Urology (Genitourinary) Coding Questions

The following scenario is applicable to questions 2-3:

Pt is scheduled to have sonographically guided transrectal prostate biopsies,

cystoscopy with fulguration of minor lesions in the bladder, and insertion of a left

double J stent. Pre and post op DX prostate nodule and small bladder lesions.

2. How should this scenario be coded?

a. 52224, 52332, 55700, 76942

b. 52214, 55700, 76872,
c. 55700, 52000, 76942

3. What modifier would be appended to show that a physician performed the

supervision and interpretation of the procedure? ____________

4. Cystitis is inflammation of the_____________.

a. Kidneys
b. Prostate
c. bladder

5. What is ureteral calculi?

a. stone in the kidney

b. stone in the ureter
c. stone in the urethra
d. stone in the bladder

6. Which of the following terms describes the area located at the base of the
bladder?

a. Renal pelvis
b. Calyx
c. Trigone
d. Dome

7. Code the urologists services:

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Advanced carcinoma of the right ureter, morbid

Obesity
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Same

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Open nephrostomy with drainage

catheter Patient was placed in a lateral position and after adequate general
anesthesia, a right flank incision was made to gain access to the retroperitoneal
space. Gerota's fascia at the lower pole of the kidney was then incised using a deep
knife. The ureter was identified and isolated using Metzenbaum scissors and a small
Penrose drain was used to retract the ureter. Additional blunt dissection exposed the
renal pelvis where a small incision was made, Kelly forceps were used to tunnel a
passageway for the nephrostomy tube. A clamp was used to pull the catheter
through the tunnel until the tip was drawn into the renal pelvis. A separate flank
incision was made in the skin and the end of the catheter was brought out. A large
Penrose drain was placed near
the kidney and secured to the skin using silk sutures and the incision used for the
surgical approach was closed.

a. 52334
b. 50125
c. 50392
d. 50040

8. When two surgeons perform procedures described by one CPT code and both
surgeons document their part of the procedure, append a 80 modifier.

a. True
b. False

9. Removal of a kidney is called a ______________________________.

10. Code the urologists services:

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Urinary calculi

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Same

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Percutaneous nephrostolithotomy

Patient was placed in a lateral position on their left side and 5 mL of lidocaine was
injected for local anesthesia. Using fluoroscopy, a suitable posterior calyx of the
right kidney was identified and a puncture was made below the 12th rib where a
nephrostomy needle was passed into the collecting system. The needle was
withdrawn and 3 mL of contrast was used to check for proper placement. Next a
0,035 guidewire (eg, 0.035 in) was passed into the collecting system and the needle
was removed. A fascial incising needle was used to cut the lumbodorsal fascia and
the tract was dilated by passing dilating catheters over the guidewire (6F, 8F, and
10F catheters). A 14F nephrostomy catheter was positioned over the guide wire and
sutured to the skin. Next a nephroscope was passed through the tube until a single
 stone measuring approximately 1.5 X 1.5 cm was visualized. It was removed with
some difficulty using graspers. Another 3 mL of contrast was used to confirm that
no additional stones or other obstruction remained, the scope was withdrawn and
the patient was returned to recovery room in good condition.

a. 50580, 5004551, 76000

b. 50580. 76000
c. 50080, 50395
d. 50081

11. Which of the following medical terms describes an abnormal opening between
the bladder and vagina that permits passage of fecal material into the vagina?

a. Vesicovaginal fistula
b. Rectovaginal fistula
c. Rectocele
d. None of the above

<!--[if !supportLists]-->12. <!--[endif]-->Code the urologists services

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Phimosis

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Same

PROCEDURE: Excision of phimotic foreskin

This male patient has been experiencing increasing symptoms associated with
phimosis such as pain during intercourse and difficult hygiene. After considering his
options, he has elected to undergo surgical treatment. After adequate general
anesthesia, with the patient in the supine position, several Kelly hemostats were
placed at the edge of the prepuce. Next, fine dissecting scissors were used to make
a longitudinal incision to the prepuce. This was extended in a circular fashion until it
was possible to excise it completely and submit it for pathologic examination.
Multiple small bleeders encountered were controlled using electrocautery and the
skin edges were reapproximated using sutures. After adequate dressing, the patient
was returned to the recovery room in good condition. The foreskin was submitted to
pathology.

a. 54100
b. 54161
c. 54304, 54100
d. None of the above

13. According to the National Correct Coding Initiative, if a double Jstent is inserted
at the same time as another cystourethroscopy or ureteroscopy procedure, each
may be reported separately if adequately documented and medically necessary. In
order to receive reimbursement for each code, a 59
modifier should be appended to the 52332.

a. True
b. False

Answers:

1. 592.1
2. a
3. 26
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
8. False
9. Nephrectomy
10. c
11. a
12. b
13. True

Sample/Practice/Free Radiology Coding Questions

1. If imaging is performed of just one kidney or of just the aorta, the correct CPT
code for this study is:

a. 76700
b. 76705
c. 76775
d. 76770

2. Documentation such as images were obtained from the iliac crest to the
symphisis pubis is referring to what code series:

a. 72131-72133
b. 74150-74170
c. 72192-72194
d. 73200-73202

3. A unilateral MRI of the breast with CAD is coded:

a. 77059, 0159T
b. 77058, 77051
c. 77058, 0159T
d. 77055, 77051
4. A percutaneous gastrostomy tube is placed (10day postop period) and 7 days
later the tube becomes dislodged, necessitating the placement of another Gtube.
The most appropriate modifier for this second tube placement is:

a. 58
b. 78
c. 79
d. 76

5. The medical necessity for radiological studies should be:

a. the reason for performing the study

b. a relevant finding of the study, if stated
c. signs and/or symptoms
d. incidental findings

Answers:
1. c
2. c
3. c
4. b
5. b

Sample/Practice/Free Pain Management Coding Questions

1. Which of the following prefixes has the meaning on, upon, over, near, on top
of?

a. Intrab.
b .Epic.
c. Extrod.
d. Para

This scenario is applicable to question 2:

Location: Physicians office treatment room

Diagnosis: chronic failed back syndrome

Procedure: Physician refill of implanted intrathecal pump with analysis and

reprogramming to higher infusion rate

2. What CPT code would be reported for the pump refill?

a. 95990
 b. 95991
c. 96522
d. 99213

3. Select the correct primary ICD9CM code for a pain management evaluation for
chronic pain due to metastatic cancer :

a. 338.29
b. 199.1
c. 338.3
d. 780.96

4. An interventional pain management provider performs injections in his office

treatment room. He uses his own fluoroscopy machine and his office staff assists
him with the procedures performed. What modifier, if any, would be applied to the
providers radiologic imaging services?

a. 26 modifier
b. TC modifier
c. 59 modifier
d. No modifier

5. What HCPCS code and billing units of service would be coded for an injection of
20
milligrams of DepoMedrol?

a. J1020, 1 unit
b. J1020, 2 units
c. J1030, 1 unit
d. J3301, 2 units

6. <!--[endif]--> When a CPT code description includes the term separate

procedure, which of the following circumstances applies?

<!--[if !supportLists]-->a. <!--[endif]-->The code designated as separate

procedure is always reported separately in addition to any other procedure
performed.

<!--[if !supportLists]-->b. <!--[endif]--> The code designated as separate

procedure may never be reported separately if any other service is performed at
the same session.

<!--[if !supportLists]-->c. <!--[endif]-->The code designated as separate

procedure may only be reported if performed at the same session as the code for
the total procedure or service of which it is considered an integral part.
<!--[if !supportLists]-->d. <!--[endif]-->The code designated as separate
procedure may be reported if no other related procedures were performed in the
same session.

7. <!--[endif]-->Per CPT Instructions and CPT Assistant guidelines, what is the CPT
code is used to report a pulsed radiofrequency destruction of greater occipital
nerve?

a. 64640
b. 64405
c. 64999
d. 64626

The following scenario is applicable to questions 3-6:

LOCATION: ASC

Pre & Postprocedure

Diagnosis: Lumbar facet joint syndrome with low back pain and spondylosis

Procedure Performed: Radiofrequency destruction of L2, L3 and L4 paravertebral

facet joint nerves

Previous positive diagnostic blocks were performed of the L2, L3 and L4 medial
branches with 80% relief of symptoms for the duration of local anesthetic.
Fluoroscopic imaging was utilized to identify the corresponding lumbar vertebrae. 1
ml of 1% Lidocaine was injected in the skin and subcutaneous tissues over the
target vertebrae. Next, a 20gauge RF needle with a 5 mm curved active tip was
advanced and the lateral projection revealed the needle tip to be in an appropriate
position. Sensory and motor stimulation trials were performed and revealed
appropriate needle placement for RF lesioning of L2 facet joint nerve. 1 ml of 2%
Lidocaine was injected and five minutes were allowed to pass. A lesion was
instituted at 80C for 60 seconds. The needle was then rotated 180 degrees and a
second lesion was performed at 80C for 60 seconds. 0.5 ml of Triamcinolone was
injected and the needle was removed. Repeat lesions were performed at 80C for 60
seconds at the L3 and L4 paravertebral facet joint nerves utilizing the same
technique.

The following four questions below refer to the previous vignette. Assign
the codes below as you would report the items and services. If a question
asks about a code, such as a modifier, secondary CPT code, etc., but you
do not believe a code is necessary / compliant to report, put N/A in the
blank:
8. <!--[endif]-->What is the CPT code for the primary medial branch surgical
procedure? _________

9. <!--[endif]-->What is the CPT code for the additional medial branch surgical
procedures? _______

10.What is the number of billing service units for the code in above question for the
additional medial branch surgical procedures?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

11. <!--[endif]-->What CPT code would be reported for the injection of the
paravertebral facet joint nerve steroid injections? _______

Answers:
1. b
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. a
6. d
7. c
8. 64622
9. 64623
10. b
11. N/A

1. The physician performs cone biopsy of cervix by loop electrosurgical excision

procedure (LEEP). What is the CPT code for this?

Ans. 57522

2. Hysteroscopic dilation and currettage of uterus for abnorma uterine bleeding?

Ans. 58558

3. Dilation and currettege of uterus for treatment of incomplete abortion?

Ans. 59812
4. Control of epistaxis with silvernitrate?

Ans. 30901: silernitrate is used for chemical cautery

5. Creation of arteriovenous anastomosis for dialyis by cephalic transposition?

Ans. 36818

6. Revision of arteriovenous fistula?

Ans. 36832

7. The physician performs left cariac catheterization and during the procedure also
performs ventriculography and coronary angiography. What are the CPT injection
and S/I codes for this procedure?

Ans. 36210 Left Heart Cath

93543, 93545, 93555, 93556

8. The physician performs left and right carotid angiography by using femoral
vein as
vascular access site what codes would represent this service ?

Ans. 36215, 36216

9. Transforaminal epidural injection of anesthetic agent or steroid at L4-L5

using
flouroscopic guidence?

Ans. 66483, 77003

10. Epidural injection of neurolytic substance at L4-L5?

Ans. 66282

11. Extracapsular repair of cataract with intraocular lens implantation requiring

suturing?
 Ans. 66482

12. The patient has phymosis of foreskin the physician performes surgery for
repair of
phymosis what CPT code would represent this service?

Ans. 54150

13. The physician documents a diagnosis of hypertensive congestive heart

failure. What
are the ICD codes to represnt this?
Ans. 402.11, 428.0

14. The patient has candidial diaper rash what are the ICD codes for this?

Ans. 112.3, 691.0

15. What is LIMA?

Ans. LIMA stands for left iternal mammary atery and is used as a
graft in CABG.

Sample/Practice/Free CPT/CPC Exam Coding Questions:

1. What is the code for peak flow(vital capacity)?

Ans. 94150

2. The patient came with sore throat a rapid strep was ordered what is the CPT code
for rapid strep?

Ans.87880

3. The patient Urine HCG pregnency test what CPT code would represent this?

Ans.81025
4. The patient was diagnosed with cardiac arrest the physician does
cardiopulmonary resuscitation and intubation what are the CPT codes that represent
this?

Ans.92950, 31500

5. What is the modifier to represent a service that is repeated by the same

physician on the same visit ?

Ans.76

6. The patient was given an infusion of Pepcid, Vasotec, and Benedryl from 10 a.m
to 11a.m. what are the codes that will represent this service?

Ans.96365, 96368

7. The patient camw with fracture of distil tibia and the physician aplied posterior
splint give the CPT code?

Ans.29515

8. The physician gives a diagnosis of micotic nails due to diabetes what ICD codes
will represent this?

Ans.250.00, 111.9

9. What is the ICD 9 code for allergic rhinoconjunctivitis?

Ans.372.05

10. What code would represent open reduction of Galeazzi fracture?

Ans.25525

11. The physician performs lumbar L4-L5 fusion by posterior approach and partial
fecetectomy, foraminotomy what are the CPT codes that represent his services?

Ans.22612, 63030
 12. The physician performs posterior interbody fusion of L4-L5 interspace and
minimal diskectomy give CPT codes representig this service?

Ans.22618

13. What is the difference between morselized and structutal bone grafts?

Ans. Morselized bone grafts are pieces of bones that are used to fill
spaces while structual bone graft is compact bone graft.

14. What is the difference between autograft an allograft?

Ans. Autografts are grafts that are tken from the patient's own body while
allograft are taken from some other inividuals.

15. What modifier indicates decision for surgery?

Ans.57

Sample/Practice/Free ANESTHESIA Coding Questions

1. Which of the following physical status modifiers would you report for a
patient with severe systemic disease?

A. P1
B. P2
C. P3
D. P4

2. If a provider administers anesthesia for procedures of the eye,

specifically for a corneal transplant, which of the following anesthesia
codes would you report?

A. 00142
B. 00144
C. 00145
D. 00147

3. Code 00632 indicates that a provider administered anesthesia for which

type of procedure in the lumbar region?

A. Lumbar sympathectomy
B. Chemonucleoysis
C. Diagnostic or thereapeutic lumbar puncture
D. Not specified
4. Which of the following anesthesia codes is not related to the upper
abdomen?

A. 00730
B. 00752
C. 00790
D. 00802

5. If a patient receives anesthesia for a lower leg cas application, removal,

or repair, which of the following anesthesia codes would you report?

A. 01320
B. 01400
C. 01490
D. 01520

ANSWERS:

1 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C

1. Jill is a 29-year-old patient of Dr. Marks. She is seen by Dr. Marks for a
cough with wheezing and yellow-colored mucus of three days duration, as
well as four days of external bleeding hemorrhoids and diarrhea. Dr. Marks
gives Jill Amoxicillin for acute viral bronchitis, instructions for care of
external hemorrhoids, and a diet plan to assist with the diarrhea. What
diagnoses should Dr. Marks use for this encounter?
a. 466.0, 455.5, 787.91
b. 787.91, 466.11, 455.5
c. 466.11, 787.91, 455.2
d. 466.0, 455.8, 787.91

2. What HCPCS Level II code describes Ensure HN therapy with an enteral

infusion pump with alarm?
a. B4150, B9002
b. B4152, B9000
c. B4150
d. None of the above

3. Which types of joints are considered synovial?

a. Suture joint, medial joint, and articulation joint
b. Ball-and-socket joint, hinge joint, and saddle joint
c. Pivot joint, talus joint, and cranial joint
d. Ball-and socket joint, nasal joint, and elevation joint

4. A physician applied a cast and also provided all of the subsequent

fracture care. The same physician may report the application of the cast
separately from the fracture care.
a. True
b. False

5. Immediately prior to inserting a permanent pacemaker and placing an

electrode in the ventricle, the same physician surgically created a pocket
to hold the pulse generator. How should the physician report the creation
of the pocket?
a. Skin pocket is included
b. 33222
c. 33222, 33215-51
d. 33233

6. What modifier should be used for an incomplete colonoscopy when the

patient was prepared for a full colonoscopy?
a. 78
b. 52
c. 24
d. None of the above

7. A physician inserts a single temporary transvenous pacing catheter into

the right atrium and connects the electrode to an external pulse
generator. How should the physician report these services?
a. 33214
b. 33206
c. 33210
d. 33211-52

8. A surgeon performs a diagnostic laparoscopy followed by a laparoscopic

nephrectomy (including partial ureterectomy). How should the physician
report these services?
a. 50546
b. 49320, 50546-51
c. 49320
d. 50549

9. It is appropriate to separately report a visceral repair when a closure of

an
ureterovisceral fistula is performed during the same surgical session.
a. True
b. False

10. A dermatologist excises a 3.5 cm benign lesion from a patients back.

After the lesion is successfully removed, the dermatologist performs an
intermediate 3.5 cm layered closure. How should you report these
services?
a. 11404, 12031
b. 11404, 12032-51
c. 11404
d. 11404, 12032-57

11. How would a physician report a bilateral diagnostic nasal endoscopy

followed by endoscopic debridement of the nasal cavity during the same
operative session?
a. 31240, 31237
b. 31254
c. 31237-50
d. 31237
12. What is the name of a procedure that involves the passage of an
endoscope down through the esophagus?
a. Septoplasty
b. Sinusotomy
c. Laryngoscopy
d. Esophagoscopy

13. A physician excises a lesion from the iris of the right eye. How should
the physician report these services?
a. 66761-50
b. 66770-RT
c. 66635-52
d. 66600-RT

14. A patient presents to have corns removed from his foot. The physician
performs paring to successfully remove four lesions. How should the
physician report these services?
a. 11056
b. 11056, 12000
c. 11056 x 4
d. 11704

15. The subsection microbiology in the Pathology and Laboratory section

of the CPT Manual includes codes for bacteriology, mycology, parasitology,
and virology.
a. True
b. False

16. A 13-year-old patient suffering from end-stage renal disease received

a full month of services, including growth and development assessment,
parent counseling, and monitoring of adequate nutrition. These services
were completed in an outpatient facility. How would the physician report
these services?
a. 90999
b. 97803, 90924
c. 90920
d. 90924

17. A patient is admitted to the hospital for insertion of 15 interstitial

radiation ribbons. How would the facility report the radiology services?
a. 77778
b. 99222, 77763
c. 77777-TC
d. 77762 x 15

18. Mrs. Smith was seen by her family physician, Dr. Marks. Mrs. Smith
complains she has had a sore throat, breathing problems, and a fever for
five days. She is a diabetic patient and has been taking over-the-counter
medications that have interfered with her insulin medication. Dr. Marks
documented a detailed history, detailed examination, and moderately
complex decision-making. Dr. Marks spent 35 minutes with the patient
during the examination. How should the physician report this service?
a. 99215
b. 99204
c. 99205
d. 99214

19. Pediatric critical care patient transport codes include vascular access
procedures, blood gases, and review of information data stored in
computer.
a. True
b. False

20. An anesthesiologist administers anesthesia for a male patient prior to

the surgeon performing a total hip replacement. The patient is 75 years
old and suffers from mild hypertension. How should you code the
anesthesia services?
 a. 01214, 99100-59
b. 01214-47
c. 01214-P2, 99100
d. 01214-P3

Answers
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. C

Sample/Practice/Free CPC/CPC-H Exam Coding Questions

1. According to the ICD-9 guidelines, how is the postpartum period

described?

a. The postpartum period begins immediately after delivery and continues for
six weeks following delivery
b. The postpartum period includes the last month of pregnancy and up to five
months after delivery

c. The postpartum period is different for each pregnancy

d. The postpartum period begins immediately prior to delivery and continues

for six weeks following delivery

2. Select the correct ICD-9 code for a bilateral femoral hernia with
gangrene.

a. 552.02
b. 551.00
c. 551.02
d. 553.02

3. What is the correct supply code for an iris-supported intraocular lens?

a. V2599
b. V2631
c. V2744
d. V2715

4. What modifier best describes a surgery performed on the right foot,

fourth digit?

a. T8
b. T4
c. RT
d. F8

5. How is the performance measures numerator for Community-Acquired

Bacterial Pneumonia (CAP) defined for code 1026F?

a. All patients with the diagnosis of community-acquired bacterial pneumonia

b. All patients with hydration status assessed
c. All patients assessed for history of co-morbid conditions
d. All patients with an appropriate empiric antibiotic prescribed

6. A 29-year-old patient is given an intramuscular Hepatitis A and

Hepatitis B vaccine. Select the appropriate codes to report this service.

a. 90471, 90646, 90747

b. 90467, 90632, 90646
c. 90473, 90636
d. 90471, 90636

7. A patient had a whole-body thyroid carcinoma metastases imaging with

uptake completed. Select the appropriate codes to report the professional
services.

a. 78015-26, 78003-26
b. 78010, 78020
c. 78028, 78020
d. 78018-26, 78020-26

8. The cisterna chyli is located in which body system?

a. Nervous system
b. Lymphatic system
c. Respiratory system
d. Muscular system

9. A 9-month-old baby boy is diagnosed with shaken infant syndrome with

subdural hematoma and retinal hemorrhages. The daycare worker told the
emergency department physician that she shook the baby to make him
stop crying. Select the appropriate diagnoses codes for this patient.

a. 995.55, E967.7, E967.8

b. 362.81, 995.55, E967.4, E968.7
c. 995.55, 362.81, E968.8, E967.8
d. 362.81, E968.8, E967.8
10. What is Hallermann-Streieff considered?

a. A syndrome
b. A muscle
c. A treatment
d. A bone

11. According to procedure coding, how is skin traction defined?

a. Application of a force (distracting or traction force) to a limb segment

through a wire, pin, screw, or clamp attached to the skin only

b. Application of a force (longitudinal) to a limb using felt or strapping applied

directly to the skin only

c. Application applied through force to a limb using felt or strapping applied

directly to the skin only

d. Application applied through force to a long bone using a segment of wire,

pin, screw, or clamp attached to the skin only

12. What is a panniculectomy?

a. Intravenous injection of agent to test vascular flow in flap or graft

b. Incision with opening of deep bone cortex
c. Closure of vesicovaginal fistula
d. Excision of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue from abdomen
tummy tuck

13. What is included with an adjacent tissue transfer or rearrangement?

a. Skin graft necessary to close secondary defect

b. Initial wound recipient side preparation
c. Excision of the benign or malignant lesion
d. Modifier P5 on additional codes reported with this procedure

14. An 84-year-old patient with mild hypertension is undergoing a cataract

procedure. Select the appropriate anesthesia code(s) for this patient.
a. 66983, 00144-P4
b. 99100, 66983
c. 00148
d. 00142-P2, 99100

15. Mary was seen in Dr. Jones office after scalding her hand with steam
from a pot of boiling water. Dr. Jones had seen Mary four years ago before
she moved out of state. Today, Dr. Jones documents a detailed history and
performs a detailed examination. Medical decision-making is of low
complexity. He writes her a prescription for an antibiotic cream and asks
her to check with him in one week if the burn is not healing. Select the
appropriate code for todays encounter.

a. 99203
b. 99213
c. 99221
d. 99243

16. Which set of codes would be reported for end-stage renal disease
services for home dialysis?

a. 90967 to 90970
b. 90935 to 90937
c. 90951to 90953
d. 90963 to 90966

17. A patient was treated by photodynamic therapy for a lesion on the

choroid of her left eye. Select the appropriate procedure code(s) for this
procedure.

a. 96567-LT
b. 67101-RT
c. 67221-LT
d. 67221, 67225-50
18. What is the correct code for the supply of a Ganciclovir 4.5 mg,
longacting implant?

a. L8606
b. J7310
c. A4650
d. E0783

19. A 20-year-old HIV-positive patient was admitted to a hospital

observation bed by his PCP for stomach cramps and diarrhea. After tests
were completed, the PCP determined that the stomach cramps and
diarrhea were results of staphylococcal food poisoning. Select the
appropriate diagnoses codes for this patient.

a. 042, 005.0
b. V08, 005.3
c. 005.0, 042
d. 042, V08, 005.3

20. What is the correct 5th digit sub-classification to describe

bacteriological or histological examination not done for tuberculosis?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. No 5th digit is necessary with this diagnosis code set

Practice medical coding test

If you are preparing for CPC or CCS exams here is one practice test. This test also
has sample questions on anatomy.

1. Medically necessity means . . .

a. Reasonable but not necessary.

b. Necessary but can be avoided this time as the patients condition can be
managed without it.
c. Reasonable and necessary for the patients condition.
d. All the above

2. In the SOAP format of medical record, what term describes the section of the
medical record that describes the patient's current condition in narrative form in
the patient's own words?

a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Assessment
d. Plan

3. In the SOAP format, Vital signs and measurements, such as weight are
documented in which section of the medical record:

a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Assessment
d. Plan

4. HITECH stands for?.

a. Health Information Technicians for Economic and Clinical Health

b. Health Information Technology for Ecology and Clinical Health
c. Health Information Technology
d. Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health

5. The benefits of the meaningful use of EHRs include::

a. Complete and accurate information.

b. Better access to information
c. Patient empowerment.
d. All of the above

6. The prefix aden- means:

a. System
b. Eye
c. Gland
d. Skin
7. The prefix aphth- means:

a. Inflammation
b.Gangrene
c. Tumor
d. Ulcer

8. A Bronchoscopy is:

a. A visual examination of the bronchous

b. Excision of bronchous
c. Anomaly of bronchous
d. An instrument used to examine the bronchous

9. A patient has a history of HIV and now diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma. How
should this be coded?

a. Code AIDS and Kaposi's sarcoma because Kaposi's sarcoma is complication of HIV
b. Code HIV and Kaposi's Sarcoma
c.Code only AIDS
d.Code only Kaposi's Sarcoma

10. A physician diagnosed a patient with radial fracture. An x-ray report says distal
radial fracture.Can documentation in X-ray report be used for more specific coding?

a.Yes
b.No

Answers:
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A

CPT Coding Questions - Skin and Integumentary

Here are CPT Coding Questions from Skin and Integumentary with answers

Q 1. The patient came with a 2 cm laceration on his hand and 2 cm on his leg. the
physician performed a single layer closure of both the wound . Which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 12002
B. 12013
C. 12001
D. 12011

Ans. A

Q2. The patient has a 3 cm superficial laceration on his hand. After examining the
patient, the physician applied sterri strips to the woound . Which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 12002
B. 12013
C. 12001
D. None of the above

Ans: D. Application of sterri strips is included in E/M code an does not need any CPT
code

Q3. The patient has 2 cm complex laceration on his finger. The physician debrided
the wound and performed a layred closure of the subcutaneous tissue and skin .
Which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 12032
B. 12034
C. 12001
D. None of the above

Ans: A. This is an intermediate wound closure of finger of length less than 2.5 cm

Q4. The patient has 2 cm complex laceration on his face. The physician extensive
debrided the wound and performed a layred closure of the subcutaneous tissue and
skin . Which is the correct
 CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 12032
B. 12034
C. 12051
D. None of the above

Ans: C. When extensive debridement or clening is performed with intermediate

wound closure then it become a complex closure.

Q5. The patient has an abscess of his face. The physician performed incision and
drainage of the abscess . Which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 10060
B. 10061
C. 10160
D. None of the above

Ans: A. Incision an drainage of abscess, simple

Q6. The patient has an abscess of his face. The physician performed incision and
drainage of the abscess and also did packing. Which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 10060
B. 10061
C. 10160
D. None of the above

Ans: B. Incision an drainage of abscess with packing will be coded to 1&D complex

Q7. The patient comes with a subungual hematoma. The physician drained the
hematoma. Which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 11740
B. 11719
 C. 11760
D. None of the above

Ans: A. The proceure is Evacuation of subungual hematoma

Q8. The patient has an ingrown toenail. The physician peformed excision of ingrown
toenail. Which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 11750
B. 11760
C. 11762
D. 11765

Ans: A. The proceure is Excision of nail partial or complete nail for permanent
removal

Q9. The patient has been diagnosed with actinic keratosis. The physician peformed
electrocautery on a lesion on his face. Which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 11740
B. 17000
C. 17004
D. 17261

Ans: B. The proceure is destruction of premalignent lesion, single lesion

Q10. The patient has a burn on his hand with blisters, which is 5% of total body
surface area. The physician applied silvadine dressing. which is the correct
CPT code for the services provided by the physician.

A. 16000
B. 16020
C. 16030
D. 16035
 Ans: B. Since there are blisters it is second degree burn. So the proceure is
Dressings and/or debridement of partial-thickness burns, intial or subsequent; small