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FIITJEE - JEE (Main)

SAMPLE TEST - 3
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three sections in the question paper I, II, III consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each section of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct
response.

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question.
(one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6
above.

8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-2

Useful Data Chemistry:


Gas Constant R= 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Plancks Constant h = 6.626 1034 Js
-27
= 6.25 x 10 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
-27
1 amu = 1.66 x 10 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55, Si = 28 Pb=207, u=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5
Useful Data Physics:

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s2

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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-3

Section I (Physics)
1. If L, R, C, V respectively represent inductance, resistance, capacitance and potential difference,
L
then the dimensions of are the same as those of
RCV
(A) Current (B) 1 (C) Charge (D) 1
Current Charge
1. B

2 A body starting from rest with acceleration which varies with time t according as
At B
where A and B are the constants.
The velocity of the particle after time t is:
At 2 At 2 Bt
(A) A B t (B) 2 Bt (C) Bt (D) At 2
2 2 2
2. C

3. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 and moves in the x y plane with a constant acceleration 6
x2
m/s2 in y-direction. The equation of motion is y , then its velocity component along x-
3
direction at x = 2 is (in m/s)
3
(A) (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 2
2
3. B

4. From the surface of a certain planet a body is projected with a certain velocity at a certain angle
from the horizontal surface. The horizontal and vertical displacements x and y are given by
x 10 3t and y 10t t 2
where t is the time in second and x and y are in meter. The magnitude and direction of the
velocity of projection are:
(A) 10 ms-1 at 300 from the horizontal (B) 20 ms-1 at 600 from the horizontal
-1 0
(C) 10 ms at 60 from the horizontal (D) 20 ms-1 at 300 from the horizontal

4. D
-1
5. From the top of a tower of height 40m, a ball is projected upwards with a speed of 20 ms at an
2
angle of 300 to the horizontal. If g 10ms , after how long will the ball hit the ground?
A 1s B 2s C 3s D 4s

5. D

6. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R. At t = 0 its speed is zero and during its motion speed
2
varies as v 2 s where s is the distance travelled. The angle made by acceleration vector with
radial direction after one revolution.
1 1
(A) (B) (C) tan (D)
2 4
6. C

7. The displacement x of a particle at any instant is related to its velocity as v 2 x 9. Its


acceleration and initial velocity are:
(A) 1 unit and 3 unit (B) 3 unit and 9 unit (C) 9 unit and 3 unit (D) 2 unit and 9 unit
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7. A

8. A body is moving down a long inclined plane of angle of inclination . The coefficient of friction
between the body and the plane varies as 0.5x , where x is the distance moved down the
plane. The body will have the maximum velocity when it has travelled a distance x given by
2 2
(A) x 2 tan (B) x (C) 2 cot (D) x
tan cot

8. A

9. At the instant t = 0 a force F kt k is a constant acts on a small body of F



mass m resting on a smooth horizontal surface. The time, when body
leaves the surface is: m
(A) mgk sin (B) k sin / mg
(C) mg sin / k (D) mg / k sin
9. D

10. If the potential energy of a gas molecule is


M N
U ,
r 6 r12
M and N being positive constants, then the potential energy at equilibrium must be:
(A) zero (B) M 2 / 4 N (C) N 2 / 4 M (D) MN 2 / 4

10. B

11. A body is moving up an inclined plane of angle with an initial kinetic energy E. The coefficient
of friction between the plane and the body is . The work done against friction before the body
comes to rest is
cos E cos E cos
(A) (B) E cos (C) (D)
E cos sin cos sin cos sin

11. D

12. A body P strikes another body Q of mass that is p times that of body P and moving with a velocity
1
that is of the velocity of body P. If body P comes to rest, the coefficient of restitution is
q
pq pq pq pq
(A) (B) (C) (D)
pq q p 1 p q 1 p q 1

12. D

13. A solid cylinder is rolling without slipping down an incline of inclination . Minimum coefficient of
friction so that the cylinder does not slip on the incline is
tan tan
(A) tan (B) (C) (D) tan
2 3 3
13. C

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14. A circular portion of diameter R is cut out from a uniform Cut out circular
circular disc of mass M and radius R as shown in Fig. The portion
moment of inertia of the remaining (shaded) portion of the
disc about an axis passing through the centre O of the disc
and perpendicular to its plane is R R
15 2 7 2
O
A MR B MR
32 16
13 2 3 2
C MR D MR
32 8

14. C

15. The centres of a ring of mass m and a sphere of mass M of equal m M


radius R, are at a distance 8R apart as shown in Fig The force
of attraction between the ring and the sphere is R R
2 2 GmM GmM
(A) (B) 8
27 R 2 8Rh 2 A B
R
GmM 2 GmM
(C) (D)
9R
2
9 9R2

15. A

16. The magnitude of gravitational force on a particle of mass m placed at a distance x l x


from the rod of mass M and length l as shown in the figure is:
GMm GMm
(A) (B)
l x2 l l x
GMm GMm
(C) (D)
l2 x x l x

16. D

17. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of 1 ms-1. The cross-
sectional area of top is 10-4m2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of
water and that the flow is steady. The cross-sectional area of the stream 0.15 m below the top is
(take g = 10ms-2)
4 2 5 2 5 2 5 2
(A) 5 10 m (B) 1 10 m (C) 5 10 m (D) 2 10 m

17. C

18. One end of a thermally insulated rod is kept at a temperature T1 and T1 l1 l2 T2


the other at T2. The rod is composed of two sections of lengths l1 and l2
and thermal conductivities k1 and k2 respectively. The temperature at
the interface of the section is
k1 k2

A k1l2T1 k2 l1T2 / k1l1 k 2l2
B k 2l1T1 k1l2T2 / k2 l1 k1l2

C k l T k l T / k l
11 1 2 1 2 1 2
k l
2 1
D k l T k l T / k l k l
11 1 2 2 2 11 2 2

18. A
0 0 0 0
19. A body cools from 50.0 C to 49.9 C in 5s. How long will it take to cool from 40.0 C to 39.9 C?
Assume the temperature of the surroundings to be 30.00C and Newtons law of cooling to be
valid.
(A) 2.5s (B) 10 s (C) 20 s (D) 5 s

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19. B

20. In the following figures, the block of mass m is slightly k 2k


m
displaced from its mean position.
The ratio of time periods of oscillations in Fig(i) and Fig(ii)
(i)
is:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 k 2k
m
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 1 : 1
(ii)

20. C

21. Third overtone of a closed organ pipe is in unison with fourth harmonic of an open organ pipe.
Find the ratio of lengths of the pipes:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 5 : 6 (D) 7 : 8

21. D

22. Two point charges q1 and q2 (q1/2) are placed at points A(0, 1) and y

B(1,0) as shown in the figure. The electric field vector at point P(1,1)
makes an angle with the x-axis, then the angle is: A
P 1,1
1 1 *
q1 *
(A) tan 1 (B) tan 1
2 4
(C) tan 1 1 (D) tan 1 0
B
x
O *
q2

22. A
l
23. Three point charges 4q , Q and q are placed in straight line of length l at points distant 0, , l
2
respectively. If the net force on charge q is zero, the magnitude of the force on charge 4q is
q2 2q 2 3q 2 4q 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
0l 2 0l 2 0l 2 0l 2
23. C

24. The capacitance of a sphere of radius R1 is increased 3 times when it enclosed by an earthed
sphere of radius R2. The ratio R2/R1 is
3 4
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D) 3
2 3

24. B

25. The network shown in the following figure is part of a circuit. What I 1 15V 5H
is the potential difference VB VA . When current I is 5A and A B

is decreasing at a rate of 10 3 A / s ?
(A) 5 V (B) 10 V
(C) 15 V (D) zero

25. B

26. A particle of mass m and charge q moves with a constant velocity v along the positive x direction.
It enters a region containing a uniform magnetic field B directed along the negative z direction,

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extending from x a to x b . The minimum value of v required so that the particle can just
enter the region x > b is
(A) qbB / m (B) q b a B / m (C) qaB / m (D) q b a B / 2m

26. B

27.
Loop
A square loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field B x x x x
as shown in figure. The power needed to pull it out of
the field with a constant velocity v is proportional to x x x x
1/ 2
(A) v (B) v x x x x
v
2 3/ 2
(C) v (D) v B
x x x x

27. C

28. An observer can see through a pin-hole the top end of a thin rod of height h,
placed as shown in the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. when
the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a height 2h, he can see the lower end of
the rod. Then the refractive index of the liquid is:
3h
5 5 3 3 2h
A B C D h
2 2 2 2
2h

28. B

29. A U shaped wire is placed in front of a concave mirror of radius of A D


curvature 20 cm as shown in the figure. The total length of the image
of the wire ABCD is nearly: 5cm
(A) 2.5 cm (B) 6 cm C
B
(C) 12.5 cm (D) 15 cm 30 cm
10cm

29. B

30. Interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the
I max I min
interference pattern, the ratio will be
I max I min
n 2 n n 2 n
(A) (B) (C) 2
(D) 2
n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1
30. D

space for rough work

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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-8

Section II (Chemistry)
1. For a hypothetical reaction
1 AB3 g ; H x kJ
AB2 g B2 g
2
More AB3 could be produced by
(A) using a catalyst (B) removing some of B2
(C) increasing the temperature (D) increasing the pressure

1. D


2. The pK b of CN is 4.7. The pH of solution prepared by mixing 2.5 mole of KCN and 2.5 moles
of HCN in water and making the total volume upto 500 ml, is
(A) 10.3 (B) 9.3 (C) 4.7 (D)8.3

2. B

3. The pH of a solution of weak base at half neutralization with strong base is 8, K b for base is
4 6 8 7
(A) 1 10 (B) 1 10 (C) 1 10 (D) 1 10

3. B

4. HBr and HI reduce sulphuric acid, HCl can reduce KMnO4 and HF can reduce
(A) H2SO4 (B) KMnO4 (C) K2Cr2O7 (D) None of these
4. D

5. The correct IUPAC name of the compound given below is:


CH3
H3C
CH3

CH3
(A) 4-Ethyl-3-methyloctane (B) 3-Methyl-4-ethyloctane
(C) 2, 3-Dimethylheptane (D) 5-Ethyl-6-methyloctance.

5. A

6. The transition metal ion with least magnetic moment has the electronic configuration
(A) 3d 4 (B) 3d 9 (C) 3d 2 (D) 3d 8

6. B

7. Potassium ferricyanide on ionization produces


(A) 2 ions (B) 1 ions (C) 5 ions (D) 4 ions

7. D

8. Arrange the following free radicals in order of stability: Benzyl (I), Allyl (II), Methyl (III), Vinyl (IV)
(A) IV > III > II > I (B) I > II > III > IV (C) I > III > IV > II (D) IV > III > I > II

8. B

9. A hydrocarbon A with molecular mass 84 gives a single monochloride but four dichlorides on
photochemical chlorination. The hydrocarbon A is
(A) Cyclopentane (B) Cyclohexane
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(C) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane (D) Methyl cyclopentane

9. B

10. What would be the expected formula of a compound which is formed of element X containing 2
electrons in the valence shell and element Y contains 7 electrons in the valence shell?
(A) X2Y (B) XY2 (C) XY (D) X2Y2
10. B

11. If one million atoms of silver weight 1.79 10 16 g , the gram atomic mass of silver is
(A) 107 g (B) 107.2 g (C) 107.8 g (D) 108.2 g

11. C

12. H2O2 can act as reducing as well as oxidising agent. In its reaction with NH2OH and KIO4, H2O2 is
acting as
(A) Oxidising agent, reducing agent (B) Reducing agent, oxidising agent
(C) Oxidising agent, oxidising agent (D) Reducing agent, reducing agent
12. A

13. The blue colour developed when Lassaignes extract is heated with fresh FeSO4 in presence of
alkali, cooled and acidified with dil. H2SO4 indicates. and is due to the formation of
(A) N , Fe4 Fe CN 6
3
(B) N , Na4 Fe CN 6
(C) S , Na4 Fe CN 5 NOS (D) N S , Fe CNS 3
13 A
8a
14. If the critical temperature of the gas be TC and TB is the Boyles temperature, then which
27 Rb
of the following, is the correct relation between TC and TB?
4 27 8 27
(A) TC TB (B) TC TB (C) TC TB (D) TC TB
27 4 27 8
14. C

15. The composition of a sample of wustite is Fe0.93O. What is the percentage of iron present as
Fe 3 ?
(A) 15% (B) 25% (C) 35% (D) 45%

15. A

16. The uncertainty in the position of a dust particle with mass equal to 1 mg (if uncertainty in its
velocity is 5.5 1020 ms 1 ) is:
o o
(A) 9.58 A (B) 958 A (C) 9.58 nm (D) None.
16. A

17. Which of the following has highest bond dissociation energy?


(A) O2 (B) O2 (C) O2 (D) O22

17. B

54 56 57
18. Given, that the abundance of isotopes Fe, Fe and Fe are 5%, 90% and 5% respectively,
the atomic mass of Fe is
(A) 55.85 (B) 55.95 (C) 55.75 (D) 55.05

18. B

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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-10

19. The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is


(A) 4.8 (B) 8.4 (C) 3 (D) 8
19. B

20. Which of the following has the maximum number of atoms?


(A) 24 g of C(12) (B) 56 g of Fe(56) (C) 27 g of Al(27) (D) 108 g of Ag(108)

20. A

21. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate (H2C2O4.2H2O) is made upto 250 ml. The
volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is
(A) 40 ml (B) 10 ml (C) 20 ml (D) 4ml

21. A

22. In the standardization of Na2S2O3 using K 2Cr2O7 by iodometry, the equivalent weight of
K 2Cr2O7 is:
molecular weight molecular weight
(A) (B)
2 6
molecular weight molecular weight
(C) (D)
3 1
22. B

23. What volume of CO2 at STP will evolve when 1 gm of CaCO3 reacts with excess of dil HCl?
(A) 224 ml (B) 112 ml (C) 58 ml (D) 448 ml

23. A

24. The vapour pressure of benzene at 280 K is 40 mbar. When urea is mixed at the same
temperature, the vapour pressure falls by 8 mbar. The mole fraction of benzene in the solution is
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.70 (D) 0.80
24. D

25. Ammonia gas is passed into water, yielding a solution of density 0.93 g/cm 3 and containing
18.6% NH3 by weight. The mass of NH3 per cc of the solution is
(A) 0.17 g/cm3 (B) 0.34 g/cm3 (C) 0.51 g/cm3 (D) 0.68 g/cm3

25. A

26. A sample of NaHCO3 + Na2CO3 required 20 ml of HCl using phenolphthalein as indicator and 35
ml more is required if methyl orange is used as indicator. Then molar ratio of NaHCO3 to Na2CO3
is
1 2 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 3
26. C

CH3
Br H
acetone
27. NaI Product. The product of the reaction is:
H CH3
C2H5

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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-11

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3


I H H I I CH3 I H
(A) (B) (C) (D)
H CH3 H CH3 H CH3 H3C H
C2H5 C2H5 C2H5 C2H5

27. B

28. Rank the following in order of decreasing rate of solvolysis with aq. ethanol.
H3C Br
CH3
H2C C Br H3C CH CH2CHMe2
Br
(1) (2) (3)
(A) 2 > 1 > 3 (B) 1 > 2 > 3 (C) 2 > 3 > 1 (D) 1 > 3 > 2

28. C

29. In each of the following groups, which is the strongest nucleophile?


O
(I) In MeOH (1) CH O 3 (2) (3) Me S

(II) In DMF (1) OH (2) H 2O (3) O O H
(A) I, 3; II, 2 (B) I, 2; II, 1 (C) I, 1; II, 2 (D) I, 3; II, 3

29. D

30. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the rate of hydrolysis of the compounds (x)
and (y) by S N 1 reaction?

Br O Br

(x) (y)
(A) x reacts faster than y (B) y reacts faster than x
(C) Both x and y reacts at the same rate (D) Neither x nor y reacts

30. B

pace for rough work

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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-12

Section III (Mathematics)


2 1
x
1. Range of function f x is [ Where {x} represent fractional part of x]
2x 1
1 1
(A) [-2, 3] (B) [0, 1/3) (C) , (D) 1 3 ,1
3 2
1. B

If 0 < x < 90 , cos x = 3


0 0
2. , then value of log10 sin x + log10 cos x + log10 tan x is
10
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) None of these
2. C
(2 x 1)
3. The function f(x)=[x] cos (Where [x] denotes the greatest integer function) is
2
discontinuous.
(A) at all x (B) at all integer points
(C) at no x (D) at x which is not integer
3. C

4. Suppose a, b, c are in A.P and a2, b2, c2 are in G.P. If a < b < c and a + b + c = 3/2 , then value of
a is
1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 3 2 3 2 2
4. D

5. If tan x tan y = a and x + y = then tan x and tan y satisfy the equation,
6
2
(A) x 3 (1 a ) x a 0 (B) 3 x 2 (1 a ) x a 3 0
2
(C) x 3 (1 a) x a 0 (D) 3 x 2 (1 a) x a 3 0
5. B

x f ( P)
6. Let f ( x ) = then is equal to
x 1 f ( P 1)
P 1
(A) f (P 2 ) (B) f (C) f (D) f P
P 1 P
6. A

7. The points (x1, y1), (x2, y2) , (x1, y2) and (x2 , y1) are always
(A) Vertices of a rhombus (B) Vertices of a square
(C) Con-cyclic (D) Collinear
7. C

8. A closet has 5 pair of shoes. The number of ways in which 4 shoes can be drawn such that there
will be no complete pair is
(A) 80 (B) 160 (C) 200 (D) 240
8. A
dy x 2 y 2
9. Solution of the differential equation is
dx 2 xy
(A) k (x2 + y2) = x (B) k (x2 y2) + x = 0 (C) k (x2 y2) = x (D) k (x2 + y2) + x = 0
9. C

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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-13

10. The complex number z =1 + i is rotated through an angle 3 / 2 in anticlockwise direction about
the origin and stretched by additional 2 unit, then the new complex number is
(A) 2 2 i (B) 2 2 i (C) 2 2 i (D) None of these
10. D

11. If z 4, then iz 3 4i is less than


(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 9
11. D
2
12. If 4a + 2b + c = 0, then the equation 3ax + 2bx + c = 0 has at least one real root lying between
(A) 0 and 1 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 0 and 2 (D) none of these
12. C

2/ 3
13. sec x cos ec 4 / 3 xdx is equal to
1/ 3 1 / 3 1 / 3 1 / 3
(A) 3 tan x (B) 3 cot x (C) 3 tan x (D) 3 cot x
13. C

100
14. The value of x dx (where {x} is the fractional part of x) is
0
(A) 50 (B) 1 (C) 100 (D) None of these
14. D

2
x cos x ex /2
2
15. If f ( x) sin x x sec x then the value of f ( x) dx is equal to
/2
tan x 1 2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of these
15. A

16. The lines p(p2 +1)x y + q = 0 and (p2 + 1)2 x + (p2 + 1) y + 2q = 0 are perpendicular to a
common line for
(A) No value of p (B) Exactly one value of p
(C) Exactly two values of p (D) More than two values of p
16. B

17. Tangents to the circle x 2 + y2 = a2 cut the circle x2 + y2 = 2a2 at P and Q. The tangents at P and Q
2 2 2
to the circle x + y = 2a intersect at angle , then is equal to

(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 6 3 2
17. D

18. The length of the latus rectum of parabola 4y2 + 2x 20y + 17 = 0 is


(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) (D) 0
18. C

19. S and T are the foci of an ellipse and B is an end of the minor axis. If STB is an equilateral
triangle, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is.
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/3 (C) 1/2 (D) 2/3
19. C

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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-14

x2 y2
20. The tangent at any point P on the hyperbola 1 meets the straight lines bx ay = 0 and
a 2 b2
bx + ay = 0 in the points Q and R respectively. If C is the centre of the hyperbola, then CQ.CR is
a
(A) a2 b2 (B) a2 + b2 (C) ab (D)
b
20. B
x3 y4 z 5
21. The number of points common to the line and the plane 4x 2y z =1 is
2 3 2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) infinite (D) none of these
21. A

22.
If 4a 5b 9c 0, then (a b) b c c a is equal to

(A) A vector perpendicular to plane of a , b and c
(B) A scalar quantity

(C) 0
(D) None of these
22. C

23. A unit vector in xy-plane which makes an angle of 450 with the vector i j and an angle of 600

with the vector 3i 4 j is

i j i j
(A) i (B) (C) (D) None of these
2 2
23. D

24. If x + y = a + b, x 2+ y2 = a2 + b2, then xn + yn = an + bn is true for


(A) n N (B) n 4 (C) n 3 (D) None of these
24. A

2 3
25. If 1 + sin x sin x sin x ......... 4 2 3, 0 x , x / 2, then
2 2 5 5
(A) x (B) x , (C) x , (D) x
6 3 3 3 6 6
25. B


1 1
26. The value of tan 2
is equal to
r0 1 r r
(A) /2 (B) /4 (C) (D) 0
26. A

27. The centre and radius of the circle z z (1 i) z (1 i) z 7 0 is


(A) - 1 i , 3 (B) 1 + i , 3 (C) 2 i, 4 (D) 2 + i , 4
27. A

28. If x 1 and y 1, then the sum to infinity of the series


(x + y) + (x 2 + xy + y2) + (x3 + x2y + xy2 + y3) + to is
( x y xy ) ( x y xy ) ( x y xy )
(A) (B) (C) (D) infinite
(1 x) (1 y ) (1 x) (1 y ) (1 x) (1 y )
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JEE-MAIN -SAMPLE TEST -3-PCM-15

28. A

29. If the roots of the equation bx2 + cx + a = 0 be imaginary, then for all real values of x, the
expression 3b2x2 + 6bcx + 2c2 is
(A) Greater than 4ab (B) Less than 4ab (C) Greater than 4ab (D) Less than 4ab
29. C
98 1 x
30. The coefficient of x in the expansion of if x 1
1 x
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) 0
30. B

space for rough work

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