Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 14

NEET PART TEST 3 [29.03.

17]

1. Bakane is a
1) Bacterial disease 2) Fungal disease 3) Viral disease 4) Nutritional disorder.
2. First stable substance formed during Calvins cycle
1) Glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate 2) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
3) Fructose-6- phosphate 4) Sucrose
3. In the presence of light starch granules form
1) In the stroma 2) In the lumen or between the thylakoids
3) Inside phloem elements 4) In the cytosol
4. Find the incorrect statement from the following
1) Respiration and photosynthesis are two opposite reactions
2) C3 plants perform well in high atmospheric CO2.
3) C4 plants generally found in mesophytic habitat
4) Water is utilized during photosynthesis and water is released in respiration.
5. Glycolysis occurs in
1) Cytosol 2) Cytosol and Plastids 3) Every part of the cell 4) Protoplasm
6. Wrongly matched pair from the following
1) Zinc Tryptophan 2) Nickel Urease
3) Manganese IAA oxidase 4) Iron Carboxypeptidase
7. Read the statements given here and choose the correct option
(a) Plants with aerenchyma transpires more
(b) Rate of transpiration is influenced by pressure inside the roots
1) Both (a) and (b) are correct 2) (a) is correct (b) is incorrect
3) (a) is incorrect (b) is correct 4) Both (a) and (b) are correct
8. Two statements are given below . Select the correct option
(a) Amount of energy released from a substance during catalytic reaction is same irrespective of path of the
reaction.
(b) Enzymes influence reaction by altering the path of the reaction
1) Both (a) and (b) are correct 2) (a) is correct (b) is incorrect
3) Both (a) and (b) are correct 4) (a) is incorrect (b) is correct
9. Non-leguminous plant that develops root nodules
1) Frankia 2) Alnus 3) Glycine max 4) All the above
10. Essential elements are
1) Nutrient elements without which a plant cannot complete its life cycle
2) Elements which take part as structural and functional components
3) Mineral elements available in the soil that can be absorbed by the plants
4) Elements which are left in the body as residues after the decay of the plant
11. Deficiency of which of the following produces symptoms of nitrogen deficiency first
1) Magnesium 2) Molybdenum 3) Iron 4) Phosphate
12. Correct statement regarding the role of iron in plants
(a) Chlorophyll synthesis (b) Translocation of carbohydrates
(c) Electron transfer (d) Cell division
1) (a) and (b) 2) (b) and (d) 3) (a), (c) and (d) 4) (a) and (c)
13. The commercial chemical fertilizers are characterized by the presence and percentage of
1) N, S, P 2) N, P, K 3) N, Mn, Zn 4) N, S, Fe
14. Study the diagram and identify the correct labelling
1) A Dinitrogen; B Ammonification ; C Nitrification ; D Nitrogen assimilation
2) A Dinitrogen ; B Ammonification ; C Nitrification ; D Denitrification
3) A Protein; B Nitrogen fixation ; C Nitrification ; D Nitrification
4) A Protein; B Ammonification ; C Nitrification ; D Nitrogen assimilation
15. Criteria of essentiality is proposed by
1) Dixon 2)Arnon and Stout 3) Munch 4) Emerson
16. Which of the following can fix atmospheric CO2 as well as nitrogen
1)Rhodospirillum 2) Nostoc 3) Chromatium 4) Beijerinckia
17. Most of the Indian soils are deficient in
1) Phosphorus 2) Iron 3) Zinc 4) Nitrogen
18. Which of the following enzyme is not associated with nitrogen fixation
1)Aminotransferase 2) Glutamate dehydrogenase 3) Nitrogenase 4) Peptidase
19. The probability of different types of homozygotes appearing in F 2 generation in a typical dihybrid cross.
1) 0.312 2) 0.25 3) 0.56 4) 0.5
20. Membrane proteins that allow large molecules to cross passively are
1. Channels 2. Porins 3.Pumps 4.Symports.
21. Xylem exudates consists of
(a) Water (b) Minerals (c) Amino acids
(d) Organic compounds with P and S (e) Sucrose.
1) (a), (b) and (c) 2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 3) (a), (b) and (e) 4) (a), (b), (d) and (e)
22. The rate of the reaction mediated by an enzyme
I) Is maximum when enzyme molecules are fewer than substrate molecules.
II) Is maximum when substrate molecules are fewer than enzyme molecules.
III) Is minimal at equilibrium sate.
IV) Reaches equilibrium state when enzyme and substrate molecules are equal.
Correct options is/are
1) I & II 2) II & III 3) III & IV 4) Only IV
23. Recessive trait in the pea plant
1) Yellow pod 2) Yellow seed 3) Green pod 4) Violet flowers
24. Wrong statement regarding monohybrid cross
1) All F1 plants look alike 2) In F2 generation 50% are homozygotes
3) Alleles are separated into gametes 4) Two different genotypes are observed
25. Mendels factors
1) Are discrete entities 2) Are stable 3) Do not blend 4) All the above
26. In Antirrhinum majus a cross between Pink flowers and White flowers gives
1) Equal ratio of Pink and white flowers 2) Red, Pink and White flowers in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio
3) Equal ratio of Red and White 4) Equal ratio of Red and Pink.
27. The number of genotypes of gametes that can form from the genotype AABBCCDD are
1) 16 2) 8 3) 1 4) 4
28. Engelmanns experiment with a green algae using a prism shows
1) Oxygen evolution more in blue and red light 2) Chloroplasts is the sight of O2 evolution.
3) Aerobic requires O2. 4) Green light do not release O2.
29. Cornelius von Neil experimented with
1) Photoautotrophs 2) Chemoautotrophs 3) Photoheterotrophs 4) Chemoheterotrophs
30. The correct sequence for the movement of electrons during the light-dependent reactions of plants is
1) P680 P700 water NADP+ 2) water P700 NADP+ P680
+
3) P680 water P700 NADP 4) water P680 P700 NADP+
31. Rubisco:
1)Catalyzes the carboxylation of CO2 to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.
2)Initiates photorespiration when the CO2/O2 ratio is low.
3)Catalyzes the reduction of two molecules of GAP to form glucose 4) 1 and 2, but not 3.
32. Open form of growth is
1) Increase in length of the plant 2) Increase in amount of cytoplasm
3) Increase in both length and thickness 4) Indefinite activity of the meristems
33. The growth curve shown in trees with seasonal activities
1) Stationary phase from the beginning 2) Sigmoid curve
3) Linear growth rate 4) Parabolic
34. Immature embryos are responsible for dormancy in
1) Delphinium 2) Butter cup 3) Polygonum 4) Bean
35. Nearly how much glucose do not enter Glycolytic pathway.
1) 50% 2) 70% 3) 30% 4) 10%
36. Select the correct sequence of intermediate metabolites formed during the aerobic respiration of glucose
1) Pyruvic acid Succinic acid Oxaloaceticacid Citric acid
2) AcetylCoA -Ketoglutaric acid Fumaric acid Oxaloacetic acid
3) GAP Pyruvic acid Lactic acid
4) Citric acid Malic acid Fumaric acid Oxaloacetic acid.
37. Number steps in the aerobic respiration in eukaryotes
1) Three 2) Many 3) Ten 4) Four
38. Ion absorption is more from
1) Meristematic zone 2) Elongation zone 3) Root hair zone 4) Mature zone
39. Phenyl Mercuric Acetate is a
1) Insecticide 2) Antitranspirant 3) Fertilizer 4) Plant Growth Regulator.
40. When water potential is equal to osmotic potential
1) Cells are turgid 2) Cells are flaccid
3) Wall pressure is equal to turgor pressure 4) Vacuole size is large
41. Match the following chemical structures correctly

1) A Auxin; B ABA; C Cytokinin; D Ethylene.


2) A Gibberellin; B ABA; C Auxin; D Cytokinin
3) A ABA; B Gibberellin; C Auxin; D Ethylene.
4) A Auxin; B Gibberellin; C Cytokinin; D Ethylene.
42. Casparian bands
1) Obstruct apoplast movement of water 2) Affects symplastic movement of water
3) Allows ions to cross 4) Do not allow water from inside to outside.
43. When incident light is bright
1. Chloroplasts arrange with their flat surfaces parallel to the walls
2. Chloroplasts arrange with their flat surfaces perpendicular to the walls.
3. Chloroplasts arrange randomly.
4. Some chloroplasts arrange with their flat surfaces parallel and some perpendicular to the walls.
44. Elongation zone in the apex of a root can be detected by
1) Their cellulosic primary walls, abundant plasmodesmatal connections
2) Cell wall thickening, appearance of large central vacuole.
3) Increased vacuolization, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition.
4) Rich protoplasm, conspicuous nuclei, no vacuoles.
45. Redifferentiated tissue
1) Phellogen 2) Vascular cambium 3) Medulla 4) Cork
46. Study the following statements related to absorption in alimentary canal
I. drugs are absorbed in both mouth and large intestine.
II. water absorption takes place in both small intestine and largr intestine.
III. alcohol and some simple sugars are absorbed in stomach.
IV. final products of digestion are absorbed in small intestine.
Number of statements correct are
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
47. Among the following all consists HCO3- except
1) gastric juice 2) salivary juice 3) pancreatic juice 4) succus entericus
48. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
I. nucleases A) bile juice
II. castle intrinsic factor B) succus entericus
III. maltase C) gastric juice
IV. phospholipids D) pancreatic juice
I II III IV I II III IV
1) B C D A 2) D B C A
3) D C B A 4) D C B A
49. Vomiting is an reflex action, the centre controlling it is located in
1) hypothalamus 2) pons 3) medulla 4) cerebellum
50. In a person number of respiratory cycles is 12/min. in him tidal volume is 500ml , residual volume is
1000ml,inspiratory capacity is 3000ml, expiratory capacity is 1500ml then what is total lung capacity of him
1) indigestion 2) deglutition 3)constipation 4) diarrhoea
51. On mount Everest the atmospheric pressure recorded on barometre is 300mm of Hg, then
1) O2 % is 5ml 2) O2 partial pressure is 60mmof Hg
3) Partial pressure is 15mm of Hg 4) O2 percentage and partial pressure both becomes half
52. Correct in the following is
1) TV+ IRV = FRC 2) TLC RV = VC 3) ERV + IRV = VC 4) IRV + ERV + VC = TLC
53. During inspiration, the correct statement is/ are
1) intra pulmonary partial pressure more than atmospheric pressure
2) inter pulmonary pressure is more than atmospheric pressure
3) atmospheric pressure is more than intra pulmonary pressure
4) inter pulmonary pressure is more than intra pulmonary pressure.
54. Which of the following is not a correct combination with regard to blood cells
1) A is neutrophil fights against infection
2) B basophil number increases at the time of helminthic infection.
3) C- lymphocyte plays a key role in immunity
4) D- acidophil engulfs antigen antibody complexes
55. Angina pectoris, a symptom of acute chest pain in humans occurs due to
1) less O2 supply to muscles of lungs 2) less O2 supply to muscles of heart
3) accumulation of CO2 in lungs 4) More CO2 reaching heart from lungs
56. Assertion (R) : Heart beat is intrinsic
Reason (R) : SAN is autorhythemic undergoes self depolarisations for 0.8 sec.
1) Both A & R are true .R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A & R are true but A does not explanation A.
3) A is correct .R is false 4) Both A & R are false.
57. Assertion(A) : In amphibians and most reptiles the circulation is incomplete double circulation
Reason(R): In incomplete double circulation organs receives mixed blood.
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct and R I not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
58. In a standard ECG, the patient is connected with three electrical leads, they are connected to
1) one to each ankle and other to right wrist 2) one to each wrist and other to left ankle
3) one to each wrist and other at chest region 4) one to each ankle and other at chest region
59. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that last for 7-8 days is
1) Follicular phase 2) Ovulatory phase 3) Luteal phase 4) Mensturation
60. Mammalian urine also consists little amounts of uric acid, it is produced by
1) deamminaton of amino acids 2)purine metabolism
3) excessive selective reabsorption 4) lipid breakdowm
61. Renin is produced from JG cells of kidney in response to
1) fall in glomerular blood pressure 2) rise in glomerular blood pressure
3) fall O2 levels in blood 4) rise in H+ in blood
62. Assertion (A) : Thick filaments of a muscle are polymerized proteins.
Reason (R): Many monomeric proteins called meromyosins constitutes one thick filament.
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct and R I not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
63. The mineral ions that plays a key role in muscle contraction are
1) Na+ and Ca+ 2) Mg+ and Ca+ 3) Cu+ and Ca+ 4) K+ and Ca+
64. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid is
1) rheumatoid arthritis 2) uraemia 3) gout 4) myasthenia gravis
65. Muscles and bones together forms leverine mechanisms .In this the structures acts as fulcrum are
1) muscle spindles 2) tendons 3) joints 4) bones
66. Correct statements with regard to A.B and C in the diagram is
1) A receptor to which neurotransmitter binds 2) C is neurotransmitter binds to B
3) B is pre-synaptic membrane 4) C- synaptic cleft A - neurotransmitter
67. The middle ear ossicle stapes attaches to
1) Malleus 2)Tympanic membrane
3) round window 4) Oval window
68. Following are the sets of antagonistic hormones
Match themand choose correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
A) MSH I) progesteron
B) LH II) gastrin
C) GIP III) melatonin
D) PTH IV)Thyrocalcitonin
A B C D A B C D
1) II III IV I 2) II IV III I
3) III I II IV 4) IV II I III
69. Among the following correct are
1) limbic system along with hypothalamus controls emotional reactions and sexual behaviour
2) inner parts of cerebral hemispheres along with hippocampus , amygdala forms little brain.
3) pons, cerebellum and cerebrum together forms brian stem
4) pons is gyroscope of the body.
70. Study the following w.r.t photoreceptor cells of retina
I) Cone cells are with visual purple or rhodopsin.
II) cone cells are three types which are sensitive to red, blue and green.
III) when these cells are not stimulated white light is produced.
IV) cone cells are seven types which are sensitive to VIBGYOR
The Incorrect statements are
1) All except -I 2) All except II 3) All except III 4) All except -IV
71. Human seminal plasma is rich in
1) glucose and calcium 2) fructose and calcium
3) glucose and potassium 4) fructose and potassium
72. The hormone is relaxin secreted by
1) ovary in early stages of puberty 2) ovary during infant stage
3) ovary in late stages of pregnancy 4) ovary during fetal stage
73. In the figure A and C represents
1) ovum and corpus albicans
2) ovum and primordial follicle
3) ovum and corpus leuteum
4) corpus leuteum and corpus albicans
74. Eggs of human beings are
1) alecithal and undergoes equal holoblastic cleavage
2) alecithal and undergoes unequal holoblastic cleavage
3) microlecithal and undergoes equal holoblastic cleavage
4) microlecithal and undergoes unequal holoblastic cleavage
75. The hormone inhibin is secreted by all except
1) sertoli cells 2) corpus leteum 3) placenta 4) leidig cells
76. In humans during embryonic development foetus develops limbs and digits
1) by the end of first month 2) by the end of second month
3) By the end of third month 4) by the end of fourth month
77. Study the following
a) protein hydrolysis takes place in stomach and small intestine
b) starch digestion takes place in and oral cavity and stomach
c) cellulose digestion takes place in large intestine
d) fats digestion takes place in only small intestine
correct statements are
1) a & b 2) a & c 3) b & d 4) c & d
78. Optimum pH required for the action of pepsin is
1) 0.8 2) 1.8 3) 2.8 4) 4.0
79. A secondary follicle consists
1) Secondary Oocyte and a polar body 2)Secondary Oocyte and two polar bodies
3) Primary Oocyte and a polar body 4) Primary Oocyte and no polar body
80. The contraceptive device in the following figure is
1) Skin patch 2) Implant
3) IUD 4) Lippes loop
81. Ideal contraceptive in case of rape to prevent pregnancy is
1) Saheli 2) Progestogens 3) DMPA 4) Skin patches
82. The reaction ATPcAMP is catalysed by
1) ATP ase 2)Phosphorylase 3) Adenyl cyclase 4) Polymerase
83. Test used as preliminary test for HIV is
1) Wester blot test 2) Souther blot test 3) direct ELISA 4) indirect ELISA
84. An antigen the exists dimer is
1) IgA 2) IgM 3) IgG 4) IgE
85. In brain Iter connects
1) Rhinocoels with paracoels 2)Unpaired ventricles
3) Paracoels with Diacoel 4) Paired ventrricles
86. Damage to cerebellum part of the brain leads to
1) Ataxia 2)Asphyxia 3) Hypoxia 4) Emphysema
87. Autoimmune renal disorder is
1) Arthritis` 2)Glomerulo nephritis 3) Renal calculi 4) Gout
88. Sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes from the body are excreted by
1) lungs 2)Kidneys 3) Subaceous glands 4) Sweat glands
89. Hormones that increases rate of heart beat are
1) Adrenalin and Thyroxine 2) Thyroxine and Vassopressin
3) Vassopressin and Adrenalin 4) Thyroxine and AcetylCholine
90. Blood group antibodies are _____ type
1) IgA 2)IgM 3) IgD 4) IgE
91. The speed (v) of ripples on the surface of water depends on surface tension () , density () and wavelength
( ) . The square of speed (v) is proportional to

1) 2) 3) 4)

92. The speed of light (c), gravitation constant (G) and Plancks constant (h) are taken as fundamental units in a
system. The dimensions of time in this new system should be
1) G1/ 2 h1/ 2c 5/ 2 2) G 1/ 2h1/ 2c1/ 2 3) G1/ 2 h1/ 2c 3/ 2 4) G1/ 2 h1/ 2c1/ 2
1 t
2
dt
In the equation
x
93. a sin a
2
1 , the value of x is
3at 2t 2
1) 3/2 2) 0 3) 1/2 4) 1/2
94. If unit of mass becomes 2 times, the unit of length becomes 4 times and the unit of time becomes 4 times in
the unit of Plancks constant. Due to this unit of Plancks constant becomes n times. The value of n is
1) 3 2) 5 3) 6 4) 8
n
e
95. A student determines a dimensionless quantity, B . Find the value of n. (here, e is electric charge, 0
2 0 hc
is electric permittivity of vacuum, h is Plancks constant and c is speed of light)
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1
96. Forces X, Y and Z have magnitudes 10 N, 5( 3 1) N and 5( 3 1) N. The forces Y and
Z act in the same direction as shown in the diagram. The resultant of X and Y and the
resultant of X and Z have the same magnitude. Find , the angle between X and Y.
1) 150o 2) 135o 3) 120o 4) 105o
r r r r r r
97. Vectors A and B include an angle between them. If ( A B) and ( A B) respectively subtend angles and
r
with A , then (tan tan ) is
( AB sin ) (2 AB sin )
1) 2 2 2 2)
( A B cos ) ( A2 B 2 cos 2 )
( A2 sin 2 ) ( B 2 sin 2 )
3) 4)
( A2 B 2 cos 2 ) ( A2 B 2 cos 2 )
98. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only
along the y-direction, the magnitude and direction of the minimum additional force
needed is
1) 0.5 N, in the +ve x-direction 2) 1.5 N, in the ve x-direction
3) 3 / 4 N, in the +ve x-direction 4) 3 N, in the ve x-direction
r r t t
99. If vectors A cos ti sin tj and B cos i sin j are functions of time, then the value of t at which
2 2
they are orthogonal to each other is

1) t = 0 2) t 3) t 4) t
4 2
100. Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at time t = 0 in the same
direction along a straight line. The velocity-time graph of two cars is shown in figure.
The time when the car B will catch the car A, will be
1) 21 s 2) 2 5 s 3) 20 s 4) 10 2 s
101. The speed v of a car moving on a straight road changes according to equation, v 2 a bx , where a and b are
positive constants. Then the magnitude of acceleration in the course of such motion, (x is the distance
travelled)
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains constant 4) first decreases and then increases
102. The angle which the velocity vector of a projectile thrown with a velocity v at an angle to the horizontal
will make with the horizontal after time t of its being thrown up is
1 1 vcos 1 vsin gt
1) 2) tan 3) tan 4) tan
t vsin gt vcos
103. Four persons K, L, M and N are initially at the corners of a square of side of length d. If every person starts
moving with speed v, such that K always heads towards L, L heads towards M, M heads directly towards N
and N heads towards K, then the four persons will meet after a time
d 2d d d
1) 2) 3) 4)
v v 2v 2v
104. A particle is projected from the ground with an initial speed of v at an angle with horizontal. The average
velocity of the particle between its point of projection and highest point of trajectory is
v v v
1) 1 2cos 2 2) 1 4cos 2 3) 1 3cos 2 4) v cos
2 2 2
105. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at a rate
of 1 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/s. The initial acceleration of the block will be
1) 2.5 m/s2 2) 5 m/s2 3) 10 m/s2 4) 20 m/s2
106. A uniform sphere of weight W and radius 3 m is being held by a string of length 2 m attached to a
frictionless wall as shown in the figure. The tension in the string will be
1) 5W/4 2) 15W/4 3) 5W/6 4) 8W/15
107. Under the action of a force, a 2 kg body moves such that its position x as a function of time t is
given by x t 3 / 3 , where x is in metre and t in seconds. The work done by the force in the first two seconds
is
1) 1.6 J 2) 16 J 3) 160 J 4) 1600 J
108. A force of 100 N is applied on a block of mass 3 kg as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction
1
between the surface and the block is . The frictional force acting on the block is
3
1) 15 N downwards 2) 25 N upwards 3) 20 N downwards 4) 30 N upwards
109. A body of mass 8 kg lies on a rough horizontal table. It is observed that a certain horizontal force gives the
body an acceleration of 4 ms 2. When this force is doubled, the acceleration of the body is 16 ms 2. The
coefficient of friction is
1) 0.2 2) 0.3 3) 0.4 4) 0.8
110. A particle is projected along the line of greatest slope up a rough plane inclined at an angle of 45 o with the
horizontal. If the coefficient of friction is 1/2, the retardation is
g g g 1 g 1
1) 2) 3) 1 4) 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
111. Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown in figure.
All the three particles are moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of the
outermost particle is v0, then the ratio of tensions in the three sections of the
string is
1) 3 : 5 : 7 2) 3 : 4 : 5 3) 7 : 11 : 6 4) 3 : 5 : 6
112. A horizontal force F of variable magnitude and constant direction acts on a body of mass m which is initially
at rest at a point O on a smooth horizontal surface. The magnitude of F is given by F t where t is the
time for which the force has been acting on the body and and are positive constants. If s is the distance of
the body from O at time t, then s is equal to
1 1 ( t )t 2 t2
1) ( t t 2 )t 2) ( t 2 ) 3) 4) (3 t )
2m 2m 2m 6m
113. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph as shown
in the figure. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero
to 8 s is
1) 24 Ns 2) 20 Ns 3) 12 Ns 4) 6 Ns
114. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes
over a frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass m2 is suspended.
The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and table is k. When the block A is sliding on the table,
the tension in the string is
(m2 k m1 ) g (m2 k m1 ) g m1m2 (1 k ) g m1m2 (1 k ) g
1) 2) 3) 4)
(m1 m2 ) (m1 m2 ) (m1 m2 ) (m1 m2 )
115. The displacement of a body of mass 2 kg varies with time t as S t 2 2t , where S is in metres and t is in
seconds. The work done by all the forces acting on the body during the time interval t 2 s to t 4 s is
1) 36 J 2) 64 J 3) 100 J 4) 120 J
116. A meter stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5 g are put one on the
other at the 12 cm mark, the stick is found to balanced at 45 cm. The mass of the metre stick is
1) 56 g 2) 66 g 3) 76 g 4) 36 g
r
117. A variable force, given by the 2-dimentional vector F (3 x 2i 4 j ) , acts on a particle. The force is in newton
and x is in metre. What is the change in the kinetic energy of the particle as it moves from the point with
coordinates (2, 3) to (3, 0)? (The coordinates are in metres)
1) 7 J 2) 19 J 3) +7 J 4) +19 J
118. Two identical blocks A and B, each of mass m resting on smooth floor are connected by a light spring of
natural length L and spring constant K, with the spring at its natural length. A third identical block C (mass m)
moving with a speed v along the line joining A and B collides with A. The maximum compression in the
spring is
m v mv mv
1) v 2) m 3) 4)
2k 2k k 2k
119. A constant power P is applied to a particle of mass m. The distance travelled by the particle when its velocity
increases from v1 to v2 is (neglect friction)
m 3 m 3P 2 m 2
1) (v 2 v13 ) 2) (v 2 v1 ) 3) (v 2 v12 ) 4) (v 2 v12 )
3P 3P m 3P
120. A pendulum consists of a wooden bob of mass m and of length l. A bullet of mass m1 is fired towards the
pendulum with a speed v. The bullet emerges out of the bob with a speed v/3 and the bob just completes
motion along a vertical circle. Then v is
m 3 m 2 m m
1) 5 gl 2) 5 gl 3) 1 5 gl 4) 1 gl
m1 2 m1 3 m m
121. Seven identical discs are arranged in a hexagonal, planar pattern so as to touch each neighbor, as
shown in the figure. Each disc has mass m and radius r. What is the moment of inertia of the
system of seven discs about an axis passing through the centre of central disc and normal to
plane of all discs?
7 mr 2 13mr 2 29mr 2 55mr 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
122. Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment
of inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is
4 8 10 4
2) MR 3) 4) MR
2 2 2
1) MR 2 MR
12 3 4 3 16 3 6
123. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches up to a
3v 2
maximum height of with respect to the initial position. The object is
4g
1) ring 2) solid sphere 3) hollow sphere 4) disc
124. The beam and pans of a balance have negligible mass. An object weighs W1, when placed in one pan and W2
when placed in the other pan. The weight W of the object is
W W2 2WW1 2
1) WW 2) W12 W22 3) 1 4)
1 2
2 W
1 W2
r
125. A particle of mass m moves in the xy-plane with a velocity of v vxi v y j . When its position vector is
r
r xi yj , the angular momentum of the particle about the origin is
1) m( xv yv )k
y x 2) m( xv yv )k
y x 3) m( yv xv )k
x y 4) m( xv yv )k
y x

126. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along the line y x 2 (here x and y are in m) with speed 2 m/s. The
magnitude of angular momentum of the particle about origin is
1) 4 kgm2 s1 2) 2 2 kgm2 s1 3) 4 2 kgm2 s1 4) 2 kgm2 s1
127. A uniform rod of length is released from rest such that it rotates about a smooth pivot.
The angular speed of the rod when it becomes vertical is
6g 6g 3g 3g
1) 2 2) 3) 2 4)
7l 7l 7l 7l
128. A vertical disc of mass 5 kg and radius 50 cm rests against a step of height 25 cm as
shown in figure. What minimum horizontal force applied perpendicular to the axle will
make the disc to climb the step? (g = 10 m/s 2)
1) 50 N 2) 50 3 N 3) 25 N 4) 50 2 N
129. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation (t ) 2t 3 6t 2 . The
torque on the wheel becomes zero at
1) 0.5 s 2) 0.25 s 3) 2 s 4) 1 s
130. If the earth is squeezed gravitationally to half of its present radius, the duration of the day will be
1) 12 hr 2) 6 hr 3) 8 hr 4) 6 2 hr
131. The moons radius is 1/4th that of the earth and its mass is 1/80 times that of the earth. If g represents the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, that on the surface of the moon is
1) g/4 2) g/5 3) g/6 4) g/8
132. Infinite bodies, each of mass 3 kg are situated at distances 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, . respectively on x-axis. The
resultant intensity of gravitational field at the origin will be
1) G 2) 2G 3) 3G 4) 4G
133. A body of mass m is placed on earth surface which is taken from earth surface to a height of h 3R . Then
change in gravitational potential energy is
mgR 2 3 mgR
1) 2) mgR 3) mgR 4)
4 3 4 2
134. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. The
speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be
a 3 a 3 2 a a 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2T T T T
135. The kinetic energy of a particle executing SHM with amplitude A will be equal when its displacement is
1) A 2 2) A / 2 3) A / 2 4) A 2 / 3
136. A straight hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C 8H10. The hybridization for the C-atom from one end of
the chain to the other are respectively sp 3, sp2, sp2, sp3, sp2, sp2, sp and sp. The structural formula of the
compound would be
1) CH 3 C C CH 2 CH CH CH CH 2 2) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH CH 2 C C CH CH 2
3) CH 3 CH CH CH 2 C C CH CH 2 4) CH 3 CH CH CH 2 CH CH C CH
137. The bond between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom (2) in compound N C CH CH 2 involves the
hybridized carbon as
1) sp 2 ,sp 2 2) sp3 ,sp 3) sp,sp 2 4) sp,sp
138. The number of electrons in cyclobutadienyl anion (C 4 H 4 ) 2 is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
139. Homolytic fission of C C bond in ethane gives an intermediate in which carbon is _____ hybridized
1) sp3 2) sp 2 3) sp 4) sp3d
140. Consider the following compounds
(A) chloroethene, (B) benzene (C) 1, 3-butadiene, (D) Hexa 1, 2, 3-triene.
All C-atoms are sp2 hybridised in
1) A, C, D only 2) A, B only 3) B, C, D only 4) A, B, C and D

141. How many bonds are there in ?

1) 14, 8 2) 18, 8 3) 9, 4 4) 14, 2


142. The temporary effect in which there is complete transfer of a shared pair of pi-electrons to one of the atoms
joined by a multiple bond as the demand of an attacking reagent is called
1) inductive effect 2) resonance effect 3) hyperconjugation 4) electromeric effect
143. Which compound shows dipole moment?
1) 1,4-dichlorobenzene 2) 1,2-dichlorobenzene 3) trans-1,2-dichloroethene 4) trans but-2-ene
144. The correct acidity order of the following is

1) III > IV > II > I 2) IV > III > I > II 3) III > II > I > IV 4) II > III > IV > I
145. Which is the decreasing order of stability?

I) CH 3 C H CH 3 II) CH 3 C H O CH 3 III) CH 3 C H CO CH 3
1) I < II < III 2) I > II > III 3) III > II > I 4) II > III > I
146. To which of the following four types does this reaction belong B R A B R A

1) unimolecular electrophilic substitution 2) bimolecular electrophilic substitution


3) unimolecular nucleophilic substitution 4) bimolecular nucleophilic substitution
147. Which represents nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction?
1) Reaciton of benzene with Cl2 in sunlight 2) Benzyl bromide hydrolysis
3) Reaction of NaOH with dinitrofluro benzene 4) Sulphonation of benzene
148. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following

CH 3 CH CH 2 H 2O
H
CH 3 CH CH 3
1) CH 3CHO HCN CH 3CH(OH)CN 2) |
CH 3
RCHO RMGX R CH R
3) |
CH 3
CH3 CH 2 CH CH 2 Br NH 3 CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2 NH 2
4) | |
CH 3 CH 3
149. Which of the following compounds may not exist as enantiomers?
1) CH 3CH(OH)COOH 2) CH 3 CH 2 CH(CH 3 )CH 2 OH
3) C6 H5 CH 2 CH 3 4) C6 H5 CHClCH 3
150. Meso tartaric acid is optically inactive due to the presence of
1) molecular symmetry 2) molecular asymmetry
3) external compensation 4) two asymmetric compensations
151. How many structural isomers are possible for C 4H10O?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 7
152. The total number of isomers formed by C5H10 is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
153. The number of enantiomers of the compound CH 3CHBrCHBrCOOH is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 3 4) 4
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
154. An organic compound is C H 3 C H 2 C H 2 C H 2 C H 2 C H 2 C H 3 . To make it chiral compound, the
attack should be on which C-atom?
1) 1 2) 3 3) 4 4) 7
155. The correct statement about the compounds A and B is

1) A and B are identical 2) A and B are diastereomers


3) A and B are enantiomers 4) none of these
In the reaction CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH
3
AlCl3
156. HBr
product , the product is
CH 3 CH C H 2 CH 3 CH 3 C H CH 3
| |
1) Br 2) CH 3

C H 3 CH 2 C H 2
| |
3) Br CH 3 4) all of these

157. Which of the following is not formed by the reaction of Cl 2 on CH4 in sunlight?
1) CHCl3 2) CH3Cl 3) CH 3 CH 3 4) CH 3 CH 2 CH3
158. Which of the following compound has maximum boiling point?
1) n-hexane 2) n-pentane 3) 2,2-dimethyl propane 4) 2-methyl butane
159. By Wurtz reaction, a mixture of methyl iodide and ethyl iodide gives
1) butane 2) ethane 3) propane 4) a mixture of 1, 2 and 3
160. In the reaction C2 H5 I
[H ]
A, the product A is
1) ethane 2) butane 3) methane 4) methyl iodide
161. Which is the best antiknock compound?
1) lead tetrachloride 2) Lead acetate 3) Zinc ethyl 4) Tetraethyl lead
162. Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72 u gives only one isomer of
monosubstituted alkyl halide?
1) Tertiary butyl chloride 2) Neopentane 3) Isohexane 4) Neohexane
163. In which of the following, addition of HBr does not take place against Markownikoffs rule?
1) Propene 2) But-1-ene 3) But-2-ene 4) Pent-2-ene
164. Which one of the following characteristics apply to both ethene and ethyne?
1) Explode when mixed with Cl2
2) Decolourise Baeyers reagent giving brown precipitate
3) rapidly absorbed by cold conc.H2SO4 4) form white precipitate with AgNO3 solution
165. Which of the following compound is produced when CH 2 CH (CH 2 ) 2 COOH reacts with HBr in
presence of peroxides?
1) CH 3CH(CH 2 )5 COOH 2) BrCH 2 (CH 2 )3 COOH
3) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 (CH 2 )5 COOH 4) CH 3 CH 2 BrCH 2 COOH
166. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound B.
CH 3CH CH CH 3 O3
A HZn2O B . The compound B is
1) CH 3COCH 3 2) CH 3CH 2 COCH 3 3) CH 3CHO 4) CH 3CH 2 CHO
Identify Z in the series CH 2 CH
2
HBr aq.KOH Na 2 CO3
167. X Y I2 excess
Z
1) C2 H 5I 2) C2 H 5OH 3) CHI3 4) CH 3CHO
168. Addition of HCl does not obey anti Markownikoffs rule because
1) it is a strong acid 2) it is a gas 3) its bond energy is high 4) its bond energy is less
169. 2-Chloro butane is heated with alcoholic NaOH. The product formed in larger amount is
1) but-1-ene 2) but-1-yne 3) but-2-ene 4) all of these
170. Which is the most suitable reagent among the following to distinguish compound (III) from rest of the
compounds?
I) CH 3 C C CH 3 II) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 III) CH 3 CH 2 C CH IV) CH 3 CH CH 2
1) Br2 in CCl4 2) Br2 in acetic acid
3) alakaline KMnO4 4) ammonical silver nitrate reagent
171. When acetylene is passed into dil. sulphuric acid containing Hg 2 ions, the product formed is
1) acetone 2) acetic acid 3) acetaldehyde 4) formal dehyde
172. When but-2-yne is treated with Pd-BaSO4, the product formed will be
1) cis-but-2-ene 2) trans-but-2-ene 3) but-1-ene 4) 2-hydroxy butane
In the reaction CaC 2 H 2O X OH HCOOH HCOOH, X is
O 3 / H 2O
173.
1) C2 H 4 2) C2 H 2 3) C2 H 6 4) Ca(OH) 2
174. The number of moles of protons which can be easily given by but-1-yne (1 mole) is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 6
175. C6 H 6 CH 3Cl AlCl3
anhydrous
6H 5CH 3 HCl is an example of
C
1) Friedel Crafts reaction 2) Kolbes synthesis
3) Wurtz reaction 4) Grignard reaction
176. The bond order of individual carbon-carbon bonds in benzene is
1) one 2) two 3) between one and two 4) one and two alternatively
177. Which one of the following will undergo meta substitution on monochlorination?
1) Ethoxy ethane 2) Chloro benzene 3) Ethyl benzoate 4) Phenol
178. Which of the following is not o, p-directing group?
1) NH 2 2) OH 3) X (halogen) 4) CHO
179. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?

1) 2) 3) 4)

180. In the reaction

1) 2) 3) 4) both 2 and 3
NEET PART TEST 3 KEY [29.03.17]
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
2 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 3 2 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
4 4 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
1 1 2 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 1 4
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
3 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 3 1 2
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
2 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 4 1 3 1
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 2 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
4 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 3 4 3
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
4 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 1
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
4 4 4 2 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 2 3 2 2
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
3 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 4 1 4

NEET PART TEST 3 KEY [29.03.17]


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
2 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 3 2 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
4 4 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
1 1 2 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 1 4
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
3 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 3 1 2
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
2 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 4 1 3 1
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 2 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
4 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 3 4 3
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
4 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 1
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
4 4 4 2 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 2 3 2 2
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
3 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 4 1 4
NEET PART TEST 3 KEY [29.03.17]
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
2 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 3 2 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
4 4 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
1 1 2 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 1 4
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
3 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 3 1 2
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
2 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 4 1 3 1
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 2 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
4 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 3 4 3
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
4 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 1
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
4 4 4 2 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 2 3 2 2
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
3 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 4 1 4

NEET PART TEST 3 KEY [29.03.17]


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
2 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 3 2 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
4 4 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
1 1 2 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 1 4
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
3 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 3 1 2
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
2 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 4 1 3 1
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 2 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
4 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 3 4 3
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
4 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 1
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
4 4 4 2 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 2 3 2 2
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
3 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 4 1 4

Vous aimerez peut-être aussi