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6. The record shows that propofol was given for induction. What would be the
most likely adverse responses associated with he administration of the
widely used drug?
a. hypotension & respiratory ventilatory depression b.
laryngospasm
c. long-term memory loss d. malignant hyperthermia e.
seizures
8. A patient with Parkinson disease has signs and symptoms that can be
considered moderate now, but they are worsening and not responding well
to current drug therapy. The physician decides to empirically assess and
antiparkinson drug that is a selective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase type B
(MAO-B). Which of the ffg drugs would that be?
a. bromocriptine b. carbidopa c. phenelzine d. selegiline e.
tranylcypromine
10. Package inserts for a drug caution against administering the medication
concurrent with any other drug that can raise or lower serum sodium
concentrations. The risks are inadequate or excessive effects of the drug,
depending on the direction in which serum sodium concentrations change.
This, of course, requires cautious use or avoidance (if possible) of the
common diuretics. To which of the following drugs does this caution or
warning most likely apply?
a. cholestyramineb. lithium c. nifedipine d. phenylephrine
e. stain-type cholesterol lowering drugs
11. A 42 year old woman with a long history of anxiety that has been treated
with diazepam decided to triple her daily dose because of increasing
fearfulness about global warning. Two days after her attempt at self
prescribing, she is found extremely lethargic and non responsive with
markedly obtunded reflexes and reactions to painful stimuli. Respirations are
8/min and shallow. What drug would you give to manage these drug-induced
signs and symptoms?
a. dextroamphetamine b. flumazenil c. naltrexone d. physostigmine
e. pralidoxime
16. Many legal jurisdictions have imposed various restrictions on over the-
counter sale of products that contain pseudoephedrine, for example, various
oral decongestant products. That is because pseudoephedrine can be rather
easily used to synthesize which of the following highly psychoactiveand
abuse-prone drug?
a. Methamphetamine b. Morphine c. Oxycodoned. Pentazocinee.
Phencyclidine ("PCP")
19. Nearly all the drugs used as a primary therapy or as adjuncts for the
treatment of Parkinson disease or drug-induced parkinsonism exert their
desired effects directly in the brains striatum. Which one exerts its main
effects in the gut, not in the brain?
a. amantadine c. bromocriptine d. carbidopa
b. benztropine e. selegiline
b. chlorpromazine e. promethazine
Case: A 35-kg child with heart disease requires immediate treatment with
the antiarrythmic drug procainamide. The textbook lists the following
pharmacokinetic values for procainamide in a 70-kg person: Vd = 130 L, C/36
L/h, oral availability 10% and therapeutic concentrations 5 mg/L
21. What constant intravenous infusion rate should be used to maintain the
therapeutic concentration of 5 mg/L?
a. 90 mg/hb. 108 mg/h c. 180 mg/hd. 217 mg/h e. 650
mg/h
22. Which of the following need not be accomplished before a drug can be
tested to humans?
a. acute toxicity testing in animals
b. reproductive toxicity testing in animals
c. approval of an Investigational New Drug (IND) exemption application
d. approval of a New Drug Application (NDA)
Case: A 22 year old male presents with ___ ___ And milky penile discharge
30. Azithromycin provides ___ for nongonoccocal pathogen that are often
associated with gonococcal urethritis, but the drug has no activity against
which of the following?
a. any of the following organism b. chlamydial species c.
mycoplasmal species
d. irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase e. cause
vasodilation
31. Mr. Cruz has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. You are
considering different therapies for his disease. Pyridostigmine and
neostigmine may cause which one of the following?
a. bronchodilation
b. cycloplegia
c. diarrhea
d. irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
e. reduced gastric acid secretion
33. Actions and clinical uses of muscarinic and cholinoceptor agonist include
which one of the following?
a. Bronchodilation (asthma)
b. Cyclopegia, improve aqueous humor drainage (glaucoma)
c. Increase gastrointestinal motility (abdominal surgery)
d. Decreased neuromuscular transmission and relaxation of skeletal muscle
(surgical anesthesia)
34. Which of the following agents is a prodrug that is much less toxic in
mammals than in insects?
a. malathion b. nicotine c. parathion d. physostigmine e.
pilocarpine
35. Which of the ff. is a direct-acting cholinomimetic used for its mode-
elevating action and as an insecticide?
a. bethanechol b. neostigmine c. nicotine d. physostigmine e.
pilocarpine
36. An indirect-acting cholinomimetic that readily enters the CNS is
a. bethanechol b. muscarine c. neostigmine d. physostigmine
e. pilocarpine
37. The primary second messenger process involved in the contraction of the
ciliary muscle when focusing on near objects involves?
a. cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) d. IP3 (Inositol
1,4,5-triphosphate)
b. DAG (Diacylglycerol) e. NO (Nitric oxide)
c. depolarizing influx of sodium ions via a channel
39. Which of the following pair of drugs and properties is most correct?
a. atropine poorly absorbed after oral administration
b. benztropine quaternary ___, poor CNS penetration
c. cycloperoxidase will be absorbed from conjunctival sac into
the eye
d. ipratropium will be absorbed long elimination half-life
e. scopolamine, short duration of action when used as anti-motion
sickness agent
42. A friend has a very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor
wishes to prescribe. Her physician explained that this drug is associated with
tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair
growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your
friend has described?
a. captopril b. guanethidine c. minoxidil d. prasozin e.propanolol
43. A pregnant patient is admitted to the hematology service with
moderately severe hemolytic anemia. After a thorough work-up the only
positive finding is a history of treatment with an antihypertensive drug since
2 months after beginning the pregnancy. The most likely cause of the
patients blood disorder is
a. atenolol b. captopril c. hydralazine d. methyldopa
e. minoxidil
46. A drug that can cause renal damage in the fetus if given during
pregnancy
a. captopril b. diazoxide c. fenoldopam d.
guanethidine e. hydralazine
47. The drugs that have been found to be least useful in heart failure are the
a. Na+/K+ ATPase inhibition
b. calcium channel blockers
c. beta-adrenoceptor agonists
d. beta-adrenoceptor antagonists
e. ACE inhibitors
52. Which of the following drugs is NOT suitable for chronic oral therapy of
arrhythmias?
a. amiodarone b. disopyramide c. esmolol d. quinidine e.
verapamil
54. Which of the ff. drugs does NOT consistently reduce the potassium (Ix)
repolarizing current and thereby prolong the action potential duration?
a. amiodarone b. ibutilide c. lidocaine d. quinidine e.
sotalol
56. A 50-year old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with
high-calcium renal stones. The most useful diuretic agent in the treatment of
recurrent calcium stones is
a. acetazolamide c. hydrochlorothiazide d. mannitol
b. furosemide e. spironolactone
60. Patient was hospitalized 5 times between the ages 7 and 9. He is now....
And reduced the frequency of severe attacks. Which of the following...... over
long periods for severe asthma? (sorry guys putol talaga)
a. ---b. ---c. ---d. ---e. prednisone by mouth (Baka ito kasi controller sya) f.
theophylline in long-acting oral form
61. Patient D is 28 year old bi sexual who just recently tested positive for HIV.
Prophylaxis for pneumocystosis was considered, and the following drugs can
be used except:
65. G6PD status of the patient is always assess before administering this anti
malarial agent.
66. This anti leprosy agent is useful in multi bacillary leprosy, it possess anti
inflammatory effects thus it is use in erythema nodosum leprosy.
69. Use as sterilizing agent should the TB isolate prove resistant to anti TB
agents.
75.An anti fungal imidazole derivative that is also a potent and rather non
selective inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis:
77. an 18 year old patient came in because his routine urinalysis revealed
glycosuria and an RBS of 250 mg/dl. History revealed that patient
experienced weight loss, polydiipsia, fatigue, and 3 episodes of vaginal yeast
infection in the past 3 months. The family is negative for DM, and patient is
not taking any medications. PE: weight: 48 kg, ht:52. Lab results- 280 mg/dl
FBS, and strongly positive urine glucose and ketones. To achieve control of
the diabetes and probable ketoacidosis in the diabetic patient, the
appropriate antidiabetic agent to be use is:
A. crystalline zinc insulin B. tolbutamide C. glyburide D. ultra
lente insulin
81. Have a particular role in treating patients with chronic kidney because
they diminish proteinuria & stabilize renal function
a. ARB b. ACEI c. diuretics d. betablockers
82. NSAID drugs used in arthritis may impair the hypotensive effects of ACEI
by
a. blocking the enzyme peptidyldipeptidase
b. stimulating COX
c. blocking the bradykinin-mediated vasodilation
d. stimulating influx of potassium
100. The ff. condition are contraindicated with the use of Ca channel
blockers
a. cardiogenic shock c. congestive heart failure
b. recent myocardial infarction d. A & B e. all of the
above
101. This agent can block the bradycardia associated with anticholinesterase
agent
a. metacholine b. atropine c. physostigmine d. pilocarpine
104. The patient has an existing bladder outlet obstruction, use of this drug
is contraindicated:
a. amantadine b. pergolide c. selegeline d.
trihexyphenidyl
105. The following are the main goals in the treatment of parkinsons
disease, EXCEPT:
a. increase dopamine concentration c. increase ACH
activity
b. slow the loss of dopamine d. decrease ACH
activity
117. When a dose response study of atropine is carried out in young adults,
which of the following effects may be observed
a. tachycardia c. constipation
b. blurred vision d. A & B e. all of the above
125. Used to treat tuberculosis resistant to the first line agents, inhibits
alanine racemase
a. Vancomycin b. Bacitracin c. Cycloserine
d. Fosfomycin
129. This drug can cause anterograde amnesia, useful prior to diagnostic
procedures or operation
a. diazepam b. phenobarbital c. buspirone d.
zolpidem
130. A 24-year old was taking diazepam for almost 2 months. She was noted
to be sleeping more heavily and longer period of time this last few days. She
was taking also another drug. Most possibly the drug that she is taking at the
same time with diazepam is:
a. rifampin b. cimetidine c. valproic acid d.
acetaminophen
131. A 7-year old boy was brought to the emergency room because of an
ongoing seizures which has lasted for more than 5 minutes already. The best
drug to give at once is:
a. diazepam b. phenytoin c. lorazepam
d. phenobarbital
132. A 25-year old female taking an anticonvulsant drugs for almost 2 years
developed diplopia, ataxia, severe anaphylactic reaction, and aplastic
anemia. Most probably the patient is taking this drug:
a. phenytoin b. carbamazepine c. lamotrigine
d. valproic acid
133. May cause hepatotoxicity and cause spina bifida in babies with mothers
taking the drug:
a. phenytoin b. phenobarbital c. diazepam d.
valproic acid
134. This drug will have an increase concentration in acute alcoholism and
decrease concentration in chronic alcoholism
a. phenytoin b. phenobarbital c. diazepam
d. valproic acid
135. A spindle poison, this plant alkaloid which comes from periwinkle plant,
is a neurotoxic and of lesser bone suppression effect:
a. vincristine b. vinblastine c.irinotecan d.
paclitaxel
137.
138. A 60-year old is being treated for his lung cancer with procarbazine.
This should not be given to the patient with
a. alcohol b. cytarabine c. amoxicillin d.
vinblastine
139. A 30-year old male was diagnosed to have brain tumor, this lipid soluble
nitrosurea drug is _____:
a. carmustine b. cyclophosphamide c. daunorubicin
d. busulfan
140. This 30 S inihibitor should not be taken with food, antacids, and iron
supplements
a. gentamicin b. tetracyclines c. erythromycin d.
levofloxacin
143. Cholestatic jaundice has been reported with the use of the drug
a. Chloramphenicol b. Tetracycline c. Amikacin d.
Erythromycin
144. This kills both vegetative cells and spores when applied to materials for
appropriate times and temperature
a. sterilants b. antiseptics c. astringents
d. disinfectants
147. This agent works mainly on the serotonergic system, decreasing the
activity of the neurotransmitter and its metabolite 5 hydroxy indole acetic
acid and produces a state of hyperarousal to the CNS
a. Diazepam b. GHB c. LSD d. Cocaine
150. Oral use of this agent is effective only when the fungi is within the
lumen of GIT & not for systemic infection
a. amphotericin B b. flucytosine c. ketoconazole d.
fluconazole
152. Drug that potentiates the synthesis, release & prevents reuptake of
dopamine:
a. levodopa b. MAO inhibitor c. amantadine d.
dopamine agonist
154. A 54-year old female complained of headache and nape pain. Vital signs
taken include a BP of 180/110 mmHg. Alpha 2-agonists work by decreasing
sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a
selective alpha 2-agonist?
a. Clonidine b. Methyldopa c. Guanabenz d.
Epinephrine
155. A 25-year old female took 15 tablets of Diazepam after knowing that
her boyfriend had eloped with another woman. She was rushed to the
emergency room having lost consciousness. The drug that should be given
immediately is:
a. flurazepam b. flumazenil c. fluorouracil
d. fluoxetine
156. A 60-year old male was diagnosed to have a brain tumor. This lipid
soluble alkylating agent was given to the patient as chemotherapy
a. anastrazole b. tamoxifen c. methotrexate d.
carmustine
158. A 4-year old boy was diagnosed to have petit mal or absence seizures.
The treatment of choice is:
a. Phenobarbital b. phenytoin c. ethoxusimided.
carbamazepine
160. A 28-year old female has been taking this drug for more than 3 years.
She complained of motor incoordination, hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia.
She is possibly taking this drug:
a. phenobarbital b. phenytoin c. carbamazepine d. valproic
acid