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ENGINE OPERATIONAL (FEB212015)


COMPETENCE 1 to17
COMPETENCE 1
Question Answer

1. Cylinder oil is used for _________. 2-stroke engine

2. When there is sufficient reason that the relieving officer


is not capable of watch keeping duties, the outgoing in
notify the chief engineer officer
charge of the engineering watch should
________________.
3. Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water
means of heating the feedwater
distillation process as the __________.
4. Prior to taking over the engineering watch, which of
following responsibilities shall an officer of an C/E standing orders of the day
engineering watch rely to the incoming watch?
5. When the machinery spaces are in the periodic
in a ship compartment that has an
unmanned condition, the designated duty officer of the
alarm
engineering watch shall be ________________.
6. Which of the listed operations will cause an
automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to An increase in the suction pressure
restart?
7. Burned gas from each cylinder is directed to the exhaust
2-stroke engine
manifold which is part of___________.
8. The liquid indicator sight glass is generally located in the
high pressure liquid line
____________.
9. In relieving watch, the outgoing duty engineer should check that the reliever is capable to
________________. carry out watch keeping duties

10. Dark exhaust gas from the engine is caused by ______. engine overload

11. Cracked cylinder liner of a 2-stroke engine is indicated hunting of jacket cooling water
by___________. pressure
12. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash
seawater
evaporator are cooled by_________.
13. What is the minimum number of hours of rest in a 24
10 hours
hour period?
14. Parts of the pump used to maintain the alignment of the
bearings
pump are_____.

15. Main engine lube oil sump tank is located __________. at the bottom of the engine

16. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require


Low water level main boiler
priority attention over the other conditions listed?
17. Which of the following statement is/are not safety Keep the valve cap off when not in
precaution of gas welding in acetylene tank? use
18. A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used
moisture from the system
to remove _____.
19. Boiler fire side must be kept free of soot accumulations soot insulates the boiler heating
because ____. surfaces
20. When there is a fire in an electric motor, normally the
secure the electrical supply
first step is to ___________.
21. When maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming
Notify the bridge and ask to shut
from the turbocharger casing. What action should you
the engine down
take first?.
22. Prior to engaging the turning gear, precautions should shut off the starting air supply and
be taken to________________. open the indicator cocks
23. A good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by
eliminating potential fuel sources
_________.
24. Fuel oil enters the main engine cylinder through
fuel oil injector
______________.
25. Too high exhaust gas temperature in all cylinders is
stuck-up fuel injection pump
cause by the following except________.
26. In the refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the
evaporator
latent heat of vaporization in the______.
27. The purpose of wear ring in the centrifugal pump is to minimize wear of impeller and
___________. casing
28. The degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine the size of the holes in the fuel
cylinder depends primarily on _______. nozzle
29. Type of pump which is dependent of the head
centrifugal pump
is______________.
30. The thermostatic expansion valve of a refrigeration by refrigerant pressure and close by
system is opened ____________. spring pressure
31. If the engineer on watch is doubtful of the accuracy of
blow down the gauge glass
water level in the boiler gauge glass, he should ____.
32. The expansion tank for the jacket cooling water which is
maintain constant head in a system
a closed cooling type is used to ___________.
33. In testing the boiler water for chloride content will dissolved salts from sea
indicate the amount of ____. contamination
34. Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur gasketed joints, valve stem, and
through_______. gage glass packing
35. The watch engineer finds the refrigeration compressor secure the compressor at once and
has blown the shaft seal. In this situation, he should close the suction and discharge
__________. valves
36. The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to start and stop the compressor at
____________. preset operating pressures
37. The separation chamber of the purifier is called
bowl
________.
38. A protective device use to prevent over torque during
unloader
starting of an Air Compressor is called_____.
39. To ensure that a bearing is receiving the proper oil sight flow glass in the bearing oil
supply, you should check the _______________. supply line
40. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal
between two stages of a flash type evaporator carryover in the first- stage
indicates_____.
41. As a duty engineer you should know that some
auxiliaries are not designed to handle steam at boiler
pressure. Which of the following devices is usually fitted A steam pressure reducing valve
in the branch line to deliver steam at the correct
pressure?
42. An engine with high exhaust temperature but low
leaking valve
compression is due to_____________ .
43. Not properly vented main engine jacket cooling water
cause overheating
can __________.
44. What condition shall the chief engineer officer consult
with the master whether or not to maintain the same Unsheltered anchorage
engineering watch as when under way?
1 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
45. One of the major components of centrifugal pump
impeller
is___________.
46. What is the proper way of storing an oxygen and Horizontal with the cylinder caps
acetylene cylinders? screwed on
47. Below are some of the causes of high exhaust gas
poor quality of fuel oil
temperature except __________.
48. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical the full breaking strength of the
brakes capable of holding_____. mooring line
49. You would not see a flow through the sight glass of the the lube oil service pumps are
lube oil gravity tank overflow line when the __________. secured
50. As an engineer which action should you normally take Observe general performance of
during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is operating? the boiler
51. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic
electrical conductivity of water
principle of measuring the____.
52. Air compressor cylinder unloader enable the compressor start and come up to speed before
to_______. air compression begins
53. The dehydrator of a refrigeration system is
before expansion valve
located____________.
54. Component of an engine used to increase scavenging
turbocharger
air is called ___________.
55. The watch engineer has been unable to transfer the fuel
oil to the settling tank while underway. As the tank level call out other engineers for
is becoming dangerously low, the engineer should now assistance
__________.
56. An indication of excessive soot accumulation on boiler
high stack temperature
water tubes and economizer surfaces is due to____.
57. An auxiliary diesel generator continues to run after you
block the flow of air supply to the
try to shut down. Your next course of action should be
engine
to _________.
58. The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the
refrigerating effect
evaporator is known as the_______________.
59. How many weeks shall an expection of 70 hours in a
2 weeks
week be granted by the administration?
60. Part of centrifugal disc purifier use to hold discs in place
and directs the flow of dirty liquid to the bottom then to
distributor
the discs as the oil flows upward is called
____________.
61. The high pressure cut-out switch will stop the a stoppage of condenser cooling
refrigeration compressor when there is______. water flow
62. The hours of rest may be divided into no more than two
6 hours
periods, one of which shall be at least how many hours?
63. If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when oil will be lost through the water
operated as a separator is not primed, the______. discharge ports
64. Which of the following is an example of head hazard? I.
Impact from falling, II. Flying Object, III. Hair I, II, and III
entanglement
65. It refers to an internal combustion engine practice,
where there is a necessity of heating the oil, to ensure Pre-heating
easy flow and good atomization.
66. Before the turning gear is engaged, precaution should shut off the starting air supply and
be taken to________________. open the indicator cocks
67. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the Heated sea water is injected into a
operating principle of a flash-type evaporator? vacuum chamber

2 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


68. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the
pressure and temperature
steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure
fluctuations in the entire unit
submerged tube distilling plant will cause _____.
69. Breaking the fuel into fine spray to provide good
atomizing
combustion is called__________.
70. A material use to protect the internal parts of air
compressor from solid particles which can be sucked Intake filter
along with fresh air is called____.
71. While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should
any leaks in the system
check for __________.
72. If an air compressor intercooler pressure rises above
dirty intercooler
normal, it usually indicates __________.
73. Main component of the engine to regulate speed is the
governor
___________.
horizontal run of drain line from the
74. A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type
lowest point at the outlet of the heat
steam trap would be in the__________ -
exchanger
75. Which of the listed types of steam traps operates on the
principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapor Impulse
pressure is reached?
76. If one fuel oil strainer of a duplex unit becomes clogged
change the oil flow over to the clean
while the vessel is steaming at sea, the first action is to
side
__________.
77. The high pressure side of the refrigeration systems
compressor to the expansion valve
starts from the _______.
78. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to
determine the highest temperature to which the oil may in a storage tank
be heated __________.
79. What is the limit that each Administration shall establish
for the purpose of preventing alcohol abuse for masters,
0.05% blood alcohol level (BAC)
officers and other seafarers while performing designated
safety, security and marine environmental duties?
80. Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness that storing all items in their proper
may be kept by __________. place
81. Before using the steam soot blowers of boiler at sea,
raise the water level
you should __________.
82. All portable electric tools should have a ground
electric shock if the tool is shorted
connection to prevent _________.
83. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and
increase compressor efficiency
an aftercooler to___________ .
84. When the engine is running, a leaking air starting valve hot pipe connected to the starting
is indicated by_____. valve
85. If the fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high
shut off the fuel supply
pressure fuel oil leak, you should first ______.
86. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to
secure loose gears
_________.
87. The storage tank for liquid refrigerant in a refrigeration
receiver
system is called __________.
88. The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is
expansion valve to the compressor
considered to exist from the ______.
89. It is a form of energy which crosses the boundary of a
system during a change of state produced by a
Heat
difference of temperature between the system and its
surroundings.
90. In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat
absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the expansion valve
_________.

3 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


91. All persons who are assigned duty as officer in charge of
a watch or as a rating forming part of a watch and those
whose duties involve designated safety, prevention of 77 hours in a 7 day period
pollution, and security duties shall be provided with a
rest period of not less than ________________.
92. The effect of too much heating in the fuel oil of main
stuck plunger and barrel
engine is ___________.
93. What component of the freshwater evaporator on board
use to boil seawater, using the main engine jacket Evaporator
cooling water?
94. Under what condition may the master suspend the
schedule of hours of rest and require a seafarer to Emergency Cases
perform any hours of work necessary?
95. Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system
compressor
by the ___________.
96. The inlet pipe connection of dirty oil in disc type
top of the bowl cover
centrifugal purifier is located at the __________.

97. Stern tube is used to__________. support and seal the propeller shaft

98. Under what condition shall the officer in charge of the


engineering watch shall ensure that permanent air or Restricted visibility
steam pressure is available for sound signals?

99. Cylinder oil is used for _________. 2-stroke engine

100. Before using a boiler compressed air soot blower drain the soot blower pneumatic
system, you should __________. operating lines
The condition and state of
101. Which of the following is the most critical information that readiness of portable fire-
the officer in an engineering watch be relayed during extinguishing equipment and fixed
taking over a watch? fire-extinguishing installations and
fire-detection systems
102. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water
gums, varnishes, and acids
contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally______.
103. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers
frequently starting and stopping
to_____________.
prevent excessive load on the
104. Unloader in air compressor is use to________.
motor during starting
105. What is the most important parameter to check right
lube oil pressure
after any diesel engine is started?
106. Which condition could cause the feed pump of an
Excessive feed water temperature
auxiliary boiler to lose suction?
107. A squeaking sound occurring from within an operating
tight compressor bearings
reciprocating air compressor is an indication of_______.
108. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate the
quality of water produced
____________.
change in the amount of vapor
109. The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends
produced within an enclosed
upon the__________.
chamber
provide an orifice between the high
110. The purpose of expansion valve is to__________. pressure and low pressure side of
the system
111. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric heating of the air leaving the
efficiency normally results from________. cylinders
112. A badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge
constant running of the compressor
valves will cause __________.
113. Which of the conditions listed would cause the stern
A worn or damaged stern tube seal.
tube lube oil header tank level to decrease?
4 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
114. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto cycle does The entire fuel charge is present for
not occur in the theoretical Diesel cycle. ignition.
115. When securing a fuel oil heater, you should cut out the steam before securing
__________. the oil flow
116. Which of the following conditions should be immediately
Oil in the drain inspection tank.
reported to the engineering officer on watch?
117. An engine fails to start even if all temperatures and
fuel is contaminated with water
pressures are normal because______.
118. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering in atomizer is produce heavy black smoke at any
too low, the burner will __________. load condition
119. If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order
oil levels in both compressor
to maintain the box temperatures, a careful watch should
crankcases
be kept on the __________.

COMPETENCE 2
120. If you do not wear goggles and helmet, your chances of
hurt
being ______ will be greater

121. The damage to winches is due to ______. rough handling

122. Never make commentestimate or guess in your Offical


the facts
Logbookbut ______ only
123. A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a
ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the
On the deck outside the pumproom
combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing
the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?
124. Has any person ______ on board during the voyage
died
otherwise than as a result of accident
125. An accident came ______ my mind when I saw the
to
broken case
126. The ship can leave the port ______ the joint
after
inspection

127. He must have had an accidentor he ______ then would have been here

extremely cold air from shore


128. Steam smoke will occur when ______.
passes over warmer water
129. What language shall the issuing country use in medical Official language of the issuing
certificates ? country
130. Which is not a required entry in the ship's Official
Drydocking of the vessel
Logbook?
131. A lashing used to secure two barges side by
scissor wire
sidelashed in an "X" fashionis called a ______.
132. As soon as the ship is berthedyou should lower the
underneath
gangway and stretch a net ______.
133. How can the error be corrected when writing in the Cross out the error with a single line
official log book? and rewrite the entry correctly

134. The most critical time during bunkering is when ______. final topping off is occurring

135. After being rescued from the vessel accident, the people
thank
agreed that they had much to ______.

136. An accidental grounding is called _______. stranding

5 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


137. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or
ship's sweat
damage by ______.

138. The accident ______ caused damage to ship's hull has

139. When oil is discharged overboardan entry is required


Oil Record Book
in the ______.
140. When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, record of
bell book
engine speed is kept in the ______.

141. Let ______ the real fact of the accident me tell you

142. Please get everything ready prior ______ shifting to

143. Please charge the expenses ______ the ship's


into
account
144. Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-
speak English
bridge radiotelephone must be able to __________.
145. According ______ the report, ship hit the wharf during
to
berthing
146. The Mariner's Handbook ______ general information
affecting navigation and is complementary to the Sailing gives
Directions
147. The patches where rust have been removed should be
applied
wiped clean before paint is ______.
148. The ______ showed that said ship complied with the
inspection
requirements of the Convention.
149. In case of accident ______ the risk of sinking, all
effective measures shall be taken to steer clear of the involving/impeding
fairway to avoid ______ the traffic

COMPETENCE 3
because the volume adjustment of
150. Acoustic feedback can arise__________
the speaker is too high
noise in speech-breaks in an SSB-
151. Squelch mode serves to suppress__________
signal
152. The legal type VHF-antenna has a length
1 meter
of__________.
reduce distortion of weak incoming
153. Automatic amplifier regulation is used to__________
signals
154. When onboard channel 16 is used for a shore radio-
simplex
connection, you always work__________.

155. Which wave length applies to a frequency of 2000 kHz? 1500 meters

156. Long distance communication in the HF-bands depends


satellites
on__________
157. The squelch on the control panel of a VHF-sat serves adjust the threshold level for
to__________ admitting signals and refusing noise
158. The typical daylight-frequencies for long distance
8 or 12 MHz-band
transmission are located in the__________
159. What is the recommended connection between antenna
coax cable connection
and VHF?
160. A VHF transmission range is mainly determined
the height of the aerial
by__________

6 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


161. A polarisation of a radio wave is determined by
position of the aerial
a__________
162. What is the maximum range of a VHF radio-set from
200 Nautical Miles
ship to ship at sea.

163. What is meant by frequency? time lapse of vibrations.

164. Before a mariphone is installed on board, __________ a license must be issued

165. The sound-level of the speaker on a MF/HF


radiotelephony installation is adjusted through AF-Gain
_________.

166. With the squelch mode on the VHF__________ undesirable noise is suppressed

COMPETENCE 4
change in the amount of vapor
167. The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends
produced within an enclosed
upon the__________.
chamber
168. How are hydraulic valve lash adjusters on diesel engine
Forced lubrication
rocker arm assemblies being lubricated?
169. When starting the air compressor after long period of
rest the shaft should be rotated prior to restarting to check motor condition
____________.
170. Main component of the engine to regulate speed is the
governor
___________.
171. The high pressure cut-out switch will stop the a stoppage of condenser cooling
refrigeration compressor when there is______. water flow
172. A port and helix duel injection pump having upper and vary the beginning and ending of
lower plunger helixes is designed to _________. injection
173. During the initial pull down of the box temperature in a
refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used
Evaporator pressure regulator
to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor
suction?
174. When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which
Trip the three way dump valve.
of the listed steps should be carried out first?
175. Which of the following statements best describes an oil No shaft liner is needed in the area
lubricated stern tube bearing installation? of the babbitted bearing surface.
176. The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is
expansion valve to the compressor
considered to exist from the ______.
177. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank
At least once a year.
vessels be tested ?
178. What procedure of cooling compressed gases under
After cooling
constant pressure before going to the air reservoir?
179. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers
frequently starting and stopping
to_____________.
180. Breaking the fuel into fine spray to provide good
atomizing
combustion is called__________.
Two stage compressors are
181. Which of the following statement is true concerning the
generally more efficient than single
overall efficiency of air compressors?
stage compressors
182. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the
pressure and temperature
steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure
fluctuations in the entire unit
submerged tube distilling plant will cause _____.
183. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto cycle does The entire fuel charge is present for
not occur in the theoretical Diesel cycle. ignition.

7 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


184. What is the theoritical lift of a pump handling fresh water
10.35 m
at atmospheric pressure?
185. Boiler fire side must be kept free of soot accumulations soot insulates the boiler heating
because ____. surfaces
186. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering in atomizer is produce heavy black smoke at any
too low, the burner will __________. load condition
187. An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak
compression set or wear
when it has lost its interference fit due to____.
188. A type of turbocharger being used for small high-speed
engine that the gas flows away from turbine axis rotation axial
is called______.
189. The ability of lubricating oil to resist viscosity changes
during temperature changes is indicated by viscosity index number
the________.
190. The expansion tank for the jacket cooling water which is
maintain constant head in a system
a closed cooling type is used to ___________.

191. Cylinder oil is used for _________. 2-stroke engine

192. What will be the resulting effect if an indicator diagram


Poor combustion and reduction in
was taken at a time when the exhaust valve is leaking
power
badly on suction stroke?
193. If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service fail to work, but the compressor
air receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading having no load will start with little or
systems will ______________. no difficulty
194. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate the
quality of water produced
____________.

195. Stern tube is used to__________. support and seal the propeller shaft

196. What do we call the storage tank for liquid refrigerant? Condenser

197. If an air compressor intercooler pressure rises above


dirty intercooler
normal, it usually indicates __________.
198. Type of pump which is dependent of the head
centrifugal pump
is______________.
bilge system will lose vacuum and
199. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not
prevents the other bilges from being
properly seat, the__________.
pumped out
200. What you call the power produced by a cylinder which
Indicated Power
can be measured by an engine indicator mechanism?
201. How will you operate a low-pressure air compressor in By carrying out periodical
order to prevent leaky valve? preventive maintenance
202. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve
used in a hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by The movement of any system
10 bars, which of the following statements describes the actuator will now be slower.
result of the set point being lowered?
203. What equipment is required when processing bilge slops 15 PPM Oil Content Monitor of Oily
for overboard discharge? Water Separator
204. The storage tank for liquid refrigerant in a refrigeration
receiver
system is called __________.
205. The thermostatic expansion valve of a refrigeration by refrigerant pressure and close by
system is opened ____________. spring pressure
206. Component of an engine used to increase scavenging
turbocharger
air is called ___________.
207. Most marine heat exchangers are of the shell-and-tube
Fabricated steel, cast iron or
type. Which of the following materials listed below do the
occasionally aluminum bronze
cylindrical shell are made of ?
8 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
208. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical the full breaking strength of the
brakes capable of holding_____. mooring line
By inserting a feeler gage between
209. How will you check the alignment of coupling faces? the coupling faces at various point
around the circumference
210. The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the
refrigerating effect
evaporator is known as the_______________.
211. Air compressor cylinder unloader enable the compressor start and come up to speed before
to_______. air compression begins
212. Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system
compressor
by the ___________.
213. Which of the listed types of steam traps operates on the
principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapor Impulse
pressure is reached?
214. A protective device use to prevent over torque during
unloader
starting of an Air Compressor is called_____.
215. What is the process of throttling the refrigerant through
Irreversible adiabatic process
the expansion valve in a vapor refrigeration cycle?
216. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually
over a long period of time, you should replace the _____ wear rings
.
217. Passages are drilled at the trunk-type diesel engine
crankshaft in order to provide lubricating oil in the piston rod bearings
______________.
218. In order to properly remove air from the casing of a
vent valve attached to the casing at
centrifugal pump when starting, the pump should have
the top of the volute
a_____. .
219. Parts of the pump used to maintain the alignment of the
bearings
pump are_____.
220. In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat
absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the expansion valve
_________.
221. What component of the freshwater evaporator on board
use to boil seawater, using the main engine jacket Evaporator
cooling water?
222. Fuel oil enters the main engine cylinder through
fuel oil injector
______________.
223. Which of the following centrifugal pump components
Volute
converts the liquid velocity to pressure?
224. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic
electrical conductivity of water
principle of measuring the____.
225. What indicates a knocking noise from one cylinder of an
a loose valve plate for that cylinder
operating reciprocating air compressor?
226. If an air compressor inter-cooler pressure rises above
compressor discharge
normal, it usually indicates ____________.
prevent excessive load on the
227. Unloader in air compressor is use to________.
motor during starting
228. Part of centrifugal disc purifier use to hold discs in place
and directs the flow of dirty liquid to the bottom then to
distributor
the discs as the oil flows upward is called
____________.
229. After the installation of new impeller wear rings, by check the shaft and impeller
pressing them onto the pump impeller hub, it is assembly on centers to see if the
advisable to_____. . ring surfaces are true
horizontal run of drain line from the
230. A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type
lowest point at the outlet of the heat
steam trap would be in the__________ -
exchanger

9 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


231. When securing a distillate pump on a low pressure fresh
Trip the three-way solenoid dump
water evaporator, which of the listed steps should be
valve
carried out first?
232. If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor
The compressor will vibrate
are loose, which of the conditions below will occur?
233. When in operation, what could be possible cause why a
reciprocating air compressor is running roughly and foundation bolts are loose
vibrating excessively?
234. A large low speed diesel engine has developed inserting shims between the
excessive piston clearance and can be restored crankpin bearing box & the
by_______ connecting rod foot
235. A badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge
constant running of the compressor
valves will cause __________.

236. Main engine lube oil sump tank is located __________. at the bottom of the engine

237. If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when oil will be lost through the water
operated as a separator is not primed, the______. discharge ports
238. For proper air temperature control in an air conditioning
Chilled water system supply
system using chilled water circulation, which parameter
temperature
should remain constant regardless of load changes?
239. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate
quality of water produced
the______.
240. A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed container
in which water has been heated to a temperature of 100
Both pressure and temperature will
degrees C. If additional thermal energy is imparted,
rise
what changes will occur to the pressure and temperature
inside the container?
241. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal
between two stages of a flash type evaporator carryover in the first- stage
indicates_____.
242. The turbo charger delivers air into the cylinder at
pressure greater than atmospheric
________.
243. If you are operating a centrifugal water service pump
pump discharge capacity is reduced
with worn wear rings, the____ .
244. Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering
axial piston type
systems are of the ______ .
245. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and
increase compressor efficiency
an aftercooler to___________ .
246. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water
gums, varnishes, and acids
contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally______.
due to the inability of this type of
247. A centrifugal pump requires priming____________. pump to lift water to cover the
suction or eye of the impeller
248. An emergency bilge suction is required
machinery space bilges
for________________.
249. An important point of consideration when replacing a dry select the proper size of filter so
type intake filter on an air compressor is to____. that air flow is not restricted
retain the lube oil as long as
250. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil
possible before it recirculates
sump tank should _______ .
through the system
251. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash
seawater
evaporator are cooled by_________.
252. It is a form of energy which crosses the boundary of a
system during a change of state produced by a
Heat
difference of temperature between the system and its
surroundings.
253. The separation chamber of the purifier is called
bowl
________.
10 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
254. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated
pump would overheat
with the discharge valve closed the____________.
255. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric heating of the air leaving the
efficiency normally results from________. cylinders
256. What will cause in dirty intercoolers on an air
increased motor current
compressor?
257. Why the fuel is be circulated before lighting off a cold To heat the fuel enough for proper
boiler? atomization
258. Burned gas from each cylinder is directed to the exhaust
2-stroke engine
manifold which is part of___________.
259. One of the major components of centrifugal pump
impeller
is___________.
260. If a crankcase explosion has occurred in a diesel engine, The crankcase should remain
and the crankcase remains intact, which precautions unopened until the engine has
should be observed? cooled
261. The liquid indicator sight glass is generally located in the
high pressure liquid line
____________.
262. In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is first and second stage flash
vaporized in the_________. chambers
263. What usually indicates if an air compressor inter-cooler
a clogged intercooler
pressure rises above normal?
264. The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling low pressure steam admitted to the
plant is carried out by______. feedwater heater
provide an orifice between the high
265. The purpose of expansion valve is to__________. pressure and low pressure side of
the system
266. The degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine the size of the holes in the fuel
cylinder depends primarily on _______. nozzle
267. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a Vapor pockets formed in the suction
centrifugal pump? flow stream.
268. A squeaking sound occurring from within an operating
tight compressor bearings
reciprocating air compressor is an indication of_______.
269. In which of the listed types of evaporators is brine
Solo-shell low pressure
density control most important?
if the bilges become flooded and
270. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically
they can not be emptied by any
used____________.
other means
Reduce the possibility of
271. Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams ,
overheating the top compression
which serve to________.
ring
272. A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used
moisture from the system
to remove _____.
273. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through stop-check valves installed in the
the bilge system is prevented by______________. bilge suction manifolds

274. Which engine has the highest exhaust temperature? Four-stroke-cycle

275. In the refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the


evaporator
latent heat of vaporization in the______.
276. Which of the listed operations will cause an
automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to An increase in the suction pressure
restart?
277. The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to start and stop the compressor at
____________. preset operating pressures

11 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


278. A material use to protect the internal parts of air
compressor from solid particles which can be sucked Intake filter
along with fresh air is called____.
279. Which of the following statements represents the proper Direction of flow should be from
relative direction of flow through a globe valve? below the seat.
280. The high pressure side of the refrigeration systems
compressor to the expansion valve
starts from the _______.
281. Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water
means of heating the feedwater
distillation process as the __________.
282. If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes
through the internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors corrosion of the nozzle tip
may be damaged by _________.
283. Most refrigerants used in vapor compression
refrigeration sytem originated primarily from which of the Ethane and methane
following base molecules?
the ability of oil to separate from
284. Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _____.
water
285. The purpose of wear ring in the centrifugal pump is to minimize wear of impeller and
___________. casing
286. An oil fog lubrication system is recommended high speed continuous operation of
for______. roller bearings
287. The intake air for the turbocharged engine is cooled to
increase mean effective pressure
_________.
288. Main air compressor is used to compress air for starting
25 to 30 bar
of main engine at a pressure of _____ bar.
289. The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a center the steam piston in the
duplex reciprocating pump is to _____ . cylinders
290. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the Heated sea water is injected into a
operating principle of a flash-type evaporator? vacuum chamber
291. One of the main functions of wear rings, as used in a prevent wear of the pump casing
centrifugal pumps is to ____ . and impeller
292. It refers to an internal combustion engine practice,
where there is a necessity of heating the oil, to ensure Pre-heating
easy flow and good atomization.
enable the pump and its suction line
293. In a centrifugal pumps operating with a high suction lift,
to remain primed prior to starting
foot valves are primarily designed to______. .
the pump
294. The dehydrator of a refrigeration system is
before expansion valve
located____________.
295. The inlet pipe connection of dirty oil in disc type
top of the bowl cover
centrifugal purifier is located at the __________.
296. Which of the listed pumps is not a positive displacement
Centrifugal
pump?
297. Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur gasketed joints, valve stem, and
through_______. gage glass packing
298. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped bleed off all stored energy from the
with accumulators, you should________. accumulators

299. Tubing is sized by_________. nominal outside diameter

300. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is delay the compression process until
to________. . the motor is up to its speed
301. Differential pistons are used in reciprocating air accomplish more than stage of
compressor to__________. compression in one cylinder

12 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


302. A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its
statically balanced
centerline is said to be ________.

COMPETENCE 5
if the bilges become flooded and
303. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically
they can not be emptied by any
used____________.
other means
bilge system will lose vacuum and
304. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not
prevent other bilges from being
properly seat, the _______.
pumped out
the ability of oil to separate from
305. Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _____.
water
306. The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a center the steam piston in the
duplex reciprocating pump is to _____ . cylinders
307. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually
over a long period of time, you should replace the _____ wear rings
.
308. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a Vapor pockets formed in the suction
centrifugal pump? flow stream.
309. After the installation of new impeller wear rings, by
check the shaft and impeller
pressing them onto the pump impeller hub, it is
assembly on centers to see if the
advisable to_____.
ring surfaces are true
.
310. An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak
compression set or wear
when it has lost its interference fit due to____.
311. The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling low pressure steam admitted to the
plant is carried out by______. feedwater heater
312. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped bleed off all stored energy from the
with accumulators, you should________. accumulators
313. What is the purpose of the relief valves installed in the To protect the pump from high
fuel service pumps? discharge pressure
314. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated
pump would overheat
with the discharge valve closed the____________.
315. What equipment is required when processing bilge slops 15 PPM Oil Content Monitor of Oily
for overboard discharge? Water Separator
316. Most pump manufacturers of pumps recommend that
one size larger than the pump
the SUCTION piping dimension of centrifugal pumps be
suction nozzle
_________.
317. The precaution that should be observed to prevent
close the recirculating valve when
damage of the service pump when warming up the fuel
atomizing temperature is reached
system to the boiler is to ________________.
318. What is the theoritical lift of a pump handling fresh water
10.35 m
at atmospheric pressure?
319. If you are operating a centrifugal water service pump
pump discharge capacity is reduced
with worn wear rings, the____ .
320. The bilge system has been performing well; however,
Attempt to pump out another bilge
the aft starboard engine room bilge-well suddenly fails to
well to determine if the entire
be pumped out. Which statement should be done first to
system is affected
determine the cause?
321. What auxiliary machine or device is used to segregate
oil and water accumulated in the engine room before it is Oily bilge separator
being discharge overboard?
322. An oil fog lubrication system is recommended high speed continuous operation of
for______. roller bearings
323. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank
At least once a year.
vessels be tested ?

13 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


324. The oil separator trap is located between the/or
Near accumulator drum
_________.
325. Which of the listed pumps is not a positive displacement
Centrifugal
pump?
326. If condensate is accumulated in the steam side of a fuel
corrosion
oil heater, it could result in _______________.
327. When the steering wheel is turned, oil is directed to the varying the eccentricity of a floating
steering gear rams by ___. ring or angle of a tilting box
328. In a centrifugal pumps operating with a high suction lift, enable the pump and its suction line
foot valves are primarily designed to______. to remain primed prior to starting
. the pump

329. Tubing is sized by_________. nominal outside diameter

due to the inability of this type of


330. A centrifugal pump requires priming____________. pump to lift water to cover the
suction or eye of the impeller
331. When there is no movement of the rams on an electro-
hydraulic steering gear, the tilting box of the running In the neutral position
pump is _________.
332. When securing a distillate pump on a low pressure fresh
Trip the three-way solenoid dump
water evaporator, which of the listed steps should be
valve
carried out first?
333. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through stop-check valves installed in the
the bilge system is prevented by______________. bilge suction manifolds
334. Which of the following devices, when used on an
electro-hydraulic steering gear, keeps the movement of The follow-up gear
the rudder closely in step with the steering wheel?
bilge system will lose vacuum and
335. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not
prevents the other bilges from being
properly seat, the__________.
pumped out
336. Which of the following statements best describes an oil No shaft liner is needed in the area
lubricated stern tube bearing installation? of the babbitted bearing surface.
337. The reason why fuel is heated before atomizing is to
decrease its viscosity
__________.
338. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve
used in a hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by The movement of any system
10 bars, which of the following statements describes the actuator will now be slower.
result of the set point being lowered?
339. If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor
The compressor will vibrate
are loose, which of the conditions below will occur?
340. Which of the following statements represents the proper Direction of flow should be from
relative direction of flow through a globe valve? below the seat.
341. In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is first and second stage flash
vaporized in the_________. chambers
342. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is
delay the compression process until
to________.
the motor is up to its speed
.
343. What procedure must be formed before doing any
Bleed off the energy stored in the
maintenance on a hydraulic system, i.e. there is still
accumulator
stored energy in the accumulator?
344. What happen if fuel is injected too early in the injection
Early detonation & loss of power
cycle?
345. An emergency bilge suction is required
machinery space bilges
for________________.
346. One of the main functions of wear rings, as used in a prevent wear of the pump casing
centrifugal pumps is to ____ . and impeller

14 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


347. Which of the following centrifugal pump components
Volute
converts the liquid velocity to pressure?
348. What is the primary purpose of heater used in To reduce fuel viscosity for proper
pressurized fuel oil system? atomization
349. In order to properly remove air from the casing of a
centrifugal pump when starting, the pump should have vent valve attached to the casing at
a_____. the top of the volute
.
retain the lube oil as long as
350. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil
possible before it recirculates
sump tank should _______ .
through the system
351. An important point of consideration when replacing a dry select the proper size of filter so
type intake filter on an air compressor is to____. that air flow is not restricted
352. Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering
axial piston type
systems are of the ______ .
353. Carbon adheres on the inside surface of fuel oil heaters
the excessive fuel oil temperatures
because______________.
354. The ability of lubricating oil to resist viscosity changes
during temperature changes is indicated by viscosity index number
the________.
355. When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which
Trip the three way dump valve.
of the listed steps should be carried out first?
356. What would result if the fuel used for boiler burners has
Clogged atomizer tips
sediments?
357. The result of a too low fuel temperature flowing to the
heavy black exhaust
burners is the ___________.
358. The following liquids can ordinarily be discharged
overboard without being processed through an oily water Segregated ballast
separator is ______.

COMPETENCE 6
359. On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor
will only attain half speed when the generator fields are
raising the generator engine speed
fully excited. Speeds above this are obtained by______
.
360. In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field
excitation will cause the DC propulsion motor to increase in speed
_________ .
361. To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter in hook the jaws of the instrument
checking current flow, you must first________ . around the insulated conductor
362. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate
severely and eventually trips out on the reverse power the alternator was operating out of
relay. The cause of the vibration was a result of synchronism
______________________.
363. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate
severely and eventually trips out on the reverse power the alternator was operating out of
relay. The cause of the vibration was a result synchronism
of_________.
364. If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops the motor will continue to run if it is
to a single-phase (one supply line open) ____. not heavily loaded
365. The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of
transformer
electromagnetic induction is the________ .
cleaning the windings, if accessible,
366. Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers should
with a vacuum cleaner or very low
include ____.
pressure air
prevent the motor from restarting
367. A low-voltage protection circuit as used in the electric
automatically on restoration of
motor starting equipment, will ____.
voltage

15 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


368. Loss of residual magnetism in an alternator or generator using a storage battery or battery
can be corrected by _____? charger to flash the field
prevent excessive current from
369. The purpose of having low voltage protection for an
developing as it is attempting to
electric motor circuit is to ___.
deliver its required horsepower
370. The Wheatstone bridge is a precision measuring
resistance
instrument utilizing the principle of changes in______ .
371. The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier
provide unidirectional current to the
circuit, will_________.
load
.
372. In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field
excitation will cause the DC propulsion motor to increase in speed
_________ .
373. Loss of residual magnetism in an alternator or generator using a storage battery or battery
can be corrected for by _____? charger to flash the field
374. Which of the damages listed can occur to the
Rapid corrosion of switch
components of a winch master control switch, if the
components.
cover gasket becomes deteriorated?
375. In electronic circuits, DC voltage can be positive (+) or
Analogue or digital circuitry
negative (-) when measured with respect to the
"common" bus
_________.
376. Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used with a printed required to desolder components
circuit board when______. on the board
377. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with
the switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kw
meter currently indicates 163.6 KW, with a power factor 23.2 KW
of 0.7. If the power factor increases to 0.8, the KW meter
reading would increase by______.
378. An ohmmeter reading of 'zero' ohm between the ends of
a wire conductor would provide a positive indication continuity
of______.
379. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an short the test leads and calibrate
ohmmeter, you should _____. the meter reading to zero
380. Protection against sustained overloads occurring in
molded-case circuit breakers is provided by thermal acting trip
a/an_______.
381. In general, polyphase induction motors can be started
across-the-line starters
on full line voltage by means of ________ .
382. A molded-case circuit breaker provides protection
electromagnet
against short circuits by using a/an______ .
383. Electric propulsion coupling excitation is reduced at slow
prevent coupling overheating
speed to ________ .
384. In a running electric motor, one uses a sound listening
Ball bearing
bar to detect fault in _______________.
385. When replacing a defective transformer in a parallel
The transformer connections must
transformer configuration, which of the following actions
be made as before with regard to
must be carried out to insure proper operation of the
the indicated polarity
equipment it serves?
386. An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular
The temperature of the machine at
piece of electric instrument. In addition to the resistance
the time the resistance reading was
reading, what information listed below should be entered
taken
in the electrical log?
387. Which of the motors for the devices listed below is fitted
Winch
with an instantaneous overload relay?
388. To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter in hook the jaws of the instrument
checking current flow, you must first________ . around the insulated conductor
389. While underway onboard a DC diesel-elecric drive ship,
notify the bridge that you will need
you notice excessive sparking of the brushes on the
to slow down
mainpropulsion motor. You should first_____.

16 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


390. Moisture as a result of condensation occurring inside of
the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced using strip heaters inside the switch
by______ box
.
391. Modern DC generators are fitted with commutating poles
Reduce sparking
to _____________.
392. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing
lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer synchroscope is defective or broken
approaches the 0. This would indicate that the ____.
393. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short
low or zero voltage drop reading,
circuit, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor
while the other coils will have higher
coils through the collector rings. A coil having a short
readings
circuit will be indicated by a_____.
394. Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering
The foil wire may become loose
iron when soldering or desoldering components on a
and separate from the circuit board.
printed circuit board?
395. When a battery is continuously exposed to low
temperature, the best procedure to keep it from freezing keep the battery fully charged
is to _____.

396. Any electric motor can be constructed to be ___ explosion proof

reduce the load to near zero, trip


397. The proper sequence of securing alternator in service
the circuit breaker, stop the prime
are _______________.
mover
398. Prior to using an analog type ohmmeter, the leads are
purposely shorted together. Which of the following
actions should be taken if, when adjusting to zero The batteries should be replaced
ohms, the indicating needle can not be returned to zero
on the scale?
399. Which of the following statements represents the main Contactors can handle heavier
difference between a relay and a contactor? loads than relays.
400. AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation cause high currents to be induced
without tripping the circuit breaker. This will ____. in the field windings
401. Protection against sustained overloads occurring in
molded-case circuit breakers is provided by thermal acting trip
a/an_______.
402. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing
lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer synchroscope is defective or broken
approaches the 0. This would indicate that the ____.
403. Magnet chatter or 'pumping' occurring in a magnetic chattering contacts on the control
contactor can be caused by___________. relay
404. When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt disconnect each shunt field coil
field coil is grounded in a DC machine, you must____. before testing
405. If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator
lose its load and tend to overspeed
operating in parallel, that alternator will ____.
406. The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high
tendency for the motor to overheat
on the synchronous motor will result in a ____.
407. When replacing a defective transformer in a parallel
The transformer connections must
transformer configuration, which of the following actions
be made same as before with
must be carried out to ensure proper operation of the
regard to the indicated polarity
equipment it serves?
408. The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay
increases magnetic pull on the
tends to trip may be decreased by raising the plunger
plunger and requires less current to
further into the magnetic circuit of the relay. This action
trip the relay
___.
normal temperature rise above the
409. The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the
standard ambient temperature at
______________. .
rated load
410. An open shunt field in a direct current machine may be
located by connecting the field circuit to an external one line terminal to each coil lead in
power source, equal to the rated field voltage or less, succession
and tested with a voltmeter from _____________.
17 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
trip out the generator when there is
411. Undervoltage trips are frequently installed on
insufficient voltage being delivered
switchboard circuit breakers to ___.
to distribution circuits
412. The ideal frequency of an incoming generator
synchroscope pointer for closing the ACB is Slightly higher than bus frequency
_______________.
413. When the synchroscope pointer rotates in a fast
direction (clockwise), it indicates that the governor Higher than the bus frequency
frequency of incoming generator is ______________.
414. The number of cells in a 12 volt lead-acid battery
six cells
is_______.
415. An AC generator panel is fitted with two synchronizing
lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the
the generators are out of phase and
synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one
one lamp is burned out
synchronizing lamp is bright while the other remains
dark, this indicates that ___.
416. You are reconnecting to a three-phase induction motor check the supply line phase
to the supply line. To prevent possible damage to the sequence, and motor rotation with
load, due to the wrong direction of rotation, you should appropriate indicators, then connect
____. correspondingly marked leads
417. An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage
of abnormal amount of current is known as a/an_______ short circuit
.
418. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an short the test leads and calibrate
ohmmeter, you should _____. the meter reading to zero
419. The shunt use in an ammeter should be connected series with the load and in parallel
in_______. . with the meter movement

420. Any electric motor can be constructed to be ___ explosion proof

421. A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested the ammeter in series and the
using the voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the voltmeter in parallel with the
meters should be connected with _________. resistance
422. When using an ohmmeter to test a semiconductor diode,
you find a low resistance in both the forward and reverse
short
bias directions. This indicates that the diode has
a/an_____.
423. There is no brilliant change in synchro lamps when the
synchroscope pointer is in the phase of Stationary
_____________.
424. Which of the following physical characteristics does a
wound- rotor induction motor possess that a squirrel Slip rings
cage motor has none?
425. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a
electromagnet
soft iron core is the description of a simple______.
426. Which of the following conditions will occur if the
The brake will be set by spring
solenoid coil burns on a cargo winch with an electrical
force.
brake?
427. The most commonly used electric motor on board is
3 phase cage-rotor induction motor
_______________.
428. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel
engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a
synchronous generator operating in parallel; the
hunting
generator rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or
behind its normal position as it rotates. This condition is
sometimes called__________.
429. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with
the switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kw
meter currently indicates 163.6 KW, with a power factor 23.2 KW
of 0.7. If the power factor increases to 0.8, the KW meter
reading would increase by______.
430. In general, polyphase induction motors can be started
across-the-line starters
on full line voltage by means of ________ .

18 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


431. Which of the following statements represents an To provide DC power for a main
application of a silicon controlled rectifier? propulsion motor.
so as not to load down the circuit
432. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should
and obtain erroneous voltage
use a high impedance multimeter _______.
readings
433. On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the
following conditions would indicate that the propulsion
Excessive vibration of the vessel
motor had cut-out from synchronization with the
propulsion generator?
434. Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to
maintain a wet-cell, lead-acid, storage battery in a fully Trickle charging circuit
charged state during long periods of disuse?
435. Across the line starters are used with AC motors to
High starting torque
provide ___________.
436. If the bearings of an electrical generator are falling more
check the bearing insulating block
frequently than expected and the lubricating oil is
on one end of the unit
sludging then you should ____.
437. In an AC synchronous motor electric propulsion plant,
prime mover speed
propeller speed is controlled by varying the_____ .
438. Relative to the direction of rotation, a DC motor
commutating pole has the same polarity as the Main pole preceding
____________..
439. On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor
will only attain half speed when the generator fields are raising the generator engine speed
fully excited. Speeds above this are obtained by______ .
440. The frequency output of an operating alternator is
relative speed of the rotor poles
controlled by the________.
441. The method used to produce electron emission in most
thermionic emission
vacuum tubes is known as __________.
442. Regarding an induction motor, the power developed by
the rotor automatically adjusts itself to the Power required to drive the load
____________.
443. Two DC drive propulsion motors provide input to a single
output reduction gear. Upon relieving the watch, you
notice that the starboard motor indicators show zero
a tripped reverse current relay
current compared to normal voltage and current
indicated on the port motor. The problem with the
starboard motor could be_____.
444. An open primary coil in a simple transformer will be No voltage on the output of the
indicated by which of the listed conditions? secondary coil.
445. The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a
speed control
wound-rotor induction motor provides for_______ .
prevent excessive current from
446. The purpose of having low voltage protection for an
developing as it is attempting to
electric motor circuit is to ___.
deliver its required horsepower
447. When insulation failure produces a low resistance
current path between two conductors, the resulting a short circuit
condition is known as ___.
448. Magnet chatter or 'pumping' occurring in a magnetic chattering contacts on the control
contactor can be caused by ______________ relay
449. The immovable part of an electric motor is called
Stator
_______________.
450. While underway onboard a DC diesel-elecric drive ship,
notify the bridge that you will need
you notice excessive sparking of the brushes on the
to slow down
main propulsion motor. You should first_____.
prevent the motor from restarting
451. A low-voltage protection circuit as used in the electric
automatically on restoration of
motor starting euquipment, will ____.
voltage

19 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


452. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel
engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a
synchronous generator operating in parallel; the
hunting
generator rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or
behind its normal position as it rotates. This condition is
sometimes called__________.
453. Which of the following statements is true concerning a The motor is started as an induction
polyphase synchronous propulsion motor? motor.
454. One factor that determines the frequency of an
number of magnetic poles
alternator is the_______. .
455. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the
static charge of the machine may
windings of large machines should be grounded for
give a false reading
about 15 minutes just prior to the test, because the ___.
456. The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier provide unidirectional current to the
circuit, will_________. . load
457. On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the
following conditions would indicate that the propulsion
Excessive vibration of the vessel
motor had cut-out from synchronization with the
propulsion generator?
458. A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an
thermistor
increase in temperature is known as a______ .
459. Autotransformer starters or compensators are
reduce the voltage applied to the
sometimes used with polyphase induction motors
motor during the starting period
to_______ .
460. A molded-case circuit breaker provides protection
electromagnet
against short circuits by using a/an______ .
461. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the
static charge of the machine may
windings of large machines should be grounded for
give a false reading
about 15 minutes before the test because the _______.
462. While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one
The micro switch at the generator
ship's service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant
throttle trip vibrated open, allowing
suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring
the main breaker to open via the
power, the cause for this casualty was attributed to
under voltage trip.
which of the following faults?
463. The shunt use in an ammeter should be connected
series with the load and in parallel
in_______.
with the meter movement
.
464. One factor that determines the frequency of an
alternator is the_______. number of magnetic poles
.
465. The function of no fuse breaker is to isolate the defective
circuit from the system so as to protect it from Overcurrent
__________.
466. Moisture as a result of condensation occurring inside of
using strip heaters inside the switch
the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced
box
by______ .
467. The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of
transformer
electromagnetic induction is the________ .
468. The air gap in an induction motor should be checked
periodically with a feeler gauge, to prevent possible excessive bearing wear
____.
469. Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure
Transducer
and convert it to an electrical signal?
470. When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a
large motor, the initial dip of the pointer toward zero is the capacitance of the windings
caused by ___.
471. Autotransformer starters or compensators are
reduce the voltage applied to the
sometimes used with polyphase induction motors
motor during the starting period
to_______ .
472. The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a
speed control
wound-rotor induction motor provides for_______ .

20 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


473. The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the normal temperature rise above the
______________. standard ambient temperature at
. rated load
474. Electric propulsion coupling excitation is reduced at slow
prevent coupling overheating
speed to ________ .
475. In an AC synchronous motor electric propulsion plant,
prime mover speed
propeller speed is controlled by varying the_____ .
476. Before starting an electric motor after a long stoppage,
Dust free
the operator shall ensure that it is _______________.
477. While starting a main propulsion synchronous motor, the
ammeter pegs out at maximum and then returns to the
motor has started properly
proper value after synchronization. This indicates
the_______.
478. A motor using a rheostat in the motor circuit to vary the
wound-rotor induction motor
speed is called______ .
479. Which of the following statements represents the main Contactors can handle heavier
difference between a relay and a contactor? loads than relays.
480. If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops the motor will continue to run if it is
to a single-phase (one supply line open)____. not heavily loaded
481. When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt disconnect each shunt field coil
field coil is grounded in a DC machine, you must ____. before testing
482. A tubular fuse should always be removed from a fuse
fuse pullers
panel with ________. .
483. Which of the following physical characteristics does a
wound- rotor induction motor possess that a squirrel Slip rings
cage motor has none?
484. A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested the ammeter in series and the
using the voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the voltmeter in parallel with the
meters should be connected with _________. resistance
485. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate
severely and eventually trips out on the reverse power the alternator was operating out of
relay. The cause of the vibration was a result synchronism
of_________.
486. The induction motor usually used on board has two main
Stator and rotator
components, namely _______________.
487. The leads from an ohmmeter are attached to the leads
of an AC motor field coil. A reading of infinity open field coil
indicates_______.
488. While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one
The micro switch at the generator
ship's service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant
throttle trip vibrated open, allowing
suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring
the main breaker to open via the
power, the cause for this casualty was attributed to
under voltage trip.
which of the following faults?
489. An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal small generator mounted on the
from a_______ engine
490. A grounded switch or cables will be indicated by a
zero
megohmmeter reading of ___.

491. What is the main movable part of an electric motor? Rotor

buoyancy of the indicator in the


492. A hydrometer measures specific gravity by comparing liquid in water with the buoyancy of
the ____. the same indicator in the liquid
being measured
493. When a battery is continuously exposed to low
temperatures, the best procedure to keep it from keep the battery fully charged
freezing is to _____.

21 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


494. When replacing a power transistor fitted with a heat sink
in a circuit, a coating of silicone grease is applied
provide maximum heat transfer
between the transistor case and the heat sink. This is
done to________.
495. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short
low or zero voltage drop reading,
circuits, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor
while the other coils will have higher
coils through the collector rings. A coil having a short
readings
circuit will be indicated by a_____.
496. Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in
an area of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating
second bimetal element
temperatures, an ambient compensating element must
be used. This element consists of a _____________.
497. A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an
thermistor
increase in temperature is known as a______ .
498. You can determine if a circuit breaker has tripped by examining the position of the
____ handle
499. Prior to using an analog type ohmmeter, the leads are
purposely shorted together. Which of the following
actions should be taken if, when adjusting to zero The batteries should be replaced
ohms, the indicating needle can not be returned to zero
on the scale?
500. The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch automatically hold the load as soon
functions____________. as current to the machine is shut off
501. A motor using a rheostat in the motor circuit to vary the
wound-rotor induction motor
speed is called______ .
502. When the non-essential load has been removed from
the feeder system but the service generator remains
Overcurrent tripping device
overloaded, this device automatically activates the
_____________.
503. Two DC drive propulsion motors provide input to a
singleoutput reduction gear. Upon relieving the watch,
you notice that the starboard motor indicators show zero
a tripped reverse current relay
currentcompared to normal voltage and current indicated
on theport motor. The problem with the starboard motor
couldbe_____.
504. Which of the following statements represents the
Be certain that the replacement
important factor that must be considered when replacing
diode is the same polarity as the
a faulty diode in a generators excitation field rectifier
one removed
assembly?
505. An AC generator panel is fitted with two synchronizing
lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the
the generators are out of phase and
synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one
one lamp is burned out
synchronizing lamp is bright while the other remains
dark, this indicates that ___.
506. If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the
starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to starting winding will burn out
open once the motor is in operation, the ____.
507. The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on
tendency for the motor to overheat
the synchronous motor will result in a ____.
automatically hold the load as soon
508. The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch
as current to the machine is shut
functions____________.
off
509. AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation cause high currents to be induced
without tripping the circuit breaker. This will ____. in the field windings
510. The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay
increases magnetic pull on the
tends to trip may be decreased by raising the plunger
plunger and requires less current to
further into the magnetic circuit of the relay. This action
trip the relay
___.
511. Which of the following electric motors would be the
safest and most reliable to use on the main deck of a Watertight motors
vessel in foul weather conditions?

22 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


512. The air gap in an induction motor should be checked
excessive bearing wear
periodically with a feeler gage, to prevent possible ____.
513. The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator
exciter output voltage
is controlled by the____ .
514. When a battery is continuously exposed to low
temperature, the best procedure to keep it from freezing keep the battery fully charged
is to _____.
515. You are reconnecting to a three-phase induction motor check the supply line phase
to the supply line. To prevent possible damage to the sequence, and motor rotation with
load, due to the wrong direction of rotation, you should appropriate indicators, then connect
____. correspondingly marked leads
516. The leads from a ohmmeter are attached to the leads of
an AC motor field coil. A reading of infinity is obtained open field coil
indicating a/an_______.
517. An ohmmeter reading of 'zero' ohms between the ends
of a wire conductor would provide a positive indication continuity
of______.
518. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel
engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a
synchronous generator operating in parallel; the
Hunting
generator rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or
behind its normal position as it rotates. This condition is
sometimes called _____________.
519. Choose from the equipment below which are NOT fitted
Overvoltage trip device
to the generator trouble detecting system is an _______.
520. On a main switchboard, If all three ground detection
lamps burn with equal intensity when the test button is The bulbs are operating properly
depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated?
521. What is the common type of AC motor used onboard
Series-wound
which can also operates on direct current?
522. The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator
exciter output voltage
is controlled by the____ .
523. An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage
of abnormal amount of current is known as a/an_______ short circuit
.
524. Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in
an area of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating
second bimetal element
temperatures, an ambient compensating element must
be used. This element consists of a _____________.
525. On a main switchboard, If all three ground detection
lamps burn with equal intensity when the test button is The bulbs are operating properly
depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated?
526. An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular
The temperature of the machine at
piece of electric instrument. In addition to the resistance
the time the resistance reading was
reading, what information listed below should be entered
taken
in the electrical log?
527. The frequency output of an operating alternator is
relative speed of the rotor poles
controlled by the________.
528. The synchronous motors excitation source usually
DC supply
comes from _____________.
529. A tubular fuse should always be removed from a fuse
panel with ________. fuse pullers
.
530. The timer element found in a reverse power relay
electromagnets
obtains its operating torque from________ .
The variables in digital systems are
531. Which of the following statements concerning analog fixed quantities and the variables in
and digital devices are correct? analog systems are continuous
quantities.
532. Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de- short circuit the terminals to make
energized circuit, or even one that is completely sure that the capacitor is
disconnected, you should _____. discharged
23 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
COMPETENCE 7
533. When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation
resistance, current leakage along the surface of the kicking slightly down scale as
insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer voltage is applied
______ .
534. The charge of a lead-acid battery can be restored passing a direct electric current
by________. through the cell
535. The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled load-speed characteristics of the
alternators is determined by the______ . governors
536. When a flourescent lamp has reached the end of its
useful life, it should be replaced immediately, or the Damage the starter and the ballast
resultant flashing may____.
Lift the brushes from commutator
537. Which of the following precautions should you take when
collector rings and use the built-in
securing propulsion generators and motors for an
heater to prevent moisture
extended period of time?
accumulation
number of zeros following the first
538. Third color band on a resistor is used to indicate
two significant figures in the
the_______.
resistance value
539. To protect the fuse from getting damaged during
removal from a fuse holder, it is detached with the aid of Fuse puller tool
a ____________.
540. On AC vessels, which of the following statements
represents the most difficult problem involved in the voltage must be rectified and
obtaining a DC potential suitable for use by computer made ripple free
components?
541. When soldering a printed circuit board component, you
should be careful to prevent circuit and board damage Using soldering iron heat sparingly
for what reason?
542. Most three-phase induction motors of five (5)
across-the-line starters
horsepower or less, are started by_______.
543. A full-wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open
condition, what will be the output characteristic of the Half-wave rectified
device?
544. When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation
resistance, current leakage along the surface of the kicking slightly down scale as
insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer voltage is applied
______ .
545. When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, a cold solder
reheat connection with a soldering
joint can be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once
tool and recheck with an ohmmeter
the problem has been located, you should______.
546. In an impressed current cathodic protection system, the
insulated from the hull and does not
anode is_______
waste away.
.
547. For maintenance of non-sealed batteries, the statements It should be placed in a tightly
below are TRUE except ____________. closed compartment
548. A molded-case breaker provides protection against short
electromagnet
circuits by using a/an_______.
549. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the first
check the voltage supply from the
step to be taken before testing the circuit voltage is
power source
to_____.
550. In an impressed current cathodic protection system, the insulated from the hull and does not
anode is_______ . waste away.
551. In order to protect the generator in service from
overload, the non-essential load is isolated from the Preferential tripping system
system by this device.
552. The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled load-speed characteristics of the
alternators is determined by the______ . governors
553. The standard procedure for maintaining the charge in an
emergency diesel starting battery is to trickle charge the Continuously
battery ________.
24 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
554. Normally, the FIRST step in troubleshooting a transistor Give the circuit an initial test with a
circuit card is to _______________. signal generator
the meter deflects to a low
555. When testing a capacitor with an analog type ohmmeter, resistance value and slowly
a good capacitor will be indicated by________. increases
towards infinity
556. Controller contacts should be routinely cleaned
wiping with a clean dry cloth
by______.
557. The charging of lead-acid storage batteries will always a dangerously explosive gas being
result in_________. . liberated
558. When soldering a printed circuit board component, you Using the soldering iron tip
should be careful to prevent damage by ____________. sparingly
559. What precaution should be taken with a vessel's
The unit should remain off for the
impressed current cathodic protection system after a
specified amount of time so as not
drydocking period during which the hull has been
to disturb curing.
painted?
560. Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel
shutting off fuel supply
engines functions to stop the engine by _________.
561. As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be
test all fuses and measure the line
taken in checking faulty electric control devices is
voltage
to______ .
562. The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of
sulfuric acid
distilled water and ___________
563. Complete maintenance of electrical motors should
vibration
include checks for machine's ______________.
564. Most three-phase induction motors of five (5)
across-the-line starters
horsepower or less, are started by_______.
565. During troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found
that the contacts are welded together, what is the most Low voltage on the operating coil
probable cause?

566. Heat sinks are frequently used with____ . power transistors

so as not to load down the circuit


567. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should
and obtain erroneous voltage
use a high impedance multimeter ________.
readings

568. Heat sinks are frequently used with____ . power transistors

569. When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, a measuring and comparing all cells
weak or dead cell is best detected by ____________ specific gravity
570. In order to check the performance of a transistor
removed from its circuit, the instrument to be used ohmmeter or transistor tester
should be a/an_____.
571. The mica used in the commutators of DC machinery is
Harder than copper
_____________.
572. When supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage
battery initial voltage must exceed the standard system 5%
voltage by more that_______.
573. To repair small electrical motor that has been Wash it fresh water and apply
submerged in saltwater , you should________. external heat
574. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the first
check the voltage supply from the
step to be taken before testing the circuit voltage is
power source
to_____.
575. The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of
distilled sulfuric acid
water and ___________
576. Signal injection/trading is a method commonly used in
A radio
troubleshooting ______.

25 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


577. In order to check the performance of a transistor
removed from its circuit, the instrument to be used ohmmeter or transistor tester
should be a/an_____.
578. What kind of maintenance system replaces a heavily
Breakdown
wornout impeller during its operation?
579. After each overhaul of electric motors, it shall be started
No load
at _______________.
Open the circuit breaker on the
580. What is the best procedure for locating grounded circuit
distribution panel, one at a time,
if the light on main electrical switchboard is indicating a
until the light no longer indicate a
ground?
ground
581. What is the maintenance system which checks if
equipment, engines motors are overhauled as per Planned
schedule?
582. To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use
megger
a/an _______. .
583. During troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found
that the contacts are welded together the most probable Low voltage on the operating coil
cause is______.
584. When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading input impedance much greater than
effect" can be minimized by using a voltmeter with the impedance across which the
a/an________ voltage is being measured
585. The charging of lead-acid storage batteries will always
a dangerously explosive gas being
result in_________.
liberated
.
586. Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering
The foil wire bonded to the board
iron when soldering or desoldering components on a
may come loosened from the board
printed circuit board?
587. When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, a cold solder
reheat connection with a soldering
joint can be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once
tool and recheck with an ohmmeter
the problem has been located, you should______.
588. When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading
input impedance much greater than
effect" can be minimized by using a voltmeter with
the impedance across which the
a/an________
voltage is being measured

589. When trouble shooting motor controllers, a shorted relay Charged insulation and or a blown
or contactor coil is often indicated by_______. control fuse
590. Which of the damages listed below can occur to the rapid corrosion of switch
components of a winch motor? components
591. When testing for blown fuses in a three-phase supply de-energize the circuit and then use
circuit to a motor, you should first _____________. a continuity tester
592. The purpose of DC generator brushes is to Conduct electric current to an
____________. outside circuit
593. If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal
brilliance whether the test button is depressed or release No grounds exist
then __________.
594. When troubleshooting AC motors, portable growler can
Shorted stator coils
be used for locating ____________.
595. When you are troubleshooting a DC motor that fails to
Fuses and circuit breaker
start, the first thing to check is the ______.
596. To check the three lines fuses of a three phase system Place the starter in the stop
consisting of a threephase motor, you must___. position
597. While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central Resistor's circuit must be de-
control console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. energized and at
Which of the following precautions must be observed if least one end of the component
an ohmmeter is to be used to check its value? isolated.
598. What kind of maintenance system repairs a cargo winch
motor due to unusual sound of bearing during loading or Condition
unloading of cargo?

26 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


599. The purpose of a main switchboard circuit breaker
Prevent alternator motorization
reverse power trips is to ________.
600. Before reassembling any electrical equipment, you
Clean any corroded surfaces
should _______________.
601. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the
winding of large machines should be grounded for about Static charge of the machine may
15 minutes just prior to the test because the give a false reading
_____________.
602. Third color band on a resistor is used to indicate number of zeros following the first
the_______. two significant figures in the
resistance value
603. Commutators and brushes are used on DC generators Convert the induced sine-wave to
to _____________. DC output
604. Sparking of DC motor brushes can be caused by
Series-wound
_____________.
605. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a
reduction in voltage and restart it when the voltage is Low voltage release circuit
restored to normal?
606. A molded-case breaker provides protection against short
electromagnet
circuits by using a/an_______.
607. What is the general rule in troubleshooting electrical make sure to test all fuses and
system fault? measure the line voltage
608. As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be
test all fuses and measure the line
taken in checking faulty electric control devices is
voltage
to______ .
609. Which procedures should be carried out to prevent
moisture damage into an electrical apparatus during Place heat lamps in motor housing
extended periods of idleness?
610. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a
reduction in voltage and restart it when the voltage is Low voltage release circuit
restored to normal?
611. A solid-state circuit is inoperative; the first action that
check the DC supply voltage
should be taken is to_______.
612. To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use
a/an _______. megger
.
613. One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a
DC generator of motor is by connecting the field to a Magnetic compass placed near
direct current source at reduced field rated voltage and each field
test for polarity using a/an ______________.

COMPETENCE 8
614. A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU may also
structural bulkhead
be a/an_____________.
615. The test of metals which measures the resistanceof the
charpy test
metal to impact is called____________.
616. The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only
center drilled
after the end of the work piece has been __________.
617. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for
60 thread cutting tools
checking the angle of______________ .
618. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must
stop the lathe rotation
first __________.
619. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the
Aluminum
highest operating lathe speed?
620. What type of gasket is used on high pressure steam
metallic
flange joints?

27 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


621. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine
threads on long slender shafts
__________.
622. All portable electric tools should have a ground
electric shock if the tool is shorted
connection to prevent __________.
623. A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gauge is
pressure and vacuum
capable of measuring __________.

624. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________. a large percentage of iron

625. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe


chuck
centers is usually held in a __________.
626. A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both
atmospheric pressure
above and below __________.
627. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of
threads per inch produced is determined by the speed lead screw and head stock spindle
relationship between the __________.
628. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without
Brass
lubrication?
629. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for
60 thread cutting tools
checking the angle of______________ .
630. Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker Provides landing surface for the
or doubler plate? sounding bob of a tank sounding
631. Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring
the clearances between the main engine bearings and Plasti-gauge
the crankshaft?
632. When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface scale
are being turned, the first roughing cut should be taken deep enough to get under the scale
__________.
633. Regarding MODU construction, bulkheads in the
non-structural
quarters are generally
634. Regarding MODU construction, bulkheads in the
non-structural
quarters are generally
635. An allowance may be made for expansion and
contraction in piping with the use of expansion joints bends or loops in the line
or_________.
636. The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only
center drilled
after the end of the work piece has been __________.
637. A tool used for measuring or laying out angles is called
protractor
a_______.
638. A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a
construction portfolio
MODU is called ______.
639. A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a
construction portfolio
MODU is called ______.
640. Which of the nondestructive testing methods listed is
most often used to accurately detect external defects in Visible dye penetrant
welded metals?
641. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you
split or half-nut
should engage the __________.
642. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must
stop the lathe rotation
first __________.
643. Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they excessive strain on the joints will
are connected because __________. result if they are misaligned
644. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of
outside micrometer
an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.

28 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


645. Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop
all locking devices have been
practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure
released
__________.
646. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you
split or half-nut
should engage the __________.
647. A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both
atmospheric pressure
above and below __________.
648. Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop
all locking devices have been
practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure
released
__________.
649. The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or
checked surface on round stock in a lathe is called knurling
__________.

COMPETENCE 9
650. What will happen when there is an excessive wear on a There will be an excessive leakage
centrifugal pump shaft? past the packing gland
651. What is used as a jointing materials for fresh and sea
Rubber
water pipes?
652. In hydraulic system, all machines which are consumers
motor
of hydraulic power equipped with ________.
653. 4/3 Way valve is a type of directional valve with
4 ports and 3 positions
___________ .
654. The following are parts of the main bowl of purifier
bolt
except___________.
655. A hydraulic system where all oil goes back to the tank is
open loop system
termed as____________.
656. Return port of a hydraulic directional valve is designated
T
by letter __________.
657. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what
The filters and strainers should be
special attention should be given to the hydraulic
checked frequently.
system?
658. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered
Correct the cause of scoring and
on the pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance
install a new shaft sleeve.
inspection?
659. What will be the result of badly leaking refrigeration Continues running of the
compressor discharge valves? compressor
660. The nut of the bowl assembly is confirmed when marks on the body and nut
tight___________. are aligned

661. What factors shorten the life of valve springs? Fatigue and compression

line up corresponding holes in


662. An aligning punch is used to_______________.
adjacent parts
663. A fixed displacement pump is a hydraulic pump in which
discharge capacity is constant
the________.
664. Important check to be done during overhauling of the wear ring clearance against
pump is the______. impeller
665. Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room
hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should changing the air filter
include__________.

666. An oil film of a lubricant is affected by the______. working temperature of the engine

667. 4/3 Way valve is a type of directional valve with


4 ports and 3 positions
___________ .

29 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


668. Which of the following will speed up the recovery
chilling the recovery vessel and
process when performing maintenance on a refrigeration
heating the appliance
system _______?
669. One of the four basic components of hydraulic system
that provides the flow of oil in the system is pump
called__________.

670. Most common type of hydraulic pump is _____. piston pump

671. The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is the numerical designation found on
indicated by______________. the 'skin' of the hose

672. A dial indicator is used to measure________. shaft eccentricity

673. A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals


used in the construction of a MODU would be recorded welding plan
in the
674. Good maintenance is decisive and best be achieved in
high degree of safety
the engine room if there is________________.
675. Which of the fittings listed should be used for the
installation of piping to permit removal of the pump for Union
servicing?
676. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what
The filters and strainers should be
special attention should be given to the hydraulic
checked frequently.
system?
677. The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is the numerical designation found on
indicated by______________. the 'skin' of the hose
678. Before carrying-out maintenance to the engine, one engage turning gear and switch off
should __________. power
679. Which of the fittings listed should be used for the
installation of piping to permit removal of the pump for Union
servicing?
680. The filter element of hydraulic oil in the system is
disposable
___________.
681. Improper maintenance of fuel oil burner in an auxiliary
decrease boiler efficiency
boiler could result to ________.
682. Expansion valve maintenance should include which of Ensuring that the thermal bulb is in
the following procedures? good contact with the suction line.
683. As part of a safe and effective maintenance onboard, the
first valve to be opened first after the complete assembly
Sea water outlet
of a newly ovehauled and clean big luboil cooler is
the_____.

684. Most common type of hydraulic pump is _____. piston pump

685. As part of a safe and effective maintenance onboard, the


first valve to be opened first after the complete assembly
Sea water outlet
of a newly ovehauled and clean big luboil cooler is
the_____.

COMPETENCE 10
686. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution
five years
Emergency Plan expires after __________.
687. Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil
Reporting requirements
Pollution Emergency Plan?
688. Which is not a mandatory part of the Shipboard Oil
Diagrams
Pollution Emergency Plan?
689. Which of the following classes of fire would probably
Class B
occur in the engine room bilges?

30 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


690. Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a
Prohibited to throw overboard
vessel if it is __________.
691. On a tanker ship, sanitary inspections of the crew's
Master and Chief Engineer
quarters are the responsibility of the __________.
692. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with
Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped An oil content meter
with_________.
693. Which is not a mandatory part of the Shipboard Oil
Diagrams
Pollution Emergency Plan?
694. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which Shut down the operation.
action should you take first?
695. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the
boom
water is__________.
696. Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a
Prohibited to throw overboard
vessel if it is __________.
697. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under
Oil mixed with dredge spoil
the pollution prevention regulations?
698. The regulations that were passed to implement
MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. International waters
flag vessel that sails on which waters?
699. Which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the A person falls overboard, and a
garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL plastic ice chest is thrown for
73/78? flotation.

700. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by______. human error

overboard only through an


701. Bilges may be pumped . approved oily water separator and
oil content monitor
702. Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump
keep a record for two years
garbage in to the sea you must __________.
703. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil
and cannot be implemented without
Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be
approval
submitted to the administration __________.
704. Which statement is true for the 30,000 DWT tanker ship
The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5
engaging in trade to another country signatory to
years
MARPOL 73/78?
705. When bunkering is completed, the hoses should be drained, blanked off, and stored
__________. securely
706. The Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must an explanation and purpose of the
include __________. plan
707. An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil
pump the oil into the slop tanks
found in the pump room bilges is to_________ .
708. The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size
maceration
of sewage particles is known as __________.
709. The term 'discharge', as it applies to the pollution
spilling, leaking, pumping
regulations, means __________.
710. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical
final topping off is occurring
time during bunkering is when __________.
Shipboard Oil Pollution and
711. SOPEP means _______.
Emergency Plans
712. Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal
two years
records must be kept for __________.
713. Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump
keep a record for two years
garbage in to the sea you must __________.

31 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


714. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil
and cannot be implemented without
Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be
approval
submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
715. The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been
activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. After the metal surfaces have
When is the best time to vent the combustible products cooled down.
from the engine room?
716. Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal
two years
records must be kept for __________.
717. Sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the
Master and Chief Engineer
responsibility of the____.
718. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans
Placing it in proper disposal
and containers. Which is an approved method of
facilities
disposing of the waste oil?
719. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which Shut down the operation.
action should you take first?
720. Is it possible to discharge overboard plastic material
No, it is prohibited to discharge
from a vessel?
They may cause serious pollution
721. Which statement is true concerning small oil spills?
as the effect tends to be cumulative
722. When bunkering is completed, the hoses should be drained, blanked off, and stored
__________. securely
723. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special
it must be more than 12 miles from
Area, it has to comply with the following conditions
the nearest coast
except_________.
724. Small oil spills on deck is prevented from going
plugging the scuppers
overboard by ______:
725. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes
of reception facilities to be connected with the ships
215 mm
discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges
should be_________.
726. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time
an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the spread an absorbent material, such
transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and as sawdust
then __________.
727. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil
and cannot be implemented without
Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be
approval
submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
728. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessels
incinerator which has burned packages containing discharge to shore facility only
plastic?
729. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may Any individual connected with the
be held responsible? vessel involved in the operation
730. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time
an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the spread an absorbent material, such
transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and as sawdust
then __________.
731. The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is foam extinguisher and low velocity
through the use of a_____________ . water fog
Contain the oil and remove as
732. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what
much of it as possible from the
should you do after reporting the discharge?
water
733. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution
cargoes carried and dates
regulations is NOT required to keep written records of
delivered, including destinations
__________.
734. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the
boom
water is__________.
735. With no environmental forces present, the center of
gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the center of buoyancy
.
32 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
736. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessels
incinerator which has burned packages containing discharge to shore facility only
plastic?
737. To whom is the first report rendered in the oil pollution
Port authorities
contingency plan of the vessel?
738. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical
final topping off is occurring
time during bunkering is when __________.
739. Which list is not required to be provided as part of the
A list of personnel duty
appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency
assignments.
Plan?
It is visible for a shorter time than a
740. Which statement is true concerning gasoline spill?
fuel oil spill.
741. The term 'discharge', as it applies to the pollution
spilling, leaking, pumping
regulations, means __________.
The change in its specific volume
742. Why is it important for fuel oil tank not to be topped off
when heated may cause an
when loading cold oil?
overflow
They may cause serious pollution
743. Which statement is true concerning small oil spills?
as the effect tends to be cumulative
Contain the oil and remove as
744. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what
much of it as possible from the
should you do after reporting the discharge?
water
745. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes
of reception facilities to be connected with the ships
215 mm
discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges
should be_________.
746. A ocean going ship having an inoperative oily water holding its slops onboard until they
separator may dispose of its bilge slops can be discharged to a shore side
by_______________ . reception facility
It is visible for a shorter time than a
747. Which statement is true concerning gasoline spill?
fuel oil spill.
748. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may Any individual connected with the
be held responsible? vessel involved in the operation
749. Which list is not required to be provided as part of the
A list of personnel duty
appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency
assignments.
Plan?
750. The Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must an explanation and purpose of the
include __________. plan
751. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans
Placing it in proper disposal
and containers. Which is an approved method of
facilities
disposing of the waste oil?
752. The regulations that were passed to implement
MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. International waters
flag vessel that sails on which waters?
753. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special
it must be more than 12 miles from
Area, it has to comply with the following conditions
the nearest coast
except_________.
754. Which statement is true for the 30,000 DWT tanker ship
The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5
engaging in trade to another country signatory to
years
MARPOL 73/78?
755. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to
plug the scuppers
__________
756. Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil
Reporting requirements
Pollution Emergency Plan?
757. Sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the
Master and Chief Engineer
responsibility of the____.
758. Pollution regulation requires that each scupper in an
mechanical means of closing
enclosed deck area have a __________.

33 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


759. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to
plug the scuppers
__________
760. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with
Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped An oil content meter
with_________.
761. On a tanker ship, sanitary inspections of the crew's
Master and Chief Engineer
quarters are the responsibility of the __________.
762. Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not
discharging at an instantaneous
discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank,
rate of oil content not exceeding 30
slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless the vessel
liters per nautical mile
is_________ .
763. Pollution regulation requires that each scupper in an
mechanical means of closing
enclosed deck area have a __________.
764. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution
five years
Emergency Plan expires after __________.
765. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under
Oil mixed with dredge spoil
the pollution prevention regulations?

766. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by______. human error

767. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution


cargoes carried and dates
regulations is NOT required to keep written records of
delivered, including destinations
__________.
768. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil
and cannot be implemented without
Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be
approval
submitted to the administration __________.
769. When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the
at a vertical surface
stream of foam is most effective when directed .

COMPETENCE 11
770. What is a danger of a half full tank onboard tanker Loss of stability due to free surface
vessel? effect
771. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates
has poor stability
that the vessel __________.
772. The purpose of the inclining experiment is determine the lightweight center of
to____________. gravity location
773. What is the point to which vessel's center of gravity (G)
may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive Metacenter
stability?
774. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to determine the lightweight center of
__________. gravity location
775. When a vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly, what does
Vessel has poor stability
this indicate?
776. The value of KM at any draft may be taken from
Hydrostatic Table
the______.
777. A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free
surface. Which of the listed conditions would develop the Tanks which are 40% full.
greatest adverse effect?
778. With no environmental forces present, where is the
center of gravity of an inclined vessel vertically aligned center of buoyancy
with?

779. What is the purpose of bilge keels? Reduce the amplitude of roll

780. What represents the center of gravity? G

781. What caused a vessel trimmed down by the bow? A greater draft forward than aft

34 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


782. For a MODU with trim, what will happen to the angle of
It will increase
inclination when there is a decrease in GMT?
783. What will happen if the displacement of a vessel The detrimental effect of free
increases? surface decreases

784. What indicates the quality of initial stability? GM

785. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates


has poor stability
that the vessel __________.
786. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
The width of the tank
free surface correction?
787. What do you call the stress when compression is being
Sagging
placed on the sheer strakes of the vessel?

788. The quality of initial stability is indicated by_________ . GM

789. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the


decreases
detrimental effect of free surface __________.
790. Which does NOT affect the value of the free surface
Registered tonnage
correction?

791. Freeboard is a measure of____________. the amount of reserve bouyancy

792. Freeboard is a measure of what? The amount of reserve bouyancy

793. What must be accurately determined to assess the


The integrity of the water tight
potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been
boundaries
damaged?
794. In a longitudinally framed vessel, the longitudinal frames
are held in place and supported by athwartship web frames
members called______.
795. In small angle stability, when external forces exist, the
buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards
Metacenter
through the center of buoyancy and through which
point?
The tendency of a ship to resist a
796. What is a longitudinal stability indicates?
change in trim
797. What happens when there is a continual change in the
Progressive flooding
list, or trim of any floating MODU?

798. Control of flooding should be addressed __________. following control of fire

799. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance


between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and
LBP
the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's
waterline at her deepest operating draft?

800. The purpose of bilge keels is to _______________. reduce the amplitude of roll

801. In small angle stability, when external forces exist, the


buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards
Metacenter
through the center of buoyancy and through which
point?
802. GM' cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all
"M" is not fixed at large angles
angles of inclination because___________ .
803. The volume of all watertight enclosed spaces above
reserved bouyancy
water line is called_________.
804. For a ship tank which carries liquid, when will it become
When it is slack
dangerous to the stability of a vessel?

35 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


805. What is the name of the strake next to the keel? Garboard

806. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel? Its period of roll is long.

807. What will be the result of counter flooding into empty


It will cause the unit to flop to a
tanks if the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is
greater angle
negative initial stability?
808. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the concentrated high and the double
weight of the cargo is __________. bottoms are empty
809. Why is GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at
M is not fixed at large angles
all angles of inclination?
810. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a
flooded compartment that can be occupied by water by permeability
damage is called___________.

811. What happens when you add weight to a vessel? Reduce reserve buoyancy

812. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G)


may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive metacenter
stability is called the __________.
When the weight of the cargo is
813. When is the vessel referred to as tender? __________. concentrated high and the double
bottoms are empty
814. What must be accurately determined to assess the
The integrity of the water tight
potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been
boundaries
damaged?
815. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the concentrated high and the double
weight of the cargo is __________. bottoms are empty
816. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel.
Draining fire-fighting water and
Which action is most important concerning the stability
pumping it overboard
of the vessel?
817. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS
reduce reserve buoyancy
__________.
818. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel.
Draining fire-fighting water and
Which action is most important concerning the stability
pumping it overboard
of the vessel?
819. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability
for small angles of inclination
__________.
820. In a longitudinally framed vessel, what do you call an
athwartship members that hold in place and support the Web frames
longitudinal frames?
She will have a large metacentric
821. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
height.
822. A vessel's stability normally increases when tanks are
center of gravity is lowered
ballasted because the vessel's______.
an intact space below the flooded
823. An intact bouyancy means________.
area
824. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-
Initial stability
hulled tanker?
825. When making a turn, course change; on most merchant If G is above the center of lateral
ships, the vessel will heel outwards in what condition? resistance
It decreases at increased angles of
826. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? heel due to pocketing when a tank
is 90% full.
827. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result flowing in and out of a holed wing
of liquids __________. tank
828. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability
for small angles of inclination
__________.

36 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


829. Which does NOT affect the value of the free surface
Registered tonnage
correction?
An intact space below the flooded
830. What is an intact bouyancy?
area
831. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant G is above the center of lateral
ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________. resistance
should always be immediately
832. A negative metacentric height __________.
corrected
833. In regards to the center of bouyancy, which of the It is located in the same position
following statement is correct? regardless of displacement
834. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of
slack
a vessel when it is __________.

835. The bilge keel is for the purpose of__________. reducing rolling

836. The elevated perforated bottom of a chain locker which


prevents the chain from touching the bottom of the chain
manger
locker and allows water to flow to the drain is
a____________.
She will have a large metacentric
837. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
height.

838. Metacentric height is a measure of what? Initial stability only

839. Vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. What Establish flooding boundaries and
is the first step to be taken in attempting to save the prevent further spread of flood
vessel? water

840. The inward curvature of the ship's side is the_________. tumble home

841. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the


decreases
detrimental effect of free surface __________.
842. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to
Length and width of space
what?

843. GM is a measure of______. The initial stability of the vessel

844. Why is the vessel's stability increases when tanks are The vessel's center of gravity is
ballasted? lowered
845. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main
center of gravity will move upwards
deck the________.

846. Metacentric height is a measure of __________. initial stability only

847. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to determine the lightweight center of
__________. gravity location
848. If the ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an Determine the cause before taking
unknown cause, What will be your first action? countermeasures
Vessel's stability at small angles of
849. What is initial stability?
inclination
850. What determines the true measure of a vessel's stability
righting moment
at all angles of inclination?

851. What represents the center of gravity? G

852. What is the purpose of bilge keel? To reduce rolling

37 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


853. Where should you pay particular attention to be able to The vertical distribution of the deck
maintain adequate stability in loading deck cargo? cargo
854. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to
length and width of space
__________.
855. What will be the result of counter flooding into empty
It will cause the unit to flop to a
tanks if the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is
greater angle
negative initial stability?
856. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of
slack
a vessel when it is __________.
857. What is the elevated perforated bottom of a chain locker
which prevents the chain from touching the bottom of the Manger
chain locker and allows water to flow to the drain?
858. What is the reason why fighting an oil rig fire in a
It causes a list due to the water in
watertight compartment with hoses reduces the stability
the compartment
of the rig ?
859. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result flowing in and out of a holed wing
of liquids __________. tank
The tendency of a ship to resist a
860. What is a longitudinal stability indicates?
change in trim

861. What is the trim of the vessel? Difference in fore and aft drafts

862. What do you call a percentage of the total surface area


or volume of a flooded compartment that is water permeability
damaged?
863. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when place the heaviest woods in the
carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________. lower holds
864. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. establish flooding boundaries and
The first step to be taken in attempting to save the prevent further spread of flood
vessel is to __________. water
865. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing
12 deg to port and trimmed 2.5 meters down by the Press up an after, slack, centerline
head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. What action will double bottom tank
you take first?
866. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant G is above the center of lateral
ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________. resistance
To determine the lightweight center
867. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?
of gravity location

868. Where can you take the value of KM at any draft? Hydrostatic Table

869. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
The width of the tank
free surface correction?
870. Which statement is correct regarding a negative It should always be immediately
metacentric height? corrected
871. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance
between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and
LBP
the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's
waterline at her deepest operating draft?
should always be immediately
872. A negative metacentric height __________.
corrected
873. What do you call a tendency of a ship to resist a change
Longitudinal stability
in trim?
It decreases at increased angles of
874. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? heel due to pocketing when a tank
is 90% full.
875. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main
The GM will increase
deck into the lower hold of a vessel?

38 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


876. The strake next to the keel is__________. garboard

877. Where should you pay particular attention to be able to The vertical distribution of the deck
maintain adequate stability in loading deck cargo? cargo
878. What is a danger of a half full tank onboard tanker Loss of stability due to free surface
vessel? effect
879. The ratio of volume of displacement to a block having
the same length, breadth and draft of the vessel is Block coefficient
known as_____.
880. What should you do In order to minimize the effects of a Place the heaviest woods in the
tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber? lower holds
881. Which of the following will increase the height of the Discharging weight from lower
center of buoyancy of your vessel? decks
882. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main
The GM will increase
deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
It is an indication of a vessel's
883. What is a metacentric height? stability for small angles of
inclination
884. The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is
longitudinal stability
call_______.
885. A vessel trimmed down by the bow has
a greater draft forward than aft
_________________ .

886. What is the inward curvature of the ship's side? Tumble home

887. With no environmental forces present, the center of


gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with center of buoyancy
the_______.
888. Which statement is correct regarding a negative It should always be immediately
metacentric height? corrected
889. What is the point to which vessel's center of gravity (G)
may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive Metacenter
stability?
890. How can a clogged limber holes endanger a ship's By preventing water from draining
stability? to the bilge well
891. During counter flooding to correct a severe list or trim
aggravated by an off center load, a MODU suddenly
Immediately stop counter flooding
takes a list or trim to the opposite side. What should you
do?
892. A stress called compression is being placed on the
sagging
sheer strakes if the vessel is ______?
893. What do you call the volume of all watertight enclosed
Reserved bouyancy
spaces above water line ?

894. The trim of a vessel is the___________. difference in fore and aft drafts

895. A continual change in the list, or trim of any floating


progressive flooding
MODU indicates______________ .

896. The bilge keel is for the purpose of: Reducing rolling

An intact space below the flooded


897. An intact bouyancy means:
area
898. What will happen if the cargo is shifted from the lower
Center of gravity will move upwards
hold to the main deck?

899. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel? Its period of roll is long.

39 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


900. What will be the result of counter flooding into empty
tanks, if the cause of severe list, or trim is due to off- Decrease list or trim
center ballast?

COMPETENCE 12
901. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then use a portable CO2 extinguisher
__________.
902. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.
903. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. After securing the power, what should you Use a portable CO2 extinguisher
do?
904. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their
stations and demonstrate their ability to perform duties In the Muster List (Station Bill)
assigned to them ________.
905. The supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed
the space requiring the largest
extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at
amount
least sufficient for __________.

906. How is foam extinguishes fire? Smothering

907. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash


as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition CO2
temperature?
908. In the event of fire, doors to a stair case must be closed
Convection
to prevent the spread of fire in what way?
The difference in thermal expansion
909. What activates fire alarm system thermostats?
of two dissimilar metals
Hot combustion gases flowing
910. A fire can spread by "convection" as a result of what?
through ventilation systems
911. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there should arrange to have a B-II
are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To extinguisher placed in the lower
comply with regulations, you__________. pumproom
912. A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing system Name of the space or spaces which
on a MODU must be marked with the what information? it serves
913. Combustible gas indicator is operated by drawing an air over an electrically heated platinum
sample into the instrument_______. filament

914. A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the_______. engine room bilge

the fire is contained and no longer


915. A fire is considered 'under control' when_________.
spreading
916. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
removing the fuel
shipboard fire by________.
917. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self- Allow the wearer to manually give
contained breathing apparatus? himself oxygen
918. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as
class A
a_______.
919. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen
Chain reaction
of the fire triangle to have a fire?
920. Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity
Water
for absorbing heat?
By excluding the oxygen from the
921. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
fire
922. A burning AC motor would be considered what class of
Class C
fire?

40 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


923. When using a mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the
stream of foam is most effective when at a vertical surface
directed_____________.
By excluding the oxygen from the
924. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
fire

925. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills? Once every month

weighing the cylinder and


926. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire
recharging if weight loss exceeds
extinguisher includes_____________ .
10% of the weight of the charge
927. The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is foam extinguisher and low velocity
through the use of a___________. water fog
Through the use of foam
928. Which is the best way to combat an engine room bilge
extinguisher and low velocity water
fire? .
fog
929. If a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room Hand portable, semi- portable CO2,
bilges, which of the following sequences should the fire then as a last resort the fixed CO2
extinguishing agents or systems be used? system.
930. What is the purpose of corrosion resistant sceen in the To prevent flames entering the tank
fuel vents? vent
931. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire, what Do not attack the fire from opposite
should they do or not do? sides
932. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you attach a low-velocity fog applicator
would __________. with the nozzle shut down

933. Foam extinguishes fire by_____. smothering

934. Which among the choices is an example of class D fire? Magnesium

935. Fighting an oil rig fire in a watertight compartment with A list of the vessel due to the water
hoses, what could reduce the stability of the rig? accumutation in the compartment

936. What class of fire is a galley grease fire? Class B

937. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed


extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least Space requiring largest amount
sufficient for_________________.

938. Which one is class C fire? Electrical insulation

939. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
electricity
__________.
940. What do you call a chemical, as listed on a Material
Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen Oxidizer
required to start or support fire?

941. A galley grease fire would be classified as . Class B

942. Which is not a part of the fire triangle? Electricity

943. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be


convection
closed to prevent the spread of fire by_______.
944. Except in rare cases, which one is impossible when
Removing the fuel
extinguishing a shipboard fire?
945. Where can you see your assigned duties during fire
In the Muster List or Station Bill
drill?
946. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained allow the wearer to manually give
breathing apparatus is to __________. himself oxygen

41 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


Weighing the cylinder and
947. Which among the choices is included in the Annual
recharging if weight loss exceeds
servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher?
10% of the weight of the charge
948. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
removing the fuel
shipboard fire by ______.

949. Extinguishing oil fire is very effective when__________. cutting off oxygen source

950. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire, what Do not attack the fire from opposite
should they do or not do? sides
951. What is the best way to combat an engine room bilge Foam extinguisher and low velocity
fire? water fog
952. Which of the following classes of fire would probably
Class B
occur in the engine room bilges?
953. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash
as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition CO2
temperature?
954. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry
At the seat of the fire, starting at the
chemical extinguisher. Where should the discharge be
near edge
directed?
955. A fire is considered 'under control' the fire is contained and no longer
when_________________ . spreading
956. A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard a MODU has
It must be recharged
lost 10% of its charge. What should be done?
the master control valve shut and
957. Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall
valves to individual cargo tanks
be set with __________.
open
The master control valve shut and
958. What arrangement must valves on steam-smothering
valves to individual cargo tanks
lines to cargo tanks be set?
open
959. A burning mattress is considered as which of the
Class A
following classes of fire?
960. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there should arrange to have a B-II
are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To extinguisher placed in the lower
comply with regulations, you __________. pumproom
961. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there should arrange to have a B-II
are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To extinguisher placed in the lower
comply with regulations, you__________. pumproom
962. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
removing the fuel
shipboard fire by __________.
Through the use of foam
963. Which is the best way to combat an engine room bilge
extinguisher and low velocity water
fire? .
fog
964. Combustible gas indicator is operated by drawing an air over an electrically heated platinum
sample into the instrument_______. filament
965. A cut-off valve in the fire main system of a MODU may
be closed to protect a portion of the system on an Freezing
exposed deck from which factor?
966. In the event of fire, doors to a stair case must be closed
Convection
to prevent the spread of fire in what way?
967. When using a mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the
at a vertical surface
stream of foam is most effective when directed ______.
968. Which among the choices oil fire can be best
Cutting off oxygen source
extinguished?
969. A definite advantage of using water as a fire rapid expansion as water absorbs
extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________. heat and changes to steam
970. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed
extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least Space requiring largest amount
sufficient for what space?
42 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
The master control valve shut and
971. What arrangement must valves on steam-smothering
valves to individual cargo tanks
lines to cargo tanks be set?
open

972. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of__________. magnesium

973. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
Put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. What should you possibly do?
974. How can a fire in an oil rig ballast pump room be brought Shut all sources of air into the
under control with minimal impact on stability? compartment
975. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you attach a low-velocity fog applicator
would __________. with the nozzle shut down
976. What is the definite advantage of using water as a fire Rapid expansion as water absorbs
extinguishing agent ? heat and changes to steam
977. The supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed
the space requiring the largest
extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at
amount
least sufficient for __________.

978. Where is a class B fire would most likely to occur? Engine room bilge

The fire is contained and no longer


979. When can you declare a fire is under control?
spreading
980. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen
Chain reaction
of the fire triangle to have a fire?
981. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry
at the seat of the fire, starting at the
chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed
near edge
__________.
982. When is the best time to vent the combustible products
After the metal surfaces have
from the engine room after CO2 fire extinguishing
cooled down.
system has released?
983. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self- Allow the wearer to manually give
contained breathing apparatus? himself oxygen
984. Fuel vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screen to
flames entering the tank vent
prevent________.
985. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated the difference in thermal expansion
by_________. of two dissimilar metals
986. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
removing the fuel
shipboard fire by ______.
987. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they not attack the fire from opposite
should __________. sides
988. The smoke detector (fire indicator) indicates fire in a Close the ventilation system and
cargo hold loaded by general cargo. What first action other openings to the hold in order
should be taken? to choke the fire
989. A fire can spread by "convection" as a result of hot combustion gases flowing
a_____________. through ventilation systems
990. When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, when
When directed at a vertical surface
is the stream of foam is most effective?
991. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry
at the seat of the fire, starting at the
chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed
near edge
__________.

COMPETENCE 13
992. How often must inspection of proper working of the
Weekly
EPIRB s and SART s take place on board?

993. Where should lifejackets be stowed in? Readily accessible spaces

43 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


994. Which of following items shall be included in an abandon Checking that lifejackets are
ship drill? correctly donned.
995. During an evacuation from a MODU, an individual
without the option of a survival craft or life raft should When there is burning oil on the
enter the water on the leeward side, except in what water
condition?
996. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to accidental unhooking when the falls
prevent __________. become slack
997. How enclosed lifeboats could maintain its upright Passengers are strapped to their
position after capsizing? seats
998. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea
To stay in the general location
anchor from a liferaft?

999. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________. unbalanced rudders

1000. Where are fire and lifeboat stations required to be listed? Muster list

right the raft using the righting


1001. If a life raft should capsize___________ .
straps
1002. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.
1003. Which among the choices is a safety feature provided on
The use of water stabilizing pockets
all inflatable life rafts?

1004. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor? To aid in its recovery

1005. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft,
Use visual distress signals in
you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently
conjunction with the EPIRB
carrying out a search pattern. You should:
1006. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with
pendants
__________.
1007. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you
righting strap
should pull on the __________.

1008. Where is the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker located? Forwardmost on the port side

1009. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft,
Use visual distress signals in
you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently
conjunction with the EPIRB
carrying out a search pattern. What should you do?
1010. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position
tested monthly
Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
1011. On an ocean going vessel, a lifeboat without desalting
3 liters of water
kits is certified to carry what provision for each person?

1012. What is the frequency of testing for vessel's EPIRB? Monthly

1013. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling on heavy


seas. In what way you can reduce the possibility of Rigging a sea anchor
capsizing?

1014. What is the purpose of storm oil? To smooth the sea

Remain together in the area


1015. If for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while
because rescuers will start
far out at sea, what is the important thing that crew
searching at the vessel's last known
members should do?
position
1016. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has Tie the rafts together and try to stay
sunk, what should you do? in a single group
1017. What is the purpose of preventer bars fitted on lifeboat To prevent accidental unhooking
releasing gear? when the falls become slack
44 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1018. What is the purpose of preventer bars fitted on lifeboat To prevent accidental unhooking
releasing gear? when the falls become slack
1019. After having thrown the life raft and stowage container
By pulling on the painter line
into the water, how is the life raft inflated?
1020. An orage colored smoke signal or detonating luminous
we see you, we will provide help as
signals fired at interval of one minute
soon as possible
means___________.
1021. A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of
survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as buoyant apparatus
a_________________.
should be righted by standing on
1022. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding
__________. the righting straps, and leaning
backwards
They provide sufficient flotation to
1023. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their
do away with the necessity of
use?
wearing a life jacket.
1024. What must all personnel be familiar with in regards to
Boarding and operating procedures
lifeboats?
1025. If your life raft is to leeward of a fire on the water, what
Cut the line to the sea anchor
should you do first?
1026. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down,
Pull on the righting strap
What should you do?
1027. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the about which the vessel lists and
waterplane __________. trims
It should be righted by standing on
1028. Which statement is correct about the liferaft that has the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding
inflated bottom-up on the water? the righting straps, and leaning
backwards
1029. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has not panic since the safety valves
inflated. You should __________. allow excess pressure to escape
1030. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids in and out of a vessel that is holed
flowing __________. in a wing tank
1031. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be
forwardmost on the port side
__________.
1032. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to
Closing of watertight doors, fire
members of the crew. Which of the following duties shall
doors, valves, scuppers, side
be included in the "muster list" according to present
scuttles, skylights.
regulations?
1033. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship
Category 1
carry?
1034. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a so that it will float free if the vessel
cargo vessel must be stowed __________. sinks
1035. Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat
boathhook, painter, and whistle
includes______________ .
1036. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, hypothermia caused by cold
the greatest danger is __________. temperature
1037. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is drag the raft ashore and lash it
__________. down for a shelter
1038. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered
a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How One
many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
1039. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After
not become alarmed unless it
the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise
continues for a long period of time
coming from a safety valve. You should __________.
1040. All personnel should be familiar with the
boarding and operating procedures
lifeboats_____________ .

45 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1041. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After
Do not be alarmed unless it
the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise
continues for a long period of time
coming from a safety valve. What should you do?
1042. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. An air tank will provide about ten
Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in minutes of air for the survivors and
flames? the engine.
By throwing the entire container
1043. How can an inflatable life raft be launched? overboard, then pulling on the
operating cord to inflate the raft
1044. How often must inspection of proper working of the
EPIRB s and SART s take place on board? Once week
per__________
1045. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship
Category 1
carry?
1046. What do you call a rigid lifesaving device designed for a
Buoyant apparatus
group of survivors to hold on to while in the water?
1047. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival Muster and embarkation stations
craft muster and embarkation arrangements shall be readily accessible from
corresponds to the present SOLAS regulations? accommodation and work areas.
1048. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon on a In such a way that it will float free if
cargo vessel must be stowed in what manner? the vessel sinks
1049. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea
stay in the general location
anchor from a liferaft to __________.
Organize a watch system, post as a
1050. You have abandoned ship in a life raft. Which of the lookout, tie up with other survival
following actions should you take? craft if possible, and stream the sea
anchor
1051. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to accidental unhooking when the falls
prevent __________. become slack
1052. If your life raft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you
cut the line to the sea anchor
should first______________ .

1053. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? Freeboard

1054. The purpose of storm oil is to: Smooth the sea

1055. What is the difference of steering oar in a lifeboat as Longer than the others and should
compare to others? be lashed to the stern
1056. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed In
muster list
the________ .
1057. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has Tie the rafts together and try to stay
sunk, what should you do? in a single group
1058. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy
seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by rigging a sea anchor
__________.
1059. Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel
24 hours
to operate for how many hours?
1060. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio
monthly
beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.
1061. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered
a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How One
many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
1062. What must all personnel be familiar with in regards to
Boarding and operating procedures
lifeboats?
1063. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has not panic since the safety valves
inflated. You should __________. allow excess pressure to escape
1064. If you have to abandon ship and enter a life raft, your
remain in the vicinity of the vessel
main course of action should be_______ .
46 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1065. On an ocean going vessel, a lifeboat without desalting
3 liters of water
kits is certified to carry what provision for each person?
The point in the waterplane which
1066. What is the center of flotation of a vessel? __________.
the vessel lists and trims
longer than the others and should
1067. The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
be lashed to the stern
1068. If you have to abandon ship and enter a life raft, What
Remain in the vicinity of the vessel
should be your main course of action?
1069. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. What is the Hypothermia caused by cold
greatest danger in high latitudes? temperature
1070. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. An air tank will provide about ten
Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in minutes of air for the survivors and
flames? the engine.
1071. What is the correct maintenance for the battery of an
Load must be checked weekly
EPIRB?
must be submerged to a certain
1072. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft________.
depth to release automatically
1073. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you
remain in the immediate vicinity
should __________.
1074. How can an inflatable life raft be manually released from By pushing the button on the
its cradle? hydrostatic release
1075. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has tie the rafts together and try to stay
sunk, you should __________. in a single group
should be righted by standing on
1076. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding
__________. the righting straps, and leaning
backwards
1077. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids in and out of a vessel that is holed
flowing __________. in a wing tank
1078. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a slacking the tripping line and towing
heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________. the sea anchor by the holding line
1079. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you
righting strap
should pull on the __________.
1080. If you reach shore in a liferaft, what is the first thing to Drag the raft ashore and lash it
do? down for a shelter
The point in the waterplane which
1081. What is the center of flotation of a vessel? __________.
the vessel lists and trims
1082. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot and tropical Deflate the floor panels to cool
weather, what should you possibly do? personnel
1083. One can check the functioning of the SART activating the SART and checking
by__________ the effect on the radar screen
1084. Which statement best describe a hydrostatic release It must be submerged to a certain
mechanism for a life raft? depth to release automatically
1085. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a life must be submerged to a certain
raft__________________ . depth to release automatically
1086. Which among the choices is part of the required
Painter
equipment for a lifeboat?
1087. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward
put the vessel's stern into the wind
part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.
1088. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position
tested monthly
Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.

47 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1089. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea
stay in the general location
anchor from a liferaft to __________.
1090. What is the meaning of an orange colored smoke signal
We see you, we will provide help as
or detonating luminous signals fired at interval of one
soon as possible
minute?

1091. Where must a lifeline be connected to the life raft . All around

remain together in the area


1092. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while
because rescuers will start
far out at sea, it is important that the crew members
searching at the vessel's last known
should __________.
position
1093. In lifeboat situations, which of the following visual
Orange smoke signal
distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only?
1094. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat
(without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must 3 liters of water
be supplied with __________.
1095. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft.
How much water per day should you permit each 0.5 liter
occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
1096. Which of the following is considered primary life-saving
Lifeboat
equipment?
1097. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads,
davit arms begin moving up the tracks. Until when the When the limit switch is touched
movement is stopped by itself?
1098. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather deflating the floor panels may help
__________. to cool personnel
1099. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a Slack the tripping line and tow the
heavy surf, how can sternway be checked? sea anchor by the holding line
1100. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to
aid in its recovery
__________.
1101. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable
pull the hook release handle and
above the water, you must pull the safety pin and
use the ratchet bar
__________.

1102. Generally, what is used to inflate life rafts? Non-toxic inert gas

1103. After having thrown the life raft and stowage container
By pulling on the painter line
into the water, how is the life raft inflated?
1104. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft.
How much water per day should you permit each 0.5 liter
occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
standing on the CO2 bottle, holding
1105. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right
the bottom straps, and throwing
it by __________.
your weight backwards
Securely attached around the
1106. How are lifelines attached to a life float? outside in bights no longer than
three feet

1107. The battery of an EPIRB__________ load must be checked weekly

1108. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after passengers are strapped to their
capsizing IF the __________. seats

1109. The following information must be given on the SART the MMSI number

1110. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to


aid in its recovery
__________.
1111. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found
on the port side
__________.

48 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1112. Generally, which of the following gases is used to inflate
CO2
life rafts?
1113. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a so that it will float free if the vessel
cargo vessel must be stowed __________. sinks

1114. Lifejackets should always be stowed in____________ . readily accessible spaces

1115. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads,
the davit arms begin moving up the tracks until the limit switch
movement is stopped by the______________ .
1116. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the about which the vessel lists and
waterplane __________. trims
1117. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable
pull the hook release handle and
above the water, you must pull the safety pin and
use the ratchet bar
__________.
Stand on the CO2 bottle, hold the
1118. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, what should
bottom straps, and throw your
you do to right it?
weight backward
1119. What should you do with your EPIRB if you are in a life Bring it inside the life raft and leave
raft during storm conditions? it on

1120. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? Freeboard

Securely attached around the


1121. How are lifelines attached to a life float? outside in bights no longer than
three feet
Activate the SART and check the
1122. How can you check the function of the SART?
effect on the radar screen
1123. A life raft with a capacity of 8 people in ocean service is
12 liters of fresh water
required by regulation to carry what amount of water?
1124. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft,
Use visual distress signals in
you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently
conjunction with the EPIRB
carrying out a search pattern. What should you do?
1125. Which among the choices are most lifeboats equipped
Unbalanced rudders
with?

COMPETENCE 14
1126. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders
know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands Airway Breathing Circulation
for?
1127. What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank unnecessary haste and appearance
residue from a cargo of leaded gasoline? of uncertainty

1128. What is the primary objective of First Aid? To prevent further injury

Place the injured part under slowly


running cold water for at least 10
1129. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity
minutes, but preferably until the
of the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor
pain is gone. If no water is
burns and scalds?
available, use any cold, harmless
liquid.
1130. What is the primary purpose for applying a splint when
Immobilize the fracture
administering first aid?
1131. A person slowly feel more sleepy and thirsty. The skin
become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the
Insulin
breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind
of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
1132. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting
The water can be applied in a fine
equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray
spray starting from the front in a
nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this
sweeping motion.
fire using water?

49 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1133. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that
Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile
is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an
dressing.
alternative to suturing to close the wound?
1134. You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a
5 compressions after every 1
resuscitation situation. What is the rhythm of
inflation
resuscitation with two First Aiders?
1135. In the event of fire in the crew's quarter, one of your first
Close all ventillation to the quarters
act is to:
1136. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to stop the bleeding, clean, medicate,
__________. and cover the wound
1137. What is the frequency of service for inflatable life raft ,
Every 12 months
inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units?
The person should not be moved,
1138. If a person suffering from possible broken bones and
unless remaining on the scene is
internal injuries is correctly being administered first aid,
unsafe but made comfortable until
what statement is true?
medical assistance arrives.
1139. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing.
Check his pulse and start CPR
What you must do?
Place the injured part under slowly
running cold water for at least 10
1140. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity
minutes, but preferably until the
of the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor
pain is gone. If no water is
burns and scalds?
available, use any cold, harmless
liquid.
1141. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns
flood the affected area with water
is to immediately __________.

1142. A lifejacket should be provided with__________ . a whistle and a light

1143. When can a tourniquet be used to control bleeding? When all other means have failed

1144. How are first, second, and third degree burns classified? According to layers of skin affected

1145. A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of his


right foot. Which of the following is not an acceptable Rub the toes briskly
first aid measure?

1146. The primary objective of First Aid is: To prevent further injury

1147. When giving first aid you should avoid Unnecessary haste and
__________________. appearance of uncertainty
1148. What is the most important element in administering
Start the treatment quickly
CPR?
1149. While underway, fire break out in the forward part of the
vessel. Whenever practicable, what will be the first thing Put the vessel's stern into the wind
you will do if your are on watch?
1150. What is the first aid treatment for small cuts and open Stop the bleeding, clean, medicate,
wounds? and cover the wound
1151. Every inflatable life raft , inflatable lifejacket and
every 12 months.
hydrostatic release units shall be serviced__________
1152. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting
situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire There is an outlet for the smoke
fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be and heat
used when ________.
1153. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia
Hand or body heat the affected
may be either superficial or deep, and the affected
parts skin-to-skin, example frozen
tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should
hand in persons opposite armpit
be given a person with frostbite ?

1154. The MOST important element in administering CPR is: Starting the treatment quickly

50 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1155. Which of the following procedures is always Have the rescuers wear an
recommended in the rescue of an unconscious person approved self-contained breathing
from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere? apparatus.
1156. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life Avoid subjecting the victim to any
threatening situation, what must a person giving first aid unnecessary disturbance during
do? movement
Unnecessary haste and
1157. What should you avoid when administering first aid?
appearance of uncertainty
Flushing with large amounts of
1158. What should you include in the first aid treatment for
fresh water and seeking medical
battery acid or alkali burns, especially in the eyes?
attention ashore or by radio
1159. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting
situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire There is an outlet for the smoke
fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be and heat
used when:
flushing with large amounts of fresh
1160. First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns,
water and seeking medical attention
especially in the eyes, includes_____________ .
ashore or by radio
1161. In the event of fire in the crew's quarter, one of your first
Close all ventillation to the quarters
act is to_________.
1162. Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to To check for breathing and
electric shock, what is the first medical response? heartbeat

1163. How are first, second, and third degree burns classified? According to layers of skin affected

1164. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life avoid subjecting the victim to any
threatening situation, the person giving first aid unnecessary disturbance during
must__________ . movement
1165. What is the most effective first aid treatment for chemical To immediately flood the affected
burns? area with water
1166. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting
The water can be applied in a fine
equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray
spray starting from the front in a
nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this
sweeping motion.
fire using water?
1167. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing.
Check his pulse and start CPR
You must:
Emergency treatment at the scene
1168. What is first aid?
of the injury
1169. When should training in personal survival techniques be
Before being employed
given?
1170. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders
know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands Airway Breathing Circulation
for?
1171. A person slowly feel more sleepy and thirsty. The skin
become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the
Insulin
breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind
of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
1172. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY
when all other means have failed
__________.
1173. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, what
Check the bilge drain plug
should you do first?
1174. What do you call a device used to immobilize fractures
Splint
and help prevent bone displacement?
1175. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, your
Check the bilge drain plug
should first:
1176. What is the primary purpose for applying a splint in first
It immobilizes fractured bone
aid?

1177. What does the abbreviation ABC mean in first aid? Air, Breathing, Circulation.

51 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1178. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that
Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile
is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an
dressing.
alternative to suturing to close the wound?
1179. First, second, and third degree burns are classified
Layers of skin affected
according to the:
Sitting on a chair, leaning forward,
1180. Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the
with two fingers pressing the nose
nose?
together
1181. In reviving a person who has been overcomed by gas
Giving stimulants
fumes, which of the following would you avoid doing?
1182. First aid to poisoning bitten by spider.
I. clean wound by alcohol I ,II & III
I I. lie down victim keep quiet
1183. A device used to immobilize fractures and help prevent
Splint
bone displacement is:
emergency treatment at the scene
1184. First aid means __________.
of the injury
1185. Which one of the listed routine test and inspections of General emergency alarm to be
life-saving appliances is not required by the regulations? tested daily

1186. What should a lifejacket be provided with? A whistle and a light

1187. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is stop the bleeding, clean, medicate,
to___________ . and cover the wound
1188. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite and
Hand or body heat the affected
hypothermia may be either superficial or deep, and the
parts skin-to-skin, example frozen
affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid
hand in persons opposite armpit
should be given a person with frostbite ?
1189. First aid to poisoning bitten by spider. I. clean wound by
I ,II & III
alcohol I I. lie down victim keep quiet
1190. When giving first aid, aside from understanding on how
to conduct primary and secondary surveys what are the The limits of your capabilities
other aspect you should consider?
1191. Which of the following procedures is always Have the rescuers wear an
recommended in the rescue of an unconscious person approved self-contained breathing
from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere? apparatus.
1192. Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to To check for breathing and
electric shock, what is the first medical response? heartbeat

COMPETENCE 15
1193. Who is the authorize to cancel load line certificate of
Ship administration
vessel?
1194. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry
Oil Record Book
must be made in the __________.
1195. One of the many objectives of this code is to ensure the
early and efficient collection and exchange of security- ISPS Code
related information. What is this code?
1196. Sanitary, ballast, bilge or general service pumps may be They are not normally used for
accepted as fire pumps provided: (SOLAS II-2/4.3.2) pumping oil
1197. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that electric served by two electric power feeder
and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors shall be circuits
1198. Lifeboats for ocean-going vessels shall carry in excess
50% of persons on board
of the required regulation by________.
1199. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry
Oil Record Book
must be made in the __________.
1200. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
2
a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?

52 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1201. Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) require the upper
ends of sounding tubes, terminating at the weather deck, screwed cap
to be closed by a
Regulations for the Control of
1202. ____ is contained in Annex II of MARPOL 73/78? Pollution by Noxious Liquid
Substances
1203. One of the many objectives of the ________ is to ensure
the early and efficient collection and exchange of ISPS Code
security-related information.
1204. The responsibility for safety and security rests on
everybody on board the vessel. General house-keeping Keep your working area clean and
rules should be followed. Which of the listed rules is the tidy.
most important?
1205. According to SOLAS requirement for lifeboat fall, what
action must be taken with the fall at interval of not more Renewed
than 5 years?
1206. MARINA was created and geared towards the following To create sub-agencies for the safe
objectives except__________. transport of goods and passengers
Regulations for the Control of
1207. What is contained in Annex II of MARPOL 73/78? Pollution by Noxious Liquid
Substances
1208. The responsibility for safety and security rests on
everybody on board the vessel. General house-keeping Keep your working area clean and
rules should be followed. Which of the listed rules is the tidy.
most important?
1209. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
2
a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?
1210. The SOLAS 74 Chapter IX requires a mandatory
compliance for Tankers, Bulk Carriers and Passenger ISM Code
vessels until July 1998. What is this law?
1211. Keeping the draft at or below the load line mark will
reserve buoyancy
ensure that the vessel has adequate______.
1212. Under the New Regulations, what does SOLAS Chapter Special measures to enhance
XI-1 deals with? Maritime Safety
1213. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
1
a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
1214. As per SOLAS Regulation, the minimum Fuel supply for
4 hours
fast Rescue Boat shall last for______.
1215. What type of construction material should be avoided
All combustible materials
regarding fire protection purposes? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.3)
1216. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at
SOLAS
sea?
1217. A class fire divisions are those divisions formed by
bulkheads and decks. Which of the following Insulated on both sides with
requirements do not comply with the rules? SOLAS II- approved non-combustible material
2/3.3
1218. The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting
Government with Part A & B. The mandatory
Chapter XI-2
requirements & guidance is under the provisions of
_______ of the SOLAS as amended.

1219. What is the primary purpose of a load line? To establish required GM

1220. What form of oil discharge in large quantities that affects


birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these do not slicks
disperse into the water?
1221. Who is given the authority to carry out assessment for a
certification as required by Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS as Recognize Security Organization
amended of the ISPS Code?
1222. What law governs the basic principle of vessel 1986 UN Convention of the high
nationality? Seas

53 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1223. Annex V of MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements
pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment Garbage
of____________.
1224. Any completed pages of the Oil Record Book must
Master
counter sign by the_________.
1225. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a
power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel
capable of a 12 knot service speed, must be able to 7 knots
meet the rudder movement requirements at which of the
minimum vessel speeds listed below?
1226. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a
foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less 36 months
than __________.
1227. The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting
Government with Part A & B. The mandatory
Chapter XI-2
requirements & guidance is under the provisions of
_______ of the SOLAS as amended.
1228. Under SOLAS passenger ships and ships other than
passenger ships of ______ and upwards constructed on
3,000 GRT
or after 2002 must carry Voyage Data Recorders (VDR)
to assist in accident investigation.
1229. The ISM Code requires ship owners or shipping
Safety Committee
companies to assign onboard their ship a ______ .

1230. Part C, Chapter VI of SOLAS deals with___________. carriage of grain

1231. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a


foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less 36 months
than __________.

1232. Part C, Chapter VI of SOLAS deals with: carriage of grain

1233. Three methods of fire protection regarding internal


divisional bulkheading may be adopted in
Construction of all internal
accommodation and service spaces in cargo ships.
bulkheads of class A divisions
Which of the given methods do not correspond to
present rules? (SOLAS II-2/42.5)

1234. Sludge are to be disposed off at sea disposal prohibited

1235. Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on Master or Offshore Installation
a vessel is the job of whose officer? Manager
1236. What is the minimum number of immersion suits that are
required to be provided for each open lifeboat under 3
SOLAS rules?
1237. At what security level is further specific protective
security measures to be maintained for a limited period
of time when a security incident is probable or imminent, Security level 3
although it may not be possible to identify the specific
target?
1238. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on
1
a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
1239. What is defined as the inspection of the vessel
authorized by the Philippine Coast Guard to verify the
Port State Control
compliance to the National Regulations and International
Standards?
1240. When you join a new ship, how are you informed about
By muster lists exhibited in
safety rules, alarm instructions and your own duties in
conspicuous places
case of an emergency?

COMPETENCE 16
1241. It is a value underlying the behavior as a Filipino where it
stimulates generosity and working together, but it is gratitude
often abused is called _________.

54 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1242. When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the
means of communication between the pilothouse and
the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested 12
by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more
than how many hours prior to departure?
1243. There are three learning scope for instructional
objectives. Which objective is NOT part of these learning Enabling Objectives
scope?
1244. Basically onboard training programs must be while the ship is at sea on a
conducted___________. particular voyage
1245. What do you call a person/s ashore having a direct
Designated person
access to the highest level of management?
Factor that cause, channel and
1246. Which of the following would fit MOST on motivation?
sustain people's behavior
1247. You are preparing to contain an oil spill. You must first
receive approval from the Federal On-Scene applying chemical agents
Coordinator (OSC) prior to __________.
1248. What is the study of human capabilities in relationship to
Ergonomics
work?
1249. When crew is given responsibility for dealing with a
self-esteem
problem, he has increased in ________ ?
1250. Which of the following must be eliminated to
Unsafe condition
prevent accidents?
1251. There are three conflict methods most frequently used in
managing conflicts; supervision, integrative problem compromise
solving and_________.
1252. Ergonomics focus is on the design of work activity that
suits the person in that it takes account of their limitation
capabilities and ______.
1253. Management of career is ultimately the responsibility of
individual
the__________.
1254. The method of finding out and recording the levels of the
risk, with the aim of minimizing accidents, damage and ill assessment
health on board ship is called __________.
1255. A kind of motivation where some people may enter the
world of seafaring to make a lot of money, to have fun
shallow motivation
and adventures and to escape problems at
home___________.
1256. When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the
means of communication between the pilothouse and
the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested 12
by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more
than how many hours prior to departure?
1257. In bridge resource management, which of the following
statements are example of "hazardous thoughts" I.) I
can do it II.) It won't happen to me III.) Why takes I, II, III, IV, V
chances IV.) it's not my job V.) Don't tell me what to do
VI.) We're all in the same ship
Members require some expertise in
1258. What is the disadvantage of a matrix organization?
interpersonal relations
1259. Welding and burning are among the factors which give
The welder shall have been
the highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has to
instructed in the use of the ship's
be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety
welding plant.
rules may be regarded as the most important?
1260. Personnel who have not been assigned to be part of the
emergency squad, or allotted other duties and are not on
Support squad
watch at the time of the emergency will be assigned to
the__________ .
1261. The frustration of a seafarer wherein practices like
regionalism, lack of concern for others and unreconciled disunity
differences is called_________.

55 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1262. What is a factor that contribute to the occurrence of
group factor
mistakes due to relationships among individuals.
1263. What term is used to describe accident casualty when
cause is attributed to the mistakes of an individual or Human error
organization?
1264. What is the type of human factor that contribute to
operators committing error because of their work Organizational factors
environment?
1265. The ability to use and exert power over followers, leader
role models actions and behaviours he/she wants influence
followers to emulate is called___________.
1266. The question of human relations considers managers interacting with
___________. employees
1267. Behavior of a leader that deals with long range plan,
conceptual
broad relationship and ideas is called________.
1268. Type of human error when an operator is distracted or
preoccupied with another task and allows a mistake to skill-based
occur is termed as __________.
1269. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessels
incinerator which has burned packages containing Discharge to shore facility only
plastic?
1270. Which of the following steps is not a part of the rational Identify the symptoms of the
problem solving process? problem
1271. There are three conflict methods most frequently used in
managing conflicts; supervision, integrative problem compromise
solving and_________.
Select goals for the ships
1272. What is the first step in planning?
organization
1273. Human performance breakdowns resulting to accident
poor conscious choice or decisions
are more likely a result of__________.

1274. To whom must proper familiarization of duties be given? New personnel

1275. What is the hierarchical structure of efficient and


Bureaucracy
effective organizations?
1276. On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, the entire steering gear be tested
regulations require that __________. within 12 hours prior to departure
1277. What is a management system designed with the intent
Quality System
of ensuring fulfillment of customers requirement?
1278. On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, the entire steering gear be tested
regulations require that __________. within 12 hours prior to departure
Be strict and always expect good
1279. Which of the following is NOT a key to human relation?
result.
1280. Managerial performance is based upon accomplishment
objectives
of _____________.
1281. For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and
practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched once a month
with their assigned crew __________.
1282. The routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic
ship operators are prescribed by which government MARINA
agency?
1283. As an officer of an engineeting watch. What would the Take action to start the process to
best thing to do, if the Chief Engineer does not or solve the situation, but do it
cannot take the leadership? diplomatically.
1284. When a Chief Engineer takes the leadership in Yes, take full control. Do not
approaching a problem, Will his first action be a decision delegate to other officers, to avoid
that directly solve the problem? mistake.
1285. Human memory is affected by all of the following
irrationality of an event
except_____.
56 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1286. The term used to describe accident casualty when
cause is attributed to the behavior of an individual or human factor
organization ______.
1287. A role behavior of a leader which refers to a persons
knowledge of proficiency in any type of process of technical skill
technique is called__________.
1288. As an officer of an engineeting watch. What would the Take action to start the process to
best thing to do, if the Chief Engineer does not or cannot solve the situation, but do it
take the leadership? diplomatically.

1289. The ability to get things done right is__________. efficiency

To create sub-agencies for the


1290. MARINA was created and geared towards the following
safe transport of goods and
objectives except__________.
passengers
Contain the oil and remove as
1291. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what
much of it as possible from the
should you do after reporting the discharge?
water.
1292. This is the most effective management development
Coaching
technique.
1293. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may Any individual connected with the
be held responsible? vessel involved in the operation
1294. A kind of teaching- learning principle where the trainee
must proceed step by step and each step must be in
graduated sequence
some way more difficult than the previous step is
called_________.
1295. The person on a MODU who is responsible for Chief Engineer, or engineer in
maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and charge if no chief engineer is
sanitary condition is the __________. required
1296. A role behavior of a leader which refers to a persons
knowledge of proficiency in any type of process of technical skill
technique is called__________.
1297. Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent
Unsafe condition
accidents?
1298. A responsible officer should be appointed to maintain
appropriate records and to ensure that ballast water
recorded
management and/or treatment procedures are followed
and________.
1299. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they not attack the fire from opposite
should __________. sides
1300. In order to maintain safe working conditions on board
be attentive to all what is happening
the vessel, every crewmember should do the following,
in the surroundings
except___________.
1301. This process which involves gaining a detailed
understanding of a task being carried out, identifying if
risk assessment
there are risk factors/hazards present and eliminate risk
factors/hazards is called________.
1302. For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and
practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched once a month
with their assigned crew __________.
1303. On board a vessel, he is an officer who gives
responsibilities to his followers gradually so that in the
By example
future,they can stand on their own. Which leadership
styles is he practicing?
1304. In order to have an effective security plan or measures
to take in the event of pirate attacks, which of the Ships crew
following persons or groups should be informed?
1305. Recruitment, training and development of organization
human resource management
members is ________
1306. Which of the following implies that we determine the
extent of some characteristics associated with Measurement
something such as a person or an object?

57 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1307. The appointment of a person to a higher rank gives
potential authority only
__________.
1308. What is the most effective example management
Coaching
development technique?

1309. Ethics concerns all of the following except _________. Charity

check for items which may


1310. When a ship is expected to encounter rough seas, it is a
become adrift and secure
good safety practice to __________.
loose gear
1311. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes
of reception facilities to be connected with the ships
215 mm
discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges
should be_________.
1312. What do you call the Master's special skill in order to
deliver the best possible operation of his vessel within Managerial skills
the budget constraints?
1313. In general, how often are sanitary inspections of
Once a month
passenger and crew quarters made aboard vessels?
1314. Once a problem has been defined by the management,
identify the decision objectives
the next move is to__________.
1315. Cadets are not included in the manning nor regard them emergency situations of limited
as forming part of the manning except ___________. duration
1316. Watchkeepers should have a mandatory rest periods of
70 hours
_______ in any one week.
1317. What do you call a systematic application of
management system policies, procedures and practices
Environmental Risk Management
to the task of analyzing, evaluating and controlling
environmental risk?

1318. What are the keys to good human relations? Treat people as individual

1319. All of the following are TRUE about decision making


it is needed in stable environments
except________.
1320. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special
it must be more than 12 miles from
Area, it has to comply with the following conditions
the nearest coast
except______.
1321. The person on a MODU who is responsible for Chief Engineer, or engineer in
maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and charge if no chief engineer is
sanitary condition is the __________. required
1322. This is a type of human error when an operator applied a
direct rule and allows a mistake occur due to lack of rule base
familiarity with the problem.
1323. Providing a new crew with the information needed in
order to function comfortably in the ship is called familiarization
________.
make a visual inspection of all
1324. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to
engine spaces and secure loose
__________.
gear
1325. The frustration of a seafarer wherein practices like
regionalism, lack of concern for others and unreconciled disunity
differences is called_________.

1326. The most frequently used appraisal approach is ______. a superiors rating of subordinate

1327. Welding and burning are among the factors which give
The welder shall have been
the highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has to
instructed in the use of the ship's
be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety
welding plant.
rules may be regarded as the most important?
1328. The requirements for special welding procedures to be
used on a construction portfolio
MODU must be contained in the .

58 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


make a visual inspection
1329. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety
of all engine spaces and
practice to __________.
secure loose gear
1330. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may Any individual connected with the
be held responsible? vessel involved in the operation
Contain the oil and remove as
1331. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what
much of it as possible from the
should you do after reporting the discharge?
water.

1332. Efficiency is the ability to_________. get things done right

1333. What do you call the Master's special skill in order to


deliver the best possible operation of his vessel within Managerial skills
the budget constraints?
1334. What do you call a situation which could have lead to an
Hazardous Occurrences
accident if they had developed further?

COMPETENCE 17
1335. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then use a portable CO2 extinguisher
__________.
1336. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and
figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The
2 inches
height of the letters and figures must be at least
__________.
1337. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they not attack the fire from opposite
should __________. sides
1338. A safety ring pin is usually inserted in the handle of a accidental discharge from the
CO2 fire extinguisher to prevent________ . extinguisher
check operating pressures and
1339. After an engine is started you should __________.
temperatures, and check for leaks
1340. A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that
all tanks and pump rooms are potentially dangerous.
any of the above conditions occur
You should immediately leave an area
whenever________.
1341. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room
evacuate all engine room personnel
fire, you must __________.
1342. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should
close all openings to the area
__________.
It is visible for a shorter time than a
1343. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
fuel oil spill.
1344. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a
separate and accessible location
tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.
1345. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked
an identification number
with __________.
1346. When instructing a crew member concerning the right
way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to bend his knees and lift with his legs
__________.
1347. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent
conducts electricity
is that foam_____.
1348. The maximum number of personnel allowed on a
4
personnel transfer basket is __________.
1349. What do oil discharge in large quantities form which
affect birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these
slicks
do not disperse into the water as water droplets before
reaching shore?
1350. To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you
Give him sips of cool water
should __________.

59 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1351. What is a contingency plan for ships? Plan for safety preparedness

1352. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what


Secure the ventilation
should be the FIRST firefighting response?
1353. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing By smothering and also providing
agent when dealing with oil fires? some cooling
1354. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time
an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the spread an absorbent material, such
transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and as sawdust
then __________.
1355. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going
plugging the scuppers
overboard by ______:
1356. When instructing a crew member concerning the right
way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to bend his knees and lift with his legs
__________.
are made of bronze, brass, or soft
1357. Fire hose couplings __________.
alloy metals
1358. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher,
remove the locking pin
the operator must FIRST __________.
1359. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is Avoiding possible injury to the
__________. spinal cord by incorrect handling
1360. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked
an identification number
with __________.
1361. If you have a fire in the engine room, your first act secure the fuel supply and
should be to __________. ventilation to the engine room.

1362. Control of fire should be addressed __________. immediately

It is visible for a shorter time than a


1363. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
fuel oil spill.
1364. To ensure the early and efficient collection and
exchange of security-related information is one of the ISPS Code
objectives of_______.
1365. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers
required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit one B-II
is __________.
1366. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher,
remove the locking pin
the operator must FIRST __________.
Unnecessary haste and
1367. When administering first aid, what should you avoid?
appearance of uncertainty
1368. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST
Breathing and heartbeat
medical response is to check for __________.
1369. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should
close all openings to the area
__________.
1370. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in
Oil Record Book
the __________.
1371. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which Shut down the operation.
action should you take first ?
1372. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room
evacuate all engine room personnel
fire, you must __________.
1373. Injuries resulting from slips and falls constitute the
largest percentage of accidents that occur in the catering Keep the floors and decks free from
department. What shall be done to reduce this high fat and grease.
accident rate?

60 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1374. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury Avoiding possible injury to the
patient ? spinal cord by incorrect handling
1375. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to
plug the scuppers
__________
check operating pressures and
1376. After an engine is started you should __________.
temperatures, and check for leaks
1377. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what
Secure the ventilation
should be the FIRST firefighting response?
1378. A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping over pressurization of the CO2
to prevent_________ . discharge piping
1379. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a
separate and accessible location
tankship must be stowed in __________.
1380. What equipment must be on a life float? (small Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline
passenger vessel regulations) and pendants
1381. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which Shut down the operation.
action should you take first ?
1382. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST
Breathing and heartbeat
medical response is to check for __________.
1383. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the Bow into the wind and decrease
fire, you should put the __________. speed
1384. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to
plug the scuppers
__________
1385. When administering first aid you should avoid Unnecessary haste and
__________. appearance of uncertainty
1386. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with
completely closing the compartment
carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by__________.
1387. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which
Arms above their head
position?
1388. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers
required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit one B-II
is __________.
1389. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and
figures such as Fire Station No. 1, 2, 3 and others. The
5 cm
height of the letters and figures must be at least
__________.
1390. What equipment must be on a life float? (small Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline
passenger vessel regulations) and pendants
removing combustibles from the
1391. The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
endangered area

1392. Control of fire should be addressed __________. immediately

1393. Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in Extinguishing attempt is started
case of a fire? immediately
1394. Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with
Central gas extinguishing system
least side effects in case of a large fire in the engine
and/or water fog.
room?
1395. Which of the following is NOT TRUE why there may not Enclosed space has no proper
be enough oxygen in an enclosed space or tank? circulation of air.
1396. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on
CO2
electrical fires?
1397. How do you treat a person suffering from heat
Give him sips of cool water
exhaustion?

61 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL


1398. When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be drained, blanked off, and stored
__________. securely
1399. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then use a portable CO2 extinguisher
__________.
1400. What is the most important consideration when
Danger of shock to personnel
determining how to fight an electrical fire?
1401. What is the most important consideration when
Danger of shock to personnel
determining how to fight an electrical fire?

1402. Before CPR is started, you should ____________. establish an open airway

1403. The maximum number of personnel allowed on a


4
personnel transfer basket is __________.
removing combustibles from the
1404. The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
endangered area
1405. Oil discharge in large quantities form ______ which will
affect birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these
slicks
do not disperse into the water as water droplets before
reaching shore:
1406. A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
MSDS, having a flash point below 37.78C is called flammable liquid
________ .
1407. Which of the following is NOT TRUE why there may not Enclosed space has no proper
be enough oxygen in an enclosed space or tank? circulation of air.
1408. A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data
Sheet (MSDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in
sensitizer
some people after repeated exposure is
_____________.
1409. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with
completely closing the compartment
carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.
1410. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the Bow into the wind and decrease
fire, you should put the __________. speed
1411. Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found
muster List
in the __________.
1412. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a
separate and accessible location
tankship must be stowed in __________.
1413. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is Avoiding possible injury to the
__________. spinal cord by incorrect handling
1414. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the
Secure the ventilation
FIRST firefighting response should be to __________.
1415. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time
an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the spread an absorbent material, such
transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and as sawdust
then __________.
1416. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with
Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped An oil content meter
with_________.
1417. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they not attack the fire from opposite
should __________. sides
1418. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in
Oil Record Book
the __________.
are made of bronze, brass, or soft
1419. Fire hose couplings __________.
alloy metals
1420. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and
figures such as Fire Station No. 1, 2, 3 and others. The
5 cm
height of the letters and figures must be at least
__________.
62 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1421. When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be drained, blanked off, and stored
__________. securely
1422. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with
completely closing the compartment
carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by__________.
1423. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which
Arms above their head
position?
1424. If you have a fire in the engine room, your first act secure the fuel supply and
should be to __________. ventilation to the engine room.
1425. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a
Shutdown the transfer operations.
MODU (Mobile Offshore Drilling Unit), which of the listed
actions should be taken first?
1426. A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data
Sheet that reacts with water or moist air, and produces a water-reactive
health or physical hazard, is called _______ .
1427. Which of the following is false why there may not be Enclosed space has no proper
enough oxygen in an enclosed space or tank? circulation of air.
1428. For the safety of personnel working with fire hoses, fire pressure gage and relief valve on
pumps are fitted with ____________. the discharge side
1429. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire
It is always non-toxic.
extinguishing agent?

63 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL