Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
Subject:
Review questions:
1. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member
state?
a. Flight crew birth certificates.
b. Certificate of Registration.
c. Certificate of Airworthiness.
d. Flight crew licences.
2. The State of licence issue of a JAA PPL may be changed to a new member State providing:
a. The new member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time
employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State.
b. The licence holder has resided in the new member State for at least 31 days.
c. The licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new member State lasting at
least three months.
d. The new member State has no reasonable grounds for refusing to convert the licence.
3. No aircraft or personnel who have endorsed certificates or licences may participate in international
navigation:
a. Except with the permission of the State whose territory is entered.
b. Under any circumstances.
c. Except when a general exemption has been awarded by any ICAO contracting state.
d. Except when a general exemption has been awarded by the State in which the aircraft is
registered or which issued the licence.
5. The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall
be:
a. Those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited.
b. Those of the state of the visiting aircraft.
c. Those agreed by ICAO contracting states to apply in all contracting states.
d. Those stipulated by JAA operational procedures.
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7. Which body is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign airspace
complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace?
a. The state in whose sovereign airspace the aircraft is operating.
b. The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft.
c. The state in which the aircraft is registered.
d. The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.
10. Complete the following wording with one of the options at a), b), or below to give the most correct
statement. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a
foreign state with the intention of landing:
a. Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is carried on board the
aircraft, including the Certificate of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy
condition and that it is correctly registered.
b. Must ensure before departure that his pilot's licence has been validated by the foreign
state.
c. Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current and that he holds
a type rating for the aircraft.
d. Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a
type rating for the aircraft, and that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the
foreign state.
11. The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another contracting
state for the purpose of landing must:
a. Hold a licence issued by the authority of the state in which the aircraft is registered.
b. Hold a licence issued by any ICAO contracting state.
c. Hold a licence issued by any member state of the JAA.
d. Hold any valid and current pilot's licence.
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14. When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted?
a. Either IFR or VFR.
b. IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC.
c. At the commander's discretion.
d. In accordance with ATC instructions.
15. When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height from which it
would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising?
a. Only when necessary for take-off and landing.
b. Never.
c. Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with the ground.
d. Only where the operator has given permission.
16. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its
right is required to give way. True or false?
a. True, provided they are in the same class.
b. False. The one that has the other on its left has right of way
c. True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow.
d. False, provided the other aircraft is not towing anything.
17. Which of a), b), c) and d), below, most correctly completes the following statement? When two or
more aircraft are on final approach:
a. The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order.
b. The higher aircraft has the right of way.
c. The lower aircraft has the right of way.
d. The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the
right of way.
18. Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances, an aircraft may not
fly closer than a), b), or to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure?
a. 500 feet
b. 1000 feet.
c. 800 feet.
d. 1500 feet.
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20. While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light
at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050 degrees, there a risk of collision? And
who has right of way?
a. Yes. The other aircraft does.
b. Yes. You do.
c. No. The other aircraft does.
d. No. You do.
21. If a PPL holder who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service, receives
instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are complied with the
pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorological Conditions, the pilot should:
a. Continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot
comply.
b. Comply with instructions, anyway, but go onto instruments early.
c. Continue on present heading and at present altitude, say nothing, and wait for the
controller's next instruction.
d. Comply as closely as he can with the controller's instructions but on no account go into
Instrument Meteorological Conditions.
22. A Control Area (CTA) established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major
aerodromes is known as:
a. A Terminal Control Area (TMA).
b. An Airway.
c. A Control Zone (CTR).
d. An Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ).
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27. If an aircraft marshaller holds his right arm down and repeatedly moves his left arm upward and
backward it means:
a. Turn left.
b. Turn right.
c. Keep moving ahead.
d. Start your left engine.
28. What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?
a. Clear to land.
b. Return to this airfield and await landing clearance.
c. Land immediately.
d. You have priority to land.
31. You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:
a. Do not land. Continue circling.
b. Continue approach and await a green light
c. Do not land. Airfield closed.
d. Do not land. Divert to your alternate airfield.
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33. What action should a pilot take if he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in
VMC?
a. Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to his
destination airfield.
b. Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC.
c. Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on the dead side of the circuit and await a steady green
from the control tower.
d. Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await the
arrival of a Shepherd aircraft.
34. Which of the following flight levels would be suitable for an aircraft flying in accordance with the
quadrantal rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146 degrees?
a. FL75.
b. FL50.
c. FL85.
d. FL70.
35. A pilot intending to land at a civil aerodrome should initiate his descent to below transition level
with the altimeter subscale set to:
a. Aerodrome QNH.
b. Aerodrome QFE.
c. Regional QNH.
d. 101Millibars.
36. A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What period of separation
is required?
a. 2 minutes.
b. 4 minutes.
c. 3 minutes.
d. 5 minutes.
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39. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum
level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?
a. Height
b. Elevation.
c. Altitude.
d. Flight Level.
40. A PPL pilot who is flying in accordance with SVFR must have the following minima:
a. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
b. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or more and remain clear of cloud.
c. A minimum visibility of 5 kms or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
d. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or more and remain in sight of the surface.
42. Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use' on an uncontrolled airfield?
a. A runway into wind.
b. A part of the maneuvering area defined for take off and landing.
c. The most convenient runway to use for the aircraft operating from the aerodrome.
d. The defined take off and landing portion of an aerodrome.
43. Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds
a. The Approach Controller.
b. The duty Aerodrome Controller.
c. The local Area Control Centre (ACC).
d. The appropriate ATS authority.
44. Where the Certificate of Registration must for an aircraft is kept while the aircraft is flying?
a. In the aircraft.
b. In the registered office of the owner.
c. By the authority of the State of registration.
d. On the ground at the point of departure.
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46. The holder of a JAA PPL(A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of take-offs
and landings within the preceding:
a. 90 days.
b. 29 days.
c. 31 days.
d. 60 days.
47. If the holder of a pilot's licence learns that he is to undergo surgery, what are his obligations in
terms of informing the aviation medical authority?
a. He should contact his aviation medical authority without delay and seek their advice on his
circumstances.
b. There is no requirement to do so provided the pilot does not fly again as pilot in command
until after the surgical operation.
c. He should advise the medical authority of the circumstances only if he is due to receive a
general anesthetic.
d. He has no obligations to tell anyone as this is a private matter.
49. The skills test for a JAA PPL (A) must be taken within
a. 6 months.
b. One year.
c. 4 months.
d. 3 months.
50. Application for the grant of a JAA PPL (A) licence must be made within
theoretical knowledge examinations.
a. 24.
b. 12.
c. 36.
d. 18.
completing the
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52. There are three conditions that a holder of a JAA PPL (A) must fulfill before he/she may act as pilot
in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the following is not a requirement?
a. Holds an Instrument Rating.
b. Holds a Type or Class rating pertinent to the aircraft to be flown.
c. Holds a valid medical certificate.
d. Is not flying for remuneration.
53. Who is responsible for ensuring that all relevant aircraft documentation is carried on an
international flight?
a. The pilot in command.
b. The organisation hiring out the aircraft.
c. The air traffic organisation to whom the flight plan is submitted.
d. The flying supervisor at the airfield of departure.
54. The departure and arrival time entered by a PPL holder in his flying log book is taken as follows:
a. The time the aircraft begins to move under its own power and the time it comes to rest
following the last
b. The time of the first take-off and the time of the last landing of the sortie.
c. The time of engine start and the time of engine shut-down.
d. The time the aircraft enters the active runway for the first take-off and the time it vacates
the runway after the last landing.
56. If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of JAR-FCL receives an injury or is
suffering from a medical condition which affects his ability to act as the crew member of an aircraft:
a. The medical certificate ceases to be valid.
b. The medical certificate will be suspended after 25 days following the date of the injury or
onset of the illness unless the pilot has again been declared fit.
c. The medical certificate will be suspended if the illness or injury has been reported to the
authority.
d. The medical certificate will remain valid.
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58. Which of the following ratings on a JAA PPL (A) precludes the requirement for a separate Night
Rating to be held by a private pilot who wishes to fly as PIC at night?
a. Instrument Rating.
b. IMC Rating.
c. Full Instructor Rating.
d. Assistant Instructor Rating.
60. When should the student pilot present his Pilot Medical Certificate?
a. Before his first solo flight.
b. Before the beginning of theoretical lessons.
c. Before the beginning of a practical training.
d. At giving in the exam's application.
61. What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence?
a. Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.
b. Class 1 Medical Certificate only.
c. Class A or Class B Medical Certificate
63. At least how many hours of dual instructions on aeroplane must have an applicant for a PPL (A)?
a. 25 hours.
b. 10 hours.
c. 15 hours.
d. 20 hours.
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65. At least how long must be the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Private Pilot
Licence skill test, and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes shall be made at this
flight?
a. 150 NM; 2 landings.
b. 100 NM; 2 landings.
c. 200 NM; landings.
d. 250 NM; landings.
66. At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of airplanes must have an applicant for a
Private Pilot Licence?
a. 45 hours.
b. 50 hours.
c. 40 hours.
d. 35 hours.
68. To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of PPL(A) must have
made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an airplane of the same class, and if a type rating
is required, of the same type, within the preceding
a. 90 days.
b. 12 calendar months.
c. 24 calendar months.
69. The three takeoffs and landings during the last 90 days that are required to act as pilot of an
airplane carrying passengers at night must be done during the time period from the end of evening
civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
a. Sunset to sunrise.
b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
c. The end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight
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71. Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-incommand and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is
a. Flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC).
b. Solo flight time under supervision.
c. Flight time as pilot-in-command.
d. Solo flight time.
72. Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a private pilot licence fly, provided he is
properly endorsed?
a. All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.
b. All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot.
c. All single-engined airplanes provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.
d. All airplanes up to the maximum takeoff mass 1,500 kg, provided no payment or refund is
given to the pilot.
73. As a substitute for the proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight time and what
number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a single pilot single engine
airplane class rating?
a. 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6
hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.
b. 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 5
hours of pilot-in-command time, and takeoffs and landings.
c. 10 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6
hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.
74. How long is the period before the expiry date of a single pilot single engine rating, during which a
proficiency check for a revalidation may be done?
a. 3 months.
b. 15 days.
c. 1 month.
d. 2 months.
75. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the private licence holder must have
three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days as the sole manipulator of the controls in
an airplane the same
a. Type or class.
b. Make and model.
c. Class, but not the type.
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77. With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
b. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
c. Single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
78. The pilot or student pilot, when becoming aware of hospital admission of more than 12 hours,
surgical operation or invasive procedure, the regular use of medication, the regular use of correcting
lenses,
a. Must not fly until seeks the advice of the competent aviation doctor.
b. Must pass the aviation medical exam again.
c. Must inform the CAA within the period of 21 days.
79. In which of the following cases should the aviation medical certificate deem to be suspended?
a. Any illness involving incapacity to his functions as a member of flight crew throughout a
period of 21 days or more, or any significant personal injury involving incapacity to
undertake his functions as a member of the flight crew.
b. Any surgical operation or invasive procedure and pregnancy.
c. Any surgical operation or invasive procedure.
80. How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?
a. 2 years.
b. 6 months.
c. 1 year.
d. 3 years.
83. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
a. Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
b. Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
c. Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
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85. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport,
regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine
a. Runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircrafts takeoff and landing distance
data.
b. Review traffic control light signal procedures.
c. Check the accuracy of the navigational equipment and the emergency locator transmitter
(ELT).
86. Pilots are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
a. Takeoffs and landings.
b. All flight conditions.
c. Flight in turbulent air.
87. Which best describes the flight conditions under which pilots are specifically required to keep their
safety harness fastened?
a. Safety belts during take off and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during
takeoff and landing.
b. Safety belts during take off and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
c. Safety belts during take off and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and
while en route.
88. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the
use of seat belts?
a. The pilot in command must brief the passengers with the location and the use of seat belts.
b. The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their seat belts fastened for the
entire flight.
c. The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of seat belts.
89. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
a. The owner or operator.
b. A certified aircraft mechanic.
c. The pilot in command.
90. The person directly responsible for the prelaunch briefing of passengers for a flight is
a. Pilot in command.
b. Safety officer.
c. Ground crewmember.
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92. Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an ICAO Flight Plan?
a. Calibrated Air Speed.
b. Indicated Air Speed.
c. True Air Speed.
d. Ground Speed.
93. What should be entered into the "LEVEL" block of an ICAO VFR Flight Plan?
a. Either the word "VFR" or the proposed cruising altitude.
b. It is left blank for VFR flights.
c. The proposed cruising altitudes.
d. The phrase "VFR: variable".
95. The Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight
a. For all flights in the restricted zone.
b. For flights overflying of the terminal zone.
c. For flights entering or leaving the control zone only.
d. For flying an airport traffic circuit inside the control zone only.
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99.
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
a. Filed an IFR flight plan.
b. Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
c. Received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the
Control area.
Terminal control area.
Control zone.
Flight information region.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Who is responsible for the adequate safe separation between VFR flights in the air?
Pilots themselves exclusively.
The Air Traffic Control exclusively.
The Air Traffic Control and the Surveillance Radar.
The Air Traffic Control and pilots.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height above the earth is
Aerodrome traffic zone.
Control area.
Control zone.
De-conflicted zone.
101.
102.
105.
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107.
When flying a sport aircraft above the territory of the Republic of Slovenia, supplemental
oxygen shall be used at the altitude above mean sea level greater than
a. 4,000 m.
b. 3,600 m.
c. 3,800 m.
d. 4,200 m.
108.
What is the minimum safe altitude required to operate an aircraft over settlements or over
open-air assembly of people?
a. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to
persons or property on the surface.
b. 150 m (500 ft) above ground and not closer than 150 m from any person, vessel or
structure.
c. 150 m (500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m of the aircraft.
d. 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m of the
aircraft.
109.
When flying visually in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m
(1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, the pilot of an aircraft must maintain the vertical
separation from clouds at least
a. 300 m.
b. 100 m.
c. 150 m.
d. 250 m.
110.
Visual flying of aircraft in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m
(1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, up to 3,050 m (10,000 ft), is permitted if the horizontal
visibility is at least
a. 1.5 km.
b. 8 km.
c. 5 km.
d. 3 km.
111.
When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G
airspace, the pilot should
a. Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
b. Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL.
c. Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL.
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113.
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within
Class D airspace unless the
a. Flight visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km.
b. Ground visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km.
c. Ground visibility at that airport is at least 5.0 km.
114.
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D
a. Airspace is clear of clouds and 3.0-km visibility.
b. 450-meter ceiling and 1.5-km visibility.
c. 450-meter ceiling and 5.0-km visibility.
115.
Which are the meteorological minima, that allow the tower to permit an SVFR flight in a
control zone during daytime? The flight visibility must be at least
a. 1,500 m and cloud basis 300 m GND.
b. 1,500 m.
c. 5,000 m and cloud basis 300 m GND.
d. 5,000 m.
116.
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4,500 feet MSL and 9,000 feet MSL outside
controlled airspace under VFR, must remain at least:
a. Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
b. 1,500 m horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
c. 1,500 m horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
d. 2,000 feet horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
117.
118.
than
a.
b.
c.
d.
A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescribed flight level at flight altitudes, higher
3,000 ft GND.
2,200 ft GND.
700 ft MSL.
3,000 ft MSL.
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120.
A pilot-in-command of a VFR cruising flight at the altitudes over 3,000 ft MSL, should fly odd
flight levels plus 500 ft, if maintains
a. True headings between 000 and 179.
b. Magnetic headings between 180 and 359.
c. Magnetic courses between 000 and 179.
d. True courses between 180 and 359.
121.
traffic?
a.
b.
c.
122.
Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air
A balloon.
An aircraft in final approach for landing.
An aircraft in distress.
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
a. The faster aircraft shall give way.
b. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
c. The aircraft on the left shall give way.
123.
When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision,
which way should each aircraft turn?
a. Heavier aircraft should turn to the right, easier aircraft should turn to the left.
b. Each aircraft should turn to the right.
c. Heavier aircraft should turn to the left, easier aircraft should turn to the right.
d. Each aircraft should turn to the left.
124.
What actions should the pilots of aircraft take if on head-on collision course?
a. Both should turn to the left.
b. Both should turn to the right.
c. Both should make a climbing turn to the right.
d. Both should make a climbing turn to the left.
125.
a.
b.
c.
d.
How shall aircraft in the air avoid each other on a head-on collision course?
Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the left.
Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right.
Powered-aircraft has a right of way, non-powered aircraft shall deviate to the right.
Non-powered aircraft has a right of way, powered aircraft shall deviate to the left.
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127.
What should the glider pilot do, if on head-on collision course with the two-engined Cessna?
a. He should open the air brakes immediately, because a multi-engine airplane has the rightof-way.
b. He should deviate to the left thus giving way to the airplane.
c. He should deviate to the right.
d. He may maintain heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way,
however he should pay extra attention.
128.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
Airship.
Glider.
Aircraft towing other aircraft.
Helicopter.
129.
Which of the statements listed, concerning the right-of-way when two aircraft converge,
but not head-on, is correct?
a. Normal category aircraft should give way to ultralight aircraft.
b. Airplanes should give way to helicopters.
c. Airplanes in free flight should give way to non-powered aircraft.
d. Ultralight aircraft should give way to normal category aircraft.
130.
While in final gliding flight toward airfield, a glider pilot notices an aerotow, closing from his
left side. What action should the glider pilot in free flight take?
a. He should alter his heading to the left and give way to the aerotow, which has always the
right-of-way over all other aircraft.
b. He should alter his heading to the left and give way to the aerotow, which has the right-ofway over a glider.
c. He may keep heading and speed, because he is on the right side and thus has the right-ofway, and intensify attentiveness.
d. He may keep heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way over a
powered aircraft.
131.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which aircraft must give way at converging of a glider and an airplane in free flight?
No one.
The airplane.
The glider.
Both aircraft.
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133.
Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft B
with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging
course. Which has the right of way?
a. Aircraft B if A is on its left.
b. Aircraft A regardless of the direction which B is approaching.
c. Aircraft B regardless of the direction A is approaching.
d. Aircraft A if B is on its right.
134.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same altitude?
The ultralight airplane.
Bigger airplane.
The airplane on the right.
The airplane which has another airplane at his right side.
135.
An airplane and another airplane, towing a glider, are on crossing courses. If the aerotow is
on the left of the airplane, which has the right-of-way?
a. Both aircraft.
b. The aerotow.
c. Depends on the magnetic heading of separate aircraft.
d. The aircraft in free flight.
136.
Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of-way during
landing, is correct?
a. Aircraft at higher level shall give way to aircraft at lower level, but the latter shall not take
advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is in the final stage of an approach to
land, or to overtake that aircraft.
b. Aircraft in final stage of an approach to land or which is first in an airport traffic circuit, has
the right-of-way over all other aircraft.
c. Aircraft which is the highest has the right-of-way over all other aircraft with the exception
of turbojet aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft.
137.
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139.
What is the distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing at which must an
extended over water non-commercial flight of a multi-engined aeroplane capable of continuing
flight with one engine inoperative carry additional to appropriate number of life jackets sufficient
number of life-saving rafts and the equipment for making the pyrotechnical distress signals?
a. 200 NM.
b. 50 NM.
c. 100 NM.
140.
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entriesin
the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service
a. Lies with the
b. Mechanic, who performed the work.
c. Owner or operator.
d. Pilot in command.
141.
How often is a glider or an aeroplane state of airworthiness inspected by the authorized
person?
a. Regularly each year and in case if changing ownership or after repairs.
b. Regularly every two years and after a hard landing.
c. One year after the last regular inspection and in case of changing ownership.
d. Regularly each year before beginning of a flying season.
142.
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What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from
Refuse the clearance as stated and request that it be amended.
Accept the clearance, because the pilot is not responsible for the deviation.
Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control when deviation occurs.
Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control that he believes a rule deviation will
occur.
144.
If a pilot has to deviate from an air traffic control clearance due to unforseen circumstances,
he has to
a. Transmit a general call giving all details concerning his deviation from the ATC clearance.
b. Inform all ATC stations concerned by transmitting a multiple call.
c. Notify the competent ATC unit without delay and obtain an amended ATC clearance.
d. Notify the Aeronautical Information Service.
145.
146.
During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip
and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away maneuver of a climbing turn to
the left. What does this mean?
a. You may proceed!
b. You have been intercepted. Follow me!
c. Land at the aerodrome in the direction of my flight!
d. Leave the prohibited area immediately!
147.
During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip,
flying along for a while, then rocking the wings and commencing a shallow turn to the right. What
does this mean?
a. Return to the aerodrome of origin!
b. You have been intercepted. Follow me!
c. Leave the prohibited area immediately!
d. You may proceed!
148.
During a cross-country flight you find yourself in the vicinity of an unknown airport. A
military aircraft approaches, turns around your aircraft, rocks the wings and finally lowers the
landing gear. What does this mean?
a. You have been intercepted, land at the airport below you!
b. You may proceed!
c. Leave the airport zone immediately!
d. Leave the airport zone and land at the nearest sport airfield!
24 / 24
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3) If you suspect carburettor icing when flying an aircraft whose engine is not fitted with a
carburettor air-temperature gauge, the correct action would be:
a) To always select full carburettor heat.
b) To select the appropriate amount of carburettor heat depending on the amount of icing
suspected.
c) To always select full carburettor heat unless the engine starts to run roughly, at which
point the carburettor heat should be selected to cold.
d) To open the throttle to make up for the lost power.
4) Aquaplaning speed:a) Can be calculated, in knots, by multiplying the square root of the tyre pressure by nine.
b) Increases as the depth of tread on the tyres reduces.
c) Increases as the depth of water on the ground increases.
d) Is measured in miles per hour.
5) Connecting two 12 volt, 40 ampere-hour, capacity batteries in series will provide a battery of:
a) 24 volts and 40 ampere-hours capacity.
b) 12 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity.
c) 24 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity.
d) 12 volts and 40 ampere hours capacity.
6) If a blockage occurs in the oil cooler of an aircraft engine while the aircraft is in flight, a by-pass
valve allows the oil to by-pass the cooler. The by-pass functions on the principle of:
a) Pressure dependence.
b) Temperature dependence.
c) Mechanical selection.
d) Hydraulic selection.
2 / 27
8) Magnetos are:
a) Self contained, engine driven, electrical generators which produce high voltage sparks.
b) Generators, driven by the cam-shaft, used to supply electrical equipment
c) Used to generate low voltage sparks for the spark-plugs.
d) Fitted within the distributor, and fire in the same sequence as the spark-plugs.
9) Which of the following is an appropriate action to take if you have a carburettor fire on startup?
a) Select mixture control to Idle Cut off (ICO).
b) Deselect carburettor heat.
c) Turn the starter switch to "Off".
d) AII of the above.
10) Tyre creep:a) Can be recognised by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel.
b) Can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel.
c) Refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes.
d) Can be prevented with glue.
11) The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system.(See Fig.PPL AKG-1)
In flight if the loadmeter reading drops to zero, the most probable cause is that the:
a) Alternator has failed.
b) Battery has been fully charged.
c) Battery is flat.
d) Bus-bar is overloaded.
12) The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:a) Increasing the engine R.P.M.
b) Decreasing the area of the cylinder.
c) Decreasing the length of the stroke.
d) Increasing the size of the fuel tank.
13) When turning through North in the Northern Hemisphere:a) Liquid swirl will increase the magnitude of any turning error.
b) Turning errors are greatest closer to the magnetic equator.
c) Acceleration errors are always more significant than turning errors.
d) The compass will be lively.
3 / 27
14) In a dive, with the throttle setting constant, the engine R.P.M. of an aircraft fitted with a fixedpitch propeller will:
a) Increase if the airspeed is allowed to increase.
b) Decrease as the airspeed increases.
c) Remain constant whatever the airspeed.
d) Decrease as long as the throttle setting is not changed.
15) Immediately after starting an aircraft engine, you must check the starter warning light. If it is
still illuminated you should:
a) Shut down the engine immediately.
b) Monitor it for 30 seconds. If it remains illuminated shut down the engine.
c) Do nothing. The starter warning light should stay on while the engine is running.
d) Shut down the engine, count to 30, and then attempt a re-start.
16) The significance of using the chemically correct mixture of air and fuel is that:
a) It allows complete combustion to occur.
b) It is the one usually used.
c) It is 15:1 by volume.
d) It gives the best results.
17) Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed Indicator
indicate the True Airspeed of an aircraft?
a) In ISA, sea-level conditions only.
b) At any altitude or temperature.
c) At any altitude, provided that the temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA.
d) At any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail.
18) While carrying out the Dead Cut Check, with the right magneto selected, you notice that the
engine falters, and you suspect it will stop running. What should you do?
a) Allow the engine to stop completely.
b) Quickly switch to the left magneto.
c) Quickly switch to both magnetos.
d) Open the throttle to keep the engine running, and then select both magnetos.
4 / 27
22) While taxying in an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, you suspect that you have
carburettor icing. The correct action to take would be to:
a) Select carburettor heat to fully hot. Then, before take-off, select carburettor heat cold,
making sure that the engine develops the correct minimum take-off rpm.
b) Select carburettor heat to fully hot and leave this setting selected until you have taken off
and are climbing away.
c) Select carburettor heat to fully hot: then select cold as the rpm drops.
d) Avoid the use of carburettor heat on the ground, and rely on the heat of the engine within
the cowlings to melt the ice.
23) The Mechanical Tachometer:a) Works on the principle of a magnetic field being induced in a drag cup and creating a
torque which rotates a shaft attached to the pointer on the dial of a Tachometer.
b) Uses the friction generated in a drag cup to rotate a shaft, which is connected to a pointer,
against the pressure of a hairspring.
c) Is driven directly from the prop shaft. Gears reduce the speed of rotation so that a
generator can be used to produce a voltage proportional to shaft speed which is indicated
on a gauge calibrated in RPM.
d) Is driven directly from the alternator drive.
5 / 27
27) Instruments normally supplied from the electrical system include the:
a) Fuel quantity gauges and the turn co-ordinator.
b) Engine rpm indicator and the fuel quantity gauges.
c) Turn co-ordinator and oil pressure gauge.
d) Engine rpm indicator and the turn co-ordinator.
29) Where in the engine is the oil temperature read by the temperature probe which is connected
to the engine's oil temperature gauge?
a) After the oil has passed through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the
engine.
b) Inside the hot sections of the engine.
c) As the oil leaves the oil tank.
d) Before the oil has passed through the oil cooler.
30) To assist in reducing the temperature of the engine:a) The air/fuel mixture can be richened.
b) The airspeed can be reduced.
c) The cowl flaps can be closed.
d) The air/fuel mixture can be weakened.
31) The component parts of the wing shown in the diagram are: (See Fig.PPL AKG-2)
A / B /C
a) Front Spar / Formers / Rear Spar
b) Primary Spar / Formers / Stringer
c) Front Spar / Secondary Spar / Former
d) Stringers / Secondary Spar / Former
6 / 27
33) On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, steering on the ground is
normally effected by:
a) Control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals.
b) Cables operated from the aileron control wheel.
c) Use of the differential braking technique, only.
d) Hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.
37) If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed indicator and altimeter become blocked
by ice:
a) Both instruments will over-read.
b) The airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read.
c) The airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read.
d) Both instruments will under-read.
38) Within one "Otto" cycle, the valves of a four stroke piston engine will each open:
a) Once.
b) Twice.
c) During the power stroke.
d) During the induction stroke.
7 / 27
39) The purpose of the compass deviation card fixed next to an aircraft's magnetic compass is to:
a) Indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual
magnetic heading.
b) Compensate for the influence of magnetic material carried on the person of the pilot
and/or passengers.
c) Indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and magnetic north.
d) Indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and true north.
40) The normal method for shutting down an aircraft engine is:
a) Closing the throttle and moving the mixture to ICO.
b) Switching the starter switch to off.
c) Moving the mixture to Idle Cut off (ICO).
d) Closing the throttle.
41) Why do aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark augmentation?
a) Because the speed of rotation of the engine, during starting, is too low for the magneto to
produce enough energy to ignite the air-fuel mixture.
b) Because, at high engine speeds, a fat spark is needed to extract maximum power from the
air-fuel mixture.
c) In order to overcome the problem of spark-retard during starting.
d) AII of the above.
42) Aircraft maintenance carried out by a private pilot in accordance with the pilot's legal
entitlement:
a) Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by the pilot who carried out the
maintenance.
b) Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a licensed engineer.
c) Need not be logged or recorded.
d) Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a CAD approved inspector.
43) Carbon monoxide gas, which is highly toxic, may enter the aeroplane cabin in flight because of
an exhaust system defect. Carbon Monoxide:
a) Is odourless and colourless.
b) May be identified by its strong smell.
c) May be identified by its grey colour.
d) Has a very distinctive taste.
8 / 27
45) A Direction Indicator:a) Suffers from apparent drift of the gyro from the fixed position in space to which it was
aligned, produced by Earth rotation.
b) Is badly affected by acceleration in a turn.
c) Is not affected by drift produced from mechanical friction in the gyro gimbal bearings.
d) Provides a stable reference in azimuth and elevation for maintaining accurate headings and
pitch attitudes.
46) As
a)
b)
c)
d)
48) As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propeller accelerates along the runway:
a) The blade pitch angle increases, maintaining a constant angle of attack and R.P.M.
b) The angle of attack will decrease and the engine R.P.M. remain constant.
c) The angle of attack will remain constant and the engine R.P.M. will increase.
d) The linear velocity of the propeller tip will gradually decrease.
49) The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system, which employs a centre-zero
reading ammeter. (See Fig.PPL AKG-3)
In flight with the battery fully charged and the battery switch ON, you would expect the
ammeter to be:
a) In the centre-zero position.
b) To the right showing a large positive reading.
c) To the left showing a negative reading.
d) Fluctuating, but mainly showing a negative reading.
PPL AKG-3.jpg
50) A flying control lock:a) Is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions.
b) Will constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to overstress the airframe
during normal operations.
c) Must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.
d) Is only necessary on the elevators.
9 / 27
51) The type of gas which is stored in the activating cylinder of a life jacket:a) Is Carbon Dioxide.
b) Is extremely toxic and great care should be taken, when topping up the lifejacket, not to
breathe any of it in.
c) Is highly inflammable.
d) Is Carbon Monoxide.
52) If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly and immediate action is required to extinguish it,
the safest extinguishant to use is:
a) Dry powder.
b) Carbon dioxide (CO?).
c) Bromotrifluoromethane (BTF).
d) Water acid.
54) When referring to the magnetic compass, piiots must bear in mind that:
a) Turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and minimum when
turning through East and West.
b) Turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and minimum when
turning through North and South.
c) Turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator, and diminish as
the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Poles.
d) Acceleration errors increase the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles, and diminish
as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Equator.
55) After starting a cold engine, if the oil pressure gauge does not indicate within approximately 30
seconds:
a) The engine must be stopped immediately.
b) The engine rpm should be increased and then the oil pressure re-checked.
c) This may be ignored, provided that the oil level was checked to be sufficient before startup.
d) This may be ignored if the oil temperature is high, provided that the oil level was checked
to be sufficient before start-up.
10 / 27
57) The exhaust gas temperature gauge:a) Can indicate whether the air-fuel mixture being drawn into the combustion chamber is too
lean or too rich.
b) Is an engine instrument designed to protect the engine from excessive heat.
c) Does the same job as the cylinder head temperature gauge.
d) Requires power from the D. C. bus-bar.
58) The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:a) Induction, compression, power, exhaust.
b) Exhaust power induction, compression.
c) Induction, power, compression, exhaust.
d) Exhaust, induction, power, compression.
59) Flying an aircraft with a flat battery, having started the engine using a ground source, is:
a) Not recommended because the battery may not charge correctly during flight.
b) Acceptable because the battery will be fully charged again before take-off.
c) Acceptable because the battery is never required in flight.
d) Not recommended because the electrical loads will not be energised.
60) Itis important to ensure the priming pump is locked after use because:
a) It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel strainer into the inlet manifold, causing an
extremely rich mixture.
b) It may cause a fuel leak, resulting in an increased fire risk.
c) It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel tank into the carburettor, causing an
extremely rich mixture.
d) If it vibrates closed, it will cause the engine to stop.
61) What will be the consequence for the validity of an aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness (C of
if the aircraft is not maintained in accordance with the approved maintenance schedule
detailed in the C of A?
a) The C of A will be rendered invalid until such time as the required maintenance is
completed.
b) The aircraft owner must apply to the CAA for an exemption from the required maintenance
schedule.
c) The C of A must be renewed before the aircraft may fly.
d) The validity of the C of A will not be affected.
11 / 27
64) Baffles:a) Are directional air guides which direct the airflow fully around the cylinder.
b) Are placed within the lubrication system to slow down the passage of oil into the engine.
c) Reduce the flow of air around the engine.
d) Must be close fitting to reduce the flow of air around the engine.
65) Pre-ignition:
a) Is usually caused by a hot spot in the combustion chamber.
b) Is also known as pinking.
c) Occurs after ignition.
d) Happens after the spark occurs at the plug.
12 / 27
69) If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and the aircraft
subsequently descended, the readings on the Altimeter, the VSI and theASI would, if ice had
blocked the pitot (Total Pressure) tube:Altimeter VSI
ASI
a) Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Under-read
b) Read Correctly / Under-read / Over-read
c) Under-read / Read Correctly / Over-read
d) Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Over-read
70) The cylinder head temperature gauge:a) Obtains its temperature information from the hottest engine cylinder, by means of a probe
consisting of two dissimilar metals joined together.
b) Is primarily a fuel management instrument.
c) Requires alternating current to power the instrument needle.
d) Obtains its information from a probe which is installed about four inches from the cylinder
head on the exhaust system.
71) In icing conditions, if a static vent became blocked during level flight and the aircraft
subsequently climbed, the readings on the Altimeter, the VSI and theASI would:Altimeter VSI
ASI
a) Remain unchanged / Remain unchanged / Under-read
b) Remain unchanged / Under-read / Over-read
c) Under-read / Remain unchanged / Over-read
d) Over-read / Over-read / Under-read
72) The most probable cause of the needle of the oil pressure gauge fluctuating when the aircraft
is in level flight with the engine running at cruise rpm is:
a) A low oil supply.
b) The presence of air in the oil tank.
c) A loose electrical connection.
d) The low power setting.
73) The principal reason why light training aircraft have fixed undercarriages is that:
a) The reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset
by its simplicity, low cost and easy maintenance.
b) Training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground.
c) Training aircraft need to ensure that kinetic energy on landing is absorbed.
d) Training aircraft need to be supported at a convenient height
74) In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from:
a) Atmospheric air remaining in the tanks.
b) Poorly fitting fuel caps.
13 / 27
75) The oil temperature gauge in the cockpit is connected to a temperature probe that senses the
temperature of the oil:
a) After it passes through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the engine.
b) Within the hot sections of the engine.
c) Before it passes through the oil cooler.
d) In the sump of the engine.
76) An altimeter:a) Contains an aneroid capsule connected to a static pressure source. The capsule contracts
during a descent
b) Contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts during
a descent.
c) Contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent
d) Contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent.
77) An accelerator pump is used to prevent a "flat spot". A "flat spot" is:
a) When the throttle is opened quickly and the demand for fuel cannot be met immediately.
b) When the throttle is closed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel.
c) When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich,
d) d)j When the throttle is closed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich.
78) If is possible to get carburettor icing when the relative humidity is greater than 50% within a
temperature range of:
a) -7 to +33C.
b) 0C and below.
c) -20to+10C.
d) At any temperature.
14 / 27
81) If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed Indicator
becomes blocked, the indicator will:
a) Show a zero reading, after a short delay.
b) Continue to show the same reading.
c) Indicate a climb.
d) Indicate a descent.
82) When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in the pitot tube is:
a) Dynamic pressure plus static pressure.
b) Static pressure only.
c) Total pressure plus dynamic pressure.
d) Dynamic pressure only.
83) Which of the following will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade?
a) Decreased TAS and increased RPM.
b) Increased TAS and increased RPM.
c) Increased TAS and decreased RPM.
d) Decreased TAS and decreased RPM.
85) On a fixed pitch propeller aircraft whose engine is fitted with a carburettor, the of induction
system icing are:
a) A gradual drop in rpm and possible rough running and vibration.
b) A sudden drop in rpm and engine temperature.
c) A rise in manifold pressure and a reduction in air-speed, in level flight.
d) A rise in engine oil temperature and a fall in oil pressure.
86) The main advantage of an alternator over a generator is that:a) An alternator will give almost full power at engine idling speed.
b) A generator can only produce alternating current.
c) The output of a generator fluctuates too much.
d) An alternator produces direct current from its armature.
and
15 / 27
91) A Direction Indicator may be aligned with the magnetic compass:a) By using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the wings are level.
b) To minimise the effect of magnetic dip.
c) Periodically, to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn.
d) Because of the effect of liquid swirl.
92) Where, in an aircraft-engine fuel system, is the electric fuel-boost pump normally fitted?
a) At the lowest point of the fuel tank.
b) Immediately adjacent to the mechanical fuel pump.
c) Between the mechanical fuel pump and the carburettor.
93) A magnetic heading:a) Is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation.
b) Is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation.
c) Is not affected by turning errors.
d) Is always referenced to True North.
16 / 27
94) The prevention of excessive oil pressure in an aircraft engine is assured by:
a) The engine's oil pressure relief valve.
b) Ensuring that the engine does not exceed the red-line rpm value.
c) The engine's high capacity pressure pump.
d) The engine's filter by-pass valve.
95) How soon after starting a cold aircraft engine should the oil pressure gauge give an indication?
a) Within 30 seconds; otherwise shut down the engine.
b) Immediately; otherwise shut down the engine.
c) By the time pre-flight checks are complete; otherwise shut down the engine.
d) As long as the oil levels were at an adequate level before start-up, and RPM is within limits,
it is probable that the oil pressure gauge is faulty and should be reported after the flight.
96) If the gyro of a turn indicator runs at a lower rpm than its design specification, how will the
actual rate of turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of turn shown on the turn indicator?
a) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated.
b) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated.
c) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be less than the rate indicated.
d) The turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn.
97) To work at its highest efficiency, the engine:a) Needs to be at the highest temperature consistent with safe operation.
b) Oil system must constantly be supplied with hot oil.
c) Must be used at high altitude to take advantage of the cooling effect of the atmosphere.
d) Needs to be at the lowest temperature consistent with safe operation.
98) On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure. However, the gyrodriven instruments appear to be functioning normally, and the Low Vacuum Warning Light is
off. Where do you think the problem lies?
a) In the suction gauge.
b) In the suction system.
c) With the Low Vacuum Warning Light.
d) In the gyro driven instruments.
17 / 27
101)
a)
b)
c)
d)
102)
a)
b)
c)
d)
103)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The purpose of fins around the cylinder of a reciprocating air-cooled aircraft engine is a
Better cylinder cooling.
Cylinder augmentation.
Lower engine aerodynamic drag.
Lower engine mass.
104)
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
The power of an aviation engine without a supercharger decreases with altitude because
105)
a)
b)
c)
d)
106)
a)
b)
c)
d)
18 / 27
107)
a)
b)
c)
d)
What would be the most likely cause of fluctuating oil pressure in an aircraft engine?
Low oil level.
Worn or loose bearing.
Loose prop seal.
Faulty oil pressure indicator.
108)
a)
b)
c)
d)
When the engine is stopped, the main source of electrical power is the
Battery.
Magneto.
Generator or alternator.
Circuit breaker.
109)
a)
b)
c)
d)
For exciting of the alternator an initial electrical current is needed, provided by the
Battery.
Magneto.
Ignition coil.
Current distributor.
110)
a)
b)
c)
d)
111)
a)
b)
c)
d)
To which source of electrical power is the starter of an aircraft engine connected to?
Directly to the battery.
To the external source of electrical power only.
To the alternator or generator.
Depends on the type of aircraft.
112) The battery master switch should be turned to OFF after the engine is stopped to avoid the
battery discharging through the
a) Ignition switch.
b) Magnetos.
c) Alternator or generator.
d) Electrical services connected to it.
113)
a)
b)
c)
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
Improved engine performance.
Balanced cylinder head pressure.
Uniform heat distribution.
19 / 27
114)
a)
b)
c)
d)
What would be the result of a single magneto failure on an aircraft in cruise flight?
A slight drop in RPM, plus a slight increase in fuel consumption.
The engine would be difficult to control.
The engine would backfire excessively.
Black smoke would be observed from the exhaust.
115) Can an engine of a parked modern reciprocating aircraft fire if somebody turns the
propeller by hand?
a) Yes, provided the master switch is on.
b) Normally not if the engine is cold with ignition switched off.
c) No, under no circumstances.
d) Yes, always.
116)
a)
b)
c)
117)
a)
b)
c)
118)
a)
b)
c)
d)
An engine that does not have a carburettor but rather metered fuel that is fed under
pressure into the induction manifold, is said to have
Fuel injection.
Supercharging.
Metering carburettor.
120) What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburettor heat is applied?
a) The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
b) A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
20 / 27
121) While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur
if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
a) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
b) There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the
excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
c) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause
detonation.
122) If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburettor, the first
indication of carburettor ice would most likely be
a) Loss of RPM.
b) Engine roughness.
c) A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
123) Carburettor ice has formed in the venturi of your carburettor and your aircraft starts losing
power. Will the use of carburettor heat result in immediate increase in RPM?
a) No, in a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft there will first be some rough running and a further
b) Loss of RPM as the melted ice is ingested by the engine. Then RPM will increase.
c) Yes, since the carburettor ice will melt immediately.
d) No, since carburettor heat simply melts the ice and does not affect RPM.
124) What is the purpose of an auxiliary fuel boost pump installed in some light aircraft?
a) Providing fuel to the carburettor during start-up and supplying fuel if the engine driven fuel
pump fails.
b) Faster emptying of fuel tanks.
c) Pre-injection of fuel into engine cylinders.
d) Increasing engine efficiency.
125)
a)
b)
c)
d)
126)
a)
b)
c)
21 / 27
127) On a reciprocating aviation engine, what is controlled by the exhaust temperature gauge
(EGT)?
a) Quality of the fuel/air mixture.
b) Carburettor icing.
c) Oil pressure.
d) Oil consumption.
128) An abnormally high oil temperature indication in case of a four-stroke engine may be
caused by
a) The oil level being too low.
b) Operating with a too high viscosity oil.
c) Excessively rich mixture.
d) The oil level being too high.
129)
a)
b)
c)
130)
a)
b)
c)
d)
131)
a)
b)
c)
132) Which adverse effect, caused by a gyroscopic effect, will a pilot experience during the
takeoff roll while lifting a tail off the ground?
a) Banking tendency.
b) Pitching.
c) Yawing.
133) What is the function of a shimmy dumper on an aircraft undercarriage?
a) To prevent nose wheel vibrations.
22 / 27
134)
a)
b)
c)
d)
135)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Besides the altimeter, which instruments are connected to the static pressure line?
Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and turn-and-skid indicator.
Airspeed indicator only.
Airspeed indicator and external temperature indicator.
Airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.
136) What causes the true airspeed of an airplane to differ from its indicated airspeed?
a) The forward wind component.
b) Pitot error caused by flow losses in the pitot tube.
c) Yaw error caused by the yawing movement in cruise flight.
d) Variations in temperature and air density.
(see Figure 8)
137) Which is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators on
any one aircraft or glider?
a) Maneuvering speed (VA).
b) Maximum structural cruising speed (VMO).
c) Never-exceed speed (VNE).
d) Maximum speed with wing flaps extended (VFE).
138)
a)
b)
c)
d)
139)
a)
b)
c)
d)
What does the green color band on the airspeed indicator of an aircraft indicate?
Normal operating speed range.
Dangerous area.
The landing gear and flaps operating speed range.
Maximum allowed speed.
23 / 27
141)
a)
b)
c)
d)
143)
a)
b)
c)
d)
144)
a)
b)
c)
d)
145)
a)
b)
c)
d)
146) What would be the indication of an aircraft altimeter if the pilot fails to set QNH during
descent, and therefore lives the instrument set to the standard pressure?
a) The airport heigh above the pressure plane 1013.2 hPa.
b) Zero.
c) The airport elevation.
24 / 27
147)
a)
b)
c)
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting to a lower pressure, the altitude indication will
decrease.
stay unchanged.
increase.
148)
a)
b)
c)
d)
149)
a)
b)
c)
d)
If an altimeter is set to QFE pressure, the instrument indication after landing will be
zero.
the airfield elevation.
the airfield height above the pressure plain 1013.2 hPa.
the airfield pressure height above the standard value.
150) If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the
altimeter setting being adjusted, the aircraft true altitude
a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) stays unchanged.
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APPENDEX:
26 / 27
27 / 27
Review questions:
1) Maximum Landing Mass (MLM) is best defined as.
a) Maximum permissible total mass on landing under normal operating conditions.
b) Maximum permissible total mass on landing.
c) Maximum permissible total mass on the approach to land.
d) Maximum permissible total mass on taxiing to park.
2) What V speed is it important not to exceed if sudden full-pitch, nose-up, control movements are
planned, and why?
a) VA, sudden control movements can cause structural damage.
b) VD, sudden control movements can cause a departure from controlled flight.
c) VNE, sudden control movements can cause structural damage.
d) VFB, sudden control movements can cause a departure from controlled flight.
3) What is the colour of the caution speed range on an Air Speed Indicator, and what must the pilot be
mindful of when operating in this range?
a) Yellow. - This speed range should not be entered unless the air is smooth. Any manoeuvres should
be made using small and gentle control inputs.
b) Green. - Stalls, airframe deformations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range if the pilot
uses abrupt and full control deflections.
c) Yellow - Stalls, causing airframe deformations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range if
the pilot uses abrupt and full control deflections.
d) Green. - Control flutter may occur if turbulence is encountered.
4) What name is given to the load at which the aircraft structure will fail?
a) Ultimate Load.
b) Safety Factor Load.
c) Limit Load.
d) Maximum Load.
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8) Which of the following situations may, under certain conditions, result in structural damage occurring?
a) An aircraft being flown above its maximum all up mass.
b) An aircraft in the utility category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.
c) An aircraft being flown above its maximum landing mass.
d) An aircraft in the normal category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.
9) Never exceed speed (VNE) is the red radial line on the ASI and marks the speed at which:
a) Flight is permitted in smooth conditions only.
b) Prolonged flight is unsafe.
c) Flight is prohibited.
d) Structural damage will occur.
10) When flying in very rough air what is the maximum speed to be adopted in order to avoid overstressing
the airframe?
a) VRA or VA
b) VD or VNO
c) VNO or VFE
d) VD or VA
11) Your aircraft has an oil reservoir with a capacity of 3 imp/gal which is positioned 20 inches aft of the
datum. Given that the oil weighs 9.1 lbs/gal, the reservoir will possess a moment of:a) 546 lb in.
b) 60 lb in.
c) 27.3 lb in.
d) 182 lb in.
12) Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the ground, what term best describes image 'D'? (See fig. PPL FPP-2)
a) Maximum All Up Mass.
b) Zero Fuel Mass.
c) Traffic Load.
d) Empty Mass.
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15) The Maximum Take-off Mass of an aircraft may be limited by:a) Structural design load limits and or runway length, altitude and temperature.
b) The authorised performance category of the aircraft, i.e. Utility / normal / aerobatic.
c) The airworthiness condition of the aircraft.
d) All of the above.
17) An aircraft loaded in a dangerous manner, so that its C of G is beyond its forward limit will:
a) Have both an increased longitudinal stability and stalling speed.
b) Require less effort to flare when landing.
c) Require less effort to rotate on take off.
d) Have both an increased range and endurance.
18) The flight characteristics of an aircraft which has its C of G at the forward limit will be:a) Insensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability.
b) Insensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability.
c) Sensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability.
d) Sensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability.
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20) You plan to carry your aircraft's maximum permissible 'Traffic Load'. Your principal consideration during
your flight planning will be that:a) Your fuel load may have to be limited to prevent you exceeding the Maximum All Up Weight /
Mass.
b) It is mandatory to carry a full fuel load when carrying passengers.
c) The fuel load is accounted for in 'Traffic Load' calculations.
d) The 'Traffic Load' may have to be reduced to allow for the full fuel load.
21) Traffic Load':a) Is the total mass of passengers, baggage and freight.
b) Includes drinkable water and lavatory chemicals.
c) Is the total mass of passengers, baggage and freight and fuel.
d) Includes the Basic Empty Mass.
22) The consequences of operating an aeroplane with the C of G beyond the aft limit will be:I On the ground the aircraft would be tail heavy and passenger or crew movement or fuel usage could
make it tip up.
II The flying controls would be too sensitive increasing the risk of a tail strike at rotation.
III The tendency to stall would increase and it may be impossible to achieve "hands off" balanced flight.
IV Recovery from a spin would be much more difficult.
a) All statements are correct.
b) Only statement I is correct.
c) Only statements I and IV are correct.
d) Only statements II and III are correct.
23) Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the ground, what term best describes image A'? (See fig. PPL FPP-2)
a) Zero Fuel Mass.
b) Take Off Mass.
c) Maximum All Up Mass.
d) Empty Mass.
PPL FPP-2.jpg
24) In which Category. Utility or Normal, would you expect to operate the aircraft represented in the
attached CofG /Moment Envelope if its mass is 2100 lbs and its CofG Moment 90,000 lb inches? (See
fig. PPL FPP-7)
a) Normal.
b) Utility.
c) Both.
d) Neither.
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28
h
e)CTentre of Gravity range of most aircraft reduces as the aircraft mass increases, as a result of:a) The forward C of G limit moving rearwards to reduce stability.
b) The aft C of G limit moving forward to increase stability.
c) The aft C of G limit moving rearwards to extend the static margin.
d) The static margin moving forward to reduce manoeuvrability.
29) When calculating the MZFM (maximum zero fuel mass), the following are included:a) Crew, Passengers, Baggage & Catering.
b) Crew, Passengers & Baggage.
c) Crew, Passengers, Baggage, Catering & Fuel.
d) Drinkable water and lavatory chemicals.
30) What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on rotate speed and take-off safety speed?
a) It will increase both speeds.
b) It will decrease both speeds.
c) It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed.
d) It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off safety speed.
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33) If the density of the atmosphere is reduced, the take-off distance will be:a) Increased.
b) Decreased.
c) Unaffected.
d) Controlled by wind.
34) If the density of the air is increased above ISA conditions, the effect will be:a) To increase the take-off performance.
b) To increase the take-off distance.
c) To decrease the take-off performance.
d) To decrease just the take-off run.
35) When the density of the atmosphere is relatively low, the resulting reduction in:a) Both lift and engine power will require a longer take-off distance.
b) Thrust and drag has no apparent effect on the take-off distance required.
c) Drag will permit the use of greater flap angles.
d) Drag offsets the loss of engine power giving improved acceleration.
36) The main reason for taking off into wind is to:a) Decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off.
b) Decrease the take off distance available (TODA).
c) Increase the ground speed of the aircraft.
d) Increase the take-off distance.
37) Increasing the aeroplane's gross weight will have what effect on the take-off?
a) Increase the stall speed and the take-off run required.
b) Decrease the stall speed and increase the take-off run required.
c) Increase the stall speed and decrease the take-off run required.
d) Decrease the stall speed and the take-off run required.
38) What is the reason for increasing the speed in a prolonged climb:a) To increase the flow of air through the engine and keep it cool.
b) To maintain the best rate of climb speed.
c) To reduce the noise of the aircraft in sensitive areas.
d) To maintain the best angle of climb speed.
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40) To gain the greatest amount of height in the shortest time period the aircraft should be flown at:a) The best rate of climb speed (Vy).
b) 60 KT
c) The best angle of climb speed (Vx).
d) At the speed for maximum endurance.
41) Calculate the rate of climb for an aircraft operating at 5000ft with an outside air temperature of 0C.
(See fig. PPL FPP-8e)
a) 530 fpm.
b) 585 fpm.
c) 475 fpm.
d) 470 fpm.
42) Increasing the mass (and, therefore, weight) of the aircraft will:a) Decrease the rate and angle of climb.
b) Increase the rate and angle of climb.
c) Increase the rate of climb and decrease the angle of climb.
d) Decrease the rate of climb and increase the angle of climb.
43) The best rate of climb is achieved:a) When flying at the speed for maximum excess power available.
b) When flying at the speed for maximum excess thrust available.
c) When climbing into wind.
d) When flying at vx.
44) The indicated air speed for the best rate of climb when climbing to cruise altitude will tend to:a) Decrease.
b) Decrease then increase.
c) Remain the same.
d) Increase.
45) The lift produced by the wing of an aeroplane that is climbing and maintaining a constant airspeed will
be:a) Greater than weight.
b) Less than weight.
c) Equal to weight.
d) Independent of weight.
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l4im
7)bCing at Vx will achieve:a) The maximum angle of climb.
b) The best time to height.
c) The greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time.
d) The maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance.
49) What speed should be flown for maximum range: (See fig. PPL FPP-10e)
a) B.
b) A.
c) C.
d) D.
50) What is the maximum range speed for a piston engine aircraft?
a) VMD
b) VMP
c) At a higher speed than VNO and at the lowest safe altitude.
d) At a speed less than VMD and at the lowest safe altitude.
51) In order to maximise the glide range, the aircraft should be flown:
a) At low angles of attack at VMD.
b) At high angles of attack at VMD.
c) At low angles of attack at VMP.
d) At a negative angle of attack at VMD.
52) A pilot wishes to fly at a speed which will give him maximum range. He knows that he is flying with a
tailwind. How will the speed selected by the pilot compare with the maximum range speed for still air?
a) It will be decreased by a margin slightly less than the amount of tailwind.
b) It will be increased by a margin slightly less than the amount of tailwind.
c) It will be the same as for still air.
d) It will be decreased by a margin slightly more than the amount of tailwind.
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54) What is the effect of a headwind on the glide angle and glide distance?
a) Glide angle will increase and glide distance decrease.
b) Glide angle will remain the same and glide distance will remain the same.
c) Glide angle will increase and glide distance increase.
d) Glide angle will decrease and glide distance decrease.
55) What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise endurance?
a) VMP
b) VY.
c) Maximum speed.
d) VMD
56) The maximum glide range will be achieved by:a) a relatively low angle of attack being maintained.
b) A relatively high angle of attack being maintained.
c) A negative angle of attack being maintained.
d) A high descent angle.
58) A wing contaminated by a small amount of ice will produce:a) More drag, more weight and less lift.
b) More weight and more lift.
c) An increase in both lift and drag co-efficient.
d) An increase in weight and decrease in drag.
59) When gliding for maximum range, an aircraft with a greater weight will:a) Have a faster descent speed but the same descent angle.
b) Have a reduced glide range.
c) Have a shallower descent angle.
d) Have a faster descent speed and a reduced descent distance.
60) What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise range?
a) VMD
b) VX
c) Maximum speed.
d) VMP
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62) Compared to gliding in still air, the effect of a tailwind will:a) Increase the glide range but have no effect on the glide endurance.
b) Decrease the glide angle and decrease the rate of descent
c) Have no effect on the glide range or the rate of descent.
d) Increase the glide angle and increase the glide range.
63) Which of the speeds indicated by A, B, C or D should be flown for maximum endurance? (See fig. PPL
FPP-10e)
a) A.
b) B.
c) C.
d) D.
64) During straight and level flight, any increase in lift causing an imbalance in the equilibrium of forces is
compensated for by:
a) A downward force on the tailplane.
b) An upward force on tailplane.
c) An increase in power.
d) A decrease in drag.
65) What is the effect of an increase in mass on the staii speed and landing distance required?
a) Increased stall speed and increased landing distance.
b) Increased stall speed and decreased landing distance.
c) Decreased stall speed and decreased landing distance.
d) Decreased stall speed and increased landing distance.
66) When landing, if an aircraft's true air speed is significantly less than the true ground speed then the
aircraft is experiencing:
a) A tailwind.
b) A headwind.
c) A reduced atmospheric density.
d) A cross wind.
67) If the approach and landing speed is higher recommended speed in the aircraft manual the effect will
be that:
a) The landing distance will be increased.
b) The landing distance will be decreased,
c) The landing performance will improve,
d) The landing distance will be unaffected.
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69) Compared to landing on a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a downward sloping
runway?
a) The landing distance will be increased.
b) The landing performance will improve.
c) The landing distance will be decreased.
d) The landing distance will be unaffected.
70) If the stalling speed in the landing configuration is 55 knots. VREF would be approximately:
a) 71kt.
b) 65kt.
c) 75kt.
d) 69 kt.
71) The VREF to be attained by the landing screen height of 50ft must be:
a) 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
b) 1.15 times the stalling speed in the take off configuration.
c) 1.43 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
d) 33% of stall speed.
72) If the aircraft mass is increased by 15%, the landing distance required will increase approximately:
a) 15% or by a factor of 1.15
b) 33% or by a factor of 1.33
c) 10% or by a factor of 1.1
d) 20% or by a factor of 1.2
74) Determine if the aircraft mass is inside the limits (normal category)! (See fig. PPL FPP-17e)
item
mass (lb)
moment/1000 (lbxin)
Empty mass
1,350
51.5
Pilot and front passenger 360
280
Rear passengers
30 US gal.
Fuel
-0.2
8 qt
Oil,
a) Inside limits.
b) Forward of the forward limit.
c) Inside limits, close to the forward limit.
d) Aft of the aft limit.
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I7V6E)NG:
item mass (lb)
Empty mass
1,495.0
Pilot and passenger
380.0
Fuel
30 US gal
The CG is located how far aft of datum?
a) 94.01 in.
b) 92.44 in.
c) 119.80 in.
d) 135.00 in.
arm(in)
101.4
64.0
96.0
moment (lbxin)
151,593.0
7t7e)rD
e
mine the moment with the following data: (See fig. PPL FPP-17e)
item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin)
Empty mass
1,350
51.5
Pilot and front passenger 340
Fuel (full std. tanks)
Oil,
8 qt
-0.2
a) 74.9 lbxin.
b) 38.7 lbxin.
c) 69.9 lbxin.
d) 77.0 lbxin.
h78at)iWsthe maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the normal category airplane for CG
to remain inside proper limits? (See fig. PPL FPP-17e)
item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin
Empty mass
1,350
51.5
Pilot and front passenger 250
400
Rear passengers
30 US gal.
Fuel
Baggage
8 qt
-0.2
Oil,
a) 105 lbs.
b) 120 lbs.
c) 90 lbs.
d) 75 lbs.
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82) Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
a) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
b) When the atmospheric pressure is 1013.2 hPa.
c) When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
83) Which of the factors below increases the density altitude of an airport?
a) Increase of temperature.
b) Increase of atmospheric pressure.
c) Decrease of relative humidity of the air.
d) Decrease of temperature.
84) Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
a) When at sea level under standard conditions.
b) If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
c) With the altimeter set at 1013.2 hPa.
85) If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is lower than standard, the density altitude is
a) Higher than pressure altitude.
b) Lower than pressure altitude and approximately equal to true altitude.
c) Higher than true altitude and lower than pressure altitude.
d) Lower than true altitude.
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88) What is increase in density altitude if a temperature increases from 0 to 10C and if the pressure
altitude of an airport remains 3,000 ft?
a) 1,200 ft.
b) 3,000 ft.
c) 2,200 ft.
d) 2,000 ft.
89) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude 1,380 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013.2
hPa at standard temperature.
a) 1,380 ft.
b) 1,280 ft.
c) 1,480 ft.
d) 1,580 ft.
90) What is the effect of a temperature increase of 12C on the density altitude?
a) 1,440-foot increase.
b) 1,650-foot decrease.
c) 1,340-foot decrease.
d) 1,650-foot increase.
h92at)iWsthe approximate pressure altitude if an altimeter is set to 1010 hPa and indicates 1,380 ft? a)
1,470 ft.
b) 1,200 ft.
c) 1,300 ft.
d) 1,400 ft.
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h94e)dTensity altitude could be approximately calculated from the pressure altitude without using a navigation
calculator by
a) Increasing/decreasing the pressure altitude by 120 ft for each C deviation above/below the
standard temperature.
b) Increasing/decreasing the altitude above the sea level for the difference between the standard and
actual atmospheric pressure, converted into an altitude.
c) Increasing the pressure altitude by 4% for each 10C deviation from the standard temperature.
95) Which of the statements below, concerning take-off performance of a powered aircraft regarding the
density altitude is correct? At higher density altitudes
a) Aircraft accelerate poorer, because of reduced engine and propeller efficiency.
b) Aircraft accelerate better, because of reduced drag due to thinner air.
c) Aircraft must fly at higher-than-normal indicated airspeed in order to produce enough lift.
96) How does higher air humidity affect aircraft take-off performance? Take-off distances are
a) Longer due to thinner air.
b) Longer due to denser air.
c) Shorter due to denser air.
97) Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
a) High temperature, high relative humidity and high density altitude.
b) Low temperature, low relative humidity and low density altitude.
c) High temperature, low relative humidity and low density altitude.
d) Low temperature, high relative humidity and high density altitude.
98) What influence does the increased mass have on powered aircraft takeoff performance?
a) At given engine power the aircraft accelerates poorer; the airspeed required for the production of
the lift necessary for leaving the ground is greater.
b) At given engine power the aircraft accelerates better, however the airspeed required for
production of the lift necessary for lift-off remains unchanged.
c) Each aircraft at given engine power accelerate equally regardless of the mass, however the
airspeed required for overcoming the ground effect is greater.
99) What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?
a) Increases takeoff distance.
b) Increases takeoff speed.
c) Decreases takeoff distance.
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101)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The airplane's or powered hang glider's best angle-of-climb speed (Vx) is used
When clearing an obstacle.
When clearing a moving obstacle.
When trying to climb without sacrificing cruising speed.
When trying to get cruising altitude quickly.
102)
Which speed would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after
takeoff?
a) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx)..
b) Best climb speed (VY).
c) Maneuvering speed (VA).
103)
a)
b)
c)
104)
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of
time?
a) Best climb speed (VY).
b) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx).
c) Maneuvering speed (VA).
105)
a)
b)
c)
d)
106)
a)
b)
c)
d)
107)
a)
b)
c)
d)
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109)
At takeoff from a short airfield with an airplane or a powered hang glider, which airspeed should
you fly until cleared of obstacles?
a) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx).
b) Best climb speed (VY).
c) Minimum speed (VS).
d) Maneuvering speed (VA).
110)
During landing on an airport with high elevation the true air speed (TAS) of an aircraft is higher than
normal. What indicated speed (IAS) should be kept in such cases?
a) Normal speed.
b) Lower than normal.
c) Higher than normal.
d) Increased for 5 kts for each 1,000 ft of airport elevation.
111)
a)
b)
c)
Should you use the normal approach speed when approaching to land in gusty wind conditions?
No. Add one half the "gust factor" to the calculated approach speed.
No. Use 1.2 times stall speed.
Yes (go by Operator's Manual).
112)
a)
b)
c)
Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated
In smooth air.
During abrupt maneuvers.
At normal operations.
113)
a)
b)
c)
114)
a)
b)
c)
115)
a)
b)
c)
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117)
How will higher altitude affect the cruising indicated airspeed of an aircraft if a throttle remains
unchanged?
a) It will be lower.
b) It will be higher.
c) It will stay unchanged.
118)
a)
b)
c)
119)
Determine the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle under the following conditions: (See fig. PPL
FPP-15e)
pressure altitude
0 ft
temperature
standard
mass
1900 lb
wind
calm
surface
grass, dry
a) 1,030 ft.
b) 920 ft.
c) 950 ft.
d) 1,180 ft.
e1t2e0r)mineDthe ground roll distance required for takeoff! (See fig. PPL FPP-15e)
pressure altitude
2,000 ft
temperature
40C
mass
2100 lb
wind
tail 4 kt
surface
tarmac
a) 1,120 ft.
b) 565 ft.
c) 850 ft.
d) 935 ft.
19 / 32
Latest information about the exam can be found at www.tafa.aero
e1t2e2r)mineDthe takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle under the following conditions: (See fig. PPL
FPP-15e)
pressure altitude
2,000 ft
temperature
30C
mass
2100 lb
wind
head 18 kt
surface
grass, dry
a) 1,350 ft.
b) 1,555 ft.
c) 1,565 ft.
d) 2,945 ft.
e1t2e4r)mineDthe ground roll distance after landing. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e)
pressure altitude
0 ft
temperature
10C
mass
2300 lb
wind
head 10 kt
surface
grass, dry
a) 739 ft.
b) 510 ft.
c) 1235 ft.
a) 1790 ft.
20 / 32
e1t2e6r)mineDthe ground roll distance after landing. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e)
pressure altitude
3,000 ft
temperature
20C
mass
2200 lb
wind
calm
surface
grass, dry
a) 855 ft.
b) 590 ft.
c) 660 ft.
d) 685 ft.
e1t2e7r)mineDthe total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e)
pressure altitude
1,000 ft
temperature
10C
mass
2300 lb
wind .
tail 10 kt
surface
tarmac
a) 1,900 ft.
b) 1,265 ft.
c) 1,360 ft.
d) 1,850 ft.
e1t2e8r)mineDthe total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e)
pressure altitude
1,500 ft
temperature
30C
mass
2300 lb
wind
calm
surface
tarmac
a) 1,350 ft.
b) 1,385 ft.
c) 1,320 ft.
d) 1,280 ft.
21 / 32
h13at0)wil bWethe airspeed of an airplane in level flight under the following conditions? (See fig. PPL
FPP-14e)
pressure altitude
8,000 ft
temperature
20C below standard
power setting
55%
a) 104 kts.
b) 110 kts.
c) 115 kts.
d) 120 kts.
h13at1)is thWeexpected fuel consumption for a 250-nautical flight under the following conditions?
(See fig. PPL FPP-14e)
pressure altitude
6,000 ft
temperature
20C above standard
power setting
60%
wind
calm
a) 15.1 USA gal.
b) 19.7 USA gal.
c) 16.0 USA gal.
d) 12.0 USA gal.
h13at2)is thWeexpected fuel consumption for a 350-nautical flight under the following conditions?
(See fig. PPL FPP-14e)
pressure altitude
4,000 ft
temperature
20C below standard
power setting
60%
wind
calm
a) 22.7 USA gal.
b) 14.9 USA gal.
c) 15.3 USA gal.
d) 18.6 USA gal.
p13p3ro)ximAately what engine RPM should be set during cruising at the pressure altitude 2,000 ft and
with standard temperature in order to develop 60% of power? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e)
a) 2300 RPM.
b) 2500 RPM.
c) 2400 RPM.
d) 2200 RPM.
22 / 32
13ic5h)forw
h
Ward speed is normally maintained, following an engine failure in flight in a light airplane?
a) Best glide speed.
b) Best endurance speed.
c) Minimum rate of descend speed.
d) Minimum speed.
136)
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
The forward speed for minimum rate of descent of an aircraft, compared with its best glide speed,
always lower.
always higher.
often higher.
often lower.
137)
a)
b)
c)
d)
138)
An aircraft without an engine will fly the longest distance from a given altitude at the angle of
attack at which
a) are induced drag and parasite drag equal.
b) is parasite drag the least.
c) is parasite drag equal to lift coefficient.
139)
Frost on the wings of an airplane may
a) make it difficult or impossible to become airborne.
b) cause the airplane to become airborne with a lower angle of attack and at a lower indicated
airspeed.
c) present no problem since frost will blow off when the aircraft starts moving during takeoff.
d) change the camber (curvature of the wing) thereby increasing lift during takeoff.
140)
What is the main danger arising out of even a slight amount of frost or snow on the wings and
controls of an aircraft?
a) Decrease lift due to irregular airflow over the wings.
b) Increased weight due to ice will increase stall speed.
c) Ice and snow will jam control surfaces.
23 / 32
h14at2)is thWecrosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as
220/30 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e)
a) 19 kts.
b) 23 kts.
c) 30 kts.
d) 34 kts.
h14ic3h)runWway (06, 14, 24, 32) will you choose for landing, if tower reports south wind 20 kts and if
maximum allowed crosswind component for your aircraft is 13 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e)
a) RWY 14.
b) RWY 06.
c) RWY 24.
d) RWY 32.
i1t4h4t)he reWported wind of 360/20 kts you are approaching an airport. Which runway (06,14 or 24)
would you choose for landing, if your airplane had a 13-knots maximum allowed crosswind component
on landing? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e)
a) RWY 32.
b) RWY 06.
c) RWY 14.
d) RWY 24.
h14at5)are tWheheadwind and crosswind components with the reported wind of 280/15 kts for a
runway with the magnetic direction 220? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e)
a) 7.5 kts headwind and 13 kts crosswind.
b) 15.5 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.
c) 15.5 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind.
d) 13.5 kts headwind and 24 kts crosswind.
e1t4e6r)mineDthe maximum wind velocity for a 45 crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for
the airplane is 25 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e)
a) 35 kts.
b) 18 kts.
c) 25 kts.
d) 29 kts.
24 / 32
e1t4e8r)mineDthe maximum wind velocity for a 30 crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for
the airplane is 10 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e)
a) 20 kts.
b) 13 kts.
c) 16 kts.
d) 18 kts.
h14at9)are tWheheadwind and crosswind components with the reported wind of 030/10 kts for a
runway with the magnetic direction 330? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e)
a) 5 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.
b) 10 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.
c) 8 kts headwind and 4 kts crosswind.
d) 8 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.
h15at0)are tWheheadwind and crosswind components with the reported wind of 130/20 kts for a
runway with the magnetic direction 040? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e)
a) Zero headwind component; crosswind component 20 kts.
b) 15 kts headwind and 10 kts crosswind.
c) 10 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind.
d) 20 kts headwind; zero crosswind component.
25 / 32
APPENDEX:
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32 / 32
Review questions:
1. In the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the troposphere, air density:
1) Decreases.
2) Also increases.
3) Stays the same.
4) Will not be affected as air density is independent of altitude.
4. In the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Troposphere, temperature:
1) Decreases.
2) Also increases.
3) Stays the same.
4) Will not be affected as it is independent of altitude.
5. If the atmospheric pressure decreases, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the atmosphere will:
1) Decrease.
2) Increase.
3) Stay the same.
4) Not be affected as it is independent of atmospheric pressure.
6. In the international standard atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the troposphere, pressure:
1) Decreases.
2) Also increases.
3) Stays the same.
4) Will not be affected as pressure is independent of altitude.
2 / 21
9. Which gas, which is absorbed by the body during normal breathing, plays an important role in
decompression sickness?
1) Nitrogen.
2) Oxygen.
3) Carbon Dioxide.
4) Carbon Monoxide.
10. After donating blood, what is the minimum time a pilot should wait before flying?
1) 24 hours.
2) 2 hours.
3) 12 hours.
4) 48 hours.
12. Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body?
1) The Circulatory System.
2) The Nervous System.
3) The Respiratory System.
4) The Oxidation System
3 / 21
for
16. Brain cells that have been deprived of oxygen will start to die in:
1) 2 minutes.
2) 2 seconds.
3) 1/2 hour.
4) 2 hours.
17. Which of the following gases regulate the rate and depth of breathing, depending on the levels at
which the gas is present in the blood?
1) Carbon Dioxide.
2) Oxygen.
3) Nitrogen.
4) Carbon Monoxide.
18. When a person is experiencing stress or fear, adrenaline is released into the blood stream causing
immediate:
1) Increase in the pulse-rate.
2) Fatigue.
3) Loss of consciousness.
4) Decrease in the pulse-rate.
19. Approximately how long does it take a person to dissipate one unit of alcohol from the blood?
1) 1 hour.
2) 1/2 hour.
3) 2 hours.
4) 12 hours.
20. Enter into the following statement the most correct pair of gases from the options below. Hemoglobin
in red blood cells is more readily attracted to
than
_.
1) Carbon Monoxide / Oxygen.
2) Nitrogen / Oxygen.
3) Oxygen / Nitrogen.
4) Carbon Dioxide / Nitrogen.
4 / 21
25. Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience the effects of hypoxia at:
1) A lower altitude.
2) A higher altitude.
3) The same altitude.
4) Any altitude.
27. You are taking a friend flying and are cruising at 6,000 ft. Your passenger begins suffering from a
tingling sensation, dizziness and visual disorders and then becomes unconscious. Your passenger is
probably suffering from:
1) Hyperventilation.
2) Hypoxia.
3) Food poisoning.
4) Angina.
5 / 21
whereas Myopia is
33. Which of the following organs of the body supplies the single most dependable source of sensory
information?
1) The Eye.
2) The Ear.
3) The Nose.
4) The Neo-cortex.
34. What is the component of the eye responsible for peripheral vision and sensitive to low light levels?
1) The Rods.
2) The Cones.
3) The Fovea.
4) The Retina.
35. Empty Field Myopia is a condition where the eyes naturally focus at a distance of approximately:
1) 1 - 2 meters.
2) Infinity.
3) 20 - 500 meters.
4) At the horizon.
6 / 21
37. To lessen the danger of collision with an aircraft which might be in a pilot's blind spot and closing on a
constant relative bearing, the pilot should:
1) Carry out a systematic look out at all times.
2) Change heading by a few degrees every 10 minutes or so.
3) Roll the aircraft from right to left by a few degrees every 10 minutes or so.
4) Carry out periodic clearing turns.
39. Accommodation is the power of the lens to focus rays of light from near objects onto the Fovea.
Accommodation is controlled by:
1) The Ciliary muscles.
2) The Iris.
3) The Rods and Cones.
4) The Retina.
42. When flying solo, a pilot who suspects he is suffering from spatial disorientation should:
1) Believe the indications of his instruments.
2) Blink rapidly several times.
3) Swallow hard, pinch the nostrils and blow down the nose to clear the Eustachian tube.
4) Believe his somatosensory senses.
7 / 21
46. Which of the following should a pilot primarily rely on if he becomes disorientated in Visual
Meteorological Conditions?
1) His sense of sight.
2) Turning the head to recover from disorientation.
3) His sense of balance.
4) The aircraft's instruments.
47. On what does the causes of noise induced hearing loss depend?
1) Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 90 dbs.
2) Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 100 dbs.
3) The duration of the noise above 100 dbs.
4) The duration of the noise above 110 dbs.
48. The frequency band that a healthy young person can hear is :
1) 20 - 20,000 cycles per second.
2) 70 - 15.000 cycles per second.
3) 80- 20.000 cycles per second.
4) 500 - 15.000 cycles per second.
8 / 21
53. Which of the following should a pilot primarily rely on if he becomes disorientated in Instrument
Meteorological Conditions?
1) The aircraft's instruments.
2) His sense of sight.
3) Turning the head to recover from disorientation.
4) His sense of balance.
.acceleration:
56. Complete the following sentence. If your Eustachian tube is blocked and you cannot clear your ears,
you should:
1) Ground yourself until the condition causing the blocking of the Eustachian tube has cleared up.
2) Clear your nose with a nasal inhaler before flying.
3) Fly only as a passenger.
4) Proceed with your flight but ensure that you swallow hard frequently.
57. While flying, the changes in outside air pressure can cause air trapped in the body cavities to expand
and contract. This is known as Otic Barotrauma and it most likely to effect:
1) All of the above.
2) The middle ear.
3) The sinuses.
4) The teeth.
9 / 21
60. The ability of a pilot to withstand even moderate forces can be affected by:
1) Fatigue in the pilot.
2) The maximum load limits of the aircraft.
3) Presbycusis.
4) All of the above.
61. A pilot should not fly for at least how long after a local anesthetic?
1) 12 hours.
2) 2 hours.
3) 24 hours.
4) 48 hours.
62. You are suffering from a cold with slightly blocked nose and sinuses and you have an aircraft booked to
fly. Should you:
1) Not fly?
2) Take a decongestant 1/2 an hour before flight?
3) Fly as normal?
4) Fly, but be sure to select only low rates of climb and descent?
63. A pilot should not fly for at least how long after a general anesthetic?
1) 48 hours.
2) 2 hours.
3) 12 hours.
4) 24 hours.
10 / 21
67. A false perception characterised by a distortion of real sensory stimuli is known as:
1) Hallucination.
2) Day-dreaming.
3) Mirage.
4) Boredom response.
69. It is generally accepted that the short-term memory can hold how many items long ?
1) 7 items for 10-20 seconds.
2) 4 items for 15 seconds.
3) 15 items for 1-5 minutes.
4) 7 items for 5-10 minutes.
70. If a pilot is used to flying in relatively polluted hazy air and then flies in a very clear sky:
1) Distant objects may appear closer than they are.
2) Distant objects may appear further away than they are.
3) Near objects may be mistaken for those further away.
4) Near objects may appear further away than they are.
71. From the options below, choose the correct sequence of the various stages of the reasoning process.
1) Detection, Perception, Decisions taken, Action, Feedback.
2) Perception, Action, Feedback, Detection, Decisions taken.
3) Detection, Feedback, Decisions taken, Action, Perception.
4) Detection, Perception, Decisions taken, Feedback, Action.
72. Which of the following will give the illusion that the aircraft is too low during an approach?
1) A down-sloping runway.
2) An up-sloping runway.
3) A brightly lit aerodrome in an otherwise dark area.
4) A narrower than normal runway.
11 / 21
74. You have planned to take a couple of friends on an air experience flight. On the day, the weather
conditions are marginal and there is a strong cross-wind on the runway. As a competent assessor of
risk, which of the following decisions should you take?
1) Reschedule the flight for another time, discounting the immediate disappointment to your friends.
2) Get airborne as planned, as it is always wise to stick to your flight plan if you possibly can.
3) Proceed with the flight and treat it as an opportunity to practise flying in adverse conditions.
4) Ask your friends if they are prepared to fly in the prevailing conditions, before assessing the
situation yourself.
77. Complete the following statement. If, as an inexperienced pilot, you are flying with someone of much
greater experience, and you see him do something you consider to be dangerous, you should:
1) Immediately question his course of action.
2) Wait until the action or manoeuvre is completed, and then questions him.
3) Ignore the situation because he obviously knows what he is doing.
4) Do nothing for the moment, but check the wisdom and correctness of his action by discussing it
with an instructor after you have landed.
78. Good briefings are very important. Which of the following could be the result of a bad briefing?
1) Increased uncertainty.
2) Good transfer of knowledge.
3) Good understanding of information.
4) Decreased uncertainty.
79. Complete the following statement. The most appropriate time for a pilot to give passengers an initial
briefing on emergency procedures is:
1) During a pre-flight safety briefing.
2) At the moment any emergency occurs; it is not necessary to worry them before that.
3) While waiting at the hold for take-off.
4) Just after take-off.
12 / 21
81. Which of the following attitudes and/or characteristics have b good communication and especially
dangerous when flying?
1) Arrogance and aggressiveness.
2) A highly developed sense of leadership.
3) Respect for other peoples' opinions.
4) All of the above.
82. Which of the following are ways to help avoid stress in the cockpit?
1) Not allowing yourself to be rushed into acting before you are ready.
2) Having a cool drink at hand, at all times.
3) Modifying your pre-flight plan whenever you feel you are off-track or behind time.
4) All of the above.
84. An analogue display is generally better than a digital display for showing which sort of data?
1) Qualitative.
2) Quantitative.
3) Numerical.
4) Subjective.
85. Which of the following occur when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit?
a. Good downward outside view.
b. Poor view of instruments.
c. Upwards outside view obstructed.
1) a), b) and c).
2) only a).
3) a) and b) only.
4) a) and c) only.
86. You are preparing for a training flight with an instructor and cannot find your checklist. You should:
1) Take time to find the checklist at the risk of missing part of your airborne time.
2) Perform the checks from memory.
3) Use a checklist for a different aircraft type.
4) Rely on the instructor to point out anything that you might have missed.
13 / 21
89. As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer temperatures increases the susceptibility
1) Of dehydration since the
2) Dry air at altitude tends to increase the rate of water loss from the body.
3) Moist air at altitude helps retain the bodys moisture.
4) Temperature decreases with altitude.
91. What suggestion could you make to your pilot fellow who is experiencing motion sickness?
1) Avoid unnecessary head movement and to keep her/his eyes on a point outside the aircraft.
2) Recommend taking medication to prevent motion sickness.
3) Lower her/his head, shut her/his eyes, and take deep breaths.
92. In an unpressurised aircraft, at high altitudes the amount of oxygen that diffuses across
1) The lung membranes into the blood is
2) Decreased because of the low partial pressure of oxygen.
3) Decreased because of the lower temperatures.
4) Unchanged to that at sea level.
93. During a climb to 18,000 ft, the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere
1) Remains the same.
2) Increases.
3) Decreases.
94. Although not required, supplemental oxygen is recommended for use when flying at
1) night above
2) 1,500 m (5,000 ft).
3) 3,050 m (10,000 ft).
4) 3,800 m (12,500 ft).
14 / 21
100.
101.
102.
103.
Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as
1) Hyperventilation.
2) Aerosinusitis.
3) Aerotitis.
15 / 21
105.
106.
If an individual has gone scuba diving which has not required a controlled ascent and will be flying
to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the recommended waiting time is at least
1) 4 hours.
2) 12 hours.
3) 24 hours.
107.
If an individual has gone scuba diving which has required a controlled ascent and will be flying to
cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the recommended waiting time is at least
1) 24 hours.
2) 4 hours.
3) 12 hours.
108.
109.
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
1) Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
2) Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight.
3) Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
110.
111.
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
1) Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.
2) Look only at far away, dim lights.
3) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.
16 / 21
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
1) Look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
2) Scan the visual field very rapidly.
3) Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.
114.
115.
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during
1) Straight-and-level flight?
2) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
3) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
4) Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
116.
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
1) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
2) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
3) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
117.
A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by
various sensory organs is defined as
1) Spatial disorientation.
2) Hyperventilation.
3) Hypoxia.
118.
119.
120.
The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by
1) Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
2) Shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel.
3) Leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.
17 / 21
122.
123.
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he
or she holds a current medical certificate?
1) The pilot.
2) The medical examiner.
3) The FA-1.
124.
What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
1) Human error.
2) Mechanical malfunction.
3) Structural failure.
125.
What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for
repetitive tasks?
1) Checklists.
2) Situation awareness.
3) Flying outside the envelope.
126.
1)
2)
3)
127.
1)
2)
3)
128.
The positive three-step process in the exchange of flight controls between pilots includes these
verbal steps: (a) You have the flight controls, (b) I have the flight controls, and (c) _
1) You have the flight controls.
2) I have the aircraft.
3) I have the flight controls.
18 / 21
130.
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these
hazardous attitudes?
1) Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
2) Poor risk management and lack of stress management.
3) Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.
131.
In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous
attitude?
1) Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
2) Making a rational judgment.
3) Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.
132.
1)
2)
3)
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Impulsivity"?
Not so fast, think first.
It could happen to me.
Do it quickly to get it over with.
133.
1)
2)
3)
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"?
Follow the rules.
Rules do not apply in this situation.
I know what I am doing.
134.
1)
2)
3)
What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of "Invulnerability"?
It could happen to me.
It can not be that bad.
It will not happen to me.
135.
1)
2)
3)
4)
136.
1)
2)
3)
4)
Being badly overweight increases a pilot's susceptibility to which of the following conditions?
Heart attack.
Hypoxia at higher altitudes.
Hypothermia.
All of the above.
19 / 21
138.
1)
2)
3)
139.
1)
2)
3)
140.
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been
consumed by that person within the preceding
1) 8 hours.
2) 12 hours.
3) 24 hours.
141.
1)
2)
3)
142.
The three-needle type altimeter used in many light aircraft
a. Easy to mis-read.
B. Hardly ever mis-read.
C. Accurate and reliable.
D. Not very accurate or reliable.
1) A) and C).
2) Only A)
3) Only A)
4) B) and D).
143.
Which of the following are terms generally used to describe a type or types of memory within the
subject of Human Performance and Limitations?
1) Long-term memory.
2) Sensitive memory.
3) Felicitous memory.
4) All of them.
20 / 21
145.
1)
2)
3)
4)
146.
1)
2)
3)
4)
147.
1)
2)
3)
4)
148.
In order to see a sharp image of an oncoming aircraft which has been detected by the eye, a pilot
should:
1) Look directly at the oncoming aircraft.
2) Look to one side of the oncoming aircraft.
3) Commence a systematic scan of the airspace in front of him.
4) Blink several times to make the image clearer.
149.
1)
2)
3)
4)
150.
1)
2)
3)
4)
21 / 21
PPL(A) Meteorology
Review questions:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The layer closest to the earth's surface where the majority of weather is found is called?
a. Troposphere.
b. Tropopause.
c. Stratosphere.
d. Mesosphere.
5.
The temperature at 2000ft above mean sea level is forecast to be 5C; compared to the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere (ISA) this is:
a. ISA -6
b. IAS +6
c. ISA +5
d. IAS -6
2 / 28
7.
8.
9.
A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at the same level and at
the same time is?
a. An isobar.
b. An isotherm.
c. An isallobar.
d. A contour.
10.
Compared to ISA, what does warm air do to the distance represented by a 1 hpa change in pressure?
a. Increases it.
b. Decreases it
c. Nothing.
d. Impossible to determine.
11.
12.
3 / 28
14.
15.
Under what conditions would density be the least at any given place?
a. High altitude, high temperature and high humidity.
b. Low altitude, high temperature and high humidity.
c. High altitude, high temperature and low humidity.
d. Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity.
16.
Consider the following statements about air density and select the one which is correct?
a. At any given surface temperature the air density will be greater in anticyclonic conditions than
it will be when the mean sea level pressure is lower.
b. Because air density increases with a decrease of temperature, air density must increase with
increase of height in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA).
c. Air density increases with an increase of relative humidity.
d. The effect of change of temperature on the air density is much greater than the effect of
change of atmospheric pressure.
17.
18.
19.
4 / 28
21.
22.
23.
An area of indeterminate pressure between two lows and two highs is called:
a. A col.
b. A trough.
c. A ridge.
d. A saddle.
24.
The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another with which it is in contact is
called:
a. Conduction.
b. Radiation.
c. Convection.
d. Latent heat.
25.
The sun gives out
amounts of energy with
wavelengths.The earth gives out
relatively
amounts of energy with relatively
wavelengths:
a. Large / small / small / large
b. Large / large / small / small.
c. Small / small / large / large.
d. Large / large / small / large.
5 / 28
An inversion is when:
a. There is an increase of temperature as height increases.
b. There is no horizontal gradient of temperature.
c. There is no change of temperature with height.
d. There is a decrease of temperature as height Increases.
27.
28.
29.
When flying towards a depression at a constant indicated altitude, the true altitude will be:
a. Lower than indicated.
b. Higher than indicated.
c. The same as indicated.
d. Lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later.
30.
When an altimeter sub scale is set to the aerodrome OFE, the altimeter reads:
a. Zero at the aerodrome reference point.
b. The elevation of the aerodrome at the aerodrome reference point.
c. The pressure altitude at the aerodrome reference point.
d. The appropriate altitude of the aircraft.
31.
32.
An aircraft flies at a constant indicated altitude from airfield A (QNH 1009mb) to airfield B (QNH
1019mb). If the subscale is not reset from 1009, what would be expected when over airfield B:
a. Indicated altitude to be less than actual altitude.
b. Indicated altitude to be the same as actual altitude.
c. Indicated altitude to be more than actual altitude.
d. Indicated altitude may be greater or less depending on the airfield elevation.
6 / 28
The name given to the lowest forecast mean sea level pressure in an area is:
a. Regional QNH.
b. QFE.
c. QFF.
d. QNE.
34.
An aircraft flies from aerodrome "A", where QNH is given as 1020mb, to aerodrome "B", where the
QNH is given as 999mb. Aerodrome "A" is 800ft above mean sea level and aerodrome "B" is 500ft above mean
sea level. If the altimeter sub scale is not changed from 1020, what is the altimeter indication on landing?
(ASSUME 1mb = 30ft)
a. 1,130ft.
b. 1,430ft.
c. 130ft.
d. -130ft.
35.
You experience a constant drift to the right when flying over Europe at a constant indicated altitude. If
the altimeter subscale is not updated, this will result in?
a. Flying at a progressively lower true altitude.
b. Flying at a progressively higher true altitude.
c. Flying at a progressively lower indicated altitude.
d. Flying at a progressively higher indicated altitude.
36.
You are flying at a constant indicated altitude with the QNH of 1015 set within the subscale and you
notice the outside air temperature has been falling constantly. What can you expect to have happened to your
true altitude?
a. Decreased.
b. Increased.
c. Remained the same.
d. Increased then decreased.
37.
38.
7 / 28
Wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than dry bulb temperature because:
a. Evaporation causes cooling on the wet bulb thermometer.
b. Condensation causes a release of latent heat.
c. Latent heat is absorbed by the bulb thermometer.
d. Of condensation on the muslin wick of the bulb.
40.
41.
42.
During a night with a clear sky, surface temperature will
Dewpoint will
.
a. Fall / Rise / Remain the same.
b. Fall / Rise / Rise.
c. Rise / Rise / Fall.
d. Fall / Fall / Remain the same.
43.
and
Which of the processes listed below can cause air to become saturated?
a. Evaporation.
b. Melting.
c. Condensation.
d. Heating.
44.
When receiving circuit joining information prior to an approach at a destination airfield, the pilot of a
light aircraft is warned of the presence of low level windshear. The pilot should?
a. Delay the approach or even consider diverting.
b. Use a higher than normal approach speed to counteract any loss of headwind component
c. Consider the possibility of a missed approach.
d. Land using the normal landing technique but monitor speed carefully.
45.
Given an atmospheric situation where the relative humidity is 60% and the ELR is less than the DALR, if
air is forced to rise it will be:
a. Stable and will tend to regain its former position.
b. Unstable and will carry on rising.
c. Stable and will carry on rising.
d. Unstable and will tend to regain its former position.
8 / 28
47.
48.
49.
An aircraft is flying in the vicinity of a range of hills, lying north-south, across which a wind is blowing
from the west to east. Which of the following situations might cause the aircraft to encounter dangerous
downdraughts?
a. When flying west towards the hills from the east.
b. When flying east towards the hills from the west.
c. When flying north towards the hill from the south.
d. When flying south towards the hill from the north.
50.
51.
In a mountain wave situation, the worst of the turbulence is most likely to be found when flying:
a. In or just below the roll cloud.
b. At about mid-height between the lenticular and roll cloud.
c. In the cap cloud.
d. In the lenticular cloud.
9 / 28
53.
A light aircraft flying at low level near a mountain range across which a strong wind is blowing may
expect:
1. Severe turbulence below or within any rotor zone.
2. Down-draughts which may exceed the climb rate of the aircraft.
3. A greater than normal risk of icing in the cloud over the crest mountain.
4. Lenticular cloud
a. 1,2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. Only 1 and 3 are correct
c. Only 1 and 2 are correct
d. Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
54.
One or more coloured rings around the sun or moon may indicate the presence of which type of cloud?
a. Altostratus.
b. High.
c. Stratus.
d. Cirrocumulus.
55.
Given a surface temperature of+21C and a dew point of +7C, at approximately what height will the
cloud base of a cumulus cloud be?
a. 5600ft.
b. 560ft.
c. 56,000ft.
d. 4000ft.
56.
57.
From the list below, select the Low, Medium and High clouds in ascending order.
a. Stratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus.
b. Nimbostratus, Cumulonimbus, Cirrus.
c. Altostratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus.
d. Cirrus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus.
10 / 28
59.
60.
Unstable air is forced to rise up the side of a mountain. What weather might you expect to see on the
windward slopes?
a. Cloud of extensive vertical development.
b. Thick stratiform cloud, probably nimbostratus.
c. None, as the air will subside and warm adiabatically after passing over the summit.
d. Cap clouds with possible altocumulus lenticularis.
61.
62.
Which of the following combinations of weather-producing variables would be most likely to result in
cumuliform clouds, good visibility, showery rain, and possible clear type icing in clouds?
a. Unstable moist air and orographic lifting.
b. Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.
c. Unstable moist air and no lifting mechanism.
d. Stable, dry air and orographic lifting.
63.
Turbulence, windshear, icing, lightning and heavy precipitation are associated with cumulonimbus
clouds. Which of the following statements is true?
a. All of the hazards can be avoided by not flying in or in the vicinity of the cloud.
b. The most hazardous condition is lightning.
c. Heavy precipitation may be experienced outside the cloud, but turbulence and icing are
confined to inside the cloud.
d. All of the hazards may be encountered within or in the viciniity of the cloud.
11 / 28
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
Hazards to aircraft caused by the presence of cumulonimbus or thunderstorm cloud may be
experienced:
a. When the aircraft is within 10 nm of the cloud.
b. Only when the aircraft is within the cloud.
c. Only when the aircraft is within or underneath the cloud.
d. When the aircraft is within 5 nm of the cloud.
70.
Hazards of the mature stage of a thunderstorm cell include lightning, turbulence and:
a. Icing, microburst and windshear.
b. Microburst, windshear and anvil.
c. Icing, drizzle and microburst.
d. Windshear, hail and fog..
12 / 28
72.
Corilolis force in the Northern Hemisphere will cause moving air to be apparently deflected to:
a. The right and cause the geostrophic wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000ft agl.
b. The left and cause the wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000ft agl.
c. The left and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000ft agl.
d. The right and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000ft agl.
73.
Winds that blow around an anticyclone (high pressure system) at lower levels in the Northern
Hemisphere are represented on a low level chart as blowing in:
a. A clockwise direction.
b. A clockwise direction if it is warm air and anticlockwise if it is cold air.
c. An anticlockwise direction.
d. A cyclonic direction.
74.
Low level winds in the northern hemisphere that blow around a depression are drawn on surface
weather charts in?
a. An anticlockwise direction
b. A clockwise direction.
c. An anticyclonic direction.
d. Either clockwise or anticlockwise depending on whether the depression is cyclonic or
anticyclonic
75.
76.
A low level mist layer significantly reduces forward visibility when flying at about 2000ft. To improve
your forward visiility you should?
a. Fly higher.
b. Fly lower.
c. Fly just on top of the mist layer.
d. Turn on your landing lights and strobe lights.
13 / 28
Which of the following conditions is most favourable to the formation of radiation fog?
a. High relative humidity, light winds and a clear sky.
b. High relative humidity, moderate wind and a cloudy sky.
c. Low relative humidity, light winds and a clear sky.
d. High relative humidity, light winds and a cloudy sky.
78.
Over an inland airfield radiation fog is reported in the morning. As the wind speed increases to 10 kt
what would you expect:
a. The fog to lift and form low stratus.
b. The fog to thicken.
c. The fog to dissipate.
d. An increase in mixing, allowing more fog to develop.
79.
80.
81.
If a cloudy, granular type of ice is seen to collect and protrude forward from the leading edge of the
aerofoil, what type of ice would it most likely be?
a. Rime ice.
b. Clear ice.
c. Rain ice.
d. Hoar frost.
82.
What will normally happen to the surface wind direction following the passage of a warm front?
a. Veer.
b. Stay constant.
c. Back.
d. Veer then back.
83.
The extent of rainfall ahead of a typical warm front may be up to a distance of:
a. 200 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front
b. 50 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front.
c. 500 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front
d. 2 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front.
14 / 28
85.
Which of the following frontal systems is more likely to produce thunderstorm activity?
a. A cold front
b. A warm front
c. A ridge of high pressure.
d. A quasi-stationary front.
86.
87.
What would be the change in weather following the passage of a typical warm front:
a. Pressure falls, 8 oktas of cloud with a lowering base and poor visibility.
b. Pressure increases steadily, no more than 4 oktas of cloud, and good visibility.
c. Pressure stops falling, 4 oktas of cloud with a very low base and rapidly improving visibility.
d. Pressure falls, 8 oktas of cloud with a lowering base and improving visibility.
88.
What is the main reason water can exist in a liquid state even though the temperature is sub zero?
a. No freezing nuclei.
b. No condensation nuclei.
c. Water takes a long time to cool to below zero degrees.
d. Water is hygroscopic.
89.
You are flying above the freezing level in the cold air just ahead of a warm front. If rain were to fall in
this area, what kind of icing might you expect?
a. Rain or clear ice.
b. Carburettor ice.
c. Rime ice.
d. Hoar frost.
15 / 28
91.
When a TREND is included at the end of an aviation METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:
a. 2 hours after the time of observation.
b. 1 hour after the time of observation.
c. 2 hours after it was issued.
d. 1 hour after it was issued.
92.
93.
94.
16 / 28
96.
Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a determining factor, CAVOK in a TAF or METAR:
a. Means visibility 10km or more, and no cloud below 5000ft.
b. Means visibility 10km or more, and few cloud below 5000ft.
c. Means visibility 10nm or more, and no cloud below 5000ft.
d. Means visibility 10nm or more, and no scattered cloud below 5000ft.
97.
Which of the following correctly decodes a TAF that reads:
LYBE 161100Z 1612/1712 VRB08KT9999 SCT025?
a. Valid from 1200 Hr on the 16 of the month to 1200 Hr on the 17 of the month; surface wind
will be variable in direction at 8kt with a visibility of 10km or more; 3to4 oktas of cloud with a
base of 2500ft above the aerodrome.
b. Valid from 1612 to 1712 UTC; surface wind variable at 8kt; visibility 10nm or more; with a cloud
base of 2500ft above mean sea level.
c. Observed at 1611UTC; the surface wind was variable in direction and speed; averaging 8kt:
with a visibility of 10km or more, and a cloud base of 2500ft above aerodrome level.
d. Observed at 1612 UTC; the surface wind was variable in direction and speed; with a visibility of
10km, and a cloud base of 2500ft above ground level.
98.
99.
Referring to the diagram, determine the 2000ft wind velocity and temperature at position 50N 0
E/W. (See Fig. PPL Meteo-1)
a. 215/13kt+11C.
b. 200/12kt+11C.
c. 220/13kt+12C.
d. 180/20kt+10C.
17 / 28
101.
What does this symbol represent on a forecast chart? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-4)
a. Thunderstorms.
b. Severe turbulence.
c. Severe icing.
d. Severe mountain waves.
102.
Referring to the diagram, which zone would the following TAF best fit? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-5)
1322 35020KT9999 SCT030 SCT090 TEMPO 1322 8000 SHRA BKN015 PROB30TEMPO 1522 5000 +RASH SCT008
BKN009CB=
a. Zone 3.
b. Zone 1.
c. Zones 1 and 2.
d. Zones 2 and 4.
103.
What does this symbol represent on a forecast chart? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-6)
a. Severe icing.
b. Severe turbulence.
c. Severe mountain waves.
d. Thunderstorms.
104.
Referring to the diagram, what is the feature identified by the letter J at position 60N 12W? (See Fig.
PPL Meteo-10)
a. An occluded front.
b. A warm front.
c. A quasi stationary front.
d. A tropical front.
105.
Referring to the low-level significant weather chart in the diagram, we see a pressure system at 50
degrees North, 1 degree East, indicated by an "L", accompanied by an arrow and the figures "20" and
""988". What does this denote? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-14)
a. A low pressure centre of 988mb, moving East at 20kts.
b. A low pressure centre of 988mb moving West at 20 knots.
c. A QFE in that region of 988mb.
d. A regional QNH of 988mb.
18 / 28
107.
108.
EGTT SIGMET SST 01 VALID 310730/311130 EGRR LONDON FIR ISOL CB FCST TOPS FL370 SST ROUTES
W OF W00400 STNR NC =
In the SIGMET message shown above what does the code "SST" stand for?
a. Transonic and supersonic flight levels.
b. Supersonic flight levels only.
c. Subsonic and transonic flight levels .
d. Subsonic flight levels only.
109.
110.
LFFF SIGMET SST 1 VALID 310600/311100 LFPW- UIR FRANCE MOD TURB FCST BLW FL420 W of 04W
MOV E 30KT NC =
In the SIGMET message shown above, what hazard is being forecast?
a. Moderate turbulence below 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving eastwards.
b. Moderate turbulence at 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving eastwards.
c. Moderate turbulence below 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving from the east.
d. Turbulence at 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving at 30 knots.
111.
112.
.;
19 / 28
114.
115.
VOLMETS are?
a. Ground to air radio transmissions on HF and VHF.
b. Air to ground radio transmissions on HF and VHF.
c. Air to ground radio transmissions on HF and SVHF.
d. Ground to air radio transmissions on LF and VHF.
116.
117.
aid?
To minimise VHF frequency use, theatis can be broadcast on the voice frequency of what navigational
a.
b.
c.
d.
VOR.
ILS.
NDB.
GPS.
118.
What is theatis?
a. A continuous broadcast of current aerodrome and weather information.
b. A chart of current aerodrome and weather information.
c. A continuous broadcast of weather information.
d. A printed text report of current aerodrome and weather information.
119.
20 / 28
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121.
What air temperature may we expect at 7,000 ft if the air temperature at 1,500 ft is 15C?
a. +3C.
b. +4C.
c. 0C.
d. -2C.
122.
What wind represents depicted symbol from meteorological charts? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-15)
a. West wind at 60 knots.
b. North wind at 60 knots.
c. South wind at 15 knots.
d. East wind at 15 knots.
123.
124.
125.
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
a. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
b. The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
c. Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
126.
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
a. Air temperature.
b. Stability of the air.
c. Dewpoint.
21 / 28
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128.
129.
130.
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when
the relative humidity is high?
a. Light windshear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.
b. Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
c. Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation
131.
What value is being calculated by following formula? Temperature minus dewpoint times 123 =. ?
a. Ceiling of cumulus clouds in meters.
b. Temperature aloft.
c. Tops of stratus clouds in meters.
d. Relative humidity.
132.
What is the approximate base of cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature is 27C and the
dewpoint is 15C?
a. 1.500 m.
b. 1.000m.
c. 2.000 m.
d. 2.700 m.
133.
What approximate base of cumulus clouds should be expected if the surface air dewpoint is 5C and
the forcasted daily maximum temperature is 25C?
a. 2,500 m.
b. 2,800 m.
c. 2,000 m.
d. 1,500 m.
22 / 28
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135.
136.
137.
A pilot can expect a windshear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to
4,000 feet above the surface is at least
a. 25 knots
b. 15 knots.
c. 10 knots
138.
There is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous
atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
a. Windshear turbulence.
b. Steady rain.
c. Precipitation static.
139.
140.
23 / 28
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In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?
a. Freezing rain.
b. Freezing drizzle.
c. Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.
142.
What percent coverage of the lowest cloud layer was observed accordingly to the following METAR
report?
METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700
0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=
a. 1 /8 to 2/8.
b. 5/8 to 7/8.
c. 8/8.
d. Less than 1/8.
143.
What was the observed temperature accordingly to the following METAR report?
METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700
0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=
a. 17C.
b. Between 10C and 18C.
c. 16C.
d. Between 16C and 17C.
144.
What was the observed air pressure accordingly to the following METAR report?
METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700
0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=
a. 1018 hpa (QNH).
b. 1000 hpa (QNH).
c. 999 hpa (QFE).
d. 1018 hpa (QFE).
145.
At what time was following METAR report issued?
METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700
0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=
a. By 16:30 UTC, 13th day of the running month.
b. By 16:00 UTC, 30th day of the running month.
c. By 16:30 local time.
d. By 24:00 local time, 8th day of the running month.
146.
What type of precipitations was observed accordingly to the following METAR report?
METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700
0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=
a. Light drizzle.
b. Steady and light rain.
c. Hail.
d. Rain showers.
24 / 28
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148.
Accordingly to the code which of the following METAR reports cold be partially abbreviated by CAVOK
(minimum sector altitude 4.000 ft)?
A) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1019 NOSIG=
B)27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG=
C)00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500=
D)26012KT 8000 -SHRA BKN025TCU 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG=
a. B.
b. A.
c. C.
d. D.
149.
Accordingly to the following METAR report, when may we expect vanishing of the fog an weather
improvement for VFR flight?
METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700
0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=
a. After 18:00 UTC.
b. Till 17:00 UTC.
c. Till 18:00 UTC (the latest).
d. Between 17:00 and 18:00 UTC.
150.
What kind of weather is forecast for the period after 12:00 UTC?
TAF LYBE 160500Z 1606/1706 13010KT 9000 BKN020 BECMG 1606/1608 SCT015CB BKN020 TEMPO 1608/1612
17012G22KT 1000 TSRA SCT010CB BKN020 FM12 15006KT 9999 BKN020 BKN100=
a. Moderate southeasterly wind with visibility improvement to more than 10 km, precipitations
will stop, cloudiness will become greater with ceiling at 600 m.
b. Rainy weather with showers and gusty wind and visibility below 10 km.
c. Visibility will improve to 5 km to 10 km and cloud covering will decrease to 1/8 at 600 m and
1/8 at 3000 m.
d. Southeasterly wind 6 kts, visibility will be convenient for visual flying and the sky will be
completely covered with clouds with base at 600 m.
25 / 28
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26 / 28
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27 / 28
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PPL(A) Navigation
Review questions:
1) What is the angle of inclination of the Earth's axis to its orbital plane?
a) 661/2
1/2
b) 23
c) 90
d) 1/2
2 / 28
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9) Which of the following statements, regarding rotation of the Earth around the Sun, is correct? The
Earth :
a) Encircles the Sun in one year.
b) Encircles the Sun one time during summer and one time during winter.
c) Does not circle around the Sun because it is stationary with the Sun circling around it.
d) Encircles the Sun in one day.
13) The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe is called:
a) Great circle.
b) Lambodrome.
c) Rhumb line.
d) Small circle.
3 / 28
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17) The Great Circle on the Earth's globe is the cross-section of the Earth's surface and the plane passing
through
a) The center of the Earth and is tilt to the Earth's axis at any angle.
b) The center of the Earth and is always rectangular to the Earth's axis.
c) The center of the Earth and is always oblique to the Earth's axis.
d) Any two points on the Earth's surface; the cross-section with the Earth's surface is the shortest
distance between these points.
18) Which of the following circles on the Earth's globe does not have the center at the Earth's center?
a) Small Circle.
b) Orthodrom.
c) Great Circle.
d) Equator.
20) Which circles, forming the graticule, are at the same time Great Circles and Rhumb Lines?
a) Meridians and equator.
b) Parallel of latitude only.
c) Meridians only.
d) Equator only.
22) What time is needed for the Sun's azimuth to change by 27 arc degrees?
a) 108 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 90 minutes.
d) 135 minutes.
4 / 28
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25) An aircraft over Belgrade is headed exactly to the south. It is 1200 UTC. What is theRelative bearing of
the Sun?
a) Right of the aircraft's nose.
b) Exactly straight-in.
c) Left of the aircraft's nose.
d) May be left or right of the aircraft's nose, with regard to the season.
26) The geographic latitude is the distance of a point on the Earth's surface from the
a) Equator, measured in arc degrees.
b) Equator, measured in statute miles.
c) Prime Meridian, measured in arc degrees.
d) Prime Meridian, measured in geographic miles.
28) Longitude change between point A (04 14' 28" E) an B (02 30' 30" E) on the Earth's globe is
a) 01 43' 58".
b) 06 44' 58".
c) 02 44' 58".
d) 02 16' 02".
29) What is the difference between the latitude of the point A and the point B, which are located on
following parallels of latitude:
A: 15 54' 30" N
B: 10 33' 30" S
a)
b)
c)
d)
26 28' 00".
05 21' 00".
25 27' 00".
05 28' 00".
5 / 28
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31) The distance between the parallel of latitude 10N and the parallel of latitude 11N, measured along
the meridian, is
a) 111 km.
b) 60 SM.
c) 60 km.
d) 111 NM.
32) The geographic coordinates of the point A are(see Figure PPL Nav-1)
a) N 44 59, 6 and E 19 33,5'.
b) N 44 59, 6 and W 19 33,5'.
c) E 44 59, 6 and N 19 33,5'.
d) W 44 59, 6 and N 19 33,5'.
33) The geographic coordinates of the point B are(see Figure PPL Nav-1)
a) N 45 05, 9 and E 19 46, 1.
b) N 45 05, 9 and S 19 46, 1.
c) N 45 05, 9 and W 19 46, 1.
d) N 45 05, 5 and N 19 46, 1.
34) The geographic coordinates of the point C are(see Figure PPL Nav-1)
a) N 45 00, 9 and E 19 45,0'.
b) N 45 00, 9 and S 19 45,0'.
c) N 45 00, 9 and W 19 45,0'.
d) N 45 00, 9 and N 19 45,0'.
35) Which point has the geographical coordinates N 44 33, 2 and E 20 59, 0? (see Figure PPL Nav-4)
a) MIHAL.
b) DUBRA.
c) YEZAV.
36) The geographic coordinates point DUBRA are (see Figure PPL Nav-4)
a) N 44 41,3' and E 21 04,1'.
b) N 44 41,3' and W 21 04,1'.
c) S 44 41,3' and E 21 04,1'.
d) S 44 41,3' and W 21 04,1'.
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40) The formula for a quick calculation from kilometres to nautical miles is:
a) (km : 2) + 10%.
b) (km x 2) - 22%.
c) (km : 2) - 10%.
d) (km x 2) - 10%.
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46) The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimetres represents the distance 105km?
a) 21.0 cm.
b) 10.5 cm.
c) 42.0 cm.
d) 84.0 cm.
47) The scale of the chart is? (see Figure PPL Nav-3)
a) 1:250 000.
b) 1:300 000.
c) 1:200 000.
d) 1:500 000.
48) The scale of the chart is 1:300 000. How many centimetres represents the distance 210km?
a) 70 cm.
b) 63 cm.
c) 6.3 cm.
d) 7 cm.
49) The attached map distance between points A and B is 9 cm. how many kilometers is it? (see Figure PPL
Nav-2)
a) 18.
b) 9.
c) 4.5.
d) 1.8.
50) The attached map distance between points A and B is 9 cm. how many Nm is it? (see Figure PPL Nav-2)
a) 9.66.
b) 18.
c) 4.5.
d) 1.8.
51) The distance between the points ALFA and BRAVO is 107 NM. If an aircraft covers first 16 NM in 10
minutes, what time does it take to travel the entire route ALFA-BRAVO with the same groundspeed?
a) 1 hour and 6 minutes.
b) 1 hour and 3 minutes.
c) 1 hour and 1 minute.
d) 59 minutes.
52) How far will an aircraft travel with 32 gal of usable fuel with fuel consumption 7,1 gal/h at the
groundspeed 108 kts? (Allow 1-hour final reserve fuel)
a) 379 NM.
b) 384 NM.
c) 420 NM.
d) 487 NM.
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54) How many gallons of usable fuel should be on board of an aircraft for a distance flight of 300 NM at the
groundspeed 120 kts and average fuel consumption 7,3 gal/h? (Allow 1-hour fuel reserve).
a) 25.6 gal.
b) 15.0 gal
c) 18.3 gal.
d) 21.4 gal.
57) On a chart we read the obstacle altitude 275 meters. Regarding the rule of height clearance 1,000 feet
over obstacles, what is the lowest altitude for overflying the obstacle?
a) 1,900 ft.
b) 2,230 ft.
c) 2,130 ft.
d) 1,230 ft.
59) Approximately what QNH pressure corresponds to the QFE pressure 1000 hPa on an airfield with the
elevation 200 meters?
a) 1025 hPa.
b) 985 hPa.
c) 990 hPa.
d) 1035 hPa.
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61) When set to 1008 hPa, an aircraft's altimeter indicates 1,600 ft. What would be the indication if setting
is changed to 1009 hPa?
a) 1,630 ft.
b) 1,610 ft.
c) 1,570 ft.
d) 1,590 ft.
62) If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 1010 hPa to 1000 hPa, what is the approximate change in
indication?
a) Altimeter will indicate 300 ft lower.
b) Altimeter will indicate 300 ft higher.
c) No change in indication.
d) Variously, dependent on QNH.
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68) What is the ground speed (GS) of an aircraft, covering in 40 minutes the distance, that represents 10.8
cm on an 1:500 000 chart?
a) 81 km/h.
b) 81 kts.
c) 100 mph.
d) 100 km/h.
69) An aircraft would cover a 120 km-distance in no wind condition in 2 hours and 40 minutes, however in
actual meteo conditions the flight lasted 3 hours and 5 minutes. What was the longitudinal wind
component on route?
a) 6 km/h headwind.
b) 16 kts tailwind.
c) 16 km/h headwind.
d) 6 kts tailwind.
70) The distance of the route from the point X to the point Y via the control point Z is 84 km. If an aircraft
covers the first segment X-Z (35 km) in 50 minutes, what will be the total time of flight between the
points X and Y?
a) 2 hours.
b) 45 minutes.
c) 50 minutes.
d) 1 hour and 10 minutes.
71) How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?
a) 4.08 NM.
b) 2.45 NM.
c) 3.35 NM.
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78) Which mark on the wind triangle sketch denotes a compass heading? (see Figure PPL Nav-13)
a) Mark 1.
b) Mark 2.
c) Mark 3.
d) Mark 4.
79) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a wind correction angle? (see Figure PPL Nav-13)
a) Mark 5.
b) Mark 2.
c) Mark 3.
d) Mark 4.
80) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a magnetic variation? (see Figure PPL Nav-13)
a) Mark 9.
b) Mark 3.
c) Mark 5.
d) Mark 10.
81) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a compass deviation? (see Figure PPL Nav-13)
a) Mark 10.
b) Mark 5.
c) Mark 8.
d) Mark 9.
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83) Which mark on the wind triangle represents an aircraft's ground speed (GS)? (see Figure PPL Nav-13)
a) Mark 6.
b) Mark 5.
c) Mark 7.
d) Mark 8.
84) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a wind vector? (see Figure PPL Nav-13)
a) Mark 7.
b) Mark 5.
c) Mark 6.
d) Mark 8.
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94) When calculating magnetic direction from a given true direction, westerly variation should be
a) Added.
b) Subtracted.
c) Multiplicated.
d) Divided.
95) Magnetic course is calculated using the equation
a) True course plus/minus magnetic variation.
b) True heading plus/minus magnetic variation.
c) True course plus/minus compass deviation.
d) Magnetic heading plus/minus compass deviation.
96) Magnetic heading is
a) True heading plus/minus variation.
b) True course plus/minus variation.
c) True course plus/minus deviation.
d) Magnetic course plus/minus deviation.
97) Is it possible for a desired true track, true heading and actual true track to have the same value?
a) Yes.
b) No, in no case.
c) Yes, because these values are always equal.
d) This is possible only when flying in north or south direction.
98) Which element of the wind triangle has a null value if a magnetic heading equals compass heading?
a) Compass deviation.
b) Inclination.
c) Drift.
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100)
a)
b)
c)
101)
a)
b)
c)
To use an VHF/DF facilities for assistance in location an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a
VHF transmitter and receiver.
4096-code transponder.
VOR receiver and DME.
102)
a)
b)
c)
103)
a)
b)
c)
As shown by ADF A, the relative bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-10)
240.
030.
210.
104)
a)
b)
c)
As shown by ADF B, the relative bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-10)
235.
190.
315.
105)
a)
b)
c)
As shown by ADF D, the relative bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
340.
020.
060.
106)
a)
b)
c)
As shown by ADF E, the relative bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
315.
045.
180.
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As shown by ADF F, the relative bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
090.
180.
270.
108)
a)
b)
c)
As shown by ADF G, the relative bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
180.
090.
270.
109)
a)
b)
c)
As shown by ADF A, the magnetic bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-10)
210.
030.
180.
110) If receiving ADF indication B, what magnetic heading should the aircraft be turned to fly directly to
the NDB station? (see Figure PPL Nav-10)
a) 190.
b) 010.
c) 145.
111) If receiving ADF indication B, what approximate magnetic heading should the aircraft be turned to
intercept the 180 bearing TO the station? (see Figure PPL Nav-10)
a) 220.
b) 040.
c) 160.
112) If an ADF indicator in the cockpit corresponds to the figure C, the magnetic bearing FROM the
station is (see Figure PPL Nav-10)
a) 115.
b) 025.
c) 295.
113) Which of the figures corresponds to an ADF indicator of an aircraft, flying TO the station with a right
crosswind? (see Figure PPL Nav-10)
a) D.
b) A.
c) B.
1h1at4)is thWemagnetic bearing FROM the station of an aircraft with an ADF indication, depicted in
figure A? (see Figure PPL Nav-10)
a) 030.
b) 150.
c) 180.
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116) On a magnetic heading of 035 and with an ADF indication as figure I, the magnetic bearing TO the
station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
a) 035.
b) 180.
c) 215.
117) On a magnetic heading of 120 and with an ADF indication as figure J, the magnetic bearing TO the
station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
a) 165.
b) 045.
c) 270.
118) If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 240, what is the magnetic heading if the ADF
indicator corresponds to the figure J? (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
a) 195.
b) 045.
c) 105.
119) If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 030, what is the magnetic heading if the ADF
indicator corresponds to the figure K? (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
a) 120.
b) 060.
c) 270.
120) If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 135, what is the magnetic heading if the ADF
indicator corresponds to the figure L? (see Figure PPL Nav-11)
a) 360.
b) 135.
c) 270.
121) Choose the correct sequence of procedures in the cockpit for flying inbound to the VOR station.
a) Rotate the OBS selector knob to center the CDI needle with TO indication.
b) Check the identification signal.
c) Check for proper frequency selected.
d) Turn the aircraft into the heading, equal to the radial selected on the OBS.
a)
b)
c)
d)
c, b, a, d
b, c, a, d
d, a, b, c
a, b, c, d
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123) An aircraft has a DME reading 120 miles from a VOR station and a CDI indication is one-fifth of a full
deflection to one side. Approximately how many miles off the course centerline is the aircraft?
a) 6,7 NM.
b) 1,5 NM.
c) 3,0 NM.
124)
a)
b)
c)
d)
125)
a)
b)
c)
126) To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the
OBS to
a) 180 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
b) 360 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
c) 180 and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
127)
to
a)
b)
c)
To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS
035 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
215 and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
215 and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
128) With a VOR/ILS receiver set to a VOR frequency, how many degrees does full deflection of a CDI to
one side represent?
a) 10.
b) 5.
c) 20.
129) An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication one-fifth deflection, this represents a
course centerline deviation of approximately
a) 2 miles.
b) 6 miles.
c) 1 mile.
130)
a)
b)
c)
Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator V? (see Figure PPL Nav-12)
Airplane 2 only.
Airplane 6 only.
Airplanes 5 and 8.
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Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator X? (see Figure PPL Nav-12)
Airplanes 1 and 3.
Airplanes 3 and 7.
Airplane 7 only.
132)
a)
b)
c)
Which airplane(s) correspond(s) to the VOR indicator U? (see Figure PPL Nav-12)
Airplane 6 only.
Airplanes 1 and 2.
Airplane 2 only.
133)
a)
b)
c)
Which presentation of a VOR indicator corresponds to airplanes 8? (see Figure PPL Nav-12)
W.
T.
V.
134)
a)
b)
c)
Which presentation of a VOR indicator corresponds to airplanes 5 and 7? (see Figure PPL Nav-12)
W and Z.
T and X.
V and X.
h3ic5h) of tW
1
he following statements, regarding a DME operation, is correct?
a) The frequency of a DME receiver in the aircraft is being adjusted automatically when we set a VOR
or ILS frequency.
b) When flying directly above the DME facility, the pilot reads on the DME indicator in the cockpit a
zero distance.
c) If we move the DME switch in the cockpit to HOLD, all readings are reset to zero.
136)
a)
b)
c)
137) What is the DME reading if an aircraft is directly over a VOR/DME station at the altitude of 6,000 ft
AGL?
a) 1.
b) 0.
c) 1,3.
138)
a)
b)
c)
139)
3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Directions of airways on the Jeppesen radio navigational chart in Appendix are (see Figure PPL NavMagnetic directions.
True directions.
Loksodromic directions.
Compass directions.
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Waypoints data in a GPS database (with the exception of users waypoints) could be updated by
A respective software house only.
A pilot, however when in-flight only.
A pilot on ground only, when the device is stationary.
141) A CDI deviation needle on the GPS electronic screen in the cockpit shows a deviation from the
desired track in
a) Distance units.
b) Arc degrees.
c) Arc degrees or distance units, depends on pilot's discretion.
142) Similarly to a VOR, the accuracy of a GPS in great extend depends on the distance to the point
selected.
a) False.
b) True.
143)
a)
b)
c)
d)
144)
a)
b)
c)
145) A GPS signal receptions in great extend depends on the aircraft's altitude. This statement is
a) True.
b) False.
146)
a)
b)
c)
147)
a)
b)
c)
148)
a)
b)
c)
d)
149)
a)
b)
c)
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APPENDIX:
PPL Nav-1
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PPL Nav-2
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PPL Nav-3
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PPL Nav-4
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PPL Nav-10
PPL Nav-11
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PPL Nav-12
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PPL Nav-13
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Review questions:
1. Following an aviation accident in the Republic of Turkey, to which of the following must the
accident be reported as expeditiously as possible?
a) The Civil Aviation Authority and the local police.
b) The Chief Inspector of the Air Accident Investigation Branch (AAIB) and to the local police.
c) The home airfield of the aircraft involved in the accident.
d) The nearest Air Traffic Control Unit.
2. If a pilot judges that his aircraft is in grave and imminent danger, his message should begin with the
words:
a) Mayday Mayday Mayday.
b) Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan.
c) Either Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan or Mayday Mayday Mayday.
d) Emergency Emergency Emergency.
5. If a pilot elects to make a distress or urgency call, on which frequency should he first transmit, as an
alternative to 121.5 MHz?
a) The frequency he is currently using.
b) He should always change immediately to 121.5 MHz before transmitting.
c) The frequency of the nearest airfield with a full Air traffic Control Service.
d) His home airfield frequency.
6. In establishing noise preferential routes, turns during take off and climb should not be required
unless the aircraft has reached:
a) 500 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
b) 1000 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
c) 1500 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
d) 2000 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
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8. Its the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for the planned flight. If
there is any doubt the pilot should consult:
a) Minimum Equipment List.
b) Certificate of Airworthiness.
c) Certificate of Maintenance Review,
d) Pilot's Operating Handbook.
9. Before flight it is the pilot's responsibility to check that the aircraft is properly registered, is
airworthy and has been maintained properly. To this end he must check a variety of documents.
Which one of the following is not required to be checked?
a) Minimum Equipment List.
b) Certificate of Airworthiness.
c) Technical log.
d) Third Party Insurance certificate.
10. All aircraft on the aircraft movement area of an aerodrome with engines running are display lights
to indicate this. Which one of the following is used for this purpose?
a) Red anti-collision light
b) Landing light.
c) Navigation lights.
d) Tail light.
11. For night operation, airplanes and gliders must be equipped with the following lights:
a) Right wing tip: green light, left wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
b) Left wing tip: green light, right wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
c) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: red light.
d) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: orange light.
12. In the course of a flight during daylight hours, a pilot notices that the aircraft's anti collision light
has failed. What course of action should he take?
a) Continue with the flight, as long as it can be completed in daylight, and get the light
repaired at the earliest opportunity.
b) Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome.
c) Land as soon as practically possible at the nearest suitable airfield.
d) Return to his base airfield and declare the aircraft unserviceable until the light has been
repaired.
13. When must the anti-collision beacon on an aircraft be operating (if installed)?
a) Must be on all the time the engine of an aircraft is running.
b) All the time the aircraft is flying.
c) Must be switched on after engine start-up and switched off before engine shut-down.
d) Must be switched on shortly before takeoff and switched off when the aircraft vacates the
runway.
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15. Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of your aircraft could be found in :
a) Aircraft's Flight Manual.
b) Maintenance Log.
c) Certificate of Airworthiness and in Certificate of Registration.
d) Official Gazette of Civil Aviation Authority.
16. The pilot of an aircraft taking-off from an airfield where the altimeter setting is not readily
available, shall set the aircraft altimeter to :
a) The elevation of the airfield.
b) The altitude zero.
c) 1013.2 hpa.
d) The altimeter setting of the nearest controlled airport.
17. What unit of measurement is in use in aviation when vertical velocity parameters are reported?
a) Feet per minute.
b) Meters per minute.
c) Meters per second.
d) Feet per second.
18. What units of measurement are in use in aviation when wind parameters are reported to the pilot
(with the exception of takeoff and landing)?
a) True direction and knots.
b) True direction and kilometers per hour.
c) Magnetic direction and statute miles per hour.
d) Magnetic direction and knots.
19. During a walk around check you move the control column of your aircraft to one side and notice
that the up-aileron deflects more than the down-aileron. You would normally :
a) Do nothing, because the ailerons are of the type "differential".
b) Call the mechanic.
c) Consider situation normal as long as the difference in deflections on opposite sides is equal,
however you would make a technical remark in the book.
d) Fix uneven deflections by adjusting the regulating screws on the aileron control system.
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21. What should be done if your aircraft engine overheats while taxiing?
a) Turn into wind and idle at the recommended RPM.
b) Shut off the engine immediately.
c) Speed up the engine for improved airflow over the cooling fins.
d) Enrich mixture to provide cooler combustion temperatures.
22. What is the proper pilot procedure in case of a popped-out circuit breaker?
a) Wait until the circuit breaker cools and push it in; if it popes up again, do not Push the
circuit breaker and hold it firmly in by finger until land.
b) Not to push in the circuit breaker in any case.
c) Push the circuit breaker in with the related electrical equipment switched off.
d) Push it again.
23. If an engine failure is accompanied by mechanical noise and the propeller stops rotating, the cause
of the engine failure is most likely :
a) Break-up of a piston valve.
b) Fuel starvation.
c) Failure of a magneto.
24. Following a sudden and complete loss of power from the engine, there is no mechanical noise and
the propeller continues to windmill. The likely cause of the power loss is :
a) Fuel starvation.
b) Failure of a magneto.
c) Break-up of a piston or valve.
25. What should you do if your cylinder head temperature drops too low during an approach to land or
in a glide?
a) Apply sufficient power to keep the engine warm.
b) Turn on carburetor heating.
c) Reduce airspeed to decrease the cooling effect of the airflow.
d) Lean the mixture.
26. What is the reason for shutting down an aviation reciprocating engine using the mixture lever
rather than the ignition switch?
a) By doing that we avoid self-ignition due to presence of the fuel/air mixture in cylinders.
b) Because an engine cannot be shut down by switching the magnetos off.
c) By doing that we prevent the engine to be shut down at too high temperature.
d) Because at magnetos switching off the engine stops very rapidly and damage of the main
shaft bearings could occur.
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28. What is the most reliable practical method of checking the fuel level in the reservoirs of an aircraft
while on ground?
a) Visual checking the fuel level in the reservoir.
b) Reading the fuel gauges with engine running.
c) Weighing of an aircraft.
d) Shaking the wingtip and observing the fuel bouncing.
29. Why should you check a sample of fuel from the sump and filter before each flight?
a) To be certain that the fuel is free of contaminants and of the proper grade.
b) To be certain that the fuel is free flowing.
c) To know that the fuel pump is working properly.
d) To be sure that the proper grade of fuel is used.
30. Which fuel contaminant is the most difficult to isolate with simple filter systems?
a) Water.
b) Fine rust or dirt particles.
c) Grease or oil.
d) Ice.
31. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a
fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the :
a) Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
b) Fuel strainer drain.
c) Lowest point in the fuel system.
32. What is the best way to reduce the possibility of water contamination in fuel tanks?
a) Always keeping the fuel tanks full will help to eliminate condensation.
b) Fuel filters should be sealed to keep out rainwater.
c) Tank vents should be plugged while the aircraft is parked overnight.
33. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure
because this will :
a) Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
b) Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
c) Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
34. What happens if the filler cap comes loose on one of your wing fuel tanks?
a) The low pressure on the top of the wing will cause all the fuel to be siphoned out.
b) Rainwater will enter the tank and contaminate the fuel.
c) The loose cap will cause damage to control surfaces if it flies off.
d) The aerodynamics flow about the fuel filler neck will disrupt fuel flow.
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36. What is the reason for most of the refuelling fires caused by static electricity sparks?
a) Refuelling an ungrounded aircraft from plastic containers.
b) Refuelling an ungrounded aircraft from metal containers.
c) Refuelling a grounded aircraft with the engine running.
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44. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most
likely cause :
a) Detonation.
b) A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
c) Lower cylinder head temperatures.
45. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges
to exceed their normal operating ranges?
a) Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
b) Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
c) Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.
47. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most
likely cause :
a) Detonations.
b) A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
c) Lower cylinder head temperatures.
d) An increase in power which could overstress internal engine components.
48. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
a) In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
b) All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
c) Constantly except in starting the engine.
49. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
a) Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
b) Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper
grounding.
c) Test each brake and the parking brake.
50. When an engine is started up, the pilot should monitor oil pressure. If the engine is cold prior to
start up, it should be :
a) Shut down, if oil pressure is not seen to rise within approximately 30 seconds of start up.
b) Shut down immediately if oil pressure does not rise immediately upon start up.
c) Shut down, if oil pressure has not reached normal limits by the time the airplane is ready
for takeoff.
d) Operated normally, since it may take 10 minutes for oil pressure to rise.
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52. The most probable reason for propeller back-rotating during starting of an reciprocating aviation
engine is :
a) Excessive priming of fuel.
b) Insufficient priming of fuel.
c) Too poor mixture.
d) Too rich mixture.
53. The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off
is :
a) A broken magneto ground wire.
b) Carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs.
c) A magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing.
54. When and where should the pilot check the aircraft wheel brakes?
a) Immediately after leaving the parking spot.
b) Any time during taxiing towards a runway.
c) On the runway, after the aircraft gains some speed.
d) After takeoff.
57. When should the pressure in the barometric subscale of an aircraft altimeter be set?
a) Before each flight and in the air, if necessary.
b) Yearly.
c) Monthly.
d) Each morning before flying.
58. The accuracy of an altimeter is checked by :
a) Setting the altimeter to QNH in checking the elevation reading while on ground.
b) Low-passing near towers with known height.
c) Cross-checking of altimeter readings and radioaltimeter readings.
d) Cross-checking of flight altitudes and altitudes from an aeronautical geographical chart
1:500 000.
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60. The pilot could normally check the state of charge of the oleo-pneumatic units during a walkaround
inspection by :
a) Inspecting how much the struts extend.
b) Measuring the pressure in the oleo-pneumatic units.
c) Inspecting the hydraulic fluid level in the oleo-pneumatic units.
d) This check could not be performed by the pilot.
61. The red creep marks on the main tyre and the wheel of an aircraft serve for :
a) Tyre-wheel alignment checking.
b) Tyre type recognizing.
c) Wheel balancing.
d) Tyre pressure checking.
62. If a tyre has moved so that the creep marks are out of alignment, then :
a) It should be inspected and possibly re-fitted or replaced.
b) It is serviceable.
c) Tyre pressure should be checked.
d) The brakes will be unserviceable.
64. Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing
airplane?
a) Quartering tailwind.
b) Direct crosswind.
c) Quartering headwind.
65. How should the flight controls be deflected while taxiing a tailwheel aeroplane with a strong
tailwind?
a) Down.
b) Up.
c) In neutral.
d) Fully up.
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67. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left
quartering tailwind?
a) Left aileron down, elevator down.
b) Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
c) Left aileron up, elevator down.
68. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering
tailwind?
a) Left aileron down, elevator down.
b) Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
c) Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
69. Which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
a) Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
b) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
c) Aileron neutral.
70. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left
quartering headwind?
a) Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
b) Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
c) Left aileron up, elevator down.
71. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering
headwind?
a) Right aileron up, elevator up.
b) Right aileron down, elevator neutral.
c) Right aileron up, elevator down.
72. If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster :
a) Groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the
desired touchdown point.
b) Airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing
roll.
c) Groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the
desired touchdown point.
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74. As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes with the mixture control set in RICH, the fuel/air mixture :
a) Becomes richer.
b) Does not change.
c) Becomes leaner.
75. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a
descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
a) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
b) There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the
excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
c) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause
detonation.
d) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively reach.
76. To properly compensate for a crosswind during straight-and-level cruising flight, the pilot should :
a) Establish a proper heading into the wind by coordinated use of controls.
b) Hold rudder pressure toward the wind.
c) Hold aileron pressure toward the wind and hold opposite rudder pressure to prevent
turning.
77. During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not
affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these
circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
a) Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
b) Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
c) Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
d) Check the mixture control lever is in FULL RICH position.
78. Correct procedure for leaning the mixture during cruise is pulling the mixture level back towards
LEAN until RPM will :
a) Reach the maximum; at this point return the mixture level slightly forward.
b) Drop to the minimum.
c) Reach the maximum.
79. If, during start-up a fire occurs in the engine air intake, a generally suitable procedure is to :
a) Keep turning the engine, but move the mixture control to IDLE CUT-OFF and open the
throttle.
b) Place the starter switch to OFF.
c) Continue with the normal start.
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81. What is indicated by blue smoke emitted from the engine exhaust during the run-up?
a) The piston rings are stuck or worn.
b) The choke is out too far.
c) The mixture is too rich.
d) The carburetor is set too lean.
82. How should the mixture control be set for takeoff at sea level?
a) Forward (FULL RICH).
b) Aft (FULL RICH).
c) Aft (FULL LEAN).
d) Forward (FULL LEAN).
83. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified
by applying carburetor heat and noting :
a) A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
b) An increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
c) A decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
84. During cruise flight you apply full carburetor heat to your aircraft with fixed-pitch propeller. What is
the expected effect in RPM under normal conditions?
a) It would cause a slight decrease in RPM due to the change in fuel/air mixture.
b) No effect.
c) It would cause a slight increase in RPM due to hot air intake.
d) The RPM would fluctuate due to the unstable fuel/air mixture.
85. During engine run-up test on ground the pilot can check the proper functioning of carburetor
heating by moving the carburetor heat lever to HOT and noting :
a) A slight drop in RPM.
b) A slight rise in RPM.
c) Increased flow of hot air into the cockpit.
d) This check could not be performed on ground.
86. The carburetor heat during taxi should be used with caution due to :
a) Dust and other foreign particles which can cause damage if ingested into engine.
b) High temperatures which can cause detonations.
c) Rich mixture which can cause fouling of the spark plugs.
d) Overheating of the engine.
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88. In an airplane with a controllable pitch propeller, power reduction should be made by first reducing
:
a) The manifold pressure with the throttle, and then adjusting the RPM with the propeller
control.
b) The RPM with the throttle and then reducing the manifold pressure with the propeller
control.
c) The RPM with the propeller control, and then reducing the manifold pressure with the
throttle.
d) The manifold pressure with the propeller control, and then reducing the RPM with the
throttle.
89. When transiting an airplane with a constant-speed propeller from a cruise to a climb, the pilot
should :
a) Increase the PRM with the propeller control before advancing the throttle.
b) Increase the manifold pressure with the throttle first, and then increase the RPM with the
propeller control.
c) Increase the RPM with the throttle first, and then increase the manifold pressure with the
propeller control.
d) Decrease the manifold pressure with the propeller control first, and then increase the RPM
with the throttle.
90. Shortly after an aviation engine start-up you noticed on the left-zero ammeter a high current
reading despite of all electrical consumers not connected? You should normally :
a) Do nothing, because in such cases an alternator provides the electrical current for battery
charging only, which normally deplenishes a little during an engine start-up.
b) Shut down the engine immediately, because the alternator is not functioning.
c) Reset the alternator master switch and, if the condition does not recover, shut down the
engine and report to the mechanic non-operating alternator.
91. What is the meaning of the zero reading on a left-zero ammeter in flight?
a) Normal condition because none of electrical consumers is switched on.
b) The alternator is not functioning.
c) Deplenishing accumulator.
92. How could you recognize by the indication of the left-zero ammeter a non-functioning aircraft
alternator? The instrument reading should be :
a) Zero and stays zero even after the significant electrical consumer is switched on (e.i. The
landing light).
b) Maximum.
c) Increase significantly after the electrical consumer is switched on.
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94. What may zero reading on the center-zero ammeter in flight indicates?
a) Normal condition; the alternator provides electrical power for electrical equipment.
b) Alternator off-line.
c) No electrical equipment is switched on.
d) Abnormal condition; the battery provides electrical power for electrical equipment.
95. In flight you notice that the pointer of a center-zero ammeter is deflected to the left. What does
this indication mean and what should you as the pilot of an aircraft normally do?
a) Not-normal condition; the accumulator deplenishes, because the alternator is not
functioning or is not capable to cover all the demands of electrical consumers connected. If
after switching off-on of the master switch the situation does not recover, an electrical
consumption should be reduced to minimum and a landing should be made to the nearest
suitable airfield.
b) Normal condition; the accumulator is charging, therefore the flight will be continued, the
indication of an instrument should be monitored and a drop of indication should be
expected.
c) Normal condition; the instruments indicate present consumption of the electricity,
provided by the alternator.
96. In flight you notice the orange light glowing on the instrumental panel. What does this mean?
a) Alternator does not deliver any electrical current.
b) Too high output voltage.
c) Flat battery.
d) Overheated alternator.
97. An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would
:
a) Experience avionics equipment failure.
b) Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting
system, and avionics equipment.
c) Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also
experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require
alternating current.
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100.
What is the most likely cause of the dangerous turbulence behind heavy aircraft?
a) Wingtip vortices.
b) Propeller blast.
c) Jet blast.
101.
What precautions are required when stopping a light aircraft behind a heavy aircraft that is
stopped on the manoeuvring area?
a) The light aircraft should be stopped clear of the jet blast danger area.
b) The light aircraft should be facing the large aircraft.
c) The light aircraft should face away from the large aircraft.
d) The light aircraft should be no closer than 125 m from rear of large aircraft.
102.
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the
hazard of wingtip vortices by :
a) Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake.
b) Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.
c) Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
103.
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying :
a) Above the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing beyond the large aircraft's
touchdown point.
b) Below the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing before the large aircraft's
touchdown point.
c) Above the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing before the large aircraft's
touchdown point.
104.
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your
course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
a) Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
b) Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
c) Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
105.
How long will wake turbulence remain after the passage of a large aircraft?
a) Five minutes or more; ATC permits two or three minutes separation.
b) Two minutes.
c) Three minutes.
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107.
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 13,000 ft MSL, sufficient
supplemental oxygen should be carried to supply
a) Crew members and passengers.
b) Crew members only.
c) Passengers only.
108.
Following separation of the airflow from one wing and banking and slipping to one side, the
pilot would prevent an aircraft of developing a full spin by :
a) Deflecting the rudder to the opposite side of slipping and easing the elevator forward to
gain the speed.
b) Deflection of all flight controls to the opposite side of rotation instantly.
c) Applying back pressure on the control stick thus recovering from a dive.
d) Opening the airbrakes immediately (if installed).
109.
110.
111.
a)
b)
c)
d)
112.
One of the main function of flaps during the approach and landing is to :
Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.
Permit touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
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a)
b)
c)
d)
114.
115.
What effect does extended wing flaps have on the stalling speed? The stalling speed will :
a) Decrease.
b) No change, because the stalling speed does not depend on wing flaps position.
c) Increase.
116.
During landing close to the surface and at low airspeed, it could be dangerous to retract
wing flaps, because of :
a) Rapid decrease of lift and resulting sink into runway.
b) Drag increase and resulting rapid decrease of the airspeed.
c) Rapid increase of the airspeed and resulting rapid climb.
d) Great decrease in effectivness of wing flaps.
117.
a)
b)
c)
d)
118.
1)
Wing flaps at takeoff are not set to fully deflected position to avoid :
Excessive drag.
Excessive lift.
"Nose heavy" aircraft.
Damage of the flaps.
That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for : (see Figure PPL OPa) Taxiing and takeoff.
b) Landing.
c) Taxiing and landing.
119.
According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? (see Figure PPL OP-1)
a) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway
begins at position B.
b) Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide means of
stopping military aircraft.
c) The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.
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When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot :
a) Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
b) May continue taxiing.
c) Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
121.
122.
What is the difference between area A and area B on the airport depicted? : (see Figure PPL
OP-1)
a) "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.
b) "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landing; "E" may be used for only
as an overrun.
c) "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.
123.
124.
The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area : (see
Figure PPL OP-2)
a) Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
b) May be used only for taxiing.
c) Is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
125.
The numbers 4 and 22 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately :
(see Figure PPL OP-2)
a) 040 and 220 (magnetic).
b) 004 and 022 (true).
c) 040 and 220 (true).
127.
128.
a)
b)
c)
d)
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130.
131.
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope
indicator (VASI) shall :
a) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
b) Maintain a 3 glide to the runway.
c) Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
132.
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual slope indicator (VASI), the pilot
shall :
a) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
b) Maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the
runway threshold.
c) Remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bars.
133.
134.
135.
136.
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138.
139.
140.
141.
On the controlled airport you noticed a square yellow board bearing a black "C", exposed
above one of the doors (Picture C). What does that mean? (see Figure PPL OP-4
a) Air traffic control reporting office.
b) Customs office.
c) Exit for private aircraft crew.
d) Staff exit.
142.
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a red square with a single yellow diagonal strip (Picture
B) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)
a) Take special care when landing because of the poor state of the manoeuvring area.
b) Do not land.
c) Gliders are operating.
d) Helicopters are operating.
143.
What is the meaning of the visual ground signal in a form of a horizontal red square panel
with yellow diagonals displayed in an airport signal area (Picture A)? (see Figure PPL OP-4)
a) Landings are prohibited.
b) Area unfit for movement of aircraft.
c) Aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on runways and taxiways only.
d) Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.
144.
A white cross, placed horizontally on the beginning of the taxiway (picture G), means: (see
Figure PPL OP-4)
a) Taxiway unserviceable!
b) Caution, you are approaching the intersection with the runway!
c) Helicopter landing area!
d) Caution, you are approaching the intersection with other taxiway!
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146.
OP-4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a double white cross (Picture H) means: (see Figure PPL
Caution, gliders in the air!
Landing prohibited, the airport is not safe!
Take special care during approach and landing!
Ground taxiing permitted outside runway and taxiways!
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell (Picture D) means: (see Figure PPL
Land and taxi on hard surfaces only.
Landing direction is parallel with the shafts towards the cross-arm.
Land on hard surfaces only.
Do not land.
147.
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell with black stripes on each circular
portion at right angles to the shaft (Picture E) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)
a) Landing, takeoff, and taxiing on runway and taxiways only, other movement on the ground
is not confined to hard surfaces.
b) Landing prohibited for prolonged period.
c) Landing, takeoff, and taxiing confined to runway and taxiways only.
d) Caution, gliders in the air.
148.
What marking may be displayed by day on an aerodrome to indicate unserviceability of any
portion of a manoeuvring area?
a) Crosses of single conspicuous color (preferably white) displayed horizontally.
b) Orange flags bordering the unserviceable area.
c) White and orange cones bordering the unserviceable area.
d) Large red squares with yellow diagonal markings displayed horizontally.
149.
a)
b)
c)
d)
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a sign (Picture I), means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)
Right-hand traffic circuit in force.
After landing vacate the runway by right turn.
Parking site to the right.
Continue to the next airport, the runway is closed.
a)
b)
c)
d)
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white "T" (Picture F) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)
Landing direction is parallel with the shafts towards the cross-arm.
Land on hard surfaces only.
Land and taxi on hard surfaces only.
Do not land.
150.
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Review questions:
1. Density:a. Reduces with altitude increase.
b. Is unaffected by temperature change.
c. Increases with altitude increase.
d. Reduces with temperature reduction.
2. The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:a. Is also known as Static Pressure.
b. Is also known as Dynamic Pressure.
c. Is greater at altitude than at sea level.
d. Is also known as Total Pressure.
3. If, on a given day, the actual outside air temperature at 4000 ft is 23C, what is the approximate
difference between the actual and ISA temperature?
a. 16C.
b. 7C.
c. 15C.
d. 8C.
5. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following four
options is correct?
a. The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
b. The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
c. The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
d. The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
6. The respective percentages of the four most abundant gases that make up the atmosphere are?
a. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
b. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
c. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%
d. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%
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8. Assuming that the pressure at sea level is ISA, but the temperature is 10C higher than ISA, the
density will be:
a. Less than ISA.
b. As per ISA.
c. Greater than ISA.
d. Unaffected.
10. A piston engine aircraft fiies in that layer of the atmosphere called:
a. The Troposphere.
b. The Stratosphere.
c. The Mesosphere.
d. The Tropopause.
11. In straight and level powered flight the following principal forces act on an aircraft:
a. Thrust lift. drag, weight
b. Thrust lift, weight
c. Thrust lift, drag.
d. Lift, drag, weight.
13. The dynamic pressure exerted on an aircraft's frontal surface is equal to:
a. Half the density times the true airspeed squared.
b. Density times speed squared.
c. Half the true airspeed times the density squared.
d. Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared.
14. Relative airflow is
_and
the movement of the aircraft.
a. Parallel to / Opposite to.
b. Perpendicular to / Opposite to.
c. Perpendicular to / in the same direction as.
d. Parallel to / in the same direction as.
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16. The air flow over the wing's upper surface in straight and level flight, when compared with the
airflow that is unaffected by the wing, will have:
a. A higher velocity.
b. A higher density.
c. A reduced velocity.
d. The same velocity.
17. Which of the four answer options most correctly completes the sentence? Increasing speed also
increases lift because:
a. The increased speed of the air passing over an aerofoil's upper surface decreases the static
pressure above the wing, thus creating a greater pressure differential across the upper and
lower surface.
b. Lift is directly proportional to velocity.
c. The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
d. Increasing speed decreases drag.
18. An aircraft has a nose down pitching moment due to the lift/weight couple and a nose up pitching
moment due to the thrust/drag couple. When power is increased:
a. It will pitch nose up.
b. It will pitch nose down.
c. The couples both increase in magnitude but remain balanced.
d. The couples both decrease in magnitude but remain balanced.
19. Considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane, at constant airspeed, which statement is correct?
a. Weight always acts vertically downwards towards the centre of the Earth.
b. Lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and must always be greater than weight
c. Thrust acts parallel to the relative airflow and is greater than drag.
d. The lift force generated by the wings always acts in the opposite direction to the aircraft's
weight.
20. In straight and level flight, the free stream airflow pressure, compared to that flowing under the
wing, is:
a. Lower.
b. Equal.
c. Higher.
d. Equal pressure but travelling faster.
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29. What must be the relationship between the forces acting on an aircraft in flight, for that aircraft to
be in a state of equilibrium?
a. Lift must equal weight, and thrust must equal drag.
b. Lift must equal drag, and thrust must equal weight
c. Lift must equal thrust plus drag.
d. Lift must equal thrust, and weight must equal drag.
30. The smooth flow of air, where each molecule follows the path of the preceding molecule, is a
definition of:
a. Laminar flow.
b. Turbulent flow.
c. Free stream flow.
d. Wind.
31. In sub-sonic airflow, as air passes through a venturi, the mass flow
, the velocity
static pressure
.
a. Remains constant / increases then decreases / decreases then increases.
b. a) Decreases then increases / remains constant / increases then decreases.
c. Remains constant / increases then decreases / increases then decreases.
d. Decreases then increases / increases then decreases / increases then decreases.
and the
32. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass
of air will be subject to:
a. Static pressure and dynamic pressure.
b. Static Pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Dynamic pressure minus static pressure.
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36. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
a. Induced drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
b. Parasite drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
c. Induced drag, which is not affected by changes in airspeed.
d. Parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed.
37. By changing the Angle of Attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's:
a. Lift, airspeed, and drag.
b. Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
c. Lift, gross weight, and drag.
d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed.
38. Resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a wing, is
a type of:
a. Parasite drag.
b. Induced drag.
c. Form drag.
d. Interference drag.
39. If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kts to 100 kts, parasite drag will be:
a. Four times greater.
b. Six times greater.
c. Two times greater.
d. One quarter as much.
40. An imaginary straight line running from the midpoint of the leading edge of an aerofoil to its trailing
edge, is called the:
a. Chord.
b. Mean camber.
c. Aerofoil thickness.
d. Maximum camber.
41. A positively cambered aerofoil starts to produce lift at an angle of attack of approximately:
a. Minus 4 degrees.
b. 0 degrees.
c. 4 to 6 degrees.
d. 16 degrees.
7 / 23
44. If in level flight the airspeed decreases below that for maximum Lift/Drag, the effect will be that:
a. Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
b. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
c. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
d. Drag decreases because of lower parasite drag.
46. The maximum value of the coefficient of lift is found at an angle of attack of approximately:
a. 16 degrees.
b. Minus 4 degrees.
c. 0 degrees.
d. 4 to 6 degrees.
47. At a constant angle of attack, a decrease in the airspeed of an aircraft will result in:
a. A decrease in lift and drag.
b. An increase in lift and a decrease in drag.
c. An increase in drag and a decrease in lift.
d. Possible increases or decreases in lift or drag, depending on the actual speed.
48. If the Angle of Attack and other factors remain constant, and the airspeed is doubled, lift will be:
a. Quadrupled.
b. Doubled.
c. One quarter of what it was.
d. The same.
8 / 23
52. At a given Indicated Air Speed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and drag?
a. Lift and drag will remain the same.
b. Lift will increase but drag will decrease.
c. Lift and drag will increase.
d. Lift and drag will decrease.
53. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
a. Higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface.
b. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface.
c. Vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface.
d. Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
55. A wing which is inclined downwards from root to tip is said to have:
a. Anhedral.
b. Washout.
c. Taper.
d. Sweep.
57. Following a lateral disturbance, an aircraft with Dutch roll instability will:
a. Develop simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw.
b. Go into a spiral dive.
c. Develop oscillations in pitch.
d. Develop an unchecked roll.
9 / 23
59. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is:
a. Statically stable but dynamically unstable.
b. Statically and dynamically unstable.
c. Statically unstable but dynamically stable.
d. Statically and dynamically stable.
62. By design, the Centre of Pressure on a particular aircraft remains behind the aircraft's C of G. If the
aircraft is longitudinally stable and is displaced in pitch, nose down, by turbulence:
a. The tailplane will generate a downward force.
b. The tailplane will generate an upward force.
c. Neither an upward nor a downward force will be generated by the tailplane, as the aircraft
will already be in equilibrium.
d. The aircraft will maintain its nose-down attitude.
63. Wing dihedral produces a stabilising rolling moment by causing an increase in lift:
a. On the lower wing when the aircraft is sideslipping.
b. On the up-going wing when the aircraft rolls.
c. On the up-going wing when the aircraft is sideslipping.
d. On the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked attitude.
64. When an aircraft is disturbed from its established flight path by, for example, turbulence, it is said
to have positive stability if it subsequently:
a. Re-establishes its original flight path without any input from the pilot.
b. Remains on the new flight path.
c. Becomes further displaced from its original flight path.
d. Continues to pitch in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing
control forces.
10 / 23
66. Which of the following four options describes the consequence of taking off with the
manufacturer's recommended take-off flap setting selected?
a. A decrease in the length of the take-off run compared to a non-flap take-off.
b. An increase in the length of the take-off run compared to a non-flap take-off.
c. A greater angle of climb.
d. Easier avoidance of obstacles at the end of a runway.
68. When an aircraft is disturbed from its trimmed attitude by, for example, turbulence, it is said to
have neutral stability if it subsequently:
a. Remains in the new attitude.
b. Oscillates about its original attitude before settling back to that original attitude.
c. Immediately re-establishes its original attitude.
d. Continues to move in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing
control forces.
69. If the Centre of Gravity (C of G) of an aircraft is found to be within limits for take-off:
a. The CofG limits for landing must be checked, allowing for planned fuel consumption.
b. The CofG will always be within limits for landing.
c. The CofG will not change during the flight.
d. The flight crew will always be certain of being able to adjust the C of G during flight in order
to keep it within acceptable limits for landing.
11 / 23
73. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original flight situation, when
disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as:
a. Stability.
b. Manoeuvrability.
c. Controllability.
d. Instability.
75. The maximum gliding distance from 6000 feet, for an aircraft in clean configuration, with a lift/drag
ratio of 8:1, is approximately 8 nautical miles. If flaps are deployed:
a. The maximum gliding distance will be less.
b. The maximum gliding distance will increase.
c. Lift/Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed.
d. The maximum gliding distance will be unaffected.
76. A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. In order to maintain level flight, the
angle of attack:
a. Must be reduced.
b. Must be increased.
c. Must be kept constant but power must be increased.
d. Must be kept constant and power required will be constant.
77. Movement of the aircraft about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:a. Yawing.
b. Rolling.
c. Pitching.
d. Side slipping.
12 / 23
80. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
a. Decreases, but CLMAX increases.
b. Remains the same, but CLMAX increases.
c. Increases and CLMAX increases.
d. Decreases, but CLMAX remains the same.
81. A high wing configuration with no dihedral, compared to a low wing configuration with no dihedral,
will provide:
a. Greater lateral stability.
b. Greater longitudinal stability.
c. The same degree of longitudinal stability as any other configuration because dihedral gives
longitudinal stability.
d. Less lateral stability.
82. An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. If it tends to return to its original flight
path without pilot intervention, the aircraft is said to possess:
a. Positive Dynamic Stability.
b. Instability.
c. Negative Dynamic Stability.
d. Neutral Dynamic Stability.
83. Wing leading-edge devices such as slots, designed to allow flight at higher angles of attack, do so
by:
a. Re-energising the airflow over the top of the wing, delaying separation.
b. Providing an extra lifting surface and hence increase the lift available.
c. Changing the shape and hence the lift characteristics of the wing.
d. Decreasing lift and hence induced drag.
85. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:
a. Increased.
b. Reduced.
c. The same as for a landing with flaps.
d. The same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.
13 / 23
87. Yawing
a.
b.
c.
d.
axis.
90. During a manoeuvre, the ailerons are deflected and returned to neutral when the aircraft has
attained a small angle of bank. If the aircraft then returns to a wings-level attitude without further
control movement, it is:
a. Statically and dynamically stable.
b. Neutrally stable.
c. Statically stable but dynamically neutral.
d. Statically stable.
14 / 23
94. When the control column is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator:
a. Will move up relative to the control surface.
b. Will move down relative to the control surface.
c. Will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
d. Moves to the neutral position.
96. The respective primary and secondary effects of the rudder control are:
a. Yaw and roll.
b. Yaw and pitch.
c. Pitch and yaw
d. Roll and yaw.
97. On an aircraft with a simple trim tab incorporated into a control surface, when the surface is
moved, the tab remains in the same position relative to the:
a. Control surface.
b. Relative airflow.
c. Boundary layer airflow.
d. Aircraft horizontal plane.
98. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) control about the aircraft's normal axis?
a. The rudder.
b. The ailerons.
c. The elevator.
d. The flaps.
99. The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:
a. Left yaw and left roll.
b. Left yaw and right roll.
c. Right yaw and left roll.
d. Right yaw and right roll.
15 / 23
101.
An aircraft's rudder is fitted with a balance tab. Movement of the rudder bar to the right, to
yaw the aircraft to the right, will move the balance tab to the:
a. Left and the rudder to the right.
b. Right and the rudder to the left.
c. Right and the rudder to the right.
d. Left and the rudder to the left.
102.
An aircraft has a tendency to fly right wing low with hands off. It is trimmed with a tab the
left aileron. The trim tab will:
a. Move down causing the left aileron to move up, and right aileron to move down.
b. Move up, causing the left aileron to move up and right aileron to move down.
c. Move down, causing the left aileron to move up, right aileron remains neutral.
d. Move up causing the left wing to move down, ailerons remain neutral.
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ailerons give:
Lateral control about the longitudinal axis.
Lateral control about the lateral axis.
Longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
Directional control about the normal axis.
104.
Following re-trimming for straight and level flight, in an aircraft with a C of G near its
forward limit, and an elevator fitted with a conventional trim-tab:
a. Nose-up pitch authority will be reduced.
b. Nose-down pitch authority will be reduced.
c. Longitudinal stability will be reduced.
d. Tailplane down-load will be reduced.
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
106.
16 / 23
108.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A control surface may have a mass balance fitted to it, in order to:
Help prevent a rapid and uncontrolled oscillation which is called "flutter".
Keep the control surface level.
Lighten the forces needed to control the surface.
Provide the pilot with "feel".
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
17 / 23
115.
a.
b.
c.
d.
If the control column is moved to the right, a balance tab on the left aileron should:
Move up relative to the aileron.
Move down relative to the aileron.
Not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned.
Move to the neutral position.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
116.
117.
118.
If the Angle of Attack is increased beyond the Critical Angle of Attack, the wing will no
longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft:
a. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude.
b. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed.
c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon.
d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately.
119.
a.
b.
c.
d.
120.
The stalling speed of an aircraft in straight and level flight is 60 kt, IAS. What is its stalling
speed in a level 60 banked turn?
a. 85 kt
b. 60 kt
c. 43 kt
d. 120 kt
121.
a.
b.
c.
d.
_the weight.
18 / 23
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
123.
124.
125.
When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by reference to
which of the following indications?
a. Turn needle.
b. Artificial horizon.
c. Slip indicator.
d. Direction indicator.
126.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The reason for washout being designed into an aircraft wing is to:Cause the inboard section of the wing to stall first.
Increase the effectiveness of the flaps.
Cause the outboard section of the wing to stall first.
Decrease the effectiveness of the ailerons.
127.
The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE) is lower than cruising speed
because:
a. At speeds higher than VFE the aerodynamic forces would overload the flap and wing
structures.
b. Flaps are used only when preparing to land.
c. Too much drag is induced.
d. Flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed.
128.
The basic staiiing speed of an aeroplane is 80 knots. In a level turn with 45 angle bank, the
stalling speed is:
a. 95 knots.
b. 33 knots.
c. 86 knots.
d. 113 knots.
19 / 23
130.
a.
b.
c.
d.
VNE is:
The maximum airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown.
The airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive.
The maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out.
The maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended.
a.
b.
c.
d.
131.
132.
133.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
134.
135.
, and the
20 / 23
Latest information about the exam can be found at www.tafa.aero
137.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The best angle of attack on the wing polar diagram is marked as: (See Fig. PPL PoF-2)
4.
2.
5.
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The critical angle of attack on the wing polar diagram is marked as: (See Fig. PPL PoF-2)
6.
1.
4.
5.
138.
139.
140.
The angle of attack for a minimum drag on the wing polar diagram is marked as: (See Fig.
PPL PoF-2)
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
d. 7.
141.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
142.
143.
15%?
a.
b.
c.
Approximately for what percent will the stall speed increase if wing loading increases by
7%.
0%.
15%.
21 / 23
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145.
If an airplane weights 3,000 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure
be required to support during a 20 banked turn while maintaining altitude? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1)
a. 3,180 lbs
b. 4,000 lbs
c. 3,350 lbs
d. 3,000 lbs
146.
If an airplane weights 4,600 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure
be required to support during a 50 banked turn while maintaining altitude? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1)
a. 7,160 lbs.
b. 5,400 lbs.
c. 9,200 lbs.
d. 8,180 lbs.
147.
What is the maximum allowed bank angle when flying an aircraft with limiting load factor
of +2,5 G? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1)
a. 66.
b. 55.
c. 60.
d. 50.
148.
What is the maximum allowed bank angle when flying an aircraft with limiting load factor
of +3,8 G? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1)
a. 75.
b. 70.
c. 67.
d. 53.
149.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the load factor in a 60 banked level turn? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1)
2.0 G
1.5 G
0.5 G
1G
150.
The airspeed at which a pilot will not yet overstress the airframe of an aicraft by
momentarily up-deflecting the elevator is
a. VA.
b. VB.
c. VFE.
d. VS.
22 / 23
Latest information about the exam can be found at www.tafa.aero
23 / 23
Latest information about the exam can be found at www.tafa.aero
PPL(A)- Communications
Review questions:
1. Aerodrome traffic is:
a. All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft operating in the vicinity
of an aerodrome
b. All vehicles on an aerodrome
c. All aircraft on an aerodrome
d. All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome
3. The maximum VHF communications range that can be expected by an aircraft at FL 100 is:
a. 120nm
b. 1200nm
c. 150nm
d. 100nm
2 / 23
21. A pilot receives the clearance to hold over an enroute reporting point until a specified time. This
time is called
a. Expected approach time.
b. Estimated over time.
c. Estimated time of arrival.
d. Holding time.
4 / 23
24. Phase of flight: climb, take off, descent, start-up, approach, cruise, push back, final approach, taxi,
take off roll, touch down i line-up were mixed. Their order is:
a. Start up, push back, taxi, line-up, take off roll, take off, climb, cruise, descent, approach,
final approach, touch down
b. Line-up, take off roll, take off, climb, cruise, descent, approach, start up, push back, taxi,
final approach, touch down
c. Push back, taxi, line-up, take off roll, start up, take off, descent, climb, cruise, touch down,
approach, final approach
25. Which altitude has been reported by a pilot using the phrase "FIVE THOUSAND FEET QFE"?
a. Height above the airfield.
b. Flight level.
c. Altitude above mean sea level.
d. Adequate altitude in International Standard Atmosphere (ICAO).
26. When a pilot reports "FIVE THOUSAND FEET", the controller concludes
a. The altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above mean sea level.
b. The altimeter of the aircraft is set to the local QFE.
c. The altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above the airfield.
d. The altimeter of the aircraft is set to the standard pressure 1013.2hpa.
32. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 583 is transmitted as
a. FIVE EIGHT THREE.
b. FIVE HUNDRED EIGHTY THREE.
c. FIFTY EIGHT THREE.
d. FIVE HUNDRED EIGHT THREE
33. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 496 is transmitted as
a. FOUR NINER SIX.
b. FOUR HUNDRED AND NINETY SIX.
c. FOUR HUNDRED AND NINER SIX.
d. FOUR NINETY SIX.
34. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 4501 is transmitted as
a. FOUR FIVE ZERO WUN.
b. FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED WUN.
c. FOUR FIVE ZERO POINT WUN.
d. FORTY FIVE HUNDRED WUN.
7 / 23
48. What is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message?
a. FOXTROT ROMEO INDIA VOR.
b. FOXTROT ROMEO INDIA VICTOR OSCAR ROMEO.
c. FRIDAY VOR.
d. FOX ROMEO INDIA VOR.
51. What is the Q code for the measurement of relative heights above an airfields?
a. QFE.
b. ELT.
c. QNH.
d. QBA.
60. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full:
a. Clearance to enter, land on, take-off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway;
SSR instructions
b. Level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information
c. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports
d. VOR information, frequency changes, type of radar service
9 / 23
63. Callsign of ATC for control of aircraft and vehicles on manoeuvring area?
a. GROUND
b. TOWER
c. DISPATCH
d. APRON
64. The prescribed phrase for obtaining a permission to taxi to the runway for departure is
a. REQUEST TAXI.
b. WHAT IS MY TAXI CLEARANCE
c. REQUEST PERMISSION TO TAXI.
d. REQUEST TAXI CLEARANCE.
65. When a control tower transmits the phrase "REPORT DOWNWIND", the pilot is instructed to report
a. Aircraft position in traffic pattern between the second turn and the third turn, abeam of the
halfway point of the runway.
b. Estimated wind direction and velocity at the altitude of flying.
c. Maximum allowed tail wind for landing.
d. Aircraft position "final" in traffic pattern.
66. The controller wants to obtain the information about the level at which an aircraft is flying,using
the phrase
a. REPORT LEVEL.
b. WHAT IS YOUR LEVEL.
c. REQUEST LEVEL.
d. TRANSMIT YOUR LEVEL.
67. Which phrase is used by an ATC when advising the pilot that the position report over the
compulsory reporting point is not required?
a. OMIT POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix).
b. CANCEL POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix).
c. NO POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix).
d. DO NOT REPORT OVER ... (fix).
10 / 23
71. If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the standard reply is:
a. WILCO
b. VERIFY
c. ROGER
d. CONFIRM
72. If the pilot is unable to make contact with a station on a designated frequency, then he should:
a. Try transmitting on another related frequency
b. Make a blind transmission
c. Transmit on 121.5 mhz
d. Transmit using words twice
73. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure"
the aircraft station shall also:
a. Advise the time of its next intended transmission
b. Proceed to the alternate airport
c. Hold for 5 minutes at its present position
74. You are at the holding point of the runway in use, have completed all your pre-flight vital checks
and are ready to enter the runway and take off. What RT phraseology would you use to inform ATC
of your readiness?
a. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR DEPARTURE.
b. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR TAKE OFF.
c. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR LINE UP.
d. (CALLSIGN) READY TO PROCEED
11 / 23
76. You are flying at FL50 in YU-ABC. When asked by the controller to report your level, what is the
correct response?
a. MAINTAINING FL50, Y-BC.
b. FL50, Y-BC.
c. AT FL50, Y-BC.
d. Y-BC, FL50.
77. On a long straight-in approach to land, the call 'Long Final' would be made at a range of about:
a. 8nm
b. 2 nm
c. 4 nm
d. 25 nm
78. On the final approach, the FINAL call should be made at a range of about:
a. 4 nm
b. 2 nm
c. 8nm
d. 25 nm
79. You are flying on a NE heading at 2500 ft. You would report your heading and level as:
a. HEADING 045 AT TOO TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET
b. HEADING 045 AT TOO FIFE ZERO ZERO FEET.
c. HEADING 045 AT 25 HUNDRED FEET
d. FLYING AT TOO TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET ON HEADING 045.
80. How would you correctly reply to the ATC instruction "Y-CD, Change to Belgrade Tower, 118.1?
a. WUN WUN EIGHT DAYSEEMAL WUN , YANKEE CHARLIE DELTA.
b. Y-CD, 118.1.
c. CHANGE TO BELGRADE TOWER 118.1, Y-CD.
d. WILCO, Y-CD.
81. Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?
a. Call Sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.
b. Call Sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading , Request.
c. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.
d. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.
12 / 23
84. An aircraft had initially been cleared to climb to FL100. For separation purposes the aircraft has to
be leveled of at FL 80 for a few minutes. ATC will give this instruction by using the phrase:
a. STOP CLIMB AT FL80.
b. LEVEL OFF AT FL80.
c. MAINTAIN FL80.
d. CLEARED FL80.
85. When asked by ATC "Are you able to maintain FL 40" the correct reply contains the phrase:
a. AFFIRM or NEGATIVE
b. ROGER
c. WILCO
d. NO SIR
86. When requesting a special VFR clearance in flight, ATC must be given details of:
a. Callsign, type, intentions and ETA at entry point
b. Callsign, type, T AS, ETA at entry point and destination
c. Callsign, type, position, heading, intentions and ETA at entry point
d. Callsign, altitude, heading and ETA at entry point
87. You have just landed at a towered airport and the tower tells you to contact ground when clear of
the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when
a. All parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.
b. The aircraft cockpit is clear of the hold line.
c. The tail of the aircraft is of the runway edge.
88. If requested by the control tower to report having crossed the runway, the pilot has to use the
phrase
a. RUNWAY VACATED.
b. I HAVE LEFT THE RUNWAY.
c. I AM CLEAR OF RUNWAY.
d. I AM BEYOND THE RUNWAY.
13 / 23
92. That portion of the runway identified by the letter C is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1)
a. LINE-UP POSITION.
b. START-UP POSITION.
c. APRON.
d. BASE LEG.
93. That portion of the airport traffic circuit identified by the letter E is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1)
a. DOWNWIND POSITION.
b. LINE-UP.
c. CROSSWIND LEG.
d. BASE LEG.
94. Which designator denotes part of the aerodrome traffic circuit named "Base Leg"? (See Fig. PPL
Kom-1)
a. F.
b. G.
c. E.
d. D.
95. Which letter identifies that portion of the airport traffic circuit, called "FINAL LEG"? (See Fig. PPL
Kom-1)
a. G.
b. E.
c. F.
d. C.
96. That portion of the airport identified by the letter A is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1)
a. APRON.
b. RUNWAY.
c. TAXIWAY.
d. BASE LEG.
14 / 23
97. That portion of the airport taxyway identified by the letter B is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1)
a. HOLDING POINT.
b. APRON.
c. LINE-UP POSITION.
d. CROSSWIND LEG.
99. Taxy instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be:
a. The holding point of the runway in use.
b. The threshold of the runway in use.
c. The entrance to the parking area.
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
101.
102.
103.
A pilot receives the following message from ATC.
"YU-ABC, After departure cleared to zone boundary via Route Bravo, Climb to Altitude 2 500 feet,
QNH 1005, Squawk 6521." What type of clearance is this?
a. A Route Clearance.
b. A Take-off Clearance.
c. A Conditional Clearance.
d. A Departure Clearance.
15 / 23
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The phrase, which instructs the pilot to set transponder code A6620 again, is
RECYCLE ALPHA 6620.
SQUAWK AGAIN ALPHA 6620.
SWITCH ON ALPHA 6620.
CONFIRM SQUAWKING ALPHA 6620.
106.
If a transponder does not transmit on mode C although it is expected, an ATC will instruct
the pilot to switch on mode C by using the phrase
a. SQUAWK CHARLIE.
b. SQUAWK ALTIMETER.
c. SQUAWK PRESSURE ALTITUDE.
d. TRANSMIT ON MODE CHARLIE.
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
You receive the message " YU-ABC Squawk Ident". You should:
Operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder.
Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder.
Select ALT - altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder.
Reply giving your callsign.
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
109.
With the SSR transponder selected ON, the ATC message 'YU-ABC verify your level' would
be made to:
a. Check and confirm the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the
controller.
b. Identify aircraft position.
c. Check your altimeter setting.
d. Check with the pilot that Mode C is selected ON.
110.
In a radar environment heading information given by the pilot and heading instructions
given by controllers are in:
a. Degrees magnetic.
b. Degrees true.
c. Degrees Celsius.
d. Degrees Absolute.
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In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:
7600
7700
7500
7000
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
112.
113.
114.
If you are flying an aircraft without a transponder, what would you say if you were asked to
SQUAWK?
a. NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER.
b. NEGATIVE SQUAWK.
c. I DO NOT HAVE A TRANSPONDER.
d. NO TRANSPONDER.
115.
By which international phrase will the intercepting aircraft allows the intercepted aircraft to
continue the flight?
a. PROCEED
b. CALL SIGN
c. DESCEND
d. FOLLOW
116.
The phrase "CALL SIGN", passed by a radio from a pilot of an intercepting aircraft to the
pilot of an intercepted aircraft, means:
a. What is your call sign?
b. Call the air traffic control!
c. Transmit an emergency call!
d. Return to your airport of origin!
117.
What is the meaning of the phrase "YOU LAND", passed by a radio from the pilot of an
intercepting aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft?
a. Land at this aerodrome.
b. Report the name of your aerodrome of origin.
c. Follow me.
d. You may proceed.
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119.
The pilot of an intercepted aircraft report to the pilot of an intercepting aircraft that he is
lost and his position is uncertain to him by transmitting the following international radio phrase
a. AM LOST
b. WILCO
c. CAN NOT
d. MAYDAY
120.
Which frequency is intended for a conversation between the intercepting aircraft and the
intercepted aircraft?
a. International emergency frequency 121.5 mhz.
b. Local air force frequency.
c. Local emergency frequency.
d. Frequency air-air
121.
By which international phrase will the intercepting aircraft direct the intercepted aircraft
tofollow him?
a. FOLLOW
b. PROCEED
c. YOU LAND
d. CALL SIGN
122.
a.
b.
c.
d.
123.
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125.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The frequency used for the first transmission of a 'MAYDAY' call should be:
The frequency currently in use
The distress frequency 121.5 mhz
Approach frequency of the nearest airfield
Any international distress frequency
126.
In case a pilot intend to transmit by radiotelephony an urgent message, concerning safety
of the other aircraft, he should begin his broadcast by the
a. Spoken word "PANPAN".
b. Spoken word "MAYDAY".
c. Morse code "XXX".
d. Morse code "MAYDAY".
127.
During overflying a remote forest area you notice a hang glider on tree canopies and it
seems to you that the pilot hangs on his harnesses. You decide to call the nearest airport and
report the accident. The phrase with which you should begin your radiotelephony message is:
a. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
b. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY
c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
d. MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL
128.
During a cross-country flight you notice an emergency landing of a light aeroplane on a
meadow below. The aircraft seems undamaged and the pilot unhurt. Which phrase will you use at
the beginning of your report to the air traffic control concerning the event?
a. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
b. HELPHELP, HELPHELP, HELPHELP
c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY
129.
Which radiotelephony phrase means "WE ARE IN GRAVE AND IMMINENT DANGER, AND
IMMEDIATE ASSISTANCE IS REQUIRED"?
a. Spoken word "MAYDAY".
b. Word "MAYDAY", transmitted by Morse code.
c. Spoken word "SECURITY".
d. Spoken word "PANPAN".
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The phrase, with which a radiotelephony distress message is being started, is:
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY
HELP, HELP, HELP
131.
At outlanding you damaged your aircraft and hurt yourself however there is nobody in the
vicinity to assist you. Which is the international phrase, with which you should start your
radiotelephony call for a help?
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
c. MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL
d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY
132.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
133.
134.
When an aircraft fails to establish communication with an aeronautical station or aircraft
station, the aircraft has to transmit its message twice, preceded by the phrase
a. TRANSMITTING BLIND.
b. MAYDAY.
c. PANPAN.
d. WORDS TWICE.
135.
a.
b.
c.
d.
136.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
Which aeronautical communication service provides automated airfield and meteorological
information for departing and arriving traffic?
a. ATIS
b. LARS
c. AFIS
d. FIS
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a.
b.
c.
d.
If no ATIS is available, the pilot asks for departure information using the phrase
REQUEST DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
REQUEST DEPARTURE INSTRUCTIONS.
I WOULD LIKE DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
REPORT DEPARTURE INFORMATION.
145.
146.
147.
a.
b.
c.
d.
148.
149.
a.
b.
c.
d.
150.
by:
The correct callsign of a station providing flight information service is the location followed
a.
b.
c.
d.
INFORMATION
HOMER
CONTROL
RADIO
22 / 23
APPENDIX:
Fig.PPl Kom-1
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