HYDERABAD INSTITUTE OF EXCELLENCE

CHEMISTRY PRACTICE PAPERS

AIPMT-1

1. Volumes of 10M HCl and 5M HCl to be mixed to prepare 10L of 6M HCl solution are
respectively,
1) 3L and 7L 2) 2L and 8L 3) 1.5L and 8.5L 4) 2.5L and 7.5L

2. Which of the following liquid pair solutions shows a positive deviation from Raoults law ?
1) Water nitric acid 2) acetone chloroform
3) Benzene methanol 4) water hydrochloric acid

3. Match the following

List I (oxide) List II (Magnetic property)
i) CrO2 A) Ferrimagnetic
ii) Fe3O4 B) Antiferromagnetic
iii) ZnO2 C) Diamagnetic
iv) MnO2 D) Ferro magnetic
E) Paramagnetic

1) i D ii A iii C iv B 2) i D ii E iii B iv C
3) i B ii A iii C iv D 4) i A ii D iii C iv B
4. Atoms A are arranged in ccp array. Atoms of B occupy all the octahedral voids and half of
the tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound of A and B is
1) AB2 2) A2B 3) A2B3 4) AB

5. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode is 0.24 volt. The pH of the acid solution in
which the hydrogen electrode is immersed at a pressure of 1 atm is
1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 4

6. In a cell that utilises the reaction, Zn( s ) 2H ( aq ) Zn2 ( aq ) H 2 ( g ) , addition of H2SO4 to the
cathode compartment, will
1) increase the Ecell and shift the equilibrium to the left
2) increase the Ecell and shift the equilibrium to the right
3) lower the Ecell and shift the equilibrium to the left
4) lower the Ecell and shift the equilibrium to the right

7. Given equilibrium constants for the following equilibria in gas phase :

2CO O2 2CO2 ; k1
2H 2 O2 2H2O; k2
CO H2O CO2 H2 ; k
The equilibrium constants are related as

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3) k k1 k2 4) k k1 k2
1
1) k k1 k2 2) k k1 k2
2 2

8. Assertion (A) : The synthesis of NH3 in Habers process needs 500oC inspite of the fact that the
reaction is favoured at low temperature according to Lechateliers principle.
Reason (R) : The reaction proceeds faster at high temperature.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

9. A reaction occurs spontaneously if

1) TS<H and both H and S are +ve 2) TS>H and both H and S are +ve
3) TS=H and both H and S are +ve 4) TS<H and H is +ve and S is ve

10. Heat liberated in the neutralization of 500mL of 1N HCl and 500mL of 1N NH 4OH is 5.69KJ.
The heat of ionization of NH4OH is about
1) 10.98 KJ 2) 45.92 KJ 3) 51.61 KJ 4) 22.98 KJ
1
11. A gaseous reaction, A2 B C shows increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm in 5
2
minutes. The rate of disappearance of A2 is
1) 8mm min1 2) 4 mm min1 3) 16 mm min1 4) 2 mm min1
12. Rate of decomposition of nitrous oxide is 0.1M s1. What is the rate constant of the reaction if
the concentration of N2O is 0.1M
1) 10 M2 s1 2) 1 x 102 M1 s1 3) 6.9 x 102 s1 4) 10 M1 s1
13. If the solubility of Mg(OH)2 is 2 , its solubility product will be
1) 8 2) 4 2 3) 9 2 4) 8 2
14. The pH of a solution of HCl is 1. The amount of acid present in one litre of the solution will be

1) 3.65g 2) 0.365g 3) 36.5g 4) 1.0g

15. Aqueous solution of potash alum is
1) slightly alkaline 2) acidic 3) neutral 4) strongly alkaline
16. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
1) milk solid in liquid sol 2) starch liquid in liquid sol
3) Blood emulsion 4) smoke aerosol
17. An example of autocatalysis is
1) decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2
2) oxidation of oxalic acid by acidified KMnO4
3) oxidation of SO2 to SO3 4) oxidation of NO to NO2

18. Which of the following gases is adsorbed most on one gram of activated charcoal ?
1) CH4 2) SO2 3) N2 4) HCl

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19. The metal not obtained by reduction of its oxide with carbon is
1) Fe 2) Zn 3) Pb 4) Cu

20. Heating an ore in the absence of air below its melting point is called
1) Leaching 2) smelting 3) roasting 4) calcination

21. In the commercial electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, the electrolyte used is
1) Al2O3 in NaOH solution
2) molten mixture of alumina, cryolite and fluorspar
3) molten mixture of Al(OH)3, cryolite and NaOH
4)aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3 and dilute H2SO4

22. The strongest reductant among the following?

1). NH3 2).PH3 3). SbH3 4). BiH3

23. Which of the following is not oxidised by ozone ?

1) moist KI 2) SO2 3) FeSO4 4) acidified KMnO4

24. When chlorine gas is passed through hot and concentrated caustic soda solution, the products
formed contain
1) NaClO2 2) NaClO3 3) NaClO4 4) all of these
25. The spin-only magnetic moment (in units of Bohr magneton) of Ni2+ in aqueous solution would
be

1) 1.73 2) 2.83 3) 2.45 4) 3.87

26. Cerium (Z=58) is a member of lanthanides. Which of the following statements about Cerium is
incorrect ?
1) the common oxidation states of Ce are +3 and +4
2) the +3 oxidation state of Ce is more stable than +4 oxidation state
3) Ce (IV) acts as an oxidising agent
4) the +4 oxidation state of Ce is not known in solution.

27. A polymer which has amide linkage is

1) Nylon-6,6 2) Terylene 3) teflon 4) bakelite
28. Which of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene on polymerization ?
1) CH2 CH CH2Cl 2) CH2 CH C6 H5
3) CH 2 C| COOCH3 4) CH 2 C| CH CH 2
CH3 Cl
29. Assertion (A) : Fructose with ketone group could reduce Fehlings solution.
Reason (R) : With dilute solution of NaOH, fructose gives a mixture of D-glucose, D-mannose and
L-fructose.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

30. In DNA, phosphodiester bond is present between

1) Base and sugar 2) base and base 3) sugar and sugar 4) any of these
31. A biological catalyst is essentially
1) a carbohydrate 2) an amino acid 3) an enzyme 4) a lipid
32. Which of the following in the body causes allergic reactions like skin rashes ?
1) Histadine 2) Histamine 3) ranitidine 4) chloropheniramine
33. The following steps are involved in the conversion of isobutylbenzene to ibuprofen
a) addition of HCN b) acetylation c) reduction d) hydrolysis
Correct sequence is

1) b, c, a, d 2) b, a, c, d 3) a, b, c, d 4) a, d, b, c
34. Iodoform test is not given by
1) CH3 CH2OH 2) CH3 CO CH2 CH3
3) CH3 CH2 CHOH CH2 CH3 4) CH3 CHO
35. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
1) The reaction of t-butyl chloride with OH follows first order kinetics.
2) An S N1 reaction proceeds with complete inversion of configuration
3) An SN 2 reaction follows second order kinetics.
4) An SN 2 reaction proceeds with stereochemical inversion.
Br2 FeBr3 2 Na , dry ether
36. Benzene A B . The compound B is
1) Bromobenzene 2) Diphenyl 3) Benzyl bromide 4) Benzophenone
37. Which of the following is more acidic ?
1) o cresol 2) phenol 3) p chlorophenol 4) m - nitrophenol
38. Sodium tertiary butoxide gives ether when reacts with
1) isopropyl bromide 2) tertiary butyl bromide
3) methyl bromide 4) all of the above

39. Aldehydes can be prepared by the oxidation of primary alcohols using

1) Pyridinium chlorochromate 2) hot chromic acid
3) hot acidified KMnO4 4) hot conc. HNO3
40. Which of the following does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction ?
1) H-CHO 2) C6 H5 -CHO 3) CH3 3 C.CHO 4) CH3 -CHO
41. Identify A and B in the following conversions:
A B
CH3 CH3 CH3 COOH CH3 CH 2OH
A B
1) LiAlH4 Zn+HCl
2) HI + red P LiAlH4
3) Zn + HCl Pd + BaSO4
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4) LiAlH4 HI + red P
42. Benzene diazonium chloride can be reduced to benzene with
1) H3PO3 or H2O 2) C2H5OH or H3PO3
3) H3PO2 or C2H5OH 4) LiAlH4 or Zn/HCl
43. Correct increasing order of base strength of amines is
1) C6 H5 NH2 NH3 C6 H5CH2 NH 2 C2 H5 NH 2
2) C6 H5 NH2 NH3 C2 H5 NH2 C6 H5CH2 NH 2
3) NH3 C6 H5 NH2 C6 H5CH2 NH2 C2 H5 NH2
4) C2 H5 NH2 C6 H5CH2 NH2 C6 H5 NH2 NH3
44. Acetamide with Br2 and NaOH gives
1) Ethyl amine 2) methyl amine 3) ethyl bromide 4) methyl bromide
OH
45. C6 H 5 N 2Cl C6 H 5OH X.
Correct statement among the following :
1) X is an yellow dye
2) The reaction is electrophilic substitution in phenol
3) The reaction is nucleophilic substitution in phenol
4) The reaction is electrophilic substitution in C6H5N2Cl.

1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 1 5) 4 6) 2 7) 4 8) 1 9) 2 10) 2
11) 1 12) 4 13) 4 14) 1 15) 2 16) 4 17) 2 18) 2 19) 4 20) 4
21) 2 22) 4 23) 4 24) 2 25) 2 26) 4 27) 1 28) 4 29) 3 30) 3
31) 3 32) 2 33) 2 34) 3 35) 2 36) 2 37) 4 38) 3 39) 1 40) 4
41) 2 42) 3 43) 1 44) 2 45) 3

AIPMT-2

46. In hydrogen atom the ratio of the wave numbers of H - line of Lyman series and H - line of

Balmer series is
a) 1 : 2 b) 2 : 3 c) 4 : 1 d) 3 : 4
47. Assertion (A): Number of waves made by a revolving electron in an orbit is equal to Azimuthal
quantum number
Reason (R): Circumference of the orbit is an integral multiple of wave length of the electron
a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
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c) A is true, R is false d) A is false, R is true

48. In which of the following all species have same geometry
a) NH3, H3O+, BF3 b) SO2, OF2, CO2 c) SF6, XeF2, BF4-1 d) CH4, NH4+, CCl4
49. The atomic radius of Potassium is 2.31A0. Its covalent radius is
a) 2.03A0 b) 2.31A0 c) 2.5A0 d) 5A0
50. 0.5g of an organic compound in Kjeldahl method liberated NH3 which was exactly neutralised by
20ml of 1N H2SO4 percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
a) 28 b) 56 c) 84 d) 40
51. IUPAC name of NH3 is
a) Azane b) Ammonia c) Amine d) Oxidane
52. An open flask has helium gas at 2 atm and 3270C. The flask is heated to 5270C at the same
pressure. The fraction of the original gas remaining in the flask is
3 1 1 2
a) b) c) d)
4 2 4 5
53. M(g) + e-1
M-1(g) is exothermic. Which of the following is M
a) Mg b) F c) N d) Be
54. RMS velocity of SO2 at 27 C is 0.3 m/sec then RMS velocity of the same gas at 927 C is
a) 0.3 m/sec b) 0.9 m/sec c) 1.2 m/sec d) 0.6 m/sec
55. Pick up the wrong match
a) Cr2O7-2
CrO5 ; Comproportionation b) Cr(OH)3
CrO4-2 ; Oxidation
c) 2S2Cl2 + 2H2O
SO2 + 4HCl + S; Disproportionation
d) MnO4-1
MnO4-2 ; Reduction

56. Hydraulic mortar is prepared by heating

a) Lime stone and clay b) Lime stone only
c) Magnesite and clay d) Magnesite and sand
57. The types of bonds present in CuSO4. 5H2O are
a) Electrovalent, covalent b) Covalent , co ordinate covalent
c) Electrovalent,covalent, dative and hydrogen bond
d) Electrovalent
58. If the ozonolysis of an olefin gives only propanone, then the olefin is
a) But 1 ene b) 2,3 dimethyl but 2 ene
c) 2 methyl but 1 ene d) 3 methyl but 1- ene

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59. 3g of mixture of Mg and MgO, when treated with dil HCl, 2.24lt of H 2 liberated at STP. The
weight percentage of magnesia [MgO] in the mixture is
a) 20 b) 33.3 c) 66.7 d) 60
60. Debroglie wavelength ratio of two particles having same mass is 2 : 1. Their K.E. ratio is
a) 4 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 1 : 1
61. Wrong match is
a) NaClO3 Herbicide b) CCl2 F2 Ozone depletion

c) PO43 Eutrophication d) NO2 Contaminant

62. Hybridisation of silicon in silica

a) sp b) sp3 c) dsp2 d) sp3d2
63. What Volume of perhydrol is required for the complete combustion of 2 liters of Ethene ?
a) 60 cc b) 10 cc c) 5.6 cc d) 22.4 cc
64. Si2O7-6 unit is present in
a) Orthosilicates b) Pyrosilicates c) Cyclic silicates d) Chain silicates
65. The relation ship between PC, VC and TC is
3 3
a) PCVC RT b) PCVC RTC c) PCVC 3RTC d) PCVC RTC
8 5
66. The reaction that does not take place in Fischer-Ringes method is
a) CuO + CO
CO2 + Cu b) CO2 + 2KOH
K2CO3 + H2O
c) CaC2 + N2
1073K
CaCN2 + C d) 3Mg + N2
Mg3N2
67. Which among the following is more stable
H3C C CH3

a) CH 3 H 2 C b) H3C HC CH 3 c) | d) CH 3
CH3

68. In the second period elements the IP1 values of some elements are shown below

Element Li Be B C N O F
IP KJ/mole 520 899 1086 1314 1681

Then the IP1 values of B and N are respectively

a) 900, 1200 b) 1000, 1290 c) 801, 1403 d) 995, 1289
69. Which is known as 1,2 Benzopyrene

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CH 3

a) b) c) d) CH 3

70. One mole of Na2CO3 on hydrolysis produces

a) 2 moles of H b) 1 mole of H c) 1 mole of OH d) 2 moles of OH

71. n and values of an orbital A are 3 and 2, while that of another orbital B are 5 and 0. The
energy of
a) B is more than that of A b) A is more than that of B
c) A and B are equal d) None of these
72. The equivalent weight of As2O3 in the equation As2O3 + 2I2 + 2H2O
As2O5 + 4HI [At. wt of
As = 75]
a) 156.6 b) 99 c) 49.5 d) 127
73. CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr
A
Dry ether
Na
B. In the above reaction A and B are
a) CH3 CH2 CH2 Br, CH3 (CH2)4 CH3
b) CH3 CHBr CH3, CH3 (CH2)4 CH3
c) CH3 CH2 CH2Br, (CH3)2CH CH (CH3)2
d) CH3 CHBr CH3, (CH3)2CH CH (CH3)2
74. O2 molecule contain
a) Two unpaired electrons in pi antibonding MO b) One unpaired electron in pi antibonding MO
c) Two unpaired electrons in pi bonding MO d) One unpaired electron in pi bonding MO
CH 3 C CH CH 3
KMnO4 / H
75. | Products. Then the products in this are
CH 3
a) Acetone & Acetaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde only
c) Acetone & Acetic acid d) Acetic acid only
76. Ammonia gas diffuses twice as fast as another gas X. The gas X is
a) SO2 b) C4H10 c) Cl2 d) C5H8
77. Which of the following is not an isomer of butanal
a) Butanone b) 2 methyl propanal c) 2 butanol d) but 2 en - 1- ol
78. The presence of . ion in water causes methemoglobinemia (Blue baby syndrome)
a) SO42 b) NO3 c) CN d) F
79. Hybridisation of all carbon atoms in C60
a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) dsp2
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80. The electronic configuration of an element A is 1s22s1. It exhibits resemblances with another
element B of the valency configuration
a) 2s2 b) 3s2 c) 1s2 d) 3s23p1
81. Correct statements regarding diborane are
a) Diborane is electron deficient
b) The heat of combustion of diborane is more than that of ethane
c) Diborane is called inorganic benzene
d) Diborane has two centered three electron bonds
a) c, d b) a, b c) a, b, c d) a, b, c, d
82. Sublimation method can be used for the purification of
a) Naphthalene b) Benzoic acid c) Camphor d) All
83. The density of electron cloud is zero for dxy orbital in the plane of
a) yz b) xy c) xz d) both 1 & 3
0
84. C + H2O
1000 C
CO + H2
CO + H2O
Catalyst
4500 C
CO2 + H2.The catalyst used in the reaction is

a) V2O5 b) Asbestos Pt c) Fe2O3 / Cr d) Fe

85. H-bonding is strongest in
a) NH3 b) C2 H5OH c) H2O d) HF

86. Which of the following is false

a) Maximum covalency of Al is 6 b) Boron exists as a cation
c) Al can react with NaOH d) Boron can react with conc. HNO3
87. x moles of potassium dichromate oxidises 1 mole of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium. Here x is
a) 3 b) 1.5 c) 0.5 d) 1.0
88. Energy difference between eclipsed and staggered form of ethane is..kcal/mole
a) 12.55 b) 2.9 c) 4.5 d) 340
89. The attacking electrophile in aromatic Sulphonation is:

a) SO3 b) SO2 c) SO4-2 d) HSO3-1

CH3

90. IUPAC name of is

a) 3 Methyl cyclo hex-1-ene b) 1 Methyl cyclo Hex-2-ene
c) 6 Methyl cyclo hexane d) 1 Methyl cyclo Hex-5-ene

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CHEMISTRY

46) c 47) d 48) d 49) a 50) b 51) a 52) a 53) b 54) d 55) a

56) a 57) c 58) b 59) a 60) c 61) d 62) b 63) a 64) b 65) b

66) d 67) c 68) c 69) a 70) d 71) a 72) c 73) d 74) a 75) c

76) d 77) c 78) b 79) b 80) b 81) b 82) d 83) d 84) c 85) d

86) b 87) c 88) b 89) a 90) a

AIPMT-3

46. In a H-atom, the transition takes place from L to K shell. If R = 1.08 x 107 m-1, the wave length of
the light emitted is nearly
1) 4400 A 2) 1250 A 3) 1650 A 4) 7700 A
47. Which of the following quantum number are not possible?
1) n = 2, l =1, m = -1, s = - 2) n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s = +
3) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 4) n = 3, l = 2, m = -2, s = +
48. First four ionisation energy values of an element are 191, 578, 872 and 5972 K.Cals. The number
of valance electrons in the element is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2
49. Third period element of the following group forms most acidic oxide
1) IA 2) IVA 3) VII A 4) IIA
50. Number of bonding electrons in N2 molecule according to MOT
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 10
51. Which of the following has a planar structure
1) NH4+ 2) SCl4 3) XeF4 4) BF4-
52. The ratio of kinetic energies of 2gm of H2 and 4g of CH4 at a given temperature is
1) 4 : 1 2) 2 : 32 3) 1 : 4 4) 16 : 2
53. Arrange Ti, Tb and Tc is increasing order
1) Ti < Tc < Tb 2) Tb < Tc <Ti 3) Tc < Tb < Ti 4) Ti < Tb < Tc

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54. The equivalent weight of Bayers reagent is

1) 31.6 2) 52.6 3) 79 4) 158
55. When 20 ml of methane and 20 ml of oxygen are exploded together and the reaction mixture is
cooled to laboratory temperature. The resulting volume of the mixture is
1) 40 ml 2) 20 ml 3) 30 ml 4) 10 ml
56. a KMnO4 + b H2SO4 + c FeSO4 K2SO4 + MnSO4 + Fe2(SO4)3 + H2O. In this unbalanced
stoichiometric equation the values of a, b and c respectively are
1) 2, 8, 10 2) 1, 4, 10 3) 2, 10, 8 4) 2, 8, 16
57. Exhausted cation exchange resin is regenerated by using solution of moderately concentrated
1) NaOH 2) Na2CO3 3) H2SO4 4) NaCl
58. The normality of 2.24 vol H2O2 is
1) 1.786 2) 4 3) 0.4 4) 0.2
59. The ratio of volumes of H2 liberated when equal amounts of aluminium reacts with dil. and conc.
NaOH is
1)1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 2 : 3 4) 1 : 1
60. The principle involved in Ammonia Solvay process is
1) Low solubility of Na2CO3 2) High solubility of NaHCO3
3) Low solubility of NaHCO3 4) High hydration energy and lattice energy of NaHCO3
61. In the hardening stage of plaster of parts, the compound formed is
1) CaSO4 2) Orthorhombic CaSO4 . 2H2O
3) CaSO4 . H2O 4) Monoclinic CaSO4 . 2H2O
62. The hybridisation of boron in borax
1) Two borons in sp2 and two borons in sp3 2) One boron in sp3 and three borons in sp3
3) Three borons in sp2 and one boron in sp3 4) All are in sp3 hybridisation
63. Basicity of H3BO3 is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 0
64. SiO2 does not react with
1) HF 2) H2SO4 3) Na2CO3(fused) 4) NaOH

Identify B in the following reaction H2SiO4 A

B + CO
1000C Carbon
65. -H O
2

1) Carborundum 2) Quartz 3) Silica 4) Carbon

66. In Fischer-Ringes method of separation of noble gas mixture from air, ____ is used
1) 90 % CaC2 + 10 % CaCl2 2) Coconut charcoal
3) Soda lime + Potash solution 4) 90 % CaCO3 + 10% urea
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67. What is the atomic number of noble gas that reacts with F2
1) 10 2) 2 3) 18 4) 54
68. Smog is mainly due to
1) Oxides of sulphur & Carbon particles 2) Oxides of Pb
3) Oxides of carbon 4) Oxides of Chlorine
69. Deactivated filters in activated carbon method for deflouridation can be activated by
1) Defluoran 1 & defluoran 2 2) Lime, bleaching powder & alum
3) 4 % NaOH & 1 % H3PO4 4) 4 % - NaCl & 5 % H2SO4 solution

70. The IUPAC name of

1) 2-ethyl 3 methyl 1-pentene 4yne 2) 2 ethyl 3- methyl 4 pentyn 1 ene
3) 4ethyl3methyl1 pentane4 - ene 4) 4 ethyl -3- methyl 4 pentane 1 - yne

71. The compound is known by which of the following names

1) Bicyclo [2, 2, 1] octane 2) Bicyclo [2, 2, 2] octane
3) Bicyclo [1, 2, 3] octane 4) Bicyclo [1, 1, 1] octane
72. Among the following which has Z- configuration

1) 2)

3) 4)
73. Which of the following is the least stable carbonium ion ?
+
CF3 CCl3 CH(NO2)3 CH3
1) 2) 3) 4)
74. The chemical and the reaction conditions required for the preparation of ethane are
1) C2H5I, Zn-Cu, C2H5OH 2) CH3Cl, Na, H2O
3) KOOC-CH = CH COOK, electrolysis 4) CH3CO2Na, NaOH, CaO,
75. Bayers reagent oxidises ethylene to
1) Ethylene chlorohydrin 2) Ethyl alcohol
3) CO2 and H2O 4) Ethane 1, 2 - diol
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76. The product of ozonolysis of an alkene are ethanal and methanol, then that alkene is
1) CH3 C C CH3 2) CH3 CH = CH CH3
3) CH3 CH = CH2 4) CH3 C CH

77. C2H6
1MoleCl2
sunlight
A
Alc.KOH
B
H2 /Ni
200C
C. Here C is

1) C2H6 2) C2H5Cl 3) C2H4 4) C4H10

B C2H5Cl A . Here A and B are

Alc.KOH Zn-Cu
78. C H OH 2 5

1) CH4, C2H4 2) C2H4, C2H6 3) C2H6, C2H4 4) C2H6, CH4

79. Which method is regarded as internal wurtz reaction
1) Freunds method 2) Wislicenus method
3) Dieckmann method 4) Ziegler method
80. The final products formed when acetylene reacts with HCN & CH3COOH separately, respectively
are
1) CH3 CH(CN)2 & CH3 CH(OCOCH3)2 2) CH3-CH(CN)2 & CH2 = CH(OCOCH3)
3) CH2 = CHCN & CH3-CH(OCOCH3)2 4) CH2 = CHCN & CH2 = CH(OCCOH3)
Cl
81. CH CH
Redhot tube
A
2/light
B A and B are
1) C6H6, C2H2Cl4 2) C6H6, C6H6Cl6 3) C6H6, C6H5Cl 4) C6H6, C6H6Cl2
82. Arrange the following compounds in the descending order of their reactivity towards electrophilic
substitution.
a) Chlorobenzene b) Nitrobenzene c) Benzene d) Phenol e) Toluene
1) d > e > c> a > b 2) b > a > c > e > d 3) d > e > c > b > a 4) e > d > c> a > b

CaC2 + 2H2O X, CH3 CH2Cl

Y, X
Y In this reaction the reagent z is
alcKOH Z
83.

1) Ni / H2 2) LiAlH4 3) Pd + BaSO4 4) (Zn Hg) + conc. HCl

84. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass 10-6 kg moving with a velocity of 10
ms-1 is (in meters)
1) 6.6. x 10-7 2) 6.63 x 10-6 3) 6.63 x 10-21 4) 6.63 x 10-29
85. Identify the correct order in which the ionic radius of the following ions increases
-
I. F II. Na + III. N3-
1) III, I, II 2) I, II, III 3) II, III, I 4) II, I , III
86. Which one of the following is a correct set ?
1) H2O, sp3, angular 2) H2O, sp2, linear
3) HN4+, dsp2, square planar 4) CH4, dsp2, tetrahedral
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87 An open vessel at 27C is heated until three-fourths mass of the air in it has been expelled.
Neglecting the expansion of the vessel, the temperature to which the vessel has been heated is
1) 927C 2) 108C 3) 1000C 4) 477C
88. An oxide precipitate is formed when NaOH reacts with the aqueous solution of
1) FeCl3 2) Zn(OH) 3) FeSO4 4) AgNO3
89. Number of electron with +1/2 spin in n = 3 is
1) 18 2) 9 3) 3 4) 1
90. A mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 having a total weight of 100 gm on having produced 11.2 lit of
CO2 under STP conditions. The percentage of Na2CO3 in the mixture is
1) 55.8 % 2) 44.2 % 3) 84 % 4) 16 %

AIPMT-4

46. H3PO4
on gentle
heating

strong
heating
Y . The number of sigma and -bonds in X respectively

1) 8, 2 2) 14, 2 3) 12, 2 4) 8, 4
47. Shortest wavelength in Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum is
1) 364.8 nm 2) 91.2 nm 3) 656.3 nm 4) 454.8 nm

CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Br anhydrous

A Br3
X (major)
48. . X on oxidation followed by hydrolysis gives phenol
and acetone , then X is

Br CH 2 CH 2 CH3 CH3 CH CH 3 CH 2 CH 3

1) 2) 3) 4)
49. When excess CO2 gas is passed through an aqueous solution of X a clear solution is formed.
Where X would be
1) Na2CO3 2) Ca(OH)2 3) NaHCO3 4) NaOH
50. Diborane does not liberate H2 gas with
1) KOH 2) H2O 3) HC / A C 3 4) C 2 , 250 C

51. Which of the following exhibits colour due to d-d transition?

1) K2Cr2O7 2) MnSO4 3) KMnO4 4) Na 2CrO4

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52.
CH3 CH CH2 HBr
R 2O2
X . IUPAC name of positional isomer of X is
major
1) Isopropyl bromide 2) n- propyl bromide 3) 1-Bromo propane 4) 2 Bromopropane
53. Among the following which solution has lowest freezing point?
1) 0.1 M urea 2) 0.1M NaC 3) 0.1MA C 3 4) 0.1MK4 Fe CN 6

54. The formula of an ionic compound is AB. The number of valence electrons in A and B
respectively.
1) 2, 3 2) 3, 2 3) 5, 6 4) 2, 6
55. Biodegrable polyester co-polymer among the following is
1) PHBV 2) polyglycolic acid 3) polylactic acid 4) Nylon -6
0
56. Existence of benzene in liquid state at 25 can be explained by
1) Ion-dipole forces 2) dipole-dipole forces
3) dipole-induced dipole forces 4) Dispersion forces
57. The best coagulant for As2S3 sol is

1) K 4 Fe CN 6 2) FeC 3 3) ZnSO4 4) PtC 4

58. Purest form of iron is

1) steel 2) pig iron 3) wrought iron 4) cast iron
-5
59. The ionisation constant of 0.1 M CH3COOH at 250 C is 10 . [ H ] of the solution is

1) 10-1M 2) 10-2M 3) 10-3M 4) 10-4M

60. The main green house gas among the following is
1) NO2 2) CO2 3) SO2 4) O3

1
61. In a reaction H 2g O2g H 2O H 0 286KJ . Ssurr
0
of the process is ------- J/K.
2
1) -960 2) +852 3) -852 4) 960
62. The disaccharide which cant reduce Tollens reagent is
1) Sucrose 2) Maltose 3) Lactose 4) Starch
63. Paramagnetic species among the following is
1) S8 2) S6 3) O2 4) O3
64. Which of the following is not directly subjected to nitration.
NH 2 C OCH3

1) 2) 3) 4)
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65. Among the following which alcohols can respond to Haloform test ?
OH O
CH3 CH CH3 CH 3 C CH 3
I) CH3CH2OH II) CH3CHO III) IV)
1) I, II 2) I, III 3) II, III 4) III, IV
66. SiF4 H2O X Y ; SiC 4 H2O X Z . The covalency and oxidation state of silicon in Y
respectively.
1) 6, +4 2) 4, +4 3) +4, 6 4) 6, +2
67. In the decomposition reaction of ammonia on gold surface the concentration of NH3 decrease
from 1M to 0.5 M in 20minutes. The time required for its concentration to be reduced from
1M to 0.125 M in ----------- minutes.
1) 20 2) 40 3) 200 4) 35
68. The P-O bond order in orthophosphate ion is
1) 4 2) 1.5 3) 1.25 4) 1.75
69. The compounds of xenon formed in third excited state of xenon are
1) XeO3 , XeF4 2) XeO2F2 , XeOF4 3) XeO3 ,XeO4 4) XeO2 F2 , XeF4

70. For the formation of gaseous hydrogen molecule from gaseous H-atoms (assuming the reaction
is reversible) the favourable conditions are
1)High P, Hight T 2) High P, low T 3) Hihgt T, low P 4) Low P low T
71. Among the following which has highest specific conductance at a given temperature ?
1) 0.1 M CH3COOH 2) 0.1M NH4OH 3) 0.1 M HCl 4) 0.1 M H2SO4
72. H2O2 atcs as an acid in its reaction with
1) PbS 2) NaOH 3) KMnO4/H+ 4) Ag2O
73. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. If its vapour density is 90, the molecular
formula of the compound is
1) C6H12O6 2) C3H6O3 3) C12H22O11 4) C6 H10O5 n

74. When proton and particles have same velocity their de-Broglie wavelength ratio is
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 4 3) 4 : 1 4) 2: 1
75. Among the following which is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution by unimolecular
mechanism ?
Br
Br Br
1) 2) Br 3) 4)
76. Fluorine is the strongest oxidant among halogens because,
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1) It is highest electronegative element 2) It has highest electron affinity

-
3) F has low hydration energy and F2 has more bond dissociation energy.

4) F2 has low bond dissociation energy and F has more hydration energy.
77. The drug used in the prevention of Heart-attacks is
1) Ibuprofen 2) Aspirin 3) Paracetmol 4)Phenacetin
78. In which of the following process more energy is emitted ?

1) C g C g 2) F g F(g) 3) Br(g) Br(g) 4) I(g) I(g)

79 The enthalpy of combustions of C(graphite) , CH4, H2 and C2H4 are -394, -894, -286 and -1430
KJ/mol respectively. The best fuel among the following is
1) C(Graphite) 2) CH4 3) H2 4) C2H4
80. The alcohol which is more readily dehydrated is
CH3 CH CH 2 OH

1) CH3 2 CH OH 4) CH3 3 C OH
CH3
2) CH3CH2OH 3)

81. CoC 3 , xNH3 exhibits cis trans isomerism. The fraction of chloride ions satisfying both
primary and secondary valencies of cobalt in the complex is
1 2 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 2 4
82. Number of optically active isomers possible for 2, 3- dihydroxy butanedioic acid are
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 6
ka
83. Which of the following has highest p ?
OH COOH CH2-COOH

1) 2) CH3COOH 3) 4)

84. The dipolemoment of chlorobenzene is same as that of

C C
C
C
C C
1) 2) C 3) C 4)
85. Daltons law of partial pressures is not applicable for a mixture of
1) NH3 HCl 2) H2 N2 3) CO2 O2 4) N2 O2

86. The number of H+ ions required to balance the half reaction MnO4 Mn 2 are

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1) 5 2) 8 3) 6 4) 4
87. An organic liquid on heating decomposes before reaching its boiling point. The liquid can be
purified by
1) Steam distillation 2) Vaccume distillation
3) Fractional distillation 4) Simple distillation
88. Which of the following is an example of primary cell?
1) Lead accumulator 2) Leclanche cell
3) Edison battery 4) Acid-storage battery
89. The hormone which is responsible for maintaining constant sugar levels in blood is
1) Insulin 2) Thyroxine 3) Testosterone 4) Estradiol
90. CH3 3 C Br NaOC2H5 X Major The product X is
CH3 C CH 2
1) | 2) CH3 3 C O C2H5 3) CH3 3 C OH 4) CH3 3 C ONa
CH3

CHEMISTRY

1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 3 5) 4 6) 3 7) 1 8) 3 9) 2 10) 3

11) 1 12) 3 13) 3 14) 4 15) 3 16) 4 17) 1 18) 1 19) 2 20) 1

21) 1 22) 4 23) 1 24) 3 25) 1 26) 2 27) 2 28) 3 29) 1 30) 4

31) 3 32) 1 33) 3 34) 1 35) 3 36) 2 37) 1 38) 3 39) 4 40) 4

41) 1 42) 1 43) 4 44) 2 45) 4

AIPMT-5

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121. In a cubic packed structure of mixed oxides the lattice is made up of oxide ions one fifth of tetrahedral
voids are occupied by X ions. While one half of the octahedral voids are occupied by Y ions,Then
formula of oxide will be
1) X 2YO4 2) X 5Y4O10 3) X 4Y5O10 4) XY2O4
x x
122. Graph between log and log P is straight line at an angle of 450 with intercept of 0.6020.
m m
value at a pressure of 1 atm is
1) 2 2) 6 3) 4 4) 8
123. The equilibrium constant for the decomposition of N2O4( g ) 2 NO2( g ) given by [ degree of
dissociations, P = Equilibrium pressure]
2P 4 2 P P 1
1) 2) 3) 4) P
1 2 1 2
1 1
124. Equilibrium constant Kp increases with increase in temperature. H is
1) + Ve 2) Ve 3) Zero 4) May be the +Ve (or)
Ve
125. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, ppt of AgCl will occur only with
Ksp 1.8 1010
1) 104 M Ag 104 M Cl 2) 106 MAg 105 M Cl
3) 106 M Ag 106 M Cl 4) 1010 M Ag 1010 M Cl
126. For this system rate of reaction with passage of time

450
1
log t
2

log a
1) Increases 2) Decreases
3) Remains constant 4) First increase and then decreases
127. Consider the following statements, and identify the correct statements
1) Order of reaction can never be zero
2) Rate of reaction always decreases with time for non zero order reactions
3) Activation energy of a reaction depends on temperature
4) Rate of reaction always increases with rise of temperature whether reaction is exothermic or
endothermic
1) Only 2 and 4 2) Only 3 and 4 3) Only 1 and 3 4) All are correct
128. The enthalpy of neutralisation of strongacid with strong base is 57.32KJ / mole .The enthalpy
of formation of water is 285.84KJ .Then enthalpy of formation of hydroxyl ion is
1) 228.52KJ / mole 2) 228.52KJ / mole 3) 114.26KJ / mole 4) 114.2KJ / mole
129. Assertion (A): Dissolutions of salt X in water is Endothermic .But it is spontaneous process
Reason (R): S ve and H T S
1) A & R true, and R is not the correct explanation to A
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2) A & R true, and R is the correct explanation to A

3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
130. In what proportion 1M NaOH and 0.5MH2 SO4 are mixed so as to release maximum amount of
energy and form 100ml solution
1) 42,58 2) 67,33 3) 50, 50 4) 60,40
131. How many compounds among the following can give positive test with NaOH/I2
1) Acetophenone 2) 3-Pentanone 3) Propanal 4) 2-Butanone
5) 2-propanol
1) 5 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2
132. Electrophile involved in Reimer Tiemann reaction is
OH ONa

CHCl2 CHO

1) C Cl2 2) C HCl2 3) 4)
133. The alcohol with highest boiling point
1) Butan 1- ol 2) Butan 2-ol 3) propan -1-ol 4) Ethanol
134. Conversion of Benzene into chloro benzene in presence Fe/dark is
1) Nucleophilic substitution 2) Electrophilic substitution
3) Nucleophilic Addition 4) Free-radical substitution
135. Number of moles of PCl3 required to react with three moles of Ethanol is
1) 1/3 2) 1 3) 0.5 4) 3
136. Shape and hybridization of ClF3
1) Triangular, SP2 2) Pyramidal, SP3 3) Pyramidal, SP3d 4) T shape, SP3d
137. Strongest oxidizing agent is
1) HClO4 2) HClO2 3) HClO 4) HClO3
138. Compound of sulphur acting as both lewisacid and lewisbase is
1) SF6 2) SCl4 3) SO2 4) both 2 and 3
139. Oxy-acid of sulphur in which sulphur atom exhibits +4 oxidation state
1) Sulphurous acid 2) Sulphuric acid 3) Marshalls acid 4) Caros Acid
140. Element in 4d series exhibiting highest oxidation state
1) Os 2) Mn 3) Rh 4) Ru
141. Composition of flux produced in the extraction of copper is
1) CaSiO3 2) MgSiO3 3) FeSiO3 4) MnSiO3
142. 1g. of non electrolyte solute is dissolved in 50g. of benzene lowered the freezing point of
benzene by 0.4K. What is molecular weight of solute? [ Kf of Benzene is 5.12K. kg / mole]
1) 25.6 2) 2560 3) 256 4) 128
143. Vant Hoff factor (i) for tetramerisation of substance A assuming 80% association is
1) 0.4 2) 0.5 3) 1.6 4) 1.4
144. Insulin is a

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1) Steroid, peptide hormone 2) Non steroid, peptide hormone

3) Non Steroid, amino acid hormone 4) Steroid, amino acid derivative
145. Conductance ratio of a 0.1M weak monobasic acid is 0.1 pH of the weak acid
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
146. 1F of electricity is passed through aqueous NaCl solution. The weight of substance obtained at
cathode is grams
1) 1 2) 23 3) 2 4) 46
147. During electrochemical corrosion the metal undergoing corrosion acts like
1) Cathode 2) Anode
3) Cathode (or) Anode 4) Neither cathode nor anode
148. Which of the following is an example of homogeneous catalysis
1) Habers process 2) Ostwalds process 3) Lead chamber process 4) Contact process
149. Which of the following is water insoluble
1) C6 H 5 N2Cl 2) C6 H 5 N2 HSO4 3) C6 H 5 N 2 Br 4) C6 H 5 N 2 BF4
150. CH 3COOH ( A)
Cl2
Re d P
B
Cl2
Re d P
C
Cl2
Re d P
D . Highest P Ka is for
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
151. Which of the following is not formed when ethanal and propanal are heated in presence of
dilute alkali
1) 2-pentenal 2) 2-butenal 3) 2-hexenal 4) 2-methyl-2-butenal
152. Equivalent weight nitrobenzene is least when it undergoes reduction in..medium
1) Strong alkaline 2) Acidic 3) Weak alkaline 4) Neutral
153. Ozonolysis product of natural rubber is
1) Pentanal 2) 2-oxobutanal 3) 4-oxopentanal 4) 3-oxopentanal
154. Which of the following is not an antacid
1) Omeprazole 2) Lansoprazole 3) Ranitidine 4) Phenalzine
155. Assertion (A) : Nitrogen is chemically inert
Reason (R) : Nitrogen has abnormally high ionization potential
1) A & R true, and R is not the correct explanation to A
2) A & R true, and R is the correct explanation to A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
156. Which of the following on heating produces a coloured paramagnetic gas and a colourless
paramagnetic gas
1) NH4 NO3 2) Pb( NO3 )2 3) NH4 NO2 4) NaNO2
157. Which of the following is not a branched polmer
1) Glycogen 2) Amylose 3) Amylopectin 4) All of these
158. Fe(CO) X obeys EAN rule. Value of X is
1) 5 2) 10 3) 6 4) 4
159. % of thorium orthophosphate is present in monazite sand
1) 60 2) 50 3) 10 4) 30
160. The reducing agent used in Belgian process is
1) Hydrogen 2) Coke 3) Water gas 4) Sodium

121) 3 122) 3 123) 2 124) 1 125) 1 126) 3 127) 1 128) 2 129) 1 130) 3
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131) 2 132) 1 133) 1 134) 2 135) 2 136) 4 137) 3 138) 4 139) 1 140) 4
141) 3 142) 3 143) 1 144) 2 145) 2 146) 1 147) 2 148) 3 149) 4 150) 1
151) 3 152) 2 153) 3 154) 4 155) 1 156) 2 157) 2 158) 1 159) 4 160) 2
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