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Congenital muscular torticollis is a musculoskeletal anomaly with the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
a. Children referred to PT before one year of age have better outcomes than those referred later.
b. Conservative treatment approach is a stretching program to lengthen the involved muscle
c. Clinical features include a head tilt away from the side of the shortened muscle and head rotation toward the
ipsilateral side.
d. Restricted neck range of motion secondary to a shortened sternocleidomastoid
e. A surgical treatment approach is lengthening of the involved muscle
Which of the following statements is true of individuals without cardiopulmonary abnormalities?
a. The increases in ventilation (VE) and CO are inversely proportional to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous
blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
b. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in metabolic rate allowing venous blood
gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
c. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood
gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
d. The increases in ventilation (VE), and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing arterial
blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
e. The increase in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in respiratory rate, allowing arterial
blood gas and pH levels to lower than baseline values during exercise
To be admitted to the PT-OT examination, the applicant at the time of filing of application must satisfy the following
requirements, EXCEPT:
a. A foreign applicant can be admitted to the PT-OT examination even if his country of citizenship does not allow
Filipino therapists to practice in his country on the same as the subjects/citizens of that country
b. Clinical experience must include neurological musculoskeletal, pulmonary, cardiovascular, pediatrics and
psychosocial functions
c. He/she is at least twenty-one years of age
d. Must have completed at least nine months of clinical internship in physical and occupational therapy in an adequate
PT-OT dept of a certified hospital or clinic under the supervision of a competent and duly registered therapist
e. Applicant must have received a degree from a school of physical and occupational therapy duly recognized by the
government
The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system based on the following, EXCEPT:
a. Identification of a specific treatment plan
b. Assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment plans
c. Preparation of the informed consent
d. Formation of present and past information about the patient
e. Development of a specific, current problem
The Radial Nerve innervates the following muscle
a. Extensor Indicis Propius
d. Flexor Digitorum Communis
b. The Medial Lumbricals
e. Abductor Pollicis Brevis
c. Two Radial Lumbricals
A terminal lateral rotation of the tibia is said to lock the joint when the knee is fully extended. This key is the
a. Gastrocnemius
d. Soleus
b. Biceps Femoris
e. Popliteus
c. Piriformis
Learning the trunk forward when standing from a sitting position is better accomplished because:
a. Forward shifting of the line of gravity
c. Center of gravity is shifted forward
b. Increased posterior torque
d. Increased base of support
Signs of cardiac dysfunction include the following, EXCEPT:
a. A heart rate that is either excessively high of exceptionally low during exercise
b. An increase in diastolic blood pressure during exercise that is greater than 15 to 20 mm Hg
c. Electrocardiographic changes such as dysrythmias of ST-segment depression
d. A diastolic blood pressure that does not rise progressively as work level increases
e. A systolic blood pressure that falls during exercise
If the tendon surface become irritated and rough, and if the sheath becomes inflamed and continues to press on the
tendon, the following condition may be diagnosed:
a. Tendinitis
d. Tenobursitis
b. Epicondylitis
e. Cystitis
c. Stenosing tenosynovitis
In Allen Test, if the hand does not react, of it if flushes very slowly
a. The released artery is not occluded
d. The released vein is partially or completely occluded
b. The released vein is not occluded
e. The released artery and vein are partially completely occluded
c. The released artery is partially or completely occluded
Mean arterial pressure is expected to increase if
a. Stroke volume increases
d. cardiac output decreases
b. There is maintained exertion
e. there is generalized vasodilatation
c. Calcium channel blockers are administered
Licenses of registered physical and occupational therapists shall be renewed upon presentation of credit units earned in
the past three years totaling
a. 30 credit units
d. 60 credit units
b. 50 credit units
e. 80 credit units
c. 70 credit units
Denervation hypersensitivity
a. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors
b. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of receptors.
c. Is due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitters released
d. Results from avulsion of the nerve
e. Is due to an increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter.
Crystalloids and colloids solution in water
a. Blood platelets
d. Macrophages
b. White Blood Cells
e. Phagocytes
c. Plasma

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15. Decreases vascular resistance by inhibiting calcium mediated contraction of vascular smooth muscle:
a. Calcium channel blockers
d. Calcium channel blockers
b. Beta adrenergic blockers
e. Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors
c. Diuretics

16. A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues on the superolateral
surface, almost horizontally backwards, marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and
hearing area are both closely associated with it.
a. Medial
d. Collateral
b. Central
e. Calcarine
c. Lateral
17. This joint is the upper extremitys only attachment to the trunk.
a. Sternoclavicular
d. Glenohumeral
b. Acromioclavicular
e. Scapulothoracic
c. Scapulothoracic
18. The shape of articulating surfaces of bi-axial joints are either
a. Plane or saddle
d. hinge or pivot
b. Condyloid or ellipsoid
e. ball and socket
c. Pivot or condyloid
19. Area of skin supplied by one dorsal root.
a. Erector pili
d. Epidermis
b. Dermatome
e. Dermis
c. Myotome
20. Proximal side to side tremor found on heel thin or finger-nose testing:
a. Cerebellar tremor
c. Myoclonus
b. Parkisonian tremor
d. Senile Tremor
21. Theoretical relationships are established between the primary concept to be measured and one or more other concepts in
this type of validity.
a. Prescriptive
d. Construct
b. Content
e. Face
c. Predictive
22. Facial expression is an age-related change that may affect expressive communication in the elderly. The sagging cheeks
or jowls which give a resting appearance of anger or crabbiness to many elderly are actually the result of
a. Pessimistic outlook over the years
b. Significant loss of fat in the muscle fibers of the face
c. Denervated facial nerve
d. None of these
e. anhydrosis
23. The following statements describe the Median Nerve, EXCEPT:
a. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus.
b. It accompanies the axillary and brachial arteries.
c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the anterior interosseous nerve
d. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region
e. It enters with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles and all lumbricals
24. The following statement characterize the Radial Nerve, EXCEPT:
a. A little father down the arm, it passes obliquely lateral wards to run behind the humerus in its spiral groove, deep to
the Triceps
b. As it crosses the elbow joint, it supplies the muscles arising from the lateral supracondylar ridge: the Brachioradialis
and Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
c. It is the largest nerve of the upper limb
d. Its nerve divides include C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
e. The nerve divides into a long Superficial Branch and Deep Branch or Posterior Interosseous Nerve.
25. The Act known as the Philippine Physical and Occupational Therapy Law, creating the board of examiners for PT and OTs
is known as Republic Act No.
a. 8066
d. 8056
b. 5680
e. 5690
c. 5670
26. Assistive devices are often used and prescribed to facilitate the process of gait training. The following statements are
true, EXCEPT:
a. These devices may be used as permanent functional aids the can be used for home or community ambulation.
b. When a person using an assistive device has compromised cardio respiratory function, the increased demand may
not be within the limits of his or her reserve capacity
c. Ambulating while using an assistive device is known to create a metabolic demand different from that for unassisted
ambulation
d. Assistive devices are used as transitional aids towards the goal of independent ambulation
27. The following statement characterize De Quervains disease, EXCEPT:
a. Combinations of hand twisting and forceful gripping can cause the disease
b. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons
c. Attributed to excessive friction between two thumb tendons and their common sheath
d. Affects the tendons on the side of the wrist and at the base of the thumb
e. The tendons affected are connected to the muscles on the back of the forearm that contract to pull the thumb back
and away from the hand.
28. These procedures stretch the spinal cord and reproduce pain. The patient is in supine and asked to forcibly flex his head
onto this chest with his hands behind his head. The result may be pain in cervical spine, and occasionally in the low back
or down the legs indicating meningeal irritation, nerve root involvement or irritation of the dural covering of the nerve
root.

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a. Kernig Test
d. Hoover Test
b. Milgram Test
e. Naffziger Test
c. Gaeslans Sign
The osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitial is maintained because
a. The vasa recta is permeable only to water and not to the solutes
b. The oncotic concentration in the vasa recta increases from the cortex to the medulla
c. The rate of fluid flow in the vasa recta is slower than the tubules
d. The flow of fluid in the ascending extremities of the vasa recta is perpendicular but along the same direction
e. The direction of fluid in the descending and ascending limb of the vasa recta is parallel and counter to each other
Neurodevelopment treatment (NDT) is the most commonly used approach to treatment with cerebral palsy. The following
statements describe NDT, EXCEPT:
a. Treatment outcomes are supposed to be achieved through child more normal sensorimotor experiences
b. As the child gains postural control, the therapist gradually withdraws support
c. This approach focuses on encouraging and building upon normal movement patterns and normal postural reactions
while trying to reduce abnormal movements
d. Current interpretations of NDT does not include the importance of functional skill practice in treatment
e. It is implicit in NDT that improved postural control will lead to improvement in functional skills without necessarily
working on these specific skills
True hip pain in rheumatoid involvement of the hip produces pain in the
a. Lateral aspect of the high
b. Groin
c. On the acetabular area
d. medial aspect of the thigh
e. posterior aspect of the thigh
Resolution No. 381, Series of 1995 standardized the guidelines and procedures for the implementation of the continuing
professional education program, which includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. The CPEC is composed of a chairman, from the members of the PRB, and two members, the first is the president of
the PPTA and OTAP, the second is the president of the Association of PT and OT Schools
b. The Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Council for PT and OT assists its corresponding Professional
Regulatory Board (PRB) for PT and OT in implementations CPE program.
c. The CPEC does not accept, approve applicants for accreditation of CPE providers
d. The term of office of the chairman of each CPE council is co-terminus with his/her incumbency in the PRB.
e. The term of office of the first and second member is co-terminus with his/her incumbency as officer of their
respective organizations.
Disinfection is a process distinct from sterilization. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Something that is sterile is free of any microbial life.
b. Disinfection is a process that results in the complete removal of all microbial life from an object.
c. Sterilization may be accomplished through autoclaving of irradiation by x-rays or gamma rays
d. Disinfection tends to kill vegetative microorganisms or inhibit their growth
e. Most disinfectants are chemicals, generally used on inanimate objects or surfaces rather than on living tissues.
The following characterizes straight posterior knee instability, EXCEPT:
a. May be caused by hyperextension, when some other force is directed against the extended knee
b. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule
c. May be caused by hyperextension, when a weight falls on the extended joint
d. Rupture is caused by a force directed against the flexed knee that strikes the anterior aspect of the tibial head and
drives it rearward
e. Primary structures involved are the posterior cruciate ligament and the posterior part of the capsule
Following statements characterize pernicious anemia, EXCEPT:
a. Degeneration of dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord including gray matter
b. There is diminished two-point discrimination and joint sensation
c. Loss of position and vibration sense in the legs and positive Romberg sign.
d. Difficulty in walking and tingling sensations in the feet
e. In later stages, muscle stretch reflex may disappear.
Vestibular influence on the geocentric frame of reference are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Detection of head acceleration
b. Tibialis anterior muscle activity increases during ambulation when head is tilted backward.
c. Otolith organs provide reference for head position with respect to earth-vertical
d. No influence on trunk and limb stability when head position changes
e. Used for repositioning the eyes based on changes in head orientation
Deep tendon reflexes are
a. Polysynaptic nerve response
d. Excitatory presynaptic potential
b. Excitatory transmission
e. Bisynaptic reflex pressure
c. Monosynaptic reflex response
The following statements describe the Carrying Angle, EXCEPT:
a. The angularity of the extended and supinated limb disappears on pronation
b. As the ulna swings round the trochlear from flexion to extension, the trochlear is forced gradually lateralwards.
c. The difference in circumference between the two ends (ulna and trochlear) of the hour-glass is responsible for
forcing the ulna gradually out of line with the humerus
d. The difference in alignment between humerus and ulna is compensated for when the lower end of the radius cross
over the medial side of the ulna
e. This difference in alignment between the humerus and ulna amounts to about 15 degrees when the elbow is fully
extended
Allograft rejection is a result of
a. Formation of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes, either or both of which may destroy the antigen, a property of
acquired immunity
b. Histocompatibility complexes
c. That function to which protects an individual from toxins that might cause tissue damage
d. Destruction of the antigen by phagocytosis, a property of innate immunity
e. Provoked immunity

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40. These mechanoreceptors are found in the skin and connective tissues surrounding bones and joints to detect vibration:
a. Muscle spindle
d. Pacinian Corpuscles
b. Ruffinis end organs
e. Krauses end bulb
c. Miessners corpuscles
41. A pathway of communication between the two hemispheres to created as these fibers cross the midline from one
hemisphere to the other.
a. Transhemisphere
d. Superior Longitudinal Bundle
b. Projection
e. Association
c. Commissural
42. The aorta leaves this chamber of the heart.
a. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
b. It bypasses the heart
e. Left auricle
c. Right auricle
43. Nerve cells at rest are positively charged on the outside and negatively charged on the inside
a. Active Potentials
d. Depolarization
b. Action Potential
e. Resting membrane potential
c. Hyperpolarization
44. The following statements describes Down Syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. Deficit in eye-hand coordination laterality, and visual control were present in older children.
b. The present of monosynaptic reflex during platform perturbations suggested that balance problem do not result from
hypotonia but from defects within higher-level postural control mechanisms
c. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down Syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance strength and visual
motor controls than the group without
d. In children 1-6 years of age postures responses to loss of balance were slow and therefore insufficient for
maintaining stability
e. Attainment of early motor milestones is though to be delayed because of problems with ligamentous laxity in some
joints, decreased strength, and hypotonia.
45. Transaction of the pituitary stalk will produce
a. Increased LH Ant.
d. increased FSH
b. Decreased TSH Ant.
e. increased ACTH
c. Decrease prolactin
46. The following statements apply to Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) dystrophy, EXCEPT:
a. Subject is still able to rise from a forward flexed position without using his hands to assist the movement
b. Contractures are common and patients seldom survive into the third decade
c. The enlargement of the muscles is due to fatty infiltration and the muscles are weak.
d. A primary, genetic disorder characterized by early weakness and enlargement of the musculature of the calves,
thighs, hips and shoulders
e. Onset is in the first five years of life and occurs almost exclusively in boys
47. This structure resist the tendency of the femur to slide forwards off the plateau like tibial surface in actions such as in
jumping with knees bent:
a. Lateral collateral ligament
d. Anterior cruciate ligament
b. Posterior cruciate ligament
e. Medial collateral ligament
c. Medial and lateral menisci
48. Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through the following, EXCEPT:
a. Soft tissues passively limit dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed about the ankle during the stance phase.
b. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.
c. There is knee hyperextension during the stance phase
d. There is decreased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase
e. There is decreased peak hip extension in late stance phase
49. This joint is primarily responsible for inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction of the foot.
a. Talonavicular
d. transverse tarsal
b. Talocrural
e. calcaneocuboid
c. subtalar
50. This muscle has an extensive origin from the whole lower half of the shaft of the humerus and inserted by a tendon into
the tuberosity of the ulna below the coronoid process, its sole concern is flexion of the elbow joint
a. Brachialis
d. Biceps brachii
b. Brachioradialis
e. Coracobrachialis
c. Pronator Teres
51. When force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be moved, this lever
a. Does not exist
d. can not be moved
b. Is a first class lever
e. is a third class lever
c. Is a second class lever
52. Following statements are true of upper motor neurons, EXCEPT:
a. Provides final direct link with muscles through myoneural junctions
b. Synapse directly on alpha, beta and gamma motorneuron in the spinal cord and cranial nerve nuclei.
c. Completely contained within the central nervous system
d. Synonymous to corticospinal tract
e. Lesion results in exaggerated deep reflexes and muscle rigidity.
53. Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o) people differ in their gait performance as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Ankle dorsiflexion is slightly increased in older, while ankle plantar flexion was decreased in older people.
b. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons.
c. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons.
d. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons.
e. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old
54. The following statements describe clavicular motion, EXCEPT:
a. After the shoulder has been abducted 90 degrees, clavicular transverse rotation occurs to complete scapular upward
rotation and shoulder flexion
b. The clavicle rotates at the sternoclavicular joint approximately 40 degree around its long axis.
c. Clavicle motion include elevation-depression and protraction-retraction
d. Tightening of the trapezoid and conoid ligaments cause the upward rotation of the clavicle

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e. When clavicular rotation is prevented, arm elevation is limited to 90 degrees.

55. The following statements are true of the hips, EXCEPT:
a. The anterior and lateral portions of the greater trochanter are covered by the tensor fascia latae and the gluteus
medius muscle
b. When the iliac crests are not level in relation to each other, it is usually because of pelvic obliquity
c. When the greater trochanter is unequal, they may be due to a congenital dislocation of the hip or a hip fracture that
has healed in a poor position.
d. The pubic tubercles are just above the top of the greater trochanter.
e. About three inches from the top of the iliac crest, the iliac tubercle marks the widest point on the crest
56. Functional capacity evaluation are often used to determine the following, EXCEPT:
a. A persons readiness to return to work
b. The degree of the persons disability in order to collect disability pay
c. The need for further rehabilitation
d. Physical capabilities and work tolerance
e. The need for job modification
57. In this lifting technique the individual establishes a wide, solid base of support with one foot positioned in front of the
other. The body is slightly over the load with the knees bent in half squatting position. No bending at the waist takes
place. In beginning the lift, the head moves first, followed by the straightening of the legs.
a. Golfers lift
d. power lift
b. Deep squat lift
e. Partial squat lift with support
c. Tripod lift
58. Bilateral vestibular deficits results in the following, EXCEPT:
a. None of these
d. disequilibrium
b. Oscillopsia
e. postural instability
c. Skew deviation
59. The following statements are true of the Pituitary Gland, EXCEPT:
a. Its rich blood supply is derived from the small branches of the Right and Left Internal Carotid Arteries
b. It is made of the Anterior and Posterior Lobe that function differently
c. It is a pea-size gland hanging by a stalk, the infundibulum, from the floor of the third ventricle of the brain, just behind
the optic chiasm
d. Its shape and appearance resembles a miniature pine cone, projecting backwards from the back of the roof of the
ventricle.
60. These carpal bones form the radiocarpal joint by their biconcave distal end of the radius and the biconcave proximal
articulating surfaces.
a. Scaphoid and Capitate
d. Lunate and Capitate
b. Scaphoid and Lunate
e. Scaphoid and Trapezoid
c. Capitate and Lunate
61. Which of the following meal will be emptied first?
a. 300 cal semi solid high protein
d. 300 cal solid high protein
b. 300 cal liquid high carbohydrate
e. 300 cal solid high carbohydrate
c. 300 cal liquid high protein
62. A frame of reference for balance and head control that provides spatial coordinates for limb and body-segment positions:
a. Exocentric
d. Egocentric
b. Proprioceptive
e. geocentric
c. gravitational
63. This great parasympathetic nerve supplies the thorax and abdomen.
a. Abducens
d. Vagus
b. Hypoglossal
e. Glossopharyngeal
c. Pelvic Splanchnic
64. The following statements characterize carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT
a. Pain, numbness and tingling of the hands
b. Advanced cases may include wasting of the hypothenar eminence and an apparent clumsiness of the hand
c. Condition may affect both hands or only the dominant hand
d. Symptoms are most often acute while sleeping
e. Uncomfortable sensations are usually felt on the first three fingers and the base of the thumb
65. In the revised category-ratio rating of perceived exertion (RPE), a rating of 7 is described as
a. Very strong
d. Weak
b. Very, very strong
e. Moderate
c. Somewhat strong
66. Feedback information about the kinematic or kinetic components of the movement being attempted by the patient.
a. Result Oriented
d. Knowledge of Results
b. Knowledge of Performance
e. Performance Oriented
c. Knowledge of Function
67. The following characteristics describe Type IIA muscle fibers, EXCEPT:
a. Contained in motor units characterized by a high firing frequency or discharge rate
b. High threshold for activation and slow-twitch contraction.
c. Have cytological properties that fall between type I and type IIB fiber
d. Relatively fatigue resistant
e. With intermediate levels of glycolytic and oxidative enzyme activity
68. If there is anterior cruciate instability, the tibia will rock
a. Backward
d. laterally
b. Medially
e. diagonally
c. forward
69. A solute with a high portion coefficient is
a. Moves through the cell membrane with difficulty
b. Where saturation can occur
c. Directed against a chemical gradient
d. More soluble in fat than in water
e. More soluble in water than in fat.

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70. Suggested dimension (in feet) for a treatment cubicle area is

a. 10 x 10
d. 8 x 12
b. 8 x 8
e. 8 x 10
c. 6 x 8
71. This vertically-directed device acts as the privet round which the rotation occurs and which brings this lateral rotation of
the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) to a halt.
a. Lateral collateral ligament
d. Semilunar cartilages
b. Posterior cruciate ligament
e. Anterior cruciate ligament
c. Medial ligament
72. Energy costs during walking adults with below knee amputations (BKAs) and those without amputation may be
generalized as follows, EXCEPT:
a. When adults with BKAs walked at the same speed as adults without, their energy costs were approximately 32%
greater.
b. Energy costs are the same between adults with BKAs and those without when walking at the same speed.
c. They have the same energy costs because the person with amputations walked at slower speeds.
d. Adults with BKAs and short residual limbs (less than 6% of total body height) has a 40% increase when they perform
the same activities.
e. Adults with BAKs and long residual limbs (greater than 8% of total body height) had a 10% increase in oxygen
consumption compared with adults without.
73. Hypocoagulopathy can lead to
a. Increased heart workload
d. thrombus formation
b. Hemorrhage and edema
e. increased breathing
c. Embolus formation
74. Normally, the movement of the contents of the gastrointestinal tract is slowest along this segment.
a. Mouth
d. small intestine
b. Large intestine
e. stomach
c. esophagus
75. The following statements characterize thoracic outlet syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. There is numbness in the fingers of the hand
b. Involves both the nerves and adjacent blood vessels of the shoulder and the upper arm
c. Arm may feel as if it is going to sleep
d. There is compression of the nerves and blood vessels between the neck and shoulder
e. Wrist pulse remain strong
76. The following statements describe work hardening programs, EXCEPT
a. Attempts to meet the functional and physical needs of clients
b. Emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening endurance, and coordination exercises
c. Supposed to simulate or duplicate actual job takes
d. Work oriented
e. A job specific type of rehabilitation program that attempts to address vocational and behavioral needs of clients
77. Shortly after the brachial plexus exit the vertebral bodies and pass between the scalenus anticus and medius muscles,
the nerve roots of C5 and C6 join to form
a. The middle trunk
d. the upper trunk
b. The posterior cord
e. the lower trunk
c. The lateral cord
78. In retinacular test, the proximal IP joint is held in a neutral position and the distal IP joint attempts to move into flexion.
When the proximal IP joint is flexed to slightly relax the retinaculum, and the distal IP joint still does not flex
a. The distal IP joint capsule is probably contracted
b. There is no contraction in the distal IP joint capsule
c. The retinacular ligaments are loose
d. The retinacular ligaments are tight
e. None of these
79. Coordination disturbances are usually assessed through the following methods, EXCEPT:
a. finger-to-nose test
d. unilateral tapping tracking tasks
b. Reciprocal tracking tasks
e. kinematic analysis
c. Tracking tasks
80. Depolarization is initiated when this moves inside the cell.
a. Potassium
d. sodium
b. Magnesium
e. permanganate
c. Chloride
81. Normal spread of excitation in the heart is:
a. SAN AVN Bundle of his Purkinje Fibers Ventricles
b. AVN Bundle of His Atrium Purkinje Fibers Ventricles
c. SAN AVN Purkinje Fibers Bundle of His Ventricles
d. SAN Bundle of His AVN Purkinje Fibers Ventricles
e. AVN SAN Purkinje Fibers Ventricles Atria
82. Supplying the lower limb, this artery enters the thigh in the midline in front then descends vertically.
a. Tibial Artery
d. Sciatic Artery
b. Left Femoral Circumflex Artery
e. Popliteal Artery
c. Femoral Artery
83. The sensory cranial nerve supply of the eyeball is
a. Fourth (Trochlear
d. Opthalmic Division of the Fifth (Trigeminal)
b. Third (Oculomotor)
e. Seventh (Facial)
c. Sixth (Abducens)
84. Muscle contraction strength gradation can be accomplished in the following manner, EXCEPT:
a. Motor neurons with greatest innervations ratio are activated initially activating few muscle fibers.
b. Increasing the frequency of stimulation of individual motor units
c. Simultaneously recruiting the number of activated motor unit
d. Initially activating few muscle fibers.
e. As each active muscle fiber is developing maximum tension, the percentage of time is increased.

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85. Factors contributing to neuropathic plantar ulceration in patients with diabetes include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Food deformities
b. Limited mobility of the great toes metatarsophalangeal joint
c. Limited mobility of the talocrural joint
d. Limited mobility of the subtalar joint
e. Increased plantar sensation
86. The following are true of Tetanic contractions, EXCEPT:
a. Serial, continuous contractions, in which individual contractions cannot be distinguished
b. Series of increasingly stronger twitch contractions occurring in response to repeated contractions
c. They occur in response to a bombardment of the muscle by rapid, successive stimuli
d. Incomplete Tetanic contractions may convert to a normal contraction if the excessive stimulation ceases abruptly
87. In evaluating the client, the caregiver
a. Initiate planning for extended treatment as necessary.
b. Prepare and document the treatment plan and program
c. Determines the clients current conditions his functional abilities and limitations
d. Documents clients condition and functional outcome abilities
e. Determines and selects the appropriate treatment techniques and equipment
88. Splints that incorporate some elastic component such as springs of rubber bands that exerts a force on the joint but
allow for some change of joint position.
a. Dynamic-progressive
d. Static
b. Static-progressive
e. Dynamic
c. Static-progressive
89. When defining the motion between the foot and leg, a common center of rotation is assumed with this joint primarily
responsible for dorsiflexion/plantar flexion components:
a. Metatarsophalangeal
d. transverse tarsal
b. Talonavicular
e. calcaneocuboid
c. Talocrural
90. The following statements are true of biceps brachii, EXCEPT:
a. A simultaneous flexion of the shoulder and elbow and supination of the forearm will result from an isolated,
unopposed contraction of the biceps.
b. When the forearm is supinated, it acts in flexion of the elbow with or without a load, in slow or in fast movements in
either concentric or eccentric contraction
c. Its effectiveness as a supinator is almost four times as effective as the supinator at an angle of 90 degrees
d. It is most effective as a supinator when the elbow is flexed at about a 145 degree angle.
e. Its effectiveness as a supinator diminishes as the elbow is extended
91. The following statements describe repair of acute instability, EXCEPT
a. Advancement of the posterior oblique ligament is a reconstructive procedure that is almost always used
b. Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus is salvaged buy suturing the structure to the capsular ligaments
c. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually
intact and will hold sutures well
d. Repair of an acute case by direct suture is usually avoided
92. Segmental development is evidence of the human torsos nerve supply of an orderly series of spinal nerves; i. e one pair
of spinal nerve supplies this strip-like area of skin, and is known as a
a. Myotome
d. Spinal Nerves
b. Terminal Branches
e. Vertebral Nerves
c. Dermatome
93. Differentiation of these three vesicles at the rostral end of the neural tube initiates brain development.
a. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and metencephalon
b. Telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon
c. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon, rhombencephalon and metencephalon
e. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon and myelencephalon
94. When digital muscles have their proximal attachment in the forearm or humerus, they are classified as
a. Extrinsic
d. midtrinsic
b. Thenar
e. hypothenar
c. Intrinsic
95. These muscles retract the protracted scapula and turn the glenoid fossa downwards, thus forcibly lowering the raised
arm, with other muscles, they keep the scapula applied to the chest wall.
a. Serratus Anterior
d. Rhomboids
b. Trapezius
e. Levator Scapulae
c. Pectoralis minor
96. The most important factor giving rise to a concentrated urine is the presence of
a. Digital convoluted tubule
b. Proximal tubule
c. Anti-diuretic hormone
d. Well develop zonula occludes at the collecting tubule
e. Non-reabsorbable solute in the lumen of the connecting tubule
97. Neuromuscular electrical stimulation has been used for the following, EXCEPT:
a. Facilitate motor control
d. improve range of motion
b. Increase strength
e. muscle reeducation
c. Temporarily reduce hyperreflexia
98. As gliding occurs, the No movement takes place on the surface of these joints that are nearly flat and circular.
a. Axial
d. axial-occipital
b. Atlanto-occipital
e. occipital
c. Atlanto-axial
99. The most important substance regulating blood pressure that is produced by the kidney is
a. Vasopressin
d. prostaglandin
b. Renin
e. progesterone
c. Atrial natriuretic hormone

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100.The following are true of palmar prehension pattern, EXCEPT:

a. Large objects may be held by widening the grip.
b. This grasp is used to pick up small objects.
c. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.
d. The thumb opposes one or more of the other digits.
101.Postoperative rehabilitation of acute-posterolateral instability of the knee consist of the following, EXCEPT:
a. After the cast is removed, a knee-ankle-foot-orthosis with a dial lock is applied
b. Active extension is controlled because the arcuate complex has been advanced
c. Orthosis is worn at all times and the dial lock is adjusted to allow extension of an additional 15 degrees each week
d. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees
e. The subject begins partial weight bearing when the lock prevents only the final 15 degrees of extension
102.In performing this test, the patient with contracture will be unable to keep his leg, spine, and pelvis flat on the table when
the opposite hip is flexed.
a. Bakers test
d. Gallics Flexion Test
b. Segals Maneuver
e. Thomas Test
c. Patrick test
103.Thins, strong sheet of fibrous tissue that occasionally attaches flattened muscles.
a. Raphe
c. Aponeurosis
b. Tendons
e. Retinaculae
104.When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover,
it is said to be a/an
a. Primer mover
d. coordinator
b. Fixators
e. synergist
c. antagonist
105.Following statements are true of lower motor neuron lesions, EXCEPT:
a. Muscle atrophy may begin to show within a few weeks
b. Even with the loss of sensory feedback to the nervous system coordinated movements are still properly
accomplished
c. The muscle loses both its voluntary and reflex response
d. Hypotonia is observed as well as absence of muscle stretch reflex
106.Which of the following is NOT true of the Deltoid?
a. The nerve supply is by C5 and C6 via the circumflex nerve
b. It can carry the arm higher than the horizontal position
c. It is a powerful abductor of the humerus but cannot initiate that movement
d. The middle fibers concern themselves with abduction alone
107.Decrease in resting membrane potential, making it more positive.
a. Depolarization
d. Action potential degradation
b. Membrane denervation
e. Variable conductance
c. Hyperpolarization
108.Diffusion occurs faster if
a. The temperature is lower.
b. The partition coefficient is higher
c. The partition coefficient is higher and the molecular size is bigger
d. The molecular size is bigger
e. The molecular size is bigger and the temperature is higher
109.The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT:
a. The normal angle between the table and the leg measures approximately 80 degrees
b. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot if the there is no
pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve
c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain
d. If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may be either
in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve
e. The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to the point of
discomfort or pain
110. Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with a walking cast, degenerative joint disease or new leg
prosthesis; or for patient who has had leg surgery?
a. Swing-through three-point gait
b. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
c. Three-point gait
d. Four-point gait
e. Two-point gait
111. Muscles will develop strength very rapidly even if the contractions are performed only a few times each day and if they
contract at or near their maximal force of contraction.
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. First statement is false, second statement is true
d. First statement is true, second statement is false
112. This nerve provides innervations to the superior, inferior and medial rectus, and the inferior oblique muscle of the eye.
a. Trigeminal
d. Abducens
b. Oculomotor
e. Trochlear
c. Optic
113. The left and right cerebral hemisphere is separated by the
a. Medial longitudinal fissures
d. parieto-occipital fissures
b. Anterior median fissures
e. lateral fissure
c. Central sulcus

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114. The following statements are true in the technique known as phonophoresis, EXCEPT:
a. Medications commonly used include hydrocortisone, dexamethasone, salicylate and lidocaine, and frequently,
hydrocortisone is combined with a gel base to formulate a 10% hydrocortisone solution
b. Combined use of a drug-impregnated coupling medium with ultrasound to drive whole molecules of topically applied
medication percutaneously into inflamed tissues
c. Often applied via continuous ultrasound with intensity between 1.0 and 2.0 W.cm, at a frequency of 5 MHz, and with
treatment duration of 5 minutes.
d. The physical mechanism by which phonophoresis acts is not known
e. Acts is a fast, painless, noninvasive alternative to local injection
115. In this type of gating, protein channel gates are opened by the binding of another molecule with the protein causing a
conformational change in the protein molecule that opens or closes the gate:
a. Ligand gating
c. Voltage gating
b. None of these
d. Both of these
116. Babinskis sign is a strong indication of a disorder of:
a. Basal nuclei
d. Vestibulospinal tract
b. Reticulospinal tract
e. Tectospinal tract
c. Corticospinal tract
117. This elbow flexor is innervated by the radial nerve and attaches proximally to a ridge on the humerus above the lateral
epicondyle:
a. None of these
c. Biceps
b. Brachioradialis
d. Brachialis
118. If your patient cant support his full weight on his legs but does have a reasonably good muscular coordination and arm
strength, which crutch walking gait would you choose?
a. Four-point gait
d. Three-point-gait (non weight bearing)
b. Swing-through three-point gait
e. Two-point gait
c. Three-point-and-one gait (partial-weight-bearing)
119. Components of subtalar joint pronation when the foot is bearing weight:
a. Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar abduction and talar dorsiflexion
b. Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar adduction and talar plantar flexion
c. Moderate calcaneal inversion and talar dorsiflexion
d. Excessive calcaneal inversion, talar adduction, and talar plantar flexion
e. Talar adduction and talar dorsiflexion and moderate calcaneal inversion
120.The hormone regulating Ca++ metabolism that is produced by the kidney is
a. Estrogen
d. 1-25 OH2 cholecalciferol
b. Thyroid
e. calcitonin
c. parathyroid
121.The following apply to Distraction, EXCEPT:
a. Relieves pain in the cervical spine by decreasing pressure on the joint capsule around the facet joint
b. May help alleviate muscle spasm by relaxing the contracted muscle
c. The test faithfully reproduce pain referred to the upper extremity from the cervical spine
d. The test demonstrates the effect that neck traction might have in relieving pain
e. Relieves pain due to a narrowing of the neural foramen by widening the foramen
122.Changes in the capability to produce a given response during practice when augmented feedback about the performance
is provided
a. Initiative
d. Performance
b. Response
e. Function
c. Learning
123.This type of contraction occurs when muscular tension equals the opposing force
a. Relaxed
d. concentric
b. Isometric
e. eccentric
c. isotonic
124.The most abundant cation inside the living cell is
a. Na+
d. Clb. K+
e. Ca++
c. Mg++
125.The gate control theory of Melzack and Wall has been used to explain the effectiveness of conventional sensory level
TENS in reducing pain. The following statements discuss the theory, EXCEPT
a. Central transmission of pain impulses via large-diameter, a myelinated fiber is via inhibition of second order neurons
located in the dorsa horn.
b. Intramuscular receptors send afferent impulses via group III and IV fibers and the spinothalamic tract to brain-stem
cardiovascular centers.
c. The transmission rate of action potentials from peripheral nociceptors to the central nervous system can be
modulated by convergence of other afferent inputs at the level of the spinal cord
d. Some group III and IV afferent mediate the pressure response to sustained isometric muscle contraction
e. Transcutaneous electrical stimulation of group I and II afferent fibers is thought to modulate central transmission of
pain impulses carried by group III and IV fibers
126.If a 40 kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the pressure (in kilograms per square
centimeter) is equal to
a. 20
d. 160
b. 5
e. 80
c. 10
127.These muscles are said to place the hand in the writing position (metacarpophalangeal joints flexed, interphalangeal
joints extended):
a. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
c. Palmar interossei
b. Four lumbricals
d. Dorsal interossei
128.Informed consent includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. May be given before, during of after the initial treatment.
b. The client or surrogate may sign a document to document the process indicating authorization to the proposed
treatment

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c.

Known or potential risks associated with the treatment are explained, and the client must be able to ask questions
and receive responses about any aspects of treatment
d. Consent from a legally qualified surrogate is necessary if the patient has not reached the legal age of consent, or
mentally confused.
e. Provide sufficient information about the proposed and alternative treatment/s appropriate to the clients condition, to
allow him to make a knowledgeable decision.
129.This is formed when synovial fluid extends into the popliteal space and becomes exposed in a membrane.
a. Deep vein thrombosis
d. Thrombophlebitis
b. Lateral meniscitis
e. Inflammation of the posterior cruciate ligament
c. Bakers cyst
130.To test this muscle, the proximal IP joint of the hand is stabilized
a. Interossei
d. Flexor Digitorum Profundus
b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
e. Pronator Teres
c. Lumbricals
131.The following are actions of the upper fibers of the Trapezius:
a. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop
b. Steady the scapula at the very beginning of the movement of raising the arm above the head
c. Pull the medial end of the scapula downwards
d. Cooperative with the horizontal fibers to rotate the glenoid, cavity upwards
e. Retract the scapula
132.Due to their inverted tripod arrangement, they function as a stabilizing mechanism for the pelvis and capable of cooperating with the splint mechanism of the iliotibial tract on the lateral side.
a. Sartorius, Gracilis and Semitendinosus
b. Adductor Magnus, Vastus lateralis, and Biceps
c. Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus and gracilis
d. Semitendinosus, Biceps and Gracilis
e. Piriformis, Quadratus Femoris and Obturator Internus
133.The ability to recognize numbers or letters traced on the body:
a. Sensory extinction
d. Graphesthesia
b. Cutaneous tactile localization
e. Sensory inattention
c. Stereognosis
134.This nerve supplies the Serratus Anterior Muscle and arises from the C5, C6 and C7 roots of the brachial plexus:
a. Subscapular Nerve
c. Long Thoracic Nerve
b. Musculocutaneous Nerve
d. Lateral Pectoral Nerve
135.The nutritional component/s necessary for proper erythrocyte formation and malnutrition is/are:
a. All of these
d. folic acid
b. Riboflavin (Vit B2)
e. iron
c. Iron and folic acid
136.The following statements describe the anterior compartment on the legs anterolateral side between the tibia and the
fibula, EXCEPT:
a. The tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus and the extensor digitorum longus inserts, into this compartment
b. The anterior fascia, posterior tibia, fibula, and interosseous ligament render it inflexible and unyielding
c. If the structures are tight and intractable, and if the palpation elicits tenderness, there is evidence of an anterior
compartment syndrome.
d. Because of its inability to expand, swelling in the anterior compartment can create foot drop or anterior compartment
syndrome
e. Necrosis of the muscles, nerves and vessels may result from pathology that may cause swelling within the anterior
compartment
137.The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT:
a. All interossei
d. Palmaris Longus
b. Medial half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus
e. All Hypothenar
c. Adductor Pollicis
138.Suggested dimension (in feet) for an extremity whirlpool inn Hydrotherapy area is
a. 8 x 8
d. 10 x 8
b. 5 x 7
e. 8 x 10
c. 7 x 8
139.This test helps determine whether the patient is malingering when he states that he cannot raise his leg in that as the
patient tries to raise his leg, he puts pressure on the calcaneus of his opposite leg to gain leverage, the patient is not
really trying if he does not bear down as he attempts to raise his leg.
a. Hoover Test
d. Straight Leg Raising Test
b. Kernig Test
e. Valsalva Maneuver
c. Milgram Test
140.Blood cells which are activated by antigen only when this is associated with another host cell:
a. B-lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
b. T-lymphocytes
e. basophils
c. Eosinophils
141.These muscles mainly flex the interphalangeal joint
a. Flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus
b. Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi ulnaris
c. Lumbricals and flexor pollicis longus
d. Lumbricals
e. Flexor digitorum superficialis and lumbricals
142.This type of traction temporarily immobilize an injured area through hands pulling on the injured body part:
a. Manual Traction
d. Skin Traction
b. Reduction Traction
e. Skeletal Traction
c. Mobilization Traction
143.After successfully passing the Board Examination, the following initials may be added after the name of the successful
physical/occupational therapy examinee
a. PTRP/OTRP
d. RPT/ROT
b. PTR/OTR
e. RPT/OTRP

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c. PTRP/ORT
144.In a recent study conducted on phonophoresis, where hydrocortisone was prepared by blending hydrocortisone acetate
with Aquasonic gel, which of the following statements is true?
a. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 1.0 W/cm did
not result in an increase in human serum cortisol level.
b. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 1.0 W/cm
resulted an increase in human serum cortisol levels
c. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 5.0 W/cm did
not result in an increase in human serum cortisol levels
d. 10 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 20% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 5.0 W/cm
resulted in an increase in human serum cortisol levels
e. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 5.0 W/cm
resulted in an increase in human serum cortisol level.
145.The powers and duties of the Board of Physical and Occupational Therapy include the following, EXCEPT:
a. To study the conditions affecting physical and occupational therapy education and prepare a written favorable
recommendation to authorize schools to offer course in physical or occupational therapy
b. To study, promote and improve the conditions of the practice of physical and occupational therapy
c. To issue, suspend, revoke or re-issue any certificate of registration for the practice of physical and occupational
therapy
d. To give examinations to applicants for the practice of physical and occupational therapy in accordance with the
provisions of the Philippine Physical and Occupational Therapy Law.
e. To look into the conditions affecting the practice of PT and OT and delegate to accredited professional associations
so they may adopt measures of good ethics and high professional standard in the practice.
146.Incorrect entries in your documentation may be edited by doing the following, EXCEPT:
a. Corrected statement must be entered in the chronologic sequence
b. On the margin, state why the correction was necessary
c. Single line drawn through the inaccurate information, but still making it legible.
d. Correction must be dated and initiated
e. Erase or draw multiple lines on the inaccurate information.
147.Inasmuch as the knee extensor mechanism is involved, the following statements apply, EXCEPT:
a. The exercise is increased according to subjects tolerance
b. Straight-leg exercises are progressed slowly
c. By the time of discharge (about seven days), the subject should be doing 2-3 sets of 5 leg raises
d. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise
e. Repetitions should be aggressively increased until about 8 sets of 10 sets raises daily are performed over the next
three weeks after discharge
148.If exercise tightness of the hip ligaments, muscles, or fasciae prevents complete extension of the hip joints, an individual
commonly compensates for this limitation by
a. Lengthening the vastus group
b. Accentuating the anterior tilt of the pelvis and lumbar lordosis
c. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis
d. Lumbar kyphosis
149.The following statements apply to Translation, EXCEPT:
a. A process by which a protein molecule is formed while the messenger RNA travels along the ribosomes
b. A codon signals the end of a protein molecule
c. The process is initiated when a molecule of messenger RNA comes in contact with a ribosome
d. The manufacturing plant in which the protein molecules are formed
150.Receives the weight of the body when one sits up straight:
a. Inferior ramus
b. Ischial tuberosity
c. Lesser sciatic notch
d. Spine of ischium
151.Bound by these tendons, they comprise the anatomical snuff box.
a. Extensor Pollicis Longus, Abductor Pollicis Longus and Extensor Pollicis Brevis
b. Extensor Digitorum Communis, Extensor Indicis Propius and Extensor Carpi Radialis
c. Abductor Pollicis Longus, Abductor Pollicis Brevis and Extensor Indicis Propius
d. Extensor Pollicis Longus, Extensor Indicis Propius and Extensor Pollicis Brevis
e. Extensor Carpi Ulnaris, Extensor Digitorum Communis and Extensor Pollicis Brevis
152.As proposed by Cyriax, the scheme of selective tension testing is a clinical system of diagnosis of painful problems of
soft issues and is conducted in the following manner, EXCEPT:
a. Resisted contractions
b. Palpation
c. Active motion
d. Assisted contractions
e. Passive motion
153.Immediate postoperative care following cardiac transkinetic include the following EXCEPT:
a. Oral diet is begun as soon as patient can tolerate it
b. Most patients are weaned from mechanical ventilator assistance within 24 to 36 hours
c. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off
d. First endomyocardial biopsy is performed 7 to 10 days after transplantation
e. Endotracheal and orogastric tubes are removed within 24 to 36 hours
154.This tiny ophthalmic artery which accompanies the optic nerve and the anterior and middle cerebral arteries supply most
of the cerebral hemisphere.
a. Occipital Artery
d. Subclavian artery
b. External Carotid Artery
e. Optic Artery
c. Internal Carotid Artery
155.The somatic sensory examination is the most difficult and least reliable part of the evaluation. The following rules and
generalizations will be helpful, EXCEPT:
a. Consistency of findings of several sensory examination gives some assurance of validity

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b.

Peripheral nerve lesions are often associated with diminished or absent sweating, dry skin, tropic changes in the
nails and loss of subcutaneous tissue
c. The test ordinarily used for the sensory examination are rather crude and the findings are imprecise, the more so the
less complete the lesion
d. Subjective symptoms of numbness and paresthesia are unfortunately much the same qualitatively whether they
result from thalamic, spinal, radicular or peripheral neural deficits
e. Cutaneous sensitivity is greater on the face, hand, forearms genitalia and feet. Avoid testing calloused areas
156.The following statements are generally accepted in improving muscle strength and endurance, EXCEPT:
a. Isometric contractions close to maximal forces for long periods of time is necessary to increase muscle endurance
b. Concentric contractions against light loads may increase endurance
c. To improve endurance a muscle must maintain small forces for long periods of time
d. A muscle must generate close to maximal forces for short periods of time to build muscle strength
e. Isometric or even eccentric forceful contractions may be necessary for building strength.
157.Of the body water compartment, the largest is occupied by the
a. Transcellular fluid
d, Spinal cord
b. Intracellular fluid
e. Interstitial fluid
c. Plasma
158.A patient points to the lateral aspect of the thigh as his source of pain. This may indicate that underlying problem may be
due to
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. sacroiliac stenosis
b. Trochanteric bursitis
e. lumbar spinitis
c. Gluteal bursitis
159.Abdominal muscle exercise during pregnancy and at least 8 weeks after birth should be chosen with care because of the
following reasons, EXCEPT:
a. There is a noted increase in rectus abdominis muscle separation width, length, and angles of insertion
b. Decrements in abdominal muscle function can parallel in time the structural adaptations as pregnancy progressed
c. The ability to stabilize the pelvis against resistance can be decreased as pregnancy progresses and remain
compromised postbirth
d. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth
e. Continued functional deficits may be found in parallel with incomplete resolution of structural adaptations post birth
160.The following describe the modified Thomas test, EXCEPT:
a. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 80 degrees of knee flexion
b. The pelvis is placed in approximately 10 degrees of posterior tilt by flexion of one hip and knee toward the chest
while lying supine
c. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 10 degrees of femoral extension relative to the pelvis
d. The other leg is positioned to extend off the edge of a treatment table far enough to allow the knee to bend freely
e. It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.
161.In an open-packed or loose packed position?
a. The ligamentous and capsular structures are slack
b. Increased joint friction allow spinning and sliding
c. Joint surface may be distracted several millimeters
d. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent
e. Allows spinning, rolling, and sliding, thereby decreasing joint friction.
162.The following statements describe Closed Kinematic Chain, EXCEPT:
a. The distal segment is fixed and proximal parts move
b. The distal segment of the chain moves in space.
c. Stair climbing is an alternation closed-chain motion during the support phase of the extremity
d. Occurs in the upper extremity when performing chip up.
e. All segments are required to move in the movement of one segment
163.Refers to the possibility that the conclusions drawn from experimental results may not accurately reflect what has gone
on in the experiment itself.
a. Parallel Reliability
d. Incoherency
b. External Validity
e. Internal Validity
c. Low Reliability
164.It is widely believed that these muscles are involved in tennis elbow, a condition in which the extensor muscles,
strained by an unusual amount of stress, cause pain at the lateral epicondyle of the elbow and along the course of the
muscle.
a. Extensor Communis
c. Extensor Carpi Superficialis
b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
d. The mobile wad of three (Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis in
particular)
165.Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries:
a. Anterior communicating arteries
c. Circle of Willis
b. None of these
d. Posterior communicating arteries
166.An example of this class of level is at the atlanto-occipital joint, where the head is balanced by the peel of neck extensor
muscles
a. Second
d. first
b. Fourth
e. third
c. Fifth
167.In polyneuropathy, lesions often occur bilaterally, the effects are usually more prominent in the proximal than in distal
parts of the extremities.
a. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
168.A form of Validity that concerns the extent to which a test of measure appears to measure what it purports to measure,
and actually based on the personal opinion of those either taking or giving a test.
a. Content Validity
d. Criterion-Related Validity
b. Face Validity
e. Construct Validity
c. Direct Validity

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169.If there is a compression of the subclavian artery, one feels a marked diminution or absence of the radial pulse. This test
is called
a. Swallowing Test
d. Compression Test
b. Adson Test
e. Distraction test
c. Valsalva Test
170.After internal fixation of the hip, the physical therapist must pay special attention to:
a. Use of a trochanter roll or properly placed sandbags beside the thigh to avoid extreme external rotation
b. All of these
c. Patient may not lean forward further than 30 to 40 which would increase hip flexion
d. To prevent increased pain and undue strain on the fracture site, adduction, external rotation or acute flexion of the
patients hip must not be allowed
e. Use of pillow or abductor triangle to maintain abduction and keep the affected leg to one side of his midline
171.The following characterizes the patella, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral dislocation is resisted by the lateral lip of the trough being projected forwards
b. It maintains a constant relationship with the fibular as the knee is flexed
c. Its posterior surface is articular since it lies in front of the expanded lower end of the femur.
d. It is easily dislocated medially due to the powerful extensors of the knee that pull obliquely and chiefly from the
lateral side of the thigh
e. Enhances the power of knee extensors by increasing the leverage of that muscle.
172.The following statements apply to myocardial ischemia and infarction, EXCEPT:
a. Characteristic symptoms of pain associated with angina pectoris is caused by an imbalance between myocardial
oxygen supply and demand
b. Resolving thrombus formation in the coronary arteries cannot control factors leading to coronary occlusion
c. Caused primarily by coronary artery atherosclerosis that decreases the ability of the coronary arteries to supply
adequate oxygen to meet the demands of the myocardium
d. Progressive atherosclerosis also leads to the development of coronary artery thrombosis resulting in vessel before
occlusion and MI
e. Drugs are often used to treat the symptoms of ischemic heart disease and restore myocardial oxygen balance before
additional damage occurs to the heart
173.The digestion of food involves the process of
a. Hydrolysis
d. mastication
b. Conjugation
e. decarboxylation
c. condensation
174.Foot dorsiflexor are composed of:
a. None of these
b. Tibialis Anterior, Extensor Digitorum Brevis and Extensor Hallucis Brevis
c. Tibialis Anterior, Extensor Digitorum Longus and Extensor Hallucis Longus
d. Peroneous Tertius, Peroneus Brevis and Extensor Digitorum Brevis
175.This characterizes diabetes mellitus.
a. Decreased blood sugar
d. enhanced protein synthesis
b. Increase lipogenesis
e. insulin deficiency
c. Androgen binding protein
176.The product of breathing frequency and tidal volume (VE):
a. Ventilation (in liters per minute)
d. heart rate
b. Stroke volume
e. cardiac output
c. Metabolic rate
177.Which of the following examples therapeutically increase the pressure on a given area?
a. Use of closed-cell foam shoe inserts for walking
b. Prescribing a wearing schedule for a prosthesis
c. Use of orthotics to the force arm length
d. Frequent body weight shifts
e. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics
178.Following statements are true of the corticospinal or pyramidal tract, EXCEPT:
a. About 1/3 of the axons in the pyramidal tract arise from the primary motor cortex in areas 4 to 6.
b. About 90 percent of the tracts decussate to the opposite side at the lower levels of the medulla.
c. The fibers arise from the neurons in the ventral part of area 4 on the lateral surface of the hemisphere and from area
8.
d. Concerned with skilled movements of the distal muscles of the limb
179.The following statements describe the Triceps Brachii, EXCEPT:
a. The long head may help also in extending the shoulder joint.
b. The long and lateral heads lie side by side and together are comparable to the Biceps.
c. Of the three heads, only the long head arises from the scapula.
d. It acts in a lever system of the Second Class but its lever arm is extremely short.
e. The medial head has fleshy origin from the back of the shaft similar to the Brachialis
180.Historically, warm receptors in the skin are called
a. Naked nerve endings
b. Flower spray endings
c. None of these
d. Krauses end bulbs
e. End organs of Ruffini
181.Fast twitch fibers differ from slow twitch fibers, EXCEPT:
a. Number of capillaries per mass of fibers in greater in slow twitch fibers
b. Fast twitch fibers are organized for endurance
c. Fast twitch fibers can achieve double the maximal power
d. Fast twitch fibers are twice in diameter
182.A functional map of the motor cortex resembling an image of the body turned upside down and reversed left to right.
a. Brodmanns area
d. Homunculus
b. Hemisphere
e. Premotor cortex
c. Parietal Lobe

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183.The following statements are true of the Tibialis Posterior, EXCEPT:

a. Innervated by the tibial nerve
b. The most deeply situated muscle of the calf
c. Inverts and supinate of the subtalar joint only in dorsiflexion
d. Inverts and assists in ankle plantar flexion
184.The following statements describe ataxia, EXCEPT:
a. Can result from damage to the dorsal and ventricular spinocerebellar pathways and pontine nuclei
b. Can result from damage to the afferent pontine of peripheral nerves and the dorsal column of the spinal cord.
c. Can result from damage to several different motor or sensory regions of the central nervous system.
d. Can result in high amplitude tremor that accompanies movement
e. Damage in one cerebellar hemisphere is manifested contralateral to the lesion
185.The gateway to pain in opened by
a. Intense stimulation of large diameter fibers
b. None of these
c. Mild stimulation of small diameter fibers
d. Mild stimulation of large diameter fibers
e. Intense stimulation of small diameter fibers
186.The combined action of these muscles is vertebral extension, are continuous from the sacrum to the occiput:
a. None of these
c. Transversopinal
b. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis
d. Quadratus Lumborum
187.Increase in resting membrane potential, making it move negative.
a. Depolarization
d. Action potential propagation
b. Velocity excitation
e. Variable conductance
c. Hyperpolarization
188.In one leg standing, the gluteus medius of the supporting leg is performing:
a. Isometric contraction
c. Eccentric contraction
b. Positive work
d. No work
189.Ergonomic design in office settings has become increasingly important, particularly because of the increased use of
computers. The following are acceptable recommendations, EXCEPT:
a. Feet flat on the floor or footrest to provide stability
b. Top of monitor placed at eye level to allow proper head and neck position
c. Padded wrist rest to reduce arm and shoulder discomfort
d. Keyboard placed at 15 degree from elbow height with a slight incline
e. Hard copy holder close to monitor to reduce eye motions and discomfort and allow proper neck posture
190.The following characteristics describe Type I muscle fibers, EXCEPT:
a. Higher myosin ATPase activity than the other fiber type.
b. Resistant to fatigue, with high levels of oxidative enzyme activity and low levels of glycolytic enzyme activity
c. Contained in motor units characterized by a low firing frequency or discharge rate
d. Associated with extensive capillary density and a high concentration of myoglobin
e. Low threshold for activation and slow twitch contraction
191.Vacuum-compression therapy may be applied following whirlpool cleansing of the wound at this manufacturer prescribed
settings to emphasize the vacuum phase of the cycle in an attempt to increase capillary filling.
a. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 90 seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mm Hg) of positive pressure for
30 seconds
b. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 60 seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mm Hg) of positive pressure for
90 seconds
c. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 90 seconds followed by -0.05 bar (-38.5 mm Hg) of negative pressure
for 30 seconds
d. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 90 seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mm Hg) of positive pressure for
30 seconds
e. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of positive pressure for 90 seconds followed by -0.05 bar (-38.5 mm Hg) of negative pressure
for 30 seconds.
192.Constricts the pupil and is involved in light and accommodating reflexes due to their connections with postganglionic
neurons.
a. Facial Nerve
d. Trochlear nerve
b. Trigeminal Nerve
e. Oculomotor nerve
c. Optic Nerve
193.Unusually violent and flinging motions of the limbs:
a. Chorea
d. spasticity
b. Dystonia
e. athetosis
c. ballisimus
194.The ligament, in company with the Supraspinatus muscle, prevents the downward dislocation of the humeral head:
a. Glenohumeral
d. Biceps
b. Coraco acromial
e. Coracohumeral
c. Coracoclavicular
195.When developing a treatment program, the caregiver
a. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function.
b. Establishes the functional diagnosis and outcome goals
c. Prepares a written home program for the client and family member
d. Evaluates the patients response to treatment determines progress towards functional outcomes.
e. Gathers date and information for documentation
196.The kinetic variable that reflects the rate of work performed at a given point.
a. Torque
d. Energy
b. Velocity
e. Power
c. Strength
197.Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in this plane.
a. Transagittal
d. Transverse
b. Horizontal
e. Frontal
c. Sagittal

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198.The following are determinance of gait, EXCEPT:

a. Knee flexion in stance
d. Pelvic rotation
b. Trendelenburg
e. knee, ankle and foot rotation
c. Medial displacement of the pelvis
199.After transverse rectus abdominals myocutaneous flap procedure, the following techniques may be used to reduce stress
on the sutures of the abdominal wound closure EXCEPT:
a. Teach log-rolling techniques for moving safely in bed without disrupting the sutures
b. Positioning the bed at a 90-degree angle, patient lying on the uninvolved side in a fetal position.
c. Lifting and sit-ups are not permitted until a 6 weeks after surgery
d. Exercises designed for co-contraction of the oblique, transversus abdominis and multifidus muscles for optimal
trunk strengthening
e. Avoid Valsalva maneuver by exhaling during physical exertion
200.Occupies an extensive area n the medial aspect of the hemisphere, this lobe of the lateral surface of the hemisphere is
caudal to an arbitrary line drawn from the parieto-occipital fissures to the pre-occipital notch and
a. Temporal
d. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
e. Occipital lobe
c. Insular lobe

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