Plumbing Arithmetic

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Plumbing Arithmetic

© All Rights Reserved

- Fixed Asset Disposals
- Plumbing Tools
- Plumbing Design and Estimate
- Preboard_3 - Plumbing Code
- practical problems and experiences
- Practical Problems
- Preboard_2 - Sanitation, Design
- Plumbing Final Pre-borad
- Plumbing Arithmetic
- Final Plumbing 2
- Preboard_4 - Practical Problem
- 2011 LCCI Accounting IAS Level-3 Series 2 (Code 3902)
- Pipe Sizing
- Master Plumber
- Plumbing Arithmetic Notes
- Board Exam
- Plumbing Practical Handouts
- July 2015 Master Plumber Terms Included
- MASTER PLUMBING REVIEWER 1
- Practical Problems CTP

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PLUMBING ARITHMETIC

ELEMENTS

1. For any two triangles, if an angle of one triangles is

congruent to an angle of the other and if the two sides

of one triangle are proportional to two sides of the

other, they are what kind of triangles?

a. Complementary

b. Supplementary

c. Similar

d. Dissimilar

1. For any two triangles, if an angle of one triangles is

congruent to an angle of the other and if the two sides

of one triangle are proportional to two sides of the

other, they are what kind of triangles?

a. Complementary

b. Supplementary

c. Similar

d. Dissimilar

2. An angle inscribe in a semi-circle is always?

a. Unaligned

b. More than 90 deg.

c. Less than 90 deg.

d. 90 deg.

2. An angle inscribe in a semi-circle is always?

a. Unaligned

b. More than 90 deg.

c. Less than 90 deg.

d. 90 deg.

3. A factor repeated to produce a power is?

a. Numerator

b. Square

c. Quotient

d. Root

3. A factor repeated to produce a power is?

a. Numerator

b. Square

c. Quotient

d. Root

4. A polygon with ten side is?

a. Dodecagon

b. Undecagon

c. Decagon

d. Tendicagon

4. A polygon with ten side is?

a. Dodecagon

b. Undecagon

c. Decagon

d. Tendicagon

5. Two angles having the same vertex and the side

of one is the prolongation of the side of the other

is?

a. Acute angle

b. Scalene angle

c. Obtuse angle

d. Vertical angle

5. Two angles having the same vertex and the side

of one is the prolongation of the side of the other

is?

a. Acute angle

b. Scalene angle

c. Obtuse angle

d. Vertical angle

6. The volume of the cube is equal to the cube of

the measure of its?

a. Angle

b. Corner

c. Edge

d. Diagonal

6. The volume of the cube is equal to the cube of

the measure of its?

a. Angle

b. Corner

c. Edge

d. Diagonal

7. If each two lines is perpendicular to the same

line, then the lines are?

a. Perpendicular

b. Parallel

c. Tangent

d. Converging

7. If each two lines is perpendicular to the same

line, then the lines are?

a. Perpendicular

b. Parallel

c. Tangent

d. Converging

8. Is a branch of mathematics dealing with

integers and more generally, numeral

computation?

a. Algebra

b. Trigonometry

c. Geometry

d. Arithmetic

8. Is a branch of mathematics dealing with

integers and more generally, numeral

computation?

a. Algebra

b. Trigonometry

c. Geometry

d. Arithmetic

9. The power to which a number is raised is

indicated by a small superior figure called?

a. Logarithm

b. Increment

c. Exponent

d. Mantissa

9. The power to which a number is raised is

indicated by a small superior figure called?

a. Logarithm

b. Increment

c. Exponent

d. Mantissa

10. A number that be exactly divided by two is?

a. Real

b. Odd

c. Integer

d. Even

10. A number that be exactly divided by two is?

a. Real

b. Odd

c. Integer

d. Even

11. A space that is devoid of matter and which the

pressure is zero?

a. Block hole

b. Outer space

c. Vacuum

d. Inner space

11. A space that is devoid of matter and which the

pressure is zero?

a. Block hole

b. Outer space

c. Vacuum

d. Inner space

12. Decrease in the value of a physical property

due to the passage of time?

a. Inflation

b. Depletion

c. Recession

d. Depreciation

12. Decrease in the value of a physical property

due to the passage of time?

a. Inflation

b. Depletion

c. Recession

d. Depreciation

13. We may classify an interest rate which

specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal

for one year as?

a. Nominal rate

b. Rate of return

c. Exact interest rate

d. Effective rate

13. We may classify an interest rate which

specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal

for one year as?

a. Nominal rate

b. Rate of return

c. Exact interest rate

d. Effective rate

14. The ratio of the interest payment to the

principal for a given unit of time and usually

expressed as a percentage of the principal?

a. Interest

b. Interest rate

c. Investment

d. Rate

14. The ratio of the interest payment to the

principal for a given unit of time and usually

expressed as a percentage of the principal?

a. Interest

b. Interest rate

c. Investment

d. Rate

15. Additional information of prospective bidders

on contract documents issued prior to bidding

date?

a. Depict

b. Escalate

c. Assessment

d. Bid bulletin

15. Additional information of prospective bidders

on contract documents issued prior to bidding

date?

a. Depict

b. Escalate

c. Assessment

d. Bid bulletin

16. The acceleration is ________ the mass of the

object.

a. Directly proportional to

b. Inversely proportional to

c. Directly proportional to the square of

d. Inversely proportional to the square of

16. The acceleration is ________ the mass of the

object.

a. Directly proportional to

b. Inversely proportional to

c. Directly proportional to the square of

d. Inversely proportional to the square of

FORCE = MASS x ACCELERATION

17. Reduction in the level of national income and

output usually accompanied by the fall in the

general price level?

a. Devaluation

b. Deflation

c. Inflation

d. Depreciation

17. Reduction in the level of national income and

output usually accompanied by the fall in the

general price level?

a. Devaluation

b. Deflation

c. Inflation

d. Depreciation

18. It is a series of equal payment occuring at

equal interval of time?

a. Annuity

b. Debt

c. Amortization

d. Deposit

18. It is a series of equal payment occuring at

equal interval of time?

a. Annuity

b. Debt

c. Amortization

d. Deposit

19. The place where buyers and sellers come

together?

a. Market

b. Business

c. Recreation center

d. Buy and sell section

19. The place where buyers and sellers come

together?

a. Market

b. Business

c. Recreation center

d. Buy and sell section

20. A market whereby there is only one buyer of

an item for which there are no goods substitute?

a. Monopsony

b. Oligopoly

c. Monopoly

d. Oligopsony

20. A market whereby there is only one buyer of

an item for which there are no goods substitute?

a. Monopsony

b. Oligopoly

c. Monopoly

d. Oligopsony

21. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal

interval of time where the first payment is made after

several periods, after the beginning of the payment?

a. Perpetuity

b. Ordinary annuity

c. Annuity due

d. Deferred annuity

21. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal

interval of time where the first payment is made after

several periods, after the beginning of the payment?

a. Perpetuity

b. Ordinary annuity

c. Annuity due

d. Deferred annuity

22. The total income equal the total operating

cost?

a. Balance sheet

b. In place value

c. Check and balance

d. Breakeven no gain loss

22. The total income equal the total operating

cost?

a. Balance sheet

b. In place value

c. Check and balance

d. Breakeven no gain loss

23. Kind of obligation which has no condition

attached.

a. Analytic

b. Pure

c. Gratuitous

d. Private

23. Kind of obligation which has no condition

attached.

a. Analytic

b. Pure

c. Gratuitous

d. Private

24. Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct

material costs of all materials that go into production.

The sum of these two direct cost is known as:

a. GS and A expenses

b. Operating and Maintenance cost

c. Prime cost

d. O and M cost

24. Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct

material costs of all materials that go into production.

The sum of these two direct cost is known as:

a. GS and A expenses

b. Operating and Maintenance cost

c. Prime cost

d. O and M cost

25. An index of short term paying ability is

called?

b. Profit margin ratio

c. Current ratio

d. Acid-test ratio

25. An index of short term paying ability is

called?

b. Profit margin ratio

c. Current ratio

d. Acid-test ratio

26. An artificial expenses that spreads purchase

price of an asset or another property over number

of years.

a. Depreciation

b. Sinking fund

c. Amnesty

d. Bond

26. An artificial expenses that spreads purchase

price of an asset or another property over number

of years.

a. Depreciation

b. Sinking fund

c. Amnesty

d. Bond

27. Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

a. Market value

b. Fair value

c. Salvage value

d. Book value

27. Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

a. Market value

b. Fair value

c. Salvage value

d. Book value

28. Consist of the actual counting or determination

of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as

of a given date.

a. Physical inventory

b. Material update

c. Technological assessment

d. Material count

28. Consist of the actual counting or determination

of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as

of a given date.

a. Physical inventory

b. Material update

c. Technological assessment

d. Material count

29. A series of uniform accounts over a period of

time.

a. Depreciation

b. Annuity

c. Perpetuity

d. Inflation

29. A series of uniform accounts over a period of

time.

a. Depreciation

b. Annuity

c. Perpetuity

d. Inflation

30. The quantity of a certain commodity that is

offered for sale at a certain price at a given place

and time.

a. Demand

b. Supply

c. Stocks

d. Goods

30. The quantity of a certain commodity that is

offered for sale at a certain price at a given place

and time.

a. Demand

b. Supply

c. Stocks

d. Goods

31. Work-in process is classified as,

a. An asset

b. A liability

c. An expenses

d. An owners equity

31. Work-in process is classified as,

a. An asset

b. A liability

c. An expenses

d. An owners equity

32. What is the highest position in the

corporation?

a. President

b. Board of Directors

c. Chairman of the Board

d. Stockholders

32. What is the highest position in the

corporation?

a. President

b. Board of Directors

c. Chairman of the Board

d. Stockholders

33. Type of ownership in business here individuals

exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest.

a. Equitable

b. Public

c. Private

d. Pure

33. Type of ownership in business here individuals

exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest.

a. Equitable

b. Public

c. Private

d. Pure

34. Decrease in the value of a physical property

due to the passage of time.

a. Inflation

b. Depletion

c. Recession

d. Depreciation

34. Decrease in the value of a physical property

due to the passage of time.

a. Inflation

b. Depletion

c. Recession

d. Depreciation

35. An association of two or more individuals for

the purpose of operating a business as co-owners

for profit,

a. Sole proprietorship

b. Company

c. Partnership

d. Corporation

35. An association of two or more individuals for

the purpose of operating a business as co-owners

for profit,

a. Sole proprietorship

b. Company

c. Partnership

d. Corporation

36. Refers to the vertical speed at which the force

of air resistance is just sufficient to the balance the

bodys weight.

a. Gravitational acceleration

b. Terminal speed

c. Drag

d. Lift

36. Refers to the vertical speed at which the force

of air resistance is just sufficient to the balance the

bodys weight.

a. Gravitational acceleration

b. Terminal speed

c. Drag

d. Lift

37. It is defined to the capacity of a commodity to

satisfy human want.

a. Discount

b. Luxury

c. Necessity

d. Utility

37. It is defined to the capacity of a commodity to

satisfy human want.

a. Discount

b. Luxury

c. Necessity

d. Utility

38. It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to

willing seller for a property where each has equal

advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

a. Fair value

b. Market value

c. Book value

d. Salvage value

38. It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to

willing seller for a property where each has equal

advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

a. Fair value

b. Market value

c. Book value

d. Salvage value

39. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or

service is supplied by a number of vendor by a number

of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional

vendors entering the market.

a. Perfect competition

b. Oligopoly

c. Monopoly

d. Elastic demand

39. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or

service is supplied by a number of vendor by a number

of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional

vendors entering the market.

a. Perfect competition

b. Oligopoly

c. Monopoly

d. Elastic demand

40. These are products or services that are desired by

human and will be purchase if money is available after

the required necessities have been obtain,

a. Utilities

b. Necessities

c. Luxuries

d. Product goods and services

40. These are products or services that are desired by

human and will be purchase if money is available after

the required necessities have been obtain,

a. Utilities

b. Necessities

c. Luxuries

d. Product goods and services

41. These are products or services that are required to

support human life and activities that will be purchased

in somewhat the same quantity even though the price

varies considerably,

a. Utilities

b. Necessities

c. Luxuries

d. Product goods and services

41. These are products or services that are required to

support human life and activities that will be purchased

in somewhat the same quantity even though the price

varies considerably,

a. Utilities

b. Necessities

c. Luxuries

d. Product goods and services

42. A condition where only few individuals

produce a certain product and that any action of

one will lead to almost the same action of others.

a. Oligopoly

b. Semi-monopoly

c. Monopoly

d. Perfect competition

42. A condition where only few individuals

produce a certain product and that any action of

one will lead to almost the same action of others.

a. Oligopoly

b. Semi-monopoly

c. Monopoly

d. Perfect competition

43. Grand total of the assets and operational

capability of a corporation.

a. Authorized capital

b. Investment

c. Subscribed capital

d. Money market

43. Grand total of the assets and operational

capability of a corporation.

a. Authorized capital

b. Investment

c. Subscribed capital

d. Money market

44. The worth of the property equals to the

original cost less depreciation.

a. Scrap value

b. Face value

c. Market value

d. Book value

44. The worth of the property equals to the

original cost less depreciation.

a. Scrap value

b. Face value

c. Market value

d. Book value

45. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

a. Discount

b. Credit

c. Interest

d. Profit

45. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

a. Discount

b. Credit

c. Interest

d. Profit

46. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that

can be converted quickly into cash, such as

accounts receivable and merchandise are called

a. Total assets

b. Fixed assets

c. Current assets

d. None of the above

46. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that

can be converted quickly into cash, such as

accounts receivable and merchandise are called

a. Total assets

b. Fixed assets

c. Current assets

d. None of the above

47. The length of time which the property may be

operated at a profit

a. Physical life

b. Economic life

c. Operating life

d. All of the above

47. The length of time which the property may be

operated at a profit

a. Physical life

b. Economic life

c. Operating life

d. All of the above

48. The provision in the contract that indicates the

possible adjustment of material cost and labor

cost.

a. Secondary clause

b. Escalatory clause

c. Contingency clause

d. Main clause

48. The provision in the contract that indicates the

possible adjustment of material cost and labor

cost.

a. Secondary clause

b. Escalatory clause

c. Contingency clause

d. Main clause

49. The present worth of all depreciation over the

economic life of the item is called

a. Book value

b. Capital recovery

c. Depreciation recovery

d. Sinking fund

49. The present worth of all depreciation over the

economic life of the item is called

a. Book value

b. Capital recovery

c. Depreciation recovery

d. Sinking fund

50. Gross profit, sale less cost of good sold, as a

percentage of sales is called

a. Profit margin

b. Gross margin

c. Net income

d. Rate of return

50. Gross profit, sale less cost of good sold, as a

percentage of sales is called

a. Profit margin

b. Gross margin

c. Net income

d. Rate of return

51. Worth of the property as shown in the

accounting records of an enterprise,

a. Fair value

b. Market value

c. Salvage value

d. Book value

51. Worth of the property as shown in the

accounting records of an enterprise,

a. Fair value

b. Market value

c. Salvage value

d. Book value

52. Those funds that are required to make the

enterprise or project a going concern,

a. Initial investments

b. Current accounts

c. Working capital

d. Subscribed capital

52. Those funds that are required to make the

enterprise or project a going concern,

a. Initial investments

b. Current accounts

c. Working capital

d. Subscribed capital

53. A market situation where there is one seller

with many buyer,

a. Monopoly

b. Monopsony

c. Oligopoly

d. Oligopsony

53. A market situation where there is one seller

with many buyer,

a. Monopoly

b. Monopsony

c. Oligopoly

d. Oligopsony

54. A market situation where there is one seller

and one buyer,

a. Monopoly

b. Monopsony

c. Bilateral monopoly

d. Bilateral monopsony

54. A market situation where there is one seller

and one buyer,

a. Monopoly

b. Monopsony

c. Bilateral monopoly

d. Bilateral monopsony

55. A market situation where there are few sellers

and few buyers,

a. Oligopoly

b. Oligopsony

c. Bilateral oligopoly

d. Bilateral Oligopsony

55. A market situation where there are few sellers

and few buyers,

a. Oligopoly

b. Oligopsony

c. Bilateral oligopoly

d. Bilateral Oligopsony

56. A market situation where there are only two

buyers with many sellers,

a. Duopoly

b. Oligopoly

c. Duopsony

d. Oligopsony

56. A market situation where there are only two

buyers with many sellers,

a. Duopoly

b. Oligopoly

c. Duopsony

d. Oligopsony

57. Define as the future value minus the present

value.

a. Interest

b. Rate of return

c. Discount

d. Capital

57. Define as the future value minus the present

value.

a. Interest

b. Rate of return

c. Discount

d. Capital

58. If an object is thrown vertically upward, its

acceleration.

a. Is smaller than that of the object thrown vertically

downward

b. Is equal to that of an object thrown vertically downward

c. Greater than that of the object thrown vertically downward

d. Zero until the object reaches maximum point

58. If an object is thrown vertically upward, its

acceleration.

a. Is smaller than that of the object thrown vertically

downward

b. Is equal to that of an object thrown vertically downward

c. Greater than that of the object thrown vertically downward

d. Zero until the object reaches maximum point

59. Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known

as,

a. Book value

b. Salvage value

c. Replacement value

d. Future value

59. Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known

as,

a. Book value

b. Salvage value

c. Replacement value

d. Future value

60. A type of annuity where the payments are

made at the end of payment period starting from

the first period,

a. Ordinary annuity

b. Annuity due

c. Deferred annuity

d. Perpetuity

60. A type of annuity where the payments are

made at the end of payment period starting from

the first period,

a. Ordinary annuity

b. Annuity due

c. Deferred annuity

d. Perpetuity

61. Bond to which are attached coupons indicating

the interest due and the date when such interest is

to be paid,

a. Registered bond

b. Coupon bond

c. Mortgage bond

d. Collateral trust bond

61. Bond to which are attached coupons indicating

the interest due and the date when such interest is

to be paid,

a. Registered bond

b. Coupon bond

c. Mortgage bond

d. Collateral trust bond

62. When free competition exists the price of a

product will be that value where supply is equal to

the demand

b. Law of supply

c. Law of demand

d. Law of supply and demand

62. When free competition exists the price of a

product will be that value where supply is equal to

the demand

b. Law of supply

c. Law of demand

d. Law of supply and demand

63. The ratio of the net income to the owners

equity is known as,

a. Price-earning ratio

b. Profit margin ratio

c. Return of investment

d. Gross margin

63. The ratio of the net income to the owners

equity is known as,

a. Price-earning ratio

b. Profit margin ratio

c. Return of investment

d. Gross margin

64. Capitalized cost of any property is equal to

the,

a. Annual cost

b. First cost + interest of the first cost

c. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance

d. First cost + salvage value

64. Capitalized cost of any property is equal to

the,

a. Annual cost

b. First cost + interest of the first cost

c. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance

d. First cost + salvage value

65. Which of the following depreciation methods

cannot have a salvage value of zero?

b. Sinking fund method

c. Straight line method

d. SYD method

65. Which of the following depreciation methods

cannot have a salvage value of zero?

b. Sinking fund method

c. Straight line method

d. SYD method

66. The lessening of value of an asset due to the

decrease in the quantity available preferring to the

natural resources?

a. Depreciation

b. Depletion

c. Inflation

d. Incremental cost

66. The lessening of value of an asset due to the

decrease in the quantity available preferring to the

natural resources?

a. Depreciation

b. Depletion

c. Inflation

d. Incremental cost

67. An increase in the value of a capital asset is

called

a. Profit

b. Capital gain

c. Capital expenditure

d. Capital stock

67. An increase in the value of a capital asset is

called

a. Profit

b. Capital gain

c. Capital expenditure

d. Capital stock

68. Lands, buildings, plant and machinery are

example of

a. Current assets

b. Trade investments

c. Fixed assets

d. Intangible assets

68. Lands, buildings, plant and machinery are

example of

a. Current assets

b. Trade investments

c. Fixed assets

d. Intangible assets

69. An angle that measures from the horizontal

upward to an object is called

a. Right angle

b. Acute angle

c. Angle of elevation

d. Angle of depression

69. An angle that measures from the horizontal

upward to an object is called

a. Right angle

b. Acute angle

c. Angle of elevation

d. Angle of depression

70. Any number multiplied by _____ equals

unity?

a. Infinity

b. Itself

c. Its reciprocal

d. Zero

e. None of the above

70. Any number multiplied by _____ equals

unity?

a. Infinity

b. Itself

c. Its reciprocal

d. Zero

e. None of the above

71. A polygon with 15 sides is called

a. Pentagon

b. Dodecagon

c. Pentadecagon

d. nonagon

71. A polygon with 15 sides is called

a. Pentagon

b. Dodecagon

c. Pentadecagon

d. nonagon

72. The chord passing through the focus of the

parabola and perpendicular to its axis is term as:

a. Directrix

b. Translated axis

c. Latus rectum

d. Asymptotes

72. The chord passing through the focus of the

parabola and perpendicular to its axis is term as:

a. Directrix

b. Translated axis

c. Latus rectum

d. Asymptotes

73. For ordinary annuity, what is the value for

periodic payment A?

a. Fi / (1+ i)^ n - 1

b. Pi / (1+ i)^ n - 1

c. Fi / (1+ n)^ i - 1

d. Fi / 1+ (1+ i)^ n

73. For ordinary annuity, what is the value for

periodic payment A?

a. Fi / (1+ i)^ n - 1

b. Pi / (1+ i)^ n - 1

c. Fi / (1+ n)^ i - 1

d. Fi / 1+ (1+ i)^ n

74. In a regular polygon, the perpendicular line

drawn from the center of the inscribed circle to

any one of the sides is called:

a. Radius

b. Altitude

c. Median

d. Apothem

74. In a regular polygon, the perpendicular line

drawn from the center of the inscribed circle to

any one of the sides is called:

a. Radius

b. Altitude

c. Median

d. Apothem

75. For the flush tank type water closet, what is

the main purpose of the tank?

b. To give water surge

c. To hold a supply of water

d. For rim support

75. For the flush tank type water closet, what is

the main purpose of the tank?

b. To give water surge

c. To hold a supply of water

d. For rim support

76. The section of the sphere cut by a plane

through its center is termed as:

a. Small circle

b. Semi-circle

c. Big circle

d. Great circle

76. The section of the sphere cut by a plane

through its center is termed as:

a. Small circle

b. Semi-circle

c. Big circle

d. Great circle

77. The statement a+b = b+a is a,

b. Commutative law of addition

c. Associative law of multiplication

d. Commutative law of multiplication

77. The statement a+b = b+a is a,

b. Commutative law of addition

c. Associative law of multiplication

d. Commutative law of multiplication

78. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

a. Wednesday

b. Saturday

c. Sunday

d. Thursday

78. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

a. Wednesday

b. Saturday

c. Sunday

d. Thursday

79. If two bodies of different masses, initially at

rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same

time, then what will be the same in both bodies?

a. Velocity

b. Acceleration

c. Kinetic energy

d. Momentum

79. If two bodies of different masses, initially at

rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same

time, then what will be the same in both bodies?

a. Velocity

b. Acceleration

c. Kinetic energy

d. Momentum

80. What is so very special about the number

8549176320?

b. Its a Fibonacci series

c. It is the largest number yet enumerated orally

d. It contains digits in an alphabetical order

80. What is so very special about the number

8549176320?

b. Its a Fibonacci series

c. It is the largest number yet enumerated orally

d. It contains digits in an alphabetical order

81. A line segment joining two points on a circle is

called:

a. Arc

b. Tangent

c. Sector

d. Chord

81. A line segment joining two points on a circle is

called:

a. Arc

b. Tangent

c. Sector

d. Chord

82. The absorption of ink by blotting paper

involves which phenomenon?

a. Siphon action

b. Diffusion of ink through the blotting

c. Viscosity of ink

d. Capillary action phenomenon

82. The absorption of ink by blotting paper

involves which phenomenon?

a. Siphon action

b. Diffusion of ink through the blotting

c. Viscosity of ink

d. Capillary action phenomenon

83. Let a thin capillary tube be replaced with

another tube of insufficient length then, what will

happen to water?

a. Depressed

b. will overflow

c. Change its meniscus

d. Will not rise

83. Let a thin capillary tube be replaced with

another tube of insufficient length then, what will

happen to water?

a. Depressed

b. will overflow

c. Change its meniscus

d. Will not rise

84. Why metals are good conductors of

electricity?

b. The atoms are lightly packed

c. They have high melting point

d. All of the above

84. Why metals are good conductors of

electricity?

b. The atoms are lightly packed

c. They have high melting point

d. All of the above

85. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the

day of the week on 8th Feb, 2004?

a. Tuesday

b. Monday

c. Sunday

d. Wednesday

85. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the

day of the week on 8th Feb, 2004?

a. Tuesday

b. Monday

c. Sunday

d. Wednesday

86. A 5-pointed star is also known as:

a. Pentagon

b. Pentagram

c. Pentatron

d. Quintagon

86. A 5-pointed star is also known as:

a. Pentagon

b. Pentagram

c. Pentatron

d. Quintagon

87. The normal to a given plane is:

b. Coplanar

c. Perpendicular to the plane

d. Parallel to the plane

87. The normal to a given plane is:

b. Coplanar

c. Perpendicular to the plane

d. Parallel to the plane

88. A plane section cut from a right circular cone

by a plane perpendicular to the base of the cone is:

a. Parabola

b. Circle

c. Hyperbola

d. Ellipse

88. A plane section cut from a right circular cone

by a plane perpendicular to the base of the cone is:

a. Parabola

b. Circle

c. Hyperbola

d. Ellipse

89. Which of the following statements is true?

a. All squares are rectangles and rhombuses.

b. All rectangles are rhombuses, but not all rhombuses are

rectangles.

c. All squares are parallelograms, but not all squares are

rectangles.

d. All rhombuses are parallelograms and all parallelogram are

rhombuses.

89. Which of the following statements is true?

a. All squares are rectangles and rhombuses.

b. All rectangles are rhombuses, but not all rhombuses are

rectangles.

c. All squares are parallelograms, but not all squares are

rectangles.

d. All rhombuses are parallelograms and all parallelogram are

rhombuses.

90. When a solid (ice and snow) changes into

water vapor (gas) without moving through the

liquid phase, the process is called

a. Condensation

b. Evaporation

c. Deposition

d. Sublimation

90. When a solid (ice and snow) changes into

water vapor (gas) without moving through the

liquid phase, the process is called

a. Condensation

b. Evaporation

c. Deposition

d. Sublimation

91. Its is amount of energy needed to cool or heat

1 lb of water by one degree F.

a. Celsius

b. Rankine

c. Btu

d. Calories

91. Its is amount of energy needed to cool or heat

1 lb of water by one degree F.

a. Celsius

b. Rankine

c. Btu

d. Calories

92. One liter per second is equal to _____ gpm?

a. 0.278 gpm

b. 15.85 gpm

c. 7.48 gpm

d. 264 gpm

92. One liter per second is equal to _____ gpm?

a. 0.278 gpm

b. 15.85 gpm

c. 7.48 gpm

d. 264 gpm

93. One btu/hr is equal to ______ kJ/hr?

a. 3.96 kJ/hr

b. 1.055 kJ/hr

c. 4.40 kJ/hr

d. 3413 kJ/hr

93. One btu/hr is equal to ______ kJ/hr?

a. 3.96 kJ/hr

b. 1.055 kJ/hr

c. 4.40 kJ/hr

d. 3413 kJ/hr

94. 1 atm is equal to _____?

a. 406.8 in. of water

b. 76 cm Hg

c. 101.3 KPa

d. 14.7 psi

e. All of the above

94. 1 atm is equal to _____?

a. 406.8 in. of water

b. 76 cm Hg

c. 101.3 KPa

d. 14.7 psi

e. All of the above

95. 1 horsepower is equal to ____ ?

a. 2545 btu/hr

b. 550 ft-lb/s

c. 178.1 cal/s

d. 746 watts

e. All of the above

95. 1 horsepower is equal to ____ ?

a. 2545 btu/hr

b. 550 ft-lb/s

c. 178.1 cal/s

d. 746 watts

e. All of the above

96. One CMH is equal to _____ ?

a. 0.588 cfm

b. 4.4 gpm

c. 0.278 lps

d. All of the above

96. One CMH is equal to _____ ?

a. 0.588 cfm

b. 4.4 gpm

c. 0.278 lps

d. All of the above

97. One inch water column at 4 deg. C is equal

______?

a. 0.036 psi

b. 250 Pa

c. 1.868 Torr

d. All of the above

97. One inch water column at 4 deg. C is equal

______?

a. 0.036 psi

b. 250 Pa

c. 1.868 Torr

d. All of the above

98. One kilowatt is equal to ______?

a. 1.34 hp

b. 737.6 ft-lb/s

c. 238.9 cal/s

d. 3413 btu/hr

e. All of the above

98. One kilowatt is equal to ______?

a. 1.34 hp

b. 737.6 ft-lb/s

c. 238.9 cal/s

d. 3413 btu/hr

e. All of the above

99. One m3 is equal to ______?

a. 35.3 ft3

b. 264.04 gal

c. 9.81 kPa

d. 1000 li

e. All of the above

99. One m3 is equal to ______?

a. 35.3 ft3

b. 264.04 gal

c. 9.81 kPa

d. 1000 li

e. All of the above

100. One gpm is equal to ______?

a. 0.063 lps

b. 449 cfs

c. 0.2272 cmh

d. 1440 gpd

e. All of the above

100. One gpm is equal to ______?

a. 0.063 lps

b. 449 cfs

c. 0.2272 cmh

d. 1440 gpd

e. All of the above

101. Brake horsepower is:

b. The power delivered by the pump.

c. Always greater than the motor horsepower.

d. Always less than the motor horsepower.

101. Brake horsepower is:

b. The power delivered by the pump.

c. Always greater than the motor horsepower.

d. Always less than the motor horsepower.

102. What is the term for the combined efficiency

of a pump and motor that is obtained by

multiplying the pump efficiency by the motor

efficiency?

b. Well efficiency

c. Wire-to-water efficiency

d. Motor-to-pipe efficiency

102. What is the term for the combined efficiency

of a pump and motor that is obtained by

multiplying the pump efficiency by the motor

efficiency?

b. Well efficiency

c. Wire-to-water efficiency

d. Motor-to-pipe efficiency

103. Which of the following is the standard

acceleration due to gravity in the English unit?

a. 981 fps^2

b. 32.2 fps^2

c. 9.81 fps^2

d. 32.2 ips^2

103. Which of the following is the standard

acceleration due to gravity in the English unit?

a. 981 fps^2

b. 32.2 fps^2

c. 9.81 fps^2

d. 32.2 ips^2

104. What is the value of 1 radian in degrees?

a. 57.3 deg.

b. 89.55 deg.

c. 60.3 deg.

d. All of the above

104. What is the value of 1 radian in degrees?

a. 57.3 deg.

b. 89.55 deg.

c. 60.3 deg.

d. All of the above

105. How many degrees are 4800 mils?

a. 180 deg.

b. 270 deg.

c. 90 deg.

d. 360 deg.

105. How many degrees are 4800 mils?

a. 180 deg.

b. 270 deg.

c. 90 deg.

d. 360 deg.

106. The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 gram per

gram-atom. What is the mass of a hydrogen atom?

b. 6.02 x 10^-23 g/atom

c. 1 g/atom

d. The mass is too small to calculate

106. The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 gram per

gram-atom. What is the mass of a hydrogen atom?

b. 6.02 x 10^-23 g/atom

c. 1 g/atom

d. The mass is too small to calculate

107. The equation y = a1 + a2x is an algebraic

expression for which of the following choices?

a. Straight line

b. Cosine expansion series

c. Circle in polar form

d. Projectile motion

107. The equation y = a1 + a2x is an algebraic

expression for which of the following choices?

a. Straight line

b. Cosine expansion series

c. Circle in polar form

d. Projectile motion

108. One million gallons per day (mgd) is equal to

______?

a. 684.04 kPa

b. 694 gpm

c. 1,000,000 li

d. All of the above

108. One million gallons per day (mgd) is equal to

______?

a. 684.04 kPa

b. 694 gpm

c. 1,000,000 li

d. All of the above

109. One million gallons per day (mgd) is equal to

______?

a. 1.547 cfs

b. 449 gpm

c. 3.785 li

d. All of the above

109. One million gallons per day (mgd) is equal to

______?

a. 1.547 cfs

b. 449 gpm

c. 3.785 li

d. All of the above

110. One meter is equal to ______?

a. 1.094 yard

b. 39.37 in

c. 3.28 ft

d. All of the above

110. One meter is equal to ______?

a. 1.094 yard

b. 39.37 in

c. 3.28 ft

d. All of the above

111. One quarts is equal to ______?

a. 0.946 li

b. 449 cfs

c. 0.2272 cmh

d. All of the above

111. One quarts is equal to ______?

a. 0.946 li

b. 449 cfs

c. 0.2272 cmh

d. All of the above

112. Determine the value of each interior angle of

a regular pentagon.

a. 108 deg.

b. 120 deg.

c. 180 deg.

d. 90 deg.

112. Determine the value of each interior angle of

a regular pentagon.

a. 108 deg.

b. 120 deg.

c. 180 deg.

d. 90 deg.

113. Determine the first derivative with respect to

x of the function: g(x) = 5 sq. rt. Of 10 35.

a. 0

b. 0.75

c. 35

d. 5

113. Determine the first derivative with respect to

x of the function: g(x) = 5 sq. rt. Of 10 35.

a. 0

b. 0.75

c. 35

d. 5

114. Find the root mean square of 11,23 and 35.

a. 25

b. 27

c. 26

d. 24

114. Find the root mean square of 11,23 and 35.

a. 25

b. 27

c. 26

d. 24

115. Think of a number. Double the number.

Subtract 6 from the result and divide the answer

by 2. The quotient will be 20. what is the number

you think?

a. 12

b. 20

c. 23

d. 32

115. Think of a number. Double the number.

Subtract 6 from the result and divide the answer

by 2. The quotient will be 20. what is the number

you think?

a. 12

b. 20

c. 23

d. 32

116. How many permutation can be made out of

the word ENGINEERING?

a. 277,200

b. 272,700

c. 200,277

d. 227,700

116. How many permutation can be made out of

the word ENGINEERING?

a. 277,200

b. 272,700

c. 200,277

d. 227,700

117. What is the acid test ratio?

b. The ratio of all assets to actual current liabilities.

c. The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to the

total current liabilities.

d. The ratio of gross margin to operating, sales, administrative

expenses.

117. What is the acid test ratio?

b. The ratio of all assets to actual current liabilities.

c. The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to the

total current liabilities.

d. The ratio of gross margin to operating, sales, administrative

expenses.

118. How do call an energy required to move 1

coulomb of charge through an element?

a. Current

b. Voltage

c. Power

d. Resonance

118. How do call an energy required to move 1

coulomb of charge through an element?

a. Current

b. Voltage

c. Power

d. Resonance

119. This is a number sequence where the

succeeding term is obtained by adding the last pair

of preceding terms such as sequence

(1,1,2,3,5,8) how do you call this number

sequence?

a. Eulers number

b. Fermat number

c. Fibonacci number

d. Darshos number

119. This is a number sequence where the

succeeding term is obtained by adding the last pair

of preceding terms such as sequence

(1,1,2,3,5,8) how do you call this number

sequence?

a. Eulers number

b. Fermat number

c. Fibonacci number

d. Darshos number

120. If the roots of an equation are zero, then, how

do you classify the solutions?

a. Extraneous solutions

b. Trivial solutions

c. Conditional solutions

d. Darshos solutions

120. If the roots of an equation are zero, then, how

do you classify the solutions?

a. Extraneous solutions

b. Trivial solutions

c. Conditional solutions

d. Darshos solutions

121. In electricity, how do you call the rate of

charge flow?

a. Potential difference

b. Current

c. Voltage

d. Power

121. In electricity, how do you call the rate of

charge flow?

a. Potential difference

b. Current

c. Voltage

d. Power

122. This law in electrical circuits states, The

algebraic sum of currents entering a node (or a

closed boundary) is zero. How do you call this

law?

a. Kirchhoffs current law

b. Ohms law

c. Kirchhoffs voltage law

d. Darshos law

122. This law in electrical circuits states, The

algebraic sum of currents entering a node (or a

closed boundary) is zero. How do you call this

law?

a. Kirchhoffs current law

b. Ohms law

c. Kirchhoffs voltage law

d. Darshos law

123. This law in electrical circuits states, The

algebraic sum of all voltages around a closed path

(or loop) is zero. How do you call this law?

b. Ohms law

c. Kirchoffs voltage law

d. Darshos law

123. This law in electrical circuits states, The

algebraic sum of all voltages around a closed path

(or loop) is zero. How do you call this law?

b. Ohms law

c. Kirchoffs voltage law

d. Darshos law

124. In electrical, what is the SI unit of

conductance?

a. Ohm

b. Siemens

c. Ampere

d. Darshos siemens

124. In electrical, what is the SI unit of

conductance?

a. Ohm

b. Siemens

c. Ampere

d. Darshos siemens

125. Which of the following is the equivalent of 1

ampere?

a. 1 coulomb per second

b. 1 joule per second

c. 1 darsho per second

d. 1 kJ per second

125. Which of the following is the equivalent of 1

ampere?

a. 1 coulomb per second

b. 1 joule per second

c. 1 darsho per second

d. 1 kJ per second

126. This is the process of expressing a

polynomial as the product of another polynomial

or monomial of lower degree. What is this

mathematical process?

a. Rationalization

b. Decomposition

c. Factoring

d. Darshoing

126. This is the process of expressing a

polynomial as the product of another polynomial

or monomial of lower degree. What is this

mathematical process?

a. Rationalization

b. Decomposition

c. Factoring

d. Darshoing

127. This is a point where the concavity of a curve

changes or when the slope of the curve is neither

increasing nor decreasing. What is this point

commonly called?

a. Maximum point

b. Minimum point

c. Point of inflection

d. Darshos point

127. This is a point where the concavity of a curve

changes or when the slope of the curve is neither

increasing nor decreasing. What is this point

commonly called?

a. Maximum point

b. Minimum point

c. Point of inflection

d. Darshos point

128. How do you call the axis of the hyperbola

that passes through the center, the foci and

vertices?

a. Transverse axis

b. Conjugate axis

c. Asymptote axis

d. Major axis

128. How do you call the axis of the hyperbola

that passes through the center, the foci and

vertices?

a. Transverse axis

b. Conjugate axis

c. Asymptote axis

d. Major axis

129. What is the number, which could not be

expressed as a quotient of two integers?

a. Natural

b. Rational

c. Irrational

d. Surd

129. What is the number, which could not be

expressed as a quotient of two integers?

a. Natural

b. Rational

c. Irrational

d. Surd

130. How do you call the opposite of the prefix

nano?

a. Peta

b. Tera

c. Giga

d. Gaga

130. How do you call the opposite of the prefix

nano?

a. Peta

b. Tera

c. Giga

d. Gaga

131. What do you a triangle having unequal sides?

a. Obtuse

b. Oblique

c. Scalene

d. Isosceles

131. What do you a triangle having unequal sides?

a. Obtuse

b. Oblique

c. Scalene

d. Isosceles

132. How do you call the distance of a point from

y-axis?

a. Abscissa

b. Ordinate

c. Coordinate

d. Polar distance

132. How do you call the distance of a point from

y-axis?

a. Abscissa

b. Ordinate

c. Coordinate

d. Polar distance

133. This is the measure of central tendency

defined as the most frequent score. How do you

call this measure of central tendency?

a. Median

b. Mode

c. Mean

d. Deviation

133. This is the measure of central tendency

defined as the most frequent score. How do you

call this measure of central tendency?

a. Median

b. Mode

c. Mean

d. Deviation

134. One mil is equal to ______?

a. .01 in

b. .001 in

c. .0001 in

d. .00001 in

134. One mil is equal to ______?

a. .01 in

b. .001 in

c. .0001 in

d. .00001 in

135. A polygon with 10 sides is said to be:

a. Dodecagon

b. Decagon

c. Decahadron

d. Dodecahadron

135. A polygon with 10 sides is said to be:

a. Dodecagon

b. Decagon

c. Decahadron

d. Dodecahadron

136. Any number expressed in place value

notation with the base 12 is known as:

a. Duodecimal

b. Deonite

c. Decile

d. Dedekind

136. Any number expressed in place value

notation with the base 12 is known as:

a. Duodecimal

b. Deonite

c. Decile

d. Dedekind

137. Another name for derivative is said to be:

a. Differential manifold

b. Partial derivative

c. Differential form

d. Differential coefficient

137. Another name for derivative is said to be:

a. Differential manifold

b. Partial derivative

c. Differential form

d. Differential coefficient

138. Another name for rhombus is said to be:

a. Dichotomy

b. Diamond

c. Bi-rectangular

d. Bi-sexual

138. Another name for rhombus is said to be:

a. Dichotomy

b. Diamond

c. Bi-rectangular

d. Bi-sexual

139. A prefix denoting a multiple of 10 times any

of the physical units of the system international.

a. Deka

b. Nano

c. Hecto

d. Exa

139. A prefix denoting a multiple of 10 times any

of the physical units of the system international.

a. Deka

b. Nano

c. Hecto

d. Exa

140. The father of plane geometry.

a. Euclid

b. Pythagoras

c. Aristotle

d. Galileo

140. The father of plane geometry.

a. Euclid

b. Pythagoras

c. Aristotle

d. Galileo

141. This is the case of a solution of a plane

triangle where the given data leads to two

solutions. How do you call this case?

a. Ambiguous case

b. Quadratic case

c. Extraneous case

d. Darshos case

141. This is the case of a solution of a plane

triangle where the given data leads to two

solutions. How do you call this case?

a. Ambiguous case

b. Quadratic case

c. Extraneous case

d. Darshos case

142. It is a series of equal payments occurring at

equal intervals of time where the first payment is

made after several periods, after the beginning of

the payment, how do you call this payment?

a. Deferred annuity

b. Ordinary annuity

c. Annuity due

d. Simple annuity

142. It is a series of equal payments occurring at

equal intervals of time where the first payment is

made after several periods, after the beginning of

the payment, how do you call this payment?

a. Deferred annuity

b. Ordinary annuity

c. Annuity due

d. Simple annuity

143. What do you think is the negotiation of wage

rates, conditions of employment ,etc. by

representatives of the labor force and

management?

a. Union trade

b. Union rally

c. Collective bargaining

d. Cooperative

143. What do you think is the negotiation of wage

rates, conditions of employment ,etc. by

representatives of the labor force and

management?

a. Union trade

b. Union rally

c. Collective bargaining

d. Cooperative

144. How do you call a type of bond where the

corporations owner name is recorded and the

interest is paid periodically to the owners with

their asking for it?

a. Registered bond

b. Preferred bond

c. Bail bond

d. Incorporators bond

144. How do you call a type of bond where the

corporations owner name is recorded and the

interest is paid periodically to the owners with

their asking for it?

a. Registered bond

b. Preferred bond

c. Bail bond

d. Incorporators bond

145. How do you call the integral of any quotient

whose numerator is the differential of the

denominator?

a. Co-logarithm

b. Logarithm

c. Product

d. Derivative

145. How do you call the integral of any quotient

whose numerator is the differential of the

denominator?

a. Co-logarithm

b. Logarithm

c. Product

d. Derivative

146. What is a regular polygon that has 27

diagonals?

a. Nonagon

b. Hexagon

c. Pentagon

d. Heptagon

146. What is a regular polygon that has 27

diagonals?

a. Nonagon

b. Hexagon

c. Pentagon

d. Heptagon

147. How do you call the formula used to compute

the value of n factorial, which is in symbolic

form(!), where n is large number?

a. Stirlings approximation

b. Matheson formula

c. Darshos formula

d. Diophantine formula

147. How do you call the formula used to compute

the value of n factorial, which is in symbolic

form(!), where n is large number?

a. Stirlings approximation

b. Matheson formula

c. Darshos formula

d. Diophantine formula

148. What is the reason why an ivory soap floats

in water?

b. The specific gravity of ivory soap is greater than of water.

c. The density of ivory soap is unity.

d. The specific gravity of ivory soap is less than of water.

148. What is the reason why an ivory soap floats

in water?

b. The specific gravity of ivory soap is greater than of water.

c. The density of ivory soap is unity.

d. The specific gravity of ivory soap is less than of water.

149. When two planes intersect with each other,

the amount of divergence between the two planes

is expressed by measuring the:

a. Reflex angle

b. Dihedral angle

c. Polyhedral angle

d. Plane angle

149. When two planes intersect with each other,

the amount of divergence between the two planes

is expressed by measuring the:

a. Reflex angle

b. Dihedral angle

c. Polyhedral angle

d. Plane angle

150. What do you think is the output or sales at

which is insufficient to equal operating cost?

a. Breakeven point

b. Depreciation

c. Investment

d. Cash flow

150. What do you think is the output or sales at

which is insufficient to equal operating cost?

a. Breakeven point

b. Depreciation

c. Investment

d. Cash flow

151. What is the estimate of assets net market

value at the end of its estimated life?

a. Book value

b. Depreciation

c. Salvage value

d. Cash flow

151. What is the estimate of assets net market

value at the end of its estimated life?

a. Book value

b. Depreciation

c. Salvage value

d. Cash flow

152. What do you think is the lessening of the

value of an asset due to the decrease in the

quantity available as a coal, oil and timber in

forests?

a. Depletion

b. Amortization

c. Depreciation

d. Investment

152. What do you think is the lessening of the

value of an asset due to the decrease in the

quantity available as a coal, oil and timber in

forests?

a. Depletion

b. Amortization

c. Depreciation

d. Investment

153. What can you say about the present worth of

all depreciation over the economic life of the

item?

a. Maintenance

b. Capital recovery

c. Depreciation recovery

d. Annuity

153. What can you say about the present worth of

all depreciation over the economic life of the

item?

a. Maintenance

b. Capital recovery

c. Depreciation recovery

d. Annuity

154. What do you think is the provision in the

contract that indicates the possible adjustment of

material cost and labor cost?

a. Secondary clause

b. Specification

c. Escalatory clause

d. General

154. What do you think is the provision in the

contract that indicates the possible adjustment of

material cost and labor cost?

a. Secondary clause

b. Specification

c. Escalatory clause

d. General

155. This is the process of determining the value

of certain property for specific reasons. Guess,

what is this?

a. Amortization

b. Investment

c. Appraisal

d. Depreciation

155. This is the process of determining the value

of certain property for specific reasons. Guess,

what is this?

a. Amortization

b. Investment

c. Appraisal

d. Depreciation

156. How do you call those products or services

that are directly used by the people to satisfy their

wants?

b. Producer goods and services

c. Necessity products and services

d. Luxury products and services

156. How do you call those products or services

that are directly used by the people to satisfy their

wants?

b. Producer goods and services

c. Necessity products and services

d. Luxury products and services

157. These are uses to produce consumer good

and services. Guess, what are these?

b. Producer goods and services

c. Necessity products and services

d. Luxury products and services

157. These are uses to produce consumer good

and services. Guess, what are these?

b. Producer goods and services

c. Necessity products and services

d. Luxury products and services

158. What do you think are those products and

services that are required to support human life

and activities that will be purchased in somewhat

the same quantity even though the price varies

considerably?

a. Consumer goods and services

b. Producer goods and services

c. Necessity products and services

d. Luxury products and services

158. What do you think are those products and

services that are required to support human life

and activities that will be purchased in somewhat

the same quantity even though the price varies

considerably?

a. Consumer goods and services

b. Producer goods and services

c. Necessity products and services

d. Luxury products and services

159. How do you call a cylinder with elliptical

cross section?

a. Ellipsoid

b. Cylindroid

c. Hyperboloid

d. Paraboloid

159. How do you call a cylinder with elliptical

cross section?

a. Ellipsoid

b. Cylindroid

c. Hyperboloid

d. Paraboloid

160. How do you call a market whereby there is

only one buyer of an item for which there are no

goods for substitutes?

a. Monopoly

b. Monopsony

c. Oligopoly

d. Oligopsony

160. How do you call a market whereby there is

only one buyer of an item for which there are no

goods for substitutes?

a. Monopoly

b. Monopsony

c. Oligopoly

d. Oligopsony

161. Which statement about a charge placed on a

dielectric material is true?

b. The charge is confined to the region in which the charge

was placed.

c. The charge is immediately lost to the atmosphere.

d. The charge is instantly carried to the materials surface.

161. Which statement about a charge placed on a

dielectric material is true?

b. The charge is confined to the region in which the charge

was placed.

c. The charge is immediately lost to the atmosphere.

d. The charge is instantly carried to the materials surface.

162. Which of the following is not a property of

magnetic lines?

b. The lines cross themselves only at right angles.

c. The line intersect surfaces of equal intensity at right angles.

d. The field is stronger where the lines are closer together.

162. Which of the following is not a property of

magnetic lines?

b. The lines cross themselves only at right angles.

c. The line intersect surfaces of equal intensity at right angles.

d. The field is stronger where the lines are closer together.

163. Tesla is a unit of which of the following?

a. Magnetic induction

b. Inductance

c. Capacitance

d. Magnetic flux

163. Tesla is a unit of which of the following?

a. Magnetic induction

b. Inductance

c. Capacitance

d. Magnetic flux

164. What is a pole pitch?

b. The space on the stator allocated to two poles.

c. The space on the stator allocated to one pole.

d. The mica used to insulate the poles from each other.

164. What is a pole pitch?

b. The space on the stator allocated to two poles.

c. The space on the stator allocated to one pole.

d. The mica used to insulate the poles from each other.

165. How do you call a polygon with 10,000

sides?

a. Hectogon

b. Chilliagon

c. Myriagon

d. Octacontagon

165. How do you call a polygon with 10,000

sides?

a. Hectogon

b. Chilliagon

c. Myriagon

d. Octacontagon

166. Any line segment joining a vertex of a

triangle to a point on the opposite side is called as:

a. Newton line

b. Secant

c. Cevian

d. Euclidian line

166. Any line segment joining a vertex of a

triangle to a point on the opposite side is called as:

a. Newton line

b. Secant

c. Cevian

d. Euclidian line

167. It is any influence capable of producing a

change in the motion of the object.

a. Force

b. Acceleration

c. Friction

d. Velocity

167. It is any influence capable of producing a

change in the motion of the object.

a. Force

b. Acceleration

c. Friction

d. Velocity

168. How do you call the amount needed at the

beginning of operations and permits the enterprise

to begin functioning before it receives any income

from the sales of its product and service.

a. Initial working capital

b. Regular working capital

c. Equity

d. Annuity

168. How do you call the amount needed at the

beginning of operations and permits the enterprise

to begin functioning before it receives any income

from the sales of its product and service.

a. Initial working capital

b. Regular working capital

c. Equity

d. Annuity

169. In the problem of writing the equation of a

certain curve with respect to another axes in which

the new axes are parallel to the original axes and

similarly directed is known as:

a. Translation of axes

b. Reversal of axes

c. Notation of axes

d. Darshos axes

169. In the problem of writing the equation of a

certain curve with respect to another axes in which

the new axes are parallel to the original axes and

similarly directed is known as:

a. Translation of axes

b. Reversal of axes

c. Notation of axes

d. Darshos axes

170. How do you call a ring shaped surface or

solid obtained by rotating a circle about a coplanar

line that does not intersect?

a. Torus

b. Annulus

c. Circoloid

d. Darshos annular

170. How do you call a ring shaped surface or

solid obtained by rotating a circle about a coplanar

line that does not intersect?

a. Torus

b. Annulus

c. Circoloid

d. Darshos annular

171. If the eccentricity is less than one, the curve

is known as:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

171. If the eccentricity is less than one, the curve

is known as:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

172. What can you say to the following statement:

the volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the

product of its base and altitude?

a. Postulate

b. Corollary

c. Theorem

d. Axiom

172. What can you say to the following statement:

the volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the

product of its base and altitude?

a. Postulate

b. Corollary

c. Theorem

d. Axiom

173. What is the study of the properties of figures

of three dimensions?

a. Physics

b. Solid geometry

c. Plane geometry

d. Trigonometry

173. What is the study of the properties of figures

of three dimensions?

a. Physics

b. Solid geometry

c. Plane geometry

d. Trigonometry

174. A type of bond, without any security behind

them except a promise to pay by the issuing

corporation is known as:

b. Mortgage bond

c. Debenture bond

d. Joint bond

174. A type of bond, without any security behind

them except a promise to pay by the issuing

corporation is known as:

b. Mortgage bond

c. Debenture bond

d. Joint bond

175. A situation whereby payment is made for

work not done. The term also applies to the case

where more workers are used than a reasonable

requirement for efficient operation.

a. Downtime pay

b. Check-in-pay

c. Feather bidding

d. Moon lighting

175. A situation whereby payment is made for

work not done. The term also applies to the case

where more workers are used than a reasonable

requirement for efficient operation.

a. Downtime pay

b. Check-in-pay

c. Feather bidding

d. Moon lighting

176. The difference between what a negotiable

paper is worth in the future and its present worth

is known as:

a. Book value

b. Salvage value

c. Sunk value

d. Discount

176. The difference between what a negotiable

paper is worth in the future and its present worth

is known as:

a. Book value

b. Salvage value

c. Sunk value

d. Discount

177. The temperature to which the air must be

cooled at constant temperature to produce

saturation.

a. Absolute temperature

b. 273 K

c. Dew point

d. Critical temperature

177. The temperature to which the air must be

cooled at constant temperature to produce

saturation.

a. Absolute temperature

b. 273 K

c. Dew point

d. Critical temperature

178. A net force that will give to a mass of one

gram an acceleration of 1 cm/s2 is said to be:

a. Newton

b. Darsho

c. Ergs

d. Dyne

178. A net force that will give to a mass of one

gram an acceleration of 1 cm/s2 is said to be:

a. Newton

b. Darsho

c. Ergs

d. Dyne

179. A change in position, specified by a length

and a direction is said to be:

a. Displacement

b. Acceleration

c. Velocity

d. Dynamic equilibrium

179. A change in position, specified by a length

and a direction is said to be:

a. Displacement

b. Acceleration

c. Velocity

d. Dynamic equilibrium

180. The process of one substance mixing with

another because of molecular motion is known as:

a. Adhesion

b. Diffusion

c. Cohesion

d. Confusion

180. The process of one substance mixing with

another because of molecular motion is known as:

a. Adhesion

b. Diffusion

c. Cohesion

d. Confusion

181. Those cost that arise at the result of a change

in operation or policy or it is the ratio of a small

increment cost and a small increment of output.

a. Increment cost

b. Differential cost

c. Marginal cost

d. Promotion cost

181. Those cost that arise at the result of a change

in operation or policy or it is the ratio of a small

increment cost and a small increment of output.

a. Increment cost

b. Differential cost

c. Marginal cost

d. Promotion cost

182. The index that gives the rate earned per share

based on current price per share is called as:

a. Price-earning ratio

b. Operating expense ratio

c. Dividend yield

d. Equity ratio

182. The index that gives the rate earned per share

based on current price per share is called as:

a. Price-earning ratio

b. Operating expense ratio

c. Dividend yield

d. Equity ratio

183. A regular polyhedron having 12 regular

pentagons is called as:

a. Octahedron

b. Dodecahedron

c. Tetrahedron

d. Darshohedron

183. A regular polyhedron having 12 regular

pentagons is called as:

a. Octahedron

b. Dodecahedron

c. Tetrahedron

d. Darshohedron

184. Two angles whose sum is 360 deg. is called:

a. Explementary angles

b. Complimentary angles

c. Supplementary angles

d. Elementary angles

184. Two angles whose sum is 360 deg. is called:

a. Explementary angles

b. Complimentary angles

c. Supplementary angles

d. Elementary angles

185. What is an annuity?

b. A series of uniform amounts over a period of time

c. The present worth of a future amount.

d. An annual repayment of a loan.

185. What is an annuity?

b. A series of uniform amounts over a period of time

c. The present worth of a future amount.

d. An annual repayment of a loan.

186. When using net present worth calculations to

compare two projects, which of the following

could invalidate the calculation?

b. Differences in the magnitude of the projects.

c. Evaluating over different time periods.

d. Mutually exclusive projects.

186. When using net present worth calculations to

compare two projects, which of the following

could invalidate the calculation?

b. Differences in the magnitude of the projects.

c. Evaluating over different time periods.

d. Mutually exclusive projects.

187. Which of the following is true regarding the

minimum attractive rate of return used in judging

proposed investments?

a. It is smaller than the interest rate used to discount expected

cash flows from investments.

b. It is frequent a policy decision made by an organizations

management.

c. It is larger than the interest rate used to discount expected

cash flow from investments.

d. It is not relevant in engineering economy studies.

187. Which of the following is true regarding the

minimum attractive rate of return used in judging

proposed investments?

a. It is smaller than the interest rate used to discount expected

cash flows from investments.

b. It is frequent a policy decision made by an organizations

management.

c. It is larger than the interest rate used to discount expected

cash flow from investments.

d. It is not relevant in engineering economy studies.

188. In a trajectory, air resistance decreases.

a. Speed

b. Maximum height

c. Range of projectile

d. All of the above

188. In a trajectory, air resistance decreases.

a. Speed

b. Maximum height

c. Range of projectile

d. All of the above

189. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate

drops. Which of the following is the main cause of

this phenomenon?

a. Air resistance

b. Gravity

c. Surface tension

d. Viscosity of the fluid

189. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate

drops. Which of the following is the main cause of

this phenomenon?

a. Air resistance

b. Gravity

c. Surface tension

d. Viscosity of the fluid

190. Which of the following elements and

compounds is unstable in its pure form?

a. Hydrochloric acid

b. Carbon dioxide

c. Sodium

d. Helium

190. Which of the following elements and

compounds is unstable in its pure form?

a. Hydrochloric acid

b. Carbon dioxide

c. Sodium

d. Helium

191. What is the actual geometric shape of the

methane molecule?

a. Tetrahedral

b. Pyramidal

c. Square planar

d. Linear

191. What is the actual geometric shape of the

methane molecule?

a. Tetrahedral

b. Pyramidal

c. Square planar

d. Linear

192. A substance is oxidized when which of the

following occurs?

a. It losses electrons.

b. It becomes more negative.

c. It gives off heat.

d. It absorbs energy.

192. A substance is oxidized when which of the

following occurs?

a. It losses electrons.

b. It becomes more negative.

c. It gives off heat.

d. It absorbs energy.

193. Reactions generally proceed faster at higher

temperatures because of which of the following?

b. The activation energy is less.

c. The molecules collide more frequently.

d. Both b and c.

193. Reactions generally proceed faster at higher

temperatures because of which of the following?

b. The activation energy is less.

c. The molecules collide more frequently.

d. Both b and c.

194. What are the valence electrons?

b. Electrons with positive charge.

c. The outer-shell electrons.

d. The k-quantum shell electrons.

194. What are the valence electrons?

b. Electrons with positive charge.

c. The outer-shell electrons.

d. The k-quantum shell electrons.

195. How do you call the strong bond between

hydrogen atoms?

a. Ionic and metallic bonds

b. The covalent bond

c. The ionic bond

d. The metallic bond.

195. How do you call the strong bond between

hydrogen atoms?

a. Ionic and metallic bonds

b. The covalent bond

c. The ionic bond

d. The metallic bond.

196. What are Van der Waals forces?

b. Forces not present in liquids.

c. Primary bonds between atoms.

d. Weak secondary bonds between atoms.

196. What are Van der Waals forces?

b. Forces not present in liquids.

c. Primary bonds between atoms.

d. Weak secondary bonds between atoms.

197. What do you call the replacement of the

original cost of an investment?

a. Pay off

b. Return on investment

c. Breakeven

d. Capital recovery

197. What do you call the replacement of the

original cost of an investment?

a. Pay off

b. Return on investment

c. Breakeven

d. Capital recovery

198. If f (x1) = 0, then the point (x1, y1) is called:

a. Minimum point

b. Maximum point

c. Inflection point

d. Critical point

198. If f (x1) = 0, then the point (x1, y1) is called:

a. Minimum point

b. Maximum point

c. Inflection point

d. Critical point

199. Adding more solute to an already saturated

solution will cause the excess solute to settle to

the bottom of the container. What is this process

called?

a. Precipitation

b. Hydration

c. Dehydration

d. Saturation

199. Adding more solute to an already saturated

solution will cause the excess solute to settle to

the bottom of the container. What is this process

called?

a. Precipitation

b. Hydration

c. Dehydration

d. Saturation

200. The length of time at which the original cost

of capital used to purchase a unit has already been

recovered.

a. Economic life

b. Write off period

c. Physical life

d. Salvage life

200. The length of time at which the original cost

of capital used to purchase a unit has already been

recovered.

a. Economic life

b. Write off period

c. Physical life

d. Salvage life

201. The actual interest earned by a given

principal is known as:

a. Compound interest

b. Simple interest

c. Effective interest

d. Nominal interest

201. The actual interest earned by a given

principal is known as:

a. Compound interest

b. Simple interest

c. Effective interest

d. Nominal interest

202. A book is at rest on top of a table. Which of

the following is correct?

b. The book has no inertia.

c. There is no force acting on the table.

d. The book is in equilibrium.

202. A book is at rest on top of a table. Which of

the following is correct?

b. The book has no inertia.

c. There is no force acting on the table.

d. The book is in equilibrium.

203. The property of a moving object to continue

moving is what Galileo called:

a. Velocity

b. Speed

c. Acceleration

d. Inertia

e. Direction

203. The property of a moving object to continue

moving is what Galileo called:

a. Velocity

b. Speed

c. Acceleration

d. Inertia

e. Direction

204. According to Newtons First Law of Motion,

b. An object in motion moves in a parabolic trajectory unless

acted upon by a net force.

c. An object at rest always remain at rest.

d. An object at rest remains at rest unless acted upon by a net

force.

204. According to Newtons First Law of Motion,

b. An object in motion moves in a parabolic trajectory unless

acted upon by a net force.

c. An object at rest always remain at rest.

d. An object at rest remains at rest unless acted upon by a net

force.

205. If an object is moving, then the magnitude of

its ____ cannot be zero.

a. Velocity

b. Speed

c. Acceleration

d. A and B

205. If an object is moving, then the magnitude of

its ____ cannot be zero.

a. Velocity

b. Speed

c. Acceleration

d. A and B

206. A body drop in free fall a vacuum,

a. Will drop the same distance during each second of its fall.

b. Will have the same average speed during each second of its

fall.

c. Will have a constant velocity during each second of its fall.

d. Will not be accelerated during its fall.

e. Will have the same acceleration during second of it fall.

206. A body drop in free fall a vacuum,

a. Will drop the same distance during each second of its fall.

b. Will have the same average speed during each second of its

fall.

c. Will have a constant velocity during each second of its fall.

d. Will not be accelerated during its fall.

e. Will have the same acceleration during second of it fall.

207. A bowling ball at a height of 36 meters above

the ground is falling vertically at a rate of 12

meters per second. Which of these best describes

its fate?

a. It will hit the ground in exactly three seconds at a speed of

12 m/s.

b. It will hit the ground in less than three seconds at a speed

greater than 12 m/s.

c. It will hit the ground in more than three seconds at a speed

less than 12 m/s.

d. It will hit the ground in less than three seconds at a speed

less than 12 m/s.

207. A bowling ball at a height of 36 meters above

the ground is falling vertically at a rate of 12

meters per second. Which of these best describes

its fate?

a. It will hit the ground in exactly three seconds at a speed of

12 m/s.

b. It will hit the ground in less than three seconds at a speed

greater than 12 m/s.

c. It will hit the ground in more than three seconds at a speed

less than 12 m/s.

d. It will hit the ground in less than three seconds at a speed

less than 12 m/s.

208. The speedometer in your car tells you the

____ of your car.

a. Velocity

b. Average speed

c. Acceleration

d. Inertia

e. Instantaneous speed

208. The speedometer in your car tells you the

____ of your car.

a. Velocity

b. Average speed

c. Acceleration

d. Inertia

e. Instantaneous speed

209. To report the ____ of an object, we must

specify both its speed and its direction.

a. Velocity

b. Speed

c. Acceleration

d. Inertia

e. Direction

209. To report the ____ of an object, we must

specify both its speed and its direction.

a. Velocity

b. Speed

c. Acceleration

d. Inertia

e. Direction

210. The ____ of an object on the Earths surface

are directly proportional to each other.

a. Velocity and force

b. Speed and velocity

c. Acceleration and mass

d. Mass and weight

e. Direction and weight

210. The ____ of an object on the Earths surface

are directly proportional to each other.

a. Velocity and force

b. Speed and velocity

c. Acceleration and mass

d. Mass and weight

e. Direction and weight

211. The moons gravity is 1/6 of the Earths

gravity. The weight of a bowling ball on the Earth

would be ____ its weight on the moon.

a. Equal to

b. 1/6 of

c. 6 times

d. 36 times

211. The moons gravity is 1/6 of the Earths

gravity. The weight of a bowling ball on the Earth

would be ____ its weight on the moon.

a. Equal to

b. 1/6 of

c. 6 times

d. 36 times

212. A falling object is said to reach terminal

speed,

a. When it lands on the ground.

b. When its air resistance equals the force of gravity on it.

c. When there is no air resistance acting on it.

d. When there is no gravitational force acting on it.

212. A falling object is said to reach terminal

speed,

a. When it lands on the ground.

b. When its air resistance equals the force of gravity on it.

c. When there is no air resistance acting on it.

d. When there is no gravitational force acting on it.

213. For every action there is an equal and

opposite reaction. This is a statement of,

a. Newtons First Law of Motion

b. Newtons Second Law of Motion

c. Newtons Third Law of Motion

d. Newtons Law of Action

213. For every action there is an equal and

opposite reaction. This is a statement of,

a. Newtons First Law of Motion

b. Newtons Second Law of Motion

c. Newtons Third Law of Motion

d. Newtons Law of Action

214. _____ are examples of vector quantities.

b. Volume and velocity

c. Acceleration and mass

d. Mass and volume

214. _____ are examples of vector quantities.

b. Volume and velocity

c. Acceleration and mass

d. Mass and volume

215. A green ball moving to the right at 3 m/s

strikes a yellow ball moving to the left at 2 m/s. If

the balls are equally massive and the collision is

elastic,

a. The green ball will move to the left at 3 m/s while the

yellow ball moves right at 2 m/s.

b. The green ball will move to the left at 2 m/s while the

yellow ball moves right at 3 m/s.

c. The green ball will stop while the yellow ball moves left at

2 m/s.

d. Both balls will stick together and move to the right at 1 m/s.

215. A green ball moving to the right at 3 m/s

strikes a yellow ball moving to the left at 2 m/s. If

the balls are equally massive and the collision is

elastic,

a. The green ball will move to the left at 3 m/s while the

yellow ball moves right at 2 m/s.

b. The green ball will move to the left at 2 m/s while the

yellow ball moves right at 3 m/s.

c. The green ball will stop while the yellow ball moves left at

2 m/s.

d. Both balls will stick together and move to the right at 1 m/s.

216. The buoyant force on a block of wood

floating in water,

a. Is equal to the weight of a volume of water with the same

volume as the wood.

b. Is equal to the weight of the wood.

c. Is greater than the weight of the wood.

d. Is less than the weight of the wood.

216. The buoyant force on a block of wood

floating in water,

a. Is equal to the weight of a volume of water with the same

volume as the wood.

b. Is equal to the weight of the wood.

c. Is greater than the weight of the wood.

d. Is less than the weight of the wood.

217. An object with a mass of 1 kg displaces 700

ml of water. Which of the following is true?

a. The weight of this object is 10 N.

b. The weight of this object is 7 N.

c. The weight of this object is 3 N.

d. The weight of this object is 17 N.

217. An object with a mass of 1 kg displaces 700

ml of water. Which of the following is true?

a. The weight of this object is 10 N.

b. The weight of this object is 7 N.

c. The weight of this object is 3 N.

d. The weight of this object is 17 N.

218. An object with a mass of 1 kg displaces 0.6

kg of water. Which of the following is true?

a. The buoyant force on this object is 10 N.

b. The buoyant force on this object is 6 N.

c. The density of this object is 3 N.

d. The weight of this object is 17 N.

218. An object with a mass of 1 kg displaces 0.6

kg of water. Which of the following is true?

a. The buoyant force on this object is 10 N.

b. The buoyant force on this object is 6 N.

c. The density of this object is 3 N.

d. The weight of this object is 17 N.

219. The water pressure in a lake behind a dam

depends on,

a. The volume of lake water behind the dam.

b. The surface area of the lake.

c. The distance from the dam at which the pressure is

measured.

d. The depth below the surface at which the pressure is

measured.

219. The water pressure in a lake behind a dam

depends on,

a. The volume of lake water behind the dam.

b. The surface area of the lake.

c. The distance from the dam at which the pressure is

measured.

d. The depth below the surface at which the pressure is

measured.

220. When air is removed from a metal can be

vacuum, the can buckles inwards and is crushed.

This occurs because

a. The air pressure on the inside of the can is greater than the

air pressure on the outside of the can.

b. The air pressure on the outside of the can is greater than air

pressure on the inside of the can.

c. The loss air molecules from inside the can weakens the

metal.

d. The opposite sides of the empty can strongly attract each

other.

220. When air is removed from a metal can be

vacuum, the can buckles inwards and is crushed.

This occurs because

a. The air pressure on the inside of the can is greater than the

air pressure on the outside of the can.

b. The air pressure on the outside of the can is greater than air

pressure on the inside of the can.

c. The loss air molecules from inside the can weakens the

metal.

d. The opposite sides of the empty can strongly attract each

other.

221. Bernoullis principle explains why,

b. Liquid rises in a drinking straw

c. Airplanes fly

d. Dead fish float

221. Bernoullis principle explains why,

b. Liquid rises in a drinking straw

c. Airplanes fly

d. Dead fish float

222. In order to decrease the pressure in an

automobile tire, one normally

a. Decrease the temperature of the tire.

b. Increases the volume of the tire.

c. Increases the density of air in the tire.

d. Decreases the number of air molecules in the tire.

222. In order to decrease the pressure in an

automobile tire, one normally

a. Decrease the temperature of the tire.

b. Increases the volume of the tire.

c. Increases the density of air in the tire.

d. Decreases the number of air molecules in the tire.

223. It is the branch of mathematics which deals

with the study of formal manipulations of

equations involving symbols and numbers.

a. Arithmetic

b. Algebra

c. Plane geometry

d. Trigonometry

223. It is the branch of mathematics which deals

with the study of formal manipulations of

equations involving symbols and numbers.

a. Arithmetic

b. Algebra

c. Plane geometry

d. Trigonometry

224. Is an entity describing the quantity or

position of a mathematical object or extensions of

these concepts.

a. Exponent

b. Number

c. Cardinal number

d. Ordinal number

224. Is an entity describing the quantity or

position of a mathematical object or extensions of

these concepts.

a. Exponent

b. Number

c. Cardinal number

d. Ordinal number

225. It describes the size or quantity of the

collections of objects like 1,2,3.1000 and so on

& so forth.

a. Exponent

b. Number

c. Cardinal number

d. Ordinal number

225. It describes the size or quantity of the

collections of objects like 1,2,3.1000 and so on

& so forth.

a. Exponent

b. Number

c. Cardinal number

d. Ordinal number

226. It refer to the position relative to an ordering

such as first, second, third etc.

a. Exponent

b. Number

c. Cardinal number

d. Ordinal number

226. It refer to the position relative to an ordering

such as first, second, third etc.

a. Exponent

b. Number

c. Cardinal number

d. Ordinal number

227. It is the sum of real and imaginary numbers

which expressed in x+yi.

a. Real number

b. Irrational number

c. Rational number

d. Complex number

227. It is the sum of real and imaginary numbers

which expressed in x+yi.

a. Real number

b. Irrational number

c. Rational number

d. Complex number

228. Is the number that cannot be expressed into

ratio of two integers.

a. Real number

b. Irrational number

c. Rational number

d. Complex number

228. Is the number that cannot be expressed into

ratio of two integers.

a. Real number

b. Irrational number

c. Rational number

d. Complex number

229. Is any positive integer (excluding 1) having

no integral factors other than itself and unity.

a. Imaginary number

b. Real number

c. Ordinal number

d. Prime number

229. Is any positive integer (excluding 1) having

no integral factors other than itself and unity.

a. Imaginary number

b. Real number

c. Ordinal number

d. Prime number

230. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, xy = yx ?

b. Associative Law of Multiplication

c. Left Distributive Law

d. Right Distributive law

230. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, xy = yx ?

b. Associative Law of Multiplication

c. Left Distributive Law

d. Right Distributive law

231. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x + y = y + x ?

b. Associative Law of Addition

c. Left Distributive Law

d. Right Distributive law

231. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x + y = y + x ?

b. Associative Law of Addition

c. Left Distributive Law

d. Right Distributive law

232. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, (x+y) + z = x + (y+z) ?

b. Associative Law of Addition

c. Left Distributive Law

d. Commutative Law of Addition

232. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, (x+y) + z = x + (y+z) ?

b. Associative Law of Addition

c. Left Distributive Law

d. Commutative Law of Addition

233. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, (xy)z = x(yz) ?

b. Associative Law of Multiplication

c. Left Distributive Law

d. Right Distributive law

233. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, (xy)z = x(yz) ?

b. Associative Law of Multiplication

c. Left Distributive Law

d. Right Distributive law

234. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x + 0 = x ?

b. Additive Identity Property

c. Reflexive Property

d. Symmetric Property

234. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x + 0 = x ?

b. Additive Identity Property

c. Reflexive Property

d. Symmetric Property

235. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x + (-x) = 0 ?

b. Additive Identity Property

c. Reflexive Property

d. Symmetric Property

235. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x + (-x) = 0 ?

b. Additive Identity Property

c. Reflexive Property

d. Symmetric Property

236. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x = x ?

b. Additive Identity Property

c. Reflexive Property

d. Symmetric Property

236. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x = x ?

b. Additive Identity Property

c. Reflexive Property

d. Symmetric Property

237. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x = y and y = x ?

b. Additive Identity Property

c. Reflexive Property

d. Symmetric Property

237. What do you call this laws or properties of

equality in algebra, x = y and y = x ?

b. Additive Identity Property

c. Reflexive Property

d. Symmetric Property

238. It is a sequence of numbers or quantities in

which there is always the same relation between

each quantity and the one succeeding it.

a. Geometry

b. Progression

c. Probability

d. Rational number

238. It is a sequence of numbers or quantities in

which there is always the same relation between

each quantity and the one succeeding it.

a. Geometry

b. Progression

c. Probability

d. Rational number

239. It is a sequence of numbers in which each

term (except the first term is obtained from the

previous by adding a constant known as the

common difference.

a. Geometric progression

b. Arithmetic progression

c. Harmonic progression

d. Permutation

239. It is a sequence of numbers in which each

term (except the first term is obtained from the

previous by adding a constant known as the

common difference.

a. Geometric progression

b. Arithmetic progression

c. Harmonic progression

d. Permutation

240. It is a sequence of numbers, each of which

each, after the first is obtained by multiplying the

preceding term by a fixed number called the

common ratio, known as the common difference.

a. Geometric progression

b. Arithmetic progression

c. Harmonic progression

d. Permutation

240. It is a sequence of numbers, each of which

each, after the first is obtained by multiplying the

preceding term by a fixed number called the

common ratio, known as the common difference.

a. Geometric progression

b. Arithmetic progression

c. Harmonic progression

d. Permutation

241. It is a sequence of numbers in which the

reciprocals form an arithmetic progression.

a. Geometric progression

b. Arithmetic progression

c. Harmonic progression

d. Permutation

241. It is a sequence of numbers in which the

reciprocals form an arithmetic progression.

a. Geometric progression

b. Arithmetic progression

c. Harmonic progression

d. Permutation

242. It is an ordered arrangement of any element

in a set.

a. Probability

b. Arithmetic progression

c. Combination

d. Permutation

242. It is an ordered arrangement of any element

in a set.

a. Probability

b. Arithmetic progression

c. Combination

d. Permutation

243. It is an equation when the number of

equations is less than the number of unknown.

a. Deophantine Equation

b. Quadratic Equation

c. Darshos Equation

d. Theory of Sets

243. It is an equation when the number of

equations is less than the number of unknown.

a. Deophantine Equation

b. Quadratic Equation

c. Darshos Equation

d. Theory of Sets

244. Who was the first person of whose

systematic use of trigonometry which have

documentary evidence.

a. Euclid

b. Hipparchus

c. Galileo

d. Aristotle

244. Who was the first person of whose

systematic use of trigonometry which have

documentary evidence.

a. Euclid

b. Hipparchus

c. Galileo

d. Aristotle

245. It is the space between intersecting rays or

lines.

a. Line

b. Revolution

c. Angle

d. Side

245. It is the space between intersecting rays or

lines.

a. Line

b. Revolution

c. Angle

d. Side

246. Are angles which are non-right and non-

straight such as acute angles and obtuse angles.

a. Right angle

b. Oblique angles

c. Reflex angles

d. Darshos angle

246. Are angles which are non-right and non-

straight such as acute angles and obtuse angles.

a. Right angle

b. Oblique angles

c. Reflex angles

d. Darshos angle

247. It is a triangle with two sides equal.

a. Scalene triangle

b. Oblique triangle

c. Isosceles triangle

d. Equilateral triangle

247. It is a triangle with two sides equal.

a. Scalene triangle

b. Oblique triangle

c. Isosceles triangle

d. Equilateral triangle

248. It is a triangle with no equal sides.

a. Scalene triangle

b. Oblique triangle

c. Isosceles triangle

d. Equilateral triangle

248. It is a triangle with no equal sides.

a. Scalene triangle

b. Oblique triangle

c. Isosceles triangle

d. Equilateral triangle

249. It is a triangle without a 90 deg. angle.

a. Scalene triangle

b. Oblique triangle

c. Isosceles triangle

d. Equilateral triangle

249. It is a triangle without a 90 deg. angle.

a. Scalene triangle

b. Oblique triangle

c. Isosceles triangle

d. Equilateral triangle

250. It is a triangle that all sides are equal.

a. Scalene triangle

b. Oblique triangle

c. Isosceles triangle

d. Equilateral triangle

250. It is a triangle that all sides are equal.

a. Scalene triangle

b. Oblique triangle

c. Isosceles triangle

d. Equilateral triangle

251. The following are the primary (basic) SI

(metric) units, except

a. Length

b. Mass

c. Time

d. Force

251. The following are the primary (basic) SI

(metric) units, except

a. Length

b. Mass

c. Time

d. Force

252. The following are the secondary SI (metric)

units, except

a. Temperature

b. Pressure

c. Force

d. Energy

252. The following are the secondary SI (metric)

units, except

a. Temperature

b. Pressure

c. Force

d. Energy

253. Which of the following is not an intensive

property?

a. Temperature

b. Pressure

c. Mass

d. Density

253. Which of the following is not an intensive

property?

a. Temperature

b. Pressure

c. Mass

d. Density

254. Which of the following is not an extensive

property?

a. Mass

b. Weight

c. Volume

d. Specific volume

254. Which of the following is not an extensive

property?

a. Mass

b. Weight

c. Volume

d. Specific volume

255. The mass of the substance per unit volume is,

a. Density

b. Specific gravity

c. Specific weight

d. Force per unit

255. The mass of the substance per unit volume is,

a. Density

b. Specific gravity

c. Specific weight

d. Force per unit

256. The weight of the substance per unit volume

is,

a. Mass

b. Density

c. Force per unit

d. Specific weight

256. The weight of the substance per unit volume

is,

a. Mass

b. Density

c. Force per unit

d. Specific weight

257. The ratio of specific weight to acceleration of

gravity is,

a. Density

b. Specific gravity

c. Specific volume

d. Viscosity

257. The ratio of specific weight to acceleration of

gravity is,

a. Density

b. Specific gravity

c. Specific volume

d. Viscosity

258. The reciprocal of density is,

a. Specific weight

b. Specific gravity

c. Specific volume

d. Viscosity

258. The reciprocal of density is,

a. Specific weight

b. Specific gravity

c. Specific volume

d. Viscosity

259. It occurs when a decrease in selling price

result in a greater than proportionate increase in

sales.

a. Elastic demand

b. Inelastic demand

c. Unitary elasticity of demand

d. Darsho demand

259. It occurs when a decrease in selling price

result in a greater than proportionate increase in

sales.

a. Elastic demand

b. Inelastic demand

c. Unitary elasticity of demand

d. Darsho demand

260. It occurs when a decrease in the selling price

produces a less than proportionate increase in

sales.

a. Elastic demand

b. Inelastic demand

c. Unitary elasticity of demand

d. Darsho demand

260. It occurs when a decrease in the selling price

produces a less than proportionate increase in

sales.

a. Elastic demand

b. Inelastic demand

c. Unitary elasticity of demand

d. Darsho demand

261. It occurs when the mathematical product of

volume and price is constant.

a. Elastic demand

b. Inelastic demand

c. Unitary elasticity of demand

d. Darsho demand

261. It occurs when the mathematical product of

volume and price is constant.

a. Elastic demand

b. Inelastic demand

c. Unitary elasticity of demand

d. Darsho demand

262. It is calculated using principal only, ignoring

any interest that had been accrued in preceding

periods.

a. Simple interest

b. Compound interest

c. Interest rate

d. Effective rate

262. It is calculated using principal only, ignoring

any interest that had been accrued in preceding

periods.

a. Simple interest

b. Compound interest

c. Interest rate

d. Effective rate

263. It is the interest for an interest period is

calculated on the principal plus total amount of

interest accumulated in previous periods.

a. Simple interest

b. Compound interest

c. Interest rate

d. Effective rate

263. It is the interest for an interest period is

calculated on the principal plus total amount of

interest accumulated in previous periods.

a. Simple interest

b. Compound interest

c. Interest rate

d. Effective rate

264. Which of the following is not a vector

quantity?

a. Mass

b. Torque

c. Displacement

d. Velocity

264. Which of the following is not a vector

quantity?

a. Mass

b. Torque

c. Displacement

d. Velocity

265. The product of force and the time during

which it acts is known as:

a. Impulse

b. Momentum

c. Work

d. Impact

265. The product of force and the time during

which it acts is known as:

a. Impulse

b. Momentum

c. Work

d. Impact

266. The property of the body which measures its

resistance to change in motion.

a. Acceleration

b. Weight

c. Mass

d. Rigidity

266. The property of the body which measures its

resistance to change in motion.

a. Acceleration

b. Weight

c. Mass

d. Rigidity

267. The study of motion without reference to the

forces which causes motion is known as:

a. Kinetics

b. Dynamics

c. Statics

d. Kinematics

267. The study of motion without reference to the

forces which causes motion is known as:

a. Kinetics

b. Dynamics

c. Statics

d. Kinematics

268. The point through which the resultant of the

distributed gravity force passes regardless of the

orientation of the body in space is known as:

a. Center of inertia

b. Center of gravity

c. Center of attraction

d. Moment of inertia

268. The point through which the resultant of the

distributed gravity force passes regardless of the

orientation of the body in space is known as:

a. Center of inertia

b. Center of gravity

c. Center of attraction

d. Moment of inertia

269. The loss of weight of a body submerged in a

fluid is:

a. Proportional to the weight of the body

b. Proportional to the depth of submergence

c. Equal to the weight of the fluid displaced

d. Independent of the volume of the body

269. The loss of weight of a body submerged in a

fluid is:

a. Proportional to the weight of the body

b. Proportional to the depth of submergence

c. Equal to the weight of the fluid displaced

d. Independent of the volume of the body

270. One Joule of work is done by a force of one

Newton acting through a distance of:

a. 1 cm

b. 1 in

c. 1m

d. 1 ft

270. One Joule of work is done by a force of one

Newton acting through a distance of:

a. 1 cm

b. 1 in

c. 1m

d. 1 ft

271. The path of the projectile is:

a. A parabola

b. An ellipse

c. A part of a circle

d. A hyperbola

271. The path of the projectile is:

a. A parabola

b. An ellipse

c. A part of a circle

d. A hyperbola

272. One mole of a gas at standard temperature

and pressure (STP) conditions occupies a volume

equal to:

a. 22.4 li

b. 9.81 li

c. 332 li

d. 2274.5 li

272. One mole of a gas at standard temperature

and pressure (STP) conditions occupies a volume

equal to:

a. 22.4 li

b. 9.81 li

c. 332 li

d. 2274.5 li

273. This implies the resistance to shock or

difficulty of breaking and expresses the work per

unit volume required to fracture a material.

a. Toughness

b. Malleability

c. Hardness

d. Ductility

273. This implies the resistance to shock or

difficulty of breaking and expresses the work per

unit volume required to fracture a material.

a. Toughness

b. Malleability

c. Hardness

d. Ductility

274. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity

of any fluid is called:

a. Compressibility

b. Volume strain

c. Volume stress

d. Shape factor

274. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity

of any fluid is called:

a. Compressibility

b. Volume strain

c. Volume stress

d. Shape factor

275. Used as a guide to selecting the most

efficient centrifugal pump:

a. Specific speed

b. Impeller type

c. Bernoullis Equation

d. Overall efficiency

275. Used as a guide to selecting the most

efficient centrifugal pump:

a. Specific speed

b. Impeller type

c. Bernoullis Equation

d. Overall efficiency

276. Heat transmission carried by the movement

of heated fluids away from a hot body, as in the

heating of water by a hot surface:

a. Radiation

b. Convection

c. Conduction

d. Absorption

276. Heat transmission carried by the movement

of heated fluids away from a hot body, as in the

heating of water by a hot surface:

a. Radiation

b. Convection

c. Conduction

d. Absorption

277. An instrument for measuring high

temperature gases:

a. Plenometer

b. Manometer

c. Anemometer

d. Pyrometer

277. An instrument for measuring high

temperature gases:

a. Plenometer

b. Manometer

c. Anemometer

d. Pyrometer

278. The equilibrium temperature that a regular

thermometer measures if exposed to atmospheric

air is:

a. Dry bulb temperature

b. Degrees Celsius

c. Wet bulb temperature

d. Dew point

278. The equilibrium temperature that a regular

thermometer measures if exposed to atmospheric

air is:

a. Dry bulb temperature

b. Degrees Celsius

c. Wet bulb temperature

d. Dew point

279. Momentum = Force x ______.

a. Time

b. Velocity

c. Velocity2

d. velocity

279. Momentum = Force x ______.

a. Time

b. Velocity

c. Velocity2

d. velocity

280. An instrument for measuring specific gravity

of fluids:

a. Hygrometer

b. Flowmeter

c. Psyhcrometer

d. Hydrometer

280. An instrument for measuring specific gravity

of fluids:

a. Hygrometer

b. Flowmeter

c. Psyhcrometer

d. Hydrometer

281. The recorded current value of an asset is

known as:

a. Scrap value

b. Book value

c. Salvage value

d. Present worth

281. The recorded current value of an asset is

known as:

a. Scrap value

b. Book value

c. Salvage value

d. Present worth

282. A method of depreciation whereby the

amount to recover is spread over the estimated life

of the asset in terms of the periods or units of

output is called:

a. SOYD method

b. Declining balance method

c. Straight line method

d. Sinking fund method

282. A method of depreciation whereby the

amount to recover is spread over the estimated life

of the asset in terms of the periods or units of

output is called:

a. SOYD method

b. Declining balance method

c. Straight line method

d. Sinking fund method

283. The method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money

is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or

imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the

total depreciation of an asset at the end of the assets estimated

life is know as:

b. SOYD method

c. Declining balance method

d. Sinking fund method

283. The method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money

is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or

imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the

total depreciation of an asset at the end of the assets estimated

life is know as:

b. SOYD method

c. Declining balance method

d. Sinking fund method

284. The amount received from the sale of an

additional unit of a product is termed as:

a. Marginal cost

b. Marginal utility

c. Marginal unit

d. Marginal revenue

284. The amount received from the sale of an

additional unit of a product is termed as:

a. Marginal cost

b. Marginal utility

c. Marginal unit

d. Marginal revenue

285. An accounting book where the original

record of all transactions is ordinarily recorded.

a. Journal

b. Log book

c. Credit entry

d. Transaction record

285. An accounting book where the original

record of all transactions is ordinarily recorded.

a. Journal

b. Log book

c. Credit entry

d. Transaction record

286. An interest-earning fund in which equal

deposits are made at equal intervals of time for the

purpose of gradually accumulating a specific sum

of money required at some future date.

a. Amortization

b. Sinking fund

c. Annuity

d. Capitalized cost

286. An interest-earning fund in which equal

deposits are made at equal intervals of time for the

purpose of gradually accumulating a specific sum

of money required at some future date.

a. Amortization

b. Sinking fund

c. Annuity

d. Capitalized cost

287. Refers to cost of merchandise which excludes

freight and insurance costs:

a. Freight on board

b. Sunk cost

c. Debentures

d. Book value

287. Refers to cost of merchandise which excludes

freight and insurance costs:

a. Freight on board

b. Sunk cost

c. Debentures

d. Book value

288. The worth of property which is equal to the

original cost less depreciation:

a. Scrap value

b. Earning value

c. Book value

d. Face value

288. The worth of property which is equal to the

original cost less depreciation:

a. Scrap value

b. Earning value

c. Book value

d. Face value

289. A line which is perpendicular to the x-axis

has a slope equal to:

a. Zero

b. -1

c. 1

d. infinity

289. A line which is perpendicular to the x-axis

has a slope equal to:

a. Zero

b. -1

c. 1

d. infinity

290. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus

and is in a line perpendicular to the major axis is

a:

a. Latus rectum

b. Minor

c. Focal width

d. Conjugate axis

290. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus

and is in a line perpendicular to the major axis is

a:

a. Latus rectum

b. Minor

c. Focal width

d. Conjugate axis

291. An angle more than radian (180) but less

than 2 (360) radians is:

a. Straight angle

b. Obtuse angle

c. Oblique angle

d. Reflex angle

291. An angle more than radian (180) but less

than 2 (360) radians is:

a. Straight angle

b. Obtuse angle

c. Oblique angle

d. Reflex angle

292. An angle more than 90 but less than 180.

a. Oblique angles

b. Obtuse angles

c. Full angle

d. Reflex angle

292. An angle more than 90 but less than 180.

a. Oblique angles

b. Obtuse angles

c. Full angle

d. Reflex angle

293. An angles which are non-right and non-

straight which are acute and obtuse angles is

called:

a. Perigon

b. Full angles

c. Reflex angles

d. Oblique angles

293. An angles which are non-right and non-

straight which are acute and obtuse angles is

called:

a. Perigon

b. Full angles

c. Reflex angles

d. Oblique angles

294. Are opposite angles formed between two

intersecting lines that are equal.

a. Vertices

b. Vertical angles

c. Explementary angles

d. Complementary angles

294. Are opposite angles formed between two

intersecting lines that are equal.

a. Vertices

b. Vertical angles

c. Explementary angles

d. Complementary angles

295. In trigonometry, one revolution is equal to,

except

a. 400 gons

b. 400 grads

c. 6400 mils

d. 360 degress

e. Pi radians

295. In trigonometry, one revolution is equal to,

except

a. 400 gons

b. 400 grads

c. 6400 mils

d. 360 degress

e. Pi radians

296. It can be defined as the set of all points in the

plane the sum of whose distance from two fixed

points is a constant.

a. Circle

b. Ellipse

c. Hyperbola

d. Parabola

296. It can be defined as the set of all points in the

plane the sum of whose distance from two fixed

points is a constant.

a. Circle

b. Ellipse

c. Hyperbola

d. Parabola

297. The area of the region bounded by two

concentric circles is called:

a. Washer

b. Ring

c. Annulus

d. Circular disk

297. The area of the region bounded by two

concentric circles is called:

a. Washer

b. Ring

c. Annulus

d. Circular disk

298. An arc length, which is equal to the radius of

the circle is called:

a. 1 degree

b. 2 pi radians

c. 1 radian

d. 1 pi radian

298. An arc length, which is equal to the radius of

the circle is called:

a. 1 degree

b. 2 pi radians

c. 1 radian

d. 1 pi radian

299. Each of the faces of a regular hexahedron is

a:

a. Square

b. Triangle

c. Hexagon

d. Circle

299. Each of the faces of a regular hexahedron is

a:

a. Square

b. Triangle

c. Hexagon

d. Circle

300. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e > 1,

the locus is:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

300. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e > 1,

the locus is:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

301. In a conic section, if the value of

discriminant B2 4AC > 0 that is called:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

301. In a conic section, if the value of

discriminant B2 4AC > 0 that is called:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

302. In a conic section, if the value of

discriminant B2 4AC = 0 that is called:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

302. In a conic section, if the value of

discriminant B2 4AC = 0 that is called:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

303. In a conic section, if the value of

discriminant B2 4AC < 0 (if A is not equal to C)

that is called:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

303. In a conic section, if the value of

discriminant B2 4AC < 0 (if A is not equal to C)

that is called:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

304. In a conic section, if the value of

discriminant B2 4AC < 0 (if A is equal to C) that

is called:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

304. In a conic section, if the value of

discriminant B2 4AC < 0 (if A is equal to C) that

is called:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

305. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e < 1,

the locus is:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

305. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e < 1,

the locus is:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

306. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e = 1,

the locus is:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

306. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e = 1,

the locus is:

a. Ellipse

b. Hyperbola

c. Parabola

d. Circle

307. In analytic geometry that if the line is

vertical, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity

b. zero

c. positive

d. negative

307. In analytic geometry that if the line is

vertical, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity

b. zero

c. positive

d. negative

308. In analytic geometry that if the line is

horizontal, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity

b. zero

c. positive

d. negative

308. In analytic geometry that if the line is

horizontal, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity

b. zero

c. positive

d. negative

309. In analytic geometry that if the line is

inclined right, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity

b. zero

c. positive

d. negative

309. In analytic geometry that if the line is

inclined right, the slope (m) is?

a. Infinity

b. zero

c. positive

d. negative

310. When two lines are perpendicular, the slope

of one is:

b. Equal to the negative of the other

c. Equal to the reciprocal of the other

d. Equal to the negative reciprocal of the other

310. When two lines are perpendicular, the slope

of one is:

b. Equal to the negative of the other

c. Equal to the reciprocal of the other

d. Equal to the negative reciprocal of the other

311. How many degrees are 4,800 mils?

a. 180

b. 315

c. 90

d. 270

311. How many degrees are 4,800 mils?

a. 180

b. 315

c. 90

d. 270

4800 mils (1 degree / 17.78 mils) = 270

312. Determine the value of each interior angle of

a regular pentagon.

a. 108

b. 120

c. 98

d. 135

312. Determine the value of each interior angle of

a regular pentagon.

a. 108

b. 120

c. 98

d. 135

(no. of sides 2 / no. of sides)(180) = (5 - 2 / 5)(180) = 108

313. How do you call the distance of a point from

the y-axis?

a. Polar distance

b. Coordinate

c. Abscissa

d. Ordinate

313. How do you call the distance of a point from

the y-axis?

a. Polar distance

b. Coordinate

c. Abscissa

d. Ordinate

314. How do you call the x-coordinate?

a. Polar distance

b. Coordinate

c. Abscissa

d. Ordinate

314. How do you call the x-coordinate?

a. Polar distance

b. Coordinate

c. Abscissa

d. Ordinate

315. How do you call the y-coordinate?

a. Polar distance

b. Coordinate

c. Abscissa

d. Ordinate

315. How do you call the y-coordinate?

a. Polar distance

b. Coordinate

c. Abscissa

d. Ordinate

316. A formal organization of producers within an

industry forming a perfect collusion purposely

formed to increase profit and block new comers

from the industry.

a. Cartel

b. Monopoly

c. Corporation

d. Competitors

316. A formal organization of producers within an

industry forming a perfect collusion purposely

formed to increase profit and block new comers

from the industry.

a. Cartel

b. Monopoly

c. Corporation

d. Competitors

317. The set of all points in the plane, the sum of

whose distances from two fixed points, called the

foci, is a constant.

a. Parabola

b. Ellipse

c. Hyperbola

d. Semi-circle

317. The set of all points in the plane, the sum of

whose distances from two fixed points, called the

foci, is a constant.

a. Parabola

b. Ellipse

c. Hyperbola

d. Semi-circle

318. The set of all points in the plane, the

difference of whose distances from two fixed

points, called the foci, remains constant.

a. Parabola

b. Ellipse

c. Hyperbola

d. Semi-circle

318. The set of all points in the plane, the

difference of whose distances from two fixed

points, called the foci, remains constant.

a. Parabola

b. Ellipse

c. Hyperbola

d. Semi-circle

319. The set of all points in the plane whose

distances from a fixed points, called the focus, and

a fixed line, called the directrix, are always equal.

a. Parabola

b. Ellipse

c. Hyperbola

d. Semi-circle

319. The set of all points in the plane whose

distances from a fixed points, called the focus, and

a fixed line, called the directrix, are always equal.

a. Parabola

b. Ellipse

c. Hyperbola

d. Semi-circle

320. Find the volume generated by revolving a

rectangle of sides a and b about the side a.

a. ba2

b. ab2 /2

c. ba2 / 2

d. ab2

320. Find the volume generated by revolving a

rectangle of sides a and b about the side a.

a. ba2

b. ab2 /2

c. ba2 / 2

d. ab2

321. The capillary rise in a tube is obtained by

equating:

b. gravitational force to shear force

c. Surface tension force to weight of liquid

d. Pressure forces to gravitational forces

321. The capillary rise in a tube is obtained by

equating:

b. gravitational force to shear force

c. Surface tension force to weight of liquid

d. Pressure forces to gravitational forces

322. The fluid property which contributes

cavitation is:

a. atmospheric pressure

b. Vapour pressure

c. Cavitation number

d. Suction head

322. The fluid property which contributes

cavitation is:

a. atmospheric pressure

b. Vapour pressure

c. Cavitation number

d. Suction head

323. The shear stress is directly proportional to

viscosity for liquids which are Newtonian such as:

a. Water

b. Milk

c. Paint

d. Honey

323. The shear stress is directly proportional to

viscosity for liquids which are Newtonian such as:

a. Water

b. Milk

c. Paint

d. Honey

324. Pascal Law is applicable when:

a. Fluid is at rest

b. Fluid is compressible

c. Fluid is in motion

d. Fluid is incompressible

324. Pascal Law is applicable when:

a. Fluid is at rest

b. Fluid is compressible

c. Fluid is in motion

d. Fluid is incompressible

325. A perfect gas is one which:

b. Zero viscosity

c. Zero specific heat

d. Highly compressible

325. A perfect gas is one which:

b. Zero viscosity

c. Zero specific heat

d. Highly compressible

326. Cavitation cannot occur in:

a. Francis turbine

b. Piston pump

c. Centrifugal pump

d. Pelton wheel

326. Cavitation cannot occur in:

a. Francis turbine

b. Piston pump

c. Centrifugal pump

d. Pelton wheel

327. A draft tube is a must in:

a. Francis turbine

b. Axial pump

c. Pelton turbine

d. Centrifugal pump

327. A draft tube is a must in:

a. Francis turbine

b. Axial pump

c. Pelton turbine

d. Centrifugal pump

328. The pressure difference measured at the two

ends of Pitot tube is:

a. Static pressure

b. Stagnation pressure

c. Dynamic pressure

d. Total pressure

328. The pressure difference measured at the two

ends of Pitot tube is:

a. Static pressure

b. Stagnation pressure

c. Dynamic pressure

d. Total pressure

329. Piezometer head is equal to:

b. Sum of pressure head at velocity head

c. Sum of pressure head and elevation

d. Pressure head

329. Piezometer head is equal to:

b. Sum of pressure head at velocity head

c. Sum of pressure head and elevation

d. Pressure head

330. The coefficient of discharge of a venturi

meter is approximately equal to:

a. 0.98

b. 0.6

c. 0.75

d. 1

330. The coefficient of discharge of a venturi

meter is approximately equal to:

a. 0.98

b. 0.6

c. 0.75

d. 1

331. Bernoullis equation is derived based on the

following assumptions:

a. Flow is incompressible, steady and irrotational

b. Flow is steady, compressible and irrotational

c. Flow is steady, incompressible and rotational

d. Flow is unsteady, incompressible and irrotational

331. Bernoullis equation is derived based on the

following assumptions:

a. Flow is incompressible, steady and irrotational

b. Flow is steady, compressible and irrotational

c. Flow is steady, incompressible and rotational

d. Flow is unsteady, incompressible and irrotational

332. When two pumps are connected in

PARALLEL the following relation holds good:

a. Q = Q1 + Q2

b. H = H1 + H2

c. Q1 = Q2

d. Q1 / Q2 = H1 / H2

332. When two pumps are connected in

PARALLEL the following relation holds good:

a. Q = Q1 + Q2

b. H = H1 + H2

c. Q1 = Q2

d. Q1 / Q2 = H1 / H2

333. The highest overall efficiency is possible in:

a. Hydropower stations

b. Gas turbine power stations

c. Steam power stations

d. Combine cycle power stations

333. The highest overall efficiency is possible in:

a. Hydropower stations

b. Gas turbine power stations

c. Steam power stations

d. Combine cycle power stations

334. A hydropower station is constructed because

of:

a. Head

b. Head and flow

c. Flow

d. Nearest to river

334. A hydropower station is constructed because

of:

a. Head

b. Head and flow

c. Flow

d. Nearest to river

335. Consider of the following flows and state

which one is one dimensional.

a. Flow around a rocket

b. Flow around an automobile

c. Flow through an artery

d. Flow through a vein

335. Consider of the following flows and state

which one is one dimensional.

a. Flow around a rocket

b. Flow around an automobile

c. Flow through an artery

d. Flow through a vein

336. Indicate which one flows is unsteady:

b. Flow near the entrance of a pipe

c. Flow around an automobile

d. Flow through human heart

336. Indicate which one flows is unsteady:

b. Flow near the entrance of a pipe

c. Flow around an automobile

d. Flow through human heart

337. When two pumps are connected in SERIES

the following relation holds good:

a. H = H1 + H2

b. Q = Q1 + Q2

c. H1 = H2

d. Q1 / Q2 = H1 / H2

337. When two pumps are connected in SERIES

the following relation holds good:

a. H = H1 + H2

b. Q = Q1 + Q2

c. H1 = H2

d. Q1 / Q2 = H1 / H2

338. Which of the following liquids is classified

as Newtonian fluid?

a. Honey

b. Petrol

c. Glycerine

d. Paint

338. Which of the following liquids is classified

as Newtonian fluid?

a. Honey

b. Petrol

c. Glycerine

d. Paint

339. It is a prime number that exceeds 10,000.

a. Clock prime

b. Cousin prime

c. Gigantic prime

d. Sexy prime

339. It is a prime number that exceeds 10,000.

a. Clock prime

b. Cousin prime

c. Gigantic prime

d. Sexy prime

340. Prime number that differs from another prime

number by four.

a. Clock prime

b. Cousin prime

c. Gigantic prime

d. Sexy prime

340. Prime number that differs from another prime

number by four.

a. Clock prime

b. Cousin prime

c. Gigantic prime

d. Sexy prime

341. Prime number obtained by reading digits

around an analog clock.

a. Clock prime

b. Cousin prime

c. Gigantic prime

d. Sexy prime

341. Prime number obtained by reading digits

around an analog clock.

a. Clock prime

b. Cousin prime

c. Gigantic prime

d. Sexy prime

342. It is a British word for Billion.

a. Killiard

b. Milliard

c. Killord

d. Millord

342. It is a British word for Billion.

a. Killiard

b. Milliard

c. Killord

d. Millord

343. A theory containing criteria for an old theory.

a. Metatheory

b. Betatheory

c. Megatheory

d. Millitheory

343. A theory containing criteria for an old theory.

a. Metatheory

b. Betatheory

c. Megatheory

d. Millitheory

344. A number of digits of prime number

factorization is less than the digits of the number.

a. Amicable number

b. Economical number

c. Wasteful number

d. Natural number

344. A number of digits of prime number

factorization is less than the digits of the number.

a. Amicable number

b. Economical number

c. Wasteful number

d. Natural number

345. It refers to a large number.

a. Billion

b. Zillion

c. Million

d. Trillion

345. It refers to a large number.

a. Billion

b. Zillion

c. Million

d. Trillion

346. A square which can be dissected into a

number of smaller squares with no to equal.

a. Medial triangle

b. Perfect square

c. Prime square

d. Cousin number

346. A square which can be dissected into a

number of smaller squares with no to equal.

a. Medial triangle

b. Perfect square

c. Prime square

d. Cousin number

347. The degree of peakedness of a distribution.

a. Cardiod

b. Limacon

c. Kurtosis

d. Stochastic

347. The degree of peakedness of a distribution.

a. Cardiod

b. Limacon

c. Kurtosis

d. Stochastic

348. Trigonometry formulas that convert a product

of functions into a sum or difference.

a. Prostaphaeresis formulas

b. Apoapis

c. Fouries series

d. Demlo numbers

348. Trigonometry formulas that convert a product

of functions into a sum or difference.

a. Prostaphaeresis formulas

b. Apoapis

c. Fouries series

d. Demlo numbers

349. A skew polygon such that every two

consecutive sides belong to a face of a regular

polyhedron.

a. Petrie polygon

b. Cevian polygon

c. Periapsis

d. Spinode

349. A skew polygon such that every two

consecutive sides belong to a face of a regular

polyhedron.

a. Petrie polygon

b. Cevian polygon

c. Periapsis

d. Spinode

350. Polygon with infinite sides.

a. Perigon

b. Apeirogon

c. Centigon

d. Zilliogon

350. Polygon with infinite sides.

a. Perigon

b. Apeirogon

c. Centigon

d. Zilliogon

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