DHA 2012 - OziDent-1

DHA Exam Questions
Important Notices
This Paper contains all the possible questions that will or most like come on the Dubai Health
Authortiy for Dentists. Its important to understand that this is a reference source and its based on
peoples experience and referred to some sources for verification none the less we are human
and we can do mistakes but this is the best we can do OziDent Team.
Authors
Edited by Dr. Mohsen S. Ozaibi (OziDent.com)
Contact
Please contact me at mohsen@ozident.com for further information or correction
Aslo visit our website
http://www.ozident.com
Good luck
1|Page All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

1. In countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community based preventive programs
would be greater for:
a. Dental caries.
b. Periodontal disease
c. Dentofacial anomalies
d. Dental floozies.
2. The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:

a. Hypoglycemia.
b. Mild hyperglycemia.
c. Anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agent.
d. Antidepressant therapy.
e. All of the above.
3. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:

a. Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus.
b. Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth.
c. Lack of attention to tooth shape, position, and contacts
d. Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulcus, and marginal ridges.
4. Dental carries is an endemic disease "means that the disease is:
a. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
b. Is habitually present in human population.
c. Affect large number of countries simultaneously.
d. Exhibit a seasonal pattern.
5. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from:

a. Improper cavity preparation
b. Faulty manipulation.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
6. Pt on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical procedure because:
a. The Pt is more susceptible to infection.
b. Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids.
c. Antibiotic inhibits kerksheimer reaction.
d. Antibiotic protect the Pt from steroid depletion.
7. Which of the following may cause gingival enlargement

a. Phenyntoin (Dilantin).
b. Cyclosporine
c. Nifedipine ( a calcium channel blocker)
d. Aspirin
e. None of the above
8. Reliability of the measurements reflects that property of the measurements which::

a. Measures what is intended to be measured.
b. Produces repeatedly the same results under a variety of conditions.

c. Detects reasonably small shifts, I either direction, in group condition.
d. All of the above.

9. The post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a. Secondary hemorrhage.
b. Swelling.
c. Pain.
d. Alveolar osteitis.
e. All of the above.
10. Polyether impression materials:

a. Are less stable dimensionally than poly sulfide rubber.
b. Are less stiff than poly sulfide rubber.
c. Can absorb water and swell if stored in water.
11. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:

a. Abutment teeth are not carious.
b. An abutment tooth is inclined 15 degrees but otherwise sound.
c. There is considerable resorption of the residual ridges.
d. Crown of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession.
12. Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distal extension mandibular removable partial denture, a Pt complained of
a sensitive abutment tooth, clinical examination reveals sensitivity to percussion of the tooth, the most likely cause
is:
a. Defective occlusion.
b. Exposed dentine at the bottom of the occlusal rest seats.
c. Galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration in the abutment tooth.
13. Recent years, there has been an evidence that the prevalence and intensity of the caries attack has been diminishing
in the more economically developed countries, mainly because of the wide spread use of:
a. Artificial water fluoridation.
b. Fluoride toothpaste
c. Dental health education programs
d. A & c.
14. Cost effective method to prevent dental caries

water fluoridation.
flouridated tooth paste
15. 25. In recent years caries reduced in developed countries mainly due to:
a. Water fluoridation.
b. Fluoride toothpaste
c. Dental health education programs.
D. Individualized oral hygiene care.

16. The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates to the concentration are:
a. Greater
b. Less
c. The same

17. Actual destruction of micro-organisms in the root canal is attributed mainly to:
a. Proper antibiotic thereby.
b. Effective use of medicament.
c. Mechanical preparation and irrigation of the canal.
d. None of the above.
18. A tooth very painful to percussion, doesnt respond to heat, cold or the electric pulp tester. The most probable
diagnosis is:
a. Reversible pulpitis.
b. Irreversible pulpitis.
c. Acute apical periodontitis.
19. During post insertion examination of a 3 unit ceramometal fixed partial denture. One of the retainers showed
chipping of porcelain at the ceramometal junction. In order to avoid the problem the dentist must:
a. Reduce the metal to 0.3 mm.
b. Have uniform porcelain thickness.
c. Have occlusion on metal.
d. Keep porcelain metal junction away from centric contacts.
20. What is a Pier abutment?

a. Single tooth holding one pontic.
b. A tooth that supports a removable partial denture.
c. All of the above.
21. Which are the ways in which the proximal contacts can be checked?
a. Use a pencil.
b. Use a shim stock. (like articulator paper but thinner)
c. Use a silicone checker.
d. Use a dental floss.
e. Only b & d.
22. The incisal reduction for a metal ceramic restoration should be:
a. 1.5 mm.
b. 2 mm.
c. 3 mm.
d. 4 mm.
23. The occlusal reduction for an all metal veneer crown should:
a. Be as flat as possible to enable an easy fabrication of occlusion anatomy.
b. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance rating from 1 to 1.5 mm with the opposing dentition.
c. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance of no more than 0.5 mm with the opposing dentition.
d. Be the last step in the tooth preparation.
24. Gingival retraction is done:
a. To temporarily expose the finish margin of a preparation.
b. To accurately record the finish margin of a portion of uncut tooth surface apical to the margin in the final impression.
c. Even in the presence of a gingival inflammation.
d. By various methods but the most common one is the use of retraction cord.
e. A and b.
f. A, b and c.
g. A, b and d.
25. Regarding tissue retraction around tooth:

a. Short duration of retraction of gingival margin during preparation of finishing line. (8 min)
b. Retraction of gingival margin during taking final impression to take all details of unprepared finish line.
c. Usually retracted severely inflamed gingival margin.
d. Retraction of gingival margin can be done by many ways one of them is retraction cord.
e. A, b and c.
f. B, c and d.
g. A and d.
26. Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a class II amalgam cavity should be removed using a:
a. Straight chisel.
b. Hatchet.
c. Gingival curetla.
d. Gingival marginal trimmer.
27. Removal of Undermined Enamel in Class II cavity is done by :

A) Chisel.
B) Angle former
C) Excavator
28. To plan the line-angles in the proximal cavity in a class II you use:
A. Straight chisel
B. Biangled chisel.
C. Enamel hatchet
29. Hand instrument which we used to make internal angles retentive grooves and preparation of cavity walls in the
cavity is:
a. Angle former.
b. Chisel
c. File
d. Enamel hatched
30. What is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam restoration:

a. 30 degree
b. 60 degree

c. 90 degree
d. 130 degree.
31. To provide maximum strength of amalgam restoration the cavo-surface angles should:
1. Approach 75 with outer surface.
2. Approach 90 with outer surface.
3. Be supported by sound dentine.
4. Be located in area free of occlusal stress.
a) 1+3 and 4.
b) 1+3.
c) 2+3+4.
d) 3+4.
32. Which of the following burs would you prefer to use preparing a slot for the relation of an extensive amalgam
restoration on maxillary molar:
a. Number 5 round bur.
b. Number 56 fissure bur.
c. Number 556 fissure bur.
d. Number 35 cone bur.

33. Which of the following materials has been shown to simulate reparative dentine formation most effectively when
applied to the pulpal wall of a very deep cavity:
a. Copalite varnish.
b. Calcium hydroxide preparation.
c. Zinc phosphate cement.
d. Anhydrous class inomer cement.
34. Calcium hydroxide is best pulp capping material because:

1. It has best seal over pulp.
2. It is alkaline + less irritating to pulp.
3. It induces reparation dentine formation.
35. A glossy finish is best retained on a:

a. Microfilled composite resin restoration.
b. Macrofilled resin restoration.
c. Hybrid composite resin restoration.
d. Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration
62 - Sealer is used in RCT to:

1- Fill in voids.
2- Increase strength of RC filling.
3- Disinfect the canal.
63 - Child patient presented with swelling in the buccal and palatal maxillary anterior area tow days ago, the
pathology of the lesion there is a giant cell, what is the diagnosis:
1. Giant granuloma.
2. Hemangioma.
3. .
64 Child with anodontia and loss of body hair, the diagnosis is:
1. Down's syndrome.
2. Ectodermal dysplasia.
3. Fructose ..
4. Diabetic .
65 Cavity etching before applying GIC is:

1. Polyacrylic acid 10 seconds.
2. Polyacrylic acid 60 seconds.
3. Phosphoric acid 10 seconds.
4. Phosphoric acid 60 seconds.
66 surgery for ridges aim to:

1. Vertical dimension.
2. Speech.
3. Modify ridge for stability.
67 Patient with warfarin treatment and you want to do surgery, when you can do:
1. When PTT is 1 1.5 INR on the same day.
2. When PTT is 2 2.5 INR on the same day.
3. When PT is 1 1.5 INR on the same day.
4. When PT is 2 2.5 INR on the same day.
68 Patient with pain on the upper right area, and the patient can not tell the tooth causes the pain, what is the
least reliable way to do test pulp:
1. Cold test.
2. Hot test.
3. Electric test.
4. Stimulation the dentine.
69 Skeletal face is from:

1. Neural.
2. Para.
3. .
36. The most accurate impression material for making the impression of an onlay cavity:

a. Impression compound.
b. Condensation type silicone.
c. Polyvinyl siloxane ***
d. Polysulfide.
37. One of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are confined to the
attached gingival and hard palate:
a. True.
b. False. ***
a primary infection is more severe, with associated lymphadenopathy, fever and malaise. Recurrent infections
occur at various intervals
(ranging from monthly in some individuals to seldom in
others) and affect the non-movable intraoral tissues (the
hard palate and attached gingival )
38. The functions of cement bases are:
a. To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.

b. The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
c. A and b.
d. None of the above. ***
e. 1 only.
f. 2 only
Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry, 5th edition - page 174-175""
Liners and bases are materials placed between dentin (and sometimes pulp) and the restoration to provide pulpal
protection or pulpal response .
Bases (cement bases, typically 1 to 2 mm) are used to provide thermal protection for the pulp and to supplement
mechanical support for the restoration by distributing local stresses from the restoration across the underlying
dentin surface. This mechanical support provides resistance against disruption of thin dentin over the pulp during
amalgam condensation procedures or cementation procedures of indirect restorations.
Liners are relatively thin layers of material used primarily to provide a barrier to protect the dentin from residual
reactants diffusing out of a restoration and/or oral fluids that may penetrate leaky tooth-restoration interfaces.
They also contribute initial electrical insulation; generate some thermal protection and in some formulations
provide pulpal treatment . the need for liners is greatest with pupally extended metallic restorations that are not
well bonded to tooth structure and that are not insulating such as amalgam and cast gold or with other indirect
restoration.
Thin liners(1-50 mm) subdivided into solution liners(varnishes2-5 mm) and suspension liners (typically 20-
25 mm)
Thick liners(200-1000 mm= 0.2-1 mm)
39. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics:
a. Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration.

b. It is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations.
c. High dimensional changes.
d. A, b and c.

e. A and c.
f. A and b. ***
g. B only.
Research has shown that freshly packed amalgam restorations leak but that this leakage tends to decrease as
fillings age. Cavity varnishes and liners reduce initial leakage of the material.
Form the disadvantages of amalgam is more technique sensitive if bonded Sturdevant's art and science of
operative dentistry, 5th edition page 696
Art and science of operative dentistry 2000 page 156 - Page 169
- During electrochemical corrosion of low-copper amalgams, The Sn-Hg phase is oxidized into Sn-O and/or Sn-O-
Cl.145,146 The oxychloride species is soluble. The oxide Precipitates as crystals and tends to fill up the spaces
Occupied by the original Sn-Hg phase. Along the margins Of the amalgam, Sn-O helps seal the space against
Microleakage.
- During setting, most amalgams undergo very little Dimensional change.
Http://www.dentaldiamond.ee/dental-materials/amalgam-dental-amalgam/4/
- The dimensional change during the setting of amalgam is one of its most characteristic properties. Modern
amalgams mixed with mechanical amalgamators usually have negative dimensional changes.
- The only EXCEPTion to this statement is the excessive delayed dimensional change resulting from
contamination of a zinc-containing alloy with water during tritura-tion or condensation.
40. When polishing the amalgam restoration:
a. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste.

b. Wait 24 hours.
c. A and b. ***
d. B only.
e. A only.
Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry, 5th edition page725"
Polishing procedure by using a coarse , rubber abrasive point at low speed or stall out speed and air-
water spray for 2 reasons: 1- the danger of the point disintegrating at high speeds. 2- the danger of elevating the
temperature of the restoration and the tooth.
Alternative to rubber abrasive points polishing may be accomplished using a rubber cup with flour of pumice
followed by a high luster agent, such as precipitated chalk.
Additional finishing and polishing procedures for amalgam are not attempted within 24 hours of insertion
because crystallization is not incomplete.
41. Silicate cement:
a. First tooth colored restoration.

b. It can be used as permanent filling.
c. It contains 15 % fluoride.
d. A, b and c.
e. 1 and 2.
f. A and c. ***
g. A only.
Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry, 5th edition page 499"
Silicate cement: first translucent filling material in 1878 by Fletcher in England . used in ant. Teeth more than 60
years , and rarely used today. Recommended in patients with small rest. In ant teeth with high caries activity .by
virtue of the high fluoride content and solubility of this material, the adjacent enamel was thought to be rendered
more resistance to recurrent caries . need a liner or base under it to protect the pulp tissue from irritation resulting
from low PH of the material. Characteristic: tooth matching , ease of manipulation , anticariogenic , good insulator
, coefficient of thermal expansion approached that of enamel and average life 4 years and in some of these
restorations were reported to last for 10 years and longer.The failure due to discoloration and loss of contour .
"dental material & thier selection2002"
12-21
42. Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly:
a. To advice the patient to change their faulty habits immediately ***

b. Reassure the patient that it will disappear by it self.
c. To buy a new brush.
43. Which of the following statement is true regarding dental calculus:
a. It is composed entirely of inorganic material.

b. It is dens in nature and has a rough surface.
c. It is mineralized dental plaque.
e. B & C only. ***
f. None of the above.
CARRANZAS page 183
Calculus composition: inorganic content and organic content
44. Overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:
a. It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation.

b. It tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss.
c. Stimulate inflammatory reaction directly.
d. Its removal permits more effective plaque control.
e. A & d. ***
CARRANZAS page 188
Remove of overhangs permits more effective control of plaque resulting in reduction of gingival inflammation and
small increase in radiographic alveolar bone support.
45. Main use of dental floss:

a. Remove calculus.
b. Remove overhang.
c. Remove bacterial plaque. ***
10 | P a g e All Rights Reserved 2013| OziDent.com

d. Remove food debris.
46. What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water:
A) Plaque removal
B) calculus removal
C) washing the food debris. ***
47. One of these is less exposed to extensive dental caries:

a- Obes, malnourished
b- Pt has xerostomia
c- Less plaque score. ***
48. Calculus induce further periodontal lesion due to:

a) Directly stimulates inflammation
b)more plaque adhere to it. ***
d).
49. Floss used to:

a. Remove interproximal plaque. ***
b. Remove overhangs
c. Stimulate gingival
d. .
50. Plaque consists of:

a. Bacteria
b. Inorganic material
c. Food
CARRANZAS page 98
Dental plaque is composite of primarily microorganisms. One gram of plaque contain 2X1011 bacteria.
The intracellular matrix estimated to account for 20% to 30% of the plaque mass consists of organic and
nonorganic materials.
51. To prevent perio problem MOST effective method is:

a. Community program.
b. Removal of plaque. ***
c. Patient education.
52. Maximum time elapsed before condensation of amalgam after titration:

a. 1minute.
b. 3minutes. ***
c. 9minutes.
53. After amalgam titrations, the mix should be placed within:

a. 1 min. ***
b. 3 min. ***
c. 5 min.
d. 10 min.
54. Depth of amalgam restoration should be:

1. 1 1.5 mm.
2. 1.5 2 mm. ***
3. 2 3 mm.
4. 3 5 mm.
55. Length of pins must be equals in both tooth and restoration by a depth of:
a. 1 mm.
b. 2 mm. ***
c. 3 mm.
d. 4 mm.
56. Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam for:

a. Increase retention. ***
b. Increase resistance.
c. Increase streangth.
d. A and b.
Dental decks 2210
57. Calcium channel blockers cause increase saliva secretion:

a. True.
b. False. ***
CARRANZAS page 285 Cause gingival enlargement
58. RCT contraindicated in:

a. Vertical fracture of root. ***
b. Diabetic Pt.
c. Unrestored teeth.
d. Periodontally involved teeth
59. What can we use under composite restoration:

a. Ca (OH). ***
b. ZOE.
c. ZINC phosphate cement.
60. Gutta percha contain mainly:

a. Gutta percha 20%.
b. ZINC oxide %. ***
c. ZINC phosphate.
.Gutta percha contain 20% gutta percha(matrix).66% zinc oxide(filler),11% heavy metal sulfates(radiopacifier)
61. Single rooted anterior teeth has endodontic treatment is best treated by:
a. Casted post and core. ***
b. Performed post and composite.
c. Performed post and amalgam.
d. Composite post and core
62. Post fracture decrease with:
prefabricated post
ready made post
casted post. ***
metal post
63. Teeth with RCT and you want to use post, which post is the least cause to fracture:
1. Ready made post.
2. Casted post.
3. Fiber post. ***
4. Prefabricated post.
64. One of anatomical land mark is:

a. Ala tragus line. ***
b. Ala orbital.
c. Frank fort plane.
65. The PH of the calcium hydroxide is:

a. 7.2
b. 12 ***
c. 19
d. 5.5
66. Hyperemia result in:

a. Trauma of occlusion.
b. Pain of short duration. ***
c. Radiographic changes.
d. All of short duration.
67. The x- ray of choice to detect the proximal caries of the anterior teeth is:
a. Periapical x-ray. ***
b. Bitewing x-ray.
c. Occlusal x-ray.

68. Mandibular foramen in young children is:
a. At level of occlusal plane.
b. Above the level of occlusal plane.
c. Anterior the level of occlusal plane.
d. Below the level of occlusal plane. ***
The mandibular foramen was located 4.12 mm below the occlusal plane at the age of 3. It subsequently moved
upward with age. By the age of 9, it had reached approximately the same level as the occlusal plane. The
foramen continued to move upward to 4.16 mm above the occlusal plane in the adult group.
69. In primary teeth, pathologic changes in radiographs are always seen in:
a. Periapical area.
b. Furcation area. ***
c. Alveolar crest.
d. At base of developing teeth.
70. Pulpities in decidous teeth in radiograph see related to:
furcation. ***
apex of root
lateral to root
71. In deciduous tooth the first radiographic changes will be seen in:
1. Bifurcation area.
2. Apical area.
3. External root resoption. ***
72. Eruption cyst "eruption hematoma" can be treated by:
a. No treatment. ***
b. Immediate incision.
c. Complete uncoverage
d. Observe for one week then incise
Eruption cysts and eruption hematomas are usually asymptomatic and resolve with eruption of the tooth. The
lesions should not be incised as this may increase the potential for infection.
73. After trauma a tooth become yellowish in color, this is due to:
a. Necrotic pulp.
c. Pulp is partially or completely obliterated.
d. Hemorrhage in the pulp.
Endo Principles and Practice of Endodontics WALTON page 45 yellowish discoloration of the crown is often a
Manifestation of calcific metamorphosis

74. Step deformity of the Mandibular body fracture may due to:
a. Forward pull of lateral pterygoid muscle.

b. Upward pull of masseter and temporalis. ***
c. Toward pull of medial pterygoid muscle.
d. Downward pull of geniohyoid and myalohyoid.
75. What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:

a. 2% copper
b. 4% copper
c. 10 % copper
d. 13 % copper ***
76. Inorganic material in bone compromise:

a. 65%. ***
b. 25%
c. 10%
d. 95%
77. Polishing bur have:

a. Less than 6 blades.
b. 6-7 blades.
c. 10-12 blades.
d. More than 12 blades.
78. Pain during injection of local anesthesia in children could be minimized by:
a. Slowly injection.
b. Talking to the child during injection.
c. Using long needle.
d. A and b. ***
79. Rubber dam is contraindicated in:

a. Pt with obstructive nose. ***
b. Mentally retarded Pt.
c. Un comparative child.
d. A and b.
80. With children rubber dam not use with:

- Hyperactive patient
- obstructive nose. ***
- patient with fixed orthoappliance
- mildly handicapped and uncooperative.
81. The most common type of biopsy used in oral cavity is:
a. Excisional biopsy. ***

b. Incisional biopsy.
c. Aspiration through needle.
d. Punch biopsy.
82. In maxillary 1st molar 4th canal is found in:

a. MB canal. ***
b. DB canal.
c. Palatal root.
83. Formicrisol when used should be:

a. Full Saturated.
b. Half saturated.
c. Fifth saturated. ***
Pediatric dentistry ,infancy through adolescence,pinkham, 3rd edition, page348 :
84. 10 years old child present with bilateral swelling of submandibular area, what could be the disease:
a. Fibrous dysphasia.
b. Cherubism ***
c. Polymorphic adenoma.
85. Pt complain from pain in 45 which had gold onlay. The pain could be due to:
a. Chemicals from cement.
b. High thermal conductivity of gold.
c. Related to periodontal ligament.
d. Cracked tooth or fractured surface.
. " "
86. The irrigation solution is good because:

a. Lubricate the canals.
b. Flushes the debris.
c. None of the above.
d. All of the above. ***
87. Which is most common:

a. Cleft lip.
b. Cleft palate.
c. Bifid tongue.
d. Cleft lip and palate. ***
(most common & most complicated) (Source: Petersons page 841)
Clefts of the upper lip and palate are the most common major congenital craniofacial abnormality.
Atlas of Oral Diseases in Children: Cleft lip and palate are more common together than is cleft lip alone.
88. Which cranial nerve that petrous part of temporal bone houses:
a. Trigeminal n V
b. Facial n VII .**
c. Vagus n IX.
d. Vestibalcochealer n VII .

89. 8 years old Pt with pulp exposure in 11. Management:
a. Apixofication.
b. Pulptomy.***
c. RCT.
90. 21 years old Pt with pathological exposure in 35. Management:

a. Direct pulp capping.
b. Indirect pulp capping.
c. Root canal treatment. ***
91. Hyper cementum:

a. Occur in Pajet disease.
b. Difficult to extract.
c. Bulbous root.
d. Easy to manage by elevator.
e. A and b.
f. A and d. ***
g. All the above.
Dental secrets page 256Hypercementosis increases the difficulty of tooth removal.
Dental secrets page 113If hypercementosis is present, t he periodontal ligament space is visible around the
added cementum; that is, the cementum is contained within and is surrounded by the periodontal ligament space.
92. For onlay preparation, reduction of functioning cusp should be:

a. 1.5 mm. ***
b. 2 mm.
c. 1 mm.
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics ROSENSTIEL
Functional cusp 1.5 mm
Non functional cusp 1 mm
93. Thickness of porcelain should be:

a. 03-05 mm.
b. 0.05-0.15 mm.
c. 0.5-1.5.mm. ***
2.2 - 2 442 dental deck
The necessary thickness of the metal substucture is 0.5 mm
the minimal porcelain thickness is 1.0 - 1.5 mm
94. Class II composite resin is lined by:

a. G.I.C ***
b. Reinforced ZOE.
c. ZOE with epoxy cement.
d. Cavity varnish.
95. Occlusal plane is:

a. Above the level of the tongue.
b. Below the level of the tongue. ***
mcqs in Dentistry:
"the tongue rests on the occlusal surface "
96. Lateral pterygoid muscle has how many origin:

a. 1.
b. 2. ***
c. 5.
d. 7.
The upper/superior head originates on the infratemporal surface and infratemporal crest of the greater wing of the
sphenoid bone, and the lower/inferior head on the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
97. Embryo become fetus in:

a. 1st week
b. 1st month.
c. 2nd month.
d. 3rd month. ***
98. All are single bone in the skull EXCEPT:

a. Lacrimal. ***
b. Occipital.
c. Sphenoid.
d. Parietal.
99. In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in Length:

a. Fili form. ***
b. Fungi form.
c. Foliate.
d. Circumvallates.
100. Coronal suture is between:

a. Occipital and temporal bone.
b. Frontal and parietal bone. ***
c. Occipital and tympanic bone.
101. During instrumentation, sudden disappear of root canal due to:

a. Bifurcation of main canal. ***
b. Apical perforation.
c. Calcification.
102. When does child should be first exposed for using tooth brush:
a. As eruption of first tooth. ***
b. One year old.
c. Two years old.
d. Primary school year.
103. When a child must first exposed to the use of the tooth brush:

1. Of age of 2 years.
2. Of age of 4 years.
3. Immediately after eruption of first tooth. ***
Fluoridated toothpaste for 3 years child is recommended but under supervision in small pea-sized amount
National Fluoride Information Centre - Guide to Fluoride
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005) - page 25
Brushing using a fluoride toothpaste should start as soon as the first teeth erupt (about 6 months of age). Parents
should supervise brushing up to at least 7 yrs of age to avoid over-ingestion of toothpaste and ensure adequate
plaque removal.
104. Space loose occur in:

a. Proximal caries.
b. Early extraction.
c. Ankylosis.
105. Early loss of anterior tooth:

a. Affect phonetic.
b. Affect esthetics.
c. Cause space loss.
d. A and b. ***
e. All the above.
(
)
71. Apicoectomy what is the right statement:

1. Incisor with an adequate RCT and 9mm lesion.
2. Lateral incisor with good condensing RCT but swelling and pain 14 day after the treatment, the tooth a
symptom before the obturation.
3. First upper premolar with lesion on the buccal root..
72. Patient presented to you after fitting the immediate denture 5 10 months, complaining pain and over
tissue in the mandibular, what is the diagnosis:
1. Epulis fissurment. ***
2. Hypertrophic frenum
73. Main reason for surgical pocket therapy:

a. Expose the roots for scaling and root planning
b. Remove supragingival calculus
c.
The objective for pocket therapy is :1-increase the accessibility to the root surface ,making it possible to remove
all irritants
2-reduce or eliminate pocket depth, making it possible for the patient to maintain the root surface free of plaque

3-reshape soft and hard tissues to attain a harmonious topography
74. Biological width:

a. 1 mm
b. 2mm ***
c. 3mm
d. 4mm
CARRANZAS page 945
Biologic width= 2.04 mm ( junctional epithelium 0.97 mm + connective tissue attachment 1.07 mm)
Biologic zone= 2.73 mm( junctional epithelium 0.97 mm + connective tissue attachment 1.07 mm + gingival sulcus
0.69 )
75.Periodontal attachment contain:

Epithilum, sulcus, connective tissue
76.Periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to:
a. Remove the attached plaque and calculus.

b. Remove the necrotic cementum.
c. Change the root surface to become biocompatible
e. A & b only. ***
http://www.asnanak.net/ar/article.php?sid=152 : Periodontal debridement
77.Best measurement of periodontitis by:

a. Pocket depth.
b. Bleeding. ***
c. Attachment level.
Clinical measurement of periodontitis has historically focused on the concept of periodontitis as a slow,
continuous process which has emphasized measurements of the static condition of periodontal pockets.
Observations based on longitudinal measurement of attachment loss in untreated subjects have indicated that
periodontal destruction occurs in discrete episodes of short duration.
Oxford - 120
Probing to elicit bleeding (which is the single most useful indicator of disease activity), measuring pocket depth
attachment levels, and detecting subgingival calculus.

78.The tissue response to oral hygiene instruction is detected by:
a- Probe pocket depth.
b- Less bleeding. **
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005) page 154

106. Amount of G.P should after post preparation:
a. 1 mm.
b. 4-5 mm.
c. 10 mm.
As a general guide the post should be at least equal to the anticipated crown height, but a minimum of 4 mm of well-
condensed GP should be left. A periodontal probe is helpful to check prepared canal length.
Anatomy of the Human Body"

the number of pharyngeal "brancheal" arches: 2- What is
e. 4.
f. 5.
g. 6. ***
h. 7.
The dorsal ends of these arches are attached to the sides of the head, while the ventral extremities ultimately meet in the
middle line of the neck. In all, six arches make their appearance, but of these only the first four are visible externally.
107. What is the name of pharyngeal "brancheal" arches:

a. Maxillary.
b. Mandibular. ***
c. Hyoid.
The first arch is named the mandibular, and the second the hyoid; the others have no
distinctive names. In each arch a cartilaginous bar, consisting of right and left halves, is
developed, and with each of these there is one of the primitive aortic arches.
Encyclopedia of Diagnostic Imaging 422
3- Stomodeum and fugi separated by:

a. frangeal arch
b. ectodermal cleft
stomodeum is separated from the ectoderm (which forms the cranium and brain or of the buccopharyngeal membrane
)which separates the stomodeum from the end of the pharyngeal gut.

The Dental Assistant 372
PROPERTIES OF ELASTOMERIC MATERIALS

108. Polyvinyl siloxanes compared with polysulfide:
a. Can be poured more than once.
b. Can be poured after 7 days.
c. Less dimensional stability.
d. A and b. ***
109. Polysulfide impression material:

a. Should be poured within 1 hour. ***
b. Can be poured after 24 hours.
c. Can be poured 6-8 hours.
PAEDIATRIC DENTISTRY - 3rd Ed. (2005)

6. Hand over mouth exercise is a technique for managing unsuitable behaviour that cannot be modified by the more
straightforward techniques. It is often used with inhalation sedation (conscious sedation).
Indications: (i) A healthy child who is able to understand and co-operate, but who exhibits obstreperous or hysterical
avoidance behaviours.
110. Hand over mouth technique is used in management of which child:
a. Mentally retarded.
b. Positive resistance.
c. Uncooperative.
d. Hysterical. ***
111. Pits and fissure sealants are indicated in:

a. Deep Pits and fissure.
b. Newly erupted teeth.
c. A and b. ***
112. Pit and fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissure:
a. In primary teeth
b. In permanent teeth
c. A & b. ***
Sealants are also effective at preventing pit and fissure caries in primary teeth. Primary teeth have more aprismatic
enamel than permanent teeth,
1. Children with special needs. Fissure sealing of all occlusal surfaces of permanent teeth should be considered for those
who are medically compromised, physically or mentally disabled, or have learning difficulties, or for those from a
disadvantaged social background
. 2. Children with extensive caries in their primary teeth should have all permanent molars sealed soon after their eruption .

4- The rationale for pit-and-fissure sealants in caries prevention is that they:

a. Increase the tooth resistance to dental caries.
b. Act as a barrier between the sealed sites and the oral environment. ***
c. Have anti-microbial effect on the bacteria.
d. None of the above answers is correct.
Pit and fissure sealants (sealants) have been described as materials which are applied in order to obliterate the
fissures and remove the sheltered environment in which caries may thrive. Initially developed to prevent caries
their use has been developed further and they now have a place in the treatment of caries.
113. Teeth that have lost pits and fissure sealant show
a. The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
b. Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth
c. Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth. ***
d. The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
114. Year old patient all first molars carious and suspected pit and fissure areas of the second molars.
Treatment plan:
a. Restore all first molars and observe second molars.
B. Restore all first molars and topical fluoride on second molars.
C. Restore all first molars and seal pits and fissures of second molars. ***
d. Restore first and second molars with composite.
E. Restore first and second molars with amalgam.
Any child with occlusal caries in one first permanent molar should have the fissures of the sound first
permanent molars sealed.
Occlusal caries affecting one or more first permanent molars indicates a need to seal the second permanent
molars as soon as they have erupted sufficiently.
7-.Most tooth surface affected by caries:

a) Pit and fissure. ***
b) Root surface.
C) Proximal surface.
D) ..x
115. Pit &fissure least effective with:

a. tweny-four month year
b. primary molar
c. 2nd molar
116. Procedure done before applying pit & fissure sealant:

a- Acid etch by phosphoric acid

117. Success of pit & fissure sealants is affected mainly by:
a. increased time of etching
b. contamination of oral saliva***
c. salivary flow rate
d. proper fissure sealant

118. Syphilis first appearance:

a. Multiple vesicle.
b. Erythematous reaction.
c. Ulcer. ***
d. Bullae.
Ulcerative STDs that cause sores, ulcers, or breaks in the skin or mucous membranes, such as syphilis,
disrupt barriers that provide protection against infections.
119. Aphthous ulcer, compared with herbes ulcer is:

a. More characteristic in histology.
b. Leaves scar.
c. Less response to stress.
d. Occur in lining mucosa. ***
Initial exposure to the herpes simplex virus results in a generalized oral inflammation followed by
vesicle formation and subsequent ulceration.
15- Procedure done before applying pit & fissure sealant:

a- Acid etch by phosphoric acid
120. Verrucous carcinoma:

a. Malignant. ***
b. Benign.
Its a diffuse, papillary, non metastasizing, well differentiated, malignant neoplasm of epidermis or oral
epithelium. It is also known as an Ackerman tumor
Dentistry-Perio_Endo_Lesions
121. In combined endo-perio problem:
a. Start with endodontic IX. ***
b. Start with periodontic IX
Complete Dentures: a clinical manual for the general dental practitioner p.17
122. Management knifedge ridge in complete denture:

a. Reline with resilient material.
b. Maximum coverage.
c. Wide occlusal label.
Journal of the American Dietetic Association

123. Fluoride which we use in the clinic doesnt cause fluorosis because:
a. It's not the same fluoride that cause fluorosis.
b. Teeth already calcified.
c. Calcium in the mouth counter.
d. Saliva wasnt out.
Fluorosis can happen only during the time that the enamel is forming on the teeth. Since all the tooth
enamel (except for the wisdom teeth) forms before the age of six, only children six and under are
susceptible to getting fluorosis. Fluorosis does not happen to any portion of the teeth that have already
erupted.
124. Tooth fracture during extraction may be occur due to:

a. None vital tooth.
b. Diabetic PT.
c. Improper holding by forceps.
d. A and c.
125. Caries consist of:

a. Bacteria
b. Fluid.
c. Epithelial cells.
126. Post retention depends on:

a. Post length.
b. Post diameter.
c. Post texture.
d. Core shape.
e. Design of the preparation.
f. A and b
g. A, b and c
h. All of the above.

i. A.
This guideline normally places the post approximately two-thirds into the root length. Improper
length allows a potential for root fracture. It is not necessary to construct a post for each canal in
a multi rooted tooth, provided that the dominant root (i.e., palatal root of maxillary molar) is used
and proper length has been established.
Dental secrets 9. PROSTHODONTICS

Ralph B. Sozio, D.M.D.
22-Amount of reduction in PFM crown:
a- 1.5-2.
b- 1.7-2.
c- 2-5.
The necessary thickness of the metal is 0.5 mm, whereas the minimal ceramic thickness is 1.0
1.5 mm.
127. AH26 is root canal sealer consist of:

a. ZOE.
b. Epoxy resin
COMPOSITION
AH 26, powder: Bismuth oxide, Methenamine, Silver, Titanium dioxide
AH 26 silverfree, powder: Bismuth oxide, Methenamine
AH 26 resin: Epoxy resin
INDICATIONS
Permanent obturation of root canals of teeth of the secondary dentition with or without the aid of
obturation points.
128. When you give a child a gift for good behavior this is called:
a. Positive reinforcement.
b. Negative reinforcement.
DENTAL SECRETS - Second Edition

129. Hairy trichoglossia may be caused by:
a. Broad spectrum antibiotic.
b. H2o2 mouth wash.
c. Systemic steroid.
d. Heavy smokers.
e. -All of the above.
130. In distal extension p.d during relining occlusal Rest was not seated:
a. Remove impression and repeat it.
b. Continue and seat in after relining.
c. Use impression compound.
26- After taking alginate impression:

a. Wash with water and spray with sodium hydrochloride for 10 sec.
b. Same but wait 5-10 min and then put in sealed plastic bag

27- Many parts of bones are originally cartilaginous that replaced by bone:
a. True.
b. False.
28- Buccal object role in dental treatment of maxillary teeth:

a. MB root appear distal to P if cone is directed M to D
b. DB root appear mesial to P if cone is directed M to D.
29-Check biting in lower denture can occur if:

c. Occlusal plane above tongue
d. Occlusal plane below tongue.
e. Occlusal plane at lower lip.
f. None of the above.
30-Occlusal plane should be:

g. Parallel to interpupillary line.
h. Parallel to ala tragus line.
i. At least tongue is just above occlusal plane.
j. All of the above
31- Pt come for check up, no complaining, after radiograph u see well circumscribe radiolucent area in
related to mandibular molar & the periphery was radiopaque which not well defined border the diagnosis
is:
a- simple bone cyst
32- Scallopped border above inferior alveolar canal between roots of mandibular molars, this lesion is:
a) solitary cyst.
b) aneurysmal bone cyst.
c) traumatic bone cyst(simple bone cyst).
This is the radiographic finding for the the trumatic bone cyst Radiographically, these lesions tend to appear as
smoothly outlined radiolucencies that scallop around the roots of the teeth. They do not displace teeth or resorb
roots, and the lamina dura is left intact. They may range from very small (<1 cm) to very large (involving most of the
mandible). They tend to occur above the inferior alveolar canal.
ORAL RADIOLOGY 5th ed page 321
33-Radiographic radioulucency in the interradicular area:

a. Invasion of furcation.
b. Periodontal abcess.
c. Periodontal cyst.

34- Mental foramen appear in radiograph as radiolucent round area to the area of:
a. Mandibular premolars
b. Mandibular incisors.
c. Maxillary canine.
35-Radiographic diagnosis of a well-defined, unilocular radiolucent, area between vital mandibular

bicuspias is more likely to be:
a. Residual cyst
b. The mental foramen
c. A radicular cyst.
d. Osteoporosis.
e. None of the above.
36-Which cyst is not radiolucent?

a. Globulomaxillary cyst
b. Follicular cyst
c. Dentigerous cyst.
d. Nasopalatine cyst.
37-Female . Swelling in left of mandible, slowly increasing , radio opaque surrounded by radiolucent band
a. Osteoma
b. Ossifying fibro
c. Cementoblastoma
38-Radiolucent are cover the pericornal part of the 3rd molar is:
a- Dentigerous cyst
b- Central
39-Cyst in x- ray:
1. Radiolucent with bone expansion.
2. Radiolucent with bone resorption
"MASTER DENTISTRY- Oral and Maxillofacial, Surgery, Radilolgy, Pathology and Oral Medicine page 149"
Cyst growth
Several mechanisms are described for cyst growth, including:
epithelial proliferation
internal hydraulic pressure
bone resorption.

40-Which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolucency:
a. Lateral periodontal cyst
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones
c. Primordial cyst.
d. Ameloblastoma.
e. Osteomylitis of the mandible.
41- Intraosseous cyst in radiograph appears:

1/multiradiolucent may or not expand to cortical bone.
2/radiopaque may or not expand to cortical bone.
3/multiradiolucent may with resoption of cortical bone.
4/radiopaque may with resoption of cortical bone.
Central intraosseous ameloblastomas may perforate bone and present a similar pattern.
42- Child 12 years old with swelling in the mandibular premolars area, first premolar clinically missing, in
X ray examination we found Radiolucent is cover the percoronal part of the 3rd molar is:
1. Dentigerous cyst
43- Pt come for check up, no complaining, after radiograph u see well circumscribe radiolucent area in
related to mandibular molar & the periphery was radiopaque which not well defined border the diagnosis
is:
simple bone cyst
44- Radiographic diagnosis of bone destructive in the mandible without evidence of bone formation is:
a. Osteomyelitis.
b. Malignancy
c. Fibro-osseous lesion.
d. Fracture.
e. osteoradionecrosis.
Dental secrets page 115
Malignant lesions destroy bone uniformly. In ost eomyelitis, areas of radiographically normal-appearing
bone are frequently seen between the areas of destruction. Sequestra are not present in malignant lesions.

45- A 60-year-old man has been treated for a t2nom osquamous cell carcinoma by radical radiotherapy.
He has a history of chronic alcoholism and was a heavy smoker. Six years after treatment, he develops a
painful ulcer in the alveolar mucosa in the treated area following minor trauma. His pain worsens and the
bone became progressively exposed. He is treated by a partial mandibular resection with graft. The
diagnosis is
a. Acute osteomylitis
b. Gerre,s osteomylitis
c. Osteoradionecrosis
d. Chronic osteomylitis
46- Osteoradionecrosis is more in

a: maxilla
b: mandible.
c: no difference
47- Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansible radio opaque areas in the caninpremolar region of the
mandible is:
a. Hematoma.
b. Remaining roots.
c. Tours mandibularis.
d. Internal oplique ridge.
e. Genial tubercle.
radiolucencies: radiographs, which disease cause multiple 48- In

a. Hypothyroidism.
b. Hyperparathyroidism.
c. Ricket disease.
49- The following are multilocular radiolucencies in x-ray EXCEPT:

a. Ameloblastoma.
b. Odontogenic keratocyst.
c. Adenomatoid Odontogenic cyst.
d. Myxoma.
50- 20 years old male PT came with severe pain on chewing related to lower molars. Intraoral
examination reveals no caries, good oral hygiene, no change in radiograph. PT give history of bridge
cementation 3 days ago. Diagnosis:
a. Pulp necrosis.
b. Acute apical periodontitis.
c. Chronic apical abscess.

MASTER DENTISTRY- Oral and Maxillofacial, Surgery, Radilolgy, Pathology and Oral Medicine
51- Mobility in midface with step deformity in front zygomatic suture. Diagnosis:
a. Lefort II.
b. Lefort III.
c. Bilateral zygomatic complex fracture
Le Fort I is the lowest level of fracture, in which the tooth-bearing part of the maxilla is detached.
Le Fort II or a pyramidal fracture of the maxilla involves the nasal bones and infraorbital rims.
Le Fort III involves the nasal bones and zygomatic-frontal sutures and the whole of the maxilla is detached
from the base of the skull.
52- Pt came with fracture because of blow in the right side of his face. he has ecchymosis around the
orbit in the right side only .and subjunctional bleeding in the maxillary buccal vestible .with limited mouth
open what is ur diagnosis?
A- le fort 1
b- lofort 2
c- lefort 3
c-zygomatic fracture
Zygoma fracture: clinical flattening of the cheekbone prominence paraesthesia in distribution area of
infraorbital nerve diplopia, restricted eye movements - subconjunctival haemorrhage - limited lateral
excursions of mandibular movements - palpable step in infraorbital bony margin.
53- Open bite is seen in

a: lefort 2
b: unilateral condyle fracture
c: bilateral condyle fracture
54- what is the first sign if there is fracture in the face in x-ray?
1. Fluid paranasal.
2. Suture.
3. Overlap of bone.
4. All the above.
56- After scaling and root planning healing occur by:

a. Long junctional epithelium.
b. New attachment.
c. New bone and connective tissue formation.
d. New attached periodontal ligament fibers.
Dental decks page 266
57- During examination 34 show gingival recession buccally, the least correct reason is:

e. Frenum attachment.
f. Pt is right hand brushee.
g. Occlusal force.
h. Inadequate gingival.
Oxford 118
56- Periodontal pocket differ most significantly from gingival pocket with respect to:
a. Depth.
b. Tendency to bleed on gentle probing.
c. The location of the bone of the pocket.
Chronic gingivitis is, as the name suggests, inflammation of the gingival tissues. It is not associated with
alveolar bone resorption or apical migration of the junctional epithelium. Pockets > 2 mm can occur in
chronic gingivitis due to an increase in gingival size because of oedema or hyperplasia (false pockets).
57- All of these are right ways to handle the instrument EXCEPT .
A- Modified pen handle
b- Inverted pen
c- Pen handle.
d- Palm and thumb
58- The right corticosteroid daily dose for pemphigus vulgaris is:
a- 1-2 g/kg/daily
b- 1-2 mg
c- 10 mg
d- 50- 100 mg hydrocortisone.
Tyldesley's Oral Medicine, 5th Edition page 132
Very high dosages are used initially to suppress bulla formation (of the order of 1 mg/kg prednisolone
daily), but this may often be slowly reduced to a maintenance dose of 15 mg daily or thereabouts
59- Amalgam is used in extensive cavities :

a- When the cusp is supported by dentine and proper retentive preparation
b- When Cusps lost and thin supported wall.
c- When one cusp is lost and need to apply restoration to replace it.
59- In primary teeth. The ideal occlusal scheme is:

d. Flush terminal.
e. Mesial step.
f. Distal step.

60-The most prevalent primary molar relationship
a-flush terminal plane.
b-mesial step terminal plane
c-end
d-distal
61- The most common type of malignant bone tumor of the jaws is:
a. Osteochondrosarcoma.
b. Osteosarcoma.
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
d. Chondrosarcoma.
________________________________________________________________
131. In cavity preparation, the width of the cavity is:
a. 1/2 inter cuspal distance.
b. 1/3 inter cuspal distance. ***
c. 2/3 inter cuspal distance.
132. Success of pit & fissure sealants is affected mainly by:

1)increased time of etching
2) contamination of oral saliva***
3) salivary flow rate
4) proper fissure sealant
133. Pit &fissure least effective with:

1/tweny-four month year
2/primary molar
3/2nd molar
134. 23- Buccal object role in dental treatment of maxillary teeth:

a. MB root appear distal to P if cone is directed M to D.
b. DB root appear mesial to P if cone is directed M to D.
135. Patient comes to your clinic complaining that the denture become tight, during examination you
notice nothing, but when the patient stand you notice that his legs bowing (curved). What you suspect:
A) Pagets disease.. ***
136. 33 years old female PT come with slow growing swelling in the angle of the mandible. Radiograph
show radio-opaque with radio-lucent border diagnosis:
a. Osteoma.
b. Osteosarcoma.
c. Cementoblatoma. ***

137. Patient came to your clinic with severe pain, on x-ray the right side of the mandible has a
radiolucency with a radiopaque border that resembles the sunshine rays. Your diagnosis is :
A) ossifying fibroma
B) osteosarcoma. ***
C) acute osteomyelitis
138. The x ray show scattered radiopaque line in the mandible jaw, the diagnosis will be:????
A- Paget disease
B- Garres syndrome
C- Fibrous dysplasia
D- Osteosarcoma
The eyes are examined for double vision (diplopia), any restriction of movement and subconjunctival haemorrhage.
The condyles of the mandible are palpated and movements of the mandible checked. Swelling, bruising and
lacerations are noted together with any areas of altered sensation that may have resulted because of damage to
branches of the trigeminal nerve. Any evidence of cerebrospinal fluid leaking from the nose or ears is noted, as this is
an important feature of a fracture of the base of the skull. An intra-oral examination is then carried out, looking
particularly for alterations to the occlusion, a step in the occlusion, fractured or displaced teeth, lacerations and
bruises. The stability of the maxilla is checked by bimanual palpation, one hand attempting to mobilise the maxilla by
grasping it from an intra-oral approach, and the other noting any movement at extra-oral sites such as nasal,
zygomatic-frontal and infraorbital.

PT with lower complete denture, intraoral examination show with slightly elevated lesion with confirmed border, PT history
of ill fitting denture. It is by:
c. Immediate surgical removal.
d. Instruct PT not to use denture for 3 weeks then follow up. ***
e. Reassure PT and no need for treatment.
2-Examination of residual ridge for edentulous PT before construction of denture determine stability,
support and retention related to the ridge:
f. True. ***
g. False.
140. Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly PT for construction of lower denture easily displaceable tissue
is seen in the crest of ridge. Management:
h. Minor surgery is needed.
i. Inform the PT that retention of denture will decrease.
j. Special impression technique is required. ***
"Questions and Answers " :
141. In recording jaw relation, best to use:

k. Occlusal rim with record base. ***
l. Occlusal rim with base wax.
m. Occlusal rim with nacial frame.
32-The goal of construction of occlusion rims is:
1. To obtain the occlusal plane, vertical dimension, tentative centric relation, face low transfer, placement of the
teeth. ***
2. To obtain the protrusive condylar guidance.
3. To obtain the lateral condylar posts and incisal guide.
4. None.
142. To recheck centric relation in complete denture:

n. Ask PT to swallow and close.
o. Ask PT to place tip of tongue in posterior area and close. ***
p. To wet his lip and tongue.
q. All of the above.
143. By aging, pulp tissue will:

r. Decrease in collagen fibers.
s. Increase cellularity and vascularity.
t. Decrease in size. ***
.
144. Complete blood count "CBC" is a laboratory test important in dentistry:

u. True. ***
v. False.
." Dental secrets"
145. In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of major connector depend on:
a. Height of lingual attachment.
b. Mandibular tori.
c. Periodontal condition of remaining teeth.
146. Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based on:

a. Good medical and dental history.
b. Proper clinical examination.
c. Result of pulp vitality test.
d. A periapical radiographs.
e. All of the above. ***
147. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points
a. Boiling.
b. Autoclave.
c. Chemical solutions. ***
d. Dry heat sterilization.
52. Most convenient and effective form of sterilization of dental instruments:
a. Boiling
b. Autoclave. ***
148. The role of good sterilization:

1. Washing, inspection, autoclave, drying, storage. ***
2. Inspection, autoclave, drying, storage.
3. Autoclave, drying, storage.
4. Autoclave is enough.
149. Protocol of sterilization

Initial cleaning, inspection , cleaning, sterilization, storage. ***
150. Autoclave relative to 100f dry oven

a)the same time
b)slightly higher time
c)considerable higher time
d)less time. ***
151. What is the type of sterizliation applied on ligation/fixation wires

A) Autoclave. ***
53. Why the moisture heat sterilization is better than dry heat sterilization
A) makes the instruments less rusty and blunt
B) needs more time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane

C) needs less time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane. ***
152. AUTOCLAVE PRINCIPLE:

causes dullness.
Breaks the protein cell membrane at moderately low temp. ***
breaks the protein cell membrane at very high temp

153. The radiographic criteria used for evaluating the successes of endodontic therapy
a. Reduction of the size of the periapical lesion. ***
b. No response to percussion and palpation test.
c. Extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals.
154. If the maxillary first molar is found to have four, the fourth canal is likely found:
a. In the disto-buccal root.
b. In the mesio-buccal root. ***
c. In the palatal root.
155. The accesses opening for a maxillary premolar is most frequently:

a. Oval. ***
b. Square.
c. Triangular.
156. What is the basis for current endodontic therapy of a periapical lesion:
a. Due to rich collateral circulation system, the perpical area usually heals despite the condition of the root canal.

b. If the source of periapical irritation is removed, the ppotential for periapical healing is good. ***
c. Strong intracanal medications are required to sterilized the canal and periapical area to promote healing.
d. Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst, must be treated by surgical intervention.
157. To enhance strength properties of ceramo metal restoration, it is important to:

a. Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure.
b. Build up thick layer of porcelain.
c. Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal
substructure.
d. Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal substructure.
e. A and b are correct.
f. A and c are correct. ***
g. B and d are correct.
.
158. Endodontically treated 2nd maxillary premolar with moderate M & D caries is best restored
by:
a. Amalgam.
b. 3/4 crown.
c. Full crown. ***
d. Onlay.
159. MOD amalgam restoration with deep mesial box, PT come with pain related to it after 1
month due to:
a. Pulp involvement. ***
b. Supraocclusion.
c. Upon contact.
d. Gingival recession.
160. Reduction in amalgam restoration should be:
a. 1-1.5 mm.
b. 1.5-2 mm. ***
c. 2-3 mm.
d. 3-5 mm.
Art and science of operative dentistry 2000 page 659
"it must have a minimum thickness of 0.75 to 2 mm (because of its lack of compressive strength)"
161. HBV can be transmitted by transplacental:

a. True. ***
b. False.
162. Bleeding of the socket following tooth extraction:
1. Is always a capillary bleeding in nature.
2. Takes not less than half day in normal individual.
3. Is always favorable if it is primary type.
4. Can be due to the presence of a nutrient vessel.
a. 1 and 2 are correct.
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. ***
d. All are correct.
163. In sickle cell anemia, O2 is decreased in oral mucosa:

a. True. ***
b. False.
164. Destruction of RBC may cause anemia and it is due to defect in cell membrane:
a. True. ***
b. False.
165. Immunofluorecent test and biopsy are used to diagnosis pemphigus:

a. True. ***
b. False.
166. After RCT, for insertion of post dowel:
a. Post applied pressure.
b. Post should be lose.
c. Insert it without pressure but with retention. ***
167. Selection of shade for composite is done:

a. Under light.
b. After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam.
c. None of the above. ***
. .

168. Measuring blood pressure is one of vital signs important in medical compromised:
a. True. ***
b. False.
169. Management of tuberosity fracture during extraction of maxillary molar is:

a. Replace and suture. ***
b. Remove and suture with primary heal.
c. Replace and suture intra alveolar by wire.
d. Remove and leave to heal.
-If the tuberosity is fractured but intact, it should be manually repositioned and stabilized by sutures
Dental decks 1954
170. Microbial virulent produced by root bacteria is collagenase from spirochete:

a. True. ***
b. False.
171. Bacteria in endodontic pathois mostly is:

a. Porphyromonas endodontalis obligate anacrobe: ***
b. Streptococcus mutans.
c. Streptococcus anaerobius.
172. Bacteria in root canal

a) mixed****
b) anaerobes obligatory
c) aerobes only
173. Bacteria in root canal pathosis:

a. Mixed anaerobe and aerobe. ***
b. Single obligate anaerobe.
c. Aerobic.
Dental pulp 2002 page 294
When intact teeth with necrotic pulps were cultured, over 90% of the bacteria were strict anaerobes. Because
bacteria isolated from root canals are usually a subgroup of the bacteria
found in the sulcus or periodontal pockets, it is believed that the sulcus is the source of bacteria in root canal
infections.
174. Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it is:

a. Simulate formation of 2nd dentine. ***
b. Not irritant to the pulp.
c. For thermal isolation.

.

175. Use of miswak and toothbrush:
a. Toothbrush after meals and miswak at prayer time and when out of home. ***
b. Miswak and toothbrush must be used together.
c. Use the miswak only when they can not afford to buy the toothbrush and toothpaste.
d. Not use the miswak and use the toothbrush instead.
176. Oral diaphragm consist mainly of: ) (

a. Tongue.
b. Geniohyoid muscle.
c. Digastric muscle.
d. Mylohyoid muscle. ***
177. Occlusal rest function:

a. To resist lateral chewing movement.
b. To resist vertical forces. ***
c. Stability.
d. Retention.
.
178. In post and core preparation must:

a. Extend to contrabevel.
b. Extend to full length tooth preparation.
c. Take same shape of natural tooth.
d. Take shape of preparation abutment.
e. A & d. ***
f. A & b.
g. D & c.
h. B & c.
.
179. In placement of R.D:

a. 4 jaw contact in teeth.
b. Only 4 contacts 2 lingual surface and 2 buccal surface. ***
c. Only 4 contacts 2 mesial and 2 distal.
180. Chronic suppurative periodontitis:

a. PT complains from moderate pain.
b. Fistula with drain. ***
c. Pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion.
.
181. Acute periodontal abscess:

a. Fistula present.
b. Swelling enlargement in tooth site. ***

182. Masseter muscle extends from lower of border zygomatic arch to lateral border of ramus
and angel mandible.
a. True. ***
b. False.
183. Extend of temporalis behind infratemporal fossa of temporal bone insert in coronoid
process:
a. True. ***
b. False.
184. Main arterial supply in face is facial artery and superficial temporal artery:
a. True. ***
b. False.
185. Mandible is the 1st bone calcified in skull but clavicle start first but in same embryological
time:
a. True. ***
b. False.
186. Maxilla is formed
a. before mandible
b. same with mandible
c. slightly after mandible. ***
d. none of the above
2. Mandible formed before frontal bone:

a. True.
b. False. ***

187. Some bone are formed by endochondral ossification like long bone, flat bone by intramembranous
ossification and some bone by endochondral and intramembranous ossification:
a. True. ***
b. False.
188. Facial nerve supply:

a. Masseter muscle.
b. Temoralis muscle.
c. Buccinator muscle. ***
d. Mylohyoid muscle.
189. Upon giving a lower mandible anaesthesia, you notice the patients eye, cheek corner of the
lip are uncontrolled , whats the reason :
A) paresthesia of the Facial Nerve. ***
190. Muscle of facial expression are all innervated by facial nerve:

a. True. ***
b. False.
191. While performing cranial nerve examination you notice that the patient is unable to raise his
eyebrows, hold eyelids closed, symmetrically smile or evert his lower lip..this may indicate:
a. Trigeminal nerve problem.
B. Facial nerve problem.
C. Oculomotor nerve problem.
D. Trochlear nerve problem.
E. All of the above.
3. Permeability of dentine:
a. Bacterial product go through it.
b. Decrease by smear layer. ***
c. Allow bacteria to go in.
Dentin permeability
1- decreases with the increase of cavity preparation.
2- Increase when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion.
3- Increase with smear layer.
4- Bacterial toxins can pass through before the actual penetration of bacteria. ***
Art & Science

Dentin permeability:
increase with the increase of cavity preparation

decrease when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion
decrease with smear layer
4. Tooth brushing and dental floss help in community prevention of periodontal disease:
a. True. ***
b. False.
5. Cell of chronic inflammation:

a. Lymphocytics. ***
b. PMN.
c. Neutrophils.
6. Dentist must:
a. Treat PT medically.
b. Prescribe medication to Pt with medical problem.
c. Do clinical examination, take medical history and evaluate the medical state. ***
After patient came to your clinic and gave an extended history and complain, whats your next step in treatment :
A) Clinical examination. ***
B) Start the treatment
C) Radiographic examination

7. Reparative dentine:
a. Same like secondary dentine.
b. Happen as site if irritation. ***
8. Reparative dentine:
a. 2nd dentine.
b. Formed as dentine Bridge above the pulp. ***
c. Highly tubular dentine and it is detective from 1st dentine.
d. Sclerosing dentine with less permeability.

.
9. Physiological reaction of edema on vital pulp:

a. Decrease tissue fluid by decompression of blood vessel.
b. Increase blood preasure. ***
c. Necrosis of pulp due to hyperoxia and anaryxia.
10. Microabscess on vital pulp: start necrosis of small part and sequela of destruction cycle and full repair:

a. True.
b. False. ***
" Dental pulp 2002" :
11. Amalgam tattoo is an oral pigmentation lesion:

a. True. ***
b. False.
12. Development of maxillary process and medial frontal process in medial elongation of central portion:
a. True.
b. False. ***
13. Cementum contain cell like bone. It is yellow in color in vital, extracted or avulsed tooth. But in non vital tooth, its
color is dark:
a. True. ***
b. False.
382) what is the most factor encouraging dental caries :
A) Xerostomia. ***
B) Hypocalcification.
C) Smoking.

Q- Incipient caries in the old patients is MOSTLY due to:
a)smoking
b)saliva
d)Xerostomia. ***
27- the best definition to odontoblast:

a- It s subjacent to predentine, odontoblastic process ***
b- Odontoblast cell is more in the cellular pulp than radicular
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pulp_(tooth)
Odontoblastic layer; outermost layer which contains odontoblasts and lies next to the predentin and mature dentin
50- during making filing by Ni/Ti it gets fractured due the property of:
a- Rigidity &
b- Axial fatigue
A-pain
b-deep pressure. ***
c-temperature
http://www.scribd.com/doc/17106080/Local-Anesthetics
Both sensory & motor nerves are equally sensitive.
Order of pain blockade is pain, temperature, touch, deep pressure sense.
Applied to tongue bitter taste is lost first, followed by sweet & sour, and salty taste is lost last of all
192. Class III jaw relation in edentulous PT:

w. It will affect size of maxillary teeth.
x. Affect retention of lower denture.
y. Affect esthetic and arrangement of maxillary denture.
z. All of the above.
193. In recording man-max relation,the best material used without producing pressure is:

aa. Wax.
bb. Compound.
cc. Bite registration paste (zinc oxide & eugenol paste). ***

1. A temporary form representing the base of a denture which is used for making maxillo-manibular
(jaw) relative record for arranging teeth or for trail insertion in the mouth is:
Bite rims. 1.
Custom tray. 2.
Set up. 3.
Base plate. *** 4.
1. Type of autoclave used

a-hot oven outoclave
b-class b autuclave
c-class s autoclave
d-class d autoclave
194. When esthetic is important, posterior class I composite is done in:

a. Subgingival box.
b. Bad oral hygiene.
c. Contact free area.
d. Class I without central contact.
195. Most commonly, after placement of amalgam restoration PT. Complain from pain
with:
a. Hot.
b. Cold. ***
c. Occlusal pressure.
d. Galvanic shock.
e. Sweet.
196. 38-irrigation solution for RCT cause protein coagulation is:
1- Sodium hypochlorite.
2- Iodine potassium.
3- Formocresol. ***
4-None of the above. <<H2O2 PROTEIN COAGULATION
14. Crown with open margin can be due to:

a. Putting die space on finishing line. ***
b. Waxing not covering all crown prep.
c. Over contouring of crown prevent seating during insertion.
15. Oral and perioral cyst formed from epithelial rest of serres:
a. True.
b. False. ***
28- to design a lingual bar we should determine:

a- The inferior border of lingual sulcus
b- Superior border of lingual sulcus
c- ALL OF THE ABOVE..
16 You extract tooth with large amalgam restoration, how to manage the extracted tooth:

1. Autoclave and deep buried.
2. Sharp container.
3. Ordinary waste container. ***
4. Office container. >> DARK COTAINER WITH SOLUTION

The test for testing the bur all the blades of the burs path through 1 point called
ronted,1
2 constidty
2 routed and constedety
none of above
>> The kind of on lay wax used in cast

1 braffiene
2>>>>>
3>>>>>
Q 90 -non odontogenic Lesion similar to Endo Lesion: -

a-Hyperparathyroidism
b-initial stage of cemental dysplasia. ***
c-ossifying Fibroma
d-Dentigeaus cyst
e-ameLobLastoma
f-Lateral periodontal cyst
j-myxoma & Hemangieoma
Pt have denture, after 5 year he complain of ulcer and inflammation in lower buccal vestibule. wt is the Dx:

1/hypertrophic frenum
2/ epulis .f
16. Dentine composition:

a. 60-65 inorganic by wgt . (70% inorganic by volume). ***
b. 25% water by wgt. (13% water by volume).
c. 43% organic by wgt. (20% organic by volume).
.%07 %27 %07
17. The primary direction for spread of infection in the mandible is to submental lymph node:
a. True.**
b. False.
**(The three primary spaces are the submental, sublingual, and
submandibular spaces)
18. 7 days after amalgam restoration Pt came complaining of pain during putting spoon on the restored tooth
because:
a. Irreversible pulpitis.
b. Reversible pulpitis.
c. Broken amalgam.
d. Galvanic action. ***
(when two metallic restorations are placed close to each other in an electrically conducting medium like
saliva , a galvanic current will happen which causes discomfort to the patient)
21-Filling amalgam in the first madibular molar when touch the spoon there is a pain the reason is:
1. Galvanic action. ***
19. DNA only infect human but RNA doesn't infect human:
a. True.
b. False. ***
(both can infect humans , example : influenza , hepatitis C , SARS)
20. Artificial teeth best to be selected by:

a. Preextraction cord. ***
b. Postextraction cord.
.
21. In full gold crown, to prevent future gingival recession:

a. Make the tooth form good at gingival one third.
b. Make the tooth form good at gingival one fifth. ***
c. Make the tooth form good at gingival one half.
22. Subgingival scaling and root planning is done by:

a. Gracey Curette. ***
b. Hoe.
c. Chisel.
(hoe , chisel = supragingival)
23. Paraesthesia of lower lip after surgical removal of lower 8 is due to the irritation of inferior alveolar nerve:
a. True. ***
b. False.
24. Fluoride decrease dental caries by remineralization of enamel:

a. True. ***
b. False.
25. The aim of conditioning agent on dentine before GI cement is to remove smear layer:
a. True. ***
b. False.
26. Compomer release fluoride as GI:

a. True.
b. False. ** (GI has a continuous release of fluoride because it reabsorbs it from the saliva but compomer
has a limited release of fluoride).
27. Barbed broach in endodontic is used for pulp examination in straight canals:
a. True. ***
b. False.
28. Fixed partial prosthesis is more successful in:

a. Single tooth missing. ***
b. Multiple missing teeth.
29. Best pontic is:

a. Ridge lap.
b. Hygiene. ***
c. Saddle.
30. PT feel pain of short duration after class II restoration. Diagnosis is:
a. Reversible pulpitis (hyperemia). ***
c. Periodontitis.

31. Radiotherapy increase caries by decreasing salivary secration:
a. True. ***
b. False.
32. Dental plaque composed mainly of:

a. Bacteria. ***
b. Inorganic materials.
c. Food.
33. Composite for posterior teeth:

a. Microfilled + fine filler.
b. Macroflled + rough filler.
c. Hybrid + rough filler. *** (hybrids are more resistant to wear than the conventional macrofilled)
Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials Theory, Practice, and Cases (3rd Ed 2009)
The strength and other physical properties, EXCEPT wear resistance and surface roughness, of
macrofilled composites are adequate for Class III, IV, and V restorations. Excessive wear when used for
Class I and II restorations limited their posterior use. Macrofills were used before dentinal bonding systems
were developed; placing them in posterior teeth resulted in postoperative sensitivity, leakage, and
recurrent decay.
The problem with microfilled composites is the low percentage filler (4050%). The surface area of the
very small filler particles requires much more resin to wet the surface of the filler particles. This high resin
content results in an increased coefficient of thermal expansion and lower strength.
Microfilled composites were used when esthetics are the dominant concern. Large composite
restorations, such as an extensive Class IV restoration, are built in layers of several different shades and
translucencies. The first layers to be placed are a hybrid composite selected for strength. The final layer, a
veneer of sorts, is a microfilled composite selected for surface luster.
Microfilled composites are also used in Class V restorations at the cementoenamel junction. Microfills
have a lower modulus of elasticity and flex with the tooth better than the strongest composite materials.
Clinical research has shown Class V microfill composite restorations are more likely to be retained than
other composite materials.
Hybrid composites are very popular; their strength and abrasion resistance are acceptable for small to
medium Class I and II restorations. Their surface finish is nearly as good as that of microfills; thus, they are
also used for Class III and IV restorations.
34. Check bite of retainer by: ??

a. Paste. ***
b. Impression.
35. Mastoid process is a part of:

a. Temporal bone. ***
b. Parietal bone.
c. Occipital bone.
36. Parotid duct opens opposite in 2ndMandibular molars:

a. True.
b. False. ***
(opens opposite the maxillary second molar)
37. Palate consists of:

a. Palatine and sphenoid bone.
b. Palatine and maxillary bone. ***
c. Palatine and zygomatic bone.
38. Hard palate consists of the following:

A. Palatal maxillray process &Ethmoid bone
B. Palatal maxillary process & Sphenoid bone
C.Palatal maxillary process & Palatine bone. ***
D. Palatal maxillary process & Temporal bone
39. The most important microorganism in dental caries is:

a. Streptococcus mutans. ***
b. Streptococcus salivarius.
c. Spirochaeta.
40. Emergency endodontic should not be started before:

a. Establishing the pain.
b. Check restorability of the tooth.
c. Establishing the diagnosis. ***
.
41. Selection of type of major connector in partial denture is determined:

a. During examination.
b. During diagnosis and planning. ***
c. During bite registration.
42. White polycarbonate are temporary crowns used for anterior teeth:
a. True. ***
b. False.
43. For etching 15 sec, for composite restoration use:

a. 37% phosphoric acid. ***
b. 15% fluoric acid.
c. 3% sulfuric acid.
44. Nerve impulse stops when injection local anesthesia:

a. True. ***
b. False.
(Local anesthetics work to block nerve conduction by reducing the influx of sodium ions into the nerve
cytoplasm)
c. The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is:

d. Fibroma. ***
e. Papilloma.
f. Lipoma..
45. The most prominent cell in acute inflammation is:

a. Lymphocyst.
b. Plasma cell.
c. PMN. ***
46. Flat bone grow by endochondral ossification:

a. True.
b. False. ***
.(Flat bone ossification is intramembranous (no cartilage) , and long bone ossification is endochondral )

47. Pulp chamber in lower 1st molar is mesially located:
a. True. ***
b. False.
"Endodontics Problem solving in clinical practice 2002" :
48. Radiopacity at the apex of a tooth with chronic pulpitis:

a. Condensing osteitis (a focal sclerosingosteomyelitis). ***
b. Cementaldysplasia.
c. Perapicalgranuloma.
49. Extra canal if present in mandibular incisor will be:

a. Lingual. ***
b. Distal.
"Endodontics Problem solving in clinical practice 2002" :
(this canal is present in 45% of cases and is usually missed )
50. The access opening in lower incisor:

a. Round.
b. Oval.
c. Triangular. ***
(apex of triangle towards the thecingulum area and base of triangle towards incisal edge)
51. Acute periapical cyst and acute periodontal cyst are differentiated by: ??
a. Vitality test. ***
b. Radiograph.
c. Clinical examination.
52. Acuteperiapical abscess associated with

a. Swelling. ***
b. Widening of PDL.
c. Pus discharge.
53. The most common cause of endodontic pathosis is bacteria:

a. True. ***
b. False.
54. Palatal canal in upper molars is curved:

a. Buccally. ***

b. Palatally.
c. Distally.
(althoughradiographically it looks straight)
55. If tooth or root is pushed during surgical extraction into max sinus:
a. Leave it and inform the Pt.
b. Remove it as soon as possible. ***
c. Follow the Pt for 3 months.
56. Difference between Gracey and universal curette:

a. Section of gracey is hemicircular and in universal triangular.
b. Gracey has one cutting edge while universal has two.
c. Gracey Used for cutting in specific area while universal is in any area.
d. Universal 90 not offset, gracey 60 offset.
e. A and d
f. A, b and c.e
g. B, c and d.
(but text books say the angle of gracey is 70 degrees not 60 )
19. Gracey 13/14

a. Mesial posterior
b. Distal posterior
c.
57. Person drinking fluoridated water, using toothbrush with fluoride, rinsing with fluoride mouthwash, then
no need to put pit and fissure in his permanent teeth:
a. True.
b. False. ***
58. Radiopacity attached to root of mandibular molar:

a. Ossifying fibroma.
b. Hypercementosis. ***
c. Periapicalcemental dysplasia.
59. Cause of fracture of occlusal rest:

a. Shallow preparation in marginal ridge. ***
b. Extension of rest to central fossa.

c. Improper centric relation.
60. Bridge return to dentist from lab with different degree of color although the shade is the same, the cause:
a. Thin metal framework.
b. Different thickness of porcelain. ***
c. Thick opaque.
197. Complete denture poorly fit and inadequate interocclusal relation:

d. Relining.
e. Rebasing.
f. New denture. ***
g. None of the above.
61. Small caries confined to enamel:

a. Preventive measure. ***
b. Amalgam feeling.
c. Keep under observation.
62. Rampant caries in adult in anterior teeth restored by:

a. Glass ionomer. ***
b. ZOE.
c. Amalgam.
63. The 1st cervical vertebrae is:

a. Atlas.
b. Axis.
64. Most of dentine bonding material need conditioning time:

a. 15 sec. ***
b. 30 sec.
c. 45 sec.
d. 60 sec.

65. Time of curing of dentine:
a. 10 sec.
b. 15 sec.
c. 30 sec. ***
d. 60 sec.
66. Light curing time for simple shallow class III composite:
a. 10 sec.
b. 15 sec.
c. 20 sec. ***
67. Cartilaginous joints in the body affect bone growth:

a. True. ***
b. False.
68. The nerve which supply the tongue and may be anesthetized during nerve block injection:
a. V. ***
b. VII
c. IX.
d. XII.
69. Cavity varnish should be applied at least in:

a. One layer.
b. Two layer. ***
c. Three layer.
d. Four layer.
(A second application of cavity varnish is placed over the
first to thoroughly coat the surfaces of the dentin and
fill any voids from bubbles created when the first
application dries)
70. Geographic tongue is seen in Pt with:

a. Diabetes.
b. Iron deficiency anemia. ***
c. Pemphigus.
vt iov , oi m r cvi i vm t t viiocsvn isn voinnu aiorsvisi , nsononu si ytotoit (

)cvi i isn vt vsv vt svt n i

10-Geographic tongue is always accompanied in patient with:
a. Diabetes.
b. Erythema multiform.
c. Iron deficiency.
d. Psoriasis. ***
CawsonEssintials of Oral Pathology and Oral Medicine 7th ed
71. A 21 years old patient who has iron deficiency anemia, difficulty in swallowing, with examination of barium
sulphate, you found: ???
A. Geographical tongue. ***
B. Burning mouth syndrome
C. .. Syndrome
D. Diabetic patient
72. Pt came to the clinic complaining from soreness in the tongue sore throat the diagnosis is:
a) burning mouth syndrome
b) geographical tongue
c) fissure tongue
73. Diabetic Pt with ill fit denture, examination of residential ridge help to:
a. Determine the need for tissue conditioning and surgery. ***
b. Determine occlusal height.
c. Determine vertical dimension of occlusion.
74. Handicapped Pt with lesion in central nervous system appears to have different type of disorder in
movement and procedure:
a. Seizure.
b. Cerebral palsy. ***
c. Learning disability.
(they dont have control over the movement of their limbs)
75. To obturate the canal the most important step is:

a. Cleaning and shaping of the canal. ***
b. Irrigation of the canal.

76. During placement of amalgam pins, the number of pins per cusp is:
a. 1 pin. ***
b. 2 pins.
c. 3 pins.
d. 4 pins.
(one pin per cusp , one pin per surface , one pin per line angle )
77. The amount of L.A in 2% lidocaine with 1/100000 adrenaline is:

a. 0.01
b. 0.02
c. 3.6
(The amount of LA in milligrams per 1.8 ml cartridge is calculated by multiplying the amount of analgesic
per/1ml with the volume of the cartridge in millilitres ; 1.8 x 2 = 3.6)
78. The most common endodontic cyst is:

a. Radicular cyst. ***
b. Keratocyst.
c. Acute apical periodontitis.
79. Pt complains from severe spontaneous pain related to upper 6. It respond to vitality test no pain on
percussion, diagnosis is:
a. Irreversible pulpitis. ***
b. Reversible pulpitis.
c. Acute apical periodotitis.
80. The most important in RCT is seal:

a. Apical 1/3. ***
b. Middle 1/3.
c. Cervical 1/3.
81. The cause of fracture in amalgam class II restoration is:

a. Thin thickness at the marginal ridge. ***
b. Wide flared cavity
c. Deep cavity.
82. The most common complication after extraction for diabetic Pt is:

a. Infection. ***
b. Severe bleeding.
c. Oedema.
(problems with healing which leads to infection )
83. Lateral canal is detected by:

a. Radiograph. ***
b. Tactile sensation.
c. By clinical examination.
84. Contact area is in incisal/occlusal 1/3 in which tooth:

a. Mandibular incisors. ***
b. Mandibular molars.
c. Maxillary molars.
85. Incipient caries is diagnosed by:

a. Fiber optic light. ***
b. Tactile examination.
c. X-ray film.
(And dye)
(usually incipient caries are diagnosed by visual and tactile sensation , but in the posterior proximal areas a
fiber optic light can help detect incipient caries there)
86. Disinfection of GP is done by:

a. Autoclave.
b. Dry heat.
c. Sodium hypochlorite. ***
87. Periodontal ligament fibers in the middle third of the root is:
a. Oblique. ***
b. Horizontal.
c. Transeptal.
88. To detect interproximal caries in primary teeth, the best film is:
a. Periapical.
b. Bitewing. ***

c. Occlusal.
89. Pt with missing lower right 1st molar for long time you'll find:
a. Mesial drifting of lower right 2nd molar. ***
b. Intrusion of upper right 1st molar.
c. Over eruption of lower right 2nd molar.
90. Over erupted upper right 1st molar will be managed by: EXCEPT:
a. Intruded easily orthodontically. ***
b. Crowing.
c. Adjustment of occlusion.
91. Over erupting tooth can be treated by:

1. Crowning after endo. ***
2. Ortho intrusion.
3. Extraction.
4. A and B.
5. All the above.
92. Broken instrument during RCT, best prognosis if broken at:

a. Apical 1/3. ***
b. Middle 2/3.
c. Cervical 3/3.
93. Pulp stone:

a. Cause discomfort and pain.
b. Free in pulp chamber.
c. None of the above. ***
(Stones may exist freely within the pulp tissue or be attached to or embedded in dentine)
Q- Pulp stone can be the following EXCEPT:

a) present freely in the pulp
b)cause discomfort & pain to the patient
c)In radiographs,Smallspheroidalradioopaque
d)False stone occurs due to dystrophic dentin
94. The amount of facial redaction in PFM crown:

a. 1.3. ***
b. 1.7.
c. 0.8.
d. 2.2.
95. A tooth with 25 degree inclination could be used as abutment:

a. True. ***
b. False.
96. Intercellular movement of PMN leukocytes is called migration: ??

a. True. ***
b. False.
(the migration is also called chemotaxis )
97. In onlay, stopping of cusp is 1.5-2 m.m:

a. True. ***
b. False.
98. Causes of failure of cast crown.

99. Causes of parasthesia.
100. Normal values of Pt PTT healing time.
101.
102. 585. The following factors effect the health
103. 1- heriditary
104. 2- environement
105. 3- social and economic factors
106. 4- family welfare
107. A) 1+2
108. B) 1+2+4
109. C) 1+2+3
110. D) all of the above. ***
111.
112.
.... :
Mineral Trioxide Aggregate (MTA). ***
ca oh
formocresol
113.
The fundamental rule in the endodontic emergencies is :
control pain by inflammatory non steroid.
diagnosis is certain. ***
114.
115.
116. Pt come with bristle even on mucous membrane, u asked for immune test: ????
pemphigus
bullospemphigoid
lichen planus
117.
118. Female pt come with endo treated upper central with m, d caries &haveincisal abrasion. Porcelain
veneer is planned with modification to cover incisal edge. veneer should end:
fourth lingualy 0.5 mm before centric occlusal. ***
fourth 1.5 before centric occlusion
fifth 1.5 before centric occlusion
119.
120. Pt come with siuns u make gp tracing & take radiograph the gp appear in lateral surface of the root
periodontal abscess
periodontitis
lateral acessory canal. ***
121.
122.
123. Tech of endo fill where we use continuous condensation
vertical condensation
124.
125. Principles and Practice of Endodontics WALTON page 273
126. "Continuous wave of condensation" in the vertical condensation paragraph ???
127.
128.
129. Post graduated student use mta the prognosis depend on
Prevent immediate suture
disturbance during closure of wound. ***
using a flab
130.
131. The cause of black cast which prevent pickling due to
over heat
contaminate with gas
incomplete casting
132.
133. In sharpness of instrument the angle between face & blade is
50-60
60-70
70-80. ***
134.
135. 612. Sharpening the curette and sickle, the cutting edge should be at angle:
136. A- 50-60
137. B- 70-80. ***
138. C- 80-90

139. D- 60-70
140.
141.
142. Immature tooth has less sensation of cold , hot due to
short root
incomplete innervation
wide pulp chamber
Questions I did not know how to solve :
6.In full gold crown, to prevent future gingival recession:
a. Make the tooth form good at gingival one third.

b. Make the tooth form good at gingival one fifth. ***
c. Make the tooth form good at gingival one half.
19.Check bite of retainer by: ??
d. Paste. ***
e. Impression.
36. Acute periapical cyst and acute periodontal cyst are differentiated by: ??
a. Vitality test. ***
b. Radiograph.
c. Clinical examination.
55. Geographic tongue is seen in Pt with:

f. Diabetes.
g. Iron deficiency anemia. ***
h. Pemphigus.
oi m r cvi i vm t t viiocsvn isn voinnu , nsononu si ytotoit : vu r i vrc i oi (

)vt iov cvi i isn vt vsv vt svt n i ,aiorsvisi
56. A 21 years old patient who has iron deficiency anemia, difficulty in swallowing, with examination of
barium sulphate, you found: ???
A. Geographical tongue. ***
B. Burning mouth syndrome
C. .. Syndrome
D. Diabetic patient

Q- Pulp stone can be the following EXCEPT:
a) present freely in the pulp
b)cause discomfort & pain to the patient
c)In radiographs,Smallspheroidalradioopaque
d)False stone occurs due to dystrophic dentin
) vnn i v no t corr cn(
143. .... .70:

Mineral Trioxide Aggregate (MTA). ***
ca oh
formocresol
101.Pt come with bristle even on mucous membrane, u asked for immune test: ????
pemphigus
bullospemphigoid
lichen planus
110.Principles and Practice of Endodontics WALTON page 273

"Continuous wave of condensation" in the vertical condensation paragraph ?? ?
144. Among the reasons that molar teeth are more difficult to treat endodontically than anterior teeth:
a. Molar have more complex canal configuration.
b. Molar tend to have greater canal curvature.
c. A and b. ***
145. How many canals can be present in mandibular second molars:

a. 1, 2, 3 or 4.
b. 2, 3 or 4.
c. 3 or 4. ***
d. 3.
146. The correct access cavity preparation for the mandibular second molar is:
a. Oval.
b. Quadrilateral.
c. Round.
d. Triangular. ***
147. Gingival hyperplasia related to phenytoin therapy is:

a. Most common on lingual surface.
b. Most common in older Pt.
c. Strongly related to phenytoin dosage.
d. Strongly related to poor oral hygiene. ***
148. The most common immediate treatment reported for fractured teeth was:
a. 25%.
b. 50%.
c. 82%.
d. 95%.
149. Burning mouth syndrome is a chronic disorder typically characterized by each of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Mucosal lesion. ***
b. Burning pain in multiple oral sites.
c. Pain similar in intensity to toothache pain.
d. Persistent altered taste perception.
It as a chronic orofacial pain, unaccompanied by mucosal lesions or other

evident clinical signs upon examination
150. Which of the following is the most likely potential cause of BMS (Burning mouth syndrome):

a. Denture allergy.
b. Salivary dysfunction.
c. Neural dysfunction.
d. Menopausal changes.

Med Oral Patol Oral Cir Bucal. 2010 Jul 1;15 (4):e562-8. Stomatodynia
e562
Journal section: Oral Medicine and Pathology doi:10.4317/medoral.15.e562
Publication Types: Review
Burning mouth syndrome: Update
Pia Lpez-Jornet, Fabio Camacho-Alonso, Paz Andujar-Mateos, Mariano Snchez-Siles, Francisco Gmez-
Garca

151. Which of the following represents the best pharmacologic therapy for BMS:
a. Antidepressant agents. ???
b. Corticosteroids.
c. Anxiolytic agents.
d. There is no therapy of proven general efficacy. ***
The most-used medications to treat this syndrome are

antidepressants, antipsychotics, antiepileptics, analgesics
and oral mucosa protectors. The tricyclic antidepressants
such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline at low
doses are useful in BMS,
152. Dental fluorosis:

a. Is indicative of systemic fluorosis. ***
b. Can be contracted at any age.
c. Becomes less noticeable with age.
d. Is reversible.
e. Is largely preventable.
153. Fluorides are most anticaries effective when:

a. Incorporated in the tooth enamel. ***
b. Present in the blood stream.
c. Present in the plaque and tissue fluids bathing the newly erupted tooth.
d. Present in the ingested foods.
e. Present on the intraoral mucous membranes.

154. Fluoride is not taken up systemically from which of the following sources:
a. Water.
b. Food.
c. Dentifrices.
d. Topical applications of fluoride. ***
155. Type I diabetes mellitus can be characterized as:

a. Non-insulin-dependent.
b. Adult- onset.
c. Ketosis-prone. ***
d. Accompanied by normal cell activity.
ketosis-prone diabetes - severe diabetes mellitus with an early onset
156. Which of the following statement is true for the reported relationship of periodontal disease and
diabetes mellitus:
a. The reported incidence of periodontal disease in the diabetes is less than that for nondiabetic.
b. Pts with history of diabetes of less than 10 years have more periodontal disease destruction than those
with history of longer than 10 years.
c. The prevalence of periodontal disease increase with the advancing age of the diabetic. ***
d. The prevalence of periodontal disease increase with the better metabolic coronal of the diabetic state.
.
198. The spontaneous production of an electric current resulting from two dissimilar
metal in the oral cavity is called:
e. Nuclear reaction.
f. Galvanic action. ***
g. Precipitation reaction.
h. Thermodynamics.
i. Fission.
199. The first step in diagnostic work, up is obtaining the:

j. Medical history.
k. Present complaint. ***
l. Biographical data.
m. Restorative history.
n. Traumatic history.
157. The basic difference between K files and reamers is:

a. The number of spirals or flutes per unit length.
b. The geometric cross section. ***
c. The depth of flutes.
d. The direction of the spirals.
158. In case of traumatic intrusion of young permanent incisor, the treatment of choice is:
a. Surgical repositioning of intruded tooth and splinting.
b. To wait for re eruption of the intruded tooth. ***
c. Slow orthodontic extrusion using light force.
d. Only antibiotic prescription and wait for eruption.
"Dental Secrets"
07
.
159. Best treatment of choice for carious exposure of a primary molar in a 3 year old child who complain
of toothache during and after food taking:
a. Direct pulp capping with caoh.
b. Direct pulp capping with zao paste.
c. Formocresol pulpotomy. ***
d. Caoh pulpotomy.
160. Which of the following statement about the mechanism of action for denture adhesive is not
correct:
a. It depends in part on physical force and viscosity. ***
b. Carboxyl group provide bio adhesion.
c. Greater water solubility increase duration of adhesion.
d. Zinc salts have been associated with stronger longer adhesion.
.
.
161. What is the proper cavity preparation for V-shaped cervical erosion lesion to be restored with glass
ionomer cement:
a. Cervical groove, incisal groove.
b. Cervical groove, incisal bevel.
c. 4 retention points, 90 margin.
d. No Monday, January 24, 2000 Monday, January 24. 2000 mechanical preparation is necessary.
???
162. One week after filling of class II restoration, the Pt present with a complain of tenderness on
mastication and bleeding from the gingival. The dentist should initially:
a. Check the occlusion.
b. Check the contract area. ***
c. Consider the probability of hyperemia.
d. Explain to the Pt that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissue and prescribe an analgesic and warm
oral rinse.
163. Actual destruction of the micro organism in root canal attributed mainly to:
a. Proper antibiotic therapy.
b. Effective use of medicaments.
c. Natural defenses in healthy person.
d. Mechanical preparation and irrigation of the canal. ***
164. It is recommended to avoid an intraligamental injection when the planned dental treatment is:
a. Pulp extirpation.
b. Pulpotomy. ***
c. Full crown preparation.
d. A and b.
.
165. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of autoclaving endodontics instruments:

a. It can dull the sharp edges of instruments. ***
b. All forms of bacteria are not destroyed by it.
c. Compared to other technique it takes too long to sterilize.
"Dental Secrets"
166. The root canal treated teeth has the best prognosis when the root canal is instrumented and
obturated:
a. To the radiograph apex.
b. 1 mm beyond the radiograph apex.
c. 1-2 mm short of the radiograph apex. ***
d. 3-4 mm short of the radiograph apex.
" Clinical Endodontics TRONSTAD" :
167. Which of the following would be clinically un acceptable as a primary of isolating a tooth for sealant
placement:
a. Cotton roll.
b. Rubber dam.
c. Vac-ejector moisture control system.

168. Which one of the following is least likely to contribute to oral bad breath:
a. Periodontal disease.
b. Denture. ***
c. Faulty restoration.
d. Carious lesions.
169. Each of the following is correct EXCEPT which one:

a. Bad breath appears to be largely bacteria in origin.
b. Bad breath originating from the gastrointestinal tract is quite common.
c. Self-perceptions of bad breath appear to be unreliable. ***
d. Fear of having bad breath may be a severe problem for some people.
.
170. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of dentinal hypersensitivity:

a. It is one of the most successfully treated chronic dental problems. ***
b. Its prevalence range from 8 to 30%.
c. The majority of the Pts who experience it are from 20 to 40 years of age.
d. One source of the irritation that leads to hypersensitivity is improper tooth brushing.
:0
.
.
Art and science of operative dentistry 2000 :2
Dentin hypersensitivity is a common clinical condition that is difficult to treat because the treatment
outcome is not consistently successful.
171. Hypersensitivity is due to:

A- Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules. ***
B- Obliterated dentinal tubule
172. The most common form of oral ulcerative disease is:

a. HSV.
b. Major aphthous ulcer.
c. Bahjet disease.
d. Minor aphthous ulcer. ***
200. The majority of primary herpetic infections are:

a. Symptomatic.
b. Asymptomatic. ***

c. Proceeded by fever.
d. Accompanied by gingival erythema.
e. A, c and d.
201. The function of the anterior teeth is:

e. Disarticulate the posterior teeth.
f. Incise food. ***
g. Prevent attrition.
h. Prevent food impaction.
202. When using the buccal object rule in horizontal angulation, the lingual object in relation to the
buccal object:
a. Move away from the x-ray tube head.
b. Move with the x-ray tube head. ***
c. Move in an inferior direction from the x-ray tube head.
d. Move in a superior direction from the x-ray tube head.
The Buccal Object Rule is a method for determining the relative location of objects hidden in the
oral region. The rule is: When two different radiographs are made of a pair of objects, the image of
the buccal object moves, relative to the image of the lingual object, in the same direction that the x-
ray beam is directed.
SLOB technique same lingual , Opposite Buccal
203. If the initial working length film shows the tip of a file to be greater than 1 mm from the ideal
location, the clinician should:
a. Correct the length and begin instrumentation. ***
b. Move the file to 1 mm short of the ideal length and expose a film.
c. Interpolate the variance, correct the position of the stop to this distance, and expose the film.
d. Confirm the working length with an apex locator.
e. Position the file at the root apex and expose a film.
)3 2 0 ( 0
204. In geriatrle Pt, Cementum on the root end will:

a. Become thinned and almost nonexistent.
b. Become thicker and irregular. ***
c. Render apex to locater useless.
d. Often not be seen on the radiograph.
e. Indicate pathosis.

205. Which of the following endodontic failure may be retreated only with surgery:
a. Missed major canal.
b. Persistent inter appointment pain.
c. Post and core. ***
d. Short canal filling.
206. Which of the following failure may be treated nonsurgically:
a. Post filling that has removed. ***
b. Severe apical perforation.
c. Very narrow canal with a periapical lesion and the apex can not be reached.
207. Tobacco should be considered a risk factor when planning treatment for Pt who require:
a. Implants.
b. Periodontal surgery.
c. Oral surgery.
d. Esthetic treatment.
e. All of the above. ***
208. Pulpal pain may not be referred from:

a. The right maxilla to the left maxilla. ***
b. The third molar to the ear.
c. A max molar to the sinus.
d. An incompletely fractured tooth.
e. A max cuspid to ear.
209. Spontaneous pulpal pain is indicative of:

b. Irreversible pulpitis. ***
c. Neurotic pulp.
d. Hyperplastic pulp.
e. Atrophic pulp.
210. Internal Resorption:

a. Painful.
b. Seldom differentiated external resorption.
c. Can occur in primary teeth. ***
.
Internal resorption is often painless, and progresses slowly. Children with internal resorption will notice the
affected tooth may turn pink as the cells eat away the lining.
211. Teeth that are discolored as a result of internal resorption of the pulp may turn:
a. Yellow.
b. Dark brown.
c. Pink. ***
d. Green.

212. After completion of orthodontic treatment he came complaining of pain in 11 tooth radiograph
show absorption in the middle third of the root of 11 wt is the proper management:
a. Apply caoh at the site of resorption. ***
b. Do RCT in a single visit
c. Extract the tooth & reimplant it
d. Extract the tooth & do implantation
Dental decks part 2 page236
Bowl -shaped area of resorpation in volving cementument dentin characterize external inflamatory root
resorption, this type of external resorption is rapidly progressive and will continue if treatement is not
instituted. the process can be arrested by immeditae root canal treatment with calcium hydroxide paste.
remembre the etiology of external resorption : excessive orthodontie forces, periradicular inflammation,
dental trauma, impacted teeth.
213. Treatment of internal resorption involves:

a. Complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest the resorption process. ***
b. Enlarging the canal apical to the resorbed area for better access.
c. Utilizing a silver cone and sealer to fill the irregularities in the resorbed area.
d. Filling the canal and defect with amalgam.
e. Sealing sodium hypochlorite in the canal to remove the inflammatory tissue necrotic in the area of the
resorption.
Clinical Endodontics textbook TRONSTAD page 150
Irrigation with copious amounts of 5 % sodium hypochlorite may have some effect, but the treatment of
choice is to pack the canal and the resorption lacuna with calcium hydroxide paste. By the next visit, the
calcium hydroxide will have necrotized any remaining tissue in the lacuna, and the necrotic remnants are
readily removed by irrigation with sodium hypochlorite.
214. Sensitivity to palpation and percussion indicates:

c. Neurotic pulp.
d. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
e. Inflammation of the periradicular tissues. ***
215. Transverse fracture of developing teeth in the mixed dentition can be managed by:

a. Forced eruption. ***
b. Extraction and placement of a removable partial denture.
c. Placement of single tooth.
216. Apexification is procedure that: (Use mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) as an

artificial root-end barrier)
a. Finds the most apical stop of the guttpercha in RCT.
b. Induce the formation of a mineral barrier in the apical region of incompletely root. ***
c. Is new in the endodontic field.
d. Involves the surgical removal of the apical region of the root and placement of a retrograde
filling material:
217. The preferred material used in apexification is:

a. Zinc phosphate cement.
b. Zinc polycarboxylate cement.
c. Calcium hydroxide. *** Calcium Hydroxide Plug As an Alternative
d. Dycal.
218. What is the estimated incubation period of HIV infection:

a. 4 weeks.
b. 6 months.
c. 3 years.
d. 6 years.
e. 10 years.
219. Hydrogen peroxide is the ideal bleaching agent because:

a. It bleaches effectively at natural ph.
b. It bleaches faster than carbamide peroxide.
c. Protection for sensitive tissues can be incorporated into the hydrogen gel.
220. The most common cause of the angina is:

a. Stress.
b. Renal disease.
c. Arteriosclerotic plaques of the coronary vessels. ***
d. Hypoglycemia.
e. Hypertension.

221. Which of the following drugs is completely effective in eliminating angina episode:

a. Propranolol.
b. Nifedipine.
c. Diltiazem.
d. Transdermal nitroglycerin. ***
222. CPR
a. Is best performed in the dental chair.
b. Should be performed on all patients experiencing chest pain.
c. Is more efficient when using a full mask, delivering 100% oxygen, than with the mouth to
mouth technique. ***
d. Is beyond the medico legal responsibility of the practicing dentist.
223. Which statement concerning sensitive teeth is false:

a. Small dentin exposure can result in sensitivity.
b. The extent of dental hard tissue loss always correlates with sensitivity.
c. A wide variety of clinical condition can cause teeth to become sensitive.
d. Oral hygiene habits and diet can contribute to clinical sensitivity problems.
.
224. Droplet nuclei containing mycobacterium tuberculosis:

a. Do not cause infection.
b. Settle out of room air quickly.
c. Do not spread widely in the building.
d. Remain airborn for prolonged period. ***
225. The most common activity associated with percutaneous injury of the dentist is:

a. Suturing.
b. Anesthesia injection. ***
c. Handpiece dig.
d. Trimming impressions.
226. The most common location of percutaneous injury among dentist is:
a. Hand. ***
b. Face.
c. Elbow.
d. Arm.
227. The normal response of a vital pulp to the thermal testing is:
a. No response.
b. Lingering painful response.
c. Hypersensitive painful response.
d. Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed. ***
228. The normal response of a inflamed pulp to the thermal testing is:
a. No response.
b. Lingering painful response.
c. Hypersensitive painful response.
d. Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed.
229. The normal response of a vital pulp to the electric pulp testing is:
a. No response.
b. Higher than that of the control teeth.
c. Lower than that of the control teeth.
d. In a range similar to that of the control teeth. ***
230. Asymptomatic tooth has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and circumscribed
radiolucency of long duration. The periradicular diagnosis: -

a. Acute apical periodontitis.
b. Chronic apical periodontitis. ***
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis.
d. Abscess.
231. A Pt with severe periradicular pain has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and
circumscribed radiolucency of long duration. The periradicular diagnosis:
b. Chronic apical periodontitis.
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis. ***
d. Abscess.
232. A Pt present in severe pain. The periapical area over the involved tooth is inflamed
and swollen. The tooth is mobile and depressible in its socket with a diffused
radiolucency. The diagnosis is:
b. Chronic apical periodontitis.
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis.
d. Abscess. ***
233. Reduction of mandibular fracture is defined as:

a. Nonalignment and separation of the fracture segment.
b. Realignment of fracture segments.

c. Holding of the fracture segments in place. ***
d. Screw and bone places.
e. Internal fixation.
234. Wiring the upper and lower teeth together is called:

a. Internal fixation.
b. An open reduction.
c. Intermaxillary fixation. ***
d. Displacement.
e. External fixation.
235. The incidence of nerve damage after third molar surgery is estimated to be:
a. 5% or less. ***
b. 10% to 15%.
c. 15% to 20%
d. 20% to 25%.
236. The least likely mechanism for the nerve damage is:
a. Direct needle trauma.
b. Intraneural haematoma formation.
c. Local anesthetic toxicity. ***
d. Stretching and binding of the nerve.
237. Which of the following is the cause of immediat type allergic reaction to latex
products:
a. Accelerator.
b. Antioxidants.
c. Latex protein. ***
d. Nickel.
Pt take 40 cortisone in day of procedure

double the dose just day of procedure
double the dose day of procedure & day after
stop the medication
346) What is the dominant type of fibers found in Cementum:
A) longitudinal
B) Circular
C) Sharpey's fiber.. ***
Sharpey's fibres are the terminal ends of principle fibres (of the periodontal ligament) that insert into the
cementum and into the periosteum of the alveolar bone.

14-Fibers which completely embedded in cementation and pass from cementation of one tooth to the
cementation of adjacent tooth is:
Sharpey's fiber. 1.
Transceptal fibers. *** 2.
Longitudinal fibers. 3.
Transceptal fibers A part of the gingival fiber system that extends from the supraalveolar cementum of
one tooth horizontally through the interdental attached gingiva above the septum of the alveolar bone to the
cementum of the adjacent tooth.
347) What is the main function of impression tray holes :
A)Fixing the Impression material. ***
348) A Tailor is presented to your dental office, whats the most common feature to be found in His teeth
upon examination :
A)Attrition
B) abrasion. ***
C) Erosion
D) Abfarcation
7 Abrasion of enamel and root surfaces may result from the long term use of:
1. A hard toothbrush.
2. Tooth abrasive toothpaste or powder.
3. Vigorous use of the toothbrush.
4. A and B only.
5. A, B and C. ***
347) whats the first sign of Syncope
A) Paleness. ***
B) nose bleeding (epistaxis)

C) Miosis
350) Whats the reason of the wax shrinkage upon fabrication of the bridge/crown :
353) Patient came to your clinic complaining of pain, upon examination you cant find a clue. Whats the
next logical step to do in investigation
A) Panoramic x-ray. ***
B) CT Scan
C) MRI
D) Regular tomography
Q-contra indication of implant EXCEPT

1_many dental caries. ***
2_malignancy
3_radiation therapy
1- dental implant are successfully with min failure:

a-premaxilla area in the upper arch
b-posterior area of the maxillary arch
c-mandible between the mental foramen
d-buccal shelf of the mandible.
354) Whats the best implant type allowing Osseointegration:
A) Root-form Endosseous implant.. ***
The indications of implantation:
Diabetic patient. 1.
Loss of one tooth only with the adjecent teeth. *** 2.
173. The most common immediate treatment reported for fractured teeth was:
a. 25%.
b. 50%.
c. 82%.

d. 95%.
174. Which of the following is the most likely potential cause of BMS (Burning mouth syndrome):

a. Denture allergy.
b. Salivary dysfunction.
c. Neural dysfunction.
d. Menopausal changes.

Med Oral Patol Oral Cir Bucal. 2010 Jul 1;15 (4):e562-8. Stomatodynia
e562
Journal section: Oral Medicine and Pathology doi:10.4317/medoral.15.e562
Publication Types: Review
Burning mouth syndrome: Update
Pia Lpez-Jornet, Fabio Camacho-Alonso, Paz Andujar-Mateos, Mariano Snchez-Siles, Francisco Gmez-
Garca

175. Which of the following represents the best pharmacologic therapy for BMS:
a. Antidepressant agents. ???
b. Corticosteroids.
c. Anxiolytic agents.
d. There is no therapy of proven general efficacy. ***
The most-used medications to treat this syndrome are

antidepressants, antipsychotics, antiepileptics, analgesics
and oral mucosa protectors. The tricyclic antidepressants
such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline at low
doses are useful in BMS,
176. What is the proper cavity preparation for V-shaped cervical erosion lesion to be restored with glass
ionomer cement:
a. Cervical groove, incisal groove.
b. Cervical groove, incisal bevel.
c. 4 retention points, 90 margin.
d. No Monday, January 24, 2000 Monday, January 24. 2000 mechanical preparation is necessary.
???
177. Pt take 40 cortisone in day of procedure

double the dose just day of procedure
double the dose day of procedure & day after
stop the medication
178. 350) Whats the reason of the wax shrinkage upon fabrication of the bridge/crown :

179.
1- dental implant are successfully with min failure:
a-premaxilla area in the upper arch
b-posterior area of the maxillary arch
c-mandible between the mental foramen ?
d-buccal shelf of the mandible.
The best transport medium for evulsed tooth is:
Tap water.
HBSS (Hank's balanced salt solution). ***
Saliva.
Milk.
Which of the following is the longest in the dental arch:
Maxiliary central incisor.
Maxiliary second premolar.
Mandibular canine.
Maxiliary canine. ***

Maxillary canine
Main article: Maxillary canine
The maxillary canine is the tooth located laterally from both maxillary lateral incisors of the mouth but mesially from
both maxillary first premolars. It is the longest tooth in total length, from root to the incisal edge, in the mouth.
Chlorhexidine is used as mouth wash in the concentration of:
0.1-0.2% ***
1-2%
5-10%
20%
Traumatically fractured crown of central incisor in an 8-years-old child with pulp

exposure (more than 1 mm) half hour ago, medical history is non- contributory and the tooth is not
displaced. What is your management:
Endodontics-pulpectomy and obturation.
Direct pulpcap with caoh and composite.
Caoh pulpotomy. ***
Total extirpation of pulp and caoh.
The oral lesions of the lichen planus:
Are usually painful.

Rarely appear before lesion elsewhere on the body.
May be part of a syndrome in which lesions also appear on the skin, conjunctiva
and genitalia. ***
Often appear in nervous, high-strung individuals.
Heals with scarring.
All of the following are oral features of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome AIDS
EXCEPT:
Candidiasis.
Erythema multiform. ***
Hairy leukoplakia.
Rapidly progressing periodontitis.
Kaposi's sarcoma.
The use of the rubber dam in endodontics is:
Frequently required.
An established rule. ***
Not required.
Time consuming.
Dictated by Pt comfort.
The best restoration for max central incisor that has received RCT through
conservatively prepared access opening would be:
Post-retained metal-ceramic crown.
Post-retained porcelain jacket crown.
Composite resin. ***
None of the above.

Dentine hypersensitivity is best relieved or controlled by:
Using efficient cooling system.
Blacking exposed tubules on the dentin surface. ***
Opening tubules to permit release of intrapulpal pressure.
Applying anti inflammatory agent to exposed dentin.
Pt with a history of subacute bacterial endocarditis is a medical problem in a surgery

because of the possibility of:
Bacteremia.
Septicemia.
Hypertension.
Mitral stenosis.
Auricular fibrillation.
A, b and c.
A, b and d. ***
A, d and e.
B, c and e.
C, d and e.
. 500 2 600 2
Which of the following is a benign epithelial neoplasm:
Rhabdomyoma.
Fibroma.
Lipoma.
Granular cell tumor.
Keratoacanthoma. ***
Journal of Applied Oral Science

Oral lesions of lichen planus usually appear as:
White streaks. ***
Red plaque.
Shallow ulcers.
Papillary projections.
Builae.
The function of the periodontal ligament include
Mechanical function
Formative function
Nutritive function
Sensory function
All of the above. ***
Ankylosis:
No PDL
Caused by trauma
Extracted surgically
An 18 years old Pt present complaining of pain, bad breath and bleeding gingival.
This began over the weakened while studying for the final exam. The Pt may have which of the
following conditions:
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis ***
Rapidly progressive periodontitis
Desquamative gingivitis.
Acute periodontal cyst.

) ( The following are types of hamartoma EXCEPT:
Cementoblastoma ***.
Compound odontoma.
Complex odontoma.
A child came to the clinic with continuous involuntary movement of his head and
extremities and difficulty in vocal communication; The condition is described as:
Epilepsy.
Cerebral palsy ***.

All types of cerebral palsy are characterized by abnormal muscle tone (i.e. slouching over while sitting), reflexes, or
motor development and coordination. There can be joint and bone deformities and contractures (permanently fixed,
tight muscles and joints). The classical symptoms are spasticities, spasms, other involuntary movements (e.g. facial
gestures), unsteady gait, problems with balance, and/or soft tissue findings consisting largely of decreased muscle
mass. Scissor walking (where the knees come in and cross) and toe walking (which can contribute to a gait
reminiscent of a marionette) are common among people with CP who are able to walk, but taken on the whole, CP
symptomatology is very diverse. The effects of cerebral palsy fall on a continuum of motor dysfunction which may
range from slight clumsiness at the mild end of the spectrum to impairments so severe that they render coordinated
movement virtually impossible at the other end the spectrum.
Secondary conditions can include seizures, epilepsy, apraxia, dysarthria or other communication disorders, eating
problems, sensory impairments, mental retardation, learning disabilities, and/or behavioral disorders.
Speech and language disorders are common in people with Cerebral Palsy.
The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:
Osmosis. ***
Active transport.
Filtration.
Diffusion.
Cell that can give more than one type:
Fibroblast.
Odontoblast
Mesenchymal cell. ***
High rate of fractures at canine area in the mandible due to: I am not sure from the
answer
Change direction of forces occruing here
Long canine root ***
Lower border is thin in this area
Alveolus is thin in this area
Lesion similar to Endo Lesion:
Hyperparathyroidism
Initial stage of cemental dysplasia ***
Ossifying Fibroma
Dentigerous cyst.
Ameloblastoma.
Lateral periodontal cyst.
Myxoma & hemangioma.
Which virus is present in the patient's mouth all his Life?
Herpes Simplex
Herpes zoster
Varecilla Virus
None of the above ***
HSV1 :
Infection is more dangerous in children than adult because:
Marrow spaces are wide ***
Affect growth centre.
Hypo calcification in enamel.
The Common disease affecting the submandibular salivary gland is:
Salivary calculi ***
Pleomorphic adenomas.
Viral sialoadenitis.
Infected sialoadenitis.
Ranula Can be treated by:
- Excision.
Cauterization.
Incision.
Marsupialization. ***
Treatment of ranulas could involve either marsupialization or more often excision of

both the gland and lesion. Ranulas are likely to recur if the sublingual gland or other gland
causing them is not also removed with the lesion. There is little morbidity or mortality
connected with treatment.
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation,3rd edition, Page 222

"Marsupialization can be performed before a definitive excision"
And
Contemporary oral and maxillofacial surgery, peterson, 4th edition, Page 447
The usual treatment of ranula is marsupialization.

The preferred tx for recurrent or persistent ranula is excision of the ranula and sublingual gland.
For the ceramometal restorations,the type of finish line is:
Chamfer ***
Beveled shoulder
deep chamfer is the answer
Benefits of opaque porcelain layer:
Bonding the metal structure.
Initiating the color.
A & b. ***

In terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective method is:
Community based programs.
Private based programs
) Individually based programs. *** (
the community based program is more accurate coz it is cost effective
60
One-to-one in the clinical environment. This is usually the most successful approach, because the message
can be tailored to the individual and reinforcement is facilitated. However, it is expensive in terms of
manpower.
Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:
Proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures.
Associated pathology.
Epidemiology can be defined as:
A study of special areas of the skin.
The study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man. ***
Study of biological animals.
Study of disease in research laboratory.
Most common Benign Tumer in oral cavity is:
Fibroma (Ameloblastic fibroma). ***
Which of the following spaces are bilaterally involved in Ludwig's angina?
Submandibular + masticatory spaces
Sublingual+Lat.Pha.space
Submandibular+sublingual+submental. ***

When you do amalgam finishing.....
Immediately.
24 hours later. ***
When polishing amalgam rest .....
Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
Wait for 24 hours
A & b. ***
A only
B only
The roof of mandibular fossa consist of:
Thin compact bone. ***
Spongy bone.
Cancellous bone.
Neoplasm that spread by Lymphatic from the angle of the mouth reach the:
Preauricular Lymph nodes.
Mental Lymph nodes.***
Submandibular Lymph nodes. ***
Pterygoid plexus.
-Jugulo-digastric nodes.
Both answers are true
I am not sure from the answer Aplastic anemia is caused by:
Tetracycline.
Penicillin.
Erythromycin.
Sulfonamide. ***
In many cases, the etiology is considered to be idiopathic (cannot be determined), but one known cause is an
autoimmune disorder in which white blood cells attack the bone marrow.

Aplastic anemia is also sometimes associated with exposure to toxins such as benzene, or with the use of certain
drugs, including chloramphenicol, carbamazepine, felbamate, phenytoin, quinine, and phenylbutazone. Many drugs
are associated with aplasia mainly according to case reports but at a very low probability. As an example,
chloramphenicol treatment is followed by aplasia in less than 1 in 40,000 treatment courses, and carbamazepine
aplasia is even more rare.
Exposure to ionizing radiation from radioactive materials or radiation-producing devices is also associated with the
development of aplastic anemia.
Aplastic anemia is present in up to 2% of patients with acute viral hepatiti
In some animals aplastic anemia may have other causes. For example, in the ferret (Mustela putorius furo) aplastic
anemia is caused by estrogen toxicity. This is because female ferrets are induced ovulators, so mating is required to
bring the female out of heat. Intact females, if not mated, will remain in heat, and after some time the high levels of
estrogen will cause the bone marrow to stop producing red blood cells.
Also: chloramphenicol, phenylbutazone [Butazolidin], and such anticonvulsant agents as mephenytoin.
What is the amount in mg in 1.8 ml of xylocain
20 mg/ml
1.8 mg/ml
3.6 mg. ***
Dental decks
1.8 3.6 2%
0.018 100000
The scientific evidence in dictating that oral Lichen planus is a "premalignant Lesion"
is:
Very strong
Non-existent
Moderately strong
Weak. ***
Odontogenic infection can cause least complication:
Pulmonary abscess.
Peritonitis.

Prosthetic valve infection.
*** Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
Dental Secrets page 260
What are the significant complications of untreated Odontogenic infection?
Tooth loss Spread to the cavernous sinus and brain Spread to the neck with large vein complications
Spread to potential fascial spaces with compromise of the airway
Septic shock
Cavernous sinus thrombosis not manifested as:

infra orbital syndrome.
Syncope due to atrial obliteration.
eye exophthalmos.
Dental Secrets page 263
Cavernous sinus thrombosis:
Patients present with proptosis, orbital swelling, neurologic signs, and fever.
In class 3 jaw relation in edentulous Pt:
It will effect size of maxillary teeth.
Affect retention of lower denture.
====== esthetic and arrangement of maxillary denture.
Endomethasone is a root canal sealer that:
Dissolve in fluid so it weaken the root canal filling.
Very toxic contain formaldehyde.
Contain corticosteroids.
All the above. ***
Cause that master G.P not reach working length although it is the same size of last
file:
Dentin debris.
Ledge formation.
A & b. ***
None of the above
Small access opening in upper centeral incisor lead to:
Complete removal of the pulp.
Incomplete removal of the pulp. ***
Conservative restoration.
In sickle cell anemia O2 decreased in oral mucosa:
True. ***
False
Selection of shade for composite is done:
Under light.
After drying tooth & isolation with rubber dam.
None of the above. ***
Blood supply of the palate is from:
Greater palatine artery. ***
Lesser palatine artery. ***
Facial artery. ***
Long sphenopalatine artery. ***
Anatomising braches from all of the above EXCEPT c
We distinguish between periapical and periodontal abscess:
X-ray examination
Clinical examination
Vitality of the pulp. ***

How can you prevent dental hyper sensitivity:
Restoration by adhesion. ***
Controlled by alcohol
Put sedative medication
A U- shaped radiopaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is:
The zygomatic process. ***
Maxillary sinus wall
"Dental Radiographic Diagnosis by Dr. Thunthy - page 44"
And
Dental Decks page 150
Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is related to paralysis of:
Lingual nerve. ***
Hypoglossal nerve.
Chorda tympani nerve.
( ) ( )
.
The choice of local anesthesia depend on:
Diameter of the nerve
Structure of the bone
Number of branches
Type of L.A agent chemistry. ***
Choice of local anesthesia technique influenced by:

a) Chemical composition of anesthesia.
B) The location of the nerve.
C) Bone structure. ***

compact cancellous
When you give inferior dental block for pedo Pt the angulations for the needle
7 mm below the occlusal plane.
5 mm below the occlusal plane. ***
7 mm above the occlusal plane.
At the occlusal plane.*** This answer according to the internet
4.16 9 3 4.12
.
. 3
The cell primary site of ATP production is:
Mitochondria. ***
Lysosomes.
Nucleus.
Nucleolus.
Vacuoles.
The organelle most closely associated with the manufacture of proteins within the
cell:
Ribosome. ***
Lysosome.
Nucleolus.
Cell wall.
Cell membrane.
The packing and sorting of protein is the function of:
Endoplasmic reticulum.
Golgi apparatus ***

Mitochondria
Nucleus
The process of attraction of neutrophils to a site of Local tissue injury is called:
Phagocytosis.
Diapedesis.
Chemotaxis. ***
Epistaxis.
Action of Histamine:
Vasodilatation.
Permeability.
Chemokinesis.
Broncho.
ALL OF THE ABOVE
Cholesterol crystals are found in:
Keratocyst. ***
Periodontal cyst
http://ses.library.usyd.edu.au/bitst...z%20Iqubal.pdf
Cholesterol crystals are found in many odontogenic cysts including radicular
cysts, dentigerous cysts, and odontogenic keratocysts.
The process of cell engulfing particle is called:
Endocytosis.
Exocytosis.
Phagocytosis. ***
Pinocytosis.
The Most common odontogenic cysts in the jaws are:
Radicular cyst. ***

Keratocyst.
Most commonly dentigerous cysts are associated with:
Unerupted permanent maxillary canines
Unerupted mandibular third molars. ***
Histopathologically, dentigerous cyst Lining epithelium may be:
Cuboidal in type.
Stratified squamous in type. ***
Reduced enamel epithelium.
All of the above.
Thyroglossal duct cysts:
Are only found in the posterior tongue.
Clinically present in the Lateral neck tissue.
May be found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyroglossal duct.
***
Are sometimes called Lympho-epithelial cysts.
Unilateral swelling + slowly progressing Lesion on the Left side of the mandible. This
could be:
Osteoma.
Cementoblastoma.
Ossifying Fibroma. ***
Osteo-sarcom.

Toothgerm of primary teeth arise from:
Dental lamina. ***
Dental follicle.
Enamel organ.
Epithelial cell of malassez.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dental_lamina
The dental lamina is a band of epithelial tissue seen in histologic sections of a developing tooth. The dental
lamina is first evidence of tooth development and begins at the sixth week in utero or three weeks after
the rupture of the buccopharyngeal membrane.
Apical periodontal cyst arise from:
Hertwig sheath.
Epithelial cell rest of malassez. ***
Ref: Apical periodontal cyst= periapical cyst = radicular cyst: these inflammatory cysts derive their
epithelial lining from the proliferation of small odontogenic epithelial residues (rests of Malassez) within
the PDL
Formation of periodontal cyst due to:
Nasolacrimal cyst.
Hertiwigs.
Epithelial rest of malassaz. ***
Peals of serres.
Oral Pathology - 4th Ed. (2005) J. V. Soames Professor of Oral Pathology University of Newcastle upon
Tyne UK
And
J. C. Southam Emeritus Professor of Oral Medicine and Oral Pathology University of Edinburgh UK
http://obm.quintessenz.de/index.php?doc=html&abstractID=9558
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epithelial_cell_rests_of_Malassez
In dentistry, the epithelial cell rests of Malassez or epithelial rests of Malassez (frequently abbreviated
as ERM) are part of the periodontal ligament cells around a tooth. They are discrete clusters of residual
cells from Hertwig's epithelial root sheath (HERS) that didn't completely disappear. It is considered that
these cell rests proliferate to form epithelial lining of variousodontogenic cysts such as radicular cyst under
the influence of various stimuli. They are named after Louis-Charles Malassez (18421909) who described
them. Some rests become calcified in the periodontal ligament(cementicles)
Which is the most Likely cause of periodontal cyst?
Cell Rest of Malassez. ***
Cell rest of serss.
Cell of Hertwig sheath.
19. What is the difference between a lateral radicular cyst and a lateral
periodontal cyst?
A lateral radicular cyst is an inflammatory cyst in which the epithelium is
derived from rests of Malassez (like a periapical or apical radicular cyst). It is-in a
lateral rather than an apical location because the inflammatory stimulus is
emanating from a lateral canal. The associated tooth is always nonvital. The
lateral periondontal cyst is a developmental cyst in which the epithelium
probably is derived from rests of dental lamina. It is usually located between the
mandibular premolars, which are vital.
2. The roof of mandibular fossa consist of:

a. Thin compact bone. ***
b. Spongy bone.
c. Cancellous.
3. Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa:

a. Always originates within the surface epithelium.

b. Mostly originates within the surface epithelium.
c. Always originates from nevus cells in the connective tissue. ***
d. Always originates from Langerhans cells within epithelium.
4. Histopathologically adenoid cystic carcinoma in characterized by islands of:

a. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that are intermingled with areas of pseudocartilage.

b. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese" appearance. ***
c. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese" appearance and evidence of serous acini.

d. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that contain mucin and normal acini.
classic cribriform type consisting of pseudocystics, that divide the lobule in numerous cylinders giving it the
appearance of Swiss cheese or honeycomb
5. The risk of malignant change being present in epithelium is greatest in:

a. Homogenous Leukoplakia
b. Erythroplakia. ***
c. Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis
d. Speckled Leukoplakia
Erythroplakia.The lesion is a precancer, i.e. it carries a higher than normal risk of malignant transformation
6. The term acanthosis refers to:

a. A decreased production of keratin
b. An increased production of keratin
c. An increased thickness of the prickle cell zone (stratum spinosum). ***
[1]
Acanthosis is diffuse epidermal hyperplasia. Acanthosis implies increased thickness of stratum spinosum
7. The most common malignant tumors of the minor salivary glands are:
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma
c. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma. ***
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous Low grade adenocarcinoma
Pleomorphic adenomas (benign mixed tumors) are the most common benign SGTs, comprising 85% of all .e
salivary gland neoplasms.
adenoid cystic carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of all minor salivary glands
8. Currently the only effective preventive measure for periodontal disesse (apart from limited use of
antiseptic solutions) is:
a. Regular and rough removal of dental plaque. ***
b. Salt flouridation
c. Dental health education. ***
9. Dental caries:
a. Is a transmissible disease
b. Is world wide in distribution but uneven in intensity.
c. Can be prevented
e. None of the above
10. At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals is lowest:

a. Prismless enamel.
b. DEJ. ***
c. Center of enamel Prisms.
d. Edge of enamel Prisms.
e. Facial enamel.
11. Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through:

a. Foramen rotundum. ) (
b. Foramen ovale. *** ) (
c. Superior orbital fissure.
d. Inferior orbital fissure.
e. Jugular foramen.
The ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular branches leave the skull through three separate foramina: the superior orbital fissure,
the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale. The mnemonic standing room only can be used to remember that V1 passes
through the superior orbital fissure, V2 through the foramen rotundum, and V3 through the foramen ovale
12. Foramen oval is in the following bone:

a. ??????
b. Temporal.
c. Occipital.
d. Sphenoid. ***
The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum
13. The following structures open into the middle meatus:

a. Nasolacrimal duct.
b. Posterior ethmoidal sinus.
c. Maxillary sinus.
d. Sphenoid sinus.
e. Anterior ethmoidal sinus.
f. A, b & d.
g. A & b.
h. C & e. ***
i. All of the above
. :
. :
. :
. :

14. Ligaments associated with TMJ:
a. Tempromandibular.
b. Sphenomandibular.
c. Stylomandibular.
Ref *:
The lateral temporamandibular ligament: limits the movement of the mandible in a posterior direction.
The sphenomandibular ligament lies on the medial side of the joint.
The stylomandibular ligament lies behind and medial to the joint.
) (
.
15. Location to give inferior alveolar nerve block the landmarks are:
1/ pterygomandibular raphe
2/ cronoid notch
3/ all of the above. ***
16. The optic foramen canal is a part of:

A)Frontal bone
B)Sphenoid bone. ***
C)Esthmoid bone
The optic foramen is the opening to the optic canal.
The superior surface of the sphenoid bone
17. Optic nerve coming from which bone:

- sphenoid bone
- zygomatic
- palatal
18. Which most common salivary gland neoplasm:

Pleomorphic adenoma.
19. The following cavity bases are moisture sensitive:

a. Polycarboxylate
b. Zinc phosphate
c. GI cem. ***
d. ZOE
e. A, c.
Table. Materials used for liners, bases, and cements

Liner Base Cement Advantages Limitations
Varnish X low cost, washes out
long history at margins
of use
Calcium X X low cost, most
Hydroxide (temporary) long history effective
of use when in
contact with
pulp
Zinc Oxide X X X antibacterial, unable to
Eugenol long history, withstand
sealing condensation
ability forces
Zinc X X long history low pH
Oxyphosphate
Zinc X X long history thickness
Polycarboxylate may inhibit
seating of
casting
Glass Ionomer X X X fluoride moisture
release sensitive
Resin X X adhesive moisture,
strength technique
sensitive
20. Which of the following types of base materials can be placed in contact with polymethyl methaacrylate &
not inhibit the polymerization of the resin:
a. ZOE
b. GI cement
c. Zn phosphate cement
d. Varnish
e. B, c. ***
21. Cement which contains fluoride:

a. GI. ***
b. ZOE.
c. Reinforced ZOE.
d. Polycarboxylate cement.
22. the type of cement wich give retention to crown

a-zn phosphate
b-zn polycarpoxylate
c-resin
d-resin modified glass ionomer

this is the link to understand better the properties of cements
http://docs.google.com/viewer?a=v&q=cache:7ZZbodpOS9gJ:funktionalconsulting.com/export.action%3Fl
ocation%3D78+best+retentive+cements&hl=en&pid=bl&srcid=ADGEESjDU9CrnG4qyeP1iz-
DIm3OpEjkER3PlE2gYTYo78_idumZP_jsMKwyyunpYCBg9yZjan_J3KuAB4Ee31eASFijWhmLylXK8TfxmIHKJH3
mTMUMXeW6vr2NLm7ZLEQmv7O51gXf&sig=AHIEtbQgxcg38oCPPirGJLSkccbxleycSw
23. In the preparation of cavity class II, for restoration with composite resin all cavosurface angles should be
a. Well rounded. ***
b. Right angles.
c. Acute angles.
d. Obtuse angles.
24. The most desirable finished surface composite resin can be provided by:
a. White stones.
b. Hand instrument.
c. Carbid finishing burs.
d. Diamond finish burs.
e. Celluloid matrix band. ***
The answer is wrong and the best answer I found was this
the most desirable finish surface for a composite resin can be provided by aluminum oxide disks
7-The best finished composite surface is achieved by:
1. 12 fluted bur. ***

2. Diamond bur.
3. Matrix band with no additional finish.
25. A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a:

a. No. 330 Tungsten carbide bur.
b. Mounted stone.
c. 12- fluted carbide bur. ***
d. Coarse diamond point (stone).
Best finishing of composite done by:
1. Carbide bur.
2. Diamond bur.
3. Mounted stone.
4. Best retained under matrix band.
8- In class 5 composite restorations a layer of bonding agent is applied:
1. Following removal of cement then cured. ***

2. Following removal of cement and not cured.
3. Cured then remove cement.
26. After class V GI restoration removal of a thin flush of GI is done by:
a. Scaller or knife immediately.
b. Finishing stone immediately.
c. Scale or knife later.
d. Finishing stone later.
e. A+B.
f. A+D. ***
27. After finish class v glass ionomer cement we do finishing with:

1. Pumice slurry.
2. Aluminum-oxide disc.
"Art & Science of Operative Dentistry"

Micron finishing diamonds used with a petroleum lubricant to prevent desiccation are ideal for contouring
and finishing conventional glass ionomers.
Also, flexible abrasive discs used with a lubricant can be very effective. A fine grit aluminum oxide polishing
paste applied with a prophy cup is used to impart a smooth surface.
28. Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages over the direct composite EXCEPT:
a. Efficient polymerization.
b. Good contact proximally.
c. Gingival seal.
d. Good retention. ***
OR:
Indirect composite inlay over come the direct composite by
1/ insusffition polymerization
2/good contact proximaly
3/ gingival seal
4/ good retention
1/ 1-2-4
2/ 1-2-3. ***
3/ 4-3
29. Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration should be due to:

a. No enough bulk of dentine.
b. Corrosion.
c. Over carving.
d. Improper manipulation of amalgam.
e. A and b.
f. C and d.
g. All the above. ***
h. B, c and d.
Amalgams that are corroded or have inadequate bulk to distribute stresses may fracture. At margins,
where amalgams are thinner, extrusion may have occurred, and corrosion may have compromised the
integrity of the amalgam, fracture is even more likely.
30. Marginal deterioration of Ag restoration may be due to:

a. No enough bulk.
b. No dentin ( undermined enamel).
c. Corrosion over carving.
d. Improper manipulation of Ag.
e. B, c, d.
f. All of above. ***
( ) 77
.
. ( )
These objectives help to conserve the dentinal support and strength of the tooth, and they aid in
establishing an enamel cavosurface angle as close as possible to 90 degrees . They also help to minimize
marginal deterioration of the restoration by locating the margins away from enamel eminencies where
occlusal forces may be concentrated.
31. A restoration of anterior teeth with RCT, abraded incisal edge & small M&D caries is by:
a. Ceramometal crown. ***
b. Composite laminated.
c. Veneer.
32. The powder for GI cement contain:

a. Sio2, Al2o3, caf. ***
b. Sio2,zno, barium sulphate
GIC Powder: Silica 41.9% - Alumina 28.6% - Calcium Fluoride 15.7% - Sodium Fluoride 9.3% - Aluminium
Phosphate 3.8% - Aluminium Fluoride 1.6%
33. The body secret antibody against antigen using which cells:
a. T lymphocyte
b. B lymphocyte
34. In diabetic patient, periodontium affected by which cells:

a. Neutrophil. *** pmns
b. Macrophages
35. When take an x-ray to pregnant lady, we use all of this method EXCEPT:
a. Digital x-ray.
b. High sensitive film.
c. Paralleling tech (Long cone) 16 inch.
d. Bisecting algle (short cone) 8 inch. ***
e. Lead apron with thyroid collar.
Dental decks page 4

the 8 inch technique exposes more tissue by producing divergent beam.
:
:
.
36. When take x-ray we should stand:

a. 6 feet away in 90-135 angle.
37. Proximal caries should be opened when:

a. Confined within enamel.
b. Pass DE junction. ***
c. Dentin laterally
d. All of the above
"Sturdevant's Art & Science of Operative Dentistry"

38. In a study, it should???

a. Protect you against role of the statistician
b. Protect you against legal risks
c. Protect against physical risks
39. Ethics of the study include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Privacy of all subjects.
b. Informed consent may be required or not.
c. Object if the subject refuse to take part of the study.
40. Clinical research:

a. No different between blind & double blind.
b. If there's need of intervention.
41. Cause of angular cheilitis:

a. Loss vertical dimension Pt have complete denture. ***
b. Autoimmune factors.
"Dental secrets"
"Atlas Of Oral Medicine"

.
" "
) (
42. Ugly duckling stage:

a. 9-11 years old.
b. 13-15 years old.
c. 7-9 years old.
.
25-Eruption of primary dentition starts from:
1. 6-7 months.***
2. 1 year.
3. 9 months.
43. Component of Gutta percha:

a. 50% Gp & 50% ZOE
b. 20% Gp & 70% ZOE. ***
Elsevier: Article Locator + Endodontics :
inorganic )Gutta percha & barium sulfate( %05
organic (gutta percha) %23
transpolyisoprene
44. All are irrigation for canals EXCEPT:

a. Saline.
b. Hydrogen beroxide.
c. Naocl
d. RC prep
EDTA
45. For post preparation we should leave mm of GP:

a. ????
b. 10mm
c. 5mm. ***
:
Http: //www.experts123.com/q/how-much...placement.html
Post and core - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
46. Most common bacteria causing caries:

Streptococcal mutans. ***
47. Proximal caries confined to enamel:

a. Prevention. ***
b. Observation
c. Restore with G I
48. In community diagnosis and treatment program:

a. Water flouridation
b. ?? Diagnose, prevent, treat.
c. ??????
49. Pass throw parotid gland:

a. Facial nerve. ***
b. Facial arteries.
c. External carotid veins.
Structures which pass through the parotid gland:
The facial nerve and its branches run through the gland superficial to the retromandibular vein
The external carotid artery, which gives off its two terminal branches, the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal
artery, inside the gland
The retromandibular vein
50. Porcelain shrinkage after firing:

a. 1-5%
b. 5-10%
c. 10-20%
At a firing temperature of 1400 C, they shrink by 16 percent
%47 37 083

51. The cement under MOD amalgam have this character:
a. High modulus of elasticity(stiff)***
b. Low modulus of elasticity ( stiffness)
c. The high modulus of elasticity prevent of bonding and decrease tensile strength.

d. Both a &c
053
Flexibility Stiffness
Page 479"Sturdevant's Art & Science of Operative Dentistry"
52. Examination of Pt health by the dentist:

a. To know the patients health.
b. To know what medications to give.
c. To know general health data.
53. 2 statement true or false:

a. RCT abutment of FPD has higher risk for fracture.
b. Abutment which has RCT in cantilever FPD have higher susceptibility to fracture.

c. 1st is true,2nd is false
d. 1st is false,2nd is true.
e. Both are false
f. Both are true. ***
54. Both glass ionomer & polycarpoxylate cement contain:

a. Polyacrylic acid. ***
b. ZOE powder.
55. Most frequent cause of fainting in dental office:

a. Vaso-vagal shock. ***
b. Diabetes.
c. Fear.
vaso-vagal syncope -
"dental decks 1909"
56. Loss of consciousness most frequent cause:

a. Syncope.
b. CO2 ...
syncope" "The most common cause of loss of consciousness in the dental office is

57. Most common cyst oral cavity:
a. Radicular cyst.
b. Peridontal cyst.

( . )
( . )
http: //www.lsusd.lsuhsc.edu/faculty/...the%20Jaws.pdf :2
58. Osteomyelitis most in:

a. Maxilla
*** b. Mandible.

59. Factors delay healing of wound:

a. Infection.
b. Torn wound edges.
c. Strain.
d. *** All of the above.
60. Factor interfere with healing:

a. Poor suturing
b. Infection

61. Dry socket happen after:

a. 24 h
b. *** 3-5days.
c. 1week
d. 2weeks
( Whitehead Varnish )Pigmentum Iodoform Compositum) (B.P.C
.
62. Compared to herpetic ulcers...aphthous ulcers are:

a. Small size.
*** b. In mucosa lining.
c. Leave scars.

.
63. Avulsion more important factor that affect reimplantation:

a. Contaminated roots.

b. Time since the avulsion.
Dental secrets
64. Nicotine stomatitis:

a. Palate.hyper??
b. Hyperplasia -
c. Prickle cell like shape prominent base***
Dental decks 2004
65. Dentinogenisis imperfecta have all EXCEPT:

a. Broken enamel.
b. Blue sclera.
c. Broken bone.
d. Supernumerary teeth. ***
Symptoms of Dentinogenesis imperfecta, type I

The list of signs and symptoms mentioned in various sources for Dentinogenesis imperfecta, type I includes
the 14 symptoms listed below:
Bluish-gray teeth - Amber-colored teeth - Bulbous teeth crowns
Absent tooth roots canals - pulp chambers
Too small tooth roots - canals - pulp chambers
Enamel separation from the ivory (dentin)
Misaligned teeth - Recurring dental abscess - Brittle bones - Blue sclera
66. Generalized gray discoloration in a 28 years old patients teeth, with blue sclera and an enlarged pulp
chambers and short roots, and multiple fractures in Enamel the diagnosis is :
A) Dentinogenesis Imperfecta. ***
B) Amelogenesis Imperfecta
67. X- ray show large pulp chamber, thin dentine layer and enamel:
a- Dentogerous imperfect. ***
b- Dentine dysplasia.
68. 30years old pt came to the clinic with brownish discoloration of all his teeth (intrinsic discoloration) &
yellowish in U/V light the most likely cause is:
1/ flourosis
2/ tetracycline. ***
3/ amelogensis imperfecta
4/ dentogensis imperfectea
69. Most sign of fracture of mandible:

a. Nose bleeding.
b. Malocclusion. ***
c. Parasthesia.
.
mcqs In Dentistry
70. Hairy tongue is elongation of:

a. Fungiform papillae.
b. Filiform papillae. ***
a commonly observed condition of defective desquamation of the filiform papillae
71. What supply the gingival buccal tissue of premolars, canines and incisors:
a. Long buccal.
b. Inferior alveolar nerve. ***
c. Superior alveolar nerve.
Mental nerve(branch of inferior alveolar) supply buccal gingivae of the mandibular anterior teeth and the premolars.
72. Drainage of tip of the tongue:

a. Submandibular lymph nodes
b. Submental***
Drainage of tongue: -
Deep cervical nodes: drains median part of anterior two-thirds;

Retropharyngeal - drains posterior third;
submandibular: - drains lateral part of anterior two-thirds;
submental - drains tip of tongue (through tongue muscles and mylohyoid).
73. Cementum in cervical 2/3 have:

a. Acellular intrinsic fiber. ( in coronal cementum)
b. Acellular extrinsic fiber. ***
c. Cellular mixed fibers( apical area)
d. Intermediate cementum ( near CEJ)
74. Pins are insert into:

a. Enamel.
b. Dentin. ***
c. DEJ.
d. All.
Should be atleast 2mm depth in dentin, 0,5mm fron DEJ, 2mm thickness of amalgam above it
75. After etch enamel and bond it with 5th generation the strength of?
a. 5-10Mp.
b. 25Mp.
c. 30Mp.
d. 100Mp.
76. LA in mg if epinephrine 1: 100 000 in 2% xylocaine:

a. Mg
b. 1.8 mg
c. 36mg
2%( 20 mg\ml * 1,8 ml = 36 mg
77. Composite restoration that was matching in shade, after one week it became much light... The
reason could be:
a. light started photoinitation.
b. Absorption water.
c. Shade selected after rubber dam. *** ?????????
78. Disadvantage of digital x-ray EXCEPT:

a. Large disk space Storage
b. Clarity and resolution. ***
c. Expensive
79. Treatment of fungal infections:

a. Penicillin
b. Tetracyclin
c. Nystatin. ***
80. Properties of ideal endo obturation material are all EXCEPT:

a. Biocompatible.
b. Radiolucent. ***
81. Most difficult of extract:

a. Mand. 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots
b. Mand 3rd molar with distoangular angulation with divergent curve roots ***
82. Pt have hyperventilation in clinic. Most cause:

a. Reduced of CO2
b. Increase CO2
c. Anxiety. ***
83. Very important part in endo treatment:

a. Complete debridement of the canal
84. Perio endo lesion the primary treatment:

a. Endo treatment. ***
b. Deep scaling and root planning.
85. Provisional luting cement:

a. Prevent restoration from dislodgement. ***
b. Sealing
c.
86. Contraindication to extraction:
a. Cardiac pt.
b. Previous recent radio therapy. ***
Also, coagulopathy; uncontrolled diabetic; hematologic malignancy; leukemia; uncontrolled cardiac disease
87. Base of the flap should be wide for:

a. Healing
b. Better blood supply to the wound.
88. Supra calculus all true EXCEPT:

a. Hard and rough ***
b. Easy to detach
c. Has component of salivaqwsAS
Supra>>>> less harder, clay in nature, white or yellowish in colore its component mostly from slaiva
Sup>>>> hard, dark in color(green on black), most of its component from cervical fluid, difficult to detect.
89. Thickness of luting cement: ??

a. 100 micrometer
b. 40micro meter
c. 1mm
Best thickness 15-25 micro meter
90. Formacresol used in:

a. Full concentration
b. 5th concentration
c. One fifth concentration. ***
91. Zinc phosphate cement:
a. Mechanical attachment ***
b. Chemical
92. Traditional Glass ionomer:

a. Mechanical bonding.
b. Acid-base reaction ***
c. -Mechanical chemical bonding.
93. Pontic design of an FPD:

a. Same size buccolingually of the missing tooth
b. Smaller than missing buccolingually. ***
c. Wider buccolingually

94. Maryland bridge:
a. Use with young.
b. To replace single missing tooth. ***
95. False negative response of an electric pulp test given:

a. After trauma
b. Periodontal disease
c. In teenager.
False negative result>>>> patient pre-medicated with analgesic, recent truma, calcification, premature apex
96. Young with open apex examination test:

a. Reliable.
b. Non reliable.
97. Primary teeth had trauma, tooth change in color become white yellowish ,what should you tell the
parents:
a. Pulp is dead
b. Inflammation of pulp.
c. Calcification of dentin.
d. B& c. ***
98. Best media for the avulsed tooth:
e. Tap water.
f. HBSS (Hank's balanced salt solution). ***
g. Saliva.
h. Milk.
Best media in order>>> HBSS>> Saliva>>>milk>>>>saline>>>>water
99. In enamel caries passing half of enamel:

a. Leave it.
i. Restoration. ***???????????
If there is no cavitations, the best preventive measurement.
100. Biological depth:

j. Crestal bone to gingival sulcus
Its physiologic dimension of epithelium and connective tissue attachment(sulcus + epithelium+ connective tissue) = 2,04
Rigid palatal strap major connector. The material of construction is

.co-cr
Gold ti
.gold ..
.wrought wire
the use of low speed hand piece in removal of soft caries in children is better than high speed because
.less vibration

.less pulp exposure
.better than high speed
Progression of initial caries to cavitations takes 18 month this based on

.strepto.mutans initiate caries
.lactobacillia progress caries
Post length increasing will

.increase retention. ***
.increase resistant
.increase strength of restoration
The vertical fracture of the tooth detected by

.periodontal pocket. ***
.radiographically
.vertical percussion
Principle of elevator use of all the following EXCEPT
1) wheel and axle.

2) widening the socket wall ***
3) wedging
4)lever
To kill HIV use all of the following EXCEPT

.naocl
.ultraviolet chamber. ***?????????
.autoclave
.chimoclave
Patient with amalgam usually complain of pain with

.cold. ***
.galvanic
. Hot
Q- Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radioopaque areas in the canine premolar area region of
the mandible is
a) Hematoma
b) Remaining roots
c) Torus mandibularis ***
d) Internal oblique ridge
e) Genial tubercle
Bronchial asthma epinepherane concentration sub cautiously

.1/1000***
Pain of short duration with hot and cold

.dentin sensitivity. ***
.irriversible pulpitis.
.chronic pulpitis
.apical periodontitis
-shade guide:
Under light
Dry tooth
None of above. ***????????????
When do we do incision and drainage?

A. Indurated diffuse swelling.
b. Sinus tract
c. Chronic apical periodontitis
d.Acute apical periodontitis****
2. Pregnant lady needs oral surgery:

a. Needs prophylactic antibiotic.
B. Needs under GA
c. Needs steroid cover
3. When do we give antibiotic:

a. Widespread, rapid infection
b. Compromised host defence
c. .
D. A&b***
4. Communities with high annual population growth need education about:
a. Caries****
b. Perio disease
c. Dentofacial anomalies
d. Dental fluorosis
6. Hairy tongue elongation of:
a. Filliform****
b. Fungiform
c. Circumvalate
d. Foliate
7. Syphilis first appear as:

a. Multiple vesicles
b. Eryhthematous reaction
c. Ulcer***
d. Bulla
12. Odontogenic tumors:
a. Arise from dental tissue
b. Can turn malignant but rarely
c. Have specific radiographic features
d.
.
13. Radiographic evaluation in extraction EXCEPT:

a. Relationship of associated vital structures.
B. Root configuration and surrounding bone condition.
C. Access to the tooth, crown condition and tooth mobility.
D. All of the above
e. A & B
14. Tooth requires RCT with bone resorption. Terminate RCT at:
a. Radiographic apex
b. 0.5-1 mm short of radiographic apex.
c. 0.5-1 mm beyond radiographic apex
d.
15. Composite resto followup after 2 years showed stained margin:

a. Stress from polymerization shrinkage***(which may lead to leakage)
b. Hydrolic destruction on bond
c.
....
Marginal Leakage or micro leakage****
16. Muscle that form floor of the mouth:

a. Mylohyoid. ***
b.
18. Organism that initiates caries:

a. S. Mutants. ***
b.
c.
20. Incipient caries
a. Surface zone is relatively unaffected. ***
b. The surface zone is the largest portion with the highest pore volume
c. Tooth preparation and composite is the best treatment.
D. Pulpal reaction is not possible.
E. Caries progress in enamel faster than dentin.
21. Important factor in long term success of perio treatment:

a. Skill of the operator
b. Perio maintenance
c.

22. Which causes gingival enlargement:
a.
b. Cyclosporines
Also calcium channel blocker, oral contraceptive, phenytoin
23. Pedo use rubber dam for

a. Improve visibility and access
b. Lowers risk of swallowing
c. Sterile field
d. A & b. ***
24. Digital radiography is a technique that shows transition from white to black. Its main advantage is the
ability to manipulate the image by computer
a. 1st T, 2nd F??????????
b. 1st F, 2nd T
c. Both T
d. Both F
26. Root most commonly pushed in max sinus

a. Buccal of 7
b. Palatal of 6 ***
c. Palatal of 7
d. Buccal of 6
e. Distal of 6 & 7
27. Cementum is formed from

a. Cementoblasts ***
b. Fibroblasts
c. Cementicles
d. ..
28. Teeth have convexity in buccal and lingual
a. Upper premolars. ***????????
b. ..
29. Body defends itself by antibodies from

a. B lymphocytes ***
b. T lymphocytes
30. Hyperventilation in dental office:

a. Anxiety ***
b. Low CO2
c. High CO2
31. Osteomyelitis more common

a. Maxilla

b. Mandible ***
c. Zygoma
d. Nasal septum
e. Condyle
32. Avulsed teeth stored in

a. Milk ***
b. Water
c.
33. The depth of cavity prep for composite in posterior:

a. Limited to enamel
b. 0.5 mm in dentin
c. Depends on caries extension ***
d. Depends on tooth discoloration
e. 0.2 mm in dentin
34. Fluoride reduces caries activity by:

a. Reduces bacterial adhesion and carbohydrate storage (antimicrobial activity).
b. Enhances the precipitation of insoluble fluoroapitite into the tooth structure.
c. Fluoride enhances remineralization of the noncavitated carious lesions.

E. B & C. ***
36. Factors that make impaction surgery more difficult:

a. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical roots.
B. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and curved roots.
C. Distoangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical rooths
d. Distoangular position, thin follicle, narrow periodontal ligament and divergent curved roots.
E. Soft tissue impaction, separated from second molar and inferior alveolar nerve.
38. Which scalpel below is universally used for oral surgical procedures?
A. Number 2 blade.
B. Number 6 blade.
C. Number 10 blade.
D. Number 12 blade.
E. Number 15 blade. ***
39. Moon face appearance is not present in: ????????

a. Le fort I.
B. Le fort II.
C. Le fort III
d. Zygomatic complex. ***??????
e. Le fort II and Le fort III.
40. Main disadvantage of chlorhexidine:

a. Staining
b. Burning sensation
c. Altered taste
41. The radiograph shows condylar head orientation and facial symmetry
a. Submentovertex
b. Reverse town ***
c. Opg
d. Transorbital.
42. The imaging showing disk position and morphology and TMJ bone:
a. MRI. ***
b. CT
c. ARTHROGRAPHY
d. Plain radiograph
e. Plain tomography
1-what kinds of radiographs which we do not use for TMJ movements?

A- transcranial
b-computerized t
c-conventional t
d-arthrography
200) To check TMJ range of movement:

a) cranial imagery
B) arthrography **
c) traditional tomography
d) computerized tomograph
.
617. To check a perforation in the desk of the tmj we need:
A) cranial imagery
B) arthrography. *** (CT after injection of a high contrast fluid)
C) traditional tomography
D) computerized tomography. ***
44. Zinc phosphate cement and polycarboxylic cement both have

a. Zinc oxide particles. ***
b. Silica quartz particles
c. Polyarcyilic acid
d. Phosphoric acid
%07 %77
46. Epithelial cells

a. Rest of malassez decrease with age. ***
b. Rest of malassez increase with age

c. Hertwig sheath entirely disappear after dentinogenesis
d. Epithelial remnants could proliferate to periapical granuloma
47. Enamel
a. Repair by ameloblasts
b. Permeability reduce with age
c. Permeability increase with age
d. Permeable to some ions
49. Pedo, has trauma in 11 , half an hour ago , with slight apical exposure , open apex, treatment is
a. Pulpotomy with formacresol
b. Apexification
c. DPC (direct pulp capping)
d. Extraction
50. Which intracanal medicament causes protein coagulation:

a. Formocresol. ***
b. Naocl
c. Wad....
D. Hydrogen peroxide
52. GIC compared to composite:

a. Increase linear coefficient of Thermal Expansion
B. More wear resistant

c. Less soluble
d. Stiff
e. Polymerization shrinkage ***
( ) :
.
54. Pt came with pain awaken her from sleep 20 a.m. And could'nt sleep later:
a.reversible pulpitis
b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Periodontal pain
55. Pt with severe pain in lower left mandibular molar, examination positive pulp test , percussion
test, no radiographic abnormality, rt side have recent fpd upper:
a. Chronic apical periodontits
b. Actue apical periodontitis ***
c. Apical abcess

56. Hypercementosis
a. Assoc. With paget disease
b. Difficult extraction
c. Bulbous roots
d. Easily extracted with elevator
e. A, B &C ***
57. Most common cyst

a. Apical radicular cyst ***
b. Keratocyst
c. ....
6 years old child have 74 and 84 extracted best space maintainer is:
a. Lingual arch.
b. Bilateral band and loop. ***
c. Bilateral distal shoe.
d. No need for space maintainer.
(answer correct if permanent incisor not erupted)
101. 6 years old child lost his upper right 1st molar, arrangement:
k. Lingual bar.
l. Crown and loop.
m. Band and loop. ***
102. Band and loop space maintainers is most suitable for the maintenance of space after
premature loss of:
a. A single primary molar ***
b. Two primary molars
c. A canine and a lateral incisor
d. All of the above
58. Pedo ( forgot the age ) , lost 75 , sm

a. Band and loop ***
b. Nance appliance
c. Crown and loop
36-5 years old patient lost his primary first maxillary molar the best retainer is:
1. Band and loop. ***

2. Crown and loop.
3. Lingual arch.
4. Nance appliance.
.

8-(6 years) child with bilateral loss of deciduous molars &the anterior teeth not erupted yet ,the space
maintainer for choice is:
a-lingual arch
B-bilateral band and loop

c-bilateral band and loop with distal shoe
d-removable partial denture
. . ( )
. :
.
.
59. Lower anterior teeth labial mucosa supplied by:

a. Mental nerve. ***
b. Inferior dental nerve.
C. Buccal nerve.
60. Upper teeth palatal mucosa supplied by:

a. Nasopalatine
b. Anterior palatine
c. Both ***
d. Post superior alveolar nerve
61. Buccal branch of trigeminal is:

a. Sensory ***
b. Motor
c. Psychomotor
d. Sensory and motor
Buccal branch of facial is:

a. Sensory
b. Motor ***
c. Mixed
Buccal nerve - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
.3 2
.
62. Dentine permeability increases

a. Coronal less than root dentine. ***

b. Permeability increase toward DEJ.
C. Permeability increase toward bcj.
67. Which material has best biocompatibility Intraorally:

a. Cobalt chromium
b. Titanium
c. Nickle chromium
d. Gold .... Palladium
68. Lingual plate:

a. Shallow sulcus
b. Mobile anterior teeth
c. Deep sulcus
d. A+b ***
e. All of above
69. Indirect retainers mostly needed:

a. Class VI
b. Class I ***
c. Class III
d. Class III with modification
70. Porcelain teeth in complete denture opposing natural teeth are not preferred due to:
a. Increase occ load on natural teeth
b. Wear of natural teeth ***
c. Clicking during mastication
71. Which of following resto more likely to cause wear to opposing:

a. Composite
b. Gold
c. Porcelain ***
d. Amalgam
73. In restoring lost tooth, which is least important :

a. Esthetic
b. Pt demand ***
c. Function
d. Arch integrity and occlusal stability
74. Enamel tufts are

a. Extensions of odontoblasts in the DEJ

b. Enamel rods change their direction.
*** C. Enamel rods get crowded
""Enamel tufts - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
75. In clinical research:
a. Blind or double blind

b. Needs control
c. Includes intervention
d. Offers no benefits to subject at risk
76. One of the main cause of malocclusion:

a. Premature loss of primary teeth
77. To disinfect gutta percha:

a. Chemical agents
b. ..
Squamous cell carcinoma :
.. Cawson Essintials of Oral Pathology and Oral Medicine 7th ed :
: .
.
.
( %07
)
%75 .
103. Squamous cell carcinoma is derived from:

*** a. Epithelial tissue.
b. Connective tissue.

104. Stage Ib disease of squamous cell carcinoma:
A-T1 NO MO
b-T3 NO MO
c- T2 NO MO. ***
d-T4 NO MO
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-small_cell_lung_carcinoma
TNM staging Grouping
TX N0 M0 Occult carcinoma
Tis N0 M0Stage 0
T1 N0 M0 Stage IA
T2 N0 M0 Stage IB
T1 N1 M0 Stage IIA
T2 N1 M0 Stage IIB
T3 N0 M0
T1 N2 M0 Stage IIIA
T2 N2 M0
T3 N1 M0
T3 N2 M0
Any T N3 M0 Stage IIIB
T4 Any N M0
Any T Any N M1 Stage IV
Survival rate (percents) Grouping
Five years Four years Three years Two years One year
61% 67% 71% 79% 82% IA
38% 41% 46% 54% 72% IB
34% 34% 38% 49% 79% IIA
24% 26% 33% 41% 59% IIB
13% 14% 18% 25% 50% IIIA
5% 6% 7% 13% 34% IIIB
1% 2% 2% 6% 19% IV
105. Most common site of squamous cell carcinoma:
a. Postero-lateral border of tongue.
b. Floor of the mouth.
c. Buccal mucosa.
d. Lip. ***
e. Skin.
106. Most common site of oral squamous cell carcinoma:

a. Postero-lateral border of tongue. ***
b. Floor of the mouth.
c. Buccal mucosa.
d. Lip.
e. Skin.
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation,3rd edition, Page 71-72
Dental Secrets - page 35 :
The posterior lateral and ventral surfaces of the tongue are the most common sites of intraoral cancer.
107. The majority of introral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:

a. Poorly differentiated.
b. Well moderately differentiated. ***
c. Spindle cell in type.
d. Carcinoma in situation.
108. Squamous cell carcinoma is multifactorial:

a. True. ***
b. False.
78. Early squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity present as:
a. Vesicle.
b. Sessile mass.
c. A red plaque.
d. An ulcer. ***
e. Red plaque. ***
f. A white cauliflower like lesion
SCC:
Clinical appearance Most often seen as a painless ulcer, although may present as a swelling, an area of
leukoplakia, erythroleukoplakia or erythroplakia (A reddened patch), or as malignant change of long-
standing benign tumours or rarely in cyst linings. Pain is usually a late feature when the lesion becomes
superinfected or during eating of spicy foods. Referred otalgia is a common manifestation of pain from oral
cancer. The ulcer is described as firm with raised edges, with an indurated, inflamed, granular base and is
fixed to surrounding tissues.
. SCC
Burket- Oral medicine page 553 SCC

: " A white cauliflower like lesion" SCP
Squamous cell papillomas may present as exophytic pedunculated papules with a cauliflower -like
appearance.
54. Firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in association with:
a. An ameloblastoma
b. A basal cell carcinoma
c. An odontogenic fibroma
d. A squamous cell carcinoma. ***
79. File #40 means:

a. 0.40 is the diameter at d1 ***
b. 0.40 is from d1 to d16
80. The difference between cellulitis and abscess:

a. Cellulitis acute stage with diffuse selling no pus
b. ..
81. Cause of radicular cyst

a. Non vital tooth ***
b. Vital tooth
54. Most difficult of extract:

mand. 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots
mand 3rd molar with distoangular angulation with divergent curve roots

For imapacted mandibular molars, order from the least difficult to most difficult to remove
Mesio angular
Horizontal
Vertical
Distoangular
The opposite in maxilla
Dental decks 1846
Typically distoangular impactions are the easiest to extract in the maxilla and most difficult to extract in the
mandible, while mesioangular impactions are the most difficult to extract in the maxilla and easiest to
extract in the mandible>
Wisdom tooth - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
55.very important part in endo treatment:

-complete debridement of the canal
Minimum thickness of noble metal crown

a-.1 mm
b-.5 mm ***
c-1 mm
d- 2 mm
5.0 -5.0
445 Dental deck
The necessary thickness of the metal substucture is 0.5 mm

the minimal porcelain thickness is 1.0 - 1.5 mm
To locate the canal orifice use

a-barite probe
b-endo spreader
c-endo file with curved tip
d-round bur
healing by secondary intention cause

a-
b-there is space between the edges filled by fibrous tissue
c-leading to scar formation
d- b and c
5.Contraindication for endo treatment EXCEPT:

-non strategic tooth
-non restorable teeth

-vertical fracture teeth
-tooth with large periapical lesion ***
1. Arrange the steps [ca(oh)2 placing varnish-base amalgam

"Art & Science - page 171"
5.x-ray periapical for immature tooth is

.generally conclusive
.simply inconculosive*
.should be compered with antermere
9.prophylactic antibiotic needed in

.anesthesia not interaligamentary
.suture removal
.routine tooth brushing
.orthodontic band ***
"Dental secrets"
10. Soft palate falls abruptly facilitate recording post dam, falls gradually make recording post dam difficult
.two statement true
.two false ***
.first true, second false
.first false, second true
2772 " " :

12.caries progress in children more than adult due to

.difference in ph
.generalized dentin sclerosing by age ***
.increasing in organic content of tubular dentin by age
15.osteogensis during endodontic surgery aimed to prevent

.fibrous in growth ***
.growth factor
.formation of blood
16.60 YEARS old patient need to make complete denture with thick labial frenum with wide base. The
operation
.vestibuloplasty. ***
.z-plasty
.subperiostum incision
.deepmucoperiosteum incision
"Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 2nd Ed 2004 page 173"
Z-plasty are effective for narrow frenum attachments. Vestibuloplasty is often indicated for frenum
attachments with a wide base.

17.child patient take sedation before appointment and present with physical volt. What should dentist do
.conscious sedation
.redo sedation
.tie with baboose board
.tie in unite with bandage

. ( )
18.class III crown fracture in child patient the type of pontic

.ovate. ***
.egg shaped
.hygienic
.ridge lap
In 6 week intra uterine life the development start. The oral epithelium is stratified squamous epithelium
will thickened and give dental lamina
a: true ***
b: false
Http: //www.emro.who.int/publications/emhj/0503/08.htm
Retention of amalgam depends on

a-amalgam bond
b-convergency of walls oclusally ***
c-divergency of walls oclusally
d retentive pins
Bhatia's Dentogist: mcqs in Dentistry
Energy absorbed by the point of fracture called

a-ultimate strength
b-elastic limit
c-toughness. ***
d-brittleness
Toughness
It is defined as the amount of energy per volume that a material can absorb before rupturing.
Toughness - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The ability of a metal to deform plastically and to absorb energy in the process before fracture is termed
toughness.
Toughness
Mix in walking non vital bleatching

a-H2O2 with phosph...........
B-superexol with sod parporate
c-superexol with ca hydroxide
d- H2o2 with Sodium perborate: ***
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005)

Local contraindication of extraction
a-
b-
c-pt recent recive radiotheraby
d-tooth in the malignant tumar
e-both c and d ***
Since in composite tooth prep should be conservative so the design

a-amalgam in moderate and large cavities
b_beveled amalgam margines......
C-conservative restorations. ***
preparation of all incipient cavity within enamel
. :
Acquired pellicle
a-structures layer protect tooth. ***
b-aid in remineralization
The most affect tooth in nurse bottle feeding

a-lower molars
b-upper molars
c-max incisor ***
d-mand incisor
73. In restoring lost tooth, which is least important :

a. Esthetic
b. Pt demand ***
c. Function
d. Arch integrity and occlusal stability
74. Enamel tufts are

a. Extensions of odontoblasts in the DEJ
b. Enamel rods change their direction.
C. Enamel rods get crowded ***
"Enamel tufts - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia"

75. In clinical research:
a. Blind or double blind
b. Needs control
c. Includes intervention
d. Offers no benefits to subject at risk
5.x-ray periapical for immature tooth is

.generally conclusive
.simply inconculosive*
.should be compered with antermere

17.child patient take sedation before appointment and present with physical volt. Wh at should dentist do
.conscious sedation
.redo sedation
.tie with baboose board
.tie in unite with bandage

. ( )
Most impacted tooth is

a-mand 8 ***
b-max 2
Q- Most common tooth which needs surgical extraction
a)mandibualr third molar. ***
587. Patient is diagnosed for ceramometal full veneer. You plan to use epoxy
Resin >>>>>>missing text>>>>>>>, what's the best impression material to be used :
A. Poly ether.
B. Poly sulfide.
C. Agar agar.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
Q27) the impression material of choice when we want to take impression for epoxy resin pin is:
a) Polysulfide.
B) Polyether.
C. Agar agar.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
Impression material cause bad taste to patient :

a-poly sulfide
b-polyether
c-additional silicon
d alginate
27-The impression used for preliminary impressions or study casts is:
1.Agar agar.
2.Silicon.
3.Alginate. ***
4.None.
1. Irrigant that kills e-foecalis

1-naoh
2-mtad. ***
2-saline
3-chlorohexidine
Pathway to the pulp
New irrigants are being developed in an attempt to address some of the shortcomings of past and current
materials. MTAD is a mixture of a tetracycline isomer (i.e., doxycycline), an acid, and a detergent. In an in
vitro study, MTAD was found to be an effective solution for killing E. Faecalis.
2. During the orthodontist removes orthodontic braces he noticed white hypocalcific lesion around the
bracket what to do:
1-microabration and application of pumice then fluoride application.
2-composite resin
4-leave and observe
9-pt presented to u with trauma of the central incisor with open apex tooth clinical examination revealed
cut of blood supply to the tooth what is the next step:
1-extraction
2-endo
3- observe over time
10-child came to u with grey discolouration of the deciduous incisor also on radiographic exam. There is
dilation of follicle of the permenant successor what will u do:
1-extract the decidous tooth.
2-start endo
3-observe over time
12-dail wear of amalgam:

1-3 microgram /DAY
14-weeping canal we use

1-g.p
2-caoh ***
3-.
4-
Clinical Endodontics textbook TRONSTAD page 224
This situation is often referred to as a weeping canal and is annoying in that the apical part of the canal
cannot be dried properly. The right therapy is a discontinuation of the use of the tissue-irritating
antiseptics followed by 23 weeks of calcium hydroxide in the root canal. The chemically-induced
exudation will then have stopped and the root canal can be dried and obturated.
34- The easiest endo retreatment in:

a- Over obturation w GP
b- Under obturation w GP.
c- Weeping canals
d- Obturated w silver cone
7-Tug back refers to:
1.Retention of GP inside the canal.

2.Fluibilty of GP.
15-dental student using thermoplastized g.p. What is the main problem he may face;
1-extrusion of g.p. From the canal ***
2-inability to fill the proper length
3- failure to use maser cone at proper length
4- ledge
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005)- page 177
It is difficult to control the apical extent of the root filling and in addition some contraction of the GP
occurs on cooling.
Useful for irregular canal defects
12) cracked enamel best Dx by
Dye***
12)how can test crack tooth???

Xray
elictric test
ethyle dye test
34-caries detection dye composed main of:

1-acid fuschin
2-basic fuchsin
3-propylene glycol. ***
3 2
"Paediatric Dentistry 3rd Ed (2005)" page 165: 0.5% basic fuchsin
And:
"Dental pulp 2002" + "Operative Dentistry" propylene glycol
1.Atropine :
A- bries secretion such saliva
B- depresses the pulse rate ***
c -cause central nervous system depression
Mydriasis :
2.Drug used to increase saliva during impression taking is:

1- anticholinergic ***
2- cholinergic
3- antidiabetic
4- anticorticosteroid


3.Pt with complete denture come to your clinic, complaint from his dry mouth ,the proper medicine is?
A) anti diabetic medicine
b)anti cholinergic
c)steroid***
4.In order to decrease the gastric secretion:

histamine A antigen equivalent
histamine B antigen equivalent
anticholenergic.
adrenal steroids
5.Pt with complete denture come to your clinic, complaint from his dry mouth, the proper medicine is:
1. Anti diabetic medicine.
2. Anticordial. = Anticholinergic.
3. Steroid.***
6.Drug used to (decrease not increase) saliva during impression taking is:
1. Anticholinergic.***
2. Cholinergic.
3. Antidiabetic.
4. Anticorticosteroid.
52-probe used to detect furcation:

1-nabers probe. ***
Least effective to kill aids is: ultra voilet

source: dentogist
naocl is very effective
Also cetrimide and dry heat at 100 degree are inffective in kill aids
17-during endo pt is complaining of pain with percussion what u suspect?

1-apical periodontitis
2-secondery apical periodontitis.
3-over instrumentation. ***
4-over medication
Pain following instrumentation: This is usually due to instruments or irrigants, or to debris being forced
into the apical tissues.
"Pathway of the pulp 9ed 1st part page 217"
Postoperative discomfort generally is greater when this area (apical constriction) is violated by instruments
or filling materials, and the healing process may be compromised.

:
15- During doing Rct, pt complains from pain during percussion due to:
A- Apical infection.
B- Impact debris fragment
c- Over instrumentation
"Pathway of the pulp 9ed 1st part page 406"
Shaping to the radiographic apex is likely to produce overinstrumentation past the apical foramen, with
possible clinical sequelae of postoperative pain and inoculation of microorganisms into periapical spaces.
Over instrumentation.
-pt on long term antibiotic came with systemic Candida:

1-amphotrecin
2-fluconazol ***
3-nystatin
Fluconazole 50 mg od is the systemic drug of choice. C. Glabrata, C. Tropicalis, and C. Knusel are
fluconazole resistant, therefore, candida subtyping should be performed for resistant cases.
Candida infection is a frequent cause of:
Burning mouth
289.Which one of the following was the most frequently reason for replacement of a molar restoration
with larger restoration:
a.New caries.
b.Recurrent caries.
c.Faulty restoration.
d.All of the above.
. :
3. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from

a) Improper cavity preparation ***
b) Faulty manipulation
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
" Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials: Theory, Practice, and Cases, 3rd Edition"
"Art and science of operative dentistry 2000"- page 168

Clinical failure is the point at which the restoration is No longer serviceable or at which time the
restoration Poses other severe risks if it is not replaced. Amalgam Restoration-related failures include: (1)
bulk fracture of The restoration, (2) corrosion and excessive marginal Fracture, (3) sensitivity or pain, (4)
secondary caries, And (5) fracture of tooth structure forming the restorative Tooth preparation wall(s).
Lesion at junction between hard and soft palate and surrounded with psudoepithelium hyperplasia in
salivary gland:
A) hyperplasia in salivary gland
B) necrotizing sialometaplasia. ***
50-

DIVERGENT CLASS II
MARGINAL RIDGE 1.6 for premolar
and 2mm for molar
art and science operative dentistry
To know wall angulation

16- a child at dentation age is suffering from:
a) diarrhea
b) sleep disorders
c) increased salivation ***
49 :
.
3) when restoring asymptomatic healthy tooth with amalgam, the normal physiologic symptom after that
is:
a. Pain on hot
b. Pain on cold ***
c. Pain on biting
d. Pain on sweet
5) sharp pain is due to which type of fibers?

A. A fibers. ***
B.B fibers
C. C fibers

A-delta fibers small, myelinated fibers that transmit sharp pain
C-fibers small unmyelinated nerve fibers that transmit dull or aching pain.
6) minimal facial reduction when preparing for veneers:
a. 0.3 mm
b.03-0.5 mm ***
c. 1-1.5 mm
0.7 0.5 Dental secrets
.
"Operative Dentistry A Practical Guide to Recent Innovations - page 83"
The facial enamel is usually reduced by 0.30.5mm, but where the underlying tooth is severely discolored,
reduction should be 0.7mm.
7) after u did RCT to your pt he came back to the clinic after few days with sever pain on biting, you did x-
ray and it revealed that the RCT filling is very good, but u saw radiopaque, thin (film like) spot on the lateral
border of the root what is the most probable diagnosis?
A- Accessory canal
b) vertical root canal fracture. ***
403) method of Detection of Cracked teeth :
A) Horizontal percussion
B) Vertical percussion
C) Electric pulp test
D) Transillumination / visible light test.. ***
404) Patient suffering from a cracked enamel, his chief complain is pain on :
A) Hot stimuli
B) Cold stimuli ***
C) A & B.
D) Electric test.
11) patient came complaining of severe pain on biting, related to a certain tooth. Upon
examination no pulpal or periodontal findings, and pulpal vitality is positive, your Dx:
1) cracked tooth syndrome***
10) cracked tooth syndrome is best diagnosed by?
A. Radiograph
b. Subjective symptoms and horizontal percussion
c. Palpation and vertical percussion
d. Pulp testing
Pickard's Manual of Operative Dentistry Eighth edition OXFORD - PAGE 213
The diagnosis of cusp fracture is easy when the cusp has fallen off. Before this actually happens, however,
the patient may experience pain but often finds it remarkably difficult to locate this to a particular tooth.
The patient will frequently complain of sensitivity to hot and cold and discomfort on biting. Even on clinical
examination it is often difficult to pinpoint which tooth is causing the pain, but a fiber-optic light or
disclosing solution may assist the diagnosis by making the crack easier to see. Lateral pressure on the

suspect cusp may also help by producing a sensitivity that mirrors the patients symptoms. Often the pain
occurs when the pressure is released.
A crack usually does not show up on an x-ray, a physical examination of the tooth will have to be
performed. A sharp instrument will be used to allow us to explore the tooth for cracks. We will also place
pressure on the tooth to see if we can expand the crack until it is seen.
You may have X-rays taken but X-rays often do not reveal the crack.
Your dentist may use a special tool to test the tooth. There are different kinds of tools. One looks like a
toothbrush without bristles. It fits over one part of the tooth at a time as you bite down. If you feel pain,
the part of the tooth being tested most likely has a crack in it.
Diagnostic tests of cracked tooth

visual examination of cracks: aided by staining with dye such as methylene blue.
Tactile examination crutch the tooth surface with a sharp explorer widening a gap of the crack may elicit
extremely painful response.
: bite tests each cusp tip must be tested individually pain on release often indicates crack Tooth sloth
tooth.
Transillumination: fiberoptic light source held perpendicular to the suspected crack
that mean the prober exam for crack in the tooth(b) subjective symptoms and horizontal percussion
the book is NBDE II
The best method for tooth brush is Bass method because:
a.It enter to interproximal area

b.Can be used by patient with gingival recession and it rotainary advice to all types of patients.
1.The both sentences are correct. ***
2.The first sentence is correct and the second is wrong.
Bass brushing has the advantage of the bristles enters in the cervical area , and it is recommended for all
patients:
a)both statements are true. ***
b)both statements are false
c)first is true ,second is wrong
d)first is wrong , second is true
Caranza periodontology page 658
Bass method advantages:
- It concentrates the cleaning action on the cervical and interproximal portions of the teeth.
- The Bass technique is efficient and can be recommended for any patient with or without periodontal
involvement.

11) patient comes to you with edematous gingiva, inflamed, loss of gingival contour and recession, what's
the best tooth brushing technique?
A. Modified bass
b. Modified stillman. ***
c. Charter
d. Scrub
: Caranza clinical periodontology page 659
. Modified bass
. 135 Charter
12) the best method to protect teeth that underwent bicuspidization procedure from fracture?
A. Full crown. ***
b. Splint with composite
c. Orthodontic splint
Dental decks page 273

323) Whats the name of the Device used to measure Vertical Dimension
caliper. ***
Willis Gauge
Face bow
348) pt have unilateral fracture of left the condyle, the mandible will
a)deviate to the left side
b)deviate to the right side ***
c)no deviate
295) Pt came after 24 month of tooth replantation which had ankylosis with no root resorption. It most
likely to develop root resorption in:
1/ reduce greatly ***
2/ increase
3/ after 2 years
4/ after 4 years
136
13- 80 % 6-35 %
16 %.
260) oral surgeon put his finger on the nose of the patient and the patient asked to blow
this done to check
.anterior extention of posterior palatal seal
.lateral extension of posterior palatal seal
.posterior extension of posterior palatal seal. ***
.glandular opening
229) when increase vertical dimension you have to:

1/ increase minimal need
2/construct anterior teeth first then posterior teeth
4/ use provisional crown for 2 months
5/all
226) tracing of GP used for:

1/source of periapical pathosis ***
2/acute periapical periodontitis
3/ periodental abscess
4/ none
) (
222) isolated pocket in:

-vertical root fracture
-palato gingival groove
-endo origine lesion
-all. ***
270) after bleaching a tooth, we wanna restore the tooth with composite resin, we dont want to
compromise the bonding, we wait for:
a)24 hours
b)a week ***
c) choose a different material
" Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials Theory, Practice, and Cases (3rd Ed 2009)"
Esthetic restoration of teeth should be delayed for 2 weeks after the completion of tooth whitening.
204) Three year old pt, has anodontia (no teeth at all), what would you do:
a) full denture ***
b) implant
c) space maitainer
d)no intervention
"PAEDIATRIC DENTISTRY - 3rd Ed. (2005)" page 294
In cases of anodontia, full dentures are required. These can be provided, albeit with likely limited success,
from about 3 years of age, with the possibility of implant support for prostheses provided in adulthood.
B)-autoimmune factors++ (one of the signs of Autoimm diss)

desck page 1334
Treacher collins syndrome characterized by

PROGNTHESIA OF MANDIBLE.
-NO EAR LOSS
-UPWARD SLUTING OF EYE
-MALAR BONE NOT WELL FORMED OR ABSENCE. ***
- - underdeveloped cheek bone -

. -
:
Treacher-Collins Syndrome-A Challenge For Treacher Collins syndrome - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Aaesthesiologists Goel L, Bennur SK, Jambhale S - Indian J Anaesth
97) Treacher Collins syndrome is mainly:
1/ mandibular retrognathia. ***
2/ loss of hearing (50% of cases)
Patient present with deffieciency at the malar bone+open bite+normal mental abilities;
1-treacher cholins. ***
2-cleidocrenial dyspasia
3-eagle syndrome
4-
6) when removing lower second molar:

a- occlusal plane perpendicular To the floor
b- buccolingual direction to dilate socket. ***
c- mesial then lingual
10) Trauma lead to fracture in the root between middle cervical and apical third
a) poor prognosis
b) good prognosis ***
409) Trauma caused fracture of the root at junction between middle and cervical third:
A) do endo for coronal part only
B) RCT for both
C) leave
D) extraction. ***
22) Secondary dentine occur due to

a- occlusal trauma
b- recurrent caries
c- attrition dentine
d- all of the above (correct answer)
Secondary dentin is a physiological process by which the tooth lay down secondary dentin after complete
formation of the primary dentin (Even without external stimuli)

BUT, reparative dentin ( tertiary or abnormal secondary dentin ) is formed in response to moderate level
stimuli such as ( attrition, abrasion, erosion, trauma, moderate-rate dentinal caries, some operative
procedures)
Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology (Neville)

Sturdevant's Art and Science of operative dentistry
23) All of these are ways to give L.A with less pain EXCEPT:
a- give it slowly
b- stretch the muscle
c- Topical anesthesia
d- the needle size over than 25 gauge (correct answer)
Patients can't differentiate between 23 25 27 and 30 gauge needles.
Handbook of local anesthesia (Malamed)
32) Lesion at junction between hard and soft palate and surrounded with psudoepithelium
a) Hyperplasia in salivary gland

b) Necrotizing sialometaplasia ( correct answer)
Necrotizing sialometaplasia:
Benign condition mostly affects the palate and rarely other sites. Importance of recognizing this lesion is
that it mimics malignancies. Cause: ischemia by surgical manipulation or local anesthesia. Clinical picture:
spontaneous appearance most commonly at the junction of the hard and soft palate. Early: tender
swelling often with dusky erythema of overlying mucosa, subsequently the mucosa breaks down with the
formation of a sharply demarcated deep ulcer with a yellowish grey lobular base
Oral Pathology Clinical Pathologic Correlation ( Regezi )
38) Missing lower six and tilted 7
Best treatment plan from most favorable to least:

1- Uprighting of molar by orthodontics
If not possible:
2- Proximal half crown.
Alternatives
3- Telescope crown
4- Non rigid connector
Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics (shillinburg)
40) Acyclovir dose for treatments of herps:

a) 200 mg / 5 times a day
b) 200 mg / 4 times a day
c) 400 mg / 4 times a day
d) 800 mg / 4 times a day ( Correct Answer ) "treatment of Herpes Zoster"
There are different dosages for different cases of Herpes !! the question should be more specific:
Acute Treatment of Herpes Zoster: 800 mg every 4 hours orally, 5 times daily for 7 to 10 days.
Genital Herpes: Treatment of Initial Genital Herpes: 200 mg every 4 hours, 5 times daily for 10 days.
Chronic Suppressive Therapy for Recurrent Disease: 400 mg 2 times daily for up to 12 months, followed by re-
evaluation. Alternative regimens have included doses ranging from 200 mg 3 times daily to 200 mg 5 times daily.
The frequency and severity of episodes of untreated genital herpes may change over time. After 1 year of therapy, the
frequency and severity of the patient's genital herpes infection should be re-evaluated to assess the need for
continuation of therapy with ZOVIRAX.
Intermittent Therapy: 200 mg every 4 hours, 5 times daily for 5 days. Therapy should be initiated at the earliest sign
or symptom (prodrome) of recurrence.
Treatment of Chickenpox: Children (2 years of age and older): 20 mg/kg per dose orally 4 times daily (80
mg/kg/day) for 5 days. Children over 40 kg should receive the adult dose for chickenpox.
Adults and Children over 40 kg: 800 mg 4 times daily for 5 days.
International Drug Index. Zovirax (Acyclovir) http://www.rxlist.com/zovirax-drug.htm

Cawson Essintials of Oral Pathology and Oral Medicine 7th ed
446) How much subgingivally do you go with the band in class II restorations:
A) 0.5 1 mm.
B) 1 2 mm
C) 2 3 mm
41) A female patient came to your clinic with dry lips and mouth and bilateral submandibular oedema and
ocular dryness. Diagnosis is:
a)Polymorphecadenoma
b) sialotitis
c) Sjgren's syndrome
Clinical outline of oral pathology diagnosis and treatment ( Eversole )
43) The compression / relaxation cycle of external cardiac compression should be repeated
a- 2 times / second
b- 60 times / minute
c- 76 times / second
d- 100 times / minute. ( correct answer )
Circulation Feel for a carotid pulse. If it is present, provide 10 breaths per minute, checking the pulse for 10 sec every
10 breaths. If no pulse commence chest compression, at the middle of the lower half of the sternum, depressing 45
cm 100 times per minute.

2005 American Heart Association Guidelines for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency
Cardiovascular Care
44) One of the primary considerations in the treatment of fractures of the jaw is
a- to obtain and maintain proper occlusion (correct answer)
b- test teeth mobility
c- vitality
d- embedded foreign bodies
Contemporary oral and maxillofacial surgery (Peterson)
45) A child patient undergone pulpotomy in your clinic in1st primary molar. Next day the patient returned
with ulcer on the right side of the lip your diagnosis is:
a) Apthosis
b) Zonal herpes
c) traumatic ulcer (correct answer)
46) Bitewing exam is used to diagnose EXCEPT:
1. Proximal caries.
2. Secondary caries.
3. Gingival status. >> periodontal status i.e. bone level
4. Periapical abscess ( correct answer )
58) Which of the following types of base materials can be placed in contact with polymethyl methaacrylate
& not inhibit the polymerization of the resin
a) ZOE
b) GI cement
c) Zn phosphate cement
d) varnish
e) b&c ( correct answer )
47) We can use under the composite restoration:

1. Varnish.
2. Zinc oxide and eugenol.
3. Ca (OH)2.
4. Zinc phosphate cement.
0+2.
2+3.
3+4 ( correct answer )
2+4.
48) Autoclaving technique is depending on:
a. Dry heat.
B. Steam heat ( Correct Answer)
c. Chemicals.
Autoclave: Steam and pressure until it's heated
Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial surgery ( Peterson )

49) The inferior alveolar nerve is branch of:
1. Mandibular nerve not divided
2. Posterior devision of mandibular nerve. ( correct answer )
3. Anterior devision of mandibular nerve.
Basic Anatomy (snell)
51) A child (2 years) with caries in the incisors we call this caries:
1. Rampant caries.
2. Nursing caries. (correct answer)
3. Children caries.
Nursing caries or ECC (early childhood caries) or BBTC (baby bottle caries) is a type of rampant caries in
2,3,4 year old children with involvement of max. and mand. Anterior teeth.
Dentistry for the child and adolescent (McDonald)
52) Persons who are working in glass factories they have the disease:
1. Silicosis (correct answer)
2. Asepsis.
Emedicine : silicosis http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/302027-overview

http://www.silicosisclaims.com/about.html
Silicosis, or silica disease, is especially common among the workers whose occupations expose them to
extremely high levels of crystalline silica dust for long durations. Some of the common occupations or
types of workers at risk of silica disease due to crystalline silica dust exposure include: Glass Workers
628. Laser core can be used in curing of composite:
A) ND (YAG).
B) hene.
C) Argon / Hallogen led
53) Laser used in endodontic is:

1. Co2. >> used in periapical surgery
2. Nd (YAG). (correct answer)
3. Led.
CO2 laser is used in periapical surgeries , new advances in ND(YAG) laser for intracanal uses. Both can be
used in endodontic!!
Pathways of the pulp

Other articles from previous answer ( about ND(YAG) )
Http: //http//www.biolase.com/clinicalarticles/Chen_DT_reprint1.pdf
Http: //http//www.healthmantra.com/REVIEWS/lasers&Endo.htm
54) A patient 14 years with avulses incisors 11 and 21 we can use a splint for:
a) 1 2 week. (correct answer )
b) 2 3 week.
C) 3 4 week.
D) 4 5 week.
Splinting of avulsed tooth:
Mature 7-10 days (1-2 weeks)
Immature tooth 3-4 weeks

Contemporary oral and maxillofacial surgery ( Peterson)
55) The most frequent cause of porosity in a prcelain restoration is

a- moisture of contamination
b- excessive firing temperature
c- excessive condensation of the porcelain
d - inadequate condensation of porcelain (correct answer)
Dental decks 441
Condensation of porcelain slurry by hand can cause porosity.
Contemporary fixed prosthodontics ( Rosenstiel)
56) A compound fracture is characterized by

a-many small fragments
b -a star shaped appearance
c- an incomplete break in the bone
d- communication with oral cavity (correct answer)
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005)- page498
in common with all fracture they can be grouped into simple (closed linear fracture) compound (open to
mouth or skin
And:
" Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 2nd Ed 2004 page409"
fractures of the facial skeleton (peter banks)
:76) Verrucous carcinoma is

a) malignant. (correct answer)
b) non-malignant
c) hayperplastic
d) none of the above

Oral and maxillofacial pathology (Neville)
86) Electric pulp tester on the adults is not accurate because:

a) Late appearance of Fibers A
b) Late appearance of Fibers C
c) Early appearance of fibers A
d) Early appearance of fibers C
" Pathway Of Pulp 6th edition page 314"
The relatively late appearance of A fibers in the pulp helps to explain why the electric pulp test tends to be
unreliable in young teeth.
87) A patient complaining from a severe oedema in the lower jaw that increases in size upon eating,
Diagnosis is:
a) salivary gland (submandibular sal. Gl.)
88) A patient that had a class II amalgam restoration, next day he returns complaining of discomfort at the
site of the restoration, radiographically an Overhanging amalgam is present. This is due to:
a) lack of matrix usage.( correct answer)
B) no burnishing for amalgam
89) Contents of the Anaesthia carpule:

a)Lidocaine + epinephrine + Ringers liquid.
B)Lidocaine + epinephrine + distilled water. (correct answer)
C) Lidocaine + epinephrine only.
Contents of anesthesia carpule:
Anesthetic agent, vasoconstrictor, preservative, sodium chloride, distilled water.
Hand book of local anesthesia (malamed)
90) a patient that wasnt anaesthetized well in his 0st visit, next day he returns with a limited mouth
opening (trismus). He must be anaesthized, whats the technique to be used:
a) Williams technique
b) Berchers technique.
. -
Bercher Trismus
.( )
I think it's a wrong question!!
I tried searching for these two techniques and nothing came up.
The technique used to administer a block with trismus or limited mouth opening is (akinosi closed
mouth technique)
Handbook of local anesthesia (malamed)

At which of the following locations on a mandibular molar do you complete the excavation of caries first
a- axial walls .
B- pulpal floor over the mesial pulp horns
c- peripheral caries (Correct answer )
d- all of the above are correct.
In deep carious lesion all peripheral caries is removed, some of the soft dentin in the floor of the cavity can
be left and indirect pulp capping is performed.
1- Remove all peripheral caries

2- Remove caries in the axial wall (DEJ)
3- Leave soft dentin in the floor of the cavity
4- Indirect pulp capping
Principles of operative dentistry.
CMCP contains phenol in concentration

a-0.5 %
b- 35 % (correct answer)
c-65 %
d- 5 %
CMCP composition :
p-Chlorophenol 35%, Camphor 65%
Dentist provided bleaching which also known as (home bleaching) contain

a- 35-50% hydrogen peroxide
b- 5-22% carbamide peroxide
Home bleaching : 10-15% carbamide peroxide
Sturdevan't art and science of operative dentistry

a solution of 10% carbamide peroxide in a soft splint has been advocated for home bleaching
What is the disadvantages of Mcspadden technique in obturation (thermocompaction)
requires much practice to perfect.(correct answer)
Endodontics (ingle)
493) thermo mech. Tech of obturation is :
A) thermafil
B) obtura
C) ultrafil

D) mcspadden. (correct answer)
Endodontics (ingle)
Fractured tooth to alveolar crest, what's the best way to produce ferrule effect?
A) restore with amalgam core sub-gingivaly. (violate biological width)
b) crown lengthening ( unesthetic results)
c) extrusion with orthodontics (correct answer)
Extrusion with orthodontics : using brackets (may cause movement of other abutmemnt teeth) or utilizing
an anchorage wire boded to adjacent teeth as described by oesterle and wood p.g.:191
Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics (shillinburg)
2- 65 years old black man wants to have very white teeth in his new denture what should the
dentist do:
a- Put the white teeth
b- Show the patient the suitable color first then show him the white one (correct answer)
c- Convince him by showing him other patients photos.
d- Tell him firmly that his teeth color are good.
Or
Do not show white teeth
textbook of complete denture
3- At which temperature that gutta percha reach the alpha temp:

a- 42-48 c (Correct answer)
b- 50-60
c- 70-80
d- 100c
Endodontics (ingle)
5- During clinical examination the patient had pain when the exposed root dentine is touched due to:
a- Reversible pulpitis
b- Dentine hypersensitivity (correct answer)
c- Irreversible pulpitis
6- The patient have dull pain and swelling and the PA shows apical radiolucency your diagnosis will be:
a- Acute periodontal abscess
b- Chronic periodontal abscess with swelling (correct answer)
It's usually asymptomatic except when there's occasional closure of the sinus pathway. S&S: swelling, PA
radiolucency,sinus tract.
Endodontics principles and practice ( torabinejad)

8- All these shows honey combed bone radiographically EXCEPT:
a- Ameloblastoma
b- Odontogenic myxoma cyst
c- Odontogenic keratocyst
d- Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor. (correct answer)
Unilocular radiolucent lesion may have some flakes of calcifications
Oral pathology clinical pathological correlations (regezi)
10- Flouride amount in water should be:

a- 0.2-0.5 mg/liter
b- 1-5 mg/liter
c- 1-2 mg/liter
d- 0.1- 0.2 mg/liter
Fluoride amount in water best maintained at 1 ppm (1mg/L). in hot climate communities this amount
should be reduced because of the increase consumption of water
Textbook of preventive and community dentistry
In the US the amount of fluoride in drinking water range from 0.7-1.2 mg/L
WHO
The optimal fluoride concentration can be as high as 1.5 mg/L in cold climate and as low as 0.5 mg/L in very
hot climate
Textbook of community dentistry
11- Distal fissure of premolar contact oppose:

a- Middle of the middle third & buccal fissure is wider than lingual
b- Cervical line & lingual fissure is wider than buccal
c- Middle of the middle third & vice versa
d- Cervical of the middle third & vice versa
18- the powered toothbrush invented in:
a- 1929
b- 1939 (correct answer)
c- 1959
d- 1969
Clinical periodontology (Carranza)
22- The most superior way to test the vitality of the tooth with:
a- Ice pack

B- Chloro ethyl
C- Endo special ice. (correct answer)
D- Cold water spray
Endodontics (ingle)
24- The way to remove mucocel is

a- Radiation
b- Excision (correct answer)
c- Chemotherapy
d- Caterization
25- 8 years old come with fractured max incisor tooth with incipient exposed pulp after 30 min of the
trauma, whats the suitable rx:
a- Pulpatomy
b- Direct pulp capping (correct answer)
c- Pulpectomy
d- Apexification
27- pt came to dental clinic having a hematological problem after lab test they found that factor viii less
07% whats the diagnosis:
a- Heamophilia A (correct answer)
b- Heamophilia b
Factor VIII deficiency : Hemophilia A
Factor IX deficiency : Hemophilia B
29- all these are contraindicated to RCT EXCEPT:

a- Non restorable tooth
b- Vertical root fracture
c- Tooth with insufficient tooth support
d- Pt who has diabetes or hypertension
30- sharpening the curette and sickle, the cutting edge should be at angle:
a- 50-60
b- 70-80 (correct answer)
c- 80-90
d- 60-70
Clinical periodontology (Carranza)
33- avulsed tooth is washed with tap water , it should be replaced again:
a- Immediately
b- After 2 hours
c- 24 hrs
d-
34- 10 yrs old child, who is unable to differentiate the colors, and can't tell his name, or address
He is acting like:
1- 3 years old
2- 4 years old
3- 10 years old
39- pt have a complete denture came to the clinic ,tell you no complaint in the talking ,or in the chewing
,but when you exam him ,you see the upper lip like too long ,deficient in the margins of the lip, reason is?
A)deficiency in the vertical dimensional
b)anterior upper teeth are short
c)deficient in vit B
Upper anterior teeth should extend 1-2 mm beyond relaxed lip. Short upper anterior teeth may affect
esthetic and phonetics.
Textbook of Complete dentures
Vitamin B Deficiency causes

Cheilosis: Inflammation of the lips where there is scaling and fissures.
41- child has a habit of finger sucking and starts to show orodental changes, the child needs:
a- Early appliance
b- Psychological therapy
c-
d-
Treatments for habits include appliances and encouragement and reminder for the patient.
Knife ridge should be tx with:

1/relining soft material
2/ maximum coverage of flange. (correct answer)
3/ wide occ. Table
4/all
76) Child 3 years old came to clinic after falling on his chin, you found that the primary incisor entered the
follicle for the permanent incisor what you will do
A) Surgical removal of the follicle
B) Leave it
C) Surgical removal of the primary incisor. (Correct answer)
77) Tongue develope from:

1/mandibular arch & tuberculum impar. (correct answer)
2/1st branchial arch
Tongue developes from the tissue of the 1st, 3rd and partially 4th pharyngeal arches
The tongue starts to develop at about 4 weeks. The tongue originates from the first, second, and third pharyngeal arches and
9
forms the migration of muscles form the occipital myotomes. The anterior part arises from the first arch. A local proliferation of
the mesenchyme gives rise to 3 swellings in the floor of the mouth; 2 lateral lingual swellings and a tuberculum impar arise from
the mandibular process. The lateral lingual swellings enlarge rapidly and merge with each other; they overgrow the tuberculum
1
impar to form the oral part of the tongue. Failure of the 2 lateral lingual swellings to merge causes cleft tongue or bifid t ongue.
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1289057-overview
1. Perforation during endo space preparation what is the most surface of distal root of lower molar will
have tendency of perforation:
1/ Mesial Surface. (correct answer)
2/ Distal surface.
3/ Buccal surface.
4/ Lingual surface.
Crown and root perforation:

1/ respond to MTA
2/ use matrix with hydroxyapatite and seal with G I
3/1&2. ( correct answer)
4/root canal filling
Endodontics principles and Practice ( Torabinejad )
82) acceptable theory for dental pain transmission:

1/hydrodynamic theory (correct answer)
2/fluid movement
3/ direct transduction
The most accepted theory of pain transmission is the hydrodynamic theory.
Sturdevant's Art and science of operative dentistry PAGE 28
83) While u were preparing a canal u did a ledge, then u used EDTA with the file, this may lead to
*perforation of the strip ??
Removal of a ledge:
1-remove all obstructions coronal to the ledge
2-coronal portion of the canal prepared with a crown-down technique
3-by pass the ledge with a stiff, curved hand file
4-once the file is beyond the ledge use in circumferential filing motion to remove the obstruction.
5- Start with a smaller size to a larger size.

6- once obstruction removed the canal can be cleaned and sha[ed with any instrumentation technique.
EDTA : Remove smear layer. Can act as a lubricant to help the file bypass the ledge.
Stripping Perforation: involves the furcation side of the coronal root surface and results from excessive
flaring with files or drills
Endodontics principles and practices ( torabinejad)
289. Dr.black (GV black) periodontal instrument classification:

study what the number represent in the instrument formula
"For g.v black classification study what the number represent in the instrument formula one for width one fo length
one for angulation
1st: Width of blade -2nd: Length of the blade in millimeter-3rd: Angle of blade -4th: when cutting edge at ab angle
other then right"
For example, the number of a gingival margin trimmer is given as 15-95-812R. The first two
digits (15) of the formula designate the width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter, the third
and fourth digits (95) its length in millimeters, and the fifth digit (8) represents the angle
which the blade forms with axis of the handle expressed in hundredths of a circle (100
gradations or centigrades). With the instruments in which
the cutting edge is at an angle to the length of the blade, the sixth and seventh digits
represent the angle made by the edge with the axis of the hand, expressed in centigrades.
The handle letter (R or L) signifies that the instrument is one of a pair made in "rights" and
"lefts" in order to work more efficiently.
290. An adult had an accident, maxillary central incisors intruded, lip is painful with superficial wound what is the
traumas classification:
a) luxation. ***
b) subluxation
c) laceration
d) abrasion
e) contusion
Handbook of dental trauma 2001- page 73
Intrusive luxations, or intrusions, result from an axial force applied to the incisal edge of the tooth that results in the
tooth being driven into the socket
291. Schick test an intradermal test for determination of susceptibility to diphtheria.
Schick test - definition of Schick test in the Medical dictionary - by the Free Online Medical Dictionary, Thesaurus and
Encyclopedia.
A test to determine immunity to diphtheria by injection into the skin of dilute diphtheria toxin.
Inflammation of the injected area indicates a lack of immunity.
In a curved root u bent a file by.

A. Put gauze on the file & bend it by hand ***
b. Bend the file by pliers
c by bare finger
d. By twist
Father for child 12 year pt <asked you about ,the age for the amalgam restoration of his
child ,you tell him:
a)2 years
b)9 years
c)2 decades. ***
d)all life
Complex amalgam restoration with pins: Smales reported that 72% of amalgam restorations survived for 15 years,
including those with cusp coverage.
27
:028
292. To prevent gingival injury place the margin of the retainer:

A. At the level of gingival crest. ***
b. Above gingival crest.
C. Apical to g . Crest 1 mm
d. Apical to g. Crest 0.5 mm.
It is better for gingival health to place a crown margin supragingivally, 12 mm above the gingival crest, or
equigingivally at the gingival crest. Such positioning is quite often not possible because of esthetic or caries
considerations. Subsequently, the margin must be placed subgingivally. Margin ends slightly below the gingival crest,
in the middle of the sulcular depth, or at the base of the sulcus. In preparing a subgingival margin, the major concern
is not to extend the preparation into the attachment apparatus. If the margin gf the subsequent crown is extended
into the attachment apparatus, a constant gingival irritant has been constructed.Therefore, for clinical simplicity,
when a margin is to be placed subgingivally. It is desirable to end the tooth preparation slightly below the gingival
crest.
. ( )
33 - Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union of:
1. Tow maxillary arches.

2. Maxillary arches and nasal arch.
Cleft lip results from Failure of fusion of the medial nasal process and maxillary process
*OMFS secrets p.342
Arrange the steps of cleft palate management:

1. Measures to adjust speech. 2
2. Establish way for nursing and feeding. 1
3. Cosmetic closure. 4
4. Prevent collapse of two halves. 3
2 1 4 3.
Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally retarded pt:

1. Neutral sodium fluoride.
2. Stannous fluoride.
3. Acidulated fluoride solutions.
) (fluoride varnish
2. Child with late primary dentition has calculus and gingival recession related to upper molar what is the diagnosis:
1. Periodontitis.
2. Local aggressive Periodontitis. ***
3. Viral infection.
3.
8 years old pt. Had trauma to 8 presented after 30 minute of injury He had crown fracture with incipient pulp
exposure what u do:
1. Direct pulp capping. ***
2. Pulpotomy.
3. Pulpctomy.
4. Observe.
4. Time of PT, PTT:

a)11-15 seconds , 25-40 seconds. ***
PTT=30-40sec ---- PT=12-14 sec
bleeding time within < 8 min
5. Young pt came without any complain. During routine X ray appear between the two lower molar lesion diameter
about 2mm & extend laterally with irregular Shape. Whats the type of cyst
a) dentigerous cyst
b) apical cyst
c) radicular cyst
6. A completely edentulous patient, the dentist delivers a denture in the 1st day normally, 2nd day the patient returns
unable to wear the denture again, the cause is:
a) Lack of Skill of the patient
b) Lack of Frenum areas of the Complete denture.
*the cause is pain: due to overextension, scratches, voids
7. When extracting all max teeth the correct order is:

a) 87654321
b) 87542163. ***
c) 12345678
. :
8. How can you alter the sitting time for alginate

a)alter ratio powder water ***
b)alter water ratio
c)we cant alter it
d)by accelerated addition
"Dental decks 672"
The best method to control the gelation time (setting time) is altering the temperature of the water used in the mix.
Changing the water/powder ratio also alter the gelation time but these method also impair certain properities of the
material. Too little or too much water will weaken the gel.Undermixing may prevent the chemical action from
occuring evenly;overmixing may break up the gel
Whats the reason of the wax shrinkage upon fabrication of the bridge/crown
*Wax left off the die
9. For a patient that is on a corticosteroid therapy, upon oral surgery, the patient is given :
A) 100 - 200 mg hydrocortisone. ***
B) 400 - 600 mg prednisolone

10. Patient with lupus erythematous and under cortisone, he needs to surgical extraction of a tooth. What should the
surgeon instruct the patient:
a) Take half of the cortisone dose at the day of operation.
B) Double the cortisone dose at the day of operation.***
c) Take half of the cortisone dose day before and at the day of operation and day after.
D) Double the cortisone dose day before and at the day of operation and day after.
Instruct patient to double dose of steroids the morning of surgery up to 200mg. If taking greater than 100mg, then
give only an additional 100mg.
If on alternate day steroids, do surgery on day steroids are taken
If patient has had 25 mg of steroid for more than two weeks in the past 2 weeks, but is not currently taking
steroids, then give 40mg hydrocortisone prior to surgery
And
For multiple extractions or extensive mucogingival surgery, the dose ofcorticosteroids should be doubled on the day
of surgery. If the patient is treated inthe operating room under general anesthesia, stress level doses of cortisone,
100mg intravenously or intramuscularly, should be given preoperatively.
Doing CANTILEVERS, we consider all of the following EXCEPT:

a) small in all diameters
b) high yield strength
c) minimal contact
d) small occlusogingival length. ***
(The connector), the prep should be long enough
The following are indication of outpatient general anesthesia EXCEPT

a) ASA categories 1 & 2
b) the very young child
c) cost increase
d) Patient admitted and discharge the same day
http://web.squ.edu.om/med-Lib/MED_CD/E_CDs/anesthesia/site/content/v04/040516r00.HTM
Contraindications to Outpatient Surgery
Ex-premature infants less than 27 weeks postconceptual age
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2149014/pdf/anesthprog00222-0007.pdf
05
http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:ATrgYSTl2pIJ:faculty.ksu.edu.sa/saadsheta/CPR%2520and
%2520Emergency/CPR.ppt+"contraindication+OUTPATIENT+general+anesthesia"&cd=26&hl=ar&ct=clnk&gl=sa&lr=l
ang_en|lang_ar

Out-Patient Dental Anesthesia: Dental Chair Anesthesia - Out-Patient dental extraction
Children (4-10 years): high incidence of URTI - Steadily decreased
http://pt.wkhealth.com/pt/re/lww/fulltext.00001503-200212000-
00004.htm;jsessionid=LzmbkxFdzyZ1TnJlh0YFQZy1T9nDcNVTdhgkRnJdbSpQNhyn89ZR!-
643969902!181195628!8091!-1
Although age can no longer be considered a contraindication to outpatientanesthesia and surgery, anesthetic-
related morbidity and mortality remain higher.
http://www.bcm.edu/oto/grand/121996.html
They examined 292 tonsillectomies and their was no documentation on the indications for tonsillectomy in the
results. They found that the risks were significantly increased in children < 3 years of age, neuromuscular disorders,
chromosomal abnormalities, difficulty breathing during sleep, restless sleep, snoring and an upper respiratory tract
infection
The primary source of retention of porcelain veneer

1_mechanical retention from under cut
2_mechanical retention from secondary retentive features
3_chemical bond by saline coupling agent
4_micromechanical bond from etching of enamel and porcelain
49) patient who has un-modified class II kennedy classification, with good periodontal condition and no carious
lesion the best clasp to use on the other side <teeth side>
a) reciprocal clasp (aker's clasp). ***
b) ring clasp
c) embrasure clasp
circlet rigid clasp
Edentulous pt cl II kenndy classification 2nd premolar used as abutment when we surving we found mesial under cut
wt is the proper clasp used:
1/wrought wire with round cross section
2/ wrought wire with half round cross section
3/cast clasp with round cross section
4/ cast clasp with half cross section RPC
A removable partial denture patient, Class II Kennedy classification. The last tooth on the left side is the 2nd
premolar which has a distal caries. Whats the type of the clasp you will use for this premolar:
a) gingivally approaching clasp.
b) ring clasp
If the tooth is isolated put ring clasp ,if not isolated put circlet clasp.

Q1) What are the disadvantages of mcspadden technique in obturation:
a) Increase time.
B) Increase steps.
C) Difficult in curved canals.
D) All the above.
Q4) Patient come to your clinic complaining that the denture become tight, during examination you notice nothing,
but when the patient stand you notice that his legs bowing (curved). What you suspect:
a) Pagets disease.
b) .x
c) .x
Q6) A 55 year old patient with multi-extraction teeth, after extraction what will you do first:
a) Suturing.
B) Primary closure should be obtained if there is no luntant tissue.
C) Alveoplasty should be done in all cases.
Q7) Child with traumatized lip, no tooth mobility, what will you do first:
a) Radiograph to check if there is foreign body.
b) Refer to the physician for sensitivity test.
C) .?
Q8) 2nd maxillary premolar contact area:

a) Middle of the middle third with buccal embrasure wider than lingual embrasure.
B) Middle of the middle third with lingual embrasure wider than buccal embrasure.***
c) Cervical to the incisal third .x
d) .x
Q9) Patient come to the clinic with ill-fitting denture, during examination you notice white small elevation on the
crest of the lower ridge, what will you tell the patient:
a) This lesion needs no concern and he should not worry.
B) The patient should not wear the denture for 2 weeks then follow up. ***
c) x
Q10) How do you know if there are 2 canals in the same root:
a) Radiographically with 2 files inside the root. ***
b) The orifices are close to each other.
Q13) Hunter Schreger bands are white and dark lines that appear in:
a) Enamel when view in horizontal ground.
B) Enamel when view in longitudinal ground
c) Dentin when view in horizontal ground.
D) Dentin when view in longitudinal ground.
Hunter-Schreger band formation as it exists in enamel structure. When examined by reflected light, these bands
appear as alternating light and dark areas in the enamel portion of a longitudinal ground tooth section
A longitudinalsectionthatpassesprecisely through the center of the system (Fig

14) would appear to contain radially directed Hunter-Schreger bands, each
touching the
amelodentinal junction.

Q19) Patient complains from pain in TMJ. During examination you noticed that during opening of the mouth
mandible is deviate the right side with left extruded. Diagnosis is:
a) Condylar displacement with reduction.
B) Condylar displacement without reduction.
C) .x
d) x

Pt. Presented to u complain of click during open and close. Thers is no facial asymmetry EXCEPT when opening What
is the diagnosis:
1-internal derangement with reduction.
2-internal derangement without reduction
3-reumatoid arthritis
4-,,,,,,,
1
Disc dislocation with reduction
) click(
Disc dislocation without reduction
click
Q20) Unilateral fracture of left condyle the mandible will:

a) Deviate to the left side.
B) Deviate to the right side.
if the fx is above the attachment of lateral pterygoid > deviation to the same side
if the fx is below the attachment of lateral pterygoid > deviation to the opposite side
Q21) The aim of treatment maintenance is:

a) Prevent secondary infection. ***
b) Check tissue response.
Q23) During maxillary 3rd molar extraction the tuberosity fractured. It was firmly attached to the tooth and cannot
be separated. What is the management:
a) Remove it with the tooth.
B) Splint the tooth to the 2nd molar then re-extracted after 6 weeks. ideal
C) Suture
Q28) After patient with Hepatitis-B left the dental chair the assistant ask you how to disinfect the dental unit. What
will you suggest:
1. Iodole.
2. 100%dittole.
3. Hypo chloride.
4. gas
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 4.
C) x
d) x
Pc with hepatitis B the best sterilization is

a)formaldahid****
*****b)detol+100%alkohol
c).
D)..
1)a+b
2)a+b+c
3)
4).
192) HBV disinfection: (enough with intermediate disinfection)
A) iodophors. ***
B) dettol / 100% ethyl alcohol (all alcohols are not recommended)
C) hypocloride, ethyl
D) a+b
Q29) Streptococcus activity detected by:

a) Fermentation. ***
B) Catalase.
C) ..x
d) x
Q30) cleidocranial dysostosis characteristic:

a) supernumerary of teeth.
Q32) To hasten Zinc Oxide cement, you add:

a) Zinc sulfide.
B) Barium sulfide.
C) Zinc acetate.
D) Barium chloride.
"Journal of Dental Research"
Q33) In which tooth the contact is at the incisal edge:

a) Lower anterior teeth.
b) x
Q39) Child came to the clinic with amalgam restoration fracture at isthmus portion, this fracture due to:
a) Wide preparation at isthmus. ***
b) High occlusal.
C) shallow preparation
D) constricted isthmus
Isthmus joins the occlusal key with the interproximal box. It is the part of the filling most prone to fracture.
Q40) Child with mental disorder suffer from orofacial trauma, brought to the hospital by his parents, the child is
panic and Irritable, the treatment should done under:
a) Local anesthesia.
B) General anesthesia.
C) Gas sedation.
D) Intravenous sedation.
Q41) Fracture before 1 year of upper central incisor reach the pulp in 8 year old child. How will you manage this case
a) RCT.
B) Apexification. ***
c) Direct pulp capping
d) Indirect pulp capping.
Q45) To remove a broken periodontal instrument from the gingival sulcus:

a) Schwartz Periotriever. ***
B) x
Gingival condition occur in young adult has good oral hygiene was weakened
.ANUG
.desqumative gingivitis
.periodontitis
.gingivitis
"Tyldesley's oral medicine"
The influence of poor oral hygiene in the initiation of ANUG has been often stressed, but there is no doubt that
there are some patients whose standard of hygiene must be considered by normal criteria to be good.
1. Differences between ANUG and AHGS is:

a. ANUG occur in dental papilla while AHGS diffuse erythematous inflamed gingival.
b. ANUG occur during young adult and AHGS in children.
c. All of the above. ***
53. Student, came to clinic with severe pain, interdental papilla is inflamed, student has exams, heavy smoker, poor
nutrition.
A. Gingivitis
b. ANUG
c. Periodontitis
Q46) 1. You should treat ANUG until the disease completely removed. 2. Otherwise, it will change to necrotic
ulcerative gingivitis.
A) Both sentences are true.
B) Both sentences are false.
C) 1st true, 2nd false. it will change to periodontitis
D) 1st false, 2nd true.
240
CUG AUG
Chronic necrotic ulcerative gingivitis :
Burket- Oral medicine page 63
Thepatient must be made aware that, unless the local etiologicfactors of the disease are removed, ANUG may return
orbecome chronic and lead to periodontal disease.
NUG necrotic ulcerative gingivitis

1212 - mypicx.com
Q48) The rows show truth, the column show test resulto
a) Cell A has true positive sample.
B) Cell A has true negative sample.
C) Cell A has false positive sample.
D) Cell A has false negative sample.
Distinguishing between right & left canines can be determined

because distal concavities are larger-
with a line bisecting the facial surface the tip lies distally
others
We can differentiate between the upper mesial & distal canine bythe functional cusp tip is inclined distally if
bisectioning crownthe cervical line on lingual surface is inclined mesiallyroot curved mesially
The best way to remove silver point

a) Steiglitz pliers. ***
c) Ultrasonic tips
d) H files
E) Hatchet
A grasping tool such as the Stieglitz pliers (Henry Schein) can generally get a strong purchase on the coronal end of a
silver point and then, utilizing the concept of fulcrum mechanics, elevate the silver point out of the canal.
Indirect ultrasonics is another important method to remove silver points. It is not wise to place any ultrasonic
instrument directly on the silver point because it will rapidly erode away this soft material.
And
Endodontics Problem solving in clinical practice 2002 page 142
Cement can be removed carefully from around the point using a Piezon ultrasonic unit and CT4 tip or sealer tip. Great
care must be taken not to sever the point and damage the coronal end. The point is withdrawn using Stieglitz forceps
or small-ended artery forceps.
Mucoceles the best tx is:

a) Excision***
b) leave it
c) marsupialization
d) cauterization
407
Optimawater fluoridation:
a) 1-1.5 mg\liter. ***
b) 0.2-0.5 mg\liter.
C) 2-3 mg\liter

457 :
Acute exacerbation of chronic pulpitis:

a) Reversible pulpitis.
B) Irreversible pulpitis.
C) Acute periodontitis. ***
d) Acute exacerbation of chronic pulpitis
ISOLATION PERIOD OF CHICKENBOX SHOULD BE:

-AFTER APPEAR OF RACH BY WEEK
-UNTILL VESICLE BECOME CRUSTED. ***
-UNTIL CARTER STAGE IS LAST
Dental decks - page1308
Its most contagious one day before the onset of rash and until all vesicle have crusted.
10 years pt come with necrotic pulp in upper central with root apex not close yet best treatment
-calcium hydroxide. ***
-calcific barrier.
-apexfication with gutta percha filling
-gutta percha filling
!! CALCIFIC BARRIER
331) child 10 years came with trauma on the center incisor from year ago ,and have discoloring on it , in the
examination ,no vitality in this tooth ,and in the x ray there is fracture from the edge of the incisal to the pulp ,and
wide open apex the best treatment ?
A)calcification. ***
B)RCT with gutta percha
C)extraction
D)capping
Child have tooth which have no moblity but have luxation best treatment:
-acrylic splint
-non rigid fixation = flexible
-rigid fixation
- if lateral luxation and no mobility , reestablish previous occlusion then apply non rigid fixation with an
adjacent tooth. if luxation as in contusion no treatment, only if primary consider intrusive luxation and
pressure over the tooth bud of the permanent-- peterson

To drain submandibular abscess:
a) Intraorally through the mylohyoid muscles.
B) Extraorally under the chin.
C) Extraorally at the most purulent site.
D) Extraorally at the lower border of the mandible. ***
below lower border of man. by atleast 1cm to avoid injury to marginal mandibular , submand. gland, facial
artery and lengual nerve. - OMF secret.
Scale to measure marginal deterioration:
1. Mahler scale.***
2. Color analogues scale.
"Art & Science - page 158"
Progression of the events to deeper or more extensive ditching has been used as visible clinical evidence of
conventional amalgam deterioration and was the basis of the mahler scale
3/ ST.coccus mutans cause caries & this disease is?

1/ epidemic
2/endemic. ***
3/isolated
Dental caries: the disease and its clinical management - Page 124
Best Root Canal Material primary central incisor:

a-idoform
b-Guttapercha
c-Formacresol
3-Studies show that Complete Remineralization of surface of an accidentally etched enamel:

a- never occur
b-after hours
c-after weeks
d- after months
:0
Remineralization of etched enamel occurs from the saliva, and after 24 h it is indistinguishable from
untreated enamel.
:2

. 3 2
4-One of these has no effect on the Life span of handpiece:

a-Low Air in the compressor. ***
b-Trauma to the head of the hand piece
c-Pressure during operating
-- online saurce!

5-Most used Scalpel in oral surgery:
a-Bard Parker blade # 15. ***
12 in fine, source is peterson but not mentioned directly but most of incisions are made with 15 blade
6-Advantage of Wrought Wire in RPD over Cast Wire:

a-Less irritation to the abutment.
couldnt find it
Why we use acrylic more than complete metal palate in complete denture:
- Cant do relining for the metal. ***
Relining of denture:
- remove all or part of fitting surface of the denture and add acrylic
- add acrylic to the base of the denture to increase vertical dimension. ***
Rebasing of Complete Denture mean:
a-Addition or change in the fitting surface
b-Increasing the vertical dimension
c-Change all the fitting surface. ***
470 :
Rebasing is replacement of most or all of the denture base.
8-When Do class I preparation of posterior tooth for Composite Restoration:

a-remove caries only. ***
b-extend 2mm in dentin

9-Color Stability is better in:
a-Porcelain. ***
b-Composite
c-GIC
many sources updated articles
11-when all the teeth are missing EXCEPT the 2 canines , according to kennedy classification it is:
a- Class I modification 1. ***
( )
12-Pontics are classified according to their surface toward the ridge of the missing tooth ,
...............................
A-Both statment are true
b-both are false
c-1st is true ,2nd is false
d-1st false , 2nd true


13-Antibiotics are most used in cases of:
a-Acute Localized lesion
b-Diffuse , Highly progressing lesion. ***
peterson
14-Patient un-cooperation can result in fault of operation, Technical faults ONLY are related to patient
factor
TRUE.
FALSE. ***
ay shay fi ONLY false -general rule
Bone graft material from site to another site in the same person
a-allograft
b-auto graft ***
c-alloplast
d-xenograft
ester type of local anath secreted by -not secreted but excreted

a-liver only
b-kidney
c-lung
cholinesterase is produced by the liver; by breaking ester linkages it inactivates drugs such as
succinylcholine and ester-type local anesthetics. The hepatic microsomal enzyme system converts lipid
soluble drugs into more water soluble ones that can be excreted by the kidney.-peterson
380) where does the breakdown of Lidocaine occurs :
A) kidneys
B) Liver. ***
Energy absorbed by the point of fracture called
a-ultimate strengh
b-elastic limit
c-toughness ***
Toughness
It is defined as the amount of energy per volume that a material can absorb before rupturing.
Toughness - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The ability of a metal to deform plastically and to absorb energy in the process before fracture is termed
toughness.
Toughness
patency filling
a-push the file apically to remove any block at the apex ***
b-rotate the file circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral canals.

c-rotary files circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral canals.
D-file with bleaching agent.
best stress transfer under amalgam

a-with thin base layer.
b-with thick base layer. ***
c-if put on sound dentin.
637. Tooth with full crown need RCT, you did the RCT through the crown, what is the best
Restoration to maintain the resistance of the crown:
A) Glass ionomer resin with definite restoration.
Acidulated phosphat flouride

a-1% fluoride ions
b-1.23% ***
c-2%
d-2.23%
f-3%
http://www.ada.org.au/App_CmsLib/Media/Lib/0610/M28845_v1_632973825445597500.pdf
15/ child with vesicle on the hard palate with history of malaise for 3 days what is the possible diagnosis:
1/ herpes simplex. ***
2/ erythema multiform
047
emedicine viral oral infc.
16/ 5 years old pt had extraction of the lower primary molar & he had fracture of the apex of the tooth
what is the best ttt:
1/ aggressive remove
2/ visualization & remove
3/ visualization & leave. ***
to prevent injury to tooth bud
17 / 7 y/o boy came to the clinic in the right maxillary central incisor with large pulp exposure:
1/ pulpectomy with Ca(OH)2
2/ pulptomy with Ca(OH)2. ***

3/ Direct pulp capping
4/ leave it
partial pulpotomy

23/ wax properties are:
1/ expansion
2/ internal stress

:
:
.
24/ old pt came to replace all old amalgam filling he had sever occlusal attriation the best replacement is:
1/ composite
2/ amalgam
3/ cast metal restoration
4/ full crowns. ***
5 347
:25/ Teenager boy with occlusal wear the best ttt is
1/ remove the occlusal
2/ teeth capping
3/ restoration
Child has bruxism to be treated with

sedative
cusp capping
vinyl plastic bite guard. ***
"Dentistry for Child and Adolescent - Page 646"

A vinyl plastic bite guard that covers the occlusal surfaces of all teeth plus 2 mm of the buccal and lingual
surfaces can be worn at night to prevent continuing abrasion. The occlusal surface of the bite guard should
be flat to avoid occlusal interference
26/ avulsed tooth:
1/ splint (7-14) day. ***

2/ or (3- 14) weeks
if closed apix and stored in suitable medium such as hank's solution then 7-10 days- peterson
33-proxy brush with which type of furcation:

Furcation Grade 1-1
Furcation Grade 2-2
Furcation Grade 3-3. ***
Furcation Grade 4-4
online sources

41.instrument which we use to make groove in the wax is
Curver
After u did upper& lower complete denture 4 old pt. He came back 2 the clinic next day complaining of un
comfort with the denture
After u re check ,no pain, good occlusion, good pronunciations , but u notice beginning of inflammation in
the gum and outer margins of the lips , u will think this is due to:
1- xerostomia. ***
2-vit-B deficiency
online sources?
Patient with leukemia absolute neutrophilic count is 1700 what oral surgeon should do
go on the manager
postpone another day
work with prophylactic antibiotic. ***
platelets transfusion
do nothing-----and absolute neutrophil count are sufficient to recommend oral treatment. Postpone oral
surgery or other oral invasive procedures if:
platelet count is less than 75,000/mm3 or abnormal clotting factors are present.
absolute neutrophil count is less than 1,000/mm3 (or consider prophylactic antibiotics).- NIDCR
recommendation
Amalgam restoration and there is also gold restoration in the mouth what should dentist do?
Change rest.
Put separating medium.
Wait. ***
put varnish.
:
.
51-colour of normal gingiva in interplay between:

Keratin- b.v. melanin- epithelial thickness
An 8 years old child, suffered a trauma at the TMJ region as enfant. Complaining now from limitation in
movement of the mandible. Diagnosis is:
a) Sub luxation
b) Ankylosis. ***
1. Genralised lymphadenopathy seen in

a- infection
b- lymphocytic leukemia
c- HIV
d- perncious anemia
a+b
a+b+c. ***
only d
b+d
leukemia + infections, hiv no
emedicine
Pt has bad oral hygine and missing the right and left lateral insicor what ttt
1_implant
2_rpd
3_conventional fpd
4_Marylad bridge. ***
"Summery of Operative dentistry page 44"
Small occlusal forces (adhesive bridges in bruxist patients or when replacing maxillary canine have poor
results) Intermediate restoration. Missing lateral incisors. Virgin abutment teeth. Favorable
occlusal scheme (deep overbite unfavourable, Class III occlusion favourable) Splinting teeth.
Contraindication of gingivectomy
surgical interference with edentulous ridge for

a-good retention, stability and continuous uniform alveolar ridge. ***

3.The tip of size 20 endo file is:
- 0.02 m.m
- 0.2 m.m***
4.In FPD in upper posterior teeth we should have gingival embrasure space to have healthy gingival so the
contact:
-in the middle
-depend in the opposing occlusion
8.Bonding agent for enamel we use:

-unfilled resin. ***
-primer & adhesive bonding agent.
-resin dissolve in acetone or alcohol.
-primer with resin modified glass ionomer.
The etchant: phosphoric acid, nitric acid, or another agent that is used to etch enamel and/or 1-
.precondition the dentin
The primer: a hydrophylic monomer in solvent, such as hydroxymethalmethacrylate. It acts as a wetting 2-

agent and provides micromechanical and chemical bonding to dentin
3- The unfilled resin is then applied and light or dual-cured. This layer can now bond to composite,
pretreated porcelain luted with composite, or amalgam in some products.
10.We redo high copper amalgam restoration when we have:

-amalgam with proximal marginal defect. *** >food accumulation
-open margin less than 0.5 mm
11.Complex amalgam restoration when to do it:

-weak of the cusp with undermine enamel.
-
-bevel and contra bevel
-week cusp should strengthen it by resin
2. For cavity class II amalgam restoration in a second maxillary premolar, the best matrix to be Used:
A) Tofflemire matrix. ***
B) Mylar matrix
C) Gold matrix
D) Celluloid strips
Summery of Operative dentistry page 220

Types of matrices
Metal Firm, used for amalgam restorations.
Mylar Easily mouldable and can light-cure through; used for resin composite.
Plastic Rigid, can light-cure through; used in Class V cavities.
Difficult cases In deep subgingival cavities use of special matrices such as tofflemire or automatrix or
copper bands often achieve better contact points and marginal adaptation.
Occasionally electrosurgery required to permit matrix adaptation.
13.Most important sealer criteria to be success:

-high viscosity
-high retention
-high strength
-can add colorant
-High resilience
14.Discoloration of endo treated teeth: ??????
-hemorrhage after trauma
-incomplete remove GP from the pulp chamber
- Incomplete removal of pulp tissue
Pocket Atlas of Endodontics page 178

In order to prevent discoloration of the tooth crown by components of the root canal filling material, a
heated instrument must be used to sever the filling material 2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction.
Pocket Atlas of Endodontics page 88

It must be sufficiently extended mesially and distally so that the pulp horns can be completely accessed
and all necrotic tissue removed. Tissues that are left behind can lead later on to discoloration of the clinical
crown.
Pathway of the pulp 9ed page 231
blood recomposesand Hb gets converted to Haemosiderin which enters the dentinal tubules and causes
the typical black discolouration after trauma, similarly,after a root ca nal, if the biomech is not done well
and insufficient usage of irrigants like hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide,the same flows into the tubules
and a tooth which looked normal suddenly looks black AFTER root canal.
The access cavity is positioned too far to the gingival with no incisal extension. This can lead to bur and file
breakage, coronal discoloration because the pulp horns remain.
ISOLATION AND IDENTIFICATION OF ROOT CANAL BACTERIA FROM SYMPTOMATIC NONVITAL TEETH WITH
PERIAPICAL PATHOSIS
ANURADHA RANI *
ASHOK CHOPRA **
16. Cast with (+ve) bubble b/c of:

- air trapped
-Mixing stone
- Voids in impression when taken by the dentist*.
-pouring
-using warm water when mixing stone.
-plaster is too thick
various online sources

17.Non absorbable suture:
-catgut
-vicryl
-silk. ***
18.most important criteria for full ceramic FPD:

-high compressive strength. ***
- High tensile strength.
Restorative dental materials 2002 page 5

Because ceramics are stronger in compression than in tension, this property is used to advantage to
provide increased resistance to shattering.
19- Balance occlusion should be utilize in natural dentition . & may all or some of the teeth contact in both
side regardless where mandible move.
-.1st true & 2nd false
- 1st false & 2nd true
- both false
- both true
20. Balance occlusion in complete denture help in:

-retention
- stability &..
-
21. Reciprocal arm in RPD help to resist the force applied by which parts:
-retentive arm*
- guide plane and
23. Pt come with pain tooth #.. When drink hot tea . Pain continuous for 10 minutes diagnosis:
- irreversible pulpitis ***
- necrotic

24.Thickness of amalgam in complex amalgam restoration in cusp tip area:
- 0.5 mm
- 1-1.5 mm
- 1.5-2 mm
-2-3 mm
The goal is to have at least 2 mm of amalgam thickness for functional cusps and 1.5 mm of amalgam for
nonfunctional cusps during final restoration-online
25. Pulp with age:

- reduce collagen fiber
- Increase cellular in pulp
- decrease pulp chamber size.***
Specific changes occur in dental pulp with age. Cell death results in a decreased number of cells. The
surviving fibroblasts respond by producing more fibrous matrix (increased type I over type II collagen) but
less ground substance that contains less water. So with age the pulp becomes:
a) less cellular
b) more fibrous
c) overall reduction in volume due to the continued deposition of dentin (secondary/reactive)
Pt need complete denture u take impression with irreversible hydrocolloid & poured it after late more than
15 min the cast appear sort & chalky the reason is:
a. Dehydration of the impression. *** OX
b. Expansion of the impression
c. Immerse the impression in a chemical solution
27. Lingual bar contraindication:
- short lingual sulcus
- long lingual sulcus
- too crowded lower anterior teeth
Dental decks 671
.
. :
28. Over extended GP should remove using:

- ultrasonic vibrating.
- dissolving agent.
- rotary or round bur--- could be -- An in-vitro analysis of gutta-percha removal using three different
techniques *Bharathi G **Chacko Y ***Lakshminarayanan L
- surgery
29. Sterilization mean killing:

- Bacteria and virus
-. Bacteria, virus, fungus and protozoa. ***
- Bacteria and fungu
44. Material which used for flasking complete denture:
- plaster
- stone
-refractory
Plaster or stone can be used (hassaballa book)
Q- Ideal properties of RC filling material is the following EXCEPT:

a) Radiolucent in radiograph (grossman ideal properties to be radioopaque) torabinjad book
b)Not irritate the surrounding tissue

c) Easily removable when retreatment is necessary
d)Stable and less dimensional change after insertion
Q- Patient came to your clinic with dull pain in the #6 ,no response to the pulp tester, in radiographs it
shows 3mm of radiolucency at the apex of the root
Diagnosis is
a)chronic apical periodontitis(s:none to mild pain + PA RL) torabinjad
b) acute apical periodontitis
c)acute periodontitis with abscess
Q- best core material receiving a crown on molar:
a)amalgam. ***torabinjad
b)reinforced glass ionomer
d)composite
Direct method Pre-formed posts are cemented into one or more canals. Amalgam may also be Packed into
the coronal aspect of the root canals (Nayyar core technique) and an amalgam core Built up, which is the
preferred technique. Resin modified GI or resin composite may also be used.
These materials have the advantage that the preparation can be completed at the same visit. A Dentine
adhesive system should be used with resin composite to enhance retention.
Q- most comon site which drain pus is:
a) mandibular central incisors (most common site with vestibular space infection or abscess and thinnest
overlying buccal bone)
b)mandibular canines
c) mandibular first molar
Q-The nasopalatine bone forms a triangle will be parallel to an imaginary lines extended between
cemento-enamel junctions of adjacent teeth
True
False
Q- When removing moist carious dentin which exposes the pulp, dentist should:
1- do direct pulp cap
2- do indirect pulp cap
3- prepare for endo. ***
"Dental secrets page 167"
There is general agreement that carious exposure of a mature permanent tooth generally requires
endodontic therapy. Carious exposure generally implies bacterial invasion of the pulp, with toxic products
involving much of the pulp.
However, partial pulpotomy and pulp capping of a carious exposure in a tooth with an immature apex have
a higher chance of working.
"Dental pulp 2002 page 335"
Cavity Cleansing, Disinfection, and Hemorrage Control
A clinical review failed to support direct pulpcapping or pulpotomy procedures in te eth when a mechanical
exposure pushes infected carious operative debris into the subjacent pulp . Because of the stigma of long-
term failures, our profession generally selects traditional endodontic treatment. Only in the treatment of
pulp exposures in fractured young anterior teeth with open apices does the literature discuss pulpotomy
or direct pulp-capping with Ca(OH)2.
Q- In prevention of dental caries, the promotion of a healthy diet is:
1- low effective measure
2- moderately effective measure??? Not sure
3- high effective measure
4- mandatory measure
Q- Treatment of cervical caries in old patients with a temporary restoration is best done by:
a)Glass ionomer. ***
b)composite resitn
Q- Most used sugar substitute:
a) Sorbitol (website reference )
b) Mannitol
c) Insulin
d) Xylitol ***
Q- Follow up of RCT after 3 years , RC failed best treatment is to:

a) Extraction of the tooth
b) Redo the RCT . ***
c) Apicectomy
Q- acute abscess is:

a) Cavity lined by epithelium.
B) Cavity containing blood cells.
C) Cavity containing pus cells. ***
d) Cavity containing fluid.

An abscess is a pathological cavity filled with pus and lined by a pyogenic membrane.
epithelium ( )
.05 Pathway of the pulp 9ed 1st
Q-The most close tooth to the maxillary sinus:

a)maxillary 1st molar. ***
Q17) The aim of biomechanical process during endo is to allow:

a) GP reach the apex.
b) Debridement materials reach the apical area.
C) ..x
632. The aim of treatment maintenance is:
A) Prevent secondary infection.. ***
B) Check tissue response.
Q- the retainer of rubber dam

a)four points of contact two buccally and two lingually without rocking
b) four points of contact two buccally and two lingually above the height of contour
c) four points of contact two mesially and two distally
d) 2 points
Q- in registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous pt, the physiological rest position:
a) is equal to the vertical dimension of occlusion
b) may be exceeded if the appearance of the pt is enhanced
c) is of a little importance as it is subjected to variations
d) must always be greater than vertical dimension of occlusion
Mandibular fracture other complications:

1_nasal bleeding
2- exophthalmos
3-numbness in the infraorbital nerve distribution
Hypercementosis and ankylosis is seen in

a: paget disease
b: monocytic fibrous dysplasia
c: hyperparathirodism
7 years patient come with untreared truma to tooth that became yellow in colour what you shoul tell the
parents
a: pulp is dead
b: pulp become calcified ( tooth in this age still not complete root formation yellwish color indicate
calcificaton)
c: the tooth will absorb normally?
1: a and b
2: a and c
3" all of the above
The infection will spread cervically in infection from
a: lower incisors
b lower premolars
c: lower 2nd and 3rd molars(sublingual sub mand)
d: upper incsisors
Infeerior orbital fissure located
In hypertension patient the history is important to detect severity

a: true
b: false
When take x ray in upper premolar to locate lingual root using mesial shift it will apear
a: distal
b: buccal
c: lingual
d: mesial. ***
in inflamed muocosa due to wearing denture to when do new denture
a: immediatly
b: after week
c: put tissue conditioning material and wait until the tissue heal and take impression after 2 weeks. ***
23.the needle holder used in suturing of lower third molar

curved haemostate. ***
allis forceps?(stillies forceps: longer forceps than adison ) peterson
Adson forceps
Regular tweezers.
1- Remove thick epulis figuratum:
a- Allis forceps *** petrson

b- Adson forcep
c- Curved hemostat
2) forceps to hold flap when suturing

answer: adson's ***

Pulp oedema
1- has no effect on vascular system
2- fluid is compressed in the vessels limiting the intercellular pressure
3- interstitial pressure increased due to increased vascularity ***
4- cause necrosis of the pulp tissues
the favored relationship in case of fabrication of a lower class 1 RPD opposing a natural dentition is
1- prognathism
2- working side
3- balancing side
4- none of the above
6) mechanochemical prep'n during RCT main aim:

1) widening of the apex
2) master cone reaches the radiographic apex
3) proper debridement of the apical part of the canal***
7) master cone doesn't reach the apex

1)ledge
2)residual remenants (debris)
3)......
4) 1&2 ***
13) pterygomandibular raph.

Insertion & origin
muscles
should be medial to the injection
all of the above. ***
16) child patient with oblitration in the centeral permenant incisor. What will you do:
RCT
pulpotomy
pulpectomy
careful monitoring***
a drawing
The divergence should be mesiodistally for an amalgam restoration

no it should be convergent
if the remaining proximal marginal ridge = 1.6 mm
only if > 1.6 ***
only if < 1.6

9- Picture of the tooth show divergence of the mesial and distal
a- Not correct, it should be convergence
b- Correct but it should be for occlusal with = 1.6mm
c- = = = >1.6mm ***
d- <1.6 mm
((?? not sure))
293. Patient that has a central incisor with severe resorption and who's going through an ortho
treatment that is going to make him extract the premolars, which of the following won't be present in the
treatment plan
rpd
implant
Maryland bridge
auto implant of the premolars.

:02
Transplantation of a lower premolar into the socket of an extracted incisor can be considered if lower arch is
crowded.
294. Patient with radiopacity in the periapical area of a 1st mandibular molar with a wide carious lesion
and a bad periodontal condition is:
condensing osteosis ***
hypercementosis
295. Patient had anaphylactic shock due to penicillin injection , what's the most important in the
emergency treatment to do:
200 mg hydrocortisone intravenous
0.5 mg epinephrine of 1/10000 intra venous
adrenaline of 1/1000 intra muscular. ***
Http: //http: //www.wrongdiagnosis.com...y/treatment...

Anaphylaxis is always an emergency. It requires an immediate injection of 0.1 to 0.5 ml of epinephrine 1:
1,000 aqueous solution, repeated every 5 to 20 minutes as necessary.
If the patient is in the early stages of anaphylaxis and hasnt yet lost consciousness and is still
normotensive, give epinephrine I.M. or subcutaneously (S.C.), helping it move into the circulation faster by
massaging the injection site. For severe reactions, when the patient has lost consciousness and is
hypotensive, give epinephrine I.V.
:
-7.0 %2
1/1000 %7.5
263) bronchial asthma epinephrine concentration subcutaneously
A) 1/1000. ***
B) 1/10000

C) 1/100000

If the reaction is immediate (less than 1 hour) and limited to the skin, 50
mg of diphenhydramine should be given immediately either intravenously or intramuscularly. The patient

should be monitored and emergency services contacted to transport the patient to the emergency
department. If other symptoms of allergic reaction occur, such as conjunctivitis, rhinitis, bronchial
constriction, or angioedema, 0.3 cc of aqueous 1/1000 epinephrine should be given by subcutaneous or
intramuscular injection. The patient should be monitored until emergency services arrive. If the patient
becomes hypotensive, an
intravenous line should be started with either Ringers lactate or 5% dextrose/water.
27) which is contraindicated to the general anaesthia:

patient with an advanced medical condition like cardiac ....***
down's syndrome patient
child with multiple carious lesion in most of his dentition
child who needs dental care, but who's uncooperative, fearful...etc
28) continuous condensation technique in gp filling is:

obtura I
obtura II
ultrafill
System B. ***
39 ) best material for major connector.

Gold wrought wire
chrome cobalt ***
gold palladium
titanium
41) during 3/4 crown preparation on premolar, bur used to add retentive grooves is:
radial fissure
42) on a central incisor receiving a full ceramic restoration, during finishing of the
shoulder finish line subgingivally
Diamond end cutting
44) in a class III composite with a liner underneath, what's the best to use
light cured GI. ***
zno Eug
Reinforced znoeug
45) outline of 2nd molar Access Opening
Triangular with the base mesially***

397) The outline form of upper maxillary molar access opening is Triangular, The base of this triangle is
directed toward :
A) Buccal. ***
B) Palatal
C) Mesial
D) Distal
48)after usage of sharp scalpels, needles, what's the best management

1) throw in a special container of sharp instrument. ***
2)sterilize and re use
3) through in ordinary plastic waste basket
259) sharping of hand instrument mounted air driven better than unmounted due to
A) fine grit. ***
B) sterilization
C) ability to curve instrument
The mounted-stone technique. The second technique for sharpening dental instruments is the mounted-
stone technique. This technique is especially useful in sharpening instruments with curved or irregularly
shaped nibs. Equipment consists of mandrel-mounted stones, a straight handpiece, lubricant, two-inch by
two-inch gauge, and again, the instrument to be sharpened. Mounted stones are made of two materials,
Arkansas stones and ruby stones (sometimes called sandstones). Ruby stones are primarily composed of
aluminum oxide. The ruby stone is comparatively coarse, has a rapid cutting ability, and is used for
sharpening instruments that are dull. Mounted stones are cylindrical in shape and appear in several sizes.
They have a fine grit and are used with the straight handpiece. The stones permit rapid sharpening, but
without extreme care, will remove too much metal and may overheat the instrument. Overheating the
instrument will destroy the temper, thereby causing the instrument to no longer hold a sharp edge.
22) Unmounted sharpening instruments are better than mounted because:

has finer grains
don't alter the bevel of the instrument
easier to sterilize
less particles of the instruments are removed = cut less of the plade.
Veterinary dentistry: principles and ... -

&ved=0CA0Q6AEwAQ&safe=active#v=onepage&q&f=fals e
Unmounted stones are customarly preferred as they are kinder on insturment by removing less metal in
the sharpening process
"Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials: Theory, Practice, and Cases, 3rd Edition "
Came to the clinic complaining from pain related to swelling on maxillary central incisor area which vital
and normal under percussion?
1/ periapical cyst
2/incisive cyst( nasopalatin cyst)
3/ globulomaxillary cyst
4/ aneurysmalbone cyst
Y/o boy came to the clinic in the right maxillary central incisor with large pulp exposure:
1/ pulpectomy with Ca(OH)2
2/ pulptomy with Ca(OH)2. ***

3/ Direct pulp capping
4/ leave it
The percentage of simple caries located in the outer wall of the dentin (proximal sides of the tooth) which
left with out cavitations is around:
1-10%
2-30%
3-60% ***
4-90%
Irrigation solution for RCT ,when there is infection and draining from the canal is
a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Iodine potassium
c) sodium hypochlorite and iodine potassium. ***
"Pocket Atlas of Endodontics page 154"
Therefore, like citric-acid rinsing, EDTA solution is recommended before the placement of calcium
hydroxide. At a 15% concentration, citric acid has been shown to be very effective against anaerobic
bacteria.
Solvidont, a bisdequalium acetate, exhibits good antibacterial properties, but also an unfavorable
relationship between cytotoxicity and antibacterial efficiency.
Physiologic saline (nacl) is by far the most tissue-friendly rinsing solution, but its antibacterial effect is quite
low.
Iodine and also potassium iodine are good antiseptics with equally good tissue biocompatibility.
Betadine is the commercially available product.
With paraformaldehyde or phenol-containing solutions, on the other hand, the tissue toxicityis higher than
the antibacterial efficacy.

2- pt came with class IV he had tooth trauma & he brought the fracture segment & on examination u found
that the pulp is not exposed & only u can see dentine, how u manage:
- to get rid of the fragment & fill with composite
- to reattach the fragment with composite and latter cover with veneer
- others
12-patient came to dentist after previous stressful procedure complaining of burning & discomfort of his
lip on examination u found lesions on the palate, diagnosis is
contact dermatitis-
allergy-
aphthous ulser-
herpes simplex (herpetic gingivostomatitis) ***
1- adult 20 years male with soft tissue & dental trauma reveals severe pain in soft tissues with loss of
epithelial layers and anterior upper centrals are intruded the diagnosis is:
a-abrasion with luxation
b-errosion with sub luxation
c-ulceration with luxation
d-ulceration with subluxation
2-trigeminal neuralgia treated by carbomizapine, the max dose per day divided in doses is:
a-200 mg
B-500mg
C-1000mg
D-1200mg
074 :
0277-277
Usual Adult Dose for Trigeminal Neuralgia

Initial dose: 100 mg orally twice a day (immediate or extended release) or 50 mg orally 4 times a day
(suspension).
May increase by up to 200 mg/day using increments of 100 mg every 12 hours (immediate or extended
release), or 50 mg four times a day. (suspension), only as needed to achieve freedom from pain. Do not
exceed 1200 mg/ day.
Maintenance dose: 400 to 800 mg/day.
Some patients may be maintained on as little as 200 mg/day while others may require as much as 1200
mg/day. At least once every 3 months throughout the treatment period, attempts should be made to
reduce the dose to the minimum effective level or to discontinue the drug
Read more: Carbamazepine Dosage - Drugs.com
3-10 years child with congenital heart disease came for extraction of his lower 1st molar, the antibiotic for
choice for prevention of infective endocarditis is;
a-ampicelline 30 mg /kg orally 1hour before procedure
b-cephalixine 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure

c-clindamicine 20mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure
d-amoxicilline 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure
Dental secrets
"Amoxicillin, 2.0 gm orally 1 hr before procedure"
4-the organism that not found in newborn mouth:

a-streptococcus mutant
b-streptococcus salivaris
c-e-coli
d-skin bacteria
Http://jdr.sagepub.com/content/49/2/415.full.pdf
- Breast-fed babies, six months' old, studied by Belding and Belding,6 did not have S salivarius. When diets
were supplemented with cereals and sugar, S salivarius became the dominant organism of saliva. When
this supplement was excluded from the diet, S salivarius disappeared entirely.
- The absence of S mutans and S sanguis from the mouth of the infants agrees with previous findings that
these streptococci require hard surfaces such as teeth and dentures for successful colonization in the
mouth.'0"14 Subsequent studies of the infants in the present study will reveal if the occurrence of these
streptococci in the mouth is strictly correlated to the eruption of the teeth.
And
This infection, which generally affects only one breast, usually occurs two to three weeks postpartum, but
it might occur after only one week. It's caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli bacteria.1
These bacteria often are carried on the mother's or (hospital) staff's unwashed hands, or in the newborn's
mouth.2 The bacteria enter the mother's body through an open, injured area of the nipple, although in
some cases there might be no discernible wound.
288) baby born without which bacteria:
A) Streptococcus mutans. ***
390) for a newly erupted tooth, the most bacteria found around the tooth is
A) Streptococcus mutans. ***
B) Streptococcus salivaris
What is uses if microscop???

To see metaobolic.
To see live cells. ***
To see dead cells.
6-instrument used for scratching stone cast to make postdam:
a-le cron carver
In primary tooth for restoration before putting the filling u put

base-
calcium hydroxide ***
varnish-
-best way to detect presence of 2 canals

putting 2 files & take x-ray ***
-for root canal treated tooth u choose to put post & amalgam this depend on
remaining coronal structure ***
root divergence-
presence of wide root-
others
19-The best method for core build up is:
Amalgam. 1.
Compomer. *** 2.
Glass ionomer. 3.
Patient has a palatal torus b/w hard & soft palate, the major connector of choice
anteroposterior palatal strap-

1-U shaped is the least favorable
u shaped ***
posterior palatal design Bcoz its lack rigidity
2-Using indirect retainer is a must
Clinical prosthodontic 11edition
White lesion bilaterally on cheek,& other member in the family has i

-leukoplakia
-white sponge nevus. ***
Its rare genodermatosis that is inhered as an
others
autosomal dominant trait
Usually appear at birth
White diffuse plaque bilaterally
May present extra orally
Other name: cannone disease
Ref: oral &maxillofacial pathology nevile 2

edition
Pt construct for him a complete denture after few days he came to u complaining from pain & white spots on the residual ridge
do relief in that area & give him ointment & after few days he came again complaining the same but in another area the main
cause is :
a. Uneven pressure on the crest of alveolar ridge.
b. Increase vertical dimension
Didn't find the answer in book
But I've asked dr hassaballah his answer

was b because if we have high v
dimension causing pain it will stay even
after we relief the area bcoz the cause is
still exist
After final inlay cementation and before complete setting of cement we should:
a-remove occlusal interferences
b-burnishing of peripheries of restoration for more adaptation. ***
c-lowering occlusal surface
It is easier to remove excess cement before it

finally sets. Once the cement is hard the
rubber dam is removed and the occlusion
checked with articulating paper and adjusted
with fine diamond burs
12-pt with renal dialysis the best time of dental tx is:
a-1 day before dialysis Ref: Pickard's Manual of Operative Dentistry
b-1 day after dialysis. *** Eighth edition OXFORD page 186.
c-1week after dialysis
@hypotension resulting from depleted fluid occur
appro in 30% of pt ,cerebrovascular accident, and
myocardial infarction ,serious sequlae of hemo dialysis
that occur during or immediately after dialysis so the
best treatment is on one day after dialysis
@Avoid using NSIAD coz its ncrease Na retention

impaired action of diuretic lead to acidosis
@Avoid using tetracycline ,cephalosporin
@Using pharmacological sedative during stressful

procedure is recommended to inhibit ncrease systolic
pressure\
@Patients typically receive dialysis 3 times/week.

Dental treatment for a patient on dialysis should be
done on the day between dialysis appointments to
avoid bleeding difficulties.
17) patient with 5 years old denture has a severe gag reflex , upon history he says he had the same symptoms in the first few
days of the denture delievery and it went all alone
patient has severe gag reflex
Ref: Burket's oral medicine, Dental secrets page 54
patient has underlying systemic condition.
denture is overextende I couldn't find the answer in
book but dr.hassaballah
choose 2
17 Pt presented with vehicle accident u suspect presence of bilateral condylar fracture what is the best view to diagnose
condylar Fracture:
1. Occiptomenatal.
2. Reverse towne. ***
3. Lat oblique 30 degree @Occiptomental RG :middle 3d facial fx lefort
I,II,III
Coronoid process
@Reverse town :high neck fx
Condylar fx
@Lateral oblique :angle of the mandible

.salivary gland
@Posteranterior :low neck fx
20 - Female come need to endodontic for central insical ,and have media composite restorations in the mesial and distal walls
,and have attrition in the insicial, edge the best restoration?
1. Jacket crown.
2. Full crown. ***
3. Metal crown
The nerve which supplies the tongue and may be anesthetized during nerve block injection:
1. V. ***
2. VII.
3. IX.
4XII Taste of the ant 2/3 of tongue :
Fac ial nerve (Chorda tympani)
General sensation of the anterior 2/3 : Lingual
Nerve which is a branch of Trigeminal nerve CN V
Taste and general sensation for the post1/3:

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9).
All intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue are

supplied by the Hypoglossal nerve (CN 12), except for one
of the extinsic muscles, palatoglossus, which is inervated
by CN10 of the pharyngeal plexus
Ref:snill human antomy

Electro surgery rate:
1. 1.5 7.5 million cycle per seconds. ***
2. 7.5 10 million cycle per seconds.
Rate of electrosurgery
3. 10 25 million cycle per seconds.
4. 30 million cycle per seconds
1.5 7.5 million cycle per seconds or
megahertz
There 3 classes of acive elecrodes
Single electrode for incision or excision
Loop electrode for planning tissue
Heavy electrode for coagulaion
Ref : Caranza periodontology page 899
41 - Immature tooth has less sensation of cold hot due to:

1. Short root.
2. Incomplete innervations.
3. Wide pulp chamber.
38 - Pt came to the clinic after he has an accident. X-ray revealed bilateral fracture of the condoyle. Mandible movements are
normal in all direction. What is your treatment?
1. Inter maxillary mandibular fixation.
2. Fixed IMF for 6 weeks.
3. Inter mandibular fixation.
4. No treatment is performed only anti inflammatory drugs and observation.
If there is change in occlusion : perform open reduction and

bone plating of one side only
If no changes :Conservative treatment, including close

observation, soft diet, physiotherapy, and functional
appliances, is advised in most cases
Unilateral condylar
fractures without displacement, are generally treated

6 years old patient received trauma in his maxillary primary incisor, the tooth is intruded. The permanent incisors are expected
to have: conservatively using arch bars and intermaxillary fixation
1. Yellowish or whitish discoloration. ***

2. Displacement.
3. Malformation.
4. Cracks in enamel.
Sequalae
@Localized enamel hypoplasia trauma to the primary

tooth can disturb enamel formation in the underlying
permanent tooth, especially on the labial surface. This
condition is referred to as Turners Hyposplasia
@White or yellowish-brown discoloration - Small to large

opacities of hypocalcification in the enamel are thought to
be caused by periapical infection.
@Crown or root dilaceration - Crown dilaceration occurs in

3% of injuries to the primary dentition
Ref: paediaric dentistry 3edition ch 12
35 - What is the best media for keep avulsion tooth:

1. In water same temperature of room.
2. In milk same temperature of room. ***
3. In cold water. Milk is an effective isomolar mediam
4. In cold milk.
Ref: paediaric dentistry 3edition ch 12
Child with previous history of minor trauma with excessive bleeding we do test the result is prolong PT & slightly increase
clotting time & . Test is +ve.
the diagnosis is:

a.hemophelia B. @Hemophilia B: PT normal PTT raised , bleeding time ,platelet
b.thrombocytopenia.
c.vit.K deficiency.
count normal
@thrombocytopenia: PT ,APTT normal
@VI k deficiency: PT ,APTT prolonged easily bruising
VI k is residues for factors 2,7,9,1o
Ref: Clinical medicine 5 edition page 463 by parveen kumer

3. Head and neck nevi with multi lesion is:
1/Eagle syndrome.
2/ (Albright syndrome)

Albright It is suspected when two of the three following features are present:
autonomous) endocrine hyperfunction such as precocious puberty

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
Unilateral Caf-au-lait spots
Eagle syndrome is a rare condition where an elongated temporal styloid process

(more than 30mm) is in conflict with the adjacent anatomical structures. can
present with unilateral sore throat, dysphagia, tinnitus, unilateral facial and neck
pain, and otalgia
Ref: Ref: oral &maxillofacial pathology nevilee 2 edeition
Avulsed teeth with replantation, dentist evaluate prognosis with :

1/flexible wire
2/ridge wire
3/in follow-up pd wire
Completed in centric occlusion is normal but in eccentric occlusion the lower ant teeth & upper ant are interfere with contact wt
should be do:
1/reduction of mand incisor
2/'' '' max ''
3/reduction of lingual inclination of max incisior
4/'' '' '' '' '' '' mand ''
The correct answer is :
1_Reduction of labio incisal of lower ant
2_palatal surface of max teeth
Ref :clinical complete dt prosthodontic p 365
Food low cariogenic affect the following should be characteristic:

1/low buffring capacity
2/ph low than3
3/contain mineral
High Cariogenicity Low Cariogenicity
High fermentable carbohydrate content Relatively high protein

(starch, sugars, or a mixture) Moderate amounts of fat
Sticky consistency Minimal amounts of carbohydrate
Breaks into small particles in the mouth High concentration of calcium and phosphorus
Causes pH to fall below 5.5 pH greater than 6
Highly processed Stimulates saliva secretion
196 | P a g e A l l R i g h t s R e s e r v e d 2 0 1 Examples:
3 | O z i D Examples:
ent.com
Crackers Cheese
109. Histopathologically, early verrcus carcinoma :
a. Have characteristic microscopic features
b. Can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis
c. Can be confused with Lichen planus
d. Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
It is characterized by wide and elongated rete ridges that appear to push into
underlying ct (bulbous rete ridges
It could be similar o papilloma
Ref: oral &maxillofacial pathology nevilee 2 edition
10- for recording of vertical dimention we use
Resting face height is assessed using
@ A Willis gauge, to measure the distance between the

base of nose and the underside of the chin. Is only accurate
to 1 mm
@The patient's appearance and speech.
@ profile silhoute
WillisGauge.
@Face mask
Ref: . clinical complete dt prosthodontic

15)what name of bur used in proximal surface of laminate veneer???
Radial
dimound Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005)
fissure page 194 Ref :fundamental of fixed prosth.3edeition p455
Round end diamond bur
16)what name of bur use in facial surface of veneer???

Dimond. ***
fissure
Ref :fundamental of fixed prosth.3edeition p455

15)patient feel sever pain upper mouth pain is radiated to easy and ear ,after you check no caries when you pressure on
maxillary premolar he feel pain. In x ray no change what diagnosis???
Acute apical periodontits
maxilary sinusitis. ***
canine space infection
dentoalveolar infection Max sinusitis :
Symptom of acute sinusitis :headache ,fever, photophobia ,pain on cheek

bone ,tooth ache in premolar and molar area
Causative organism: s.pneumoniae, H.influenza, moraxella catarhalis
Acute apical periodontites
Etiology :irreversibly inflamed pulp by caries,or resto in hyperocclusion

.over instrumentation
Canine space infection is evidenced by anterior cheek swelling with loss of

the nasolabial fold and possible extension to the infraorbital region. This is
due to infection of the maxillary canine and potentially may spread to the
cavernous sinus. ef: oral &maxillofacial pathology nevilee 2 edeition p 182
4-pacifier habit what you Endodntics , petrson
see in his mouth???
Open bite.
Cross bite
Affect of pacifier and digit sucking
) ( Anterior open bite flaring maxillary incisors ,retruded and

croweded mandibular incisors , posterior cross bite ,anterior
displaced maxilla ,and retruded mandible
Ref: Oski's pediatrics: principles & practice
In the pulp
1 cell rich zone inner most pulp layer wich contain fibroblast
2 cell free zone rich with capilleres and nerve networks
3 odonotbalstic layer wich contain odontoblast
4all of the above

18- What type pontic design would you in a patient with a high esthetic
demand when preparing teeth number 9 11 for a F P D :
a- ridge lap or saddle pontic
b- An ovate pontic
c- modified ridge lap pontic Saddle pontic:
Most esthetic pontic look like tooth but should not

be used because is impossible to clean
Ref: fundamentals of fixed prosth.3edeition:
Ref: fundamental of fixed prosth.3edeition
71) Glenoid fossa is found in:

The glenoid fossa = the mandibular fossa.
1/ orbital cavity
2/nasal cavity depression in the temporal Bone that articulates with the
condyle of the Mandible and is divided into two parts by a
3/ middle cranial fossa slit
D) temporal bone. ***
ref:
Anatomy of the Human Body - Henry Gray page 82
72) The spread of odontogenic infection is based on:
1/ host defense
2/ virulent of microorganism
3/ No. Of bacteria
4/ all. ***
81) 3rd generation of apexo locator:
Use with all pt
Need more research
Ncrease chair time
Decrease radiographic film need. **
*86) silane coupling agent:
1/ used with porcelain to enhance wetability of bonding. ***
2/ used with tooth and porcaline

Saline is added to etched surface to improve resin
bond o porcelain
Ref:fundamental of operative dentistry schwartz

3edeition p509
96) pt taken heparins he should do surgery after :
1/ 1 Hr
2/ 2 Hr
(6 hr if heparin is given IV ,24 hr if subcutanouseouly
3/ 4 Hr
Ref: contemporary of oral and maxillofacial srgery
4/ 6 Hr. ***
petrson p 18
194) Pregnant 25 years, bleeding on probing, location on papilla of anterior area of the maxilla, Isolated:
A)giant cell granuloma
B) pyogenic granuloma (pregnancy epulis). ***
C) giant cell granuloma
195) Porcelain, highly esthetic, anterior maxilla area, we choose:
A) Dicor
B) in ceram
Dr hanef answer it
C)Impress.
196) the highest strength in porcelain:
A) ZR (zircon) reinforced in ceram. ***
Setting converted zinc o zinc oxide and produce H

gas that could expand amalgam excessively
198) Amalgam pain after restoration due to:
resulting in patient pain
A) phase 2 gamma
B) phase 1 gamma
C) zinc containing alloy. ***
D) Admix alloy
43. Zinc if added to amalgam

a. Increase moisture sensitivity and cause expansion
b. Increase marginal integrity and longevity than zinc free amalgam
c. ---
d. ---
e. A+ b. ***
Zinc added o amalgam to enhance mechanical proprieties, reduce marginal

fracture and prolong service of Rx. zinc tend to oxide preferentially forming a
zinc oxide that cover surface of alloy and suppress oxidation of other elements
Side effect of zinc was moisture contamination in low copper amalgam
High copper dont exhibit phenomenon of delayed expansion before setting
Ref: ref:
341 fundmental of operative dentistry
155art and science of operative dentistry

215) endocrine and exocrine gland is :
A) pancreas. ***
B) pituitary gland
C) thyroid g
D) salivary g
E) sweat g
298) during post removal the first thing to do is:
A) remove the G.P
B) remove all the old restoration & undermined enamel & caries. ***
C) insertion of post immediately
317) for discharged sharp instrument (blades, needle tips, wedges, etc) put in :
A) dicharged paper basket
B) designed sharp instrument special container. ***
C) disinfectant in auto glave then throw
D) put it in multifoil

338) 32 years old patient came to your dental office, suffering from a bad odour and taste from
His mouth. By examination patient has an anterior mandibular 3 unit bridge that bubbles upon
Applying water spray and slight pressure. Cause:
A) broken abutment.
B) Food impaction underneath the pontic.
C) separation between the abutment and the retainer.. *** (dissolving of cement / microleakage
Loose retainer not easily identified by pt he may

notice bad taste or smell
Its indicate : an adequate prep
Poor cementation
Or caries
Ref :contemporary fixed prosth 4 edition po936

.. Diabetic patient came to clinic with pain & swelling & enlarged mandible, on radiograph it showed mouth eaten appearance,
rosenthial
your diagnosis is :
a) acute osteomyelitis. ***
b) focal sclerosing osteomyelitis.
c) diffuse sclerosing
Type of osteomylities :
1_acute osteomylites
Pt has sign and symptoms of typical infection
Short duration .no radiographic changes
2_Chronic osteomylities : swelling, pain, pus discharge,

tooth loss
Radiographic feature: patchy ragged ill defined moth eaten

appearance,
3_ Diffuse sclerosing osteomylites
Uncommon disease occur in molar region
Swelling trismus
Etiology
infection of bacteria of low virulence for eg skin infection
RG : n crease opacity of the bone
4_Focal sclerosing osteomyilites (condensing osteties

19 - Hunter Schreger bands are white and dark lines that appear in:
Localized area associated w pulpities
1. Enamel when view in horizontal ground.
2. Enamel when view in longitudinal ground. ***
Occur in children Alternating light and dark lines seen in dental
202 | P a g e A l l R i g h t s R e s e r v e d 2 0 1 3 |enamel
O z i Dthat
e n begin
t . c o at
m the dentoenamel junction
In pm _molar and end before they reach the enamel surface;
they represent areas of enamel rods cut in
3. Dentin when view in horizontal ground.
4. Dentin when view in longitudinal ground
340) Patient complaining from pain in the floor of the mouth (beneath the lower jaw) your diagnosis is related to the salivary
glands, whats the best x-ray to help you:
A)panoramic
B)occlusal
C)sialograph. *** (Specialized radiograph for the Salivary gland disorders)
Dental secrets page 107y
Because the salivary glands consist of soft tissue, they

cannot be seen on radiographs unless special steps are
taken to make them visible. In a technique called
sialograph
23-Child with cleft palate and cleft lip with anodontia due to
a- Von Willebrand syndrome )>>>von der woude syndrome
b- Treacher Collins syndrome
c- Paget disease
Treacher collin syndrome (mandibulofacial dysotosis )
Rare
Defect in second and first brachial arches

Hypoplastic zygoma ,down word slanting palpebral fissure
75% has coloboma in outer portion of lower eye lid

337) Female patient came to your clinic with continous severe pain related to 1st \maxillary molar. After examination dentist
diagnose the tooth is carious and has irreversible pulpitis. He decides to do RCT. After enough time for anaesthisation, the
patient wont allow the dentist to touch the tooth due to severe pain. Dentist should:
A) give another appointment to the patient with description of antibiotics..
B) Extraction.
C)Intra-pulpal anaesthia
342) distal surface for first upper premolar ,contact with the neighbor teeth :
A)in the middle with buccal vastness wider than lingual one
Mesial contact in he middle third
B)in the middle with lingual vastness wider than bucccaly one
D contact more cervical but still in middle third
The crown is little narrower in lingual than

buccal
Ref:
Dental anatomy 6 edition
153

26-Which condition is an apical lesion that develop acute exacerbation of chronic apical abscess:
a- Granuloma
b-phonex abscess
`c- Cyst
d- Non of above
25-Which of the following canals in # 14 is most difficult to locat:

a- palatal
b- Distobuccal
c- Mesiobuccal. ***
d- All of above
21-Skeletal Bone of skull develop from :

a- Neurocranium ossification
b- Intramembranous ossification
c- Endochondral ossification
Intramembranous :seen during embryonic development
direct transformation of mesenchymal cell to osteoblast By
Occur in facial bone, clavira, mandible, clavicle
Endochondral seen in long bone of limb and the cranial base
Ossification take place in hyaline cartlige.
Ref :introduction to orthodontic ,laura mitchel 3edeition p33
The developing humen clinical embrylogy7edetion
27-Which tooth require special attention when preparing the occlusal aspect for restoration:
a- lower 2ed molar
b- lower 1st premolar. ***
c- lower 2ed premolar
d- upper 1st molar
Pt came 2 u with coloration bluish (or green?? ) and black in the gingival margins .he said that hi has
gasteriointensinal problem.this is caused because of :
a-mercury
b-lead

c-bismuth. ***
d-arsen.
All of these elements can cause discoloration
What is the test name for detecting the virulent of (bacteria i do not remember the name may be
spirochete)
a-hemolysis.....
B-catalase
345) Patient suffering from pain in the area of the mandibular molars with paresthesia in the lower lip. By
clinical and radiographic examination your diagnosis:
A) Acute osteomyelitis. ***
344) the movement of polymorphic cells in the gaps of intracellular to the blood capillary
Outside it called:
A)porosity
B)slinking
(source Wikipedia)C) diapedesis. ***
Q- class II amalgam restoration with deep caries the patient comes with localized pain related to it after 3
months due to:
a)undetected pulp horn exposure
b) over occlusion
c) moisture contamination during the restoration.
d)
073) Dylantin (phynotoin) dont give with :
B)azoles
C)metronidazole. ***
D) all of the above
Thermal pulp test principle of:

1/blood supply of pulp
2/ nerve supply of pulp
3/AO fibers
Pt need complete dt, when u did the examination u notice the max tubersity will be interfere with dt
1/need 12 no blade to be extention
2/partial thickness flap extend buccal & palatal
3/suture under tension
After u inject L.A for 2nd max molar pt become colorless with external sweeling its due to :
1/facial artrey
2/ plexus vein. ***
3/ Posterior alv. Nerve
13-pt with renal transplantation came with white elevated lesion on tongue no history of smoking or
tobacco chewing diagnosis is:
a-candidiasis
B-iatrogenic lesion. ***

c-hyperkeratosis
D-stomatitis
183) twins came to your clinic during routine examination ,you found great change behavior
Between both of them this due to
A)hereditary
B)environment
C)maturation\
Dentistry for child and adolescent
Human twins are of two basic types: monozygotic (or identical) twins
resulting from a single ovum fertilized by a single sperm,
and dizygotic (or fraternal) twins resulting from fertilization of two
ova by two sperm.
It also follows that difference between monozygotic twins result
from environmental differences whereas those between dizygotic
twins result from differences in both heredity and environment
379) what medical condition should prevent the dentist from practicing dentistry :
A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Influenza. __ transmissible disease!!!.
D) Headache.
381) patient complaining of Xerostomia & frequent going to the toilet at night
A) Diabetes Mellitus.
DM: either insulin dependent or insulin independent ,the osmotic effect of the glucose solution result in polyuria (frequent
th
urination )stimulate pt thirst causing polydipsia (frequent liquid consumption ) ___Contemporary OMFS Peterson 4 edition .
Dry mouth is a common complaint among ambulatory diabetic patients. It is strongly associated with objective measurements of
poor salivary flow and with other oral and extraoral symptoms of desiccation. The oral dryness is not associated with cardiovagal
autonomic system dysfunction but may be due to disturbances in glycemic control___(Xerostomia in diabetes mellitus. L M

Sreebny, A Yu, A Green and ,A Valdini. Department of Oral Pathology and Biology, School of Dental Medicine, State University of
New York, Stony Brook 11794-8702.)
386) which of the following materials is NOT a hemostatic agent :
A) Oxidized cellulose.hemostatic agent ,,brand name :surgicel
B) Gelvon___no results in search !!!
C) Zinc Oxide.
398) patient suffering from a submandibular gland abscess, dentist made a stab incision and is fixing a
rubber drain to evacuate the pus, the drain is sutured to :
A) Intra-oral
B) From angle of the mandible.__ Contemporary OMFS Peterson 4th edition
C) Between myloid muscle and..
399) The best material for taking full crown veneers impression is :
A) Poly-sulfide ___adv : dimensional stability (but less than B,D),, dis.adv: odor and long setting time
B) Poly-ether___ adv: dimensional stability ,,dis.adv :high stiffness
C) Irreversible hydrocolloid__ not sufficiently accurate
D) Poly vinyl siloxane (Additional silicone). __adv: dimensional stability equivalent to B ,less rigid than B and more than
A ,, dis.adv: setting inhibition when contact with latex gloves .
th
Reference (contemporary fixed prostho., rosenstile 4 edition )
401) what is the concept of Pro-taper system :
A) Step down tech.
B) Step back tech.
C) Crown down tech..__ pathways of the pulp 9th edition ..
406) Preparation of tooth for metal ceramic restoration should be done in:
A) two planes. __ facial or buccal surface --fundamentals of fixed prostho. Shillingburg 3rd edition .
A) parallel to long axis..
26-Labial reduction for porcelain metal restoration must be:
1. 1 plane for aesthetic.

2. 2 plane by follow the monophology. __fundamentals of fixed prostho. Shillingburg 3rd edition .
343) preparation for labial surface in one plane in the preparation for metal crown is:

A)more retentive
B) less retentive. ***
Long ,parallel axial walls with one path of insertion more retentive ..
Preparation for anterior metal ceramic with one plane :
1- If extension of the gingival plane __bad shade match and over contoured.
2- If extension of the incisal plane __ over taper and too close to the pulp.
Functional cusp bevel in post teeth prevent :
1- thin casting in the junction between the occlusal and axial reduction
2- over contouring deflective occ. Contact.
3- Over incline axial surface excessive tooth structure reduction less retention ..
rd
(fundamentals of fixed prostho. Shillingburg 3 edition)
410) when removing lower second molar :
A) occlusal plane perpendicular To the floor __occ. plane parallel to the floor ..
B) buccolingual direction to dilate socket. +
C) mesial then lingual___ usually extraction done in bucco-occ. Direction ,but in 2nd molar due to thinner lingual bone than
buccal plate the direction is lingualy than buccaly ..
th
Reference : Contemporary OMFS Peterson 4 edition
416) Upon opening an incision in a periapical abscess in a lower 1st molar, you open :
A) The most bottom of the abscess
B) The most necrotic part of the abscess.
C) Extra oral
417) Whats the test used for HIV:
Elisa.
Reference : webmed
Several tests can find antibodies or genetic material (RNA) to the HIV virus. These tests include:
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). This test is usually the first one used to detect infection with HIV. If
antibodies to HIV are present (positive), the test is usually repeated to confirm the diagnosis. If ELISA is negative, other
tests are not usually needed. This test has a low chance of having a false result after the first few weeks that a person is
infected.
Western blot. This test is more difficult than the ELISA to perform, but it is done to confirm the results of two positive
ELISA tests.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR). This test finds either the RNA of the HIV virus or the HIV DNA in white blood cells
infected with the virus. PCR testing is not done as frequently as antibody testing because it requires technical skill and
expensive equipment. This test may be done in the days or weeks after exposure to the virus. Genetic material may be
found even if other tests are negative for the virus. The PCR test is very useful to find a very recent infection, determine if
an HIV infection is present when antibody test results were uncertain, and screen blood or organs for HIV before donation.
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA). This test detects HIV antibodies. Like a Western blot test, it is used to confirm the
results of an ELISA. But it is more expensive than a Western blot test and not commonly used.

Testing is often done at 6 weeks, 3 months, and 6 months after exposure to find out if a person is infected with HIV
554. Neonate 2 years old, has a lesion on the centrum of the tongue... With the eruption of the 1st
tooth:
A)Riga-Fede disease. <sublingual traumatic ulceration>
Riga-Fede disease: an ulceration of the lingual frenum in some infants, caused by abrasion of the frenum by natal or neonatal
teeth. Also called Fede's disease.
Mosby's Medical Dictionary, 8th edition. 2009, Elsevier
578. Which of the following conditions is highly indicated for the short therapy of DOTS andIs directly
observed once in the clinic:
A) Tuberculosis. ___ treated by DIRECTLY OBSERVED THERAPY SHORT COURSE (DOTS).
B) HIV
C) H1N1
D) Mental Illness
DOTS remains at the heart of the Stop TB Strategy , Five components of DOTS:
1. Political commitment with increased and sustained financing

Legislation, planning, human resources, management, training
2. Case detection through quality-assured bacteriology
Strengthening TB laboratories, drug resistance surveillance
3. Standardized treatment with supervision and patient support
TB treatment and program management guidelines, International Standards of TB Care (ISTC), PPM, Practical Approach
to Lung Health (PAL), community-patient involvement
4. An effective drug supply and management system
Availability of TB drugs, TB drug management, Global Drug Facility (GDF), Green Light Committee (GLC)
5. Monitoring and evaluation system and impact measurement
TB recording and reporting systems, Global TB Control Report, data and country profiles, TB planning and budgeting
tool, WHO epidemiology and surveillance online training
Reference : WHO (http://www.who.int/tb/dots/en/)
579. At the begining of the Operation day in the clinic, you should start the water/air spray for Three
minutes in order to get rid of which type of microorganisms :
A) streptococcus mutans.
B) streptococcus salivaris.
C) ....
D) ....
Studies on Dental Aerobiology: IV. Bacterial Contamination of Water Delivered by Dental Units L. CABOT ABEL, ROBERT L.
MILLER, RUDOLPH E. MICIK, and GUNNAR RYGE , Division of Dental Health, USPHS Dental Health Center, San Francisco,
California 94118, USA ..
The samples did have organisms typical of those found in the mouth. Streptococcus mitis was found in 26% of the samples, 16%
contained Streptococcus salivarius, and 40% contained enterococci.

584. The main link between the pulp and the the periodontium is:
A. Apical foramen. __endodontics , torabinejad 4th edition
B. Dentinal tubules
C. Accessory canals
D. PDL
588. Patient came with severe pain related to right 1st mandibular molar, there's no swelling Related,
pulp test is negative, no evidence in radiograph. Diagnosis:
A. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Acute periodontal abscess. __-ve pulp test = necrotic , with or with out swelling( no swelling if confined to bone ),
th
sever pain +no RG evidence = acute (endodontics , torabinejad 4 edition)
C. Suppurative periodontal abscess
590. Which of the following teeth has a contact area between the incisal (occlusal) third and middle
third:
A. 1st maxillary premolar__ 1st and 2nd max pm in mid 3rd ,1st pm mesial contact more lingual than distal contact ,2nd pm
the opposite .
B. 1st mandibular premolar__ both 1st and 2nd mand pm in the junction of occ. and mid 3rd
C. 1st maxillary molar__ all molars max and mand mesially in the junction of occ and mid 3rd,distally in the mid 3rd .
D. Central mandible Incisor. __mesially incisal 3rd near the incisal edge ,distally more cervical .
th
Reference : Dental anatomy 6 edition
594. Naocl is used in RCT:
A. Oxidative effect.
B. Ordinary irrigant solution.
C. Better used diluted.
D. Better result when used combined with alcohol.

Naocl :
Most common irrigant ,dissolve necrotic tissue by braking down proteins amino acids ,with cholorhexidine act synergistically to
th
eliminate microorganisms ,dilution decrease the potential for toxicity .. (endodontics , torabinejad 4 edition).
638. A question about Cleidocranial dysostosis characteristic:
Reference : NCBI bookshelf (http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK1513/)

Disease characteristics.: Cleidocranial dysplasia (referred to as CCD in this review) is a skeletal dysplasia characterized by
delayed closure of the cranial sutures, hypoplastic or aplastic clavicles, and multiple dental abnormalities. Manifestations may
vary among individuals in the same family. The most prominent clinical findings are abnormally large, wide-open fontanels at
birth that may remain open throughout life; mid-face hypoplasia; abnormal dentition, including delayed eruption of secondary
dentition, failure to shed the primary teeth, supernumerary teeth with dental crowding, and malocclusion; clavicular hypoplasia
resulting in narrow, sloping shoulders that can be apposed at the midline; and hand abnormalities such as brachydactyly,
tapering fingers, and short, broad thumbs. Individuals with CCD are shorter than their unaffected sibs and are more likely to
have other skeletal/orthopedic problems such as pes planus, genu valgum, and scoliosis. Other medical problems include
recurrent sinus infections and other upper-airway complications, recurrent ear infections, high incidence of cesarean section,
and mild degree of motor delay in children under age five years.
Clinical Diagnosis
Cleidocranial dysplasia (CCD) affects most prominently those bones derived from intramembranous ossification, such as the
cranium and the clavicles, although bones formed through endochondral ossification can also be affected. Diagnosis is based on
clinical and radiographic findings.
The most prominent clinical findings in CCD:
Abnormally large, wide-open fontanels at birth that may remain open throughout life. The wide-open metopic
suture results in separation of the frontal bones by a metopic groove. The forehead is broad and flat; the cranium is
brachycephalic.
Mid-face hypoplasia
Abnormal dentition, including delayed eruption of secondary dentition, failure to shed the primary teeth, variable
numbers of supernumerary teeth along with dental crowding, and malocclusion
Clavicular hypoplasia, resulting in narrow, sloping shoulders that can be apposed at the midline
Hand abnormalities such as brachydactyly, tapering fingers, and short, broad thumbs
Normal intellect in individuals with typical CCD
The most prominent radiographic findings in CCD:
Cranium
Wide-open sutures, patent fontanels, presence of wormian bones (small sutural bones)
Delayed ossification of the skull
Poor or absent pneumatization of the paranasal, frontal, and mastoid sinuses
Impacted, crowded teeth; supernumerary teeth
Thorax (Figure 2)
Cone-shaped thorax with narrow upper thoracic diameter
Clavicular abnormalities ranging from complete absence to hypoplastic or discontinuous clavicles. The
lateral and middle thirds of the clavicle are more commonly affected (see Figure 2).
Hypoplastic scapulae
Pelvis
Delayed ossification of the pubic bone, with wide pubic symphysis
Hypoplasia of the iliac wings
Widening of the sacroiliac joints
Large femoral neck and large epiphyses
Hands (Figure 3)
Pseudoepiphyses of the metacarpal and metatarsal bones, which may result in a characteristic
lengthening of the second metacarpal (see Figure 3)
Hypoplastic distal phalanges
Deformed and short middle phalanges of the third, fourth, and fifth digits with cone-shaped epiphyses
Other. Osteopenia with evidence of decreased bone mineral density by DEXA in some individuals is a non-specific
finding
656. Pt with complete denture complain from tightness of denture in morning then become good this
due to

A) relief of denture. __ dr. hasaballa explanation : if tissue uncovered by CD for few hours they return to there normal form
,after wearing the CD tissue may take time to adapt to the fitting surface .
B)lack of cheeck elastisty (pressure on the flanges <> displacement of denture)
C)poor post dam (no posterior seal <> displacement of denture)
659. A border line diabetic pt came with denture stomatitis you find abundant debris in the tissue
surface area of the denture>>the proper management is:
A. Systemic antibiotic
B. Topical antifungal. (topical + relining with a tissue conditioner + rest of tissues at night +Good oral
hygiene)___ dr. hasaballahs' answer , he said we never give systemic antifungal, topical with OHI enough .
C. Systemic antifungal
D. Topical antibiotic
661. Pain in central incisors from
A. Central &lateral incisors _ pain may radiate to the adjacent tooth ..
B. Lateral & canine
C. Canine & premolar
D. Premolar & molar

Question need to be more specified !!!
662. To treat non vital tooth with open apex when doing access openning with gates glidden bur take
care to :
A. Remove all dentin
B. Remove minimal dentine. __open apex teeth have less dentine and wider pulp chamber ,GG should not be used deep
rd
in the canals where they may over cut and create a strip perforation _(pediatric dentistry 3 edition welbury)
C. Follow conservative method
664. 20 years old pt have avulsed tooth for 60 min the management to return vascularity of the tooth:
A. Scrap the surface of the root.._ never do that >_<
B. Place the tooth in sodium sulfide of X%....( sodium sulfide is a strong alkaline solution )
C. Place it in sodium chloride then sodium sulfide.

th
Reference : pathway s of the pulp 9 edition ..
Storage medium can be HBSS (hanks balanced salt solution ),physiologic saline, saliva ,milk ,water is the least desirable due to
its hypotonic environment cause rapid cell lysis and increased inflammation on replantation .
Avulsed tooth more than 60 min (closed apex ) :
PDL removed by placing in acid for 1 min ~ to reduce the inflammatory response when implanting~ ,socked in fluoride (2%
stannous fluoride ) for 5 min ~to slow the resorption process~ , or covering the root with emdogain (enamel matrix protein )
and replanting
28-Receiving the impression after removal from the mouth directly:
1. It must be disinfected immediately. ___then pouring time deepened on the material

2. It must be poured immediately.
3. It must be mounted immediately.
4. It must be left for minutes.
29-The peripheries of the custom tray should be under extended to all border and clearance from the
frenum areas:
1. 2mm. ___principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa

2. 4mm.
3. 6mm.
4. 8mm.
31-The goal of making the peripheries of the custom tray under extended to all bordered clearance from
the frenum areas:
1- To give enough space for the used impression materials to allow border molding the tray. __principles of CD
prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
2- To give enough space for the die spacer.
3- To give enough space for the cementation materials.
4- None.
34-The base plate could be made by:
1. Acrylic plate. ___found in principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa

2. Ceramic plate.
3. Wax plate. ___ not used any more due to dimensional changes .
4. A and c.
35-The vertical height of the maxillary occlusion rim from the reflection of the cast is:
1. 12mm.
2. 22mm. __ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. 32mm.
4. 42mm.
36-The anterior width of the maxillary occlusion rim is:
1. 5mm. __4mm, in principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa

2. 10mm.
3. 15mm.
4. 20mm
37-The posterior width of the maxillary occlusion:
1. 8-10mm. __6mm pm and 8-10 mm in m area , principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa

2. 8-15mm.
3. 10-15mm.
4. 15-20mm.
38-The anterior height of the mandibular occlusion rim is:
1. 6mm.
2. 16mm. ___18 mm in principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. 26mm.
4. 36mm.
39-The posterior height of mandibular occlusion rim is:
1. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of retro molar pad.__ principles of CD prosthodontics
,dr.hassaballa
2. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the frenum areas.
3. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the alveolar ridge.
4. None.
40-To record the occlusal plane in order to:
1. To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla which will be occupied by an
artificial teeth
2. To determine vertical and horizontal level of the teeth.
3. A and B. __ dr. hassaballah answer .
4. None.
41-To record the vertical dimension in order to:
1. To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla which will be occupied by an
artificial teeth.__ dr.hassaballah answer.
2. To determine vertical and horizontal level of the teeth.
3. A and B.
4. None.
1-The protrusive condylar guidance should be set on the articulator at:
1. 40 degree.
2. 50 degree.
3. 60 degree.
4. 70 degree. *__horizontal condylar guidance , principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
2-The lateral condylar posts should be set on the articulator at:
1. Zero degree. ***___ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa

2. 20 degree.
1. 40 degree.
2. None.
3-The incisal guide should be set on the articulator at:

1- Zero degree. __ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
2- 20 degree.
3- 40 degree.
4- None.
4-The primary goal of anterior tooth selection is:
1. To provide good functional requirements.

2. To satisfy aesthetic requirements. _ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. To let the patient feel comfortable.
4. None.
5-The primary goal of posterior tooth selection is:
1- To provide good functional requirements. _ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa

2- To satisfy aesthetic requirements.
3- To satisfy sychological requirements.
4- None.
6-You need.to get the teeth shade:
1- Shade guide
2- Incisal guide.
3- Acrylic teeth.
4- Porcelain teeth.
7-The teeth materials are:
1. Acrylic teeth.
2. Porcelain teeth.
3. A and B. ____ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. None.
8-The width of the lower teeth is:
1. 1/2 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship.

4. None.
th
Reference : dental anatomy ,6 edition__ Mand CI considerably narrower than max CI on average only 5\8 or 62% as wide .
9-Generally posterior teeth are classified into:
1. Anatomy (cusp) teeth.

2. Non-anatomy (cuspless) teeth or flat.
3. A and B. _ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
4. None.
10-The process of positioning or arranging teeth on the denture base is termed:
1. Casting.
2. Investing.
3. Setting up. __ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
4. Flasking.
11-Important functions must be considered when arranging anterior teeth:
1. Aesthetics.
2. Incision.
3. Phonetics.
4. All.
12-Which surface of the central incisor that contacts the median line:
1. Distal.
2. Mesial.
3. Buccal.
4. Lingual.
13-The incisal edge of the maxillary lateral incisor is..above and parallel to the occlusal plane:
1. 1/2 mm. _ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa

2. 1 mm.
3. 2 mm.
4. 3 mm
14-The long axis of the maxillary cuspid is inclined slightly to the:
1. Mesial.
2. Distal. __ (slight distal inclination)_ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. Buccal.
4. Lingual.
15-It is called .. When the occlusal surfaces of the right and left posterior teeth are on the same
level:
1. Vertical plane.
2. Horizontal plane.
3. Compensating curve.
4. All.
Compensating curve :
antroposterior curvature in median plane(curve of spee ) and mediolateral curvature in frontal plane (curve of Wilson )
,introduced in CD to compensate for opening influences produced by the condylar and incisal guidance during lateral and
protrusive mand excursive movement.
_ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
16-The . Of the maxillary first bicuspid is raised approximately 1/2mm of the occlusal plane:
1. Buccal cusp. ___(buccal cusp 0.5 mm above the plane ,lingual cusp touching the occ plane.)_ principles of CD prosthodontics
,dr.hassaballa
2. Lingual cusp.
3. Mesial surface.
4. All.
17-The long axis of the maxillary first molar is inclined to
1. Buccal.
2. Mesial. __ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. Distal.
4. Lingual.
18-All maxillary posterior teeth touch the occlusal plane EXCEPT:
1. First bicuspid.
2. Second bicuspid.
3. First molar.
4. Second molar.__ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
19-The distance between the lingual surfaces of the maxillary anterior teeth and the labial surfaces of
the mandibular anterior teeth is:
1. Vertical overlap (overbite).

2. Horizontal overlap (overjet)._ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. Occlusal plane.
4. All.
20-The distance between the incisal edges of the maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth is:
1. Horizontal overlap (overjet).

2. Vertical overlap (overbite). __ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. Occlusal plane.
4. All.
21-The average distance between the lingual surface of the maxillary anterior teeth and the buccal
surface of the mandibular anterior teeth is:
1. 1/2mm.
2. 1mm.
3. 2mm.__ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
4. 3mm.
22-Which tooth of the mandibular anterior teeth that touch the lingual surface of the maxillary anterior
teeth in normal centric relation?
1. Central incisor.
2. Lateral incisor.
3. Cuspid (Canine).
4. None.
For CD (artificial teeth ) no contact should bee b\w anterior teeth .__ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa.
Natural dentition all anterior teeth contact the lingual surface of opposing anterior teeth __
23-The mesial surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts:

1. The mesial surface of the central incisor.
2. The distal surface of the central incisor.
3. The mesial surface of the cuspid.
4. The distal surface of the cuspid.
24-The tip of cusp of the mandibular cuspid is one above the occlusal plane to establish . Of the
maxillary anterior:
1. Horizontal overlap.
2. Occlusal plane.
3. Vertical overlap. (OVER BITE)..
4. All.
25-The relation involves the movement of the mandibular to the side either right or left in which the act
of mastication is to be accomplished. Therefore the side to which the mandible moves is called:
1. Balancing side.
2. Working side.__ fundamental of fixed prostho. Shililingburg 3rd edition
3. Compensating side.
4. All.
26-When the mandible moves to the working side, the opposite side cusp to cusp contacts in order to
balance stresses of mastication. This relation is called:
1. Working relation.
2. Balancing relation. _ (bilateral balanced occ.)only in CD .. fundamental of fixed prostho. Shililingburg 3rd edition
3. Occlusal relation.
4. None.
27-In order to distribute the primary forces of mastication, to fall within the base of the denture, the
mandibular teeth are set:
1. On the bucal edge of the ridge.

2. On the lingual edge of the ridge.
3. On the crest of the ridge. __ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
4. All.
28-The mandibular posterior tooth that has no contact with any maxillary teeth during the balancing
occlusion is:
1. First bicuspid.
2. Second bicuspid.
3. First molar.
4. Second molar.
Balanced occlusion is :
Bilateral simultaneous anterior and posterior occlusal contact of teeth in centric and eccentric position_ principles of CD
29-The used device in flasking procedure is called:

1. Articulator.
2. Separating medium.
3. Flask. _ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
4. None.
30-We Vaseline the inner surface of the flasks all rounds:
1. To help in the packing procedure.

2. To separate the models (casts) safety. __ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
3. A and B.
4. None.
31-The procedure that follows the flasking procedure is called:
1. Polishing.
2. Deflasking.
3. Packing. _ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
4. Curing the acrylic.
33-Teeth selection in setting up teeth gsf is based of these factors:
1. Shade of the teeth.

2. Size and shape of the teeth. (mold)
3. Angle of the teeth.
4. A and B. _ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa
5. All the above.
4-direct pulp capping is done in:
1. Primary molar.
2. Primary incisor.
3. Permanent molar.
4. None of the above.
direct pulp capping of a carious exposure in primary teeth is not recommended, its indicated in traumatic or mechanical
exposure when conditions for a favorable exposure are optimal ,even in this cases success rate is not particularly high and may
result in internal resorption or acute dentoalveolar abscess .reference : .Pinkham,chapter 22
16-Indirect pulp capping done in:
1. Primary molar. _recommended if no signs and symptoms in the pulp , Pinkham,chapter 22

2. Premolar and molar.
3. Incisors.
4. All the above.
17-What do we use as temporary filling material in anterior reign when aesthetic is important:

1. Composite.
2. Glass ionemer cement.
3. Zinc oxide eugenol.
14 The maximum dose of X-ray exposure dose for radiographic technique:
1. 100 mini roentgens per week. __ there is no mini roentgens may be mill roentgens!!,,I will choose it since its the least
dose .
2. 10 roentgens per week. = 100 msv
3. 100 roentgens per week. =1000 msv
Reference : http://www.ccohs.ca/oshanswers/phys_agents/ionizing.html
The dose in Sv is equal to "absorbed dose" multiplied by a "radiation weighting factor

millisievert (msv) = one thousandth of a sievert (sv)
1 R (roentgen) exposure is approximately equivalent to 10 mSv tissue dose
What effects do different doses of radiation have on people?
One sievert is a large dose. The recommended TLV is average annual dose of 0.05 Sv (50 mSv).The effects of being exposed to
large doses of radiation at one time (acute exposure) vary with the dose. Here are some examples:
10 Sv - Risk of death within days or weeks
1 Sv - Risk of cancer later in life (5 in 100)
100 mSv - Risk of cancer later in life (5 in 1000)
50 mSv - TLV for annual dose for radiation workers in any one year
20 mSv - TLV for annual average dose, averaged over five years.
Recommendation NCRP ICRP

Occupational dose limits
Relative to stochastic 50 msv annual effective dose limit 50 msv annual effective dose limit and 100
effects and 10 msv cumulative effective msv in 5 y cumulative effective dose limit.
dose limit.
Relative to deterministic 150 msv annual equivalent 150 msv annual equivalent effective dose
effects effective dose limit to lens of eye limit to lens of eye and 500 msv annual
and 500 msv annual equivalent equivalent dose limit to skin and extremities
dose limit to skin and extremities
th
Table 3-2 from oral radiology principles and interpretation ,5 edition ,white and pharaoh .
15 Acute periapical abscess characterized by:
1. Varying degree of pain.

2. Varying degree of swelling.
3. Some time not shown on the radiograph.
4. All the above. _endodontics ,torabinejad 4th edition

16 Smear layer composed of:
1. Dentine debris. (organic pulpal material and inorganic dentinal debris)_pathway of the pulp 9 th edition .
2. Inorganic particles.
3. Bacteria. _(no bacteria in smear layer )
4. All the above.
I've asked the professors, search the net and books for the answers and this is what I got
343) preparation for labial surface in one plane in the preparation for metal crown is:
A)more retentive
B) less retentive. ***
Long ,parallel axial walls with one path of insertion more retentive ..
Preparation for anterior metal ceramic with one plane :
3- If extension of the gingival plane __bad shade match and over contoured.
4- If extension of the incisal plane __ over taper and too close to the pulp.
Functional cusp bevel in post teeth prevent :
4- thin casting in the junction between the occlusal and axial reduction
5- over contouring deflective occ. Contact.
6- Over incline axial surface excessive tooth structure reduction less retention ..
rd
(fundamentals of fixed prostho. Shillingburg 3 edition)
579. At the begining of the Operation day in the clinic, you should start the water/air spray for Three
minutes in order to get rid of which type of microorganisms :
A) streptococcus mutans.
B) streptococcus salivaris.
C) ....
D) ....
Studies on Dental Aerobiology: IV. Bacterial Contamination of Water Delivered by Dental Units L. CABOT ABEL, ROBERT L.
MILLER, RUDOLPH E. MICIK, and GUNNAR RYGE , Division of Dental Health, USPHS Dental Health Center, San Francisco,
California 94118, USA ..
The samples did have organisms typical of those found in the mouth. Streptococcus mitis was found in 26% of the samples, 16%
contained Streptococcus salivarius, and 40% contained enterococci.

661. Pain in central incisors from
A. Central &lateral incisors _ pain may radiate to the adjacent tooth ..
B. Lateral & canine
C. Canine & premolar
D. Premolar & molar

Question need to be more specified ==cause of pain !!!
664. 20 years old pt have avulsed tooth for 60 min the management to return vascularity of the tooth:
A. Scrap the surface of the root.._ never do that >_<
B. Place the tooth in sodium sulfide of X%....( sodium sulfide is a strong alkaline solution )
C. Place it in sodium chloride then sodium sulfide.

th
Reference : pathway s of the pulp 9 edition ..
Storage medium can be HBSS (hanks balanced salt solution ),physiologic saline, saliva ,milk ,water is the least desirable due to
its hypotonic environment cause rapid cell lysis and increased inflammation on replantation .
Avulsed tooth more than 60 min (closed apex ) :
PDL removed by placing in acid for 1 min ~ to reduce the inflammatory response when implanting~ ,socked in fluoride (2%
stannous fluoride ) for 5 min ~to slow the resorption process~ , or covering the root with emdogain (enamel matrix protein )
and replanting.
8-The width of the lower teeth is:

8. None.
th
Reference : dental anatomy ,6 edition__ Mand CI considerably narrower than max CI on average only 5\8 or 62% as wide.
22-Which tooth of the mandibular anterior teeth that touch the lingual surface of the maxillary anterior
teeth in normal centric relation?
5. Central incisor.
6. Lateral incisor.
7. Cuspid (Canine).
8. None.
For CD (artificial teeth ) no contact should bee b\w anterior teeth .__ principles of CD prosthodontics ,dr.hassaballa.
Natural dentition all anterior teeth contact the lingual surface of opposing anterior teeth __

28-The mandibular posterior tooth that has no contact with any maxillary teeth during the balancing
occlusion is:
5. First bicuspid.
6. Second bicuspid.
7. First molar.
8. Second molar.
Balanced occlusion is :
Bilateral simultaneous anterior and posterior occlusal contact of teeth in centric and eccentric position_ principles of CD
14 The maximum dose of X-ray exposure dose for radiographic technique:
5. 100 mini roentgens per week. __ there is no mini roentgens may be mill roentgens!!,,I will choose it since its the least
dose .
7. 100 roentgens per week. =1000 msv
Reference : http://www.ccohs.ca/oshanswers/phys_agents/ionizing.html
The dose in Sv is equal to "absorbed dose" multiplied by a "radiation weighting factor

millisievert (msv) = one thousandth of a sievert (sv)
1 R (roentgen) exposure is approximately equivalent to 10 mSv tissue dose
What effects do different doses of radiation have on people?
One sievert is a large dose. The recommended TLV is average annual dose of 0.05 Sv (50 mSv).The effects of being exposed to
large doses of radiation at one time (acute exposure) vary with the dose. Here are some examples:
10 Sv - Risk of death within days or weeks
1 Sv - Risk of cancer later in life (5 in 100)
100 mSv - Risk of cancer later in life (5 in 1000)
50 mSv - TLV for annual dose for radiation workers in any one year
20 mSv - TLV for annual average dose, averaged over five years.
Recommendation NCRP ICRP

Occupational dose limits
Relative to stochastic 50 msv annual effective dose limit 50 msv annual effective dose limit and 100
effects and 10 msv cumulative effective msv in 5 y cumulative effective dose limit.
dose limit.
Relative to deterministic 150 msv annual equivalent 150 msv annual equivalent effective dose
effects effective dose limit to lens of eye limit to lens of eye and 500 msv annual
and 500 msv annual equivalent equivalent dose limit to skin and extremities
dose limit to skin and extremities
th
Table 3-2 from oral radiology principles and interpretation ,5 edition ,white and pharaoh .
25-It is preferable to be the length of the handle of the custom tray:

1. 10mm.
2. 20mm.
3. 15mm. ***
4. 25mm.
1- is the art and science of functional, anatomic and cosmetic reconstruction of missing or defective
parts in the maxilla, mandible or face by the use of non living substances:
1. Complete denture.
2. Maxillofacial prostheses. ***
3. Orthodontics.
4. Partial denture.
2-.. Is the one that provides application and device to restore aesthetic and functional requirements to
patients with maxillofacial defects:
1. Endodontist.
2. Pedodontist.
3. Maxillofacial prosthodontist. ***
4. Peridontist.
3-The objectives of maxillofacial prosthetics:
1. Aesthetic.
2. Functions.
3. Protect the tissues.
4. All. ***
4-The type of maxillofacial defects:
1. Congenital defects.
2. Acquired defects.
3. Developmental defects.
4. All. ***
5-Cleft palate, cleft lip, missing ear, prognathism are:
1. Acquired defects.
2. Congenital defects. ***
3. Developments defects.
4. None.
6-Accidents, surgery, pathology are:
1. Acquired defects. ***

2. Developments defects.
3. Congenital defects.
4. None.
8-Extra-oral restorations are:
1. Radium shield.
2. Ear plugs for hearing.
3. Missing eye, missing nose or ear. ***
4. All.
9-Lost part of maxilla or mandible with the facial structures is classified by:

1. Intra-oral restorations.
2. Extra-oral restorations.
3. Combined intra-oral and extra-oral restorations. ***
4. All.
11-The lack of continuity of the roof of the mouth through the whole or part of its length in the form of
fissure extending anteroposteriorly is:
1. Obturator.
2. Splint.
3. Stent.
4. Congenital cleft palate. ***
12-The factors that influence the induction of cleft palate:
1. Hereditary.
2. Environmental.
3. A and B. ***
4. None.
14-A prosthesis used to close a congenital or acquired opening in the palate is:
1. Stent.
2. Splint.
3. Obturator. ***
4. None.
16-.. Are appliances used for immobilization of fragments of broken parts of jaw bones in their original
position until repair takes bleeding?
1. Splints. ***
2. Stents.
3. Obturators.
4. Speech aids.
19-The prepared surface of an abutment to receive the rest is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Rest seat. ***
4. None.
20-The part of a removable partial denture that contacts a tooth it affords primarily vertical support is
called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Rest. ***
4. None.
21-The part of a removable partial denture is:
1. Rests.
2. Major connecters.
3. Retainers.
4. All. ***
22-A rigid part of the partial denture casting that unites the rests and another part of the prosthesis to the
opposite side of the arch is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter. ***
3. Retainer.
4. Rest.
24-The part of a removable denture that forms a structure of metal struts that engages and unites the
metal casting with the resin forming the denture base is called:
1. Minor connecter.
2. Major connecter.
3. Denture base connecter. ***
4. Retainer.
26-The rests are classified into:
1. Anterior rests. We have 3 major form :

2. Posterior rests.
3. A and B. *** Occlusal ,lingual and incisal rest seat
4. None.
30-The surveyor instrument consists of:
1. Vertical arm.
2. Cast platform or table.
3. Small analysis rod.
4. All. ***
31-The primary guiding surface that determines the insertion for the partial denture is:
1. The tooth surface opposite to the edentulous areas.

2. The tooth surface adjacent to the edentulous areas. ***
3. None.
32-The one who is supposed to give the correct design of the removable partial denture:
1. Prosthodontist. ***
2. Technician.
3. Assistant.
4. None.

33-To fabricate a removable partial casting requires making a second cast of high-heat investment material
this cast is called:
1. Study cast.
2. Master cast.
3. Refractory cast. ***
4. All.
34-Kennedy divided all partial edentulous arches:
1. Tow main types.

2. Three main types.
3. Four main types. ***
4. Five main types.
35-According to the Kennedy's classification, the bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the
remaining natural teeth is:
1. Class one. ***

2. Class tow.
3. Class three.
4. Class four.
36-According to the Kennedy's classification, unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining both
anterior and posterior is:
1. Class one.
2. Class tow.
3. Class three. ***
4. Class four.
1 - Outline of Pericoronitis treatment may include:
1. Mouth wash and irrigation.

2. Extraction of the opposing tooth.
3. Surgical removal of the causative tooth.
4. All the above. ***
2 - We should select the shade for a composite resin utilizing a:
1. Bright light.
2. Dry shade guide.
3. Dry tooth isolated by the rubber dam.
4. None of the above are corrects. ***
1and 2 both true

3 - Retentive grooves:
May be he ask about function ????
1. Always axiobuccal and axiolingual. ***
2. Prevent lateral displacement of restoration.
3. Is axiopulpal and axiogingival.
9 - 4th canal in upper first molar is found:
1. Lingual to MBC. ***

2. Buccal to MBC.
3. Distal to MBC.
10 - To get file size 24, the following length should be cut from file size 20:
1. 1mm.
2. 2mm. ***
3. 3mm.
4. 4mm.
11 - The narrowest canal found in a three root maxillary first molar is the:
1. Mesio-buccal canal.
2. Disto-buccal canal.
3. Palatal canal.
4. Disto-palatal canal.
5. Mesio-palatal canal. ***
12 - The following canals may be found in an upper molar:
1. Mesio-buccal.
2. Disto-buccal.
3. Mesio-palatal.
4. Disto-lingual.
5. Palatal.
a) 1+2+4.
b) 1+2+4+5.
c) 2+3+4+5.
d) 1+2+3+5. ***
11) The best material for taking impression for full veneer crowns:
a) poly vinyl sialoxane (additional Silicone)***
582. Stock trays compared to Custom trays for a removable partial denture impression
A. Custom trays less effective than stock trays
B. Custom trays can record an alginate impression as well as elastomeric impression
C. Custom trays provide even thickness of impression material. ***
D. All of the above
14) Which type of burs is the least in heat generation:

a) diamond
b) carbide ***
c) titanium
more heat generated in diamond burs

dental secrets: page 200
15) Pt. Wears complete denture for 10 years & now he has cancer in the floor of the mouth. What is the
firs question that the dentist should ask:
a- does your denture is ill fitted
b- smoking. ***+ (80% of the cancer of the floor of the mouth is caused by smoking)
c- Alcohol
d- does your denture impinge the o.mucosa. *** (traumatic cause)
Screening Oral Cancer - Prepared by Bruce F. Barker, D.D.S. and Gerry J. Barker, R.D.H., M.A.
University of Missouri-Kansas City School of Dentistry
Ulceration on floor of mouth in edentulous patient,
initially misinterpreted as denture irritation.
296. You make ledge in the canal you want correct this what is the most complication occur in this step:
Creation false canal
apical zip
stripping
perforation
Not 100%sure
297. Removing of dentine in dangerous zone to cementum is:

1/ perforation
2/ledge Stripping perforation: lateral perforation caused by over
3/stripping. *** instrumentation through thin wall in the root and mostly
4/zipping happens at lateral wall of danger zone (d wall of m root)
298. Occlusal splint device:

1/ used during increase vertical dimension
2/allative muscle of mastication. ***

3/ occlusal plane CR/CO
4/ALL
299. What kind of suture used under the immediate denture:

1/ horizontal matter suture
2/ vertical matter suture
3/ interrupted suture
4/ continous locked suture
300. Provisional restoration for metal ceramic abutment is

a) aluminum sheet
b) stainless steel crown
c) zno
d) tooth colored polycarbonate crown***
30. Killing Bacteria is:

- Bacteriostatic
- Bactericidal. ***
-
34. The most technique use with children:
- TSD***
- hand over mouth
-punishment
38. Chronic pericoronitis:

- Difficult mouth opening
- Halitosis
-all of the above. ***
40. Safe months to treat pregnant ladies:

- 1-3
-4-6. ***
-7-9.
41. Mandibular 1st permanent molar look in morphology as:
- primary 1st mand molar.
- primary 2nd mand molar. ***
- primary 1st max molar.
- primary 2nd max molar.

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DHA Exam Questions

Edited by Dr. Mohsen S. Ozaibi (OziDent.com)

Please contact me at mohsen@ozident.com for further information or correction

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2. The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:

3. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:

5. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from:

7. Which of the following may cause gingival enlargement

8. Reliability of the measurements reflects that property of the measurements which::

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10. Polyether impression materials:

11. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:

14. Cost effective method to prevent dental caries

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20. What is a Pier abutment?

25. Regarding tissue retraction around tooth:

27. Removal of Undermined Enamel in Class II cavity is done by :

30. What is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam restoration:

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34. Calcium hydroxide is best pulp capping material because:

35. A glossy finish is best retained on a:

62 - Sealer is used in RCT to:

65 Cavity etching before applying GIC is:

66 surgery for ridges aim to:

69 Skeletal face is from:

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38. The functions of cement bases are:

a. To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.

a. Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration.

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- During setting, most amalgams undergo very little Dimensional change.

40. When polishing the amalgam restoration:

a. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste.

Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry, 5th edition page725"

41. Silicate cement:

a. First tooth colored restoration.

"dental material & thier selection2002"

42. Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly:

a. To advice the patient to change their faulty habits immediately ***

43. Which of the following statement is true regarding dental calculus:

a. It is composed entirely of inorganic material.

CARRANZAS page 183

Calculus composition: inorganic content and organic content

44. Overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:

a. It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation.

CARRANZAS page 188

45. Main use of dental floss:

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46. What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water:

C) washing the food debris. ***

47. One of these is less exposed to extensive dental caries:

48. Calculus induce further periodontal lesion due to:

49. Floss used to:

50. Plaque consists of:

51. To prevent perio problem MOST effective method is:

52. Maximum time elapsed before condensation of amalgam after titration:

53. After amalgam titrations, the mix should be placed within:

54. Depth of amalgam restoration should be:

56. Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam for:

Dental decks 2210

57. Calcium channel blockers cause increase saliva secretion:

CARRANZAS page 285 Cause gingival enlargement

58. RCT contraindicated in: