MICROBIOLOGY A.

Involved in the formation of peptide

bond between two peptidoglycan
1. Which is true about the bacterial cell? subunits
A. Prokaryotic, unicellular B. Hydrolyzes peptidoglycan by
B. Gram positive bacteria have outer cleaving the glycosyl bonds between
membrane N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetyl
C. Gram negative bacteria have thicker glucosamine
cell wall than gram positive bacteria C. An enxyme that dissolves the
D. Eukaryotic, muliticellular peptidoglycan layer
Answer: A D. Located in the periplasmic space and
is involved in the hydrolysis of
2. Which structure is found in gram-negative foreign DNA
bacteria but not in gram positive bacteria? Answer: B
A. outer membrane C. nucleoid
B. peptidoglycan D. plasma membrane 9. True about gram negative bacteria
Answer: A A. Have simpler but thicker cell wall
than gram positive bacteria
3. True about transfer of genes from one B. Has an outer membrane located
bacterium to another. outside the peptidoglycan layer
A. Gram negative bacteria that have sex C. Contains teichoic acid polymers
pill transfer plasmids by conjugation dispersed throughout the
B. Free DNA fragments are transferred peptidoglycan
by transformation D. Removal of the cell wall results in
C. Bacteriophages are involved in the formation of protoplasis
transduction Answer: B
D. Involves participation of flagella
Answer: A 10. This type of antibiotic should be used with
caution because of renal and ototoxicity.
4. Which of the following bacteria is gram A. Penicillins C.
negative Aminoglycosides
A. Staphylococcus C. B. Macrolides D. Tetracycyclines
Corynebacterium Answer: C
B. Vibrio D. Lactobacillus
Answer: B 11. Lack/s the ability to develop catalase and
superoxide dismutase:
5. True about obligate anaerobes A. Obligate aerobes C. Facultative
A. Use sugars by oxidative pathway anaerobes
B. Infections are limited to muscle B. Obligate anaerobes D.
tissues Aerotolerant anaerobes
C. Lack superoxide dismutase Answer: B
D. Can use oxygen in small amounts
Answer: C 12. Which bacterial structures is not essential
for growth but may confer survival
6. Which structure is associated with virulence advantage under certain conditions?
of a bacterium A. Cell wall C. Endospore
A. Cell wall C. Flagella B. Outer membrane D. Flagella
B. Lipopolysaccharide D. Endospores Answer: D
Answer: B
13. Serves as an anchor to bind and pull apart
7. This mechanism of gene transfer is daughter chromosomes during cell division
characterized by the requirement for cell-to- A. Pill C. Flagella
cell contact B. Mesosome D. Outer
A. Conjugation C. Transformation membrane
B. Transduction D. Transfection Answer: B
Answer: A
14. Responsible for the endotoxin activity of
8. Action of lysozyme lipopolysaccharide
A. Somatic O polysaccharide C.
Lipid A
 B. Core polysaccharide D. protein A A. Chromomycosis C.
Answer: C Lobomycosis
B. Mycetoma D.
15. Use organic compounds as carbon source Sporotrichosis
and chemical reactions as energy source Answer: B
A. Chemolithotrophs C.
photoorganotrophs 23. Cave explorers who develop pneumonia
B. Chemoorganotrophs D. following such explorations are likely to
photolithotrophs have acquired
Answer: B A. Blastomycosis C. Histoplasmosis
B. Candidiasis D. Cryptococcosis
16. A mutant bacterium lacks the ability to Answer: C
produce the amino acid leucine and grows
only in a culture medium containing leucine. 24. A diver in a deep stagnant water develops
This bacterium was exposed to a preparation polypoid masses in his nostrils. He is likely
of DNA from Pseudomonas aeruginosa and to have acquired
was able to grow in a medium without A. Chromomycosis C.
leucine. What mechanism or event may Lobomycosis
have taken place? B. Rhinosporidiosis D.
A. Transduction C. Conjugation Sporotrichosis
B. Transformation D. Answer: B
Chromosomal mutation
Answer: B 25. A farmer developed verrucous and warty
lesions on his legs. Upon examination of
17. Normally sterile site in the body sample of skin crusting by KOH
A. Mouth C. Vagina preparation, dark colored sclerotic bodies
B. Anus D. CSF were seen. The most likely diagnosis is
Answer: D A. Chromomycosis B. mycetoma
C. lobomycosis D.
18. A strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is able sporotrichosis
to produce pyrogenic exotoxin encoded by a Answer: A
prophage is an example of:
A. Transposition C. Conjugation 26. A gardener developed multiple
B. Lysogeny D. subcutaneous nodules on his forearm. A
Chromosomal mutation biopsy material did not show any fungus on
Answer: B direct microscopic examination. However,
in culture, white, pasty and moist colonies
19. Calcium dipicalinate is found in: were seen. Wet mount using lactophenol
A. Aspergillus C. Escherichia cotton blue of the culture showed the
B. Bacillus D. presence of very fine hyphae and tear-drop-
Mycobacteria shaped conidia.
Answer: B A. The probable organism will form
yeast cells when grown in brain
20. Antimicrobial which exert its action through heart infusion blood agar at 37 C
inhibition of cell wall synthesis. B. The culture above showed the tissue
A. Aminoglycoside C. Penicillin form of the fungus
B. Tetracycline D. Rifampicin C. The infection was most likely
Answer: C acquired from diving in deep
stagnant water
21. The diagnosis of a primary infection D. The causative fungus easily
requires that a 4-fold increase in titer of this disseminates to other tissues
antibody be demonstrated Answer: A
A. IgG C. IgD
B. IgM D. IgA 27. The presence of multiple budding cells in
Answer: A chain in a biopsy specimen obtained from
subcutaneous nodules in the legs is
22. The presence of granules in discharge from suggestive of
draining sinus tracts is indicative of A. Paracoccidioidomycosis
C.lobomycosis
2
 B. Blastomycosis D. 33. Which of the following is true about
sporotrichosis Rickettsiae
Answer: C A. All are transmitted by arthropods
B. All infections are characterized by
28. The tissue form of Histoplasma capsulatum skin rashes
is seen as C. All are obligate intracellular
A. Intracellular yeast in macrophages parasites
D. All survive the environment by
C. multiple budding cells producing endospores
B. Spherules Answer: C
D. encapsulated yeast
Answer: A 34. A 16-year old salesgirl present to the
29. The infection caused by this fungus is physician with the chief complaints of
initiated by inhalation of arthroconidia, headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, high-
which are found in semi-arid regions grade fever, photophobia and petechial
A. C. neoformans C. B. dermatitidis rashes. P.E. reveals an ill-appearing child
B. C. immitis D. H. unable to flex his neck without eliciting pain
capsulatum and diffuse petechial rashes in his
Answer: B extremities. Kernig and Brudzinski signs are
positive. CSF analysis reveals increased
30. In histoplasmosis, the causative organism neutrophils, increased protein and low
identified based on the presence of glucose. What is the most probable
A. tuberculate macroconidia in culture causative agent
at room temperature A. Listeria monocytogenes C. Neisseria
B. encapsulated yeast by India ink meningitidis
preparation B. Escherichia coli D. Reovirus
C. mucoid colonies on Sabourauds Answer: C
agar
D. single budding yeast cells in infected 35. Which is the best method of diagnosis of
tissue typhoid fever?
Answer: A A. Widal test C.
blood culture
31. Which of the following is true about the B. Typhi dot D.
members of the family Enterobacteriaceae? stool culture
A. Salmonella serotype typhi is Answer: C
transmitted by human carriers as
well as by animals 36. Which is the most common cause of non-
B. Shigella dysenteriae toxin kills cells gonococcal urethritis?
by activating adenyl cylcase A. C. trachomatis C. U.
C. Escherichia coli usually produces urealyticum
intestinal disease only when it B. M. pneumoniae D. S.
carries a plasmid or a phage that aureus
code for virulence factors Answer: A
D. Proteus mirabilis is an important
cause of gastroenteritis 37. Resistance to tuberculosis is mediated by
Answer: C A. Cell-mediated immunity C.
interferon
32. True about opportunistic members of the B. Humoral immunity D. NK
family Enterobacteriaceae cells
A. They are nonpathogenic in the Answer: A
intestinal tract
B. Infections are produced in and out of 38. Which of the following is LEAST likely
the intestines about Escherichia coli?
C. They are the most abundant flora of A. Pathogenicity in the GIT is
the colon associated with the presence of a
D. They are not known to cause plasmid
septicemia B. Strains producing K1 antigen are
Answer: A associated with neonatal meningitis

3
 C. Enterotoxigenic strains produce
diarrhea by invasion of the intestinal 43. A 20-year-old woman presents with sudden
mucosa onset of fever of 40 C, severe headache and
D. Serotype O157:H7 is associated with generalized petechial rash. Physical
hemolytic uremic syndrome examination reveals nuchal rigidity.
Answer: C Meningococcemia is suspected and is
confirmed by a culture CSF. She has a
39. Which of the following characterize history of several serious infections with the
Salmonella typhi? causative organism. Which one of the
A. Infects man and animals following is the MOST likely predisposing
B. Non-invasive factor?
C. The organism is a non-lactose A. She is HIV antibody-positive
fermenting, nonmotile bacillus B. She is deficient in CD8-positive cells
D. Chronic carriers harbor the organism C. She is deficient in one of the late-
in the gallbladder acting complement components
Answer: D D. She is deficient in antigen-presenting
cells
40. One of the following produces a toxin that Answer: C
inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-
ribosylation of EF-2 44. This test will differentiate staphylococcus
A. S. dysenteriae C. C. from streptococcus
diphtheriae A. coagulase C. oxidase
B. S. pyogenes D. M. B. catalase D. sugar
tuberculosis fermentation
Answer: C Answer: B

41. Which of the following produces a 45. Laboratory procedure of choice for primary
mononucleosis-like disease syphilis.
A. Orientia tsutsugamushi C. Ehrlichia A. darkfield microscopy C.
chafeensis MHA TP
B. Rickettsia prowazeki D. B. RPR D. VDRL
Coxiella burnetii Answer: A
Answer: C
46. Infective particle of chlamydia
42. A 63-year old man has been hospitalized for A. Elementary body C.
the previous 21 days for the management of endospore
newly diagnosed leukemia. During the B. Reticulate body D.
period of hospitalization, the patient fission body
developed a urinary tract infection with Answer: A
Escherichia coli and was treated for 14 days
with broad-spectrum antibiotics. On the 21st 47. The toxin of V. cholerae is antigenically
hospital day, the patient developed fever and similar to
shaking chills. Within 24 hours, the patient A. shiga toxin C. ST of E. coli
became hypotensive, and ecthymic skin B. LT of E. coli D. enterotoxin of
lesions appeared. Despite aggressive therapy shigella
with antibiotics, the patient expired. Answer: B
Multiple blood cultures were positive for
gram negative bacilli that showed negative 48. Responsible for the virulence of M.
results in most biochemical tests and failed tuberculosis
to ferment sugars. Which of the following is A. exotoxin C.
the MOST likely causative agent? mycolic acid
A. E. coli B. K. pneumoniae B. trehalose 6,6 dimyculate D.
endotoxin
C. L. pneumophila D. P. Answer: B
aeruginosa
Answer: D 49. A 5-year-old girl was brought by her mother
in the E.R. due to high grade fever. The patient
also complained of dysphagia and sore throat.
On physical exam, the throat was erythematous
4
throat with white, leathery membrane on both is the most sensitive technique that you will
tonsillar pillars. Culture and sensitivity was request in the laboratory?
done to the patient. Corynebacterium A. complement fixation
dipthteriae was isolated. B. ELISA
C. countercurrent
This organism produces dipthteria toxin. This immunoelectrophoresis
toxin D. indirect immunoflorescence
A. is a neurotoxin Answer: B
B. inhibits protein synthesis
C. induce cAMP production 55. The biologic properties of Ig is a function
D. heat stable of
Answer: B A. Fc fragment C.
Hinge region
50. Purpose/s of giving Penicillin in cases of B. Fab fragment D. Disulfide
tetanus infection is/are: bonds
A. inhibit the growth of C. tetani Answer: A
B. neutralize unbound toxin
C. relax the muscle 56. High levels in fetus with intrauterine
D. to sterilize the necrotic tissue infection:
Answer: A A. IgG B. IgM
C. IgE D. IgD
51. A high titer of this in the serum indicates Answer: B
acute or recent infection
A. IgG B. IgM 57. Predominant antibody in tears
C. IgD D. IgA A. IgG B. IgM
Answer: B C. IgA D. IgE
Answer: C
52. A patient had a viral infection that started to
manifest 7 days ago. Laboratory test showed 58. Predominant antibody in secondary
that the patients antibodies against this immune response
virus have a high ratio of IgM to IgG. What A. IgG B. IgM
is your conclusion? C. IgA D. IgE
A. Its likely that the patient has been Answer: A
exposed to the virus for the first time
B. Its likely that the patient has an 59. The coating of bacteria by antibody leading
autoimmune disease to engulfment by phagocytes is known as
C. The patient is predisposed to type 1 A. ADCC C. anamnestic
hypersensitivity reactions response
D. The patient developed an anamnestic B. opsonization D.
response to the virus hybridization
Answer: A Answer: B

53. A patient is suspected of having diphtheria. 60. This function of the T cells plays a central
The bacterium was isolated but you want to role in both humoral and CMI.
test if it produces an exotoxin. An agar A. effector function C. regulatory
plate, in which a filter paper containing function
specific amtitoxin is embedded, was B. anaphylaxis D. atopy
streaked with the bacterial isolate Answer: C
perpendicular to the filter paper. A precipitin
line was formed between the antitoxin and 61. Which is true about the complement?
the isolate. Which technique was used? A. All of the complement components
A. double immunodiffusion are produced by the liver
B. single radial immunodiffusion B. Always in an active state under
C. immunoelectrophoresis normal conditions.
D. immunoblot C. Activated via a cascade mechanism.
Answer: A D. Alternative pathway is part of the
Adaptive Immunity
54. You want to determine whether your patient Answer: C
is infected with a deadly virus, HIV. Which
5
62. Dengue hemorrahgic fever is an example of: 70. A patient who partially recover from
A. Anaphylactic C. Immune paralytic Poliomyelitis experiences a new
complex onset of muscular weakness, pain and
B. Cytotoxic D. Delayed muscular atrophy, 25-35 years after the
Answer: C acute illness. Which is condition is
described?
63. What method will you use to detect antigen A. Aseptic Poliomyelitis C.
directly in tissue? Paralytic Polio
A. ELISA C. B. Post-poliomyelitis Syndrome D. Non-
Immunoflourescence paralytic Polio
B. ImmunoelectrophoresisD. Answer: B
Hemagglutination
Answer: C 71. The most antigenically unstable influenza
type
64. Protective antibody in viral infections A. type A C. type C
localized in the respiratory tract B. type B D. all
A. IgG B. IgM Answer: A
C. IgA D. IgE
Answer: C 72. Which denotes infectivity and HBV
replication
65. Which is the most potent anaphylatoxin: A. Hbe Ag B. HBs Ah
A. C5a B. C5b
C. C4a D. C3a C. Anti HBe D. Anti HBs
Answer: A Answer: A

66. The Fc region of an immunoglobulin is

involved in
A. binding with antigen 73. Which is NOT a member of family
B. binding with complement Herpesviridae
C. interaction with class I MHC of T a. herpes simplex virus C.
cells chickenpox virus
D. all of the above b. cytomegalovirus D.
Answer: B variola virus
Answer: D
67. A 3-year-old boy is having recurrent
infections particularly by encapsulated 74. Which is true about Hepadnaviridae?
bacteria. You suspect that he is A. has RNA genome B. carries
immunodeficient particularly a low level of reverse transcriptase
IgA. The most appropriate test to determine C. has infectious genome
this is D. dependent on delta hapatitis virus for
A. single radial immunodiffusion replication
B. ELISA Answer: D
C. Immunoflourescnce
D. complement fixation test 75. A neutralization test was done in a patient
Answer: A who is suspected to be suffering from a viral
infection characterized by fever, malaise and
68. The most common cause of bronchiolitis respiratory symptoms. Using anti-echovirus
and pneumonitis in infants antibody, no CPE was observed. Which
A. adenovirus C. RSV statement is true regarding this infection?
B. parainfluenza virus D. measles A. The patient is infected with
virus enterovirus
Answer: C B. The patient is infected with echovirus
C. The patient is unlikely to produce
69. Which is pathognomonic of Rabies? antibodies against enterovirus
A. viral culture C. flourescent D. The result is inconclusive, other tests
antibody test must be done
B. negri bodies D. none Answer: B
Answer: B

6
76. Viruses are cultivated in the following C. the human population is protected
EXCEPT because of previous infection with
A. cell culture C. animals human strain
B. chick embryo D. enriched agar D. antigenic drift
medium Answer: B
Answer: D
82. Which is associated with congenital
77. Which of the following identifies a virus abnormalities?
using a labeled specific antibody? A. mumps C. rubeola
A. Immunoflourescence C. electron B. german measles D. all
microscopy of the above
B. PCR D. virus isolation Answer: B
Answer: A
83. Which is true about poliovirus infection?
78. Hemagglutination inhibition test is NOT A. CNS involvement is NOT common
applicable in which virus B. Most infections have translent
A. influenza virus C. RSV viremia
B. mumps virus D. parainfluenza virus C. The virus multiplies in the muscles
Answer: C D. There is no effective preventive
measure
79. A 2-month pregnant mother suspected of Answer: B
having acquired rubella because of exposure
to a friend who has the illness, was tested 84. Herpangina, which is characterized by the
for antibodies using HAI test. The result formation of vesicular lesions in the
showed that the mother was positive for IgG pharynx is most commonly associated with
but not IgM. Which is the best statement A. poliovirus C.
that describes this case? coxsackie A virus
A. The mother has been infected with B. hepatitis A virus D.
the virus in the past before pregnancy coxsackie B virus
B. The mother is incubating snd would Answer: C
manifest the infection later
C. The fetus will most likely be 85. An astray dog bit your neighbor. The
infected transplacentally wound was bleeding and was cleaned with
D. The mother has no immunity soap and water. Your advise will be
Answer: A A. kill the dog and submit the head for
examination for Negri bodies
80. A hemagglutination inhibition test was done B. give rabies immunoglobulin and
on the serum of a 6-month old boy, who is vaccine
suffering from severe respiratory distress. C. observe the dog
The results showed that hemagglutination D. observe the patient
occurred when parainfluenza virus type 1 Answer: B
Ag was reacted with the serum; no
hemagglutination with parainfluenza virus
type 2; hemagglutination with RSV. Which
is the infecting agent? 86. Latency occurs in the trigeminal ganglion
A. Parainfluenza type 1 C. RSV A. HSV 1 C. HSV 6
B. Parainfluenza type 2 D. the result is B. HSV 2 D. HSV 8
inconclusive Answer: A
Answer: B
87. Latency occurs in the mononuclear cells
81. Genetic reassortment occurs when and kidneys.
segmented genomes of duck strains of A. HSV 1 C. CMV
influenza A virus are enclosed together with B. HSV 3 D. Variola
those of human strains in a capsid. Which of Answer: C
the followng is the most likely to occur?
A. point mutation 88. The difference between Dengue fever and
B. new strain of virus will appear Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is that
A. presence of bleeding in DHF
B. hematocrit is elevated in DHF
7
 C. PPT is prolonged in DHF 96.
Which is associated with extrahepatic
D. absence of AbV in the former manifestations
formation A. HAV B. HCV C.
Answer: B HBV D. HEV
Answer: C
89. A 4-year-old girl is brought to the
physicians office because she developed red cheeks 97. A woman appears in a hospital ER with vesicular lesions on her
vulva. These lesions clinically resemble those caused by herpes simplex
that appear as if someone has slapped her, and a virus. From which of the following clinical specimens would the virus most
lacy ash on her upper extremities and trunks. What likely to be isolated?
A. urine C. Throat secretions
is the MOST probable causative agent? B. Blood D. Vesicular fluid
Answer: D
A. Adenovirus C.
Marburg virus
98. A 5-year old child presents fever for 8 days, lympadenopathy,
B. Parvovirus D. splenomegaly and numerous reactive or atypical lymphocytes on
Rotavirus peripheral blood smear. The monospot test is negative. A likely cause
of the clinical picture is infection with
Answer: B A. respiratory syncytial virus C. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus D. herpes virus
Answer: B
90. Defective virus that cause infection only in
presence of HBV 99. A 30-year-old school teacher presents with cough of 1 mont duration,
fever, night sweats and weight loss. PE is normal. How many sputum
A. HAV B. HBV C. smears are recommended by the council on Tuberculosis to establish a
HCV D. HDV diagnosis of TB?
A. Four C. Two
Answer: D B. Three D. One
Answer: B

91. Very important serologic marker for HBV 100. A woman develops fever, rash and polyarthralgia during
during the window phase menstruation. Gram stain of the synovial fluid of her right knee reveals
gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely
A. Anti HBs C. Anti to be responsible?
A. Haemophilus influenzae C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
HBc B. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: C
B. HBs Ag D. HBe Ag
Answer: C
~~~@@@~~~
92. A modified cellular protein that is capable
of auto-catalytically make several copies of
itself
A. viroid C. prion
B. virusoid D. satelitte
RNA
Answer: C

93. Responsible for attachment of influenza

virus on specific host cell receptor
A. H glycoprotein C. matrix protein
B. N glycoprotein D. capsid protein
Answer: A

94. Measles is most infectious during tha

appearance of
A. Koplik spots
B. Fever, cough and coryza and
conjunctivitis
C. Macupapular rash
D. Photophobia
Answer: B

95. Oseltamivir is an antiviral drug-used

against
A. parainfluenza C. measles
B. influenza D. RSV
Answer: B