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Many are the men and women who believe that since the Bible teaches justification by faith (Rom. 5:1)
and not by works (Eph. 2:8-9, Titus 3:5) that baptism is excluded as an act essential to salvation despite
many passages that teach the contrary (Acts 2:38, 22:16, 1 Peter 3:21, Titus 3:5, Eph. 5:26, 1 Cor. 12:13
compared with Eph. 5:23, John 3:5, Gal. 3:26-27, etc.). They are greatly mistaken.

In the first place the Bible clearly teaches that baptism is not classified as a work of righteousness which
we have done, just the opposite, as stated in Titus 3:5, "Not by works of righteousness which we have
done, but according to his mercy he saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the
Holy Spirit." (NKJV) The washing of regeneration is a reference to baptism and is specifically excluded
by Paul as being a work of righteousness which we have done. To the contrary it is a part of God's mercy
as per the teaching of this verse. One acquainted with the New Testament cannot read Titus 3:5 without
being reminded of John 3:5, "Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he
cannot enter the kingdom of God." (NKJV)

Clearly Paul does teach justification by faith. "The just shall live by faith." (Rom. 1:17 NKJV)
"Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law." (Rom. 3:28
NKJV) "Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus
Christ, through whom also we have access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and rejoice in hope
of the glory of God." (Rom. 5:1-2 NKJV)

In the book of Romans Paul is writing to a mixed audience of Jews and Greeks. The Jews came to
Christianity out of the background of Judaism and the Law of Moses. Much of what Paul writes in
Romans is directed to the Jews whose inclination through much of the first century was to try and hang on
both to the Law of Moses and to Christ at the same time. The Law of Moses was a law system, not a faith
system. What was the problem with the Law of Moses (a works system of salvation)?

Paul tells us, "For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, 'Cursed is
everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.'" (Gal.
3:10 NKJV) James says, "Whoever shall keep the whole law, and yet stumble in one point, he is guilty of
all." (James 2:10 NKJV) This is the problem not just with the Law of Moses but with any and all law
systems God might give a man for a man's salvation. As soon as a man violates one law justice demands
satisfaction ± punishment, not reward ± "the law brings about wrath; for where there is no law there is no
transgression." (Rom. 4:15 NKJV) To violate a law of God (any law he gives) is unrighteousness, is sin.
"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." (1 John 3:4
KJV)

Jesus was/is the only sinless man that ever lived. Law condemns all of us for we have all broken God's
law. "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." (Rom. 3:23 NKJV) Thus "by the works of the
law no flesh shall be justified." (Gal. 2:16c NKJV) Now here is something not many people know and
something I had to learn in the past ± the word "the" is not found in the original but was added by the
translators in both places in the phrase just quoted. The reality is it reads in the original, when translated
properly, as follows: "by works of law no flesh shall be justified." (If you have a New American
Standard Version, reference edition, you can check me out on this point by checking the side margin
references or if you have an interlinear check it out in that.) In fact this is true of every use of the word
"the" in this verse. It is also true in some other places which I do not have space nor time to point out.
But what is the point?

The point is while it is true Paul has specific reference to the law of Moses because that is the law his
audience has in mind he phrases his statement in such a way as to include all law. No one will ever get to
heaven by perfect keeping of works of law. Paul says the same thing in Rom. 3:28 where again the word
"the" has been added by translators and is not in the original. It thus should read as follows: "Therefore
we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of ("the" omitted here is not in the
original manuscripts ± DS) law." (NKJV) Deeds means works.

A question thus arises. If I am not saved by works of law why be concerned with obedience? Paul knew
this was what some would conclude and he begins to address that issue in Rom. 6:1 where he says, "What
shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?" (NKJV) Remember it is "by grace
you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God." (Eph. 2:8 NKJV)

Paul never ever meant to be understood that way (that obedience was optional and made little to no
difference) even though it has become, I would venture to surmise, close to the dominant belief today on
the general subject of faith and works. Paul responds vigorously saying, "God forbid" (ASV, KJV), "By
no means!" (ESV), "May it never be" (NAS), "Certainly not!" (NKJV) He says, "How shall we who died
to sin live any longer in it?" (Rom. 6:2 NKJV)

He then says, "Do you not know" introducing the subject of baptism "that as many of us as were baptized
into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? Therefore we were buried with him through baptism into
death." (Rom. 6:3-4 NKJV) Whose death? Into Christ's death but watch it closely for up pops verse 8,
"Now if we died with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him." (NKJV) So we are baptized
into Christ's death but that is also the place where "we died with Christ." When we arise from this death
we "should walk in newness of life" (Rom. 6:4 NKJV) and "present yourselves to God as being alive
from the dead." (Rom. 6:13 NKJV) We have been "set free from sin" (Rom. 6:18 NKJV) but when?
When we died to it, "For he who has died has been freed from sin." (Rom. 6:7 NKJV, see also Rom. 6:2)
When did we die? In baptism (Rom. 6:4). Thus no baptism then no death then no being freed from sin.
This is in perfect accord with Acts 2:38 and the long list of other passages on baptism referenced in the
very first paragraph of this article.

Now who is Paul talking to? To Christians who have been justified by faith, not by works. Did Paul
consider baptism to be a work of the kind of which he had been talking about by which a man could not
be saved? Not at all! How then did he consider it? As a part of justifying faith.

Paul begins the book of Romans with this statement in chapter 1 verse 5 saying he had been given grace
and apostleship "to bring about the obedience of faith among all the Gentiles, for his name's sake." (NAS)
The NKJV says, "among all nations for his name" instead of "all the Gentiles." But what was the
objective? Obedience of faith! Why? Because without obedience faith is dead as a door knob and
cannot save anyone and that is from the get go, from the very beginning. "Faith without works is dead."
(James 2:26 NKJV)

When Peter stands up on the Day of Pentecost and preaches the first gospel sermon ever, creates by his
preaching faith in those who hear, and then tells them what to do in response to their question asking that
he responds saying, "repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the
remission of sins." (Acts 2:38 NKJV) You cannot tell me they were justified by faith if their response
was "I don't think so right now, maybe later." Nor can you tell me they were justified by faith if they
failed to believe the very word of God that it was for "the remission of sins" for that would not be belief
but unbelief or disbelief. It would be the same as calling God a liar.

Paul closes the book of Romans the same way he opened it, "has been made known to all the nations,
leading to obedience of faith." (Rom. 16:26 NAS) Obedience of faith is obedience led by faith or
obedience because of faith or out of faith. What does that mean then? Faith must precede obedience.
The justifying faith Paul was talking about in the book of Romans was a faith that led to obedience. Faith
must precede obedience before you can have obedience out of faith.

There has never been a baptism acceptable to God but what it was first preceded by faith and submitted to
by faith. (This being one reason infant baptism is of no account being a pure human invention.) Faith
saves because it believes God and does not doubt; therefore, it acts. Without obedience (acts, works, call
it what you will) faith never really lives and is dead from the beginning and thus never saved the man at
any point in time. If dead faith saved the demons would be saved for James says they believe (James
2:19). The same could be said of those rulers who believed on Jesus but did not confess him because they
loved the praise of men more than the praise of God (John 12:42-43).

Baptism is the dividing line between living faith and dead faith. Why? Is it because I said so? No! It is
because Paul said when we arise from baptism that we "should walk in newness of life." (Rom. 6:4
NKJV) The old man died in baptism and we arise a new creation. If we are saved before baptism (a
baptism growing out of faith) the question ought to be asked who is it that dies in baptism? Is it a saved
man? Paul clearly teaches we die in baptism in the Romans 6:2-8 passage but why would you want to put
a saved man to death? Why kill a saved man? That is the position those put themselves into who believe
we are saved by faith before baptism.

I want to remind the reader once again of what Paul said of baptism in Titus 3:5, "not by works of
righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, through the washing of
regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit." (NKJV) God gave us baptism (the washing of
regeneration) as a part of his saving mercy towards us, not as a work of righteousness which we have
done that works our way to heaven.

Baptism puts us into Christ where salvation is. Paul says in this very book of Romans where he promotes
the doctrine of justification by faith that there is "no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus."
(Rom. 8:1 NKJV) In the same book he tells us how we got into Christ Jesus where there is no
condemnation. He says, "do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus «"
(Rom. 6:3 NKJV).

This idea of separating faith from baptism is all of man's doings. You'll not find it in the Bible. Paul says
in the Galatian letter, "For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as
were baptized into Christ have put on Christ." (Gal. 3:26-27 NKJV) How do you get into Christ? Paul
tells us a second time in this passage if we did not get it the first time in the Roman passage just quoted in
the prior paragraph. But, Paul tells us more here. What?
He tells us you cannot separate faith from baptism unless you do it on your own initiative. The word
"for" beginning the second sentence ties it to the first sentence. You cannot separate the two sentences.
Furthermore, you may or may not know this, the Bible in the original manuscripts did not have verses or
sentences (punctuation). That was all of man's doing many years later. There was no real reason to make
two sentences out of Gal. 3:26-27 other than an arbitrary decision of some man. That aside there is more.

Can one put on Christ without baptism? Those who say you can (say it is done by faith, no baptism
required) ought to provide the passage that tells us so. According to this Galatian passage it is done by
baptism. I have never found another passage anywhere that has given an alternative.

Finally, this Galatian passage leaves out a certain group. What group? That group that the saved by faith
without baptism crowd says are saved ± those who have believed but have not put on Christ. They have,
by their reasoning, Christians (saved ones) that have never put on Christ not ever having been baptized.
Yes, saved but without Christ. Can the man of reason or just plain common sense fathom such
reasoning? Your writer can't.

To summarize "the just shall live by faith" (Rom. 1:17, Gal. 3:11, Heb. 10:38 NKJV) but it is such a faith
that when it hears it believes and obeys and is not indifferent to obedience. It is thus a living faith. It
does not fear that obedience is working your way to heaven. Neither Peter nor Paul nor any other New
Testament writer ever feared that obedience would be considered by God an attempt to work your way to
heaven. The faith that justifies does not depend on perfect obedience or law keeping to get to heaven for
it knows that is impossible but it is depending on God's grace. Baptism is a part of God's grace and not a
part of works of righteousness which we have done that merit salvation.