GENERAL PERFORMANCE

1. Minimum V1could be
a) V1=V2
b) V1= Vmcg
c) V1= Vmca
d) V1=Vs

2. If the takeoff weight is restricted due to runway length, the net gradient available in second
segment will be
a) 2.4%
b) 1.6%
c) more than 1.6%
d) less than 1.6%

3. Head wind and tail wind components for correcting runway length available to equivalent nil
wind lengths factored to
a) 50% and 150% respectively
b) 150% and 50% respectively
c) 100% and 100% respectively
d) 100% and 50% respectively

4. V2 is a function of
a) Flap setting
b) Weight
c) Weight and flap setting
d) Power setting

5. Increase in V1 results in
a) Lesser TOD
b) Lesser ASD
c) Greater TOD
d) Greater TOR

6. If the wind is exactly 900 to the track, the ground speed will be
a) Equal to TAS
b) More than TAS
c) Less than TAS
7. When flying Long Range Cruise
a) Mach no. is constant
b) Mach no decreases with decrease in weight
c) Mach no increases with decrease in weight

8. The effect of reducing V1 is to

a) Increase TOD
b) Increase emergency distance
c) Increase both TOD and EMD
d) None is correct

9. Foreign object ingestion is minimized by

a) Full thrust Take off
b) Reduced thrust Take off
c) Doing a rolling Take off

10. V2 depends upon

a) Vmca
b) Vs
c) Vloff
d) All of the above

11. If OAT increases at flight level and if constant TAS is maintained, the mach meter readings
will
a) Also be constant
b) Increase
c) Decrease

12. In all jet aircraft, the maximum speed at high altitudes is governed by
a) The structural limits of Vmo or Vno
b) Buffet limits of MMO
c) Both the above

13. For maneuver immediately after take off exceeding 15 0 bank angle, maintain at least
a) 140 Knots
b) 210 Kts
c) V2+15 at take off flaps
d) None of the above

14. Two aircraft having different weights are flying at different altitudes at a constant speed of
 0.74 mach at same temperature condition, will have
a) Different TAS
b) same TAS
c) The question is incorrect

15. The benefit of reduced thrust take off is derived from

a) Less wear and tear of tyres
b) Saving of engine life
c) Less fatigue on airframe

16. The optimum drift down speed tabulated in table one engine inoperative condition against
different weights is
a) Arbitrarily chosen
b) Based on 15% above stall speed
c) Based on best L/D ratio speed with maneuver margin 1.3G

17. If you have to choose any altitude other than optimum range altitude for operating a
scheduled flight, in order to minimize range penalty, the choice should be
a) 2000 above optimum altitude
b) 2000 below optimum altitude
c) 4000 above optimum altitude

18. When adopting improved climb technique for increasing take off weight, V2 speed is
increased to a higher value to obtain maximum L/D value. The L/D ratio is a function of
a) flap setting
b) speed
c) flap setting and speed

19. At a given pressure altitude, if the free outside air temperature remains the same, with
increasing mach number, the deviation from ISA temperature conditions will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain the same

20. If an aeroplane is climbing at a constant indicated mach no., the TAS will normally,
a) Remain constant as it depends upon the indicated Mach number only
b) Decrease with increase in altitude
c) Increase with increase in altitude

21. While cruising at constant mach number if the aeroplane encounters warmer air mass, TAS
 a) Will normally remain constant
b) May increase or decrease depending upon the altitude of the aeroplane
c) Will normally decrease
d) Will normally increase

22. Climb limited take off weight normally

a) Increase with increased flap setting
b) Remains the same but the field length limited weight might decrease
c) Remains the same but the field length limited weight may increase
d) Decrease with increased flap setting

23. If the conditions are ISA+150 C at 15,000, OAT is

a) +150 C
b) -150 C
c) 00 C
d) +100 C

24. An uphill slope will

a) increase the FL limit take off weight
b) decrease the FL limit take off weight
c) No change in FL limit take off weight

25. The obstacle clearance in Enroute conditions of the descending part of the net flight path
must be
a) A minimum of 2000
b) A minimum of 1000
c) Must clear the obstacle

26. Gross gradient required in second segment is

a) 1.2%
b) 2.4%
c) 1.6%

27. Reference Zero is a point at

a) Vloff
b) 35 at speed V2
c) vertically above TODA
28. Balanced field length is equal to
a) runway length
b) runway length+ Stop way
c) none of the above

29. Head wind during drift down will result in

a) better obstacle clearance
b) no effect
c) deterioration in obstacle clearance margin

30. Vmcg varies with

a) Pressure altitude
b) Temperature
c) Pressure altitude and temperature

31. V1 cannot be lower than Vmcg, because take off cannot be

a) Continued at speed below Vmcg
b) Rejected at speed higher than Vmcg
c) Continued at speed higher than Vmcg

32. The gliding distance

a) Increases with the weight of the aircraft
b) Decreases with the weight of the aircraft
c) Is not affected by weight of the aircraft

33. To work out landing distance requirement, flight safety margin required is
a) 67%
b) 43%
c) left to the discretion of Pilot in Command

34. in the event of engine failure with MORA 5000 and net level off altitude 16,000, aircraft
should descend at
a) drift down speed
b) higher speed as recommended in the FCOM
c) none of the above
35. Higher ambient temperatures result in longer landing distance because
a) brakes are less effective
b) lower air drag
c) higher density error in ASI
d) a and c above
e) b and c above

36. Down hill slope of runway

a) lower take off field length limit weight
b) higher take off field length limit weight
c) no effect on take off field length limit weight

37. For 10 knot tail wind component, take off and landing performance graphs actually consider
the effect of
a) 10 Knot TWC
b) 15 Knot TWC
c) 5 Knot TWC

38. Vmbe restrictions may apply when take off is carried out
a) With higher flaps
b) With lower flaps
c) Under tail wind on runway with downhill slope
d) a and c above

39. V2 is
a) 20% higher than Vs
b) 30% higher than Vs
c) 10% higher than Vs
d) a and b above
e) b and c above

40. Long range cruise speed is

a) same as max range cruise speed
b) lower than max range cruise speed
c) higher than max range cruise speed

41. Optimum altitude for a given ISA condition will

a) be higher with decrease in weight
b) be lower with increase in weight
c) no effect
 d) a and b above
42. Selection of level will depend on
a) prevailing winds
b) trip distance
c) cruise weight
d) all the above
e) some of the above

43. Optimum descend speed

a) is a fixed speed
b) varies with weight
c) varies with flight level

44. Flex take off results in

a) fuel economy
b) smooth acceleration during take off roll
c) better durability of engines

45. From considerations of fuel economy, it is better to take off with

a) highest flap possible
b) lower flap possible
c) any flap setting

46. the effect of centre of gravity position on fuel consumption

a) forward shift of CG results in lesser fuel consumption
b) backward shift of CG results in lesser fuel consumption
c) CG does not affect fuel consumption

47. Optimum climb speed

a) Depends on weight of the aircraft
b) Depends on temperature conditions
c) Does not depend on weight of aircraft
d) a and b above
e) b and c above

48. Take off climb gradient may be improved by selecting

a) higher flap configuration
b) higher V2/Vs ratio ( KVS ratio or K factor of V2/Vs)
c) lower flap configuration
d) as in a and b above
 e) as in b and c above
49. An aircraft was refueled at Hyderabad when OAT was 38 0C and total quantity reading was
20,000 Kgs. During night, the OAT became 200C. The fuel quantity will now read
a) more than 20,000 Kgs
b) the same
c) less than 20,000 Kgs

50. For obstacle clearance during drift down, tail wind is

a) Advantageous
b) Disadvantageous
c) Has no effect

51. While cruising at constant TAS, if warmer temperature conditions are encountered, the Mach
meter readings will
a) Also be constant
b) Increase
c) Decrease

52. Main advantages of sweep back wing are

a) Reduction of drag at high speeds
b) Achievement of stability
c) Both a and b

53. During climb at constant mach no, the aircraft

a) Accelerates
b) Decelerates
c) None of the above

54. During climb at constant TAS, the aircraft

a) Accelerates
b) Decelerates
c) None of the above

55. Optimum altitude is that altitude at which

a) Aircraft will take least time to reach destination
b) Aircraft will cover maximum distance per unit of fuel
c) Aircraft will have at least a 1.3 G margin
56. Rate and angle of descent gets bigger during descend with
a) Increasing HWC
b) Decreasing HWC
 c) Decreasing TWC
57. On GO AROUND, aircraft should be capable of achieving equal to or more than 2.1% climb
gradient with
a) Live engine on go-round thrust and speed more than 1.5 Vso and taking Vso of
approach configuration with undercarriage up
b) Live engine on go-round thrust and speed equal to or less than 1.5 Vso and taking
Vso of landing configuration with undercarriage up
c) Live engine on go-round thrust and speed equal to or less than 1.5 Vso and taking
Vso of landing configuration with undercarriage extended

58. In tail wind conditions, aircraft should accelerate for take off to a ground speed which is
a) Lower than Vloff by an amount of TWC
b) Higher than Vloff by an amount of TWC
c) It has no effect on Vloff

59. The net gradient of climb at net level off altitude is

a) 1.2%
b) 1.1%
c) 0%
d) -1.1%

60. Climb may be improved by selecting

a) higher flap configuration
b) lower flap configuration
c) higher V1
d) lower V1

61. If the glide slope is 30, the approximate height of the aircraft when 1 Nm from the touch down
point is
a) 180
b) 60
c) 300

62. If elevation of an airfield is 1750 and QNH is 998.2 hPa, the PA will be approximately
a) 1750
b) 1300
c) 2200
d) 2650
63. If OAT increases at flight level and if constant TAS is maintained, the mach meter reading will
a) also be constant
b) increase
c) decrease

64. Main advantages of sweep back wing are

a) reduction of drag at high speeds
b) achievement of stability
c) adjustment of relative position of CG and CP
d) all the above

65. Acceleration distance is

a) greater for greater angle of attack
b) shorter for shorter angle of attack
c) shorter for greater angle of attack

66. Higher KVS factor gives

a) higher value of field length limit weight
b) lower value of field length limit weight
c) lower value of climb limited weight

67. For a constant mach number climb

a) ROC reduces
b) ROC increases
c) ROC remains the same

68. During climb, acceleration

a) Increases the ROC
b) Reduced the ROC
c) Has no effect on ROC

69. Descent with higher aircraft weight

a) Will cover lesser distance and will take lesser time than aircraft with lower weight
b) Will cover same distance, but will take lesser time than of aircraft with lower weight
c) Will cover more distance and will take more time than aircraft with lower weight

70. Take off speeds

a) Increases with temperature
b) Decreases with temperature
 c) Temperature has no effect
71. Take off speed
a) Increase with flap setting
b) Decrease with flap setting
c) Flap has no effect

72. Take off speeds

a) Increase with PA
b) Decrease with PA
c) PA has no effect

73. For determining V1, VR and V2,

a) V1 should be rounded off to higher value Vr and V2 should be to a lower value
b) V1 should be rounded off to a lower value while Vr and V2 to a higher value
c) V1, Vr and V2 should be rounded always to a higher value
d) V1, Vr and V2 should be rounded off to a lower value

74. The maximum speed at high altitude is governed by

a) Vmc
b) MMO
c) Buffet limits of MMO

75. Vloff is used by performance engineer for calculating

a) TORR/ TODR
b) ASDR
c) V1 balanced Field

76. For better obstacle clearance during take off, we should have
a) Tail wind
b) Head wind
c) Insignificant effect

77. In a balanced field length which is limiting take off weight, the pilot has the option to
a) Increase V1, so that in case of engine failure even at a higher speed, he can abandon
b) Lower V1, so that stopping distance is reduced
c) He has no option, but to strictly adhere to the optimum V1

78. The effect of downhill is to

a) Increase the acceleration distance to V1
b) Decrease the acceleration distance to V1
 c) Some time increase and some times decrease the distance to V1
79. When the runway length is 6000, elevation at the beginning of the runway is 80 and the end
of the runway is 140, the runway slope is
a) .6% uphill
b) 1%
c) 1% downhill
d) .6%down hill
e) none correct

80. An aircraft flying at 120 Knots has a rate of climb of 300 fpm. Another aircraft flying at 200
Knots has a rate of climb of 400 fpm. The gradient of climb of
a) first aircraft is more than second aircraft
b) second aircraft is more than first aircraft
c) both are the same
d) none correct
(Note: Climb gradient can be calculated by ROC*100*60/SPEED*6080)

81. An aircraft is taking off from an airfield where pressure altitude is 4000 and another aircraft
from an airfield where pressure altitude is 5000. The density altitudes of both airfields are the
same. The take off weight of
a) aircraft taking off from 4000 PA will be more
b) aircraft taking off from 4000 PA will be less
c) both are same
d) none correct

82. The runway length available should be equal to

a) TOR required
b) TOD required
c) EMD required
d) All the above
e) a and c

83. In all mandatory performance requirements

a) 150% tail wind and 50% head wind is to be considered
b) 50 % tail wind and 150 % head wind is to be considered
c) wind as reported is to be used
84. When runway length is not limiting, take off weight can be increased by
a) increasing the flap setting
b) decreasing the flap setting
c) increasing take off speeds
d) a and c
e) b and c

85. Stalling speed Vs min in based on load factor

a) equal to 1G
b) more than 1G
c) less than 1G

86. For a given weight, climb gradient will increase with

a) high V1
b) high V2
c) High Vr

87. The value of minimum Vr is

a) 1.05 Vmca
b) Vmcg
c) 1.2 Vs
d) Vloff

88. To calculate LDR(wet) for dispatch, it is required to

a) Increase ALD(wet) given in FCOM by 67%
b) Increase ALD(dry) by 67%
c) Divide ALD(dry) by 0.6 and then increase by 15%
d) None of the above is correct

89. The quantity of fuel consumed in pounds per hour divided by the thrust of the engine in
pounds is known as
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Propeller efficiency
c) Specific fuel consumption

90. The engine out climb after take off providing adequate obstacle clearance under adverse
circumstances is
a) Gross performance
b) Net flight path
 c) Net performance
91. Indicated mach number is the mach meter reading corrected for
a) Instrument error
b) Position error
c) Instrument and position error

92. True mach number is the mach meter reading corrected for
a) Instrument error
b) Position error
c) Instrument and position error

93. Vmo/MMO is the

a) Maximum speed permitted for all operations
b) Maximum speed permitted for limited operations
c) Maximum speed permitted during take off and landings only

94. With forward CG, the stability of the aeroplane is

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) No effect

95. With the aft CG, the stability of aeroplane is

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) No effect

96. With forward CG position, Stall speed is

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) No effect

97. With aft CG position, fuel consumption is

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) No effect
98. A flight is conducted under ETOPS when suitable Enroute alternate is not available within 60
minutes of flying time as
a) One engine inoperative speed in existing wind and temperature conditions
b) One engine inoperative speed in still air and ISA conditions
c) All engines operative speed in still air and ISA conditions
 d) None of the above is correct
99. Maximum altitude is the altitude at
a) Maximum cruise thrust in level flight
b) Maximum climb thrust with 300 fpm vertical speed
c) Lower of both a and b

100. During the Enroute segment, the net flight path must clear all the obstacles within
a) 20 miles of track
b) 10 miles of track
c) 5 miles of track

Answers

Q. Answe Answe Answe Answe

No. r Q. No. r Q. No. r Q. No. r
1 b 26 b 51 c 76 b
2 b 27 b 52 c 77 c
3 a 28 c 53 b 78 b
4 c 29 c 54 c 79 b
5 a 30 c 55 b 80 a
6 c 31 a 56 a 81 c
7 c 32 c 57 a 82 a
8 a 33 a 58 a 83 a
9 c 34 b 59 b 84 e
10 d 35 b 60 c 85 a
11 c 36 b 61 c 86 a
12 b 37 b 62 c 87 a
13 38 c 63 c 88 c
14 a 39 a 64 b 89 c
15 b 40 b 65 b 90 b
16 c 41 d 66 b 91 a
17 b 42 d 67 a 92 c
18 a 43 b 68 a 93 a
19 c 44 c 69 b 94 a
20 b 45 b 70 a 95 b
21 d 46 b 71 b 96 a
22 d 47 d 72 a 97 a
23 c 48 b 73 b 98 b
24 b 49 b 74 c 99 a
25 a 50 a 75 a 100 c