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MOCK TEST FOR K CET

KCET -2016
CET-2016
SUBJECTS MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING DAY & TIMING*

PHYSICS 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-2: 10.30-11.50 am

CHEMISTRY 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-2: 02.30-03.50 pm

MATHEMATICS 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-1: 02.30-03.50 pm

MENTION YOUR QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS

CET NUMBER VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER

*** ******
DOs
1. Check whether the CET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.
2. This Question Booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2nd Bell i.e., after 10:30 am / 02:30 pm
3. The Serial Number of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet.
4. The Version Code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles should also be shaded
completely.
5. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided.
DONTs
1. THE TIMING AND MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET SHOULD NOT BE DAMAGED / MUTILATED / SPOILED.
2. The 3rd Bell rings at 10:40 am / 02:40 pm, till then;
Do not remove the paper seal present on the right hand side of this question booklet.
Do not look inside this question booklet.
Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. This question booklet contains 60 questions and each question will have one statement and four distracters. (Four different options/choices).
2. After the 3rd Bell is rung at 10:40 am / 02:40 pm, remove the paper seal on the right hand side of this question booklet and check that this booklet
does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. Read each item and start
answering on the OMR answer sheet.
3. During the subsequent 70 minutes :
Read each question carefully.
Choose the correct answer from out of the four available distracters (options / choices) given under each question / statement.
Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE or BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN against the question number on the
OMR answer sheet.

Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below :
1 3 4

4. Please note that even a minute unintended ink dot on the OMR answer sheet will also be recognized and recorded by the scanner. Therefore,
avoid multiple marking of any kind on the OMR answer sheet.
5. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for the same.
6. After the last bell is rung at 11:50 am / 03:50 pm, stop writing on the OMR answer sheet and affix your LEFT HAND THUMB IMPRESSION on
the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions.
7. Hand over the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as it is.
8. After separating the top sheet (Our Copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidates Copy) to you to carry home for self-
evaluation.
9. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year.
*The real test for KCET will be conducted in two days in Morning & Afternoon Sessions.
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer : 7. A wire of length L metre carrying a current I ampere
1. In case of a complete absorption at normal is bent in the form of a circle. Its magnetic moment
incidence of a parallel beam of light of intensity I, the will be
radiation pressure on the absorbing object is
IL IL2
I I (1)
4
(2)
(1) (2) 4
C 2C
2I 2 I I 2L2 LI 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
C 3C 4 4
2. A beam of light is incident on a glass surface, at an
8. A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a uniform
angle of incidence 60. The reflected ray is polarised.
magnetic field B = 4.0 Wb/m2 and makes an angle
What will be angle of refraction for an angle of
of 60 with respect to the magnetic field as shown
incidence 45?
in figure. The value of the magnetic flux through the
1
3 1
3 area A would be equal to
(1) sin 2 (2) cos 2

A
1 1 1 1 B
(3) sin (4) sin
6 3
60
3. The number of photons of wavelength 13.2 in 6 J
of energy is n
(1) 2 1010 (2) 4 1016
(3) 6 1020 (4) 4 1020 (1) 2 weber (2) 1 weber
4. Total number of electrons present in 90 g ice cube (3) 3 weber (4) (3/2) weber
is 9. An alternating emf 100 cos 100t volt is connected in
(1) 5 mol (2) 10 mol series to a resistance of 10 ohm and inductance
(3) 20 mol (4) 50 mol 100 mH. What is the phase difference between the
current in the circuit and the emf?
5. A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic
moment M and dipole-strength m units is broken into (1) / 4 (2) Zero
two pieces at the middle. The magnetic moment and
pole-strength of each piece will be (3) (4) / 2
(1) (M/2), m/2 (2) M, m/2 10. An inductor of 10 mH and a capacitor of 16 F are
(3) M/2, m (4) M, m connected in the circuit as shown in figure. The
6. Three identical bar magnets each of magnetic frequency of the power supply is equal to the
moment M, are placed in the form of an equilateral resonant frequency of the circuit. Which ammeter will
triangle with the north pole of one touching the south read zero ampere?
pole of other. The net magnetic moment of the A1
10 mH
system is:
N

16 F A2

A3
N
S

N S
E E0 sin t
3M
(1) 3M (2) (1) A1 (2) A2
2
(3) 3 M (4) Zero (3) A3 (4) None of these

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Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
11. Using an ac voltmeter, the PD in the electrical line 15. Sixteen resistors each of resistance 16 are
in a house is read to be 234 volt. If the line
connected as shown in the figure. The net resistance
frequency is known to be 50 cycle per second, the
between A and B is
equation for the line voltage is
D C
(1) 165 sin (100t ) (2) 234 sin (100t )

(3) 331 sin (100t ) (4) 440 sin (100t )

12. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C. It is E F
discharged through a small coil of resistance wire
H G
embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific
heat capacity s and mass m. If the temperature of
the block is raised by T , the potential difference
V across the capacitance is : A B
ms T 2ms T (1) 4 (2) 3
(1) (2)
C C
(3) 8 (4) 6
2mC T mC T
(3) (4) 16. An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. How
s s much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from
13. Current in arm EB is temperature 20C? The temperature of boiling point
is 100C.
A B C
(1) 12.6 min (2) 4.2 min
10 10 (3) 6.3 min (4) 8.4 min
10 10 10
17. The charge Q flowing through a resistance R varies
F E D with time t as Q = at bt2. The total heat produced
10 10
in R is
(1) a3R/6b (2) a3R/3b
70V
(3) a3R/2b (4) a3R/b
(1) 2 A
(2) 3 A 18. A heater boils 1 kg of water in time t1 and another
heater boils the same water in time t2. If both the
(3) 1 A heaters are connected in parallel, the combination
(4) Zero will boil the water in time

t1t 2 t1t 2
4 (1) t1 t 2 (2) t1 t 2
A B
14.
4
4 t12 t 22 t12 t 22
D 4 4 C
4
(3)
t1 t 2
(4)
t1 t2
4 4
F 19. A d.c. voltage with appreciable ripple expressed as
E 4 4
V = V1 + V2 cos t is applied to a resistor R. The
4 amount of heat generated per second is given by
G
H 4
V12 V22
(1)
2R
Ratio of resistances between AC and AB is
2V12 V22
9 7 (2)
(1) (2) 2R
7 9
V12 2V22
(3)
5 7 2R
(3) (4)
7 5 (4) None of these

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Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
20. In the circuit shown in the adjoining diagram, the 25. A parallel plate capacitor with air has a capacitance
current through of 9 pF. The separation between its plates is d, the
3 2 2 space between the plates is now filled with two
dielectrics. One of the dielectric has dielectric
constant K1 = 2 and thickness d/3, while the other
6
has dielectric constant K2 = 4 and thickness 2d/3,
9V 8 4 Capacitance of the capacitor is now
2 (1) 1.2 pF (2) 30 pF
2 2 2
(3) 27 pF (4) 20.25 pF
(1) The 3 resistor is 0.50 A 26. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 F is broken into
(2) The 3 resistor is 0.25 A eight drops of equal radius. The capacity of each
small drop is
(3) The 4 resistor is 0.50 A
1 1
(4) The 4 resistor is 0.25 A (1) F (2) F
2 4
21. Eleven equal wires each of resistance 4 are joined
to form an incomplete cube. The total resistance 1 1
(3) F (4) F
between one end of vacant edge to the other end is 8 16
(1) 7/3 (2) 28/5 27. Net electrical dipole of the arrangement shown
(3) 10/3 (4) 5/3
3q +q
22. A circular ring is made by a wire as shown. Current a
3 A is entering at A, then I1 and I2 are
I2 a a

B +q +q
3A a
A 120

I1 1 1
3A (1) 2 qa (2) 2 qa
2 2
(1) 3 A, 1 A (2) 1 A, 4 A
(3) 2 A, 4 A (4) 2 A, 1 A 2qa
(3) 2 2 qa (4)
23. Let be the charge density for a solid sphere of 3
radius R and total charge Q. For a point P inside 
28. Net E at the centre of the arrangement shown is
the sphere at a distance r from the centre of the
sphere, the magnitude of electric field is
+4q a 2q
r
(1) 3 (2) 3
0 0 a a

(3) (4) Zero 8q +q
3 0 r
24. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by
a a
V = xy2 yz2 zx2. The electric field at that point
is
 +4q a 2q
(1) E i z 3 j x y z k z 2


(2) E i 2xy z 3 j x 2 k 3 xz 2
(1)
Kq
(2)
2Kq
 a2 a2

(3) E i 2xy j x 2 y 2 k 3 xz y 2
 3Kq 4Kq

(4) E y 2 2xz i z 2 2xy j x 2 2yz k (3)
a2
(4)
a2

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Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
29. Consider an infinite line charge of linear charge 34. A brilliant arc lamp delivers a normal luminous flux
density ' ' as shown. Then electric field at point P is of 100 W to a 10 cm2 absorber. The force due to
radiation pressure is
P
(1) 3.3 104 N (2) 16.5 107 N
x
Q (3) 3.3 106 N (4) 3.3 107 N
+ x
35. The de Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 927C is
+ . What will be its wavelength at 27C?
+

+ (1) (2)
2
+
(3) 2 (4) 4
+
36. An accident occurs in a laboratory in which a large
amount of a radioactive material, having a half life of
K 20 days, becomes embedded in the floor and walls
(1) Zero (2)
x so that the level of radiation is 32 times the
2K K permissible level. The laboratory can be safely
(3) (4) occupied after
x 2x
30. Each plate of area A and separation d are arranged (1) 20 days (2) 32 days
as shown net capacitance between A and B is (3) 64 days (4) 100 days
A 37. If A = B = 1, then in terms of Boolean Algebra
A B equals
(1) A (2) B
(3) A or B (4) A B
38. A sinusoidal voltage of r.m.s. value of 200 volt is
connected to the diode and capacitor C in the circuit
B shown so that half-wave rectification occurs. The final
20 A 5 0 A potential difference in volt across C is
(1) (2)
5d 2d (1) 500
3 0 A 5 0 A (2) 200
(3) (4) R.M.S.
5d 3d C
200 Volt
31. The rest mass of an electron is m0; when it moves (3) 283
with a velocity v = 0.6c, then its mass is (4) 141
5
(1) m0 (2) m0 39. In a transistor the base is made very thin and is
4 lightly doped with an impurity because
4 (1) To enable the collector to collect 95% of the
(3) m0 (4) 2 m0 holes or electrons coming from the emitter side
5
(2) To enable the emitter to emit small number of
32. On the annihilation of a paricle and its antiparticle,
holes or electrons
the energy released is E. What is the mass of each
particle? (3) To save the transistor from higher current effects
(1) E/c2 (2) E/(2c2) (4) None of these
40. With an a.c. input from 50 Hz power line, the ripple
(3) E/c (4) E/(2c)
frequency is
33. A lamp radiates power P0 uniformly in all directions;
(1) 50 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave as well as
the peak value of electric field strength E0 at a
full-wave rectifier
distance r from it is
(2) 100 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave as well as
P0 P0 full-wave rectifier
(1) E0 2 cr 2 (2) E0 20 cr 2
0 (3) 50 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave and
100 Hz in d.c. outupt of full-wave rectifier
P0 P0
(3) E0 40 cr 2 (4) E0 80 cr 2
(4) 100 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave and 50 Hz
in d.c. outupt of full-wave rectifier

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Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
41. The second harmonic of an open pipe is equal to the 49. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and as
third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. The ratio of a diverging lens in water. The refracive index of
their lengths lo : lc is material is
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 1 (2) 1.33
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 5 : 9 (3) > 1.33 (4) < 1.33
42. The most elastic material among the following is 50. Effective or equivalent mass of a photon of wavelength
(1) Wood (2) Rubber is
(3) Steel (4) Glass h h
(1) (2)
43. A monoatomic gas undergoes an adiabatic process. c
If the temperature is halved. The percentage change h h
in volume is nearly (3) (4)
c2 c
(1) 183% (2) 100% 51. Which of the following numbers has the least
(3) 150% (4) 83% number of significant zeroes?
44. I1 is the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and (1) 0.00300 (2) 1.73200
radius R about an axis passing through its centre (3) 1.001 (4) 001.567320
and perpendicular to its plane. I2 is the moment of
inertia of the disc about a tangent in the plane of the 52. The equation of trajectory of an oblique projectile is
disc. I1/I2 is equal to given by y = 3x 5x2, the horizontal range of the
projectile is
1 1 (1) 0.6 m (2) 1.6 m
(1) (2)
5 3
(3) 0.4 m (4) 1.4 m
2 5 53. Two SHMs are given by the equations x1 5 sin t
(3) (4)
5 4 and x 2 5(sin t cos t) . The ratio of amplitudes
45. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an A1 : A2 is
angle of indence 60, then deviation produced by the (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1
mirror is
(3) 1: 2 (4) 1 : 2
(1) 30 (2) 120
(3) 60 (4) None of these 54. The following graphs show isobaric, isothermic,
isochoric and adiabatic curves. Which one of them
46. An ojbect is placed between two plane mirrors if the represents an adiabatic process?
images formed are 7, then the angle of inclination
between mirrors is P
(1) 15 (2) 30
3 2 1
(3) 45 (4) 60
47. A concave mirror of focal length f produces n 4
times magnified real image of an object, then the
distance of object from mirror is V
n 1 (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) (n 1)f (2) f
n (3) 1 (4) 2
n 1 55. Which of the following is used to determine the
(3) f (4) (n + 1)f
n surface temperature of the sun?
48. The angle of a glass prism is 60, minimum (1) Stefans Law
deviation is 40, then (2) Wiens displacement Law
60 (3) Newtons Law of cooling
(1) Refractive index is
40 (4) Prevosts theory of Heat exchanges
(2) The maximum deviation is 100 56. A body cools from 60C to 30C in 5 minutes. If the
(3) The angle of incidence at minimum deviation is temperature of the surroundings is 10C, what will be
50 its temperature after 5 more minutes?
(4) The angle of incidence at minimum deviation is (1) 15C (2) 18C
90 (3) 10C (4) 20C

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Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
57. A satellite is rotating around the earth in a circular 59. Two particles along a wave are separated by a
orbit. What should be the percentage increase in its

velocity so that it escapes the earths gravitational distance [ =wavelength]. What is the phase
field? 3
difference between these two particles?
(1) 100% (2) 50%
(3) 41% (4) 63% 2
(1) 0 (2)
58. A car and truck are moving with the same kinetic 3
energy. The same force acts on them and brings
them to a halt. Which of the following statements is
(3) (4)
correct? 2 3
(1) Work done by the force on the car is more than
60. Two waves given by y 1 = 5 sin (kx t) and
the work done on the truck
y2 = 4 sin(kx t + ), pass through a point in
(2) Work done by the force on the truck is more
space. What is the ratio of maximum intensity to
than the work done on the car
minimum intensity observed at that point?
(3) Work done by the force on the car as well as
the truck is equal (1) 5 : 4 (2) 81 : 1

(4) Work done by the force in both cases is zero (3) 9 : 1 (4) 27 : 1

[ CHEMISTRY]
1. If 1 ml of water contains 10 drops then number of 6. Consider the isoelectronic species Na+ ; F ; O2 and
molecules in a drop of water is Mg+2. The correct order of decreasing ionic radii is
(1) 6.023 1023 molecules (1) Na+ > Mg+2 > O2 > F
(2) 1.344 1018 molecules (2) O2 > F > Na+ > Mg+2

(3) 3.346 1021 molecules (3) Mg+2 > Na+ > F > O2-

(4) 4.346 1020 molecules (4) Na+ > Mg+2 > F > O2

2. One mole of any substance contains 6.022 1023 7. Which one of the following arrangements represents
atoms/molecules. Number of molecules of H2SO4 the correct order of electron affinity of the given
present in 50 ml of 0.01 M H2SO4 solution is atomic species?
(1) Cl < F < S < O (2) O < S < F < Cl
(1) 12.044 x 1020 molecules
(3) S < O < Cl < F (4) F < Cl < O < S
(2) 6.022 x 1023 molecules
8. Which of the following options represents the correct
(3) 1 x 1023 molecules order of Bond Energy?
(4) 3.0115 x 1020 molecules (1) O2 > O2 > O2+ (2) O2 < O2 < O2+
3. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a (3) O2 > O2 < O2+ (4) O2 < O2 > O2+
compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What
will be the molecular formula of the compound? 9. Which of the following species has tetrahedral
geometry?
(1) C9H18O9 (2) C2H4O2
(1) BH4 (2) NH2
(3) C6H12O6 (4) C12H22O11
(3) CO32 (4) H3O+
4. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes for 10. The types of hybridisation of Nitrogen in NO2+ ; NO3
3p-orbital and NH4+ respectively are expected to be
(1) 3, 4 (2) 4, 2 (1) sp ; sp3 & sp2 (2) sp ; sp2 & sp3
(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 1 (3) sp2 ; sp & sp3 (4) sp2 ; sp3 & sp
5. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration 11. Which one of the following pairs is iso-structural?
(1) Cr+3 ; Fe+3 (2) Fe+3; Mn+2 (1) BrCl3 & BCl3 (2) NO31 & NH3
(3) Fe+3 ; Co+3 (4) Sc+3 ; Cr+3 (3) NF3 & BF3 (4) BF4 & NH4+

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Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
12. The pair of species with the same bond order is 20. The standard potentials (E) for the half reactions are
(1) NO & CN (2) NO+ & CN as
(3) CN & CN+ (4) O2 & CN Zn Zn2+ + 2e E = +0.76 V
13. Pentagonal bipyramidal structure contains bond Fe Fe2+ + 2e E = +0.41 V
angles of magnitudes
The emf for the cell reaction
(1) 120 ; 90 ; 180 (2) 120 ; 72 ; 180
(3) 72 ; 90 ; 120 (4) 72 ; 90 ; 180 Fe2+ + Zn Zn2+ + Fe is
14. The weight of 350 ml of a diatomic gas at 0C and (1) 0.35 V (2) 0.35 V
2 atm pressure is 1 gram. The weight of one atom
(3) 1.17 V (4) 1.17 V
in grams is (N = Avogadros number)
21. At 500 K, equilibrium constant KC for the following
32
(1) 16 N (2) reaction is 5
N
16 1 1
(3) (4) 32 N H2 (g) + I2 (g)  HI (g)
N 2 2
15. The volume of gas is doubled from its original volume. What would be the equilibrium constant KC for the
The specific heat will be reaction?
(1) Reduced to half
2HI (g)  H2 (g) + I2 (g)
(2) Be doubled
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4
(3) Remains constant
(4) Increased four times (3) 25 (4) 2.5
16. Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 22. pH of solution obtained by mixing 100 ml of a
50 J/K respectively for the reaction solution of pH = 3 with 400 ml of a solution of
pH = 4 is
1 3
X2 Y2  XY3 , H = 30kJ to be at (1) 3 log 2.8 (2) 7 log 2.8
2 2
equilibrium, the temperature should be (3) 4 log 2.8 (4) 5 log 2.8
(1) 500 K (2) 750 K 23. In the following reaction. Equivalent weight of H3PO4
(3) 1000 K (4) 1250 K is
17. 40g of NaOH is dissolved in excess of 6.3% by
H3PO4 NaOH NaH2PO4 H2 O
mass of HNO3 solution of density 1.40 g/cm3. The
heat evolved in kJ for complete neutralization of base (1) 98 (2) 49
is
(3) 32.6 (4) 24.5
(1) 5.73 (2) 57.3
24. When sodium is kept in open air then it is finally
(3) 79.8 (4) 22.8
converted into
18. 2 moles PCl5, 1 mole Cl2 and 1 mole PCl3 are taken
in 1 L flask. When equilibrium is setup PCl5 is 25% (1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3
dissociated into the products then KC is (3) Na2O (4) Na2O2
(1) 4 moles L1 (2) 1.5 mole L1
25. Metal carbonates decompose on heating to give
(3) 1 mole L1 (4) 0.17 mole L1 metal oxide and CO2. Which of the following metal
19. Decrease in the pressure for the following equilibrium carbonates is thermally most stable?
H2O (l)  H2O (g) results in the (1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3
(i) Formation more H2O (l) (3) SrCO3 (4) BaCO3
(ii) Formation more H2O (g)
26. SiCl4 H2 O
High temp
O2 H2 flame
B
NaOH
Heat
C
(iii) Increase in boiling point of H2O(l)
The compound (C) is (B is an oxide)
(iv) Decrease in boiling point of H2O(l)
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iv) (1) SiO2 (2) Si
(3) (i), (iii) (4) (i), (iv) (3) SiC (4) Na2SiO3

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Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
27. Which of the following is most stable carbanion? 31. The number of linear carbon atoms in divinyl
CH3 C2H5 acetylene is
(1) CH3 C (2) CH3 C: (1) 2 (2) 3
CH3 CH3 (3) 5 (4) 4
CH2

(3) (4)

28. Steam distillation is used for separation of _____ 32. , IUPAC name is
(1) Glycerol
(2) Chloroform and aniline (1) 5 butyl, 6 methyl heptane
(3) Subtances which are steam volatile and (2) 5 (1 methyl ethyl) nonane
immiscible in water
(3) 2 methyl 3 butyl heptane
(4) A mixture of of hexane and toluene
(4) 5 propyl nonane
Cl
O3
33. CH2 = CH CH = CH CH3
Zn/H2 O
products.
Br2 (leq)
29. Na(excess)
A
B
Dryether
h
Which of the following is the product of this
reaction?
Cl
Br CHO
(1) HCHO (2)
CHO
(3) CH3CHO (4) All of these
(1) (2)
34. The total number of isomers (Structural and stereo)
Br
possible for an organic compound with molecular
Br formula C4H10O is
Br Br
(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) (4) (3) 8 (4) 7
35. The most stable compound is
CH3
+ CH3 CH CH2 Cl P Anhyd
30. AlCl 3 (1) (2)
Product P is
CH3
CH2 CH CH3 (3) CH CH (4)
3 2

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36. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

CH3 Cl

CH3 C CH3
(1) Substitution reaction
+ Cl2 Fe
(2)
(2) Addition reaction
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3 OH
H+
(3) + H2 O
(3) Elimination reaction CH3Cl : CH2
CH3
(4) Rearrangement reaction
CH CH2 CH3
CH3 +
CH3
(4) H
CH3 C CH3 CH2 = C CH3
OH

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Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
37. If NaCl is dopped with 104 mole% of SrCl2, the
[A]0
concentration of cation vacancies will be 46. What is the slope, if a graph of log versus time
[A]
(1) 6.02 1022 mole1
is plotted for a first order reaction?
(2) 6.02 1015 mole1
K K
(3) 6.02 1017 mole1 (1) (2)
2.303 2.303
(4) 6.02 1014 mole1
2.303 2.303
38. Which solution will have least Vapour pressure? (3) (4)
K K
(1) 0.1 M BaCl2 (2) 0.1 M Urea
47. Purple of cassius is a/an
(3) 0.1 M Na2SO4 (4) 0.1 M Na3PO4 (1) Colloidal sol of gold
39. The osmotic pressure of a 5% (w/v) solution of cane (2) Colloidal sol of silver
sugar at 150 C is
(3) Colloidal sol of platinum
(1) 4 atm (2) 3.4 atm
(4) Oxyacid of gold
(3) 5.078 atm (4) 2.4 atm
48. Which of the following is not correct?
40. The molar conductivity of HCl, NaCl and CH3COONa
(1) Milk is a naturally occuring emulsion
are 425; 188; 96 S cm2 mole1 at 298 K. The molar
conductivity of CH3COOH at the same temperature (2) Gold sol is a lyophilic sol
is ___ S cm 2 mole1 (3) Physical adsorption decreases with rise in
(1) 333 (2) 451 temperature
(3) 325 (4) 550 (4) Chemical adsorption is unilayered
41. What is the current efficiency of an electrode 49. X is substance which combines chemically with
position of Cu metal from CuSO4 solution in which impurity assoicated with the ore to form easily
9.80 g Cu is deposited by the passage of 5A current fusible mass Y. Here X and Y are respectively
for 2h _____ ? [Atomic Wt. of Cu = 63.5] (1) Flux ; Slag
(1) 41.4 (2) 50% (2) Slag ; Flux
(3) 75% (4) 82.8% (3) Gangue ; Slag
42. The standard emf of a galvanic cell reaction with (4) Reductant ; Flux
n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25C. The equilibrium 50. Which of the following electrolytes is least effective
constant of the reaction would be in coagulation of Fe(OH)3 sol?
(1) 2.0 1011 (2) 4.0 1010 (1) KBr (2) K2SO4
(3) 1.0 102 (4) 1.0 1010 (3) K2CrO4 (4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
43. In a zero order reaction for every 10 rise of 51. In the equation 4M + 8CN + 2H 2 O + O 2
temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature 4[M(CN)2] + 4OH. Identify the metal M.
is increased from 10C to 100C, the rate of
(1) Cu (2) Fe
reaction will become
(3) Au (4) Zn
(1) 256 times (2) 512 times
52. Which of the following element is present as the
(3) 64 times (4) 128 times
impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?
44. If the rate of reaction between 2 reactants A and B (1) Carbon (2) Silicon
decreases by a factor 4, when the concentration of
reactant B is doubled. Then the order of this reaction (3) Phosphorus (4) Manganese
with respect to reactant B is 53. The tendency of BF3; BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as
(1) 1 (2) 2 lewis acid decreases in the sequence

(3) 1 (4) 2 (1) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 (2) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3

45. A first order reaction is 75% complete after 32 min. (3) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3 (4) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
When was 50% of the reaction completed? 54. Which of the following pairs has the same size?
(1) 16 min (2) 8 min (1) Fe+2; Ni+2 (2) Zr+4; Ti+4
(3) 4 min (4) 32 min (3) Zr+4; Hf+4 (4) Zn+2; Hf4+

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Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
55. Which of the following has highest magnetic
moment? COOH
(1) Ti+3 (2) Sc3+ NH2

(3) Mn+2 (4) Zn+2

(1) (2)
56. The electronic configuration of gadolinium
(At. No. 64) is NH2 Br
(1) [Xe] 4f3 5d5 6s2 (2) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
(3) [Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2 (4) [Xe] 4f8 5d6 6s2
CONH2 SO2NH2
57. An alkyl chloride (A) on reaction with Mg in dry ether
followed by treatment with ethanol gave 2-methyl
butane. Give the possible structure of A (3) (4)
(1) (CH3)2 C(Cl) CH2 CH3 Br Br
(2) (CH3)2 CH CH2 CH2 Cl
59. If one strand of DNA has the sequence ATCGTATG,
(3) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 X
the sequence in the complementary strand would be
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) TAGCTTAC (2) TCACATAC
58. In the following set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid
gave a product D. Identify the product D. (3) TAGCATAC (4) TACGATAC
COOH 60. Of the following, which one is classified as polyester
polymer?
SOCl2 NH3
B C
NaOH
Br2
D (1) Bakelite (2) Melamine

Br (3) Nylon-6, 6 (4) Terylene

[ MATHEMATICS]
Choose the correct answer : 4. C0 C1 C2 ...... Cn 1 Cn ___(where Cr represents nc r )

3x 2 1 b
1. If . Then sin1 (1) 2n (2) n + 1
( x a )( x b ) x a x b a
(3) 2n1 (4) 0

(1)
3
(2)
6 5. If ( p ~ r ) (~ pvq ) is false. Then the truth values
of p, q and r are respectively
(1) F, F and T
(3) (4)
6 2
(2) T, F and F
2. The positive integer n for which
(3) T, F and T
n 10
2 2 3 2 4 2 ...... n 2 2
2 3 4 n

(4) F, T and T
(1) 510 (2) 511
x x
(3) 512 (4) 513 6. Let f ( x ) 1 , then f is
ex 1 2
3. If , , are the roots of x 3 2x 2 3 x 4 0 , then
(1) An odd function
the value of 22
(2) An even function
(1) 7 (2) 5
(3) Periodic function

(3) 3 (4) 0 (4) None of these

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Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test

7. The point of concurrency of the lines

tan x sin x
(3k 1)x (2k 3)y (9 k ) 0 is 13. lim
x 0 x3
(1) (1, 1)
1
(2) (1, 1) (1) 2 (2)
2
(3) (3, 4)
1
(4) ( 2, 1) (3) 3 (4)
3
8. The difference of slopes of the line represented by
y 2 2 xy sec 2 (3 tan2 ) ( 1 tan2 ) x 2 0 is x
14. If f (x) 1 for x 0, f (0) 0 , then at
1 e x
(1) 2 (2) 4
x 0, f ( x ) is
(3) 6 (4) 8
(1) Continuous
9. If the equation a 2 x 2 2 xy 4 y 2 0 is to represent
a pair of distinct lines. Then a should lie in the (2) Discontinuous
interval
(3) Not determined

(1) 12, 12 (2) 12 , 12 (4) None

15. The number of different straight lines formed by 10

(3) ( 1, 1) (4) [ 1, 1] non-collinear points in a plane is _____

10. If , are the different values of x such that (1) 10C

2 (2) 10P
2

(3) 10 (4) 20
a cos x b sin x c . Then tan is
2
1 1 1
16. .......
b log2 n log3 n log47 n
(1) a + b (2)
a
1
(1)
a log47 n
(3) a b (4)
b
1
(2)
log( 47)! n

11. cos 2 76 cos 2 16 cos 76 cos16 (3) log46! n

1 n(n 1)
(1) (2) 0 (4) log
2 2
17. A value of x satisfying 150x 35(mod 31) is
1
(3) (4) 3 4
4 (1) 14 (2) 22

12. If cos A cos B cos C and a 2 3 , then the (3) 24 (4) 12

a b c
18. 10n 3.4n 2 k is divisible by 9 for all n N . Then
ratio between the area and perimeter of the triangle
the least +ve integral value of k is
is
(1) 1 : 2 (1) 5

(2) 2 : 1 (2) 3

(3) 3 : 1 (3) 7
(4) 1 : 3 (4) 1

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Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016

19. If A and B are two square matrices, such that

AB = A; BA = B, then A and B are 4
25. log(1 tan x ) dx ______
(1) Idempotent matrix 0

(2) Diagonal matrix

(3) Scalar matrix (1) log2
4
(4) Nilpotent matrix

20. If A is a 3 3 matrix and det(3 A) k (det A) , then (2) log 2
8
k =
(1) 9 (2) 6
(3) log 2
2
(3) 1 (4) 27

x3 x x 1 x 2 (4) log2
16
21. If 2 x 3 3 x 1 3x 3 x 3 xA B, then B =
26. The area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides
x 3 2x 3 2x 1 2x 1
are 3i 2 j k and 3i k is
(1) 12 (2) 12
(1) 10 (2) 10 2
(3) 0 (4) 7
(3) 2 10 (4) 20
2cos x 1 0
df
22. If f ( x ) x 2 2cos x 1 , then at 27. If the angle between the vectors ( x,3, 7) and
dx
0 1 2cos x ( x, x,4) is a.a acute. The range of x is

x (1) ( 4, 7) (2) [ 4, 7]
is
2
(3) R [ 4, 7] (4) R ( 4, 7)
(1) 2 (2) 2
28. If a, b, c are unit vectors such that a b c 0
(3) 1 (4) 8
then a b b c c a
2 2
23. If the matrix P Q, where P and Q are
3 1 (1) 3 2 (2) 3 2
symmetric matrix and skew symmetric matrix, then
Q= (3) 2 3 (4) 12

0 5 1 0 5
29. If a is a vector then a i a j a k
2 2 2
(1) 2 5 0
(2)
5 0

5 0 1 5 0 (1) a2 (2) 2a2

(3) 2 0 5
(4)
0 5 (3) 3a2 (4) 4a2

24. If O( A) 5, O(B ) 3 , then the total number of 30. A tangent it is drawn to the circle
different injective functions, is _____ 2 x 2y 3 x 4 y 0 at the point A and it meets
2 2

(1) 0 the line x y 3 at B(2, 1). Then, AB =

(2) 35
(1) 10 (2) 2
(3) 5P
3
5C (3) 2 2 (4) 0
(4) 3

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Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test

31. If x + y + K = 0 is a tangent to the circle x2 + y2

1 1
2x 4y + 3 = 0, then K = 39. cos 2cos 1 sin1
5
5
(1) 20 (2) 1, 5

(3) 2 (4) 4
1 2 6
(1) (2)
5 5
32. The shortest distance from (2, 14) to the circle
x2 + y2 6x 4y 12 = 0 is 1 6
(3) (4)
(1) 8 (2) 4 5 5

(3) 2 (4) 1 40. Sec2 (tan1 2) + cosec2 (cot1 3)

33. The length of the intercept made by the circle (1) 5 (2) 10
x2 + y2 + 10x 12y 13 = 0 on Y-axis is
(3) 15 (4) 20
(1) 1 (2) 2
1
(3) 4 (4) 14 41. The general solution of sin2x 2 cosx + = 0 is
4
34. A(cos , sin ), B (sin , cos ) are two points.

The locus of the centroid of triangle OAB, where O (1) 2n (2) n
2 2
is the origin is

(1) x2 + y2 = 3
(3) 2n (4) None of these
3
(2) 9x2 + 9y2 = 2

(3) 2x2 + 2y2 = 9 42. The modulus amplitude form of 3 i is

(4) 3x2 + 3y2 = 2

5
(1) 2cis (2) 2cis
35. If P is a point on the ellipse 9x2 + 36y2 = 324 whose 6 6
foci are S and S1, then PS + PS1 is
5
(1) 9 (2) 12 (3) cis (4) cis
6 6
(3) 27 (4) 36
4
36. The equation of the directrix to the parabola 43. If z 2 , then the greatest value of |z| is
y2 2x 6y 5 = 0 is z

(1) 2x + 15 = 0 (2) x + 5 = 0 (1) 5

(3) 2x + 3 = 0 (4) x + 2 = 0
(2) 5 1
37. The equation of the normal to the hyperbola
x2 4y2 = 5 at (3, 1) is (3) 5 1
(1) 4x + 3y 15 = 0
(4) 1 5
(2) 4x 3y 15 = 0
dy
(3) 4x 3y + 5 = 0 44. y x x x .... , then
dx
(4) 4x + 4y + 15 = 0

38. The area of the auxiliary circle of 2x2 + 3y2 = 6 is 1 1

(1) (2)
y x
(1) 3 (2) 2
1 1
(3) (4) 4 (3) (4)
2x y 2y 1

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Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016

45. The function f(x) = sin1(tan x ) is not differentiable at 51. The length of subtangent to x2 + xy + y2 = 7 at
(1, 3) is

1
(1) x = 0 (2) x (1) 5 (2)
6 5

3
(3) x (4) x (3) (4) 15
6 4 5
52. The two curves x = y2, xy = a3 cut orthogonally at a
1
46. Let f(x) = cos 2cos x 3 sin x , then f(0.5)
1 point, then a2 =
13
1 1
(1) (2)
(1) 0.5 3 2
(2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) 0 53. The sides of the greatest rectangle that can be

(4) 1 x2 y 2
inscribed in 1 are
a2 b2
47. If f ( x y ) f ( x ) f ( y )x, y R , then f(x) =
(1) a 2, b 2 (2) a, b
(1) 0
(3) a, b (4) None of these
(2) f(0)
(3) f(0) ( x 1)e x
54. ( x 1)3 dx
(4) f(x).f(0)
48. If f(x) = f(x) + f(x) + f(x) + ......... and f(0) = 1, ex
then f(x) = ex
(1) (2)
x 1
2
x 1
x
(1) e 2
ex xe x
(3)
x 1 (4)
3
(2) ex x 1
(3) e2x
6
x
(4) e4x 55. The value of the integral
3 9x x
dx is
49. The function y = 2x3 3x2 12x + 8 has minimum
at x = (1) 2

(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) 1

1
1 3 (3)
(3) (4) 2
2 2
3
x2 (4)
2
50. If the rate of decrease of 2 x 5 is twice the
2
decrease of x, then x =
2
cos x
(1) 2
56. 1 ex
dx =

2
(2) 3
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 4

(4) 1 (3) (4)
4

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Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test

59. The degree of differential equation

1
57. 0 1 x 4 dx = 3
d 2 y dy 2 2 d 2y
2 K is
dx dx dx 2

(1) (2)
2 2 (1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 1
(3) (4) None of these
2 2
dy
60. The solution of (x + y + 1) = 1 is
58. The area bonded by the curves y = x and y = x3 is dx

1 (1) y = (x + 2) + cex
1
(1) (2)
4 6 (2) y = (x + 2) + cex

(3) x = (y + 2) + cey
1 1
(3) (4)
12 2 (4) x = (y + 2)2 + cey

  

(16)
 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MOCK TEST
for
KCET - 2016
ANSWERS
Physics

1. (1) 13. (3) 25. (3) 37. (3) 49. (4)

2. (3) 14. (1) 26. (1) 38. (3) 50. (2)

3. (2) 15. (2) 27. (3) 39. (1) 51. (4)

4. (4) 16. (3) 28. (3) 40. (3) 52. (1)

5. (3) 17. (1) 29. (3) 41. (1) 53. (3)

6. (4) 18. (2) 30. (2) 42. (3) 54. (4)

7. (2) 19. (2) 31. (2) 43. (1) 55. (2)

8. (2) 20. (4) 32. (2) 44. (3) 56. (2)

9. (1) 21. (2) 33. (2) 45. (3) 57. (3)

10. (3) 22. (4) 34. (4) 46. (3) 58. (3)

11. (3) 23. (1) 35. (3) 47. (3) 59. (2)

12. (2) 24. (4) 36. (4) 48. (3) 60. (2)

(17)
 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MOCK TEST
for
KCET - 2016
ANSWERS
Chemistry

1. (3) 13. (4) 25. (4) 37. (3) 49. (1)

2. (4) 14. (3) 26. (4) 38. (4) 50. (1)

3. (3) 15. (3) 27. (4) 39. (3) 51. (3)

4. (3) 16. (2) 28. (3) 40. (1) 52. (1)

5. (2) 17. (1) 29. (3) 41. (4) 53. (2)

6. (2) 18. (2) 30. (2) 42. (4) 54. (3)

7. (2) 19. (2) 31. (4) 43. (2) 55. (3)

8. (2) 20. (2) 32. (2) 44. (2) 56. (2)

9. (1) 21. (1) 33. (4) 45. (1) 57. (4)

10. (2) 22. (3) 34. (3) 46. (2) 58. (2)

11. (4) 23. (1) 35. (4) 47. (1) 59. (3)

12. (2) 24. (2) 36. (4) 48. (2) 60. (4)

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 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MOCK TEST PAPER

for
KCET - 2016
ANSWERS
Mathematics

1. (3) 13. (2) 25. (2) 37. (2) 49. (2)

2. (4) 14. (1) 26. (3) 38. (1) 50. (3)

3. (1) 15. (1) 27. (3) 39. (2) 51. (4)

4. (1) 16. (2) 28. (2) 40. (3) 52. (2)

5. (2) 17. (3) 29. (1) 41. (3) 53. (1)

6. (2) 18. (1) 30. (2) 42. (1) 54. (2)

7. (3) 19. (1) 31. (2) 43. (2) 55. (4)

8. (2) 20. (4) 32. (1) 44. (4) 56. (1)

9. (1) 21. (1) 33. (4) 45. (4) 57. (3)

10. (2) 22. (1) 34. (2) 46. (2) 58. (4)

11. (4) 23. (2) 35. (2) 47. (3) 59. (1)

12. (1) 24. (1) 36. (1) 48. (1) 60. (3)

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