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IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper

11. The pontic design preferred for the appearance
1. A fixed partial denture is to be constructed for
zone of maxillary and mandibular teeth is
the mandibular arch of a 35 year-old female. The
A. Hygienic B. Saddle
opposing permanent maxillary first molar is
C. Spheroidal D. Ridge-lap
extruded 3mm beyond the plane of occlusion.The
best way to correct this situation is to: 12. In lingualized occlusion, the dominant
A. Reduce and reshape occlusal length of the tooth by functional element is
3mm. A. Maxillary buccal cusp B. Maxillary lingual cusp
B. Extract the opposing tooth and replace it with a fixed C. Mandibular buccal cusp D. Mandibular lingual cusp
partial denture. 13. The rib of metal on the occlusal surface of a
C. Restore the maxillary molar to a satisfactory plane of crown on a maxillary premolar, takes the form of
occlusion with a cast restoration. A. An occlusal offset B. An occlusal shoulder
D. Cut the maxillary extruded molar off the working cast, C. A contrabevel D. A bevel
construct a mandibular fixed prosthesis and equilibrate
the maxillary molar to the new occlusal plane after the 14. What should be thickness of the noble metal
prosthesis is cemented. framework of an anterior metal ceramic crown ?
A. Less than 0.1 mm B. 0.1-0.3 mm
2. The most favourable vault form is
C. 0.3 - 0.5 mm D. 0.5 - 0.7 mm
A. Medium depth with a well defined incline of the rugae
area 15. When preparing a posterior tooth for a full
B. Flat vault with well defined incline of rugae area coverage restoration, failure to place the functional
C. High vault D. None of the above cusp bevel would result in
A. Difficulty in seating the restoration
3. The occlusion rim in the anterior region should
B. An unesthetic restoration
be
C. Decreased retention of the restoration
A. Slightly lingual B. Slightly buccal D. A weak restoration
C. On the ridge D. None of the above
16. During the first year post extraction resorption
4. The thickness of palatal surface of maxillary
is more in
denture should be
A. Mandible B. Maxilla C. Equal D. Variable
A. 2mm B. 2.5mm C. 1.5mm D. 3mm
17. Causes of midline fracture of maxillary denture
5. Occlusal correction is done in immediate denture
may be
after
A. Torus palatinus B. Faulty occlusion
A. 24 hours B. After 48 hours C. Deep labial notch D. All of the above
C. Before insertion D. None of the above
18. An over extended mandibular denture will be
6. From stability point of view, least favorable is
dislodged as a result of function of
A. Normal inter-arch space A. Massetor B. Temporalis
B. Increased inter-arch space C. Buccinator D. Lateral pterygoid
C. Decreased inter-arch space D. None of the above
19. Which muscle has dual function as related to a
7. Least favorable prognosis is for
complete denture
A. Onlay graft A. Massetor B. Temporalis
B. Inter-positional bone graft C. Lateral pterygoid D. Geniohyoid
C. Inferior bone graft D. Visor osteotomy
20. Compared to the traditional methyl
8. SPA concept includes
methacrylate resins, epimines have
A. Selection of anterior teeth B. Setting of anterior teeth A. Higher polymerization shrinkage
C. Both of the above D. None of the above B. Lesser strength
9. The pin modified anterior crown is C. Higher heat of exothermic reaction
contraindicated for D. Poorer flow properties
A. Large teeth 21. The minimum distance between the gingival
B. Teeth that are thick faciolingually margin of a crown and the alveolar crest should be
C. Teeth with small pulps A. 0.5 mm B. 1 mm C. 2 mm D. 4 mm
D. None of the above
22. A taper of 7 is permitted for a restoration with
10. Anterior teeth may be
a height/width ratio of 1:2. What would be the
A. Anatomic B. Semi anatomic permissible taper for a preparation with a height
C. Non anatomic D. Any of the above /width ratio of 1:1, to have effective resistance ?
A.15 B. 3 C. 28 D. 21
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23. The muscle which trims the posterior lingual C. Detrimental chewing habits
areas of the lower denture is D. Incorrect design of cast backing
A. Genioglossus B. Palatoglossus
35. Low and medium fusing porcelain are made by a
C. Mentalis D. Buccinator
special process called
24. At two-stage impression or altered cast A. Bisque baking B. Denitrification
technique man be used for construction of C. Fritting D. Fusion
removable partial dentures primarily because it
36. For greatest retention of the porcelain veneer
A. Results in a detailed impression of the soft tissue
the coping design should be
B. Accommodates resilient and nonresilient tissues
A. Convex with undercuts to retain porcelain
C. Allows the dentist to border mold
B. Convex with no undercuts
D. Both (B) and (C) above
C. Convex with sharp angle to distribute stresses
25. Esthetic zone in maxilla extends till D. Concave on facial surface to provide room for
A. 1st premolar B. 2nd premolar porcelain
C. 1st molar D. 2nd molar 37. Resin-retained FPDs are indicated
26. In CD preferred occlusal scheme is A. When abutments have short clinical crowns
A. Canine surface B. Group function B. Where abutment teeth are excessively restored or
C. Either of the above D. None of the above damaged
C. For the replacement of anterior teeth in children
27. Physiologic rest position is related to
D. For the replacement of molars in aged patients
A. Centric relation B. Centric occlusion
C. Vertical dimension D. All of the above 38. The angle between the lingual wall of the axial
groove of a crown and the adjoining axial surface
28. Realeff concept was given by
should be
A. Whip-Mix B. Hanau
A. 50-60 B. 45 C. Less than 40 D. 90
C. Frush & Fisher D. Fish
39. Minimum acceptable crown-ratio is
29. The esthetics of an artificial denture begins in
A. 2:3 B. 1:1 C. 3:2 D. 3:4
the
A. Selection of teeth B. Position of the teeth 40. In what situation might a crown-root ratio of
C. Finished denture D. Impression greater than 1:1 be considered adequate for a tooth
used as a bridge abutment?
30. The most important disadvantage of acrylic
A. When the opposing tooth cusps interdigitate in the
resin denture bases is
central fossa.
A. Shrinkage B. Porosity
B. When the opposing teeth are artificial or periodontally
C. Tooth breakage D. Water absorption
compromised.
31. Where would the functional cusp bevel be C. When the opposing roots are broader buccolingually
placed when preparing a mandibular second molar than mesiodistally.
for a full coverage restoration ? D. When the opposing roots are broader mesiodistally
A. Lingual cusps B. Mesial cusps than buccolingually.
C. Buccal cusps D. Noncentric cusps
41. To establish the chemical bond between metal
32. For which retainer is the tooth preparation most and porcelain, an oxide layer can be formed on the
conservative ? metal surface by heating it to a temperature that:
A. Resin bonded retainer B. Pin ledge retainer A. Exceeds the firing temperature of porcelain
C. Telescopic retainer D. None of above B. Is less than the firing temperature of porcelain
33. Hydroscopic expansion of the investment
C. Is equal to the firing temperature of porcelain
material occurs because of
D. None of the above
A. 900F heat in the oven 42. Removable die-system include
B. The 100F water both which increases the setting A. Di-Lok tray B. Pindex system
expansion by releasing a gaseous component C. Both of the above D. None of the above
C. The 100Fwater bath which allows the crystallization
43. Targis and Vectris is used for fabrication of
process to go to completion
A. Inlays B. Crowns
D. None of the above
C. Both A and B D. Inlays, crowns and bridges
34. What is likely to produce fracture in an anterior
44. The only system which may be used for
porcelain pontic facing
fabrication of all-ceramic bridges is
A. Great vertical overlap of teeth
A. In-Ceram B. Dicor
B. Great horizontal overlap
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C. IPS- Empress D. Optek-HSP 58. Incisal rest are most frequently used in
A. Mandibular incisor B. Maxillary incisor
45. When an object appears to be of different colors
C. Mandibular canines D. Maxillary canines
under different lights, the phenomenon is called
A. Fluorescence B. Metamerism 59. Height of contour term was first used by
C. Polymerism D. Translucency A. Kennedy B. DeVan
C. Krol D. Prothero
46. The tooth with maximum color saturation is
generally the 60. Akers clasp is
A. Maxillary canine B. Premolars A. Circumferential clasp B. Combination clasp
C. Central incisors D. Lateral incisors C. Vertical projection clasp D. None of the above
47. Minimum reduction for a metal-ceramic crown 61. Push type retention is seen in
is A. Circumferential clasp B. Combination clasp
A. 0.5 - 0.7 mm B. 1.3 1.5 mm C. Vertical projection clasp D. All of the above
C. 1.8 2.0 mm D. None of the above
62. A sagger tray is used
48. Metal-ceramic crowns may be A. In the casting of Ni-Cr alloys
A. Mesial half crowns B. crowns B. In the firing of porcelain
C. Full crowns D. All of the above C. For adjusting the cervical margin of a preformed
aluminium crown
49. Electrolytically etched resin bonded retainers
D. For taking a polyether impression of the prepared teeth
are fabricated from
A. Nickel-chromium alloys B. Cobalt-chromium alloys 63. Indirect retainer resist movement
C. Palladium-gold alloys D. Silver-gold alloys A. Towards ridge B. Away from ridge
C. Around all fulcrums D. All of the above
50. Retentive pin holes are best placed in
A. Mesial side B. Distal side 64. RPI design was given by
C. Buccal or lingual D. Corners of the teeth A. Kratochvil (1967) B. Krol (1967)
C. Krol (1973) D. Kratochvil (1975)
51. Finishing of the preparation may be done by
A. Ultrafine diamonds B. Multi-fluted carbide burs 65. RPI design includes
C. Either A or B A. Mesial rest B. Distal rest
D. Preparations must be finished as this may decrease C. Incisal rest D. Lingual rest
retention 66. In tripoding, marks are marked
52. Connectors may be A. On tissue surface B. On art portion of the cast
A. Rigid B. Non - rigid C. A and B D. On abutment teeth
C. Cast D. All of the above
67. Shaped block out are given on
53. Of the prefabricated cemented porcelain pontic A. Buccal and lingual surfaces
facings, the most esthetic is the B. Mesial and distal surface
A. Harmony facing B. Reverse pin facing C. Deep interproximal surface
C. Interchangeable facing D. Long pin facing D. Beneath all minor connector
54. Minimum width of posterior component of 68. Swing lock RPD consist of
closed horse shoe of major connector should be A. Hinged labial bar B. Hinged lingual bar
A. 5mm B. 6mm C. 7mm D. 8mm C. Hinged labial or buccal bar
D. All of the above
55. Out of three types of minor connector which is
the weakest 69. Major connector in swing Lock denture is
A. Open lattice work B. Mesh work A. Hinged Labial bar B. Hinged Buccal bar
C. Nail bead D. None C. Hinged Lingual bar
D. Conventional Major connector
56. Space is required beneath minor connector
A. Open lattice work and mesh work B. Mesh work 70. Specific gravity of chrome alloy as compared to
C. Open lattice work gold is approximately
D. Nail bead, open lattice work and mesh work A. Equal B. One third
C. One half D. More
57. The best pontic material in contact with ridge
71. Modulus of elasticity for chromium cobalt is in
tissue is
range of
A. Glazed porcelain
A. 15x106 psi B. 32x106 psi
B. Polished nickel-chromium alloy
C. 50x106 psi D. 69x107 psi
C. Highly polished resin D. Unglazed porcelain
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72. Classification based on whether Prosthesis is B. The drill should not rotate more than 5 secs
tooth borne, tissue borne or combination was given continuously in contact with bone
by C. Only speeds above 20,000 rpm should be used in
A. Bailyn B. Cummer drilling
C. Freidman D. Mauk D. Enough pressure should be used to proceed 0.5-1mm
every 5 seconds
73. The most important part of a partial denture is
A. The connectors B. Replaced teeth 83. How much tooth reduction is required over
C. Reciprocal arm D. Base functional cusps for a cast metal crown ?
A. 1.0 mm B. 2.0 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 0.5 mm
74. Reciprocal arm
A. Is non retentive and serves to resist lateral movement 84. When constructing complete dentures, the
B. Is retentive Gothic arch tracing is made
C. Fails to resist lateral movement A. After teeth setting
D. Fails to resist unseating forces B. Before making plaster interocclusal records
C. After teeth setting but before the final remount
75. Which of the following cements has the highest
D. Before teeth setting but after making plaster
compressive strength ?
interocclusal records
A. Zinc phosphate B. Polycarboxylate
C. Silicophosphate D. Glass ionomer 85. Which preparation has an isthmus and a
countersink on its occlusal surface ?
76. System based on the location and extent of the
A. Full coverage crown B. crown
edentulous space, where teeth are to be replaced
C. Proximal half crown D. Modified crown
on base was given by
A. Cummer B. Bailyn 86. The high lip line is the
C. Godfreys D. Mauk A. Level of the upper lip during serious talking
B. Level of the upper lip during natural smiling
77. The pontic easiest to fabricate, is the
C. Highest level of the lower lip
A. All metal pontic B. Resin veneered metal pontic
D. Level of the upper lip when the patient says 'cheese'
C. Metal ceramic pontic
D. Prefabricated cemented pontic 87. Centric relation is determined by
A. Muscles only B. Muscles and teeth
78. When the loss of first molar has broken the
C. Muscles and nerves D. Nerves and ligaments
lower dental arch, the second molar will become
inclined 88. The apex of the Bonwill's equilateral triangle is
A. Distolingually B. Mesiolingually located at the
C. Distobuccally D. Mesiobuccally A. Anterior tip of the incisive papilla
B. Upper central incisor's contact point
79. Which of the following is an advantage of using
C. Anterior most point on the chin
resins for resin-metal pontics?
D. Lower central incisor's contact point
A. No marginal leakage
B. Excellent bonding to metal 89. The most difficult bridges are those replacing
C. High resistance to abrasion and wear the
D. Easy to manipulate A. Maxillary central incisor B. Maxillary second molar
C. Mandibular first molar D. Maxillary canine
80. The average surface area of a maxillary denture
base is 90. The average biting forces generated in the
A. 3600-4100 sqmm B. 1200-1600 sqmm natural dentition and complete dentures are
C. 50-120 sqmm D. 2200-2600 sqmm respectively
A. 200 N and 600 N B. 9000 N and 7000 N
81. When selecting teeth for complete dentures,
C. 100 N and 30 N D. 600 N and 110 N
resin teeth are preferred over porcelain teeth if
A. There is limited interocclusal space 91. The retention and stability of a complete
B. The extractions were recent denture may be compromised by
C. The patient is presently wearing a denture that clicks A. Large and bulbous tuberosities
during speech but there exists sufficient interocclusal B. A deep lingual vestibule
distance C. Absence of mylohyoid ridge
D. All of the above D. A high V- shaped palate
82. When drilling cylindrical implant sites in bone, 92. The range of motion, as measured in
which the following is false? millimeters, is least for the
A. Copious irrigation should be used with the drill A. Pure hingelike opening and closing movement

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B. Protrusive movement 103. A cantilever bridge can be used to replace a
C. Left lateral movement D. Bennet movement missing
A. Mandibular first molar B. Maxillary lateral incisor
93. The maximum lingual axial wall reduction is
C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular canine
needed for a
A. PFM crown B. Castable ceramic crown 104. For a complete denture patient with Class 111
C. Conventional porcelain jacket crown ridge relation, the freeway space
D. All of the above require similar reduction A. Must be increased B. Must be decreased
C. Should be the same as for Class I
94. In complete dentures, compared to the vertical
D. Do not set teeth for abnormal jaw relations
dimension of rest, the vertical dimension of
occlusion should be 105. Centric relation is
A. 0.5-1 mm less B. Same A. Repeatable and recordable B. Ahabitual position
C. 1-2 mm more D. 2-3 mm less C. A tooth to tooth relation D. All of the above
95. How many styli are normally used in making a 106. Border positions are invaluable when making
pantographic tracing? jaw relation records, as they
A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12 A. Are the only consistently repeatable positions
B. Remain constant throughout life
96. To produce the angle of convergence of 10 for
C. Are not under neuromuscular control
a full crown preparation, each opposing axial wall
D. Are totally under the operator's control
should have an in clination of
A. 10 B. 2.5 C. 20 D. 5 107. Non-anatomic teeth are specifically indicated
in complete dentures of patients with
97. Which of the following is not a method of
A. Poor neuromuscular coordination
retaining overdentures?
B. Increased inter-ridge space
A. Precision attachments B. Conventional magnets
C. Diabetes mellitus D. Poor masticatory efficacy
C. Rare earth magnets D. All of the above
108. Which should be the abutments when
98. The distance between the midpoints of the two
replacing a mandibular canine using porcelain
condyles is approximately
fused to metal retainers (PFM)?
A. 200 mm B. 100 mm C. 150 mm D. 50 mm
A. Incisors and premolars
99. Compared to the natural dentition, biting forces B. Lateral incisor and premolars
of patients with complete dentures are about C. Central and lateral incisors and first premolar
A. 90% B. 15% C. 40% D. Equal D. Lateral incisor, premolars and first molar
100. When setting teeth in a mandibular complete 109. Standard anatomic teeth for complete
denture, the last posterior tooth should be dentures have cuspal inclines of
A. Over firm foundation tissue A. 15 B. 33 C. 66 D. 45
B. Placed buccal to the external oblique ridge
110. The thickness of the luting cement in fixed
C. Set on the retromolar pad but not posterior to it
restorations should generally be
D. Placed with its central groove in line with the
mylohyoid ridge A. 2-5 m B. 25- 40 m
C. 0.5- 1.0 mm D.100-160 m
101.Relining of complete dentures is indicated
when 111. In a partial denture wearer, the stresses
A. The dentures create a major speech problem transmitted to the abutment teeth will be
B. Severe osseous undercuts exist and surgery is decreased, if the
contraindicated A.Length of the clasp arm is increased
C. The ridges have resorbed and adaptation of dentures is B. Clasp is completely active when it is seated on the
poor abutment teeth
D. The dentures have poor esthetics C. Length of the edentulous span is more
D. Retentive arm of the clasp is made less flexible
102. In an edentulous mandibular arch, the
retromolar papilla 112. Flexibility of the clasp arm depends on all of
A. Lies posterior to the retromolar pad the following, except
B. Contains dense glandular and loose areolar connective A. Angle of cervical convergence of the tooth
tissue B. Taper of the clasp C. Diameter of the clasp arm
C. Is the same as the retromolar pad D.Length of the retentive arm
D. Lies just anterior to the retromolar pad 113. Removable partial dentures which use indirect
retainers are Kennedy

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A. Class I and Class IV B. Class I and Class II D. Mandibular distal extension PDs
C. Class II and Class III D. Class II and Class IV
124. If a metal gingival collar is to be used for a
114. Ideally for fixed prosthodontics, which PFM crown, the thickness of the metal collar
articulator should be used ? should be at least
A. Arcon B. Non-arcon A. 0.3 mm B. 0.1 mm C. 0.5 mm D. 0.7 mm
C. Hinge D. Semi-arcon
125. The greatest disadvantage when using a
115. Where should the reciprocal clasp arm be lingual bar major connector, is
placed on the lingual surface of the abutment tooth A. Its complicated design
A. In the gingival one-third B. That it may not be rigid enough
B. At the junction of the occlusal and middle thirds C. The likelihood of decalcification of tooth surfaces
C. In the occlusal one-third D. Its greater contact with oral tissues
D. At the junction of the middle and gingival thirds
126. Compared to a cast circumferential clasp, the
116. All of the following are methods of main disadvantage of a combination clasp, is that,
strengthening porcelain, except it
A. Incorporating distilled water for condensation A. Can flex in all spatial planes
B. Ionic diffusion B. Is more prone to breakage or damage
C. Thermal mismatch D. Using platinum foil matrix C. Makes greater surface contact with the tooth
D. Is less acceptable esthetically
117. The first step in the construction of a RPD
framework is to 127. The primary advantage of an I clasp over a T
A. Transfer the design from the diagnostic cast to the clasp, is that, it
master cast A. Is more esthetic
B. Provide relief for the denture base B. Provides greater horizontal stabilization
C. Fabricate a refractory cast C. Has better reciprocation
D. Eliminate undesirable undercuts on the master cast D. Is more passive when completely seated
118. The shape of a palatal bar major cornector is 128. Guiding planes are usually not created on
A. Half oval B. Egg shaped which surface?
C. Round D. Rectangular with rounded edges A. Lingual B. Mesial
119. Which clasp should be used when the
C. Buccal D. Distal
retentive undercut on the tooth is away from the 129. When border molding, the shape and the
edentulous area from which the approach arm amount of the distofacial extension of a complete
originates ? mandibular edentulous impression is determined by
A. Reverse circlet clasp B. T clasp A. Position and the action of the masseter muscle
C. Simple circlet clasp D. Fish hook clasp B. Ramus of the mandibular
120. An edentulous area bounded posteriorly by a
C. Lateral pterygoid muscle
D. Attachment of the buccinator muscle
single tooth and anteriorly by a tooth which is not
suitable for support, is classified as Kennedy-Apple- 130. The retentive terminal of a clasp is normally
gate Class positioned on the tooth
A. VI B. V C. I D. IV A. Near the lingual surface of the tooth
B. At the mesiolingual or distolingual line angle
121. The cusp-fossa occlusal arrangement is
C. At the mesiofacial or distofacial line angle
preferred to the cusp-marginal ridge arrangement
D. Near the facial surface
for
A. Single restorations B. Short span bridges 131. Which type of RPD can best resist the forces
C. Full mouth reconstruction D. All restorations to which it is subjected ?
A. Class II B. Class III C. Class IV D. Class I
122. Which clasp is usually used on the side of the
arch where there is no edentulous space ? 132. Relief is required.beneath a mandibular lingual
A. Simple circlet clasp B. Modified T clasp bar major connector, when the
C. Embrasure clasp D. Multiple circlet clasp A. Lingual slope of the ridge is undercut
B. Slope of the lingual tissues is nearly vertical
123. Contact of opposing posterior teeth, in a
C. Lingual tissues slope towards the tongue
straight protrusive movement, is most desirable for
D. None of the above
A. A RPD opposing a complete denture
B. An all tooth borne PD 133. Wrought wire partial denture clasps are
C. Maxillary unilateral distal extension PDs designed for a maximum undercut of

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A. 0.02 inches B. 0.002 inches C. Prevent food impaction between the minor connector
C. 0.2 inches D. 0.0002 inches and the teeth
D. Transfer the forces on the prosthesis down the long
134. The occlusogingival height of the flat surface
axis of the abutment teeth
of the guide plane of a RPD, should be
A. 0.5-1 mm B. 2 -4 mm 144. The T-clasp is used when the
C. 1 - 2 mm D. 4 - 6 mm A. Useable undercut is located on the side of the tooth
away from the edentulous space
135. When designing a RPD, if a tooth has extruded
B. Approach arm must bridge a soft tissue undercut
4mm, the occlusal plane can be corrected by
C. Height of contour on the abutment tooth is close to the
A. Extracting the tooth
occlusal surface
B. Enameloplasty
D. Retentive undercut on the abutment tooth is located
C. Repositioning the tooth orthodontically
adjacent to the edentulous space
D. Placing an extracoronal cast restoration
145. Which type of RPD utilizes all or most of the
136. Compared to a circumferential clasp, a bar
remaining teeth for its retention and stabilization ?
clasp
A. Immediate B. Spoon
A. Is easier to design and construct
C. Swing-lock D. Interim
B. Covers more tooth surface
C. Is more retentive D. All of the above 146. The occlusal rest seat, for a cast chrome RPD,
at its thinnest point should be at least
137. Which clasp is indicated for mesially tipped
A. 4 mm B. 0.5 mm thick
mandibular molars with the retentive undercut
C. 2 mm D. 1.5-3 mm
located at the mesio-lingual line angle ?
A. T clasp B. I bar clasp 147. Immediate surgical obturators are fabricated
C. Hairpin clasp D. Ring clasp A. Immediately after the lesion is excised
B. Within one week of surgery
138. The most versatile and widely used clasp, is
C. Prior to the resection of the lesion
the
D. After the wound has healed completely
A. Ring clasp B. T clasp
C. Combination clasp D. Simple circlet clasp 148. When establishing balanced occlusion, lingual
cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the balancing
139. At the first appointment after insertion of
side should contact the
complete dentures, the presence of generalized
A. Facial inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior
soreness of the crest of the mandibular ridge is
teeth
most likely due to
B. Lingual inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular
A. Improper occlusion B. The newness of the denture
posterior teeth
C. Defective tissue registration
C. Lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular
D. Incomplete polymerization of the denture base
posterior teeth
140. Adequate occlusogingival height of the D. Central fossae of mandibular posterior teeth
abutment tooth is most critical for accommodating
149. The most immediate effect of defective
a
occlusal contact on a fixed partial denture is
A. T clasp B. Multiple circlet clasp
A. Pain caused by trauma
C. I bar clasp D. Hairpin clasp
B. Myofacial pain dysfunction
141. Probably the first edentulous occur in the C. Breakage of the fixed partial denture
dental arch is Kennedy- Applegate D. Orthodontic movement of the involved teeth
A. Class VI B. Class III
150. The chamfer is the finish line of choice for
C. Class IV D. Class II
A. A full cast metal crown
142. When replacing several missing anterior and B. The occlusal finish line on an onlay
posterior teeth, the maxillary major connector of C. A proximal half crown on a mesially titled molar
choice is D. An all porcelain crown
A. Palatal strap B. Double palatal bar
151. The most effective means of limiting applied
C. Lingual plate D. Closed horse shoe
loads to abutment teeth in a distal extension
143. The primary function of partial denture rests is removable partial dentures is by
to A. Splinting abutments B. Using a stress breaker
A. Prevent extrusion of the abutment teeth C. Maintaining a stable base tissue relationship
B. Help establish a more acceptable occlusal plane D. Using acrylic replacement teeth
152. Which of the following provides the greatest

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IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper
retention for an onlay ? 163. Words with sibilant sounds are pronounced
A. The proximal contacts B. The intracoronal portion correctly with an explosive sound effect and with
C. The cementing medium D. The mesial cusp slopes A. Incisal edges of maxillary and mandibular teeth in
contact
153. Which of the following finish lines may be
B. Incisal edges of maxillary and mandibular teeth almost
difficult to detect on the tooth in an impression, or
touching
later on the die ?
C. Incisal edges of maxillary and mandibular teeth widely
A. Shoulder B. Knife-edge
separated
C. Shoulder with bevel D. Chamfer
D. The tip of the tongue between incisal edges of
154. The so called resin retained FPDs or Maryland maxillary and mandibular teeth
bridges depend upon
164. In the preparation of a rest seat, the marginal
A. Mechanical retention B. Chemical retention
ridge of a molar tooth has been reduced
C. Indirect retention D. Micromechanical retention
approximately 2 mm. and the correct width of the
155. In fixed prosthodontics, when should a rest seat has been established. Next, the marginal
mutually protective occlusal scheme not be ridge must be rounded in order to
employed? A. Reduce the possibility of fracture of the metal rest
A. Class II malocclusion B. Posterior cross bite B. Reduce food trapping around the rest
C. Class III malocclusion D. All of the above C. Achieve better distribution of the vertical load
156. Risk of leaving unsupported enamel is highest
D. Provide better retention by the clasp
with which type of gingival finish line ? 165. When trying in a removable partial denture
A. Shoulder B. Chamfer framework, what should be reduced when pressure
C. Shoulder with bevel D. Bevel shows through the disclosing wax?
157. Before an accurate face-bow transfer record
A. Rest B. Indirect retainer
can be made, it is necessary to determine
C. Guiding plane D. None of the above
A. The axial centre of opening-closing rotation 166. The margins of a full crown are generally
B. The inclination of each condyle placed
C. The physiologic rest position D. Centric relation A. Subgingivally
158. The pulp can be best protected from the B. At the level of the marginal gingiva
frictional heat generated by a bur
C. Supragingivally
A. Using a water spray B. Using air cooling D. 1mm below the free-marginal gingiva
C. By irrigation with a syringe 167. The most significant radiographic observation
D. By asking the patient to rinse with cold water at that suggest whether alveolar bone is capable of
regular intervals withstanding occlusal forces of a removable partial
denture is the
159. Normal mandibular lateral movement is
approximately A. Condition of the cortical plate
A. 12 mm B. 6 mm B. Bone level surrounding the abutment teeth
C. 24 mm D. 18 mm C. Radiography of the trabeculae
D. Architecture of the trabeculae
160. A common consequence of inadequate axial
168. The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is to
reduction is
A. Traumatic occlusion A. Act as a direct retainer for the distal base
B. An undercontoured restoration B. Counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm
C. Tooth mobility D. An overcontoured restoration C. Perform as an indirect retainer
D. Stabilize the abutment teeth
161. All other factors being equal, an FPD with a
169. The internal surface of a cast full coverage
span of pontics compared to an FPD with a span of
one pontic, will flex
restoration should contact the die at the
A. 2 times more B. 4 times more A. Axial wall areas B. Occlusal region
C. 6 times more D. 8 times more C. Marginal areas D. Proximal contact areas
170. The walls of a full crown preparation are
162. Which type of preformed provisional crown has
usually prepared with
the most natural esthetics?
A. Nickel-chromium alloy crowns A. A 6-12 convergence towards the occlusal
B. Cellulose acetate crowns B. An 8-16 taper towards the cervical
C. Tin-silver alloy crowns D. Polycarbonate crowns C. A 3-6 convergence towards the occlusal
D. A 5-8 divergence towards the occlusal

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171. Which of the following are the most common
characteristics of denture stomatitis?
1. It is commonly a manifestation of oral candidiasis
2. It can occur in acrylic and metal prosthesis
3. The patient is often asymtomatic
4. There is a high rate of recurrence of if the prosthesis is
not properly treated.
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,3,4
172. The gingival finish line, least conservative of
tooth structure is
A. Feather edge B. Shoulder
C. Chamfer D. Shoulder with bevel
173. Cross-tooth. Cross-arch balance is indicated in
A. Restoring a natural dentition.
B. Using non-anatomical teeth on a flat ridge.
C. Mandibular Kennedy class 3 RPDs opposing natural
dentition.
D. Using anatomic teeth on a prominent ridge with a
broad thick base.
174. The proximal groove of a crown preparation
should
A. Have a gingival seat which merges smoothly with the
finish line
B. Be at least 6 mm in length
C. Be V-shaped
D. Terminate 0.5 mm occlusal to the gingival finish line
175. All are true about nonridgid connector
EXCEPT:
A. Prevents the middle abutment from acting as a fulcrum
B. Shouldn't be used in long span fixed partial dentures
because teeth can move under normal function.
C. Allows different segments of the fixed partial denture
to move in different directions
D. Allows fixed partial dentures to be made on teeth with
different angulation
176. The stylomandibular ligament limits
A. Extreme protrusion of the mandible
B. Mandibular rotation on opening
C. Posterior movement of the mandible
D. None of the above
177. A full crown achieves retention primarily by
the
A. Type of finish line B. Parallelism of axial walls
C. Depth of occlusal reduction
D. Number of escape holes
178. Which pontic has a concave fitting surface?
A. Ridge lap B. Hygienic
C. Saddle D. Bullet-shaped
179. The most reliable landmark for determining
the posterior height of the occlusal plane is a point:
A. Four millimeters below the parotid duct
B. Two millimeters above the resting height of the tongue
9
Question paper
C. Midway between the tuberosity of the maxilla and the
retromolar pad.
D. At the middle of the retromolar pad
180 .The occlusal records used for the functionally
generated path technique represent
A. The movement of the condyles
B. A "Gothic arch" or arrow point design made by the
excursions of a maxillary stamp cusp
C. The pathways of the opposing cusps within the border
movements of the mandible
D. Vertical closure in the intercuspal position
181. Which of the following has no effect on
increasing resistance form of a preparation?
A. Increasing parallelism -both retention and resistance;
B. One path of draw; decreasd oblique forces
C. Increasing occlusal-gingival length -both retention and
resistance; increase surface area; decrease tipping
D. Greater circumference of the tooth -increase arc of
displacement
182. When mounting diagnostic casts, the use of a
face bow transfer will
A. Position the Maxillary cast in its Proper Location
Anterioposteriorly And Mediolaterally on the Articulator
B. Verify centric relation
C. Place the condyles in their most anterior-superior
position against the articular eminences
D. Verify protrusive relation
183. The tooth surface left unveneered for the
preparation of a reverse crown is the
A. Lingual B. Buccal
C. Mesial D. Distal
184. When preparing a tooth for a full crown, the
functional cusp bevel is placed
A. Parallel to the inclination of the cusp plane it opposes
B. So that it forms an acute angle
C. At an angle of 45
D. Parallel to the inclination of the cusp plane on which it
is placed
185. Location of the gingival finish lines in crown
preparations are influenced by
A. Existing restorations B. Crown length available
C. Periodontal considerations D. All of the above
186. The success of an anterior crown is
complicated
A. For thin tapering teeth
B. By the presence of a deep overbite
C. For malaligned teeth D. All of the above
187. All of the following may be effective in saliva
control during tooth preparation, except
A. Local anesthesia B. Antisialagogue
C. Cotton rolls D. None of the above
188. In order to maintain periodontal health, the
most ideal position for the gingival margin of a cast

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gold restoration is
A. Just below the crest of the free gingiva
B. At the level of the junctional epithelium
C. Above the crest of the free gingiva
D. In the gingival sulcus between the crest and the
epithelial attachment
189. The ridge-lap design of pontic is indicated for
the replacement of a
A. Maxillary first molar B. Maxillary central incisor
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Mandibular second premolar
190. A conical pontic is indicated for the
replacement of a
A. Mandibular canine B. Maxillary canine
C. Mandibular first molar D. Maxillary first premolar
191. When using zinc phosphate cement as a luting
agent, it is recommended that you
1. Mix quickly on a cold glass slab
2. Mix slowly over a large area of the glass slab
3. Place cavity varnish on the tooth prior to cementation
4. Use when insolubility is a desired property
A. 1,3 B. 1,4 C. 2,3 D. 1,3,4
192. Which of the following types of maxillary
cantilevered fixed partial dentures would be most
destructive to the periodontal supporting tissues of
the abutment tooth?
A. Molar abutment, premolar pontic
B. Canine abutment, lateral incisor pontic
C. Lateral incisor abutment, central incisor pontic
D. Central incisor abutment, central incisor pontic
10
Question paper
196. Which of the following cements is most
sensitive to moisture contamination?
A. Glass ionomer B. Zinc phosphate
C. Polycarboxylate D. Silicophosphate
197. A patient returns to the dental office for his
first post-insertion examination of recently placed
complete dentures. The patient complains of
generalized soreness of the denture-supporting
tissues.The most likely cause of soreness would be
A. Incorrect height of occlusal plane
B. Unbalanced occlusion
C. Excessive peripheral seal
D. Excessive vertical dimension
198. After processing full upper and lower dentures
with cusped teeth, selective grinding to correct
processing errors should be performed. What is the
correct sequence of grinding procedures?
A. Protrusive, centric, balancing, working
B. Centric, protrusive, balancing, working
C. Centric, working, balancing, protrusive
D. Centric, balancing, working, protrusive
199. Which of the following materials should be
avoided in the construction of a denture for a
patient who has received radiation therapy for oral
cancer?
A. Rubber base B. ZOE
C. Polyvinyl siloxane D. Alginate
200. What part of the denture bearing area provides
best continuous vertical support to the mandibular
denture?

193. Group function occlusion is most acceptable

A. Buccal shelf area B. Retromolar pad
for
C. Crest of ridge D. All impression ridge
A. A young person with steep cuspal inclines in the
posterior teeth
B. A patient whose cuspid is worn and shows no evidence
of traumatic occlusion
C. A patient wearing a posterior maxillary free end saddle
RPD that does not include the cuspid as an abutment
D. A patient that has experienced mobility in the
maxillary premolars due to excursive contacts

194. The most common error in preparing as

anterior tooth for a ceramometal crown is
A. Insufficient facial reduction
B. Insufficient lingual reduction
C. Insufficient proximal reduction
D. Insufficient incisal reduction
195. When performing crown lengthening surgery,
the dentist should insure that the distance between
the anticipated margin of the restoration and the
alveolar crest be no less than
A. 2 mm on the interproximal surfaces
B. 3 mm on the interproximal surfaces
C. 1 mm on all surfaces D. 3 mm on all surfaces

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1. C. Restore the maxillary molar to a satisfactory For anterior teeth there is no subdivision as anatomic,
plane of occlusion with a cast restoration semianatomic and non anatomic teeth.
Sometimes a patients occlusion is disrupted by
11. D. Ridge-lap
supraerupted teeth Often considerable reduction is needed
to compensate for the supraeruption Sometimes even 12. C. Mandibular buccal cusp
endodontic treatment is necessary to make enough room. In lingualised occlusion, the maxillary lingual cusp
When these teeth are prepared for restoration, the eventual occlude with the mandibular non anatomic or semi
occlusal plane must be carefully analyzed and the teeth anatomic teeth.
reduced accordingly. Under these circumstances an 13. A. An occlusal offset
apparent violation of the principles of conservation of
tooth structure is preferable to the potential harm from a 14. C. 0.3 - 0.5 mm
traumatic occlusal scheme. The thickness of enamel is Minimum thickness required for rigidity and strength of
between 2.5mm at the cusp tips to 2.0mm at the incisal coping.
edges If we cut the tooth by 3mm, we will have stripped 15. D. A weak restoration
off the enamel and cut down into dentin exposing the tooth As it is required for structural durability.
to greater sensitivity and making it more susceptible to
wear and caries destruction. If we extract the opposing 16. A. Mandible
tooth, we are left with an edentulous space.Replacing it In the first year the resorption of mandible is 4 times as
with a bridge requires us to cut down two unaffected teeth much as in maxilla
on either side. We then have a bridge which is more of a 17. D. All of the above
challenge to maintain. If we reduce and crown only the All the following will lead to concentration of stresses at
supererupeted tooth, then we need only treat one tooth, as the midline of denture.
opposed to three. We also have a single unit crown which
is easier to maintain. 18. A. Massetor
Out of all four, Masseter is the only border limiting muscle
2. A. Medium depth with a well defined incline of the which becomes activated on opening and closing the
rugae area mouth.
Medium depth with well defined inclines provides the
maximum stability against horizontal forces. 19. A. Massetor
Dual muscle as Both muscle of mastication and border
3. B. Slightly buccal limiting muscle.
The resorption pattern in the anterior region is inwards and
upwards in the maxilla. Placing the teeth slightly Buccal 20. B. Lesser strength
replicates the natural position of the teeth best. Material properties.

4. A. 2mm 21. C. 2 mm
2.0 mm is the minimum thickness required for adequate Best for periodontal reasons so as to maintain biological
strength of the denture. width.

5. B. After 48 hours 22. A. 15

As immediately any occlusal corrections are not possible With the width of the teeth becoming halved the arc of
as teeth have been extracted at the same appointment. rotation can now be increased without compromising in
retention and resistance form, and thus the taper can be
6. C. Decreased inter-arch space doubled to 15.
As it would lead to increased occlusal forces and thus
increased deflective forces. 23. B. Palatoglossus
Muscle anatomy
7. A. Onlay graft
The bodys take up of an onlay graft is the least of all. 24. D. Both (B) and (C) above
It records the teeth in anatomic position and tissue in
8. C. Both of the above functional position. The tissue are recorded using a special
SPA concept is for the selection, arrangement and tary using either ZnOE or light body elastomer which
characterization of denture teeth according to patients age, leads to detailed impression.
sex and personality.
25. C. 1st molar
9. D. None of the above In maxilla, 1st molar is visible on smiling.
All are indications.
26. D. None of the above
10. D. Any of the above Balanced occlusion is the preferred scheme ( Better
stability)
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Exp
27. C. Vertical dimension of mobile, periodontally involved teeth, than if the
Physiological rest position is same as Vertical dimension opposing teeth are periodontally sound.
at rest. VDR = VDO + free way space.
41. A. Exceeds the firing temperature of porcelain
28. B. Hanau As higher temp leads to a formation of a stable oxide layer.
29. D. Impression 42. C. Both of the above
Objectives of impression making. Preservation of alveolar
43. D. Inlays, crowns and bridges
ridge, Retention, Esthetics, Stability and support.
Targis and vectris is a example of fiber reinforced
30. A. Shrinkage composite.
Therefore dentures should always be stored in water.
44. A. In-Ceram
31. C. Buccal cusps Rest all can be used for anterior singe crowns only.
Maxillary: Palatal cusps and Mandibular: Buccal Cusp
45. B. Metamerism
32. A. Resin bonded retainer
46. A. Maxillary canine
The preparation is restricted in enamel only.
Normally canine has a slighty higher hue than adjacent
33. C. The 100Fwater bath which allows the teeth.
crystallization process to go to completion
47. B. 1.3 1.5 mm
The nuclei of crystallization push each other apart causing
Provides adequate space for both metal coping and
expansion.
porcelain veneer.
34. D. Incorrect design of cast backing
48. C. Full crowns
Therefore the junction between metal and porcelain should
partial veneer crowns are only all metal crowns.
be butt joint.
49. A. Nickel-chromium alloys
35. C. Fritting
Involves the breakdown into smaller particles. 50. D. Corners of the teeth
Can be placed with ease and provides adequate space for
36. B. Convex with no undercuts
placement
Porcelain is bonded to metal by chemical bond and
mechanical interlocking created by roughned surface by 51. C. Either A or B
sandblasting of coping and do not require undercuts for Both ultrafine diamond and mutifluted carbide burs can be
retention. Sharp angles will lead to Fracture of porcelain. used for finishing of tooth preparation.
37. C. For the replacement of anterior teeth in children 52. D. All of the above
Indication of resin bonded FPD Connectors may be rigid (cast and soldered) and non
rigid.
38. D. 90
For structural durability. 53. A. Harmony facing
39. B. 1:1 54. D. 8mm
Optimum : 2:3, Ideal 1:2 Minimum width of strap should be 8 mm
40. B. when the opposing teeth are artificial or 55. C. Nail bead
periodontally compromised. 56. A. Open lattice work and mesh work
Crown-Root Ratio: This ratio is a measure of the length of Space is required for the acrylic portion of the RPD to
the tooth occlusal to the alveolar crest of bone compared flow below the metal framework.
with the length of root embedded in the bone. Optimum is
2:3 Minimum 1:1 There are situations in which a crown- 57. A. Glazed porcelain
root ratio grater than 1:1 might be considered adequate. If As it attracts the least deposits because of the smoothest
the occlusion opposing a proposed fixed partial denture is surface.
composed of artificial teeth, occlusal force will be 58. C. Mandibular canines
diminished, with less stress on the abutment teeth. The Because of the root surface area and location of the
occlusal force against a prosthetic device has been shown canines in the arch.
26.0 lb for removable partial dentures and 54.5 lb for fixed
partial dentures versus 150.0 lb for natural teeth. For the 59. A. Kennedy
same reasons, an abutment tooth with a less than desirable 60. A. Circumferential clasp
crown-root ratio is more likely to successfully support a Gingival approaching clasp are roachs clasps.
fixed partial denture if the opposing occlusion is composed
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Exp
61. C. Vertical projection clasp 82. C. Only speeds above 20,000 rpm should be used in
Circumferential clasp have pull type of retention. drilling
Implants are drilled at low speed with torque control.
62. B. In the firing of porcelain
It is a tray with a honey comb like pattern ( many holes in 83. C. 1.5 mm
it) so as to hold the coping stands. 1.0 mm for non centric and 2.0 mm for centric cusp ( more
bulk required for more occlusal forces)
63. B. Away from ridge
Indirect retainers are those that resist the movement of the 84. B. Before making plaster interocclusal records
denture base away from the tissues. As it helps in verification of centric.
64. C. Krol (1973) 85. C. Proximal half crown
65. A. Mesial rest 86. B. Level of the upper lip during natural smiling
RPI system includes Mesial Rest , Proximal plate and I
87. D. Nerves and ligaments
Bar clasp.
Centric relation is a maxillo mandibular relationship
66. C. A and B determined by the action of nerves and ligaments
Tripod marks cannot be marked on surface involved in
88. D.Lower central incisor's contact point
preparation or modification.
The length of the line is 4 inch. The other two points are
67. A. Buccal and lingual surfaces condlyes
So as to aid in the placement of clasps.
89. D. Maxillary canine
68. C. Hinged labial or buccal bar Because of loading (Canine guided occlusion) canine take
up the maximum lateral load
69. D. Conventional Major connector
Swing lock denture includes a conventional mandibular 90. D. 600 N and 110 N
major connector and a hinged labial or buccal bar.
91. D. A high V- shaped palate
70. A. Equal Leads to rocking movement.
71. B. 32x106 psi 92. D. Bennet movement
0.5 mm to 1.5 mm
72. A. Bailyn
93. B. Castable ceramic crown
73. D. Base
Castble ceramic require slighty more reduction than
As it contacts the tissues and determines broad stress
conventiona all ceramic crown.
distribution.
94. D. 2-3 mm less
74. A. Is non retentive and serves to resist lateral
Equal to free way space.
movement
Whenever the retentive arm passes through the height of 95. C. 6
contour. Used for recording mandibular movements.
75. C. Silicophosphate 96. D. 5
Angle of convergence= Degree of taper of each wall (5 + 5
76. C. Godfreys
= 10 in this case)
77. A. All metal pontic 97. B. Conventional magnets
As will only require metal procesing Other two are methods of retaining conventional dentures
78. B. Mesiolingually 98. B. 100 mm
Normal tooth movt. In mandibular arch is mesial and Average is normally 100- 110mm.
lingual in posterior region.
99. B. 15%
79. D. Easy to manipulate
100. A. Over firm foundation tissue
All others are disadvantages and are not true statements.
Therefore in maxilla no teeth should be placed on the
80. D. 2200-2600 sqmm tuberosity.
Which is twice than that of mandible
101. C. The ridges have resorbed and adaptation of
81. D. All of the above dentures is poor
As it allows for more ease in modification. Other problems cannot be corrected by reining and would
require fabrication of a new denture.

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102. D. Lies just anterior to the retromolar pad
Retromolar papilla lies at the area of extracted third molar.
103. B. Maxillary lateral incisor
Most common location of cantilever bridge using canine as
abutment.
104. B. Must be decreased
Freeway space is maximum in Class II relationship and
east in class III relationship.
105. A. Repeatable and recordable
Centric relation is a bone to bone relation which is
repeatable, recordable and reproducible.
106. A. Are the only consistently repeatable positions
Border position are repeatable where as intra border
positions are not repeatable consistently.
107. A. Poor neuromuscular coordination
As it is difficult to record a position where to make them
interdigitate.
108. C. Central and lateral incisors and first premolar
In mandibular canine replacement, the lateral incisor are
not suited for the load bearing.
109. B. 33
110. B. 25- 40 m
111. A. Length of the clasp arm is increased
Increasing the length of the clasp increases the flexibility
of clasp.
112. A. Angle of cervical convergence of the tooth
Angle of cervical convergence of tooth has no effect on the
flexibility of clasp arm.
113. B. Class I and Class II
Indirect retainers are indicated in distal extension bases
and long span class IV cases.
114. A. Arcon
Better mimics the arc of closure of mandible as it
represents the actual anatomy of the patients mouth.
115. D. At the junction of the middle and gingival
thirds
Reciprocal clasp arm is to be placed above the height of
contour.
116. A. Incorporating distilled water for condensation
Refer anusavice for detailed explanation of each method of
porcelain strengthening.
117. A. Transfer the design from the diagnostic cast to
the master cast
118. A. Half oval
The flat surface is towards the tissues and the convex
surface is towards the oral cavity.
119. C. Simple circlet clasp
4
Explanations
Exp
120. B. V
Modication of kennedy classification by Applegate.
121. C. Full mouth reconstruction
Provides the best directed occlusal forces along the long
axis of teeth.
122. C. Embrasure clasp
Design of clasp
123. A. A RPD opposing a complete denture
So as to provide balanced occlusion.
124. A. 0.3 mm
Minimum thickness required to provide adequate strength
and prevent distortion during porcelain firing.
125. B. That it may not be rigid enough
The bulk of lingual bar is less so it is not rigid.
126. B. Is more prone to breakage or damage
Because of having a wrought wire retentive clasp arm.
127. A. Is more esthetic
Because of lesser surface area coverage by I bar.
128. C. Buccal
Normally used for the purpose of retention.
129. A. Position and the action of the masseter muscle
Masseteric notch area
130. C. At the mesiofacial or distofacial line angle
As it has to below the height of contour and have enough
length to be suffiecenty flexible.
131. B. Class III
As it is tooth borne in nature.
132. C. Lingual tissues slope towards the tongue
So as to prevent injury to the fragile and thin mandibular
tissue mucosa.
133. A. 0.02 inches
134. B. 2 -4 mm
135. D. Placing an extracoronal cast restoration
Like a crown with intentional RCT.
136. C. Is more retentive
Has push type retention.
137. A. T clasp
Design of clasp.
138. D. Simple circlet clasp
139. A. Improper occlusion
Generalised soreness on the crest of the ridge is only
because of defective contacts due improper occlusion.
140. D. Hairpin clasp
Requires maximum coverage of tooth because of its hair
pin design.

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141. A. Class VI
142. D. Closed horse shoe
Provides the best rigidity with minimum area of coverage.
143. D. Transfer the forces on the prosthesis down the
long axis of the abutment teeth
144. D. Retentive undercut on the abutment tooth is
located adjustment to the edentulous space
Rest all are contraindications.
145. C. Swing-lock
With its hinged labial or Buccal bar
146. B. 0.5 mm thick
So as to provide enough bulk and prevent fracture.
147. C. Prior to the resection of the lesion
148. C. Lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular
posterior teeth
The buccal inclines of the lingual cusp of maxillary teeth
contact the Lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular
posterior teeth on balancing side.
149. A. Pain caused by trauma
As it causes injury to the pdl area.
150. A. A full cast metal crown
So as to be able to burnish the metal margin.
151. C. Maintaining a stable base tissue relationship
Broad stress distribution school of thought.
152. C. The cementing medium
153. B. Knife-edge
As the width is very less.
154. D. Micromechanical retention
As the metal framework is electrochemical etched.
155. D. All of the above
As it will lead to undesirable stresses.
156. B. Chamfer
Because of the angulation of the finish line and the design
of the bur used for chamfer bur.
157. A. The axial centre of opening-closing rotation
For face bow transfer it is important to determine the
terminal hinge axis location
158. A. using a water spray
159. A. 12 mm
Total mandibular lateral border movement.
160. D. An overcontoured restoration
As it will lead to more bulk.
161. D. 8 times more
It changes with the cube of span length.
162. D. Polycarbonate crowns
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163. B. Incisal edges of maxillary and mandibular teeth
almost touching
Sibilant sounds are produced in the rest and the occluding
position.
164. A. Reduce the possibility of fracture of the metal
rest
Sharp line angles will lead to increased stresses.
165. D. None of the above
Disclosing Wax: Melted disclosing wax is placed on all
framework surfaces that will contact teeth. This will help
to determine why a framework will not seat properly. The
framework should be carefully removed from the mouth to
avoid damaging the surface of the disclosing wax and then
examined under magnification. The thickness of wax
beneath occlusal rests and indirect retainers reliably
indicates the degree to which the framework fails to seat.
The inner surface of the framework under the disclosing
wax should be examined for high spots or areas of metal
showthrough that prevent the seating of the casting. The
most common points of showthrough that interfere with
seating occur above the survey line on the teeth. These
areas generally occur under rests, at the shoulder of
circumferential clasps, under embrasure clasps and
interproximal extension of lingual plating.The located
areas of interference should be relieved by grinding the
metal showthrough, which is most efficiently
accomplished with a No. 2 round carbide bur in a high-
speed handpiece. The framework fits properly when the
disclosing wax is displaced evenly, leaving a thin film of
wax under the rests and indirect retainers.Showthrough on
areas below the survey line will not prevent the framework
from seating. This will appear as a wipe-away of the
disclosing wax, but it should not be relieved because it is
beneficial. These areas are the guiding planes that guide
the framework to place and prevent the tooth from being
rocked each time the partial denture is inserted and
withdrawn.
166. C. Supragingivally
Best from periodontal point of view.
167. B. Bone level surrounding the abutment teeth
Depends upon the Radiographic crown and root ratio.
168. B. Counteract any force transmitted by the
retentive arm
Reciprocal arms counteracts the lateral forces generated on
the abutment tooth when retentive clasp arm passes over
the height of contour.
169. C. Marginal areas
So as to prevent microleakage at margins
170. C. A 3-6 convergence towards the occlusal
So as to have best retention and resistance features.

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171. D. 1,2,3,4
One of the clinical forms of oral candidiasis is denture
stomatitis , also called chronic atrophic candidiasis.
Candidiasis is caused by an infection with a yeast-like
fungus, Candida albicans , a relative common inhabitant of
the oral cavity, GI tract, and vagina. This disease can occur
in acrylic and metal prosthesis, can be asymtomatic and
there is a high recurrence if the prosthesis is not also
treated. Treatment of the disease should include both
treatment of the tissue and the denture.
172. D. Shoulder with bevel
As it requires maximum width
173. D. Using anatomic teeth on a prominent ridge with
a broad thick base
Cross tooth, cross arch balance does not normally exist in
the natural dentition. Nonworking contacts are normally
considered not good in the natural dentition.With
nonanatomic teeth you can not get cross arch balance. You
need only to look at Hanau quint CG IG / CH OP CC =
balanced occlusion to see that cusp height at 0 degrees will
not work.One of the major purposes of cross arch balance
is to stabilize the dentures in eccentric movements. With a
class 3 partial that stabilization is not needed since the
RPD is tooth borne. A thick prominent ridge is the
indication for anatomic teeth along with repeatable centric,
and healthy tissue.A class 1 mandibular RPD bilateral
eccentric contacts of the teeth are not needed to stabilize
the denture.In the class1 maxillary RPD balanced
occlusion is desirable to compensate for the unfavorable
position of the teeth in relation to the ridge.
174. D. Terminate 0.5 mm occlusal to the gingival finish
line
175. B. Shouldn't be used in long span fixed partial
dentures because teeth can move under normal
function.
The nonridgid connector does in fact prevent the abutment
from actincg as a fulcrum. The fact that the teeth move in
normal function is the reason that you need a nonridgid
connecter. Teeth of different angulations area prime
indication for nonridgid connectors.
176. A. Extreme protrusion of the mandible
177. B. Parallelism of axial walls
Limits the path of withdrawl.
178. C. Saddle
Making it very difficult to maintain hygiene
179. D. At the middle of the retromolar pad
Answers (a), (b), (c), are simply not the anatomic
landmark classically described as the determinant of the
posterior height of the occlusal plane.
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Explanations
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180. C. The pathways of the opposing cusps within the
border movements of the mandible
The functionally generated path technique is a method of
creating occlusal morphology that is shaped by all of the
determinants of mandibular movement. The functionally
generated path technique employs the use of a tracing
made in the mouth to capture pathways traveled by the
opposing cusps in mandibular function. Wax is adapted
over the occlusal surface of the prepared tooth. The patient
occludes the teeth in an intercuspal position and moves the
mandible through all excursions. The cusp tips of the
opposing teeth carve a recording of the border movements
in all mandibular positions. Stone is brushed and poured
onto the wax record in the mouth to produce a functional
core. The stone core is then utilized in the fabrication of
posterior tooth restorations. The prerequisite for the use of
this technique for the ideal restoration of a single tooth is
the presence of optimal occlusion. The technique
perpetuates existing occlusion. Correct anterior guidance
must be present with no posterior interferences.
181.D.Greater circumference of the tooth -increase arc
of displacement
Retention (improved by ideally limiting to one path of
draw) prevents removal of the restoration along the path of
insertion. Resistance prevents dislodgement under occlusal
forces-both apical and oblique. As with retention,
preparation and geometry play a key role in resistance
form. Adequate resistance depends on (1) Magnitude and
direction of the dislodging forces (2) Geometry of the
tooth preparation (3) Physical properties of the luting
agent. As you can imagine, horizontal and oblique forces
are much greater (especially in eccentric contact in
posterior teeth) than the forces needed to overcome
retention. The tooth preparation must be so shaped that
particular areas of the axial wall will prevent rotation of
the crown. Hegdahl and Silness analyzed this and
demonstrated that increased taper and rounding of axial
angles & short tooth preparations with large diameters tend
to reduce resistance. Resistance is increased with boxes
and grooves and will be greatest if the walls are
perpendicular to the direction of the applied force.
Grooves provide an anti-rotational feature and thus
provide an additional area for luting agent compression. U-
shaped grooves are better than V- shaped. Retention and
resistance are interrelated and share inseparable qualities.
182. A. Position the Maxillary cast in its Proper
Location Anterioposteriorly And Mediolaterally on the
Articulator
The facebow is an instrument that records those special
relationships and is then used for the attachment of the
maxillary casts to the articulator used to mount the
maxillary cast on the articulator
183. A. Lingual

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For a th crown the buccal surface is left intact.
184. A. Parallel to the inclination of the cusp plane it
opposes
So as to provide the best structural durability for
restoration.
185. D. All of the above
Crown margins should be apical to other restorative
margins on the tooth. Crown length does influence the
placement of crown margins. The longer the crown length
the more retentive the crown all other factors remaining
equal. So with a short crown you may need a more apical
margin than you would on a long tooth. Nothing directly in
the books about this but since the subgingival margin is
harder to clean than a supragingival. A patient with
substandard oral hygiene practices would be able to clean
supragingival easier. So if the option was available you
would choose supragingival. You may ask why are you
placing gold in a patient that can not clean his teeth - good
question but this is pros and they don't seem to worry
about that sometimes. Another scenario is a patient that
abrades the cervical of his teeth with a toothbrush. A
crown margin that covered that area would be indicated.
Periodontal considerations, especially the biologic width,
do influence margin placement. Encroaching on the 2 mm
biologic width (Gargulio) is contraindicated.
186. D. All of the above
Will compromise the esthetics (thin tapering teeth and
malaligned teeth) and presence of deep overbite will lead
to increased forces.
187. D. None of the above
All are effective in moisture control.
188. C. Above the crest of the free gingiva
The best results can be expected from margins that are as
smooth as possible and are fully exposed to a cleansing
action the finish line should be placed in an area where the
margins of the restoration can finished by the dentist and
kept clean by the patient. The practice of routinely placing
margins subgingivally is no longer acceptable. its
recommended to place the margin supragingival whenever
possible subgingival margins are likely to cause gingival
inflammation.
189. B. Maxillary central incisor
Teeth in Esthetic zone
190. C. Mandibular first molar
In case of thin knife edge ridge in posterior region.
191. C. 2,3
Partial protection of the pulp can be provided by the
application of two thin layers of copal cavity varnish.
This patially seals the dentinal tubules and protects the
pulp from the phosphoric acid. Cement is mixed with a
circular motion over a wide area glass slap cooled in tap
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Explanations
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water and wiped dry must be mixed slowly over a wide
area on a cool glass slab to insure that a maximum amount
of powder can be incorporated into a mix.
192. C. Lateral incisor abutment, central incisor pontic
The root surface area of the abutment teeth have to equal
or surpass that of the teeth being replaced with pontics.
193. B. A patient whose cuspid is worn and shows no
evidence of traumatic occlusion
Group function (also known as unilateral balanced
occlusion) had its origin in the work of Schuyler et al
who began to observe the destructive nature of tooth
contact on the nonworking side (best to eliminate all
tooth contact on the nonworking side). Unilateral balance
occlusion calls for all teeth on the working side to be in
contact during lateral excursion AND teeth on the
nonworking side are to be free of contact. The group
function of the teeth on the working side distributes the
occlusal load. The absence of contact on the nonworking
side prevents those teeth from being subjected to the
destructive, obliquely directed forces found in nonworking
interferences. A. The anatomic determinants of mandibular
movement, condylar and anterior guidance, have a strong
influence on the occlusal morphology of teeth being
restored. Steep cusps in posterior teeth will require
disclusion by anterior teeth (canines) - anterior guidance.
C. Want canine guidance for a distal extension RPD so
that lateral forces are taken off RPD, allowing denture
bases to be more stable and minimizing detrimental
oblique forces on tissue bearing areas. D. Group function
will only exacerbate the lateral forces in excursive
movements. Want to eliminate excursive contacts on
mobile teeth.
194. A. Insufficient facial reduction
Insufficient lingual reduction-could cause problems with
excursive movements Insufficient proximal reduction-
could cause problems with emergence profiles Insufficient
incisal reduction-cause problems with incisal coloration
and porcelain fracture
195. D. 3 mm on all surfaces
Gargiulo and the theory of biological width: 1 mm for
connective tissue attachment, 1 mm for junctional
epithelium, 1 mm for sulcus , 2 mm on the interproximal
surfaces -not enough for biological width, 3 mm on the
interproximal surfaces -forgot the buccal/lingual
1 mm on all surfaces - no biological width here either
196. A. Glass ionomer
The glass ionomer cement are very sensitive to contact
with water during setting. The field must be isolated
completely. Once the cement has achieved initial set
(about 7 minutes), the cement margins should be coated
with coating agent supplied with the cement. Water
contamination of Zinc Phosphate cement will increase film
thickness, solubility, and initial activity.Water

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Exp
contamination of Zinc Phosphate cement will decrease
compressive strength and shorten setting time.
197. D. Excessive vertical dimension
Ridges: generalized soreness , Cause: excessive VDO.
Treatment: patient remount to lower VDO, or make new
CDs.
198 .C. Centric, working, balancing, protrusive
Use the following grinding procedures to ensure
balanced occlusion in the centric and eccentric position.
(B.) If the cusp is high in the centric and not in the
eccentric position, deepen the fossae or the marginal
ridges. 8. -Balanced gliding occlusion-use the following
selective grinding procedures: On the working side, reduce
the inner inclines of (a) buccal cusps of the maxillary teeth
and (b) the lingual cusps of the mandibular teeth (Butt
Rule). On the balancing side, reduce the inner inclines of
the mandibular cusps. To achieve balance in protrusive
excursion, reduce the distal inclines of the maxillary cusps
and the mesial inclines of the mandibular cusps.
199. B. ZOE
When dentures are fabricated for irradiated patients, light-
body rubber base or reversible hydrocolloid (alginate)
diluted to 1 times its normal impression consistency are
usually better tolerated than materials having greater
viscosity. ZOE compounds may cause a burning sensation
and should be avoided. Conventional acrylic denture bases
are best tolerated by irradiated tissues. Silicone soft liners
have proven unsatisfactory because of their rough texture
and tendency to support fungal growth. Denture flanges
must not be overextended if mucosal perforation and bone
exposure are to be avoided.
200. A. Buccal shelf area
The crest of the bony mandibular residual ridge is most
often cancellous in nature. Pressures placed on tissues
overlying the crest of the mandibular residual ridge usually
result in irritation of these tissues, accompanied by the
sequelae of chronic inflammation. The Buccal shelf region
(bounded by the external oblique line and crest of the
alveolar ridge) seems to be better suited for a primary
stress-bearing role because it is covered by relatively firm,
dense, fibrous connective tissue supported by cortical
bone.

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