under PM Mudra Yojana has

companies in a day
reached Rs 1 lakh crore to cover 2.5 crore borrowers
Clean Energy Cess to renamed as Clean Environment
by Feb, 2016

25,000 crore for recapitalization of public sector banks

Limited tax compliance window: 45% including

DBT on pilot basis in fertilizers to be introduced in

surcharge and penalties and immunity from
some districts

A bill on targeted delivery of financial services using

Levy of heavy penalty for non payment of tax has led
Aadhar to be introduced
to high litigation. Proposal to modify scheme for

FDI Policy: Changes proposed in areas - Insurance &

Pension, Asset Reconstruction Companies, Stock To reduce multiplicity of taxes
and cascading - 13 taxes Exchange
with collection less than ` 50 crore a year abolished

More number of benches of Security Appellate Tribunal Income tax department

will expand e-sahyog to assist to be introduced by amending SEBI Act to reduce

small taxpayers

Fiscal deficit for FY 2016-17 targeted at 3.5%

Govt will pay interest rate of 9% over 6% if delay is

more than 90 days

Tax proposals to provide relief to small taxpayers

through rebates

Net revenue gain of Rd 19,610 crores due to surplus

Ceiling of tax rebate for tax payers with up to

from indirect taxes
` 5 lakh annual income to be raised t 5,000 from `
14 crore farmers to be brought under soil health card
scheme by March, 2017

Relief of ` 3,000 per year to taxpayers with income

below ` 5 lakh per year, 1 crore tax payers to benefit

Deduction for rent payers raised from ` 20,000 t

60,000 to benefit those living in rented houses
Railway Budget 2016 was presented on February 25, 2016
by Suresh Prabhu, the Railway Minister of India. Here are

Consolidation roadmap for public sector banks next the highlights of the rail budget

Suitable changes to be made in customs and excise

No hike in passenger fares.
duty rates to improve competitiveness and boost Make
Swacch Bharat: 17000 biotoilets and additional toilets
in India
in 475 stations before the close of this financial year.

Incentives for new manufacturing companies and

Wifi at 100 stations this year and 400 stations next
smaller enterprise companies

Budget 2016-17

33 per cent reservation to women in reserved quota in

Introduced 1,780 Automatic Ticket Vending Machines,
Railways to be introduced.
mobile apps & GoIndia smartcard for cashless

Deen Dayal coaches for long distance trains for

purchase of UTS and PRS tickets, enhanced capacity
unreserved passengers. These coaches will include
of e-ticketing system from 2,000 tickets per minute to
potable water and higher number of mobile charging
7,200 tickets per minute and to support 1,20,000
concurrent users as against only 40,000 earlier.

Janani Sewa: Childrens menu, baby foods, baby

Propose to invite FM Radio stations for providing
boards to be made available for travelling mothers.
train-borne entertainment; extend Rail Bandhu to all

Overnight double-decker train Uday Express to be

reserved classes of travelers and in all regional
introduced on busiest routes, carrying capacity to be
40 per cent more.

Security through helplines & CCTVs; Safety - 350

Porters to not be called coolies but be called

manned level crossings closed, eliminated 1,000
sahayaks now; will be trained in soft skills.
unmanned level crossings, 820 ROB/RUB completed
in the current year and work going on in 1,350 of them.

Railways to increase lower berth quota for senior

citizens by 50 per cent.

SMART (Specially Modified Aesthetic Refreshing

Travel) Coaches are redesigned coaches with

Ajmer, Amritsar, Gaya, Mathura, Nanded, Nashik,

redesigned bio-vaccum toilets, vending machines,

Puri, Tirupati, Varanasi, Nagapattinam and other

advertising boards, PA system, dustbins, ergonomic
pilgrim stations to be beautified.

Bar-coded tickets to be introduced at select stations Clean my Coach: Passengers

will be able to demand on pilot basis to tackle nuisance of ticketless travel.
cleaning of a toilet via SMS. The audit will be done by

Two elevated suburban railway corridors

third party and action to be taken based on passenger
Churchgate-Virar and CST-Panvel to be constructed
in Mumbai; Ring railway covering 21 stations to be Tejas: It will showcase the
future of train travel in revived with state participation.
India with operating speeds of 130 kmph.

GPS-based digital display in coaches for showing Rail Mitra Sewa: Expanding
Sarathi Seva in Konkan
upcoming stations.
Railway to help the old and disabled passengers,

North-East India, especially Mizoram and Manipur,

strengthening the existing services for enabling
to be connected through broad gauge soon.
passengers to book battery operated cars, porter

1,600 km of electrification this year and 2,000 km

services, etc. on a paid basis in addition to the existing
proposed for the next year.
pick up and drop, and wheel chair services.
16th January: The DSC Prize for South Asian Literature 2016
has been conferred upon Anuradha Roy for her novel
1st January: India and Pakistan exchanged the list of their Sleeping on Jupiter at
the Fairway Galle Literary Festival nuclear installations under a bilateral agreement
that bars in Sri Lanka.
them from attacking each others atomic facilities.
17th January: NASA/NOAA/European Jason-3 successfully
2nd January: President Pranab Mukherjee gives nod to the launches SpaceX Falcon
9 rocket from Vandenberg Air Force Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act;
the Base, California.

Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of 19th January: Ministry
of Shipping launches Project Green Atrocities) Amendment Act; the Commercial
Courts, Ports which will help in making the Major Ports across Commercial Division
and Commercial Appellate Division India cleaner and greener.
of High Courts Act; The Atomic Energy (Amendment) Act;
and the Payment of Bonus (Amendment) Act, 2015.
20th January: Bihar Government approves 35 per
cent reservation for women in government jobs in the state
4th January: Former defence secretary R.K. Mathur sworn including reserved and
unreserved category.
in as the eighth Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) by
President Pranab Mukherjee at a ceremony at Rashtrapati 20th January: Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Bhavan in Delhi.
launches PSLV-C31 rocket successfully, carrying 5th satellite
(out of 7) of India Regional Navigation Satellite System
4th January: Sarosh Homi Kapadia, the 38th Chief Justice of (IRNSS), the IRNSS-1E
from Satish Dhawan Space Centre India, passes away in Mumbai.
(SDSC), Sriharikota, near Chennai.
6th January: Union Cabinet approves the closure of the 20th January: Nai Manzil
Scheme launched in Jammu and iconic HMT Watches and offered a voluntary
retirement Kashmir.
scheme (VRS) to its employees as per the 2007 pay scales.
21st January: Andhra Pradesh Government launches
7th January: Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir Mufti Giriputrika Kalyana
Pathakam Scheme to support the tribal Mohammad Sayeed passed away of multiple
organ failure women in their quest for livelihood.
in New Delhi.
22nd January: Prime Minister Narendra Modi flags off a
8th January: President Pranab Mukherjee gives his assent new train, Mahanama
Express, connecting Varanasi to the to the Sugar Cess (Amendment) Bill, 2015.
national capital through Lucknow.
9th January: Jammu and Kashmir Governor N.N. Vohra 26th January:
International Customs Day was celebrated imposed Governors Rule in the State as
efforts to persuade by the custom organizations.
PDP president Mehbooba Mufti to take oath as Chief
Minister failed.
26th January: India celebrates its 67th Republic Day amidst
tight security in view of the terror attacks in Paris and at
11th January: Former Gujarat cadre IAS officer Devender the Pathankot air base.
French President Francois Hollande Kumar Sikri takes oath as the Chairman of
Competition was the chief guest at the Republic Day parade.
Commission of India.
26th January: The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
12th January: 24th edition of the New Delhi World Book Tribes (Prevention of

Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2015

Fair was inaugurated by the Union Human Resource comes into force.
Minister Smriti Irani on 9th January at Pragati Maidan with
China as the Guest of Honour Country.
29th January: J.S. Deepak appointed as the Secretary of the
Department of Telecommunications. He will replace Rakesh
12th January: Kerala declared as the countrys first state to Garg, who has been
moved to Minority Affairs Ministry, achieve cent percent primary education.
almost ten months ahead of his retirement.
15th January: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2015 has come into force and repeals the
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000.
15th January: State Bank of India (SBI) has launched 1st February: Indian
filmmaker Kanu Behl directorial Titli
dedicated specialized branch for start-ups called SBI won the Best First Foreign Film
Award conferred by the InCube in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
French Syndicate of Cinema Critics 2016 (FSCC). The
16th January: Prime Minister Narendra Modi launches the awards were held on 1st
February in Paris.
ambitious Startup India campaign to improve the 2nd February: Former RBI
Deputy Governor S S Tarapore situation of entrepreneurship.
passes away.
Diary of National Events in 2016
4th February: World Cancer Day was observed to increase the Kalinga Lancers 6-1
in the final at the Astro Turf awareness of cancer and to support its prevention,
Stadium in Ranchi.
detection, and treatment.
22nd February: Malayalam film Ottal has been named the
4th February: State Bank of India has joined hands with best childrens film at the
Berlin International Film Festival travel company Thomas Cook India as it launched a
and honoured with the Crystal Bear award in the
recurring deposit product for holiday savings.
Generation KPlus section.
5th February: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated 23rd February: Indias
leading private lender Yes Bank has the 2016 South Asian Games in Guwahati. The
event is received the inaugural Green Bond Pioneer Award.
scheduled to take place from 5th February to 16th February 24th February: The
Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime 2016 in Guwahati and Shillong.
Minister Narendra Modi has given its approval for
8th February: Gujarat state government to set up Indias establishment of Atal
Innovation Mission (AIM) and Self first-ever aviation park with facilities including an
airstrip, Employment and Talent Utilisation (SETU) in NITI Aayog training school,

helipad and space for setting up small with appropriate manpower.

manufacturing units, among others to strengthen the 26th February: Dr Avinash
Chander, Former Scientific aviation sector.
Adviser to Defence Minister and ex-DRDO chief, received
8th February: Dr. Mahesh Sharma, Minister of State for the prestigious
Astronautical Society of Indias Aryabhata Culture and Tourism and Civil Aviation
launched the 247 Award.
Toll Free Tourist Infoline in 12 International Languages.
28th February: Former CAG Vinod Rai appointed first
8th February: The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Chairman of the Banks
Board Bureau.
(TRAI) barred telecom service providers from charging
differential rates for data services, effectively prohibiting
Facebooks Free Basics and Airtel Zero platform by Airtel
in their current form.
1st March: Raisina Dialogues inaugural session held in New
9th February: Chhattisgarh government launched Udyam Delhi.
Aakansha Scheme for promoting micro, small and medium 3rd March: The
Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and enterprises in the state.
Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 was
10th February: National Deworming Day observed, a introduced by Minister of
Finance, Mr. Arun Jaitley, in Lok groundbreaking initiative focused on reducing the
threat Sabha.
of parasitic worm infections.
4th March: Prime Minister, Narendra Modi, launched Setu
11th February: Health Ministry launched the National Bharatam an ambitious
programme with an investment Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) in order
to of ` 50,000 crore to build bridges for safe and seamless travel eradicate
mosquito-borne diseases from India.
on National Highways.
11th February: Karnataka bagged the gold prize for its 4th March: Indias
pioneering film archivist and film scholar Mobile One service at the World
Government Summit in P.K. Nair, the founder and former director of the National
Film Archive of India (NFAI), passed away due to prolonged
13th February: World Radio Day observed. The day was illness.
proclaimed on 3rd November 2011 by UNESCOs 36th 5th March: Mahindra &
Mahindra Chairman and Managing General Conference after originally proposed by
the Director Anand Mahindra has been conferred with
Kingdom of Spain.
Chevalier de la Legion dHonneur (Knight of the Legion of
14th February: West Indies wins the ICC Under-19 Cricket Honour).
World Cup for the first time with five-wicket victory over

three-time winner India in the final in Mirpur.

7th March: Air India flew the worlds longest all-women
operated and supported flight from the national capital to
17th February: Nitin Gadkari, Minister of Shipping, Road San Francisco.
Transport and Highways launches the Website for
Maritime India Summit 2016 www.maritimeinvest.in at 7th March: Maneka Sanjay
Gandhi, Minister of Women and the Ports and Shipping seminar at Make in India
(MII) Child Development launched Mahila e-Haat, an online Summit.
marketing platform for women in New Delhi.
17th February: Minister of State of Environment, Forest and 9th March: Rajya
Sabha passes the National Waterways Climate Change, Prakash Javadekar launches
the Bill 2015.
Environment Information System (ENVIS) portal at the 9th March: Lok Sabha
passes the Enemy Property inauguration of the national interaction-cum-evaluation
(Amendment and Validation) Bill, 2016.
workshop for ENVIS system.
10th March: Justice Balbir Singh Chauhan, a former judge
21st February: Jaypee Punjab Warriors clinched the 2016 of the Supreme Court
appointed Chairman of the 21st Law edition of the Coal India Hockey India League
after beating Commission.
Diary of National Events in 2016
10th March: ISROs Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
successfully launched the 1425 kg IRNSS-1F, the sixth
satellite in the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System 2nd April: A UNIDO
report ranks India sixth among the (IRNSS) from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR,
worlds 10 largest manufacturing countries, up by three
11th March: Minister of Railways Suresh Prabhakar Prabhu 3rd April: Prime
Minister Narendra Modi conferred the launched the Clean My Coach Service that
allows Arabian countrys highest civilian honour the King travellers to get their
compartments cleaned by sending Abdulaziz Sash.
an SMS or by using an app or a designated website.
4th April: Mehbooba Mufti, president of the Peoples
12th March: Chief of the Armys Northern Command, Lt Democratic Party, takes
oath as the first woman Chief Gen N P S Hira has been appointed as Deputy Chief of
Army Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
Staff and would assume office on March 14.
4th April: India and Saudi Arabia sign five agreements,
12th March: Kerala Tourisms new campaign based on including a key pact on
terror financing and money responsible tourism has bagged the prestigious Golden

City Gate Award at the worlds leading travel trade show 5th April: April 5th was
observed as the National Maritime ITB in Berlin.
day across India.
14th March: The Strategic Forces Command of the Services 5th April: The muchawaited Gatiman Express which will launched an Agni-I missile from the Wheeler
Island off the cover the distance from Agra to Nizamuddin station in 90
to 100 minutes flagged off.
Odisha coast. It is a strategic missile that carries a nuclear
5th April: The Start Up India initiative for SC/ST, women
was launched by PM Narendra Modi. The initiative is aimed
15th March: Lok Sabha approves the Real Estate (Regulation at boosting
entrepreneurship in India.
and Development) Bill, 2016 that seeks to create a set of 7th April: April 7th was
celebrated as the World Health rights and obligations for both the consumers and
Day, a global health awareness day.
7th April: The Rajasthan Urban Land (Certification of Titles)
16th March: Renowned Shehnai specialist Ustad Ali Ahmad Bills 2016 was passed
by the state assembly of Rajasthan.
Hussain Khan passed away on following prolonged il ness. 7th April: Veteran
journalist and author Yogendra Bali He was 77 years old.
passed away in New Delhi. He was 86.
19th March: Union urban Development minister M Venkaiah 8th April: Rajasthan
government passes the Rajasthan Naidu was conferred the Skoch Lifetime
Achievement Urban Land (Certification of Titles) Bills 2016 in the state Award.
21st March: Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare 9th
launched Bedaquiline new anti-TB drug for Drug Resistant
April: Union Government gives its nod for setting up
Indias first personal rapid transit (PRT) network for
TB as part of the RNTCP (Revised National Tuberculosis Gurgaon, Haryana.
Control Program) on the eve of World TB Day.
10th April: Priyadarshini Chatterjee was announced as the
23rd March: Union Cabinet gives its ex-post facto approval winner of FBB Femina
Miss India World.
for a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between India 11th April: General JJ
Singh, former Chief of Army Staff of and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) to mobilise
up to $75 India conferred the highest French civilian distinction, billion long-term
investment in the National Investment Officier de lOrdre national de la Lgion
dHonneur (Officer and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF).
of the Legion of Honour).
26th March: Health Ministry launches the countrys 12th April: Jammu-born poet
and novelist Padma Sachdev first, indigenous rotavirus vaccine to combat diarrhoeal

chosen for the prestigious Saraswati Samman for the year deaths.
2015 for her autobiography in Dogri language.
29th March: The Haryana Assembly passes the Haryana 13th April: The
Maharashtra Assembly passes the Backward Classes (Reservation in Services and
Admission Prohibition of Social Boycott Bill.
in Educational Institutions) Bill, 2016 to provide reservation 13th April: An
Implementation Agreement for Ganga for Jats and four other communities in
government jobs Rejuvenation under the Namami Gange Programme was and
signed between the Ministry of Water Resources, River
Development and Ganga Rejuvenation and German
30th March: Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Belgian International
Cooperation (GIZ) of Germany.
counterpart Charles Michel remotely launched Asias
biggest optical telescope, the Aryabhatta Research Institute 13th April: Chess
legend Viswanathan Anand honoured of Observational Sciences (Aries) thats
located in India and with the Hridaynath Mangeshkar Award. Maharashtra built with
Belgian assistance.
Governor C. Vidyasagar Rao presented the award in
Diary of National Events in 2016
14th April: Prime Minister Narendra Modi launches the 25th April: World Malaria
Day (WMD) is an international
Gramoday se Bharat Uday Abhiyan in Mhow, Madhya observance commemorated
every year on 25 April.
27th April: Government decides no mobile phone can be
14th April: PM Narendra Modi inaugurates the Maritime sold in the country without
an in-built panic button and India Summit to be held at the Bombay Convention and
global positioning system (GPS) from January 1, 2017, and Exhibition Centre in
Goregaon from April 14 to 16.
January 1, 2018, respectively.
15th April: The Bhimrao Ambedkar Awas Yojana for 28th April: PSLV-C33, ISROs
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle widows was launched on the 125th birth anniversary
of B launched the 1425 kg IRNSS-1G, the seventh satellite in the R Ambedkar.
Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) from
Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota.
April: Google extends free internet service through WiFi
to 10 railway stations as part of its tie up with Railtel, the 28th April: The World
Day for Safety and Health at Work is internet provider arm of Indian Railways.
an annual international campaign held on 28 April and
17th April: Delhi Government launches second phase of odd- has been observed

by the International Labour even car rationing scheme to check pollution in the
national Organization (ILO) since 2003.
29th April: India and Papua New Guinea sign four
agreements in the areas of healthcare and information
April: Maharashtra government makes it mandatory
to have a track and trace mechanism, and hologram on technology.
liquor bottles to ensure the stuff inside is genuine.
18th April: The Government releases 200 commemorative
coin and 10 circulation coin on the occasion of the 1st May: Indian shooters bag
three gold and a bronze medal Martyrdom day of Tatya Tope, one of the outstanding
on the opening day of the ISSF Junior World Cup.
Indian leaders of the 1857 revolt against the British.
1st May: International Workers Day, also known as Labour
19th April: The 2016 Laureus World Sports Awards in Day celebrated.
Berlin with Novak Djokovic winning the World Sportsman
of the Year Award while Serena Williams wins the Female 1st May: The National
LED programme - Unnat Jyoti by Sportsperson of the Year Award.
Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA) launched in Madhya
Pradesh by Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh Shivraj Singh
20th April: The government merges Rajiv Gandhi Khel Chouhan.
Abhiyan (RGKA), launched by the previous UPA 1st May: The Pradhan Mantri
Ujjwala Yojana launched at government, with the Khelo India programme for Ballia
by PM Modi.
development of sports.
1st May: India and New Zealand sign air services agreement
20th April: The government gives its approval for signing opening the door for
direct flights between the two the Paris Agreement adopted at the 21st Conference
of countries which will boost tourism and trade sectors.
Parties held in Paris in December 2015.
1st May: Mongolia conferred its highest civilian award
20th April: India and Mauritius ink a MoU to promote North Star on two noted
Indian scholars-Lokesh cooperation in traditional medicine and homeopathy.
Chandra and Mansura Haider for their contribution to
Mongolian studies.
April: Scientists at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre,
Thiruvananthapuram, Indias premier rocket lab 1st May: Adi Praman, a web-based
application which manufacture the worlds lightest material called silica enables the
tribal populace of the state get the caste validity aerogel or blue air.
certificates online launched in Maharashtra.
21st April: India ranks at the 133rd position on the 2016 2nd May: Gujarat

Government to provide 10 % reservation World Press Freedom Index, which

assessed how much to economically backward of higher castes.
freedom the media holds in 180 countries.
2nd May: Parliament passes the Mines and Minerals
22nd April: The Government sets up a panel to prepare a (Development and
Regulation) Amendment Bill 2016. The blueprint for doubling farmers income by
Bill amends the Mines and Minerals (Development and
22nd April: The government approves operationalisation Regulation) Act, 1957.
of new Indian Institute of Science Education and Research 2nd May: The
Underground Metro Route from Cubbon (IISER) at Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh.
Park-Magadi Road in Bengaluru flagged off by Union
22nd April: 22nd April is celebrated every year as the Earth Minister for
Parliamentry Affairs Venkaiah Naidu, Karnataka CM Siddaramaiah, Union Minister
25th April: The Eleventh Indo-Mongolia joint training 3rd May: World Press
Freedom Day proclaimed by the UN
Exercise, Nomadic Elephant - 2016 starts to promote General Assembly in
December 1993, following the military associations between India and Mongolia.
recommendation of UNESCOs General Conference.
Diary of National Events in 2016
3rd May: Three Indians among fifty scientists elected as 13th May: Former ISRO
Chairman Prof UR Rao becomes Fellows of The Royal Society, a premier scientific
academy the first Indian to be given the Hall of Fame award by the of the U.K. and
the Commonwealth.
International Astronautical Federation (IAF).
4th May: Andhra Pradesh Agriculture Project wins the 14th May: Simhastha
Declaration released by Prime prestigious World Summit on the Information Society
Minister Narendra Modi along with Sri Lankan President (WSIS) 2016 prize in the eAgriculture category.
Maithripala Sirisena at Ninora village in Ujjain.
5th May: The 15th Set of FIEO Niryat Shree and Niryat 14th May: The Air
Forces of India and the U.S. concluded Bandhu Awards presented to companies
from various their four-week Red Flag aerial combat exercises at Alaska sectors of
exports besides service providers, banks, various in the U.S.
facilitating agencies promoting exports.
16th May: India successfully test-fires its indigenously
5th May: ICICI Bank signs a Memorandum of Understanding developed Advanced
Air Defence (AAD) supersonic (MoU) to establish a strategic partnership with the
New interceptor missile from Abdul Kalam Island launch Development Bank (NDB).
complex in Balasore.

6th May: Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), launches Shourya,

the fifth of a series of six Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs), 16th May: India and the
US hold their first Maritime Security designed in-house and being built by GSL, for
the Indian Dialogue focussing on boosting cooperation in the Coast Guard (ICG).
challenging sector with Washington rebalancing its
military assets to Asia Pacific.
6th May: SpaceXs Falcon 9 rocket placed Sky Perfect JSats
JCSat-14 commercial telecommunications satellite into 16th May: The worlds first
artificial intelligence lawyer transfer orbit, with the rockets first stage landing
gracefully employed by a law firm in the US, which will use the robot on a drone ship
in the Atlantic Ocean.
to assist its various teams in legal research.
7th May: Railways launches the Bharat Darshan Tourist 17th May: Union Minister
of Road Transport & Highways train for pilgrims to visit Shirdi, Tirupati, Jagannath
Puri, and Shipping Nitin Gadkari launches ePACE, INFRACON
Gangasagar, Baidyanath Dham and Jyotirlingams among and an updated version of
INAMPRO, three innovative IT
initiatives of the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways,
8th May: India ranks ninth in crony-capitalism with crony developed in-house by
NHIDCL( National Highways and sector wealth accounting for 3.4 per cent of the
gross Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd.).
domestic product (GDP), according to a new study by The 17th May: Rakesh K Jain,
a 65-year-old Indian American Economist.
scientist is set to receive the prestigious National Medal of
10th May: India and Mauritius sign a protocol to amend Science award from US
President Barack Obama.
taxation methods for the avoidance of double taxation and 17th May: The Income
Tax department launches a special the prevention of fiscal evasion with respect to
taxes on electronic grievance redressal system called e-nivaran to income and
capital gains.
fast track taxpayer grievances and ensures early resolution
10th May: The World Migratory Bird Day 2016 celebrated of their complaints.
with the theme Stop the Illegal Killing, Taking and Trade 18th May: A solar power
plant spread over 42 acres on the of Migratory Birds.
Dera Baba Jaimal Singh (Radha Soami sect) premises
11th May: Rajya Sabha passes the major economic reform inaugurated, which the
government claimed is the worlds Bill i.e. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
largest single rooftop facility.
12th May: The government gives its approval for signing of 18th May: India
successfully test-fires indigenously a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
between developed nuclear capable Prithvi-II missile. The short-Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Financial range surface-to-surface missile was
tested from test range Services Regulatory Authority (FSRA), Abu Dhabi for at

Chandipur in Odisha.
mutual co-operation and technical assistance between the 20th May: The
indigenously developed fecal incontinence two regulators.
management system Qora launched.
12th May: ICICI Bank announces the launch of contactless
business credit card in association with Jet Airways for 20th May: The US House of
Representatives gives its nod to small and mid-sized enterprises (SMEs) and their a
bipartisan legislation to improve defence ties with India.
21th May: Indias idea of putting a red line on antibiotic
13th May: The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) packages to curb their
over-the-counter sale is now being Policy approved laying the future roadmap for
intellectual cited as a model that can be used globally to counter the property in
rising threat of superbugs.
13th May: The World Bank Board approves a $625 million 22nd May: International
Day for Biological Diversity 2016
loan to support the Government of Indias program to observed across the world.
generate electricity from widespread installation of rooftop 23rd May: ISRO
launches RLV-TD from Sriharikota, first solar photo-voltaic (PV).
step towards reusable space shuttle made in India.
Diary of National Events in 2016
26th May: The Government approves establishment of a 6th June: Axis Bank
launches Indias first certified green National Investment and Manufacturing Zone
(NIMZ) in bond at London Stock Exchange after it launched Indias Odisha.
first internationally-listed certified green bond to finance
29th May: Indian Air Force successfully test fires an climate change solutions
around the world.
advanced version of BrahMos land-attack supersonic cruise 7th June: India signs a
$120 million loan agreement with missile system in the western sector of Rajasthan.
the Asian Development Bank to modernize irrigation and
30th May: Trinamool Congress Mamata Banerjee sworn in improve water
management in Odisha.
as chief minister of West Bengal for the second consecutive 7th June: Thailand
becomes first Asian country to eliminate term.
mother to child HIV and syphilis.
31st May: Scientists discover a new property of Light based 8th June: Prime
Minister Narendra Modi addresses the joint on Angular Momentum.
session of the US Congress.
8th June: India becomes third largest oil consumer
surpassing Japan with demand of 4.1 million barrels a day

2nd June: V.O. Chidambaranar Port bags National Award

for Excellence in Cost Management for the year 2015 from 8th June: The World
Oceans Day is observed globally on The Institute of Cost Accountants of India under
the 8th June every year.
category of Public Service Sector- Small.
9th June: The government decides to introduce International
3rd June: Boxing legend Muhammad Ali passes away at a Yoga Award Scheme with
a view to promote yoga starting hospital in the US city of Phoenix, Arizona.
from 2017.
10th June: SBI and Spains CaixaBank ink pact to provide
June: Haryana Government launches Asias first Gyps
Vulture Reintroduction Programme.
loans to Indo-Spanish joint ventures and local enterprises.
11th June: SEBI issues stricter KYC, disclosure norms for PJune: The International Day of Innocent Children Victims
of Aggression is commemorated across the world on 4 June Notes.
every year.
12th June: Indian Diabetes specialist Shashank S Shah wins
Vivian Fonseca Scholar Award 2016.
June: India, Singapore agree to enhance scale of military
interaction of existing bilateral military interaction, at a 12th June: The World Day
against Child Labour is observed time when freedom of navigation in international
every year on June 12.
waterways has emerged as a major concern.
14th June: RBI introduces a Scheme for Sustainable
Structuring of Stressed Assets
June: India ranks 70th on 2015 Good Country Index;
Sweden voted as the best country in the world when it 14th June: SBI and Master
card Partners with Centrum for comes to serving the interests of its people and
contributing distribution of its prepaid forex card. This partnership will to the
common good of humanity.
aid the distribution strength of the Bank for its
multicurrency prepaid card and will largely target the
June: PM Narendra Modi and Afghan President Ashraf
Ghani jointly inaugurate a landmark dam, 1,700 crore corporate customers of the
showpiece infrastructure project by India in strategically 14th June: World Blood
Donor Day is observed every year important Herat province.
on June 14.

4th June: PM Modi conferred with Amir Amanullah Khan 14th June: Ministry of
Railways signs a JV Agreement with Award, Afghanistans highest civilian honour by
President Government of Odisha for formation of Joint Venture Ashraf Ghani after
the inauguration of the landmark Company for development of Railway
Infrastructure in the Afghan-India Friendship Dam in Herat yesterday.
5th June: Indian-origin professor Lord Kumar 15th June: The Union Ministry of New
and Renewable Bhattacharyya awarded Regius Professorship by Queen Energy
(MNRE) launches a scheme for setting up of 1000
Elizabeth II for his outstanding contribution in Mega Watt (MW) Wind Power Project
connected to manufacturing.
transmission network of Central Transmission Utility
5th June: World Environment Day is celebrated annually (CTU).
on June 5 to educate global awareness to take positive 15th June: The govt gives
its approval for the Civil Aviation environmental action to protect nature and the
planet Policy. This is the first time since Independence that an Earth.
integrated Civil Aviation Policy has been brought out.
6th June: Himachal Pradesh becomes the first state in the 15th June: The
Memorandum of Understanding between country to have a State Data Centre
(SDC), designed using Department of Space / Indian Space Research Organization
green data centre concept, to offer 101 people-oriented (DOS/ISRO) and Canadian
Space Agency (CSA) on
service online through an integrated data base.
cooperation in the field of outer space.
Diary of National Events in 2016
15th June: Andhra Pradesh becomes the first state to start 23rd June: Indian
cricket board appoints former skipper Internet-based phone service and it can issue
phone and spin legend Anil Kumble as the national coach for a numbers starting
with the 797 series from August this year. term of one-year, thereby ending the 16year tradition of 16th June: The Rise of Environmental Crime Report released
giving foreigners the role.
by UNEP and INTERPOL. The Environmental crime extended 23rd June: A Pilot
Programme in the country to run two largely up to 26% from the previous record in
wheelers on Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is launched
16th June: A mobile app to help senior citizens in distress to curtail rising air
pollution in Indian cities.
launched by HelpAge India in connection with World Elder 24th June: G.D. Birla
Award for Prof. Sanjay Mittal from the Abuse Awareness Day.
Department of Aerospace Engineering, IIT Kanpur for
16th June: VIDYANJALI- A new initiative launched to involve Scientific Research for
volunteers into the co-scholastic activities of schools.

25th June: Social entrepreneur Zubaida Bai bags UN honour

17th June: Cochin Shipyard (CSL) delivers Fast Patrol Vessel for Corporate
Sustainability Initiative among 10
ICGS to Indian Coast Guard 95 days ahead of the Champions and Pioneers.
contractual schedule.
26th June: Argentinas skipper and ace footballer Lionel
19th June: The govt to promote Cargo transport through Messi announces his
retirement from international duty Coastal Shipping and Inland Waterways. A
National after missing a penalty shootout as Argentina lost a fourth workshop on
Promotion of Modal Shift of Cargo to Coastal major final in nine years.
Shipping and Inland Waterways organised.
26th June: India, Nepal consent to use global navigation
20th June: Each year 20th June is observed internationally satellite system for
border pillars.
as World Refugee Day to raise awareness of the situation of Over 8,000 pillars
decided to be linked along the India-Nepal refugees throughout the world.
border to a global navigation satellite system.
21st June: A new clause amended to the Income-tax Rule, 27th June: India joins
the Missile Technology Control Regime 1962 which provides sufficient time to the
reporting (MTCR) as a full member, after it failed to get NSG
Financial Institutions for completing the due diligence membership due to stiff
opposition from China and a few procedure in respect of other reportable account
referred other countries.
to in Rule 114H (3)(d)(ii), which is of high value account as
on 31st December, 2015.
28th June: NS Vishwanathan appointed as the new deputy
21st June: Second International Yoga Day is being hosted at governor of the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) by the the Capitol Complex in Chandigarh, designed by
French Appointments Committee of the Cabinet chaired by PM
architect Le Corbusier with the participation of PM Modi. Narendra Modi.
22nd June: The Drugs and Cosmetics (Amendment) Bill, 29th June: Supreme
Court sends an appeal seeking quashing 2013 is to be withdrawn. Several
recommendations are to of a penal provision that criminalises consensual sexual be
made in the Bill by the Standing Committee of Parliament acts between adults of
the same sex before the Chief Justice after being examined thorough.
of India to choose whether a Constitution Bench should
hear the appeal.
22nd June: A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
between India and Steinbeis GmbH Co. KG for 29th June: The govt considers Model
Shops and Technologietransfer, Germany approved on technology Establishments
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions resourcing in manufacturing, including
sub-sectors of of Service) Bill, 2016.
Capital Goods.
29th June: Indigenously-built heavyweight anti-submarine

22nd June: A fund of funds approved for funding Startups torpedo Varunastra
successfully inducted in the Indian at Small Industries Development Bank of India
(SIDBI) for Navy.
contribution to various Alternative Investment Funds 29th June: NS Vishwanathan
appointed as deputy governor (AIF), to extend funding support to Startups.
of the RBI. He will have a term of three years and will succeed
22nd June: In its thirty sixth flight (PSLV-C34), ISROs Polar Harun R Khan.
Satellite Launch Vehicle successfully launched the 727.5 kg
Cartosat-2 Series Satellite along with 19 co-passenger
satellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR,
1st July: Two indigenously developed Tejas Light Combat
22nd June: The Southern Naval Command celebrates the Aircraft are set to join the
Indian Air Force as part of the World Hydrographic Day by following a theme which
first squadron.
emphasizes on managing the sea and waterways in an 2nd July: The International
Driving Permit (IDP) issued by efficient way.
the State transport department has almost become an
22nd June: A set of measures that would bring in more invalid document as some
countries, including the United flexibility in labour laws in the textile and apparel
sector States, are yet to include Telangana in the list of Indian announced for job
creation & export promotion in the sector. States in their official database.
Diary of National Events in 2016
3rd July: The Ministry of Environment and Forests said the 14th July: Centre clears
deck for IIMC to become a deemed Adani Port and SEZ Ltd (APSEZ), may have to
pay a fine far media university.
greater than what was fixed by the UPA government in 14th July: Indias Defense
Research and Development 2012, for the environmental damage caused by the
Organization (DRDO) successfully conducted proof firing construction of its port
project in Mundra, Gujarat.
tests of a new towed gun currently being developed for the
4th July: Supreme Court asked the NDA government to Indian Army.
investigate the barriers preventing disabled persons from 16th July: The Union
Home Ministry has decided to disband entering government service, especially into
the higher the Special Task Force on womens safety in Delhi, a move ranks, as its
states obligation to provide them at least 3% which Delhi Commission for Women
(DCW) today termed reservation in public sector jobs.
as highly retrograde and anti-women.
4th July: Indias first insurance policy covering public 16th July: Lifeline Express,
touted to be the worlds first liability to an atomic power plant operator has been
issued hospital-train, started in 1991 to provide medical aid and to Nuclear Power
Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL). The relief to far-flung and inaccessible areas, today

completed total premium came around Rs. 100 crore for a risk cover of 25 years of
its operation.
` 1,500 crore
17th July: K. Keshavulu, director, Telangana State Seed
5th July: The Kerala Government Cabinet clearing The Certification Agency,
Hyderabad, has been elected as the Legislative Assembly (Removal of
Disqualifications) member of the executive committee of the International
Amendment Bill.
Seed Testing Association (ISTA) for a three-year term (2016
5th July: Union HRD Ministry launches Prashikshak, an 2019).
online teacher education portal
18th July: Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) in Sikkim
6th July: The Supreme Court held the railway has been named a world heritage site
by the World administration liable for the tragic deaths of 19 youths who Heritage
Committee (WHC) of UNESCO.
fatally hit a foot-over bridge while travelling on the roof 18th July: The Union
Cabinet under the Chairmanship of of an express train, which failed to stop even
after the Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Wednesday approved incident.
The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill 2016.
8th July: Agriculture Minister Radha Mohan Singh launched 19th July: Multiple life
term will run concurrently, not an online portal designed to monitor functioning of
Krishi consecutively pronounced SC. Like any human being, a Vigyan Kendras
(KVKs) also known as farm-science convict too has only one life and cannot serve
consecutive centres.
sentences of life imprisonment.
9th July: Captain Radhika Menon, first woman captain of 20th July: The Supreme
Court has dragged the moribund the Indian Merchant Navy will receive International
Board of Control for Cricket in India kicking and screaming Maritime Organisation
(IMO) Award for Exceptional into the 21st century.
Bravery at Sea.
20th July: An Indian Air Force AN-32 transport plane went
10th July: Meghalaya Governor V.Shanmuganathan missing on Friday with 29
people on board.
launched the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva
Abhiyan(PMSMA) in the East KhasiHills District.
21st July: The merits of Indias candidature have
been recognised by a majority of the NSG members,
11th July: President Pranab Mukherjee conferred the 51st including in formal
bilateral Joint Statements, minister of Jnanpith Award on renowned Gujarati writer
litterateur Dr. Raghuveer Chaudhari at a function in New state for external affairs VK
Singh said in Rajya Sabha.
22nd July: Uttarakhand: Pillar of railway bridge collapses

12th July: Alappuzha, Panaji and Mysuru are three of the after heavy rains.
cleanest cities in India, with municipal waste management 22nd July: The Solar
Power Tree, a unique concept to systems that actually work, a latest rating by
Centre for generate electricity by harnessing the solar energy, has been Science
and Environment (CSE).
launched by the Union Ministry of Science and Technology,
12th July: The urban development ministry has approved on 22nd July, 2016.
an assistance of ` 658 crore for five major infrastructure 24th July: The West
Bengal Government honoured singer projects aimed at unclogging key stretches in
and music director Bapi Lahiri with this prestigious award,
13th July: SC quashes Arunachal Pradesh Governors order, on the 36th death
anniversary of Uttam Kumar.
restores Nabam Tuki govt. to power.
25th July: The Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Bill
14th July: Operation Sankat Mochan: 143 Indians evacuated was passed on 25th
July, 2016 in the Lok Sabha.
from South Sudan. It is the first big evacuation effort in a 25th July: An energy
yearning India opened the gateways year after Operation Rahat evacuated
hundreds of citizens to explore new resources in a first of its kind venture, into of
India and other countries in July 2015.
the Indian Ocean.
Diary of National Events in 2016
26th July: The reputed Scimago Institutions Rankings Report 7th August: The
newly elected leader of Gujarat BJP, Vijay ranked the Council of Scientific Industrial
Research (CSIR, Rupani, was sworn in as the 16th Chief Minister of Gujarat.
India) as the 12th best government institution, on a global 7th August: At long last
the Kerala Congress (M) [KC(M)]
index, comprising of 746 institutions.
has decided to sever its ties with the United Democratic
27th July: Under the aegis of the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Front (UDF) for all
practical purposes and will form a Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY), The Union Cabinet, has
separate block in the Assembly.
sanctioned the establishment of a All India Institute of 7th August:Prime Minister
Narendra Modi on his first visit Medical Sciences at Bhatinda in Punjab.
to Telangana on Sunday laid the foundation stone for five
27th July: The Lok Sabha has passed the Benami Transaction infrastructure
projects apart from inaugurating the Bill, to curb domestic black money.
Bhageeratha Drinking water mission.
28th July: A defence deal has been signed between the US 8th August: Eleven
years after the GST was first proposed and India to purchase four additional P -8I
aircrafts, by former Finance Minister P. Chidambaram, in 2005, renowned for anti
submarine warfare, anti surface Parliament on 8th August 2016 passed the Bill.

warfare, long range marine surveillance and 8th August: The Ministry of Home
Affairs (MHA) on Monday reconnaissance.
issued an inspection notice to Islamic preacher Zakir Naiks
28th July: Mahasweta Devi breather her last a renowned Islamic Research
Foundation (IRF) for alleged Foreign city hospital in Kolkata. Devi was a Bengali
fiction writer Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) violations.
and a social activist.
8th August: The steering committee of the International
28th July: Father of Hybrid Sorghum in India, Dr. Neelamraju Union for
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources Ganga Prasad Rao, aged 89, passed
away in Telangana, (IUCN) informed Dr. Dhrubajyoti Ghosh, the first Indian
environmental activist to receive the Luc Hoffman award,
29th July: At a critical time, when the number of tigers, about the recognition on
globally are at a record low, the International Tiger Day 10th August: Russian
President Vladimir Putin, PM
was celebrated.
Narendra Modi, and CM Jayalalithaa through a video
29th July: In Jhajjar, the Haryana Government has launched conference dedicated
the first unit of the Kudankulam an insurance cover scheme for cattle breeders in
the state, Nuclear Power Project (KKNPP) to the nation on 10th under the
nomenclature, Pashudhan Bima Yojana.
August after 28 years of Russia and India signed the
30th July: A 114 km long eco friendly rail corridor was agreement to set up the
plant. The 1,000-MWe KNPP-1 is launched in the Rameswaram Manamadurai
stretch in the largest single unit of electrical power in India.
Tamil Nadu.
11th August: The Karnataka State Road Transport
31st July: KD Jadhav, the 27-year-old went on to create Corporation will introduce
an air-conditioned sleeper history, becoming the first Indian to win an Olympic
medal (Carona) bus between Kukke Subrahmanya and Bengaluru (bronze)in Helsinki
Olympics 1952 in an individual sport. on August 17, 2016.
11th August: The Gujarat Land Acquisition Bill 2016, that
dilutes the Centres stringent provisions of the Land
Acquisition Act 2013, has been given approval by the
1st August: The Aligarh Muslim University selected 42 President and will take
effect on Independence Day.
people from different spheres as members of AMU Court, 12th August: The Assam
Assembly unanimously passed the highest governing body of the varsity, with
President the Constitution Amendment Bill on GST on Friday, Pranab Mukherjees
son Abhijeet along with Ashok Seth becoming the first State to ratify the crucial tax
reform (cardiologist), Zafar Iqbal (Hockey), Syed Zillur Rahman legislation.

(Unani), Gopichand Narang (Urdu), etc.

13th August: Pramukh Swami, the 95-year-old founder of
2nd August: The Supreme Court directed the Odisha Akshardham temples and a
saint of the Swaminarayan government to pay additional compensation to victims of
sect, passed away after prolonged illness at the Sarangpur the 2008 anti-Christian
violence in Kandhamal.
temple, on 13th August.
3rd August: The Constitution Amendment Bill (122nd) 15th August: Prime
Minister Narendra Modi on 15th August passed by the Rajya Sabha to enable a
uniform Goods and launched a sharp attack on Pakistan for its support to Services
Tax (GST) regime throughout India.
terrorism and thanked the people of Balochistan, Gilgit and
6th August: The Supreme Court directed the central Pakistan-occupied Kashmir
(PoK) for their recent messages government for amending the Food Safety and
Standards of support.
Act, 2006 and the Indian Penal Code to incorporate penal 17th August: The Indian
Gold Coins are of 24 karat purity, provisions making adulteration of milk with
chemicals - 999 fineness and has the national emblem of Ashok Chakra adversely
affecting the health of the people - punishable engraved on one side and the face of
Mahatma Gandhi as in with life imprisonment.
currency notes on the other.
Diary of National Events in 2016
18th August: P.V. Sindhu lifted the gloom by storming into 27th August: The
Madras High Court has decided to digitise the final of the womens singles with a
21-19, 21-10 win around 20 crore pages of case bundles as well as over Japans
Nozomi Okuhara on 18th August. Sindhu will administrative files and store them
digitally for easy access.
meet Carolina Marin of Spain on 19th August for gold medal An experienced private
company has been engaged to scan match.
all the documents.
18th August: Sakshi had earned a bronze after losing to 28th August: India on
28th August became only the fourth Valeriia Koblova Zholobova. It was the first
medal for an nation to flight-test a scramjet engine, a technology that Indian
woman wrestler at the Olympics, and the fourth scientists claim could change the
way space travel is overall after Karnam Malleswari (weightlifting, Sydney
undertaken from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, 2000), Saina Nehwal
(badminton) and M.C. Mary Kom Sriharikota.
(boxing), both in London 2012.
29th August: India, Myanmar to build bridges, sign pact for
19th August: Rising silicosis deaths in North 24 Parganas 69 bridges, including
approach roads in the Tamu-Kyigone-district of West Bengal a concern. 189 silica
dust affected Kalewa section of the Trilateral Highway, which will workers have been
identified in Minakhan so far and 20 of

them (excluding Paik) died due to silicosis.

establish better connectivity between India and Southeast
20th August: The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
(ACC) announced the appointment of Reserve Bank of India 29th August: The West
Bengal Assembly passed a resolution Deputy Governor Urijit Patel, a macroeconomist as changing the name of the State to Bengal in English and successor to
Governor Raghuram Rajan. The choice of Dr. Bangla in Bengali. Despite the
Trinamool Congress Patel reflects the governments preference for continuity to
governments efforts to forge a consensus on the resolution, the Rajan tradition. Dr.
Patel, working closely with Dr. the Congress, the Left Front, and the BJP did not
support Rajan, is piloting Indias transition to a new monetary the resolution.
policy regime. He was appointed deputy governor in 2013. 30th August: A
passion for programming and computer 21st August: Following Rail Hoons or
hooligans exhibiting Olympiad medals took teen from Mumbai to Boston.
their graffiti art on two coaches of Madgaon-Mangaluru Seventeen-year-old Malvika
Raj Joshi doesnt have a class Central-Madgaon diesel multiple unit (DEMU) train, X
or XII certificate but has made it to the prestigious Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd.
(KRCL) has initiated an Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), thanks to her
investigation by the Railway Protection Force.
computer programming talent.
21st August: A Curative Bench, led by Chief Justice of India 30th August: The
Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) has T.S. Thakur, has upheld a 2014 Supreme
Court verdict that decided to appoint Olympic silver medallist P. V. Sindhu as men
cannot be automatically arrested on dowry its brand ambassador. The 21-year-old
badminton player harassment complaints filed by their wives.
had agreed to become the forces brand ambassador.
24th August: The Supreme Court on Wednesday asked the 30th August: The
Union Cabinet on Tuesday gave post facto Tamil Nadu government to face criticism
of its State policies approval to the ordinance, a first in the independent and not
choke legitimate dissent by using the state parliamentary history of the country,
promulgated by machinery and the public prosecutors office.
President Pranab Mukherjee late on Sunday night to amend
25th August: On the decision of the NITI Aayog to scrap the the Enemy Property
MCI and replace it with the National Medical Commission, 31st August: In a reality
check to State acquisition of Dr. Jayshree Mehta, president of the Medical Council of
India agricultural land under emergency clause for industrial termed it the remedy
more dangerous than the disease. projects of private companies, the Supreme
Court on 31st 26th August: Women be permitted to enter the sanctum August
quashed the CPI (M)-led West Bengal governments sanctorum of the Haji Ali Dargah
at par with men, ruled acquisition of 997 acres of agricultural land for industry the
Bombay High Court in a landmark verdict allowing captain Tata Motors Nano plant
in Singur. The SC ordered the entry of women up to the mazar in the revered Sufi to

return it to thousands of short-changed landowners, dargah in south central

farmers and cultivators.
With reference to Initiative for Nutritional Security
Which of the following is/are tributary tributaries of
through Intensive Millets Promotion, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Dibang
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the
2. Kameng
improved production and post-harvest
3. Lohit
technologies, and to demonstrate value
Select the correct answer using the code given
addition techniques, in an integrated manner,
with cluster approach.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
larger stake in this scheme.
In which of the following regions of India are shale
3. An important objective of the scheme is to
gas resources found?
encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift
1. Cambay Basin
to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of
2. Cauvery Basin
critical inputs of nutrients and micro irrigation
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
Select the correct answer using the code given
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Recently, linking of which of the following rivers 7. Which of the following is/are the
advantage /
was undertaken?
advantages of practising drip irrigation?
(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra
1. Reduction in weed
(b) Godavari and Krishna
(c) Mahanadi and Sone
2. Reduction in soil salinity
(d) Narmada and Tapti
3. Reduction in soil erosion
Recently, which of the following States has explored
Select the correct answer using the code given
the possibility of constructing an artificial inland
port to be connected to sea by a long navigational
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan
(d) None of the above is an advantage of practising
drip irrigation
Why does the Government of India promote the use
The FAO accords the status of Globally Important
of Neem-coated Urea in agriculture?
Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS) to
(a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases
traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall

nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms

goal of this initiative?
(b) Neem coating slows down the rate of
1. To provide modern technology, training in
dissolution of urea in the soil
modern farming methods and financial
(c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not
support to local communities of identified
at all released into atmosphere by crop fields
GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their
(d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a
agricultural productivity
fertilizer for particular crops
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly
traditional farm practices and their associated 9.
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
landscapers, agricultural biodiversity and
Yojana, consider the following statements:
knowledge systems of the local communities
1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a
3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all
uniform premium of two percent for any crop
the varieties of agricultural produce in such
they cultivate in any season of the year.
identified GIAHS
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising
Select the correct answer using the code given
out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It originated in the World Summit on
Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg
10. Consider the following pairs :

in 2002.
T erm s so m etim es s een in th e n ew s T h eir origin
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 . A n n ex I C o u n tries
C a rta gen a P ro toco l
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2 . C ertified E m iss io n s R ed u ction s
N a goya P rotoc ol
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3 . Clea n D evelop m en t M ech a n is m
Kyo to P rotoc ol
15. Consider the following statements:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(1) The International Solar Alliance was launched
at the United Nations Climate Change
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Conference in 2015.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(2) The Alliance includes all the member countries
of the United Nations.
11. With reference to an initiative called The
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB),
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
which of the following statements is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and 16. With reference to the Agreement at
World Economic Forum.
Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing
statements is/are correct?
attention to the economic benefits of
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member
countries of the UN and it will go into effect in
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-

makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the
2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse
value of ecosystems and biodiversity.
gas emissions so that the rise in average global
Select the correct answer using the code given
temperature by the end of this century does not
exceed 2 C or even 1.5 C above pre-industrial
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Developed countries acknowledged their
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
historical responsibility in global warming and
Proper design and effective implementation of UNcommitted to donate $ 1000 billion a year from
REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to
2020 to help developing countries to cope with
1. protection of biodiversity
climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. resilience of forest ecosystems
3. poverty reduction
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called
13. What is Greenhouse Gas Protocol?
the Club of Rome.
(a) It is an international accounting tool for
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be

government and business leaders to

achieved by 2030.
understand, quantify and manage greenhouse
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
gas emissions
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
financial incentives to developing countries to 18. The term Intended Nationally
reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt
Contributions is sometimes seen in the news in the
eco-friendly technologies
context of
(a) pledges made by the European countries to
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified
rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected
by all the member countries of the United
Middle East
Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to
(b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the
specified levels by the year 2022
world to combat climate change
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives
(c) capital contributed by the member countries in
hosted by the World Bank
the establishment of Asian Infrastructure
14. With reference to Agenda 21, sometimes seen in
Investment Bank
the news, consider the following statements :
(d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable
world regarding Sustainable Development
19. What is/are the importance/importance of the
Select the correct answer using the code given
United Nations Convention to Combat

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only
1. It aims to promote effective action through
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
innovative national programs and supportive 24. In the cities of our country, which
among the
inter-national partnerships.
following atmospheric gases are normally
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia
considered in calculating the value of Air Quality
and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat
facilitates the allocation of major portion of
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
financial resources to these regions.
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach,
5. Methane
encouraging the participation of local people in
Select the correct answer using the code given
combating the desertification.
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Which of the following are the key features of
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)?
1. River basin is the unit of planning and
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at
20. Which of the following best describes/ describe the
the national level.

aim of Green India Mission of the Government of

3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through
which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman
1. Incorporating environment al benefits and
of NGRBA on rotation basis.
costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby
Select the correct answer using the code given
implementing the green accounting
2. Launching the second green revolution to
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
enhance agricultural output so as to ensure
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
food security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and
responding to climate change by a combination 26. What is/are unique about
Kharai camel, a breed of adaptation and mitigation measures
found in India?
Select the correct answer using the code given
1. It is capable of swimming up to three
kilometers in seawater.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
21. Net metering is sometimes seen in the news in the
Select the correct answer using the code given
context of promoting the
(a) production and use of solar energy by the
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of 27. Recently, our scientists have
discovered a new and households

distinct species of banana plant which attains a

(c) installation of CNG kits in motor-cars
height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured
(d) installation of water meters in urban
fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been
22. Gadgil Committee Report and Kasturirangan
(a) Andaman Islands
Committee Report, sometimes seen in the news, are
(b) Anaimalai Forests
related to
(c) Maikala Hills
(a) constitutional reforms
(d) Tropical rain forests of northeast
(b) Ganga Action Plan
28. With reference to Red Sanders, sometimes seen in
(c) linking of rivers
the news, consider the following statements:
(d) protection of Western Ghats
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
23. On which of the following can you find the Bureau
2. It is one of the most important trees in the
of Energy Efficiency Star Label?
tropical rain forest areas of South India.
1. Ceiling fans
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Electric geysers
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Recently, for the first time in our country, which of 34. With reference to
Financial Stability and the following States has declared a particular
Development Council, consider the following
butterfly as State Butterfly?
statements :
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra

2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.

30. In which of the following regions of India are you
3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the
most likely to come across the Great Indian
Hornbill in its natural habitat?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
35. With reference to Bitcoins, sometimes seen in the
(d) Western Ghats
news, which of the following statements is/are
1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the
31. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Marginal
Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)
2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and
announced by RBI?
receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin
1. These guidelines help improve the
transparency in the methodology followed by
3. Online payments can be sent without either
banks for determining the interest rates on
side knowing the identity of the other.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. These guidelines help ensure availability of
bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
borrowers as well as the banks.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 36. Regarding Atal Pension
Yojana, which of the (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
following statements is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme
32. The establishment of Payment Banks is being
mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.
allowed in India to promote financial inclusion.
2. Only one member of a family can join the
Which of the following statements is/are correct in
this context?
3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket
chains that are owned and controlled by
spouse for life after subscribers death.
residents are eligible to be promoters of
Select the correct answer using the code given
Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
debit cards.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending 37. The term Base Erosion and Profit
Shifting is
sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) mining operation by multinational companies
in resource-rich but backward areas
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
33. The term Core Banking Solutions is sometimes
(c) exploitation of genetic resources of a country by
seen in the news. Which of the following statements
multinational companies

best describes/describe this term?

(d) lack of consideration of environmental costs in
1. It is a networking of a banks branches which
the planning and implementation of
enables customers to operate their accounts
developmental projects
from any branch of the bank on its network 38. There has been a persistent deficit
budget year after regardless of where they open their accounts.
year. Which action/actions of the following can be
2. It is an effort to increase RBIs control over
taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?
commercial banks through computerization.
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
huge non-performing assets is taken over by
3. Rationalizing subsidies
another bank.
4. Reducing import duty
Select the correct answer using the code given
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
39. Which of the following is/are included in the capital 46. Consider the following
statements : budget of the Government of India?
1. New Development Bank has been set up by
1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads,
buildings, machinery, etc.
2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is
2. Loans received from foreign governments
in Shanghai.
3. Loans and advances granted to the States and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Union Territories
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
47. What is/are the purpose/purposes of Governments
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme and Gold
40. With reference to the Trans-Pacific Partnership,
Monetization Scheme?
consider the following statements:
1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian
1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim
households into the economy
countries except China and Russia.
2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector
2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of
3. To reduce Indias dependence on gold imports
maritime security only.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
41. European Stability Mechanism, sometimes seen in 48. Global Financial
Stability Report is prepared by the the news, is an
(a) European Central Bank
(a) agency created by EU to deal with the impact of
(b) International Monetary Fund
millions of refugees arriving from Middle East
(c) International Bank for Reconstruction and
(b) agency of EU that provides financial assistance

to eurozone countries
(d) Organization for Economic Cooperation and
(c) agency of EU to deal with all the bilateral and
multilateral agreements on trade
49. With reference to the International Monetary and
(d) agency of EU to deal with the conflicts arising
among the member countries
Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following
42. The term Regional Comprehensive Economic
statements :
Partnership often appears in the news in the
1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the
context of the affairs of a group of countries known
global economy, and advises the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its
(a) G20
(c) SCO
2. The World Bank participates as observer in
43. In the context of which of the following do you
IMFCs meetings.
sometimes find the terms amber box, blue box and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
green box in the news?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) WTO affairs
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) SAARC affairs
50. Which of the following best describes the term
(c) UNFCCC affairs
import cover, sometimes seen in the news?
(d) India-EU negotiations on FTA
(a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross
44. Recently, which one of the following currencies has
Domestic Product of a country
been proposed to be added to the basket of IMFs
(b) It is the total value of imports of a country in a

(a) Ruble
(b) Rand
(c) It is the ratio between the value of exports and
(c) Indian Rupee
(d) Renminbi
that of imports between two countries
45. With reference to IFC Masala Bonds, sometimes
(d) It is the number of months of imports that
seen in the news, which of the statements given
could be paid for by a countrys international
below is/are correct?
1. The International Finance Corporation, which 51. With reference to Stand up
India scheme, which of offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
the following statement is/are correct?
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are
1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship
a source of debt financing for the public and
among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
private sector.
2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at
58. Regarding DigiLocker, sometimes seen in the news,
(a) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal
which of the following statements is/are correct?
financial system
1. It is a digital locker system offered by the
(b) providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating
Government under Digital India Programme.

particular crops
2. It allows you to access your e-documents
(c) providing pensions to old and destitute
irrespective of your physical location.
Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) funding the voluntary organizations involved
in the promotion of skill development and
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
employment generation
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
53. Indias ranking in the Ease of Doing Business Index 59. Which of the following
is/are the indicator/
is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the
indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global
following has declared that ranking?
Hunger Index Report?
(a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and
1. Undernourishment
Development (OECD)
2. Child stunting
(b) World Economic Forum
3. Child mortality
(c) World Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
54. Recently, Indias first National Investment and
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Manufacturing Zone was proposed to be set up in
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
55. Which one of the following is a purpose of UDAY,
a scheme of the Government?

60. In the context of the developments in

(a) Providing technical and financial assistance to
Bioinformatics, the term transcriptome,
start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable
sometimes seen in the news, refers to
sources of energy
(a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing
(b) Providing electricity to every household in the
(b) the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by
country by 2018
an organism
(c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with
(c) the description of the mechanism of gene
natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal
power plants over a period of time
(d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place
(d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival
in cells
of power distribution companies
61. Mission Indradhanush launched by the
56. What is/are the purpose/purposes of District
Government of India pertains to
Mineral Foundations in India?
(a) immunization of children and pregnant women
1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in
(b) construction of smart cities across the country
mineral-rich districts
(c) Indias own search for the Earth-like planets in
2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected
outer space
by mining operations
(d) New Educational Policy
3. Authorizing State Governments to issue 62. With reference to pre-packaged
items in India, it is licences for mineral exploration
mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the
Select the correct answer using the code given
following information on the main label, as per the
Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
Labelling) Regulations, 2011?
(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. List of ingredients including additives
57. SWAYAM, an initiative of the Government of
2. Nutrition information
India, aims at
3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical
(a) promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas
profession about the possibility of any allergic
(b) providing financial and technical assistance to
young start-up entrepreneurs
4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian
(c) promoting the education and health of
Select the correct answer using the code given
adolescent girls
(d) providing affordable and quality education to
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
the citizens for free
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only
63. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
69. Consider the following statements:
Viruses can infect
The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO
1. bacteria
1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
2. fungi
2. made India the second country to have a
3. plants
spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. made India the only country to be successful in
making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
first attempt
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Project Loon, sometimes seen in the news, is
related to
(a) waste management technology
70. The Swadeshi and Boycott were adopted as
(b) wireless communication technology
methods of struggle for the first time during the
(c) solar power production technology
(a) agitation against the Partition of Bengal
(d) water conservation technology
65. With reference to Li-Fi, recently in the news, which
(b) Home Rule Movement
of the following statements is/are correct?
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data
(d) visit of the Simon Commission to India
71. Satya ShodhakSamaj organized
2. It is a wireless technology and is several times
(a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
faster than WiFi.
(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(d) a peasant movement in Punjab
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
72. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) social reforms
(b) educational reforms
66. What is Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10), recently in
(c) reforms in police administration
the news?
(d) constitutional reforms

(a) Electric plane tested by NASA

(b) Solar-powered two-seater aircraft designed by 73. Consider the following :
1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
(c) Space observatory launched by China
2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
(d) Reusable rocket designed by ISRO
3. Indian Reform Association
67. With reference to Astrosat, the astronomical
Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the
observatory launched by India, which of the
establishment of which of the above?
following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
country to have launched a similar observatory 74. What was the main reason for
the split in the Indian into space.
National Congress at Surat in 1907?
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit
(a) Introduction of communalism into Indian
at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.
politics by Lord Minto
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) Extremists lack of faith in the capacity of the
moderates to negotiate with the British
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Foundation of Muslim League
68. India is an important member of the International
Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor. If this
(d) Aurobindo Ghoshs inability to be elected as the
experiment succeeds, what is the immediate
President of the Indian National Congress
advantage for India?
75. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after
(a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for
the Second World War

power generation
(a) India should be granted complete independence
(b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
(b) India should be partitioned into two before
(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its
granting independence
fission reactors in power generation
(c) India should be made a republic with the
(d) It can build fusion reactors for power
condition that she will join the Commonwealth
(d) India should be given Dominion status
83. With reference to the cultural history of medieval
India, consider the following statements :
76. Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian
history were generally
1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were
(a) agriculturists
(b) warriors
monotheistic and condemned idolatry.
(c) weavers
(d) traders
2. Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the
77. Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts
theory of rebirth and rejected the caste
of Emperor Ashoka?
(a) Georg Bilhler
(b) James Prinsep
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Max Muller
(d) William Jones
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
78. With reference to the religious history of India,
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
considerthe following statements :
84. Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the
1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to
ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following

Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way
1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the
to enlightenment.
quality of the land.
3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation
2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries
to help all sentient beings on their path to it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
79. What is/are common to the two historical places
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?
85. Which one of the following books of ancient India
1. Both were built in the same period.
has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga
2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.
3. Both have rock-cut monuments.
(a) Swapnavasavadatta (b) Malavikagnirnitra
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Meghadoota
(d) Ratnavali
86. In the context of the history of India, consider the
(a) 1 and 2 only
following pairs:
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
(1) Eripatti
Land, revenue from which was
80. With reference to the economic history of medieval

set apart for the maintenance

India, the term Araghatta refers to
of the village tank
(a) bonded labour
(2) Taniyurs Villages donated to a single
(b) land grants made to military officers
Brahmin or a group of
(c) waterwheel used in the irrigation of land
(d) wastel and converted to cultivated land
(3) Ghatikas Colleges generally attached to
81. With reference to the cultural history of India, the
the temples
memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and
Epic tales was the profession of who of the
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(a) Shramana
(b) Parivraaj
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) Agrahaarika
(d) Maagadha
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
82. Consider the following pairs:
Famous place
87. With reference to the Gram Nyayalaya Act, which
1. Bodhgaya
of the following statements is/are correct?
2. Khajuraho
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only
3. Shirdi
civil cases and not criminal cases.
4. Nasik (Nashik) Malwa
2. The Act allows local social activists as
5. Tirupati

Which of the pairs given above are correctly
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
88. The Parliament of India acquires the power to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
legislate on any item in the State List in the national
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total 94. Doctors Without Borders
(Medecins Sans
Frontieres), often in the news, is
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two(a) a division of World Health Organization
thirds of its total membership
(b) a non-governmental international organization
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total
(c) an inter-governmental agency sponsored by
European Union
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two(d) a specialized agency of the United Nations
thirds of its members present and voting
95. Which of the following is not a member of Gulf
89. Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign
Cooperation Council?
(a) Iran
(b) Saudi Arabia

(a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons

(c) Oman
(d) Kuwait
and provide them with suitable sources of 96. Belt and Road Initiative is
sometimes mentioned in livelihood
the news in the context of the affairs of
(b) release the sex workers from their practice and
(a) African Union
(b) Brazil
provide them with alternative sources of
(c) European Union
(d) China
97. Consider the following pairs :
(c) eradicate the practice of manual scavenging
Community sometimes in the affairs of mentioned
and rehabilitate the manual scavengers
in the news
(d) release the bonded labourers from their
1. Kurd
bondage and rehabilitate them
90. Consider the following statements:
2. Madhesi Nepal
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to
3. Rohingya Myanmar
be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature
dissolution continues only for the remainder
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 98. With reference to
Organization for the Prohibition (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), consider the
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
following statements :
91. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an organization of European Union in

1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its
working relation with NATO and WHO.
2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has
weapons from emerging.
not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not
3. It provides assistance and protection to States
lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(Parties) against chemical weapons threats.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
92. Consider the following statements :
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by
the Governor of that State.
99. Which one of the following is the best description of
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
INS Astradharini, that was in the news recently?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Amphibious warfare ship
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) Nuclear-powered submarine
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
(d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier
93. Consider the following statements :
The India-Africa Summit
100. A recent movie titled The Man Who Knew Infinity
1. held in 2015 was the third such Summit
is based on the biography of

2. was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in

(a) S. Ramanujan
(b) S. Chandrasekhar
(c) S. N. Bose
(d) C. V. Raman
(d) The Brahmaputra enters India in the state of
conservation of Globally Important Agricultural
Arunachal Pradesh from its original source
Heritage Systems (GIAHS). The GIAHS Initiative
Tibet, and is joined by the Dibang River and the
promotes public understanding, awareness,
Lohit River at the head of the Assam Valley. It is
national and international recognition of
joined in Sonitpur by the Kameng River (or Jia
Agricultural Heritage systems. It aims to
identify and ensure global recognition of the
Brahmaputras main left bank tributaries, viz.,
importance of unique traditional agricultural
Dibang or Sikang and Lohit. The important
systems for food security and sustainable
right bank tributaries are the Subansiri,
development. The GIAHS initiative explicitly
Kameng, Manas and Sankosh.
recognises that change in traditional
Therefore, all 3 correct.
political, social and economic processes is
Ref. NCERT Physical Geography Class11, Ch.3
inevitable; they cannot be frozen or re-created.
Drainage system Page, 26
(ii) There is no provision to give Geographical
(d) Research is under process for presence of shale
indication to ALL varieties. Hence statement
gas in Cambay basin at Mehsana, Ahmedabad
3 is wrong. By elimination method, we are left
and Bharuch districts of Gujarat, Cauvery basin
with answer B- only 2.
at Nagapattinam in Tamil Nadu and in KG 6.

(c) (i) This initiative aims to demonstrate the

Basin at East and West Godavari districts of
improved production and post-harvest
Andhra Pradesh.
technologies in an integrated manner to
Ref: As per Economic Survey 2013, page 196
catalyze increased production of millets in the
(b) (i) India took a step forward in its ambitious but
country. The scheme, through processing and
long-pending goal to interlink major rivers to
value addition techniques, is expected to
form a national water grid. The Pattiseema
generate consumer demand for millet based
project lifts flood water from the river Godavari
food products. Poor, small, marginal and tribal
and pumps it into the Polavaram right canal
farmers have larger stake in this scheme.
that empties into the river Krishna in
(ii) 1st and 2nd statements are right. Policy aims
to give free kits but wanting to shift
(ii) Andhra Pradesh Government is interlinking
commercial crop farmers to millet doesnt fit
Krishna-Godavari rivers through the
logic. There is no such mention in the scheme,
Pattiseema lift irrigation scheme.
nor any talk about giving micro-irrigation
Ref: The hindu/ HYDERABAD, July 19, 2016
equipment. Hence 3rd statement wrong.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhraRef: http://agricoop.nic.in/Admin_Agricoop/
pradesh/after-river-interlinking-focus-on-waterUploaded_ File/INSIMP.pdf
(c) (i) Advantages of Drip Irrigation:
(d) (i) The Rajasthan government is exploring
(a) Maximum use of available water.
ways to develop an artificial inland port in
(b) No water being available to weeds.
Jalore by bringing in Arabian Sea water into
(c) Maximum crop yield.

Rajasthan through Gujarat. If implemented,

(d) High efficiency in the use of fertilizers.
Rajasthan will become accessible by water
(e) Less weed growth and restricts population
transport and will be able to shed the tag of a
of potential hosts.
landlocked state.
(f) No soil erosion.
(ii) Rajasthan wants to develop artificial inland
(ii) Drip irrigation wets less ground, hence less
shipping port at Jalore, itll be connected to the
weed seeds germinate. And over-irrigation of
Arabian Sea by developing a channel along the
crops by using techniques such as drip irrigation
Kutch Creek.
can increase the soil salinity. Thus by elimination
Ref: According to TimesofIndia / Jaipur-Jul 24, 2015;
method, we get answer (c) only 1 and 3.
Ref: Environment website Gov. of Australia ;http://
(b) (i) In order to safeguard and support the 8.
(b) (i) Spraying urea with neem oil slows the
worlds agri-cultural heritage systems, in 2002
release of nitrogen, by about 10 to 15 per cent,
FAO started an initiative for the dynamic
concomitantly reducing consumption of the
fertiliser. Many research studies in India have
(UNFCCC) since 2005, with the
conclusively established that neem oil acts as an
objective of mitigating climate change through
effective nitrification inhibitor if coated onto urea
reducing net emissions of greenhouse gases
(ii) Spraying urea with neem oil slows the
through enhanced forest management in
release of nitrogen, by about 10 to 15 per cent,
developing countries.

concomitantly reducing consumption of the

(ii) Under REDD+ Developing country will
fertiliser. Hence B is the closet answer.
have to prove the result they have fought
Ref: Busienss Standard Newspaper/ New Delhi
deforestation without harming local communities
February 16, 2016; http://www.business-standard.
or biological diversity. Only then, theyll get the
com/article/economy-policy/neem-coated-truthMoney. Therefore, 1 and 2 are correct.
Although REDD+ has galvanized significant
support internationally, among both developed
(b) (i) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana will also
and developing countries, its implications for
seek to address a long standing demand of
poverty alleviation at the local level remain
farmers and provide farm level assessment for
unclear. hence 3rd statement is wrong.
localised calamities including hailstorms,
Therefore Answer (a).
unseasonal rains, landslides and inundation.
13. (a) (i) The Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHG
(ii) Post-harvest loss is included so #2 is right.
Protocol) is the most widely used international
But Under the new scheme, farmers will have to
accounting tool for government and business
pay a uniform premium of two per cent for all
leaders to understand, quantify, and manage
kharif crops and 1.5 per cent for all rabi crops.
greenhouse gas emissions. A decade-long
For annual commercial and horticultural crops,
partnership between the World Resources
farmers will have to pay a premium of 5 per cent.
Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council
So, #1 is wrong. Therefore, answer (b) only 2.
for Sustainable Development (WBCSD), the
Ref: Indianexpress/ January 14, 2016; http://
GHG Protocol is working with businesses,
pradhan-mantri-fasal-bima-yojana-crop-insurancegovernments, and

(ii) A is correct according to their "ABOUT US"
10. (c) (i) The Kyoto Protocol separates countries into
two groups. Annex I includes developed
Ref : http://www.ghgprotocol.org/about-ghgp
nations, while Non-Annex I refers to 14. (a) Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily
developing countries.
implemented action plan of the United Nations
A CER is a certificate which is issued every time
with regards to sustainable development. It is a
the United Nations prevents one tonne of CO
product of the Earth Summit held in Rio de
equivalent being emitted through carbon
Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. Therefore, only first
projects registered with the Clean Development
statement right.
Mechanism (CDM).
15. (a) (i) The COP-21 Climate Conference was held in
(ii) All three terms are associated with Kyoto
Paris, France from 30 November to 12
Protocol. Therefore, answer c 3 only.
December 2015. During this conference, India
11. (c) (i) The Economics of Ecosystems and
and France have launched the International
Biodiversity (TEEB) is a study led by Pavan
Solar Alliance (ISA). International Solar Alliance
Sukhdev. It is an international initiative to draw
includes an alliance of 121 countries located
attention to the global economic benefits
between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of
of biodiversity. Its objective is to highlight the
growing cost of biodiversity loss and
(ii) While ISA was launched on Sidelines of
ecosystem and to draw together expertise from
Paris Summit, therefore first statement right
the fields of science, economics and policy to
but it includes only the 121 countries between
enable practical actions.
Capricorn and Cancer receiving sunlight for
(ii) As per the official page of the organization.
300 days or more. Hence 2nd statement wrong.

2 and 3 are correct, but there is no mention of 16. (b) (i) The agreement
emphasized on urgent need their association with UNEP, IMF. Hence 1st
to address the significant gap between the
statement is wrong. Accordingly answer is c
aggregate effect of Parties mitigation pledges in
12. (a) (i) Reducing emissions from deforestation and
terms of global annual emissions of greenhouse
forest degradation (REDD) is a mechanism that
gases by 2020 and aggregate emission pathways
has been under negotiation by the United
consistent with holding the increase in the
Nations Framework Convention on Climate
global average temperature to well below 2C
above preindustrial levels and pursuing efforts
quality of natural resources of the country. GIM
to limit the temperature increase to 1.5C above
puts the greening in the context of climate
preindustrial levels.
change adaptation and mitigation, meant to
(ii) Paris Summit - not all nations have signed
enhance ecosystem services like carbon
the agreement and there is no deadline to ratify
sequestration and storage (in forests and other
it. hence, statement 1 is wrong. This eliminates
ecosystems), hydrological services and
a and b. And developed countries committed to
biodiversity; along with provisioning services
give $100 billion by 2020. But, for future, there is
like fuel, fodder, small timber.
no mention of giving $1,000 billion dollars.
(ii) Ref: India Yearbook 2016 page 338:
Therefore, third statement wrong. We are left
Environment ministry has launched National
with Answer (b) only.
Mission for a Green India through a consultative
17. (b) At the United Nations Sustainable
process involving relevant stakeholders, aimed at
Development Summit on 25 September 2015,
both increasing the forest and tree cover by 5 million
world leaders adopted the 2030 Agenda for
ha, as well as increasing the quality of the existing
Sustainable Development, which includes a set

forest cover in another 5 million ha. Hence only

statement 3 fits.
of 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to 21. (a) (i) A Net metering is a
billing mechanism that end poverty, fight inequality and injustice, and
credits solar energy system owners for the
tackle climate change by 2030. The history of
electricity they add to the grid. Net metering
the SDGs can be traced to 1972 when
allows residential and commercial customers
governments met under the auspices of the
who generate their own electricity from solar
United Nations Human and Environment
power to feed electricity they do not use back
Conference. The Club of Rome is a global
into the grid.
think tank that deals with a range of
(ii) Under Net-metering system, Customer
international political issues.
installs a solar or windpower plant on his
Ref: UNDP & The Hindu
premise, gets it grid-connected with the
electricity distribution company (DISCOM)
Hence (a) is the apt choice.
18. (b) (i) Countries across the globe committed to 22. (d) (i) The Gadgil
Commission was an create a new international climate agreement
environmental research commission appointed
by the conclusion of the U.N. Framework
by the Ministry of Environment and Forests of
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
India. The Commission submitted the report to
Conference of the Parties (COP21) in Paris in
the Government of India on 31 August 2011.
December 2015.
The Kasturirangan Committee Report has
(ii) INDC are associated with UNFCCC-Climate
sought to balance the two concerns of
change. Hence b) is the apt choice.
development and environment protection, by
19. (c) (i) United Nations Convention to Combat
watering down the environmental regulation
Desertification (UNCCD) aims to promote effective
regime proposed by the Western Ghats Ecology

action through innovative national programmes

Experts Panels Gadgil report in 2012.
and supportive international partnerships.
(ii) Theyre associated with Western Ghat
UNCCD is committed to a bottom-up approach,
conservation plan.
encouraging the participation of local people in 23. (d) (i) The Bureau of Energy
Efficiency is an agency combating desertification.
of the Government of India, under the Ministry
(ii) As per of the convention, Statement 3 is
of Power created in March 2002 under the
right. But UNCCCD focuses on Africa, Asia,
provisions of the nations 2001 Energy
Latin America and the Caribbean, Northern
Conservation Act. The agencys function is to
Mediterranean and Central and Eastern
develop programs which will increase the
Europe. Hence statement 2 is wrong. Therefore,
conservation and efficient use of energy in
answer (c).
India. The government has proposed to make it
Ref: http://www.unccd.int/en/regional-access/Pages/
mandatory for all appliances in India to have
ratings by the BEE starting in January 2010.
20. (c) (i) The National Mission for a Green India was
(ii) According to centre for science and
announced by the Prime Minister as one of the
environment (CSE), both 1 and 3 are correct.
eight Missions under the National Action Plan
There is only option (d) whether such
on Climate Change (NAPCC). It recognizes that
combination is possible.
climate change phenomenon will seriously
Ref: http://cseindia.org/content/energy-efficientaffect and alter the distribution, type and
24. (b) (i) The API level is based on the level of 6 27. (a) Scientists at the Botanical
Survey of India (BSI) atmospheric pollutants, namely sulfur dioxide
have discovered a new species of banana from a
(SO2), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), suspended
remote tropical Krishna Nalah rain forest on

particulates smaller than 10 m in aerodynamic

the Little Andaman islands. The new species is
diameter (PM10), suspended particulates smaller
about 11 metres high, whereas as the usual
than 2.5 m in aerodynamic diameter (PM2.5),
banana species is about three to four meters
carbon monoxide (CO), and ozone (O3)
high. The fruit pulp is orange in colour,
measured at the monitoring stations throughout.
distinctive from the white and yellow color of
So by elimination we are left with option b.
regular bananas. Hence (a) is the correct answer.
Ref: Thehindu newspaper/ April 9, 2015;
Ref: TheHindu/October 11, 2015
states/andamans-yield-a-sweet-banana-with-orange25. (a) (i) National Ganga River Basin Authority
(NGRBA) is a financing, planning, 28. (a) (i) Pterocarpus santalinus, with the
common implementing, monitoring and coordinating
names red sanders, red sandalwood, and
authority for the Ganges River, functioning
saunderswood, is a species of Pterocarpus
under the water resource ministry of India. The
endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats
mission of the organisation is to spearhead the
mountain range of South India. This tree is
river conservation efforts at the national level.
valued for the rich red color of its wood. The
(ii) In 2014, UPSC asked similar question,
where one of the statement was- PM is
wood is not aromatic.
chairman of NGRBA. That statement was
(ii) It was in national media during April 2015,
right as per India Yearbook 2014. Therefore,
when Andhra Pradesh police killed 20 Red
here statement 3 is wrong, CM cant by the
Sander smugglers in an encounter. So first
chairman of NGRBA. By elimination, we reach
statement is right.
answer (a).
(iii) Red Sanders is associated with Tropical dry

26. (a) These camels can swim up to three kilometers

deciduous forest, as per environment ministry
into the sea in search of mangroves - So, 1 and 2
website, Hence 2nd statement wrong.
are correct.Most families in Jatt and Rabari 29. (d) In June 2015, Maharashtra
government has
communities of Kachchh, are traditional
declared the Blue Mormon (Papilio
rearers of Kharai camels. So, third statement
polymnestor) as the State butterfly.
also correct.
Ref: TheHindu newspaper(http://www.thehindu.com
Kharai camels found in the Kutch region are
/news/national/other-states/maharashtra-gets-statevery unique. They can can swim through deep
butterfly/article7342955.ece MUMBAI, June 22, 2015)
sea waters and it feeds on mangroves and other 30. (d) Frontline/ENVIRONMENT
saline plants. The breeders have meticulously
Print edition : February 6, 2015
followed the traditional grazing pattern in the
http://www.frontline.in/environment/wild-life/crycoastal districts. They do not provide special
housing or shelter to the camels.Given the 31. (c) (i) With effect from 1st April,
2016, all loans in breeds ability to survive both on land and sea,
India shall be priced with reference to Marginal
the Kharai camel is one of the most preferred
Cost of Funds based Lending Rates (MCLR)
choices of graziers in the arid coastal region of
which will comprise of :- 1. Marginal Cost of
Kachchh. People consume its milk, while male
Funds 2. Negative carry on account of CRR
calves are sold for economic returns (females
3. Operating Costs 4. Tenor of premium. Banks
are not sold because they are considered
shall review and publish their MCLR every
sacred). A male calf fetches anywhere between
month on a pre-announced date. Marginal Cost
Rs. 6,000 and Rs.14,000, says Ramesh Bhatti of
of Funds will comprise of marginal cost of
Sahjeevan, an NGO working on livelihood
borrowings and return on net-worth.
issues of graziers in Kachchh. It can be

(ii) Both right. Verbatim lifted from RBI's press

domesticated also so its not wild. They are
statement first paragraph.
reared in four blocks of Abdasa, Bundra,
Ref : https://rbi.org.in/SCRIPTs/BS_PressRelease
Lakhpat and Bachau of Gujarat.
Ref : DOWN TO EARTH (An important source for Env) 32. (b) (i) They can enable
transfers and remittance Rare Kharai camel species, found in Kutch district, is
through mobile phones. The RBI guidelines say
under threat due to the onslaught of industrialisation,
that the payments bank cannot undertake
post-2001 earthquake.
lending activities.
(ii) Mobile phone companies and supermarket 38. (c) (i) In order to reduce the fiscal
deficit, the eligible. But, Payment banks cant issue credit
government needs to increase its earnings and
card or give loans. Go by eliminating all options
reduce its expenditure. This is done by
with 2, and youre left with (b) 1 and 3 only.
following methods: Cut down the subsidies;
33. (a) (i) Core Banking Solution (CBS) is networking
reforms in tax structures; improve profit
of branches, which enables Customers to
generated by Public Sector Enterprises and
operate their accounts, and avail banking
austerity measures.
services from any branch of the Bank on CBS
(ii) Just by applying logic i.e. to reduce deficit,
network, regardless of where he maintains his
weve to increase income and reduce Expenditure.
account. The customer is no more the customer
Does it
Does it
of a Branch. He becomes the Banks Customer.
Thus CBS is a step towards enhancing customer
income Expenditure
convenience through Anywhere and Anytime
1. Reducing revenue expenditure

2. Introducing new welfare schemes

(ii) 3 is definitely not the purpose, so by
3. Rationalizing subsidies

elimination the answer is (a).
34. (c) (i) Financial Stability and Development
4. Reducing import duty

Council is an apex-level body constituted by

So, answer is only 1 and 3.
the government of India. The idea to create 39. (d) (i) The main items of capital
budget are receipts such a super regulatory body was first mooted
and expenditure for capital (Financial) gains. It
by the Raghuram Rajan Committee in 2008.
also includes loans raised by Government from
Finally in 2010, the then Finance Minister of
public, Reserve Bank and other parties, and
India, Pranab Mukherjee, decided to set up
from foreign Governments and bodies. It also
such an autonomous body dealing with macro
includes capital expenditure on acquisition of
prudential and financial regularities in the
assets like land, buildings, machinery,
entire financial sector of India.
equipment, etc and loans and advances granted
(ii) It falls under Dep. Of economic affairs and
by Central Government to State and Union
FM is the chairman. So, 1 is wrong and 2 is right.
Territory Governments, Government companies,
Corporations and other parties.
By elimination, we are left with answer c.
Ref: to the parts of Budget given in Dishas Crack
35. (b) (i) Bitcoin are not maintained by the Central
CSAT Paper-1, page E-56 (3rd Ed.)
Bank. Bitcoins are created as a reward for 40. (d) (i) It involves 12 countries: the
US, Japan, payment processing work in which users offer
Malaysia, Vietnam, Singapore, Brunei, Australia,

their computing power to verify and record

New Zealand, Canada, Mexico, Chile and Peru.
payments into a public ledger.
The pact aims to deepen economic ties between
(ii) Theyre not tracked by any central bank or
these nations, slashing tariffs and fostering
authority. Both 2 and 3 are right.
trade to boost growth. It was signed on 4
36. (c) There is no restriction as such that only one
February 2016 in Auckland, New Zealand.
member of a family can join the scheme.
(ii) TPP is meant for free trade. So second
Ref: Given in Disha Publications Mega Yearbook
statement is wrong. Weve to cross check the
2016, page-84.
list of Pacific rim countries against TPP nations.
37. (b) (i) Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) is
The Pacific Rim includes countries bordering
a tax avoidance strategy used by multinational
the Pacific Ocean, but North Korea and
companies, wherein profits are shifted from
Columbia also Pacific rim countries. But not in
jurisdictions that have high taxes (such as the
TPP list of countries (https://ustr.gov/tpp/)
United States and many Western European
similarly Columbia absent. Therefore, answer
countries) to jurisdictions that have low (or no)
(d). neither 1 nor 2 correct.
taxes (so-called tax havens). The BEPS project is 41. (b) The European Stability
Mechanism is a said to be an attempt by the worlds major
European Union agency that provides financial
economies to try to rewrite the rules on
assistance, in the form of loans, to eurozone
corporate taxation to address the widespread
countries or as new capital to banks in
perception that the [corporations] dont pay
their fair share of taxes.
Ref: Indianexpress July 2015
(ii) BEPS aims to curb the tax evasion by
MNCs, hence B is the answer.

42. (b) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership 47. (c) (i) The purpose of
Sovereign Gold Bond (RCEP) is a proposed free trade agreement
Scheme and Gold Monetization Scheme is to
(FTA) between the ten member states of the
reduce Indias gold imports and bring all the
Association of Southeast Asian Nations
gold lying idle with individuals and households
(ASEAN) (Brunei, Burma (Myanmar), Cambodia,
in India into the economy.
Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, the Philippines,
(ii) FDI is not the purpose - so all options
Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six
involving 2 are wrong. 1 and 3 are right.
states with which ASEAN has existing FTAs
Ref : Economic Survey Vol.2 Page 18 confirms.
(Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea 48. (b) (i) The Global Financial Stability
Report (GFSR) and New Zealand).
is a survey by the IMF staff published twice a
43. (a) In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are
year, in the spring and fall. The report draws
identified by Boxes which are given the
out the financial ramifications of economic
colours of traffic lights: green (permitted),
issues highlighted in the IMFs World Economic
amber (slow down i.e. be reduced), red
Outlook (WEO).
(ii) IMF prepares this report.
44. (d) The value of the SDR or XDR of IMF is based on
Ref : thehindu:April 14, 2016 .
a basket of key international currencies
www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/worldreviewed every five years. In the review
conducted in November 2015, the IMF decided
49. (c) (i) The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF
that the Renminbi (Chinese Yuan) would be
Board of Governors on the supervision and
added to the basket effective October 1, 2016.
management of the International Monetary and
From that date, the SDR or XDR basket will
Financial System. It also considers proposals by

consist of the following five currencies: U.S.

the Executive Board to amend the Articles of
dollar 41.73%, Euro 30.93%, Chinese Yuan 10.92%,
Agreement and advises on any other matters
Japanese Yen 8.33%, British Pound 8.09%.
that may be referred to it by the Board of
45. (c) (i) (a) The International Finance Corporation
Governors. A number of international
(IFC), the investment arm of the World Bank,
institutions, including the World Bank,
issued 1,000 crore bond to fund infrastructure
participate as observers in the IMFCs meetings.
projects in India.
(ii) Both statements are right as per the official
(b) These bonds were listed on the London
IMF page: April 5, 2016.
Stock Exchange (LSE).
(c) They are rupee-denominated bonds issued
groups. htm#IC
to overseas buyers.
50. (d) (i) The stock of foreign exchange reserves in
(d) The purpose of the issue was to fund
terms of months of retained imports of goods
infrastructure projects in India. IFC named
as at end of year. It measures the number of
them masala bonds to reflect the Indian angle
months of money available in the national bank
to it.
to cover the cost of imports.
(ii) First statement is right and Second
Ref: TheEconomist; http://www.economist.com/
statement initial part is also correct- theyre
rupee denominated and debt type of 51. (c) (i) Prime Minister launched the Stand
instrument. Weve to check whether public
entrepreneurship among Scheduled Castes/
sector firms also use it. answer is yes. Hence

Scheduled Tribes and women by giving loans in

both are correct.
the range of ` 10 lakh t 1 crore for setting up
Ref: http://indianexpress.com/article/business/
a new enterprise. There would be 10,000
business-others/ifcs-rising-rupee-offerings- addcrore refinance window through Small Industries
Development Bank of India (SIDBI) and the
46. (b) (i) The New Development Bank (NDB),
National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company
formerly referred to as the BRICS Development
Ltd (NCGTC) will create a corpus of ` 5,000
Bank, is a Multilateral Development Bank
established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia,
(ii) Both statements are correct as per : Press
India, China and South Africa). Its headquarter
Information Bureau (PIB) Government of India
is in Shanghai, China.
Ministry of Finance/03-April-2016.
(ii) First statement is wrong- its BRICS nations.
Ref : http://pib.nic.in/newsitePrintRelease.aspx?relid
2nd is right - HQ is Shanghai.
52. (a) (i) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana under
Ref: Press Information Bureau (PIB.) 2016,
the Micro Units Development and Refinance
Government of India. Ministry of Human Resource
Agency (MUDRA) Bank is a new institution
being set up by Government of India for
development and refinancing activities relating
to micro units. It was announced by the Finance 58. (c) DigiLocker is a digital
locker service Minister while presenting the Union Budget for
launched by the Government of India in
FY 2016. The purpose of MUDRA is to provide
February 2015 to provide a secure dedicated
funding to the non corporate small business
personal electronic space for storing the

documents of resident Indian citizens.
Ref: Given in Disha Mega Yearbook page-A-83.
Ref: Indianexpress /November 17, 2015.
MUDRA Yojana aims to help small businessmen
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-newswhore unable to get loans from formal financial
india/digital-lockers-put-your-documents-in-a-safesystem. Hence (a) is the answer.
53. (c) The ease of doing business index is an index 59. (d) Four Indicators are
undernourished population, created by the World Bank Group. It is an
wasting in Under 5 children; wasting is very
annual report on the state of health of
low weight for height i.e very thin child;
economies based on detailed diagnostics not of
Stunting in under 5 children; stunting is very
the relatively more visible features (such as
low height for age i.e. very short child; Under 5
growth) and various macroeconomic parameters
mortality rate.
(such as the public debt) but of underlying and
Ref: As per the official site of IFPRI
embedded characteristics.
60. (b) A transcriptome is the full range of messenger
54. (a) In order to boost Make in India campaign, first
RNA, or mRNA, molecules expressed by an
national investment and manufacturing zone to
organism. The term transcriptome can also
come up in Andhra Pradesh. The state assured
be used to describe the array of mRNA
the Centre of availability of 10 sq km of land in
transcripts produced in a particular cell or
one place in Prakasham district.
tissue type.
Ref: Economic Times/ET Bureau Sep 21, 2015.
Ref: Textbook of Veterinary internal medicine.
55. (d) Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) is

the financial turnaround and revival package
expressed% 20by %20an%20 organism&f=false
for electricity distribution companies of India 61. (a) (i) The Government of India
(DISCOMs) initiated by the Government of
Mission Indradhanush in December 2014 with
India with the intent to find a permanent
the ultimate goal to ensure that all children
solution to the financial mess that the power
under the age of two years and pregnant
distribution is in.
women are fully immunized with all available
Ref: Economic Survey Vol.2, page 125.
56. (b) District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is a trust set
(ii) This mission aims to achieve 100%
up as a non-profit body, in those districts
vaccination of children and pregnant women
affected by the mining works, to work for the
by 2020.
interest and benefit of persons and areas
Ref: Disha Publications Mega Yearbook 2016, page
affected by mining related operations. It is
funded through the contributions from miners. 62. (c) (i) Items 1, 2 and 4 are the
Its manner of operation comes under the
information to the manufacturer to put these on
jurisdiction of the relevant State Government.
the main label as per FSS(packaging & labeling)
Ref: Economic Survey Vol.2, page 141.
regulations 2011.
57. (d) SWAYAM or Study Webs of ActiveLearning
(ii) According to official notification
for Young Aspiring Minds
Ref:http: //www.fssai.gov.in/Portals/0/Pdf/Food
of Ministry of Human Resource Development,
Government of India. Professors of centrally
funded institutions like IITs, IIMs, central

universities will offer online courses to citizens
Labels have to contains 1, 2 and 4 that much is
of India. All courses would be offered free of
confirmed. And since UPSC has not given any
cost under this.
option on All correct. Hence answer (c).
63. (d) (i) A virus is a small infectious agent that 68. (d) (i) The ITER (International
Thermonuclear replicates only inside the living cells of other
Experimental Reactor) project aims to make the
organisms. Viruses can infect all types of life
long-awaited transition from experimental
forms, from animals and plants to
studies of plasma physics to full-scale
microorganisms, including bacteria and fungi.
electricity-producing fusion power stations.
(ii) According to the type of the host they
(ii) As such project started in 2006, to find
infect, viruses are classified mainly into the
whether Nuclear fusion can be a source of
following four types:
energy and electricity in future. Hence (d) is the
(a) Plant viruses including algal viruses-RNA/
apt choice.
Ref: Indianexpress/ June 28, 2016; http://
(b) Animal viruses including human virusesindianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/
(c) Fungal viruses(Mycoviruses)-ds RNA
69. (c) (i) The Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), also
(d) Bacterial viruses (Bacteriophages) including
called Mangalyaan. It is Indias first interplanetary
mission and ISRO has become the fourth space
Hence answer (d).
agency to reach Mars, after the Soviet space
Ref: Class 11 science textbook of Tamilandu State
program, NASA, and the European Space

Agency. It is the first Asian nation to reach Mars

64. (b) (i) Project loon is a network of balloons
orbit, and the first nation in the world to do so
travelling on the edge of space, designed to
in its first attempt.
extend internet connectivity to people in rural
(ii) Statement 1 and 3 are right. Apart from
& remote areas worldwide.
India and USA, Russia and European space
(ii) Under Project Loon, Google Inc. aims to
agency also have it. European Space Agencys
provide internet connectivity via using helium
Mars Express has two components 1) Mars
balloons. Hence (b) is the apt choice.
Orbiter 2) Beagle 2 Lander. Hence 2nd
65. (c) (i) This OWC technology uses light from lightstatement is wrong. Hence by elimination we
emitting diodes (LEDs) as a medium to deliver
are left with choice (c).
networked, mobile, high-speed communication 70. (a) (i) The British Governments
decision to partition in a similar manner to Wi-Fi. It is a
Bengal had been made public in December
bidirectional, high-speed and fully networked
wireless communication technology similar to
(ii) The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement was
an effort by Indian people to oppose British
rule. It began when British officials separated
(ii) Li-fi gives data transfer rate of 10 gigabytes
the Bengal province, dividing it by Bengali,
per second. So 1st statement is right. Li-Fi
Hindi and Oriya languages and Muslim and
device circulates data via LEDs that emit an
Hindu religions. Indians responded by
intermittent flicker at a speed imperceptible to
boycotting British products and using only
the human eye. So, 2nd statement also right.
Indian-made goods.
Ref: Feb 2016, theHindu ; http://www.thehindu.com
(iii) Swadeshi and Boycott started against
/todays-paper/tp-international/lifi-data-transmissionPartition of Bengal in 1905.

Ref: Dishas Crack CSAT Paper-1, 2016(4th

66. (a) The Greased Lightening-10 (GL-10) is a 28 kg
Edition) Page H-227.
with 10 engines that can take off and land like a 71. (c) Satyashodhak Samaj is a
society established helicopter and fly efficiently like an aircraft. It is
by Jyotirao Phule on September 24, 1873. This
a battery-powered drone prototype plane
was started as a group whose main aim was to
designed by NASA.
liberate the social shudra and untouchable
67. (d) (i) India has become only the fifth country after
castes from exploitation and oppression.
the US, Russia, Europian Union and Japan, to
Ref: Class 12 NCERT History, Page 130.
have an eye scanning the exotic depths of the 72. (d) (i) The MontaguChelmsford
Reforms were universe after the ASTROSAT, the Indian Space
reforms introduced by the British Government
Research Organisations multi-wavelength space
in India to introduce self-governing institutions
observatory, was successfully placed in orbit.
gradually to India. The reforms were outlined in
the Montagu-Chelmsford Report prepared in
(ii) Astrosat weighs 1513 kgs. Hence 2nd
1918 and formed the basis of the Government of
statement also wrong.
India Act 1919.
Ref: theHindu/ September 28, 2015; http://
(ii) Theyre related to Constitutional reforms.
www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isro-launchesRef: Dishas Crack CSAT Paper-1, 2016(4th
Edition) Page H-228.
73. (b) In 1881, Keshab Chandra Sen established
Thus, Boddhisattva is central to Mahayan sect
NabaBidhan (New Dispensation) meaning new
of Buddhism. Hence first statement is wrong.
universalist religion after having differences
While 2nd and 3rd are correct.
within BrahmoSamaj. He was also part of
Ref : As per Std 12th NCERT, Themes in India
Indian reform association to legalize Brahmo
History, Part-I, Page 103.

marriage and to fix minimum age of marriage. 79. (b) First and second statements
are wrong because Calcutta Unitarian Committee was formed by
Ajanta (Buddhist caves) was built from 2nd
Raja Rammohan Roy, Dwarkanath Tagore and
Century BCE to 5th Century CE, while
William Adam, hence irrelevant to the
Mahabalipuram (Hindu temple) was built
question. Hence Answer (b) only 2 and 3.
during 7-8th Centuries by Pallava Kings. Third
74. (b) (i) Extremists and moderates both seemed to be
statement is correct- both are rock cut
locking horns. The Extremists thought that the
people had been encouraged and the battle for
Ref: Class-11 NCERT, Page 83.
freedom had begun. They felt the time had 80. (c) The Persian wheel is a
mechanical water lifting come for the big push to drive the British out
device operated usually by draught animals
and considered the Moderates to be a
like bullocks, buffaloes or camels. It is used to
stumbling block to the movement.
lift water from water sources typically open
(ii) So, Surat split occurred because extremists
wells. In Sanskrit the word Araghatta has been
were dissatisfied with Moderates capacity to
used in the ancient texts to describe the Persian
negotiate with the British.
Wheel. The ara-ghatta comes from the
75. (d) (i) The main proposals of the plan of Sir
combination of the words ara meaning spoke
Stafford Cripps was that an Indian Union with
and ghatta meaning pot.
a dominion status would be set up; it would be
Ref: 7thStd NCERT, Our Past II, Page 6-7. It
free to decide its relations with the
discusses about the invention of water-wheel
Commonwealth and free to participate in the
irrigation, known in Persian as Agrahatta.
United Nations and other international bodies. 81. (d) The Maagadha and the
suutas were associated (ii) Cripps proposed to give dominion status
with memorizing of chronicles, dynastic
to India after WW2.
Ref. Dishas Crack CSAT Paper-1, 2016(4th
histories and Epic tales.

Edition) Page H-231.

82. (c) Khajuraho is located in the Bundelkhand region
76. (d) In India, Banjara people were transporters of
of Madhya Pradesh. Tirupati is located in
goods from one place to another and the goods
Rayalaseema region.
they transported included salt, grains, firewood 83. (c) (i) Siddhas means the
refined monotheistic and cattle.Thus, Banjaras were trader-nomads.
creed existed. Sittar implies an expert in
Ref: Class 7 NCERT Page 94-95.
occultism, alchemy and so on with magic or
77. (b) In 1837, British archeologist and historian
superstitious powers.
James Prinsep decoded the edicts of emperor
(ii) The lingayats believed that on death the
Ashoka. Prinseps inscription proved to be a
devotee will be reunited with Shiva and not
series of edicts issued by a king calling himself
return to this world. Therefore instead of
Beloved-of-the-Gods, King Piyadasi.
cremating the body, they ceremonially bury
Ref: Std 12th NCERT, Themes in India History,
their dead.
Part-I, Page 28-29
(iii) They criticised the caste system and
78. (b) The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the
questioned belief in the theory of rebirth.
Mahayana doctrines of Buddhism. The term
(iv) Certain practices were encouraged by the
bodhisattva literally means one who has
lingayats such as post-puberty marriages and
enlightenment as his/her essence. A
widow remarriage. Knowledge of the
bodhisattva is a being who is destined for
Virashaiva tradition has been derived from
enlightenment rather than one who has gained
vachanas (sayings) composed in Kannada by
it already. A bodhisattva is also normally
those who had joined
thought of as consciously working towards
Ref: Std 12th NCERT, Themes in India History,
enlightenment: you cant call someone a
Part-II, Page 148
bodhisattva just because they might be 84. (c) (i) In reign of Krishna Deva, land

revenue was
enlightened in the future if they havent started
the main source of income of the government.
making an effort yet. For this reason, the earliest
To assess the proper revenue entire land was
use of the term bodhisattva refers to
classified into four parts: the wet land, the dry
Siddhartha Gautama before he gained
land, the orchards and the woods. The
enlightenment, and also in his previous lives.
government also levied other taxes like the
grazing tax, the customs duty, tax on gardening 90. (b) This question can be
directly solved from Disha and industries taxes on manufacture of various
publications Polity compendium, page P-121.
For PRI Bodies minimum age is 21 years, to
(ii) From the travelogue written by
contest elections, so first statement is wrong.
Persianenvoy Abdur Razzaqin the court of
2nd statement is correct- verbatim given in
Vijaynagar, we find both statements are correct.
the last line of p-121.Hence answer only B)
85. (b) The Malavikagnimitra is a Sanskrit play by 91. (b) prorogation doesnt
affect the bills of any Kalidas. The play tells the love story of
other business pending before the house so 1st
Agnimitra, the Shunga Emperor. He falls in
statement is wrong.
love with the picture of an exiled servant girl
Ref. Disha Polity Compendium Page P-54.
named Malavika.
A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not
86. (d) A special category of land, eripatti, or land, is
passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse if the
mentioned. Donated by individuals, the
president has notified the holding of a joint
revenue from this land was set apart for the
sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha. So,
maintenance of the village tank.
statement 2 is right.
Ref: A History of India by Romila Thapar.
92. (a) 1st statement is right. Because
87. (b)

Gram Nyayalaya try criminal cases, civil

Under Article 168 of the Constitution of
suits, claims or disputes which are specified in
India: All executive actions of the Governor of a
the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to
State shall be expressed to be taken in the name
the Act.The Gram Nyayalaya are supposed to
of Governor. (which include transfer, posting,
try to settle the disputes as far as possible by
promotion of civil servants allotted to that state
bringing about conciliation between the parties
cadre.) so, Yes, as such chief Secretary is
and for this purpose, it can make use of the
"chosen" by Chief minister officially its
appointed conciliators.
expressed that chief Secretary is 'appointed' by

Reference- Page no. 601 of India year book

the governor of the state.
2016, under heading Judiciary it says- Panchayat
Another way to look at it is- even state
Courts also function in some states under
advocate general, university vice chancellors are
various names like Nyaya Panchayat, Panchayat
'chosen' by CM from among his favorite peopleAdalat, Gram Kachehri, etc., to decide civil and
but officially they're 'appointed' by the Governor.
criminal disputes of petty and local nature.
Ref: Page 26.5- Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth,
That means first statement is wrong.
4th Edition (Macgrawhill Publication)

Under this act, District court with 93. (a) 1st statement is right: Third India-Africa
consultation of DM, prepares panel of social
Forum Summit was held in New Delhi (India)
workers to act as councilors. Hence 2nd
in from from 2630 October 2015 under the
statement is right.
theme: Partners in Progress: Towards a Dynamic
Ref: Original Act Page no 7; http://doj.gov.in
and Transformative Development Agenda
88. (d) Given verbatim in Disha Publications Crack CSAT
2nd statement is wrong: because First
Summit was held in New Delhi in April 2008.

Paper-1, 2016(4th Edition)Page p-101

Therefore, it cant be Nehrus brainchild.

When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution If

Ref: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/India%E2%80%
the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in
93 Africa_ Forum_Summit
the national interest that Parliament should 94. (b) It is a non-governmental and
make laws on a matter in the State List, then the
organization established by group of French
Parliament becomes competent to make laws
doctors in 1971 - with its Headquarter in
on that matter. Such a resolution must be
Brussels, Belgium. They were in news during
supported by two-thirds of the members
2014-15 because of their relief work in Ebola
present and voting.
affected countries.
89. (c) (i) It is a campaign for eradication of inhuman 95. (a) Iran is not the
member of this middle eastern practice of manual scavenging and comprehensive
rehabilitation of manual scavengers in India.
Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a political
Ashif Shaikh is well known for his role in the
and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern
campaign (Rashatriya Garima Abhiyan) through
countriesSaudi Arabia, Kuwait, the United
various campaigns of Jan Sahas.
Arab Emirates, Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman.
(ii) Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is an NGO-led 96. (d) The Belt and Road
(abbreviated B&R), One movement for manual scavengers.
Belt, One Road (abbreviated OBOR) or the Belt
Ref: The Hindu newspaper
and Road Initiative is a development strategy
and framework, proposed by Chinese
(ii) It won Nobel Peace prize in 2013. There is
paramount leader Xi Jinping that focuses on
no specific mention of its association with EU,
connectivity and cooperation among countries
NATO or WTO on the official website of OPCW.
primarily between the Peoples Republic of

Therefore, statement 1 is wrong. By elimination

China and the rest of Eurasia.
of all options with statement 1, we are left with
Ref: The Hindu and Govt Websites http://
answer (b).
99. (c) INS Astradharini is an indigenously designed
97. (c) The Kurds are an ethnic group in the Middle
and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel
East Asia. The Madhesi , also referred to as
built by Shoft Shipyard for Indian Navy. It was
Teraibasi Nepali are an indigenous ethnic
commissioned by Indian Navy on 6 October
group of Nepalese people who are natives of
2015 at Naval Base in Visakhapatanam.
the Madhesh plains of Southern Nepal in Terai
Ref: India Yearbook 2016 page 972
belt of South Asia. The Rohingya people, are 100. (a) (i) The Man who knew
infinite is a
Muslim Indo-Aryan peoples from the Rakhine
biographical movie of Indian Mathematician
State, Myanmar.
Srinivas Ramanujan (played by Dev Patel) and
98. (b) (i) The OPCW Member States share the
his association with British mathematician GH
Hardy. Ramanujan was a self-taught (autodidatic)
collective goal of monitoring chemical industry
Mathematician- born and died in Madras
to prevent new weapons from re-emerging;
providing assistance and protection to States
(ii) He, who after growing up poor in Madras,
Parties against chemical threats; and fostering
India, earns admittance to Cambridge
international cooperation to strengthen
University during World War I, where he
implementation of the Convention and promote
became a pioneer in mathematical theories
the peaceful use of chemistry.
with the guidance of his professor, G. H. Hardy.
Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the

DIRECTIONS for the following 8 (eight) items : Read hydrological cycle

enables better policy-making. The the following eight passages and
answer the item that term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants,
animals, follows each passage. Your answers to these items
microorganisms, and the ecosystems in which they should be based on the
passages only.
occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In
reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity
By killing transparency and competition, crony functions. In turn, vegetation and soil
drive the
capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and movement of water. Every
glass of water we drink has, at economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and
the least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacteria, soil and influential are alleged
to have received land and natural other organisms. Passing through these
ecosystems, it is resources and various licences in return for payoffs to cleansed
and made fit for consumption. The supply of venal politicians, is now a major issue
to be tackled. One water is a critical service that the environment provides.
of the greatest dangers to growth of developing 3.
Which among the following is the most critical
economies like India is the middle-income trap where
inference that can be made from the above passage ?
crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the
(a) Biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to
recycle water
Which among the following is the most logical
(b) We cannot get potable water without the
corollary to the above passage ?
existence of living organisms
(a) Launching more welfare schemes and
(c) Plants, animals and microorganisms
allocating more finances for the current
continuously interact among themselves
schemes are urgently needed
(d) Living organisms could not have come into
(b) Efforts should be made to push up economic
existence without hydrological cycle
growth by other means and provide licences to
the poor
In the last decade, the banking sector has been
(c) Greater transparency in the functioning of the restructured with a high degree of

automation and
government and promoting the financial products that mainly serve middle-class
and upper
inclusion are needed at present
(d) We should concentrate more on developing middle-class society. Today there is
need for a new
manufacturing sector than service sector
agenda for the banking and non-banking financial
services that does not exclude the common man.
Which one of the following is the message that is
Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if
essentially implied in the above passage?
policies are not designed in the context of other
(a) Need for more automation and more products
development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive
of bank
strategy that seeks to improve food security in the
(b) Need for a radical restructuring of our entire
context of climate change may include a set of
public finance system
coordinated measures related to agricultural extension,
(c) Need to integrate banking and non-banking
crop diversification, integrated water and pest
management and agricultural information series. Some
(d) Need to promote financial inclusion
of these measures may have to do with climate changes
and others with economic development.
What is the most logical and rational inference that Safe and sustainable
sanitation in slums has immeasurable can be made from the above passage?
benefits to women and girls in terms of their health,
(a) It is difficult to pursue climate adaptation in the safety, privacy and dignity.
However, women do not developing countries
feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban
(b) Improving food security is a far more complex sanitation. The fact that even now
the manual scavenging issue than climate adaptation
exists, only goes to show that not enough has been done
(c) Every developmental activity is directly or to promote pour-flush toilets and
discontinue the use of indirectly linked to climate adaptation
dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign

(d) Climate adaptation should be examined in needs to be launched towards the

right to sanitation on a tandem with other economic development very large scale.
This should primarily focus on the
abolition of manual scavenging.
With reference to the above passage, consider the
(a) Organic farming should immediately replace
following statements:
mechanised and chemical dependant
1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved
agricultural practices all over the world
by the abolition of manual scavenging only
(b) It is imperative for us to modify our land use
2. There is a need to promote greater awareness
practices in order to mitigate climate change.
on safe sanitation practices in urban areas.
(c) There are no technological solutions to the
Which of the statements given above is/are
problem of greenhouse gas emissions
(d) Tropical areas are the chief sites of carbon
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
DIRECTIONS for the following 8 (eight) items : Read
the following five passages and answer the items that
To understand the nature and quantity of Government follow each passage. Your
answers to these items proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character.
should be based on the passages only.
As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the
station she intended. In all cases she made his natural As we look to 2050, when we
will need to feed two billion wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is
more people, the question of which diet is best has taken capable, without the aid of
society, of supplying his own on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the
wants; and those wants, acting upon every individual, coming decades will have
dramatic ramifications for the impel the whole of them into society.
planet. Simply put, a diet that revolves around meat and

Which among the following is the most logical and dairy a way of eating that is
on the rise throughout the
rational inference that can be made from the above developing world, will take a
greater toll on the worlds passage ?
resources than one that revolves around unrefined
(a) Nature has created a great diversity in human grains, nuts, fruits and
What is the critical message conveyed by the above
(b) Any given human society is always short of its
(a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced from
(c) Social life is a specific characteristic of man
animals puts a greater burden on our natural
(d) Diverse natural wants forced man towards
social system
(b) Diets based on grains, nuts, fruits and
vegetables are best suited for health in
developing countries
The nature of the legal imperatives in any given state
(c) Human beings change their food habits from
corresponds to the effective demands that state
time to time irrespective of the health concerns
encounters, and that these, in their turn, depend, in a
(d) From a global perspective, we still do not know
general way, upon the manner in which economic power
which type of diet is best for us
is distributed in the society which the state controls.
The statement refers to:
All humans digest mothers milk as infants, but until
(a) the antithesis of Politics and Economics
cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago,
(b) the interrelationship of Politics and Economics
children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk.
(c) the predominance of Economics over Politics
As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase,
(d) the predominance of Politics over Economics

which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars.

After humans began herding cattle, it became
About 15 percent of global greenhouse gas emissions tremendously advantageous
to digest milk, and lactose come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous
tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in oxide from fertilizers;
methane from livestock, rice Europe, the middle East and Africa. Groups not
production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide dependant on cattle, such as
the Chinese and Thai,
remain lactose intolerant.
(CO2) from burning biomass, but this excludes CO2 10. Which among the following
is the most logical
emissions from soil management practices, sayannah
assumption that can be made from the
burning and deforestation. Foresty and use, and land-use
above passage?
change account for another 17 percent of greenhouse gas
(a) About 10,000 years ago, the domestication of
emissions each year, three quarters of which come from
animals took place in some parts of the world
tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from
(b) A permanent change in the food habits of a
draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same
community can bring about a genetic change in
amount of carbon is stored in the worlds peatlands as is
its members
stored in the Amazon rainforest.
(c) Lactose tolerant people only are capable of
Which among the following is the most logical and
getting simple sugars in their bodies
rational inference that can be made from the above
(d) People who are not lactose tolerant cannot
digest any dairy product
is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an
The conceptual difficulties in National Income open, and growing economy, which
has adequate
comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised exchange surplues to buy
food abroad. For the world as a countries are particularly serious because a part of
the whole, Spply-demand balance is always an inescapable national output in

various underdeveloped countries is prerequisite for warding off hunger and

produced without passing through the commercial However, global availability of
adequate supply does not channels.
necessarily mean that food would automatically move
11. In the above statement, the author implies that:
from countries of surplus to counteries of deficit if the
(a) the entire national output produced and latter lack in purchasing power. The
uneven distribution
consumed in industrialized countries passes of Hunger, starvation, under or
malnourishment, etc., at
through commercial channels
the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty(b) the existence of a non-commercialized sector in pock hungry mouths,
overwhelmingly confined to the different underdeveloped countries renders the
underdeveloped economies. Inasmuch as a two-square
national income comparisons over countries meal is of elemental significance to
basic human
existence, the issue of worldwide supplyf food has
been gaining significance, in recent times, both because
(c) no part of national output should be produced the quantum and the composition
of demand has been
and consumed without passing through commercial undergoing big changes, and
because, in recent years, the channels
capabilities individual countries to generate
(d) a part of the national output being produced uninterrupted chain of food
supplies have come under
and consumed without passing through commercial strain. Food production,
marketing and prices, especially channels is a sign of underdevelopment
price-affordability by the poor in the developing world,
have become global issues that need global thinking and
An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the global solutions.
atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between 13. According to the above
passage, which of, the plants and microorganisms that would unsettle one of
following are the fundamental solutions for the
the largest carbon reservoirs on the planetsoil. In a
world food security problem?
study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice the
1. Setting up more agro-based industries
amount of carbon present in all plants and Earths
2. Improving the price affordability by the poor
atmosphere combined, could become increasingly

3. Regulating the conditions of marketing

volatile as people add more carbon dioxide to the
4. Providing food subsidy to one and all
atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant
Select the correct answer using the code given
growth. Although a greenhouse gas and a pollutant,
carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future,
(c) 1, 3 an 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4
their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that 14. According to the above
passage, the may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon
biggest challenge to world agriculture is:
(a) to find sufficient land for agriculture and to
and its release into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
expand food processing industries
12. Which among the following is the most logical
(b) to eradicate hunger in underdeveloped
corollary to the above passage ?
(a) Carbon dioxide is essential for the survival of
(c) to achieve a balance between the production of
microorganisms and plants
food and non-food items
(b) Humans are solely responsible for the release of
(d) to achieve a balance between demand for and
carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
supply of food
(c) Microorganisms and soil carbon are mainly 15. According to the above passage,
which of the responsible for the increased plant growth
following helps/help in reducing hunger and
(d) Increasing green cover could trigger the release
starvation in the developing economies ?
of carbon trapped in soil
1. Balancing demand and supply of food
2. Increasing imports of food
Historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture
3. Increasing purchasing power of the poor
has been to achieve a balance between demand for and
4. Changing the food consumption patterns and

supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the

demand-supply balance can be a critical issue for a
Select the correct answer using the code given
closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy
and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained bring government and
decision making closer to the importance mainly because of:
people also helps to enhance accountability.
1. overgrowth of the population worldwide
17. According to the passage, which of the following
2. sharp decline in the area of food production
factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for
3. limitation in the capabilities for sustained
governance/public administration?
supply of food
1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance
Select the correct answer using the code given
between internal and external accountabilities
2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
officers of All India Services
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services
DIRECTIONS for the following 6 (six) items: Read the
4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the
following two passages and answer the items that
respective roles of professional civil services
follow each passage. Your answers to these items
vis-a-vis political executive in this context
should be based on the passages only.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally,
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
and civil services, in particular, is a major factor 18. With reference to the passage,
the following underlying the deficiencies in governance and public
assumptions have been made :
administration. Designing an effective framework for
1. Political executive is an obstacle to the
accountability has been a key element of the reform
accountability of the civil services to the
agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services
should be accountable to the political executive of the
2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the
day or to society at large. In other words, how should
political executive is no longer accountable to
internal and external accountability be reconciled?
the society
Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by
Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
internal performance monitoring, official supervision by
(a) 1 only
bodies like theCentralVigilance Commissionand
(b) 2 only
Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review
(c) Both 1 and 2
of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the 19. Which one of the
following is the essential message civil services, especially the All India Services.
implied by this passage?
framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision
(a) Civil services are not accountable to the society
of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is
they are serving
not totally subservient to the political executive but will
(b) Educated and enlightened persons are not
have the strength to function in larger public interest.
taking up political leadership
The need to balance internal and external accountability

(c) The framers of the Constitution did not

is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to
envisage the problems being encountered by
draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have
the civil services
tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the
(d) There is a need and scope for reforms to
civil services to the political leaders of the day who in
improve the accountability of civil services
turn are expected to be externally accountable to the 20. According to the passage,
which one of the society at large through the election process. This system
following is not a means of enhancing internal
for seeking accountability to society has not worked out,
accountability of civil services?
and has led to several adverse consequences for
(a) Better job security and safeguards
(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission
Some special measures can be considered for
(c) Judicial review of executive decisions
improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of
(d) Seeking accountability through enhanced
articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and
participation by people in decision making
regulations framed to ensure external accountability of
civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to
address some of these requirements. The respective roles In general, religious
traditions stress our duty to god, or of professional civil services and the political
executive to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one should be defined so
that professional managerial another derive from these. The religious concept of
rights functions and management of civil services are is primarily derived from our
relationship to this divinity depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil or
principle and the implication it has on our other service boards should be created at
the centre and in the relationships. This correspondence between rights and states.
Decentralization and devolution of authority to duties is critical to any further
understanding of justice.
But, for justice to be practiced; viture, rights and duties and storage, an unproven
technology, to achieve negative cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be
emissions and to buy some time during the first half of grounded in a community
(common unity) bound the century.

together by a sense of common union (communion).

Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol,
Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to mainly for transport, may
aggravate rather than the practice and understanding of justice.
ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second
21. With reference to the passage, the following generation biofuels, based on
ligno-cellulosic feedstocks assumptions have been made :
such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood hold the
1. Human relationships are derived from their promise of sustainable production
that is high-yielding
religious traditions
and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are
2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they still in the R & D stage.
believe in god
23. What is/are the present constraint/constraints in
3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and
using biomass as fuel for power generation?
understand justice
1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass
Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?
2. Biomass production competes with food
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a
22. Which one of the following is the crux of this
life-cycle basis
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Our duties to one another derive from our
religious traditions
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(b) Having relationship to the divine principle is a
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
great virtue
24. Which of the following can lead to food security
(c) Balance between rights and duties is crucial to
the delivery of justice in a society

1. Using agricultural and forest residues as

(d) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived
feedstock for power generation
from our relationship to god
2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage
3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops
DIRECTIONS for the following 5 (five) items : Read the
Select the correct answer using the code given
following two passages and answer the items that
follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
should be based on the passages only.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
25. In the context of using biomass, which of the
following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of
Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the
the sustainable production of biofuel?
highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It
1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could
comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as
meet all the primary energy requirements of the
from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using
world by 2050
biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered
2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not
to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems
necessarily disrupt food and forest resources
are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection.
3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could
Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with
help in achieving negative emissions, given
food production and may have undesirable impacts on
certain nascent technologies
food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the
Select the correct answer using the code given
physical impacts of a changing climate.
Projections of the future role of biomass are
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only

probably overestimated, given the limits to the

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough 26. With reference to the
passage, following
technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate
assumptions have been mad :
-energy models project that biomass use could increase
1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the
nearly four-fold to around 150 200 exajoules, almost a
use of biomass as a fuel for power generation
quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the
helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions
maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass
2. It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for
resources (both residues and energy crops) without
power generation without disrupting food and
disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80
forest resources
170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is
Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour
We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity 6.
Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of
in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed
only one colour
blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on 29. What is Cs surname ?
(a) Riberio
(b) Kumar
broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of
(c) Singh
(d) Cannot be determined
varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping 30. What is the colour of
the tie ?

vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps

(a) Black
(b) Blue
boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high(c) White
(d) Cannot be determined
yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that 31. Who wore the sweater ?
require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic
(a) A
(b) B
pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined
we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at 32. A person walks 12 km
due north, then 15 km due risk for food shortages in future.
east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due
27. Which among the following is the most logical and
south. How far is he from the starting point?
critical inference that can be made from the above
(a) 5 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 37 km
(d) 61 km
(a) In our agricultural practices, we have become 33. A cube has all its faces
painted with different heavily dependent on expensive chemical
colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes
fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green
such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the
big cube. The number of small cubes with only one
(b) Monocropping vast fields with high-yield
of the sides painted is:
(a) 32
(b) 24
varieties is possible due to green revolution
(c) 16
(d) 8
(c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the 34. A military code writes SYSTEM
as SYSMET and only way to ensure food security to millions
NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code,
(d) Green revolution can pose a threat to
FRACTION can be written as:
biodiversity in food supply and food security in

the long run
35. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits
1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of these four digits are
repeated in any manner. Further,
28. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point
1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each
O on the ground in the direction of north-east and
reaches a point A after travelling a distance of 5 km.
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
Then, from the point A he moves to point B in the
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place
km. Now, how far is the person away from the
How many different numbers can be formed?
starting point O?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(a) 7 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 9
(d) None of the above
(c) 17 km
(d) 11 km
36. In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is
twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth
DIRECTIONS for the following 3 (three) items :
from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the
Consider the given information and answer the three
number of boys in rank after him is:
items that follow.
(a) 13
(b) 12
When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that
(c) 7
(d) 3
each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. 37. A person X was

driving in a place where all roads In random order, the garments are: jacket,
sweater and
ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid.
tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their
Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a
surnames in random order are : Ribeiro, Kumar and
parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads,
drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which
Further, we know that :
further route could bring him back to his starting
neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater
point, if the same route is not repeated?
C wore a tie
(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south
Singhs garment was not white
(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
Kumar does not wear a jacket
(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north
38. Consider the following statement:
DIRECTIONS for the following 5 (five) items: Consider
We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking.
the following information and answer the five items
Which of the following, if true, would falsify this that follow:
(a) We go for a picnic but not for trekking
There are five persons in a group P, Q, R, S and T. The
(b) Activities such as picnic and trekking are group has one doctor, one lawyer and
one artist. P and S
encouraged by the health authorities
are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the
(c) We go for trekking and not for picnic
group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither
(d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking
doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.
39. There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 43. Who is the doctor?
males and the rest females. No male faculty member

(a) T
(b) P
knew music, but many of the female faculty
(c) Q
(d) R
members did. The Head of the institution invited six 44. Who is the artist?
faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At
(a) P
(b) Q
the party it was discovered that no member knew
(c) R
(d) T
music. The conclusion is that:
45. Who is the spouse of R?
(a) the party comprised male faculty members
(a) P
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) S
(b) the party comprised only those female faculty 46. Who is the lawyer?
members who could not give renderings in
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
(c) the party comprised both male and female 47. Who of the following is definitely
a man?
faculty members
(a) P
(b) S
(d) nothing can be said about the gender
(b) Q
(d) None of the above
composition of the party
48. There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular
40. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a
product from a customer. The firm produces 1000
round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from
quantity of that product per day out of which 5% are
adjacent chairs.
unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be
(i) C is seated next to A

(ii) A is seated two seats from D
(a) 18
(b) 19
(iii) B is not seated next to A
(c) 20
(d) 22
On the basis of above information, which of the 49. Consider the following
following must be true?
1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older
1. D is seated next to B
than B
2. E is seated next to A
2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older
3. D and C are separated by two seats
than C
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. B is older than C
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
from the above statements?
(c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3
(a) A is older than B
41. There are five hobby clubs in a college
(b) B and D are of the same age
photography, yachting, chess, electronics and
(c) D is older than C
gardening. The gardening group meets every
(d) A is older than C
second day, the electronics group meets every third DIRECTIONS for the
following 3 (three) items:
day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the Consider the given-formation
and answer the three yachting group meets every fifth day and the items that
photography group meets every sixth day. How
many times do all the five groups meet on the same Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F
have been painted with six day within 180 days?
different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow
(a) 5
(b) 18

and orange and arranged from left to right (not

(c) 10
(d) 3
necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the
42. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and same order). Each box
contains a ball of any one of the some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on
following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football each flower, one bee will
be left out. If two bees land and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The
on each flower, one flower will be left out. The golf ball is in violet box and is not in
the box D. The box A number of flowers and bees respectively are:
which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 2
the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 and 3
in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green.
The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in
the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and 56. An agricultural field is in
the form of a rectangle next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box
having length X
containing the hockey ball is between the boxes
1 meters and breadth X2 meters (X1
and X2 are variable). If X1 + X2 = 40 meters, then the
containing golf ball and volleyball.
area of the agricultural field will not exceed which
50. Which one of the following boxes contains the golf
one of the following values?
(a) 400 sq m
(b) 300 sq m
(a) F
(b) E
(c) 200 sq m
(d) 80 sq m
57. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a
(c) D
(d) None of the above
family, 3 years ago, was 80 years. The average age of
51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago,

(a) D is painted yellow

because of an addition of a baby during the
(b) F is painted indigo
intervening period. How old is the baby ?
(c) B is painted blue
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(d) All of the above
(c) 2 years
(d) 2 years and 6 months
58. The total emoluments of two persons are the same,
52. The football is in the box of which colour?
but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his
(a) Yellow
basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent
(b) Indigo
of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of
(c) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
the former to the basic pay of the latter is:
(d) Blue
(a) 16 : 13
(b) 5 : 4
53. In a. question paper there are five questions to be
(c) 7 : 5
(d) 12 : 11
59. A person is standing on the first step from the
attempted and answer to each question has two
bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to
choices - True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two
reach exactly the middle step, how many steps does
candidates have given the answers to the five
the ladder have?
questions in an identical sequence. For this to
(a) 8
(b) 9
happen the maximum number of candidates is:
(c) 10
(d) 11
(a) 10
(b) 18
60. AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the
(c) 26
(d) 32
point where the base of the trunk touches the

ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken

54. A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and
at C which is at a height of 12 meters, broken part is
oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate
partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk
grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B
at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the
and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can
ground at D which is at a distance of 5 meters from
be said that the cause of sickness was:
A, then the original height of the trunk is:
(a) Apple
(b) Pineapple
(a) 20 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 35 m
(c) Grapes
(d) Oranges
61. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four
55. Consider the following statements.
days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then
1. The rate of population growth is increasing in
and Shyam works for eight more days to complete
the country
the job. How long would Ram take to complete the
2. The death rate is declining faster in the country
entire job alone?
compared to birth rate
(a) 6 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 11 days
3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country 62. If R and S are different
integers both divisible by 5, compared to death rate
then which of the following is not necessarily true?
4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly
(a) R S is divisible by 5
in the country
(b) R + S is divisible by 10
Which one of the following conclusions may be true
(c) R S is divisible by 25
in the light of the above facts?
(d) R2 + S2 is divisible by 5

(a) The rate of population growth is increasing due 63. How many numbers are
there between 100 and 300
which either begin with or end with 2?
to rural-urban migration
(a) 110
(b) 111
(b) The rate of population growth is increasing due
(c) 112
(d) None of the above
to decline in death rate only
64. W can do 25% of a work-in 30 days, X can do 1/4 of
(c) The rate of population growth is increasing due
the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40
to increase in birth rate only
days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who
(d) The rate of population growth is increasing due
will complete the work first?
(a) W
(b) X
to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate
(c) Y
(d) Z
65. The average monthly income of a person in a certain
students in the class, what is the number of girls in
family of 5 is ` 10,000. What will be the average monthly
the class?
income of a person in the same family if the income
(a) 6
(b) 12
of one person increased by ` 1,20,000 per year?
(c) 18
(d) 21
(a) ` 12,000
(b) ` 16,000
74. The monthly average salary paid to all the
(c) ` 20,000
(d) ` 34,000
employees of a company was ` 5000. The monthly
66. In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which
average salary paid to male and female employees
are kept in a straight line on a track and a bucket is
was ` 5200 and ` 4200 respectively. Then the

placed at the beginning of the track which is a

percentage of males employed in the company is :
starting point. The condition is that the competitor
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it
(c) 85%
(d) 90%
and drop it in the bucket. If he has to drop all the 75. Two numbers X and Y are
respectively 20% and 28%
apples in the bucket, how much total distance he
less than a third number Z. By what percentage is
has to run if the bucket is 5 meters from the first
apple and all other apples are placed 3 meters apart ?
the number Y less than the number X ?
(a) 40 m
(b) 50 m
(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 150 m
(d) 75 m
(c) 9%
(d) 8%
67. A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked
with four scoring regions from the centre outwards
as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red 76. A cylindrical overhead tank
of radius 2 m and band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands
height 7 m is to be filled from an underground tank
is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target,
of size 5.5 m 4 m 6 m. How much portion of the
what is the probability, that the arrows fall in the red
underground tank is still filled with water after
region of the archery target?
filling the overhead tank completely?
(a) 0.40
(b) 0.20
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/2
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.04
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/6
68. A person allows 10% discount for cash payment 77. A piece of tin is in the form

of a rectangle having from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a
length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to
10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is
construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is:
marked ` 770?
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(a) ` 610
(b) ` 620
(c) 4 cm
(d) 7 cm
(c) ` 630
(d) ` 640
69. A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four
periods of equal duration are held during this interval.
After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the 78. A and B walk around a
circular park. They start at 8
students. The exact duration of each period is:
a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions.
(a) 48 minutes
(b) 50 minutes
A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3
(c) 51 minutes
(d) 53 minutes
rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall
70. 30g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A,
they cross each other after 800 a.m. and before 9.30.
40 g of sugar Was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel
B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in
(a) 7
(b) 6
vessel C. The solution in vessel B is :
(c) 5
(d) 8
(a) sweeter than that in C
79. Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A
(b) sweeter than that in A
maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is
(c) as sweet as that in C
night and they just have one lamp. Persons that
(d) less sweet than that in C
cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way.

71. In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes

A pair must walk together at the speed of slower
as many rupees as the number of students in that
person. After crossing the bridge, the person having
class. With the additional contribution of ` 2 by one
faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp
student only, the total collection is ` 443. Then how
each time to accompany another person in the
many students are there in the class?
group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the
(a) 12
(b) 21
original place and the person who returns the lamp
(c) 43
(d) 45
has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross
72. Anitas mathematics test had 70 problems carrying
the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows :
equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30
A : 1 minute, B : 2 minutes, C : 7 minutes and D : 10
geometry. Although she answered 70% of the
minutes. What is the total minimum time required
arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the
by all the friends to cross the bridge?
geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the
(a) 23 minutes
(b) 22 minutes
test because she got less than 60% marks. The
(c) 21 minutes
(d) 20 minutes
number of more questions she would have to 80. A daily train is to be introduced
between station A answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is:
and station B starting from each at 6 AM and the
(a) 1
(b) 5
journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the
(c) 7
(d) 9
number of trains needed in order to maintain the
73. In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these
Shuttle Service?
constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total
(a) 2
(b) 3

number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of

(c) 4
(d) 7
(c) Greater transparency in the functioning of the 11. (d) According to the author,
the national output has government and promoting the financial
to pass through the commercial channels, before
inclusion is mandatory because there have been
consumption, lacking which would lead to loss
instances where the elite are receiving land and
of income, leading to underdevelopment and
natural resources by bribing the politicians. The
economic disparity.
middle class continues to struggle and is 12. (d) Due to the Greenhouse effect and
soil pollution, deprived of opportunity or economic
a chain reaction has led to excessive carbon
deposition and contamination. Afforestation
(d) Climatic adaptation is relative to many vital
would lead to the carbon breakdown and release
factors. So while formulating policies, the other
the trapped carbon back to the atmosphere.
parameters need to be simultaneously evaluated 13. (b) The passage suggests the
biggest hurdle in the with respect to the climatic adaptation.
world agriculture is to maintain a demand 3.
(a) Biodiversity is an important aspect of our
supply equilibrium. Based on the relevant
ecosystem. Given that water is an essential
information provided in the passage, it can be
component of our existence, it is subjected
ascertained that regulating the pricing
through many organisms before we get to sip a
component for ensuring affordability to the poor
glass. Thus, water is naturally recycled with the
and a proper marketing mix would be beneficial.
help of the biodiversity.
14. (d) The biggest challenge that has always haunted
world agriculture is to achieve a balance the

(d) The biggest problem in our country is the

demand and supply for foods.
disparity in the financial status of the citizens. 15. (c) To reduce hunger and
starvation, ensuring For instance, all the wealth is mostly
equilibrium between demand and supply of food
accumulated by the elite class and the upper is mandatory, alongside ushering measures for
middle class. However, the poor continues to be
Purchasing Power Parity, to help the poor
deprived and exploited. The banking sector
consumers too.
should look forward to promote financial 16. (b) Since there is disparity in the
inclusion, for equal distribution of financial
provision and supply for food worldwide, this
issue has gained significance.
(b) Manual scavenging needs to be addressed. 17. (c) The key responsibility areas
of the civil service However, campaigns and awareness
officers need to be clearly defined and
programmes are needed to be conducted,
standardized, based on the political agendas.
especially targeting the female counterparts, to
Lack of such clarity would lead to
address issues related to sanitation hazards;
misgovernance. Also, striking equilibrium
manual scavenging being a part of it.
between external and internal accountabilities
(d) The various needs and demands of man
is mandatory for effective management.
compelled him to creating a society, as these 18. (d) The passage does not provide
needs could not have been achieved individually.
information on either of the provided options.
(b) The word 'corresponds' indicates a strong bond 19. (d) Civil services, being an
extremely reputed or the interrelationship between politics and
taskforce, should implement reforms to create
economics, for effective formulation of state
benchmark in service and improve
accountability of the office bearers.

(a) As per the information provided in the passage, 20. (d) Seeking accountability
through increased since chemical and mechanical agro - practices
participation by individuals in the decision
contributes to environmental pollution, organic
making process would not help increase internal
farming should be implemented as an
alternative, for environmental conservation.
21. (a) Religious traditions, regardless of felicitating the
Almighty or the Supernatural, ushers belief,
ethics and a specific code of conduct in the
10. (b) Genetic alteration arises from the introduction
society. Man being a social animal derives the
of a new practice, and subsequent follow up of
value set from the society, important for
the same. In this case, a particular modification
maintaining relationships and goodwill. Thus,
in the food habit of the cattle herders resulted in
human relationships can be assumed to have
a massive change in the genetic constitution.
been derived from the religious traditions.
22. (c) Fundamental rights, combined with duties, are
mandatory for dispensing justice in a society.
Riberio Sumar Singh Jacket Sweater Tie Blue White Black
23. (d) As per the passage, all the three options pose

hallenges to the utilization of biomass as fuel.


Issues related to climatic variations, aggravation


f carbon emissions due to liquid bio-fuels and 29. (a) Cs surname is Riberio.
competition between biomass and food 30. (b) The colour of the tie is Blue.
production, have adverse effects.
31. (a) A wore the sweater.
24. (b) It is stated that unscrupulous cultivation of 32. (a) The direction diagram of
a person is as follows: energy crops will lead to an unhealthy
19 km
competition with food crops, thereby
contributing to inflation and price hike for food
4 km
15 km
25. (b) Technological intervention, with proper
12 km
monitoring, could assist in using biomass for
15 km
power generation and achieving negative
26. (a) As per the information provided in the 2nd
paragraph, some energy models (unproven
technology) might negate carbon emissions,

thereby mitigating environmental pollution due
to the greenhouse effect.
27. (d) Green Revolution has its disadvantages.
Biodiversity is already at stake. Crops exposed
to excessive chemicals or the genetically
modified foods lack in nutritional content, in
spite of boosting the yield. However, considering
the long term aspect, green revolution could risk
quality and health.
The required distance is,
28. (b) According to the given information, the
OA = DB = 4 km
direction diagram of a person is as shown
OE = AX = 3 km
AE2 = OA2 + OE2
AE2 = 42 + 32
AE2 = 25
12 km
AE = 5 km
33. (d) The number of small cubes with only one of the
sides painted is 8.
34. (d) As S Y S T E M and N E A R E R
5 km

\ Required distance,
BO2 = BA2 + OA2
BO2 = 122 + 52
35. (a)
BO2 = 144 + 25
36. (b) Let the number of boys be x, then numbers of girls
BO2 = 169
= 2x
\ x + 2x = 60; or 3x = 60; or x = 20
BO = 13 km
So numbers of boys = 20 and numbers of girls = 40
So, he is 13 km far away from the starting
Numbers of student behind Kamal in rank
point O.
= (60 17) = 43
Sol. (29-31) :
Numbers of girls ahead of Kamal in rank = 9
On the basis of given information, the arrangement is as
\ Numbers of boys behind Kamal in rank
= (43 31) = 12
37. (b)
We can say that the 5 groups meet on the same
day on every 60th day.
\ Number of times all the 5 groups meet on
the same day within 180 days =

42. (c) No. of bee > Flower. So, checking by option there
are 3 and 4.
Sol. (43-47) :
1km E
According to the given information, the
arrangement of five persons in a group is as
Xs returning point
following :
X starts from point A, passes through point
B and C and reaches point D.
Doc r
to Lawyer Artist Gender
X returns from point D, passes through point
E and reaches point A back.

38. (d) Option (d) is the just contradiction of given

statement, if it is true, it would falsify the given

39. (d) Question does not say anything about the gender
composition of the group invited for party.
Further, we donot know which specific female

R , Q
faculty know music. So either all in party were
males, or some males and some females who did
S is also unmarried.
not know music were present in the party. So 43. (a) T is the Doctor.
(d) is definitely correct.
44. (c) R is the Artist.
40. (b) The arrangement is in circular table
45. (b) T is the spouse of R.
C is seated next to A
46. (b) Q is the Lawyer
Conclusion : AC or CA
47. (c) Q is definitely a man.
48. (c) Quantity of product to be completed = 19000
Firm production per day = 1000 5% of 1000
= 950
Firm production in 19 days = 19000 5% of 1900
= 19000
C is seated two seats from D
= 19000 950 = 18050
Conclusion : A D or D A
So, firm needs one extra day other than 19 days
B is not seated next to A
to complete the order.
Conclusion : E must be next to A
\ Firm will complete the order in 20 days.
Combining, A C D B E
49. (d) From statement 1,

From statement 2,
and from statement 3
By combining the above three statements, we get
(There can be many arrangements)
Here, A > B > C < D
or A = B > C = D
So, only statement 1 and 2 are correct.
41. (d) Here, we need to take the L.C.M. of 2, 3, 4, 5 and
So, A is older than C.
6 to find out the number of days after which all Sol. (50-52) :
these 5 groups meet on the same day.
According to the given information, the arrangement
So, L.C.M. (2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60
of six boxes is as following:
57. (b) Let x1, x2, x3, x4 and x5 be the present ages of the
family comprising of 5 members
3 years ago,
Volleyball Yellow/Blue
(x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5) 3 5 = 80

1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5) 15 = 80 ...(i)
Now, let the age of new born baby be x
Average age of family today = Average age of
family 3 years ago
(x + x + x + x + x ) -15

A (Orange)
x + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 + x6
50. (b) E boxes contains the golfball.
80 15 + 80 + x
51. (b) F is painted indigo is the correct statement.

[from (i)]

52. (c) We cannot determined that the football is in the

box of which colour.
x6 = 1
\ Babys age = 1 year
53. (d) Since, there are 5 questions to be attempted and
each questions has two choices True or False.
58. (d) Let the basic pay of the first person b x and
that of second person b y.
Therefore, the maximum number of candidates
so that none of them gives the answers to the
According to the question,
five questions in an identical sequence is an
Emolument of both the persons are same.
arrangement of 2 different options at 5 places.
So, x + 0.65x = y + 0.8y
x(1 + 0.65) = y(1 + 0.8) =
Above figure shows that each question can be
filled with 2 choices.

or 12 : 11
So, required numbered of candidates = 2 2 2 2
2 = 32
59. (b) A person is standing on the first step from the
54. (d) According to given information:
bottom of a ladder.
Now, he has to climb 4 more steps to reach
Fruits Eaten
exactly the middle step,
Persons Grapes Pineapple Oranges Apple


Middle 5

more steps
B and C both ate Oranges, So, it can be said that
the cause of sickness was eating of oranges.
55. (d) The death rate is declining more faster than in
Step 1
birth rate. This is the prominent reason for
So, it is clear that the ladder have 9 steps.
increament in the rate of population growth.
60. (b) B
56. (a) Given, length = x1m and breadth = x2m
Also, x1 + x2 = 40 where x1 and x2 are variables
We know that, of all the rectangles, a square has
the largest area.
For the given rectangle to be a square x1 = x2
So, x1 + x2 = 40 x1 = x2 = 20 m
\ Maximum area of the given rectangle = x1x2
= (20 20)m2 = 400 m2
Fig. Vertical Trunk Fig. Broken Trunk

According to pythagoras theorem,
CD2 = AD2 + AC2
X can do of the work in 10 days
CD2 = 52 + 122 CD2 = 25 +144
\ X can do the complete work in 40 days.
CD =
Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days.
169 = 13 m
Now, AB = AC + CD (
Y can do 100% of the work in 100 days
QCD is the broken part of
the trunk AB touching ground at D)
\ Y can do the complete work in 100 days.
AB = (12 + 13) m = 25 m

61. (c) Let the work done by Ram and Shyam be R and
Z can do of the work in 13 days.
S respectively.
\ Z can do the complete work in 39 days.
Hence, it is clear from above results that Z will
Given, (R+S)s 4 days work =
of work
complete the work first.
65. (a) Average monthly income of a person in family
(R + S)s 1 day work =
f work =
of 5 = ` 10,000
100 4
\ Monthly income of family = ` 10,000 5 = `
After Ram takes leave :
After Increament

Increase in monthly income of one person
Ss 8 days work = 1
of work

of work = 100
=` 10,000
Ss 1 day work

f work =
of work
Now, the average monthly income of a person
100 8
50, 000 +10,000
So, Rams 1 day work = (R + S)s 1 day work Ss
in family =
= ` 12,000
1 day work
66. (c)
100 100

of work
of work]
\ Ram will take 10 days to complete the entire job
Distances covered by the competitor to collect
the apples in the bucket are as follows:
62. (b) By looking at all the options, we observe that
1st apple : 2(5) = 10 m
option (b) is not necessarily true.
2nd apple : 2(5 + 3) = 16 m
We know that, a number is divisible by 10 iff it
3rd apple : 2(5 + 2 3) = 22 m
has 0 at the units place.
4th apple : 2(5 + 3 3) = 28 m
(R + S) may or may not have 0 at the units place.
5th apple : 2(5 + 4 3) = 34 m
Therefore, it may or may not be divisible by 10.

6th apple : 2(5 + 5 3) = 40 m

Thus, it is not necessarily true.
Therefore, total distance covered = 10 + 16 + 22 +
63. (a) From 100 to 199, there are 10 numbers ending
28 + 34 + 40 = 150 m
with 2. They are 102, 112, 122, 132, 142, 152, 162,
172, 182, 192.
67. (c)
And from 200 to 300, there are 100 numbers
beginning with 2. They are 200, 201, 202...,299.
\ There are 110 numbers between 100 and 300
which either begin with or end with 2.
64. (d) W can do 25% of a work in 30 days.
W can do of a work in 30 days
\ W can do the complete work in 120 days.
We know that, area of a circle = pr2
So, Red band area = p(0.2)2 = 0.04p
All the other than red are in the form of a ring. 70. (d) Vessel A : 30g sugar mixed
in 180ml water.
So, the concentration of sugar in vessel A is
Blue band area = p((0.3)2 (0.2)2)
= p((0.3 0.2) (0.3 + 0.2)) = 0.05 p
g / ml i.e., g / ml .
Similarly, yellow band area = 0.07 p
Vessel B : 40g sugar mixed in 280ml water.
And white band area = 0.09 p
So, the concentration of sugar in vessel B is
\ Required probability
g / ml i.e., g / ml .

= 0.16
(0.04 + 0.05+ 0.07 + 0.09)p
Vessel C : 20g sugar mixed in 100ml water.
Alternate Method:
So, the concentration of sugar in vessel C is
Area of red circle = p(20)2
g / ml i.e. g / ml .
Radius of Archry board = m = .50m
More the concentration of sugar, more will be
the sweetness.
Area of Archry Board = p(.50)2
Therefore, in terms of sweetness : C > A > B
71. (b) Let the number of students in the class be x.
P() =
= 0.16
p 50)
Total collection without considering the
additional contribution by one student = 443 2
68. (c) Marked price (M.P.) of toy = ` 770
= ` 441
So, x x = 441
Discount = 10% of MP 10
770 = `77
x2 = 441
x = 441 = 21
Price after discount = ` (770 77) = ` 693
72. (b) Questions correctly answered by Anita are as

Let cost price (C.P.) of toy b x.

According to Question,
Arithmetic 70% of 10 = 7
Algebra 40% of 30 = 12
693 x =
of x
Geometry 60% of 30 = 18
\ Total questions correctly answered = 7 + 12
693 x = 0.1 x
+ 18 = 37
1.1 x = 693 x = 630
Anita had to attempt 60% of 70 questions i.e., 42
\ Cost price of the toy = ` 630
questions correctly to pass the test.
MP = 770
\ Number of more questions required to be
answered = 42 37 = 5
SP after discount =
73. (b) Here, x =18
x = 24
CP getting 10% gain =

770 = 630
110 100
69. (a) Class start at 11:00 am
Boys = 24 and y = 24
Class ends at 02:27 pm
y = 36
So, duration of class = 3h 27min = 207 min
Total students = 36
There will be 4 periods.
The number of girls in the class = 36 24 =12.

After every period, there will be a 5 min break. 74. (b) Let the number of
employees in the company be Here, only 3 breaks will be taken as there are
100 and the number of male employees in the
only 4 periods and end of 4th period means end
company be x.
of the class. 4th break is not needed to be
So, the number of female employees = 100 x.
So, duration of the periods = 207 35 = 192 min.
According to the question,
5200x 4200(100 x) =
\ Time assigned to each period =
= 48min .
52x + 42(100 - x) = 5000
78. (a) Here, A and B are moving in opposite directions.
So, Relative speed = 2 + 3 = 5 rounds/hour So,
52x + 4200 - 42x = 5000
they cross each other 5 times in an hour and 2
times in half an hour.
10x = 800 x = 80
Hence, they cross each other 7 times before 9 :
So, there are 80% male employees in the
30 a.m.
79. (a) Here, A takes the shortest time to cross the bridge
75. (b) Let the third number Z = 100
i.e. 1 min. And, D takes 10 min, C takes 7 min
So, X = 80, Y = 72
and B takes 2 min to cross the bridge.
\ Percentage by which Y is less than X
So, 4 friends can cross the bridge in minimum
time in the following ways.
80 - 72
100 = 10%
1. A + B crossing and A returning : (2 + 1) min

2. A + C crossing and A returning : (7 + 1) min
76. (a) Volume of cylindrical overhead tank = pr2h =
3. A + D crossing and A returning : (10 + 1) min
(2) 7 = 88 m3
4. A crossing the bridge for the last time : 1 min.
Hence, total minimum time = 3 + 8 + 11 + 1 = 23
Volume of underground tank = (5.5 4 6)m3 =
Portion of underground tank still filled with 80. (c)
water after filling the overhead tank completely.
Fig. 1 st day
6 am
6 am
Volumeof underground tank Volume of overhead tank
Volumeof underground tank
Train 2
Train 1
132 - 88
Fig. 2 nd day
6 am
6 am
77. (c) Area of rectangle = 12 8 cm2 = 96 cm2
Above given figures show that train 1 leaves
Rectangle is used to construct a closed cube.
station A on 1st day and train 2 leaves station B
Surface area of cube formed = Area of given

on 1st day. Both the trains dont reach their

destination even on the 2nd day after 24 hours as
the journey completes in 42 hours.
6 (side)2 = 96 cm2
\ Two more trains need to be introduced at both
side = 16 side = 4 cm.
the stations i.e., station A and B. So, 4 trains are
needed in order to maintain the shuttle service.
Economy, Development
Modern technological education and human values.-2002
Credit based higher education system status,
Crisis faced in India - moral or economic. -2015
opportunities and challenges -2011
Can capitalism bring inclusive growth? -2015
Education for all campaign in India: myth or reality.
Was it the policy paralysis or the paralysis of
implementation which slowed the growth of our 7. Privatization of higher education
in India. -2002
country? -2014
Irrelevance of the classroom. -2001
Tourism: Can this be the next big thing for India? -2014 9. Value-based science and
education. -1999
GDP (Gross Domestic Product) along with GDH (Gross
Domestic Happiness) would be the right indices for 10. Is an egalitarian society
possible by educating the judging the wellbeing of a country-2013
masses ? -2008
Is the criticism that the Public-Private-Partnership 11. Independent thinking should
be encouraged right form (PPP) model for development is more of a bane than a
the childhood. -2007
boon in the Indian context, justified ?-2012

12. Restructuring of Indian education system. -1995

Protection of ecology and environment is essential for 13. Literacy is growing very
fast, but there is no sustained economic development. -2006
corresponding growth in education. -1996
BPO boom in India. -2007
14. What is real education? -2005
Globalization would finish small-scale industries in
India. -2006
Indian Democracy, Society, Culture, Mindset
10. Economic growth without distributive justice is 1. Dreams which should not let
India sleep. -2015
bound to breed violence. -1993
Is sting operation an invasion on privacy? -2014
11. Ecological considerations need not hamper development. 3. Fifty Golds in
Olympics: Can this be a reality for India?
12. Multinational corporations saviours or saboteurs - 4. Is the Colonial mentality
hindering Indias Success?
13. Special economic zone: boon or bane -2008
In the context of Gandhijis views on the matter,
14. Resource management in the Indian context. -1999
explore, on an evolutionary scale, the terms
Swadhinata, Swaraj and Dharmarajya. Critically
15. Should a moratorium be imposed on all fresh mining
comment on their contemporary relevance to Indian
in tribal areas of the country? -2010
democracy -2012
16. Are our traditional handicrafts doomed to a slow 6. Does Indian cinema shape
our popular culture or death? -2009
merely reflect it? -2011
17. The focus of health care is increasingly getting skewed 7.
Indian culture today: a myth or a reality? -2000
towards the haves of our society. -2009
Modernism and our traditional socio-ethical values.
18. Urbanization is a blessing in disguise. -1997

Youth culture today. -1999
10. Mass media and cultural invasion. -1999
11. The composite culture of India. -1998
Education without values, as useful as it is, seems 12. The Indian society at the
crossroads. -1994
rather to make a man more clever devil-2015
13. Geography may remain the same ; history need not.
Is the growing level of competition good for the youth?
14. From traditional Indian philanthropy to the
Are the standardized tests good measure of academic
gates-buffet model-a natural progression or a
ability or progress? -2014
paradigm shift? -2010
Essay-list Topicwise (1993-2015)
15. Modernisation and Westernisation are not identical 12. Our deeds determine us,
as much as we determine concepts. -1994
our deeds. -1995
16. New cults and godmen: a threat to traditional 13. Youth is a blunder,
manhood a struggle, oldage a regret religion. -1996
17. How has satellite television brought about cultural 14. Useless life is an early
death. -1994
change in Indian mindsets? -2007
15. He would reigns within himself and folds his passions
18. globalization vs. nationalism. -2009
and desires and fears is more than a king. -1993
19. National identity and patriotism. -2008
16. Compassion is the basic of all morality would -1993
20. Responsibility of media in a democracy. -2002
17. If youth knew, if age could. -2002
21. Why should we be proud of being Indians? -2000
18. The paths of glory lead but to the grave. -2002
22. True religion cannot be misused. -1997
19. The pursuit of excellence. -2001
23. Globalizations and its impact on Indian culture. -2004 20. Truth is lived, not

taught -1996
International Issues
Polity, Administration
Indias role in promoting ASEAN co-operation. -2004 1. Creation of smaller states
and the consequent 2.
The masks of new imperialism. -2003
administrative , economic and developmental
As civilization advances culture declines. -2003
implication -2011
The implications of globalization for India. -2000
Evaluation of panchayati raj system in India from the
point of view of eradication of power to people. -2007
My vision of an ideal world order. -2001
Justice must reach the poor -2005
Indias contribution to world wisdom. -1998
Water resources should be under the control of the
The world of the twenty-first century. -1998
central government. -2004
Preparedness of our society for Indias global 5. The misinterpretation and misuse of
freedom in India.
leadership role. -2010
The global order: political and economic -1993
The language problem in India: its past, present and
10. Importance of Indo-US nuclear agreement -2006
prospects. -1998
11. Good fences make good neighbours -2009
Reservation, politics and empowerment. -1999
12. Terrorism and world peace -2005
When money speaks, the truth is silent. -1995

13. Restructuring of UNO reflect present realities -1996

How should a civil servant conduct himself? -2003
10. Politics without ethics is a disaster. -1995
Quote based, Philosophy, Ethics
11. Judicial activism. -1997
12. The vip cult is a bane of Indian democracy -1996
Lending hands to someone is better than giving a dole. 13. Need for transparency
in public administration -1996
14. Whither Indian democracy? -1995
Quick but steady wins the race. -2015
15. Politics, bureaucracy and business fatal triangle.
Character of an institution is reflected in its leader.
16. How far has democracy in India delivered the goods?
With greater power comes greater responsibility.
17. What we have not learnt during fifty years of
Words are sharper than the two-edged sword. -2014
independence. -1997
Be the change you want to see in others (Gandhi)-2013 18. My vision of India in
2001 a.d. -1993
Discipline means success, anarchy means ruin -2008
19. In the Indian context, both human intelligence and
Attitude makes, habit makes character and character
technical intelligence are crucial in combating
makes a man. -2007
terrorism -2011
There is nothing either good or bad but thinking makes 20. Is autonomy the best
answer to combat balkanization?
it so. -2003

10. Search for truth can only be a spiritual problem. 21. The countrys need for a
better disaster management
system. -2000
11. Disinterested intellectual curiosity is the lifeblood of 22. Are we a soft state ?
civilisation. -1995
23. Role of media in good governance -2008
Essay-list Topicwise (1993-2015)
24. Judicial activism and Indian democracy. -2004
The lure of space. -2004
25. What have we gained from our democratic set-up? 10. Spirituality and scientific
temper. -2003
26. Urbanisation and its hazards -2008
Women Empowerment
27. Food security for sustainable national development
Managing work and home is the Indian working
woman getting a fair deal ?-2012
Men have failed: let women take over. -1993
Womens reservation bill would usher in empowerment
Technology cannot replace manpower. -2015
for women in India. -2006
Science and technology is the panacea for the growth 4.
The hand that rocks the cradle -2005
and security of the nation-2013
If women ruled the world -2005
Science and Mysticism : Are they compatible ?-2012
Whither womens emancipation? -2004
Computer : the harbinger of silent revolution. -1993

Empowerment alone cannot help our women. -2001

The march of science and the erosion of human values. 8.
Women empowerment: challenges and prospects.
The modern doctor and his patients. -1997
Woman is gods best creation. -1998
10. Greater political power alone will not improve
Increasing computerization would lead to the creation
womens plight. -1997
of a dehumanized society. -2006
11. The new emerging women power: the ground
The cyberworld : its charms and challenges. -2000
realities. -1995
Art & Culture
How different would have been the achievement
of Indian independence without Mahatma 2015
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Salient aspects of Art, Architecture,
Gandhi? Discuss.
literature from Ancient to Modern Times
It would have been difficult for the Constituent
The ancient civilization in Indian sub-continent
Assembly to complete its historic task of drafting
differed from those of Egypt, Mesopotamia and
the Constitution for Independent India in just 2015
Greece in that its culture and traditions have 2015
three years but for the experience gained with
been preserved without a breakdown to the
the Government of India Act, 1935. Discuss.
present day. Comment.
The third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761.
Mesolithic rock cut architecture of India not only
Why were so many empire-shaking battles 2014
reflects the cultural life of the times but also a
fought at Panipat?
tine aesthetic sense comparable to modem 2015
painting. Critically evaluate this comment.

Examine critically the various facets of economic

policies of the British in India from mid- 2014
To what extent has the urban planning and
eighteenth century till independence.
culture of the Indus Valley Civilization provided 2014
inputs to the present day urbanization? Discuss.
In what ways did the naval mutiny prove to be
the last nail in the coffin of British colonial 2014
Gandhara sculpture owed as much to the
aspirations in India?
Romans as to the Greeks. Explain.
Defying the barriers of age, gender and religion,
the Indian women became the torch bearer 2013
Taxila university was one of the oldest
during the struggle for freedom in India. Discuss.
universities of the world with which were
associated a number of renowned learned
Several foreigners made India their homeland
personalities of different disciplines. Its strategic 2014
and participated in various movements. 2013
location caused its fame to flourish, but unlike
Analyze their role in the Indian struggle for
Nalanda, it is not considered as a university in
the modern sense. Discuss.
In many ways, Lord Dalhousie was the founder
Sufis and medieval mystic saints failed to modify
of modern India. Elaborate.
either the religious ideas and practices or the
outward structure of Hindu / Muslim societies 2014
to any appreciable extent. Comment.
History: India After Independence
Though not very useful from the point of view of
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Post-Independence (consolidation and
a connected political history of South India, the
reorganisation within country)
Sangam literature portrays the social and 2013
Critically discuss the objectives of Bhoodan and
economic conditions of its time with remarkable
Gramdan movements initiated by Acharya 2013
vividness. Comment.
Vinoba Bhave and their success.

Discuss the Tandava dance as recorded in the

Write a critical note on the evolution and
early Indian inscriptions.
significance of the slogan Jai Jawana Jai Kisan.
Chola architecture represents a high watermark
Discuss the contribution of Maulana Abul Kalam
in the evolution of temple architecture. Discuss. 2013
Azad to pre-and post-independent India.
Analyze the circumstances that led to Tashkent
History: India before Independence
Agreement in 1966. Discuss the highlights of the 2013
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Mid-18th century - Present
(significant events, personalities, issues); Freedom Struggle
Critically examine the compulsions which
(various stages, important contributors from different parts
prompted India to play a decisive roles in the 2013
of the country)
emergence of Bangladesh.
Main GS Paper
History: World
Growing feeling of regionalism is an important
factor in the generation of demand for a separate 2013
GS1 Syllabus Topic : 18th century events (e.g. Industrial
state. Discuss.
revolution, WWs, redrawn boundaries, colonisation,
decolonisation); Political philosophies (e.g. communism,
capitalism, socialism) and their effect on society
Social Science: Poverty, Population, Globalization
Why did the industrial revolution first occur in

GS1 Syllabus Topic : Salient features of Indian Society;

England? Discuss the quality of life of the people
Diversity of India; Globalisation (effects on Indian
there during the industrialization. How does it
compare with that in India at present?

GS1 Syllabus Topic : Poverty, Population; Development

and associated issues

To what extent can Germany be held responsible
for causing the two World Wars? Discuss
Critically examine whether growing population
is the cause of poverty OR poverty is the main 2015
cause of population increase in India.
What were the major political, economic and
social developments in the world which
Discuss the changes in the trends of labour
motivated the anti-colonial struggle in India?
migration within and outside India in the last 2015
four decades.
What were the events that led to the Suez Crisis
in 1956? How did it deal a final blow to Britains
The life cycle of a joint family depends on
self-image as a world power?
economic factors rather than social values. 2014
The New Economic Policy - 1921 of Lenin had
influenced the policies adopted by India soon
Critically examine the effects of globalization on
after independence. Evaluate.
the aged population in India.
Latecomer Industrial revolution in Japan
involved certain factors that were markedly 2013
Social Science: Women
different from what west had experience.

GS1 Syllabus Topic : Role of women and womens

Africa was chopped into states artificially
created by accident of European competition. 2013

Although some of the following questions fall under

population-globalization categories, but if a person
American Revolution was an economic revolt
cultivates habit of noting down women related topics

against mercantilism. Substantiate.

under one head, itll benefit in both GS1, GS2 and Essay.
What policy instruments were deployed to
Discuss the positive and negative effects of 2015
contain the great economic depression?
globalization on women in India. (2013, Asked
about Globalization effect on Elderly)
Social Science: Caste, Religion, Region
How do you explain the statistics that show that
the sex ratio in Tribes in India is more favourable 2015
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Communalism, Regionalism,
to women than the sex ratio among Scheduled
Secularism; Social Empowerment
Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, despite
How does patriarchy impact the position of a
having divergent approaches and strategies, had 2015
middle class working woman in India?
a common goal of amelioration of the
downtrodden. Elucidate.
Discuss the various economic and socio-cultural 2014
Describe any four cultural elements of diversity
forces that are driving increasing feminization
in India and rate their relative significance in
of agriculture in India.
building a national identity.
Why do some of the most prosperous regions of 2014
Debate the issue of whether and how
India have an adverse sex ratio for women? Give
contemporary movements for assertion of Dalit
your arguments.
identity work towards annihilation of caste.
Male membership needs to be encouraged in
How do the Indian debates on secularism differ
order to make womens organization free from 2013
from the debates in the West?
gender bias. Comment.

Main GS Paper
Geography: Physical
The recent cyclone on the east coast of India was
called Phailin. How are the tropical cyclones 2013
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Salient Features of World Physical
named across the world?
Geography; Important Geophysical phenomena
(earthquakes, tsunami, volcanoes, cyclones); Geographical
Bring out the causes for the formation of heat 2013
features and location;
islands in the urban habitat of the world.
Explain the formation of thousands of islands in
What do you understand by the phenomenon of
Indonesian and Philippines archipelagos.
temperature inversion in meteorology? How does 2013
it affect the weather and the habitants of the
Why are the worlds fold mountain systems
located along the margins of continents? Bring
out the association between the global
Bring out the causes for more frequent landslides 2013
distribution of Fold Mountains and the
in the Himalayas than in Western Ghats
earthquakes and volcanoes.
What do you understand by the theory of
Geography: Resources Distribution
continental drift? Discuss the prominent
evidences in its support.
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Distribution of key Natural Resources
(world, S. Asia, Indian subcontinent)
There is no formation of deltas by rivers of the
Western Ghat. Why?
What are the economic significances of discovery
of oil in Arctic Sea and its possible environmental 2015
Major hot deserts in northern hemisphere are
located between 20-30 degree north and on the
western side of the continents. Why?
Critically evaluate the various resources of the

oceans which can be harnessed to meet the 2014

resource crisis in the world.
Geography: Climate, Disaster related
How does India see its place in the economic space
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Critical geographical features, flora,
of rising natural resource rich Africa?
fauna (changes and effects thereof)
With growing scarcity of fossil fuels, the atomic
Explain the factors responsible for the origin of
energy is gaining more and more significance in
ocean currents. How do they influence regional 2015
India. Discuss the availability of raw material 2013
climates, fishing and navigation?
required for the generation of atomic energy in
India is well endowed with fresh water
India and in the world.
resources. Critically examine why it still suffers 2015
It is said the India has substantial reserves of
from water scarcity.
shale oil and gas, which can feed the needs of
The states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
country for quarter century. However, tapping 2013
Pradesh and Uttarakhand arc reaching the
of the resources doesnt appear to be high on the
limits of their ecological carrying capacity due
agenda. Discuss critically the availability and
to tourism. Critically evaluate.
issues involved.
How far do you agree that the behavior of the
Indian monsoon has been changing due to
Geography: Factors affecting Industrial locations
humanizing landscapes? Discuss.
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Factors responsible for location of
Tropical cyclones are largely confined to South
Industries (primary, secondary, tertiary; India, world)
China Sea, Bay of Bengal and Gulf of Mexico. Why? 2014
Whereas the British planters had developed tea
Most of the unusual climatic happenings are
gardens all along the Shivaliks and Lesser 2014
explained as an outcome of the El-Nino effect. Do
Himalayas from Assam to Himachal Pradesh, in

you agree?
effect they did not succeed beyond the Darjeeling
area. Explain.
Bring out the relationship between the shrinking
Himalayan glaciers and the symptoms of climate
Account for the change in the spatial pattern of
change in the Indian sub-continent.
the Iron and Steel industry in the world.
Main GS Paper
Why did the Green Revolution in India virtually
Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata are the three mega
by-pass the eastern region despite fertile soil and 2014
cities of the country but the air pollution is much
good availability of water?
more serious problem in Delhi as compared to
Do you agree that there is a growing trend of
the other two. Why is this so?
opening new sugar mills in the Southern states 2013
of India? Discuss with justification
Smart cities in India cannot sustain without
smart villages. Discuss this statement in the 2015
Analyze the factors for highly decentralized
cotton textile industry in India
backdrop of rural urban integration.
Discussion the various social problems which
Geography: Urbanization
originated out of the speedy process of 2013
urbanization in India.
GS1 Syllabus Topic : Urbanization: problems and remedies
Polity: Basics of Constitution
Instances of Presidents delay in commuting
death sentences has come under public debate
GS2 Syllabus Topic : Historical underpinnings & evolution;
as denial of justice. Should there be a time limit
Features, amendments, significant provisions, basic
structure; Comparison of Indian constitutional scheme with

specified for the President to accept/reject such

other countries
petitions? Analyse.
Discuss the possible factors that inhibit India
The size of the cabinet should be as big as
from enacting for its citizens a uniform civil code
governmental work justifies and as big as the
as provided for in the Directive Principles of State
Prime Minister can manage as a team. How far
the efficacy of a government then is inversely
related to the size of the cabinet? Discuss.
Khap Panchayats have been in the news for
functioning as extra-constitutional authorities,
often delivering pronouncements amounting to
Polity: Legislature
human rights violations. Discuss critically the
actions taken by the legislative, executive and
GS2 Syllabus Topic:
the judiciary to set the things right in this regard.

Union and State Legislatures (structure, functioning,

Does the right to clean environment entail legal
conduct of business, powers & privileges; issues
regulations on burning crackers during Diwali?
Discuss in the light of Article 21 of the Indian

Salient features of the Representation of Peoples Act.

Constitution and Judgement(s) of the Apex Court
in this regard.
The Powers, Privileges and Immunities of
What do you understand by the concept
Parliament and its Members as envisaged in
freedom of speech and expression? Does it
Article 105 of the Constitution leave room for a
cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India
large number of un-codified and un-enumerated 2014
stand on a slightly different plane from other

forms of expression? Discuss.

privileges to continue. Assess the reasons for the
absence of legal codification of the parliamentary
Discuss Section 66A of IT Act, with reference to
privileges. How can this problem be addressed?
its alleged violation of Article 19 of the
The role of individual MPs (Members of
Parliament) has diminished over the years and
Polity: The Executive
as a result healthy constructive debates on policy
issues are not usually witnessed. How far can 2013
GS2 Syllabus Topic:
this be attributed to the anti-defection law,

Executive (structure, organisation, functioning);

which was legislated but with a different

Ministries and Departments (of Union and State govts.)

Main GS Paper
Polity: Separation of Powers
Many State Governments further bifurcate
geographical administrative areas like Districts
GS2 Syllabus Topic:
and Talukas for better governance. In light of the

Separation of Powers (between different organs,

above, can it also be justified that more number of
dispute redressal mechanisms, institutions);
smaller States would bring in effective governance

Judiciary (structure, organisation functioning).

at State level? Discuss.
Resorting to ordinances has always raised
Constitutional mechanisms to resolve the interconcern on violation of the spirit of separation of
state water disputes have failed to address and
powers doctrine. While noting the rationales
solve the problems. Is the failure due to structural

justifying the power to promulgate ordinances, 2015

or process inadequacy or both? Discuss.
analyze whether the decisions of the Supreme
Court on the issue have further facilitated
resorting to this power. Should the power to
Polity: Bodies
promulgate ordinances be repealed?
GS2 Syllabus Topic : Appointment to various Constitutional
Starting from inventing the basic structure
posts; Constitutional Bodies (powers, functions and
responsibilities); Statutory, Regulatory and Quasi-judicial
doctrine, the judiciary has played a highly
proactive role in ensuring that India develops 2014
into a thriving democracy. In light of the
What are the major changes brought in the
statement, evaluate the role played by judicial
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 through
activism in achieving the ideals of democracy.
the recent Ordinance promulgated by the 2015
President? How far will it improve Indias
The Supreme Court of India keeps a check on
dispute resolution mechanism? Discuss.
arbitrary power of the Parliament in amending 2013
the Constitution. Discuss critically.
For achieving the desired objectives, it is
necessary to ensure that the regulatory
institutions remain independent and 2015
Polity: Federalism & Local governance
autonomous. Discuss in the light of the
experiences in recent past.
GS2 Syllabus Topic:

Functions & responsibilities of the Union and the

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in
States; issues and challenges of federal structure;
India can be most effective when its tasks are

Devolution of powers and finances to local levels;

adequately supported by other mechanisms that
challenges therein.
ensure the accountability of a government. In
light of the above observation assess the role of 2014
The concept of cooperative federalism has been

NHRC as an effective complement to the judiciary

increasingly emphasized in recent years.
and other institutions in promoting and
Highlight the drawbacks in the existing structure 2015
protecting human rights standards.
and the extent to which cooperative federalism
would answer the shortcomings.
The setting up of a Rail Tariff Authority to
regulate fares will subject the cash strapped
In absence of a well-educated and organized local
Indian Railways to demand subsidy for
level government system, Panchayats and
obligation to operate non-profitable routes and
Samitis have remained mainly political
services. Taking into account the experience in
institutions and not effective instruments of
the power sector, discuss if the proposed reform
governance. Critically discuss.
is expected to benefit the consumers, the Indian
Railways or the private container operators.
Though the federal principle is dominant in our
Constitution and that principle is one of its basic
Discuss the recommendations of the 13th Finance
features, but it is equally true that federalism under
Commission which have been a departure from
the Indian Constitution leans in favour of a strong 2014
the previous commissions for strengthening the 2013
Centre, a feature that militates against the concept
local government finances.
of strong federalism. Discuss.
The product diversification of financial
Recent directives from Ministry of Petroleum and
institutions and insurance companies, resulting
Natural Gas are perceived by the Nagas as a
in overlapping of products and services
threat to override the exceptional status enjoyed
strengthens the case for the merger of the two
by the State. Discuss in light of Article 371A of the
regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA.
Indian Constitution.

Main GS Paper
Welfare: Policies & Schemes
The quality of higher education in India requires
major improvements to make it internationally
GS2 Syllabus Topic:
competitive. Do you think that the entry of 2015

Welfare Schemes (centre, states; performance,

foreign educational institutions would help
mechanisms, laws, institutions and bodies constituted
improve the quality of higher and technical
for protection of vulnerable sections);
education in the country? Discuss.

Poverty and hunger issues.

Public health system has limitations in
Though there have been several different
providing universal health coverage. Do you
estimates of poverty in India, all indicate
think that the private sector could help in
reduction in poverty levels over time. Do you 2015
bridging the gap? What other viable alternatives
agree? Critically examine with reference to urban
would you suggest?
and rural poverty indicators.
Though 100 percent FDI is already allowed in
Do governments schemes for up-lifting
non-news media like a trade publication and
vulnerable and backward communities by
general entertainment channel, the Government
protecting required social resources for them, 2014
is mul ing over the proposal for increased FDI in
lead to their exclusion in establishing businesses
news media for quite some time. What difference
in urban economics?
would an increase in FDI make? Critically
Two parallel run schemes of the Government viz.
evaluate the pros and cons.
the Adhaar Card and NPR, one as voluntary and
An athlete participates in Olympics for personal

the other as compulsory, have led to debates at

triumph and nations glory; victors are showered
national levels and also litigations. On merits, 2014
discuss whether or not both schemes need run
with cash incentives by various agencies, on
concurrently. Analyse the potential of the
their return. Discuss the merit of state sponsored
schemes to achieve developmental benefits and
talent hunt and its cultivation as against the
equitable growth.
rationale of a reward mechanism as encouragement.
The Central Government frequently complains
Should the premier institutes like IITs/IIMs be
on the poor performance of the State
allowed to retain premier status, allowed more
Governments in eradicating suffering of the
academic independence in designing courses and
vulnerable sections of the society. Restructuring
also decide mode/criteria of selection of students.
of Centrally sponsored schemes across the 2013
Discuss in light of the growing challenges.
sectors for ameliorating the cause of vulnerable
sections of population aims at providing
The concept of Mid Day Meal (MDM) scheme is
flexibility to the States in better implementation.
almost a century old in India with early
Critically evaluate.
beginnings in Madras Presidency in preindependent India. The scheme has again been
Electronic cash transfer system for the welfare
given impetus in most states in the last two
schemes is an ambitious project to minimize 2013
decades. Critically examine its twin objectives,
corruption, eliminate wastage and facilitate
latest mandates and success.
reforms. Comment.
Identify the Millennium Development Goals
The basis of providing urban amenities in rural
(MDGs) that are related to health. Discuss the
areas (PURA) is rooted in establishing

success of the actions taken by the Government
connectivity. Comment.
for achieving the same.
Welfare: Sectors & Services
Governance: Accountability & E-Gov

GS2 Syllabus Topic : Social Sector & Social Services

(health, education, human resources - issues in 1.
GS2 Syllabus Topic : Important aspects of governance;
development, management);
Transaparency and accountability (institutional and
other measures); Citizens Charter;

GS2 Syllabus Topic : Government Policies &

Interventions for development of various sectors 2.
GS2 Syllabus Topic : E-Governance (applications,
(issues in their design, implementation).
models, successes, limitations, potential).
Main GS Paper
In the light of the Satyam Scandal (2009), discuss
The legitimacy and accountability
the changes brought in corporate governance to 2015
of Self Help Groups (SHGs) and
ensure transparency, accountability.
their patrons, the micro-finance 2013
outfits, need systematic assessment
If amendment bill to the Whistleblowers Act,
and scrutiny for the sustained
2011 tabled in the Parliament is passed, there 2015
success of the concept. Discuss.
may be no one left to protect. Critically
Pressure group politics is sometimes
seen as the informal face of politics.
Though Citizens charters have been formulated
With regards to the above, assess 2013
by many public service delivery organizations,
the structure and functioning of
there is no corresponding improvement in the 2013

pressure groups in India.

level of citizens satisfaction and quality of
services being provided. Analyze.
Civil Services Has the Cadre based Civil Services
Organisation been the cause of slow
A national Lokpal, however strong it may be,
change in India? Critically 2014
cannot resolve the problems of immorality in 2013
examine. 2014
public affairs. Discuss.
IR/Diplomacy: Neighbors
Groups: Civil Services, NGO, SHG,
Pressure Groups
GS2 Syllabus Topic : Effect of Policies & Politics of Developed
and Developing countries on India (Indias interests,
GS2 Syllabus Topic:
Development Processes & Development industry (role
Project Mausam is considered a unique foreign
of NGOs, SHGs, groups & associations, donors,
policy initiative of the Indian Government to
charities, institutional and other stakeholders)
improve relationship with its neighbors. Does 2015
Pressure Groups & Formal, Informal associations (and
the project have a strategic dimension? Discuss.
their role in the polity)
Terrorist activities and mutual distrust have
Role of Civil Services in a democracy.
clouded India-Pakistan relations. To what extent
the use of soft power like sports and cultural
Examine critically the recent
exchanges could help generate goodwill between
changes in the rules governing
the two countries? Discuss with suitable
foreign funding of NGOs under the 2015
Foreign Contribution (Regulation)
Act (FCRA), 1976.
With respect to the South China sea, maritime

territorial disputes and rising tension affirm the

The Self-Help Group (SHG) Bank
need for safeguarding maritime security to
Linkage Programme (SBLP), which
ensure freedom of navigation and over flight 2014
is Indias own innovation, has
throughout the region. In this context, discuss
proved to be one of the most 2015
the bilateral issues between India and China.
effective poverty alleviation and
women empowerment programmes.
The proposed withdrawal of International
Security Assistance Force (ISAF) from
Afghanistan in 2014 is fraught with major 2013
How can the role of NGOs be
security implications for the countries of the
strengthened in India for
region. Examine in light of the fact that India is
development works relating to
faced with a plethora of challenges and needs to
protection of the environment?
safeguard its own strategic interests.
Discuss throwing light on the
What do you understand by The String of
major constraints.
Pearls? How does it impact India? Briefly outline
the steps taken by India to counter this.
The penetration of Self Help
Groups (SHGs) in rural areas in
The protests in Shahbag Square in Dhaka in
promoting participation in 2014
Bangladesh reveal a fundamental split in society
development programmes is facing
between the nationalists and Islamic forces. 2013
socio-cultural hurdles. Examine.
What is its significance for India?
Main GS Paper

Discuss the political developments in Maldives

The aim of Information Technology Agreements
in the last two years. Should they be of any cause 2013
(ITAs) is to lower all taxes and tariffs on
of concern to India?
information technology products by signatories 2014
to zero. What impact should such agreements
In respect of India Sri Lanka relations, discuss
have on Indias interests?
how domestic factors influence foreign policy.
Some of the International funding agencies have
What is meant by Gujral doctrine? Does it have
special terms for economic participation
any relevance today? Discuss.
stipulating a substantial component of the aid
to be used for sourcing equipment from the 2014
leading countries. Discuss on merits of such
IR/Diplomacy: Not-Neighbors but
terms and if, there exists a strong case not to
affecting interests
accept such conditions in the Indian context.
GS2 Syllabus Topic : India and its Neighbourhood (relations)
India has recently signed to become founding a
New Development Bank (NDB) and also the
Increasing interest of India in Africa has its pros
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
and cons. Critically examine.
.How will the role of the two Banks be different? 2014
Economic ties between India and Japan while
Discuss the significance of these two Banks for
growing in the recent years are still far below
their potential. Elucidate the policy constraints
WTO is an important international institution
which are inhibiting this growth.
where decisions taken affect countries in
profound manner. What is the mandate of WTO
and how binding are their decisions? Critically 2014
IR/Diplomacy: Institutions, Groupings,
analyse Indias stand on the latest round of talks

on Food security.
GS2 Syllabus Topic : Important International institutions,
The World Bank and the IMF, collectively known
agencies, for a (structure, mandate); Bilateral, Regional,
as the Bretton Woods Institutions, are the two
Global groupings & Agreements (involving and/or affecting
inter-governmental pillars supporting the
structure of the worlds economic and financial 2013
order. Superficially, the World Bank and the IMF
Discuss the impediments India is facing in its
exhibit many common characteristics, yet their
pursuit of a permanent seat in UN Security 2015
role, functions and mandate are distinctly
different. Elucidate.
Capitalism has guided the world economy to
unprecedented prosperity. However, it often
Topics related to economy, infrastructure, investment
encourages shortsightedness and contributes to 2014
Growth and Resource Mobilization
wide disparities between the rich and the poor.
In this light, would it be correct to believe and
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Indian Economy (issues re: planning,
adopt capitalism driving inclusive growth in
mobilisation of resources, growth, development,
India? Discuss.
employment); Inclusive growth and issues therein
With a consideration towards the strategy of
The nature of economic growth in India in
inclusive growth, the new companies bill, 2013 2013
described as jobless growth. Do you agree with
has indirectly made CSR a mandatory
this view? Give arguments in favour of your answer. 2015
obligation. Discuss the challenges expected in its
implementation in right earnest. Also discuss
Craze for gold in Indians have led to a surge in
other provisions in the bill and their
import of gold in recent years and put pressure
on balance of payments and external value of 2015

Success of Make in India programme depends

rupee. In view of this, examine the merits of Gold
on the success of Skill India programme and radical 2015
Monetization Scheme.
labour reforms. Discuss with logical arguments.
Main GS Paper
While we found Indias demographic dividend,
Adaptation of PPP model for infrastructure
we ignore the dropping rates of employability.
development of the country has not been free
What are we missing while doing so? Where will
from criticism. Critically discuss the pros and
the jobs that India desperately needs come from?
cons of the model.
Economy: Liberalization
Economy: Budget
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Effects of Liberalisation on the
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Government Budgeting.
economy; Changes in Industrial policy & their effects on
industrial growth.
In what way could replacement of price subsidy
with Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) change the 2015
Normally countries shift from agriculture to
scenario of subsidies in India? Discuss.
industry and then later to services, but India
shifted directly from agriculture to services.
What are the reasons for introduction of Fiscal
What are the reasons for the huge growth of
responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) 2013
services vis-a-vis industry in the country? Can 2014
act, 2003? Discuss critically its salient features
India become a developed country without a
and their effectiveness.
strong industrial base?
What is meaning of the term tax-expenditure?
Foreign direct investment in the defence sector
Taking housing sector as an example, discuss 2013
is now said to be liberalised. What influence this
how it influences budgetary policies of the
is expected to have on Indian defence and 2014

economy in the short and long run?
Discussion the rationale for introducing Good
Examine the impact of liberalization on
and services tax in India. Bring out critically the 2013
companies owned by Indian. Are the competing 2013
reasons for delay in roll out for its regime.
with the MNCs satisfactorily?
Discuss the impact of FDI entry into multi-trade
Economy: Investment and Infrastructure
retail sector on supply chain management in 2013
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Infrastructure (energy, ports, roads,
commodity trade pattern of the economy.
airports, railways); Investment models.
Though India allowed foreign direct investment
There is a clear acknowledgement that Special
(FDI) in what is called multi brand retail through 2013
Economic Zones (SEZs) are a tool of industrial
joint venture route in September 2012, the FDI
development, manufacturing and exports.
even after a year, has not picket up. Discuss the
Recognizing this potential, the whole
instrumentality of SEZs requires augmentation.
Discuss the issues plaguing the success of SEZs
with respect to taxation, governing laws and
Topics related to farming, food processing and food security
The right to fair compensation and transparency
Food: E-tech. in aid of farmers
land acquisition, rehabilitation and resettlement
act, 2013 has come into effect from 1 January 2014.
GS3 Syllabus Topic: e-technology to aid farmers;s
What implication would it have on
Technology missions.
industrialisation and agriculture in India?
How can the Digital India programme help
National urban transport policy emphasizes on
farmers to improve farm productivity and
moving people instead of moving vehicles.
income? What steps has the Government taken

Discuss critically the success of various strategies 2014
in this regards?
of the government in this regard.
Food: Food processing industry
Explain how private public partnership
agreements, in longer gestation infrastructure
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Food processing and related
projects, can transfer unsuitable liabilities to the 2014
industries in India (scope & significance, location, upstreamfuture. What arrangements need to be put in
downstream requirements, supply chain management);
place to ensure that successive generations
storage, transport & marketing of agro-produce and related
capacities are not compromised?
issues & constraints; Economics of animal-rearing
Main GS Paper
Livestock rearing has a big potential for
What are the different types of agriculture
providing non-farm employment and income in
subsidies given to farmers at the national and
rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable 2015
state levels? Critically analyze the agriculture
measures to promote this sectors in India
subsidy regime with the reference to the
distortions created by it.
In view of the declining average size of land
holdings in India which has made agriculture
non-viable for a majority of farmers, should
contract farming and land leasing be promoted
in agriculture? Critically evaluate the pros and
Topics related to environment, science-tech and disaster
What are the impediments in marketing and
supply chain management in industry in India? 2015
Can e-commerce help in overcoming these
Disaster Management

GS3 Syllabus Topic: Disasters & Disaster Management

There is also a point of view that agriculture
The frequency of earthquakes appears to have
produce market committees (APMCs) set up
increased in the Indian subcontinent. However,
under the state acts have not only impeded the
Indias preparedness for mitigating their impact 2015
development of agriculture but also have been 2014
has significant gaps. Discuss various aspects.
the cause of food inflation in India. Critically
Drought has been recognised as a disaster in view
of its party expense, temporal duration, slow
India needs to strengthen measures to promote
onset and lasting effect on various vulnerable
the pink revolution in food industry for better 2013
sections. With a focus on the September 2010
nutrition and health. Critically elucidate the
guidelines from the National disaster
management authority, discuss the mechanism
for preparedness to deal with the El Nino and La
Food: Land Reforms
Nina fallouts in India.
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Land Reforms in India
How important are vulnerability and risk
assessment for pre-disaster management. As an
Establish the relationship between land reform,
administrator ,what are key areas that you 2013
agriculture productivity and elimination of
would focus in a disaster management
poverty in Indian Economy. Discussion the 2013
difficulty in designing and implementation of the
agriculture friendly land reforms in India.
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Environmental conservation;
Food: MSP
Environmental pollution and degradation; Environmental
Impact Assessment
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Farm subsidies and MSP and issues
therein (direct and indirect); PDS (objectives, functioning,
What are the consequences of illegal mining?
limitations, revamping, issues of buffer stocks & food security)

Discuss the ministry of environment and forests

concept of GO AND NO GO zones for coal 2013
In the villages itself no form of credit
organisation will be suitable except the
cooperative society. - All Indian rural credit
To what factors can the recent dramatic fall in
survey. Discuss this statement in the background
equipment costs and tariff of solar energy be
of agriculture finance in India. What constrain 2014
attributed? What implications does the trend 2015
and challenges do financial institutions supplying
have for the thermal power producers and the
agricultural finances? How can technology be
related industry?
used to better reach and serve rural clients?
Should the pursuit of carbon credit and clean
Food security bill is expected to eliminate hunger
development mechanism set up under UNFCCC
and malnutrition in India. Critically discuss
be maintained even through there has been a 2014
various apprehensions in its effective
massive slide in the value of carbon credit?
implementation along with the concerns it has
Discuss with respect to Indias energy needs for
generated in WTO
economic growth.
Main GS Paper
Environmental impact assessment studies are
How does the 3D printing technology work? List
increasingly undertaken before project is cleared
out the advantages and disadvantages of the
by the government. Discuss the environmental 2014
impacts of coal-fired thermal plants located at
What do you understand by fixed dose drug
combinations (FDCs)? Discuss their merits and
Write a note on Indias green energy corridor to

alleviate the problems of conventional energy.
What are the areas of prohibitive labour that
What do you understand by run of the river
can be sustainably managed by robots? Discuss
hydroelectricity project? How is it different from 2013
the initiatives that can propel research in 2015
any other hydroelectricity project?
premier research institutes for substantive and
The Namami Gange and National mission for
gainful innovation.
clean Ganga (NMCG) programmes and causes
of mixed results from the previous schemes. 2015
What quantum leaps can help preserve the river
Science-Tech: Indians
Ganga better than incremental inputs?
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Achievements of Indians in S&T;
Enumerate the National Water Policy of India.
Indigenisation of technology & development of new
Taking river Ganges as an example, discuss the
strategies which may be adopted for river water 2013
pollution control and management. What are the
What do you understand by Standard
legal provisions for management and handling
Positioning Systems and Protection Positioning
of hazardous wastes in India?
Systems in the GPS era? Discuss the advantages
India perceives from its ambitious IRNSS
programme employing just seven satellites.
Science-Tech: Awareness
Scientific research in Indian universities is
GS3 Syllabus Topic : S&T developments and everyday
declining, because a career in science is not as
applications & effects; Awareness in fields of IT, Space,
attractive as our business operations, engineering 2014
Computers, Robotics, Nanotech, Biotech, IPR issues
or administration, and the universities are
What do you understand by Umpire decision
becoming consumer oriented. Critically
review in cricket? Discuss its various components.
Explain how silicon tape on the edge of a bat may 2013

fool the system?

Can overuse and the availability of antibiotics
without doctors prescription, the contributors
What is an FRP composite material? How are
to the emergence of drug-resistant diseases in
they manufactured? Discuss their applications 2013
India? What are the available mechanisms for
in aviation and automobile industry.
monitoring and control? Critically discuss the
various issues involved.
Indias Traditional Knowledge Digital Library
(TKDL) which has a database containing
formatted information on more than 2 million
medicinal formulations is proving a powerful 2015
Topics related to security, crime, extremism
weapon in the countrys fight against erroneous
patents. Discuss the pros and cons making this
database publicly available under open-source
Security: Extremists
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Linkages between Development &
In a globalised world, intellectual property rights
spread of Extremism;
assume significance and are a source of litigation. 2014
Broadly distinguish between the terms
The persisting drives of the government for
copyrights, patents and trade secrets.
development of large industries in backward
areas have resulted in isolating the tribal
Bring out the circumstances in 2005 which forced
population and the farmers who face multiple
amendment to section 3(d) in the India n Patent
displacements with Malkangiri and naxalbari
Law, 1970. Discuss how it has been utilized by 2013
foci, discuss the corrective strategies needed to
Supreme court in its judgment rejecting Novartis
win the left wing extremism (LWE) doctrine
patent application for Glivec. Discuss briefly
affected citizens back into the mainstream of
the pros and cons of the decision.
social and economic growth.

Main GS Paper
Religious indoctrination via digital media has
Security: Cross border
resulted in Indian youth joining the ISIS. What 2015
is ISIS and its mission? How can ISIS be dangerous
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Border Areas (securite challenges and
for the internal security of our country?
management thereof); Security forces & agencies (mandate);
Role of External State & Non-State actors in creating internal
Article 244 of Indian Constitution relates to
Administration of Scheduled areas and tribal
security challenges.
areas. Analyze the impact of nonInternational civil aviation laws provide all
implementation of the provisions of fifth schedule
countries complete and exclusive sovereignty
on the growth of Left Wing Extremism.
over the airspace above the territory. What do
you understand by airspace? What are the 2014
Security: Cyber security and social media
implications of these laws on the space above
this airspace? Discuss the challenges which this
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Basics of Cyber Security; Role of media
poses and suggests ways to contain the threat.
and social-networking sites in internal security challenges;
Internal security challenges through communication
The diverse nature of India as a multireligious
and multi-ethnic society is not immune to the
Discuss the advantage and security implications
impact of radicalism which has been in her 2014
of cloud hosting of server vis-a-vis in-house
neighbourhood. Discuss along with the strategies
machine-based hosting for government 2015
to be adopted to counter this environment.
How illegal transborder migration does pose a
Considering the threats cyberspace poses for the
threat to Indias security? Discuss the strategies 2014
country, India needs a Digital Armed Force to
to curb this, bring out the factors which give
prevent crimes. Critically evaluate the National 2015

impetus to such migration.

Cyber Security Policy, 2013 outlining the
challenges perceived in its effective
In 2012, the longitudinal marking of the highimplementation.
risk areas for piracy was moved from 65 East to
78 east in the Arabian Sea by International 2014
What is digital signature? What does its
authentication mean? Giver various salient built
Maritime organisation. What impact does this
in features of a digital signature.
have on Indias maritime security concerns?
What are social networking site and what
China and Pakistan have entered into an
security implications do these sites present?
agreement for development of an economic
corridor. What thread does it dispose for Indias 2014
Cyber warfare is considered by some defense
security? Critically examine.
analysts to be a larger threat than even Al Qaeda
or terrorism. What do you understand by Cyber
How far are Indias internal security challenges
warfare? Outline the cyber threats which India
linked with border management, particularly in
is vulnerable to and bring out the state of the
view of the long porous borders with most 2013
countrys preparedness to deal with the same.
countries of South Asia and Myanmar?
Security- Security forces
Security: Org. Crime & money laundering
Human rights activists constantly highlight the
GS3 Syllabus Topic : Linkages of Organised crime and
view that the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act,
Terrorism; Moneylaundering & Prevention
1958 (AFSPA) is a draconian act leading to cases
of human rights abuses by the security forces.
Money laundering poses a serious threat to
What sections of AFSPA are opposed by the 2015
countrys economic sovereignty. What is its
activists? Critically evaluate the requirement
significance for India and what steps are required

with reference to the view held by the Apex
to be taken to control this menace?
Main GS Paper
Definition, Terms based Questions
2013 1. What do you understand by values and ethics? In what way is it
important to be ethical along with being professionally competent? (10 marks | 150
2. What do you understand by the fol owing terms in the context of public service?
(5 terms x 3 marks each |250 words) (a) Integrity
(b) Perseverance
(c) Spirit of service
(d) Commitment
(e) Courage of conviction
(f) Personal opinion
3. Indicate two more attributes which you consider important for public service.
Justify your answer. (10
marks |100 words)
4. Some people feel that values keep changing with time and situation, while others
strongly believe that there are certain universal and eternal human values. Give
your perception in this regard with due justification.
(10 marks | 150 words)
5. What is emotional intelligence and how can it be developed in people? How
does it help an individual in taking ethical decisions? (10 marks | 150 words)
6. What do you understand by the term voice of conscience? How do you prepare
yourself to heed to the voice of conscience? (10 marks| 150 words)
7. What is meant by crisis of conscience? Narrate one incident in your life when
you were faced with such a crisis and how you resolved the same. (10 marks| 150
2014 1. What do you understand by probity in public life? What are the difficulties
in practicing it in the present times? How can these difficulties be overcome?
2. In the context of defence services, patriotism demands readiness to even lay
down ones life in protecting the nation. According to you, what does patriotism
imply in everyday civil life? Explain with illustrations and justify your answer.
3. What does accountability mean in the context of public service? What measures
can be adopted to ensure individual and collective accountability of public servants?
2015 1. What is meant by environmental ethics? Why is it important to study?
Discuss any one environmental issue from the viewpoint of environmental ethics.
(150 words)
2. Differentiate between the following (200 words)
(a) Law and Ethics

(b) Ethical management and Management of ethics

(c) Discrimination and Preferential treatment
(d) Personal ethics and Professional ethics
3. Public servants are likely to confront with the issues of Conflict of Interest. What
do you understand by the term Conflict of Interest and how does it manifest in the
decision making by public servants? If faced with the conflict of interest situation,
how would you resolve it? Explain with the help of examples. (150 words) 4. How do
the virtues of trustworthiness and fortitude get manifested in public service? Explain
with examples.
(150 words)
Quotes, Statement, Opinion based Questions
2013 1. Given below are three quotations of great moral thinkers/philosophers. For
each of these quotations, bring out what it means to you in the present context:
(each quote for 10 marks and 150 words)
(a) There is enough on this earth for every ones need but for no ones greed.
Mahatma Gandhi.
(b) Nearly all men can withstand adversity, but if you want to test a mans
character, give him power.
Abraham Lincoln
(c) I count him braver who overcomes his desires than him who overcomes his
2. The good of an individual is contained in the good of all. What do you
understand by this statement? How can this principle be implemented in public life?
(10 marks| 150 words)
3. It is often said that politics and ethics do not go together. What is your opinion
in this regard? Justify your answer with illustrations. (150 words)
Main GS Paper
2014 4. All human beings aspire for happiness. Do you agree? What does happiness
mean to you? Explain with examples.
5. What does ethics seek to promote in human life? Why is it all the more important
in public administration?
6. Integrity without knowledge is weak and useless, but knowledge without
integrity is dangerous and
dreadful. What do you understand by this statement? Explain your stand with
illustrations from the
modern context.
7. Human beings should always be treated as ends in themselves and never as
merely `means. Explain the meaning and significance of this statement, giving its
implications in the modern techno-economic society.
8. Which eminent personality has inspired you the most in the context of ethical
conduct in life? Give the gist of his/her teachings giving specific examples, describe
how you have been able to apply these teachings for your own ethical development.
9. There is a heavy ethical responsibility on the public servants because they

occupy positions of power, handle huge amounts of public funds, and their decisions
have wide-ranging impact on society and
environment. What steps have you taken to improve your ethical competence to
handle such responsibility?
10. The current society is plagued with widespread trust-deficit. What are the
consequences of this situation for personal well-being and for societal well-being?
What can you do at the personal level to make yourself trustworthy?
11. It is often said that poverty leads to corruption. However, there is no dearth of
instances where affluent and powerful people indulge in corruption in a big way.
What are the basic causes of corruption among people?
Support your answer with examples.
12. What factors affect the formation of a persons attitude towards social
problems? In our society, contrasting attitudes are prevalent about many social
problems. What contrasting attitudes do you notice about the caste system in our
society? How do you explain the existence of these contrasting attitudes?
13. We are witnessing increasing instances of sexual violence against women in the
country. Despite existing legal provisions against it, the number of such incidences
is on the rise. Suggest some innovative measures to tackle this menace.
2015 14. Given are two quotations of moral thinkers/philosophers. For each of
these, bring out what it means to you in the present context :
(a) The weak can never forgive; forgiveness is the attribute of the strong. (150
(b) We can easily forgive a child who is afraid of the dark; the real tragedy of life is
when men are afraid of the light. (150 words)
15. At the international level, the bilateral relations between most nations are
governed on the policy of promoting ones own national interest without any regard
for the interest of other nations. This leads to conflicts and tensions between the
nations. How can ethical consideration help resolve such tensions?
Discuss with specific examples. (150 words)
16. A mere compliance with law is not enough, the public servant also has to have a
well-developed sensibility to ethical issues for effective discharge of duties. Do you
agree? Explain with the help of two examples, where (i) an act is ethically right, but
not legally and (ii) an act is legally right, but not ethically. (150 words) 17. Social
values are more important than economic values. Discuss the above statement with
examples in the context of inclusive growth of a nation. (150 words)
18. Some recent developments such as introduction of RTI Act, media and judicial
activism, etc., are proving helpful in bringing about greater transparency and
accountability in the functioning of the government.
However, it is also being observed that at times the mechanisms are misused.
Another negative effect is that the officers are now afraid to take prompt decisions.
19. Analyze this situation in detail and suggest how this dichotomy can be resolved.
Suggest how these negative impacts can be minimized. (150 words)
20. Two different kinds of attitudes exhibited by public servants towards their work
have been identified as the bureaucratic attitude and the democratic attitude.

(a) Distinguish between these two terms and write their merits and demerits. (150
(b) Is it possible to balance the two to create a better administration for the faster
development of our country? (150 words)
21. Today we find that in spite of various measures like prescribing codes of
conduct, setting up vigilance cells/
commissions, RTI, active media and strengthening of legal mechanisms, corrupt
practices are not coming under control.
(a) Evaluate the effectiveness of these measures with justifications.
(b) Suggest more effective strategies to tackle this menace.
Main GS Paper
Engineer: Bogus flyover vs deadline
10. You are working as an Executive Engineer in the
construction cell of a Municipal Corporation and are
RTI: To hide or not to hide
presently in-charge of the construction of a flyover.
In the following questions, carefully study the cases
There are two Junior Engineers under you who have
presented and then answer the questions that follow:
the responsibility of day-to-day inspection of the site
and are reporting to you, while you are finally
A Public Information Officer has received an
reporting to the Chief Engineer who heads the cell.
application under RTI Act. Having gathered the
While the construction is heading towards
information, the PIO discovers that the information
completion, the Junior Engineers have been regularly
pertains to some of the decisions taken by him, which
reporting that all construction is taking place as per
were found to be not altogether right. There were other
design specifications. However, in one of your surprise
employees also who party to these decisions were.
inspections, you have noticed some serious deviations
Disclosure of the information is likely to lead to
and lacunae which, in your opinion, are likely to affect
disciplinary action with possibility of punishment
the safety of the flyover. Rectification of these lacunae
against him as well as some of his colleagues. Nonat this stage would require a substantial amount of
disclosure or part disclosure or camouflaged
demolition and rework which will cause a tangible

disclosure of information will result into lesser

loss to the contractor and will also delay completion.
punishment or no punishment.
There is a lot of public pressure on the Corporation to
The PIO is otherwise an honest and conscientious person
get this construction completed because of heavy
but this particular decision, on which the RTI application
traffic congestion in the area. When you brought this
has been filed, turned out to be wrong. He comes to you for
matter to the notice of the Chief Engineer, he advised
you that in his opinion it is not a very serious lapse
and may be ignored. He advised for further expediting
The following are some suggested options. Please evaluate
the project for completion in time. However, you are
the merits and demerits of each of the options:
convinced that this was a serious matter which might
The PIO could refer the matter to his superior officer
affect public safety and should not be left unaddressed.
and seek his advice and act strictly in accordance with
What will you do in such a situation? Some of the
the advice, even though he is not completely in
options are given below. Evaluate the merits and
agreement with the advice of the superior.
demerits of each of these options and finally suggest
The PIO could proceed on leave and leave the matter
what course of action you would like to take, giving
to be dealt by his successor in office or request for
reasons. (20 marks |250 words)
transfer of the application to another PIO.
(i) Follow the advice of the Chief Engineer and go ahead.
The PIO could weigh the consequences of disclosing (ii) Make an exhaustive report
of the situation bringing the information truthfully, including the effect on his
out all facts and analysis along with your own
career, and reply in a manner that would not place
viewpoints stated clearly and seek for written orders
him or his career in jeopardy, but at the same time a
from the chief Engineer.
little compromise can be made on the contents of the (iii) Call for explanation from
the Junior Engineers and issue information.
orders to the contractor for necessary correction

The PIO could consult his other colleagues who are
within targeted time.
party to the decision and take action as per their advice. (iv) Highlight the issue so
that it reaches superiors above Also please indicate (without necessarily restricting
to the
the Chief Engineer.
above options) what you would like to advise, giving proper (v) Considering the rigid
attitude of the Chief Engineer, reasons. (20 marks| 250 words)
seek transfer from the project or report sick.
Main GS Paper
Child Labourers in Sivakasi
and urgent proposals of your institute for grant of
funds for modernization, which are awaiting the
11. Sivakasi in Tamil Nadu is known for its manufacturing
functionarys approval. He assures you that he would
clusters on firecrackers and matches. The local
get these proposals cleared. (20 marks | 250 words)
economy of the area is largely dependent on (i) What are the options available to
firecrackers industry. It has led to tangible economic
development and improved standard of living in the (ii) Evaluate each of these
options and choose the option area.
which you would adopt, giving reasons.
So far as child labour norms for hazardous industries
like firecrackers industry are concerned, International
Leaking information
Labour Organization (ILO) has set the minimum age 13. As a senior officer in the
Finance Ministry, you have as 18 years. In India, however, this age is 14 years.
access to some confidential and crucial information
The units in industrial clusters of firecrackers can be
about policy decisions that the Government is about
classified into registered and non-registered entities.
to announce. These decisions are likely to have farOne typical unit is household-based work. Though
reaching impact on the housing and construction
the law is clear on the use of child labour employment
industry. If the builders have access to this information
norms in registered/non-registered units, it does not
beforehand, they can make huge profits. One of the
include household-based works. Household-based
builders has done a lot of quality work for the
work means children working under the supervision

Government and is known to be close to your

of their parents/relatives. To evade child labour norms,
immediate superior, who asks you to disclose this
several units project themselves as household-based
information to the said builder. (20 marks| 250 words)
works but employ children from outside. Needless to
say that employing children saves the costs for these (i)
What are the options available to you?
units leading to higher profits to the owners.
(ii) Evaluate each of these options and choose the option
On your visit to one of the units at Sivakasi, the owner
which you would adopt, giving reasons.
takes you around the unit which has about 10-15
children below 14 years of age. The owner tells you
Sexual Harassment
that in his household-based unit, the children are all
his relatives. You notice that several children smirk, 14. You are the Executive
Director of an upcoming InfoTech when the owner tells you this. On deeper enquiry,
Company which is making a name for itself in the
figure out that neither the owner nor the children are
able to satisfactorily establish their relationship with
Mr. A, who is a star performer, is heading the
each other.
marketing team. In a short period of one year, he has
(i) Bring out and discuss the ethical issues involved in
helped in doubling the revenues as well as creating a
the above case.
high brand equity for the Company so much so that
(ii) What would be your reaction after your above visit?
you are thinking of promoting him. However, you
have been receiving information from many corners
Nepotism in Job Recruitment
about his attitude towards the female colleagues;
particularly his habit of making loose comments on
12. You are heading a leading technical institute of the
women. In addition, he regularly sends indecent SMSs
country. The institute is planning to convene an
to all the team members including his female
interview panel shortly under your chairmanship for
selection of the post of professors. A few days before
the interview, you get a call from the Personal One day, late in the evening, Mrs. X,

who is one of Mr. As Secretary (PS) of a senior government functionary team

members, comes to you visibly disturbed. She
seeking your intervention in favour of the selection of complains against the
continued misconduct of Mr. A, who a close relative of the functionary for this post.
The PS has been making undesirable advances towards her and also informs you
that he is aware of the long pending has even tried to touch her inappropriately in
his cabin.
Main GS Paper
She tenders her resignation and leaves your office. (20 4.
It is understandable that we should not get involved
marks | 250 words)
in grossly unethical practices, but giving and accepting
What are the options available to you?
small gratifications and doing small favours increases
everybodys motivation. It also makes the system more
(ii) Evaluate each of these options and choose the option
efficient. What is wrong in adopting such practices?
you would adopt, giving reasons.
Critically analyze the above viewpoints. On the basis of
this analysis, what will be your advice to your friend? 250
Case Studies: 2014 Paper
Case: Bogus rape complaint (20m)
Environment degradation (20m)
You are a no-nonsense, honest officer. You have been
Now-a-days, there is an increasing thrust on economic transferred to a remote
district to head a department that development all around the globe. At the same
time, there is notorious for its inefficiency and callousness. You find is also an
increasing concern about environmental that the main cause of the poor state of
affairs is the degradation caused by development. Many a time, we face indiscipline
of a section of employees. They do not work a direct conflict between
developmental activity and themselves and also disrupt the working of others. You
environmental quality. It is neither feasible to stop or curtail first warned the
troublemakers to mend their ways or else the development process, nor it is
advisable to keep face disciplinary action. When the warning had little effect,
degrading the environment, as it threatens our very you issued a show cause notice
to the ringleaders. As a survival.
retaliatory measure, these troublemakers instigated a
Discuss some feasible strategies which could be woman employee amongst them to
file a complaint of sexual adopted to eliminate this conflict and which could lead to
harassment against you with the Womens Commission.
sustainable development. 250 words

The Commission promptly seeks your explanation. The

matter is also publicized in the media to embarrass you
Ethics not essential (20m)
further. Some of the options to handle this situation could
be as follows :
Suppose one of your close friends, who is also aspiring
for civil services, comes to you for discussing some of the (a) Give your
explanation to the Commission and go soft issues related to ethical
conduct in public service. He raises
on the disciplinary action.
the following points :
(b) Ignore the Commission and proceed firmly with the
In the present times, when unethical environment is
disciplinary action.
quite prevalent, individual attempts to stick to ethical (c) Brief your higher-ups,
seek directions from them and principles may cause a lot of problems in ones
act accordingly.
It may also cause hardship to the family members as Suggest any other possible
option(s). Evaluate all of them well as risk to ones life. Why should we not be and
suggest the best course of action, giving your reasons pragmatic and follow the
path of least resistance, and for it.
be happy with doing whatever good we can?
When so many people are adopting wrong means and
Case: Give bribe or end career (20m)
are grossly harming the system, what difference
would it make if only a small minority tries to be Suppose you are the CEO of a
company that manufactures ethical? They are going to be rather ineffective and are
specialized electronic equipment used by a government bound to get frustrated.
department. You have submitted your bid for the supply
of this equipment to the department. Both the quality and
If we become fussy about ethical considerations, will cost of your offer are better
than those of the competitors.
it not hamper the economic progress of our country? Yet the concerned officer is
demanding a hefty bribe for After all, in the present age of high competition, we
approving the tender. Getting the order is important both cannot afford to be left
behind in the race of for you and for your company. Not getting the order would
mean closing a production line. It may also affect your own
Main GS Paper

career. However, as a value-conscious person, you do not (c) Even some farmers are
selling off their land and trying want to give bribe.
to settle in urban areas taking up petty jobs.
Valid arguments can be advanced both for giving the bribe What feasible steps can
you suggest which will be effective and getting the order, and for refusing to pay
the bribe and in controlling this serious problem of our country?
risking the loss of the order. What those arguments could
be? Could there be any better way to get out of this
Case Studies: 2015 Paper
dilemma? If so outline the main elements of this third way,
pointing out its merits. 250 words.
Case: Trade union issue
Case: Disillusioned UPSC topper (20m)
A private company is known for its efficiency, transparency
Rameshwar successfully cleared the prestigious civil and employee welfare. The
company though owned by a services examination and was excited about the
private individual has a cooperative character where
opportunity that he would get through the civil services to employees feel a sense
of ownership. The company employs serve the country. However, soon after joining
the services, nearly 700 personnel and they have voluntarily decided he realized
that things are not as rosy as he had imagined. not to form a union.
He found a number of malpractices prevailing in the One day suddenly in the
morning, about 40 men department assigned to him. For example, funds under
belonging to a political party gatecrashed into the factory various schemes and
grants were being misappropriated. demanding jobs in the factory. They threatened
the The official facilities were frequently being used for personal management and
employees, and also used foul language.
needs by the officers and staff. After some time, he noticed The employees feel
demoralized. It was clear that those that the process of recruiting the staff was also
not up to people who gate-crashed wanted to be on the payroll of the the mark.
Prospective candidates were required to write company as well as continue as the
volunteers/members of an examination in which a lot of cheating was going on. the
party. The company maintains high standards in Some candidates were provided
external help in the integrity and does not extend favours to civil
examination. Rameshwar brought these incidents to the administration that also
includes law enforcement agency.
notice of his seniors. However, he was advised to keep his Such incidents occur in
public sector also.
eyes, ears and mouth shut and ignore all these things which (a) Assume you are the
CEO of the company. What would were taking place with the connivance of the
you do to diffuse the volatile situation on the date of
Rameshwar felt highly disillusioned and uncomfortable.
gate-crashing with the violent mob sitting inside the

He comes to you seeking your advice.

company premises?
Indicate various options that you think are available in (b) What could be
the long-term solution to the issue this situation. How would you help him
to evaluate these
discussed in the case?
options and choose the most appropriate path to be
adopted? 250 words.
(c) Every solution/action that you suggest will have a
positive and a negative impact on you (as CEO), the
Case: Why villagers migrate? (20m)
employees and the performance of the employees.
Analyze the consequences of each of your suggested
In our country, the migration of rural people to towns and
actions. (250 words)
cities is increasing drastically. This is causing serious
problems both in the rural as well as in the urban areas. In
Case: Dalit Cook in Mid-day Meal
fact, things are becoming really unmanageable. Can you
analyze this problem in detail and indicate not only the You are the Sarpanch of a
Panchayat. There is a primary socio-economic but also the emotional and attitudinal
school run by the government in your area. Midday meals factors responsible for
this problem? Also, distinctly bring are provided to the children attending the school.
The out why
Headmaster has now appointed a new cook in the school to
prepare the meals. However, when it is found that the cook
(a) Educated rural youth are trying to shift to urban areas; is from Dalit community,
almost half of the children (b) Landless poor people are migrating to urban slums;
belonging to higher castes are not al owed to take meals by
Main GS Paper
their parents. Consequently the attendance in the school
Case: Land Acquisition
falls sharply. This could result in the possibility of
discontinuation of midday meal scheme, thereafter of You are heading a district
administration in a particular teaching staff and subsequent closing down the
department. Your senior officer calls you from the State
Headquarters and tells you that a plot in Rampur village is
(a) Discuss some feasible strategies to overcome the
conflict and to create right ambience.
to have a building constructed on it for a school. A visit is
scheduled during which he will visit the site along with
(b) What should be the responsibilities of different social the chief engineer and the

senior architect. He wants you to segments and agencies to create positive social
check out all the papers relating to it and to ensure that the ambience for accepting
such changes? (250 words) 20 visit is properly arranged. You examine the file which
relates to the period before you joined the department. The
Case: Drug Research
land was acquired from the local Panchayat at a nominal
One of the scientists working in the R & D laboratory of a cost and the papers show
that clearance certificates are major pharmaceutical company discovers that one of
the available from the two of the three authorities who have to companys best
selling veterinary drugs, B has the potential certify the sites suitability. There is no
certification by the to cure a currently incurable liver disease that is prevalent
architect available on file. You decide to visit Rampur to in tribal areas. However,
developing a variant of the drug ensure that all is in order as stated on file. When
you visit suitable for human beings entailed a lot of research and Rampur, you find
that the plot under reference is part of development having a huge expenditure to
the extent of 50 Thakurgarh Fort and that the walls, ramparts, etc., are crores
rupees. It was unlikely that the company would running across it. The fort is well
away from the main recover the costs as the disease was rampant only in village,
therefore a school here will be a serious poverty-stricken area having very little
market otherwise. inconvenience for the children. However, the area near the If you
were the CEO, then
village has potential to expand into a larger residential area.
The development charges on the existing plot, at the fort,
(a) Identify the various actions that you could take;
will be very high and the question of heritage site has not
(b) Evaluate the pros and cons of each of your actions.
been addressed. Moreover, the Sarpanch, at the time of
acquisition of the land, was a relative of your predecessor.
Case: Disaster management
The whole transaction appears to have been done with
There is a disaster-prone State having frequent landslides, some vested interest.
forest fires, cloudbursts, flash floods and earthquakes, etc. (a) List the likely vested
interests of the concerned parties.
Some of these are seasonal and often unpredictable. The (b) Some of the options for
action available to you are magnitude of the disaster is always unanticipated.
listed below. Discuss the merits and demerits of each
one of the seasons, a cloudburst caused devastating floods
of the options :
and landslides leading to high casualties. There was major
damage to infrastructure like roads, bridges and power (i) You can await the visit of
the superior officer and let generating units. This led to more than 100000 pilgrims,
him take a decision.
tourists and other locals trapped across different routes (ii) You can seek his advice

in writing or on phone.
and locations. The people trapped in your area of
responsibility included senior citizens, patients in (iii) You can consult your
predecessor/colleagues, etc., and hospitals, women and children, hikers, tourists,
then decide what to do.
partys regional president along with his family, additional (iv) You can find out if
any alternate plot can be got in jail. As secretary State and prisoners in jail.
exchange and then send a comprehensive written
As a civil services officer of the State, what would be
the order in which you would rescue these people and why? Can you suggest any
other option with proper justification?
Give justifications.
(250 words) 25
Case: Promoting Girl education while
locality is divided between the elders and the younger lot
ensuring their safety
and further sub-divided between sexes in both generations.
You come to know that in Panchayat or in other local bodies
You are recently posted as district development officer of a or even in busy
crossroads, the issue is being acrimoniously district. Shortly thereafter you found
that there is debated.
considerable tension in the rural areas of your district on
the issue of sending girls to schools.
One day you are informed that an unpleasant incident
has taken place. Some girls were molested, when they were
The elders of the village feel that many problems have en route to schools. The
incident led to clashes between come up because girls are being educated and they
are several groups and a law and order problem has arisen.
stepping out of the safe environment of the household. They The elders after
heated discussion have taken a joint are of the view that the girls should be quickly
married off decision not to allow girls to go to school and to socially with minimum
education. The girls are also competing for boycott all such families, which do not
follow their dictate.
jobs after education, which have traditionally remained in
boys exclusive domain, adding to unemployment amongst (a) What steps would
you take to ensure girls safety without disrupting their education?
male population.
(b) How would you manage and mould matriarchic
The younger generation feels that in the present era,
girls should have equal opportunities for education and
attitude of the village elders to ensure harmony in the

inter-generational relations? (250 words) (25 Marks)

employment, and other means of livelihood. The entire

The Best Material to Prepare for UPSC

Unit - A History of India
Chapter 1
The word Hindu as reference to the people of Hind
According to ancient Indian cosmogonic ideas the
(India) was first used by:
sequential order of the cycle of four acons (yugas) is:
(a) the Greeks
(b) the Romans
(c) the Chinese
(d) the Arabs
(a) Dvapara, Krita, Treta and Kali
Who among the following was a Brahmavadini who
(b) Krita, Dvapara, Treta and Kali
composed some hymns of the Vedas?
(c) Krita, Treta, Dvapara and Kali
(a) Lopamudra
(b) Gargi
(d) Treta, Dvapara, Kali and Krita
(c) Leelavati
(d) Savitri
Which one of the following temples figured in the
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
news regarding the institution of the Devadasi?
(using codes given below the lists)
List-I (Eras)
List-II (Reckoned from)
(a) Jagannath temple, Puri
A. Vikrama era
1. 3102 B.C.
(b) Pashupatinath temple, Kathmandu
B. Saka era

2. 320 A.D.
(c) Kandariya Mahadev temple, Khajuraho
C. Gupta era
3. 78 A.D.
(d) Chausath Yogini temple, Bhedaghat
D. Kali era
4. 58 B.C.
10. The river most mentioned in early Vedic literature
5. 248 A.D.
is :
(a) Sindhu
(b) Sutudri
(c) Sarasvati
(d) Ganga
(a) A 2; B 4; C 5; D 1
11. Which one of the following is not a part of early Jains
(b) A 1; B 3; C 2; D 4
(c) A 4; B 5; C 2; D 3
(a) Therigatha
(b) Acarangasutra
(d) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 1
(c) Sutrakritanga
(d) Brihatkalpasutra
In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta period
12. Which of the following were common to both
women and Sudras speak:
Buddhism and Jainism?
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrit
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and
(c) Pali
(d) Sauraseni
The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
his inscriptions is:

3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
(a) Chakravarti
(b) Dharmadeva
4. Non-injury to animal life
(c) Dharmakirti
(d) Priyadarsi
Select the answer using the codes given below:
The term 'Yavanapriya' mentioned in ancient Sanskrit
texts denoted:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) a fine variety of Indian Muslim
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 1 and 2
(b) ivory
13. In the context of ancient Indian society which one of
(c) damsels sent to the Greek court for dance
the following terms does not belong to the category of
the other three?
(d) pepper
(a) Kula
(b) Vamsa
The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by: [1995]
(c) Kosa
(d) Gotra
(a) Mahayana Buddhism
14. Who among the following is known for his work on
(b) Hinayana Buddhism
medicine during the Gupta period?
(c) Jainism
(a) Saumilla
(b) Sudraka
(d) The Lokayata school
(c) Shaunaka
(d) Susrutha

Topicwise Solved Papers
15. Which one of the following sculptures was invariably
24. Which one of the following edicts mentions the
used green schist as the medium?
personal name of Ashoka?
(a) Maurya sculptures (b) Mathura sculptures
(a) Kalsi
(b) Rummindei
(c) Bharhut sculptures (d) Gandhara sculptures
(c) Special Kalinga Edict (d) Maski
16. The term 'Apabhramsa' was used in medieval
25. The following map shows four of the sixteen
Sanskrit texts to denote:
Mahajanapadas that existed in ancient India: [1997]
(a) outcastes among the Rajputs
(b) deviations from Vedic rituals
(c) early forms of some of the modem Indian language
(d) non-Sanskrit verse metres
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
A. Vishakhadatta
1. Medicine
B. Varahamihira
2. Drama
C. Charaka

3. Astronomy
The places marked A, B, C and D respectively are:
D. Brahmagupta
4. Mathematics
(a) Matsya, Cedi, Kosala, Anga
(b) Surasena, Avanti, Vatsa, Magadha
(a) A 1; B 3; C 4; D 2
(c) Matsya, Avanti, Vatsa, Anga
(b) A 2; B 1; C 3; D 4
(d) Surasena, Cedi, Kosala, Magadha
(c) A 2; B 3; C 1; D 4
26. In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisatya
(d) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 2
Avalokitesvara was also known as:
18. Which one of the following texts of ancient India
(a) Vajrapani
(b) Manjusri
allows divorce to a wife deserted by her husband?
(c) Padmapani
(d) Maitreya
(a) Kamasutra
(b) Manava Dharma Shastra
27. The silver coins issued by the Guptas were called:
(c) Sukra Nitisara
(d) Arthashastra
19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) Rupaka
(b) Karshapana
using the codes given below the lists:
(c) Dinara
(d) Pana
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
A. Gupta
1. Badami
using the codes given below the lists:
B. Chandella

2. Panamalai
List-I (Author)
List-II (Text)
C. Chalukya
3. Khajuraho
A. Varahamihira
1. Prabandha Chintamani
D. Pallava
4. Deogarh
B. Vishakhadatta
2. Mrichchha-Katikam
C. Sudraka
3. Brihat-Samhita
(a) A 4; B 3; C 1; D 2
D. Bilhana
4. Devi-Chandraguptam
(b) A 4; B 2; C 3; D 1
5. Vikramankadeva-Charita
(c) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
(d) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 2
20. Which one of the following statements regarding
(a) A 3; B 4; C 5; D 2
Ashoka stone pillars is incorrect?
(b) A 3; B 4; C 2; D 5
(a) These are highly polished
(c) A 5; B 3; C 4; D 1
(b) These are monolithic
(d) A 1; B 3; C 5; D 2
(c) The shaft of pillars is tapering in shape
29. Which one of the following was a corporation of
(d) These are parts of architectural structures
merchants in ancient India?
21. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India
(a) Chaturvedimangalam
was written from right to left?
(b) Parishad
(a) Brahmi
(b) Nandnagari
(c) Ashtadikgaja

(c) Sharada
(d) Kharosthi
(d) Manigrama
22. The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is
30. The Badami rock inscription of Pulakesin I is dated in
mentioned in the:
the Saka year 465. If the same were to be dated in
(a) Chhandogyopanishad (b) Mundakopanishad
Vikrama Samvat, the year would be:
(c) Kathopanishad
(d) Kenopanishad
(a) 601
(b) 300
23. Milindapanho is in the form of a dialogue between
the king Menander and Buddhist monk:
(c) 330
(d) 407
(a) Nagasena
(b) Nagarjuna
31. Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Shakas embraced
(c) Nagabhatta
(d) Kumarilabhatta
Buddhism rather than Hinduism because:

Ancient History
(a) Buddhism was in the ascendant at that time
38. The concept of Eight fold path forms the theme of:
(b) they had renounced the policy of war and
(a) Dipavamsa
(c) caste-ridden Hinduism did not attract them
(b) Divyavadana
(d) Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society
(c) Mahaparinibban
32. The Ashoka major rock edicts which tell us about the
(d) Dharma Chakara Pravartana Sutta
Sangam Kingdom include rock edicts:
39. The given map relates to :
(a) I and X
(b) I and XI
(c) II and XIII
(d) II and XIV
33. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. MrichchakatikamShudraka
2. BuddhacharitaVasuvandhu
3. MudrarakshashaVishakadatta
4. HarshacharitaBanabhatta
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
34. What is the correct chronological order in which the
(a) Kanishka at the time of his death.
following appeared in India?
(b) Samudragupta after the close of his South Indian
1. Gold coins
2. Punch marked silver coins
(c) Ashoka towards close of his reign.

3. Iron plough
(d) Empire of Thaneswar on the eve of Harsha's
4. Urban culture
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
40. From the third century AD when the Hun invasion
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
ended the Roman Empire, the Indian merchants relied
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
more and more on the:
35. Assertion (A): According to Ashoka's edicts social
(a) African trade
harmony among the people was more important than
(b) West-European trade
religious devotion.
(c) South-East Asian trade
Reason (R): He spread ideas of equity instead of
(d) Middle-Eastern trade
promotion of religion.
41. The following persons came to India at one time or
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation
of A
1. Fa-Hien
2. I-Tsing
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation
3. Megasthanese
4. Hieun-Tsang
of A
The correct chronological sequence of their visits is:
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
36. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
42. Which one of the following was initially the most

powerful city state of India in the 6th century B.C. ?

1. Lothal
: Ancient dockyard
2. Sarnath
: First Sermon of Buddha
(a) Gandhar
(b) Kamboj
3. Rajgir
: Lion capital of Ashoka
(c) Kashi
(d) Magadh
4. Nalanda
: Great seat of Buddhist learning
43. The Indo-Laws Kingdom set up in north Afghanistan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
in the beginning of the second century B.C. was:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(a) Bacteria
(b) Scythia
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
(c) Zedrasia
(d) Aria
37. Which one of the following ancient Indian records is
44. The term 'Aryan' denotes:
the earliest royal order to preserve food-grains to be
(a) an ethnic group
(b) a nomadic people
utilised during the crises in the country?
(c) a speech group
(d) a superior race
(a) Sohgaura Copper-plate
45. Which one of the following ports handled the North
(b) Rummindei Pillar-edict of Ashoka
Indian trade during the Gupta period?
(c) Prayaga-prasasti
(a) Tamralipti

(b) Broach
(d) Mehrauli Pillar inscription of Chandra
(c) Kalyan
(d) Cambray
Topicwise Solved Papers
46. Assertion (A): The Aham and Puram poems of the
53. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Padinen Kilukanakku group formed a continuation of
the Sangam composition.
(a) The Harappan civilization Painted Greyware
Reason (R): They were included under the post(b) The Kushans Gandhra School of Art
Sangam works as against the Sangam works proper.
(c) The Mughals Ajanta Paintings
(d) The Marathas Pahari School of Painting
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
54. In which one of the following cities is the Lingaraja
explanation of A
Temple located?
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Bijapur
explanation of A
(c) Kolkata
(d) Shravananbelagola
(c) A is true but R is false
55. Assertion (A): Harshavardhana convened the Prayag
(d) A is false but R is true
47. Assertion (A): The emphasis of Jainism on nonReason (R): He wanted to popularize only the
violence (ahimsa) prevented agriculturalists from
Mahayana form of Buddhism.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
embracing Jainism.
explanation of A
Reason (R): Cultivation involved killing of insects and
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct

explanation of A
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
of A
(d) A is false but R is true
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
56. Which one of the Chola kings conquered Ceylon?
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) Aditya-I
(b) Rajaraja-I
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) Rajendra
(d) Vijayalaya
48. Assertion (A): The origin of feudal system in ancient
57. Who among the following presided over the Buddhist
India can be traced to military campaigns.
Council held during the reign of Kanishka at
Reason (R): There was considerable expansion of the
Kashmir ?
feudal system during the Gupta period.
(a) Parsva
(b) Nagarjuna
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation
(c) Sudraka
(d) Vasumitra
of A
58. Which one of the following animals was not
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation
represented seals and terracotta art of the Harappan
of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) Cow
(b) Elephant
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) Rhinoceros
(d) Tiger

49. Assertion (A): Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the

59. Match List-I (Ancient site) with List-II (Archaeological
Mauryan Empire.
finding) and select the correct answer using the codes
Reason (R): Kalinga controlled the land and sea routes
given below the lists:
to South India.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation
(Ancient site)
(Archaeological finding)
of A
A. Lothal
1. Ploughed field
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
B. Kalibangan
2. Dockyard
explanation of A
C. Dholavira
3. Terrcotta replica of a plough
(c) A is true but R is false
D. Banawali
4. An inscription comprising
(d) A is false but R is true
ten large sized signs of the
50. The practice of military governorship was first
Harappan script
introduced in India by the:
(a) Greeks
(b) Shakas
(a) A 1; B 2; C 3; D 4
(c) Parthians
(d) Mughals
(b) A 2; B 1; C 4; D 3
51. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling over
(c) A 1; B 2; C 4; D 3
North India at the time of Alexander's invasion?
(d) A 2; B 1; C 3; D 4

60. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Nanda
(b) Maurya
(c) Sunga
(d) Kanva
(a) The statue of Gomateshwara at Shravana
52. Hoysala monuments are found in:
Belagola represents the last Tirthankara of Jains.
(a) Hampi and Hosper
(b) India's largest Buddhist monastery is in
(b) Halebid and Belur
Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Mysore and Bangalore
(c) Khajuraho temples were built under Chandela kings.
(d) Sringeri and Dharwar
(d) Hoysaleswara temple is dedicated to Siva.
Ancient History
61. In ancient Indian Buddhist monasteries, a ceremony
67. Consider the following statements:
called Pavarana used to be held. It was the:
1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was
(a) occasion to elect the Sanghparinayaka and two
assassinated by his commander-in-chief,
speakers one on Dhamma and the other on Vinaya
Pushyamitra Sunga.
(b) confession by monks of their offences committed
2. The last Sunga king, Devabhuti was assassinated
during their stay in the monasteries during the
by his Brahmana Minister Vasudeva Kanva who
rainy season
usurped the throne.
(c) ceremony of initiation of new person into the
3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed
Buddhist Sangha in which the head is shaved and
by the Andhras.
when yellow robes are offered
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(d) gathering of Buddhist monks on the next day to

(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
the full-moon day of Ashadha when they take up
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
a fixed abode for the next four months of the rainy
68. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth
62. The ancient Indian play Mudrarakshasa of
Great Buddhist Council held by Kanishka.
Visakhadutt has its subject on:
2. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen-Tsang met Harsha
(a) a conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient
and found him to be antagonistic to Buddhism.
Hindu lore
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) a romantic story of an Aryan prince and a tribal
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) the story of the power struggle between two
69. With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the
Aryan .
following statements is correct?
(d) the court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta
(a) Jainism was spread in South India under the
63. Emperor Harsha's southward march was stopped on
leadership of Sthalabahu.
the Narmada river by:
(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of
(a) Pulakesin-I
(b) Pulakesin-II
Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras after the
(c) Vikramaditya-I
(d) Vikramaditya-II
council held at Pataliputra.
64. Consider the following statements:

(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king

1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and
Kharaavela in the first century BC.
established their domination over peninsular
(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas
India in the early medieval times.
worshipped images unlike the Buddhist.
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra
70. Which one of the following four Vedas contains an
empire of South-East Asia and conquered some
account of magical charms and spells?
of the areas.
(a) Rigveda
(b) Yajurveda
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(c) Atharvaveda
(d) Samaveda
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
71. Which one of the following sequences indicates the
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct chronological order?
65. Mrichchhakatika' an ancient Indian book written by
(a) ShankaracharyaRamanujaChaitanya
Shudraka deals with:
(b) RamanujaShankaracharyaChaitanya
(a) the love affair of a rich merchant with the
(c) RamanujaChaitanyaShankaracharya
daughter of a courtesan
(d) ShankaracharyaChaitanyaRamanuja
(b) the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka
72. Consider the following princely States of the British
Kshatrapas of western India
rule in India:
(c) the military expeditions and exploits of
1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur

3. Satara
(d) the love affairs between a Gupta king and a
The correct chronological order in which they were
princess of Kamarupa
annexed by the British is:
66. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 3, 2
1. Vardhaman Mahavira's mother was the
(c) 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 1, 2
daughter of Lichchhavi chief Chetaka
73. Who among the following was not a contemporary of
2. Gautama Buddha's mother was a princess from
the other there?
the Koshalan dynasty
(a) Bimbsara
(b) Gautama Buddha
3. Parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara,
(c) Milinda
(d) Prasenjit
belonged to Benaras
74. Who among the following laid the foundation of
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Rashtrakuta Empire?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(a) Amostghavarsha I (b) Dantidurga
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Dhruva
(d) Krishna I
Topicwise Solved Papers
75. Between which of the following was the ancient town
3. Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed
of Takshasila located?
to Buddhism.

(a) Indus and Jhelum (b) Jhelum and Chenab

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) Chenab and Ravi (d) Ravi and Beas
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
76. With reference to the invaders in ancient India, which
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
one of the following is the correct chronological order?
84. India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade
links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal.
(a) Greeks-Sakas-Kushanas
For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of
(b) Greeks- Kushanas-Sakas
Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the
(c) Sakas-Greeks- Kushanas
most convincing explanation/explanations ? [2011 - I]
(d) Sakas-Kushanas-Greeks
(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better
77. Consider the following statements:
ship-building technology in ancient and medieval
1. The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were
antagonistic towards Buddhism.
(b) The rulers of southern India always partronized
2. The Pala rulers of Eastern India were patrons of
traders, Brahmin priests and Buddhist monks in
this context.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?
(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
facilitated sea voyages
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in
78. The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with
this context
which one of the following?
85. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created

(a) Mahapadma Nanda (b) Chandragupta Maurya

and maintained by
[2011 - I]
(c) Ashoka
(d) Samudragupta
(a) Universal Law
(b) Universal Truth
79. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva
(c) Universal Faith
(d) Universal Soul
Sutras) relate to?
86. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the
(a) Lengths of sides of a right angled triangle
following statements :
(b) Calculation of the value of pi
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and
(c) Logarithmic calculations
the religious element, though present, did not
(d) Normal distribution curve
dominate the scene
80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
2. During this period, cotton was used for
using the code given below the lists:
manufacturing textiles in India
[2011 - I]
List-I (Famous temple) List-II (State)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Vidyashankara temple 1. Andhra Pradesh
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
B. Rajarani temple
2. Karnataka
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C. Kandariya Mahadeo 3. Madhya Pradesh
87. The Dharma and Rita depict a central Idea of
ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context,
D. Bhimesvara temple
4. Orissa
consider the following statements :
[2011 - I]

1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of
(a) A 2; B 4; C 3; D 1
the discharge of ones duties to oneself and to
(b) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
(c) A 1; B 4; C 3; D 2
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the
(d) A 1; B 3; C 4; D 2
functioning of the universe and all it contained.
81. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
which one of the following?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Sikkhism
(d) Vaishnavism
88. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient
82. There are only two known examples of cave paintings
India, which of the statements given below are
of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is
[2012 - I]
paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other
1. Different kinds of specialized surgical
surviving example of Gupta paintings?
instruments were in common use by 1st century
(a) Bagh caves
(b) Ellora caves
(c) Lomas Rishi cave (d) Nasik caves
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body
83. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the
had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
early medieval times ?
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th
1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of

century AD.
the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known
part of Vaishnavism.
in 7th century AD.
2. Invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
persecuted Buddhists.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ancient History
89. With reference to the history of ancient India, which
(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the
of the following was/were common to both Buddhism
dwelling place of the monks
and Jainism?
[2012 - I]
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave,
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and
while Vihara is the hall axial to it
(d) There is no material difference between the two
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
95. Which one of the following describes best the concept
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
of Nirvana in Buddhism?
[2013 - I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) The extinction of the flame of desire
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) The complete annihilation of self
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) A state of bliss and rest
90. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the
(d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension.
[1995, 2012 - I]
96. Which of the following characterizes / characterize the

(a) three main racial groups of the Indian

people of Indus Civilization?
[2013 - I]
They possessed great palaces and temples.
(b) three main linguistic divisions into which the
They worshipped both male and female deities.
languages of India can be classified
They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
(c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture
Select the correct statement/statements using the codes
(d) three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
given below.
91. Lord Buddhas image is sometimes shown with the
(a) 1 and 2 only
hand gesture called Bhumisparsha Mudra. It
(b) 2 only
[2012 - I]
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Buddhas calling of the Earth to watch over Mara
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
and to prevent Mara from disturbing his
97. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to
Jain doctrine?
[2013 - I]
(b) Buddhas calling of the Earth to witness his purity
The surest way of annihilating Karma is to
and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
practice penance.
(c) Buddhas reminder to his followers that they all
Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the
Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Earth, and thus this life is transitory
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
92. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
98. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut
[2012 - I]
architecture, consider the following statements:
(a) Bhakti
[2013 - I]
(b) image worship and Yajnas
The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving
(c) worship of nature and Yajnas
rock-cut caves in India.
(d) worship of nature and Bhakti
The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made
93. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India
for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
that played a very important role in the country's
At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
economy, which of the following statements is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[2012 - I]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Every guild was registered with the central
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
authority of the State and the king was the chief
99. The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang)
administrative authority on them.
who visited India recorded the general conditions and
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices
culture of India at that time. In this context, which of
were fixed by the guild.
the following statements is/are correct?
[2013 - I]
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own

The roads and river-routes were completely

immune from robbery.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
fire, water and poison were the instruments for
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
94. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas,
The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and
while the others are called Viharas. What is the
barrier stations.
difference between the two?
[2013 - I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
dwelling place of the monks
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Topicwise Solved Papers
100. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
dance and dramatics called Tribhanga has been a
favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
today. Which one of the following statements best
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
describes this pose?
[2013 - I]
104. A community of people called Manganiyars is well(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but
known for their

[2014 - I]
oppositely curved at waist and neck
(a) martial arts in North-East India
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up
(b) musical tradition in North-West India
are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic
(c) classical vocal music in South India
(d) pietra dura tradition in Central India
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to
105. Which one of the following pairs does not form part of
express oneself or to tell a story
the six systems of Indian Philosophy?
[2014 - I]
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain
(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
hand gestures are emphasized to express the
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
feelings of love or eroticism.
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
101. Consider the following historical places:
[2013 - I]
(d) Sankhya and Yoga
1. Ajanta Caves
2. Lepakshi Temple
106. The national motto of India, Satyameva Jayate
3. Sanchi Stupa
inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural
[2014 - I]
(a) Katha Upanishad
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Chandogya Upanishad
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
(c) Aitareya Upanishad
102. With reference to the Indian history of art and culture,
(d) Mundaka Upanishad
consider the following pairs :
[2014 - I]
107. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated
Famous work of Sculpture

with the life of the Buddha?
[2014 - I]
1. A grand image of Buddha's
: Ajanta
1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
Mahaparinirvana with
3. Kosala
4. Magadha
numerous celestial musicians
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
above and the sorrowful
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4.
figures of his followers below
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
2. A huge image of Varaha
: Mount Abu
108. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
[2014 - I]
Avatar (boar incarnation)
(a) revolutionary association of Indians with
of Vishnu, as he rescues
headquarters at San Francisco
Goddess Earth from the deep
(b) nationalist organization operating from
and chaotic waters, sculpted
(c) militant organization with headquarters at
on rock
3. Arjunas Penance/
: Mamallapuram
(d) communist movement for India's freedom with
Descent of Ganga sculpted
head quarters at Tashkent
on the surface of huge boulders
109. With reference to the art and archaeo-logical history
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
of India, which one among the following was made

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubneshwar
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
103. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and
(c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
culture in India, consider the following pairs :
(d) varaha Image at Udayagiri
[2014 - I]
110. Which of the following kingdoms were associated
Famous shrine
with the life of the Buddha?
1. Tabo monastery and
: Spiti Valley
1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
temple complex
3. KosalAa
4. Magadha
2. Lhotsava Lhakhang
: Zanskar Valley
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
temple, Nako
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Alchi temple complex : Ladakh
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ancient History
(a) The word Hindu was used by Greeks to denote
18. (d) Arthashastra was written by Kautilya.
the country and people living beyond the Indus river.
19. (a) Badami was also known as Vatapi in Bijapur
The word Hindu is derived from the Sanskrit word

district of Karnataka. Panamalai or Kanchi in Tamil

Sindhu which is the ancient name for the Indus River.
Nadu was the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Other Brahmavadini are Vishwawara, Sikta,
20. (d) Ashoka stone pillars were meant to spread his
Nivavari, and Ghosa.
Dhamma (not the part of architectural structure.)
(d) 248 A.D. is Kalachuri era. Vikram era was started
21. (d) Kharosthi script was deciphered by James
by king Vikramaditya. Shaka era was started by
Prinsep (17991840), using the bilingual coins of the
Kanishka. Gupta era was started by Chandragupta-I.
Indo-Greek period. This in turn led to the reading of
(b) In Sanskrit plays of Gupta period women and
the Edicts of Ashoka, some of which, from the
Sudras speak prakrit.
northwest of the Asian subcontinent, were written
(d) In the year 1915 near a village called Maski in
in the Kharosthi script.
Raichur District of Karnataka, a rock inscription was
22. (c) Kathopanishad is the conversation between
discovered on a hill. In this inscription for the first
Nachiketa and Yamraj (God of death). Nachiketa was
time the name of Ashoka was found with titles like
a seeker, and Yamraj was a Guru (knower of secrets).
Devanampriya and Priyadarshi. It was then certain
23. (a) Milindapanho wasnt written by one person. It is
that Devanampriya Priyadarshi was no other than
the collected dialogue between the Indo-Greek king
Milinda (or Meander) and the Buddhist sage Nagasena.
24. (d) Maski inscription at Raichur doab in Karnataka
(d) Yavanas were Indo-Greeks. They liked pepper,
mentions his personal name, Devanam Priyadasi.
that is why pepper was known as Yavanapriya.
25. (c)
(c) Anuvrata was the five main teachings of Jainism26. (c) Avalokitevara is a bodhisattva who embodies

Ahimsa, Asateya, Aparigraha, Satya and

the compassion of all Buddhas. He is one of the more
widely revered bodhisattvas in mainstream
(c) A complete Yuga starts with the Satya Yuga, via
Mahayana Buddhism. In Sanskrit, Avalokitesvara is
Treta Yuga and Dvapara Yuga into a Kali Yuga.
also referred to as Padmapni (Holder of the Lotus)
(a) Devadasi is a girl "dedicated" to worship and
or Loke vara (Lord of the World).
service of a deity or a temple for the rest of her life.
27. (a) Rupaka was a silver coin of Gupta period.16
They were Considered the human wife of Lord
Rupaka was equal to 1 gold coin.
28. (b) Varahamihira also wrote Panchasiddhantika;
10. (a) Sapta Sindhu play a prominent part in the hymns
Vishakhadatta also wrote Mudra Rakshasa.
of the Rigveda, and consequently in early Vedic
29. (d) A manigramam was a large, influential guild of
South Indian merchants during the period of Western
11. (a) Therigatha was a part of the Buddhist literature.
Chalukyan rulers in 10th 12th Century CE.
12. (b) Both denied the authority of the Vedas and the
30. (a) The Saka era started in 78 AD, while Vikram era
necessity of performing sacrifices and rituals. Both of
started from 58 BC. So if we want to convert Badami
them were opposed to animal sacrifices.
rock inscription of Pulakesin I to Vikram era, it will
13. (c) Kosa was used for treasury and the rest of the
be 465 + 78 + 58 = 601 Vikram Samvat.
three terms were related to family.
31. (c) They embraced Buddhism because caste ridden
14. (d) Susrutha Samitha was written by Susrutha. He
Hinduism did not attract them.
was said to have been the best surgeon during the
32. (c) The ll and xlll rock edicts mention the southern
Gupta period.
kingdoms of Chola. Pandya, Satyaputra, Keralaputra
15. (c) Matsya Mahajanapada comprised the presentand Tambapanni.

day Jaipur-Bharatapur-Alwar area of Rajasthan ,

33. (b) Buddhacharita was written by Ashvaghosh.
Avanti was one of the most important ones and its
34. (d)
core area comprises the present-day Ujjain district of
35. (a) Ashokas edicts put stress on social harmony
Madhya Pradesh. Vatsa with its capital at Kausambi
among the people by spreading ideas of equity instead
was another powerful Mahajanapada, annexed by
of promotion of religion.
Magadha. Anga Mahajanapada was in Gangetic
36. (c) Lion capital of Ashoka is in Saranath (not Rajgir).
37. (a) The earliest known copper-plate called Sohgaura
16. (c) Apabhramsa means Languages.
is a Maurya record that mentions famine relief efforts.
It is one of the very few pre-Ashoka Brahmi
17. (c) Vishakhadatta wrote a drama named Mudra
inscriptions in India.
A 10
Topicwise Solved Papers
38. (d) The Noble Eight fold Path, is one of the principal
after its conquest and incorporated it into his empire.
teachings of the Buddha, who described it as the way
Thus R explains A.
leading to the cessation of suffering (Dukkha) and
50. (a) Greeks first introduced military governorship in
attainment of self-awakening. In Buddhist symbolism,
India. They appointed their Governors called
the Noble Eight fold Path is often represented by
means of the Dharma wheel (Dharmachakra), whose
51. (a) Alexander invaded India in 326 BC. Nandas were
eight spokes represent the eight elements of the path.
ruling over India at that time. The chronological order
Eight fold path includes right understanding, right
of these 4 dynasties was: Nanda, Maurya, Sunga and
speech, right livelihood; right mindfulness, right
thought, right action, right effort and right
52. (b) The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located
at Belur but was later moved to Halebid.

39. (c) The given map is related to the reign of Ashoka

53. (b) Painted Greyware belonged to later Vedic period
towards end of his rule. Ashoka (304232 BC),
(1000600BC). Ajanta paintings belong to the Gupta
popularly known as Ashoka the Great, was an Indian
period. Pahari School came into existence during the
emperor of the Maurya Dynasty who ruled over the
Mughal period.
Indian subcontinent from 269 BC to 232 BC. His empire
54. (a) Lingaraja Temple was constructed by Yayati
stretched from present-day Pakistan, Afghanistan in
Kesari, ruler of Orissa. It is located in Bhubaneshwar.
the west, to the present-day Bangladesh and the
55. (b) To popularize the Mahayana form of Buddhism.
Indian state of Assam in the east, and as far south as
Harshavardhana convened an assembly at Kannauj.
northern Kerala and Andhra.
The Prayag assembly was convened to popularize
40. (c) After the 3rd century AD Roman empire came to
an end. Indian merchants meanwhile had begun to
56. (c) In 1018, Rajendra conquered Ceylon (Srilanka).
rely more heavily on the south-east Asian Trade.
Earlier Rajaraja I conquered only half of it.
41. (b) Fa-Hien405411 CE; I-Tsing671695 CE;
57. (d) Vasumitra and Ashavaghosh together presided
Megasthanese 302298 BC; HieunTsang630645CE
over the fourth council. In this council Buddhists were
42. (d) Of the 16 Mahajanapadas, Magadha, Kosala,
divided into Mahayanists and Hinayanists.
Vatsa and Avanti were more powerful. They fought
58. (a) Cow, camel, horse and lion were not depicted on
amongst themselves for years and ultimately
seals. Unicorn (bull) was the animal most commonly
Magadha emerged victorious under Bimbisara
represented on the seals.
(Haranyak dynasty) in 6th C BC.
59. (b) The correct match is option (b).
43. (a) Bactria was the ancient civilizations of Iranian
60. (b) India's largest Buddhist monastery is in Sikkim
peoples. Ancient Bactria was located between the
(not in Arunachal Pradesh). The Hoysaleswara temple
Hindu Kush mountain range and the Amu Darya river,
located in Halebid, is dedicated to Siva.

covering the flat region that straddles modern-day

61. (b) Pavarana is a Buddhist holy day celebrated on
Afghanistan and Tajikistan.
the full moon of the eleventh lunar month. It marks
44. (c) Aryan is in fact a linguistic term indicating a
the end of the month of Vassa, sometimes called
speech group of Indo-European origin, and is not an
"Buddhist Lent." This day marks the end of the rainy
ethnic term.
season in some Asian countries like Thailand, where
45. (a) Tamralipta or Tamralipti was the name of an
Theravada Buddhism is practiced. On this day, each
ancient city on the Bay of Bengal corresponding with
monk (Pali: bhikkhu) must come before the community
Tamluk in modern-day India. Tamralipta may have
of monks (Sangha) and atone for an offense he may
been one of the most important urban centres of trade
have committed during the Vassa.
and commerce of early historic India, trading along
62. (d) The Mudrarakshasa ("The Signet of the Minister"),
the Silk Road with China, by Uttarapatha, the
a historical play in Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta (4th
northern high road, the main trade route into the
century CE) narrates the ascent of the king
Middle East and Europe; and by seafaring routes to
Chandragupta Maurya to power in Northern India.
Bali, Java and the Far East.
63. (b) Emperor Harsha's southward march was
46. (a) The didactic works of Sangam period are called
stopped on the Narmada river by Pulakesin II, the
Kilukanakku (18 minor groups) consisting of
Chalukya king of Vatapi in northern Mysore.
Tirukurral and Naladiyar. The Aham and Puram
64. (c) The Chola kingdom of the Sangam period
poems of the Kilukanakku group were composed in
extended from modern Tiruchi district to southern
post-Sangam period. Thats why R explains A.
Andhra Pradesh. Their capital was first located at
47. (b) Both statements are true but reason is not a correct
Uraiyur and then shifted to Puhar. Karikala was a
explanation of assertion.
famous king of the Sangam Cholas. Pattinappalai
48. (b) Both the statements are true but do not explain
portrays his early life and his military conquests. In

each other.
the Battle of Venni he defeated the mighty confederacy
49. (a) Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan empire
consisting of the Cheras, Pandyas and eleven minor
in 261 BC. Though Ashoka abandoned the policy of
physical occupation in favour of policy of cultural
The Chola emperor launched a successful naval
conquest after the Kalinga War, yet he retained Kalinga
expedition against the sailendra kingdom.
Ancient History
A 11
65. (a) Mrichchhakatika (The Clay Court) is a Sanskrit
of mayness of reality. Matter and spirit are regarded
play written by Shudraka in 2nd C BC. It is about a
as separate and independent realities.
young man named Charudatta, and his love for
82. (a) A copper plate inscription of Maharaja
Vasantasena, a rich courtesan.
Subandhu, recording his donation for the repair of
66. (c) Vardhaman Mahavira's mother, Trishala was the
the vihara was found at the site of Cave 2. Though,
sister (not the daughter) of Lichchhavi chief Chetaka.
the date of the Bagh inscription is missing, the
67. (d) All statements are correct. The last Mauryan
Badwani copper plate inscription is dated in the year
ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his
(Gupta era) 167 (487).
commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga in 185 BC.
83. (a) Buddha was considered 9th incarnation of Vishnu.
The last ruler of Kanva dynasty, Susharma was
No tribe from Central Asia persecuted Buddhists.
deposed by the Andhras and Satavahana dynasty
Gupta dynasty did not oppose Buddhism. However,
came into being.
they did not give them patronage.
68. (d) Statement 1 is incorrect as fourth Buddhist
84. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer.
Council was held in Kashmir during the reign of
85. (b) Jain Doctrine is established upon an undying
Kanishka under the presidentship of Vasumitra and
universal truth. It was Rishabh Dev, who is first
Ashvaghosh. Fa-Hien visited India during the reign
thought to realize the truth and achieve Kevalya

of Chandra Gupta-II and not during Kanishka's reign.

Statement 2 is incorrect as Harsha was not
86. (c) We have read about the Mehrgarh cotton which
antagonistic to Buddhism when Hiuen -Tsang met
is the earliest example of Cotton cultivation in the old
world, older than the Peruvians. The cloth was made,
69. (c) Jainism spread in South India under the
and even dyed, so statement 2 is correct. The first
leadership of Bhadrabahu (not Sthalabahu). The Jainas
statement is also correct and has been lifted from a
who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu
famous history book.
were called Digambaras (not Shvetambaras) after the
87. (c) Rita refers to regulation order by nature and
first council held at Pataliputra (modern Patna) by
was related to the conduct of the Vedic Gods and
Humans, somewhere related to the moral and physical
70. (c) Atharvaveda is a book of magical formula. It
law. Statement 2 is correct. Rita was later replaced
contains charms and spells to ward-off evil and
by Dharma and was a more sophisticated form of
principles of law. As per Chanakya, Dharma was the
71. (a) The correct chronological order is
promotion of ones own security, happiness as well as
Shankaracharya (9th Century CE) - Ramanuja (1017the social order.
1137 CE) - Chaitanya (1436-1533 CE)
72. (c) These princely states were annexed by Lord
88. (c) 1st, 3rd and 4th are correct.
89. (b) Both Buddhism and Jainism denied the authority
Dalhousie under Doctrine of Lapse. Jhansi - 1854,
Sambalpur- 1849 and Satara - 1848.
of the Vedas and the efficacy of Rituals.
73. (c) Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty.
90. (c) Nagara, Dravida and Vesara are three main styles
of Indian temple architecture.
Magdha empire came into prominence under him. He
was a contemporary of the Buddha. He strengthened
91. (d) Bhumisparsha Mudra of Lord Buddha, symbolizes
his position by marriage alliances. His first wife was

that Buddha's calling of the earth to watch over Mara

and to present Mara from disturbing his meditation.
the sister of Prasenjit (son of king of Koshala) who
was also contemporary of the Buddha.
This image of Buddha also symbolizes that Buddha's
74. (b) Dantidurga, a feudatory of Chalukyas, founded
cal ing of the earth to witness his purity and chastity
despite the temptations of Mara.
the Rastrakuta empire in 753 C E (AD) with their
capital at Manyakhet.
92. (c) The early Vedic Aryans indulged in Image
75. (a) Sindhu was the old name of river Indus and
Worship and Yajnas.
93. (c) 2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices
Vitasta was the old name of River Jhelum.
76. (a) Alexander (Greek, 326 B.C.E.); Sakas (90 B.C.E.);
were fixed by the guild.
Kushanas (45 C.E.)
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own
77. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as most of the inscriptions
of the Andhra Ikshvaku period record either the
94. (b) Chaityas refer to the halls enclosing the stupas.
construction of the Buddhist viharas or the gifts made
Chaityas were probably constructed to hold large
numbers of devotees for prayer. Viharas on the other
to them which shows that the Ikshvaku rulers of
Southern India were supporters of Buddhism
hand are constructions built in ancient India in order
78. (d) It was written by Samudragupta's court poet
to provide resting places for the wandering Buddhist
79. (a) This is same as the Pythagoras theorem.
95. (c) The concept of Nirvana was originally explained
80. (a) Bhimeshwar (Kakinada); Kandariya Mahadeo
by Lord Buddha (566-486 BC). The word Nirvana
comes from the root meaning to blow out and refers
(Khajuraho); Rajarani temple (Bhubneshvar);
Vidyashankara Temple (Sringeri).
to the extinguishing of the fires of greed, hatred, and
81. (b) The Jaina metaphysics is realistic and relativistic
delusion. When these emotional and psychological
defilements are destroyed by wisdom, the mind

pluralism. It is called Anekantavada or the doctrine

becomes free, radiant, and joyful and he who has
A 12
Topicwise Solved Papers
realized the Truth (Nirvana) is the happiest being in
Kamdhenu or whenever he is playing his flute. He is
the world. He is free from all complexes and
often called Tribhana Murari.
obsessions. He does not repent the past nor does he
101. (b) Ajanta Caves have mural paintings in caves 1, 2,
brood over the future. He lives fully in present. He
16 and 17. Some of the paintings were commissioned
appreciates and enjoys things in life in the purest sense
by Harisena of Vakataka dynasty. The theme of the
without self projections. He is free from the thirst of
paintings was Jataka tales. Lepakshi Temple is
becoming and the illusion of self. Buddism explain
renowned for being one of the best repositories of mural
Nivrana as a state of bliss or peace.
paintings of the Vijaynagar kings. Sanchi Stupa has
96. (b) Indus valley people did not possess great palaces
many beautiful sculptures but not mural paintings.
and temples rather the civilization was noted for its
102. (c) 1 is correctly matched because Parinirvana of the
cities built of brick, roadside drainage system and
Buddha in Cave 17 of Ajanta, with numerous celestial
multistoried houses.
musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his
Indus valley people were peace loving. They were
followers below, is one of the grandest and yet most
never engaged in any war. However speculations have
delicately expressive scenes ever made in stone. 2 is
been rife that some tectonic forces destroyed the
wrong because huge image of Varaha Avatar of
civilization. Some historians are of the view that
Vishnu, as herescues Goddess Earth from the deepand
invasion of Aryans, sea level changes, earthquakes
chaotic waters, sculpted on rock is found in
might have brought the civilization to its end therefore
Mamallapuram. 3 is right because Arjuna's Penance
people employing horse drawn chariots in warfare is
Descent of Ganga sculpted on thesurface of huge
not true. Moreover, Indus valley seals show swastika,
boulders is found in Mamallapuram.

animals which is suggestive of their religious beliefs.

103. (c) Tabo monastery and temple complex is in Spiti
In view of large number of figurines found in Indus
Valley and Alchi temple complex is in Ladakh.
valley, some scholars believe they worshipped mother
Lhotsava Lhakhang, Nako is in Himachal Pradesh .
goddess symbolizing fertility. They worshipped a
Zanskar Valley is in Jammu and Kashmir.
father God who might be a progenitor of the race and
104. (b) Manganiyarsa tribal community from Rajasthan
was a probably a prototype of Siva as the Lord of the
(North west) with a strong musical tradition.
105. (c) Lokayata and Kapalika do not form of Six system
97. (d) The surest way of annihilating Karma is to
of Indian philosophy
practice penance. Karma is the bane of the soul and
S ix s ys tem of Indian philos ophy are
must be ended.
Swadhyay Paramam Tap According to Jain
Samkhy a
Prakriti an d Pu ru s h
doctrines Penance washes away all the blemishes and
Releas in g Pu ru s h from Parkriti
purges the soul of all karmic matter.
Nyay a
Log ical th inking
Also, according to Jainism, Karma is the bane of
the soul. Karma not only encompasses the causality of
Vais hes hika Realis tic and o bjective ph ilos ophy
transmigration but it is also conceived as an extremely
of univers e
subtle matter which infiltrates the soul, obscuring its
M imams a
A nalyzing Samhita and Brahmana
natural, transparent, pure qualities. Karma is thought
p ortio n of Ved a.
of as a kind of pol ution that taints the soul with various
106. (d) The words Satyameva Jayate came from
colors. Based on its karma, a soul undergoes
Mundaka Upanishad, meaning Truth Alone Triumphs.
transmigration and reincarnation in various states of
107. (c) Buddh born in Lumbini, in Kosala kingdom.Buddh

existence like heavens or hells or as humans or animals.

died in Kusinara, in Magadha kingdom. Avanti lay
98. (b) The Barbara rock cut caves are the oldest rock cut
outside the area visited by buddha, and was converted
caves. They were originally made for the Ajivikas
to his teaching by his disciple Mahakaccana. Gandhara
during the Mauryan period (322-185 BCE). The Ellora
is western part of Pakistan & Afghanistan and Buddha
caves were built between 5th century and 10th century.
never went to Pakistan.
There were 34 caves out of which 12 were Buddhist
108. (a) The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary
caves, 17 were Hindu caves and 5 were Jain caves. The
association founded by Punjabi Indians, in the United
proximity of the caves clearly demonstrates the
States and Canada with the aim to gaining India's
religious harmony prevalent at that period of time.
independence from British rule. Key members
99. (b) The tradesmen had to pay light duties at ferries
included Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Kartar
and barriers. After paying the revenue they could go
Singh Sarabha, and Rashbehari Bose.It had its
to and fro to barter their merchandise. The
headquarters at San Francisco.
punishment for social offences according to the
travellers account, were to cut off the nose, or an ear
109. (b) Dhauligiri located on the River Daya banks, at
or a hand. Minor offences were dealt with fines. And
Bhubaneswar in Odisha. It is believed that Dhauli hill
to determine guilt or innocence, ordeals by fire, water
was the battlefield of the Kalinga War. The rock-cut
and poison were the instruments which were used.
elephant is the oldest Buddhist sculptures located here.
100. (a) The pose Tribhanga is the favourite posture of
110. (c) Four great monarchies in the time of the Buddha
Lord Krishna. We have often seen Lord Krishna
are Avanti, Magadha, Kosala and Vamsa (or Vatsa)
standing in tribhanga posture before his cow
Chapter 2
The Mughal school of painting formed the spinal

The route indicated in the map was followed, during

column of different schools of Indian miniature art.
the course of his military exploits, by:
Which one of the following painting styles was not
(a) Chandragupta II (b) Harshavardhana
affected by Mughal painting?
(c) Rajendra Chola (d) Malik Kafur
(a) Pahari
(b) Rajasthani
Nastaliq was:
(c) Kangra
(d) Kalighata
(a) a persian script used in medieval India
Who among the following were famous jurists of
(b) a raga composed by Tansen
medieval India?
(c) a cess levied by the Mughal rulers
(a) Vijnanesvara
(b) Hemadri
(d) a manual of code of conduct for the Ulemas
(c) Rajasekhara
(d) Jimutavahana
The sufi saint who maintained that devotional music
According to Mimamsa system of philosophy,
was one way of coming close to God was;
liberation is possible by means by:
(a) Muin-ud-din Chisti
(a) jnana
(b) bhakti
(b) Baba Farid
(c) yoga
(d) karma
(c) Saiyid Muhammad Gesudaraz
Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the Chola period

(d) Shah Alam Bukhari

invariably show the deity with:
10. Mughal painting reached its zenith under:
(a) eight hands
(b) six hands
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) four hands
(d) two hands
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shahjahan
Which one of the following monuments has a dome
11. In medieval India, Mansabdari system was
which is said to be one of the largest in the world?
introduced for:
(a) Tomb of Sher Shah, Sasaram
(a) making recruitment to the army
(b) Jama Masjid, Delhi
(b) facilitating revenue collection
(c) Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, Delhi
(c) ensuring religious harmony
(d) Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur
(d) effecting clean administration
Ashtapradhan was a council of ministers:
12. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) in the Gupta administration
(a) Guru Amar DasMiri and Piri
(b) in the Chola administration
(b) Guru Arjun DevAdi Granth
(c) in the Vijayanagar administration
(c) Guru Ram DasDal Khalsa
(d) in the Maratha administration
(d) Guru Gobind Singh Manji
Consider the map given below:

13. Prem Vatika, poems on the life of Krishna, were

composed by :
(a) Bihari
(b) Surdas
(c) Raskhan
(d) Kabir
14. After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the
grand title of :
(a) Tute-Hind
(b) Kaisr-I-Hind
(c) Zil-I-Ilahi
(d) Din-I-Ilahi
15. Head of the military department under the recognised
central machinery of administration during Akbar's
reign was:
(a) Diwan
(b) Mir Bakshi
(c) Mir Saman
(d) Bakshi

A 14
Topicwise Solved Papers
16. Assertion (A): The sponsor and the most prominent
Reason (R): The expedition sent by Shahjahan to the

figure of the Chisti order of Sufis in India is Khwaja

Middle-East was a marvellous success.
Moinuddin Chisti.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
Reason (R): The Chisti order takes its name from a
explanation of A
village Chisti in Ajmer.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
In the context of the above two statements, which one
explanation of A
of the following is correct?
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
(d) A is false but R is true
explanation of A
25. Consider the following statements:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Ahadis were those troopers who:
explanation of A
1. offered their services singly
(c) A is true but R is false
2. did not attach themselves to any chief
(d) A is false but R is true
3. had the emperor as their immediate colonel
17. Which one of the following pairs of composers in
4. attached themselves to Mirzas
different languages and their works on the
Of these statements:
Mahabharata theme is correctly matched?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(a) SarladasaBengali (b) KasiramaOriya
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) TikkanaMarathi (d) PampaKannada
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
18. The medieval Indian writer who refers to the
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
discovery of America is :
26. Consider the following:

(a) Malik Muhammad Jayasi

1. Tughlaqabad fort 2. Lodi Garden
(b) Amir Khusrau
3. Qutab Minar
4. Fatehpur Sikri
(c) Raskhan
The correct chronological order in which they were
(d) Abul Fazl
built is :
19. The member of Shivaji's Ashtapradhan who looked
(a) 3, 1, 4, 2
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
after foreign affairs was:
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
(a) Peshwa
(b) Sachiv
27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(c) Pandit Rao
(d) Sumant
using the codes given below the lists:
20. The loss of Qandhar was a big blow to the Mughal
empire from the view point of :
A . 1556
1. Battle of Haldi Ghati
(a) natural resources (b) buffer territory
B. 1600
2. Nadir Shah's capture of
(c) communication
(d) strategic stronghold
21. Fawazil in the Sultanate period meant:
C. 1686
3. Death of Shivaji
(a) extra payment to the nobles
D. 1739
4. Grant of Charter to
(b) revenue assigned in lieu of salary

East India Company

(c) excess amount paid to the exchequer by the
5. Accession of Akbar
(d) illegal exactions extracted from the peasants
(a) A 3; B 4; C 2; D 1
22. Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest
(b) A 5; B 4; C 3; D 2
network of canals in India was:
(c) A 5; B 2; C 1; D 4
(a) Iltutmish
(d) A 1; B 5; C 3; D 2
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
28. In the given map, the shaded part represents Akbar's
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
empire at a certain juncture, A stands for an
(d) Sikandar Lodi
independent country and 'B' marks the site of city.
23. Assertion (A): At first the Turkish administration in
Which one of the following alternative gives all correct
India was essentially military.
Reason (R): The country was parcelled out as 'Iqtas'
among leading military leaders.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A .
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
24. Assertion (A): During the reign of Shahjahan, Dara
Sikoh was sent on expedition to Balkha, Badakhshan
and Qandahar.

Medieval History
A 15
(a) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Gokunda,
(B) Lahore
34. Consider the following statements:
(b) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Khandesh,
(B) Multan
The striking feature of the Jama Masjid in Kashmir
(c) Akbar in 1605:
(A) Gondwana,
(B) Multan
completed by Zain-ul-Abdin include(s):
(d) Akbar in 1605:

(A) Gondwana,
(B) Lahore
1. turret
29. The first writer to use Urdu as the medium of poetic
2. similarity with Buddhist pagodas
expression was:
3. Persian style
(a) Amir Khusrau
(b) Mirza Ghalib
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Bahadur Shah Zafar (d) Faiz
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1, 2 and 3
30. To which Lodi Sultan does the given map relate and
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
what town does the site marked. A represent [1999]
35. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
(a) Jahangir
William Hawkins
(b) Akbar
Sir Thomas Roe
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the list:
A. Land allotted to
1. Jagirdari System
big feudal landlords
A on the map represent?
B. Land allotted to
2. Ryotwari System

(a) Bahlol Lodi Jaunpur

revenue farmers of
(b) Sikandar Lodi Aligarh
rent collectors
(c) Ibrahim Lodi Jaunpur
C. Land allotted to each
3. Mahalwari
(d) Ibrahim Lodi Aligarh
peasant with the right
31. Assertion (A): During the time of Akbar, for every ten
to sublet, mortgage
cavalrymen, the mansabdars had to maintain twenty
transfer, gift or sell
D. Revenue settlements
4. Zamindari System
Reason (R): Horses had to be rested while on march
made at village level
and replacements' were necessary in times of war.
(a) A 1; B 3; C 2; D 4
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
(b) A 1; B 4; C 2; D 3
explanation of A
(c) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 2
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(d) A 2; B 1; C 3; D 4
explanation of A
37. Who among the following streamlined the Maratha
(c) A is true but R is false
administration after Sambhaji ?
(d) A is false but R is true
(a) Raja Ram
(b) Balaji Vishwanath
32. One consistent feature found in the history of
(c) Ganga Bai
(d) Nanaji Deshmukh
southern India was the growth of small regional
38. The given map refers to the kingdom of :
kingdoms rather than large empires because of :

(a) absence of minerals like iron
(b) too many divisions in the social structure
(c) absence of vast areas of fertile land
(d) scarcity of manpower
33. 'The king was freed from his people and they from
their king'. On whose death did Badauni comment
(a) Balban
(a) Akbar at the time of capture of Khandesh in 1601
(b) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(b) Akbar at the time of his death in 1605
(c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(c) Aurangzeb at the time of capture of Hyderabad
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Aurangzeb at the time of his death in 1707

A 16
Topicwise Solved Papers
39. Consider the following events:
1. Region of Krishna Deva of Vijaynagara
(a) Both A and R are individual y true but R is the correct
2. Construction of Qutab Minar
explanation of A
3. Arrival of Portuguese in India

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a

4. Death of Firoz Tughlaq
correct explanation of A
Correct chronological sequence of these events is :
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) 4, 2, 1, 3
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1
46. Assertion (A): Battle of Khanua was certainly more
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
decisive and significant than the First Battle of Panipat
using the codes given below the lists:
Reason (R): Rana Sanga, the Rajput hero, was
certainly a more formidable adversary than Ibrahim
A. Iqta
1. Marathas
B. Jagir
2. Delhi Sultans
C. Amaram
3. Mughals
D. Mokasa
4. Vijayanagara
(a) A 3; B 2; C 1; D 4
(b) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
(c) A 2; B 3; C 1; D 4
(d) A 3; B 2; C 4; D 1
41. Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed
Bay of Bengal
as the 'Jagadguru' by his Muslim subject because of
his belief in secularism?
(a) Hussain Shah
(b) Zain-ul-Abidin
(c) Ibrahim Adil Shah (d) Mahmud II
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer

The shaded area in the above map shows the empire

using the codes given below the lists:
of :
List-I (Bhakti Saint)
List-II (Profession)
A. Namdev
1. Barber
(a) Alauddin Khalji
B. Kabir
2. Weaver
(b) Mohammad Tughlaq
C. Ravidas
3. Tailor
(c) Shahjahan
D. Sena
4. Cobbler
(d) Aurangzeb
48. Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint
(a) A 2; B 3; C 1; D 4
to use Hindi for the propagation of his message?
(b) A 3; B 2; C 4; D 1
(c) A 3; B 2; C 1; D 4
(a) Dadu
(b) Kabir
(d) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
(c) Ramananda
(d) Tulsidas
43. Mongols under Chengiz Khan invaded India during
49. With reference to medieval Indian rulers, which one
the reign of :
of the following statement is correct?
(a) Balban
(b) Firoz Tughlaq
(a) Alauddin Khalji first set up a separate ariz's
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
44. Which among the following ports was called Babul

(b) Balban introduced the branding of horses in his

Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal period?
(a) Calicut
(b) Broach
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his
(c) Cambay
(d) Surat
uncle to the military.
45. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(d) Firoz Tughlaq set up a separate department of
(a) Dewan-i-Bandagani Tughlaq
50. The motive behind Shah Jahan's Balkh campaign was
(b) Dewan-i-Mustakhraj Balban
(c) Dewan-i-Kohi Alauddin Khilji
(a) secure a friendly ruler in Balkh and Badakshan
(d) Dewan-i-Arz Muhammad Tughlaq
which bordered Kabul
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 46) : The following item consist of two
(b) conquer Samarqand and Farghana, the Mughal
statements. One labelled the 'Assertion A' and the other as 'Reason
R' . You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if
(c) fix the Mughal frontier on the 'scientific line', the
the 'Assertion A' and the 'Reason R' are individually true and if so,
Amu Daria
whether the 'Reason R' is the correct explanation of the given
(d) expand the Mughal Empire beyond the sub'Assertion A'. Mark your Answer-Sheet accordingly.
Medieval History
A 17
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51) : The following item consist of two
55. Assertion (A): Shah Alam II spent the initial years as
statements, one label ed as "Assertion A" and the other as "Reason
an emperor far away from his capital.
R". You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if
Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of
"Assertion A" and "Reason R" are individual y true and if so, whether

foreign invasion from the north-west frontier. [2003]

the "Reason R" is the correct explanation for the given Assertion A".
56. Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the
Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and
old dynasty and assumed the royal title.
mark your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Reason (R) : He wanted to save the kingdom from
further degeneration and disintegration.
57. Assertion (A) : Marathas emerged as the strongest
(a) Both A and R are individual y true but R is the correct
native power in India after the decline of Mughal
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a
Reason (R) : Marathas were the first to have a clear
correct explanation of A
concept of a united Indian nation.
(c) A is true but R is false
58. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade
(d) A is false but R is true
India was:
51. Assertion (A): Muhammad Bin Tughlaq left Delhi, and
(a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the
for two years lived in a camp called Swarga-Dwari.
throne of Delhi
Reason (R): At that time, Delhi was ravaged by plague
(b) a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was ill-treated and
and many people died.
expelled from the country
52. Historian Barani refused to consider the state in India
(c) the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel
under Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because: [2002]
treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
(a) majority of the population did not follow Islam
(d) a high official in Punjab province who was
(b) muslim theologists were often disregarded
discontented with Ibrahim Lodi's treatment to
his tribe
(c) Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing

59. Battle of Dharmat was fought between:

his own regulations
(a) Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
(d) religious freedom was accorded to non-muslims
(b) Babur and Afghans
53. With reference to Suffism in Indian history, consider
(c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
the following statements:
(d) Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
1. Sheikh Ahmad Sarhandi was a contemporary of
60. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandarshah's reign,
Ibrahim Lodi
come to an early end?
2. Sheikh Nasiruddin Chirag-I-Dehlavi was a
(a) He was deposed by his Wazir
disciple of Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(b) He died due to a slip while climbing down the
3. Aurangzeb was a contemporary of Sheikh Salim
(c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
4. Qadiri order of Sufis was first introduced in India
(d) He died of sickness due to drinking
by Sheikh Niamutullah and Makhdum
61. Consider the following statements:
Muhammad Jilani
1. Kitab-i-Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of
Which of these statements are correct?
Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
by Ibrahim Adil Shah II
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India of the
early from of the musical style known as Qawali
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 54-57) : The following item consist of two
statements: one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as Reason
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
answers to these items using the codes given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?
(a) Both A and R are individual y true but R is the correct
(a) He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of
explanation of A
his ambitious nobles
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
(b) He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-din Yildiz,
correct explanation of A
the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest
(c) A is true but R is false
with him over the capture of Punjab
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress
54. Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards
of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to
Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
them later
Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral
(d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing
country of Ferghana in Central Asia.
A 18
Topicwise Solved Papers
63. Consider the following statements:
69. In the year 1613, where was the English East India
1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty
Company given permission to set up a factory (trading
and seized the throne for himself and started the
Saluva dynasty.
(a) Bangalore
(b) Madras
2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler
(c) Masulipattam
(d) Surat
and seized the throne for himself.

70. Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued a new

3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger
gold coin which was called Dinar by Ibn Batutah.
brother, Krishnadeva Raya.
Reason (R): Muhammad bin Tughlaq wanted to issue
token currency in gold coins to promote trade with
4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half
West Asian and North African countries.
brother, Achyuta Raya.
(a) Both A are R are true but R is the correct
Which of the statements given above are correct?
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
explanation of A
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) A is true but R is false
64. Who was the last ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty of the
(d) A is false but R is true
Delhi Sultanate?
71. Which one of the following is the correct chronological
(a) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
order of the Afghan rulers to the throne of Delhi?
(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq Shah II
(a) Sikandar Shah-Ibrahim Lodi-Bahlol Khan Lodi
(c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(b) Sikandar Shah-Bahlol Khan Lodi-Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Nasrat Shah
(c) Bahlol Khan Lodi-Sikandar Shah-Ibrahim Lodi
65. How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar
(d) Bahlol Khan Lodi-Ibrahim Lodi-Sikandar Shah
come to an end?
72. Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which
(a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire
Mughal emperor?
and Hussain Shah was given life imprisonment

(a) Babar
(b) Akbar
(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
killed Nizam-ul Mulk of Ahmadnagar
73. In Indian history, who was Abdul Hamid Lahori?
(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul[2006]
(a) An important military commander during Akbar
(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with
(b) An official historian of the reign of Shahjahan.
Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal family was
(c) An important noble and confidant of Aurangzeb.
killed by the Mughal troops
(d) A chronicler and poet during the reign of
66. Consider the following statements about Sikh Gurus:
Muhammad Shah.
1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military
74. Where is the famous Vijaya Vittala temple having its
leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh Bahadur.
56 carved pillars emitting musical notes located?
2. Guru Arjun Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru
Ram Das.
(a) Belur
(b) Bhadrachalam
3. Guru Arjun Dev gave to Sikhs their own script
(c) Hampi
(d) Srirangam
Guru Mukhi.
75. During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
English East India Company establish its first factory
in India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir

(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
76. Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?
67. The initial design and construction of which massive
temple took place during the reign of Suryavarman
(a) Bhadrachalam
(b) Chidambaram
(c) Hampi
(d) Srikalahasti
(a) Sri Mariamman Temple
77. With whose permission did the English set up their
(b) Angkor Vat Temple
first factory in Surat?
(c) Batu Caves Temple
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(d) Kamakhya Temple
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
68. When Raja Wodeyar founded the kingdom of Mysore,
78. Among the following, who was not a proponent of
who was the ruler of the Vijayanagar Empire? [2006]
Bhakti cult ?
(a) Sadasiva
(b) Tirumala
(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Tukaram
(c) Ranga II
(d) Venkata II
(c) Tyagaraja
(d) Vallabhacharya
Medieval History
A 19
79. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
of the following statements are correct?
[2012 - I]
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput
83. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was
[2014 - I]
kingdoms during the Mughal period.
(a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual
(b) Akbars private prayer chamber
(c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from
scholars of various religions
(d) the room in which the nobles belonging to
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
different religions gathered to discuss religious
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
84. In medieval India, the designations Mahattara and
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above is correct
Pattakila were used for
[2014 - I]
80. With reference to the religious history of medieval
(a) military officers
India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which
(b) village headmen
of the following practices?
[2012 - I]
(c) specialists in Vedic rituals
1. Meditation and control of breath
(d) chiefs of craft guilds
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
85. Consider the following pairs:
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy
Medieval Indian State Present Region
in their audience
1. Champaka

Central India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2. Durgara
3. Kuluta
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched?
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
81. Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
[2013 - I]
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 Only
Dadu Dayal
86. Consider the following:
Guru Nanak
The arrival of Babur into India led to the
1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
Who among the above was/were preaching when the
2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region's
Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
82. With reference to the history of philosophical thought
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
in India, consider the following statements regarding

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Sankhya school:
[2013 - I]
87. Who of the following founded a new city on the south
bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to
Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or
rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom
transmigration of soul.
all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed
Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that
to belong?
leads to liberation and not any exterior influence
(a) Amoghavarsha I (b) Ballala II
or agent.
(c) Harihara I
(d) Prataparudra II
A 20
Topicwise Solved Papers
(d) It does not quite belong to the temper of Mughal
campaigns. The loss of Kandhar was a big blow as it
painting which was aristocratic, celebrated imperial
was a strategic stronghold.
promp and circumstances.
21. (c) Fawazil was balance between the income and
(c) He was a sanskrit poet and dramatist.
expenditure of Iqta-holders.
(d) It was started by Jaimini.
22. (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq built and repaired a large
(c) Bronze icon of Nataraja is the finest example of
number of canals.
Chola sculpture.
23. (a) Iqta is that part of land granted by the sultan to
(d) It is the Moussoleum of Muhammad Adil Shah

its military chiefs for maintenance of troopers. The

Sur of Bijapur. This is the second largest dome in the
land was taken back when the Iqtadars were not in a
position to maintain the army.
(d) It was constituted by Shivaji in Maratha
24. (c) R is incorrect as this expedition failed miserably.
25. (b) Ahadis were the gentlemen troopers who were
(d) Alauddin Khalji sent Malik Kafur (popularly
recruited individually and were under the command
known as Hazar Dinari) for southern expedition and
of a separate mansabdar or officer, and had a diwan
he reached up to Kanyakumari.
and a bakshi of their own. They were considered very
(a) It was a persian script during Mughal period.
efficient and loyal troops and were paid high salaries.
(b) Baba Farid belonged to Chisti order which was
26. (b) Tughlaqabad Fort is a ruined fort in Delhi,
founded by Nizam Uddin Auliya.
stretching across 6.5 km, built by Ghiyas-ud-din
10. (c) Jahangir was the Mughal Emperor from 16051627.
Tughlaq, the founder of Tughlaq dynasty, of the Delhi
11. (d) Mansabdari system was introduced in 159596,
Sultanate of India in 1321, which was later abandoned
was a combined status showing a nobles civil and
in 1327. Fatehpur Sikri is a city and a municipal board
military capacity.
in Agra district in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India. It
12. (b) Guru Hargobind Miri and Piri; Guru Gobind
was constructed by Mughal Emperor Akbar
Singh Dal Khalsa
beginning in 1570, in honour of Sufi saint Shaikh Salim
13. (c) Raskhan (approx. 15581628) was a Hindi poet
Chisti. Qutab Minar 1206 1236; Lodi Garden 1451
who was both a Muslim and follower of Lord Krishna.
14. (c) The Persian court model influenced balban's
27. (b) The Battle of Haldighati was fought between the
conception of Kingship. He took up the title of Zil-i-

Mughal Empire and the forces of Mewar on June 21,

Ilahi (Shadow of God).
1576 at Haldighati in Rajasthan, India. It was a decisive
15. (b) He was the head of the military and intelligence
victory for the Mughal Emperor Jalal ud-Din
department. He was not the Commander-in-Chief but
Muhammad Akbars general Raja Man Singh against
was the paymaster-general. All intelligence officers
the Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar. Akbar was 14
(bands) and news-reporters (Waqia-navis) reported
years old when he was crowned at Kalanaur in 1556.
to him.
28. (d) The shaded part represents Akbars territory at
16. (c) The Chishti order is a Sufi order within the mystic
the time of his death in 1605. A Gondwana; B Lahore
branches of Islam which was founded in Chisht, a
29. (a) Amir Khusrau (1253 1325 CE), a Persian poet
small town near Herat, Afghanistan about 930 CE.
was associated with the rulers of Delhi Sultanate. He
The order was founded by Abu Ishaq Shami (the
composed poetry in Arabic and Persian besides being
Syrian). The most famous of the Chishti saints is
the first writer to use Urdu as a medium of poetic
Moinuddin Chishti popularly known as Gharib
Nawaz meaning Benefactor of the Poor who settled
30. (a) Bahlol Lodi defeated Hussain Shah Sharqi of
in Ajmer, India.
Jaunpur in 1479.
17. (d) Pampa was a Kannada poet whose works
31. (d) A is incorrect as Du aspa Sih aspa system was
reflected his philosophical beliefs. Vikramarjuna
introduced by Jahangir (not Akbar). So answer is d.
Vijaya, also known as Pampa Bharata, is a Kannada
32. (c)
version of the Mahabharata of Vyasa.
33. (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq died in 1351 CE. He was
18. (b) Amir Khusrau refers to the discovery of America.
succeeded by his cousin Firoz Tughlaq.
19. (d) Sachiv was the minister in charge of royal corres34. (b) Jama Masjid is a mosque in Srinagar, Jammu &
pondence. Pandit Rao religious matter
Kashmir, India. The Jama Masjid of Srinagar is situated
20. (d) Shah Jahan recovered Kandhar in 1638 from the

at Nowhatta, in the middle of the old city. It was built

Iranians but lost it again in 1649 despite three
by Sultan Sikandar in 1400 AD. Later, the son of Sultan
Sikandar, Zain-ul-Abidin had the mosque extended.
Medieval History
A 21
35. (b) Sir Thomas Roe also visited the court of Jahangir.
Tughlaq was succeeded by his cousin (not uncle) Firoz
He was an ambassador of James I, king of England.
Tughlaq. Alauddin Khalji introduced the branding
Taverniers account covers the reign of Shahjahan and
system of horses in his military.
50. (a) The motive behind Shah Jahan's Balkh and
36. (b) Under the Mahalwari system, revenue,
Badakshan campaign in central Asia was to secure
settlement was to be made by village or estates with
the defence of North-West India. That's why the
the landlords. In the Ryotwari system, a direct
statement a is correct.
settlement was made between the government and
51. (a) Like Allauddin Khalji, Muhammad bin Tughlaq
the ryot (cultivator). In the Zamindari system, land is
also tried to bring changes in the agrarian set up. Some
allotted to revenue farmers of Zamindars (rent
historians point out that he made an over assessment
because of which many peasants fled the region. But
37. (b) Best answer is Balaji Vishwanath. As Sambhaji
the states share remained half. A severe famine in this
(1680-89) were succeeded by Rajaram, Shivaji II,
period worsened the situation. Muhammad bin
Tarabai and Shahu ji. Balaji Vishwanath played a
Tughlaq tried to provide relief to those affected and
crucial role in the final victory of Shahu by winning
made efforts to improve and extend cultivation. The
over almost all the Maratha sardars to the side of
sultan left Delhi and rendered in a camp called
Shahu. Under Baji Rao I Maratha power reached a
swargadwari near kanauj. He also set up a separate
zenith. But that option is not given.
department called diwan-i amir-i kohi whose function
38. (a)
was to extend cultivation by providing loans.

39. (a) Region of Krishna Deva of Vijaynagara (1509

52. (c) Zia-ud-din-Barani was a contemporary of
30); Construction of Qutab Minar (1206 1210); Arrival
Muhammad Tughlaq and Firoz Tughlaq. He enjoyed
of Portugese in India (1498); Death of Firoz Tughlaq
the patronage of both the sultans. He composed
Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari.
40. (b) These are the land grants given during the period
53. (d) Sheikh Ahmad Sarhandi of Naqshbandi order
of different dynasties.
was a contemporary of Akbar and Jahangir. The
41. (c) Ibrahim Adil Shah II (1556 1627), of the Adil
Qadiri order of Sufis was first introduced in India by
Shahi dynasty, was the king of Bijapur Sultanate.
Sheikh Nizamatullah (He died in 1430 AD) and
42. (b) These Bhakti saints were disciples of Saint
Makhdum (or Nasiruddin) Muhammad Jilani (died
43. (c) Mongols under Chengiz Khan (died in 1227)
in 1517).
invaded India during the reign of Iltutmish (1211-36)
54. (c) A is correct as Akbar marched towards
but did not enter deep in India as Iltutmish refused to
Afghanistan in 1581 to conquer Kabul to expand his
give shelter to the Persian king, Khwarizm Shah,
kingdom. R is incorrect as he had no intention to
whom Chengiz Khan was chasing.
reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana.
44. (d) Surat was called Gate of Makka because the
55. (c) Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an emperor
pilgrimage to Makka started from Surat.
away from his capital due to the fear of Najib Khan
45. (a) Dewan-i-Bandagani (Department of Slaves) was
Rohilla who became very powerful in Delhi and not
constituted by Firoz Tughlaq; Dewan-i-Mustakhraj
due to foreign invasions.
(Dept of Arrears) Alauddin Khalji; Dewan-i-Kohi
56. (c) He assumed the royal title not to save the kingdom
(Dept of Agriculture) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq;
but due to his greed for power.
Dewan-i-Arz (Dept of Military) - Balban.
57. (c) Marathas never had the concept of a United
46. (a) Battle of Khanua (1527, Rana Sanga was defeated

Indian Nation. They are generally criticized for this

by Babar); First Battle of Panipat (1526, Ibrahim Lodhi
was defeated by Babur). Rana Sangha once defeated
58. (a) Alam Khan along with Daulat Khan Lodi invited
Ibrahim Lodhi so R explains A.
Babur to India. In the first battle of Panipat in 1526,
47. (c) Shah Jahan assumed the Mughal throne on 24
Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur.
January 1628 in Agra, a few days after the death of
59. (c) The battle of Dharmat was fought between
Jahangir. He inherited a vast and rich empire; and at
Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh in 1658 for Shahjahan's
mid-century this was perhaps the greatest empire in
throne. Dara Shikoh was defeated by Aurangzeb.
the world, exhibiting a degree of centralized control
60. (c) He was defeated by his nephew, Farrukh Siyyar
rarely matched before. Shah Jahan expanded his
with the help of Sayyid Brothers.
empire in all directions: he annexed the Rajput
61. (c) Ibrahim Adil Shah II was ruler of Bijapur and
kingdoms of Baglana and Bundelkhand to the west,
wrote Kitab-i-Nauras. Amir Khusrau is popularly
and in 1635 he captured the kingdoms of Bijapur and
known as 'Father of Qawali' in India.
Golconda in the Deccan.
62. (d) Qutbud-din Aibak died after a fall from his horse
48. (c) Ramananda (1360-1470) was the first Bhakti
while playing chaugan (polo) in 1210. He was succeeded
saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his message.
by Aram Shah. Qutbud-din Aibak was the founder of
49. (d) Firoz Tughlaq set up a separate department of
first independent Turkish kingdom in Northern India
slaves known as 'Diwan-i-Bandagan'. Mohd Bin
in 1206.
A 22
Topicwise Solved Papers
63. (d) Sangama dynasty was founded by Harihara-I.
Heritage site. It was built by Lokamahadevi, the Queen
Saluva dynasty was founded by Narasimha Saluva
of Vikaramaditya II (A.D.733-745) in about A.D.740 to
by defeating Dev Rayua-II of Sangama dynasty.
commemorate her husbands victory over the
Taluva dynasty was founded by Vira Narasimha and

Pallavas of Kanchipuram.
was succeeded by KD Raya and Achyuta Raya.
77. (b) James-I William Hawkins sent to the court of
64. (c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq founded Tughlaq dynasty
Jahangir and Jahangir provided the farman which
in 1320 AD (CE). Nasiruddin Mahmud was the last
allowed East India Co. to set up a factory at Surat in
ruler of Tughlaq dynasty (1395-1412 AD).
65. (a) Ahmadnagar was founded by Malik Ahmad of
78. (a) Nagarjuna was an early philosopher and was
Nizam Shahi dynasty in 1490. It was annexed by
the founder of the Madhyamika philosophy.
Shahjahan in 1633 into the Mughal Empire.
79. (b) Dhrupad is primarily a spiritual and devotional
66. (b) Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military
music and it uses Sanskrit syllables from mantras.
leader of the Sikhs by Guru Gobind Singh and not
80. (d) All statements are correct, hence the option (d) is
Guru Tegh Bahadur.
67. (b) Angkorvat temple is the first Hindu temple,
81. (b) Guru Nanak Dev was born in 1469. Babur
dedicated to the god Vishnu. Buddhist temple was
defeated Ibrahim Lodi in 1526. When Babur took over
built during the reign of Suryavarman II. It is the
and established the Mughal dynasty, Nanak was
world's largest religious building.
travelling to different parts of India and preaching
68. (d) Indigenous chieftains from Karnataka rose to
Sikhism. Babur once met Guru Nanak during one of
become the founders of a dynasty after a series of
his travel.
internal bickerings with other local chieftains. Vijaya
82. (c) Sankhya yoga believes that self knowledge leads
and Krishna, two brothers were responsible for the
to liberation. Almost all the rest of philosophies of
establishment of this small feudatory state of
India adopted Sankhya as its main base. Sankhya yoga
Vijayanagara Empire. Vijaya ascended the throne
also believes in rebirth. According to Sankhya
under the assumed name of Yaduraja in 1399 A.D. To
darshan each purusha experiences bhoga, apavarga
begin with, this was a very small state containing

and takes birth repeatedly until kaivalya.(moksa).

only parts of Mysore district. Mysore was the capital
83. (c) Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was the hall in
which Akbar held discussions with scholars of
69. (d) In 1612 Sir Thomas Roe visited to Mughal
various religions on every Thursday to debate on
Emperor Jahangir to arrange for a commercial treaty
religious issues raised by Akbar.
that would give the company exclusive rights to reside
84. (b) In medieval India, the designations Mahattara
and build factories in Surat and other areas. In return,
and Pattakila were used for village headmen.
the company offered to provide the Emperor with
85. (b) States such as Champaka (Chamba), Durgara
goods and rarities from the European market.
(Jammu), Trigarta (Jalandhar), Kuluta (Kulu), Kumaon
Jahangir accepted the proposal and the company
and Garhwal managed to remain outside the main
created trading posts in Surat (where a factory was
areas of conflict in the northern plains.
built in 1613), Madras (1639), Bombay (1668), and
86. (b) In the fourteenth and fifteenth century gun
Calcutta (1690).
powder was used for military purpose in India and
70. (c) A is correct but R is wrong as he issued bronze
even artillery in its rudimentary form was known.
coins as the token currency which was a great fiasco.
The Babur's first real expedition took place in India in
71. (c) Bahlol (14511489); Sikandar (14891517);
1519 when he captured Bhera. The Delhi Sultanate's
Ibrahim (15171526)
greatest contribution to Indian fine arts was the
72. (c) Best answer is c as Tukaram (16081650) was a
introduction of Islamic architectural features,
Marathi Bhakti poet and a devotee of Lord Krishna.
including true domes and arches, and the integration
Time period of Jahangir was 1605-1627.
of Indian and Islamic styles of architecture. The
73. (b) Abdul Hamid Lahori (d. 1654) was a traveller
Timurid dynasty was a Sunni Muslim dynasty.
during the period of Shahjahan who later became a
Members of the Timurid dynasty were strongly
court historian of Shahjahan. He wrote the book

influenced by the Persian culture and had established

Padshah Nama also referred as Badshah nama, about
two well-known empires in history, namely the
the reign of Shahjahan.
Timurid Empire (1370-1507) in Persia and Central
74. (c) Vijaya Vittala temple is located at Hampi, the
Asia and the Mughal Empire (1526-1857) in the Indian
capital of Vijayanagar kingdom during the reign of
Krishnadev Raya.
87. (c) Vijayanagara or "city of victory" was the name
75. (b) William Hawkins visited the court of Jahangir
of both a city and an empire. The empire was founded
and received a farman which allowed East India
in the fourteenth century. In its heyday it stretched
Company to set up their first factory at Surat in 1613.
from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme
76. (c) Oldest temple in Hampi (Pattadkal) located on
south of the peninsula, (Krishna-Tungabhadra doab).
southern bank of river Tungabhadra. It is now a World
It was founded by Harihara 1 and Bukka, in 1336.

Chapter 3

In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice7.
Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into
President of the Executive Council was:
two streams and reunites a few miles farther on, thus,
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
forming the islands of Srirangapattanam,
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Sivasamudram and Srirangam?
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(a) Cauvery
(b) Tungabhadra
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Krishna
(d) Godavari
Hooghly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
Bengal by:
(a) the Portuguese
(b) the French
List I
(c) the Danish
(d) the British
(A) Governor-General of Presidency of Fort William
The 'Modi script' was employed in the documents of
in Bengal (under Regulating Act, 1773)
(B) Governor-General of India (under Charter Act,
(a) Wodeyars
(b) Zamorins
(c) Hoysalas
(d) Marathas
Examine the map given below:

(C) Governor-General and Viceroy of India
(under Indian Council Act, 1858)
(D) Governor-General and Crown Representative
(under Government of India Act, 1935)
List II
1. Archibald Percival Wavell, Viscount and Earl
2. James Andrew Broun-Ramsay, Earl and
Marquess of Dalhousie
3. Charles Cornwallis 2nd Earl and first Marquess
of Cornwallis
4. Gilbert John Elliot-Murray-Kynynmound, Earl of
5. Louis Mountbatten, Earl Mountbatten of Burma
The places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 were respectively the
(a) A-3; B-2; C-4 ;D-1 (b) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
seats of powers of the:
(c) A-2; B-5; C-3; D-1 (d) A-2; B-4; C-5; D-3
(a) Scindias, Holkars, Gaekwads and Bhonsles
His principle forte was social and religious reform.
(b) Holkars, Scindias, Gaekwads and Bhonsles
He relied upon legislation to do away with social ills
(c) Gaekwads, Bhonsles, Scindias and Holkars
and work unceasingly for the eradication of child
(d) Scindias, Holkars, Bhonsles and Gaekwads
marriage and the purdah system. To encourage
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
consideration of social problems on a national scale,
(a) Battle of BuxarMir Jafar vs. Clive
he inaugurated the Indian National Social Conference,
(b) Battle of WandiwashFrench vs. East India
which for many years met for its annual session
alongside the Indian National Congress.
(c) Battle of ChilianwalaDalhousie vs. Marathas
(d) Battle of KhardaNizam vs. East India Company
The reference in this passage is to:

The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
to the tribal people by:
(b) Behramji Merwanji Malabari
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Thakkar Bappa
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
A 24
Topicwise Solved Papers
10. The following advertisement.
(a) A 1; B 3; C 4; D 2
(b) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
(c) A 1; B 2; C 3; D 4
(d) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 2
17. The educated middle class in India:
(a) opposed the revolt of 1857
(b) supported the revolt of 1857
(c) remained neutral to the revolt of 1857
(d) fought against native rulers
18. The paintings of Abanindranath Tagore are classified
Appeared in the Times of India dated 7th August:
(a) realistic
(b) socialistic
(a) 1931
(b) 1929

(c) revivalistic
(d) impressionistic
(c) 1921
(d) 1896
19. There was no independent development of industries
11. Who among the following was the first European to
in India during British rule because of the:
initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels of
(a) absence of heavy industries
Indian princes with a view to acquire territories?
(b) scarcity of foreign capital
(c) scarcity of natural resources
(a) Clive
(b) Dupleix
(d) preference of the rich to invest in land
(c) Albuquerque
(d) Warren Hastings
20. The first feature film (talkie) to be produced in India
12. Consider the following landmarks in Indian
(a) Hatimtai
(b) Alam Ara
1. Hindu College, Calcutta
(c) Pundalik
(d) Raja Harishchandra
2. University of Calcutta
21. The Governor-General who followed a spirited
3. Adam's Report
"Forward" policy towards Afghanistan was: [1999]
4. Wood's Despatch
(a) Minto
(b) Dufferin
The correct chronological order of these landmarks
(c) Elgin
(d) Lytton
22. At a time when empires in Europe were crumbling
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 1, 4, 3, 2

before the might of Napoleon, which one of the

(c) 3, 1,4, 2
(d) 3, 2, 4, 1
following Governors-General kept the British flag
13. Which one of the following is an important historical
flying high in India?
novel written during the latter half of the nineteenth
(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Hastings
(a) Rast Goftar
(b) Durgesh Nandini
23. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(c) Maratha
(d) Nibandhamala
14. Who among the following was associated with
(a) 'Neel Darpan' was a play based on the exploitation
suppression of thugs?
of the Indigo farmers
(a) General Henry Prendergast
(b) The author of the play 'Ghashiram Kotwal's is
(b) Captain Sleeman
Vijay Tendulkar
(c) Alexander Burres
(c) The play 'Navann' by Nabin Chandra Das was
(d) Captain Robert Pemberton
based on the famine of Bengal
15. What is the correct chronological sequence of the
(d) Urdu theatre used to depend heavily on Parsi
1. Wood's Education Despatch
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
2. Macaulay's minute on education
using the codes given below the lists :
3. The Sargent Education Report
List-I (Books)
List-II (Authors)

4. Indian Education (Hunter Commission)

A. The First Indian
1. Rabindranath Tagore
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
War of Independence
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4
B. Anand Math
2. Sri Aurobindo
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 4, 3, 1, 3
C. Life Divine
3. Bankim Chandra
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
D. Sadhana
4. Vinayak Damodar
using the codes given below the lists:
A. Moplah revolt
1. Kerala
(a) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 1
B. Pabna revolt
2. Bihar
(b) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 2
C. Eka movement
3. Bengal
(c) A 4; B 3; C 1; D 2
D. Birsa Munda revolt 4. Awadh
(d) A 3; B 4; C 2; D 1
Modern History
A 25
25. Consider the following events:
3. Under Keshab Chandra Sen, the Brahmo Samaj
1. Indigo Revolt
2. Santhal Rebellion
campaigned for women's education
3. Deccan Riot

4. Mutiny of the Sepoys

4. Vinoba Bhave founded the Sarvodya Samaj to
The correct chronological sequence of these events is:
work among refugees
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 4, 2, 3, 1
Which of these statements are correct?
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
using the codes given below the lists:
33. Who amongst the following Englishmen, first
List-I (Year)
List-II (Event)
translated Bhagavad-Gita into English?
A. 1775
1. First Anglo-Burmese War
B. 1780
2. First Anglo-Afghan War
(a) William Jones
C. 1824
3. First Anglo-Maratha War
(b) Charles Wilkins
D. 1838
4. Second Anglo-Mysore War
(c) Alexander Cunningham
(d) John Marshall
(a) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 1
34. Which one of the following submitted in 1875 a
(b) A 4; B 3; C 1; D 2
petition to the House of Commons demanding India's
(c) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 2
direct representation in the British parliament?
(d) A 3; B 4; C 2; D 1
27. The last major extension of British Indian territory
(a) The Deccan Association

took place during the time of :

(b) The Indian Association
(a) Dufferin
(b) Dalhousie
(c) The Madras Mahajan Sabha
(c) Lytton
(d) Curzon
(d) The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
28. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
35. With which one of the following mountain tribes did
the British first come into contact with after the grant
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
of Diwani in the year 1765?
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(a) Garos
(b) Khasis
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the
(c) Kukis
(d) Tipperahs
56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French
36. Match List-I (Acts of Colonial Government of India)
colonial rule till 1954
with List-II (Provisions) and select the correct answer
29. Who among the following Indian rulers established
using the codes given below the lists:
embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
(Acts of Colonial
(a) Haider Ali
(b) Mir Qasim
Government of India)
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Tipu Sultan
A. Charter Act, 1813 1. Set up a Board of Control
30. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
in Britain to fully regulate

the East India
(a) India's first technicolour film Jhansi ki Rani
B. Regulating Act
2. Company's trade monopoly
(b) India's first 3-D film My dear Kuttichathan
in India was ended
(c) India's first insured film Taal
C. Act of 1858
3. The power to govern was
(d) India's first actress to win the Bharat Ratna
transferred from the East
Meena Kumari
India Company to the
31. Under the Permanent Settlement, 1893, the Zamindars
British Crown
are required to issue pattas to the farmers which were
D. Pitt's India Act
4. The Company's directors
not issued by many of the Zamindars. The reason was:
were asked to present to the
British government all
(a) the Zamindars were trusted by the farmers
correspondence and
(b) there was no officials check upon the Zamindars
documents pertaining to
(c) it was the responsibility of the British
the administration of the
(d) the farmers were not interested in getting pattas
32. Consider the following statements:
(a) A 2; B 4; C 3; D 1
1. Arya Samaj was founded in 1835
(b) A 1; B 3; C 4; D 2
2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed the appeal of Arya Samaj
to the authority of Vedas in support of its social
(c) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
reform programme
(d) A 1; B 4; C 3; D 2
A 26

Topicwise Solved Papers

37. Which one of the following Acts of British India
(b) The designation of the supreme authority was to
strengthened the Viceroy's authority over his
be changed as the Governor-General of India in
Executive Council by substituting "Portfolio" or
departmental system for corporate functioning?
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on
Governor-General in Council
(a) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
in the Governor-General's Council
(c) Indian Council Act, 1892
44. With reference to colonial rule in India, what was
(d) Indian Council Act, 1909
sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883?
38. During the colonial period in India, what was the
(a) To bring Indians and Europeans at par as far as
purpose of the Whitley Commission?
the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned
(a) To review the fitness of India for further political
(b) To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of
the native press as it was perceived to be hostile
to colonial rulers
(b) To report on existing conditions of labour and to
(c) To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil
make recommendations
service examinations by conducting them in
(c) To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India
(d) To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil
(d) To allow native Indians to posses arms by
Services in India
amending the Arms Act
39. With reference to the entry of European powers into
45. In India, the first Bank of limited liability managed by
India, which one of the following statements is not
Indians and founded in 1881 was:

(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank
(b) The English opened their first factory in South
(c) Punjab National Bank
India at Masulipatam
(d) Punjab and Sind Bank
(c) In Eastern India, the English Company opened its
46. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
first factory in Orissa in 1633
List-I (Period)
(d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French
1. AD 176769
First Anglo-Maratha War
occupied Madras in 1746
2. AD 179092
Third Mysore War
40. In India, among the following locations, the Dutch
3. AD 182426
First Anglo-Burmese War
established their earliest factory at:
4. AD 184546
Second Sikh War
(a) Surat
(b) Pulicat
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) Cochin
(d) Cassimbazar
41. The aim of education as stated by the Wood's Despatch
of 1854 was:
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(a) the creation of employment opportunities for
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
native Indians

47. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly

(b) the spread of western culture in India
(c) the promotion of literacy among the people using
(a) Pitt's India Act
: Warren Hastings
English medium
(b) Doctrine of Lapse
: Dalhousie
(d) the introduction of scientific research and
(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon
rationalism in the traditional Indian education
(d) Ilbert Bill
: Ripon
42. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
48. Consider the following Viceroys of India during the
British rule:
(a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of
1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin
revenue farming in Bengal
Which one of the following is the correct chronological
(b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries
order of their tenure?
to manufacture cannons at Lahore
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid's Elements
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
of Geometry' translated into Sanskrit
49. Consider the following statements:
(d) Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the
1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali
construction of the idol of Goddess Sharda in the
defeated Ibrahim Lodi
Shringeri temple
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo-Mysore
43. Which one of the following provisions was not made

in the Charter Act of 1833 ?
3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English
(a) The trading activities of the East India Company
for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah in the
were to be abolished
Battle of Plassey
Modern History
A 27
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Battle of WandiwashBattle of BuxarBattle of
AmburBattle of Plassey
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(b) Battle of AmburBattle of PlasseyBattle of
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
WandiwashBattle of Buxar
50. Which one of the fol owing places did Kunwar Singh,
(c) Battle of WandiwashBattle of PlasseyBattle of
a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857 belong to ?
AmburBattle of Buxar
(d) Battle of AmburBattle of BuxarBattle of
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
WandiwashBattle of Plassey
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttar Pradesh
57. Who among the following was a proponent of
51. Which one of the following territories was not affected
Fabianism as a movement?
by the Revolt of 1857 ?
(a) Annie Besant
(a) Jhansi
(b) Chittor
(b) A.O. Hume
(c) Jagdishpur
(d) Lucknow
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt

52. Consider the following statements:

(d) R. Palme Dutt
1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune
58. Consider the following statements:
School at Calcutta with the main aim of
1. The Charter Act, 1853 abolished East India
encouraging education for women.
Company monopoly of Indian trade.
2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first
2. Under the Government of India Act, 1858 the
graduate of the Calcutta University.
British Parliament abolished the rule of East India
3. Keshav Chandra Sen's campaign against Sati led
Company and undertook the responsibility of
to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the
ruling India directly.
Governor General.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
59. Which one of the following revolts was made famous
by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
53. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular
(a) Bhil uprising
Press Act?
(b) Rangpur and Dinapur uprising
(a) Lord Dufferin
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Bishnupur and Birbhum rebellion
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Hardinge
(d) Sanyasi rebellion

54. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

60. With reference to the revolt of the year who of the
following was betrayed by friend captured and put
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India's
to death by the British?
(a) Nana Sahib
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort
(b) Kunwar Singh
Williams in the modern Kochi.
(c) Khan Bahadur Khan
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before
(d) Tatya Tope
the Portuguese took over.
61. Who was the Governor-General of India during the
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of a
Sepoy Mutiny?
British colony.
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
55. Consider the following statements:
(c) Lord Hardings
(d) Lord Lytton
62. Who among the following started the newspaper
1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General
Shome Prakash?
who established a regular police force in India on
(a) Dayanand Saraswati
the British pattern.
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
the Regulating Act, 1773.
(d) Surendranath Banerjee
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year
63. The ruler of which one of the following States was
removed from power by the British on the pretext of
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Awadh
(b) Jhansi
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Nagpur
(d) Satara
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Who among the following Europeans were the last to
56. Which one of the following is the correct chronological
come to pre-independence India as traders? [2007]
order of the battles fought in India in the 18th Century?
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
A 28
Topicwise Solved Papers
65. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Robert Clive was the first Governor-General of
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. William Bentinck was the first Governor-General
72. In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff,
of India.
who of the following established Hindu College at
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
66. Which one of the following was the first fort

(c) Keshab Chandra Sen

constructed by the British in India?
(d) Raja Rammohan Roy
(a) Fort William
(b) Fort St George
73. Consider the following statements:
(c) Fort St David
(d) Fort St Angelo
1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between
67. Who among the following wrote the book
Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
2. The first Export Processing Zone in India was set
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
up in Kandla.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Pandita Rambai
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Consider the following statements:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the
74. Who among the following Governor Generals created
Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly
to be known as the Indian Civil Service ?
constituency as a Member of Parliament.
(a) Warren Hastings (b) Wellesley
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India
(c) Cornwallis
(d) William Bentinck
assumed the office in the year 1977.
75. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

deprived of his judicial powers and made the

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
collecting agent only. What was the reason for such a
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3
regulation ?
69. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector's
using the code given below the Lists:
efficiency of revenue collection would enormously
List-I (Author)
List-II (Work)
increase without the burden of additional work
A. Bankimchandra
1. Shatranj ke Khilari
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that judicial power should
B. Dinabandhu Mitra 2. Debi Chaudhurani
compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while
C. Premchand
3. Nil-Darpan
Indians can be given the job of revenue collection
4. Chandrakanta
in the districts
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of
(a) A-2; B-4; C-1
(b) A-3; B-4; C-2
power concentrated in the District Collector and
(c) A-2; B-3; C-1
(d) A-3; B-1; C-4
felt that such absolute power was undesirable in
70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
one person
using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Person)
List-II (Position)
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge
A. Nagendra Singh 1. Chief Election
of India and a good training in law and Lord
Commissioner of India

Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be

B. A. N. Ray
2. President, International
only a revenue collector
Court of Justice
76. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah
C. R. K. Trivedi
3. Chief Justice of India
Abdali to invade India and fight the third battle of
D. Ashok Desai
4. Attorney General of
Panipat ?
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas
of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore
(a) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3 (b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
(b) The frustrated governor of Jalandhar Adina Beg
(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 (d) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
Khan invited him to invade Punjab
71. Consider the following statements:
(c) He wanted to punish Mughal administration for
1. Justice V R Krishna Iyer was a Chief Justice of
non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal
(Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur)
2. Justice V R Krishna Iyer is considered as one of
(d) He wanted to annex the fertile plains of Punjab
the initiator of public interest litigation (PIL) in
up to the borders of Delhi in his kingdom
the Indian judicial system.
Modern History
A 29
77. With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry),
(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House
consider the following statements :
of Commons
1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry
(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the
were the Portuguese.
Imperial Judiciary

2. The second European power to occupy

(c) To facilitate a discussion on Indias Independence
Pondicherry were the French.
in the British Parliament
3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
the British Parliament
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
83. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s)
of the Government of India Act, 1919 ?
[2012 - I]
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive
78. The "Instrument of Instructions" contained in the
government of the provinces
Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates
in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as :
for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre
(a) Fundamental Rights
to the provinces
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after
84. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the
the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord
following statements :
[2012 - I]
Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the
traced to which of the following provisions ?
[2011 - I]

2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.

(a) Making Zamindars position stronger Vis-Vis the
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before
being taxed.
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
(c) Making judicial system more efficient
85. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
regarding Brahmo Samaj?
[2012 - I]
80. Which amongst the following provided a common
1. It opposed idolatry.
factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for
[2011 - I]
interpreting the religious texts.
(a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are
taxation of tribal products
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
tribal areas
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
86. Consider the following :
[2012 - I]
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order
1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature
of the tribal communities
of the soil and the quality of crops
81. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India,

2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare

Home Charges formed an important part of drain of
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
wealth from India. Which of the following funds
Which of the above was/were introduced into India
constituted Home Charges ?
by the English?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
1. Funds used to support the India office in London.
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British
87. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the
personnel engaged in India.
Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the
[2013 - I]
[2011 - I]
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the Muslim League
82. What was the purpose with which Sir William
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
Wedderburn and W.S. Caine had set up the Indian
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in
Parliamentary Committee in 1893 ?
[2011 - I]
constitutional matters
A 30
Topicwise Solved Papers
88. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in
94. With reference to Indian history, which of the
Bengal was for
[2013 - I]
following is/are the essential element/elements of the
(a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from
feudal system?

one-half of the crop to one-third

1. A very strong centralized political authority and
(b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they
a very weak provincial or local political authority
were the actual cultivators of the land
2. Emergence of administrative structure based on
(c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end
control and possession of land
of serfdom
3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the
(d) writing off all peasant debts
feudal lord and his overlord
89. Annie Besant was
[2013 - I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
the founder of the Theosophical Society
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
once the President of the Indian National Congress
95. Who of the following was/were economic critic/ critics
Select the correct statement/statements using the codes
of colonialism in India?
given below.
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. G. Subramania Iyer
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. R. C. Dutt
90. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the [2013 - I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
by the Indians
(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and
96. With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider
magazines published in Indian languages
the following statements:
(c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the
1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and
Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the
evasion of taxes.
2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of
(d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
91. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to [2014 - I]
3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities
(a) solve the problem of minorities in India
and oppressed classes.
(b) give effect to the Independence Bill
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(c) delimit the boundaries between India and
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(e) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
(d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal
97. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
92. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905
lasted until
[2014 - I]
(a) the separation of power between the judiciary
and the legislature
(a) the First World War when Indian troops were
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial
needed by the British and the partition was
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and
(b) King George V abrogated Curzons Act at the
the Viceroy
Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
(d) None of the above

(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience

98. Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore
coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?
(d) the Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal
(a) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai
became East Pakistan
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
93. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victorias
(c) K. Kamaraj
Proclamation (1858)?
[2014 - I]
(d) Annie Besant
1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
99. Consider the following statements
2. To place the Indian administration under the
1. The first woman President of the Indian National
British Crown
Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
3. To regulate East India Companys trade with
2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National
Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Modern History
A 31
(a) C. Rajagopalachari was the Head of the
13. (b) Durgesh Nandini was written by Bankim
Department of Education and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was
Chandra Chatterjee in 1862-1864 in Bangla.

the Head of the Department of Food & Agriculture in

14. (b) Captain William Sleeman was appointed by Lord
the Executive Council.
William Bentick (1828-35) to suppress the thugs.
(d) It was mainly used in maintaining the revenue
15. (a) Woods Despatch (Magna Carta of English
and administrative records.
education) 1854; Macaulays Minute on Education 4.
(a) Scindias of Gwalior; Holkars of Indore; Gaekwads
1835; Sargent Education Report 1944; Hunter
of Baroda; Bhonsles of Nagpur.
Commission 1882-83
(b) Battle of Wandiwash in 1960 and French were
16. (a) Moplah revolt in Malabar in Kerala in 1921;
finally defeated by English. Battle of Buxar (1764) Pabna revolt in East Bengal (now in Bangladesh) in
English under Munro defeated Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud1873; Eka movement in 1921-22 in districts of UP;
daula and Shah Alam II
Birsa Munda revolt in 1899 in Ranchi, Bihar (But now
(b) Adivasi means primitive people.
part of Jharkhand).
(a) River Cauvery has formed three big islands on
17. (c) The revolt did not spread to all parts of the
her journey from Talacauvery to join the Bay of Bengal
country. Nor was it supported by all groups and
Sea. The islands are Srirangapattnam, Shivasamudram
sections of the Indian society. South and West India
in Karnataka and Srirangam in Tamil Nadu. All the
remained largely outside the fold of the revolt. Many
three islands are pilgrimage centers with temples
Indian rulers refused to help the rebels and some were
dedicated to Lord Ranganatha.
openly hostile to the rebels and helped the British in
(a) The Earl Cornwallis took office on 12 September
suppressing the revolt. The middle and upper classes

1786 and left office on 28 October 1793. The Marquess

and the modern educated Indians also did not support
Cornwallis took office on 30 July 1805 and left office
the revolt.
on 5 October 1805.
18. (c) Abanindranath Tagore is known as the leader of
James Andrew Broun-Ramsay, 1st Marquess of
the Revivalist Movement in the field of modern Indian
Dalhousie served as Governor-General of India from
painting in Bengal.
1848 to 1856.
Lord Mountbatten was the last Viceroy of India (1947)
19. (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru emphasized on setting up of
and the first Governor-General of the independent
heavy industries in the second five year plan.
Dominion of India (1947-48).
20. (b) Alam Ara was the first Indian sound film directed
The Viscount Wavell tenure is 1 October 1943 - 21
by Ardeshir Irani. The first Indian talkie was so
February 1947.
popular that police aid had to be summoned to control
(c) Ranade worked for social reform in the areas of
the crowds.
child marriage, widow remarriage, and women's
21. (d) Lord Lytton (1876-80)
rights. He was a distinguished Indian scholar, social
22. (d) Lord Hastings (1813-23)
reformer and author.
23. (c) Ghashiram Kotwal is a Marathi play written by
10. (d) This was the first advertisement of Indian cinema
playwright Vijay Tendulkar in 1972. Neel Darpan, the
in Times of India dated 7th August, 1896.
Mirror of Indigo; translated as Neel Darpan; or, the
11. (b) He succeeded Dumas as the French governor of
Indigo Planting Mirror is a Bengali play written by
Pondicherry. His ambition now was to acquire for
Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858-1859. The play was
France vast territories in India, and for this purpose
essential to Neel bidroha, or Indigo Revolt.
he entered into relations with the native princes, and
24. (a) The Life Divine is Sri Aurobindos major
adopted a style of oriental splendour in his dress and
philosophical opus. It combines a synthesis of western

surroundings. He built an army of native troops,

thought and eastern spirituality with Sri Aurobindos
called sepoys, who were trained as infantrymen men
own original insights, covering topics such as the
in his service also included the famous Hyder Ali of
nature of the Divine (the Absolute, Brahman), how
Mysore. Colonial administrator and governor-general
the creation came about, the evolution of
of the French territories in India, who nearly realized
consciousness and the cosmos, the spiritual path, and
his dream of establishing a French empire in India.
12. (a) Hindu College, Calcutta - 1817; University of
human evolutionary-spiritual destiny.
Calcutta - 1858; Adams Report 1835-38; Woods
25. (a) Indigo revolt 1860; Santhal rebellion 1855-56;
Despatch - 1854
Deccan riot 1875
A 32
Topicwise Solved Papers
26. (c) First Anglo-Burmese War Burmese defeated,
39. (a) The Portuguese captured Goa from rulers of
Treaty of Yandobo (1826); First Anglo-Afghan War
Bijapur in 1510 and not in 1499.
Afghan defeated (1838); First Anglo-Maratha War
40. (b) Best answer is b. As Dutch established their first
Britishers were defeated, Treaty of Salbai (1782);
factory at Masulipatam (AP) in 1605. Their second
Second Anglo-Mysore War Haider Ali died and
factory was established at Pulicat in 1610.
succeeded by Tipu Sultan, Treaty of Mangalore.
41. (d) Wood's Despatch of 1854 are considered as the
27. (b) The last major extension of British Indian
Magna Carta of English education in India. Statement
Territory took place during Dalhousie under his
3 is incorrect as it recommended English as the
Doctrine of Lapse (Jhansi, Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur,
medium of instructions for higher studies and
Udaipur and Nagpur) and on the basis of
vernaculars at school level.
misgovernance (Awadh).
42. (a) Murshid Quli Khan introduced revenue farming
28. (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli was under Portuguese
in Bengal.
colonial rule till 1954 and not French colonial rule.

43. (d) Charter Act of 1833 provides for the appointment

29. (d) Tipu Sultan established embassies in France,
of a law member but not necessarily an Indian.
Turkey and Egypt on modern lines.
44. (a) Ilbert Bill was introduced during the viceroyality
30. (d) Meena Kumari is not the recipient of Bharat
of Lord Rippon.
Ratna. Indira Gandhi was the first woman recipient
45. (b) The first entirely Indian joint stock bank was the
of this award.
Oudh Commercial Bank, established in 1881 in
31. (b) John Shore planned Permanent Settlement and it
Faizabad. It col apsed in 1958. The next was the Punjab
was introduced in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis.
National Bank was established in Lahore in 1895,
Zamindars were made the owners of the land and the
which has survived to the present and is now one of
British got a fixed share of 10/11th of the revenue
the largest banks in India.
collected by the zamindars.
32. (d) Arya Samaj was founded in 1875 (not 1835) at
46. (d) First Anglo-Maratha War - 1775-1782; First
Anglo - Sikh War - 1845-1846; Second Anglo - Sikh
Bombay by Dayananda Saraswati. Though Lala
Lajpat Rai was follower of Arya Samaj but never
War - 1848-1849;
opposed it.
47. (c) Vernacular Press Act was passed by Lord Lytton
33. (b) Charles Wilkins was a member of Asiatic Society
in 1878 and it was repealed by Ripon in 1882.
of Bengal founded by William Jones. He translated
48. (a) Lord Curzon (1899-1905); Lord Chelmsford (1916Bhagavad Gita into English in 1794.
1921); Lord Hardinge (1910-1916); Lord Irwin (192634. (b) The Indian Association of Calcutta was founded
in 1876 Indian League was established in 1875, by
49. (b) In the first Battle of Panipat (1526), Ibrahim Lodi
young nationalists of Bengal led by S.N. Banerjee and
was defeated by Babur. In the Third Battle of Panipat
Anand Mohan Bose.
(1761), Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Marathas. Tipu
35. (a) In the later part of the 18th century, the British
Sultan was killed in the fourth Anglo-Mysore War

East India Company started establishing contact with

50. (a) Kunwar Singh belonged to a royal Uj aini house
the Garos, after acquiring the Diwani of Bengal from
of Jagdispur, currently a part of Bhojpur district, Bihar
the Mughal emperor. The British won over all the
semi-independent estates that bordered the Garo
51. (b) Leader: Jhansi - Rani Laxmibai; Lucknow - Begum
Hills. The British won over all the semi-independent
Hazrat Mehal; Jagdishpur (Bihar)- Kunwar Singh
estates that bordered the Garo Hills. But the internal
52. (b) Statement 3 is incorrect as Raja Ram Mohan Roy's
administration of the estates was not disturbed. They
campaign against Sati led to the enactment of Bengal
were given the responsibility of keeping the power of
Regulation Act of 1829 to ban Sati by Governorthe Garos in check, as in the time of the Mughals.
General William Bentick. Bankim Chandra
Hence, the enmity between the Garos and the
Chattopadhyay and Gattunath Bose were the first
zaminders grew stronger and the British had to
graduates of the Calcutta University on Jan 30, 1858.
finally intervene. Finally, this chaos ended when the
JED Bethune founded the Bethune School in Calcutta
Garo Hills were annexed in 1873.
in 1849. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was also
36. (a) Regulating Act was passed in 1773. Pitts India
associated with this. That's why the best possible
Act was passed in 1784.
answer here is option (b).
37. (a) The Indian Councils Act of 1861 transformed the
53. (b) Lord Lytton brought Vernacular Press Act came
viceroy's Executive Council into a miniature cabinet
in to force in 1878. It was repealed by Lord Ripon in
run on the portfolio system, and each of the five
ordinary members was placed in charge of a distinct
54. (*) No statement is correct. Modern Kochi became a
department of Calcutta's government.
part of the British colony after being a Dutch colony.
38. (b) Whitley chaired the Royal Commission on
Kochi was first a Portuguese colony. Fort Williams
Labour in India, which reported in 1931.

was built in Calcutta (not in Kochi) by the English.

Modern History
A 33
55. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as Lord Curzon was the
70. (b) Ashok Desai was Attorney General of India
first Governor General who established a regular
(1996-98); Nagendra Singh was President of
police force in India on the British pattern. A Supreme
International Court of Justice (1985-88); AN Ray was
Court was established at Fort Williams by the
CJI (1973-77); RK Trivedi was Chief Election
Regulating Act, 1773 with jurisdiction over Bengal,
Commissioner (1982-85)
Bihar and Orissa.
71. (b) Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice V. R. Krishna
56. (b) Battle of Ambur-1749, Battle of Plassey-1757,
Iyer were among the first judges to admit PIL's in
Battle of Wandiwash-1760, Battle of Buxar-1764
their courts.
57. (a) The Fabian Society is a British socialist
72. (d) The foundation of Hindu College at Calcutta was
intellectual movement best known for its initial
laid on January 20, 1817.
ground-breaking work beginning in the late 19th
73. (c) The first electric telegraph line in India was
century and then up to World War I. Fabianism
started between Kolkata and Diamond Harbour in
focused on the advancement of socialist ideas through
1850 and first export zone of India set up in Kandla in
gradual influence and patiently insinuating socialist
ideology into intellectual circles and groups with
74. (c) Lord Cornwallis (1786-93) was the first to bring
58. (b) The Charter Act, 1813 (not 1853) abolished East
into existence and organize the civil services.
India Company monopoly of Indian trade.
75. (c) The judicial reforms undertaken by Lord
59. (d) Anand Math is a Bengali novel, written by
Cornwallis laid a strong foundation in the British
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and published in 1882.
Indian administrative system in the year 1793. The
Set in the background of the Sanyasi Rebellion in the
judicial reforms of Cornwallis were documented in

late 18th century.

the famous Cornwallis Code. However the new
60. (d) The British forces had failed to subdue him for
judicial reforms of Lord Cornwallis were based on
over a year. He was however betrayed into the hands
the principle of Separation of Powers. Cornwallis at
of the British by his trusted friend, Man Singh, while
first sought to separate the revenue administration
asleep in his camp in the Paron forest. He was
from the administration of justice. The collector used
captured on 7 April 1859 by a detachment of native
to be the head of the Revenue Department in a district
infantry from British General Richard John Meade's
and also enjoyed extensive judicial and magisterial
troops led to him by Singh and escorted to Shivpuri
powers. However Cornwallis wanted Separation of
where he was tried by a military court.
Power and the Cornwallis Code divested the collector
61. (a) Revolt of 1857 is referred as Sepoy Mutiny by
of all the judicial and the magisterial powers. Thus
many historians. After the mutiny Lord Canning was
the Collectors were given only the power of the
made the Viceroy and power was transferred from
revenue administration according to the Cornwallis
the East India Company to the British crown by Act
Code. A new class of officer called the District Judge
of 1858.
was created to preside over the district Civil Court.
62. (b) It was started by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
The district judge was also given the magisterial and
63. (a) Other three states were annexed under the
the police function.
Doctrine of Lapse by Lord Dalhousie. But doctrine of
76. (a) To avenge their expulsion of Timur Shah, Ahmad
Lapse was not applicable on Awadh as Nawab Wazid
Shah Abdali invaded India for the fifth time in Oct.
Ali Shah had many children. Therefore, Dalhousie
1759, and finally conquered Punjab.
annexed Awadh on the pretext of misgovernance in
77. (c) The first European power to occupy Pondicherry
1856. Jhansi (1853), Nagpur (1854) and Satara (1848)
(Mahe in the Malabar, Yanam in Coromandal and
64. (c) Portuguese (1498); Dutch (1602); English (1599);
Karikal in Tamil Nadu) were the French in 1739.

French (1664)
78. (b) Instrument of instructions under Government of
65. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as Warren Hastings was
India Act 1935 were instructions issued to Governors
the first governor-general of Bengal.
of the colonies or Governor in general by British
66. (c) Fort William, Calcutta (1781); Fort St George,
government. Under the draft constitution these
Chennai (1644); Fort St David, Madras(1670); Fort St
instructions were proposed to issue directives to state
Angelo, Kerala (1505) but by the Portuguese.
and central governments and adopted under
67. (b) It was written in protest of the evil of polygamy.
Directive Principles of State policies.
Bahu (many or more than one)- bivah (marriage)
79. (d) That the reforms of Cornwallis had increased the
meaning more than one marriage.
litigation and the main reason for this was the Court
68. (d) Terms of Jawahar Lal Nehru (1947-52; 1952-57;
Fee was removed and now every body could drag
1957-62; 1962-64). He died in 1964 during his 4th
anybody to courts. The extension to right of appeal
Prime-ministerial term. He represented Phulpur
was also one of the reasons. Court fees were abolished
constituency in UP. The first non-congress PM of India
by Cornwallis. Lawyers were to prescribe their fees.
was Morarji Desai (Janta Party) from 1977-1979.
Ordinary people could sue the Government servants
69. (c)
(Indians) if they committed mistakes. Inhuman
A 34
Topicwise Solved Papers
punishments such as cutting limbs, cutting nose and
89. (c) Annie Besant had formed and led the Home Rule
ears were abolished. These are some of the reasons
Movement as she was influenced by the Irish Home
that led to increased litigation. The reasons given in
Rule League. She also became the President of Indian
the options dont seem to fit in the criteria of the
National Congress in 1917. But she was not the founder
reforms of Cornwallis.
of the Theosophical Society; rather she was the second
80. (d) The first option is rejected because it used the
President of the society. The founder was Henry Steel

term tribal products. The second option is rejected

because NOT in all areas, the impact of foreign
90. (c) Ilbert bill exempted British subjects from trial
missionaries was seen. The third option is also NOT
by Indian magistrates and in cases involving death
correct, because not in all areas saw the rise of money
or transportation they could only be tried by a high
lenders. The fourth option is correct and it includes
court. This proposal provoked furious protests by the
everything what happened in that era. The most
common thing was the foreign interference in the
91. (c) The Radcliffe Line is a boundary demarcation line
indigenous world of their own which dismantled the
between India and Pakistan upon the Partition of
structure that existed since centuries.
India. The Radcliffe Line was named after its architect,
81. (d) It is clear from Economic History of India by RC
Sir Cyril Radcliffe.
92. (b) In 1911 King George V visited India. A durbarwas
The Indian Tribute whether weighted in the scales
held at Delhi and The capital of India was transferred
of justice or viewed in the light of our interest, will be
from Calcutta to Delhi also Partition of Bengal was
found to be at variance with humanity, with the
commonsense and with the received maxims of
93. (a) The object/objects of Queen Victoria's
economical science. It would be true wisdom then to
Proclamation (1858) were to disclaim any intention
provide for the future payment of such of the Home
to annex Indian States as the announcement reversed
Charges of the Indian Government as really from the
Lord Dalhousie's pre-war policy of political unification
tribute out of Indian Exchequer. These charges would
through princely state annexation.It was also to place
be probably found to be the dividends on East India
the Indian administration under the British Crown
Stock, interest in Home debt, the salaries of the officers,
Therefore, statement 1 & 2 are correct. However it
establishments of the and building connected with
was not to regulate East India Company's trade with

the Home Department of Indian Government,

India so statement 3 is wrong.
furlough and retired pay to members of the Indian
94. (b) A person became a vassal by pledging political
Military and Civil Services when at Home, Charges of
allegiance and providing military, political, and
all descriptions paid in this country connected with
financial service to a lord. A lord possessed complete
the British troops serving in India and portion of the
sovereignty over land or acted in the service of another
cost of transporting the British troops to and from
sovereign, usually a king. If a lord acted in the service
of a king, the lord was considered a vassal of the king.
82. (a) On 28 December 1885, the Indian National
Congress was founded at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit
As part of the feudal agreement, the lord promised to
College in Bombay, with 72 delegates in attendance.
protect the vassal and provided the vassal with a plot
A. O. Hume assumed office as the General Secretary.
of land. This land could be passed on to the vassal's
Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee of Calcutta was elected
heirs, giving the vassal tenure over the land.
President. The additional British Members were
95. (d) Dadabhai Naoroji, R. C. Dutt, Ranade, Gokhale,
William Wedderburn and Justice John Jardine. All
G. Subramania Iyer, were among those who grounded
others were the Hindus from Calcutta and Madras
Indian nationalism firmly on the foundation of antiPresidency. Wedderburn had entered the parliament
imperialism by fashioning the world's first economic
as a liberal member in 1893 and had sought to voice
critique of colonialism, before Hobson and Lenin.
Indias grievances within the house.
96. (d) All statements are wrong.
83. (c) 1st and 3rd are correct.
97. (b) The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms which
84. (b) Ryotwari settlement, the rent was paid directly
became the Government of India Act in 1919 clearly
by the peasants to the Government and the
defined the jurisdiction of the central and provincial
Government gave pattas to the Ryots.
85. (b) Statements 1 & 2 are correct.

98. (b) C. Rajagopalachari organized a march from

86. (d) None of the above.
Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast
87. (c) The member of the constituent assembly were
to break the salt law in April 1930.
elected indirectly by the members of the individual
99. (b) Annie Besant was the first woman President of
provincial legislative assemblies.
Indian National Congress. She presided over the 1917
88. (a) The Tebhaga movement is a peasant movement
Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress.
in the history of Bengal and India. It was a movement
Badruddin Tyabji was the "First Muslim" to become
of the peasants who demanded two-third share of
the "President of Indian National Congress".
their produce for themselves and one-third share to
the landlord.
Chapter 4
Indian National
The radical wing of the Congress Party with
(c) Muslims League in 1942
Jawaharlal Nehru as one of its main leaders, founded
(d) All Parties Conference in 1946
the Independence for India League in opposition to :
Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
(a) the Finance Commission
Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to
(b) the National Development Council
exist in free India.
(c) Nehru Report
Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last
(d) the Constitution of India
Governor General of free India.
Which one of the following was an emigre communist
In the context of the above two statements, which one
journal of M.N. Roy?

of the following is correct?

(a) Kisan Sahba
(b) The Worker
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
(c) Vanguard
(d) Anushilan
explanation of A
What is the correct sequence of the following events?
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
1. The Lucknow Pact
explanation of A
2. The Introduction on Dyarchy
(c) A is true but R is false
3. The Rowlatt Act
(d) A is false but R is true
4. The Partition of Bengal
10. Who among the following leaders did not believe in
the drain theory of Dadabhai Naoroji ?
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(a) B.G. Tilak
(b) R.C. Dutt
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the
11. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent
revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in:
Assembly from:
(a) BombayKarnataka
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bombay President
(b) Punjab
(c) Madhya Bharat
(d) Punjab

(c) East Bengal

12. The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act (1919)
(d) The Madras Presidency
was popularly known as the:
In 1930, Mahatma Gandhi started Civil Disobedience
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Pitt's India Act
Movement from:
(c) Indian Arms Act (d) Ilbert Bill
(a) Sevagram
(b) Dandi
13. The meeting of Indian and British political leaders
(c) Sabarmati
(d) Wardha
during 193032 in London has often been referred to
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
as the First, Second and Third Round Table
Conferences. It would be incorrect to refer to them as
(a) Jamnalal BajajSatyagraha Ashram at Wardha
such because:
(b) Dadabhai NaorojiBombay Association
(a) the Indian National Congress did not take part in
(c) Lala Lajpat RaiNational School at Lahore
two of them
(d) Bal Gangadhar TilakSatya Shodhak Sabha
(b) Indian parties other than the Indian National
The Sarabandi (no tax) campaign of 1922 was led by:
Congress, participating in the conference
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Chittaranjan Das [1996]
represented sectional interests and not the
(c) Rajaguru
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel
whole of India
Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a

(c) the British Labour Party had withdrawn from

constituent assembly to frame a constitution for
the conference thereby making the proceeding of
the conference partisan
(a) Swaraj Party in 1934
(d) It was an instance of a conference held in three
(b) Congress Party in 1936
session and not that of three separate conference
A 36
Topicwise Solved Papers
14. Who among the following was a prominent leader of
List-I (Period)
List-II (Event)
the Congress Socialist Party?
A. 1883
1. Announcement of
(a) M.N. Roy
Communal Award from
(b) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
(c) Pattam Thanu Pillai
B. 1906
2. Formation of the All
(d) Acharya Narendra Dev
India State Peoples
15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
C. 1927
3. Foundation of Muslim
League at Dacca
D. 1932
4. First session of National
A. Surendranath
1. Hind Swaraj
Conference at Calcutta
B. M.K. Gandhi

2. The Indian Struggle

(a) A 4; B 3; C 1; D 2
C. Subhash Chandra 3. Autobiographical
(b) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 2
(c) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 1
D. Lajpat Rai
4. A Nation in Making
(d) A 3; B 4; C 2; D 1
20. Consider the following statements:
(a) A 4; B 1; C 3; D 2
The Non-Cooperation Movement led to :
(b) A 1; B 4; C 3; D 2
1. Congress becoming a mass movement for the first
(c) A 4; B 1; C 2; D 3
2. Growth of Hindu-Muslims unity
(d) A 1; B 4; C 2; D 3
3. Removal of fear of the British might from the
16. Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal
minds of the people
4. British government's willingness to grant
1. He was the president of the Congress Party in
political concessions to Indians
Of these statements:
2. He presided over the Constituent Assembly
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
3. He formed the first Congress ministry in United
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
Province before India's independence
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
Of these statements:
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
21. Who among the following suggested the winding up
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
of the Indian National Congress after India attained
(c) 1 and 2 are correct

(a) C. Rajagopalachari (b) Achrya Kripalani [1996]

(d) none is correct
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Jayaprakash Narain
17. Which one of the following is not correct' about the
22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
Cabinet Mission Plan ?
using the codes given below the lists:
(a) Provincial grouping
(b) Interim Cabinet of Indians
A. Butler Committee 1. Jallianwala Bagh
(c) Acceptance of Pakistan
(d) Constitution framing right
B. Hurtog Committee 2. Relationship between
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
the Indian State
and the Paramount
A. Abhinav Bharat 1. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
C. Hunter Inquiry
3. Working of Dyarchy as
Committee Report
laid down in the
B. Anushilan Samiti 2. Lala Hardayal
C. Gadar Party
3. C.R. Das
D. Muddiman
4. The growth of education
D. Swaraj Party
4. V.D. Savarkar
Committee Report
in British India and

potentialities of its
(a) A 4; B 1; C 3; D 2
further progress
(b) A 1; B 4; C 3; D 2
(c) A 1; B 4; C 2; D 3
(a) A 3; B 2; C 1; D 4
(d) A 4; B 1; C 2; D 3
(b) A 1; B 4; C 2; D 3
19. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using
(c) A 2; B 1; C 3; D 4
the codes given below the lists:
(d) A 2; B 4; C 1; D 3
Indian National Movement
A 37
23. "A graduate at 18, professor and associate editor of
the Sudharak at 20, Secretary of the Sarvajanik Sabha
(a) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 5
and of the Provincial Conference at 25, Secretary of
(b) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 5
the National Congress at 29, leading witness before an
(c) A 3; B 4; C 2; D 1
important Royal Commission at 31, Provincial legislator
(d) A 2; B 4; C 3; D 1
at 34, Imperial legislator at 36, President of the Indian
28. M.C. Setalvad, B.N. Rao and Alladi Krishnaswamy
National Congress at 39, a patriot whom Mahatma
Iyer were distinguished members of the:
Gandhi himself regarded as his master".
(a) Swaraj Party
This is how a biographer describes:
(b) All India National Liberal Federation
(a) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
(c) Madras Labour Union
(b) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) Servants of India Society
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
29. Which one of the following is not a principle of
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) Non-alignment
using the codes given below the lists :
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
List-I (Events)
List-II (Results)
(c) Mutual respect for each other's territorial
A. Morley Minto
1. Country-wise agitation
integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other's internal
B. Simon Commission 2. Withdrawal of a movement
C. Chauri-Chaura
3. Communal electrorates
30. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
D. Dandi March
4. Communal outbreaks
1. Tilak's Home Rule League
5. Illegal manufactures of
2. Karnagatamaru Incident
3. Mahatma Gandhi's arrival in India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A 3; B 4; C 5; D 2
(b) A 4; B 1; C 2; D 3
(c) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 5
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 3, 2, 1
(d) A 3; B 1; C 2; D 5
(c) 2,1, 3
(d) 2, 3, 1
25. The Poona Pact which was signed between the British
31. Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because:
Government and Mahatma Gandhi in 1934 provided

(a) there was no Indian member in the Commission
(a) creation of dominion status for India
(b) it supported the Muslim League
(b) separate electorates for the Muslims
(c) Congress felt that the people of India are entitled
(c) separate electorate for the Harijans
to Swaraj
(d) joint electorate with reservation for Harijans
(d) there were differences among the members
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
32. The Indian Muslims, in general, were not attracted to
using the codes given below the lists:
the Extremist movement because of :
(a) influence' of Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan
A. Surat Split
1. 1929
(b) anti-Muslim attitude of Extremist leaders
B. Communal Award
2. 1928
(c) indifference shown to Muslim aspirations
C. All Party Convention 3. 1932
(d) extremists' policy of harping on Hindu aspect
D. Poorna Swaraj
4. 1907
33. Which one of the following events, was characterised
5. 1905
by Montague as 'Preventive Murder'?
(a) Killing of INA activities
(a) A 4; B 3; C 1; D 5
(b) Massacre at Jallianwala Bagh
(b) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 1
(c) Shooting of the Mahatma
(c) A 2; B 5; C 4; D 1
(d) Shooting of Curzon-Wythe
(d) A 1; B 4; C 2; D 3

34. What is the correct sequence of the following events?

27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
1. The August offer
2. The I.N.A trial
A. Chittagaon
1. Lala Hardayal
3. The Quit India Movement
Armoury raid
4. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings' Revolt.
B. Kakori Conspiracy 2. Jatin Das
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
C. Lahore Conspiracy 3. Surya Sen
D. Ghadar Party
4. Ram Prasad Bismil
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
5. Vasudeo Phadke
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2
A 38
Topicwise Solved Papers
35. Which one of the following defines extremist ideology
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
during the early phase of Indian freedom movement?
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(a) Stimulating the production of indigenous articles
explanation of A
by giving them preference over imported
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
(b) Obtaining self-government by aggressive means
42. Assertion (A): The first ever Bill to make primary
in place of petitions and constitutional ways
education compulsory in India was rejected in 1911.
(c) Providing national educational according to the
Reason (R): Discontent would have increased if every

requirements of the country

cultivator could read.
(d) Organising coups against the British empire
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
through military revolt
explanation of A
36. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
1. Theodore Beck : Mohammedan Anglo Oriental
College, Aligarh
(c) A is true but R is false
2. Ilbert Bill: Ripon
(d) A is false but R is true
3. Pherozeshah Mehta: Indian National Congress
43. Assertion (A): The Congress rejected the Cripps
4. Badruddin Tyabji: Muslims League
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): The Cripps Mission consisted solely of
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
explanation of A
37. "The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
great ambitious while in India, is to assist it to a
explanation of A
peaceful demise. "This statement is attributed to:
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
(a) Lord Dufferin
(b) Lord Curzon
44. Assertion (A): Gandhi stopped the Non-Cooperation
(c) Lord Lytton
(d) None of the above

Movement in 1922.
38. Who was the leader of the Ghaddar Party?
Reason (R): Violence at Chauri-Chaura led him to stop
(a) Bhagat Singh
the movement.
(b) Lala Hardayal
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
explanation of A.
(d) V.D. Savarkar
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
39. Lord Mountbatten came to India as a Viceroy with
explanation of A
specific instruction to:
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) balkanize the Indian sub-continent
(d) A is false but R is true
(b) keep India united if possible
45. When the Indian Muslims League was inducted into
(c) accept Jinnah's demand for Pakistan
the interim government in 1946, Liyaqat Ali Khan was
(d) persuade the Congress to accept the partition
assigned the portfolio of :
40. Assertion (A): The Khilafat movement did bring the
(a) foreign affairs
(b) home
urban Muslims into the fold of the National
(c) finance
(d) defence
46. The Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the
Reason (R): There was a predominant element of
partition of the country mainly because:
antiimperialism in both the National and Khilafat
(a) the principal of two-Nation theory was then
acceptable to them
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct

explanation of A
(b) it was imposed by the British Government and
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
the Congress was helpless in this regard
explanation of A
(c) they wanted to avoid large-scale communal riots
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) India would have otherwise lost the opportunity
(d) A is false but R is true
to attain freedom
41. Assertion (A): Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to
47. At the time of India's Independence, Mahatma Gandhi
an end the moderates' role in the Indian freedom
(a) a member of Congress Working Committee
Reason (R): The Surat session of Indian National
(b) not a member of the Congress
Congress separated the Extremists from the
(c) the President of the Congress
(d) the General Secretary of the Congress
Indian National Movement
A 39
48. 'Abinava Bharat' a secret society of revolutionaries
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
was organised by:
explanation of A
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) V.D. Savarkar
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) Prafulla Chaki
(d) Bhagat Singh
(d) A is false but R is true
49. The most short-lived of all of the Britain's
56. The first venture of Gandhi in all-India politics was
constitutional experiments in India was the: [1999]
(a) Indian Council Act of 1861
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement

(b) Indian Council Act of 1892

(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(c) Indian Council Act of 1909
(c) Champaran Movement
(d) Government of India Act of 1919
(d) Dandi March
50. 'It made its proposals in May. It still wanted a united
57. The Congress policy of pray and petition ultimately
India. There was to be a Federal Union composed of
came to an end under the guidance of:
British provinces'
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
The above quotation is related to:
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(a) Simon Commission
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Cripps Mission
58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
(d) Cabinet Mission
51. Which Indian nationalist leader looked upon a war
A. Shyamji Krishna 1. Bande Mataram
between Germany and Britain as a God-sent
opportunity which would enable Indians to exploit
the situation to their advantage?
B. Madame Bhikaji 2. Indian Sociologist
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
C. Annie Besant
3. The Talwar
(b) M.A. Jinnah
D. Aurobindo Gosh 4. Commonwealth
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

(a) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
52. Which one of the following leaders of the Congress
(b) A 3; B 2; C 1; D 4
was totally in favour of Cabinet Mission Plan? [1999]
(c) A 2; B 3; C 1; D 4
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) A 3; B 2; C 4; D 1
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
59. "In this instance we could not play off the
(c) Sardar Patel
Mohammedans against the Hindus."
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
To which one of the following events did this remark
53. Which one of the following Indian leaders was
of Aitchison relate?
dismissed by the British from the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Revolt of 1857
(b) Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
(a) Satyendranath Tagore
(c) Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement (1919-22)
(b) Surendranath Banerji
(d) August Movement of 1942
(c) R.C. Dutt
60. Which one of the following is not a feature of the
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Government of India Act of 1935?
54. The term "imperial preference" was applied to the:
(a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
(b) a bicameral legislature
(a) special privileges on British imports in India
(c) provincial autonomy
(b) racial discrimination by the Britishers
(d) an All-India federation
(c) subordination of Indian interest to that of the
61. The Indian National Army (I.N.A.) came into existence
in 1943 in:
(d) preference given to British political agents over
(a) Japan

(b) Burma
Indian princes
(c) Singapore
(d) Malaya
55. Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August
62. As an alternative to the partition of India, Gandhiji
Movement of 1942 as the most serious rebellion since
suggested to Mountbatten that he:
Sepoy Mutiny.
(a) postponed granting of independence
Reason (R): There was massive upsurge of the
(b) invited Jinnah to form the government
peasantry in certain areas.
(c) invited Nehru and Jinnah to form the government
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
explanation of A
(d) invite the army to take over for some time
A 40
Topicwise Solved Papers
63. The native state of Tripura became involved in the
69. At the time of partition of India, which one of the
freedom movement early in the 20th century because:
following provinces of British India came forward
with a plan for a united and independent existence?
(a) the kings of Tripura were always anti-British
(b) the Bengal revolutionaries took shelter in Tripura
(a) Punjab
(b) Assam
(c) the tribes of the state were fiercely freedom loving
(c) Bengal
(d) Bihar
(d) there were already some groups fighting against
70. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the
the kingship and its protector, the British
brain child of :
64. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched
(a) W. Churchill
his first successful satyagraha in:

(b) M.A. Jinnah
(a) Chauri-Chaura
(b) Dandi
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Champaran
(d) Bardoli
(d) V.P. Menon
65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
71. Consider the following statements about the Indian
using the codes given below the lists:
National Congress:
1. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the
A. Chittagong
1. Kalpana Dutt
President of the Congress
Armoury Raid
2. C.R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the
B. Abhinav Bharat
2. Guru Ram Singh
President of the Congress
C. Anushilan Samiti 3. Vikram Damodar Savarkar
3. The first Britisher to become the President of the
D. Kuka Movement
4. Aurobindo Ghosh
Congress was Alan Octavian Hume
4. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress
(a) A 1; B 3; C 4; D 2
in 1894. Which of these statements are correct?
(b) A 1; B 3; C 3; D 4
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) A 3; B 1; C 2; D 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) A 3; B 1; C 4; D 2
72. The Hunter Commission was appointed after the:
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 66-67) : The following items consist of two

(a) Black-hole incident

statements, one labelled as 'Assertion A' and the other labelled as
'Reason R', You are to examine these two statement carefully and
(b) Jalianwalla Bagh massacre
decide if the Assertion 'A' and the Reason 'R' are individually true
(c) Uprising of 1857
and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(d) Partition of Bengal
Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and
73. Who among the following leaders proposed to adopt
mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Complete Independence as the goal of the Congress in
the Ahmedabad session of 1920 ?
(a) Abdul Kalam Azad
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation
(b) Hasrat Mohani
of A
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation
(d) Mohandas Karamachand Gandhi
of A
74. Who among the following organized the famous
(c) A is true but R is false
Chittagong Armoury raid?
(d) A is false but R is true
(a) Laxmi Sehgal
66. Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgo described the August
Movement of 1942 as the most serious revolt after the
(b) Surya Sen
Sepoy mutiny.
(c) Batukeshwar Datta
Reason (R): Peasants joined the movement in large
(d) J.M. Sengupta
number in some places.
75. A London branch of the All India Muslim League was
67. Assertion (A): The basic weakness of the early
established in 1908 under the presidency of : [2001]
nationalist movement lay in its narrow social base
(a) Aga Khan
Reason (R): If fought for the narrow interests of the

(b) Ameer Ali

social groups which joined it.
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan
68. While delivering the presidential address, the
(d) M.A. Jinnah
Congress President who advocated the introduction
76. Who among the following was the President of the
of Roman script for Hindi language was:
All India States' Peoples' Conference in 1939? [2001]
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sheikh Abdullah
(c) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Indian National Movement
A 41
77. With reference to the period of extremist nationalist
82. During the Indian freedom struggle, the Khudai
movement in India with its spirit of Swadeshi, which
Khidmatgars, also known as Red Shirts called for:
one of the following statements in not correct? [2002]
(a) Liaquat Hussain led the Muslim peasants of
(a) the Union of Pakhtun tribal areas in north-west
Barisal in their agitation
with the Afghanistan
(b) In 1889, the scheme of national education was
(b) the adoption of terrorist tactics and methods for
formulated by Satish Chandra Mukherjee
terrorising and finally ousting the colonial rulers
(c) The Bengal National College was founded in 1906
(c) the adoption of communist revolution ideology
with Aurobindo as the Principal
for political and social reform
(d) Tagore preached the cult of Atmasakti, the main
(d) the Pathan regional nationalist unity and a
plank of which was social and economic
struggle against colonialism.
regeneration of the villages

83. Assertion (A): The effect of labour participation in the

78. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, which
Indian nationalist upsurge of the early 1930s was
one of the following statements is not correct? [2002]
(a) Hakim Ajmal Khan was one of the leaders to start
Reason (R): The labour leaders considered the
a nationalist and militant Ahrar movement
ideology of Indian National Congress as bourgeois
(b) When the Indian National Congress was formed,
and reactionary.
Syed Ahmed Khan opposed it
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
(c) The All-India Muslim League which was formed
explanation of A
in 1906 vehemently opposed the partition of
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
Bengal and separate electorates
explanation of A
(d) Maulana Barkataullah and Maulana Obeidullah
(c) A is true but R is false
Sindhi were among those who formed a
provisional government of India in Kabul.
(d) A is false but R is true
79. The real intention of the British for including the
84. The last opportunity to avoid the partition of India
princely states in the Federal Union proposed by the
was lost with the rejection of :
India Act of 1935 was to :
(a) Cripps Mission
(a) exercise more and direct political and
(b) Rajagopalachari Formula
(c) Cabinet Mission
(b) involve the princes actively in the administration
(d) Wavell Plan
of the colony
85. The members of the Constituent Assembly which
(c) finally effect the complete political and
drafted the Constitution of India were:

administrative take-over of all the princely states

(a) nominated by the British Parliament
by the British
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(d) use the princes to counter-balance the anti(c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various
imperialist doctrines of the nationalist leaders
80. The President of Indian National Congress at the time
(d) elected by the Indian National Congress and
of partition of India was:
Muslim League
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
86. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year
(b) J. B. Kripalani
1946 ?
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
81. With reference to colonial period of Indian history,
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
match List-I (Person) with List-II (Event) and select
(d) Rajagopalachari
the correct answer using the codes given below the
87. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was:
List-I (Person)
List-II (Events)
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
A. Macdonald
1. Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
B. Linlithgo
2. Communal Award
(c) Vithalbhai J. Patel
C. Dalhousie
3. August Offer
(d) Mahadev Desai
D. Chelmsford

4. Dyarchy
88. Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and
Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative
(a) A 3; B 2; C 1; D 4
(b) A 3; B 2; C 4; D 1
Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the
(c) A 2; B 3; C 1; D 4
Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian
(d) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
members of the Legislative Council.
A 42
Topicwise Solved Papers
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
2. The Second Session of the Indian National
explanation of A
Congress was held under the presidentship of
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
Dadabhai Naoroji
explanation of A
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim
(c) A is true but R is false
League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916
(d) A is false but R is true
and concluded the Lucknow Pact
89. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, which
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
one of the following statements is not correct? [2003]
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(a) The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh
94. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected
(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of
by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946

Hindustan Republican Socialist Association

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the
(d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed
Constituent Assembly of India
the Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of
90. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942
India was held in January, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th
(a) that all Indian States should join the Indian Union
January, 1950
as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy
95. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:
for India
(a) the Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion
(b) the Government of India Act, 1919
status very soon after the end of Second World
(c) the Government of India Act, 1935
(d) the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(c) the active participation and cooperation of the
96. During the Indian freedom struggle, who among the
Indian people, communities and political parties
following proposed that Swaraj should be defined as
in the British war efforts as a condition for
complete independence free from all foreign control?
granting independence with full sovereign status
to India after the war
(a) Mazharul Haque
(d) the framing of a constitution for the entire Indian
(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
Union, with no separate constitution for any
(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan
province, and a Union Constitution to be accepted
(d) Abul Kalam Azad
by all provinces
97. The name of the famous person of India who returned

91. When Congress leaders condemned the Montaguthe Knighthood conferred on him by the British
Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to
Government as a token of protest against the atrocities
form the:
in Punjab in 1919 was:
(a) Swarajya Party
(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Indian Freedom Party
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(c) Independence Federation of India
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Indian Liberal Federation
(d) Syed Ahmed Khan
92. Consider the following statements:
98. Consider the following events during India's freedom
Some of the main features of the Government of India
Act, 1935 were the :
1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage
1. abolition of diarchy in the Governor's provinces
2. Minto-Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action
4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
and to legislate on their own
Which one of the following is the correct chronological
3. abolition of the principle of communal
order of the events above?
representation .
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
99. Where were the Ghadar revolutionaries, who became
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

active during the outbreak of the World War I based?

93. Consider the following statements:
1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress
(a) Central America (b) North America
was held in Calcutta
(c) West America
(d) South America.
Indian National Movement
A 43
100. Consider the following statements:
2. Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the
On the eve of launch of Quit India Movement,
Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at
Mahatma Gandhi:
Bombay and Karachi rose against the
1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. asked the Princes of the Princely states to accept
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
the sovereignty of their own people.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
108. Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference, Dr.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
depressed classes.
101. In which one of the following provinces was a
2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for
Congress ministry not formed under the Act of 1935 ?
representation of the depressed people in the local
bodies and civil services were made.
(a) Bihar

(b) Madras
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part
in the Third Round Table Conference.
(c) Orissa
(d) Punjab
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
102. At which Congress session was the working
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
committee authorised to launch a programme of Civil
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
109. Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose
(a) Bombay
(b) Lahore
in the year 1939 after he broke away from the
(c) Lucknow
(d) Tripura
Congress ?
103. In October 1920, who headed a group of Indians
(a) Indian Freedom Party
gathered at Tashkent to set up a communist party of
(b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Revolutionary Front
(a) H.K. Sarkar
(b) P.C. Joshi
(d) Forward Bloc
(c) M.C. Chagla
(d) M.N. Roy
110. Consider the following statements:
104. Who drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for:
the Karachi session of Congress in 1931 ?
1. the provincial autonomy.
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
2. the establishment of a Federal court.
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

3. all India Federation at the centre.

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
105. Who among the following was not associated with
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
the formation of U.P. Kisan Sabha in February 1918 ?
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
111. Under whose presidency was the Lahore session of
(a) Indra Narain Dwivedi
the Indian Congress held in the year 1929, wherein a
(b) Gauri Shankar Misra
resolution was adopted to gain complete independence
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
from the British?
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
106. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Person Actively
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
Associated with
(d) Motilal Nehru
1. Champaran
: Rajendra Prasad
112. Consider the following statements about Madam
2. Ahmedabad Mill
: Morarji Desai
Bhikaji Cama:
1. Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at the
3. Kheda
: Vallabhai Patel
International Socialist Conference in Paris in the
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
year 1907.
2. Madam Cama served as private secretary to

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Madam Cama was born to a Parsi.
107. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when the
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
Shimla conference took place.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
A 44
Topicwise Solved Papers
113. Which Portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in
(a) Lala Hardayal
the Interim Government formed in the year 1946?
(b) Rashbehari Bose
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(a) Defence
(d) V D Savarkar
(b) External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations
122. Who suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy
(c) Food and Agriculture
Executive Council in which all the Portfolios including
(d) None of the above
that of War Members were to be held by the Indian
114. Which one of the following places was associated with
Acharya Vinoba Bhaves Bhoodan Movement at the
(a) Simon Commission (b) Simla Conference
beginning of the movement?
(c) Cripps Proposal (d) Cabinet Mission
(a) Udaygiri
(b) Rapur
123. Who gave a systematic critique of the moderate

(c) Pochampalli
(d) Venkatagiri
politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of
115. Assertion (A) : According to the Wavell Plan, the
articles entitled New Lamps for Old?
number of Hindu and Muslim members in the
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) R C Dutt
Executive Council were to be equal.
(c) Syed Ahmad Khan(d) Viraraghavachari
Reason (R) : Wavell thought that this arrangement
124. Who among the following used the phrase UNwould have avoided the partition of India.
British to criticize the English colonial control of India?
(a) Both A are R are true but R is the correct
explanation of A
(a) Anandmohan Bose (b) Badruddin Tyabji
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Pherozeshah Mehta
explanation of A
125. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act
(c) A is true but R is false
was passed?
(d) A is false but R is true
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Reading
116. Which one of the following aroused a wave of popular
(c) Lord Chelmsford (d) Lord Wavell
indignation that led to the massacre by the British at
126. Who among the following Gandhian followers was a
Jallianwala Bagh?
teacher by profession?
(a) The Arms Act
(a) AN Sinha
(b) Braj Kishore Prasad
(b) The Public Safety Act
(c) J B Kriplani
(d) Rajendra Prasad
(c) The Rowlatt Act

127. Which one of the following was a journal brought out

(d) The Vernacular Press Act
by Abul Kalam Azad?
117. At which one of the following places did Mahatma
(a) Al-Hilal
Gandhi first start his Satyagraha in India?
(b) Comrade
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bardoli
(c) The Indian Sociologist
(c) Champaran
(d) Kheda
(d) Zamindar
118. The song Amar Sonar Bangla written during the
128. Where was the First Session of the Indian National
Swadeshi Movement of India inspired the liberation
Congress held in December 1885?
struggle of Bangladesh and was adopted as the
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
National Anthem of Bangladesh. Who wrote this song?
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi
129. Who among the following wrote the poem, Subh-e
(a) Rajni Kanta Sen
(b) Dwijendralal Ray
(c) Mukunda Das
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
(a) Sahir Ludhiyanvi
119. The First Factory Act restricting the working hours
(b) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
of women and children and authorizing local
(c) Muhammad Iqbal
government to make necessary rules was adopted
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
during whose time?
130. Assertion (A): The Congress Ministries in all the

(a) Lord Lytton

(b) Lord Bentinck
provinces resigned in the year 1939.
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Canning
Reason (R): The Congress did not accept the decision
120. Who among the following rejected the title of
of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the
Knighthood and refused to accept a position in the
context of the Second World War.
Council of the Secretary of State for India?
(a) Both A are R are true but R is the correct
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) M G Ranade
explanation of A
(c) G K Gokhale
(d) B G Tilak
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
121. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the
explanation of A
following raised an army called Free Indian Legion?
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Indian National Movement
A 45
131. In the Individual Satyagraha, Vinoba Bhave was
(a) The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement
chosen as the first Satyagrahi. Who was the second?
was made in Calcutta town hall
(b) Partition of Bengal took effect
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal of Indian
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
National Congress was Swaraj
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
132. Consider the following statements:
140. With reference to Simon Commission's

The Cripps Proposals include the provision for

recommendations, which one of the following
1. Full independence for India.
statements is correct ?
2. Creation of constitution-making body.
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with
responsible government in the provinces
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) It proposed the setting up of interprovincial
council under the home department
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
at the centre
133. During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police
major woman organizer of underground activity in:
Service with a provision for increased pay and
allowances for British recruits as compared to
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
Indian recruits
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
141. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta
(c) Quit India Movement
session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The
(d) Swadeshi Movement
question of either retention OR of rejection of these
134. Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps
four resolutions became the cause of a split in
Mission to India?
Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in
(a) James Ramsay MacDonald
1907. Which one of the following was not one of those
(b) Stanley Baldwin
resolutions ?
(a) Annulment of partition of Bengal
(c) Neville Chamberlain

(b) Boycott
(d) Winston Churchill
(c) National education
135. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt
(d) Swadeshi
Act arouse popular indignation?
142. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued
(a) It curtailed the freedom of religion
a pamphlet entitled "The Way Out". Which one of the
(b) It suppressed the Indian traditional education
following was proposed in this pamphlet ? [2010]
(c) It authorized the government to imprison people
(a) The establishment of a "War Advisory Council"
without trial
composed of representatives of British India and
(d) It curbed the trade union activities
the Indian States.
136. Which one of the following began with the Dandi
(b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council
in such a way that all its members, except the
(a) Home Rule Movement
Governor General and the Commander-in-Chief
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
should be Indian leaders.
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial
(d) Quit India Movement
Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and a
137. With which one of the following movements is the
Constitution making body to be convened as soon
slogan Do or die associated?
as possible.
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock.
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
143. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the
Swadeshi movement ?
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon

(d) Quit India Movement

(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment
138. Who founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour
imposed on Lokmanya Tilak
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ajit Singh and passing of the Punjab Colonization
(c) N.M. Joshi
(d) J.B. Kripalani
139. In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, 16th
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar
October 1905 is well known for ................ ?
A 46
Topicwise Solved Papers
144. Consider the following statements :
151. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi
is well-known for ?
[2011 - I]
to come to Champaran to investigate the problem
(a) running the secret congress radio in the wake of
of the peasants.
quit India movement
2. Acharya J.B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma
(b) participating in the second round table
Gandhi's colleagues in his Champaran
(c) leading a contingent of Indian national army
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) assisting in the formation of Interim Government
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
145. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress
152. With reference to the period of Indian freedom

in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted

struggle, which of the following was/were
the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic
recommended by the Nehru report ?
1. Complete Independence for India.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
146. Who among the following were official Congress
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of
negotiators with Cripps Mission ?
India in the Constitution.
[2011 - I]
(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) Acharya J.B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
153. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven
147. Consider the following statements:
provinces in 1939, because
[2012 - I]
1. The Bombay Manifesto signed in 1936 openly
opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
(a) the Congress could not form ministries in the
2. It evoked support from a large section of business
other four provinces
community from all across India.
(b) emergence of a left wing in the Congress made
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
the working of the ministries impossible
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) there were widespread communal disturbances
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

in their provinces
148. Which one of the following observation is not true
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
about the Quit India Movement of 1942 ?
[2011 - I]
is correct
(a) It was a non-violent movement
154. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
Conference was formed. What was the reason for its
(c) It was a spontaneous movements
[2012 - I]
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general
(a) Different social reform groups or organizations
149. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize
of Bengal region united to form a single body to
a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants off Kheda ?
discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare
1. The administration did not suspend the land
appropriate petitions/representations to the
revenue collection in spite of a drought
2. The administration proposed to introduce
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include
permanent settlement in Gujarat
[2011 - I]
social reforms in its deliberations and decided to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
form a separate body for such a purpose
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
bring together all the social reform groups of the
150. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest
convictions were reflected in a book titled, Unto this
country under one organization
Last and the book transformed his life. What was
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
the message from the book that transformed Mahatma
is correct in this context

Gandhi ?
[2011 - I]
155. Which of the following parties were established by
(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
[2012 - I]
responsibility of an educated man
1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
(b) The good of individual is contained in the good of
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
this context
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian National Movement
A 47
156. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932,
160. The people of India agitated against the arrival of
mainly because
[2012 - I]
Simon Commission because
[2013 - I]
(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working
political aspirations
of the Act of 1919
(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition
of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal
(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition
is correct in this context

of the country.
157. Consider the following statements :
161. Quit India Movement was launched in response to
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji
[2013 - I]
to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
[2012 - I]
(b) Cripps Proposals
1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the
(d) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan
2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored
162. The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of
the self-confidence of Indians
significance in the history of the Freedom Movement
because the
[2014 - I]
3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social
(a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as
evils before anything else
the objective of the Congress
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
goal of the Congress
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
158. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress
(d) decision to participate in the Round Table
(1929) is very important in history, because [2012 - I]
Conference in London was taken
1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding
163. Which one of the following movements has
complete independence
contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress
2. the rift between the extremists and moderates
resulting in the emergence of 'moderates' and
was resolved in that Session

3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation

(a) Swadeshi Movement
theory in that Session
(b) Quit India Movement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(a) 1 only
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) 2 and 3
164. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the
following statements is/ are correct?
(c) 1 and 3
1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the
(d) None of the above
recommendations of the 'Sedition Committee'.
159. The Rowlatt Act aimed at
[2012 - I]
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize
(a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
the Home Rule League.
(b) imprisonment without trial and summary
3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon
procedures for trial
Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.
(c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A 48
Topicwise Solved Papers
(c) When the Nehru Report came before the annual
Pakistan so formed would include large non-muslim
session of the Congress in Calcutta in December 1928,
population 38% in the N-W and 48% in the N-E.
the left lashed it out on the fact that it did not want
18. (d) Abhinav Bharat 1904; Anushilan Samiti 1902;
the complete Independence and wanted only a

Gadar Party 1913; Swaraj Party 1923

dominion status. Meanwhile in April 1928, the
19. (c) Nawab Salimullah founded Muslim League in
"Independence for India League" was formed with
1906 at Dacca. Communal Award was announced by
Jawahar Lal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose as
Ramsay McDonald in 1932.
Secretaries and S. Srinivasa Iyengar as President.
(c) Communist Vanguard was an emigre Communist
20. (b) Non Cooperation Movement and Khilafat
journal of M.N. Roy.
Movement were launched in 1920. The two
movements emerged from separate issues, but they
(b) Lucknow Pact - 1916; Introduction of Diarchy
adopted a common programme of action that of nonunder Montford Reforms (GIA 1919) - July 1918;
violent and non-cooperation. There was increasing
Rowlatt Act - March 1919; Partition of Bengal - 1905.
Answer could be 4123. But here best option is b.
Hindu-Muslim unity against the British.
(c) In 1908, Barrah Dacoity was organized by Dacca
21. (c) Mahatma Gandhi suggested the winding up of
Anushilan under Pulin Das in East Bengal.
the Indian National Congress after India attained
independence, as its main aim to fight for Indian
(c) On 12 March, 1930, Gandhi started his civil
independence had been attained.
disobedience movement by starting Dandi March
from Sabarmati Ashram in Gujarat and reached Dandi
22. (d) Butler Committee - Relation between Indian
on 6 April 1930 and broke the salt law.
states & paramount power
(d) Satya Sodhak Samaj was founded by Jyoti Ba
Hurtog Committee - Growth of British India
Phule in 1873.
education-its effects
(d) It was led by Vallabh Bhai Patel in Gujarat.
Hunter Commission - Jallianwalabagh massacre

(a) Swaraj party was formed in 1934 by CR Das.
Muddiman Committee - Working of Diarchy as in
(d) The British sovereignty ceased to exist in India
Montague Chelmsford reforms
after Aug 15, 1947.
23. (c) This statement relates to Gopal Krishna Gokhale,
10. (d) Economic drain refers to a portion of national
who was born May 9, 1866 in Kotaluk, Maharashtra.
product of India which was not available for
Gokhale at the age of 18 graduated from Elphinstone
consumption of its peoples but was being drained
College in 1884. He at the age of 39 became President
away to Britain for political reasons and India was
in the 1905 session of INC held at Benaras.
not getting adequate economic or material returns for
24. (d) Morley-Minto reforms 1909;
it. The drain theory was put forward by Dadabhai
Simon Commission1927; Chauri-Chaura Incident
Naoroji in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in
1922; Dandi March1930
25. (d) Poona Pact was signed by Ambedkar on behalf
11. (a) He was a resident of Bombay Presidency, but was
of the depressed classes in September, 1932. The pact
elected to Constituent Assembly from WB.
abandoned separate electorates for the depressed
12. (a) Pitts India act 1784; Indian Arms Act 1878;
classes. But the seats reserved for the depressed
Ilbert Bill 1883 84
classes were increased both in provincial and state
13. (d) First round table conference was initially between
the British and the Indian as equals. The INC did not
26. (b) Surat split in 1907 session of INC was presided
participated in the first and third conference.
by Ras Behari Bose; Communal Award was
14. (d) CSP was formed in 1934 by JP Narayan, Acharya
announced by Ramsay McDonald in August, 1932;
Narendra Dev, Basawon Singh and Yogendra Shukla
Poorna Swarajaya resolution was passed in 1929
15. (d)
session of INC at Lahore presided over by Nehru.

16. (d) Acharya JB Kriplani was the president of the

27. (c) The Chittagong Armoury Raid was led by Surya
Congress Party in 1947. Dr Rajendra Prasad presided
Sen. The Kakori Revolution was a train robbery that
over the Constituent Assembly. GB Pant formed the
took place between Kakori and Alamnagar, near
first Congress ministry in United Province before
Lucknow, on 9 August 1925. The robbery was
India attained independence.
conceived by Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqullah
17. (c) Cabinet mission proposed a rejection of the
Khan who belonged to the Hindustan Republican
demand for a full fledged Pakistan because the
Association (HRA).
Indian National Movement
A 49
The death of Lala Lajpat Rai led the HSRA (Hindustan
42. (d) A is wrong as it was in 1913 and not in 1911 that
Socialist Republican Association) again take the path
a resolution on Education Policy was moved. The
of assassination of the British. To avenge the killing of
government refused to take up the responsibility of
Lal Lajpat Rai, Bhagat Singh, Raj guru, Jai Gopal and
compulsory education, but accepted the policy of
Sukh Dev conspired to kill the police chief, Scott. But
removal of illiteracy and urged the provincial
they shot on the DSP - J. P. Saunders, who was killed
governments to take early steps to provide free
on the spot. On 14 June 1929 Jatin Das was arrested
elementary education to the poor and more backward
for revolutionary activities and was imprisoned in
Lahore jail to be tried under the supplementary
43. (b) A is right as the congress rejected the Cripps
Lahore Conspiracy Case.
proposals as it recommended dominion status
The founding president of Ghadar Party was Sohan
instead of complete independence after the World War
Singh Bhakna and Lala Hardayal was the co-founder
II. R is also right. But does not explains A.
of this party.
44. (a) Gandhi started the Non-Cooperation Movement
28. (d) The Servants of India Society was formed in Pune,
in 1920. It progressed powerfully from 1920 Feb,

Maharashtra, on June 12, 1905 by Gopal Krishna

Gokhale. All are related to this organization.
1922. But the attack on a local police station by angry
peasants at Chauri-Chaura in Gorakhpur district of
29. (a) The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence are a
UP on Feb 5, 1922 led Gandhi to stop the movement.
series of agreements between the Peoples Republic of
China and India. They were formed in 1954. The 5
45. (c) The Interim Government was formed on
principles are called the Panchsheel, which form the
September 2, 1946. With Muslim League joining the
basis of the Non-Aligned Movement, were laid down
interim government, the second highest-ranking
by Jawaharlal Nehru. Those are:
League politician Liaquat Ali Khan became the head
1. Mutual respect for each others territorial
of the Department of Finance. Abdur Rab Nishtar
integrity and sovereignty
headed the Departments of Posts and Air and Ibrahim
2. Mutual non-aggression against anyone.
Ismail Chundrigar headed the Department of
3. Mutual non-interference in each others internal
Commerce. The League nominated a Scheduled Caste
Hindu politician Jogendra Nath Mandal to lead the
Department of Law.
4. Equality and mutual benefit
5. Peaceful co-existence
46. (c) 47. (b)
30. (d) Tilaks Home Rule League April, 1916;
48. (b) Abinava Bharat a secret society of revolutionaries
Karnagatamaru Incident September, 1914; Mahatma
was organised in 1904 by VD Sabarkar.
Gandhis arrival in India from South Africa 1915
49. (c) Time span of given acts: Indian Councils Act of
31. (a) All the 7 members of Simon Commission were
1861 31 years; Indian Councils Act of 1892 17 years;
Indian Councils Act of 1909 10 years; Government
32. (d)
of India Act 1919 16 years
33. (b) Jalianwala Bagh massacre occurred on April 13,
50. (d) Cabinet Mission reached Delhi on March 24, 1946.
1919 at Amritsar.

It put forward its own proposals in May 1946.

34. (a) August Offer1940; INA Trial1945; Quit India
51. (c) S.C. Bose and the socialists argued that the war
Movement1942; Royal Indian Navy Ratings Revolt
was an imperialist one since both sides were fighting
for gaining or defending colonial territories. Therefore
35. (b)
the question of supporting either of the two sides did
36. (d) Badruddin Tyabji was not associated with the
not arise. Instead advantage should be taken of the
Muslim League but he was the first Muslim president
situation to wrest freedom by immediately starting a
of INC in 1887 at Madras.
Civil Disobedience Movement.
37. (b) Lord Curzon (1899 1905)
52. (c) Cabinet Mission Plan came into being in May
38. (b) Ghadr was established in 1913 under the
leadership of Lala Hardayal. The HQ of Ghadr was in
San Francisco.
53. (b) Surendranath Banerji cleared the competitive
39. (b) He was not able to keep India united so he used
examination in 1869, but was barred owing to a
the Plan Balkan.
dispute over his exact age. After clearing the matter
40. (a) Both are correct and R explains A.
in the courts, Banerjee cleared the exam again in 1871
41. (d) A is false as role of moderates continued after
and was posted as assistant magistrate in Sylhet.
partition of Bengal. Extremists and moderates
However, Banerjee was dismissed soon from his job
separated at Surat session in 1907 but reunited at 1916
owing to racial discrimination. Satyendranath Tagore
session at Lucknow.
in 1863 became the first Indian to qualify the ICS.
A 50
Topicwise Solved Papers
54. (a) Imperial Preference (later Commonwealth
68. (d) In 1938, Haripura session by S.C. Bose
Preference) was a proposed system of reciprocally69. (a)
levelled tariffs or free trade agreements between
70. (c) Balkan Plan (1947) was the brain child of

different Dominions and Colonies within the British

Mountbatten. This plan envisaged the transfer of
Commonwealth of Nations. The purpose of such
power to separate provinces with Punjab and Bengal
practices was to promote the mutual prosperity, and
given the option to vote for partition of their
thus unity, of allied imperial nations. So best answer
provinces. The partioned units thus formed will have
is a.
the choice to join India or Pakistan or remaining
55. (a) This movement placed the demand for
independence on the immediate agenda of national
movement. After Quit India, there could be no going
71. (b) Sarojini Naidu was the second woman to be the
back. In this struggle, common people displayed
President of the Congress (1925, Kanpur) first being
unparalleled heroism. Thats why Lord Linlithgow
Annie Beasant (1917, Calcutta). A.O. Hume was the
(193644) described the Quit India Movement as the
founder of INC in 1885. Alfred Webb was the President
most serious revolt after the sepoy mutiny.
of the Congress in 1894 at Madras. C.R. Das acted as
56. (b) Rowlatt Satyagraha was the first action of
the President in 1921 in Ahmedabad session.
Gandhi on all India level. Satyagraha was to be
72. (b) Hunter Commission was appointed after the
launched on April 6, 1919. But after the Jallianwala
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919). A separate
Bagh massacre, Gandhiji was alarmed by the
Hunter Commission (1882-83) emphsised on primary
atmosphere of violence and withdrew the Movement
and secondary education.
on April 18, 1919.
73. (b)
57. (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak described the method of
74. (b) The raid was conducted in April 1930 by Surya
three Ps Prayer, petition and protest as political
Sen and involved 65 activists under the banner of
mendicancy. He propagated militancy and not
Indian Republican army Chittagong Branch. Surya
Sen was arrested in Feb 1933 and hanged in Jan 1934.
58. (a) Here the best possible answer is a. As M.B. Cama

75. (b) Syed Ameer Ali established a branch of the League

also wrote Bande Matram. Talvar was written by
in London in 1908, supporting the same objectives.
Virendranath Chatropadhyay.
76. (c) The All India States Peoples Conference was a
59. (c)
political organization in India during the British Raj.
60. (a) In the Act of 1935 provincial autonomy replaced
The first session of the organisation was held in
diarchy. The GIA, 1919 provided for diarchy at the
Bombay in December 1927. Nehru was its president
Centre as well as in the provinces.
between 19351947.
61. (c) During the second phase, INA came into existence
77. (a)
in July 1943 under the leadership of S.C. Bose. The
78. (c) The All-India Muslim League founded at Dacca
idea of INA was first conceived in Sept 1942 by Mohan
(now Dhaka, Bangladesh), in the Bengal Presidency,
Singh in Malaya.
in 1906. It supported the partition of Bengal to create
62. (b) Mountbatten Plan came into existence on June 3,
a majority of Muslims after partition of the province.
1947. Gandhi ji suggested that he should invite Jinnah
79. (d)
to form the government rather than partition of India.
80. (b) Acharya J.B. Kriplani was the Indian National
63. (d)
Congress President (Nov, 1946 Dec 1947). In 1946,
64. (c) Gandhi ji returned from South Africa in 1915 and
the INC session was held at Merrut.
in 1917 he launched his first successful Satyagraha in
81. (c) The Communal Award was announced by
Champaran in Bihar against the indigo planters at
British PM, Ramsay McDonald in August 1932.
the request of Raj Kumar Shukla.
August Offer - 1940; Under Doctrine of Lapse,
65. (a) Chittagong Armoury Raid April 1930; Abhinav
Dalhousie annexed Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur,
Bharat1904; Anushilan Samiti (1902, Calcutta)
Udaipur, Jhansi, Nagpur and Awadh. Government of
66. (a) This movement placed the demand for
India Act 1919, introduced diarchy during the
independence on the immediate agenda of national

viceroyality of Chelmsford.
movement. After Quit India, there could be no return.
82. (d) Khudai Khidmatgars were organized by Khan
In this struggle, common people displayed
Abdul Gaffar Khan (Frontier Gandhi). Khudai
unparalleled heroism. Thats why Lord Linlithgow
Khidmatgar literal y translates as the servants of God,
(1936-44) described the Quit India Movement as the
represented a non-violent freedom struggle against
most serious revolt after sepoy mutiny.
the British Empire by the Pashtuns (also known as
67. (c) R is incorrect as early nationalists fought for the
Pathans, Pakhtuns or Afghans) of the North-West
rights of common people.
Frontier Province.
Indian National Movement
A 51
83. (a) The labour leaders were influenced by
95. (b) Montagu-Chelmsford or Montford Reforms
communist ideology and considered INC as
which were announced in July, 1918 in line with the
bourgeoisie and reactionary. That's why their
government policy contained in Montagu's statement
participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge was
(August, 1917) formed the basis of GIA, 1919.
96. (b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani proposed that Swaraj
84. (c) Cabinet Mission (1946) was the last opportunity
should be defined as complete independence free from
to avoid the partition of India with the formation of
all foreign control in 1921 when he was presiding over
interim Government. But Muslim League rejected the
the session of All India Muslim League in Lucknow.
plan even though they won 73 out of 78 seats in the
97. (c) Rabindra Nath Tagore returned the Knighthood
interim government. They did not attend the first
conferred on him by the British Government as a
meeting of Constituent Assembly on Dec 9, 1946.
token of protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
85. (c) The members of the Constituent Assembly which
(April 13, 1919).
drafted the Constitution of India were to be elected
98. (b) ChauriChauraFeb 1922; MintoMorley
by provincial assemblies under the system of

Reforms-1909; Dandi March 1930; Montagu

proportional representation.
Chelmsford Reforms1918.
86. (b) Interim government was formed on Sept 2, 1946
99. (b) Ghadr revolutionaries were based in San
as per Cabinet mission proposal. It was headed by
Francisco and branches along the US Coast and in the
Jawahar Lal Nehru.
far East.
87. (a) The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, in the state of
100. (c) Gandhiji asked the government servants not to
Gujarat was led by Vallabhbhai Patel. The women of
resign but declare their allegiance to the Congress.
Bardoli gave him the title of Sardar.
Soldiers were asked not to leave their posts but not to
88. (d) Rowlatt Act was passed in March, 1919. The act
authorized the government to imprison any person
101. (d) Congress ministeries were formed in Bombay,
without trial and conviction in a court of law. Maulana
Madras, Central Provinces, Orissa, United Provinces,
Mohd. Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the
Bihar and later in NWFP and Assam also.
legislative council in 1919 during the Khilafat
102. (b) At Lahore session (1929, President - J.L. Nehru)
Movement and not in 1916.
the working committee was authorised to launch a
89. (d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi endorsed
programme of Civil Disobedience.
(not opposed) Gandhi-Irwin Pact. It was presided over
103. (d) The other prominent persons include Abani
by Vallabh Bhai Patel.
Mukherjee and Mohd. Ali Mohd. Shafiq.
90. (b) Statement d is incorrect as any province not
104. (b) Nehru drafted the resolution on Fundamental
willing to join the Union could have a separate
Rights. The Karachi Session was presided over by
constitution and form a separate union. Cripps
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel.
Mission provides for an Indian Union with a dominion
105. (c) Best answer is c. As UP Kisan Sabha was founded
status after the second world war; which would be

free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth

a & b. MM Malviya supported their efforts. Even in
and free to participate in the United Nations and other
June, 1920, Nehru developed close contacts with the
international bodies.
91. (d) When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu106. (d) Champaran (First Civil Disobedience)1917;
Chelmsford Report (July, 1918), many moderates led
Ahmedabad Mill Strike (First Hunger Strike)March
by Surendra Nath Banerjea left the party to form
1918; Kheda Satyagraha (First Non-Cooperation)
Indian Liberal Federation in 1919.
June 1918.
92. (b) Provincial autonomy replaced diarchy. The
107. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as Lord Wavell was the
Governor could refuse assent to bill, promulgate
Viceroy when Simla Conference took place in June,
ordinances, and enact governor's acts. Statement 3 is
incorrect as separate electorates based on communal
108. (c) First Round Table Conference was held from Nov,
representation persisted in the GIA, 1935.
1930 - Jan 1931. Second Round Table Conference was
93. (c) Statement 1 is incorrect as first session was held
held in Dec 1931 in London. Third Round Table
in 1885 at Bombay (not in Calcutta) under the
Conference was held from Nov 1932 - Dec 1932. Indian
presidentship of W.C. Banerjee. The second session
National Congress did not participate in first and third
was held in Calcutta. Lucknow session in 1916 was
RTC. Poona Pact was signed by B.R. Ambedkar in
presided over by A.C. Majumdaar.
September, 1932. The pact abandoned separate
electorates for the depressed classes. But the seats
94. (a) The first session of the Constituent Assembly of
reserved for the depressed classes were increased in
India was held on Dec 9, 1946.
provincial as well as Central legislatures.
A 52
Topicwise Solved Papers
109. (d) Forward Bloc was founded on May 3, 1939. It was
123. (a) K.G. Deshpande, a friend of Aurbindo from his
a left-wing nationalist political party with its

Cambridge days, was in charge of a weekly,

stronghold in West Bengal.
Induprakash, published from Bombay. He requested
110. (d) Provincial Autonomy replaced Diarchy. All India
Sri Aurobindo to write upon the current political
Federation was to comprise all British Indian
situation. Sri Aurobindo began writing a series of fiery
provinces, all chief commissioner's provinces and
articles under the title New Lamps for Old , strongly
Indian states.
criticising the Congress for its moderate policy.
111. (c) They also celebrated the first Independence day
124. (c) He wrote a book entitled Poverty and Un-British
on January 26, 1930, which was the date later selected
Rule in India.
for the adoption of the Indian constitution.
125. (c) Lord Chelmsford (19161921) was governor
112. (d) Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at the
general when the Rowlatt Act was passed in March,
International Socialist Conference in Germany in the
year 1907.
126. (c) Following his education at Fergusson College in
113. (c) After the Indian independence in 1947, Dr.
Pune, Kriplani worked as a schoolteacher before
Rajendra Prasad became the first Indian President of
joining the freedom movement following Gandhis
return from South Africa. He was a professor of English
114. (c) Bhoodan Movement was a voluntary land reform
and History. Kripalani came in contact with Gandhi
movement in India started by Acharya Vinoba Bhave
in 1917 during Champaran Satyagraha.
on April 18, 1951 started at Pochampalli village, in
127. (a) The Al-Hilal was a newspaper established by
Telangana (Andhra Pardesh).
Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as
115. (c) Wavell Plan was proposed in Simla Conference
a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The
in June 1945.
newspaper also espoused the cause of the Indian
116. (c) Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April,
independence movement and exhorted Indian
1919 during anti-Rowlatt agitation in Amritsar.

Muslims to join the movement. The newspaper was

Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919 which
shut down under the Press Act of 1914.
authorized the government to imprison any person
128. (b) INC was formed on 28 Dec, 1885 in Bombay and
without trial and conviction in a court of law. Tagore
its first session was held under the presidentship of
renounced his Knighthood in protest against
W.C. Banerjee.
Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
129. (b) Subh-e Azadi (Dawn of freedom) was written in
117. (c) Mahatma Gandhi first started his Satyagraha in
August, 1947 after the partition of India.
India at Champaran in Bihar in 1917. He was
130. (b) R does not explain A. As in September, 1939, the
requested by Rajkumar Shukla to look into the
viceroy unilaterally declared that India was at war
problems of poor peasants caused by the indigo
with Germany without bothering to consult any
planters of Chamaparan.
Indian leader. In protest, Congress ministeries
118. (d) The song was written in 1905 in Bangla.
resigned in October, 1939. Muslim league declared it
Rabindranath Tagore was the only person to write
as the Day of Delivarance.
National Anthem of two countries, i.e. India and
131. (b) It was started in October 1940.
132. (b) The Cripps proposals did not include the
119. (c) The First Factory Act was passed in 1881 during
provision for full independence for India but offered
the time of Lord Ripon. It was passed to improve the
an Indian union with a dominion status. The Congress
service condition of the factory workers in India. It
objected to the provision of dominion status instead
fixed the working hours for women and children
of complete independence. After the war, a constituent
above the age of seven years.
assembly would be convened to frame a new
120. (c)
121. (c) In January 1942, the Propaganda Ministry
133. (c) There was an award of ` 5000 on her arrest. Later
announced the formation of the Indian National

she was called the grand old lady of the independence

Army (Jai Hind) in Berlin. At the end of July 1942,
three hundred volunteers were issued German Army
134. (d) In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford
uniforms bearing a badge on the right arm which
Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals
showed a leaping tiger superimposed on an Indian
to seek Indian support for the war by British PM,
tricolour, surrounded by the legend Freies Indien.
Winston Churchill.
The men were then officially designated the Free
135. (c) It was passed in March 1919, even though every
Indian Legion.
single Indian member of the Central legislative council
122. (b) Suggested in June, 1945 by the Viceroy Lord
opposed it. It became a reason for Jallianwala Bagh
Wavell in Simla. It is also known as the Wavell Plan.
tragedy of Amritsar on 13 April, 1919.
Indian National Movement
A 53
136. (c) Gandhi, on March 12, 1930 started March his
people in non-violent way. Its worth noting that the
from the Sabarmati Ashram with 72 people and
communists had opposed this movement and it
reached Dandi (coastal Gujarat) on April 6, 1930, and
virtually damaged the labour movement. Labour
broke the salt law by picking up a handful of salt at
Unions under Communist influence had apparently
Dandi and announced the commencement of Civil
decided against participation in the movement, there
Disobedience Movement.
were large-scale strikes in mills at Kanpur,
137. (d) Gandhiji gave a call for do or die in 1942 during
Quit India Movement. He said we shall either free India
Jamshedpur and Ahmedabad. There was an
or die in the attempt; we shall not live to see the
indifference of the Labour Class, so the statement d is
perpetuation of our slavery.
correct. The First statement in this question needs to
138. (a) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association was
be looked into. The Quit India Movement was basically
founded in 1917.
promoted a nonviolent and noncooperative

139. (b) This day was observed as a day of mourning

movement but it was not a non-violent. There were
throughout Bengal. People fasted, bathed in the Ganga
various events in which Police station, Railway
and walked barefoot in processions singing Bande
Stations, Railway Lines and Post-Offices were burnt
Mataram. People tied rakhis as a symbol of unity of
and destroyed.
the two halves of Bengal.
149. (a) However, a famine had struck the district and a
140. (a) Simon Commision came in 1927. Diarchy was
large part of Gujarat, and virtually destroyed the
proposed in the GOI Act, 1919. And it was replaced
agrarian economy. The poor peasants had barely
with the Provincial Autonomy in the GOI Act, 1935
141. (a) Dada Bhai Naoroji presided over the INC session
enough to feed themselves, but the British government
at Calcutta in 1906 in which a resolution supporting
of the Bombay Presidency insisted that the farmers
the programme of swadeshi, boycott and national
not only pay full taxes, but also pay the 23% increase
education was passed. Ras Behari Bose presided over
stated to take effect that year.
the Surat session in 1907 in which congress was split
150. (b) The statement a is incorrect because from
into moderates and extremists.
Ruskins writing Gandhi derived the massage that
142. (d) In the last years of the war, Rajagopalachari was
the job of a lawyer is equal to a job of a barber, and
instrumental in negotiations between Gandhi and
both have right to earn their livelihood. Statement b
Jinnah. In 1944, he proposed a solution to the Indian
is correct because Gandhi clearly mentioned in one of
Constitutional tangle. He prepared a formula for
Congress-League cooperation. It was a tacit
his writing that The good of individual is contained
acceptance of the Leagues demand for Pakistan.
in the good of all, this is something which inspired
Gandhi supported the formula. But Jinnah was in
him to translate the book into Sarvodaya.
favour of two-nation theory only.
Statement c is incorrect, what Gandhi derived from
143. (a) The governments decision to partition Bengal
this book was of a life of labour and not life of

was made public in December, 1903.The official reason

celibacy. Celibacy or Brahamcharya was something
given was that Bengal with a population of 78 million
which actually came out of his own guilt beginning
was too big to be administered. The government
as early as the days of death of his father.
announced partition in July 1905. To boycott this, on
151. (a) Usha Mehta (March 25, 1920 August 11, 2000)
Aug 7, 1905, formal proclamation of Swadeshi
was a renowned Gandhian and freedom fighter of
movement was made from the Calcutta townhall.
India. She is also remembered for operationalizing the
144. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as it was Raj Kumar
Shukla who requested Gandhi to come to Champaran
Congress Radio, also called the Secret Congress Radio,
to investigate the problems of peasants. Gandhis
an underground radio station, which functioned for
colleagues in this movement were JB Kriplani,
few months during the Quit India Movement of 1942.
Rajendra Prasad, Mazhar-ul-Haq, Mahadeo Desai,
152. (b) Nehru Report did not provide for separate
and Narhari Parekh.
electorates for any community or weightage for
145. (b)
minorities, but yes it talks of Joint electorates. It also
146. (c) In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford
talks for Bills of Rights.
Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals
153. (d) (d) is correct option.
to seek Indian support for the war by British PM,
154. (b) Because Indian National Congress did not want
Winston Churchill.
to include social reforms in its deliberations and
147. (c)
decided to form a separate body for such a purpose.
148. (a) On August 8, 1942 the Quit India Resolution was
155. (b) The parties established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
passed at the Bombay session of the All India Congress
were - All India Scheduled Castes Federation and the
Committee and here Gandhi made a call to participate
Independent Labour Party.
A 54
Topicwise Solved Papers
156. (c) Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in

time table of self government and of definition of the

1932, against Ramsay Macdonald Announcement of
powers to be relinquished, essentially making an offer
the Communal Award.
of limited dominion status that was wholly
157. (a) He exposed the economic exploitation of India by
unacceptable to the Indian movement.
the British.
162. (b) The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress
158. (a) Only 1st statement is correct.
is of significance in the history of the Freedom
159. (b) The act had provisions of imprisonment without
Movement because the attainment of Poorna Swaraj
trial and summary procedures for trial.
was adopted as the goal of the Congress.
160. (c) In November 1927, the British govt. appointed
163. (a) Surat split is an important event in the modern
the Indian statutory commission, known popularly
history of India. It took place in 1907 when the
after the name of its chairman as the Simon
moderates parted company with the Extremists. The
split in the congress was due to many reasons. The
Commission. All the members of the commission were
Moderates had controlled the congress from its very
Englishmen. This announcement was greeted with
beginning and had their own ways of thinking and
chorus of protest from all Indians. What angered them
doing which were not acceptable to the younger
most was the exclusion of Indians from the
generations who were impatient with the speed at
commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion
which the moderates were moving and leading the
was that foreigners would discuss and decide upon
nation. This was the time of Swadeshi Movement.
Indias fitness for Self- government.
164. (b) The Rowlatt committee was a Sedition
161. (b) The British Govt. sent a delegation to India under
Committee appointed in 1918 by the British Indian
Sir Stafford Cripps, to negotiate with the Indian
Government with Mr Justice Rowlatt, an English
National Congress a deal to obtain total cooperation
judge, as its president. The purpose of the committee
during the war, in return of progressive devolution
was to evaluate political terrorism in India, especially

and distribution of power from the Crown and the

Bengal and Punjab. In organizing his satyagraha
Gandhi tried to utilize three types of political
Viceroy to an elected Indian Legislature. The talks
networks - The Home Rule Leagues, Certain pan
failed, as they did not address the key demand of a
islamist groups and a satyagraha sabha which he
himself started in Bombay on 24 February.

Unit - B Geography
Chapter 1
A meteor is :
In the context of the above two statements, which one
(a) a rapidly moving star
of the following is correct?
(b) a piece of mater which has entered the earth's
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
atmosphere from outer space
explanation of A
(c) part of a constellation
(b) Both A and R true but R is not a correct explanation
(d) a comet without a tail
of A

The graph given below shows the mean average
(c) A is true but R is false
monthly temperatures (in C) and mean monthly
(d) A is false but R is true
rainfall (in cms) of a place:
Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Mangroves are very specialised forest
eco-systems of tropical and sub-tropical regions
bordering certain sea coasts.
Reason (R) : They stabilise the shoreline and act as
bulwark against encroachments by the sea.
In the context of the above two statements, which one
of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
This graph is indicative of which one of the climatic
explanation of A
zones of the world?
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(a) Wet and dry tropical
explanation of A
(b) Rainy tropical
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) Semi-arid tropical
(d) A is false but R is true
(d) Temperate marine
Diamond ring is a phenomenon observed:
Willy is :
(a) at the start of a total solar eclipse
(a) a type of tree grown in temperate regions
(b) a wind that blows in a desert
(b) at the end of a total solar eclipse
(c) a tropical cyclone of the north-west Australia
(c) only along the peripheral regions of the totality
(d) a kind of common fish found near Laccadives

(d) only in the central regions of the totality trail
Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is
Which one of the following factors is responsible for
responsible for the deflection of radio waves? [1996]
the change in the regular direction of the ocean
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
currents in the Indian Ocean?
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Ionosphere
(a) Indian Ocean is half an ocean
Given below are two statements one labelled as
(b) Indian Ocean has monsoon drift
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
(c) Indian Ocean is a land-locked ocean
(d) Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity
Assertion (A) : Areas near the equator receive rainfall
The group of small pieces of rock revolving round the
throughout the year.
sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called:
Reason (R) : High temperatures and high humidity
cause convectional rain in most afternoons near the
(a) meteors
(b) comets
(c) meteorites
(d) asteroids


Topicwise Solved Papers

10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
(c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
List-I (Commodities
List-II (Countries of
(d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
exported from India)
17. Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth
A. Iron ore
1. Russia
of a pigmented dinoflagellates. These blooms are called
B. Leather goods
2. U.S.A
C. Tea
3. Japan
(a) red tides
(b) sea tides
D. Cotton fabrics
4. U.K.
(c) black tides
(d) sea flowers
5. Canada
18. Consider the following climatic conditions (northern
hemisphere) :
(a) A -5; B- 1; C -2; D- 3 (b) A -3; B- 1; C -4; D -2
(c) A -1; B-5; C - 4; D- 3 (d) A -3; B - 4; C-1; D -2
11. In the earth's direction of rotation is reversed, what
should be the IST when it is noon at the International
Date Line?

M 8.3
(a) 06.30 hrs
(b) 05.30 hrs
A 144
(c) 18.30 hrs
(d) 17.30 hrs
M 20.0
12. Which one of the following stars is nearest to the
(a) Polaris
(b) Alpha Centauri
A 27.8
(c) Sun
(d) Sirius
13. Which one of the following conditions is most relevant
O 18.3
for the presence of life on Mars?
N 12.2
(a) Atmospheric composition
D 6.7
(b) Thermal conditions
(c) Occurrence of ice caps and frozen water
These are most likely to be found in the natural regions
(d) Occurrence of ozone
14. Consider the map given below:

(a) China type
(b) equatorial type
(c) hot desert type
(d) monsoon type
19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
by using the codes given below the lists:
(Special characteristic)
(Name of planet)
A. Smallest planet
1. Mercury
of the solar system
B. Largest planet of
2. Venus
the solar system
climatic types
C. Planet second from the 3. Jupiter
Of the four shaded areas in the map, which is
Sun in the solar system
characterised by hot dry summers, mild and moist
D. Planet nearest to the Sun 4. Pluto
winters and seasonal reversal of winds.
5. Saturn
(a) 1
(b) 2
Codes :
(c) 3
(d) 4
(a) A-2; B-3; C-5; D-1 (b) A-3; B-5; C-1; D-2
15. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 (d) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
20. Physical regions marked as 1, 2, 3, and 4 on the given
1. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying size
map are respectively:
orbiting the sun
2. Most of the asteroids are small but some have
diameter as large and 1000 km

3. The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of

Jupiter and Saturn
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
16. The correct sequence of different layers of the
atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is:
(a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
(b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere

Physical Geography
(a) Andes, Brazilian Shield, Guyana Highlands and
The climate to which this data pertains is :
Amazon Basin
(a) St. Lawrence type
(b) Andes, Guyana Highlands, Brazilian Shield and
(b) China type
Amazon Basin
(c) West European type
(c) Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands, Brazilians

(d) Mediterranean type

Shield and Andes
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(d) Guyana Highlands, Brazilian Shield Andes and
using the codes given below the lists:
Amazon Basin
List-I (Timber)
List-II (Country)
21. Which one of the following types of coal contains a
A. Cedar
1. Myanmar
higher percentage of carbon than the rest?
B. Douglas Fir
2. Canada
(a) Bituminous coal (b) Lignite
C. Mahogany
3. Mexico
(c) Peat
(d) Anthracite
D. Teak
4. Honduras
22. Which one of the following scholars suggested the
earth's origin from gases and dust particles? [1999]
(a) A - 3; B- 2; C- 1; D-4
(a) James Jeans
(b) H. Alfven
(b) A - 3; B- 2; C- 4; D-1
(c) F. Hoyle
(d) O. Schmidt
(c) A - 2; B- 3; C- 4; D-1
23. In the given map, which one of the following pairs of
(d) A - 2; B- 3; C- 1; D-4
ocean currents are shown?
27. Along which one of the following meridians did India
experience the first light of the sunrise of the new
(a) 230' W
(b) 8230' E
(c) 9230' W

(d) 9230' E
28. Consider the following statements:
1. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing.
2. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the
harbour safely
(a) Benguela and Falkland
3. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours
(b) Canary and Humboldt
4. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports
(c) Agulhas and Guinea
Which of these statements are correct?
(d) Benguela and Guinea
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
24. Which one of the areas marked as A, B, C and D in the
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
given figure of the cyclone, witnesses heavy
29. Consider the following statements about the 'Roaring
torrential short duration rainfall accompanied by
1. They blow uninterrupted in the northern and
Southern Hemispheres
2. They blow with great strength and constancy
3. Their direction is generally from north-west to
east in the Southern Hemisphere
4. Overcast skies, rain and raw weather are
generally associated with them
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) A
(b) B
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) C
(d) D
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
25. Consider the following temperature and rainfall data:
30. Which one of the following weather conditions is

indicated by a sudden fall in barometer reading?

Temperature (C)
Rainfall (cm)
(a) Stormy
(b) Calm weather
(c) Cold and dry weather
(d) Hot and sunny weather
31. Who amongst the following was the first to state that
the earth was spherical ?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Copernicus
(c) Ptolemy
(d) Strabo
32. If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon

by an observer, he is located on the:
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) South Pole
(d) North Pole
Topicwise Solved Papers
33. Consider the following statements made about
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
sedimentary rocks:
explanation of A
1. Sedimentary rocks are formed at earth's surface
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct
by the hydrological system
explanation of A
2. Formation of sedimentary rocks involves the
(c) A is true but R is false
weathering of preexisting rocks
(d) A is false but R is true
3. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils
39. Sun's halo is produced by the refraction of light in:
4. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) water vapour in Stratus clouds
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(b) ice crystals in Cirro-Cumulus clouds
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) ice crystals in Cirrus clouds
34. Volcanic eruptions do not occur in :

(d) dust particles in Stratus clouds
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Black Sea
40. Consider the following statements:
(c) Caribbean Sea
(d) Caspian Sea
35. Quartzite is metamorphosed from:
1. Ocean currents are slow-surface movement of
water in the ocean.
(a) limestone
(b) obsidian
(c) sandstone
(d) shale
2. Ocean currents assist in maintaining the Earth's
heat balance
36. Identify the correct order of the process of soil-erosion
from the following:
3. Ocean currents are set in motion primarily by
(a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully
prevailing winds
4. Ocean currents are affected by the configuration
(b) Sheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully erosion, Rill
of the ocean
Which of these statements are correct?
(c) Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Gully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash
41. Consider the following statements:
1. In equatorial regions, the year is divided into four
37. Temperature and rainfall of a meteorological station
main seasons
are given below:

2. In Mediterranean region, summer months
Temperature (0C)
Rainfall (cm)
receives more rain.
3. In China type climate; rainfall occurs throughout
the year
M 11.7
4. Tropical highlands exhibit vertical zonation of
A 12.2
different climates
M 13.3
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
A 14.4
42. Consider the following ecosystems:
1. Taiga
2. Tropical Evergreen
3. Tropical Deciduous 4. Tundra

N 13.3
The correct sequence in decreasing order of the Albedo
D 10.6
values of these ecosystems is :
Average temperature: 12.8C
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
Average rainfall: 54.9 cm per annum
(c) 4, 1, 2, 3
(d) 1, .4, 2, 3
Identify the region having the above climatic patterns
43. Assertion (A) : 60 - 65 latitudes in both the
from amongst the following:
hemispheres have a low pressure belt instead of high
(a) Mediterranean region
(b) Monsoon region
Reason (R) : The low pressure areas are permanent
(c) Steppe region
over oceans rather than on land.
(d) N.W. European region
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
38. Assertion (A) : During the neap tides. The high tide is
explanation of A
lower and the low tide is higher than usual.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct
Reason (R) : The neap tide, unlike the spring tide,
explanation of A
occurs on the new moon instead of on the full moon.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Physical Geography
44. Assertion (A) : The surface winds spiral inwards upon
Reason (R) : The primary productivity of the tropical
the centre of the cyclone.
rain forest is very high when compared to that of
Reason (R) : Air descends in the centre of the cyclone.
temperate forests.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
correct explanation of A.
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct
the correct explanation of A
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
(d) A is false but R is true
51. Assertion (A) : Areas lying within five to eight degrees
45. Consider the following climatic and geographical
latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall
throughout the year.
1. Condensation
Reason (R) : High temperatures and high humidity
cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons
2. High temperature and humidity
near the equator.
3. Orography
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
4. Vertical wind
correct explanation of A
Thunder cloud development is due to which of these
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
the correct explanation of A
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
(d) A is false but R is true
46. For short-term climatic predictions, which one of the
52. Which one among the following covers the highest
following events, detected in the last decade, is
percentage of forest area in the world?

associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in
(a) Temperate coniferous forests
the Indian sub-continent?
(b) Temperate deciduous forests
(a) La Nina
(c) Tropical monsoon forests
(b) Movement of Jet Stream
(d) Tropical rain forests
(c) El Nino. and Southern Oscillations
53. Among the following which planet takes maximum
(d) Greenhouse effect at global level
time for one revolution around the Sun?
47. Which one of the following is not a lagoon?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(a) Ashtamudi lake (b) Chilka lake
(c) Mars
(d) Venus
(c) Periyar lake
(d) Pulicat lake
54. Assertion (A) : Thickness of the atmosphere is
48. Which one of the following statements is correct with
maximum over the Equator.
reference to our solar system?
Reason (R) : High insolation and strong convection
currents occur over the Equator.
(a) The earth is the densest of all the planets in our
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
solar system
correct explanation of A
(b) The predominant element in the composition of
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
earth is silicon
the correct explanation of A
(c) The sun contains 75 percent of the mass of the
(c) A is true but R is false
solar system
(d) A is false but R is true

(d) The diameter of the sun is 190 times that of the

55. Which one of the following statements is correct?
49. Assertion (A) : The amount of moisture in the
(a) The first meeting of the Parties (MOP) to the
atmosphere is related to latitude
Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in
Reason (R) : The capacity to hold moisture in the form
Phillippines in the year 2004.
of water vapour is related to temperature.
(b) India is not a signatory to the Biosafety protocol/
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
convention on Biological Diversity.
correct explanation of A
(c) The Biosafety protoco1 deals with genetically
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
modified organisms.
the correct explanation of A
(d) United State of America is member of the
(c) A is true but R is false
Biosafety protocol/convention on Biological
(d) A is false but R is true
50. Assertion (A) : Unlike temperate forests, the tropical
56. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens
rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland
that can support intensive agriculture for several
(a) Chile
(b) Japan
years even without chemical fertilizers.
(c) Philippines
(d) United States of America
Topicwise Solved Papers
57. Assertion (A) : The same face of the moon is always
3. Maximum percentage of earth's water is in the
presented to the earth.
Pacific Ocean.
Reason (R) : The moon rotates about its own axis in

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

23 and half days which is about the same time that is
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
takes to orbit the earth.
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
64. In which one of the following oceans Diamantine
explanation of A
Trench is situated?
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
explanation of A
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
(c) A is true but R is false
65. Assertion (A): To orbit around the Sun the planet Mars
(d) A is false but R is true
takes lesser time than the time taken by the earth.
58. Assertion (A) : Existence of human life on Venus is
Reason (R) : The diameter of the planet Mars is less
highly improbable.
than that of earth.
Reason (R): Venus has extremely high level of carbon
dioxide in its atmosphere.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
explanation of A
correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
explanation of A
the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
(d) A is false but R is true.

59. Assertion (A) : Wind patterns are clockwise in the

66. What is the average distance (approximate) between
Northern Hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the
the sun and the earth?
Southern Hemisphere.
(a) 70 105 km
(b) 100 105 km
Reason (R) : The directions of wind patterns in the
(c) 110 106 km
(d) 150 106 km
Northern and the Southern Hemisphere are governed
67. Consider the following statements:
by the Coriolis effect.
1. Either of the two belts over the oceans at about
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
30 to 35 N and S Latitudes is known as Horse
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct
2. Horse latitudes are low pressure belts.
explanation of A
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. Where are the Balearic Islands located?
68. Consider the following statements:
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea
1. Annual range of temperature is greater in the
(c) Baltic Sea
(d) North Sea
Pacific Ocean than that in the Atlantic Ocean.
61. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
2. Annual range of temperature is greater in the

Northern Hemisphere than that in the Southern

(a) Bahamas: Nassau
(b) Costa Rica: San Jose
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Nicaragua: Balmopan
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) Dominican Republic: Santo Domingo
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Consider the following statements:
1. The Axis of the earth's magnetic field is inclined
69. Consider the following statements:
at 23 and half to the geographic axis of the earth.
Albedo of an object determines its visual
2. The earth's magnetic pole in the Northern
brightness when viewed with reflected light.
Hemisphere is located on a Peninsula in Northern
2. Albedo of Mercury is much greater than the
albedo of the Earth.
3. The earth's magnetic equator passes through
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Thumba in South India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
70. For India, China, UK and USA, which one of the
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
fol owing is the correct sequence of the median age of
63. Consider the following statements:
their population?
1. Total land area of earth is approximately 1475

(a) China < India < UK < USA

lakh square kilometers.
(b) India < China < USA < UK
2. Ratio of land area to water area of earth is
(c) China < India < USA < UK
approximately 1 : 4.
(d) India < China < UK < USA
Physical Geography
71. In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the
Which of the above are considered appropriate
following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
methods for soil conservation in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(a) Earth and Jupiter (b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Saturn and Earth (d) Saturn and Neptune
78. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight
72. Which one of the following planets has largest
as compared to other three?
number of natural satellites or moons?
(a) Sand desert
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(b) Paddy crop
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
(c) Land covered with fresh snow
73. In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the
(d) Prairie land
core is mainly made up of which one of the fol owing?
79. With reference to, the river Luni, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Chromium
(a) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat

(c) Iron
(d) Silicon
(b) It flows into Gulf of Kutch
74. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has
(c) It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary
following characteristics.
of Indus
(d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kutch
80. A geographic region has the following distinct
maximum 31 31 31
30 31
temp C
1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
minimum 21 21 21

20 20
3. Evergreen Oak trees
temp C
The above features are distinct characteristics of
51 85 188 158 139 121 134 168 185 221 198 86
which one of the following regions?
If this geographic area were to have a natural forest,
(a) Mediterranean
which one of the following would it most likely be?
(b) Eastern China
(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest
(c) Central Asia
(b) Montane subtropical forest
(d) Atlantic coast of North America
(c) Temperate forest
81. What causes wind to deflect toward left in the
(d) Tropical rain forest
Southern Hemisphere?
75. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared
(a) Temperature
in the news. In this context, consider the following
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Rotation of the earth
1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific
(d) Pressure
Ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in Eastern
82. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not
Pacific Ocean
regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous
2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes
forest. This is because
[2011 - I]
in the Atlantic Ocean but El Nino Modoki results
(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
in a greater number of hurricanes with greater
(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) the rain forest species are slow-growing
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. A layer in the Earths atmosphere called ionosphere
76. Consider the following statements :
facilities radio communication. Why ?
1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical
1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of
radio waves to earth.
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
[2011 - I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
84. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino ?
77. With reference to soil conservation, consider the
1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean
following practices:
temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas
1. Crop rotation
2. Sand fences
El Nino is characterized by unusual y warm ocean
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks

temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.

Topicwise Solved Papers
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west
3. It will help understand the evolution of the
monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on
monsoon climate.
[2011 - I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as
85. What is difference between asteroids and comets ?
evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while
[2012 - I]
comets are formed of frozen gases held together
1. Detection of microwaves in space
by rocky and metallic material.
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of
3. Movement of asteroids in space
Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
between Venus and Mercury.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while
(a) 1 and 2
asteroids do not.
[2011 - I]
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above can be cited as evidence
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
86. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and
91. Consider the following factors:
[2012 - I]
persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why ?
1. Rotation of the Earth
[2011 - I]
2. Air pressure and wind
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as
3. Density of ocean water
compared to northern hemisphere.
4. Revolution of the Earth
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere
Which of the above factors influence the ocean
as compared to northern hemisphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
92. Normally, the temperature decreases with the
87. What could be the main reason/reasons for the
increase in height from the Earths surface, because
formation of African and Eurasian desert belt ?
[2012 - I]
[2011 - I]
1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
the Earth's surface
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
this context ?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the
93. Which one of the following is the characteristic
lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate
climate of the Tropical Savannah Region? [2012 - I]
explanation ?
(a) Rainfall throughout the year
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower
(b) Rainfall in winter only
(c) An extremely short dry season
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower
(d) A definite dry and wet season
94. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in
[2013 - I]
this context ?
[2011 - I]
Geographical Feature
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) Abyssinian Plateau :
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Atlas Mountains
North-Western Africa
89. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National
(c) Guiana Highlands :
South-Western Africa
Laboratory including those from India created the
(d) Okavango Basin
heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/

95. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from

are the implication/ implications of the creation of
season to season are due to
[2013 - I]
[2012 - I]
(a) the earths rotation on its axis
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil
(b) the earths revolution round the sun in an
exploration easier and cheaper.
elliptical manner
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence
(c) latitudinal position of the place
of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
(d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis.
Physical Geography
96. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as
(a) African Savannah
ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater,
(b) Central Asian Steppe
the largest proportion
[2013 - I]
(c) North American Prairie
(a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
(d) Siberian Tundra
(b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
102. Which of the following phenomena might have
(c) exists as groundwater
influenced the evolution of organisms?
[2014 - I]
(d) exists as soil moisture
1. Continental drift
97. Consider the following pairs:
[2013 - I]
2. Glacial cycles
Electromagnetic radiation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Geothermal energy
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

Gravitational force
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Plate movements
103. Consider the following statements
[2015 - I]
Rotation of the earth
1. The winds which blow between 30 N and 60 S
Revolution of the earth
latitudes throughout the year are known as
Which of the above are responsible for bringing
dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
North-Western region of India are part of
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
98. The most important fishing grounds of the world are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
found in the regions where
[2013 - I]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into
104. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among
the sea
the fol owing?
[2015 - I]
(c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet
1. Gravitational force of the Sun
(d) continental shelf is undulating
2. Gravitational force of the Moon
99. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth

characteristics of equatorial forests?

[2013 - I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
forming a continuous canopy
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Coexistence of a large number of species
105. "Each day is more or less the same, the morning is
Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form,
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
is soon over." Which of the following regions is
100. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the
described in the above passage?
[2015 - I]
continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What
(a) Savannah
(b) Equatorial
is/are the reason/reasons?
[2013 - I]
(c) Monsoon
(d) Mediterranean
Thermal difference between land and water
106. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific
Variation in altitude between continents and
regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not
originate. What is the reason?
[2015 - I]

Presence of strong winds in the interior

(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
(b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(c) Coriolis force is too weak
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Absence of land in those regions
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
107. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial
101. Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people
[2015 - I]
used to be nomadic herders.
[2013 - I]
(a) The Earth's rotation on its axis
The above statement best describes which of the
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
following regions?
(c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator
B 10
Topicwise Solved Papers
(b) Meteor is a small celestial body which has entered
most relevant condition for presence of life on Mars is
the earths atmosphere by the gravitational force of
occurrence of ice caps and frozen water.
earth, when they pass close to it. Meteors typically
14. (a) In the given world map 1 refers the hot, dry
occurs in the mesosphere, and most range in altitude
summers, mild and moist winter in California (U.S.A).
from 75 km to 100 km.
15. (c) The asteroids are group of small pieces of rocky
(a) In the graph the temperature ranges from 15 to
debris of different sizes. Some asteroids are small and
25. So, the graph indicates wet and dry tropical
some asteroids even have diameter 1000 km. The

region, and in this region rain fall does not exceed 25 cm.
asteroids revolve between Mars and Jupiter.
(c) It is a tropical cyclone of north-west Australia.
16. (c) The correct sequence of different layers of
Willy Willy originates in the Timor sea and causes
atmosphere from the surface of earth is Troposphere,
rainfall in different parts of Australia.
Stratosphere, Mesosphere and Ionosphere.
(d) Ionosphere is the top layer of the atmosphere.
Troposphere extends upto 8 km from earth
Radio waves are deflected in the ionosphere of the
surface, but at equator it is 1618 km.
atmosphere. Ionosphere is composed of D, E and F
Stratosphere extends above Troposphere 1850
layers. D layer (60 km from earth) is good at absorbing
AM radio waves.
Mesosphere extends up to 80 km and above
(a) The assertion is correct and reason correctly
Mesosphere Ionosphere is present, which extends up
explains the assertion because due to high temperature
to 400 km.
the atmospheric air gets heated and rises up. It cools
17. (a) Red tides are a speical type of blooms, which are
down and precipitates while the cool air descends
found at the estuaries. These blooms are pigmented
down to take the place of the vaccum.
dinoflagellates. These single celled organisms are able
(a) Both the statement are correct and reason is
to swim short distances. When the algae present in
correctly explained.
high concentration, the water appears purple or pink
Mangroves are found in the bordering region of
in colour.
tropical and sub-tropical sea coast. Mangroves
18. (a) The climatic conditions, which are given in the
stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwark against sea
table denotes the climatic condition of China.
erosion which make the specialised forest ecosystem.
19. (d) A. The smallest planet of the solar system is

(c) Diamond ring is observed during solar eclipse,
only along the peripheral regions of the totality trail.
B. The largest planet of the solar system isJupiter
(b) Due to the monsoon drift of Indian ocean, its
C. The planet second from the Sun in the solar system
regular direction of the ocean currents changes twice
an year.
D. Planet nearest to the Sun is Mercury.
(d) The asteroids are group of small pieces of rock
20. (a) In the given figure :
revolving round the sun between the orbit of Mars
Andes is marked as 1, which is located at the
and Jupiter. They are approximately 40,000 in number.
western coast of South America.
10. (b) Iron ore is exported to Japan. Leather goods are
Brazilian shield is marked as 2, this area is
exported to Russia. Tea is exported to U.K. Cotton
located at the eastern part of South America. The
fabric is exported to U.S.A.
shield extends over 8.5 million square.
11. (a) India is a large country spanning over 30 of
Guyana highland is marked as 3 Guyana
longitude. It is unusual in having a single time zone
highland is a plateau and low mountain region of
all over the country, 5 hours fast.
South America located north of Amazon river and
If the direction of rotation of earth is reversed then
South of Orinoco river.
Indian Standard Time will be 5 hr.
Amazon basin is marked as 4, it is the tropical
When it is noon the time is 12:00; that will be 6:30
rain forest in the world. Amazon river drains more
A.M.in place of 17:30 P.M. or 5:30 P.M.
than half of Brazil, part of Bolivia, Peru and Ecuador.
12. (c) Sun is the star nearest to the earth. It is 150 million
21. (d) Anthracite is a dense, shiny coal that has a high
kilometer away from earth. Sun has temperatures of
carbon content. Very little volatile matter is present
over 15 million C.

in it. It gives a clean flame while burning. Anthracite

13. (c) Mars is the only planet with similar day time
contains 91% of carbon; is very little volalile and has
temperatures and an atmosphere similar to earth. The
almost smokeless burning.
Physical Geography
B 11
22. (d) O. Schmidt in 1943 gave Inter-Slellar Dust
deeper than 30 forming channels are called as gully
Hypothesis for the origin of the earth and solar system.
erosion. Gully erosion occurs when water flows in
23. (d) Benguela is a cold current flows from south to
narrow channels after heavy rain and melting
north along the west coast of Africa.
Guinea current is a worm current flowing east of
37. (c)
Guinea along the west coast of Africa.
38. (b) Both the statements are correct, but reason is not
24. (b) In the given figure B lies between two cyclone
the correct explanation of the statement. The sun, the
zone A and D. At the B marked region rainfall would
earth and the moon come in the position of quadrature
be accompanied by thunder storms.
(form-a right angle) on seventh and eighth day of
25. (d) The given data shows the climatic condition of
every fortnight of a month and thus the tide producing
Mediterranean type. In this climatic zone the
forces of the sun and the moon works in opposite
temperature varies from 7 15C and rainfall varies
direction, causing low tide. This is lower in height
from 6 16 cm.
than the normal tide and is called neap tide. But the
26. (d) Cedar is found in Canada, Douglas fir is found in
spring tide occurs during full moon and are called
Mexico, Mahagony is found in Myanmar. Teak is found
high tides.
in Honduras.
39. (d) The ice crystals suspended in cirrus clouds (5-10
27. (d) The first light of the sunrise of new millenium in
k.m.) in the upper atmosphere are responsible for
India experienced at Kathal island of Andaman and
suns halo.
Nicobar, which is located at 9230 E meridian.

40. (b) Ocean currents are not slow most of the time and
28. (d) Statement 1 is right because it helps in navigation.
can be subsurface current also. So, statement '1' is
29. (b) The westerlies in the southern hemisphere is
wrong. But '2', '3' and '4' statements are correct.
called as roaring forties; lies between 40S to 50S and
41. (d) 1st statement is wrong: Equational region has
is a permanent wind. It is slow over landmass.
only two seasons.
30. (a) In stormy weather condition the pressure of
2nd statement : Mediterranean gets rainfall during
atmosphere varies, which causes sudden fall in
winter season is also wrong.
barometer reading.
42. (c) The average albedo of earth is 34%. It varies
31. (a) Aristotle in 340 B.C first stated that the earth was
according to the colour and texture of the surface.
spherical in his book On the Heaven.
According to the ecosystem, the maximum albedo
32. (a) If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the
would be of Tundra, then Taiga, then tropical green
horizon by an observer then the observer is at the
forest and tropical deciduous forest respectively.
equator because celestical equator is an imaginary
43. (c) A is true but R is false.
circle around the sky directly above the earth's
Sub-polar low pressure is located between 60
equator. It is always 90 from the pole. All the stars
65 latitude in both hemisphere. Low pressure is
rotate in a path that is paral el to the celestical equator.
produced in this area, because the surface air spreads
33. (d) All the statements are true about the sedimentary
outward from this zone due to rotation of earth.
44. (a) The surface wind spiral inwards the centre of the
34. (a) The basathic rock found in Baltic sea is
cyclone, which create a low pressure area in the
transported by glacier.
35. (c) Quartzite is a metamorphosed rock originally
45. (d) Thunder cloud develops due to high temperature
sandstone. Converted dut to heat and pressure.
and humidity, which pushes the wind vertically up
36. (a) The correct order of soil erosion process is splash

within the atmosphere. Water vapour condenses to

erosion, sheet erosion, rill erosion and gully erosion.
form clouds which precipitate to rain due to presence
Splash occurs when the raindrop hits the surface;
of orography.
explosive impact soil into individual particles. Sheet
46. (c) Movement of Jet stream affects the mansoon rain
erosion is the detachment of soil particles by rain drop
in India. Jet stream is a strong and rapidly moving
and their removal down slope by water flowing
circumpolar westerly air extending upto troposphere,
overland as a sheet in definite channels. Rill erosion
having meandering course. The upper air westerly
refers to the development of small ephemeral
jet stream bifurcates into two as they flow over Indian
concentrated flow paths which function as both
sub-continent due to occurance of Himalayas. The
sedimentary source and sediment delivery systems
northern jet stream washes the northern Himalayas
for erosion on hill slopes. Sheet erosion removes the
and Tibetan plateau. The southern part moves south
this top layer by raindrop kill or orion occurs in lines
of Himalayas in a cyclone form from west to east, bring
which are less than 30 cm deep when these rills are
rain and lowering the temperature of the northern
B 12
Topicwise Solved Papers
Indian plain. Usually this condition last from October
57. (a) We see the same face of the moon from earth in
to February but if presist longer then hinders the
because the rotation of the earth is similar to moon
arrival of monsoon in India. Low pressure develops
23 hrs.
over north-west India in the months of April and May
58. (a) The atmosphere of Venus has carbon dioxcide
but the upper hight pressure jet stream decends down
primainly followed by nitrogen. Making it denser and
and obstruct the ascent of wind in the region of low
hotter for the resistances of human life.
pressure. This wind withdraws from North India by
59. (d) A is false as the direction of wind in the northern
mid June but if the condition presists these wind
hemisphere is anit clock wise and in southern
obstructs the upward movement of surface wind and

hemisphere it is clock wise. The explaination is correct

giving no way to monsoon to arrive.
as this is mainly due to coriolis effect.
47. (c) Periyar lake is not a lagoon. It is surrounded by
60. (a) Balearic islands are located in Mediterrian sea. It
mountain ridges of candaman hills.
is an autonomous division of Spain and the North
48. (a) The earth is the densest of all the planet. Density
African Coast.
of Earth is 5.52, Venus5.50, Mercury 5.27, Mars 3.95,
61. (c) Managua is the capital of Nicaragua, not
Jupiter and Saturn 0.69, Uranus 1.27.
Balmopan. Balmopan is the capital city of Balize.
49. (a) The amount of moisture in atmosphere is related
62. (b) Earth magnetic field is inchined between 90 to
to latitude because the temperature depends upon the
90. In the northern hemisphere it points downwards
latitude and capacity to hold moisture is related to
and upward in the southern hemisphere.
63. (a) Total land area is area is 148226000 km2 square
50. (b) The primary productivity of tropical rain forest
kilometers. So, the ratio of land area to water area of
is very high as the tropical rain forest contains
earth is approximately 1 : 3. The Pacific Ocean is the
decayed leaves, plants, etc. which acts as organic
largest ocean, so maximum percentage of earth's
fertilizers. Hence tropical rain forest can be productive
water is present in it.
farmland for several years even without fertilizers.
64. (c) Diamantine Trench is istuated in south-east part
51. (a) Area lying with 58 latitude is nearer to equator,
of Indian Ocean. The depth of Diamantine Trench is
where the temperatures are high and humidity is high
8047 m.
throughout the year.
65. (d) A is incorrect as the mars revolution round the
52. (a) Temperature coniferous forests covers the highest
sun takes 1.88 years of Earth's revolution. The
percentage of forest area in the world.
diametre of earth is 12,742 km (7,918 miles) and the
53. (b) Jupiter takes maximum time for one revolution
mass is 6,734 km (4,200 miles).
i.e., 11 year 86 days. Mars take 687 days, Venus takes

66. (d) The actual average distance between the sun and
267 days.
the earth is 152 106 km which is near to 150 106
54. (d) The circulation of atmosphere and oceans is
funda-mentally caused by the fact that the amount of
67. (a) 2535 N and S in both hemisphere is a high
pressure belt and high temperature zone. This belt
incoming solar radiation varies from a maximum at
owes its origin to the rotation of the earth and sinking
the equator to a minimum at the poles. More reflection
and setting down of winds. This zone is of high
and absorption of incoming radiation takes place in
pressure is called horse latitude because in ancient
high latitude because of the greater thickness of
times the merchant carrying horse in their ships had
atmosphere that must be penetrated. Thickness of the
to throw out of some of the horse while passing
earth is maximum over the pole.
through this zone of calm in order to lighten their
55. (c) Biosafety protocol is an agreement designed to
regulate the international trade, handling and use of
68. (b) Climates in the Southern Hemisphere tends to be
any genetically engineered organism that may have
milder than those in the Northern Hemisphere.
adverse effects on the conservation and sustainable
Southern Hemisphere has significantly more ocean
use of biological diversity, taking also into account
and less land. The water heats up and cools down
risks to the human health.
more slowly than land. The annual range of
The first meeting was held in 2004 in Kuala Lumpur,
temperature is higher in Atlantic Ocean than in
Malaysia. India is a signatory member to it the
Pacifica ocean.
Biosaflty protocol deals with genetically modified
69. (a) Albedo is the fraction of the incident sunlight that
organism but they donot name them so. USA has sign
is reflected. When an object reflects most of the light
it put not yet ratify this treaty.
that hits it and looks bright then it has high albedo.
56. (d) Volcanic mountain. St. Helen is located in United
Albedo of mercury is 0.142 and that of the earth its

States of America.
Physical Geography
B 13
70. (b) The correct sequence of the median age of their
90. (a) Only 1st and 2nd are correct.
populations is India < China < USA < UK.
91. (b)
36.4 32.6 40.4
1. Rotation of the Earth
71. (b) Jupiter and Saturn are located between Mars and
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water. Revolution has no import
72. (a) Jupiter has maximum moons accounting to 63
on ocean current.
whereas Satun has 61, Mars has 2 and Venus has none.
92. (c)
73. (c) The core of earth is made up of nickle and iron.
1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from
74. (d) Tropical rain forest temperature gets higher than
the Earth's surface
34C and drops below 20C and average rain fall 50
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
260 inches yearly.
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
75. (b) Normal El Nino forms in southeastern Pacific
93. (d) The characteristic of the Tropical Savannah
whereas as El Nino Modoki forms in central Pacific
Region is a definite dry and wet season.
and causes greater number of hurricanes.
94. (b) Atlas mountain ranges are situated in the north
76. (d) Biodiversity hot spots are found in temperature
western part of Africa. They extend almost 2000 km.
regions only. Eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats and
They pass through Morocco, Algeria and Tunisia.
Andaman Islands are such hot spots.
95. (b) Rotation of earth on its axis causes day and night
77. (d) All are soil conservation methods.
but the revolution of earth in an elliptical manner
78. (c) Snow's Albedo is highest.
around the sun causes seasons, equinoxes and solstices.
79. (d) Luni river originates from Aravalli range and

96. (c) The percentage of freshwater that exists on earth

flows in south west direction through the hills and
is 2.52.7% out of which almost 70% is icecaps and
finally ends up in the marshy land of Rann of Kutch.
glaciers. And the remaining 30% is the ground water.
80. (a) Mediterrian climate have mild, rainy winter and
97. (d) From electromagnetic radiation to revolution of
hot, dry summers and Evergreen, Oak trees.
the earth, everything is responsible for bringing
81. (c) Rotation of the earth causes wind to deflect
dynamic changes on the surface of the earth. For
towards left in the Southern Hemisphere.
example: Electromagnetic radiation brings changes
82. (b) The sunlight which is very much important
in the field of microwaves, wavelengths of radio, UV
component for the growth of plant, donot reach the
rays, infra red rays, X rays and gamma rays.
surface as the trees there are long and donot allow the
Geothermal energy is the heat received from the
sunlight to pass through them.
earths core. This heat continuously flows outward. It
83. (d) Ionosphere has high concentration of free
transfers to the surrounding layers of rock, the mantle.
electrons and gases. These free electrons completely
When temperature and pressure becomes very high
surrounds the earth.
some mantle rocks melt becoming magma. It then
84. (d) La Nina is a cold current flowing accross the west
either comes out as lava or heat up the nearby rocks
coast of South America. It is characterized by the low
and water which comes out as hot springs or geysers.
and high pressure prevailing in the Pacific Ocean. Low
Gravitational force is constantly working on all
pressure there brings good moonsoon to Indian
physical bodies. It is giving weights to objects with
mass and causes them to fall to the ground when
85. (b) Comets found beyond Neptune i.e. kupier belt.
dropped. Plate movement is a dynamic change on the
86. (a) The speed of these winds are higher and
surface of the earth. It explains many aspects of the
persistence in southern hemisphere. The land mass
interrelationship of volcanoes, earthquakes, climate
in southern hemisphere is lesser in comparison on

change, and the evolution of life itself. Everything

toss northern hemisphere. As these winds crosses the
about our planet is related either directly or indirectly
landmass its velocity decreases. Thus the effect of
to plate tectonic. Rotation causes day and night.
westerlies is less over northern hemisphere than in
Revolution causes seasons, change in the length of day
southern hemisphere.
and night.
87. (a) It is under the influence of cold ocean current. So
98. (c) The mixing of warm and cold current in the region
given second statement is wrong.
where planktons are found, is food for fishes. The
88. (c) Jet fly in the lower stratoshpere to avoid the
temperature is just right for them to survive.
turbulence. There are no clouds and the air is dry with
The temperature is just right for the growth of firsh
little water vapour. These are no vertical convection
food called planktons.
in the stratosphere.
99. (d) The canopy is the primary layer of the forest
89. (b) It will help probe the possibility of the existence
forming a roof over the two remaining layers. The
of stars and galaxies made of anti-mater. It will also
densest of the biodiversity is found here along with a
help in understanding the evolution of the universe.
large variety of epiphytes.
B 14
Topicwise Solved Papers
100. (a) The first statement is correct. One major factor
The eventual warning caused by accumulation of
affecting the distribution of the temperature of Earth
CO2, from volcano allowed melting of snow and
is distribution of Land and Oceans. Since there is
triggered a cyanobacterial bloom and photosynthetic
more land in Northern Hemisphere and more
oxygen took place.
waters in Southern hemisphere and there is a big
103. (b) The Westerlies are prevailing winds from the
difference between the specific heat of land and
west toward the east in the middle latitudes between
water; the loss of heat from the continents is bigger
30 and 60 degrees latitude. They originate from the
than the oceans. The continents get heated faster

high-pressure areas in the horse latitudes and tend

and get cooled faster in comparison to the Oceans.
towards the poles and steer extra tropical cyclones in
This is the reason that the temperatures of the Oceans
this general manner. The moist air masses that cause
are moderate while that of continents is extreme. The
winter rains in North-Western region of India are
moderating effect on temperature of the land due to
part of westerlies.
proximity of the seas is called Maritime influence. The
104. (d) Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by
increasing effect on temperature of the land at interior
the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted
of the continents is called Continental Influence.
by the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth.
101. (b) The central Asian steppes run through
105. (b) The passage points out equatorial region.
Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and
106. (a) In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific
Mongolia. The climate here is harsh with dust storms,
regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate
little to no rainfall and temperature ranging from 4
because sea surface temperatures are low.
to 50 degree Celsius.
107. (a) The Earth's rotation on its axis explains the
102. (c) Continental drift has affect the evolution of
eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current. The
animals. Pangoa split apart in the triassic period (245
earth would have been rotating east to west, the piled
to 208 million years ago) dividing landmass in
up water would have come down on the west side.
gondwanaland and lavrasia. The rearrangement of
Therefore, essentially it's the earth's rotation that
landmass lead diversity among animals.
explains the eastward flow of equatorial counter
Glacial period helped int he evolution of many species
as they provided a favourable condition for there

Chapter 2
World Political
Given below is a map of some countries which were
Consider the map given below indicating four places

parts of the erstwhile Soviet Union, with water bodies

frequently figuring in the news:
shown by shaded areas:
The countries marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are respectively:
Which one of them is Chechenya? Choose the correct
(a) Tajikistan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan, Kirgizia,
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(b) Turkmenia, Kirgizia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan,
Which one of the following does not belong to
biosphere reserves set-up so far?
(c) Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Kirgizia,
(a) Great Nicobar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Gulf of Kutch
(d) Kazakhstan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan, Kirgizia,
Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located
in :
The standard time of the following countries is ahead
(a) Baluchistan
(b) Myanmar
of or behind Greenwich Mean Time depending on
(c) Nepal
(d) Kashmir
whether they are East or West of the longitude passing
Consider the map given below :
through Greenwich.

1. Cuba
2. Greece
3. Iraq
4. Costa Rica
5. Japan
Which one of the following sequential orders gives
the correct arrangement of the countries according to
their standard time from ahead to behind GMT ?
(a) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
(d) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
The original home of the gypsies was :
(a) Egypt
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) Persia
The dotted (broken) line in the map is the :
(a) Durand line
Which one of the following is the continent with the
(b) McMohan line
highest mean elevation in the world?
(c) Line of demarcation between India and Pakistan
(a) Antarctica
(b) North America
suggested by the Boundary Commission (1947)
(c) Asia
(d) South America
(d) route followed by young husbands expedition.

B 16
Topicwise Solved Papers
In the Indian context the term 'De-notified tribes' refers
15. About 50% of the world population is concentrated
to :
between the latitudes of :
(a) tribes which are aboriginals
(a) 5N and 20 N
(b) 20N and 40N
(b) nomadic tribes
(c) 40N and 60N
(d) 20S and 40S
(c) tribes practising shifting cultivation
16. ".. . They are people of yellow complexion, oblique eyes,
(d) tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes
high check bones, sparse hair and medium height."
10. Which one of the following regions of India is now
The reference here is to :
regarded as an 'ecological hot spot'?
(a) Nordic Aryans
(b) Austrics
(a) Western Himalayas
(c) Negroids
(d) Mongoloids

(b) Eastern Himalayas

17. Consider the map given below:
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Eastern Ghats
The river shown on the map is :
11. Consider the following programmes:
1. Afforestation and development of wastelands
2. Reforestation and replantation in existing forests
3. Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying
other types of fuel
4. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and
pesticides to restrict the loss of forest area from
degradation caused by pests and insects.
The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Irrawaddy
(b) Mekong
12. The rough outline map shows a portion of the Middle
(c) Chao Phraya
(d) Salween
18. "From Aceh in the far north west to Torres Strait in
The countries labelled A, B, C and D are respectively:
the east is 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to
Baghdad. The archipelago has 14,000 islands, some
mere equatorial rocks, others some of the largest in
the world." This description best fits:
(a) West Indies
(b) Japan
(c) Philippines
(d) Indonesia
19. Consider the geographical details given in the
following figure:
(a) Syria, Iraq, Jordan and Saudi Arabia
(b) Syria, Iraq, Saudi Arabia and Jordan
(c) Iraq, Syria, Saudi Arabia and Jordan

(d) Iraq, Syria, Jordan and Saudi Arabia

13. The Palk Bay lies between:
(a) Gulf of Kutch and Gulf of Khambhat
(b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal
(c) Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
The point marked by A in the above figure indicates
14. A rough outline map of northern Sri Lanka is shown
the countries in :
below. Jaffna is located at the point marked: [1996]
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Europe
(d) Asia
20. Daily weather map showing isobars is an example of:
(a) Choropleth map
(b) Isopleth map
(c) Chorochromatic map
(d) Choroschematic map
21. Which one of the following countries is the largest
producer of fuel wood in the world?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Russia
(a) A
(b) B
(c) India
(d) China
(c) C
(d) D

World Political Geography

B 17
22. During a flight from Delhi to Tokyo the following are
the landing airport.
1. Hongkong
2. Hanoi
3. Taipei
4. Bangkok
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 3, 2, 1, 4
23. The satellites of which one of the following countries
have helped in the preparation of a detailed and
Air route
complete map of Antarctica?
(a) Canada
(b) France
Name of cities
(c) Russia
(d) U.S.A
1. Darwin
2. Kualalumpur
24. Which one of the following countries has replaced
3. Lagos

4. Nairobi
Italy as the major importer of bauxite from India?
5. Singapore
(a) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3 (b) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
(a) Canada
(b) Greece
(c) A-1; B-4; C-5; D-2 (d) A-4; B-3; C-5; D-2
(c) Ukraine
(d) United Arab Emirates
30. A person of mixed European and Indian blood in Latin
25. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by : [1998]
America a called a :
(a) greenhouse effect
(a) Mulatto
(b) Mestizo
(b) depletion of ozone layer
(c) Meiji
(d) Mau Mau
(c) El Nino effect
31. In which one of the following areas in the given map
(d) None of these
was there a recent discovery of copper deposits by
26. Match the rivers labelled A, B, C and D on the given
the Atomic Minerals Division of Department Atomic
map with their names given in the list and select the
Energy ?
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
St. Lawrence

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 3
5. Yukon
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
(a) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 (b) A-5; B-3; C-1; D-2
(Volcanic Mountain) (Country)
(c) A-5; B-4; C-1; D-3 (d) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
A Mt. Rainier
1. Italy
27. When there is noon at I.S.T. meridian people at another
B. Etna
2. Mexico
place of the earth are taking their 6 O' clock morning
C. Paricutin
3. Philippines
tea. The longitude of the place is :
D. Taal
4. U.S.A.
(a) 1730' E
(b) 730' W
(c) 17230' E
(d) 90 W
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 (b) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
28. Which one the following port cities in Venezuela has
(c) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (d) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
been developed as an oil port?
33. Consider the following provinces of former
(a) Caracas
(b) Maracaibo

1. Bosnia
2. Croatia
(c) Maracay
(d) Carupano
3. Slovenia
4. Yugoslavia
29. Match the cities labelled as A, B, C and D in the given
The correct sequence of these provinces from the east
map with the names of cities and select the correct
to west is :
answer using the codes given below the names of
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

B 18
Topicwise Solved Papers
34. Which one of the following lakes forms an
39. Consider the following statements regarding
international boundary between Tanzania and
environment issues in India:

1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves
(a) Chained
(b) Malawi
2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged
(c) Victoria
(d) Zambezi
with the National River Conservation Plan.
35. A class of animals known as Marsupials is a
3. The National Museum of Natural History at New
characteristic feature of :
Delhi imparts non-formal education in
(a) Africa
(b) Australia
environment and conservation
(c) South America
(d) South-east Asia
4. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts
as a decentralized information network for
environment information
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
40. Consider the following countries:
1. Brazil
2. Indonesia
3. Japan
4. Russia
What is the descending order of the size of the
following countries population-wise ?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
41. Consider the following countries of South Asia:
The above map is the Union Territory of :
(a) Chandigarh

1. Bangladesh
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Sri Lanka
(b) Daman and Diu
The descending order of literacy status of these
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
countries is:
(d) Pondicherry
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
using the codes given below the lists:
42. Consider the following countries:
List-I (Local Wind)
List-II (Region)
1. Albania
2. Bosnia Hercegovina
A. Fohn
1. Argentina
3. Croatia
4. Macedonia
B. Sarmun
2. Kurdistan
Which of these countries has/have Adriatic Sea as a
C. Santa Ana
3. California
D. Zonda
4. Alps
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3 (b) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1
43. In the map given below, four islands of Indian Ocean
(c) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1 (d) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
region i.e., (A) Seychelles (B) Chagos (C) Mauritius
38. The given map shows four towns of Central Asian

and (D) Socotra are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match

region marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Identify these from the
them and select the correct answer from the codes
following lists and select the correct answer using
given below:
the codes given below:
A. Bishkek
B. Ashikhabad
C. Tashkent
D. Dushanbe
The map is not on scale.
Codes :
(a) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4 (b) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
(a) A-1; B -3; C-4; D-2 (b) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 (d) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(c) A-1; B-3; C -2; D-4 (d) A-3; B- 1; C-4; D-2
World Political Geography
B 19
44. The waterfall 'Victoria' is associated with the river:
54. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
the given towns of Pakistan while moving from the
(a) Amazon
(b) Missouri
north towards the south?
(c) St. Lawrence
(d) Zambezi
(a) IslamabadGujranwalaPeshawarMultan
45. Consider the following statements:
(b) PeshawarGujranwalaMultanIslamabad
1. In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are in a minority
(c) PeshawarIslamabadGujranwalaMultan
2. In Kosovo, Serbians are in a majority
(d) IslamabadMultanPeshawarGujranwala

Which of these statements is/are correct?

55. Consider the following sites /monuments :
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
1. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai
46. Israel has common borders with:
3. Mahallapuram
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple)
(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
Which of the above are included in the World Heritage
(c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
List of UNESCO?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
47. Which one of the following countries does not border
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
the Caspian Sea?
using the codes given below the lists:
(a) Armenia
(b) Azerbaijan
List-I (City)
List-II (River)
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Turkmenistan
A. Washington, D.C. 1. River Manzanares
48. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:
B. Berlin
2. River Seine
C. Paris
3. River Spree
(a) China
(b) Malaysia

D. Madrid
4. River Potomac
(c) Cambodia
(d) Laos
Codes :
49. Latvia does not share its borders with which one of
(a) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 (b) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
the following countries?
(c) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (d) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
(a) Russia
(b) Estonia
57. Consider the following statements:
(c) Lithuania
(d) Poland
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland
50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
and Northern Ireland.
using the codes given below:
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of
List-I (Sea)
List-II (Country)
the United Kingdom. .
A. Black Sea
1. Bulgaria
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
B. Red Sea
2. China
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
C. Yellow Sea
3. Eritrea
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D. Caspian Sea
4. Kazakhstan
58. Itaipu Dam built on the river Parana is one of the
largest dams in the world. Which of the following
(a) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3 (b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
two countries have this as a joint project?

(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 (d) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
(a) Brazil and Peru
51. Which one of the following does not border Panama?
(b) Paraguay and Ecuador
(c) Brazil and Paraguay
(a) Coast Rica
(b) Pacific Ocean
(d) Colombia and Paraguay
(c) Colombia
(d) Venezuela
59. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
52. Consider the following statements:
the given continents in the decreasing order of their
1. Silent Valley National Park in the Nallamalai
percentage of Earth's land?
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed
(a) North AmericaAfricaSouth AmericaEurope
to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
(b) AfricaNorth AfricaSouth AmericaEurope
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley's
(c) North AmericaAfricaEuropeSouth America
(d) AfricaNorth AmericaEuropeSouth America
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
60. Bermuda Triangle extends up to which of the
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
following places? .
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Southern Florida 2. Puerto Rico
53. Which one of the following countries does not border
3. Hawaiian Islands
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Poland
(b) Ukraine
(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) Belarus
(d) North Sea
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
B 20
Topicwise Solved Papers
61. Claims to the historical Macedonian territory have
69. Which one of the following cities does not have the
been a bone of contention between which of the
same clock time as that of the other three cities at any
following countries?
given instant?
(a) Portugal and Spain
(a) London (UK)
(b) Lisbon (Portugal)
(b) Bulgaria and Greece
(c) Accra (Ghana)
(d) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
(c) Romania and Bulgaria
70. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
(d) Portugal and Greece
using the code given below the lists:
62. Huangpu River flows through which one of the
List-I (City)
List-II (River)
following cities?
A. Bangkok
1. Irrawaddy
(a) Beijing
(b) Ho Chi Minh City
B. Phnom-Penh
2. Mekong
(c) Shanghai
(d) Manila
C. Hanoi
3. Menam (Chao Phraya)
63. Which one of the following countries is the leading
D. Yangon
4. Red River

producer of uranium?
(a) United States of America
(a) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
(b) Canada
(b) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
(c) Germany
(c) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
(d) Zambia
(d) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1
64. Consider the following statements:
71. Which one among the following rivers is the longest?
1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a
nautical mile.
(a) Amazon
(b) Amur
2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East
(c) Congo
(d) Lena
African Coast.
72. Through which one of the following Straits, does a
3. Greece and Albania form a part of the Iberian
tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Davis Strait
(b) Denmark Strait
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Strait of Dover
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
73. The largest coral reef in the world is found near the
65. Through which one of the following groups of
coast of which one of the following countries? [2007]
countries does the Equator pass?
(a) Australia
(b) Cuba

(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia

(c) Ghana
(d) Philippines
(b) Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia
74. Which one amongst the following has the largest
livestock population in the world?
(c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia
(c) India
(d) USA
66. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
75. In which one of the following is Malta located? [2008]
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
Well-known Place
(c) Black Sea
(d) North Sea
(a) Baikonour
76. Which of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
(b) Kourou
French Guiana
(a) Colombo
(b) Jakarta
(c) Borobudur
(c) Manila
(d) Singapore
(d) Cannes
77. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the
67. Other than India and China, which one of the fol owing
International Date Line?
groups of countries border Myanmar?
(a) Malacca Strait

(b) Bering Strait

(a) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam
(c) Strait of Florida
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
78. Which of the following countries share borders with
(b) Cambodia, Laos and Malaysia
(c) Thailand, Vietnam and Malaysia
1. Ukraine
2. Romania
(d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh
3. Belarus
68. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Buenos Aires
(b) Hawaiian Islands
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d) Valletta
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
World Political Geography
B 21
79. Conisder the following statements:
89. In which one of the following places is the Shompen
1. Ajman is one of the seven emirates of the UAE.
tribe found?
2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join
(a) Nilgiri Hills
(b) Nicobar Islands
the UAE.
(c) Spiti Valley
(d) Lakshadweep Islands
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
90. Which one of the following can one come across if one
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
travels through the Strait of Malacca?

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Bali
(b) Brunei
80. Out of all the biosphere reserves in India, four have
(c) Java
(d) Singapore
been recognized on the World Network by UNESCO.
Which one of the following is not one of them? [2008]
91. As a result of their annual survey, the National
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Kanchenjunga
Geographic Society and an international polling firm
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Sunderbans
Globe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score.
81. Which two countries follow China and India in the
What is this score?
decreasing order of their population?
(a) It is a measure of efforts made by different
(a) Brazil and USA
countries in adopting technologies for reducing
(b) USA and Indonesia
carbon footprint.
(c) Canada and Malaysia
(b) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable
(d) Russia and Nigeria
consumer behaviour in different countries.
82. With which one of the following rivers is the
(c) It is an assessment of programmes/ schemes
Omkareshwar Project associated?
undertaken by different countries for improving
(a) Chambal
(b) Narmada
the conservation of natural resources.
(c) Tapi
(d) Bhima
(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon
83. In India, how many states share the coastline? [2008]
credits sold by different countries.

(a) 7
(b) 8
92. Which one of the following pairs of islands is
(c) 9
(d) 10
separated from each other by the Ten Degree
84. Consider the following countries:
[2014 - I]
1. Australia
2. Namibia
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
3. Brazil
4. Chile
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
Through which of the above does the Tropic of
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
Capricorn pass?
(d) Sumatra and Java
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
93. Turkey is located between
[2014 - I]
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
85. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(a) Berlin
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
(b) London
94. Consider the following pairs :
[2014 - I]
(c) New York

Region often in news
(d) Vienna
1. Chechnya
Russian Federation
86. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
2. Darfur
using the code given below the lists:
3. Swat Valley
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(Geographic feature)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
A. Great Victoria Desert 1. Australia
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B. Grand Canyon
2. Canada
95. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the
C. Lake Winnipeg
3. New Zealand
D. Southern Alps
4. USA
following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds
from south to north?
[2014 - I]
(a) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3 (b) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
(c) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1 (d) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1

3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
87. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
are launched is located site the coast of :
(a) 4-2-1-3
(b) 3-2-4-1
(a) Florida
(b) Virginia
(c) 3-4-1-2
(d) 4-3-2-1
(c) North Carolina
(d) South Carolina
96. Which one of the following countries of South-West
88. Which among the following has the worlds largest
Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
reserves of Uranium?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Russian Federation (d) USA
(c) Lebanon
(d) lsrael
B 22
Topicwise Solved Papers
(d) The marked countries in figure are :
13. (b) The Palk strait separates India and Srilanka. It
1 Kazakhstan
lies between the Gulf of Mannar and the Bay of Bengal.
2 Turkmenia
14. (d) Jaffna is situated at the D point in the given
3 Uzbekistan
figure. Jaffna is the location in Srilanka, where the
4 Kirgizia
L.T.T.E group is very active and has a stronghold.
5 Tajikistan
15. (b) About 50% of the world population is

(a) Greenwich Mean Time is the standard time for
concentrated between latitude of 20N and 40N,
time assessment in different countries.
because most populous countries and areas like Asia,
The countries which lies east of the Greenwich line is
U.S.A, Europe and India lies with in this latitude.
ahead of Greenwich Mean Time while the countries
16. (d) Mongloids are inhabitants of northern, eastern
which lies west of Greenwich has their standard time
and south-east Asia.
behind the Greenwich Mean Time. So, the correct
Their eyes has a characteristic fold of skin on the upper
sequence of the countries are Japan, Iraq, Greece, Cuba
lid, hair is lank and straight and the height is medium.
and Costa Rica.
The group also includes the Chinese, Japanese,
(c) The Gypsies are a group of people found in
Burmese, Thais, Vietnamese and Malays.
Central Asia. But, the original home of Gypsies was
17. (d) The Salween river is located in the eastern part of
in India (Western Rajasthan and Punjab) area.
Myanmar. This river is situated at Shan plateu of
Gypsies are an ethnic group, which for unknown
Myanmar. Its basin covers 320,000 sq km. This river
reasons took to a wandering life style during the late
forms the border between Burma and Thailand.
middle ages.
(a) The Continent Antarctica has the highest mean
18. (d) Indonesia consists of 13,677 islands (nearly
elevation in the world. This is because it is covered by
14,000) and this country is 5000 miles from Torres
a thick layer of ice, about 7,100 feet (2,200 m) thick.
strait. 4th largest country in Asia.
(c) Chechnya is situated in the Asian continent,
19. (c) The geographical details given in the figure
Chechnya was in news due to its separatist movement
indicates England, which is situated in Europe.
from Russia.
20. (b) Daily wheather map showing isobars is an

(d) Great Nicobar, Sundarbans and Nanda Devi are

example of isopleth map. Isopleth map shows an
biosphere reserves declared by Govt. of India. Gulf of
imaginary surface by means of lines joining points of
Kutch is not a biosphere reserve, dry sandy plain.
equal values.
(b) Arakan Yoma is located in western Myanmar. It
21. (b) Russia is the largest producer of fuel wood in the
is a part of eastern Himalayas. It includes the Naga
world because Russia has the largest cover of forests.
hills, the Chin hills and the Patkai range which
includes the Lushai hills.
22. (b) During a flight from Delhi to Tokyo the respective
(a) The dotted (broken) line in the map represents
airports are Bangkok Hanoi Hong kong Taipei.
Durand line, the boundary between India and
23. (a) The satellite launched by Canada has helped in
Afghanistan. This line was demarcated by a
the prepration of a complete and high resolution map
commission headed by Durand.
of Antartica.
(d) Denotified tribe in India refers to the tribes who
24. (a) Canada is the largest importer of bauxite from
where originally listed under the originally trible act
of 1871. They are also known as Vimukta Jati.
25. (d) The Indonesian forest fire in 1997was caused by
10. (c) Western Ghat is known as an ecological hot spot
slash and burn technique of agriculture.
in India notified under the Wild Life Act of 1972.
26. (b) In the given diagram of North America and South
11. (d) National Forest Policy, 1988 describes the
protection of forest and development of forest. It does
a marked river is Yukon
not describe the use of insecticide and pesticide in
forest areas.
b marked river is Mackenzie
12. (c) In the given map the labelled countries are
c marked river is St. Lawrence
A is Iraq

d marked river is Orinoco.

B is Syria
27. (d)
C is Saudi Arabia
28. (b) Maracaibo is an oil-port of Venezuela as it has
D is Jordan
oil rich basis.
World Political Geography
B 23
29. (a) A marked city in map is Darwin in Australia.
44. (d) Victoria waterfalls is associated with the river
B marked city in the given map is Kualalumpur in
Zambezi which is situated in Africa.
45. (a) In Macedonia, ethinic Albanian population is 23%,
C marked city in map is Nairobi in Kenya. The city
which is a good number in Macedonia. But in Kosovo
marked D in the map is Lagos in Nigeria.
92% are Albanians and Serbians are in a minority.
30. (b) Mestizo is a type of person with mixed racial
46. (a) Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria,
ancestry, especially of mixed European and Indian
Jordan and Egypt.
47. (a) Armenia is a land lock country.
31. (d) In the given map, copper deposits discovered by
48. (b) Mekong is a major river in south eastern Asia.
Atomic Minerals Division of Department Atomic
Mekong is known as the Lancang in China. It runs
energy, is at Hasson in Karnataka and is marked as
through Yunan province, China, forms the border
between Myanmar and Laos and most of the border
32. (b) Mt. Rainier is a volcanic mountain situated in
between Laos and Thailand and flows across
Cambodia and Southern Vietnam before emptying to
Mt. Etna is situated in Europe, Paricutin volcanic
South China.
mountain present in Mexico and Taal volcanic
49. (d) Latvia does not share its border with Poland
mountain is present in Philippines.
because it is located between Estonia, Russia, Belarus,
33. (a) The correct sequence from east to west is

Lithuania, Gulf of Riga and Baltic Sea.

Yugoslavia, Bosnia, Slovenia and Croatia.
50. (c)
34. (c) Lake Victoria acts as the international boundary
51. (d) The Panama Canal joins Pacific Ocean, Atalantic
between Tanzania and Uganda. It is the largest lake
Ocean, Colombia and Coast Rica.
in Africa and 2nd widest fresh water body in the
52. (c) Silent Valley National Park is situated in Nilgiri
Hills of Western Ghats. The park is bound by
35. (b) Marsupials are a group of mammals commonly
Attappadi reserved forest to the east and vested forest
have pouches or pocket of skin, where the mother
of Palaghat division and Nilamber division to the
nurses their young. These marsupians are found in
south-west respectively.
Australia. The common example of marsupians are
53. (b) Ukraine does not border Lithuania. The border
Kangaroo and Koala.
countries to Lithuania are Lativia, Russia, Poland,
36. (c) The given map is the union territory of Dadra
Belarus. Baltic sea is located in the west.
and Nagar Haveli. In western India. The capital is at
Silvasa and major language of this Union Territory is
54. (c) While moving from the North to South Pakistan,
the correct sequence of the towns is Peshawar
37. (b) Fohn is the warm and dry wind of Alps region.
Islamabad Gujranwala Multan.
Sarmun is the local wind of Kuristan region, Santa
55. (d) All the monuments / sites are included in World
Ana is the local wind of California and Zonda is the
Heritage list of UNESCO. Sun Temple of Orissa, group
local wind of Argentina.
of monuments at Mahabalipuram were included in
38. (a) Ashikabad is marked as '1'
1985. Champaner Pavagadh Archeological Park of
Tashkent is marked as '2'
Gujrat and Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus of
Bishken is marked as '3'
Maharastra are included in year 2004 in UNESCO list.
Dushanbe is marked as '4' in the given map.
56. (d) City

39. (b) All the statements given in the options are correct.
A. Washington, D.C. 4. River Potamac
40. (c) According to data of 2010, population of Indonesia
B. Berlin
3. River Spree
is 242 million, population of Brazil is 201 million,
C. Paris
2. River Seine
population of Japan is 126.8 million and population of
D. Madrid
1. River Manzanares
Russia is 139.3 million, so the descending order of the
57. (b) The total area of United Kingdom is 94, 226 sq
size of the country is Indonesia, Brazil, Japan and
miles (244, 044 sq km), where England covers 50, 344
sq miles (130, 365 sq km) i.e. less than 60 % of total
41. (c) The descending order literacy status of these
land area of United Kingdom. Great Britain donot
countries is: Srilanka 90.7%, India 65.5% Pakistan
comprise of Northern Ireland.
40.9% and Bangladesh 38.9% now its Banglades,
58. (c) Itaipu Dam is built on River Parana is the largest
dam in the world. This is a joint project of Brazil
42. (b) Bosnia, Hercegovina, Alabania, Croatia have
Adriatic sea as a boundary. Macedonia is far away
59. (b) The decreasing order of arrangement of continent
from Adriatic sea.
according to the percentage of Earth's land is Africa
43. (d) In the given figure, four islands of Indian ocean
(29800000 sq km), North America (21510000 sq km)
region are Chagos, Socotra, Seychelles and Mauritius
South America (17598000 sq km) and Europe (9699550
which are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively.
sq km).
B 24
Topicwise Solved Papers
60. (b) Bermuda Triangle is a strange and mysterious
76. (d) Singapore is 200 km north of equator.
location in southern Atlantic Ocean. It is roughly in
77. (b) Bering Strait is nearest to the International Date

the shape of a triangle which extends upto South

line. Located 1.5 km away from international date line.
Florida, Pruto Rico and Bermuda Island.
78. (a) Maldova is a land locked country in Eastern
61. (b) Macedonian territory is disputed by Bulgaria &
Europe Located between Romania to the west and
Ukraine to the north, east and south.
62. (c) The Huangpu river is the largest river in Shanghai
79. (c) Ajman is one of the seven emirates constituting
in China. It is 113.07 km long 400 metres wide and 9
the United Arab Emirates with an area of 260 sq
metres deep. Shanghai gets most of its drinking water
kilometer. Ras al-Khaimah was the 7th and last
from Huangpu.
Sheikhdom to join UAE in 1972.
63. (b) Canada is the largest producer of uranium,
80. (b)
accounting for about 22% of world output. Production
81. (c) Canada is ranked as 36th most populated
of uranium in Canada is mainly from the Mc Arthur
River mines in northern Saskatchewan province,
82. (b) Omkareshwar Project is associated with
which is the largest mine in the world.
Narmada river.
64. (d) In statement '1' one nautical mile is 1852 mtrs
83. (c) 9 states of India have a coastline. Gujrat,
and one terrestrial mile is 1609 metres. So, statement
Maharastra, Karnataka, Kerla, Tamil Nadu, Andhra
'1' is correct. In statement '2' Harmattan is a dry and
Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal.
dusty wind of West Africa. So, statement '2' is wrong.
84. (d) The Tropic of Capricorn pass through all the
In statement '3' Iberian peninsula includes Portugal,
countries mentioned in the list.
Spain, Andorra and Gibraltar. Greece and Albania
85. (a) Berlin is situated on the bank of Havel river. Rhine
are not a part of Peninsula. So, statement '3' is wrong.
river is the longest river in Germany.
65. (b) Colombia, Kenya and Indoneisa are countries
86. (b)
through which the equator passes.
87. (a) Cape Canaveral is the part of Floridas coast.

66. (a) Baikonur is world's first and largest operational

88. (a) Australia has the worlds largest uranium
space launch facility. It is located in Kazakhstan and
reserves. Approximately 24% of the planets uranium
not in Russia.
is present in Australia now 31%.
67. (d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh are countries
89. (b) The Shompen tribe is one of two Mongloid tribes
bordering Myanmar.
found in Nicobar Island.
68. (c) Copacabana Beach is located in Rio de Janeiro in
90. (d) Malacca strait is between the Indonesian island
of Sumatra and the Malaya Peninsula. Singapore lies
69. (d) London, Lisbon and Accra in Ghana are close to
on the tip of the Malay Peninsular.
Greenwich Meridian. But, Addis Ababa is istuated
91. (b) In the third annual survery of National
on the eastern part of Africa (i.e., longitude 38.74 E).
Geographic Society and Globe Scan, Indian top ranked
So, Addis Ababa has a different clock time than that
in Greendex 2009 due to environmentally sustainable
of London, Lisbon and Accra.
consumer behaviour.
70. (a)
92. (a) The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that
71. (a) Amazon is the longest river in the world. It
separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar
originates from Andes mountain in Peru.
Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
72. (c) Strait of Dover connects United Kingdom and
93. (b) Turkey's smaller part is in Southeastern Europe
France. It is about 32 km in length.
and its larger part in Western Asia which is located
73. (a) The largest coral reef is the Great Barrier Reef,
between Black Sea and Mediterranean
located just off the north-eastern coast of Australia.
94. (a) The Chechen Republic is a federal subject (a
The 1200 mile (1900 km) long reef is protected as a
republic) of Russia. Darfur is a region in western
Marine Park.
Sudan. Swat is a valley and an administrative
74. (c) India has largest livestock population in the
district in Pakistan.

world, having 57% of worlds buffalo population and

95. (c) The correct sequence of occurrence of the
14% of the cattle population. According to 17th Indias
following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds
Livestock Census, 2003, the country has about 18.5
from south to north is Jakarta-Singapore-Bangkok
crore cattle and 9.8 crore buffalo with total livestock
and Hanoi.
of 48-50 crore and total poultry of 48.90 crore.
96. (b) Jordan does not open out to the Mediterranean
75. (b) Malta is in the centre of Mediterranean sea. Italy is
in south and Libya is located north of Malta. Its area is
246 sq km.

Chapter 3
of India
The alpine vegetation in the Western Himalayas is
The place where there is no thermal power station is

found only up to a height of 3000 metres while in the

Eastern Himalayas it is found up to a height of 4000
(a) 1
(b) 2
metres. The reason for this variation in the same
(c) 3
(d) 4
mountain range is that:
Monoculture of commercially viable trees is
(a) Eastern Himalayas are higher than Western
destroying the unique natural profile. Thoughtless
exploitation of timber, deforesting vast tracts for palm
(b) Eastern Himalayas as are nearer to the equator
cultivation, destruction of mangroves, illegal logging
and sea coast than the Western Himalayas
by tribals and poaching only compounds the problem.
(c) Eastern Himalayas get more monsoon rainfall
Fresh water pockets are fast drying up due to
than the Western Himalayas
deforestation and destruction of mangroves. The
(d) Eastern Himalayan rocks are more fertile than
place referred to this quotation is :
the Western Himalayan rocks
(a) Sundarban
Consider the map given below :
(b) Kerala coast
(c) Orissa coast
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Island
The palaeomagnetic results obtained from India
indicate that in the past, the Indian land mass has
moved :
(a) northward
(b) southward
(c) eastward
(d) westward

Of the four places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the map, the
one indicating a tidal port is :
The division along India's coastal region indicate:
(a) coastal pollution zones
(b) salinity density isopleths
(c) the areas upto which Indian sovereignty extends
(d) underwater relief contours
In the map given below, three out of the four places
marked indicate places where a thermal power station
is located :
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
The Indian subcontinent was originally a part of a
huge mass called:
(a) Jurassic land mass (b) Aryavarta
(c) Indiana
(d) Gondwana continent
Which one of the following mountain ranges is spread
over only one state in India?
(a) Aravalli
(b) Satpura
(c) Ajanta
(d) Sahyadri

B 26
Topicwise Solved Papers
The National Highway from Amritsar to Calcutta via
15. "You might see a few curious Danes around, but that
Delhi is numbered:
is becauseused to be Danish outpost. This quaint
(a) 1
(b) 2
town with its fort and a beautiful church, the New
(c) 4
(d) 8
Jerusalem, empty streets and deserted beach front is
10. Examine the map of Jammu and Kashmir given below:
a quaint gem." The place referred to in this quotation
The mountains ranges marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
lies on the:
(a) Tamil Nadu coast (b) Kerala coast
(c) Karnataka coast (d) Goa coast
16. Consider the following rivers:
1. Kishenganga
2. Ganga

3. Wainganga
4. Penganga
The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged
in the north-south direction is
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 1, 2, 4, 3
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List-I (Climatic conditions)
List-II (Reasons)
A. Madras is warmer
1. North-east monsoon
than Calcutta
(a) Ladakh, Zanskar, Karakoram and Pir Panjal
B. Snowfall in Himalayas 2. Altitude
(b) Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar and Pir Panjal
C. Rainfall decreases from 3. Western depressions
(c) Karakoram, Zanskar, Pir Panjal and Ladakh
West Bengal to Punjab
(d) Ladakh, Pir Panjal, Karakoram and Zanskar
D. Sutlej-Ganga plain gets 4. Distance from the sea
11. High temperature and low pressure over the Indian
some rain in winter
subcontinent during the summer season draws air
5. Latitude
from the Indian Ocean leading to the in-blowing of
(a) A 1; B 2; C 4; D 5
(a) South-east monsoon
(b) A 4; B 5; C 1; D 3
(b) South-west monsoon
(c) A 5; B 2; C 4; D 3
(c) Trade winds
(d) A 5; B 1; C 3; D 4
(d) Westerlies
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
12. Match List-I (Ores) with List-II (States where they are
mined) and select the correct answer:

A. Deccan Traps
1. Late cenozoic
A. Manganese
1. Madhya Pradesh
B. Western Ghats
2. Pre-cambrian
B. Nickel
2. Orissa
C. Aravalli
3. Cretaceous Eocene
C. Lead-zinc
3. Rajasthan
D. Asbestos
4. Andhra Pradesh
D. Narmada-Tapi
4. Cambrian
alluvial deposits
(a) A 1; B 3; C 3; D 4
5. Pleistocene
(b) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 1
(c) A 1; B 2; C 3; D 4
(a) A 3; B 5; C 1; D 4
(d) A 4; B 2; C 3; D 1
(b) A 3; B 1; C 2; D 5
13. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
(c) A 2; B 1; C 3; D 4
(d) A 1; B 4; C 2; D 5
1. Idukki
Thermal power station
19. The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing
2. Sabarigiri
Hydro-electric project
India into tropical and subtropical zones is : [1997]
3. Ghatprabha :
Irrigation project

(a) 21C
(b) 180C
4. Ramganga :
Multipurpose project
(c) 12C
(d) 15C
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
14. Which one of the following areas of India produces
largest amount of cotton?
(Typical areas of occurrence)
(a) North-west India and Gangetic West Bengal
A. Coal
1. Bhandara
(b) North-west and western India
B. Gold
2. Karanpura
(c) Western and southern India
C. Mica
3. Hutti
(d) Plains of northern India
D. Manganese
4. Nel ore

Geography of India
B 27
26. The tribal population in Andaman and Nicobar
(a) A 1; B 3; C 2; D 4
islands belongs to the:
(b) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1
(a) Australoid race
(b) Caucasoid race

(c) A 3; B 4; C 2; D 1
(c) Mongoloid race
(d) Negroid race
(d) A 2; B 1; C 4; D 3
27. In the map shown rivers labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. The Alamatti is on the river:
(a) Godavari
(b) Kavery
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
22. Consider the map given below:
(a) Kosi, Gomti, Ghaghara and Gandak
(b) Kosi, Ganga, Gomti and Ghaghara
(c) Gandak, Ganga, Gomti and Ghaghara
(d) Teesta, Gomti, Ghaghara and Kosi
28. Which one of the fol owing east flowing rivers of India
has rift valley due to down warping?
The predominant languages spoken in the areas
(a) Damodar
(b) Mahanadi
marked A, B, C and D are respectively:
(c) Sone
(d) Yamuna
(a) Brajbhasha, Bhojpuri, Maithili and Awadhi
29. Forest areas have been label ed as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the map:
(b) Awadhi, Maithili, Bhojpuri and Brajbhasha
(c) Brajbhasha, Awadhi, Bhojpuri and Maithili
(d) Maithili, Bhojpuri, Brajbhasha and Awadhi
23. The canal-carrying capacity of Farakka is :
(a) 75,000 Cusecs
(b) 70,000 Cusecs
(c) 40,000 Cusecs

(d) 35,000 Cusecs

24. Which one of the fol owing pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Teak
Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Deodar
Madhya Pradesh
(c) Sandalwood :
(d) Sundari
West Bengal
Among these, those which were threatened in 1997
25. Consider the map given below:
by a serious epidemic include:
(a) teak forests of 3 and 4
(b) oak forests of 1 and sal forests of 2
(c) sal forests of 3
(d) sandalwood forests of 4
30. Commercial production of mineral oil has started in
which one of the areas of India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in
the map given below:
The place marked A, B, C and D in the map are
(a) Rift valley region, Chhattisgarh plain, Rain
shadow region and Chhota Nagpur
(b) Chhattisgarh plain, Chhota Nagpur plateau, Rift
valley region, and Rain shadow region
(c) Rift valley region, Chhattisgarh plain, Chhota
Nagpur plateau and Rain shadow region
(d) Chhattisgarh plain, Rain shadow region, Chhota
(a) 1
(b) 2
Nagpur plateau and Rift valley region
(c) 3
(d) 4

B 28
Topicwise Solved Papers
31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Minerals)
List-II (Mining area)
A. Graphite
1. Bellary
B. Lead
2. Didwana
C. Salt
3. Rampa
D. Silver
4. Zawar
(a) A-3; B -4; C-1; D-2 (b) A-1; B -4; C-2; D-3
(c) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2 (d) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
32. The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added a new

(a) Palanpur, Mahesana, Ahmedabad and Vadodara

chapter to the history of Indian Sericulture. Which
(b) Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and Junagarh
one of the following states is the leading producer of
(c) Palanpur, Kanda, Bhuj and Okla
Oak tasar silk ?
(d) Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Broach
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
37. Some people in Manipur live in house built on floating
(c) Manipur
(d) Orissa
islands of weeds and decaying vegetation held
together by suspended silt. These are called: [1998]
33. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
(a) Tipis
(b) Barkhans
using the codes given below the lists:
(c) Phoomdis
(d) Izba
List-I (Places)
List-II (Industries)
38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
A. Jamnagar
1. Aluminium
the states (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) of India shown on the
B. Hospet
2. Woollen textile
map in descending order in terms of available ground
C. Korba
3. Fertilizers
water resources for irrigation?
D. Haldia
4. Cement
5. Iron and steel
(a) A-4; B-3; C- 1; D-2 (b) A-2; B-5; C- 1; D-3
(c) A-4; B-5; C- 2; D-1 (d) A-2; B-1; C- 4; D-3
34. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialised
towns have been developed. Match the lists of
specialisation with towns and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the lists: [1998]

List-I (Towns)
List-II (Specialisation)
A. Alibag
1. Fishing centre
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
B. Balapur
2. Holiday resort
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
C. Nhava Sheva
3. Petrochemical complex
39. Among the Indian States shown labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. Ratnagiri
4. Port
in the rough outline map given, the correct sequence
in descending order of percent of scheduled tribe
(a) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 (b) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
population to their total population is :
(c) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 (d) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
35. What is the correct sequence of the following Indian
states in descending order of their length of surface
roads per 100 km2 of their areas?
1. Haryana
2. Maharashtra
3. Punjab
4. Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3,1, 2
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1
36. The four railway junctions shown by numerals 1, 2,
3, 4 on the rough outline map of Gujarat are

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Geography of India
B 29
40. Which one of the following sets of states benefits the
45. The figure shows a portion of Southern India. The
most from the Konkan Railway?
proposed site (Koodankulam) for construction of
(a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala
two l000 MW nuclear power plants has been
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu,
labelled in the map as :
(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra
(d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu
41. Which one of the fol owing pairs of cities has recently
been connected through a 6-lane express way? [1998]
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Dhaka
(c) Islamabad

(d) Mumbai
42. "India has the largest population of the Asian X. Today,
(a) A
(b) B
there are just about 20,000 to 25,000 X in their natural
(c) C
(d) D
habitat spreading across the evergreen forests, dry
46. The first marine sanctuary in India, within its bounds
thorn forest, swamps and grasslands. Their prime
coral reefs, mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various
habitats, are however the moist deciduous forests.
kinds of sea birds, has been established in:
The X population in India ranges from north-west
(a) Sundarbans
(b) Chilka Lake
India where they are found in the forest divisions of
(c) Gulf of Kutch
(d) Lakshadweep
Dehradun. Bijnor and National districts, of UP to the
47. Which one of the following pairs of states and tribes
Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka and Kerala
is not correctly matched?
and Tamil Nadu.
(a) Assam
In Central India, their population distributed over
(b) Nagaland
Southern Bihar and Orissa. In the East, they are seen
(c) Arunachal
in North Bengal, Assam and a few other states."
(d) Madhya Pradesh :
48. In the rough outline map of a part of Jammu and

The animal "X" referred to in this quotation is :

Kashmir shown in the figure, places marked A, B, C
(a) lion
(b) elephant
and D represent respectively:
(c) tiger
(d) one-horned rhinoceros
43. The minimum land area recommended for forest cover
to maintain proper ecological balance in India is :
(a) 25%
(b) 33%
(c) 43%
(d) 53%
44. In the given figure, the site of the Tehri dam has been
labelled as:
Bhilangana River
(a) Anantnag, Baramula, Srinagar and Kargil
(b) Baramula, Srinagar, Kargil and Anantnag
(c) Baramula, Srinagar, Anantnag and Kargil
Koteshwar Dam
(d) Srinagar, Baramula, Kargil and Anantnag
49. If it is 10.00 am. I.S.T., then what would be the local
Alaknanda River
time at Shillong on 92 E longitude?
(a) 9.38 a.m.
(b) 10.38 a.m.
(c) 10.22 a.m.
(d) 9.22 a.m.
50. The Ravva offshore block, with great potential for oil,
is located in :

Ganga River
(a) Krishna-Godavari basin
(a) A
(b) B
(b) Cauvery basin
(c) Mahanadi basin
(c) C
(d) D
(d) Palar-Pennar basin

B 30
Topicwise Solved Papers
51. At which one of the following positions shown in the

55. Assertion (A) : The frequency of floods in north Indian

diagram will the height of the ocean tide be maximum?
plains has increased during the last couple of decades.
Reason (R) : There has been a reduction in the depth
of river valleys due to deposition of silt.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
's Orbit 1
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Earth's Orbit
56. Assertion (A) : Ganga plain is the most densely
populated part of India.
Reason (R) : Ganga is the most harnessed river of India.
(a) Ml
(b) M2
(c) M3
(d) M4
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
52. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(a) Ghaggar's water is utilised in the Indira Gandhi
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
(b) Narmada rises from Amarkantak region

57. Match the different ports of Union Territory of

(c) Nizam Sagar is situated on the Manjra river
Pondicherry labelled as A, B, C and D in the given
(d) Penganga is a tributary of the Godavari
map with their respective names and select the correct
53. Match the locations of ports labelled as A, B, C and D
answer using the codes given below the lists of ports:
in the given map with the names of those ports and
select the correct answer using the codes given below
the names of the ports:
Ports of India
1. Karaikal
2. Mahe
3. Pondicherry
4. Yaman
Names of Ports
1. Kakinada
2. Karwar
(a) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4 (b) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
3. Mangalore
4. Tuticorin
(c) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
5. Veraval
(a) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-5
(b) A-5; B-2; C-4; D-1
(c) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(d) A-5; B-3; C-2; D-1
54. Which one of the following pairs of primitive tribes
and places of their inhabitation is NOT correctly

(a) Buksa
(b) Kol
In the above map, the black marks show distribution
of :
(c) Munda :
Chhota Nagpur
(a) asbestos
(b) gypsum
(d) Korba
(c) limestone
(d) mica

Geography of India
B 31

(b) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari,
Cauvery and Vagai
(c) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna,
Cauvery, Pennar and Vagai
(d) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, Godavari,
Cauvery, Vagai and Pennar
65. With reference to Indian transport systems, consider
the following statements:
1. Indian railway system is the largest in the world
2. National Highways cater to 45 percent of the total
and transport demand
3. Among the states, Kerala has the highest density
In the shaded area of the above map, the mean
of surface road
temperature for the month of July varies between:
4. National Highway No. 7 is the longest in the
(a) 22.5C25.0C
(b) 25.0C27.5C
Which of these statements are correct ?
(c) 27.5C30.0C
(d) 30.0C32.5C
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
60. Mekong Ganga Co-operation Project is :
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
(a) an irrigation project involving India and
66. The average annual temperature of a meteorological
station is 26C, its average annual rainfall is 63 cm
(b) a joint tourism initiative of some Asian countries
and the annual range temperature is 9C. The station
(c) a hydroelectric power project involving India,
in question is :
Bangladesh and Myanmar
(a) Allahabad
(b) Chennai

(d) a defence and security agreement of India with

(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Kolkata
its eastern neighbours
67. The sea coast of which one of the following states has
61. Assertion (A) : Anticyclonic conditions are formed in
become famous as a nesting place for the giant Olive
winter season when atmospheric pressure is high and
Ridley turtles from South America?
air temperatures are low.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
Reason (R) : Winter rainfall in northern India causes
(c) Orissa
(d) Tamil Nadu
development of anticyclonic conditions with low
68. With reference to India, which one of the following
statements is not correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) About one-third of the area of the country records
explanation of A
more than 750 millimetres of annual rainfall
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(b) The dominant source of irrigation in the country
explanation of A
is wells
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in
(d) A is false but R is true
northern plains of the country
62. Consider the following statements regarding power
(d) The mountain areas account for about thirty
sector in India:
percent of the surface area of the country
1. The installed capacity of power generation is
69. Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees
around 95000 MW
having long roots and sharp thorns or sharp thorns
2. Nuclear plants contribute nearly 15% of total

or spines are commonly found in :

power generation
(a) Eastern Orissa
3. Hydroelectricity plants contribute nearly 40% of
(b) North-Eastern Tamil Nadu
total power generation
(c) Shivalik and Terai region
4. Thermal plants at present account for nearly 80%
(d) Western Andhra Pradesh
of total power generation
70. Match List-I (Mangrove) with List-II (State) and select
Which of the statements is/are correct?
the correct answer using the codes given below the
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
List-I (Mangrove)
List-II (State)
63. The approximate age of the Aravallis range is :
A. Achra Ratnagiri
1. Karnataka
B. Coondapur
2. Kerala
(a) 370 million years (b) 470 million years
C. Pichavaram
3. Andhra Pradesh
(c) 570 million years (d) 670 million years
D. Vembanad
4. Maharashtra
64. The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers
5. Tamil Nadu
of the peninsular India from north to south is : [2002]
(a) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna,
(a) A-2; B-1; C-5; D-4 (b) A-4; B-5; C-3; D-2
Pennar, Cauvery and Vagai
(c) A-2; B-5; C-3; D-4 (d) A-4; B-1; C-5; D-2
B 32
Topicwise Solved Papers

71. What is the correct sequence of the riversGodavari,

80. Consider the following statements:
Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order
Among the Indian States :
of their lengths?
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline
(a) GodavariMahanadiNarmadaTapi
2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports
(b) GodavariNarmadaMahanadiTapi
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) NarmadaGodavariTapi-Mahanadi
(d) NarmadaTapiGodavariMahanadi
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
72. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of :
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Assam Himalayas
81. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (Location) and
(b) Kumaon Himalayas
select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) Nepal Himalayas
(d) Punjab Himalayas
A. Coal
1. Giridih
73. Among the following cities, which one has the highest
B. Copper
2. Jayamkondam
altitude above mean sea level?
C. Manganese
3. Alwar
(a) Bangalore
(b) Delhi
D. Lignite
4. Dharwar
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Nagpur

74. Consider the following statements:

(a) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
1. Longitude of Jabalpur's location is between those
(b) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
of Indore and Bhopal.
2. Latitude of Aurangabad's location is between
(c) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
those of Vadodara and Pune.
(d) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1
3. Bangalore is situated more southward than
82. Which among the fol owing National Highway routes
is the longest?
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Agra-Mumbai
(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 2
(b) Chennai-Thane
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Kolkata-Hajira
75. Which one among the following states is smallest in
(d) Pune-Machilipatnam
83. Consider the following:
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
1. Mahadeo Hills
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
2. Sahyadri Parvat
76. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to
the Tropic of Cancer?
3. Satpura Range
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
What is the correct sequence of the above from the
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Nagpur
north to the south ?

77. In which one of the following Union Territories, do

(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3
people of the Onge tribe live?
(c) 1, 3, 2
(d) 2, 3, 1
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
84. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
cities of Rajasthan ?
(c) Daman and Diu
(a) Bharatpur
(b) Jaipur
(d) Lakshadweep
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Udaipur
78. Consider the following statements:
85. Match List I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List II
1. National Thermal Power Corporation has
(State) and select the correct answer using the codes
diversified into hydropower sector
given below:
2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified
into telecom sector
A Kanger Ghati National
1. Chhattisgarh
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
B. Nagerhole National
2. Haryana
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. Consider the following statements:
1. Damodar, Valley Corporation is the first multi

C. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary 3. Himachal Pradesh

purpose river valley project of independent India
D. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary 4. Karnataka
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal
Codes :
and gas power stations
(a) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
Geography of India
B 33
86. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
91. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserve) with List-II (States)
and select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) Gulf with narrow fronts and wider rears
experience high tides.
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected
A. Similipal
1. Sikkim
with the open sea by a narrow channel.
B. Dehong Deband
2. Uttaranchal
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow
C. Nokrek
3. Arunachal Pradesh
and shallow estuary of a river.
D. Kanchenjunga
4. Orissa
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river
5. Meghalaya
Hooghly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as

(a) A-1; B-3; C-5; D-4 (b) A-4; B-5; C -2; D-1
87. Assertion (A) : Bangalore receives much higher
(c) A-1; B-5; C-2; D-4 (d) A-4; B-3; C-5; D-1
average annual rainfall than that of Mangalore.
92. Amongst the following Indian States which one has
Reason (R) : Bangalore has the benefit of receiving
the minimum total forest cover?
rainfall both from south-west and north-east
(a) Sikkim
(b) Goa
(c) Haryana
(d) Kerala
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
93. Consider the following statements:
correct explanation of A
1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20%
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
of its geographical area. Out of the total forest
the correct explanation of A
cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
(c) A is true but R is false
2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims
(d) A is false but R is true
at bringing one third of the area of India under
88. Assertion (A) : West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India
tree forest cover.
have no deltas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Reason (R) : These rivers do not carry any alluvial
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
94. Consider the following statements :
correct explanation of A
1. Area-wise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not

the correct explanation of A
2. According to the population Census 2001,
(c) A is true but R is false
population of West Bengal is larger than that of
(d) A is false but R is true
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
89. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
fast reactor technology
95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and
using the code given below the lists.
Exploration is engaged in heavy water production
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in
(Atomic Power Plants
manufacture of Zircon for India's Nuclear
/Heavy Water Plants)
Programme beside other rare earth products
A. Thal
1. Andhra Pradesh
Which of the statements given above are correct?
B. Manuguru
2. Gujarat
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
C. Kakrapar
3. Maharashtra
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
D. Kaiga
4. Rajasthan
90. Match List I (Beaches in India) with List II (States) and

5. Karnataka
select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes :
(a) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-5 (b) A-3; B-5; C-2; D-1
(c) A-2; B-5; C-4; D-1 (d) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-5
A. Gopinath Beach
1. Andhra Pradesh
96. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
B. Lawsons Bay Beach
2. Kerala
C. Devbagh Beach
3. Gujarat
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively lower in their
D. Sinquerim Beach
4. Goa
northern region.
5. Karnataka
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
(a) A-5; B-4; C-2; D-1 (b) A-3; B-1; C-5; D-4
(d) The Narmada and Tapti river valleys are said to
(c) A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 (d) A-3; B-4; C-5; D-1
be old rift valleys.
B 34
Topicwise Solved Papers
97. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the
Codes :
(a) A-2; B-1; C-5; D-3 (b) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
(a) Chambal Project
(c) A-2; B-3; C-5; D-1 (d) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
(b) Kosi Project
104. Consider the following statements concerning the
(c) Damodar Valley Project
Indian Railways.
(d) Bhakra Nangal Project

1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway

98. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
are located at Jodhpur.
hills starting from the north and going towards the
2. "Indrail Pass" a travel as you please ticket has
been created especially for freedom fighters and
(a) Nallamalai HillsNilgiri HillsJavadi Hills
sportspersons who have represented India in any
Anamalai Hills
(b) Anamalai HillsJavadi HillsNilgiri Hills
Nallamalai Hills
3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world's oldest
working engine and the Indian Railways
(c) Nallamalai HillsJavadi HillsNilgiri Hills
conducts a journey of wildlife and heritage sites
Anamalai Hills
on it.
(d) Anamalai HillsNilgiri HillsJavadi Hills
Nallamalai Hills
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
99. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere reserve?
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None
(a) Agasthyamali
(b) Nallamalai
105. Consider the following statements:
(c) Nilgiri
(d) Panchmarhi
1. Sikkim has the minimum area among the 28
100. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry not
Indian cities in the decreasing order, of their normal
annual rainfall?
2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among
(a) KochiKolkataDelhiPatna

Pondicherry, National Capital Territory of Delhi

(b) KolkataKochiPatnaDelhi
and other Union Territories.
(c) KochiKolkataPatnaDelhi
3. Maharashtra has the highest population after
(d) KolkataKochiDelhiPatna
Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian States (Delhi
101. Which of the following states border Uttar Pradesh?
and Pondicherry not included).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1. Punjab
2. Rajasthan
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Jharkhand
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
106. Match List-I (Centre of Handicrafts) with List-II (State)
and select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
below the lists:
102. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
(Centre of Handicrafts)
List-I (Power Station)
List-II (State)
A. Mon
1. Arunachal Pradesh
A. Kothagudem
1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Nalbari
2. Assam
B. Raichur

2. Gujarat
C. Naisghat
3. Meghalaya
C. Mettur
3. Karnataka
D. Tura
4. Nagaland
D. Wanakbori
4. Tamil Nadu
Codes :
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
(b) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 (b) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(c) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
(d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
(c) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2 (d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
103. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
107. Consider the following statements:
using the codes given below the lists:
1. Petronet LNG Ltd. is setting up another LNG
List-I (National Park
List-II (State)
terminal at Mangalore.
/Wildlife Sanctuary)
2. The Head Office of the Dredging Corporation of
A. Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary 1. Orissa
India is at Vishakhapatnam.
B. Kangerghat National Park 2. Assam
3. The Narwapahar Mine is operated by the
C. Orang Sanctuary
3. Chhattisgarh
Uranium Corporation of India Limited.
D. Ushkothi Wildlife
4. Goa
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
5. Tripura
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Geography of India
B 35
108. Consider the following statements:
114. With reference to the steel industry in India in the
1. Appellate Tribunal for electricity has been
recent times, consider the following statements:
established by each state government in India.
2. One of the component of the Accelerated Power
1. Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been declared a Mini
Development and Reforms Programme (APDRP)
is up gradation of sub-transmission and
2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed.
distribution system for electricity in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both l and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
115. The Stilwell Road, built in 1940s, which was recently
109. Match List-I (Valley) with List-II (State) and select the
in news, connects which of the following?
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(a) Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar via
List-I (Valley)
List-II (State)
(b) Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar
A. Markha Valley
1. Sikkim
(c) Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibet via Bhutan
B. Dzukou Valley
2. Himachal Pradesh
(d) Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand via
C. Sangla Valley

3. Jammu & Kashmir

D. Yumthang Valley 4. Nagaland
116. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?
Codes :
(a) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1 (b) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
(a) Ismlipal National Park
(c) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4 (d) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
(b) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
110. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National
(a) Mahanadi River rises in Chhattisgarh
(b) Godavari River rises in Maharashtra
117. Where are Shevaroy hills located?
(c) Cauvery River rises in Andhra Pradesh
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(d) Tapti River rises in Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
111. Match List-I (National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary) with
118. Assertion (A) : River Kalinadi is an east-flowing river
List-I) (Nearby Town) and select the correct answer
in the southern part of India.
using the codes given below the lists:
Reason (R) : The Deccan Plateau is higher along its
western edge and gently slopes towards the Bay of
(National Park/
(Nearby Town)
Bengal in the east.
Wildlife Sanctuary)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
A. Chandra Prabha
1. Jaipur
explanation of A

B. Karera
2. Jhansi
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
C. Jaisamand
3. Agra
explanation of A
D. Nahargarh
4. Varanasi
(c) A is true but R is false
5. Udaipur
(d) A is false but R is true
Codes :
119. Which one of the following National Highways passes
(a) A-4; B-4; C-1; D-1
(b) A-5; B-2; C-3; D-1
through Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Orissa?
(c) A-4; B-2; C-5; D-1
(d) A-5; B-1; C-3; D-2
112. From North towards South, which one of the following
(a) NH 4
(b) NH 5
is the correct sequence of the given rivers in India?
(c) NH 6
(d) NH 7
120. Consider the following statements:
(a) Shyok-Spiti-Zaskar- Sutlej
1. Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
(b) Shyok-Zaskar-Spiti-Sutlej
2. Majhgawan is known for its manganese deposits.
(c) Zaskar-Shyok-Sutlej- Spiti
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Zaskar-Sutlej-Shyok-Spiti
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
113. In which one of the following districts, have large
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
reserves of diamond-bearing Kimberlite been
121. Which one of the following rivers originates in
discovered in the recent past?

(a) Hoshangabad
(b) Raipur
(a) Damodar
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Sambalpur
(d) Warangal
(c) Narmada
(d) Tapi
B 36
Topicwise Solved Papers
122. Which one among the following major Indian cities is
129. Which one of the following is not essentially a species
most eastward located?
of the Himalayan vegetation?
(a) Hyderabad
(a) Juniper
(b) Mahogany
(b) Bhopal
(c) Islver fir
(d) Spruce
(c) Lucknow
130. Which of the following hills are found where the
(d) Bengaluru (Bangalore)
Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet? [2008]
123. Out of the four southern States: Andhra Pradesh,
(a) Anamalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, which shares
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevaroy Hills
boundaries with the maximum number of Indian
131. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary River
Main River
(a) Andhra Pradesh only
1. Chambal

(b) Karnataka only

2. Sone
3. Manas
(c) Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(d) Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
124. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2 only
using the code given below the lists:
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
132. Consider the following statements:
(Aluminium Company)
1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and
1. Hirakud
Nicobar Islands.
2. Korba
2. Shrew and Tapir are found in the Western Ghats
C. Indian Aluminium
3. Koraput
of the Malabar region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4. Renukoot
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Code :
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
(b) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
133. In which one of the following states are Namchik

(c) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

(d) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
Namphuk coalfields located?
125. Which one of the following is located in the Bastar
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Manipur
(d) Mizoram
(a) Bandhavgarh National Park
134. Which of the following minerals found in a natural
(b) Dandeli Sanctuary
way in the state of Chhattisgarh?
(c) Rajaji National Park
1. Bauxite
2. Dolomite
(d) Indravati National Park
3. Iron ore
4. Tin
126. In which State is the Guru Shikhar Peak located?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
127. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
135. On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri
using the code given below the lists:
hydropower complex located?
(a) Alaknanda
(b) Bhagirathi

(River Nearer to it)
(c) Dhauliganga
(d) Mandakini
A. Betul
1. Indravati
136. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
B. Jagdalpur
2. Narmada
C. Jabalpur
3. Shipra
1. Kapildhara Falls
D. Ujjain
4. Tapti
2. Jog Falls
Code :
3. Shivasamudram Falls :
(a) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
(b) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
(d) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
128. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. In India, Red Panda is naturally found in the
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Western Himalayas only.
137. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
2. In India, Slow Loris lives in the dense forests of
the North East.
Irrigation Project

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Damanganga
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. Girna
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Pamba
Geography of India
B 37
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
147. Consider the following statements:
1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
western margins of continents within the trade
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
wind belt.
138. Consider the following statements:
2. In India, the east Himalayan region gets high
1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
rainfall from north-east winds.
2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee producing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
148. Which one of the following rivers does not originate

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
in India?
139. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh hydroelectric
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
project located?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Rajasthan
149. At which one of the following places do two
140. Which of the following are among the million-plus
important rivers of India originate; while one of them
cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001?
flows towards north and merges with another
important rivers flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the
1. Ludhiana
2. Kochi
other one flows towards Arabian Sea?
3. Surat
4. Nagpur
(a) Amarkantak
(b) Badrinath
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Mahabaleshwar
(d) Nasik
150. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. India does not have any deposits of Thorium.
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Keralas monazite sands contains Uranium.
141. Which one among the following has the maximum
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

number of National Parks?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
151. Consider the following statements:
(c) Assam
1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
(d) Meghalaya
2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya
142. Consider the following regions:
1. Eastern Himalayas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Eastern Mediterranean region
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
3. North-Western Australia
Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
152. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by
143. In India, which one of the following states has the
largest inland saline wetland?
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
specific species of flora and fauna.
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference

144. In India, the ports are categorized as major and nonis permitted.
major ports. Which one of the following is a non-major
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Kochi (Cochin)
(b) Dahej
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Paradip
(d) New Mangalore
153. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:
145. The Dul Hasti Power Station is based on which one of
the following rivers?
1. Hot and humid climate
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
2. Annual rainfall 200 cm
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres
146. Which one of the following is the countrys
4. Annual range of temperature 15C to 30C.
administrative capital new federal administrative
Which one among the following crops are you most
centre of Malaysia?
likely to find in the area described above?
(a) Kota Bharu
(b) Kuala Terengganu
(a) Mustard
(b) Cotton
(c) Putrajaya
(d) Taiping
(c) Pepper
(d) Virginia tobacco
B 38
Topicwise Solved Papers
154. With reference to the mineral resources of India,

159. Consider the following statements :

consider the following pairs:
1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for
90% Natural sources in
use amounts to about less than 1% of the total
1. Copper

water found.
2. Nickel

2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth
3. Tungsten
95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
160. Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are :
155. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has
declared many areas as Ramsar sites. Which of the
(a) Beas and Chenab only
following statements best describes as to how we
(b) Beas and Ravi only
should maintain these sites in the context of this
(c) Chenab, Ravi and Satlej only
(d) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satlej and Yamuna
(a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man
so that they will not be exploited.

161. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will

notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?
(b) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem
approach and permit tourism and recreation
(a) Abundance of magnesium
(c) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem
(b) Accumulated humus
approach for a period without any exploitation,
(c) Presence of ferric oxides
with specific criteria and specific period for each
(d) Abundance of phosphates
site, and then allow sustainable use of them by
162. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason
future generations.
to considering the Gondwana rocks as most
(d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem
important of rock systems of India?
approach and allow their simultaneous
(a) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are
sustainable use.
found in them
156. Consider the following pairs:
(b) More than 90% of Indias coal reserves are found
Protected area
Well-known for
in them
1. Bhiterkanika, Odisha Salt Water
(c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are
spread over them
2. Desert National Park, Great Indian
(d) None of the reasons given above is appropriate
in this context
3. Eravikulam, Kerala
Hoolak Gibbon
163. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Govind Sagar :
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Kolleru Lake
157. In India, which type of forest among the following
(c) Ukai Reservoir :
occupies the largest area?
(d) Wular Lake
(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
164. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have
(b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
been the most likely geographical impact on India?
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
(d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
1. Much of the country would experience the cold
158. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton
waves from Siberia.
yarn in the country. What could be the reason? [2010]
2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such
1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil
extensive alluvial soils.
in the State.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.
what it is at present. Which of the statements
Which of the above is/are the correct reasons?
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography of India
B 39
165. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
through :
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded
166. What are the possible limitations of India in
mountain chains
mitigating the global warming at present and in the
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
immediate future?
172. A state in India has the following characteristics :
1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
sufficiently available.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over
food crops.
[2011 - I]
3. Many developed countries have already set up
Which one of the following states has all of the above
their polluting industries in India.
characteristics ?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh.
(b) Gujarat.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Karnataka.
(d) Tamil Nadu.

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
173. A particular State in India has the following
167. The approximate representation of land use
characteristics :
[2012 - I]
classification in India is :
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes
(a) Net area sown 25%, forests 33%, other areas 42%
through northern Rajasthan.
(b) Net area sown 58%, forests 17%, other areas 25%
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
(c) Net area sown 43%; forests 29%, other areas 28%
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected
(d) Net area sown 47%, forests 23%, other areas 30%
Area Network in this State.
168. Consider the following which can be found in the
Which one among the following States has all the
ambient atmosphere :
above characteristics?
1. Soot
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
(b) Assam
3. Water vapour
(c) Himachal Pradesh
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of
(d) Uttarakhand
the atmosphere?
174. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
following statements :
[2012 - I]
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The countrys total geographical area under the
169. Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and
category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat
distance can be greatly reduced by which of the
as compared to other States.
following ?

[2011 - I]
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia
wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
and Indonesia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra Isthmus
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
175. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
following :
[2012 - I]
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Deep gorges
170. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by humid
2. U-turn river courses
climate with high temperature throughout the year.
3. Parallel mountain ranges
Which one among the fol owing pairs of crops is most
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding
suitable for this region ?
[2011 - I]
Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for
(a) Paddy and Cotton
Himalayas being young fold mountains?
(b) Wheat and Jute
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Paddy and Jute
176. Consider the following statements :
[2012 - I]
(d) Wheat and Cotton
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from
171. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers
southern India to northern India.

originate in Tibet and flow though narrow and

2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern
parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of
plains of India decreases from east to west.
these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a U turn in its
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
course to flow into India. This U turn is due to
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
[2011 - I]
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B 40
Topicwise Solved Papers
177. Consider the following pairs:
[2013 - I]
183. Consider the following pairs :
[2014 - I]
National Park
River flowing
National Highway
Cities connected
through the Park
1. NH 4
Chennai and Hyderabad
1. Corbett National Park
: Ganga
2. NH 6
Mumbai and Kolkata
2. Kaziranga National Park
: Manas
3. NH 15
Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
3. Silent Valley: National Park : Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of these

184. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical

178. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other
characteristic of
[2014 - I]
large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
(a) Equatorial climate
[2013 - I]
(b) Mediterranean climate
It occupies a linear rift valley.
(c) Monsoon climate
It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
(d) All of the above climates
The land slopes to the west from Central India.
185. Consider the following rivers :
[2014 - I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. Barak
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
2. Lohit
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal
179. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/
characteristics of Indian coal?
[2013 - I]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
High ash content
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Low sulphur content
186. Consider the following pairs :
[2014 - I]
Low ash fusion temperature

Confluence of rivers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. Harike Wetlands
Confluence of Beas and
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Keoladeo Ghana
Confluence of
180. Which of the following statements regarding laterite
National Park
Banas and Chambal
soils of India are correct?
[2013 - I]
3. Kolleru Lake
Confluence of Musi and
They are generally red in colour.
They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?
They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
187. Consider the following pairs :
[2014 - I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
1. Cardamom Hills

Coromandel Coast
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
2. Kaimur Hills
Konkan Coast
181. Consider the following statements:
[2013 - I]
3. Mahadeo Hills
Central India
Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
4. Mikir Hills
North-East India
Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
188. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
see which of the following plants naturally growing
182. Consider the following towns of India:
[2014 - I]
[2014 - I]
1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
1. Oak
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal
2. Rhododendron

Which of the above are famous for the production of

3. Sandalwood
traditional sarees/ fabric?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1,3 and 4.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography of India
B 41
189. With reference to Changpa community of India,
192. Which one of the following pairs of States of India
consider the following statements :
[2014 - I]
indicates the eastern most and western most State?
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine
(a) Assam and Rajasthan
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.
(c) Assam and Gujarat
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
193. Consider the following rivers:
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Vamsadhara
190. In a particular region in India, the local people train
2. Indravati
the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the
3. Pranahita
streams. As the time passes, these bridges become
stronger. These unique 'living root bridges' are found
4. Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Tamil Nadu
(c) 1, 2 and4
(d) 2 and 3 only
191. Consider the following States
194. Which one of the following regions of India has a
1. Arunachal Pradesh
combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and
deciduous forest?
2. Himachal Pradesh
(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
3. Mizoram
(b) South-West Bengal
In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet
Evergreen Forests' occur?
(c) Southern Saurashtra
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B 42
Topicwise Solved Papers
(c) The alpine vegetation in eastern himalayas is
10. (b) According to the physiography map of India the
found upto 4000 meters because in eastern himalayas
mountains ranges found in Jammu and Kashmir is
the monsoon rainfall is higher than western
Karakoram which is marked as 1 in figure. Ladakh
range which is marked as 2, Zanskar range which is
(d) The given map indicates the coastal region

marked as 3, and Pir Panjal which is marked as 4.

underwater relief contours of India. In this region some
11. (b) Due to intensive low pressure belt developed in
islands like Andaman, Nicobar and Lakshyadeep are
the north-western plains, the south-west monsoon
enters the Indian subcontinent. It blows from Bay of
Qman basin
Bengal and the Arabian sea.
Arabian basin
12. (c) The state which produce maximum amount of
Chapo Ridge
metal ores are :
(d) In the given map the marked places indicates :Ores
A. Manganese
1. Madhya Pradesh
1 indicates Ukai in Gujarat
B. Nickel
2. Orissa
2 indicates of Dondapadu in A.P.
C. Lead-Zinc
3. Rajasthan
3 indicates Korba of Chhattisgarh
D. Asbestos
4. Andhra Pradesh
(a) The quotation referred to Sundarban of West
13. (a) Idukki is a hydro-electric project of Kerala. So,
Bengal. Sundarban is famous for mangrove forest and
the 1 option is not correct.
tiger population. It is present at the delta region of
14. (c) Western and Southern India produces largest
Ganga. Sundarban is worlds largest delta.
cotton : Maharashtra (26.63%), Gujarat (17.67%),
(a) The palaeomagnetic results indicates that, the
Andhra Pradesh (13.75%) and Madhya Pradesh are
Indian land mass has moved to the north breaking
the leading producers in India.
from Africa.
15. (a) The New Jerusalem Church was bult by Royal

(d) From the given figure
Danish missionary Bartholomaus Ziegenbalg in a
1 indicates Calcutta port which is a tidal port,
coastal town of Tharangambadi, Tamil Nadu in 1718.
situated at river Hoogly.
16. (a) Kishenganga river is called Neelam river in
2 indicates Paradeep port of Orissa.
Jammu & Kashmir. Ganga river originates from
Gangotri glacier in Uttarakhand.
3 indicates Kochi of Kerala
Wainganga originates about 12 km from Mundara
4 indicates Kandla port of Gujarat is tidal port.
village of Seoni district in southern slopes of Satpura
Paradeep, Kochi and Kandla are natural ports on
range of Madhya Pradesh.
the sea coast.
Penganga is river found in Yavatmal District of
(d) Geologists believes that the Indian peninsula was
a part of the Gondwanaland (continent) which drifted
17. (c) Madras is warmer than Calcutta. Madras lies
northwards and India, Africa and other parts
1308'17" N latitude which is much near to equator
separated from each other.
than Calcutta, which is 2256'67" N.
(c) Ajanta mountain range a short range, which
Show fall occurs in Himalayas due to its higher
spreads within Maharashtra.

Aravali ranges covers Rajasthan, Haryana and

Rainfall decreases from West Bengal to Punjab due to
distrance from sea West Bengal is near to sea than

Satpura ranges are found in Gujrat and Madhya

Punjab. Sutluj-Ganga plain gets some rain in winter
due to western distrubance.
18. (b)

Geological Eras

Sahyadris ranges starts from Gujrat,

and Periods
Maharastra border and crossing Goa, Karnataka
A. Deccan Traps

Cretaceous era
it reaches Kerala tip upto Cape Comrin.
B. Western Ghats

Late cenozoic era

Ajanta is found in the Aurangabad district of

C. Aravalli

Pre-cambrian era
D. Narmada-Tapti

Pleistocene period
(b) National Highway from Amritsar to Calcutta via
alluvial deposits
Delhi is called National highway No. 2. It was called
19. (d) The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing
Grand Trunk road and was constructed by Sher Shah.
India into tropical and subtropical zones is 15C.
Geography of India
B 43
20. (b) Coal is found in Karanpura of Jharkhand. Gold is
33. (b) Places
found in mines of Hutti in Karnataka. Mica is found in
A. Jamnagar Woollen textiles Gujarat
Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh. Manganese is
B. Hospet
Iron and Steel
found in Bhandara of Maharashtra.
21. (c) The Alamatti dam is build on the river Krishna
C. Korba

in Karnataka. It is a multi-purpose project. The water
is used in canal irrigation and hydroelectric
D. Haldia
34. (d) A libag
Holiday Resort
22. (c) According to the given map the area marked A is
Fishing Centre
Mathura area of Uttar Pradesh, where Brajbhasha is
Nhave Sheva Port
spoken. B is marked by Faizabad of U.P., and the
Petrochemical complex
language spoken is Awadhi. C area is Arah area of
35. (a) Arrangement of descending order of the surface
Bihar where Bhojpuri is spoken. D refers to north
roads per 100 sq. km of their area.
Bihar where Maithili is predominantly spoken.
Tamil Nadu has 158.78 km, Punjab has 127.78 km,
Maharashtra has 117.61 km, Haryana has 63.70 km.
23. (c) The canal carrying capacity of Farakka barrage
36. (b)
is 40,000 cusec. Farakka barrage is a 2245 metre long
37. (c) Some people in Manipur live in house built on
barrage across the river Ganga.
floating Islands of weeds and decaying vegetation
24. (d) Sundari tree is found in Sundarban area of West
held together by suspended silt. These islands are
Bengal. Sundarban is a largest wetland area in the
called Phoomdis.
world. Sundarban got its name itself due to
38. (d) Uttar Pradesh is the state where 9,384,000 hectare
abundance of Sundari tree in this area.
are covered by ground water irrigation.
25. (c) The place marked in the given map are:
Maharashtra covers 1,912,000 hectare, West Bengal

Place where found

covers 1,397,000 hectares, Assam covers hectare for
ground water irrigation.
Rift valley region
Narmada and
39. (b) According to Census of India 2001, schedule tribe
population in Mizoram is 94.75%, Arunachal Pradesh
Chhattisgarh plain
Mahandi river
has 63.66% as schedule tribe, Manipur with 34.4%
and Orissa with 22.21% of tribal population.
Chhota Nagpur
40. (a) Konkan Railway route connects Roha in
Maharashtra with Mangalore in Karnataka. Konkan
Rain shadow area
Eastern part of
Railway established with partnership of three states
western ghat
Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka. The state of Goa,
26. (d) The tribal population of Andaman and Nicobar
Karnataka, Maharashtra and Kerala benefit most from
belong to Negroid race. A small population of
Konkan railway.
Shompen and Nicobars are Mongoloid descent.
41. (a)
27. (a) Kori, Gomati, Ghaghara and Gandak.
42. (b)
28. (a) Damodar is a east flowing river with rift valley
43. (b) For proper ecological balance 33% of forest land
due to down warping. Down warp denotes a segment
is recommended, but in India we have only 20.14% of
of the earths crust that is broadly bent downward.
forest coverage.
44. (c) In the given map the site of Tehri Dam is C
29. (c) Sal forest of Madhya Pradesh indicates 3 in the
which lies in Uttaranchal. It is an earth and rock-fill

given India map. In 1997 Sal forest were badly affected

dam on the Bhagirathi rivers in Tehri district.
by the insects which cause destruction of Sal forest
45. (b) Koodankulam is the site for 1000 MW nuclear
by turning the trees dry.
power plants under construction in Tirunelveli
30. (*) Barmer in Rajasthan has been discovered to
district of Tamil Nadu. In the given figure
have new off shore commercial production in India
Koodankulam plant is labelled as B.
in 2013.
46. (c) Gulf of Kutch in 1980, 270 km from Obha to
31. (b) Minerals
Mining area

47. (d) Lambada tribes are found in Rajasthan and not
in Madhya Pradesh.

48. (c) In the given figure A is Baramula, B is Srinagar,

C is Anantnag and D is Kargil.

49. (b)
32. (a) The Oak Tasar silk is produced in Assam, which
50. (a) The Ravva offshore block is in KrishnaGodavari
is used in Sericulture. The Oak flora was discovered
basin of Andhra Pradesh. It is the area of a great reserve
in 1966 in Assam.
of petroleum and natural gas.
B 44
Topicwise Solved Papers
51. (d) At M4 position of the diagram the height of the
contribute 25% of total production and 73% is
tide is at maximum, because in this position earth,
contributed by thermal power plants.

moon and sun lies in a straight line.

63. (a) The Aravallis range are the oldest mountain in
52. (a) Indira Gandhi Canal originated from Harike
India. The approximate age of the Aravallis is 370
barrage at Sultanpur on Sutlej but Ghaggar is a
million years.
tributary of river Saraswati, which ends in the Thar
64. (a) The correct sequence of eastward flowing river
of the peninsular India from north to south is
53. (b) In the given map A marked ports is Veraval of
Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Pennar,
Gujarat, B marked port is Karwar of Karnataka, C
Cauvery and Vagai.
marked port is Tuticorin of Tamil Nadu and D marked
65. (d) Indian railway is the fourth largest railway in
port is Kakinada of Andhra Pradesh.
the world after USA, Russia and China. National
54. (d) Korba tribe in found in chhotanagpur of
Highways is nearly 2% (1.96%) of total roads, but it
Chhattisgarh and Jarkhand, whereas Kodagu in a
carries nearly 40 45% of road traffic of India.
district in Karnataka.
Maharashtra has the highest density of the surface
55. (a) Siltation is the process of deposition of silt on the
roads, not Kerala, National Highway No. 7 is the
river bed through rain water, by which the depth of
longest in the country which joins Varanasi to
the river reduces. The flood water crosses the river
embankment, by which flood occurs in most part of
66. (b) The climatic condition of Chennai is tropical
north India.
savanna type where the average annual temperature
56. (b) The Ganga plain is most important plain of India.
of meterological station is 26C and average rainfall
The gangetic plain covers more than a fourth of the
is 63 cm and annual range temperature is 9C.
countrys total surface. The alluvial fertile soil is very
67. (c) The sea coast of Orissa is famous as a nesting
suitable for cultivation of different cereals, pulses and
place for giant olive Ridley turtles from South
nuts. So bulk of the population resides in this plain

68. (b) With reference to India, the dominant source of
57. (a) A Mahe
irrigation is by canals. About 45% land is irrigated
B Karaikal
by canals.
C Podicherry
69. (d) Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees
having long roots and sharp thorns or spines are
D Yaman
commonly found in the area where the rainfall is less
58. (d) In the given figure of India, Mica is found in all
than 80 cm. Such areas are found in Rajasthan,
the states of India like Jharkhand, Orissa, Bihar,
Gujarat, Haryana and western Andhra Pradesh.
Rajasthan, Bombay, Karnataka, West Bengal and
70. (d) Achra Ratnagiri Mangrove is in Maharashtra,
Andhra Pradesh.
Coondapur Mangrove is in Karnataka, Pichavaram
59. (c) In the given map, the shaded area indicates the
Mangrove is in Tamil Nadu and Vembanad Mangrove
tropical wet and dry region, where the mean
is in Kerala.
temperature for the month of July varies between
71. (b) The correct sequence of the river in descending
27.5C 30C.
order of their lengths are Godavari (1465 km),
60. (b) Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was
Narmada (1312 km), Mahanadi (858 km) and Tapti
established on November 10, 2000 at Vientiane in the
(724 km).
First MGC Ministerial Meeting. It comprises six
72. (b) Nanda Devi peak are a part of Kumaon Himalayas
Member countries namely, India, Thailand, Myanmar,
located in Chamoli district of Uttaranchal.
Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam. They emphasised four
73. (a) Bangalore is the city which is 937 metres above
areas of cooperation, which are tourism, culture,
sea level, Delhi is 218 metres sea level, Jodhpur is 230
education, and transportation linkage in order to be
metres and Nagpur is 247.5 metres above the sea level.
solid foundation for future trade and investment
74. (c) The longitude of Jabalpur's location is to the east
cooperation in the region.

of Bhopal, Bangalore is north of Channai.

61. (a) Both assertion and reasons are true and reason is
75. (d) The area of Andhra Pradesh is 160,205 sq km, area
correct explanation of assertion. In north India, a
of Gujarat is 196,024 sq km, the area of Karnataka is
feeble high-pressure region develops, with light winds
191, 791 sq km and Tamil Nadu is 130, 058 sq km.
moving outwards from this area. Influenced by the
76. (b) The Tropic of Cancer located at 23.5 north.
relief, these winds blow through the Ganga valley
Location of Kolkata is 2233' N. So, Kolkata is nearer
from west and north west, which forms an
to Tropic of Cancer. Delhi is 28.38N.
anticyclonic condition in northern part of India.
77. (a) Onge is the major tribes of the union territory of
62. (a) According to the data of 2000, the power
Andaman and Nicobar. They were fully dependent
generation is 95000 MW. Nuclear plants contribute
on hunting and gathering. They belong to the Negrito
2% of total power generation. Hydroelectricity plants
Geography of India
B 45
78. (a) Statement '1' is correct, because National
94. (c) Area of Chhattisgarh is 1,36,03489 km and Area
Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into the
of West Bengal is 88,572 sq km but the population
hydro projects. Presently it has undertaken Koldem
density in Chhattigarh is 154, whereas the population
project in Himachal Pradesh.
density in West Bengal is 904.
79. (a) Damodar Valley Corporation's is first multi95. (d) Atomic Power Plant
purpose river valley project of independent India was
A. Thal
in the year 1954. The joint venture projects are
B. Manuguru
Andhra Pradesh
Maithon Power Limited, Panchat and Tilayiya are
hydroelectric power station. It not a gas power station.
C. Kakrapar

80. (c)
D. Kaiga
81. (c)
96. (a) Western Ghats are are relationship higher in the
A. Coal
1. Giridih
Southern region.
B. Copper
3. Alwar
97. (a) Gandhi Sagar Dam is situated on the river
C. Manganese
4. Dharwar
Chambal in 1960, near Bhanpura of Madhya Pradesh.
D. Lignite
2. Jayamkondam
98. (c) The correct sequence of the given hills starting
82. (c) Length of Agra-Mumbai NH 1161 km
from north and going towards to south is Nallamalai
Length of Chennai-Thane NH 1235 km
Hills, Javadi Hills, Nilgiri Hills, Anamalai Hills
Length of Kolkata-Hajira NH 1946 km
99. (b) Nallamalai is not a biosphere reserve. It is hill of
Length of Pune-Machilipatnam NH 841 km.
Eastern ghats which stretches over Kurnool,
83. (c)
Mahabubnagar, Guntur and Kadapa districts of the
84. (b) Sambhar is India's largest salt lake which is
state of Andhra Pradesh.
located 96 km south west of city of Jaipur.
100. (c) The correct sequence of the given Indian cities in
85. (b) National Park/ Sanctuary
the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall
A. Kanger Ghati National Park - Chhattisgarh
is Kochi (3228.3 mm) Kolkata (1,582 mm) Patna
B. Nagerhole National Park
- Karnataka
(1000 1237 mm) Delhi (707 mm).
C. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary
- Himachal
101. (b) Uttar Pradesh is bounded by Haryana, Delhi,

Rajasthan in west; Madhya Pradesh in the south and

D. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary - Haryana
Bihar in the east. The northern boundary is with
86. (d)
87. (d) Bangalore receives lesser rainfall than Mangalore.
102. (b) Power Station
Mangalore is located in windward slope and receives
A. Kothagudem : Andhra Pradesh
2000 mm of rainfall, whereas Bangalore present in
rain shadow area receives less than 500 mm of water.
B. Raichur
: Karnataka
88. (a) West flowing rivers Narmada and Tapti do not
C. Mettur
: Tamil Nadu
form delta, because topography of western peninsular
D. Wanakbori
: Gujarat
India is rocky without loose sediments and no alluvial
103. (b) National Park/ Wildlife Sanctuary
sediments carried by the rivers.
Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary
- Goa
89. (a) All the statements are correct according to
Kangerghat National Park
- Chhattisgarh
Atomic developments in India.
Orang Sanctuary
- Assam
90. (b) Beach in India
Ushkothi Wildlife Sanctuary - Orissa.
A. Gopinath Beach
: Gujarat
104. (b)
B. Lawsons Bay Beach : Andhra Pradesh
C. Devbagh Beach
: Karnataka
105. (d) Maharashtra is ranked 2nd after Uttar Pradesh
D. Sinquerim Beach
: Goa
among 28 Indian states. So, option '3' is correct. But

option '1' and '2' are incorrect, because Goa is the

91. (d) Similipal biosphere reserve is in Orissa. Dehong
smallest state based on area (i.e., 3702 sq km), not the
Deband biosphere reserve is in Arunachal Pradesh,
Sikkim. Highest literacy rate is of Union territory is
Nokrek biosphere reserve is in Meghalaya and
Lakshadweep i.e. 86.7%.
Kanchenjunga biosphere reserve is situated in Sikkim.
92. (c) Haryana has 6.83% of area is forest cover area of
106. (a)
the total land coverage, whereas Sikkim has 36%,
107. (c)
38.5% in Goa and 28.9% of Kerala has forest area of
108. (b) By virtue of section 110 of the Electricity Act 2003,
their total land mass.
an Appellate Tribunal for Electricity having
93. (b) Out of the total forest cover, dense forest
jurisdiction throughout India has been set up to hear
constitute around 2.54%; very dense forest and 8.77%
appeals or original petitions against the order of the
are moderately dense forest. National Forestry Action
Adjudicating officer. But in states like Delhi and Orissa
Programme aims a long term plan to achieve the
electricity has been privatized. So, the statement '1' is
target of 33% forest cover.
wrong. It is not present in Jammu and Kashmir.
B 46
Topicwise Solved Papers
109. (d)
127. (b)
110. (c) Cauvery is a river of southern India, rises on
128. (b) Red Panda is found in mountains of Nepal, northBrahmagiri Hill in Western Ghats in Coorg district of
eastern India, China, Bhutan and Slow Loris lives in
dense forest of north-east, dense forest of Assam.
111. (c)
Red Panda is found in Eastern Himalayas, China,
112. (b) The correct sequence of the rivers in India from
Bhuan and slow loris in the dense forest of north-east
north towards south is Shyok Zaskar Spiti Satluj.
Shyok flows through northern Ladakh in India.
129. (b) Mahogany is a species of tree found throughout

Zaskar river flows in north-eastern part of Ladakh.

the Caribbean, central and south America but not in
Spiti river is situated at Kaza in Himachal Pradesh at
an elevation of 12500 feet.
130. (c) Nilgiri hills are at the junction of the eastern and
Satluj river rise from slopes of Kailash and flows in
western ghats of the Sahayadri hills. The heights of
south-westerly direction to Himachal Pradesh &
the hills range varies between 2,280 and 2,290 metres.
131. (d) Tributaries of Brahmaputra in India the Manas,
113. (b) Payali and Behradein in Raipur, Chhattisgarh has
Pagladiya, Puthimari, Dhanisri, Jia Bhariti and
large reserves of diamond bearing kimberlite. It has
28% of the total diamond reserve of India.
Manas is a tributary of Brahmaputra Chambal is the
chief tributary of Yammuna and sone is a tributary of
114. (c) Vizag Steel Plant was declared as a Mini Ratna
company on 11th Feb 2006. Merger of IISCO with SAIL
has been completed on 29th September 2004.
132. (c) Salt water crocodile was common and found
throughout the Andaman and Nicobar Islands living
115. (b) The Stilwell Road built in 1940s by Americans to
in the mangrove habitats. Shrew and Tapir are found
connect Ledo in India and Kunming in China via
in western ghats of the Malabar region.
Myanmar during Second World War.
133. (a) Namchik-Namphuk coalfields are located in
116. (d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National
Arunachal Pradesh.
Park is known as top slip. It is a part of Western Ghats
134. (d) The minerals deposits in Chhatisgarh is Bauxite
is located above 300 metres from the sea level on the
(96 million ton), Dolomite (606 million ton) and iron
Anamalai mountain ranges.
ore (2336 million ton). Tin is not found in Chhatisgarh.
117. (d) Shevaroy hill is situated near Salem of Tamil
135. (b) The Tehri Hydropower complex is located on the
Nadu. This hill range covers an area of fifty square
Bhagirathi river of Uttar Pradesh.

136. (b) Shivasamudram falls is located on river Cauvery.

118. (d) River Kalinadi is a west flowing river in the
Jog waterfall is the highest waterfall in India of 253
southern part of India. So, the assertion is wrong.
metres on Sharavathi river.
Deccan Plateau has elevation ranging from 1,500 to
137. (d) Damanganga water project is in Gujarat. Girna
2,500 ft and gently slopes towards the Bay of Bengal
irrigation project is in Jalgaon area of Maharashtra.
in the east. So, the reason is correct.
Pamba river is located in Kerala.
119. (c) National Highways passes through Gujarat,
138. (d) Chikmagalur is famous for coffee. Mandya is
Maharashtra, Chhatisgarh, Orissa, Jharkhand and
famous for sugar and paper production.
West Bengal. This road is 1,949 km long.
139. (c) Tapovan and Vishnugarh hydroelectric project
120. (d) Balaghat of Madhya Pradesh is known for its
are located in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
manganese mines. Majhgawan is famous for
140. (d) According to the Census of 2001 of India, the
population of Ludhiana is 1,398,467, Surat is 2,433,835
121. (c) The Narmada river originates from a tank 1057
and Nagpur is 2,052,066.
m high west of Amarkantak plateau in Madhya
141. (a) Andaman and Nicobar has 9 national parks;
Pradesh. River Damodar originates from Chhota
Assam has 6, Arunachal Pradesh and Maghalaya both
Nagpur plateau, Mahanadi originates from Bastar
have 2 each.
plateau and Tapti originates from Satpura hills.
142. (b) Eastern Himalayas and Eastern Mediterranean
122. (c) Lucknow is the city most east in the list.
region are Biodiversity hotspots.
123. (c) Both Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka shares
South west part of Australia has hotspots.
boundaries with maximum number of Indian states.
143. (d) Rajasthan has the largest inland saline wetland,
124. (b)
area of Sambhan Salt lake.
125. (b) Indravati National Park is located in the Bastar
144. (b) Dahej is a not a major port of India.
region. The park is situated at the distance of 97.4 km

145. (b) The Dul Hasti Power Station is on the Chenab

river in Jammu and Kashmir.
126. (a) Guru Shikhar Peak is the highest point in
146. (c) Putrajaya is new federal administrative centre
Rajasthan. The altitude of peak 5676 feet (1722 mt).
of Malaysia.
Geography of India
B 47
147. (c) In India, the south-west monsoon causes high
163. (b) Kolleru lake is one of the largest shallow fresh
rainfall in east Himalayan region.
water lakes in Asia, is located between Krishna delta
148. (d) Sutlej originates from the central Sulaiman range
and the Godavari in Andhra Pradesh.
in Pakistan.
164. (d) All the statements given in the question are
149. (a) Amarkantak is the origin of River Narmada and
165. (a) The latitude that passes through Sikkim also pass
150. (d) India has 12% of thorium deposits of the world.
through Rajasthan.
151. (d) Three east flowing rivers found in Kerala is
166. (a) Global warming is the increase in the average
Kavari, Tapti, Narmada and Mahi rivers flows
temperature of Earth's near-surface air and oceans
westward, and also flows through Madhya Pradesh.
by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases,
East flowing rivers of Kerala are Kabani, Bhavani and
which result from human activity such as the burning
Pambar. The west flowing rivers in M.P. are Narmada,
of fossil fuel and deforestation. Climate change
Tapti, Mahi.
mitigation is action to decrease the potential effects of
152. (c) The fix boundary of a National Park is described
global warming. At a time rate of mitigation is less in
in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The legislation
India because appropriate technologies are limited
states the actual area of the National Park which is
and costly. Moreover India don't have huge funds
notified by the state government. A biosphere reserve
required for research and development in that area.
conserves an ecosystem and not just few specific

167. (d) The approximate representation of land use is

species of plants and animals.
classified as net area sown 46%, forests 23%, other
153. (c)
areas 30%.
154. (a) Tungsten is found in Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan,
168. (d) Ambient temperature simply means "the
Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand.
temperature of the surroundings" and will be the same
155. (d) Ramsar convention describes to conserve all the
as room temperature. Indoor the common range of
sites through ecosystem approach and allow their
20C (68F) to 27C (80 F). Similarly, ambient pressure
simultaneous sustainable use.
on an object is the pressure of the surrounding
medium, such as a gas or liquid, which comes into
156. (b) Hoolak found in North eastern reigon of India. It
contact with the object. The soot sulphur hexaflouride,
covers 38% of the forest area. Hoolak Gibbon is found
soot and water vapour all three can be found at
in North Eastern region of India.
ambient atmosphere which corresponds to ambient
157. (c) In India tropical moist deciduous forest occupies
temperature and pressure.
the largest area. It includes Deccan plateau, the north
169. (b) Opening a new canal in Kra Isthums can reduce
eastern region of Deccan plateau and the lower slopes
the navigation time and distance. The first statement
of Himalayas and covers the part of Andhra Pradesh,
in this question requires an explanation. Its worth
Tamil Nadu, Orissa, Bihar, Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand,
note that the Malacca strait is the main shipping
Karnataka and Kerala.
channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific
In India, tropical moist deciduous forest covers 38%
Ocean and links the India, China, Japan and South
of the total forest area. It covers the region of Bihar,
Korea. The issue of deepening of the Malacca strait is
Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu,
linked to its economic importance rather than time
Jharkhand, Karnataka and Kerala.
of navigation and distance. The issue is that most of
158. (b) The predominant soil in Tamil Nadu is red which
the ships can not pass through it and the size of the

supports cotton cultivation and a rich pool of skilled

biggest ships which can enter through it is called
labour is available in Tamil Nadu.
Malaccamax. Now the deepening of the strait would
159. (c) About 2.75 percent of water is fresh water in earth
certainly help in Increasing the volume of the
and about 95% is frozen in glaciers. Less than 1% of
business because ships of larger sizes can pass
the worlds fresh water is readily accessible.
through it, there is no significance of distance and
160. (d) Rivers like Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Sutlej and Yamuna
passes through Himachal Pradesh.
170. (c) The low and deltaic plains of the Ganges is
161. (c) Red soil in India is largely found in Deccan plateau.
characterised by swamps and Sundarbans. So, the
Red soil is less clayey and sandier in nature and has a
people out there grow Paddy and Jute.
rich content of iron and small amount of humus. Red
171. (b) Brahamputra originates near Mt. Kailash and is
soil is also known as yellow soil. The redness is the
known to take a U turn near Mount Namcha Barwa.
soil is due to Jerric oxide, is 2nd largest soil found in
This U turn is also known as Great Bend. The U Turn
India from south of Bundelkhand to North of Raj
is because of the 180 bend of the Himalayan structural
mahal hill.
162. (b) More than 90% of India's coal reserves are found
172. (b)
in Gondwana rock system.
173. (a) Arunanchal Pradesh
B 48
Topicwise Solved Papers
174. (a) The countries total geographical area under the
186. (a) Harike Wetlands is at Confluence of Beas and
category of wetlands is more in Gujarat as compared
Satluj/Sutlej. The Keoladeo National Park formerly
to other states. India has 60% of in land wetland out
known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary in Bharatpur
of total wetland.
is at the confluence of two rivers, the Gambhir and
175. (d) All are correct.
Banganga. Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater

lakes in India located in state of Andhra Pradesh.

176. (c) Both statements are correct.
Kolleru is located between Krishna and Godavari
177. (d) Through Corbett National Park Ramganga flows
(not Ganga) which is a tributary of Ganges. Through
187. (c) The Cardamom Hills are southern hills of India
Silent Valley National Park river Bhavani flows which
and part of the southern Western Ghats located in
is a tributary of Kaveri.
southeast Kerala and southwest Tamil Nadu. They
Kaziranga and Manas are both national parks.
are not in coromandel coast. Kaimur Range is the
178. (a)
eastern portion of the Vindhya Range extending from
179. (a) Indian coal has high ash content and low calorific
Madhya Pradesh to Bihar. They are not in konkan
value. It has low sulphur and low phosphorous
coast. The Mahadeo Hills are in Madhya Pradesh,
content but high ash fusion temperature.
state of central India.Mikir hills are in assam i.e. in
North East India.
180. (c) Laterite soil is rusty red in colour due to iron
oxide present in it. In the lateritic soil cashews and
188. (a) Oak and Rhododendron is found in Himalayan
tapiocas can be grown.
region while sandalwood is found in South India.
189. (b) The Changpa are a semi-nomadic Tibetan ethnic
181. (b) Dharwar rocks are non fossilliferous rather they
group found mainly in Zanskar region of Jammu and
are metalliferous. They bear out gold, iron ore,
Kashmir. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a
manganese mica, cobalt, chromium, copper, tungsten,
fine wool. They are kept inthe category of Scheduled
lead, nickel, precious stones and budding stones.
Kodarma is a store house of mica and Gondwana beds
has coal and not natural gass.
190. (a) In the present-day Meghalaya state of northeast
182. (b) Chanderi in Madhyapradesh and Kancheepuram
India is a form of tree shaping, which creates these
in Tamil Nadu are famous for Silk sarees.
suspension bridges, they are handmade from the aerial
roots of living banyan fig trees.

183. (d) NH 4 is a major National Highway in Western

191. (c) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests are found in
and Southern India. It connects Mumbai with
Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland,
Chennai. NH 6, runs through Gujarat, Maharashtra,
Tripura, West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal
Island and on the eastern and western slopes of the
state in India. It connects Surat with Kolkata. NH 15
Western Ghats in such states as Tamil Nadu,
is a major National Highway in Western and
Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra.
Northwestern India. NH 15 connects Samakhiali in
Gujarat with Pathankot in Punjab.
192. (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat are the
easternmost and westernmost States.
184. (c) Monsoon is the only climate which is having
193. (d) Major tributaries of the river include the Purna
reversal of wind between seasons.
(South), Pravara, Indravati, Manjira River, Bindusara
185. (b) Rivers Lohit and Subansiri flow through
River, Sabari River, Wainganga, and Wardha River.
Arunachal Pradesh. River Barak flows in south Assam
Pranahita is the name given to the combined flow of
and Manipur.
the rivers Wardha and Wainganga.
River lohit and subanseri flows through Arunachal
194. (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands is rich in
Pradesh. Barak river flows in sourth Assam and
biodiversity. Different types of forests as Tropical
Evergreen forests, Moist Deciduous forests, Mangrove
forests, Littoral forests are found here.

Chapter 4

In the map the given four areas are differently shaded,
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
three of which indicate cereal crops production areas
and one indicates non-cereal crop production area.
As per the index given, the non-cereal crop production
(Geographical conditions)
area is :
A. Barley
1. Hot and dry climate with
poor soil
B. Rice
2. Cool climate with poorer
C. Millets
3. Warm and moist climate
with high attitude
D. Tea
4. Hot and moist climate
with rich soil
Major Crop
Production Areas
(a) A 2; B 4; C 1; D 3
(b) A 3; B 4; C 1; D 2
(c) A 2; B 1; C 4; D 3
(d) A 3; B 2; C 4; D 1
(a) 1
(b) 2
Consider the map given below:
(c) 3

(d) 4
Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned
because of the disease :
(a) leaf blight
(b) leaf spot
(c) leaf rust
(d) rut
Which one of the following sets of conditions is
necessary for a good crop of wheat?
(a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall
(b) High temperature and heavy rainfall
(c) High temperature and moderate rainfall
(d) Low temperature and low rainfall
Which one of the following is an important crop of the
The place marked A, B, C and D in the map are
Barak valley?
respectively known for the cultivation of :
(a) Jute
(b) Tea
(a) groundnut, ragi, tobacco and sugarcane
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Cotton
(b) groundnut, sugarcane, ragi and tobacco
Which of the following pairs of states and their
(c) ragi, sugarcane, groundnut and tobacco
important crops are correctly matched?
(d) ragi, groundnut, sugarcane and tobacco
1. KeralaTapioca
2. MaharashtraCotton
The following are the major oilseeds produced in
3. West BengalJute 4. GujaratGroundnut
1. Sesamum
2. Mustard
(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4
3. Groundnut
4. Soyabean
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
Which one of the following is cultivated by
the descending order of the quantity of their
transplanting seedlings?
(a) Maize
(b) Sorghum
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) Onion
(d) Soyabean
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1
B 50
Topicwise Solved Papers
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
using the codes given below the lists:
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(Agricultural products)
(Foremost producer)
explanation of A
A. Cotton
1. Madhya Pradesh
(c) A is true but R is false
B. Gram
2. Gujarat
(d) A is false but R is true
C. Black pepper
3. West Bengal
16. The high density of population in Nile valley and
D. Pineapple

4. Kerala
Islands of Java is primarily due to :
(a) intensive agriculture
(a) A-2; B-1; C- 4; D-3 (b) A-2; B-1; C- 3; D-4
(b) industrialization
(c) A-1; B-2; C- 4; D-3 (d) A-1; B-2; C- 3; D-4
(c) urbanization
11. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
(d) topographic limitations
using the codes given below the lists:
17. With reference to Indian agriculture, which one of the
following statements is correct?
A. Cotton
1. Rainfall 10001500 mm;
(a) About 90 percent of the area under pulses in India
Temperature 4060C
is rainfed
B. Flax
2. Rainfall 15002000 mm;
(b) Share of pulses in the gross cropped are at the
Temperature 2535C
national level has doubled in the last two decades.
C. Sugar beet
3. Rainfall 600800 mm;
(c) India accounts for about 15 percent of the total
Temperature 518 C
area under rice in the world
D. Jute
4. Rainfall 5001000 mm;
(d) Rice occupies about 34 percent of the gross
Temperature 1822C
cropped are in India
5. Rainfall 500600 mm;
18. Consider the following high yielding varieties of crops
Temperature 1822C
in India:

1. Arjun
2. Jaya
(a) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2 (b) A-2; B-3; C-5; D-4
3. Padma
4. Sonalika
(c) A-4; B-5; C-2; D-1 (d) A-4; B-3; C-5; D-2
Which of these are of wheat?
12. Which one of the following agricultural practices is
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
(a) Organic farming
(b) Shifting cultivation
19. Assertion (A) : Eastern coast of India produces more
rice than the western coast.
(c) Cultivation of high yielding varieties
(d) Growing plants in glass-houses
Reason (R) : Eastern coast receives more rainfall than
13. Assertion (A) : Insect resistant transgenic cotton has
the western coast.
been produced by inserting Bt gene.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
Reason (R) : The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
correct explanation of A
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
explanation of A
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(c) A is true but R is false
explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) A is true but R is false
20. Consider the following statements:
(d) A is false but R is true
1. India is the original home of the cotton plant
14. Assertion (A) : Chile continues to be an important
2. India is the first country in the world to develop

producer of copper in the world.

hybrid cotton variety leading to increased
Reason (R) : Chile is endowed with the world's largest
deposit of porphyry copper.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
explanation of A
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
21. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose
explanation, of A
permission is required for cultivation of any
(c) A is true but R is false
genetically modified crop such as Bt Cotton in India,
(d) A is false but R is true
is under the Union Ministry of :
15. Assertion (A) : In Australia, cattle rearing is done more
(a) Agriculture
for meat than for milk.
(b) Environment and Forests
Reason (R) : Australians are traditionally
(c) Commerce and Industry
(d) Rural-Development
B 51
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of
1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production
tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in
2. India ranks second in the world in export of
both tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is
Which of these statements is/are correct?
propagated by stem cuttings only.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
23. Consider the following crops:
1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Maize
4. Mustard
30. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is
Which of the above are kharif crops?
to increase the production of certain crops through
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
area expansion and productivity enhancement in a
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
sustainable manner in the identified districts of the
24. Consider the following statements:
country. What are those crops?
1. India is the only country in the world producing
(a) Rice and wheat only
all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world.
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
Which of the statements given above less is/are
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables
31. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
may be contributing to global warming. To what
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
possible reason/reasons is this is attributable? [2010]

25. Assertion (A): The percentage of net sown area in the

1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice
total area of Andhra Pradesh is less as compared to
cultivation cause the emission of methane.
that of West Bengal.
Reason (R) : The soil of most of Andhra Pradesh is
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous
oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
explanation of A
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
explanation of A
32. Given below are the names of four energy crops.
(c) A is true but R is false
Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol ?
(d) A is false but R is true
26. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in
(a) Jatropha
(b) Maize
the decreasing order of production (in million tones)
(c) Pongamia
(d) Sunflower
of the given foodgrains in India?
33. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water
(a) Wheat - Rice - Pulses - Coarse Cereals
accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind
(b) Rice - Wheat - Pulses - Coarse Cereals
salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization
(c) Wheat - Rice - Coarse Cereals - Pulses
on the irrigated land ?
[2011 - I]
(d) Rice - Wheat - Coarse Cereals - Pulses
(a) It greatly increases the crop production
27. Assertion (A) : There are no tea plantations in any
(b) It makes some soils impermeable

African country.
(c) It raises the water table
Reason (R) : Tea plants need fertile soil with high
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
34. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
mixed farming?
[2012 - I]
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
explanation of A
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops
(d) A is false but R is true
28. Dalbergia species is associated with which one of the
(d) None of the above
35. Consider the following crops of India :
[2012 - I]
(a) Cashewnut
(b) Coffee
1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
(c) Tea
(d) Rosewood
3. Pigeon pea
29. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes,
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green
there is some difference between them regarding their
cultivation. In this context, consider the following
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B 52

Topicwise Solved Papers

36. Consider the following crops of India :
[2012 - I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Groundnut
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
2. Sesamum
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Pearl millet
43. What are the significances of a practical approach
Which of the above is/are predominantly rained crop/
to sugarcane production known as Sustainable
Sugarcane Initiative?
[2014 - I]
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
conventional method of cultivation.
37. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively
[2013 - I]
in this.
(a) desert margins, liable to strong wind action
(b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to
3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic
fertilizers at all in this.
(c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this
(d) None of the above
compared to the conventional method of
38. Consider the following crops:
[2013 - I]
2. Groundnut
Select the correct answer using the code given below.