1.

When a piece of sheet metal is pulled from each end and beyond its yield point, it
deforms permanently and deformation continues until the material breaks. This
breaking point at certain load is called the materials :
a) Yield strength
b) Ultimate strength
c) Compression strength
2. Which of the following are the objectives of aircraft maintainability?
a) The ability to resist penetration
b) Ease of inspection, servicing and maintenance
c) Ease of troubleshooting damage and repair

3. The following is true about stinger structure

a) Carry compression loads
b) Carry tensile loads
c) Carry flight loads

4. Formers are used to maintain the fuselage its uniform shape and these formers
divided into counterparts called bulkhead to provide strength, prevent bulging or
buckling under severe stresses and also give the shape of the aircraft. The
statement refers to :
a) Monocoque construction
b) Semi-monocoque construction
c) Pressurized structure

5. Which of the following type of wing has external braced/strut wing?

a) Full-Cantilever
b) Semi-Cantilever
c) Cantilever

6. Which of the following type of powerplant has pylon/strut?

a) Turbine engine
b) Piston engine
c) None of above

7. Which of the following is not a secondary control surface?

a) Spoiler
b) Flap

c) Aileron

8. Which of the following aircraft component helps to attain longitudinal stability and
control the airplane?
a) Winglet
b) Vertical stabilizer
c) Horizontal stabilizer

9. The main function of aircraft winglet is :

a) To improve lift
b) To prevent shock induced separation
c) To stabilize the airplane

10. Which of the following structure is the most important for pressurized fuselage?
a) Stowage
b) Pressure bulkhead
c) Radome

11. The following ATA Chapter is about aircraft structures, general information?
a) 70
b) 51
c) 25

12. Which of the following OEM documentation has the information about aircrafts
structures identifications?
a) Drawing
b) Aircraft maintenance manual AMM
c) Illustrated part catalogue IPC

13. Which of the following OEM manual has the information about aircrafts structures
identifications?
a) Illustrated part catalogue
b) Structural repair manual
c) Aircraft maintenance manual

14. In Pratt Truss structures, the longerons are carrying :

a) Tensile loads
b) Compressive loads
c) Bending loads

15. In monocoque structures, the outer skins are carrying :

a) Flight loads
b) Tensile loads
c) Compressive loads

16. Which of the following structures is non primary?

a) Wing
b) Horizontal stabilizer
c) Wing to body fairing

17. The aircraft falls under category FAR 25 is called :

a) Large transport
b) Helicopter
c) Sport utility

18. Front and rear spars is one of the major structures located in aircrafts ............
a) Fuselage
b) Wing
c) Fairing

19. Keel beam is one of the major structures located in aircrafts ............
a) Fuselage
b) Wing
c) Stabilizer

20. Which force do a rivet is primarily designed to withstand?

a) Torsion

b) Shear
c) Bending

21. Which material aluminium alloys is used for high-strength requirement?

a) 2024
b) 6061
c) 7075

22. Aircraft paint schemes require minimum two coats as follows :

a) Alodine and under coats
b) Primer and top coats
c) Acid and alkaline

23. Primers are soft and easily worn away and must be protected by a top coat.
These primers also provide the following function on the metal surface :
a) Adhesive coating
b) Clear appearance
c) Protective coating

24. The imaginary straight line running fore and aft along the fuselage is called :
a) The straight line
b) The lateral datum line
c) The longitudinal datum line

25. Where a slat does it usually attached to?

a) The leading edge of the main wing
b) The landing edge of the horizontal stabilizer
c) The leading edge of the vertical stabilizer

26. Which of the following statement is true about aircraft fail-safe design?
a) The structure is design with more than one load path for the stresses
to be transferred

b) The structure is designed with only one lead path for the stresses to be
transferred
c) The structure is designed to provide a path for the stresses to be transferred
from one component to another

27. The two common configurations for landing gear arrangements are :
a) Conventional and tricycle
b) Traditional and bicycle
c) Amphibian and belly gear

28. The following configuration is sometimes available in retractable landing gear :

a) Wheel pant
b) Boogle
c) Float and ski

29. The hat section design is normally being adopted in fabricating aircraft
fuselage ............ .
a) Stringer
b) Shear clip
c) Frame

30. The engine mounting must be arranged with the following parts to reduce
vibration :
a) Rubber or synthetic rubber bushing
b) Aluminium nickel bronze bushings
c) Metal spacers

31. Access panel and its opening is required or the following reasons except :
a) Customers image or cosmetic
b) Maintenance
c) Inspection

32. The common aerodynamic loaded structure is :

a) Fairing
b) Keel beam
c) Longeron

33. The safe life is a basic design certification philosophy mainly associated with
primary structure to limit the ............ of a component.
a) Life
b) Loading path
c) Crack

34. The following structure is subject to bending, which is a function of the applied
load and the distance the load is applied.
a) Web
b) Beams
c) Test track

35. The fireproof bulkheads are used to isolate a fire hazard zone such as an angine
component, from the rest of the fuselage. This is ............ .
a) Mandatory
b) Priority
c) Optional

36. What is the required strength for the aircraft structures to be able to whitstand
cyclic loading at normal level of operation?
a) Impact
b) Fatigue
c) Static

37. What is the type of stress normally experienced by wing of any transport aircraft?
a) Torsion
b) Twisting
c) Bending

38. Which of the following airframe location system relies on giving each zone on the
aircraft an identification number as specified in ATA 100 that tends to be less
precise if compared to other location systems?
a) Zonal
b) Stringer/frame
c) Fuselage station

39. The aluminium alloys used in aircraft construction are usually hardened by which
method?
a) Cold-working
b) Heat treatments
c) Aging

40. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?
a) Drill through the manufacturer head and shank with a shank size drill and
remove the rivet with a punch.
b) Drill through the manufacturer head and shank with a one size smaller than
the rivet and remove the rivet with a punch.
c) Drill to the base of the manufacturer head with a drill one size smaller
than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch.

41. All sheet metal repairs must do accordingly and the entire rivet used for repair
has to match the strength of the materials that are riveted. Therefore the most
important consideration in the sheet metal repair is to make sure that
a) The shear strength and the bearing strength of the rivet and sheet metal is
the same.
b) The shear strength of the rivet and sheet metal is the same but the
bearing strength is slightly higher.
c) The shear strength of the rivet and sheet metal is slightly higher and the
bearing strength is the same.

42. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminium alloy rivets indicate the
a) Head shape, shank size, material used, and specification adhered to during
manufacture.
b) Degrees of dimensional and process control observe during manufacture.
c) specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets.

43. When a sheet metal structure is build up, there are often locations where the
metal is stacked into multiple layers where the parts are joined together. In order
for the sheet metal to be flat against the skin and yet have to have one on top of
the other at the joining intersection, a process is used and called as :
a) Bumping
b) Joggling
c) Forming

44. Graduate students of UniKL MIAT without approved certificate for welding are
inspected to have sufficient knowledge to enable them to identify and evaluate
defective welds to determine the airworthiness of an aircraft. Therefore the most
important things to evaluate the welding are
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

Parts of the welding

Proportions of the welding
Formations of the welding
The quantities the welding

a) i, and ii only
b) i, ii, and iii only
c) All of the above

45. What type of flame normally used for oxyacetylene metal cutting?
a) Natural flame
b) Carburizing flame
c) Oxidizing flame

46. What inert gas is important in welding process?

a) To remove impurity inside material being weld
b) To support the flame during cutting and welding
c) To protect from atmospheric gasses such as nitrogen and oxygen
which can caused fusion defects, porosity and yield metal
embrittlement

47. Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 psi is

a) Dangerously unstable.
b) Should be used when reducing flame is necessary.
c) Usually necessary when welding metal over 3/8 thick.

48. Three basic items required for electric resistant welding are
a) Current, pressure and dwell time.
b) Pressure, dwell time and penetration depth.
c) Dwell time, current and penetration depth.

49. Which type of welding usually used to weld the furltank to provide continues air
tight?
a) Spot weld
b) Seam weld
c) Butt weld

50. Blue lens welding goggle usually used for welding

a) Aluminium
b) Magnesium
c) Steel

51. There are two types of Non-Destructive Testing commonly used known as
a) Visual Inspection and Electronic Inspection.
b) Composite Test and Visual Inspection.
c) Electronic Inspection and Composite Test.

52. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable
cause is that the part
a) Was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied.
b) Was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied.
c) Was not demagnetized correctly.

53. The correct procedures or steps for defect identification using magnetic particle
inspection are :
1. Surface Preparations
2. Pretest Demagnetization
3. Degreasing & Cleaning of Part
4. Magnetizing the Part
5. Application of Defection Method
6. Examine and Marking the Indications
7. Recording the Indication
8. Demagnetization
9. Cleaning of Part
10. Protection Against Corrosion
a) 2,3,4,1,5,7,6,8,9,10
b) 10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1
c) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10

54. Eddy current inspection is one of the electric inspection methods, it requires little
preparation and can detect surface and subsurface defects. The eddy current
methods that uses a double coil probe and indicates the differences between the
material under the reference probe and the test probe known as
a) Test method
b) Absolute method
c) Comparison method

55. The only Electronic method that can be used on plastic ceramic and most metals
is known as
a) Eddy current
b) Ultrasonic
c) Composite test

56. One of the NDT method used to defect water trapped in honey comb core in
composite sandwich structures is
a) Radiography/Thermography Inspection.
b) Eddy Current Inspection
c) Magnetic Particle Inspection

57. The scuffing process to remove oil deposit on the surface prior to painting is
a) Cleaned using sand paper.
b) Cleaned using grit blasting.
c) Wipe using MEK

58. The main purpose of using primer as part of aircraft painting is

a) To provide good bending between the material used for topcoat and
surface being finishes.
b) To provide good surface finish and make the painting process becomes faster.
c) To provide corrosion resistance and smooth surface finish between the
material used for topcoat and surface being finished.

59. It is the most popular primer as it provides maximum corrosion protection and
can be sprayed over wash primer to give maximum protection. This statement
refers to
a) Wash primer.
b) Epoxy primer.
c) Zinc chromate primer.

60. Begin spraying a surface by painting the ____________ first and hold the gun
about ____________ away from the surface and use a steady stroke
____________ to the surface.

a) Flat surface, a hand span or 8 inch, parallel

b) Edges or corners, a hand span or 8 inch, perpendicular
c) Edges or corners, a hand span or 8 inch, parallel