NEET - AIPMT - Full Length Practice Paper 03 - Ezyexams

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NEET(AIPMT)
FULLLENGTHPRACTICEPAPER03
G G G G
PHYSICS G G G
1. If A,B & A + B are three non-zero vector. Such that A + B is perpendicular to B then which of one
is correct
B B
(a) A B (b) A (c) A > B (d) A >
2 2
2. and (i j k)
What is the area of parallelogram whose diagonals are represented by (3i + j + k) .
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 2 (d) 1
3. In the formula X = 3YZ 2 , X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction
respectively. What are the dimensions of Y in MKSQ system? (Q = charge)
(a) [M3 L1 T 3 Q 4 ] (b) [M3 L2 T 4 Q 4 ] (c) [M 4 L2 T 4 Q 4 ] (d) [M3 L2 T 4 Q 1 ]

4. A unitless quantity
(a) never has a nonzero dimension (b) always has a nonzero dimension
(c) may have a nonzero dimension (d) does not exit
5. Which pair of following quantities has dimensions different from each other?
(a) Impulse and linear momentum (b) Planks constant and angular momentum
(c) Moment of inertia and moment of force (d) Youngs modulus and pressure
1
6. The dimensions of 0 E 2 ( 0 : permittivity of free space, E : electric field) is
2
(a) MLT1 (b) ML2 T2 (c) ML1 T2 (d) ML2 T1

z
7. Pressure depends on distance as, P = exp , where , are constants, z is distance, k is

k
Boltzmanns constant and is temperature. The dimension of are
(a) M 0 L0 T 0 (b) M1L1 T1 (c) M 0 L2 T 0 (d) M1L1 T 2
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8. What are the dimensions of electrical resistance?
(a) ML2 T2 I 2 (b) ML2 T3 I2 (c) ML2 T3 I 2 (d) ML2 T2 I2

9. An ant is at a corner of a cubical room of side a. The ant can move with a constant speed u. The
minimum time taken to reach the farthest corner of the cube is
3a 3a 5a ( 2 + 1)a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
u u u u
10. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration f. If the sum of
the distances travelled in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100 cm, then its velocity after t seconds, in cm/s,
is
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 80
11. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. It crosses a point at the height of 25 m twice
at an interval of 4 secs. The ball was thrown with the velocity of
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 25 m/sec (c) 30 m/sec (d) 35 m/sec
12. A parachutist drops freely from an aeroplane for 10 s before the parachute opens out. Then he
descends with a net retardation of 2.5 ms-2. If he balls out of the plane at a height of 2495 m and g =
10 ms-2, his velocity on reaching the ground will be
(a) 2.5 ms-1 (b) 7.5 ms-1 (c) 5 ms-1 (d) 10 ms-1
13. The velocity of a car moving on a straight road increases linearly according to equation, v = a + bx,
where a & b are positive constants. The acceleration in the course of such motion: (x is the
displacement)
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Stay constant (d) Becomes zero
G
14. The position vector of a particle is given r = (t 2 4t + 6)i + (t 2 )j . The time after which the velocity
vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to
(a) 1 sec (b) 2 sec (c) 1.5 sec (d) Not possible
15. The retardation experienced by a moving motor boat after its engine is cut off is given by:
dv
= kv 3 , where k is a + ve constant. If vo is the magnitude of velocity at cut off, the magnitude of
dt
the velocity at time t after the cut off is
vo vo
(a) vo (b) (c) vo ekt (d)
2 2vo2 kt + 1
16. A bird flies for 4 seconds with a velocity of |t 2| m/sec. In a straight line, where t = time in
seconds. It covers a distance of
(a) 4 m (b) 6 m (c) 8 m (d) None of these
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17. The graph shown in the figure shows the velocity v versus time t of a
body. Which of the graphs shown in figure represents the corresponding
acceleration versus time graphs?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. A body is projected with a speed u at an angle to the horizontal to have maximum range. At the
highest point the speed is
u
(a) zero (b) u 2 (c) u (d)
2
19. Ratio of the ranges of the bullets fired from a gun (of constant muzzle speed) at angle , 2 & 4 is
found in the ratio x : 2 : 2, then the value of x will be (Assume same muzzle speed of bullets)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these
20. A stone projected at angle ' ' with horizontal from the roof of a tall building falls on the ground after
three second. Two second after the projection it was again at the level of projection. Then the height
of the building is
(a) 5 m (b) 25 m (c) 20 m (d) 15 m
21. The vertical height of the projectile at time t is given by y = 4t t 2 and the horizontal distance
covered is given by x = 3t . What is the angle of projection with the horizontal?
3 4 4 3
(a) tan1 (b) tan1 (c) tan1 (d) tan1
5 5 3 4
22. A stone projected at an angle of 60o from the ground level strikes at
an angle of 30o on the roof of a building of height h. Then the
speed of projection of the stone is
(a) 2gh (b) 6gh
(c) 3gh (d) gh
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23. A man holding a flag is running in North-East direction with speed 10 m/s. Wind is blowing in east
direction with speed 5 2 m/s. Find the direction in which flag will flutter (w.r.t. man)
(a) Flag will flutter in south direction (b) Flag will flutter in south-west direction
(c) Flag will flutter in west direction (d) Flag will flutter in south-east direction
24. A particle is projected at angle 60o with speed 10 3 , from the point
A as shown in the figure. At the same time the wedge is made to
move with speed 10 3 towards right as shown in the figure. Then
the time after which particle will strike with wedge is (g = 10 m/sec2).
4
(a) 2 sec (b) 2 3 sec (c) sec (d) None of these
3
25. A lift is moving in upward direction with speed 20 m/s and having acceleration 5 m/s2 in
downward direction. A bolt drops from the ceiling of lift at that moment. Just after the drop, the
(a) Velocity of bolt with respect to ground is zero
(b) Velocity of bolt with respect to ground is 20 m/s in upward direction
(c) Acceleration of bolt with respect to ground is 5 m/s2
(d) None of these
26. At a harbour, a boat is standing and wind is blowing at a speed of 2 m/sec due to which, the flag
on the boat flutters along north-east. Now the boat enters in to river, which is flowing with a
velocity of 2 m/sec due north. The boat starts with zero velocity relative to the river and its constant
acceleration relative to the river is 0.2 m/sec2 due east. In which direction will the flag flutter at 10
seconds?
(a) south-east (b) south-west
(c) 30o south of west (d) west
27. A man crosses the river perpendicular to river flow in time t seconds and travels an equal distance
down the stream in T seconds. The ratio of mans speed in still water to the speed of river water will
be
t2 T2 T2 t2 t2 + T2 T2 + t2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
t2 + T2 T2 + t2 t2 T2 T2 t2
28. A particle is moving in a straight line whose acceleration versus time graph
is given. Assume that initial velocity is in the direction of acceleration. Then
which of the statement is correct between time t = 0 to t = to.
(a) Velocity first increases then decreases, displacement always increases
(b) Velocity and displacement both, first increases and then decreases
(c) Displacement increases and velocity decreases
(d) Displacement and velocity both always increases
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29. Two boats A and B having same speed relative to river are moving in a river. Boat A moves normal
to the river current as observed by an observer moving with velocity of river current. Boat B moves
normal to the river as observed by the observer on the ground.
(a) To a ground observer boat B moves faster than A
(b) To a ground observer boat A moves faster than B
(c) To the given moving observer boat B moves faster than A
(d) To the given moving observer boat A moves faster than B
30. A train is standing on a platform, a man inside a compartment of a train drops a stone. At the same
instant train starts to move with constant acceleration. The path of the particle as seen by the person
who drops the stone is
(a) Parabola
(b) Straight line for sometime and parabola for the remaining time
(c) Straight line
(d) Variable path that cannot be defined
31. Equation of straight line is 2x + 3y = 5 . Slope of the straight line is
3 2 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 3 2
dy
32. If tan x.cos 2 x then will be
dx
(a) 1 + 2 sin 2 x (b) 1 2 sin 2 x (c) 1 (d) 2 sin 2 x
33. If y = t sin(t 2 ) then y dt will be
cos(t 2 ) cos(t 2 ) cos(t 2 )

(a) +c (b) c (c) +c (d) cos(t 2 )
2 2 2
34. If y = sin(2x + 3) then y dx will be

cos(2x + 3) cos(2x + 3)
(a) (b) + C (c) cos(2x + 3) (d) 2 cos(2x + 3)
2 2

35. The area of region between y = sin x and xaxis in the interval 0, will be
2
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 1/2

G G G G
36. Given: A = 2i 3j and B = 5i 6 j . The magnitude of (A + B) is
(a) 120 units (b) 130 units (c) 58 units (d) 65 units
G G G
37. Two vectors a and b inclined at an angle w.r.t each other have a resultant c which makes an
G G G
angle with a . If the direction of a and b are interchanged, then the resultant will have the same
(a) Magnitude (b) Direction
(c) Magnitude as well as direction (d) Neither magnitude nor direction
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38. Magnitude of component of 3i 4 j along i j will be

5 7
(a) (b) 7 (c) (d) 7 2
2 2
39. The resultant of two forces acting at an angle 150o is 100 N and is perpendicular to one of the forces.
The other force is
200
(a) 200 N (b) 100 3 N (c) 200 3 N (d) N
3
G G G
40. If a = 3i + 4 j and b = 7i + 24 j then the vector having the same magnitude as b and same direction
G
as a is
(a) 15i + 20 j (b) 10i + 20 j (c) 20i + 15j (d) 15i + 10j
ASSERTION & REASON

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false statement but Reason is true.
41. A : If the rectangular components of a force are 8N and 6N, then the magnitude of the force is
10N.
G G G G G G
R : If |A|=|B|= 1 then |A B|2 +|A.B|2 = 1
42. A : In a projectile motion, the velocity at its highest point is zero.
R : In a projectile motion from ground to ground projection, the acceleration is g downwards
due to which speed of the projectile first decreases then increases to the same value.
43. A : Three projectiles are moving in different paths in the air. Vertical component of relative
velocity between any of the pair does not change with time as long as they are in air. Neglect
the effect of air friction.
R : Relative acceleration between any of the pair of projectiles is zero.
44. A : A particle having negative acceleration will slow down.
R : Direction of the acceleration is not dependent upon direction of the velocity.
45. A : A particle moves in a straight line with constant acceleration. The average velocity of this
particle cannot be zero in any time interval.
R : For a particle moving in straight line with constant acceleration, the average velocity in a
u+v
time interval is , where u and v are initial and final velocity of the particle of the given
2
time interval.
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CHEMISTRY
46. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of
ionic character of A B bond is
(a) 50 % (b) 43 % (c) 55.3 % (d) 72.24%
47. The number of electrons that are paired in oxygen molecule is
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 16
48. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment.
(I) Toluene (II) m dichlorobenzene
(III) o dichlorobenzene (IV) p dichlorobenzene
(a) I < IV < II < III (b) IV < I < II < III
(c) IV < I < III < II (d) IV < II < I < III
49. Which of the following arrangement of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole moments
(a) BF3 > NF3 > NH 3 (b) NF3 > BF3 > NH 3
(c) NH 3 > BF3 > NF3 (d) NH 3 > NF3 > BF3
50. Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs, NF3 , NO3 , BF3 , H3 O+ , HN 3
(a) [NF3 , NO3 ] and [BF3 , H 3 O + ] (b) [NF3 , HN 3 ] and [NO3 , BF3 ]
(c) [NF3 , H 3 O + ] and [NO3 , BF3 ] (d) [NF3 , H 3 O + ] and [HN 3 , BF3 ]
51. The correct order of increasing C O bond length of CO, CO 23 , CO 2 is
(a) CO 23 < CO 2 < CO (b) CO 2 < CO 23 < CO
(c) CO < CO 23 < CO 2 (d) CO < CO 2 < CO 23

52. In which of the following the central atom does not use sp3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding
(a) BeF3 (b) OH+3 (c) NH2 (d) NF3
53. N 2 and O 2 are converted into monocations N+2 and O+2 respectively. Which is wrong
(a) In N 2 , the N N bond weakens (b) In O 2 , the O O bond order increases
(c) In O 2 , paramagnetism decreases (d) N+2 becomes diamagnetic
54. The common features among the species CN , CO and NO + are

(a) Bond order three and isoelectronic (b) Bond order three and weak field ligands
(c) Bond order two and -acceptors (d) Isoelectronic and weak field ligands
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55. Bonds present in CuSO 4 .5H 2 O is
(a) Electrovalent and covalent (b) Electrovalent and coordinate
(c) Electrovalent, covalent and coordinate (d) Covalent and coordinate
56. Which of the following atoms and ions are isoelectronic i.e. have the same number of electrons with
the neon atom
(a) F (b) Oxygen atom (c) Mg (d) N
57. The increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e /m (charge/mass) for
(a) e,p, n, (b) n,p,e, (c) n,p, ,e (d) n, ,p,e
58. The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000 wavelength radiation to that of 4000 radiation is
(a) 1/4 (b) 4 (c) 1/2 (d) 2
59. In a Bohr's model of atom when an electron jumps from n = 1 to n = 3 , how much energy will be
emitted or absorbed
(a) 2.15 1011 erg (b) 0.1911 1010 erg
(c) 2.389 1012 erg (d) 0.239 1010 erg

60. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is 13.6eV . The possible energy value(s)
of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits to hydrogen is(are)
(a) 3.4eV (b) 4.2eV (c) 6.8eV (d) +6.8eV
61. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 gm of N3 ion is ( NA is the Avogadro's number)
(a) 1.6NA (b) 3.2NA (c) 2.1N A (d) 4.2N A
62. The frequency of a wave of light is 12 1014 s1 . The wave number associated with this light is
(a) 5 107 m (b) 4 108 cm1 (c) 2 107 m1 (d) 4 10 4 cm1
63. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The energy required to excite the electron in a
hydrogen atom from the ground state to the first excited state is
(a) 1.69 1020 J (b) 1.63 1018 J (c) 1.63 10 23 J (d) 1.69 10 25 J
64. Suppose 1017J of energy is needed by the interior of human eye to see an object. How many photons
of green light ( = 550 nm) are needed to generate this minimum amount of energy?
(a) 14 (b) 28 (c) 39 (d) 42
65. The value of Plancks constant is 6.63 1034 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 108 ms1 . Which value
is closest to the wavelength in nanometres of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 1015 s1
(a) 3 107 (b) 2 1025 (c) 5 1018 (d) 4 101
66. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the property of elements with an
increase in atomic number in the carbon family (group 14)
(a) Atomic size decrease (b) Ionization energy increase
(c) Metallic character decrease (d) Stability of +2 oxidation state increase
67. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character
(a) CaO (b) CO2 (c) SiO2 (d) SnO2
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68. Arrange S,O and Se in ascending order of electron affinity
(a) O < Se < S (b) Se < O < S (c) S < O < Se (d) S < Se < O
69. In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated
against it
(a) Al 3+ < Mg 2 + < Na+ < F : Increasing ionic size
(b) B < C < N < O : Increasing first ionization enthalpy
(c) I < Br < F < Cl : Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
(d) Li < Na < K < Rb : Increasing metallic radius
70. Strongest acid is
(a) Al 2 O 3 (b) MgO (c) Na 2 O (d) CaO
71. Increasing order of electronegativity is
(a) Bi < P < S < Cl (b) P < Bi < S < Cl (c) S < Bi < P < Cl (d) Cl < S < Bi < P
72. Which of the following configurations represents atoms of the elements having the highest second
ionization energy
(a) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 4 (b) 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 (c) 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s1 (d) 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2
73. The elements which occupy the peaks of ionisation energy curve, are
(a) Na, K, Rb,Cs (b) Na, Mg, Cl, I (c) Cl, Br, I,F (d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
74. A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionisation energies of an element
would be associated with the electronic configuration
(a) 1s 2 , 2s 2 p6 , 3s1 (b) 1s 2 , 2s 2 p6 , 3s 2 p1 (c) 1s 2 , 2s 2 p6 , 3s 2 p 2 (d) 1s 2 , 2s 2 p6 , 3s 2
75. Arrange F, Cl, O, N in the decreasing order of electronegativity
(a) O > F > N > Cl (b) F > N > Cl > O (c) Cl > F > N > O (d) F > O > N > Cl
76. Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules
(a) 16 g of O 2 and 14 g of N 2 (b) 8 g of O 2 and 22 g of CO 2
(c) 28 g of N 2 and 22 g of CO 2 (d) 32 g of O 2 and 32 g of N 2
77. 250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na 2 CO 3 . If 10 ml of this solution is
diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant solution (mol. wt. of Na 2 CO 3 =106)
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.001 M (c) 0.01 M (d) 104 M

78. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO 2 is approx.
(a) 1.2 10 23 (b) 6 10 22 (c) 6 10 23 (d) 12 10 23
79. The number of water molecules present in a drop of water (volume 0.0018 ml) at room temperature
is
(a) 6.023 1019 (b) 1.084 1018 (c) 4.84 10 17 (d) 6.023 10 23
80. 19.7 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. How many atoms of gold were recovered (Au =197)
(a) 100 (b) 6.02 10 23 (c) 6.02 10 24 (d) 6.02 10 25
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81. The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is
16 16
(a) 3.0 10 23 (b) 6.02 10 23 (c) 10 23 (d) 10 23
6.02 3.0
82. The molecular weight of hydrogen peroxide is 34. What is the unit of molecular weight
(a) g (b) mol (c) g mol1 (d) mol g 1
83. The number of electrons in a mole of hydrogen molecule is
(a) 6.02 10 23 (b) 12.046 10 23 (c) 3.0115 10 23 (d) Indefinite
84. Which of the following is Loschmidt number
(a) 6 10 23 (b) 2.69 1019 (c) 3 10 23 (d) None of these
85. The total number of gm-molecules of SO 2 Cl 2 in 13.5g of sulphuryl chloride is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4
ASSERTION & REASONING TYPE

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
(a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false statement but Reason is true.
86. Assertion : The atoms in a covalent molecule are said to share electrons, yet some covalent
molecules are polar.
Reason : In a polar covalent molecule, the shared electrons spend more time on the average
near one of the atoms.
87. Assertion : Pure water obtained from different sources such as, river, well, spring, sea etc.
always contains hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio 1 : 8 by mass.
Reason : A chemical compound always contains elements combined together in same
proportion by mass, it was discovered by French chemist, Joseph Proust.
88. Assertion : The atomic radii of calcium is smaller than sodium.
Reason : Calcium has a lower nuclear charge than sodium
88. Assertion : The energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.
Reason : The principal quantum number n is a measure of the most probable distance of
finding the electron around the nucleus.
90. Assertion : A resonance hybrid is always more stable than any of its canonical structures.
Reason : This stability is due to delocalization of electrons.
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BOTANY
91. State the correct naming of the virus components.
A B C D
(a) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibre
(b) Head Sheath Collar Hold fast
(c) Head Collar Sheath Tail fibre
(d) Collar Tail fibre Head Sheath
92. Select the correct combinations or statements w.r.t. characteristics of certain organisms.
(A) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas.
(B) Nostoc is a filamentous green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
(C) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose.
(D) Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall and pathogenic to plant as well as animal.
(a) A, B, C and D (b) A, B and D (c) C and D (d) A and D
93. A fungus with hyphae containing nuclei from different genomes, the nuclei do not fuse and are
without sex organ but produces sexual spore belongs to
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Zygomycetes (c) Deuteromycetes (d) Basidiomycetes
94. The sexual reproduction of fungi may occur by means of
(a) Sporangiospores, oospores and ascospores.
(b) Zoospores, oospores and ascospores
(c) Sporangiospores, ascospores and basidiospores
(d) Ascospores, oospores and basidiospores.
95. Match the followings
Column I Column II
(A) Morels (i) Deuteromycetes
(B) Smut (ii) Ascomycetes
(C) Bread moulds (iii) Basidiomycetes
(D) Imperfect fungi (iv) Zygomycetes
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(a) A i, B iii, C iv, D ii (b) A ii, B iii, C iv, D i
(c) A iii, B ii, C i, D iv (d) A iv, B i, C ii, D iii
96. Which is incorrect for yeast ?
(a) Saprophytic fungus (b) Sexual reproduction present
(c) Asexual spore is conidia (d) Cause fermentation
97. Cell wall may be absent in
(a) Slime moulds (b) Phycomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Fungi imperfectii
98. Study the diagram given below and mark the correct
option.
(1) It is two bacterial cell undergoing conjugation
(2) It is main mode of reproduction in bacteria
(3) It is bacteria undergoing fission
(4) It is structure formed by bacterium under unfavorable
conditions
(a) 1 and 2 is correct
(b) 2 and 3 is correct
(c) 3 and 4 is correct
(d) 1 and 4 is correct
99. The main role of bacteria in carbon cycle is
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Chemosynthesis
(c) Assimilation of nitrogen (d) Decomposition
100. What is the similarly between bacteria involved in curd making, antibiotic production, nitrogen
fixation.
(a) All of them are chemoautotroph (b) All of them are hetrotroph
(c) All of them are chemosynthetic (d) All of them are flagellated
101. Cyanobacteria differ from bacteria as they

(a) Produce oxygen in photosynthesis.
(b) Exhibit sort of sexual reproduction.
(c) Do not have membrane bound cell organelle.
(d) Have circular double stranded DNA.
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102. Lichens cannot survive in
(a) Area near coal feed power plant (b) In forest
(c) Tropical climate (d) Polar climate
103. Maximum metabolic diversity is found in the group
(a) Monera (b) Fungi (c) Plantae (d) Animalia
104. Classification undergoes constant modification this is due to
(1) New evidences from different source
(2) Improvement in our understanding of characteristics and evolutionary relationship
(3) Dynamic nature of living organism with respect to time
(4) Country specific nature of classification.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
105. Cyanobacteria belong to monera because of their
(a) Cell structure (b) Blue-green pigment
(c) Non-motile nature (d) N2 fixing ability
106. A bacteriophage is usually _____ virus, while virus which infect plant has _____ as genetic material.
(a) dsDNA, ssRNA (b) ssDNA, dsRNA
(c) dsDNA, dsRNA (d) ssDNA, ssRNA
107. Odd one out.
Column I Column II
(a) Proteins which are arranged in helical or polyhedral
Capsomeres
geometric forms in virus.
(b) Viruses that infect animals do not contain it. ssDNA
(c) In plants, leaf rolling and curling, mosaic and citrus canker
Viruses
are caused by these organisms.
(d) Virus contains this as infectious particles. Genetic material.
108. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria on the basis of
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Nucleoid (c) Ribosome (d) Cell wall
109. Which statement depicts incorrect characteristic of Cyandoacteria ?

(a) They have chlorophyll a similar to green plants.
(b) They are unicellular, colonial or filamentous form
(c) Motile specialized cells "heterocysts" are present which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
(d) They form water bloom in polluted water bodies.
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110. How many statements are correct w.r.t crysophytes?
(1) They are found in marine environment, fresh water organisms are very rare.
(2) In diatoms, the cell walls form two thick overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box.
(3) The cell membranes of diatoms are embedded with silica and accumulation of them over
billions of years is referred to as "diatomaceous earth".
(4) Being brittle and slippery diatomaceous soil is used in polishing, filtration of oils and syrups.
(5) Diatoms are the chief "Producers" in the oceans.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) All of the above
111. Which among the following fungi, Sexual reproduction is done by the fusion of two vegetative cells
of different strains?
(A) (B) (C)

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Both B & C
112. Find out the incorrect statement regarding the discoveries of virus.
(i) D.J. Ivanowsky proposed the term virus and recognized them as causal organism of the mosaic
disease of tobacco.
(ii) M.W. Beijerinek found the viruses to be smaller than bacteria because they passed through
bacteria proof filters.
(iii) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized and crystals consist largely of proteins.
(a) (i) is incorrect (b) (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(c) (i) & (iii) are incorrect (d) All are incorrect
113. Find the incorrect match

Characteristic Organism
(a) Decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling. Colletotrichum
(b) Smut and rust fungi, respectively Ustilago and Puccinia
(c) Extensively used in biochemical and genetic work Neurospora
(d) Parasitic fungi on mustard Rhizopus
114. He made the origin of species diversity the central question of evolutionary biology and had given
currently accepted definition of a biological species, person was
(a) Darwin (b) Mayr (c) Linnaeus (d) Ray
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115. On the basis of _____, the protists are grouped as photosynthetic algae, slime moulds and
protozoans.
(a) Complexity of cell (b) Complexity of organism
(c) Mode of nutrition (d) All are correct
116. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t virus ?
(a) Viruses are not included in any system of classification.
(b) Viruses are non living but develop living characters like multiplication when enter in suitable
host.
(c) Ability to undergo mutation and ability to be crystallized are living characteristics of virus.
(d) Viruses lack growth and cell division for their multiplication.
117. Find out the incorrect statement.

(a) In phycomycetes, Asexual reproduction is through motile as well as nonmotile spores.
(b) In ascomycetes, asexual spores are formed exogenously and called canidia.
(c) In basidiomycetes, basidiospores are produced endogenously, unlike ascomycetes, where
ascospores are produced exogenously
(d) All are correct
118. Which of the following statement is false?

(a) TMV has a double stranded RNA molecule.
(b) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses.
(c) Bacteriophage has a double stranded DNA molecule.
(d) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses.
119. A _____ contains descriptive information of any one taxon.

(a) Museum (b) Monograph (c) Manual (d) Publication
120. Which statement (s) is/are not true for five kingdom classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker
(1969).
(A) The main criteria for classification used by him includes cell structure, thallus organization,
mode of nutrition, reproductions and phylogenetic relationship.
(B) All prokaryotic organism such as bacteria, blue green algae and ferns are grouped together
under kingdom Monera.
(C) Chlamydomonas, Chlorella and Spirogyra are placed in Algae within plants due to pressure of cell
wall.
(D) Fungi are placed in a separate kingdom: kingdom fungi.
(E) Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in animal kingdom due to lack of cell wall.
(a) Only A (b) A, B and D (c) A, D and E (d) B, C and E
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211. Which taxonomic aid contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given
area ?
(a) Monograph (b) Flora (c) Key (d) Herbarium
122. Which one of the following statements about binomial nomenclature is incorrect?
(a) The genus name is in capital, while the species epithet is not.
(b) The genus and species epithets are both either italicized or underlined.
(c) Principle of priority is followed.
(d) The genus and species designations always come from Greek or Latin origins.
123. The study of biological diversity and evolutionary relationships between living and extinct
organisms is most accurately referred to as
(a) Taxonomy (b) Cladistics (c) Evolution (d) Systematics
124. Which group contains order names ?

(a) Primata, Diptera, Poales. (b) Insecta, Mammalia, Sapindales.
(c) Musca, Homo, triticum. (d) Hominidae, Muscidae, Poaceae.
125. How many of the following statement (s) are correct ?

(1) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in
comparison to species.
(2) pardus and leo are two different species but both belong to the genus Felis.
(3) Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithets representing different organisms.
(4) Species is a group of individuals with highest fundamental similarities and maximum number
of organisms.
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
126. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Family is represented by group of related genera.
(b) Number of individual keeps on decreasing as we move from kingdom to genus.
(c) As we move form species to kingdom number of common characters keeps on decreasing.
(d) Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the family Polymoniales mainly based on the floral
characters.
127. Find the incorrect option about taxonomic key.
(a) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category.
(b) Each statement of a key is known as lead.
(c) It represents the choice made between two opposite options.
(d) Keys are based on similarities among organisms, generally in a pair called couplet.
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128. Consider the statements regarding herbarium and select the correct option.
(i) Plant specimens are dried pressed and preserved on sheets.
(ii) Specimens along with their descriptions on herbarium sheets become a repository for future
use.
(iii) The largest herbarium of the world is in India.
(iv) Plant and animal specimens are always preserved as dry specimens, using preservative
solutions
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) False True False False
(b) True True False False
(c) True True True False
(d) True False True True
129. Which pair of disease is caused by virus
(a) Tetanus. Cholera (b) Whooping cough, AIDS
(c) Typhoid, Sleeping sickness (d) Measles, Rabies
130. Which of the following statement is true for mycoplasma ?
(a) Presence of cell wall (b) Presence of nucleus
(c) Definite shape (d) Can survive without oxygen
Assertion & Reason

Each of the question below consists of two statements-an Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the appropriate
response as under:
a. If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explanation of A.
b. If both A and R are correct but the R is not a correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. Both A and R are False.
131. A: In living organism growth is intrinsic.
R: Growth is defining feature of living organism.
132. A: Archaebacteria include the simplest and most primitive group of bacteria.
R: Archaebacteria can face extremes of conditions.
133. A : Viroids depend entirely on host enzymes for replication.
R : Viroids are DNA particles that infect plant cells and use host machinery for replication.
134. A : In monera kingdom, cell wall bears unique polymers of amino sugars and amino acids
called peptidoglycans.
R : It is derived from phospholipids.
135. A: One species is distinguished from other closely related based on distinct morphological
differences.
R: Species is group of individuals with fundamental similarities.
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ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following sets of animals are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and hermaphrodite
(a) Pinctada, Pleurobrachia, Ophiura (b) Pennatula, Doliolium, Chaetopleura
(c) Nereis, Hirudinaria, Pheretima (d) Pheretima, Planaria, Taenia
137. Sea anemone is
(a) Triploblastic, radially symmetrical animal
(b) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical animal
(c) Diploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical animal
(d) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical animal
138. Common bath sponge is
(a) Sycon (b) Spongilla (c) Euspongia (d) Euplectella
139. Which of the following statements regarding Platyhelminthes is correct?
(a) Mostly ectoparasites.
(b) Exhibit the property of bioluminescence.
(c) They are coelomate animals with organ level of organization.
(d) Possesses flame cells that help in osmoregulation and excretion.
140. A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis of characteristics given below.
i. Metameric segmentation
ii. Presence of closed circulatory system.
iii. Presence of circular and longitudinal muscles for locomotion.
Identify the specimen.
(a) Prawn (b) Pheretima (c) Wuchereria (d) Ctenoplana
141. Select the incorrect features of Molluscs from the given statements.
i. Terrestrial or aquatic animals having cellular system level of organization.
ii. Radially symmetrical, acoelomate animals with two germinal layers.
iii. A file like rasping organ called radula is present.
iv. Usually dioecious and viviparous animals.
v. Examples include Pila, Octopus, and Dentalium.
(a) i & ii only (b) ii & iv only (c) i, ii, & iv only (d) All the five statements.
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142. Which of the following animal is bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate?
(a) Sycon (b) Aurelia (c) Ctenoplana (d) Ascaris
143. Select the correct match
Column I Column II
1. Gregarious pest (a) Hirudinaria
2. Vector (b) Planaria
3. Oviparous with indirect development (c) Pinctada
4. Metameres (d) Aedes
5. High regeneration capacity (e) Locust
1 2 3 4 5
(a) a b c d e
(b) c e b d a
(c) c a e b d
(d) e d c a b
144. In which of the following animal, foot is situated on head?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
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145. Identify the correct characteristic feature shown by these animals?
(a) Diploblastic body condition (b) Radial symmetry.

(c) Asexual reproduction. (d) Presence of mantle.
146. Study the following and identify the incorrect option.
i. Parapodia Lateral appendages of Neries.
ii. Hypostome A central gastrovascular cavity with a double opening.
iii. Hooks and suckers Present in Hirudinaria.
iv. Feather like gills Present in mantle cavity (a space between the hump and mantle).
(a) i, ii, & iii only (b) ii & iii only (c) iii & iv only (d) All the four match.
147. Which of the following is a characteristic of Aschelminthes?

(a) All species can be characterized as scavengers
(b) They have only longitudinal muscles
(c) They have a true coelom
(d) Many species are diploblastic
148. How many of the following can be used to distinguish a nematode worm from an annelid worm?
1. type of body cavity
2. number of muscle layers in the body wall
3. presence of segmentation
4. number of embryonic tissue layers
5. shape of worm in cross-sectional view
(a) one of these (b) two of these (c) three of these (d) five of these
149. All of the following are regions of an insect except
(a) head (b) thorax (c) abdomen (d) hypostome
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150. Which of the following animal belongs to that phylum in which respiratory organs can be gills,
book gills, book lungs or tracheal system?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
151. Select the correct match

Column I Column II
1. Water canal system (a) Sponges
2. Comb plates (b) Help in swimming
3. Nephridia (c) Present in Molluscs
4. Jointed appendages (d) Characteristics of roundworms
5. Muscular foot (e). A body part of Arthropods
(f). Helps in reproduction
(g). Platyhelminthes
(h). Helps in osmoregulation and
excretion
(i). Eight ciliated external rows
1 2 3 4 5
(a) a i h e c
(b) c a f b e
(c) b e a d i
(d) c f d e a
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152. Identify the structure/feature which is involved in locomotion.
i. Radula
ii. Comb plates
iii. Cnidoblasts
iv. Water vascular system
(a) i & iii only (b) ii & iv only (c) i, ii, & iv only (d) All of the above.
153. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) Platyhelminthes have incomplete digestive system.
(b) In Cnidarians, the arrangement of cells is more complex than poriferans
(c) Nereis is monoecious but earthworm and leech are dioecious.
(d) Compound eyes are present in the animals which are members of largest phylum
154. Which of the following describes echinoderms?

(a) They have an exoskeleton of hard calcareous ossicles
(b) Tubefeet provide motility in most species
(c) Digestion occurs completely outside the body of organism
(d) They are found in both freshwater and saltwater environment
155. A stalked, sessile marine organism has several feathery feeding structures surrounding an opening
through which food enters. The organism could potentially be a cnidarian, a tube-dwelling worm, a
crustacean, or an echinoderm. Which of the following traits, if found in this organism, would allow
the greatest certainty of identification?
(a) the presence of what seems to be radial symmetry
(b) a hard covering made partly of calcium carbonate
(c) a digestive system with mouth and anus separate from each other
(d) a water vascular system
156. Which of the following group of animals belong to phylum Mollusca?

(a) Sea hare, Chiton, Cuttle fish, Apple snail
(b) Locust, Filarial worm, Chiton, Ctenoplana
(c) Brittle star, Sea urchin, Apple snail, Squid
(d) Brittle star, Sea hare, Cuttle fish, Ctenoplana
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157. Which of the following animals are bilaterally symmetrical?
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 4 (c) 3 & 4 (d) 1 & 3
158. Which structure does Pila use to feed on their prey?

(a) a sharp beak (b) an incurrent siphon
(c) a radula (d) a mantle cavity
159. The water vascular system of Asterias

(a) functions in locomotion and feeding
(b) is bilateral in organization, even though the adult animal is not bilaterally symmetrical
(c) moves water through the animals body during suspension feeding
(d) is analogous to the gastrovascular cavity of flatworms
160. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Amoebocyte : Transport food to non feeding cells
(b) Collar cells : Movement of water and filtering food
(c) Osculum : Control of water entry
(d) Spicules : Skeletal supporting element
161. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Sea fan Pennatula (b) Sea walnut-Ctenoplana
(c) Tusk shell Dentallium (d) Brittle star Ophiura
162. Which of the following is not a parasite

(a) Plasmodium (b) Entamoeba (c) Trypanosoma (d) Paramecium
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163. Identify the name of the organism and the phylum to which it belongs.
(a) Roundworm, Aschelminthes (b) Hookworm, Platyhelminthes

(c) Filarial worm, Aschelminthes (d) Tapeworm, Platyhelminthes
164. Which of the following group includes all parasitic animals

(a) Ancylostoma, Apis, Anopheles (b) Taenia, Aedes, Planaria
(c) Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Fasciola (d) Hirudinaria, Ascaris, Asterias
165. Mark the correct match.

Column I Column II
1. Porifera (a) Sexual reproduction by gamete formation and asexual
reproduction by fragmentation
2. Cnidaria (b) Extracellular and intracellular digestion
3. Arthropoda (c) Segmented and coelomate
4. Echinodermata (d) Spiny bodied animals
5. Aschelminthes (e. Sexes are separate
1 2 3 4 5
(a) e b d c a
(b) a b c d e
(c) b a c e d
(d) c b d a e
166. Which of the following is not the common fundamental feature for animal classification?
(a) Germinal layers. (b) Pathway of water transport.
(c) Pattern of organization of cells. (d) Serial repetition of the segments.
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167. The given figures of animals (A & B) are distinguished on the basis of symmetry. Select the correct
option which shows the type of symmetry and its description.
(a) A: Biradial, organisms is divided into unequal halves by any plane though the central axis.
(b) B: Bilateral, body is divided into equivalent right and left halves by only one plane.
(c) A: Asymmetrical, organisms is not divided into equal halves by any plane though the central
axis.
(d) B: Radial, in which any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism
into two identical halves.
168. How many of the following are characteristics of at least some members of the phylum Cnidaria?
1. a gastrovascular cavity
2. a polyp stage
3. a medusa stage
4. cnidocytes
5. a pseudocoelom
(a) two of these (b) three of these (c) four of these (d) five of these
169. Which of the following is true of members of the phylum Cnidaria?

(a) They are not capable of locomotion because they lack true muscle tissue
(b) They have either, or both, of two body forms: mobile polyps and sessile medusae
(c) They may use a gastrovascular cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton
(d) They are the simplest organisms with a complete alimentary canal (two openings)
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170. The figure given below shows the germinal layers labeled as A, B, C and D. Identify the label
showing undifferentiated layer and its location?
(a) A, Between B & C (b) B, Between A & C

(c) C, Between C & D (d) D, Between A & B
171. Match the basis of classification given in column I with their examples given in column II.
Column I Column II
1. Pseudocoelomates (a) Hydra, Adamsia
2. Diploblastic (b) Ctenoplana, Aurelia
3. Cellular level of organization (c) Ascaris, Wuchereria
4. Radial symmetry (d) Sycon, Spongilla
5. Metamerism (e) Pheretima, Neries
1 2 3 4 5
(a) e b d c a
(b) c a d b e
(c) b a c e d
(d) c b d a e
172. Identify the correct characteristics of porifera

i. Commonly known as sea walnuts.
ii. Presence of ostia and collar cells.
iii. Exhibit tissue level of organisation.
iv. It is the largest phylum of animal kingdom.
v. The body is supported by spicules and spongin fibers.
vi. Contains cnidocytes which are used for defense, anchorage and capturing of prey.
(a) ii, v only (b) i, ii, vi only (c) i, ii, iii, iv only (d) All of these.
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173. While sampling marine plankton in a lab, a student encounters large numbers of fertilized eggs. The
student rears some of the eggs in the laboratory for further study and finds that the blastopore
becomes the mouth. The embryo develops into a trochophore larva and eventually has a true
coelom. These eggs probably belonged to a(n)
(a) echinoderm (b) mollusk (c) nematode (d) arthropod
174. Refer the following statement and answer the question.
Name of phylum X is derived from stinging capsules. It exhibit metagenesis containing two body
forms in which sessile and cylindrical form is called Y and umbrella shaped free swimming form
is called Z. Identify X, Y, and Z
X Y Z
(a) Cnidaria Polyp Medusa
(b) Cnidaria Medusa Polyp
(c) Ctenophora Radula Hypostome
(d) Porifera Osculum Radula
175. The figure given below is the characteristic structure of the phylum in which animals
are aquatic, free swimming or sessile, mostly marine, radially symmetrical. Identify
the phylum and correct function of the structure.
(a) Ctenophora; Emission of light.
(b) Porifera; Feeding, respiration and excretion.
(c) Cnidaria; Anchorage, Defense and food capturing
(d) Mollusca; Locomotion, transport of food and respiration.
ASSERTION AND REASON

(a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
176. Assertion : In sponges fertilization is always internal and development is always indirect.
Reason : In sponges fertilization takes place inside the body and larvae develop from zygote.
177. Assertion : Brittle stars have water vascular system which helps in many day to day activities.
Reason : Water vascular system is the distinctive feature of spiny bodied organisms.
178. Assertion : When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism
into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
Reason : Only diploblastic animals can have radial symmetry.
179. Assertion : Body surface of Annelids is distinctly marked out into segments or metameres.
Reason : Metameres are due to presence of longitudinal and circular muscles which help in
locomotion.
180. Assertion : Roundworms may be freeliving, aquatic and terrestrial or parasitic in plants and
animals.
Reason : Roundworms have complete digestive canal with muscular pharynx.
???
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NEET (AIPMT) FULL LENGTH) PAPER 01

ANSWER KEY
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY
1. (c) 46. (d) 91. (a) 136 (d)
2. (c) 47. (c) 92. (d) 137 (b)
3. (b) 48. (b) 93. (d) 138 (c)
4. (a) 49. (d) 94. (d) 139 (d)
5. (c) 50. (c) 95. (b) 140 (b)
6. (c) 51. (d) 96. (c) 141 (c)
7. (c) 52. (a) 97. (a) 142 (d)
8. (b) 53. (d) 98. (b) 143 (d)
9. (c) 54. (a) 99. (d) 144 (c)
10. (c) 55. (c) 100. (b) 145 (d)
11. (c) 56. (a) 101. (a) 146 (b)
12. (c) 57. (d) 102. (a) 147 (b)
13. (a) 58. (d) 103. (a) 148 (c)
14. (a) 59. (b) 104. (a) 149 (d)
15. (d) 60. (a) 105. (a) 150 (c)
16. (a) 61. (a) 106. (a) 151 (a)
17. (b) 62. (d) 107. (c) 152 (b)
18. (d) 63. (b) 108. (d) 153 (c)
19. (d) 64. (b) 109. (c) 154 (b)
20. (d) 65. (d) 110. (a) 155 (d)
21. (c) 66. (d) 111. (b) 156 (a)
22. (c) 67. (d) 112. (b) 157 (b)
23. (a) 68. (a) 113. (d) 158 (c)
24. (a) 69. (b) 114. (b) 159 (a)
25. (b) 70. (a) 115. (c) 160 (c)
26. (b) 71. (a) 116. (c) 161 (a)
27. (c) 72. (c) 117. (c) 162 (d)
28. (d) 73. (d) 118. (a) 163 (a)
29. (b) 74. (d) 119. (b) 164 (c)
30. (c) 75. (d) 120. (d) 165 (b)
31. (c) 76. (a) 121. (b) 166 (b)
32. (b) 77. (b) 122. (d) 167 (b)
33. (c) 78. (a) 123. (d) 168 (c)
34. (b) 79. (a) 124. (a) 169 (c)
35. (a) 80. (d) 125. (d) 170 (a)
36. (b) 81. (b) 126. (d) 171 (b)
37. (a) 82. (c) 127. (d) 172 (a)
38. (c) 83. (b) 128. (b) 173 (b)
39. (a) 84. (b) 129. (d) 174 (a)
40. (a) 85. (a) 130. (d) 175 (c)
41. (b) 86. (a) 131. (c) 176 (a)
42. (d) 87. (a) 132. (b) 177 (b)
43. (a) 88. (c) 133. (c) 178 (c)
44. (d) 89. (a) 134. (c) 179 (c)
45. (d) 90. (a) 135. (a) 180 (b)
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS
1.
So A>B
2.
G G G G G
P=A+B &Q=AB
G G G G G
P Q = (A + B) (A B)
G G G
= A B + B A
G G
= 2(B A)
G G i j k
G G PQ 1 1
B A = = 3 1 1 = 4j 4k = 2j 2k
2 2 2
1 1 1
G
Area = B A = 2 2
3. x = 3yz2
[x] = [y] [z]2
[x] M 1L2 Q 2 T 2
[y] = 2 = 2 2 2
= M 3 L2 Q 4 T 4
[z] MQ T
1 energy
6. 0 E 2 =
2 volume
ML2 T 2
= = ML1T 2
L3
z
7. P= e
P k
Now appear as
z
is dimensionless
k
dz
M LT
0 0 0
k0
k
[ ] =
z

Also [P] =

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[] [k]
[] = =
[P] [zP]
dimension of [k] is of energy
[k] = ML2 L2
ML2 L2
[] = M 0 L2 T 0 .
LMT 1T 2
8. v = IR
[work] ML2 T 2
v has the dimension of = = ML2 T 3 I 1
[charge] IT
[v]
[R] = = ML2 T 3 I 2
[I]
9.
on placing back face and bottom face in same plane
A starting point G final point

5a
minimum time =
u
10. St + St +1 = 100
1 1
u + f (2t 1) + u + f[(2t + 1) 1] = 100
2 2
1
2u + f (2t 1 + 2t + 1) = 100
2
2u + 2t = 100
u + ft = 50
v = 50 cm/s
1
11. h = ut + gt 2
2
2
25 = ut 5t
5t2 ut = 25 = 0
Let t1, t2 be its roots
t1 + t2 = u/5, t1t2 = 5
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Given, t2 t1 = 4 sec.
(t2 t1)2 = 16
(t2 t1)2 4t1t2 = 16
2
u
4 5 = 16
5
u = 30 m/sec.
12. Distance covered in first 10 sec
1
S1 = (10)(10) 2 = 500 m
2
Remaining height from ground = 2495 500 = 1995 m
u = gt = 10 10 = 100 m/s
velocity on reaching the ground
v2 = (100)2 + 2(2.5) 1995
v2 = 10000 9975 = 25
v = 5 m/s.
13. V = a + bx
(V increases as x increases)
dV dx
= b; =V
dx dt
dV
So, acceleration = V = Vb
dx
hence acceleration increases as V increases with x.
G G
G G dr G dv
14. r = (t 2 4t + 6)i + t 2 j ; v = = (2t 4)i + 2t j , a = = 2i + 2j
dt dt

If a and v are perpendicular

a v = 0
(2i + 2j) ((2t 4)i + 2t j) = 0
8t 8 = 0
t = 1 sec.
11 1 1
v t
dv
15. v kv3 0 dt
2 2=t
2 k v v0
0
1 1 v0
2
= 2kt + 2 v=
v v0 1 + 2v02 kt
16. Plotting velocity v against time t, we get
Area under the vt curve gives distance
1 1
Distance = 2 2 + 2 2 = 4 m
2 2
17. Instantaneous, acceleration = slope of vt graph

Hence, obviously, a t graph will be as shown,
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18. For maximum range, = 45
u
At the highest point, v = u cos =
2
19. Range is same for 2 and 4
2 + 4 = 90 = 15
Ratio of ranges will be sin 30 : sin 60 : sin 120
1 3 3 2
: : :2:2
2 2 2 3
20.
2u y
2= u y = 10 m / s
g
1
Now, H = u y t + gt 2
2
= 30 + 45 = 15 m
21. y = 4t t2, x = 3t
dy dx
Vy = = 4 2t, Vx = =3
dt dt
u y = v y t = 0 = 4, u x = v x t = 0 = 3
The angle of projection:
Vy 4 4
tan = = = tan 1
Vx 3 3
22. Let initial and final speeds of stone be u and v
v2 = u2 2gh (i)
and v cos 30 = u cos 60 (ii)
solving 1 and 2 we get u = 3gh
23. From given data
r
VM = 5 2 i + 5 2 i
Velocity of man
Velocity of wind
r
VW = 5 2 i
The flag will flutter in the direction in which wind is blowing with respect to the man holding the flag.
r r r
VWM = VW VM
r
( ) (
VWM = 5 2 j 5 2 i + 5 2 j )
r
VWM = 5 2 j = 5 2 (j)
This implies direction of wind with respect to man in south.
Flag will flutter in south direction.
24. (by Relative Motion)
2u sin 30 2 10 3 1
T= = = 2 sec
g cos30 10 3
t = 2 sec.
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25. The velocity of an object released in a moving frame is equal to that of the frame as observed from the frame
26. Vw = 1i + 1j
V = at
V = (0.2) 10 = 2 m/sec.
Vboat = 2i + 2j
Vwboat = Vw Vboat
V wboat= (1i + 1j)
(2i + 2j) = 1i 1j
So, the flag will flutter towards south-west.

17. Let velocity of man in still water be v and that of water with respect to ground be u.
Velocity of man perpendicular to river flow with respect to ground = v 2 u 2
Velocity of man downstream = v + u

As given, v 2 u 2 t = (v + u)T
(v 2 u 2 )t 2 = (v + u) 2 T 2
(v u)t 2 = (v + u)T 2
v t 2 + T2
=
u t 2 T2
28. It is clear from the figure that acceleration does not change sign, i.e., does not change in direction. Only the
Velocity keeps on increasing
Hence displacement also keeps on increasing.
29. (Moderate) Speed of river is u and speed of boat relative to water is v.
Speed of boat B observed from ground = u 2 + v 2

Speed of boat B observed from ground = u 2 v 2
From river frame, speed of boat A and B will be same.
30. Relative to the person in the train, acceleration of the stone is g downward, a (acceleration of train)
backwards.
1 1
According to him : x = at 2 , Y = gt 2
2 2
X a g
= Y = x straight line.
Y g a
31. y = 2/3 x + 5/3
dy
= 2 / 3
dx
32. y = tan x cos2x
dy d d
= tan x (cos 2 x) + cos 2 x (tan x)
dx dx dx
= tan x(2) cos sin x + cos2x sec2x
= 1 2 sin2x
dy 1
33. Let t2 = y 2t = dy y dt = t sin(t 2 )dt = sin y = ( cos y)
2 2
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34. y = sin(2x + 3)
Let 2x + 3 = t 2dx = dt y dx = sin(2x + 3)dx
dt 1 cos(2x + 3)
= sin t = ( cos(t)) = +C
2 2 2
/ 2
sin x dx = [ cos x ]
/2
35. 0
=1
0
37. In first case
c = a 2 + b 2 + 2ab cos
In second case
R = a 2 + b 2 + 2ab cos
c=R

In first case c is at an angle with horizontal and In second case R is at angle ( ) with horizontal.
G G
A B (3i 4] (i j) 7
38. Component = = =
| B| 2 2
39. F2 sin 30 = R
100
F2 =
sin 30
F2 = 200 N
3i + 4j
40. Vector = 7 2 + 242 = 15i + 20j
3 +4
2 2
41. Assertion is false, because direction of velocity is not specified. It is not necessary that when acceleration is
negative positive slow down. As when both velocity and acceleration are negative or positive then particle
will increase its speed.
Reason is true as direction of acceleration is independent of velocity.
42. A particle is projected vertically upwards. In duration of time from projection till T reaches baxk to point of
projection, average velocity is zero.
Hence statement I is false.
G
45. Acceleration of each of the projectile = g .
G G G
Relative acceleration a r g g = 0 .
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CHEMISTRY
46. We know that ionic characters = 16[E A E B ] + 3.5 [E A E B ]2
or ionic characters = 72.24%
47. Configuration of O2 molecule is
[(1s) 2 (1s) 2 (2s) 2 *(2s) 2 (2p x ) 2 (2p y ) 2 (2p z ) 2 (2p x )1 (2p y )1 ]
No. of pair are 7 so total no. of paired electrons are 14.
48. The correct order of increasing dipole moment is
p-dichlorobenzene < Toluene < m-dichlorobenzene < o-dichlorobenzene.
49. Ammonia molecule is more basic than nitrogen trifluoride and Boron trifluoride because ammonia molecule
easily gives lone pair of electron.
50. [ NF3 and H 3O + ] are pyramidal while [ NO3 and BF3 ] are planar. Hence answer (c) is correct.
+
51. B.O. in CO i.e., : C = O : is 3, that of O = C = O is 2 while that of CO32 ion is 1.33. Since the bond length
increases as the bond order decreases i.e. CO < CO 2 < CO32 . Thus option (d) is correct.
52. BeF3 does not show sp3 hybridization because this compound is not formed.
53. N +2 has one unpaired electron so it would be paramagnetic.
54. Each of the species has 14 electron so isoelectronic and shows bond order 3.
1 1 6
B.O. = [N b N a ] = [10 4] = = 3 .
2 2 2
55. CuSO4 .5H 2O has electrovalent, covalent and coordinate bonds.
O

Cu 2+ O S O .5H 2 O .

O

56. F have the same number of electrons with the neon atom.
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e 0
57. for (i) neutron = = 0
m 1
2
(ii) particle = = 0.5
4
1
(iii) Proton = =1
1
1
(iv) electron = = 1837 .
1/1837
c 1
58. E = hv = h i.e. E

E1 2 4000
= = = 2.
E 2 1 2000
59. According to Bohrs model E = E1 E3
2.179 1011
= 2.179 1011
9
8
= 2.179 1011 = 1.911011 = 0.1911010 erg
9
Since electron is going from n = 1 to n = 3 hence energy is absorbed.
13.6 13.6
60. Values of energy in the excited state = 2
eV = = 3.4 eV in which n = 2,3, 4 etc.
n 4
16 N A
61. 42g of N 3 ions have 16 N A valence electrons 4.2g of N 3 ion have = 4.2 = 1.6 N A .
42
1
Frequency = 12 1014 s 1 and velocity of light c = 3 10 cms . We know that the wave number
10
62.
v 12 1014
= = = 4 104 cm 1
c 3 1010
13.6 13.6
63. E= = = 3.4 eV
n2 4
We know that energy required for excitation E = E 2 E1 = 3.4 (13.6) = 10.2 eV
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64. Let the number of photons required be n.
nhc
= 10 17

10 17 10 17 550 10 9
n= = = 27.6 28 photons
hc 6.626 10 34 3 10 8
c 3 108
65. = = = 3.75 108 = 3.75 108 109 nm = 4 101 nm .
v 8 1015
66. As we go down the group inertness of ns 2 pair increase hence tendency to exhibit +2 oxidation state
increases and that of +4 oxidation state decreases.
67. CaO is basic; CO2 is acidic; SiO2 is weakly acidic. SnO2 is amphoteric.
68. Correct order of electron affinity is O < Se < S.
69. B < C < N < O ; When we move from B to O in a periodic table the first ionisation enthalpy increase due to
the attraction of nucleus towards the outer most of electron.
70. The basic nature of oxide decreases across the period as metallic character decreases. Therefore acidic nature
of oxide increases.
71. Increasing order of electronegativity is Bi<P<S<Cl.
72. Because for removing second electron, it has to be taken out from stable configuration that needs a large
amount of energy.
73. All the noble gases occupy the peaks of I.E. curve.
74. 1s2 2s2 p6 3s2 - In III transition e is to be removed from stable configuration.
75. Electronegativity increases on going from left to right in a period. Thus electronegativity of F > O > N
%Cl .
16 1
76. 16g O2 has no. of moles = =
32 2
14 1
14g N 2 has no. of moles = =
28 2
No. of moles are same, so no. of molecules are same.
W(gm) 1000 2.65 1000

77. Molarity = = = 0.1M
molecular wt. V(ml.) 106 250
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10ml of this solution is diluted to 1000ml N1V1 = N 2 V2
10 0.1 = 1000 x
0.1 10
x= = 0.001M .
1000
78. 44g of CO2 has 2 6 10 23 atoms of oxygen
12 1023
4.4g of CO2 has = 4.4 = 1.2 1023 atoms.
44
Mass g
79. Density = ; 1= or g = ml
Volume ml
0.0018ml = 0.0018gm
weight 0.0018
No. of moles = = = 1104
Molecular weight 18
No. of water molecules = 6.023 1023 1104 = 6.023 1019 .
80. Amount of gold = 19.7kg = 19.7 1000gm =19700gm
19700
No. of moles = = 100
197
No. of atoms = 100 6.023 1023 = 6.023 1025 atoms.
81. 16gm of CH 4 = 1mole = 6.023 10 23 molecules.
84. The no. of molecules present in 1ml of gas at STP is known as Laschmidt number.
22400ml of gas has total no. of molecules = 6.023 10 23
6.023 1023
1ml of gas has total no. of molecules = = 2.69 1019 .
22400
85. Molecular weight of SO2Cl2 = 32 + 32 + 2 35.5 = 135gm
Q 135 gm of SO2Cl2 = 1gm molecule
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1
13.5gm of SO2Cl2 = 13.5 = 0.1 .
135
86. Polarity in covalent bond developed due to shifting of electrons towards one of the bonded atoms.
87. Pure water always contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 1:8 by mass. This is in accordance with the law
of constant composition.
88. Calcium has a higher nuclear charge than sodium.
89. We know that principal quantum number represent the main energy level or energy shell. Since each energy
level is associated with a definite amount of energy, this quantum number determines to a large extent the
energy of an electron. It also determines the average distance of an electron around the nucleus. Therefore
both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
90. We know that a resonance hybrid or the actual molecule is always more stable than any of its canonical
structures which is also called hypothetical or imaginary structures. This stability is due to delocalization of
electrons and is measured in terms of resonance energy or delocalization energy, it is defined as the difference
in internal energy of the resonance hybrid and the most stable canonical structure. Therefore both the
Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
BOTANY
91. This is the diagram of bacteriophage, front part is head which is jointed with sheath by collar. Six tail fibers
are associated with sheath.
92. Nostoc is filamentous blue-green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called
heterocysts. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites
and ammonia and use the released energy for their ATP production.
93. The intermediate phase between two stages (plasmogamy and karyogamy) is known as dikaryophase.
It gives rise to secondary mycelium. It has multiple septate hyphae. The septa have spores and hook shaped
outgrowths. They are known as clamp connections. Septa mycelia multiply by formation of many spores
including uredospores and chlamydospores. In basidia, karyogamy and meiosis occur which leads to the
production of basidiospores.
94. Zoospores, sporangiospores and aplanosporg are asexual spores. An oospore is a thick walled sexual spore
that develops from a fertilized oosphere (union of oogonium and antheridium) in fungi and some algae.
Ascospores and basidiospore are sexual spores of ascomycertes and basidiomy cetes respectively.
95. Morels are member of ascomycetes group. Basidiomycetes is a group of smut fungi and rust fungi. Bread
moulds i.e. Rhizopus and Mucor are members of zygomycetes whereas deuteromycetes is a group called fungi
imperfecti.
96. Yeast is unicellular fungi which do not produces conidia.
97. Somatic parts of slime moulds are without cell walls. They are surrounded by the cell membrane only.
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98. It is bacteria undergoing binary fission which is main mode of reproduction.
99. The main role of bacteria in carbon cycle is breakdown of organic compounds. They are termed as Nature's
scavengers as they help in preventing the accumulation of dead remains of plants and animals.
100. All of them are heterotroph.
101. Autotrophic bacteria do not use water as raw material in the process of food synthesis, so it cannot produce
oxygen in photosynthesis.
102. Lichens cannot survive in highly polluted atmosphere therefore they are called pollution indicators.
103. Compared to many other organisms, bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity. Some of
the bacteria are autotrophic. They may be photosynthetic autotrophic or chemosynthetic autotrophic while
vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs. Bacteria are the members of kingdom monera.
105. Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic organisms. All prokaryotes are placed in the kindom monera.
106. Bacteriophage has a proteinaceous head in which a double stranded DNA is tightly packed. In general, virus
that infact plants have single stranded RNA.
107. Citrus canker is bacterial disease caused by bacteria Xanthomonas citri.
108. The cell wall in archaebacteria contains pseudomurein and non cellulosic polysaccharides. It lacks
peptidoglycans.
109. Nitrogen fixation in cyanobacteria mainly occurs in specialized cells called heterocysts. Heterocysts are large
sized, pale coloured, non motile, mucilage free thick walled cells which are impermeable to oxygen.
110. Diatoms are found in the fresh water as well as in the marine environment. The cell walls of diatoms form two
thin overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box. The cell wall of is embedded with silica and
accumulation of them over billion years is referred to as "diatomaceous earth". Being gritty and less slippery,
this soil is used in polishing, filtration of oil and syrups.
111. These are the diagrams of fungi. (a) Mucor (b) Agaricus (c) Aspergillus.
They are members of zygomycetes, Basidiomycetes and ascomycetes respectively. Sexual reproduction in
them are held by gametangial coupulation in zygomycetes and gametangial contact in ascomycetes. In
basidiomycetes sexual reproduction is done by the method somatogamy in which fusion of two hyphal cells of
two mating type (+) and () occurs.
112. The name virus that means venom or poisonous fluid was given by Pasteur. D.J. Ivanowsky recognised certain
microbes as causal organism of the mosaic disease of tobacco. These were found to be smaller than bacteria
because they passed through bacteria proof filters. M.W. Beijerinck demonstrated that the extract of infected
plant of tobacco could cause infection in healthy plants and called the fluid as Contagium vivum fluidum.
113. White rust disease on crucifers (mustard) is caused by Albugo candida. Rhizopus is bread / black mould.
114. Mayr is also known as Darwin of 20th century.
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115. On the basis of mode of nutrition, the protists are grouped as photosynthetic, slime moulds and protozoans.
116. Ability of viruses to be crystallized is non living characteristic.
117. In basidiomycetes, basidiospores are produced exogenously, unlike ascomycetes where ascospores are
produced endogenously.
118. TMV has single stranded RNA.
119. Monograph contains descriptive information of any one taxon.
120. Ferns are not prokaryotes. They are pteridophytes and eukaryotic. Chlamydomonas and Chlorella were earlier
placed in algae due to presence of cell wall but in R.H. Whittakar system of classification it is placed in
protista. Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in protista as protozoans.
121. Taxonomic aids flora and monographs both help in correct identification of organism. Flora contains the
actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area while monograph contains information's of
any one taxon. Key is based on similarities and dissimilarities and herbarium is store house of collected plants
specimens that are dried.
122. Biological names are generally Latin and written in italics. They are Latinised or derived from Latin
irrespective of their origin.
123. Systematic takes into account evolutionary relationships between organisms. Therefore, the study of
biological diversity and evolutionary the study of biological diversity and evolutionary relationships between
living and extinct organisms is most accurately referred to systematic.
124. Primata, Diptera and Poales are order names of organisms Home sapiens, Musca domestica and Triticum
aestivum respectively.
125. Pardus and Leo are two different species and both belong to the genus Panthera. Genus Felis includes cats.
Same as species is a group of individuals with highest fundamental similarities and minimum number of
organisms.
126. Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the family polynomials mainly bases on the floral characters.
127. Keys are taxonomic aids for identification of plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities
among organisms. It is based on contrasting characters generally in a pair called couplet.
128. Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens only which are dried. Animals do not preserved as dry
specimens in herbarium.
129. Measles and Rabies are diseases caused by virus. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family which
attacks the CNS while measles is caused by a paromyxovirus (RNA virus).
130. Mycoplasma are organisms that completely lack a cell wall. They are small living cells known and can
survive without oxygen. They are pleomorphic and prokaryotic cell therefore no definite shape is found and
nucleus or any membrane bound cell organelle is absent.
131. In living being growth is intrinsic but non-living thing can also grow.
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132. Archae bacteria can survive in extreme condition because of their cell wall structure.
133. Viroids are naked RNA that infect plant cells and use host machinery for replication.
134. In kingdom monera, cell wall be unique polymers of amino sygars (N-acytyl glucosamine and N-acetyl
muramic acid) and amino acids, called peptidoglycans but it is not derived from phospholipids.
135. Species is group of closely related individual with fundamental similarity.
ZOOLOGY
137. Sea anemone is Adamsia. It is a member of phylum Cnidaria.

138. Sycon is crown sponge or urn sponge, Spongilla is fresh water sponge, Euplectella is Venuss flower basket. It
is given as wedding gift in Japan.
139. Flatworms are free living as well as parasites, these don not show bioluminescence and these are acoelomates.
140. Pheretima is common Indian earthworm, it is a member of phylum Annelida.
141. Molluscs are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical coelomate animals with organ-system level of body
organisation.
144. The given figure is of Octopus, it is a member of phylum Mollusca.
146. Parapodia are extensions of body wall present in many annelids. Gastrovascular cavity has a single opening in
cnidarians. Hirudinaria is leech and it doesnt have hooks.
147. Circular muscles are absent in roundworms.
150. These respiratory structures are found in members of phylum Arthropoda.
151. Echinodermata is exclusively marine phylum and these animals have endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles.
155. Water vascular system is characteristic feature of Echinoderms.
156. Locust is an arthropod, brittle star and sea urchin are echinoderms and Ctenoplana is a member of phylum
Ctenophora.
160. Osculum is a large aperture which allows the exit of water. Water enters through ostia.
161. Sea fan is Gorgonia, Sea pen is Pennatula.
162. Plasmodium causes malaria, Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness and Entamoeba causes intestinal
disorders.
164. Apis is honey bee. Planaria is free living.

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(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 2 (d) 1

(a) [M3 L1 T 3 Q 4 ] (b) [M3 L2 T 4 Q 4 ] (c) [M 4 L2 T 4 Q 4 ] (d) [M3 L2 T 4 Q 1 ]

(a) MLT1 (b) ML2 T2 (c) ML1 T2 (d) ML2 T1

(a) M 0 L0 T 0 (b) M1L1 T1 (c) M 0 L2 T 0 (d) M1L1 T 2

(a) ML2 T2 I 2 (b) ML2 T3 I2 (c) ML2 T3 I 2 (d) ML2 T2 I2

(a) 2gh (b) 6gh

(c) 3gh (d) gh

33. If y = t sin(t 2 ) then y dt will be

cos(t 2 ) cos(t 2 ) cos(t 2 )

34. If y = sin(2x + 3) then y dx will be

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 1/2

38. Magnitude of component of 3i 4 j along i j will be

ASSERTION & REASON

51. The correct order of increasing C O bond length of CO, CO 23 , CO 2 is

(a) CO 23 < CO 2 < CO (b) CO 2 < CO 23 < CO

(c) CO < CO 23 < CO 2 (d) CO < CO 2 < CO 23

(a) BeF3 (b) OH+3 (c) NH2 (d) NF3

(c) In O 2 , paramagnetism decreases (d) N+2 becomes diamagnetic

54. The common features among the species CN , CO and NO + are

(c) 2.389 1012 erg (d) 0.239 1010 erg

(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.001 M (c) 0.01 M (d) 104 M

ASSERTION & REASONING TYPE

91. State the correct naming of the virus components.

101. Cyanobacteria differ from bacteria as they

109. Which statement depicts incorrect characteristic of Cyandoacteria ?

(A) (B) (C)

113. Find the incorrect match

117. Find out the incorrect statement.

118. Which of the following statement is false?

119. A _____ contains descriptive information of any one taxon.

124. Which group contains order names ?

125. How many of the following statement (s) are correct ?

Assertion & Reason

145. Identify the correct characteristic feature shown by these animals?

(a) Diploblastic body condition (b) Radial symmetry.

147. Which of the following is a characteristic of Aschelminthes?

151. Select the correct match

153. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

154. Which of the following describes echinoderms?

156. Which of the following group of animals belong to phylum Mollusca?

(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 4 (c) 3 & 4 (d) 1 & 3

158. Which structure does Pila use to feed on their prey?

159. The water vascular system of Asterias

160. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

161. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

162. Which of the following is not a parasite

(a) Roundworm, Aschelminthes (b) Hookworm, Platyhelminthes

164. Which of the following group includes all parasitic animals

165. Mark the correct match.

169. Which of the following is true of members of the phylum Cnidaria?

(a) A, Between B & C (b) B, Between A & C

172. Identify the correct characteristics of porifera

ASSERTION AND REASON

NEET (AIPMT) FULL LENGTH) PAPER 01

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

on placing back face and bottom face in same plane

A starting point G final point

17. Instantaneous, acceleration = slope of vt graph

So, the flag will flutter towards south-west.

Velocity of man downstream = v + u

Speed of boat B observed from ground = u 2 + v 2

or ionic characters = 72.24%