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001a REFRESHER

PLUMBING ARITHMETIC
ELEMENTS

ENGR. ROEL A. ABAO


1. For any two triangles, if an angle of one triangles is
congruent to an angle of the other and if the two sides
of one triangle are proportional to two sides of the
other, they are what kind of triangles?

a. Complementary
b. Supplementary
c. Similar
d. Dissimilar
1. For any two triangles, if an angle of one triangles is
congruent to an angle of the other and if the two sides
of one triangle are proportional to two sides of the
other, they are what kind of triangles?

a. Complementary
b. Supplementary
c. Similar
d. Dissimilar
2. An angle inscribe in a semi-circle is always?

a. Unaligned
b. More than 90 deg.
c. Less than 90 deg.
d. 90 deg.
2. An angle inscribe in a semi-circle is always?

a. Unaligned
b. More than 90 deg.
c. Less than 90 deg.
d. 90 deg.
3. A factor repeated to produce a power is?

a. Numerator
b. Square
c. Quotient
d. Root
3. A factor repeated to produce a power is?

a. Numerator
b. Square
c. Quotient
d. Root
4. A polygon with ten side is?

a. Dodecagon
b. Undecagon
c. Decagon
d. Tendicagon
4. A polygon with ten side is?

a. Dodecagon
b. Undecagon
c. Decagon
d. Tendicagon
5. Two angles having the same vertex and the side
of one is the prolongation of the side of the other
is?

a. Acute angle
b. Scalene angle
c. Obtuse angle
d. Vertical angle
5. Two angles having the same vertex and the side
of one is the prolongation of the side of the other
is?

a. Acute angle
b. Scalene angle
c. Obtuse angle
d. Vertical angle
6. The volume of the cube is equal to the cube of
the measure of its?

a. Angle
b. Corner
c. Edge
d. Diagonal
6. The volume of the cube is equal to the cube of
the measure of its?

a. Angle
b. Corner
c. Edge
d. Diagonal
7. If each two lines is perpendicular to the same
line, then the lines are?

a. Perpendicular
b. Parallel
c. Tangent
d. Converging
7. If each two lines is perpendicular to the same
line, then the lines are?

a. Perpendicular
b. Parallel
c. Tangent
d. Converging
8. Is a branch of mathematics dealing with
integers and more generally, numeral
computation?

a. Algebra
b. Trigonometry
c. Geometry
d. Arithmetic
8. Is a branch of mathematics dealing with
integers and more generally, numeral
computation?

a. Algebra
b. Trigonometry
c. Geometry
d. Arithmetic
9. The power to which a number is raised is
indicated by a small superior figure called?

a. Logarithm
b. Increment
c. Exponent
d. Mantissa
9. The power to which a number is raised is
indicated by a small superior figure called?

a. Logarithm
b. Increment
c. Exponent
d. Mantissa
10. A number that be exactly divided by two is?

a. Real
b. Odd
c. Integer
d. Even
10. A number that be exactly divided by two is?

a. Real
b. Odd
c. Integer
d. Even
11. A space that is devoid of matter and which the
pressure is zero?

a. Block hole
b. Outer space
c. Vacuum
d. Inner space
11. A space that is devoid of matter and which the
pressure is zero?

a. Block hole
b. Outer space
c. Vacuum
d. Inner space
12. Decrease in the value of a physical property
due to the passage of time?

a. Inflation
b. Depletion
c. Recession
d. Depreciation
12. Decrease in the value of a physical property
due to the passage of time?

a. Inflation
b. Depletion
c. Recession
d. Depreciation
13. We may classify an interest rate which
specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal
for one year as?

a. Nominal rate
b. Rate of return
c. Exact interest rate
d. Effective rate
13. We may classify an interest rate which
specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal
for one year as?

a. Nominal rate
b. Rate of return
c. Exact interest rate
d. Effective rate
14. The ratio of the interest payment to the
principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal?

a. Interest
b. Interest rate
c. Investment
d. Rate
14. The ratio of the interest payment to the
principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal?

a. Interest
b. Interest rate
c. Investment
d. Rate
15. Additional information of prospective bidders
on contract documents issued prior to bidding
date?

a. Depict
b. Escalate
c. Assessment
d. Bid bulletin
15. Additional information of prospective bidders
on contract documents issued prior to bidding
date?

a. Depict
b. Escalate
c. Assessment
d. Bid bulletin
16. The acceleration is ________ the mass of the
object.

a. Directly proportional to
b. Inversely proportional to
c. Directly proportional to the square of
d. Inversely proportional to the square of
16. The acceleration is ________ the mass of the
object.

a. Directly proportional to
b. Inversely proportional to
c. Directly proportional to the square of
d. Inversely proportional to the square of
FORCE = MASS x ACCELERATION
17. Reduction in the level of national income and
output usually accompanied by the fall in the
general price level?

a. Devaluation
b. Deflation
c. Inflation
d. Depreciation
17. Reduction in the level of national income and
output usually accompanied by the fall in the
general price level?

a. Devaluation
b. Deflation
c. Inflation
d. Depreciation
18. It is a series of equal payment occuring at
equal interval of time?

a. Annuity
b. Debt
c. Amortization
d. Deposit
18. It is a series of equal payment occuring at
equal interval of time?

a. Annuity
b. Debt
c. Amortization
d. Deposit
19. The place where buyers and sellers come
together?

a. Market
b. Business
c. Recreation center
d. Buy and sell section
19. The place where buyers and sellers come
together?

a. Market
b. Business
c. Recreation center
d. Buy and sell section
20. A market whereby there is only one buyer of
an item for which there are no goods substitute?

a. Monopsony
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Oligopsony
20. A market whereby there is only one buyer of
an item for which there are no goods substitute?

a. Monopsony
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Oligopsony
21. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal
interval of time where the first payment is made after
several periods, after the beginning of the payment?

a. Perpetuity
b. Ordinary annuity
c. Annuity due
d. Deferred annuity
21. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal
interval of time where the first payment is made after
several periods, after the beginning of the payment?

a. Perpetuity
b. Ordinary annuity
c. Annuity due
d. Deferred annuity
22. The total income equal the total operating
cost?

a. Balance sheet
b. In place value
c. Check and balance
d. Breakeven no gain loss
22. The total income equal the total operating
cost?

a. Balance sheet
b. In place value
c. Check and balance
d. Breakeven no gain loss
23. Kind of obligation which has no condition
attached.

a. Analytic
b. Pure
c. Gratuitous
d. Private
23. Kind of obligation which has no condition
attached.

a. Analytic
b. Pure
c. Gratuitous
d. Private
24. Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct
material costs of all materials that go into production.
The sum of these two direct cost is known as:

a. GS and A expenses
b. Operating and Maintenance cost
c. Prime cost
d. O and M cost
24. Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct
material costs of all materials that go into production.
The sum of these two direct cost is known as:

a. GS and A expenses
b. Operating and Maintenance cost
c. Prime cost
d. O and M cost
25. An index of short term paying ability is
called?

a. Receivable turn over


b. Profit margin ratio
c. Current ratio
d. Acid-test ratio
25. An index of short term paying ability is
called?

a. Receivable turn over


b. Profit margin ratio
c. Current ratio
d. Acid-test ratio
26. An artificial expenses that spreads purchase
price of an asset or another property over number
of years.

a. Depreciation
b. Sinking fund
c. Amnesty
d. Bond
26. An artificial expenses that spreads purchase
price of an asset or another property over number
of years.

a. Depreciation
b. Sinking fund
c. Amnesty
d. Bond
27. Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

a. Market value
b. Fair value
c. Salvage value
d. Book value
27. Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

a. Market value
b. Fair value
c. Salvage value
d. Book value
28. Consist of the actual counting or determination
of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as
of a given date.

a. Physical inventory
b. Material update
c. Technological assessment
d. Material count
28. Consist of the actual counting or determination
of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as
of a given date.

a. Physical inventory
b. Material update
c. Technological assessment
d. Material count
29. A series of uniform accounts over a period of
time.

a. Depreciation
b. Annuity
c. Perpetuity
d. Inflation
29. A series of uniform accounts over a period of
time.

a. Depreciation
b. Annuity
c. Perpetuity
d. Inflation
30. The quantity of a certain commodity that is
offered for sale at a certain price at a given place
and time.

a. Demand
b. Supply
c. Stocks
d. Goods
30. The quantity of a certain commodity that is
offered for sale at a certain price at a given place
and time.

a. Demand
b. Supply
c. Stocks
d. Goods
31. Work-in process is classified as,

a. An asset
b. A liability
c. An expenses
d. An owners equity
31. Work-in process is classified as,

a. An asset
b. A liability
c. An expenses
d. An owners equity
32. What is the highest position in the
corporation?

a. President
b. Board of Directors
c. Chairman of the Board
d. Stockholders
32. What is the highest position in the
corporation?

a. President
b. Board of Directors
c. Chairman of the Board
d. Stockholders
33. Type of ownership in business here individuals
exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest.

a. Equitable
b. Public
c. Private
d. Pure
33. Type of ownership in business here individuals
exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest.

a. Equitable
b. Public
c. Private
d. Pure
34. Decrease in the value of a physical property
due to the passage of time.

a. Inflation
b. Depletion
c. Recession
d. Depreciation
34. Decrease in the value of a physical property
due to the passage of time.

a. Inflation
b. Depletion
c. Recession
d. Depreciation
35. An association of two or more individuals for
the purpose of operating a business as co-owners
for profit,

a. Sole proprietorship
b. Company
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
35. An association of two or more individuals for
the purpose of operating a business as co-owners
for profit,

a. Sole proprietorship
b. Company
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
36. Refers to the vertical speed at which the force
of air resistance is just sufficient to the balance the
bodys weight.

a. Gravitational acceleration
b. Terminal speed
c. Drag
d. Lift
36. Refers to the vertical speed at which the force
of air resistance is just sufficient to the balance the
bodys weight.

a. Gravitational acceleration
b. Terminal speed
c. Drag
d. Lift
37. It is defined to the capacity of a commodity to
satisfy human want.

a. Discount
b. Luxury
c. Necessity
d. Utility
37. It is defined to the capacity of a commodity to
satisfy human want.

a. Discount
b. Luxury
c. Necessity
d. Utility
38. It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to
willing seller for a property where each has equal
advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Book value
d. Salvage value
38. It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to
willing seller for a property where each has equal
advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Book value
d. Salvage value
39. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or
service is supplied by a number of vendor by a number
of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional
vendors entering the market.

a. Perfect competition
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Elastic demand
39. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or
service is supplied by a number of vendor by a number
of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional
vendors entering the market.

a. Perfect competition
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Elastic demand
40. These are products or services that are desired by
human and will be purchase if money is available after
the required necessities have been obtain,

a. Utilities
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Product goods and services
40. These are products or services that are desired by
human and will be purchase if money is available after
the required necessities have been obtain,

a. Utilities
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Product goods and services
41. These are products or services that are required to
support human life and activities that will be purchased
in somewhat the same quantity even though the price
varies considerably,

a. Utilities
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Product goods and services
41. These are products or services that are required to
support human life and activities that will be purchased
in somewhat the same quantity even though the price
varies considerably,

a. Utilities
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Product goods and services
42. A condition where only few individuals
produce a certain product and that any action of
one will lead to almost the same action of others.

a. Oligopoly
b. Semi-monopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Perfect competition
42. A condition where only few individuals
produce a certain product and that any action of
one will lead to almost the same action of others.

a. Oligopoly
b. Semi-monopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Perfect competition
43. Grand total of the assets and operational
capability of a corporation.

a. Authorized capital
b. Investment
c. Subscribed capital
d. Money market
43. Grand total of the assets and operational
capability of a corporation.

a. Authorized capital
b. Investment
c. Subscribed capital
d. Money market
44. The worth of the property equals to the
original cost less depreciation.

a. Scrap value
b. Face value
c. Market value
d. Book value
44. The worth of the property equals to the
original cost less depreciation.

a. Scrap value
b. Face value
c. Market value
d. Book value
45. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

a. Discount
b. Credit
c. Interest
d. Profit
45. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

a. Discount
b. Credit
c. Interest
d. Profit
46. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that
can be converted quickly into cash, such as
accounts receivable and merchandise are called

a. Total assets
b. Fixed assets
c. Current assets
d. None of the above
46. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that
can be converted quickly into cash, such as
accounts receivable and merchandise are called

a. Total assets
b. Fixed assets
c. Current assets
d. None of the above
47. The length of time which the property may be
operated at a profit

a. Physical life
b. Economic life
c. Operating life
d. All of the above
47. The length of time which the property may be
operated at a profit

a. Physical life
b. Economic life
c. Operating life
d. All of the above
48. The provision in the contract that indicates the
possible adjustment of material cost and labor
cost.

a. Secondary clause
b. Escalatory clause
c. Contingency clause
d. Main clause
48. The provision in the contract that indicates the
possible adjustment of material cost and labor
cost.

a. Secondary clause
b. Escalatory clause
c. Contingency clause
d. Main clause
49. The present worth of all depreciation over the
economic life of the item is called

a. Book value
b. Capital recovery
c. Depreciation recovery
d. Sinking fund
49. The present worth of all depreciation over the
economic life of the item is called

a. Book value
b. Capital recovery
c. Depreciation recovery
d. Sinking fund
50. Gross profit, sale less cost of good sold, as a
percentage of sales is called

a. Profit margin
b. Gross margin
c. Net income
d. Rate of return
50. Gross profit, sale less cost of good sold, as a
percentage of sales is called

a. Profit margin
b. Gross margin
c. Net income
d. Rate of return
51. Worth of the property as shown in the
accounting records of an enterprise,

a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Salvage value
d. Book value
51. Worth of the property as shown in the
accounting records of an enterprise,

a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Salvage value
d. Book value
52. Those funds that are required to make the
enterprise or project a going concern,

a. Initial investments
b. Current accounts
c. Working capital
d. Subscribed capital
52. Those funds that are required to make the
enterprise or project a going concern,

a. Initial investments
b. Current accounts
c. Working capital
d. Subscribed capital
53. A market situation where there is one seller
with many buyer,

a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Oligopoly
d. Oligopsony
53. A market situation where there is one seller
with many buyer,

a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Oligopoly
d. Oligopsony
54. A market situation where there is one seller
and one buyer,

a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Bilateral monopoly
d. Bilateral monopsony
54. A market situation where there is one seller
and one buyer,

a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Bilateral monopoly
d. Bilateral monopsony
55. A market situation where there are few sellers
and few buyers,

a. Oligopoly
b. Oligopsony
c. Bilateral oligopoly
d. Bilateral Oligopsony
55. A market situation where there are few sellers
and few buyers,

a. Oligopoly
b. Oligopsony
c. Bilateral oligopoly
d. Bilateral Oligopsony
56. A market situation where there are only two
buyers with many sellers,

a. Duopoly
b. Oligopoly
c. Duopsony
d. Oligopsony
56. A market situation where there are only two
buyers with many sellers,

a. Duopoly
b. Oligopoly
c. Duopsony
d. Oligopsony
57. Define as the future value minus the present
value.

a. Interest
b. Rate of return
c. Discount
d. Capital
57. Define as the future value minus the present
value.

a. Interest
b. Rate of return
c. Discount
d. Capital
58. If an object is thrown vertically upward, its
acceleration.
a. Is smaller than that of the object thrown vertically
downward
b. Is equal to that of an object thrown vertically downward
c. Greater than that of the object thrown vertically downward
d. Zero until the object reaches maximum point
58. If an object is thrown vertically upward, its
acceleration.
a. Is smaller than that of the object thrown vertically
downward
b. Is equal to that of an object thrown vertically downward
c. Greater than that of the object thrown vertically downward
d. Zero until the object reaches maximum point
59. Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known
as,

a. Book value
b. Salvage value
c. Replacement value
d. Future value
59. Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known
as,

a. Book value
b. Salvage value
c. Replacement value
d. Future value
60. A type of annuity where the payments are
made at the end of payment period starting from
the first period,

a. Ordinary annuity
b. Annuity due
c. Deferred annuity
d. Perpetuity
60. A type of annuity where the payments are
made at the end of payment period starting from
the first period,

a. Ordinary annuity
b. Annuity due
c. Deferred annuity
d. Perpetuity
61. Bond to which are attached coupons indicating
the interest due and the date when such interest is
to be paid,

a. Registered bond
b. Coupon bond
c. Mortgage bond
d. Collateral trust bond
61. Bond to which are attached coupons indicating
the interest due and the date when such interest is
to be paid,

a. Registered bond
b. Coupon bond
c. Mortgage bond
d. Collateral trust bond
62. When free competition exists the price of a
product will be that value where supply is equal to
the demand

a. Law of diminishing return


b. Law of supply
c. Law of demand
d. Law of supply and demand
62. When free competition exists the price of a
product will be that value where supply is equal to
the demand

a. Law of diminishing return


b. Law of supply
c. Law of demand
d. Law of supply and demand
63. The ratio of the net income to the owners
equity is known as,

a. Price-earning ratio
b. Profit margin ratio
c. Return of investment
d. Gross margin
63. The ratio of the net income to the owners
equity is known as,

a. Price-earning ratio
b. Profit margin ratio
c. Return of investment
d. Gross margin
64. Capitalized cost of any property is equal to
the,

a. Annual cost
b. First cost + interest of the first cost
c. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
d. First cost + salvage value
64. Capitalized cost of any property is equal to
the,

a. Annual cost
b. First cost + interest of the first cost
c. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
d. First cost + salvage value
65. Which of the following depreciation methods
cannot have a salvage value of zero?

a. Declining balance method


b. Sinking fund method
c. Straight line method
d. SYD method
65. Which of the following depreciation methods
cannot have a salvage value of zero?

a. Declining balance method


b. Sinking fund method
c. Straight line method
d. SYD method
66. The lessening of value of an asset due to the
decrease in the quantity available preferring to the
natural resources?

a. Depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Inflation
d. Incremental cost
66. The lessening of value of an asset due to the
decrease in the quantity available preferring to the
natural resources?

a. Depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Inflation
d. Incremental cost
67. An increase in the value of a capital asset is
called

a. Profit
b. Capital gain
c. Capital expenditure
d. Capital stock
67. An increase in the value of a capital asset is
called

a. Profit
b. Capital gain
c. Capital expenditure
d. Capital stock
68. Lands, buildings, plant and machinery are
example of

a. Current assets
b. Trade investments
c. Fixed assets
d. Intangible assets
68. Lands, buildings, plant and machinery are
example of

a. Current assets
b. Trade investments
c. Fixed assets
d. Intangible assets
69. An angle that measures from the horizontal
upward to an object is called

a. Right angle
b. Acute angle
c. Angle of elevation
d. Angle of depression
69. An angle that measures from the horizontal
upward to an object is called

a. Right angle
b. Acute angle
c. Angle of elevation
d. Angle of depression
70. Any number multiplied by _____ equals
unity?

a. Infinity
b. Itself
c. Its reciprocal
d. Zero
e. None of the above
70. Any number multiplied by _____ equals
unity?

a. Infinity
b. Itself
c. Its reciprocal
d. Zero
e. None of the above
71. A polygon with 15 sides is called

a. Pentagon
b. Dodecagon
c. Pentadecagon
d. nonagon
71. A polygon with 15 sides is called

a. Pentagon
b. Dodecagon
c. Pentadecagon
d. nonagon
72. The chord passing through the focus of the
parabola and perpendicular to its axis is term as:

a. Directrix
b. Translated axis
c. Latus rectum
d. Asymptotes
72. The chord passing through the focus of the
parabola and perpendicular to its axis is term as:

a. Directrix
b. Translated axis
c. Latus rectum
d. Asymptotes
73. For ordinary annuity, what is the value for
periodic payment A?

a. Fi / (1+ i)^ n - 1
b. Pi / (1+ i)^ n - 1
c. Fi / (1+ n)^ i - 1
d. Fi / 1+ (1+ i)^ n
73. For ordinary annuity, what is the value for
periodic payment A?

a. Fi / (1+ i)^ n - 1
b. Pi / (1+ i)^ n - 1
c. Fi / (1+ n)^ i - 1
d. Fi / 1+ (1+ i)^ n
74. In a regular polygon, the perpendicular line
drawn from the center of the inscribed circle to
any one of the sides is called:

a. Radius
b. Altitude
c. Median
d. Apothem
74. In a regular polygon, the perpendicular line
drawn from the center of the inscribed circle to
any one of the sides is called:

a. Radius
b. Altitude
c. Median
d. Apothem
75. For the flush tank type water closet, what is
the main purpose of the tank?

a. Serves as a back rest


b. To give water surge
c. To hold a supply of water
d. For rim support
75. For the flush tank type water closet, what is
the main purpose of the tank?

a. Serves as a back rest


b. To give water surge
c. To hold a supply of water
d. For rim support
76. The section of the sphere cut by a plane
through its center is termed as:

a. Small circle
b. Semi-circle
c. Big circle
d. Great circle
76. The section of the sphere cut by a plane
through its center is termed as:

a. Small circle
b. Semi-circle
c. Big circle
d. Great circle
77. The statement a+b = b+a is a,

a. Associative law of addition


b. Commutative law of addition
c. Associative law of multiplication
d. Commutative law of multiplication
77. The statement a+b = b+a is a,

a. Associative law of addition


b. Commutative law of addition
c. Associative law of multiplication
d. Commutative law of multiplication
78. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

a. Wednesday
b. Saturday
c. Sunday
d. Thursday
78. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

a. Wednesday
b. Saturday
c. Sunday
d. Thursday
79. If two bodies of different masses, initially at
rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same
time, then what will be the same in both bodies?

a. Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. Kinetic energy
d. Momentum
79. If two bodies of different masses, initially at
rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same
time, then what will be the same in both bodies?

a. Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. Kinetic energy
d. Momentum
80. What is so very special about the number
8549176320?

a. Its a cyclic number


b. Its a Fibonacci series
c. It is the largest number yet enumerated orally
d. It contains digits in an alphabetical order
80. What is so very special about the number
8549176320?

a. Its a cyclic number


b. Its a Fibonacci series
c. It is the largest number yet enumerated orally
d. It contains digits in an alphabetical order
81. A line segment joining two points on a circle is
called:

a. Arc
b. Tangent
c. Sector
d. Chord
81. A line segment joining two points on a circle is
called:

a. Arc
b. Tangent
c. Sector
d. Chord
82. The absorption of ink by blotting paper
involves which phenomenon?

a. Siphon action
b. Diffusion of ink through the blotting
c. Viscosity of ink
d. Capillary action phenomenon
82. The absorption of ink by blotting paper
involves which phenomenon?

a. Siphon action
b. Diffusion of ink through the blotting
c. Viscosity of ink
d. Capillary action phenomenon
83. Let a thin capillary tube be replaced with
another tube of insufficient length then, what will
happen to water?

a. Depressed
b. will overflow
c. Change its meniscus
d. Will not rise
83. Let a thin capillary tube be replaced with
another tube of insufficient length then, what will
happen to water?

a. Depressed
b. will overflow
c. Change its meniscus
d. Will not rise
84. Why metals are good conductors of
electricity?

a. They contain free electrons


b. The atoms are lightly packed
c. They have high melting point
d. All of the above
84. Why metals are good conductors of
electricity?

a. They contain free electrons


b. The atoms are lightly packed
c. They have high melting point
d. All of the above
85. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the
day of the week on 8th Feb, 2004?

a. Tuesday
b. Monday
c. Sunday
d. Wednesday
85. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the
day of the week on 8th Feb, 2004?

a. Tuesday
b. Monday
c. Sunday
d. Wednesday
86. A 5-pointed star is also known as:

a. Pentagon
b. Pentagram
c. Pentatron
d. Quintagon
86. A 5-pointed star is also known as:

a. Pentagon
b. Pentagram
c. Pentatron
d. Quintagon
87. The normal to a given plane is:

a. Lying on the plane


b. Coplanar
c. Perpendicular to the plane
d. Parallel to the plane
87. The normal to a given plane is:

a. Lying on the plane


b. Coplanar
c. Perpendicular to the plane
d. Parallel to the plane
88. A plane section cut from a right circular cone
by a plane perpendicular to the base of the cone is:

a. Parabola
b. Circle
c. Hyperbola
d. Ellipse
88. A plane section cut from a right circular cone
by a plane perpendicular to the base of the cone is:

a. Parabola
b. Circle
c. Hyperbola
d. Ellipse
89. Which of the following statements is true?
a. All squares are rectangles and rhombuses.
b. All rectangles are rhombuses, but not all rhombuses are
rectangles.
c. All squares are parallelograms, but not all squares are
rectangles.
d. All rhombuses are parallelograms and all parallelogram are
rhombuses.
89. Which of the following statements is true?
a. All squares are rectangles and rhombuses.
b. All rectangles are rhombuses, but not all rhombuses are
rectangles.
c. All squares are parallelograms, but not all squares are
rectangles.
d. All rhombuses are parallelograms and all parallelogram are
rhombuses.
90. When a solid (ice and snow) changes into
water vapor (gas) without moving through the
liquid phase, the process is called

a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Deposition
d. Sublimation
90. When a solid (ice and snow) changes into
water vapor (gas) without moving through the
liquid phase, the process is called

a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Deposition
d. Sublimation
91. Its is amount of energy needed to cool or heat
1 lb of water by one degree F.

a. Celsius
b. Rankine
c. Btu
d. Calories
91. Its is amount of energy needed to cool or heat
1 lb of water by one degree F.

a. Celsius
b. Rankine
c. Btu
d. Calories
92. One liter per second is equal to _____ gpm?

a. 0.278 gpm
b. 15.85 gpm
c. 7.48 gpm
d. 264 gpm
92. One liter per second is equal to _____ gpm?

a. 0.278 gpm
b. 15.85 gpm
c. 7.48 gpm
d. 264 gpm
93. One btu/hr is equal to ______ kJ/hr?

a. 3.96 kJ/hr
b. 1.055 kJ/hr
c. 4.40 kJ/hr
d. 3413 kJ/hr
93. One btu/hr is equal to ______ kJ/hr?

a. 3.96 kJ/hr
b. 1.055 kJ/hr
c. 4.40 kJ/hr
d. 3413 kJ/hr
94. 1 atm is equal to _____?
a. 406.8 in. of water
b. 76 cm Hg
c. 101.3 KPa
d. 14.7 psi
e. All of the above
94. 1 atm is equal to _____?
a. 406.8 in. of water
b. 76 cm Hg
c. 101.3 KPa
d. 14.7 psi
e. All of the above
95. 1 horsepower is equal to ____ ?

a. 2545 btu/hr
b. 550 ft-lb/s
c. 178.1 cal/s
d. 746 watts
e. All of the above
95. 1 horsepower is equal to ____ ?

a. 2545 btu/hr
b. 550 ft-lb/s
c. 178.1 cal/s
d. 746 watts
e. All of the above
96. One CMH is equal to _____ ?

a. 0.588 cfm
b. 4.4 gpm
c. 0.278 lps
d. All of the above
96. One CMH is equal to _____ ?

a. 0.588 cfm
b. 4.4 gpm
c. 0.278 lps
d. All of the above
97. One inch water column at 4 deg. C is equal
______?

a. 0.036 psi
b. 250 Pa
c. 1.868 Torr
d. All of the above
97. One inch water column at 4 deg. C is equal
______?

a. 0.036 psi
b. 250 Pa
c. 1.868 Torr
d. All of the above
98. One kilowatt is equal to ______?

a. 1.34 hp
b. 737.6 ft-lb/s
c. 238.9 cal/s
d. 3413 btu/hr
e. All of the above
98. One kilowatt is equal to ______?

a. 1.34 hp
b. 737.6 ft-lb/s
c. 238.9 cal/s
d. 3413 btu/hr
e. All of the above
99. One m3 is equal to ______?

a. 35.3 ft3
b. 264.04 gal
c. 9.81 kPa
d. 1000 li
e. All of the above
99. One m3 is equal to ______?

a. 35.3 ft3
b. 264.04 gal
c. 9.81 kPa
d. 1000 li
e. All of the above
100. One gpm is equal to ______?

a. 0.063 lps
b. 449 cfs
c. 0.2272 cmh
d. 1440 gpd
e. All of the above
100. One gpm is equal to ______?

a. 0.063 lps
b. 449 cfs
c. 0.2272 cmh
d. 1440 gpd
e. All of the above
101. Brake horsepower is:

a. The power delivered by the motor to the pump.


b. The power delivered by the pump.
c. Always greater than the motor horsepower.
d. Always less than the motor horsepower.
101. Brake horsepower is:

a. The power delivered by the motor to the pump.


b. The power delivered by the pump.
c. Always greater than the motor horsepower.
d. Always less than the motor horsepower.
102. What is the term for the combined efficiency
of a pump and motor that is obtained by
multiplying the pump efficiency by the motor
efficiency?

a. Total system efficiency


b. Well efficiency
c. Wire-to-water efficiency
d. Motor-to-pipe efficiency
102. What is the term for the combined efficiency
of a pump and motor that is obtained by
multiplying the pump efficiency by the motor
efficiency?

a. Total system efficiency


b. Well efficiency
c. Wire-to-water efficiency
d. Motor-to-pipe efficiency
103. Which of the following is the standard
acceleration due to gravity in the English unit?
a. 981 fps^2
b. 32.2 fps^2
c. 9.81 fps^2
d. 32.2 ips^2
103. Which of the following is the standard
acceleration due to gravity in the English unit?
a. 981 fps^2
b. 32.2 fps^2
c. 9.81 fps^2
d. 32.2 ips^2
104. What is the value of 1 radian in degrees?

a. 57.3 deg.
b. 89.55 deg.
c. 60.3 deg.
d. All of the above
104. What is the value of 1 radian in degrees?

a. 57.3 deg.
b. 89.55 deg.
c. 60.3 deg.
d. All of the above
105. How many degrees are 4800 mils?

a. 180 deg.
b. 270 deg.
c. 90 deg.
d. 360 deg.
105. How many degrees are 4800 mils?

a. 180 deg.
b. 270 deg.
c. 90 deg.
d. 360 deg.
106. The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 gram per
gram-atom. What is the mass of a hydrogen atom?

a. 1.66 x 10^-24 g/atom


b. 6.02 x 10^-23 g/atom
c. 1 g/atom
d. The mass is too small to calculate
106. The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 gram per
gram-atom. What is the mass of a hydrogen atom?

a. 1.66 x 10^-24 g/atom


b. 6.02 x 10^-23 g/atom
c. 1 g/atom
d. The mass is too small to calculate
107. The equation y = a1 + a2x is an algebraic
expression for which of the following choices?
a. Straight line
b. Cosine expansion series
c. Circle in polar form
d. Projectile motion
107. The equation y = a1 + a2x is an algebraic
expression for which of the following choices?
a. Straight line
b. Cosine expansion series
c. Circle in polar form
d. Projectile motion
108. One million gallons per day (mgd) is equal to
______?
a. 684.04 kPa
b. 694 gpm
c. 1,000,000 li
d. All of the above
108. One million gallons per day (mgd) is equal to
______?
a. 684.04 kPa
b. 694 gpm
c. 1,000,000 li
d. All of the above
109. One million gallons per day (mgd) is equal to
______?
a. 1.547 cfs
b. 449 gpm
c. 3.785 li
d. All of the above
109. One million gallons per day (mgd) is equal to
______?
a. 1.547 cfs
b. 449 gpm
c. 3.785 li
d. All of the above
110. One meter is equal to ______?

a. 1.094 yard
b. 39.37 in
c. 3.28 ft
d. All of the above
110. One meter is equal to ______?

a. 1.094 yard
b. 39.37 in
c. 3.28 ft
d. All of the above
111. One quarts is equal to ______?

a. 0.946 li
b. 449 cfs
c. 0.2272 cmh
d. All of the above
111. One quarts is equal to ______?

a. 0.946 li
b. 449 cfs
c. 0.2272 cmh
d. All of the above
112. Determine the value of each interior angle of
a regular pentagon.
a. 108 deg.
b. 120 deg.
c. 180 deg.
d. 90 deg.
112. Determine the value of each interior angle of
a regular pentagon.
a. 108 deg.
b. 120 deg.
c. 180 deg.
d. 90 deg.
113. Determine the first derivative with respect to
x of the function: g(x) = 5 sq. rt. Of 10 35.
a. 0
b. 0.75
c. 35
d. 5
113. Determine the first derivative with respect to
x of the function: g(x) = 5 sq. rt. Of 10 35.
a. 0
b. 0.75
c. 35
d. 5
114. Find the root mean square of 11,23 and 35.

a. 25
b. 27
c. 26
d. 24
114. Find the root mean square of 11,23 and 35.

a. 25
b. 27
c. 26
d. 24
115. Think of a number. Double the number.
Subtract 6 from the result and divide the answer
by 2. The quotient will be 20. what is the number
you think?
a. 12
b. 20
c. 23
d. 32
115. Think of a number. Double the number.
Subtract 6 from the result and divide the answer
by 2. The quotient will be 20. what is the number
you think?
a. 12
b. 20
c. 23
d. 32
116. How many permutation can be made out of
the word ENGINEERING?
a. 277,200
b. 272,700
c. 200,277
d. 227,700
116. How many permutation can be made out of
the word ENGINEERING?
a. 277,200
b. 272,700
c. 200,277
d. 227,700
117. What is the acid test ratio?

a. The ratio of owners equity to the current liabilities.


b. The ratio of all assets to actual current liabilities.
c. The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to the
total current liabilities.
d. The ratio of gross margin to operating, sales, administrative
expenses.
117. What is the acid test ratio?

a. The ratio of owners equity to the current liabilities.


b. The ratio of all assets to actual current liabilities.
c. The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to the
total current liabilities.
d. The ratio of gross margin to operating, sales, administrative
expenses.
118. How do call an energy required to move 1
coulomb of charge through an element?
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Power
d. Resonance
118. How do call an energy required to move 1
coulomb of charge through an element?
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Power
d. Resonance
119. This is a number sequence where the
succeeding term is obtained by adding the last pair
of preceding terms such as sequence
(1,1,2,3,5,8) how do you call this number
sequence?
a. Eulers number
b. Fermat number
c. Fibonacci number
d. Darshos number
119. This is a number sequence where the
succeeding term is obtained by adding the last pair
of preceding terms such as sequence
(1,1,2,3,5,8) how do you call this number
sequence?
a. Eulers number
b. Fermat number
c. Fibonacci number
d. Darshos number
120. If the roots of an equation are zero, then, how
do you classify the solutions?
a. Extraneous solutions
b. Trivial solutions
c. Conditional solutions
d. Darshos solutions
120. If the roots of an equation are zero, then, how
do you classify the solutions?
a. Extraneous solutions
b. Trivial solutions
c. Conditional solutions
d. Darshos solutions
121. In electricity, how do you call the rate of
charge flow?
a. Potential difference
b. Current
c. Voltage
d. Power
121. In electricity, how do you call the rate of
charge flow?
a. Potential difference
b. Current
c. Voltage
d. Power
122. This law in electrical circuits states, The
algebraic sum of currents entering a node (or a
closed boundary) is zero. How do you call this
law?
a. Kirchhoffs current law
b. Ohms law
c. Kirchhoffs voltage law
d. Darshos law
122. This law in electrical circuits states, The
algebraic sum of currents entering a node (or a
closed boundary) is zero. How do you call this
law?
a. Kirchhoffs current law
b. Ohms law
c. Kirchhoffs voltage law
d. Darshos law
123. This law in electrical circuits states, The
algebraic sum of all voltages around a closed path
(or loop) is zero. How do you call this law?

a. Kirchoffs current law


b. Ohms law
c. Kirchoffs voltage law
d. Darshos law
123. This law in electrical circuits states, The
algebraic sum of all voltages around a closed path
(or loop) is zero. How do you call this law?

a. Kirchoffs current law


b. Ohms law
c. Kirchoffs voltage law
d. Darshos law
124. In electrical, what is the SI unit of
conductance?
a. Ohm
b. Siemens
c. Ampere
d. Darshos siemens
124. In electrical, what is the SI unit of
conductance?
a. Ohm
b. Siemens
c. Ampere
d. Darshos siemens
125. Which of the following is the equivalent of 1
ampere?
a. 1 coulomb per second
b. 1 joule per second
c. 1 darsho per second
d. 1 kJ per second
125. Which of the following is the equivalent of 1
ampere?
a. 1 coulomb per second
b. 1 joule per second
c. 1 darsho per second
d. 1 kJ per second
126. This is the process of expressing a
polynomial as the product of another polynomial
or monomial of lower degree. What is this
mathematical process?
a. Rationalization
b. Decomposition
c. Factoring
d. Darshoing
126. This is the process of expressing a
polynomial as the product of another polynomial
or monomial of lower degree. What is this
mathematical process?
a. Rationalization
b. Decomposition
c. Factoring
d. Darshoing
127. This is a point where the concavity of a curve
changes or when the slope of the curve is neither
increasing nor decreasing. What is this point
commonly called?
a. Maximum point
b. Minimum point
c. Point of inflection
d. Darshos point
127. This is a point where the concavity of a curve
changes or when the slope of the curve is neither
increasing nor decreasing. What is this point
commonly called?
a. Maximum point
b. Minimum point
c. Point of inflection
d. Darshos point
128. How do you call the axis of the hyperbola
that passes through the center, the foci and
vertices?
a. Transverse axis
b. Conjugate axis
c. Asymptote axis
d. Major axis
128. How do you call the axis of the hyperbola
that passes through the center, the foci and
vertices?
a. Transverse axis
b. Conjugate axis
c. Asymptote axis
d. Major axis
129. What is the number, which could not be
expressed as a quotient of two integers?
a. Natural
b. Rational
c. Irrational
d. Surd
129. What is the number, which could not be
expressed as a quotient of two integers?
a. Natural
b. Rational
c. Irrational
d. Surd
130. How do you call the opposite of the prefix
nano?
a. Peta
b. Tera
c. Giga
d. Gaga
130. How do you call the opposite of the prefix
nano?
a. Peta
b. Tera
c. Giga
d. Gaga
131. What do you a triangle having unequal sides?

a. Obtuse
b. Oblique
c. Scalene
d. Isosceles
131. What do you a triangle having unequal sides?

a. Obtuse
b. Oblique
c. Scalene
d. Isosceles
132. How do you call the distance of a point from
y-axis?
a. Abscissa
b. Ordinate
c. Coordinate
d. Polar distance
132. How do you call the distance of a point from
y-axis?
a. Abscissa
b. Ordinate
c. Coordinate
d. Polar distance
133. This is the measure of central tendency
defined as the most frequent score. How do you
call this measure of central tendency?

a. Median
b. Mode
c. Mean
d. Deviation
133. This is the measure of central tendency
defined as the most frequent score. How do you
call this measure of central tendency?

a. Median
b. Mode
c. Mean
d. Deviation
134. One mil is equal to ______?

a. .01 in
b. .001 in
c. .0001 in
d. .00001 in
134. One mil is equal to ______?

a. .01 in
b. .001 in
c. .0001 in
d. .00001 in
135. A polygon with 10 sides is said to be:

a. Dodecagon
b. Decagon
c. Decahadron
d. Dodecahadron
135. A polygon with 10 sides is said to be:

a. Dodecagon
b. Decagon
c. Decahadron
d. Dodecahadron
136. Any number expressed in place value
notation with the base 12 is known as:
a. Duodecimal
b. Deonite
c. Decile
d. Dedekind
136. Any number expressed in place value
notation with the base 12 is known as:
a. Duodecimal
b. Deonite
c. Decile
d. Dedekind
137. Another name for derivative is said to be:

a. Differential manifold
b. Partial derivative
c. Differential form
d. Differential coefficient
137. Another name for derivative is said to be:

a. Differential manifold
b. Partial derivative
c. Differential form
d. Differential coefficient
138. Another name for rhombus is said to be:

a. Dichotomy
b. Diamond
c. Bi-rectangular
d. Bi-sexual
138. Another name for rhombus is said to be:

a. Dichotomy
b. Diamond
c. Bi-rectangular
d. Bi-sexual
139. A prefix denoting a multiple of 10 times any
of the physical units of the system international.
a. Deka
b. Nano
c. Hecto
d. Exa
139. A prefix denoting a multiple of 10 times any
of the physical units of the system international.
a. Deka
b. Nano
c. Hecto
d. Exa
140. The father of plane geometry.

a. Euclid
b. Pythagoras
c. Aristotle
d. Galileo
140. The father of plane geometry.

a. Euclid
b. Pythagoras
c. Aristotle
d. Galileo
141. This is the case of a solution of a plane
triangle where the given data leads to two
solutions. How do you call this case?
a. Ambiguous case
b. Quadratic case
c. Extraneous case
d. Darshos case
141. This is the case of a solution of a plane
triangle where the given data leads to two
solutions. How do you call this case?
a. Ambiguous case
b. Quadratic case
c. Extraneous case
d. Darshos case
142. It is a series of equal payments occurring at
equal intervals of time where the first payment is
made after several periods, after the beginning of
the payment, how do you call this payment?
a. Deferred annuity
b. Ordinary annuity
c. Annuity due
d. Simple annuity
142. It is a series of equal payments occurring at
equal intervals of time where the first payment is
made after several periods, after the beginning of
the payment, how do you call this payment?
a. Deferred annuity
b. Ordinary annuity
c. Annuity due
d. Simple annuity
143. What do you think is the negotiation of wage
rates, conditions of employment ,etc. by
representatives of the labor force and
management?
a. Union trade
b. Union rally
c. Collective bargaining
d. Cooperative
143. What do you think is the negotiation of wage
rates, conditions of employment ,etc. by
representatives of the labor force and
management?
a. Union trade
b. Union rally
c. Collective bargaining
d. Cooperative
144. How do you call a type of bond where the
corporations owner name is recorded and the
interest is paid periodically to the owners with
their asking for it?
a. Registered bond
b. Preferred bond
c. Bail bond
d. Incorporators bond
144. How do you call a type of bond where the
corporations owner name is recorded and the
interest is paid periodically to the owners with
their asking for it?
a. Registered bond
b. Preferred bond
c. Bail bond
d. Incorporators bond
145. How do you call the integral of any quotient
whose numerator is the differential of the
denominator?

a. Co-logarithm
b. Logarithm
c. Product
d. Derivative
145. How do you call the integral of any quotient
whose numerator is the differential of the
denominator?

a. Co-logarithm
b. Logarithm
c. Product
d. Derivative
146. What is a regular polygon that has 27
diagonals?

a. Nonagon
b. Hexagon
c. Pentagon
d. Heptagon
146. What is a regular polygon that has 27
diagonals?

a. Nonagon
b. Hexagon
c. Pentagon
d. Heptagon
147. How do you call the formula used to compute
the value of n factorial, which is in symbolic
form(!), where n is large number?

a. Stirlings approximation
b. Matheson formula
c. Darshos formula
d. Diophantine formula
147. How do you call the formula used to compute
the value of n factorial, which is in symbolic
form(!), where n is large number?

a. Stirlings approximation
b. Matheson formula
c. Darshos formula
d. Diophantine formula
148. What is the reason why an ivory soap floats
in water?

a. All mater has mass.


b. The specific gravity of ivory soap is greater than of water.
c. The density of ivory soap is unity.
d. The specific gravity of ivory soap is less than of water.
148. What is the reason why an ivory soap floats
in water?

a. All mater has mass.


b. The specific gravity of ivory soap is greater than of water.
c. The density of ivory soap is unity.
d. The specific gravity of ivory soap is less than of water.
149. When two planes intersect with each other,
the amount of divergence between the two planes
is expressed by measuring the:

a. Reflex angle
b. Dihedral angle
c. Polyhedral angle
d. Plane angle
149. When two planes intersect with each other,
the amount of divergence between the two planes
is expressed by measuring the:

a. Reflex angle
b. Dihedral angle
c. Polyhedral angle
d. Plane angle
150. What do you think is the output or sales at
which is insufficient to equal operating cost?

a. Breakeven point
b. Depreciation
c. Investment
d. Cash flow
150. What do you think is the output or sales at
which is insufficient to equal operating cost?

a. Breakeven point
b. Depreciation
c. Investment
d. Cash flow
151. What is the estimate of assets net market
value at the end of its estimated life?

a. Book value
b. Depreciation
c. Salvage value
d. Cash flow
151. What is the estimate of assets net market
value at the end of its estimated life?

a. Book value
b. Depreciation
c. Salvage value
d. Cash flow
152. What do you think is the lessening of the
value of an asset due to the decrease in the
quantity available as a coal, oil and timber in
forests?
a. Depletion
b. Amortization
c. Depreciation
d. Investment
152. What do you think is the lessening of the
value of an asset due to the decrease in the
quantity available as a coal, oil and timber in
forests?
a. Depletion
b. Amortization
c. Depreciation
d. Investment
153. What can you say about the present worth of
all depreciation over the economic life of the
item?

a. Maintenance
b. Capital recovery
c. Depreciation recovery
d. Annuity
153. What can you say about the present worth of
all depreciation over the economic life of the
item?

a. Maintenance
b. Capital recovery
c. Depreciation recovery
d. Annuity
154. What do you think is the provision in the
contract that indicates the possible adjustment of
material cost and labor cost?

a. Secondary clause
b. Specification
c. Escalatory clause
d. General
154. What do you think is the provision in the
contract that indicates the possible adjustment of
material cost and labor cost?

a. Secondary clause
b. Specification
c. Escalatory clause
d. General
155. This is the process of determining the value
of certain property for specific reasons. Guess,
what is this?

a. Amortization
b. Investment
c. Appraisal
d. Depreciation
155. This is the process of determining the value
of certain property for specific reasons. Guess,
what is this?

a. Amortization
b. Investment
c. Appraisal
d. Depreciation
156. How do you call those products or services
that are directly used by the people to satisfy their
wants?

a. Consumer goods and services


b. Producer goods and services
c. Necessity products and services
d. Luxury products and services
156. How do you call those products or services
that are directly used by the people to satisfy their
wants?

a. Consumer goods and services


b. Producer goods and services
c. Necessity products and services
d. Luxury products and services
157. These are uses to produce consumer good
and services. Guess, what are these?

a. Consumer goods and services


b. Producer goods and services
c. Necessity products and services
d. Luxury products and services
157. These are uses to produce consumer good
and services. Guess, what are these?

a. Consumer goods and services


b. Producer goods and services
c. Necessity products and services
d. Luxury products and services
158. What do you think are those products and
services that are required to support human life
and activities that will be purchased in somewhat
the same quantity even though the price varies
considerably?
a. Consumer goods and services
b. Producer goods and services
c. Necessity products and services
d. Luxury products and services
158. What do you think are those products and
services that are required to support human life
and activities that will be purchased in somewhat
the same quantity even though the price varies
considerably?
a. Consumer goods and services
b. Producer goods and services
c. Necessity products and services
d. Luxury products and services
159. How do you call a cylinder with elliptical
cross section?

a. Ellipsoid
b. Cylindroid
c. Hyperboloid
d. Paraboloid
159. How do you call a cylinder with elliptical
cross section?

a. Ellipsoid
b. Cylindroid
c. Hyperboloid
d. Paraboloid
160. How do you call a market whereby there is
only one buyer of an item for which there are no
goods for substitutes?

a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Oligopoly
d. Oligopsony
160. How do you call a market whereby there is
only one buyer of an item for which there are no
goods for substitutes?

a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Oligopoly
d. Oligopsony
161. Which statement about a charge placed on a
dielectric material is true?

a. The charge increases the conductivity of the material


b. The charge is confined to the region in which the charge
was placed.
c. The charge is immediately lost to the atmosphere.
d. The charge is instantly carried to the materials surface.
161. Which statement about a charge placed on a
dielectric material is true?

a. The charge increases the conductivity of the material


b. The charge is confined to the region in which the charge
was placed.
c. The charge is immediately lost to the atmosphere.
d. The charge is instantly carried to the materials surface.
162. Which of the following is not a property of
magnetic lines?

a. Magnetic field lines have no beginnings and no ends.


b. The lines cross themselves only at right angles.
c. The line intersect surfaces of equal intensity at right angles.
d. The field is stronger where the lines are closer together.
162. Which of the following is not a property of
magnetic lines?

a. Magnetic field lines have no beginnings and no ends.


b. The lines cross themselves only at right angles.
c. The line intersect surfaces of equal intensity at right angles.
d. The field is stronger where the lines are closer together.
163. Tesla is a unit of which of the following?

a. Magnetic induction
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. Magnetic flux
163. Tesla is a unit of which of the following?

a. Magnetic induction
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. Magnetic flux
164. What is a pole pitch?

a. The angle at which the pole windings are wound.


b. The space on the stator allocated to two poles.
c. The space on the stator allocated to one pole.
d. The mica used to insulate the poles from each other.
164. What is a pole pitch?

a. The angle at which the pole windings are wound.


b. The space on the stator allocated to two poles.
c. The space on the stator allocated to one pole.
d. The mica used to insulate the poles from each other.
165. How do you call a polygon with 10,000
sides?

a. Hectogon
b. Chilliagon
c. Myriagon
d. Octacontagon
165. How do you call a polygon with 10,000
sides?

a. Hectogon
b. Chilliagon
c. Myriagon
d. Octacontagon
166. Any line segment joining a vertex of a
triangle to a point on the opposite side is called as:

a. Newton line
b. Secant
c. Cevian
d. Euclidian line
166. Any line segment joining a vertex of a
triangle to a point on the opposite side is called as:

a. Newton line
b. Secant
c. Cevian
d. Euclidian line
167. It is any influence capable of producing a
change in the motion of the object.

a. Force
b. Acceleration
c. Friction
d. Velocity
167. It is any influence capable of producing a
change in the motion of the object.

a. Force
b. Acceleration
c. Friction
d. Velocity
168. How do you call the amount needed at the
beginning of operations and permits the enterprise
to begin functioning before it receives any income
from the sales of its product and service.
a. Initial working capital
b. Regular working capital
c. Equity
d. Annuity
168. How do you call the amount needed at the
beginning of operations and permits the enterprise
to begin functioning before it receives any income
from the sales of its product and service.
a. Initial working capital
b. Regular working capital
c. Equity
d. Annuity
169. In the problem of writing the equation of a
certain curve with respect to another axes in which
the new axes are parallel to the original axes and
similarly directed is known as:
a. Translation of axes
b. Reversal of axes
c. Notation of axes
d. Darshos axes
169. In the problem of writing the equation of a
certain curve with respect to another axes in which
the new axes are parallel to the original axes and
similarly directed is known as:
a. Translation of axes
b. Reversal of axes
c. Notation of axes
d. Darshos axes
170. How do you call a ring shaped surface or
solid obtained by rotating a circle about a coplanar
line that does not intersect?

a. Torus
b. Annulus
c. Circoloid
d. Darshos annular
170. How do you call a ring shaped surface or
solid obtained by rotating a circle about a coplanar
line that does not intersect?

a. Torus
b. Annulus
c. Circoloid
d. Darshos annular
171. If the eccentricity is less than one, the curve
is known as:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
171. If the eccentricity is less than one, the curve
is known as:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
172. What can you say to the following statement:
the volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the
product of its base and altitude?

a. Postulate
b. Corollary
c. Theorem
d. Axiom
172. What can you say to the following statement:
the volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the
product of its base and altitude?

a. Postulate
b. Corollary
c. Theorem
d. Axiom
173. What is the study of the properties of figures
of three dimensions?

a. Physics
b. Solid geometry
c. Plane geometry
d. Trigonometry
173. What is the study of the properties of figures
of three dimensions?

a. Physics
b. Solid geometry
c. Plane geometry
d. Trigonometry
174. A type of bond, without any security behind
them except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation is known as:

a. Collateral trust bond


b. Mortgage bond
c. Debenture bond
d. Joint bond
174. A type of bond, without any security behind
them except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation is known as:

a. Collateral trust bond


b. Mortgage bond
c. Debenture bond
d. Joint bond
175. A situation whereby payment is made for
work not done. The term also applies to the case
where more workers are used than a reasonable
requirement for efficient operation.
a. Downtime pay
b. Check-in-pay
c. Feather bidding
d. Moon lighting
175. A situation whereby payment is made for
work not done. The term also applies to the case
where more workers are used than a reasonable
requirement for efficient operation.
a. Downtime pay
b. Check-in-pay
c. Feather bidding
d. Moon lighting
176. The difference between what a negotiable
paper is worth in the future and its present worth
is known as:

a. Book value
b. Salvage value
c. Sunk value
d. Discount
176. The difference between what a negotiable
paper is worth in the future and its present worth
is known as:

a. Book value
b. Salvage value
c. Sunk value
d. Discount
177. The temperature to which the air must be
cooled at constant temperature to produce
saturation.

a. Absolute temperature
b. 273 K
c. Dew point
d. Critical temperature
177. The temperature to which the air must be
cooled at constant temperature to produce
saturation.

a. Absolute temperature
b. 273 K
c. Dew point
d. Critical temperature
178. A net force that will give to a mass of one
gram an acceleration of 1 cm/s2 is said to be:

a. Newton
b. Darsho
c. Ergs
d. Dyne
178. A net force that will give to a mass of one
gram an acceleration of 1 cm/s2 is said to be:

a. Newton
b. Darsho
c. Ergs
d. Dyne
179. A change in position, specified by a length
and a direction is said to be:

a. Displacement
b. Acceleration
c. Velocity
d. Dynamic equilibrium
179. A change in position, specified by a length
and a direction is said to be:

a. Displacement
b. Acceleration
c. Velocity
d. Dynamic equilibrium
180. The process of one substance mixing with
another because of molecular motion is known as:

a. Adhesion
b. Diffusion
c. Cohesion
d. Confusion
180. The process of one substance mixing with
another because of molecular motion is known as:

a. Adhesion
b. Diffusion
c. Cohesion
d. Confusion
181. Those cost that arise at the result of a change
in operation or policy or it is the ratio of a small
increment cost and a small increment of output.

a. Increment cost
b. Differential cost
c. Marginal cost
d. Promotion cost
181. Those cost that arise at the result of a change
in operation or policy or it is the ratio of a small
increment cost and a small increment of output.

a. Increment cost
b. Differential cost
c. Marginal cost
d. Promotion cost
182. The index that gives the rate earned per share
based on current price per share is called as:

a. Price-earning ratio
b. Operating expense ratio
c. Dividend yield
d. Equity ratio
182. The index that gives the rate earned per share
based on current price per share is called as:

a. Price-earning ratio
b. Operating expense ratio
c. Dividend yield
d. Equity ratio
183. A regular polyhedron having 12 regular
pentagons is called as:

a. Octahedron
b. Dodecahedron
c. Tetrahedron
d. Darshohedron
183. A regular polyhedron having 12 regular
pentagons is called as:

a. Octahedron
b. Dodecahedron
c. Tetrahedron
d. Darshohedron
184. Two angles whose sum is 360 deg. is called:

a. Explementary angles
b. Complimentary angles
c. Supplementary angles
d. Elementary angles
184. Two angles whose sum is 360 deg. is called:

a. Explementary angles
b. Complimentary angles
c. Supplementary angles
d. Elementary angles
185. What is an annuity?

a. The future worth of a present amount


b. A series of uniform amounts over a period of time
c. The present worth of a future amount.
d. An annual repayment of a loan.
185. What is an annuity?

a. The future worth of a present amount


b. A series of uniform amounts over a period of time
c. The present worth of a future amount.
d. An annual repayment of a loan.
186. When using net present worth calculations to
compare two projects, which of the following
could invalidate the calculation?

a. Use of the same discount rate for each period.


b. Differences in the magnitude of the projects.
c. Evaluating over different time periods.
d. Mutually exclusive projects.
186. When using net present worth calculations to
compare two projects, which of the following
could invalidate the calculation?

a. Use of the same discount rate for each period.


b. Differences in the magnitude of the projects.
c. Evaluating over different time periods.
d. Mutually exclusive projects.
187. Which of the following is true regarding the
minimum attractive rate of return used in judging
proposed investments?
a. It is smaller than the interest rate used to discount expected
cash flows from investments.
b. It is frequent a policy decision made by an organizations
management.
c. It is larger than the interest rate used to discount expected
cash flow from investments.
d. It is not relevant in engineering economy studies.
187. Which of the following is true regarding the
minimum attractive rate of return used in judging
proposed investments?
a. It is smaller than the interest rate used to discount expected
cash flows from investments.
b. It is frequent a policy decision made by an organizations
management.
c. It is larger than the interest rate used to discount expected
cash flow from investments.
d. It is not relevant in engineering economy studies.
188. In a trajectory, air resistance decreases.

a. Speed
b. Maximum height
c. Range of projectile
d. All of the above
188. In a trajectory, air resistance decreases.

a. Speed
b. Maximum height
c. Range of projectile
d. All of the above
189. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate
drops. Which of the following is the main cause of
this phenomenon?

a. Air resistance
b. Gravity
c. Surface tension
d. Viscosity of the fluid
189. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate
drops. Which of the following is the main cause of
this phenomenon?

a. Air resistance
b. Gravity
c. Surface tension
d. Viscosity of the fluid
190. Which of the following elements and
compounds is unstable in its pure form?

a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Sodium
d. Helium
190. Which of the following elements and
compounds is unstable in its pure form?

a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Sodium
d. Helium
191. What is the actual geometric shape of the
methane molecule?

a. Tetrahedral
b. Pyramidal
c. Square planar
d. Linear
191. What is the actual geometric shape of the
methane molecule?

a. Tetrahedral
b. Pyramidal
c. Square planar
d. Linear
192. A substance is oxidized when which of the
following occurs?

a. It losses electrons.
b. It becomes more negative.
c. It gives off heat.
d. It absorbs energy.
192. A substance is oxidized when which of the
following occurs?

a. It losses electrons.
b. It becomes more negative.
c. It gives off heat.
d. It absorbs energy.
193. Reactions generally proceed faster at higher
temperatures because of which of the following?

a. The molecules are less energetic.


b. The activation energy is less.
c. The molecules collide more frequently.
d. Both b and c.
193. Reactions generally proceed faster at higher
temperatures because of which of the following?

a. The molecules are less energetic.


b. The activation energy is less.
c. The molecules collide more frequently.
d. Both b and c.
194. What are the valence electrons?

a. The electrons of complete quantum shells.


b. Electrons with positive charge.
c. The outer-shell electrons.
d. The k-quantum shell electrons.
194. What are the valence electrons?

a. The electrons of complete quantum shells.


b. Electrons with positive charge.
c. The outer-shell electrons.
d. The k-quantum shell electrons.
195. How do you call the strong bond between
hydrogen atoms?
a. Ionic and metallic bonds
b. The covalent bond
c. The ionic bond
d. The metallic bond.
195. How do you call the strong bond between
hydrogen atoms?
a. Ionic and metallic bonds
b. The covalent bond
c. The ionic bond
d. The metallic bond.
196. What are Van der Waals forces?

a. Forces present only in gases.


b. Forces not present in liquids.
c. Primary bonds between atoms.
d. Weak secondary bonds between atoms.
196. What are Van der Waals forces?

a. Forces present only in gases.


b. Forces not present in liquids.
c. Primary bonds between atoms.
d. Weak secondary bonds between atoms.
197. What do you call the replacement of the
original cost of an investment?

a. Pay off
b. Return on investment
c. Breakeven
d. Capital recovery
197. What do you call the replacement of the
original cost of an investment?

a. Pay off
b. Return on investment
c. Breakeven
d. Capital recovery
198. If f (x1) = 0, then the point (x1, y1) is called:

a. Minimum point
b. Maximum point
c. Inflection point
d. Critical point
198. If f (x1) = 0, then the point (x1, y1) is called:

a. Minimum point
b. Maximum point
c. Inflection point
d. Critical point
199. Adding more solute to an already saturated
solution will cause the excess solute to settle to
the bottom of the container. What is this process
called?
a. Precipitation
b. Hydration
c. Dehydration
d. Saturation
199. Adding more solute to an already saturated
solution will cause the excess solute to settle to
the bottom of the container. What is this process
called?
a. Precipitation
b. Hydration
c. Dehydration
d. Saturation
200. The length of time at which the original cost
of capital used to purchase a unit has already been
recovered.

a. Economic life
b. Write off period
c. Physical life
d. Salvage life
200. The length of time at which the original cost
of capital used to purchase a unit has already been
recovered.

a. Economic life
b. Write off period
c. Physical life
d. Salvage life
201. The actual interest earned by a given
principal is known as:

a. Compound interest
b. Simple interest
c. Effective interest
d. Nominal interest
201. The actual interest earned by a given
principal is known as:

a. Compound interest
b. Simple interest
c. Effective interest
d. Nominal interest
202. A book is at rest on top of a table. Which of
the following is correct?

a. There is no force acting on the book.


b. The book has no inertia.
c. There is no force acting on the table.
d. The book is in equilibrium.
202. A book is at rest on top of a table. Which of
the following is correct?

a. There is no force acting on the book.


b. The book has no inertia.
c. There is no force acting on the table.
d. The book is in equilibrium.
203. The property of a moving object to continue
moving is what Galileo called:
a. Velocity
b. Speed
c. Acceleration
d. Inertia
e. Direction
203. The property of a moving object to continue
moving is what Galileo called:
a. Velocity
b. Speed
c. Acceleration
d. Inertia
e. Direction
204. According to Newtons First Law of Motion,

a. An object at rest eventually begins to move


b. An object in motion moves in a parabolic trajectory unless
acted upon by a net force.
c. An object at rest always remain at rest.
d. An object at rest remains at rest unless acted upon by a net
force.
204. According to Newtons First Law of Motion,

a. An object at rest eventually begins to move


b. An object in motion moves in a parabolic trajectory unless
acted upon by a net force.
c. An object at rest always remain at rest.
d. An object at rest remains at rest unless acted upon by a net
force.
205. If an object is moving, then the magnitude of
its ____ cannot be zero.
a. Velocity
b. Speed
c. Acceleration
d. A and B
205. If an object is moving, then the magnitude of
its ____ cannot be zero.
a. Velocity
b. Speed
c. Acceleration
d. A and B
206. A body drop in free fall a vacuum,
a. Will drop the same distance during each second of its fall.
b. Will have the same average speed during each second of its
fall.
c. Will have a constant velocity during each second of its fall.
d. Will not be accelerated during its fall.
e. Will have the same acceleration during second of it fall.
206. A body drop in free fall a vacuum,
a. Will drop the same distance during each second of its fall.
b. Will have the same average speed during each second of its
fall.
c. Will have a constant velocity during each second of its fall.
d. Will not be accelerated during its fall.
e. Will have the same acceleration during second of it fall.
207. A bowling ball at a height of 36 meters above
the ground is falling vertically at a rate of 12
meters per second. Which of these best describes
its fate?
a. It will hit the ground in exactly three seconds at a speed of
12 m/s.
b. It will hit the ground in less than three seconds at a speed
greater than 12 m/s.
c. It will hit the ground in more than three seconds at a speed
less than 12 m/s.
d. It will hit the ground in less than three seconds at a speed
less than 12 m/s.
207. A bowling ball at a height of 36 meters above
the ground is falling vertically at a rate of 12
meters per second. Which of these best describes
its fate?
a. It will hit the ground in exactly three seconds at a speed of
12 m/s.
b. It will hit the ground in less than three seconds at a speed
greater than 12 m/s.
c. It will hit the ground in more than three seconds at a speed
less than 12 m/s.
d. It will hit the ground in less than three seconds at a speed
less than 12 m/s.
208. The speedometer in your car tells you the
____ of your car.
a. Velocity
b. Average speed
c. Acceleration
d. Inertia
e. Instantaneous speed
208. The speedometer in your car tells you the
____ of your car.
a. Velocity
b. Average speed
c. Acceleration
d. Inertia
e. Instantaneous speed
209. To report the ____ of an object, we must
specify both its speed and its direction.
a. Velocity
b. Speed
c. Acceleration
d. Inertia
e. Direction
209. To report the ____ of an object, we must
specify both its speed and its direction.
a. Velocity
b. Speed
c. Acceleration
d. Inertia
e. Direction
210. The ____ of an object on the Earths surface
are directly proportional to each other.
a. Velocity and force
b. Speed and velocity
c. Acceleration and mass
d. Mass and weight
e. Direction and weight
210. The ____ of an object on the Earths surface
are directly proportional to each other.
a. Velocity and force
b. Speed and velocity
c. Acceleration and mass
d. Mass and weight
e. Direction and weight
211. The moons gravity is 1/6 of the Earths
gravity. The weight of a bowling ball on the Earth
would be ____ its weight on the moon.
a. Equal to
b. 1/6 of
c. 6 times
d. 36 times
211. The moons gravity is 1/6 of the Earths
gravity. The weight of a bowling ball on the Earth
would be ____ its weight on the moon.
a. Equal to
b. 1/6 of
c. 6 times
d. 36 times
212. A falling object is said to reach terminal
speed,
a. When it lands on the ground.
b. When its air resistance equals the force of gravity on it.
c. When there is no air resistance acting on it.
d. When there is no gravitational force acting on it.
212. A falling object is said to reach terminal
speed,
a. When it lands on the ground.
b. When its air resistance equals the force of gravity on it.
c. When there is no air resistance acting on it.
d. When there is no gravitational force acting on it.
213. For every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction. This is a statement of,
a. Newtons First Law of Motion
b. Newtons Second Law of Motion
c. Newtons Third Law of Motion
d. Newtons Law of Action
213. For every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction. This is a statement of,
a. Newtons First Law of Motion
b. Newtons Second Law of Motion
c. Newtons Third Law of Motion
d. Newtons Law of Action
214. _____ are examples of vector quantities.

a. Velocity and acceleration


b. Volume and velocity
c. Acceleration and mass
d. Mass and volume
214. _____ are examples of vector quantities.

a. Velocity and acceleration


b. Volume and velocity
c. Acceleration and mass
d. Mass and volume
215. A green ball moving to the right at 3 m/s
strikes a yellow ball moving to the left at 2 m/s. If
the balls are equally massive and the collision is
elastic,
a. The green ball will move to the left at 3 m/s while the
yellow ball moves right at 2 m/s.
b. The green ball will move to the left at 2 m/s while the
yellow ball moves right at 3 m/s.
c. The green ball will stop while the yellow ball moves left at
2 m/s.
d. Both balls will stick together and move to the right at 1 m/s.
215. A green ball moving to the right at 3 m/s
strikes a yellow ball moving to the left at 2 m/s. If
the balls are equally massive and the collision is
elastic,
a. The green ball will move to the left at 3 m/s while the
yellow ball moves right at 2 m/s.
b. The green ball will move to the left at 2 m/s while the
yellow ball moves right at 3 m/s.
c. The green ball will stop while the yellow ball moves left at
2 m/s.
d. Both balls will stick together and move to the right at 1 m/s.
216. The buoyant force on a block of wood
floating in water,
a. Is equal to the weight of a volume of water with the same
volume as the wood.
b. Is equal to the weight of the wood.
c. Is greater than the weight of the wood.
d. Is less than the weight of the wood.
216. The buoyant force on a block of wood
floating in water,
a. Is equal to the weight of a volume of water with the same
volume as the wood.
b. Is equal to the weight of the wood.
c. Is greater than the weight of the wood.
d. Is less than the weight of the wood.
217. An object with a mass of 1 kg displaces 700
ml of water. Which of the following is true?
a. The weight of this object is 10 N.
b. The weight of this object is 7 N.
c. The weight of this object is 3 N.
d. The weight of this object is 17 N.
217. An object with a mass of 1 kg displaces 700
ml of water. Which of the following is true?
a. The weight of this object is 10 N.
b. The weight of this object is 7 N.
c. The weight of this object is 3 N.
d. The weight of this object is 17 N.
218. An object with a mass of 1 kg displaces 0.6
kg of water. Which of the following is true?
a. The buoyant force on this object is 10 N.
b. The buoyant force on this object is 6 N.
c. The density of this object is 3 N.
d. The weight of this object is 17 N.
218. An object with a mass of 1 kg displaces 0.6
kg of water. Which of the following is true?
a. The buoyant force on this object is 10 N.
b. The buoyant force on this object is 6 N.
c. The density of this object is 3 N.
d. The weight of this object is 17 N.
219. The water pressure in a lake behind a dam
depends on,
a. The volume of lake water behind the dam.
b. The surface area of the lake.
c. The distance from the dam at which the pressure is
measured.
d. The depth below the surface at which the pressure is
measured.
219. The water pressure in a lake behind a dam
depends on,
a. The volume of lake water behind the dam.
b. The surface area of the lake.
c. The distance from the dam at which the pressure is
measured.
d. The depth below the surface at which the pressure is
measured.
220. When air is removed from a metal can be
vacuum, the can buckles inwards and is crushed.
This occurs because
a. The air pressure on the inside of the can is greater than the
air pressure on the outside of the can.
b. The air pressure on the outside of the can is greater than air
pressure on the inside of the can.
c. The loss air molecules from inside the can weakens the
metal.
d. The opposite sides of the empty can strongly attract each
other.
220. When air is removed from a metal can be
vacuum, the can buckles inwards and is crushed.
This occurs because
a. The air pressure on the inside of the can is greater than the
air pressure on the outside of the can.
b. The air pressure on the outside of the can is greater than air
pressure on the inside of the can.
c. The loss air molecules from inside the can weakens the
metal.
d. The opposite sides of the empty can strongly attract each
other.
221. Bernoullis principle explains why,

a. A hot air balloon rises.


b. Liquid rises in a drinking straw
c. Airplanes fly
d. Dead fish float
221. Bernoullis principle explains why,

a. A hot air balloon rises.


b. Liquid rises in a drinking straw
c. Airplanes fly
d. Dead fish float
222. In order to decrease the pressure in an
automobile tire, one normally
a. Decrease the temperature of the tire.
b. Increases the volume of the tire.
c. Increases the density of air in the tire.
d. Decreases the number of air molecules in the tire.
222. In order to decrease the pressure in an
automobile tire, one normally
a. Decrease the temperature of the tire.
b. Increases the volume of the tire.
c. Increases the density of air in the tire.
d. Decreases the number of air molecules in the tire.
223. It is the branch of mathematics which deals
with the study of formal manipulations of
equations involving symbols and numbers.
a. Arithmetic
b. Algebra
c. Plane geometry
d. Trigonometry
223. It is the branch of mathematics which deals
with the study of formal manipulations of
equations involving symbols and numbers.
a. Arithmetic
b. Algebra
c. Plane geometry
d. Trigonometry
224. Is an entity describing the quantity or
position of a mathematical object or extensions of
these concepts.
a. Exponent
b. Number
c. Cardinal number
d. Ordinal number
224. Is an entity describing the quantity or
position of a mathematical object or extensions of
these concepts.
a. Exponent
b. Number
c. Cardinal number
d. Ordinal number
225. It describes the size or quantity of the
collections of objects like 1,2,3.1000 and so on
& so forth.
a. Exponent
b. Number
c. Cardinal number
d. Ordinal number
225. It describes the size or quantity of the
collections of objects like 1,2,3.1000 and so on
& so forth.
a. Exponent
b. Number
c. Cardinal number
d. Ordinal number
226. It refer to the position relative to an ordering
such as first, second, third etc.

a. Exponent
b. Number
c. Cardinal number
d. Ordinal number
226. It refer to the position relative to an ordering
such as first, second, third etc.

a. Exponent
b. Number
c. Cardinal number
d. Ordinal number
227. It is the sum of real and imaginary numbers
which expressed in x+yi.

a. Real number
b. Irrational number
c. Rational number
d. Complex number
227. It is the sum of real and imaginary numbers
which expressed in x+yi.

a. Real number
b. Irrational number
c. Rational number
d. Complex number
228. Is the number that cannot be expressed into
ratio of two integers.

a. Real number
b. Irrational number
c. Rational number
d. Complex number
228. Is the number that cannot be expressed into
ratio of two integers.

a. Real number
b. Irrational number
c. Rational number
d. Complex number
229. Is any positive integer (excluding 1) having
no integral factors other than itself and unity.

a. Imaginary number
b. Real number
c. Ordinal number
d. Prime number
229. Is any positive integer (excluding 1) having
no integral factors other than itself and unity.

a. Imaginary number
b. Real number
c. Ordinal number
d. Prime number
230. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, xy = yx ?

a. Commutative Law of Multiplication


b. Associative Law of Multiplication
c. Left Distributive Law
d. Right Distributive law
230. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, xy = yx ?

a. Commutative Law of Multiplication


b. Associative Law of Multiplication
c. Left Distributive Law
d. Right Distributive law
231. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x + y = y + x ?

a. Commutative Law of Addition


b. Associative Law of Addition
c. Left Distributive Law
d. Right Distributive law
231. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x + y = y + x ?

a. Commutative Law of Addition


b. Associative Law of Addition
c. Left Distributive Law
d. Right Distributive law
232. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, (x+y) + z = x + (y+z) ?

a. Commutative Law of Multiplication


b. Associative Law of Addition
c. Left Distributive Law
d. Commutative Law of Addition
232. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, (x+y) + z = x + (y+z) ?

a. Commutative Law of Multiplication


b. Associative Law of Addition
c. Left Distributive Law
d. Commutative Law of Addition
233. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, (xy)z = x(yz) ?

a. Commutative Law of Multiplication


b. Associative Law of Multiplication
c. Left Distributive Law
d. Right Distributive law
233. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, (xy)z = x(yz) ?

a. Commutative Law of Multiplication


b. Associative Law of Multiplication
c. Left Distributive Law
d. Right Distributive law
234. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x + 0 = x ?

a. Additive Inverse Property


b. Additive Identity Property
c. Reflexive Property
d. Symmetric Property
234. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x + 0 = x ?

a. Additive Inverse Property


b. Additive Identity Property
c. Reflexive Property
d. Symmetric Property
235. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x + (-x) = 0 ?

a. Additive Inverse Property


b. Additive Identity Property
c. Reflexive Property
d. Symmetric Property
235. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x + (-x) = 0 ?

a. Additive Inverse Property


b. Additive Identity Property
c. Reflexive Property
d. Symmetric Property
236. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x = x ?

a. Additive Inverse Property


b. Additive Identity Property
c. Reflexive Property
d. Symmetric Property
236. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x = x ?

a. Additive Inverse Property


b. Additive Identity Property
c. Reflexive Property
d. Symmetric Property
237. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x = y and y = x ?

a. Additive Inverse Property


b. Additive Identity Property
c. Reflexive Property
d. Symmetric Property
237. What do you call this laws or properties of
equality in algebra, x = y and y = x ?

a. Additive Inverse Property


b. Additive Identity Property
c. Reflexive Property
d. Symmetric Property
238. It is a sequence of numbers or quantities in
which there is always the same relation between
each quantity and the one succeeding it.
a. Geometry
b. Progression
c. Probability
d. Rational number
238. It is a sequence of numbers or quantities in
which there is always the same relation between
each quantity and the one succeeding it.
a. Geometry
b. Progression
c. Probability
d. Rational number
239. It is a sequence of numbers in which each
term (except the first term is obtained from the
previous by adding a constant known as the
common difference.
a. Geometric progression
b. Arithmetic progression
c. Harmonic progression
d. Permutation
239. It is a sequence of numbers in which each
term (except the first term is obtained from the
previous by adding a constant known as the
common difference.
a. Geometric progression
b. Arithmetic progression
c. Harmonic progression
d. Permutation
240. It is a sequence of numbers, each of which
each, after the first is obtained by multiplying the
preceding term by a fixed number called the
common ratio, known as the common difference.
a. Geometric progression
b. Arithmetic progression
c. Harmonic progression
d. Permutation
240. It is a sequence of numbers, each of which
each, after the first is obtained by multiplying the
preceding term by a fixed number called the
common ratio, known as the common difference.
a. Geometric progression
b. Arithmetic progression
c. Harmonic progression
d. Permutation
241. It is a sequence of numbers in which the
reciprocals form an arithmetic progression.

a. Geometric progression
b. Arithmetic progression
c. Harmonic progression
d. Permutation
241. It is a sequence of numbers in which the
reciprocals form an arithmetic progression.

a. Geometric progression
b. Arithmetic progression
c. Harmonic progression
d. Permutation
242. It is an ordered arrangement of any element
in a set.

a. Probability
b. Arithmetic progression
c. Combination
d. Permutation
242. It is an ordered arrangement of any element
in a set.

a. Probability
b. Arithmetic progression
c. Combination
d. Permutation
243. It is an equation when the number of
equations is less than the number of unknown.

a. Deophantine Equation
b. Quadratic Equation
c. Darshos Equation
d. Theory of Sets
243. It is an equation when the number of
equations is less than the number of unknown.

a. Deophantine Equation
b. Quadratic Equation
c. Darshos Equation
d. Theory of Sets
244. Who was the first person of whose
systematic use of trigonometry which have
documentary evidence.
a. Euclid
b. Hipparchus
c. Galileo
d. Aristotle
244. Who was the first person of whose
systematic use of trigonometry which have
documentary evidence.
a. Euclid
b. Hipparchus
c. Galileo
d. Aristotle
245. It is the space between intersecting rays or
lines.

a. Line
b. Revolution
c. Angle
d. Side
245. It is the space between intersecting rays or
lines.

a. Line
b. Revolution
c. Angle
d. Side
246. Are angles which are non-right and non-
straight such as acute angles and obtuse angles.

a. Right angle
b. Oblique angles
c. Reflex angles
d. Darshos angle
246. Are angles which are non-right and non-
straight such as acute angles and obtuse angles.

a. Right angle
b. Oblique angles
c. Reflex angles
d. Darshos angle
247. It is a triangle with two sides equal.

a. Scalene triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. Equilateral triangle
247. It is a triangle with two sides equal.

a. Scalene triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. Equilateral triangle
248. It is a triangle with no equal sides.

a. Scalene triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. Equilateral triangle
248. It is a triangle with no equal sides.

a. Scalene triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. Equilateral triangle
249. It is a triangle without a 90 deg. angle.

a. Scalene triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. Equilateral triangle
249. It is a triangle without a 90 deg. angle.

a. Scalene triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. Equilateral triangle
250. It is a triangle that all sides are equal.

a. Scalene triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. Equilateral triangle
250. It is a triangle that all sides are equal.

a. Scalene triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. Equilateral triangle
251. The following are the primary (basic) SI
(metric) units, except

a. Length
b. Mass
c. Time
d. Force
251. The following are the primary (basic) SI
(metric) units, except

a. Length
b. Mass
c. Time
d. Force
252. The following are the secondary SI (metric)
units, except

a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Force
d. Energy
252. The following are the secondary SI (metric)
units, except

a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Force
d. Energy
253. Which of the following is not an intensive
property?

a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Mass
d. Density
253. Which of the following is not an intensive
property?

a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Mass
d. Density
254. Which of the following is not an extensive
property?

a. Mass
b. Weight
c. Volume
d. Specific volume
254. Which of the following is not an extensive
property?

a. Mass
b. Weight
c. Volume
d. Specific volume
255. The mass of the substance per unit volume is,

a. Density
b. Specific gravity
c. Specific weight
d. Force per unit
255. The mass of the substance per unit volume is,

a. Density
b. Specific gravity
c. Specific weight
d. Force per unit
256. The weight of the substance per unit volume
is,
a. Mass
b. Density
c. Force per unit
d. Specific weight
256. The weight of the substance per unit volume
is,
a. Mass
b. Density
c. Force per unit
d. Specific weight
257. The ratio of specific weight to acceleration of
gravity is,

a. Density
b. Specific gravity
c. Specific volume
d. Viscosity
257. The ratio of specific weight to acceleration of
gravity is,

a. Density
b. Specific gravity
c. Specific volume
d. Viscosity
258. The reciprocal of density is,

a. Specific weight
b. Specific gravity
c. Specific volume
d. Viscosity
258. The reciprocal of density is,

a. Specific weight
b. Specific gravity
c. Specific volume
d. Viscosity
259. It occurs when a decrease in selling price
result in a greater than proportionate increase in
sales.
a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unitary elasticity of demand
d. Darsho demand
259. It occurs when a decrease in selling price
result in a greater than proportionate increase in
sales.
a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unitary elasticity of demand
d. Darsho demand
260. It occurs when a decrease in the selling price
produces a less than proportionate increase in
sales.
a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unitary elasticity of demand
d. Darsho demand
260. It occurs when a decrease in the selling price
produces a less than proportionate increase in
sales.
a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unitary elasticity of demand
d. Darsho demand
261. It occurs when the mathematical product of
volume and price is constant.

a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unitary elasticity of demand
d. Darsho demand
261. It occurs when the mathematical product of
volume and price is constant.

a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unitary elasticity of demand
d. Darsho demand
262. It is calculated using principal only, ignoring
any interest that had been accrued in preceding
periods.
a. Simple interest
b. Compound interest
c. Interest rate
d. Effective rate
262. It is calculated using principal only, ignoring
any interest that had been accrued in preceding
periods.
a. Simple interest
b. Compound interest
c. Interest rate
d. Effective rate
263. It is the interest for an interest period is
calculated on the principal plus total amount of
interest accumulated in previous periods.
a. Simple interest
b. Compound interest
c. Interest rate
d. Effective rate
263. It is the interest for an interest period is
calculated on the principal plus total amount of
interest accumulated in previous periods.
a. Simple interest
b. Compound interest
c. Interest rate
d. Effective rate
264. Which of the following is not a vector
quantity?
a. Mass
b. Torque
c. Displacement
d. Velocity
264. Which of the following is not a vector
quantity?
a. Mass
b. Torque
c. Displacement
d. Velocity
265. The product of force and the time during
which it acts is known as:

a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Work
d. Impact
265. The product of force and the time during
which it acts is known as:

a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Work
d. Impact
266. The property of the body which measures its
resistance to change in motion.

a. Acceleration
b. Weight
c. Mass
d. Rigidity
266. The property of the body which measures its
resistance to change in motion.

a. Acceleration
b. Weight
c. Mass
d. Rigidity
267. The study of motion without reference to the
forces which causes motion is known as:

a. Kinetics
b. Dynamics
c. Statics
d. Kinematics
267. The study of motion without reference to the
forces which causes motion is known as:

a. Kinetics
b. Dynamics
c. Statics
d. Kinematics
268. The point through which the resultant of the
distributed gravity force passes regardless of the
orientation of the body in space is known as:
a. Center of inertia
b. Center of gravity
c. Center of attraction
d. Moment of inertia
268. The point through which the resultant of the
distributed gravity force passes regardless of the
orientation of the body in space is known as:
a. Center of inertia
b. Center of gravity
c. Center of attraction
d. Moment of inertia
269. The loss of weight of a body submerged in a
fluid is:
a. Proportional to the weight of the body
b. Proportional to the depth of submergence
c. Equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
d. Independent of the volume of the body
269. The loss of weight of a body submerged in a
fluid is:
a. Proportional to the weight of the body
b. Proportional to the depth of submergence
c. Equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
d. Independent of the volume of the body
270. One Joule of work is done by a force of one
Newton acting through a distance of:

a. 1 cm
b. 1 in
c. 1m
d. 1 ft
270. One Joule of work is done by a force of one
Newton acting through a distance of:

a. 1 cm
b. 1 in
c. 1m
d. 1 ft
271. The path of the projectile is:

a. A parabola
b. An ellipse
c. A part of a circle
d. A hyperbola
271. The path of the projectile is:

a. A parabola
b. An ellipse
c. A part of a circle
d. A hyperbola
272. One mole of a gas at standard temperature
and pressure (STP) conditions occupies a volume
equal to:
a. 22.4 li
b. 9.81 li
c. 332 li
d. 2274.5 li
272. One mole of a gas at standard temperature
and pressure (STP) conditions occupies a volume
equal to:
a. 22.4 li
b. 9.81 li
c. 332 li
d. 2274.5 li
273. This implies the resistance to shock or
difficulty of breaking and expresses the work per
unit volume required to fracture a material.
a. Toughness
b. Malleability
c. Hardness
d. Ductility
273. This implies the resistance to shock or
difficulty of breaking and expresses the work per
unit volume required to fracture a material.
a. Toughness
b. Malleability
c. Hardness
d. Ductility
274. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity
of any fluid is called:

a. Compressibility
b. Volume strain
c. Volume stress
d. Shape factor
274. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity
of any fluid is called:

a. Compressibility
b. Volume strain
c. Volume stress
d. Shape factor
275. Used as a guide to selecting the most
efficient centrifugal pump:

a. Specific speed
b. Impeller type
c. Bernoullis Equation
d. Overall efficiency
275. Used as a guide to selecting the most
efficient centrifugal pump:

a. Specific speed
b. Impeller type
c. Bernoullis Equation
d. Overall efficiency
276. Heat transmission carried by the movement
of heated fluids away from a hot body, as in the
heating of water by a hot surface:
a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Conduction
d. Absorption
276. Heat transmission carried by the movement
of heated fluids away from a hot body, as in the
heating of water by a hot surface:
a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Conduction
d. Absorption
277. An instrument for measuring high
temperature gases:

a. Plenometer
b. Manometer
c. Anemometer
d. Pyrometer
277. An instrument for measuring high
temperature gases:

a. Plenometer
b. Manometer
c. Anemometer
d. Pyrometer
278. The equilibrium temperature that a regular
thermometer measures if exposed to atmospheric
air is:
a. Dry bulb temperature
b. Degrees Celsius
c. Wet bulb temperature
d. Dew point
278. The equilibrium temperature that a regular
thermometer measures if exposed to atmospheric
air is:
a. Dry bulb temperature
b. Degrees Celsius
c. Wet bulb temperature
d. Dew point
279. Momentum = Force x ______.

a. Time
b. Velocity
c. Velocity2
d. velocity
279. Momentum = Force x ______.

a. Time
b. Velocity
c. Velocity2
d. velocity
280. An instrument for measuring specific gravity
of fluids:

a. Hygrometer
b. Flowmeter
c. Psyhcrometer
d. Hydrometer
280. An instrument for measuring specific gravity
of fluids:

a. Hygrometer
b. Flowmeter
c. Psyhcrometer
d. Hydrometer
281. The recorded current value of an asset is
known as:
a. Scrap value
b. Book value
c. Salvage value
d. Present worth
281. The recorded current value of an asset is
known as:
a. Scrap value
b. Book value
c. Salvage value
d. Present worth
282. A method of depreciation whereby the
amount to recover is spread over the estimated life
of the asset in terms of the periods or units of
output is called:
a. SOYD method
b. Declining balance method
c. Straight line method
d. Sinking fund method
282. A method of depreciation whereby the
amount to recover is spread over the estimated life
of the asset in terms of the periods or units of
output is called:
a. SOYD method
b. Declining balance method
c. Straight line method
d. Sinking fund method
283. The method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money
is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or
imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the
total depreciation of an asset at the end of the assets estimated
life is know as:

a. Straight line method


b. SOYD method
c. Declining balance method
d. Sinking fund method
283. The method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money
is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or
imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the
total depreciation of an asset at the end of the assets estimated
life is know as:

a. Straight line method


b. SOYD method
c. Declining balance method
d. Sinking fund method
284. The amount received from the sale of an
additional unit of a product is termed as:

a. Marginal cost
b. Marginal utility
c. Marginal unit
d. Marginal revenue
284. The amount received from the sale of an
additional unit of a product is termed as:

a. Marginal cost
b. Marginal utility
c. Marginal unit
d. Marginal revenue
285. An accounting book where the original
record of all transactions is ordinarily recorded.

a. Journal
b. Log book
c. Credit entry
d. Transaction record
285. An accounting book where the original
record of all transactions is ordinarily recorded.

a. Journal
b. Log book
c. Credit entry
d. Transaction record
286. An interest-earning fund in which equal
deposits are made at equal intervals of time for the
purpose of gradually accumulating a specific sum
of money required at some future date.
a. Amortization
b. Sinking fund
c. Annuity
d. Capitalized cost
286. An interest-earning fund in which equal
deposits are made at equal intervals of time for the
purpose of gradually accumulating a specific sum
of money required at some future date.
a. Amortization
b. Sinking fund
c. Annuity
d. Capitalized cost
287. Refers to cost of merchandise which excludes
freight and insurance costs:

a. Freight on board
b. Sunk cost
c. Debentures
d. Book value
287. Refers to cost of merchandise which excludes
freight and insurance costs:

a. Freight on board
b. Sunk cost
c. Debentures
d. Book value
288. The worth of property which is equal to the
original cost less depreciation:

a. Scrap value
b. Earning value
c. Book value
d. Face value
288. The worth of property which is equal to the
original cost less depreciation:

a. Scrap value
b. Earning value
c. Book value
d. Face value
289. A line which is perpendicular to the x-axis
has a slope equal to:

a. Zero
b. -1
c. 1
d. infinity
289. A line which is perpendicular to the x-axis
has a slope equal to:

a. Zero
b. -1
c. 1
d. infinity
290. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus
and is in a line perpendicular to the major axis is
a:
a. Latus rectum
b. Minor
c. Focal width
d. Conjugate axis
290. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus
and is in a line perpendicular to the major axis is
a:
a. Latus rectum
b. Minor
c. Focal width
d. Conjugate axis
291. An angle more than radian (180) but less
than 2 (360) radians is:

a. Straight angle
b. Obtuse angle
c. Oblique angle
d. Reflex angle
291. An angle more than radian (180) but less
than 2 (360) radians is:

a. Straight angle
b. Obtuse angle
c. Oblique angle
d. Reflex angle
292. An angle more than 90 but less than 180.

a. Oblique angles
b. Obtuse angles
c. Full angle
d. Reflex angle
292. An angle more than 90 but less than 180.

a. Oblique angles
b. Obtuse angles
c. Full angle
d. Reflex angle
293. An angles which are non-right and non-
straight which are acute and obtuse angles is
called:
a. Perigon
b. Full angles
c. Reflex angles
d. Oblique angles
293. An angles which are non-right and non-
straight which are acute and obtuse angles is
called:
a. Perigon
b. Full angles
c. Reflex angles
d. Oblique angles
294. Are opposite angles formed between two
intersecting lines that are equal.

a. Vertices
b. Vertical angles
c. Explementary angles
d. Complementary angles
294. Are opposite angles formed between two
intersecting lines that are equal.

a. Vertices
b. Vertical angles
c. Explementary angles
d. Complementary angles
295. In trigonometry, one revolution is equal to,
except
a. 400 gons
b. 400 grads
c. 6400 mils
d. 360 degress
e. Pi radians
295. In trigonometry, one revolution is equal to,
except
a. 400 gons
b. 400 grads
c. 6400 mils
d. 360 degress
e. Pi radians
296. It can be defined as the set of all points in the
plane the sum of whose distance from two fixed
points is a constant.
a. Circle
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Parabola
296. It can be defined as the set of all points in the
plane the sum of whose distance from two fixed
points is a constant.
a. Circle
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Parabola
297. The area of the region bounded by two
concentric circles is called:

a. Washer
b. Ring
c. Annulus
d. Circular disk
297. The area of the region bounded by two
concentric circles is called:

a. Washer
b. Ring
c. Annulus
d. Circular disk
298. An arc length, which is equal to the radius of
the circle is called:

a. 1 degree
b. 2 pi radians
c. 1 radian
d. 1 pi radian
298. An arc length, which is equal to the radius of
the circle is called:

a. 1 degree
b. 2 pi radians
c. 1 radian
d. 1 pi radian
299. Each of the faces of a regular hexahedron is
a:
a. Square
b. Triangle
c. Hexagon
d. Circle
299. Each of the faces of a regular hexahedron is
a:
a. Square
b. Triangle
c. Hexagon
d. Circle
300. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e > 1,
the locus is:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
300. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e > 1,
the locus is:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
301. In a conic section, if the value of
discriminant B2 4AC > 0 that is called:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
301. In a conic section, if the value of
discriminant B2 4AC > 0 that is called:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
302. In a conic section, if the value of
discriminant B2 4AC = 0 that is called:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
302. In a conic section, if the value of
discriminant B2 4AC = 0 that is called:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
303. In a conic section, if the value of
discriminant B2 4AC < 0 (if A is not equal to C)
that is called:
a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
303. In a conic section, if the value of
discriminant B2 4AC < 0 (if A is not equal to C)
that is called:
a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
304. In a conic section, if the value of
discriminant B2 4AC < 0 (if A is equal to C) that
is called:
a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
304. In a conic section, if the value of
discriminant B2 4AC < 0 (if A is equal to C) that
is called:
a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
305. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e < 1,
the locus is:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
305. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e < 1,
the locus is:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
306. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e = 1,
the locus is:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
306. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e = 1,
the locus is:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
307. In analytic geometry that if the line is
vertical, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative
307. In analytic geometry that if the line is
vertical, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative
308. In analytic geometry that if the line is
horizontal, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative
308. In analytic geometry that if the line is
horizontal, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative
309. In analytic geometry that if the line is
inclined right, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative
309. In analytic geometry that if the line is
inclined right, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative
310. When two lines are perpendicular, the slope
of one is:

a. Equal to the other


b. Equal to the negative of the other
c. Equal to the reciprocal of the other
d. Equal to the negative reciprocal of the other
310. When two lines are perpendicular, the slope
of one is:

a. Equal to the other


b. Equal to the negative of the other
c. Equal to the reciprocal of the other
d. Equal to the negative reciprocal of the other
311. How many degrees are 4,800 mils?

a. 180
b. 315
c. 90
d. 270
311. How many degrees are 4,800 mils?

a. 180
b. 315
c. 90
d. 270
4800 mils (1 degree / 17.78 mils) = 270
312. Determine the value of each interior angle of
a regular pentagon.

a. 108
b. 120
c. 98
d. 135
312. Determine the value of each interior angle of
a regular pentagon.

a. 108
b. 120
c. 98
d. 135
(no. of sides 2 / no. of sides)(180) = (5 - 2 / 5)(180) = 108
313. How do you call the distance of a point from
the y-axis?

a. Polar distance
b. Coordinate
c. Abscissa
d. Ordinate
313. How do you call the distance of a point from
the y-axis?

a. Polar distance
b. Coordinate
c. Abscissa
d. Ordinate
314. How do you call the x-coordinate?

a. Polar distance
b. Coordinate
c. Abscissa
d. Ordinate
314. How do you call the x-coordinate?

a. Polar distance
b. Coordinate
c. Abscissa
d. Ordinate
315. How do you call the y-coordinate?

a. Polar distance
b. Coordinate
c. Abscissa
d. Ordinate
315. How do you call the y-coordinate?

a. Polar distance
b. Coordinate
c. Abscissa
d. Ordinate
316. A formal organization of producers within an
industry forming a perfect collusion purposely
formed to increase profit and block new comers
from the industry.
a. Cartel
b. Monopoly
c. Corporation
d. Competitors
316. A formal organization of producers within an
industry forming a perfect collusion purposely
formed to increase profit and block new comers
from the industry.
a. Cartel
b. Monopoly
c. Corporation
d. Competitors
317. The set of all points in the plane, the sum of
whose distances from two fixed points, called the
foci, is a constant.

a. Parabola
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Semi-circle
317. The set of all points in the plane, the sum of
whose distances from two fixed points, called the
foci, is a constant.

a. Parabola
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Semi-circle
318. The set of all points in the plane, the
difference of whose distances from two fixed
points, called the foci, remains constant.

a. Parabola
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Semi-circle
318. The set of all points in the plane, the
difference of whose distances from two fixed
points, called the foci, remains constant.

a. Parabola
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Semi-circle
319. The set of all points in the plane whose
distances from a fixed points, called the focus, and
a fixed line, called the directrix, are always equal.

a. Parabola
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Semi-circle
319. The set of all points in the plane whose
distances from a fixed points, called the focus, and
a fixed line, called the directrix, are always equal.

a. Parabola
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Semi-circle
320. Find the volume generated by revolving a
rectangle of sides a and b about the side a.

a. ba2
b. ab2 /2
c. ba2 / 2
d. ab2
320. Find the volume generated by revolving a
rectangle of sides a and b about the side a.

a. ba2
b. ab2 /2
c. ba2 / 2
d. ab2
321. The capillary rise in a tube is obtained by
equating:

a. Cohesive and adhesive forces


b. gravitational force to shear force
c. Surface tension force to weight of liquid
d. Pressure forces to gravitational forces
321. The capillary rise in a tube is obtained by
equating:

a. Cohesive and adhesive forces


b. gravitational force to shear force
c. Surface tension force to weight of liquid
d. Pressure forces to gravitational forces
322. The fluid property which contributes
cavitation is:
a. atmospheric pressure
b. Vapour pressure
c. Cavitation number
d. Suction head
322. The fluid property which contributes
cavitation is:
a. atmospheric pressure
b. Vapour pressure
c. Cavitation number
d. Suction head
323. The shear stress is directly proportional to
viscosity for liquids which are Newtonian such as:

a. Water
b. Milk
c. Paint
d. Honey
323. The shear stress is directly proportional to
viscosity for liquids which are Newtonian such as:

a. Water
b. Milk
c. Paint
d. Honey
324. Pascal Law is applicable when:

a. Fluid is at rest
b. Fluid is compressible
c. Fluid is in motion
d. Fluid is incompressible
324. Pascal Law is applicable when:

a. Fluid is at rest
b. Fluid is compressible
c. Fluid is in motion
d. Fluid is incompressible
325. A perfect gas is one which:

a. Obeys characteristics equation


b. Zero viscosity
c. Zero specific heat
d. Highly compressible
325. A perfect gas is one which:

a. Obeys characteristics equation


b. Zero viscosity
c. Zero specific heat
d. Highly compressible
326. Cavitation cannot occur in:

a. Francis turbine
b. Piston pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. Pelton wheel
326. Cavitation cannot occur in:

a. Francis turbine
b. Piston pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. Pelton wheel
327. A draft tube is a must in:

a. Francis turbine
b. Axial pump
c. Pelton turbine
d. Centrifugal pump
327. A draft tube is a must in:

a. Francis turbine
b. Axial pump
c. Pelton turbine
d. Centrifugal pump
328. The pressure difference measured at the two
ends of Pitot tube is:

a. Static pressure
b. Stagnation pressure
c. Dynamic pressure
d. Total pressure
328. The pressure difference measured at the two
ends of Pitot tube is:

a. Static pressure
b. Stagnation pressure
c. Dynamic pressure
d. Total pressure
329. Piezometer head is equal to:

a. Sum of elevation head and velocity head


b. Sum of pressure head at velocity head
c. Sum of pressure head and elevation
d. Pressure head
329. Piezometer head is equal to:

a. Sum of elevation head and velocity head


b. Sum of pressure head at velocity head
c. Sum of pressure head and elevation
d. Pressure head
330. The coefficient of discharge of a venturi
meter is approximately equal to:
a. 0.98
b. 0.6
c. 0.75
d. 1
330. The coefficient of discharge of a venturi
meter is approximately equal to:
a. 0.98
b. 0.6
c. 0.75
d. 1
331. Bernoullis equation is derived based on the
following assumptions:
a. Flow is incompressible, steady and irrotational
b. Flow is steady, compressible and irrotational
c. Flow is steady, incompressible and rotational
d. Flow is unsteady, incompressible and irrotational
331. Bernoullis equation is derived based on the
following assumptions:
a. Flow is incompressible, steady and irrotational
b. Flow is steady, compressible and irrotational
c. Flow is steady, incompressible and rotational
d. Flow is unsteady, incompressible and irrotational
332. When two pumps are connected in
PARALLEL the following relation holds good:

a. Q = Q1 + Q2
b. H = H1 + H2
c. Q1 = Q2
d. Q1 / Q2 = H1 / H2
332. When two pumps are connected in
PARALLEL the following relation holds good:

a. Q = Q1 + Q2
b. H = H1 + H2
c. Q1 = Q2
d. Q1 / Q2 = H1 / H2
333. The highest overall efficiency is possible in:

a. Hydropower stations
b. Gas turbine power stations
c. Steam power stations
d. Combine cycle power stations
333. The highest overall efficiency is possible in:

a. Hydropower stations
b. Gas turbine power stations
c. Steam power stations
d. Combine cycle power stations
334. A hydropower station is constructed because
of:
a. Head
b. Head and flow
c. Flow
d. Nearest to river
334. A hydropower station is constructed because
of:
a. Head
b. Head and flow
c. Flow
d. Nearest to river
335. Consider of the following flows and state
which one is one dimensional.
a. Flow around a rocket
b. Flow around an automobile
c. Flow through an artery
d. Flow through a vein
335. Consider of the following flows and state
which one is one dimensional.
a. Flow around a rocket
b. Flow around an automobile
c. Flow through an artery
d. Flow through a vein
336. Indicate which one flows is unsteady:

a. Flow through a irrigational channel


b. Flow near the entrance of a pipe
c. Flow around an automobile
d. Flow through human heart
336. Indicate which one flows is unsteady:

a. Flow through a irrigational channel


b. Flow near the entrance of a pipe
c. Flow around an automobile
d. Flow through human heart
337. When two pumps are connected in SERIES
the following relation holds good:

a. H = H1 + H2
b. Q = Q1 + Q2
c. H1 = H2
d. Q1 / Q2 = H1 / H2
337. When two pumps are connected in SERIES
the following relation holds good:

a. H = H1 + H2
b. Q = Q1 + Q2
c. H1 = H2
d. Q1 / Q2 = H1 / H2
338. Which of the following liquids is classified
as Newtonian fluid?

a. Honey
b. Petrol
c. Glycerine
d. Paint
338. Which of the following liquids is classified
as Newtonian fluid?

a. Honey
b. Petrol
c. Glycerine
d. Paint
339. It is a prime number that exceeds 10,000.

a. Clock prime
b. Cousin prime
c. Gigantic prime
d. Sexy prime
339. It is a prime number that exceeds 10,000.

a. Clock prime
b. Cousin prime
c. Gigantic prime
d. Sexy prime
340. Prime number that differs from another prime
number by four.
a. Clock prime
b. Cousin prime
c. Gigantic prime
d. Sexy prime
340. Prime number that differs from another prime
number by four.
a. Clock prime
b. Cousin prime
c. Gigantic prime
d. Sexy prime
341. Prime number obtained by reading digits
around an analog clock.
a. Clock prime
b. Cousin prime
c. Gigantic prime
d. Sexy prime
341. Prime number obtained by reading digits
around an analog clock.
a. Clock prime
b. Cousin prime
c. Gigantic prime
d. Sexy prime
342. It is a British word for Billion.
a. Killiard
b. Milliard
c. Killord
d. Millord
342. It is a British word for Billion.
a. Killiard
b. Milliard
c. Killord
d. Millord
343. A theory containing criteria for an old theory.
a. Metatheory
b. Betatheory
c. Megatheory
d. Millitheory
343. A theory containing criteria for an old theory.
a. Metatheory
b. Betatheory
c. Megatheory
d. Millitheory
344. A number of digits of prime number
factorization is less than the digits of the number.
a. Amicable number
b. Economical number
c. Wasteful number
d. Natural number
344. A number of digits of prime number
factorization is less than the digits of the number.
a. Amicable number
b. Economical number
c. Wasteful number
d. Natural number
345. It refers to a large number.

a. Billion
b. Zillion
c. Million
d. Trillion
345. It refers to a large number.

a. Billion
b. Zillion
c. Million
d. Trillion
346. A square which can be dissected into a
number of smaller squares with no to equal.
a. Medial triangle
b. Perfect square
c. Prime square
d. Cousin number
346. A square which can be dissected into a
number of smaller squares with no to equal.
a. Medial triangle
b. Perfect square
c. Prime square
d. Cousin number
347. The degree of peakedness of a distribution.

a. Cardiod
b. Limacon
c. Kurtosis
d. Stochastic
347. The degree of peakedness of a distribution.

a. Cardiod
b. Limacon
c. Kurtosis
d. Stochastic
348. Trigonometry formulas that convert a product
of functions into a sum or difference.
a. Prostaphaeresis formulas
b. Apoapis
c. Fouries series
d. Demlo numbers
348. Trigonometry formulas that convert a product
of functions into a sum or difference.
a. Prostaphaeresis formulas
b. Apoapis
c. Fouries series
d. Demlo numbers
349. A skew polygon such that every two
consecutive sides belong to a face of a regular
polyhedron.

a. Petrie polygon
b. Cevian polygon
c. Periapsis
d. Spinode
349. A skew polygon such that every two
consecutive sides belong to a face of a regular
polyhedron.

a. Petrie polygon
b. Cevian polygon
c. Periapsis
d. Spinode
350. Polygon with infinite sides.

a. Perigon
b. Apeirogon
c. Centigon
d. Zilliogon
350. Polygon with infinite sides.

a. Perigon
b. Apeirogon
c. Centigon
d. Zilliogon