Question Bank- CAR -66 (Modular) Examination Go to Page 17 >> 11.5.

1
MODULE NO: Module Topic:
Chapter Question Question/Answer Level Book Reference
No (L1/L2/L3) Title,Author, Page/Para no
11.1.1 1 Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with. L1 Pallett Automatic Flight
Option A. ailerons. Control 4th Edition Page
Option B. rudder. 51. Jeppesen A&P
Option C. elevators. Technician Airframe
Correct Answer is. ailerons. TextbookPage 1-12.

If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab Automatic flight control,
2 on the rudder?. L1 Pallett, 4th Edition Page
Option A. To the centre. 43.
Option B. To the right.
Option C. To the left.
Correct Answer is. To the left.

If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left Automatic flight control,
3 Pallett, 4th Edition Page
aileron trim tab?.
L1 43.
Option A. Down.
Option B. Up.
Option C. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation.
Correct Answer is. Up.

4 When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing
for?. Pallett Automatic Flight
L1 Control 2nd Edition
Option A. To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.
Option B. To re-energise the boundary layer. Page 50. Jeppesen
Option C. To increase the lift. A&P Technician
Correct Answer is. To re-energise the boundary layer. Airframe Textbook Page
1-32.
With reference to differential aileron control. Automatic Flight
5
Control, Pallett 4th
Option A. drag increases on the inner wing. L2
Option B. drag decreases on the outer wing. Edition Page 41. A+P
Option C. drag increases on the outer wing. Technician Airframe
Correct Answer is. drag increases on the inner wing. Textbook Page 1-11.
 Dutch role is movement in. Avionic Fundamentals
6 Option A. yaw and roll. L2 Jeppesen page 291.
Option B. yaw and pitch.
Option C. pitch and roll.
Correct Answer is. yaw and roll.

7 An anti-balance tab is used. Jeppesen A&P

Option A. for trimming the aircraft. L2 Technician Airframe
Option B. to give more feel to the controls. Textbook 1-29.
Option C. to relieve stick loads.
Correct Answer is. to give more feel to the controls.

Slats. Jeppesen A & P

8 Option A. act as an air brake. L1 technician airframe
Option B. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer. textbook page 1-32.
Option C. increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing.
Correct Answer is. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.

A balance tab.
9 Jeppesen A & P
Option A. assists the pilot to move the controls.
Option B. is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft. Technician Textbook pg
L1 1-29.
Option C. effectively increases the area of the control surface.
Correct Answer is. assists the pilot to move the controls.

10 Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?.

Option A. Both wings have an equal increase in drag. Jeppesen A & P
Option B. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going Technician Airframe
L2
aileron increases more. Textbook page 1-26.
Option C. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going
aileron increases more.
Correct Answer is. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-
going aileron increases more.

11 A split flap increases lift by increasing.

Option A. the surface area. L2 Jeppesen A & P
Option B. the camber of the top surface. Technician Airframe
Option C. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion. Textbook page 1-30
Correct Answer is. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.
 12 A Krueger flap is. Jeppesen A & P
Option A. a leading edge slat which extends forward. Airframe Technician
Option B. a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower. L2 Textbook page 1-37
Option C. a leading edge flap which hinges forward. figure 1-64
Correct Answer is. a leading edge flap which hinges forward.

The primary function of a flap is. Jeppesen A & P

13 Option A. to alter the position of the centre of gravity. L1 Technician Airframe
Option B. to trim the aircraft longitudinally. Textbook page 1-30.
Option C. to alter the lift of an aerofoil.
Correct Answer is. to alter the lift of an aerofoil.
11.1.2 Aircraft Flight Barnard
13 Air above Mach 0.7 is. and Philpot, Second
L2
Option A. compressible. Edition Page123.
Option B. incompressible. Mechanics of Flight AC
Option C. compressible only when above the speed of sound. Kermode 10th Edition
Correct Answer is. compressible. Page
385.
14
Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the. Mechanics of Flight AC
Option A. pressure to increase, velocity to decrease. L1 Kermode 10th Edition
Option B. pressure to increase, velocity to increase. Page 340.
Option C. pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.
Correct Answer is. pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.

15 A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced. Pallett Automatic Flight
Option A. root stall on a delta wing aircraft. L1 Control 2nd Edition
Option B. tip stall on a straight wing aircraft. Page 45.
Option C. tip stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Correct Answer is. root stall on a delta wing aircraft.

16 Before an aircraft reaches critical mach. Mechanics of Flight 10th

Option A. the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear. edition Barnard and
Option B. the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward. L2 Philpott Pg 341.
Option C. the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave.
Correct Answer is. the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear.
 17 Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its Mechanics of Flight AC
speed and. L2 Kermode 10th Edition
Option A. decrease temperature and increase density. Page 326 fig 11.4
Option B. increase temperature and increase density.
Option C. increase temperature and decrease density.
Correct Answer is. increase temperature and increase density.

Mach Number is defined as. Jeppesen A&P

18 Option A. TAS divided by local speed of sound. Technician Airframe
Option B. speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound. Textbook Page 66.
Option C. IAS divided by the local speed of sound. L1
Correct Answer is. TAS divided by local speed of sound.

Mach number is.

19
Option A. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at sea Flight Instruments and
level. Automatic Flight
L2
Option B. the ratio of the aircrafts IAS to the speed of sound at the same Control, David Harris
atmospheric conditions. Page 19.
Option C. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at the
same atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer is. the ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at
the same atmospheric conditions.
11.2(a)

20 Zone 320 under the ATA system is. Aircraft Maintenance

Option A. horizontal stabiliser. L2 and Repair
Option B. vertical stabiliser. Kroes/Watkins/Delp
Option C. central fuselage. Page 22.
Correct Answer is. vertical stabiliser.

21 When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.8.
component and earth is.
Option A. 0.005ohms. L2
Option B. 1/50 ohms.
Option C. 50 milliohms.
Correct Answer is. 50 milliohms.
 How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a Aircraft Electricity and
22 lightning strike?. L2 Avionics (5th Edition)
Option A. Earthing Strap. Eismin Page 343.
Option B. Bonding Strip.
Option C. Special paint.
Correct Answer is. Bonding Strip.

Composite materials are bonded by. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1

23 Option A. aluminium wire. 3.4.4.
Option B. copper wire. L2
Option C. special paint.
Correct Answer is. special paint.

The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1
24 L2
Option A. 0.25 in wide and 22 AWG. Para. 3.3.1 (a).
Option B. 22 AWG.
Option C. 0.5 in wide.
Correct Answer is. 0.5 in wide.

25
A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by. L2
Option A. conductive paint. CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3.5.
Option B. conductive paint.
Option C. bonding strips.
Correct Answer is. conductive paint.

26 Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?. L2

Option A. Pressure cabin. CAIPs AL/7-2 2.7.
Option B. Control surfaces.
Option C. Control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. Pressure cabin.

27 How is the radome protected from lightning strike?.

Option A. Diverter strips. CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2.
Option B. Special paint. L2
Option C. Special grease on the hinges.
Correct Answer is. Diverter strips.
 28 Semi-monocoque construction. L2 Jepessen A & P
Option A. is used only for the fuselage. Technician Airframe
Option B. offers good damage resistance. textbook page 1-3.
Option C. utilizes the safe-life design concept.
Correct Answer is. offers good damage resistance.

Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a.

29 Option A. wing line. L2 AL/7.2 Page 6.2 Fig 15.
Option B. vertical line.
Option C. horizontal line.
Correct Answer is. vertical line.

Stress.
30 Option A. is the load per unit area acting on a material. AL/7-2 2.2.
L2
Option B. is the property of a material to resist fracture.
Option C. is the deformation of a material caused by applied load.
Correct Answer is. is the load per unit area acting on a material.
11.2(b)

31
The purpose of a primer is to. L1
CAIPs BL/6-20
Option A. provide shiny surface for the topcoat. PAra.2.1.
Option B. provide flexible surface for the top coat.
Option C. help bonding of the topcoat.
Correct Answer is. help bonding of the topcoat.

32 In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by.

Option A. stringers. CAIP AL/7-2 para 2.6
Option B. bulkheads. L1 (last sentence).
Option C. frames.
Correct Answer is. stringers.

33 Most large transport aircraft skins are. Jeppesen A&P

Option A. 2024. L2 Technician Airframe
Option B. 7075. Textbook 2-8.
Option C. 5056.
Correct Answer is. 2024.
34 Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers CAIPs AL/7-8 Para
used in critical bolted joints?. L2 4.5.4.
Option A. PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by
lubrication.
Option B. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the
washers should be used once.
Option C. PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are
used in critical bolted joints.
Correct Answer is. PLI washers can onl
35 Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?. CAIPs BL/7-2.
Option A. Zinc plating.
Option B. Cadmium plating. L1
Option C. Nickel plating.
Correct Answer is. Cadmium plating.

What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?.

36
Option A. Aluminium alloys. CAIPs BL/7-3.
L1
Option B. Magnesium alloys.
Option C. Ferrous alloys.
Correct Answer is. Magnesium alloys.

37 When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of L1

measurement is normally CAIPs AL/7-12 3.3.5 i.
used?.
Option A. Lateral alignment method.
Option B. Longitudinal alignment method.
Option C. Steel tape and spring balance.
Correct Answer is. Steel tape and spring balance.

38 Battery trays are. Aircraft Electrical

Option A. absorbent to soak up electrolyte. Systems. Pallett Page
Option B. metal for earthing purposes. L2 24.
Option C. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.
Correct Answer is. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.

39 The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is.

Option A. to seal the cabin. L1 CAIP AL/7-2 para. 3.7
Option B. to prevent corrosion.
Option C. to provide external streamlining.
Correct Answer is. to seal the cabin.
 40 A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack
acts as a. L2 stopper band fig.4).
Option A. jury strut.
Option B. tear stopper.
Option C. shear tie.
Correct Answer is. tear stopper.

The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
41 Option A. help bonding for top-coat. L1 Textbook. page 6-8.
Option B. provide a flexible surface for top-coat.
Option C. provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat.
Correct Answer is. help bonding for top-coat.
11.3.1
Zone D Cargo compartment windows.
42 L1 Transport Category
Option A. must have blinds pulled down.
Option B. must be blanked off. Aircraft Systems 9-3.
Option C. are made from fire retardant Perspex.
Correct Answer is. must be blanked off.

43 A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is.
Option A. class B. Transport Category
L1
Option B. class A. Aircraft Systems Page
Option C. class E. 9-3 and JAR 25.857.
Correct Answer is. class B.

44 Windscreen delamination is.

Option A. bubbling of the glass due to overheat. CAIPs AL/7-10 Para
5.1.1.
Option B. separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer. L1
Option C. windscreen peeling away from the airframe.
Correct Answer is. separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer.

45 What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?.

Option A. 30C to 50C. CAIPs AL/7-10 Para
Option B. 50C to 70C. L2 6.1.
Option C. 50F to 70F.
Correct Answer is. 50F to 70F.
 46 What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean CAIPs AL/7-4 Para 6.1
dirty aircraft acrylic panels?. L1 says 40C, which is
Option A. 104F. 104F.
Option B. 125F.
Option C. 40F.
Correct Answer is. 104F.

A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is.

47 Option A. PTFE. L2 CAIPs AL/7-2 para 3.9.
Option B. aluminium.
Option C. soft rubber.
Correct Answer is. soft rubber.

On passenger aircraft of two or more zones.

48 JAR 25.783.
Option A. there should be at least one exit per zone.
L2
Option B. the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits.
Option C. the emergency exits are to be clearly signed.
Correct Answer is. there should be at least one exit per zone.

49
Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage.
Option A. are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well AL/7-2 3.6 and fig 9.
L1
drained.
Option B. are open when the cabin is depressurised.
Option C. are open when the cabin is pressurised.
Correct Answer is. are open when the cabin is depressurised.

50 Drain valves are normally closed by. L1 AL/7-2 3.6.

Option A. spring pressure.
Option B. cabin air pressure.
Option C. rubber strips.
Correct Answer is. cabin air pressure.

11.3.2
51 A cantilever wing is a. CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 2.
Option A. usual airliner wing.
Option B. top wing of a biplane. L1
Option C. swept-back wing.
Correct Answer is. usual airliner wing.
 52 On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?. L1 AL/7-2 para 4.2.
Option A. Milled stringers.
Option B. The position of the spars.
Option C. Ribs.
Correct Answer is. Ribs.

A spar is tapered from root to tip because.

53 Option A. shear forces are greatest at the root. L2 AL/7-2 para 4.1.
Option B. bending moment is greatest at the root.
Option C. centre of lift occurs close to the root.
Correct Answer is. bending moment is greatest at the root.
11.3.3
Variable incidence tailplanes.
54 B737-400, AMM 27-41-
Option A. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb.
L1 00 PAGE 5 para 1.c,
Option B. out and landing approach and slowly during cruise always
move slowly.
Option C. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing
approach and slowly at all other times.
Correct Answer is. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb
out and landing approach and slowly during cruise.

55 The term 'empennage' incorporates.

A&P Technician
Option A. rudder, ailerons, spoilers. L1 Airframe Textbook
Option B. elevators, stabiliser, ailerons.
Option C. elevators, stabiliser, rudder.
Correct Answer is. elevators, stabiliser, rudder.

56 The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are. A&P Technician
Option A. spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels. L2 Airframe Textbook
Option B. spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.
Option C. spar, rib, longerons, skin panels.
Correct Answer is. spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.
11.3.4

57 Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on

control surface assembly. L1 Jeppesen 1-24 fig 1-59,
Option A. serves as a 'servo' system of balance. balance tab 1-23 -para
Option B. has same effect of the balance tab. 3.
Option C. is meant to trim CG of control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. has same effect of the balance tab.
58 The fin helps to give. Jeppesen A&P
Option A. directional stability about the normal axis. L2 Technician Airframe
Option B. longitudinal stability about the normal axis. Textbook 1-22.
Option C. directional stability about the longitudinal axis.
Correct Answer is. directional stability about the normal axis.

Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved.

59 Option A. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge Jeppesen A&P
line. L1 Technician Airframe
Option B. by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface. Textbook Page 24 Para
Option C. by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line. 7.
Correct Answer is. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of
the hinge line.

A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to.

60 Jeppesen A&P
Option A. decrease the drag when the control is deflected.
Option B. assist the pilot in moving the control. Technician Airframe
L2 Textbook Page 24 Para
Option C. increase stability.
Correct Answer is. assist the pilot in moving the control. 7.

61 Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by.

Option A. placing a weight ahead of the hinge point. AL/3-24 para 4.2
Option B. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge L1
point.
Option C. placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.
Correct Answer is. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the
hinge point.

62 A horn balance is.

Option A. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight
Jeppesen A&P
on the end. L2 Technician Airframe
Option B. a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which
Textbook Page 16
the control cables are attached.
Option C. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of
the hinge line.
Correct Answer is. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface
forward of the hinge line.
11.3.5 63 A pylon structural member supports the. L1 A&P Technician
Option A. centre section. Airframe Textbook
Option B. engine.
Option C. empennage.
Correct Answer is. engine.

11.4.1 A spill valve opens. CAIPs AL/3-23.

64 Option A. to prevent an excessive pressure difference. L2
Option B. to control the flow to the cabin.
Option C. to control the air from the cabin to outside.
Correct Answer is. to control the flow to the cabin.

Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is. AL/3-24 2.3/2.5.

65 L1
Option A. the same for both the above sources.
Option B. hottest from an engine compressor bleed.
Option C. hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box.
Correct Answer is. hottest from an engine compressor bleed.

66 The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by. L2
Option A. automatic control devices.
AL/3-24 Fig. 3.
Option B. engine speed variations.
Option C. spill valves.
Correct Answer is. spill valves.

67 The function of spill valves is to control. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3.

Option A. air supply to the cabin. L1
Option B. cabin pressure differential.
Option C. the rate of pressurisation.
Correct Answer is. air supply to the cabin.

The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3.
68 Option A. to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere.
Option B. to give a heating effect. L1
Option C. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower
altitudes.
Correct Answer is. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and
lower altitudes.
 69 How much air is required for the Flight Deck?. JAR 25.831.
Option A. Whatever the captain sets. L2
Option B. 10 lbs/minute.
Option C. 10 cubic feet/minute.
Correct Answer is. 10 cubic feet/minute.

11.4.2
A refrigerant is used in which of the following?. Jeppesen A&P
70 Option A. Air cycle machine. Technician Airframe
Option B. Pneumatic pump. L1 Textbook Page 14-34.
Option C. Vapour cycle.
Correct Answer is. Vapour cycle.

A water separator is located. Jeppesen A&P

71 Technician Airframe
Option A. upstream of the turbine.
L1 Textbook Page 16-30 or
Option B. downstream of heat exchanger.
Option C. downstream of turbine. CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2.3 fig
Correct Answer is. downstream of turbine. 3.

72
The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed.
Option A. 40 feet per second. BCAR Section D6.
L3
Option B. 120 feet per second.
Option C. 20 feet per second.
Correct Answer is. 120 feet per second.

73 Air conditioning systems.

Option A. decrease the temperature of air. CAIPs AL/3-24 Para
L1 2.2.
Option B. increase and decrease the temperature of air.
Option C. increase the temperature of air.
Correct Answer is. decrease the temperature of air.

Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM.

CAIP AL/3-24 para
74 Option A. no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal
4.2.2
compressor. L1
Option B. will have increased pressure and temperature.
Option C. will have decreased pressure and temperature.
Correct Answer is. will have increased pressure and temperature.
75 Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?. L3 AL/3-24 Figure 3.
Option A. At the outlet of the blower.
Option B. At the inlet to the cabin.
Option C. At the inlet of the blower.
Correct Answer is. At the outlet of the blower.

When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?.
76 Option A. At high altitudes. AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect
Option B. At low altitudes. L3 of the Spill Valve).
Option C. It is not affected by altitude.
Correct Answer is. It is not affected by altitude.

An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to.

77 Option A. reduce the air supply temperature. L3 AL/3-24 4.2.
Option B. provide an emergency ram air supply.
Option C. increase the air supply temperature.
Correct Answer is. reduce the air supply temperature.

Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by.

78 CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3.
Option A. controlling the water vapour in the supply.
Option B. varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger. L1
Option C. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.
Correct Answer is. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling
system.

79 In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by.

CAIPS AL/3-24 4.
Option A. varying cabin pressure. L1
Option B. extracting heat from the pressurising air.
Option C. adding heat to the pressurising air.
Correct Answer is. extracting heat from the pressurising air.

80 A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. AL/3-24 4.2.2.

Option A. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. L3
Option B. driving the units compressor.
Option C. reducing pressure.
Correct Answer is. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor.
 81 When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system
and air is directed around inside AL/3-24 3.3.
the muffler, this is an. L1
Option A. exhaust heater.
Option B. combustion heater.
Option C. thermal heater.
Correct Answer is. exhaust heater.

82 One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is.

Option A. by compression of ambient air across a turbine. L3 A&P Technician
Option B. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U. Airframe Textbook Page
Option C. by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U. 770 Fig 16-34.
Correct Answer is. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in
the C.A.U.
11.4.3
As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin
83
altitude must.
L1 Jeppesen A&P
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase. Technician Airframe
Option C. stay the same. Textbook Page 14-22.
Correct Answer is. decrease. CAIPs AL/3-23.

84 The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking.
This will cause. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Option A. it will not effect on cabin pressure. Technician Textbook
L3 Page 14-22.
Option B. the cabin pressure to increase.
Option C. the cabin pressure to decrease.
Correct Answer is. the cabin pressure to increase.

85 The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant.

Jeppesen A&P
Option A. inlet and outlet. L1 technician Airframe
Option B. inlet and vary the outlet.
Textbook Page 14-20.
Option C. outlet and vary the inlet.
Correct Answer is. inlet and vary the outlet.
 86 The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to Jeppesen A&P
control. L3 technician Airframe
Option A. the rate of pressurisation. Textbook Page 14-22.
Option B. cabin air flow. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Option C. cabin differential pressure.
Correct Answer is. cabin differential pressure.

87 With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin

pressure increase occurs, the CAIPs AL/3-23 para
differential capsule in the pressure controller will. 4.3.13.
Option A. have a constant mass flow. L1
Option B. let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in
pressure.
Option C. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.
Correct Answer is. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.

A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is.

88 L1 CAIPs AL/3-23
Option A. 500 ft. per min.
Option B. 100 ft. per min.
Option C. 300 ft. per min.
Correct Answer is. 500 ft. per min.

89 Before carrying out a ground pressure check,. L3

Option A. check all pitot and static lines are fitted.
CAIPs AL/3-23 Para
Option B. set altimeter to QNH.
12.2.5.
Option C. turn on all instruments.
Correct Answer is. check all pitot and static lines are fitted.

11.4.3
90 A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by.
CAIP AL/3-23 para 7.
Option A. cabin over pressure relief valve. L1
Option B. altitude sensor.
Option C. bellows in the outflow valve.
Correct Answer is. altitude sensor.

If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum. CAIPs AL/3-23 para
91 Option A. compressor delivery is automatically boosted. L1 4.4.4
Option B. an inward relief valve opens.
Option C. a warning light comes on in the cockpit.
Correct Answer is. a warning light comes on in the cockpit.
 Ditching control is used to.
92 Option A. maintain cabin pressure at sea level. L3 CAIPs AL/3-2 fig 5 item
Option B. close the outflow valves. Y, CAAIPs Leaflet 5-2.
Option C. achieve rapid depressurisation.
Correct Answer is. close the outflow valves.

Inward vent valves are fitted to. CAIPs AL/3-23 6.2.

93 Option A. limit negative differentials. L3
Option B. increase ventilation.
Option C. limit positive differentials.
Correct Answer is. limit negative differentials.

Inward vent valves will operate when.

94 Option A. aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude. L3 CAIPs AL/3-23 6.2.
Option B. depressurising after descent.
Option C. cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.
Correct Answer is. cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.
11.5.1

95
Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at.
Option A. 1 000 ft radio alt. Jeppesen Avionics
Option B. 2 500 ft radio alt. Fundamentals Page
L1 223.
Option C. 10 000 ft radio alt.
Correct Answer is. 2 500 ft radio alt.

96 An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-.

Pallett Aircraft
Option A. Aircraft on the ground with one engine running. L2 Instruments and
Option B. Aircraft in the air with both engines running.
Integrated Systems
Option C. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.
Page 391.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.

97 Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of.

Pallett Aircraft
Option A. sin of latitude. L1 Instruments and
Option B. tan of latitude.
Integrated Systems
Option C. cos of latitude.
Page 103.
Correct Answer is. cos of latitude.
 98 A machmeter works. Pallett Aircraft
Option A. always. L2 Instruments and
Option B. always except on the ground. Integrated Systems
Option C. above 10,000 ft. Page 45.
Correct Answer is. always.

11.5.2
99 When an autopilot is Fail Passive,.
Option A. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft. Pallett Automatic Flight
Option B. the autoland can continue. L1 Control p211.
Option C. the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot.
Correct Answer is. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft.

On an aircraft's navigation display, distance measuring equipment gives.

100 Jeppesen A & P
Option A. slant range to beacon.
L1 Technician Airframe
Option B. height and range to beacon.
Option C. ground range to beacon. Textbook page 12-17.
Correct Answer is. slant range to beacon.
L1
101
Autopilot servo brake is energised.
Option A. at the same time as the clutch. Pallett Aircraft Electrical
Option B. to actuate off. Systems 3rd Edition
Option C. to actuate on. Page 142.
Correct Answer is. to actuate off.

102 Emergency frequency is.

Option A. 121.5 Hz. JAR OPS 1.820 or
L1 1.850. Jeppesen A&P
Option B. 125.5 Hz.
Option C. 123.5 Hz. Technician Airframe
Correct Answer is. 121.5 Hz. Textbook Page 12-25.

103 On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?.

CAIPs RL/2-2 8.1.2.
Option A. Not cellulose. L1
Option B. Cellulose only.
Option C. Polyurethane.
Correct Answer is. Not cellulose.
 104 When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna. CAIPs RL/2-2 8.1.2.
Option A. do not use cellulose paint. L1
Option B. use cellulose paint.
Option C. use any paint.
Correct Answer is. do not use cellulose paint.

11.6
105 A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. . EEL/1-1 4.4.8 and
Option A. cells begin to gas freely. L1 Pallett Aircraft Electrical
Option B. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period. Systems 3rd Edition
Option C. SG reaches 1.180. Page 23.
Correct Answer is. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period.
106 The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant.
Option A. power. CAIPs EEL/1-5 Para
L1 4.1.
Option B. voltage.
Option C. current.
Correct Answer is. current.

107
When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?. L3
Option A. Terminals shorted. Pallett Aircraft Electrical
Option B. Left open circuit. Systems 3rd Edition
Option C. Resistor placed across terminals. Page 61.
Correct Answer is. Terminals shorted.

108 Where does the GCU gets its power?.

Option A. PMG. Jeppesen A&P
L3 Technician Airframe
Option B. Battery.
Option C. RAT. Textbook Page 7-24
Correct Answer is. PMG.

109 When a load is shed from a busbar, the.

Aircraft Electricity and
Option A. busbar voltage increases.
Electronics, Eismin,
Option B. current consumption from the bar decreases. L1
Page 241.
Option C. busbar voltage decreases.
Correct Answer is. current consumption from the bar decreases.
 110 In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its Pallett Aircraft Electrical
reactive power share is protected L3 Systems 3rd Edition
by. Page 49.
Option A. over-current and under-current protection circuits.
Option B. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits.
Option C. over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits.
Correct Answer is. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits.

On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins.

111 Option A. CD. Pallett Aircraft Electrical
Option B. AB. L3 Systems 3rd Edition
Option C. EF. Page 72.
Correct Answer is. EF.

Over-voltage protection circuits are activated. Pallett Aircraft Electrical

112 Systems 3rd Edition
Option A. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage.
L1 Page 119.
Option B. after a fixed time delay.
Option C. before the over voltage limit is exceeded.
Correct Answer is. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage.

Differential protection in a generating system. Pallett Aircraft Electrical

113 Systems 3rd Edition
Option A. uses the volts coil to trip the GCR.
Option B. detects voltage difference between source and load. Page 121.
L3
Option C. detects current difference between source and load.
Correct Answer is. detects current difference between source and load.

114 Open phase sensing on a current transformer.

Option A. is detected using any phase. Pallett Aircraft Electrical
Systems 3rd Edition
Option B. is detected using all phases. L3
Option C. is detected on generator neutral circuit. Page 121,
Correct Answer is. is detected on generator neutral circuit.
11.7(a)
Go to Page - 41 >> 11.14
115 Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined
JAR 25.857.
come under.
Option A. Class C.
Option B. Class D. L2
Option C. Class B.
Correct Answer is. Class D.
116 Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be.
Option A. 4 inches. AWN 64 Para 4.3 (now
Option B. 3 inches. L2 in CAP747).
Option C. 5 inches.
Correct Answer is. 3 inches.
Explanation.

117 Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of. CAIPs AL/3-12. 4 b All
Option A. CO2. inflatable safety
Option B. air. L2 equipment use CO2.
Option C. Nitrogen.
Correct Answer is. CO2.

Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?.

118 CAP 747.
Option A. AWN 99.
Option B. BCARs.
L2
Option C. ANO.
Correct Answer is. AWN 99.

119
How often are life jackets inspected?.
Option A. In accordance with the manufacturers specification. Leaflet 5-2 4.1 and
Option B. In accordance with the AMM. CAIPs AL/3-12 4.1.
L2
Option C. Every 12 months.
Correct Answer is. In accordance with the manufacturers specification.

120 Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than
JAR Ops 1.810.
200 then:.
Option A. 1 megaphone is required. L2
Option B. 3 megaphones are required.
Option C. 2 megaphones are required.
Correct Answer is. 2 megaphones are required.

121 The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using.

Option A. CO2. L2
Option B. nitrogen. AL/3-12 2.
Option C. compressed air.
Correct Answer is. CO2.
11.7.(b) 123 What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and L1 AWN 64 Para 4.1.
another seat or fixed structure?.
Option A. 28 inches.
Option B. 24 inches.
Option C. 26 inches.
Correct Answer is. 26 inches.

124 A galley trolley will be designed to. . AWN 99 para 5.6.

Option A. does not matter as the trolleys move. L1
Option B. not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour.
Option C. not exceed the floor loading limits.
Correct Answer is. not exceed the floor loading limits.

Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called.

125 AWN 99 4.1, 4.2.
Option A. controlled equipment.
L1
Option B. uncontrolled equipment.
Option C. minimum equipment.
Correct Answer is. uncontrolled equipment.
Explanation.

126 Galley trolleys must have placards indicating.

AWN 99 5.11.
Option A. location, position, flight number. L1
Option B. maximum weight, position, flight number.
Option C. Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.
Correct Answer is. Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.

127 With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation. AWN 64 Para.2.2.

Option A. you can only fit seats facing forward. L1
Option B. you can fit seats facing forward or rearward.
Option C. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design
and Performance (DPP).
Correct Answer is. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of
Design and Performance (DPP).

128 The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is.
Option A. 7 inches. L1 CAP 747 GR No.2
Option B. 3 inches. Dimension C.
Option C. 5 inches.
Correct Answer is. 3 inches.
11.8(a) 129 On pulling the fire handle, the aural warning. B757 AMM.
Option A. goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air and generator L1
goes off.
Option B. stays on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes off line.
Option C. goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line.
Correct Answer is. goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off
line.

A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a.

130 Option A. class A compensation. L1 Transport Category
Option B. class D compensation. Aircraft Systems Page
Option C. class B compensation. 9-3 and JAR 25.857.
Correct Answer is. class B compensation.

In a capacitive fire detection system, if.

131 CAIPs AL/3-9 Para
Option A. there is a break, the system will not work.
Option B. there is a break, the system will work but not test satisfactory. 4.2.1.
Option C. there is a short to earth, the system will work but not test
L3
satisfactory.
Correct Answer is. there is a break, the system will work but not test
satisfactory.

132 A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when.
JAR 25 1203 f2.
Option A. the system and the extinguishing system are the same.
Option B. the system is different but the extinguishant is the same.
Option C. the system is the same but the extinguishant is different. L3
Correct Answer is. the system and the extinguishing system are the
same.

133 When inspecting lavatory installations. AWN 83 5.4.

Option A. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper
holder. L3
Option B. No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only.
Option C. the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material.
Correct Answer is. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet
paper holder.
 134 A fire detection loop must be capable of. Aircraft Electrical
Option A. using master warning visual and aural signals. L1 Systems Pallett Page
Option B. detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and 163.
extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is no
longer present.
Option C. using master warning visual signals only.
Correct Answer is. using master warning visual and aural signals.

135 A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses.

Option A. helium gas. Transport Category
Option B. oxygen gas. L1 Aircraft Systems.
Option C. nitrogen gas. Jeppesen Page 9-22.
Correct Answer is. helium gas.

What external warning is there for an APU fire?.

136 L3 AL/3-26 2.8.
Option A. Aural.
Option B. Both aural and a red light.
Option C. Red light.
Correct Answer is. Both aural and a red light.
11.8(b)

137 How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?.

Option A. Bi-annually. CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6.3
L1 and 7.1.
Option B. Every 5 years.
Option C. Annually.
Correct Answer is. Annually.

138 The weight of an extinguisher is stamped. L1 CAIPs AL/3-10, para

Option A. on bracket.
6.3.
Option B. on head fitting.
Option C. on base of body.
Correct Answer is. on head fitting.

139 How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?. L1 AL/3-10 6.3.
Option A. Check the tell-tale wire.
Option B. Weighed.
Option C. Check the pressure.
Correct Answer is. Weighed.
11.9 140 In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation L3 Aircraft Flight Barnard
of external ground locks to the and Philpot, Second
main control surface. Edition Page 253 (first
Option A. would not prevent movement of the control column. line).
Option B. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore
the control surface cannot be displaced by the wind.
Option C. would also prevent movement of the control column.
Correct Answer is. would not prevent movement of the control column.

A full time yaw damper system detects. Pallett Automatic Flight

141 Option A. band pass frequencies. Control 4th Edition Page
Option B. all frequencies. L3 222 on.
Option C. only low frequencies.
Correct Answer is. band pass frequencies.

With respect to flight spoilers, they. Jeppesen Transport

142 Category Aircraft
Option A. can operate both on the ground and in flight.
L1 Systems Page 5-6.
Option B. only operate on the ground.
Option C. only operate in flight. Pallett Automatic Flight
Correct Answer is. can operate both on the ground and in flight. Control 2nd Edition
Explanation. Flight spoilers are used in flight and on the ground. Page 51.
However Ground spoilers can ONLY be used on the ground.

Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is Jeppesen A&P
143
evidence of. Technician Airframe
L1
Option A. excessive cable tension. Textbook Page 1-45.
Option B. pulley misalignment.
Option C. cable misalignment.
Correct Answer is. pulley misalignment.

144 A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should

be zeroed. Jeppesen A&P
technician Airframe
Option A. when the aircraft is in level flight attitude. L1
Option B. with the aileron in the neutral position. Textbook Page 1-40.
Option C. with the aileron in the down position.
Correct Answer is. with the aileron in the neutral position.
145 What is an aileron balance cable for?. Jeppesen A&P
Option A. To allow the cable to be tensioned. L1 technician Airframe
Option B. To correct for wing heaviness. Textbook Page 1-27.
Option C. To allow aircraft to fly hands off.
Correct Answer is. To allow the cable to be tensioned.

A yaw damper gain could be fitted with. Automatic Flight

146 Option A. decreases sensitivity for decreased speed. Control, Pallett Page
Option B. increased sensitivity for increased speed. L3 223.
Option C. decreases sensitivity for increased speed.
Correct Answer is. increased sensitivity for increased speed.

In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external A+P Technician
147 ground locks between the control surface and the balance tabs. Airframe Textbook Page
L1 1-29.
Option A. would prevent the movement of the control column.
Option B. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible.
Option C. would not prevent the movement of the control column.
Correct Answer is. would prevent the movement of the control column.

148
If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause
may be. Jeppesen Transport
Option A. flap tracks out of rigging. Category Aircraft
L3
Option B. bearing seized. Systems Page 5-19.
Option C. flap motor internal leakage.
Correct Answer is. flap motor internal leakage.

149 In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by.
Option A. transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another. CAIPs EEL/1-2.
Option B. operation of the elevator. L3
Option C. symmetrical application of ailerons.
Correct Answer is. symmetrical application of ailerons.

150 Yaw damping rate changes with. Avionic Fundamentals

Option A. airspeed. L1 page 292.
Option B. flap position.
Option C. altitude.
Correct Answer is. airspeed.
 151 Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by. Automatic Flight Control
Option A. fitting a tachogenerator. L3 by E.H.J.Pallett 3rd
Option B. feedback from the servo motor. edition, page-157
Option C. feedback from control surface. (feedback, para 2).
Correct Answer is. fitting a tachogenerator.

Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by. Aircraft Electricity and
152 Option A. 4%. Electronics, Eismin 5th
Option B. 7%. L3 Edition Page-370.
Option C. 10.321%.
Correct Answer is. 7%.

On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is Transport Category

153 controlled by the. Aircraft Systems Page
L3
Option A. flight augmentation computer. 5-26.
Option B. flight control computer.
Option C. flight management and guidance computer.
Correct Answer is. flight control computer.

154
In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?. Transport Category
Option A. Flight control computer. Aircraft Systems Page
Option B. Flight augmentation computer. L1 5-26.
Option C. Flight management computer.
Correct Answer is. Flight control computer.
11.10

155 Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on. CAIPs AL/3-17 5.8.3.
Option A. low pressure systems.
Option B. high pressure systems. L1
Option C. air or vapour systems.
Correct Answer is. air or vapour systems.

156 Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the. 737 MM 28-22-00 Page
Option A. 28 V DC bus. 1, A320 FCOM 28.30
Option B. 115 V AC. L3 pg1.
Option C. battery.
Correct Answer is. 28 V DC bus.
157 Fuel systems that are interconnected must have. CAIPs AL/3-17.
Option A. separate venting for each tank. L1
Option B. no airspace.
Option C. air spaces interconnected.
Correct Answer is. air spaces interconnected.

158 When refuelling. Jeppesen A&P

Option A. the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the Technician Airframe
tank is full. L1 Textbook Page 15-18.
Option B. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank.
Option C. it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank.
Correct Answer is. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the
tank.
159
When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas
Option A. it is added to the fuel and burnt. Turbine Powerplants 7-
Option B. it is applied dry and left. 3.
L3
Option C. it is applied wet and flushed out.
Correct Answer is. it is added to the fuel and burnt.

160 Microbial growth is. Jeppesen A&P

Option A. red dots. Technician Airframe
Option B. brown black slime. L3 Textbook Page 15-38.
Option C. green sludge.
Correct Answer is. brown black slime.

161 Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by. AL/3-15 4.1.3 says
Option A. bolts. press studs or cords.
Option B. contact adhesive. L1
Option C. press type rivets.
Correct Answer is. press type rivets.

162 A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with. AL/10-3 11.14.1.e.
Option A. tanks completely full. L3
Option B. tanks completely empty.
Option C. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.
Correct Answer is. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.
163 In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place. AL/3-15 para 8.3.
Option A. below the fungal colonies.
Option B. the top of the tank. L3
Option C. the bottom 2 inches of the tank.
Correct Answer is. below the fungal colonies.

If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made JAR 25.957.
164 to. L1
Option A. shut off fuel before structural damage.
Option B. provide overflow facility to dump fuel.
Option C. stop engine from using tank during transfer.
Correct Answer is. shut off fuel before structural damage.
165 In a fuel system with interconnected vents. JAR 25.969.
Option A. an expansion space is not required.
L1
Option B. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity.
Option C. the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity.
Correct Answer is. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank
capacity.

166 Fuel tanks interconnected must have.

Option A. vents to allow overfueling. JAR 25.969.
Option B. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. L3
Option C. tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet.
Correct Answer is. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system.

167 When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to.
Option A. soft reversion. L3 TTS FADEC Booklet
Option B. hard reversion. Page 13.
Option C. mechanical reversion.
Correct Answer is. soft reversion.

168 Pressure refuelling is carried out at. AL/3-17 5.4 says 'up to
Option A. 20 PSI. L1 50 psi'.
Option B. 40 PSI.
Option C. 15 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 40 PSI.
 169 Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from. B737 MM 28-22-00
Option A. tank to tank. L1 Page 1.
Option B. left tank to right tank.
Option C. any tank to any engine.
Correct Answer is. any tank to any engine.

What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is

170 used?. Aircraft Electricity and
Option A. Depends on altitude. L3 Electronics Eismin Page
Option B. Increases. 353.
Option C. Decreases.
Correct Answer is. Decreases.

When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel
171 AL/3-15 9.3.
tanks should.
L1
Option A. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from
deteriorating/drying out.
Option B. be full.
Option C. be empty.
Correct Answer is. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from
deteriorating/drying out.

172 The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is.

Option A. to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks
Transport Category
efficiently. L3 Aircraft Systems Page
Option B. to ensure that all available fuel can be used.
6.17.
Option C. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed
thus reducing microbiological contamination.
Correct Answer is. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly
dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination.

11.11

173 A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system. CAIPs AL/3-21 5.2.

Option A. is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have
several selected positions.
Option B. is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture. L1
Option C. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is
complete and the accumulator charged with fluid.
Correct Answer is. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of
services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid.
174 Hydraulic pressure can be restored by. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7.
Option A. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. L1
Option B. the use of a pressure/heat exchanger.
Option C. compressing the fluid in a reservoir.
Correct Answer is. compressing the air charge in an accumulator.

What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?. Jeppesen A&P

175 Option A. Yellow. L1 Technician Airframe
Option B. Green. Textbook Page 8-44.
Option C. White.
Correct Answer is. Green.

A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will. Jeppesen A&P

176 Option A. allow continued press to essential systems during times of Technician Airframe
reduced supply. Textbook Page 8-31
Option B. dampen pressure inputs. Also known as priority
L1 valves CAIPs AL/3-21
Option C. maintain a high pressure to all systems.
Correct Answer is. allow continued press to essential systems during 5.3.
times of reduced supply.

178 Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?.

Option A. In the pressure line. Jeppesen Transport
L3 Category Aircraft
Option B. In the suction line.
Option C. In the case drain. Systems 7-10 and 7-8.
Correct Answer is. In the case drain.

Question Number. 9. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?. Jeppesen A&P
179
Option A. By pressurising. Technician Airframe
Textbook 8-16.
Option B. Vent Reservoir to atmosphere. L3
Option C. Pass over a tray.
Correct Answer is. By pressurising.

180 Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems.

CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7.
Option A. are only ever used in an emergency.
Option B. store fluid under pressure. L1
Option C. provide additional fluid if leaks occur.
Correct Answer is. store fluid under pressure.
181 A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para
Option A. natural rubber. L1 3.3.1.
Option B. synthetic rubber.
Option C. butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon.
Correct Answer is. butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon.

182 A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in CAIPs AL/3-21 12.2.
system when no services are being used?.
Option A. Pressure relief valve. L3
Option B. Return line back to pump.
Option C. ACOV.
Correct Answer is. ACOV.

Hydraulic systems normally operate at. Transport Category

183 Aircraft Systems
Option A. 1800 PSI.
L1 Jeppesen Pages 7-5 &
Option B. 3000 PSI.
Option C. 300 PSI. 7-7.
Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI.

When replenishing a hydraulic system. Transport Category

184 Aircraft Systems
Option A. use any hydraulic fluid.
Option B. use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer. Jeppesen Page 7-2.
L1
Option C. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid.
Correct Answer is. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid.

185 When replacing a flexible pipe.

Option A. do a bonding check. AL/3-13 6.5.
Option B. tighten only hand tight. L1
Option C. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting.
Correct Answer is. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting.

186 Question Number. 23. A variable angled pump starts at.

CAIPs AL/3-23.
Option A. half way position.
Option B. minimum stroke. L3
Option C. maximum stroke.
Correct Answer is. maximum stroke.
187 When is an hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?. L1 AL/3-21 4.2.
Option A. When selected on.
Option B. When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available.
Option C. When selected off.
Correct Answer is. When selected off.

188 A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts. L3
Option A. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Valve Block. AL/3-21 Figure 2.
Option B. Swash Plate & Valve Block.
Option C. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block.
Correct Answer is. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block.

An hydraulic closed system is one where.

189 Option A. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. AL/3-21 12.1-12.3.
Option B. there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions
L1
are required.
Option C. most of the major components of the system are included in a
self contained unit.
Correct Answer is. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all
times.

190 What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?.

Jeppeson A & P
Option A. Variable swashplate pump.
Technician Airframe P8-
Option B. Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter. L3 15.
Option C. Hydraulic oil accumulator.
Correct Answer is. Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter.

191 A shuttle valve is used for.

Option A. preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack. AL/3-21 6.4.
Option B. maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails.
Option C. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of L1
failure.
Correct Answer is. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case
of failure.

192 Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to.

Option A. restrict the rate of pressure build up. L1 AL/3-21 6.2.
Option B. control the rate of system operation.
Option C. limit the maximum pressure.
Correct Answer is. control the rate of system operation.
 193 The purpose of a non-return valve is to. AL/3-21 Page 10.
Option A. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. L1
Option B. restrict the movement of components.
Option C. isolate one component from another.
Correct Answer is. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator.

11.12
194 How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?. CAIPs AL/11-6.
Option A. Screwdriver torque test. L3
Option B. By a motor load test.
Option C. Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement.
Correct Answer is. Screwdriver torque test.

Windshield heating provides. Jeppesen A&P

195 Option A. thermal expansion for a tighter fit. L1 Technician Airframe
Option B. impact resistance enhancement. Textbook Page 13-6
Option C. increases strength to resist cabin pressure.
Correct Answer is. impact resistance enhancement.

At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?.

196 L1 CAIPs AL/11-3 5.2.2.
Option A. 7F at 100 PSI.
Option B. 70C at 100 PSI.
Option C. 70F at 10 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 70C at 100 PSI.

197 Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must.

CAIPs AL/11-1 4.2.2.
Option A. remove all paint. L3
Option B. paint the surface.
Option C. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion.
Correct Answer is. remove all paint.

198 On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on. AL/11-6 3.2.1.
Option A. all the time. L1
Option B. when selected by the crew.
Option C. when in the air.
Correct Answer is. when selected by the crew.
199 Ice formation on wings is due to.
Option A. suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and L1 AL/11-6 2.
instantly re-freezing.
Option B. ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing.
Option C. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing.
Correct Answer is. supercooled water changing state on contact with the
wing.

When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the
200 flight deck. CAIPs AL/11-6 3.4.1.
Option A. goes out immediately. L3
Option B. goes out after one more cycle.
Option C. goes out after a set period of time.
Correct Answer is. goes out after a set period of time.

De-misting of passenger windows is provided by.

201 L3 CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 1.
Option A. sealed window.
Option B. an electrical heating element.
Option C. air from the cabin.
Correct Answer is. air from the cabin.
CAIPs AL/11-1 3.4
202 A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to.
Option A. provide smoother airflow over leading edge.
Option B. prevent electrical static build up. L1
Option C. provide more efficient deicer cycles.
Correct Answer is. prevent electrical static build up.

203 In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer. Aircraft Electrical

Option A. supplies DC power for heating. L1 Systems Pallett Page
Option B. supplies AC Power for heating. 62/63
Option C. steps up output for severe weather conditions.
Correct Answer is. steps up output for severe weather conditions.

204 Windshield rain repellent is applied.

Option A. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. L3 Jeppesen, A&P
Option B. before rain and spread on window surface by wipers. Airframe Textbook Page
Option C. when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured. 13-17.
Correct Answer is. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers.
205 Pneumatic rain removal systems. Jeppesen A & P
Option A. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets Technician Airframe
from windscreen. Textbook page 13-18.
Option B. are not permitted on large transport aircraft. L3 Question Number. 15.
Option C. use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers.
Correct Answer is. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water
droplets from windscreen.

206 Windscreen autotransformers. AL/11-4 4.2.2.

Option A. step down voltage.
Option B. step up voltage.
Option C. are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions. L3
Correct Answer is. step up voltage.

A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by.

207 Aircraft Electrical
Option A. increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating
wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Systems, Pallett, page
Option B. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating 174.
L3 Question Number. 20.
wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
Option C. ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and
illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
Correct Answer is. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing
the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit. OR increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the
rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
Aircraft Electrical
208 Windscreen heating is supplied from.
Systems, Pallett,
Option A. frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen.
page173, fig.10-29.
Option B. DC generator, via a transformer. L1 Question Number. 21.
Option C. frequency wild generator, via a rectifier.
Correct Answer is. frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen.

209 When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to.
CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para
Option A. use slow wiper only. L1
5.1.2.
Option B. use water as lubricant when operating.
Option C. place soft cloth between blade and window.
Correct Answer is. use water as lubricant when operating.
 210 What is run-back ice?. AC20-147.
Option A. Glaze ice.
Option B. Rime ice. L1
Option C. Glime ice.
Correct Answer is. Glaze ice.
11.13

Spongy brakes are usually a result of. CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen

211 Option A. internal leakage. A&P Technician
Option B. air in the system. L2 Airframe Textbook Page
Option C. external leakage. 9-31.
Correct Answer is. air in the system.

Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the. Jeppesen A&P

212 Option A. brake drum. Technician Airframe
L2 Textbook Page 1-32.
Option B. wheel hub.
Option C. wheel flange.
Correct Answer is. wheel flange.

Tubeless tyres are stored. Jeppesen A&P

213 Technician Airframe
Option A. at 15 to 20 P.S.I.
L2 Textbook Page 9-47
Option B. horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre
on top. CAIPs AL/3-18 15.1.
Option C. vertically.
Correct Answer is. vertically.

On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the. Jeppesen A&P

214 Technician Airframe
Option A. bottom of the wheels are closer together. L3
Option B. top of the wheels are closer together. Textbook Page 9-13.
Option C. front of the wheels are closer together.
Correct Answer is. bottom of the wheels are closer together.

215 How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?.

Option A. 5% by pressure. AWN 70, and JAR
25.733.
Option B. 15% by volume. L3
Option C. 5% by volume.
Correct Answer is. 5% by volume.
216 A tyre specification 32 x 10.75-14. What does the 10.75 refer to. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.1.
Option A. Section Width. L2
Option B. Bead diameter.
Option C. Overall diameter.
Correct Answer is. Section Width.

217 When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is
depressurised?. CAIPs AL/3-6.
Option A. The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed. L2
Option B. Leaking air/oil seals.
Option C. Separator plate stuck open.
Correct Answer is. The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed.

A restrictor valve.
218 CAIPs AL/3-6 Page
Option A. speed up the flow in one direction.
Option B. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. 7&8.
L3
Option C. restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage.
Correct Answer is. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension.

219
The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to.
Option A. ensure the separator does not bottom. Jeppesen A&P
L2 technician Airframe
Option B. damp the rebound.
Option C. absorb the landing shock. Textbook Page 9-5.
Correct Answer is. damp the rebound.

220 Made up wheels should be stored.

CAIPS AL3-18 para 15-
Option A. vertical at working pressure. L2 1 and 15-3.
Option B. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge.
Option C. horizontal no more than 4 high.
Correct Answer is. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge.

221 "After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated Aircraft Electrical
n the flight deck. The possible causes are." Systems Pallett Page
Option A. shorted sensor. L3 176.
Option B. out of adjustment sensor.
Option C. wiring problem.
Correct Answer is. out of adjustment sensor.
223 When checking for alignment of a MLG, check. A+P Technician
Option A. symmetry, tracking, camber. L3 Airframe Textbook Page
Option B. symmetry, splay, tracking. 9-13.
Option C. symmetry, twist, tracking.
Correct Answer is. symmetry, tracking, camber.

224 These markings are found on a tyre32 x 10.45 R 14.What does the
number 32 mean?. L2 CAIPs AL/3-18 3.1.
Option A. Outer diameter.
Option B. qwidth.
Option C. Inner diameter.
Correct Answer is. Outer diameter.

A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents.

225 CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6,
Option A. breather points.
L2 CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 2.4.
Option B. the light part of the tyre.
Option C. military reference.
Correct Answer is. breather points.

In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by. CAIPs AL/3-18 4.7.1.
226
Option A. a retainer plate. L3
Option B. a lock ring.
Option C. bolts.
Correct Answer is. a lock ring.
AL/3-19 3.1.2
227 Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are. L3
Option A. for over temperature protection.
Option B. for overpressure protection.
Option C. to deflate the tyre before removal.
Correct Answer is. for overpressure protection.

228 If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is. AL/3-6 3.3.3 iii.
Option A. caused by a leaky seal. L3
Option B. normal.
Option C. due to excessive charging pressure.
Correct Answer is. caused by a leaky seal.
229 A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means.
Option A. military reference. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6,
Option B. the light part of the tyre. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 3.7.
Option C. breather points. L2
Correct Answer is. the light part of the tyre.

Composite brake units.

230 Option A. weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away athigh A&P Technician
temperatures. L3 Airframe Textbook Page
Option B. have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at 9-20 'Carbon Brakes'.
high temperatures.
Option C. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased
efficiency at high temperatures.
Correct Answer is. have less weight than normal brake units and have
increased efficiency at high temperatures.

A restrictor valve can be used. CAIPs AL/3-6 4.2.

231
Option A. to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction.
Option B. to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension.
L2
Option C. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension.
Correct Answer is. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension.

Vents holes are found on. AL/3-18 2.4. A&P

232 Technician Airframe
Option A. tubeless tyres. L2
Option B. tubed tyres. Textbook Page 9-42
Option C. tubed and tubeless tyres.
Correct Answer is. tubed and tubeless tyres.

233 What is tyre creep related to?.

Leaflet 5-7 Para 9
Option A. Horizontal movement of the tyre.
Option B. Vertical movement of the tyre. L2
Option C. Tyre moving around the wheel.
Correct Answer is. Tyre moving around the wheel.

234 In an anti-skid system. Jeppesen A&P

Option A. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking. Technician Airframe
Option B. brakes release on rising torque. L3 Textbook Page 10-37.
Option C. brakes release on falling torque.
Correct Answer is. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking.
11.14 235 With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?. Pallett Aircraft Electrical
Option A. Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white. L2 Systems 3rd Edition
Option B. Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red. Page 145.
Option C. Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White.
Correct Answer is. Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white. Port >> Left side of the Aircraft
Starboard >> Right side of the Aircraft
236 A white steady light is required.
Option A. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees CAP 393 Rules of the
either side of dead astern. Air Rule 11 (2) (a) (iii).
Option B. of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees
either side of dead astern. L2
Option C. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees
either side of dead astern.
Correct Answer is. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70
degrees either side of dead astern.
237
How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?.
Option A. 15%. AWN 56 2.11.
L3
Option B. 25%.
Option C. 20%.
Correct Answer is. 25%.

What is the arc of a landing light?. Pallett Aircraft Electrical

238 Systems 3rd Edition
Option A. 15. L3
Option B. 11. Page 146 Fig 10-1.
Option C. 20.
Correct Answer is. 11.

239 The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is. L3 Pallett Aircraft Electrical
Option A. 11.
Systems 3rd Edition
Option B. 140.
Page 146, and JAR
Option C. 110.
25.1387.
Correct Answer is. 140.

Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?. Aircraft Electrical
240 Option A. 110. L2
Systems Pallett Page
Option B. 125. 146, and JAR 25.1387,
Option C. 180. and EEL/1-10 301 a).
Correct Answer is. 110.
241 Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the. Aircraft Electricity and
Option A. battery bus and ground services bus. L3 Electronics, Eismin 5th
Option B. battery bus. edition page 256.
Option C. ground services bus.
Correct Answer is. battery bus and ground services bus.

Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured.

242 Option A. green. Transport Category
Option B. red. L2 Aircraft Systems
Option C. white. Jeppesen Page 7-2.
Correct Answer is. red.

How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?. JAR 25.812 (l) (1), and
243 Option A. 25%. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11
L3 2.11.1.
Option B. 10%.
Option C. None.
Correct Answer is. 25%.

The angle of a runway turnoff light is.

244 Aircraft Electrical
Option A. 40. L2
Option B. 60. Systems Pallett Page
Option C. 50. 146.
Correct Answer is. 50.

245 Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with.

Option A. 28 V DC. . Jeppesen A&P
L2 Technician Airframe
Option B. 115 V AC.
Option C. 28 V AC. Textbook Page 7-76
Correct Answer is. 115 V AC. (figure 7-115).

246 In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and
emergency lighting system during Transport Category
Aircraft Systems 11-23.
flight. L3
Option A. Armed.
Option B. OFF.
Option C. ON.
Correct Answer is. Armed.
247 The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any
single transverse vertical separation JAR 25.812.
of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency
lighting that fails is. L3
Option A. 15%.
Option B. 10%.
Option C. 25%.
Correct Answer is. 25%.

A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of.

248 Option A. 100 candelas. L3 CAP 393 Section 2
Option B. 50 candelas. Rules of the Air Para.
Option C. 20 candelas. 11 (2) (d).
Correct Answer is. 20 candelas.

Service lights include.

249 EEL/1-10 3.5.
Option A. refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights.
Option B. avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage
L2
compartment lights.
Option C. baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling
lights.
Correct Answer is. baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights,
refuelling lights.

250 If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates, how is it reset?.

EEL/1-10 3.3.1.
Option A. The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft L3
is on the ground.
Option B. Select full 'RETRACT'.
Option C. It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high
stress loads experienced.
Correct Answer is. Select full 'RETRACT'.

251 Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must
elapse to avoid electrical shock EEL/1-10 5.5.
or burning. That time period is at least. L2
Option A. 2 minutes.
Option B. 5 minutes.
Option C. 1 minute.
Correct Answer is. 2 minutes.
 252 The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show
through an inclusive angle of. CAP 393 Section 2
Option A. 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum. L3 Rules of the Air Para 2
Option B. 110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum. a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-
Option C. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. 10 3.1 c).
Correct Answer is. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum.

Self-illuminating signs.
253 Option A. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark EEL/1-10 4.8.
adapted. L2
Option B. require a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to operate.
Option C. are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas.
Correct Answer is. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are
not dark adapted.
254 Aircraft Electrical
When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', the resistor is in.
Option A. parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting. Systems. Page 153.
L3
Option B. series with the light and the transistor is not conducting.
Option C. series with the light and the transistor is conducting.
Correct Answer is. series with the light and the transistor is conducting.
11.15

255 Anoxia is due to.

Option A. lack of oxygen. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9
L1 Para 2.1.
Option B. low air pressure on the body.
Option C. release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood.
Correct Answer is. lack of oxygen.

256 The dilutor demand regulator functions.

Jeppesen A&P
Option A. all the time.
Technician Airframe
Option B. only when the supply valve is opened by the user. L1 Textbook Page 14-10.
Option C. when the user breathes in.
Correct Answer is. when the user breathes in.

257 To measure moisture in an oxygen system use. CAIPs AL/3-25 Para

Option A. a glass plate. 6.4.
Option B. litmus paper. L3
Option C. a hygrometer using the dew point method.
Correct Answer is. a hygrometer using the dew point method.
 258 Oxygen cylinder test dates.
Option A. are painted in white on the cylinder. L3 CAIPs AL/3-25 para
Option B. are variable depending on discharge. 4.2.2.
Option C. may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder.
Correct Answer is. are painted in white on the cylinder.

Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with.

259 Option A. pressure and quantity gauges. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p9
Option B. oxygen purity gauge. para 4.9.
Option C. temperature gauge. L1
Correct Answer is. pressure and quantity gauges.

A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens.

260 Option A. all the time. A&P Technician
L3 Airframe Textbook 14-9.
Option B. when breathing.
Option C. when 100% selected.
Correct Answer is. when breathing.
11.16
When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps.
261 Jeppesen A&P
Option A. just the moisture trap.
L3 Technician Airframe
Option B. the whole system.
Option C. the system between compressor and regulator valve. Textbook Page 8-54.
Correct Answer is. just the moisture trap. CAIPs AL/3-22.

262 The pneumatic system pump is a. L1

Option A. centrifugal type. Jeppesen A&P
Option B. rotor vane type. Technician Airframe
Option C. piston type. Textbook Page 8-56,
Correct Answer is. piston type.

263 In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines
CAIPs AL/3-22.
to. L1
Option A. essential equipment.
Option B. all equipment.
Option C. non-essential equipment.
Correct Answer is. non-essential equipment.
 264 High pressure pneumatic source is a. CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1.
Option A. reciprocating pump.
Option B. centrifugal Compressor. L1
Option C. butterfly pump.
Correct Answer is. reciprocating pump.

265 High pressure pneumatic pump is a.

Option A. reciprocating pump. CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1.
Option B. spur gear. L1
Option C. butterfly pump.
Correct Answer is. reciprocating pump.

If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain.
266 Option A. between the compressor and the PRV. CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1.
L3
Option B. just the moisture trap.
Option C. all the system.
Correct Answer is. between the compressor and the PRV.

On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water
267 AL/3-22 figure 1.
is left open for long periods of
time, the system would.
Option A. lose pressure from the compressor side only. L3
Option B. lose pneumatic pressure partially.
Option C. lose all pressure.
11.17 Correct Answer is. lose pressure from the compressor side only.

268 Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by.

Option A. thermal protection. L2 AWN 57.
Option B. water cooling.
Option C. cooling fan on timer switch.
Correct Answer is. thermal protection.

269 What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?.

Option A. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard. AWN 57 Para.2.3.
Option B. Prevent toilet freezing. L3
Option C. Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become
unserviceable.
Correct Answer is. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard.
 270 Waste water drain masts. 737 AMM ch. 30-71
Option A. are not heated.
Option B. are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground.
Option C. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground L2
only.
Correct Answer is. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on
ground only.

A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.

271 Option A. Close toilet until landing. IAW B737-400
Option B. You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet. L3 mmel/ddg item 38-2,
Option C. It can be overcome by thermal compensating device.
Correct Answer is. Close toilet until landing.
11.18
The real time on a CMC is when. Aircraft Electricity and
272 Avionics (5th Edition)
Option A. existing faults page is selected on the CDU.
L1 Eismin Page 271.
Option B. ground test page is selected on the CDU.
Option C. fault history page is selected on the CDU.
Correct Answer is. existing faults page is selected on the CDU.

273 One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored
in. Aircraft Electricity and
Option A. erased only after end of sector. Avionics (5th Edition)
L2 Eismin Page 271.
Option B. non-volatile memory.
Option C. volatile memory.
Correct Answer is. non-volatile memory.

274 In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC.

Aircraft Electricity and
Option A. all faults are recorded in Volatile memory.
Avionics (5th Edition)
Option B. all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory. L2 Eismin Page 271.
Option C. only Primary Faults are recorded.
Correct Answer is. all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory.

275 In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time' fault?. Aircraft Electricity and
Option A. In Test. Electronics, Eismin,
Option B. In Fault History. L1
page 270-273.
Option C. In Fault.
Correct Answer is. In Fault.
 276 A Flight Data Recorder is activated when. JAR Ops-3.
Option A. when power is applied to the helicopter. L1
Option B. the helicopters engines are started.
Option C. the helicopter takes off.
Correct Answer is. the helicopters engines are started.

In a CMC, warning signals are generated by. Transport Category

277 Option A. FMC. Aircraft Systems 11-5.
Option B. CMC. L2
Option C. Warning computer.
Correct Answer is. Warning computer.

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