CSWIP 3.

1 Part 1

1. Which of the following does not require baking or drying?

A. E 6010
B. E7018
C. Sub arc flux with Basicity Index of 2
D. Sub arc flux with Basicity Index of

2. A welder and procedure re-qualification would be required:

A. When the run out date of the procedure has been reached
B. Every Year
C. When changing from day to night shift work
D. When there is a change in an essential variable

3. Tensile strength can be increased in steel by:

A. Annealing
B. Galvanising
C. Addition of carbon
D. Casting

4. Which of the following always occurs in the parent material?

A. Hydrogen cracks
B. Laps and laminations
C. Centre line cracks
D. Porosity

5. To prevent the hardening and cracking of High Carbon Steel plate when flame cutting it is
advisable to:
A. Pre-heat the plate
B. Soak the plate in oil
C. Cool the plate quickly after cutting
D. Increase the cutting Oxygen pressure

6. You should always refer to a higher authority for guidance when:

A. Cracks appear during welding
B. The welder will not follow your instructions
C. Instructions are missing in the specification or contract documents
D. All of the above

7. Fatigue testing is used to test welds:

A. Under cyclic loading
B. Under creep stress loadings
C. Under impact loading
D. Under static loading

8. In BS 639 and BSEN499 the first digits of the electrode classification indicate:
A. Tensile and yield strength
B. Toughness
C. Electrode coating
D. Electrode efficiency

9. Cellulosic coatings are generally used because of:

A. Their low hydrogen content
B. Their high penetration characteristic
C. Their high strength weld deposit
D. Their high weld toughness values

10. When welds have a depth to width ration of higher than 2:1 it is possible that:
A. Centre line cracks may appear
B. The fusion boundary will be outside the HAZ
C. HAZ will be too narrow
D. The weld will be non - magnetic

11. On which of the following would you not use MPI inspection?
A. A low carbon steel butt-welded joint
B. An austenitic Stainless steel fillet welded T joint
C. A medium carbon steel fillet welded lap joint
D. All of the above

12. Increasing the arc energy input of a welded joint will:

A. Increase the strength of the joint
B. Increase the toughness of the joint
C. Increase the grain size of the weld and HAZ
D. Decrease the width of the HAZ

13. In Sub Arc Welding, excessive flux melting will result from:
A. Increasing the arc voltage
B. Decreasing the arc voltage
C. Increasing the travel speed
D. Increasing the wire feed speed

14. An IQI would be used in radiography to assess:

A. Image quality
B. Type of steel
C. Density of graph
D. Type of welding process used

15. Silicon is added to electrode coating as:

A. A slipping agent
B. A slag former
C. A de-oxidant
D. A colouring agent

16. The main reason degreasing agents should always be dried from metals prior to welding,
is because they are likely to:
A. Increase the arc voltage
B. Produce hazardous fumes
C. Slow down the welding speed
D. Produce lack of fusion defects

17. Which of the following processes would be most prone to lack of fusion defects?
A. Pulsed arc MIG
B. Spray transfer MIG
C. Dip transfer MIG
D. Submerged arc

18. Which of the following is an inspection point in Sub Arc welding:

A. Flux mesh size
B. Gas type
C. Tungsten size
D. Gas flow rate

19. Which of the following is not inert gas?

A. Argon
B. Xenon
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Helium

20. Why is a welding arc shielded?

A. To eliminate hydrogen
B. To retard the cooling rate of the weld
C. To eliminate the atmosphere
D. To ensure maximum heat input

21. A crack in a weld zone:

A. Is repairable
B. Always results in a cut out and complete re-weld
C. Is acceptable up to 2mm in length
D. May be repaired or cut out depending on specification requirements

22. If the amperage is too low during the welding of a root bead, the possible result would be:
A. Lack of penetration
B. Lack of fusion
C. The freezing of the electrode
D. All of the above

23. Pre-heating prior to welding:

A. Must always be carried out
B. Need not be carried out if post heat treatment is to follow welding
C. Is always carried out using gas flames
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

24. Cold lap in another term for:

A. Lack of fusion
B. Low amperage
C. Undercut
D. Hydrogen cracking

25. When a medium to high carbon steel is quenched:

A. It becomes malleable
B. Its hardness increases
C. It becomes ductile
D. The plasticity is increased

26. The TIG welding process utilizes an electrode that is:

A. Cellulosic
B. Non-consumable
C. Consumable
D. None of the above

27. Another name for Suck back in the root of a weld is:
A. Concavity
B. Convexity
C. LORP
D. Root undercut

28. One of the advantages of a multi-pass MMA weld is that it generally produces a:
A. High tensile strength
B. High degree of ductility
C. Coarse grain structure
D. Fine grain structure

29. The British code for visual inspection requirements is:

A. BS 4872
B. BS 499
C. BS 4870
D. None of the above

30. A code of practice for visual inspection should cover the following:
A. Before, during and after welding activities
B. Before welding activities only
C. After welding activities only
D. None of the above
CSWIP 3.1 Part 2

1. Degreasing components are essential for quality welding. When welded some agent may:
A. Cause corrosion problems
B. Leave residues
C. Give off toxic gases
D. All of the above.

2. Cellulose electrodes are often used for the deposition of a root pass on pipes welded in the
field. This is because?
A. Hydrogen control is required
B. The high deposition rate due to the iron powder content
C. The hydrogen gas produced in the flux increases the arc voltage
D. All of the above

3. In the welded austenitic stainless steel .the electrode and the plate materials are often
specified to be low carbon content .the reason for this is:
A. To prevent formation of crack in the HAZ
B. To prevent formation of chromium carbides
C. To prevent cracking in the weld
D. Minimize distortion

4. With regards to welding procedure, an essential variable may:

A. Change the properties of the weld
B. Influence the visual acceptance
C. Require re-approval of a weld procedure
D. All of the above
5. Which of the following NDT methods can only detect surface breaking defects?
A. MPI
B. DPI
C. UT
D. RT
E. Both A and B

6. Which of following defects would show up as light indications on a radiograph?

A. Slag inclusion and copper inclusion
B. Tungsten inclusions and excessive root penetration
C. Cap undercut and root piping
D. Excessive cap height and incomplete root penetration

7. Which of following additions may be added to an electrodes flux to act as a stabilizer?

A. Sodium silicate
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
D. Titanium dioxide.

8. Lamellar tearing is best prevented by:

A. The use of plate materials containing low level of impurities
B. The use of buttering runs
C. Post welds stress relief
D. Both A and B

9. When considering radiography using X-ray, which of the following techniques is most likely to
be used for pipe-to-pipe weld (circumferential seam), 610mm diameter with no internal access?
A. SWSI
B. DWSI
C. DWDI
D. SWSI-panoramic

10. A balanced welding technique for example back step welding is most often used for:
A. Controlling lamellar tearing
B. Increasing weld toughness
C. Reducing weld zone hardness
D. Reducing distortion

11. Basic coated electrodes have which of following properties.

A. High mechanical properties may be used to produce welds of high deposition rates and to
produce welds of low hydrogen content
B. Friable slag, high mechanical strength, and to produce welds of a low hydrogen content
C. Low hydrogen content welds, good stop/start properties and strength
D. Low carbon content welds, friable slag and high strength

12. On a radiograph, the most likely appearance of lack of root fusion on single V butt weld is:
A. A dark straight line with a light root
B. A dark root with straight edges
C. A dark uneven line following the edge of the root
D. None of the above lack of root fusion can be seen on a radiograph

13. Which of the following applies to heat treatment process of tempering:

A. It is always carried out at a temperature above upper critical limit
B. It is carried out to increase the strength and toughness of weldments
C. Tempering is generally carried out before quench hardening
D. None of the above

14. Which of the following is applicable to a plate lamination:

A. They are best detected by radiography
B. They are mainly caused by hydrogen entrapment
C. They originate in the parent material
D. They are caused when welding stresses act parallel with the rolled direction of the parent
plate

15. Which of the following NDT method would be the least effective on an austenitic stainless
steel butt weld?
A. UT
B. RT
C. DPI
D. MPI

16. The hardest part of a multi-pass welded joint, assuming no post weld heat treatment has
have taken place is:
A. The HAZ of the cap
B. The HAZ of the root
C. The root
D. The cap

17. Is it permissible to allow a multi-pass butt weld to cool down between weld passes?
A. It should be up to the welding inspector
B. No the weld must be kept hot at all times
C. It depends on the welder
D. It depends on the specification requirements

18. The usual method of assessing the sensitivity and density of a radiograph is means of:
A. Densitometer and dosimeter
B. Penetrometer and a densitometer
C. IQI and a dosimeter
D. IQI and a fluxmeter

19. In the submerged arc welding process, the use of excessive high voltages would result in?
A. Insufficient flux melting
B. Excessive flux melting
C. Slag removal difficulties
D. Excessive spatter

20. Welding a steel plate with a CE of 0.45 would require prehearing to?
A. Prevent the formation of sulphides
B. Prevent hardening in the HAZ
C. Prevent the formation of carbides
D. To reduce the amount of current required

21. Which of the following process used resistive heating system to achieve weld metal
deposition?
A. MMA
B. Resistant spot welding
C. Electrode slag
D. Friction welding

22. What does the 70 represent on an E70 10 AWS 5.1 classified electrode?
A. 70 N/mm 2 minimum UTS
B. 70 joules minimum impact strength
C. 70.000 P.S.I minimum yield strength
D. 70.000 PSI minimum UTS

23. Hot cracking in the steel weldments occurs:

A. Along the fusion line.
B. In the last metal to solidify
C. Weld centerline.
D. In areas of the lowest dilution

24. Cellulose electrodes have which of the following properties?

A. Viscous slag. Large volumes of shielding gas and UTS values above 90.000 PSI
B. Large volumes of shielding gas, high spatter contents and hydrogen levels < 15 mi per 100g
of the weld metal deposited
C. Large volumes of shielding gas, hydrogen contents >15mi per 100g of weld metal deposited
and should be never baked
D. High spatter contents, high deposition and large volumes of gas shield

25. From the following electrode coding in BS 499, E50 3 1Ni B 2 1 H5, What does
the 3 represent?
A. A minimum charpy value of 30 joules
B. A minimum impact value of 47 joules
C. A minimum impact temperature of -30 c at a given joule value
D. None of the above

26. Which of fallowing applicable to efficiency?

A. The mass of metal deposited as a percentage of the mass of core wire melted
B. Iron powder electrodes have efficiencies above 100%
C. Electrodes have efficiencies tend to produce welds of a smooth flat profile
D. All of above

27. A fatigue cracks fracture surface is:

A. Rough randomly torn
B. Smooth
C. Step like appearance
D. Bright crystalline

28. E6013 electrode would most probably used for welding:

A. Low-pressure pipework
B. High-pressure pipework
C. Vertical down welding on storage tanks
D. In a situation where low hydrogen welds are specified

29. Which element in steel if present in significant amounts may lead to hot shortness?
A. Phosphorus
B. Manganese
C. Silicon
D. Sulphur

30. Which of the following welding processes are commonly used for the Aluminium.
A. MIG and TIG
B. MAG and TIG
C. MMA and TIG
D. MMA and MIG
E. Both A and B

31. Which of the following materials would be the most difficult material to carry out UT.
A. Fine grained material such as micro alloyed
B. A large coarse-grained casting
C. Duplex stainless steel .45% maximum ferrite content
D. Pipe grade material such as API 5L X65
E. Bothe B and C

32. Lamellar tearing is most likely to occur in which of the following conditions.
A. Single V butt weld made in tubular steel with low through thickness ductility
B. Full penetration fabrication Tee butt joint in steel with low through thickness ductility
C. Full penetration fabrication cruciform, Z classified material
D. All SAW welded joints are susceptible
E. Both B and C

33. Radiography is most suited to the detection of:

A. Volumetric flaws
B. All planar flaws
C. Both A and B
D. Laminations in rolled plate materials

34. A good example of volumetric flaws:

A. Slag inclusion
B. Root piping
C. Blow holes
D. All of the above

35. Which of following isotopes may be used for a 25 mm thick steel pipe to pipe weld DWSI (in
according with EN 1435).
A. Ir 192
B. Co 60
C. Se 75
D. Yb 169
E. Both A and C

36. Increasing carbon content of a steel will:

A. Increase the hardness and toughness
B. Decrease the hardness and toughness
C. Increase hardness, Decrease toughness
D. Decrease hardness, Increase toughness

37. Which of following can be used to reduce the chances of solidification cracking.
A. The use of a non-fluxed welding process and better quality materials
B. The use of better quality materials and the highest heat input process
C. The use of a low dilution process and wider joint preparation
D. The addition over 1.8% Mn and a low hydrogen welding process
E. All of the above

38. Which phase transform to martensite upon rapid cooling?

A. Ferrite
B. Austenite
C. Perlite
D. Cementite

39. Which of following is the most likely to be considered an essential variable for a welder
qualification test?
A. A change from an electrode classified to BS EN 499 as an E46 INI B to an electrode
classified AWS A5.1 as an E7018
B. A change of pipe wall thickness by at least 15 mm
C. A change in pre-heat temperature from 50c to 100c
D. All of the above.
CSWIP 3.1 Part 3

1. The likelihood of a brittle fracture in steels will increase with:

A. The formation of a fine grain structure
B. A reduction in-service temperature to sub - zero conditions
C. A slow cooling rate
D. All if the above

2. Hydrogen cracking in HAZ is most likely to occur when welding:

A. Carbon manganese steels
B. Austenitic stainless steel
C. Micro alloyed steel (HSLA)
D. Low carbon steel

3. Which of the following are considerations for selection of a preheat temperature:

A. Carbon equivalent, joint design, welding process type and plate material quality
B. All joint over 25mm thick, hydrogen levels, welding process, carbon equivalent
C. Arc energy, material thickness, hydrogen scale and carbon equivalent
D. All of the above are considerations for the selection of a preheat temperature

4. Which of the following destructive test would indicate the toughness value of the weld
metal/parent metal and HAZ?
A. Macro
B. Nick break
C. Tensile
D. Charpy V notch

5. What constituent is needed in the coating of an electrode to prevent the formation of porosity
when welding rimming steel?
A. Iron powder
B. Potassium silicate
C. Silicon
D. Calcium carbonate

6. Welds made with high heat inputs show a reduction in one of the following properties?
A. Ductility
B. Toughness
C. Elongation
D. Penetration

7. Which of the following steel type would give rise to the formation of porosity when
autogenously welded with an arc welding process?
A. Fully killed steel
B. Semi killed steel
C. Rimming steel
D. Balanced steel

8. Which of the following elements, which may be added to steel, has the greatest affect on
creep strength?
A. Tungsten
B. Manganese
C. Carbon
D. Molybdenum

9. The HAZ associated with fusion strength

A. Cannot be avoided
B. Usually has the highest tensile strength
C. Is usually martensitic
D. Bothe A and B
E. All of above

10. What for criteria are necessary to produce hydrogen induced cold cracking?
A. Hydrogen, moisture, martensitic grain structure and heat
B. Hydrogen, poor weld profiles, temperatures above 200 C and a slow cooling rate
C. Hydrogen, a grain structure susceptible to cracking, stress and a temperature below 200C
D. Hydrogen, existing weld defects, stress and grain structure susceptible to cracking

11. A carbon equivalent (EC) OF 0.5%:

A. Is high for carbon manganese steel and may require a preheat over 100C
B. Is generally significant for carbon for manganese steels and is certainly not to be taken into
consideration for preheat temperature
C. Is high for carbon manganese steels and my required a preheat temperature over 300C as
to avoid cracking
D. Is calculated from the heat input formula.

12. In the martensitic grain structure what would you expect to increase?
A. Ductility
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. All of the above

13. In which of the following mechanical test would you expect to use a comparison for ductile to
brittle transition curve.
A. Tensile test
B. Charpy test
C. Fusion zone test
D. All of the above

14. Which of the following heat treatment on steel cools down in air from the austenite region?
A. Normalizing
B. Annealing
C. Tempering
D. Stress relieving

15. What is purpose of microscopic examination of a weld?

A. To determine the number and type of defects present
B. To determine the grain size
C. To determine the strength of the weld
D. Both a and b
E. All of the above

16. Which of the following units is tensile specimen usually measured in?
A. Pounds per square inch
B. Newton per square inches
C. Joules
D. Both A and B

17. Assuming that the welding process, material thickness equivalent and the welding
parameters to be the same which of the following joint types would normally require the highest
preheat temperature?
A. Edge joint
B. Lap joint
C. Butt joint (single-V)
D. Tee joint (fillet welded)

18. Austenitic stainless steels are more susceptible to distortion when compared to ferritic steels
this is because:
A. High coefficient, low thermal conductivity
B. High coefficient, High thermal conductivity
C. Low coefficient, High thermal conductivity
D. Low coefficient, low thermal conductivity

19. Which of the following will most likely require the preheat temperature to be increased?
A. An increase in travel speed
B. A reduction in material thickness
C. An increase in electrode diameter
D. None of above

20. Which of the following properties may be applicable to a carbon steel weld (CE 048) welded
without preheat?
A. Narrow heat effected zone and hardness value in excess of 400HV
B. Broad heat effected zone and hardness value in excess of 400HV
C. A very tough and narrow heat affected zone
D. Narrow heat effected zone and low hardness values

21. Which of the following materials is considered to be easiest to weld?

A. Mild steel
B. Medium stainless steel
C. Martensitic stainless steel
D. Forging steel

22. Which of the following test pieces taken from a charpy test on a carbon-manganese steel
Weld, welded with a high heat input is most likely to have lowest toughness?
A. Test piece taken from HAZ
B. Test piece taken from parent metal
C. Test piece taken from weld metal

23. Which of the following butt weld preparations would normally be considered for a
mechanical welding process?
A. Single-V butt weld, root gap 2.5 mm (welded from on side only)
B. Double-V butt weld both sides, root gap 2.0 mm
C. Single U butt with backing
D. None of the above can be used for mechanical welding

24. Which is correct heat input for the following parameters. Amps 350, volts 32 and the travel
speed 310 mm/minute (MMA welding process)
A. 2.16 KJ/mm
B. 0.036 KJ/mm
C. 216 KJ/mm
D. 3.6 KJ/mm

25. Assuming that the applicable specification makes no mention of arc strikes what would you
expect to do as a welding inspector if arc strikes were found on a component made of a high
tensile strength material?
A. Have the welder re-qualified
B. Ignore them
C. Have area checked for possible cracking
D. Cut out the entire weld where the arc strikes exist

26. A multi-pass MMA butt weld made on carbon steel consists of 5 passes deposited using a
6mm diameter electrode. A 12-pass weld made on the same joint deposited using 4mm
diameter electrode on the same material will have:
A. A lower heat input and higher degree of grain refinement
B. A lower heat input and coarse grain structure
C. A low amount of distortion and higher degree of grain refinement
D. A higher amount of distortion and low degree of grain refinement

27. What is purpose of a transverse tensile test?

A. To measure ultimate tensile strength
B. To measure the elongation of material
C. To measure the yield strength of material
D. All of the above

28. Which of the following mechanical test can be used to give a quantitative measurement of
weld zone ductility?
A. Tensile test
B. Bend test
C. Charpy V notch test
D. All of the above

29. Which of the following reasons for applying preheat?

A. The removal of residual stress
B. To aid slow cooling and reduce the carbon content
C. To reduce the chance of a brittle grain structure and to reduce the chance of hydrogen
entrapment
D. Increase the ultimate tensile strength values and increase overall weldability

30. Which of the following are true with regards to a charpy test
A. Its static test used to determine a material notch toughness in the weld region
B. Its dynamic test used to determine a materials notch toughness in the weld region
C. Its destructive test to give a measurement of through thickness ductility
D. None of the above

31. Which of the following bend test would be the best suited for detection of lack of inter run
fusion on a 25mm thick carbon steel butt weld?
A. Side bend
B. Face bend
C. Root bend
D. Longitudinal bend

32. Which of the following person need to access to the welding procedure (WPS)?
A. Welders
B. Inspector
C. NDT techs
D. All of the above

33. Macro specimens should be inspected:

A. After etching
B. After cutting and before etching
C. Only through 10X magnification
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above

34. EN278 standard refers to what?

A. Welder approval
B. Welding procedure approval
C. Visual inspection of fusion welds
D. Visual inspection personnel

35. EN499 standard refer to which of following?

A. Welding term and symbols
B. Covered electrodes for MMA
C. Filler wire
D. SAW flux

36. Which of following documents provides instruction to the welder?

A. PWPS
B. WPS
C. WPAR
D. All of the above

37. The main reason for qualifying a welding procedure is?

A. Determine the welders ability
B. Check whether acceptance criteria specific to the project can be met
C. To show that the fabricator has good welding control
D. To show the welded joints meet the requirements of the specification
E. All of the above

38. If welding travel speed is doubled but amps and volts remain the same the heat input value
will:
A. Be reduced by 50%
B. Be increased by a factor of two
C. Remain about the same
D. Be reduced by about 25%

39. When two different materials are to be welded, the joint is often referred to as:
A. A composite joint
B. A transition joint
C. A compound joint
D. All of the above

40. Which of following best describes a MIG/MAG welding plant?

A. Transformer / rectifier (constant voltage)
B. Transformer flat characteristic
C. Transformer / rectifier / inverter (constant current)
D. All of the above
CSWIP 3.1 Part 4

1. What is the arc energy for the following welding process parameters?
A. 0.7KJ/mm
B. 0.6KJ/mm
C. 0.01KJ/mm
D. 0.7KJ/mm

2. In an all weld metal tensile test, the original test specimens gauge length of 50mm after
testing the gauge increased to 72mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A. 44%
B. 144%
C. 69.4%
D. 2.27%
E. The elongation is not normally tested in this test

3. What is the ratio between the leg length and design throat thickness on mitre fillet weld with
equal leg lengths?
A. 1 to 1
B. 2 to 1
C. 1.414 to 1
D. All of the above it depend upon the leg length size

4. The toughness and yield strength of steel is reduced by:

A. Reducing the grain size
B. Increasing the heat input
C. Reducing the heat input
D. Both A and B

5. Which of the following statements is true if applicable to a charpy V notch impact test?
A. It's a destructive test used to assess material ductility in the weld zone
B. It's a mechanical test used to determine a welds resistance to creep
C. It's destructive test, which is used to give a measure of notch toughness
D. It's a static test used to determine material toughness in the notch region
E. Both A and C

6. How can you tell the difference between an EN/ISO weld symbol and a BS weld symbol?
A. The EN/ISO weld symbol will always have the arrow side weld at the top of the reference line
B. The EN/ISO weld symbol has the welds elementary symbol placed on a dashed line lying
above or below the solid reference line to indicate a weld on the other side
C. The EN/ISO weld symbol has a fillet weld leg length identified by the letter "a"
D. The EN/ISO weld symbol has a fillet weld throat thickness identified by the letter "z"
E. Both B and D

7. What is the possible effect of having the heat input too low during welding?
A. Low toughness, entrapped hydrogen and low hardness
B. High hardness, lack of fusion and entrapped hydrogen
C. Entrapped hydrogen, low toughness and high ductility
D. Lack of fusion, low toughness and reduction in ductility

8. An MMA electrode classified as E7018 is

A. A basic low hydrogen electrode containing iron powder
B. A rutile electrode containing iron powder
C. A cellulose electrode suitable for welding in all positions
D. A basic electrode depositing weld metal with yield strength af a least 70,000 psi
E. Both A and D

9. The number 135 is placed at the end of the reference line on a weld symbol according to ISO
2553 what does this number indicate?
A. The welding process is stated as MMA
B. The welding process is stated as TIG
C. The welding process is stated as SAW
D. NDT is to be carried out after welding
E. None of the above

10. Which of the following is the most likely to be considered an essential variable for a welder
qualification test?
A. A change from an electrode classified to BS EN 499 as an E46 3 INI B to an electrode
classified to AWS A5.1 as an E7018
B. A change of pipe wall thickness by at least 15 mm
C. A change in pre-heat temperature from 50C to 100C
D. A change from PC welding position to PA welding position
E. All of the above

11. What would be a typical appearance of a dutile fracture surface?

A. Rough randomly torn and a reduction in area
B. Smooth fracture surface displaying beach marks
C. Step like appearance
D. Bright crystalline fracture with very little reduction in area
E. Both A and B

12. Which of the following under typical conditions using the MMA welding process would give
the deepest penetration?
A. DC -ve
B. DC +ve
C. AC
D. Both A and B
13. The inclusion the rate an inductance in the welding circuit when using MIG/MAG welding
process is to:
A. Control the rate of spatter in the dip transfer mode
B. It will enable the welder to weld in position with the spray transfer mode
C. It allows for thicker filler wires to be used(2.6-3.6mm diameter)
D. It allow full control over droplet size in the spray transfer mode

14. An undesirable property of aluminium oxide residue ,when welding is that it:
A. Decreases weld pool fluidity
B. Requires more heat to melt it when compared to aluminium
C. Causes the welder to travel to quickly
D. The presence of the oxide makes aluminium impossible to weld

15. When welding with the MIG welding process using pure argon as the shielding gas on
carbon steel, which of the following problems are likely to occur?
A. Copper inclusion and excessive cap heights
B. Excessive root penetration and porosity
C. Slag inclusion and crater pipe
D. Lack of fusion and poor cap profiles

16. When considering the tungsten arc welding process what is the purpose of the down-slope
(slope -out) control?
A. Ensure good penetration
B. To prevent the arc striking on the parent material
C. To help prevent the formation of crater pipe and possible cracking
D. To help prevent tungsten inclusion during welding

17. When considering thermal cutting local hardening can be reduced by:
A. Increasing the cutting speed
B. The use propane as a fuel gas
C. Pre heating the material to be cut
D. All of the above

18. In a semi-automatic wlding process, which of the following shielding gas/gas mixtures would
normally give the deepest penetration on steel?
A. 100% argon
B. 100% CO2
C. 75% argon +25% CO2
D. All of the above would give the same depth in penetration

19. In a MMA welding process, which of following statements are false?

A. An arc gap, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder varies the position of
the electrode
B. A voltage, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder ,varies the arc gap
C. A current, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder ,varies the arc gap
D. A and B
E. All of the above

20. When considering the MIG/MAG welding process which of the following metal transfer
modes would be the best suited to the welding of thick plates over 25mm,flat welding position :
A. Dip transfer
B. Pulse transfer
C. Spray transfer
D. Globular transfer

21. Which of the following current types would you expect to be used for the welding of
aluminium with the TIG welding process?
A. DC -ve
B. DC +ve
C. AC
D. All of the above

22. When considering hydrogen, which of the following welding process would produce the
lowest levels in the completed weld (under controlled conditions)?
A. MMA
B. SAW
C. TIG
D. FCAW

23. Pre heat prior to the welding of carbon steel butt weld:
A. Must always be carried out
B. Is always carried out using a gas flame
C. Need not be carried out if post weld heat treatment is to follow
D. None of the above

24. In steel the element with the greatest effect on hardness is:
A. Chromium
B. Manganese
C. Carbon
D. Nickel

25. For a given voltage and current setting on a MMA welding plant, when the arc length is
shortened, which of the will be most affected?
A. The current will increase
B. The current will decrease
C. The voltage will decrease
D. The voltage will increase

26. Which of the following best describes a semi-automatic welding process?

A. The welder is responsible for the maintaining the arc gap and travel speed
B. The welder is responsible for travel speed only arc gap is kept constant by the welding plant
C. Both travel speed and arc gap is controlled by the welding plant
D. All of above

27. What is purpose of rectifier in welding sets electrical circuit?

A. To keep the arc stable when using low current settings
B. To convert AC current to DC current
C. To convert DC current to AC current
D. To initiate arc at start up
28. When calibrating a mechanised MAG welding plant, which of the following applies
(WFS=wire feed speed)?
A. Check- WFS, current, volts and wire diameter
B. Check- WFS, joint set-up, gas flow rate and WFS
C. Check- gas flow rate, stick out length, WFS and current
D. All of the above

29. The main usage of the arc air process is:

A. The cutting of a weld preparation
B. The removal of defective weld
C. For the cutting of non-ferrous materials only
D. For the cutting of ferrous materials only

30. Which of following fillet welded tee joints would have the highest resistance to fatigue
fractures, assuming material ,welding process, filler material to be the same?
A. A convex fillet weld throat thickness 8mm
B. A mitre fillet weld throat thickness 8mm
C. A concave fillet weld throat thickness 6mm
D. Both a and b (throat thicknesses dimension the same)

31. You notice TIG welding being carried out using MMA electrode striped of flux being used as
filler wires .you would certainly report this issue and file a non-conformance report .what would
the main reason why?
A. Because of the additional cost incurred
B. The wire would have been too thick
C. Weld metals composition would be incorrect
D. The welder would not be qualified

32. The main reason for grinding the capping passes flush is:
A. To increase fatigue life
B. To increase the chances of fatigue cracking
C. To improve visual appearance
D. To reduce the components weight

33. Duplex stainless steel can be sometimes referred to as:

A. Martensitic stainless steel
B. Ferritic/austenitic stainless steel
C. 316L stainless steel
D. All of the above

34. Weld center line longitudinal cracks in welded butt joints may have resulted from which of
the following?
A. Solidification problems
B. Hydrogen entrapment
C. Poor welder skill
D. Both A and B

35. Which of following would be considered a typical heat input reading with the MIG/MAG
welding process?
A. 1.2KJ/mm
B. 12KJ/mm
C. 1.2 Joules /mm
D. 6.5KJ/mm

36. During the visual inspection of a fillet weld with even lengths of 15mm.the throat thickness is
measured at 8.5mm, what is the fillet welds profile?
A. Convex
B. Mitre
C. Concave
D. Both A and B

37. Which of following welding parameters are the most difficult to control during the welding
operation using a manual arc welding process?
A. Travel speed
B. Voltage
C. Current
D. Arc length

38. You are the only welding inspection on a cross country gas supply pipeline project .which of
the following welding /fabrication stages would you consider the most important stage for your
closest scrutiny?
A. Fit-up and root pass welding
B. Post weld cleaning
C. Fillers and capping pass welding
D. Radiography

39. Which of the following us the best why to identify hydrogen controlled electrodes for the
MMA welding process?
A. The colour of the flux covering
B. The electrodes classification code on box
C. The electrodes classification code on stamped on to the electrode
D. The electrode trade/manufacturers name
E. All of the above
CSWIP 3.1 Part 5

1. Which of the following butt-weld preparations is usually the most susceptible to lack of
sidewall fusion during the manual arc process?
A. A double-U butt
B. A single-V butt.
C. A double-V butt.
D. It is not normally a defect associated with the MMA welding process.

2. What is the leg length of a fillet weld?

A. The distance from the toe to face.
B. The distance from the root to the toe.
C. Its 0.7 of the design thickness.
D. Both B and C

3. What is the thickness of a fillet weld (equal leg lengths )?

A. The distance from the toe to the face.
B. The distance from the root to the face centre.
C. The distance from the root to the toe.
D. The distance from toe to toe.

4. Compound welds:
A. Always contain butt and fillet welds
B. Joints which has combinations of welds made by different welding processes
C. Combinations between two different weld types
D. All of the above.

5. A duty not normally undertaken by a welding inspector is to:

A. Check the condition of the parent material.
B. Check the condition of the consumables.
C. Measure residual stress.
D. Check calibration certificates.

6. Under most conditions which of the following welding positions will deposit the most weld
metal.
A. PG
B. PE
C. PC
D. PA

7. What meant by the term crater pipe:

A. Another term for concave root.
B. Another term given for a burn through.
C. A type of gas pore found in the weld crater.
D. A shrinkage defect found in the weld crater.

8. What is meant by the term weld junction?

A. The area containing the HAZ and weld metal.
B. The weld metal and parent metal.
C. The boundary between the fusion zone and the HAZ.
D. The part of the weld which has undergone metallurgical changes due to the heat from
welding.

9. The strength of a fillet weld is primary controlled by:

A. Leg length.
B. Design throat thickness.
C. Actual throat thickness.
D. All of the above.

10. Which of the following is applicable for none planar defects?

A. They are always repaired.
B. Their existence will result in the removal of the entire weld.
C. They are not usually as significant as planar defects.
D. They can only be detected using radiograph.

11. Which of the following welding processes/technique is likely to be used for the repair welding
of localised porosity in butt weld?
A. MMA, PG position.
B. Mechanised MAG.
C. Submerged arc.
D. None of the above.

12. When measuring the welding parameters with the MMA welding process for the purpose of
approving a welding procedure, the welding Inspector should measure the voltage:
A. As close to welding arc as possible.
B. Anywhere along the welding cable.
C. Always from the voltmeter on the welding plant.
D. As near to The welding terminals as possible.

13. In the MMA welding process, which of the following is most likely to be caused by a welder
with a poor technique?
A. Deep weld craters/crater cracks.
B. Copper inclusions
C. Hydrogen cracks
D. All of the above

14. Root concavity is caused by:

A. Excessive back purge pressure and entrapped gas.
B. Excessive back purge pressure and very high heat inputs.
C. Excessive root grinding and a slow travel speed.
D. Excessive root grinding and excessive back purge pressure.

15. When inspecting a critical component, the toes of a weld must be:
A. Always ground flush.
B. Must always overlap at least 1.5 mm onto the parent material.
C. Must always be inspected using a crack detection method ( MPI, DPI ).
D. None of the above can be selected specification requirements unknown

16. When carrying out visual inspection, the specification makes no mention of the requirements
for visual inspection, in this situation what shroud you do?
A. Carry out normal visual inspection.
B Seek advice from higher authority.
C. Carry out visual inspection.
D. Rewrite the requirements of the specification.

17. Under most circumstances, which of the following do you consider to be duties of a welding
inspector?
A. The supervision of welders.
B. Procedure writing.
C. Qualifying welders.
D. All of the above.

18. Which of the following is most likely to cause a burn through.

A. Root gap too small.
B. Travel speed too fast.
C. Root face too small.
D. All of the above.

19. In an arc welding process, which of the following is the correct term used for the amount of
weld metal deposited per minute?
A. Filling rate.
B. Deposition rate.
C. Weld deposition.
D. Weld duty cycle.

20. What is the term given for the area of a welded joint outside the weld metal that has
undergone microstructural changes?
A. Heat affected zone.
B. The weld zone
C. Fusion zone.
D. All of the above terms may be used.
CSWIP 3.1 Chapter 2

1. Weld Joint in which the parent material and weld metal have significant differences in
mechanical properties and/or chemical composition
A. Homogeneous Joint
B. Dissimilar Joint
C. Heterogeneous Joint
D. All of These

2. Weld Joint in which the parent material and weld metal have no significant differences in
mechanical properties and/or chemical composition
A. Dissimilar Joint
B. Homogeneous Joint
C. Heterogeneous Joint
D. None of These

3. The Boundary between the weld metal and HAZ

A. Weld Zone
B. Weld Junction
C. HAZ
D. None of these

4. A butt joint has how many toes?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 0
D. 1

5. Land is term used with?

A. J and U joint
B. Fillet Weld
C. Single V groove
D. All of these

6. Z=1.414 x a, this formula is not valid for which type of fillet weld
A. Mitre type
B. Convex Type
C. Concave Type
D. Valid for all type of fillets

7. Which type of fillet weld is preferred for cyclic loading conditions?

A. Mitre Type
B. Convex Type
C. Concave Type
D. Any of the above

8. For deep penetration fillet welds symbol used for throat thickness is
A. Z
B. A
C. S
D. None of these
9. Actual Throat Thickness of a weld is
A. Design Throat Thickness + Excess weld metal
B. Design Throat Thickness - Excess weld metal
C. Design Throat Thickness
D. None of these
CSWIP 3.1 Multiple Choice Paper 1

1. When hydrogen control is specified for a manual metal arc welding project the electrode
would normally be:
A. Cellulosic
B. Iron oxide
C. Acid
D. Basic

2. You would certainly recognise a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from its
A. Colour
B. Length
C. Trade name
D. BS639/AWS code letter

3. When manual metal arc welding is being carried out on an open construction site, which
group of welders are most likely to require continuous monitoring?
A. Concrete shuttering welding teams
B. Pipe welding teams
C. Plater welders
D. Plant maintenance welders

4. You notice manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG
welding. You would object because:
A. It is too expensive
B. The wire would be too thick
C. The metal composition may be wrong
D. The wire is too short

5. When open site working, serious porosity in metal arc welds is brought to your attention.
What would you investigate?
A. Electrode type
B. Power plant type
C. Electrode storage
D. Day temperature
6. The steel composition in a structural contract is changed from 0.15% carbon 0.6%
manganese, to 0.2% carbon 1.2% manganese. This might influence the incidence of:
A. Porosity
B. Cracking in the weld area
C. Undercut for fillet welds
D. Lack of fusion defects

7. One of the following alloys is non-magnetic - which?

A. 4.0% chromium molybdenum
B. 12.0% chromium
C. Austenitic stainless steel
D. 9.0% nickel steel

8. When TIG welding austenitic stainless steel pipe, argon gas backing is called for. This is to:
A. Prevent oxidation
B. Prevent under bead cracking
C. Prevent porosity
D. Control the penetration bead shape

9. Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimise the risk of:
A. Scattered porosity
B. Worm hole porosity
C. Parent metal cracking
D. Lack of penetration

10. In UK practice, BS499 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the:
A. Leg length
B. Throat thickness
C. Weld width
D. Actual throat thickness

11. For open site manual metal welding the following equipment is available. Which would you
choose for safe site working?
A. Single operator transformer
B. Multi operator transformers
C. AC/DC composite power unit
D. Diesel engine driven motor generator

12. If submerged arc welding is used to make butt welds, which would you be most critical of?
A. The root gap tolerance
B. The angle of preparation
C. The root face width
D. The gas cut finish

13. Preheating for arc welding applies to:

A. Assembly welding only
B. Assembly and tack welding
C. Joints over 25 mm thick only
D. Cruciform welds only

14. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Preheating increases hardness
B. Preheating increases cooling
C. Preheating increases dilution
D. Preheating increases shrinkage stress

15. You see a welder using an oxy-acetylene flame with a long feathered inner cone. What
would be the effect of this on a carbon steel?
A. The weld would be hard and brittle
B. The weld could be too soft
C. There will be no effect on the weld
D. The weld will have undercut

16. A welder qualification test is to verify:

17. A fabricating procedure calls for fillet welds to be 'blended in' by grinding. This influences:
A. HAZ cracking
B. Fatigue life
C. Residual stress
D. Yield strength

18. During CO2 welding, the arc length is most likely to be affected by:
A. The wire diameter
B. The current return connections
C. The gas flow rate
D. The torch to work angle

19. Bend test specimens have been taken from a 25 mm thick carbon steel butt weld. Which
would show lack of inter-run fusion?
A. Side bend
B. Root bend
C. Face bend
D. Guided bend

20. Lamellar tearing has occurred in a steel fabrication. BEFORE welding could it have been
found by
A. X-ray examination
B. Dye penetrant
C. Ultrasonic examination
D. It would not have been found by any inspection method

21. You are to oversee the arc welding of some machine fittings and find that they are cadmium
plated. Would you:
A. Permit it to proceed
B. Permit it to proceed with fume extraction
C. Stop the operation at once
D. Advise the welder to drink milk and proceed

22. One of the reasons for excluding hydrogen from the weld metal is to prevent the weld from:
A. Cracking
B. Cooling slowly
C. Cooling quickly
D. Expanding

23. When a metal regains its original shape when a stress acting upon it is removed, the metal
is said to have:
A. Ductility
B. Plasticity
C. Malleability
D. Elasticity

24. Proof stress is used when non-ferrous metals are undergoing tensile tests to determine the
equivalent:
A. Tenacity
B. Elasticity
C. Yield strength
D. Tensile strength

25. To test a component for vibrational loading, a suitable mechanical test would be:
A. Impact
B. Tensile
C. Compressive
D. Fatigue

26. The main reason for pre-heating medium and high carbon steels before cutting by oxy-fuel
gas technique is to:
A. Improve the quality of the cut
B. Increase the cutting speed
C. Refine the grain structure
D. Prevent hardening and cracking

27. One purpose of a microscopic examination of a weld is to establish the:

A. Strength of the weld
B. Number of alloying elements
C. Grain size
D. Number of runs used

28. The predominant structure of an hyper-eutectoid steel that has been quenched at above its
upper critical point will be:
A. Austenite
B. Martensite
C. Troostite
D. Sorbite

29. When weld metal refinement takes place in a multi-run deposit, it is known by the term:
A. Weld annealing
B. Weld refining
C. Weld normalising
D. Weld recrystallisation

30. One advantage of metal gas arc shielded welding is:

A. Can be used in draughty locations without protection
B. Produces a deposit low in hydrogen content
C. Any welding position can be welded with spray transfer
D. Fine spatter at nozzle restricting gas flow

CSWIP 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions - Paper 2

1. Deflection of the arc by magnetic forces that can make welding difficult to control is commonly
known as:
A. Arc initiation
B. Arc misalignment
C. Arc blow
D. Arc constriction

2. Which of the following electrode types is classified to BS EN 499?

A. E 38 3 R
B. E 6013
C. E 7018 - G
D. E 51 33 B

3. Which type of electrode is used for stovepipe welding for overland pipeline construction
A. Rutile
B. Cellulosic
C. High recovery rutile
D. Acid-rutile

4. The three main types of MMA electrodes used for welding C and C-Mn steels are:
A. Basic, cellulosic and rutile
B. Neutral, cellulosic and rutile
C. Basic, cellulosic and neutral
D. Rutile, low hydrogen and basic
5. A WPS may specify a maximum width for individual weld beads (the weave width) when
welding C-Mn steels. if the width is exceeded it may cause:
A. Lack of inter-run fusion
B. A reduction in HAZ toughness
C. Lack of sidewall fusion
D. Too low a deposition rate

6. You notice that MMA electrodes with the flux covering removed are being used as filler rods
for TIG welding. This should not be allowed because:
A. It is wasteful
B. The rod diameter may be too large
C. The weld metal composition may be wrong
D. The rod is too short

7. In TIG welding, what is the benefit of a current slope-out device? It reduces...

A. Tungsten spatter
B. Risk of crater cracking
C. Risk of arc strikes
D. Interpass temperature

8. Which type of power source characteristic is normally used for manual welding?
A. Constant Voltage
B. Flat Characteristic
C. Constant Current
D. A Motor Generator

9. In MMA, welding penetration is principally controlled by:

A. Arc voltage
B. Welding speed
C. Ferro-silicon in the electrode coating
D. Current

10. Pipe bores of some materials must be purged with argon before and during TIG welding in
order to
A. Prevent linear porosity
B. Prevent burn-through
C. Prevent oxidation of the root bead
D. Eliminate moisture pick-up in the root bead.

11. The chemical composition of the weld metal deposited by a C-Mn steel MMA electrode is
usually controlled by:
A. Core wire composition
B. Additions in the flux coating
C. Iron powder in the flux coating
D. Dilution from the base material

12. Silicon is added to steel and the covering of MMA electrodes in order to:
A. Provide deoxidation
B. Improve strength
C. Improve toughness
D. Provide more resistance to hydrogen cracking.

13. A Fusible insert for TIG welding helps:

A. Reduce porosity
B. Give controlled root penetration
C. Avoid the need for a back purge
D. By acting as a backing for the root run

14. According to AWS 2.4 a weld symbol for the other side is placed:
A. Above the dashed line
B. Below the dashed line
C. Above the solid line
D. Below the solid line

15. The term low hydrogen electrode is often used for certain electrodes. What type of covering
will they have?
A. Cellulosic
B. Rutile
C. Acid
D. Basic

16. A Hydrogen controlled MMA electrode can always be recognized by the:

A. EN code letter (or AWS code number)
B. Electrode length
C. Trade name
D. Colour of the covering

17. According to BS EN 22553 a weld symbol for the other side is placed:
A. Above the dashed line
B. Below the dashed line
C. Above the solid line
D. Below the solid line

18. Which of the following units is used to express heat input?

A. Joules
B. N/mm2
C. J/mm2
D. KJ/mm

19. Which of the following elements is added to steel to give resistance to creep at elevated
service temperatures?
A. Nickel
B. Manganese
C. Molybdenum
D. Aluminium

20. Nick break and fillet fracture tests are used for assessing:
A. Weld quality
B. Weld metal ductility
C. Weld metal toughness
D. Resistance to fracture

21. Which of the following steels is considered non-magnetic?

A. 18% Cr, 8% Ni
B. 2.25Cr 1Mo
C. 9%Cr, 1Mo
D. 9%Ni

22. Weld spatter during MMA welding is most likely to be caused by:
A. Excessive current
B. Incorrect baking and storage of electrodes
C. Bad batch of electrodes
D. Too low an OCV

23. A qualified Welding Procedure Specification is used to:

A. Give instruction to the welder
B. Give information to the welder
C. Give confidence that welds will have the specified properties.
D. All of the above

24. An arc strike (stray flash) on a steel component is regarded by some codes as unacceptable
because:
A. It will cause copper contamination
B. It may cause hard spots
C. It may give cracking
D. Both B and C

25. In a transverse tensile test brittleness would be indicated if:

A. There is a reduction in cross-section at the position of fracture
B. The fracture surface is flat and featureless but has a rough surface
C. Fracture occurred in the weld metal
D. The fracture face shows beach marks

26. The surface of a fatigue crack will:

A. Be rough and torn
B. Have sharp chevron markings
C. Be smooth
D. Have shear lips

27. What does the number 141 refer to when it is written next to the tail when using symbols
A. WPS number
B. Welding process
C. Filler material
D. Acceptance Standard

28. The current/polarity used for TIG welding of all materials except aluminium and magnesium
is:
A. DC negative
B. DC positive
C. AC
D. Square wave AC

29. A typical temperature range for baking basic coated electrodes is:
A. 150-200C
B. 200-250C
C. 300-350C
D. 400-450C

30. If welding travel speed is doubled but the current and voltage remain the same the heat
input will be:
A. Reduced by 50%
B. Increased by a factor of two
C. About the same
D. Reduced by approximately 25%

CSWIP 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions - Paper 3

1. Which type of submerged arc welding flux is susceptible to moisture pick-up?

A. Neutral
B. Agglomerated
C. Fused
D. Are all about the same

2. A Large grain size in the HAZ of a C-Mn Steel weld joint may have:
A. Low ductility
B. Low toughness
C. High toughness
D. High tensile strength

3. A STRA test is used to measure the:

A. Tensile strength of the welded joint
B. Level of residual stress in butt joints
C. Fracture toughness of the HAZ
D. Through-thickness ductility of a steel plate (the Z direction)

4. The risk of hydrogen cracking is greater when MMA welding:

A. C-Mn Steels
B. Austenitic Stainless Steels
C. Low Alloy Steels for Elevated Temperature Service
D. Low Carbon Steels for Cryogenical Service

5. The property of a material which has the greatest influence on welding distortion is its
A. Yield strength
B. Coefficient of thermal expansion
C. Elastic modulus
D. Coefficient of thermal conductivity

6. Which of the following is a suitable shielding gas for FCAW of stainless steels?
A. 100% Argon
B. 70% Argon + 30% He
C. Argon + 5% Hydrogen
D. Argon + 20% CO2

7. The presence of iron sulphides in a weld bead may cause:

A. Solidification cracking
B. Hydrogen cracking
C. Lamellar tearing
D. Weld decay

8. A macrosection is particularly good for showing:

A. The weld metal HAZ microstructure
B. Overlap
C. Joint hardness
D. Spatter

9. Which of the following procedures would be expected to produce the least distortion in a
15mm straight butt weld?
A. TIG weld, single-sided, multi-pass
B. MMA weld, single-sided, multi-pass
C. MMA weld, double-sided, multi-pass
D. SAW weld, 1 pass per side

10. A suitable gas/gas mixture, for GMAW for aluminium is:

A. 100% CO2
B. 100% Argon
C. 80% Argon + 20% CO2
D. 98% Argon + 2% 02

11. Which of the following is associated with SAW more often than it is with MMA welds?
A. Hydrogen cracking in the HAZ
B. Solidification cracking in the weld metal
C. Reheat cracking during PWHT
D. Lamellar tearing

12. EN ISO 5817 (Level C) specifies that the limit for the diameter (D) of a single pore in a weld
is: D<0.3s, but max. 4mm where s=material thickness. For which of the following situations is
the pore acceptable?
A. S=20mm, measured pore diameter = 5mm
B. S=15mm, measured pore diameter = 4.5mm
C. S=10mm, measured pore diameter = 3mm
D. S=10mm, measured pore diameter = 3.5mm
13. To measure arc voltage accurately it is recommended that the voltmeter should be
connected:
A. Across the arc and as near as practical to the arc
B. Across the power source terminals prior to arc initiation
C. Across the power source terminals during the welding operation
D. Anywhere in the circuit

14. Lamellar tearing has occurred in a steel fabrication. What technique could have been used
to find it before the weld was made?
A. X-ray examination
B. Liquid penetrant examination
C. Ultrasonic examination
D. It could not have been found by any inspection method

15. Preheating a low alloy steel prior to welding to minimise the risk of:
A. Porosity
B. Excessive distortion
C. HAZ cracking
D. Lack of fusion

16. Typical temperature used for normalising a C-Mn steel plate are:
A. 600-650C
B. 1000-1100C
C. 700-800C
D. 880-920C

17. For GMAW the burn-off rate of the wire is directly related to:
A. Stick-out length
B. Wire feed speed
C. Arc voltage
D. Travel speed

18. For MMA welding of a 60mm wall nozzle to a 100mm wall vessel shell, preheat
temperatures should be checked:
A. Before welding starts/restarts
B. On the shell and nozzle
C. At points at least 75mm from the joint edge
D. All of the above

19. A crack running along the centreline of a weld bead could be caused by:
A. Use of damp flux
B. Lack of preheat
C. Arc voltage too high
D. Weld bead too deep and very narrow

20. To improve resistance to service failure caused by cyclic loading, it is good practice to:
A. Use low heat input welding
B. Use steel with a low CEV
C. Ensure there are no features that give high stress concentration
D. PWHT the fabrication

21. The use of low carbon austenitic stainless steels and stabiliser stainless steels will minimise
the risk of:
A. HAZ cracking
B. Weld decay
C. Weld metal cracking
D. Distortion

22. Which type of SAW flux is susceptible to breaking down into fine particles during circulation?
A. Fused
B. Neutral
C. Alloyed
D. Agglomerated

23. The maximum hardness in the HAZ of a steel will increase if the:
A. Heat input is increased
B. CEV is increased
C. Joint thickness is decreased
D. Basic electrodes are used

24. BS EN ISO 5817 (Level B) specifies the limit for excess weld metal (h) on a butt weld as:
h<1mm+0.1b, but max. 5mm, b= weld width. In which of the following situations is the measured
excess weld metal acceptable?
A. B = 10 measured excess weld metal = 2.5mm
B. B = 20 measured excess weld metal = 3.5mm
C. B = 35 measured excess weld metal = 4.5mm
D. B = 45 measured excess weld metal = 5.5mm

25. A C-Mn steel is being welded by MMA and the electrode run-out lengths that have been
used are much shorter than specified by the WPS. This deviation may give:
A. Increased risk of hydrogen cracking
B. Increased risk of solidification cracking
C. Lower values of HAZ toughness
D. Higher values of HAZ hardness

26. The first procedure prepared for a Weld Procedure Qualification test is a:
A. PWPS
B. WPS
C. WPQR
D. WPAR

27. Transfer of material identification by hard stamping is sometimes not allowed for high
integrity applications because it:
A. Is too slow
B. Can be a safety hazard
C. May damage the material
D. Causes problems with coating operations.
28. When welding thin plate distortion can be minimised by:
A. Welding from both sides
B. Using U preparations rather than V types
C. Using strongbacks
D. Using back-step welding

29. Which of the following would be considered to be high heat input welding?
A. 550J/mm
B. 55J/mm
C. 5.5J/mm
D. 5KJ/mm

30. Initiation of a TIG arc using high frequency spark may not be allowed because it:
A. Often causes tungsten inclusions
B. Can damage electronic equipment
C. Is an electrical safety hazard
D. Often causes stop/start porosity

CSWIP 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions - Paper 4

1. Which of these drawing symbols shows weld penetration depth in accordance with BS EN
22553?
A.

B.

C.

D.

2. BS EN 288 and BS EN ISO 15614 are specifications for?

A. Welder approval testing
B. Welding equipment calibration
C. Welding procedure approval
D. Consumables for submerged arc welding

3. What determines the penetrating power of gamma rays?

A. Time
B. Type of isotope
C. Source-to-film-distance
D. Source strength

4. Which element has the greatest effect on the HAZ hardness of C-Mn steel?
A. Molybdenum
B. Chromium
C. Titanium
D. Carbon

5. Preheating a steel plate with a carbon equivalent (CEV) of 0.48 may be required to:
A. Drive moisture from the plate
B. Prevent excessive hardening in the HAZ
C. Prevent the formation of carbides
D. Improve the mechanical properties of the weld metal

6. A welder approval certificate should be withdrawn if:

A. He has not done any welding for 4 months
B. He has been absent from work for 7 months
C. The repair rate for his work exceeds 1%
D. His work has been examined by UT only

7. In friction welding, the metal at the interface when the joining occurs is describes as being in
the:
A. Liquid state
B. Intercritical state
C. Plastic state
D. Elastic state

8. A penetrameter (IQI) is used to measure the:

A. Size of discontinuity in a weld joint
B. Density of a radiographic film
C. Degree of film contrast
D. Quality of the radiographic technique

9. Which of the following cutting methods is suitable for cutting stainless steel?
A. Plasma
B. Oxy-acetylene
C. Oxy-propane
D. It depends upon the thickness.

10. Which of the following would be classed as the most serious type of defect?
A. A buried linear slag inclusion
B. Buried lack of inter-run fusion
C. Surface breaking lack of sidewall fusion
D. Surface porosity
11. Ultrasonic testing has an advantage over other NDT methods for the detection of:
A. Lack of sidewall fusion
B. Root undercut
C. Incompletely filled groove
D. Root concavity

12. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature specified for a C-Mn steel weld joint may
give:
A. Excessive porosity
B. Burn through
C. Lower toughness
D. Higher strength

13. MIG/MAG welding has a tendency to give lack of sidewall fusion when:
A. Spray transfer conditions are used
B. 100% CO2 shielding gas is used
C. Pulsed current is used
D. Dip transfer

14. The temperature range over which a steel goes from having high to low toughness is called
the:
A. Critical transformation temperature
B. Ductility dip temperature
C. Bi-modal temperature
D. Transition temperature

15. For SAW, what is the effect of raising arc voltage but keeping all other parameters the
same?
A. Weld bead width will increase
B. Depth of penetration will increase
C. Weld bead width will decrease
D. Depth of penetration will decrease

16. Changing an essential variable beyond the allowed limits for a qualified welding procedure:
A. May change the mechanical properties of the joint
B. May adversely affect the quality of the weld
C. Will require a new welding procedure to be approved
D. All of the above

17. With reference to the various grades of stainless steels which of the following statements is
true?
A. They are all non-magnetic
B. They all require 100% Ar for GMAW
C. They all have very high thermal conductivity
D. Only certain grades can be used for service at very low temperatures

18. Which of the following AWS A5.1 electrodes has a rutile covering:
A. E 6010
B. E 7016
C. E 7018
D. E 6013
19. Welds made with very high heat input will show a reduction in:
A. Tensile ductility
B. Notch toughness
C. Fatigue strength
D. Creep resistance

20. During PWHT of a complex fabrication, it is heated to the soak temperature at a much faster
rate than specified by the procedure. This may:
A. Cause excessive oxidation
B. Not allow sufficient time to relieve stresses
C. Introduce excessive compressive stresses
D. Cause distortion

21. When MAG welding in dip transfer (a short-circuiting mode) spatter can be reduced by:
A. Using inductance
B. Using 100%CO2
C. Using Ar +30% He
D. Increasing the stick-out length

22. Repair welding of in-service plant and equipment may be more difficult than making repairs
during initial fabrication because:
A. The material may be contaminated
B. Access to repair area may be difficult
C. Positional welding may be needed
D. All of the above

23. For gamma radiography of a steel weld at 35mm thickness, the recommended isotope is:
A. Thulium 170
B. Ytterbium 169
C. Iridium 192
D. Cobalt 60

24. The sensitivity of a radiograph is assessed:

A. By using a densitometer
B. By using an image quality indicator (IQI)
C. From the KVA used
D. From the source/tube to work standoff distance used

25. A transverse tensile test from a Weld Procedure Approval Record (WPAR) test plate is used
to measure:
A. Tensile strength of the weld
B. Tensile strength of the joint
C. Stress/strain characteristics of the weld
D. Stress/strain characteristics of the joint

26. The highest and lowest heat input positions are considered to be:
A. PB highest; PA lowest.
B. PE highest; PC lowest.
C. PD highest; PB lowest.
D. PF highest; PG lowest.
27. What type of covering will an electrode have that is suitable for welding 60mm C-Mn steel
and can give good weld metal toughness at -50C?
A. Rutile
B. Basic
C. Cellulosic
D. Choice will depend on the welding position

28. The dip transfer or short-circuiting mode of metal transfer used for MIG/MAG welding is
characterized by:
A. Giving deep penetration
B. Being suitable for positional welding
C. Giving low spatter
D. Giving high deposition

29. Carbon equivalent values (CEV) are used to determine how to avoid the risk of:
A. Hydrogen cracking
B. Lamellar tearing
C. Solidification cracking
D. Weld decay

30. When two different material types are welded together the joint is referred to as:
A. A composite joint
B. A transition joint
C. An autogenous weld
D. Heterogeneous joint

CSWIP 3.1 Welding Inspector Test - Multi-choice Questions (paper 1)

1. In which welding process is it possible to change from Constant Voltage to Constant Current?
A. Manual Metal Arc - MMA
B. Tungsten Inert Gas TIG
C. Submerged Arc Welding - MAG
D. Metal Active Gas - MAG

2. Manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG welding.
You would object because:
A. The wire would be too thick
B. The wire is too short
C. It is too expensive
D. The weld metal composition may be wrong

3. The steel composition in a structural contract is changed form 0.15% carbon, 0.6%
manganese to 0.2% carbon, 1.2% manganese. Might this influence the incidence of:
A. Undercut for fillet welds
B. Cracking in the weld area
C. Lack of root fusion defects
D. Porosity

4. Bend test specimens have been taken from a 25mm thick carbon steel butt weld. Which
would show lack of inter-run fusion?
A. Face Bend
B. Guided Bend
C. Root bend
D. Side bend

5. Lamellar tearing has occurred in a steel fabrication. Before welding could it have been found
by:
A. Dye penetrant
B. Ultrasonic inspection
C. It would not have been found by any inspection method
D. X-ray examination

6. The unit of Joules would be used to measure: Tensile Strength?

A. True
B. False

7. Spatter may be finely controlled during MIG / MAG welding by:

A. Increasing the arc voltage
B. Adjusting the inductance control
C. Welding with no gas
D. Using CO2 gas

8. DWSI is a form of radiographic testing?

A. True
B. False

9. Fatigue testing is used to test welds:

A. Under creep stress loading
B. Under cyclic loading
C. Under tensile loading
D. Under dynamic loading

10. If a welder is found to be working outside the parameters of the procedure the welding
inspector is within his rights to revoke his approval?
A. True
B. False
11. If pipe bores are not matched correctly it can result in:
A. Overheating during welding.
B. Excessive root faces.
C. Incorrect gap setting.
D. Lack of root penetration.

12. Quenching a carbon or low alloy steel will result in an [Blank] in hardness and a [Blank] in
ductility.

13. The property of a metal to return to its original shape is called [Blank].
14. Select the correct welding process:
A. MMA
B. MIG / MAG
C. TIG
D. SAW

15. Select the correct MMA welding rod:

A. Cellulosic
B. Rutile
C. Basic
D. Rutile High Recovery

16.The most common type of defect found in a structure when it is undergoing service is:
A. Crystallisation.
B. Fatigue cracking.
C. Weld decay.
D. Stress fracture.

17. Which of the following elements has the greater effect on the hardenability of a steel plate?
A. Sulphur
B. Molybdenum
C. Carbon
D. Chromium

18. You have a macro section of a 'T' butt joint that shows a step-like defect lying outside
the visible HAZ. What would this defect possibly signify?
A. HAZ cracking.
B. Toe cracking.
C. Lamellar tearing.
D. Lamination.

19. Which of the following symbols from EN 22553 would indicate that a weld has to be finished
on the 'other' side of the weld?
A.

B.

C.
D.

20. When weld metal refinement takes place in a multi-run deposit, it is known by the term:
A. Weld annealing
B. Weld normalising
C. Weld refining
D. Weld recrystallisation

21. Proof stress is used when non-ferrous metals are undergoing tensile tests to determine
the equivalent Yield strength
A. True
B. False

22. A welder qualification test is to verify:

A. The quality of the materials
B. The non-destructive test procedures
C. The skill of the welder
D. The manufacturing methods

23. Which of the following defects would you not expect to find by visual inspection of welds?
A. Overlap.
B. Linear misalignment.
C. Linear slag inclusions.
D. Undercut.

24. Welder qualification tests are designed to:

A. Test the correctness of the welding procedure.
B. Test the welder's skill.
C. Prove the weldability of the parent material.
D. All the above.

25. Which physical test is more likely to reveal HAZ embrittlement?

A. Transverse tensile.
B. All weld tensile.
C. Root bend.
D. Charpy impact.

26. Sulphur and phosphorus are not alloying elements; they are [Blank].
27. Which gas shroud should be used when tungsten arc gas shielded welding
aluminium alloys?
A. Nitrogen.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Argon/carbon dioxide mixture.
D. Argon.

28. Which of the following coatings is associated with stove welding?

A. Rutile
B. Basic
C. Cellulosic
D. Oxidising

29. The tough laminated structure that is formed on slow cooling of ferrite and iron
carbide (cementite) is called _______.
A. Austenite
B. Martenesite
C. Pearlite
D. Trootsite

30. An Izod impact machine is used to give indication of the _______ of a material.
A. Hardness
B. Tensile Strength
C. Ductility
D. Yield Strength
CSWIP 3.1- Model Paper-2

1. All things contain imperfections, but is only when they fall outside the level of acceptance they
should be termed?
A. Discontinuity
B. Defect
C. Mechanical damage
D. Welding imperfections

2. A singular gas filled cavity that is= or more than 1.6 mm in diameter is termed?
A. Cavity
B. Cluster porosity
C. Blow hole
D. Rounded porosity

3. Lack of fusion imperfections are defined as?

A. Lack of union between two adjacent areas of material
B. Not cleaning out slag
C. Incorrect electrode manipulation in the final run
D. Incorrect set up

4. What should happen to spatter before visual inspection is carried out?

A. Spatter is not a problem for visual inspection
B. Spatter that is more than 2 mm need not be cleaned for visual inspection
C. Spatter should be cleaned off before visual inspection
D. Spatter will not have any affect on the weld or the base material

5. Undercut can be defined as one of the following?

A. Concavity in the root of the weld
B. Crater in the fill of the weld
C. An oxide within the weld
D. Depression at the toe of the weld
6. Excess penetration is often caused by which of the following?
A. Too high a welding current
B. Slow travel speed
C. Large root gap
D. All of the above

CSWIP 3.1

1. Applying preheat when welding carbon manganese steel is normally done to avoid:
A. Slag inclusions
B. Hydrogen cracking
C. Lack of sidewall fusion
D. Porosity

2. Which of following mechanical properties of a weld in carbon manganese steel is most

affected if the heat input per unit length of weld is excessively high?
A. Elongation
B. Tensile strength
C. Hardness
D. Toughness
3. You observe centerline cracking a weld that as been made one of five work stations each
making similar components. The first action to take is:
A. Impound all welding consumables
B. Report the occurrence to high authority
C. Stop all welding
D. Call for full NDT checks

4. Which of the following defects is unlikely to be found by visual inspection.

A. Linear misalignment
B. Undercut
C. Overlap
D. Linear slag inclusion

5. Which of the following welding processes uses a resisitive heating system to achieve weld
metal deposition.
A. Manual metal arc welding
B. Submerged-arc welding
C. Electro slag welding
D. Resistance spot welding