Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
Addentum
Prospectus
Syllabus
Question paper for AP recruitment in Govt Engg Colleges 2012
Answer key for AP recruitment in Govt Engg Colleges 2012
Question paper for Lecturer recruitment in Govt Polytechnics
Answer key for Lecturer recruitment in Govt Polytechnics
Objective type questions and Answers for the following subjects
o Control system
o Electromagnetic theory
o Electrical Engineering
o Electrical Machine Design
o Measurements and Instrumentation
Prepared by
V.Arivumani,
Assistant Professor,
Department of EEE,
Bargur - 635104.
Web: www.co4.in
www.c0m.in
Addendum for Notification/
Advertisement No. 03 / 2014
Dated : 16.07.2014
BC MBC/
Sub. GT BC SC SC (A) ST Total
Subject (M) DNC
Code
14E
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W All
01 Civil Engineering 5 2 4 2 1 4 1 3 1 1 18 6 24
02 Mechanical Engg. 6 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 1 1 16 6 22
03 E.E.E 4 2 3 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 13 6 19
04 E.C.E 5 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 1 1 15 7 22
05 EIE * 1 1 0 2 2
06 Computer Science
Engg. 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 13 6 19
08 Metallurgy 1 1 0 1
09 Mathematics 5 2 5 2 1 3 2 3 2 17 8 25
10 English 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 13 6 19
11 Physics 3 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 14 7 21
12 Chemistry 3 2 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 12 6 18
TOTAL 38 18 32 18 6 3 28 1 23 9 5 1 132 60 192
1
Abbreviations :
GT General Turn BC Backward Class BCM Backward Class Muslim
MBC Most Backward Class DNC De-Notified Community SC Scheduled Caste
1
3.In light of the letter No.339/I1/ 2016-1 dated 21.06.2016 of Higher Education (I1)
Department, Chennai, the qualifications prescribed in GO(Ms)No.144, HE(B1)Dept., dated
15-06-2011 is to be followed for the direct recruitment of Assistant Professors in Non-
Engineering subjects in Govt. Engineering Colleges.
4. In the said advertisement, under para 5, the age may be read as follows:
Important note:
MEMBER SECRETARY.
2
GOVERNMENT OF TAMIL NADU
TEACHERS RECRUITMENT BOARD
4th Floor, EVK Sampath Maaligai, DPI Compound, College Road, Chennai 600 006.
PROSPECTUS
1
5. Tamil Medium Reservation : 20% reservation on preferential basis
for persons studied in Tamil Medium (PSTM) is followed as per existing
Government Orders. This reservation is subject to the availability of
suitable eligible candidates. In the event of non-availability of such
candidates the posts reserved for PSTM candidates will be filled by
General candidates.
6. Special Reservation: 3% Reservation for the Differently Abled
candidates (PWD candidates) will be followed as per existing
Government Orders.
a) Visually Impaired: Candidates should possess certificate in
prescribed format from the Competent Authority for one of the
following: (i) Total absence of sight on both eyes, or (ii) Visual
acuity not exceeding 6/60 or 20/200 (Snellen) in the better eye
with correcting lenses or (iii) Limitation of the field of vision
subtending an angle of 20 degrees or worse. One-eyed visually
impaired persons cannot claim reservation against Visually
Impaired category.
b) Orthopedically Impaired: Candidates claiming reservation under
the Differently-Abled (Ortho) category should possess certificate in
prescribed format from the Competent Authority for at least 40%
and above.
Note: All certificates should have been obtained prior to the last
date for submission of filled-in Application announced in the
Recruitment Notification published in Newspapers.
2
7.Qualifications:
Post Qualification
Assistant Professor B.E. or B.Tech and M.E. or M.Tech. in
(Engineering Subjects) the relevant Branch of Engineering or
[Civil, Mechanical, EEE, Technology with First Class or its
ECE, EIE, Computer equivalent either in B.E or B.Tech. /
Science Engineering, and M.E. or M.Tech
Metallurgy]
Assistant Professor 1. Master’s Degree in the relevant
(Non-Engineering subject with good academic record
Subjects) with not less than 55% of marks or
[English / Mathematics an equivalent Cumulative Grade Point
/ Physics / Chemistry] Average (CGPA) from an Indian
University or an equivalent Degree
from a Foreign University, and
2. Pass in the National Eligibility Test
(NET) for Lecturers conducted by the
UGC, Council for Scientific and
Industrial Research (CSIR) or similar
test accredited by the University
Grants Commission. Provided that
holders of Ph.D Degree are exempted
from passing the said test.
3
Equivalent Subjects :
Candidates should apply for the relevant subject. If a candidate
claims that the educational qualification in the subject possessed by
him/her is equivalent to any one of the above mentioned subjects, the
appointing authority i.e., user department (Directorate of Technical
Education) will decide the equivalence at the time of appointment. The
acceptance or rejection of such claims is vested with Directorate of
Technical Education.
Candidate may apply only for the subjects for which the vacancies
are notified and subject code numbers assigned. The candidates
applying for the posts mentioned in Annexure I should have passed
Tamil Language under Part I or Part II in SSLC / PUC / Higher
Secondary Course level. If not, he / she should pass Tamil Language
Test conducted by the Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission within
two years from the date of their appointment.
8. Community Certificate : Permanent Community Certificate obtained
from the under-mentioned authorities on or before the last date for
submission of the filled-in application form is essential for candidates
claiming communal reservation.
a. ST - Revenue Divisional Officer / Sub-collector dated after
11.11.1989.
b. SC - Tahsildar of native taluk of the candidate.
c. BC / MBC / DNC - Headquarters’ Deputy Tahsildar or Special
Deputy Tahsildar of the candidate’s native taluk.
4
Note:
(i) Candidates with the Community Certificate issued by other
authorities from Tamil Nadu will not be considered for communal
reservation.
(ii) Married Women should possess Community certificate issued in
father’s name only.
(iii) The other State candidates (other than Tamil Nadu) claiming
Community Reservation will be considered only for General Turn (GT).
9. Age: Candidates should not be over 57 years of age, as on
01.07.2016.
(As per G.O M.S No.157 dated 15.09.2014 Higher Education
Department)
10. Application form and Examination fee:
a. The OMR Application Form along with Prospectus can be
purchased from 17-08-2016 to 07-09-2016 in person from the Office
of the Chief Educational Officers of all 32 Districts in Tamilnadu
on payment of Rs.100/- (Rupees One hundred only) in cash
towards the cost of the Application Form and Prospectus.
b. Submission of Filled-in Application Forms: Candidates are
advised to submit the filled-in application forms at the Office of the
Chief Educational Officer concerned on or before 07-09-2016 upto
5.00 P.M. The Candidates are advised NOT to send the filled-in
Application Forms by post or in person to the Teachers Recruitment
Board, Chennai – 600 006.
5
c. Candidates are advised to get an acknowledgement on the
photocopy of the Application Form in the following format.
Acknowledgement Format:
TEAM No :
Sl. No of Receipt :
Date of Receipt :
Signature of the
:
Team Head
O/o Chief Educational Officer
..........………………………………
d. Applications received in any form other than the OMR application
issued by Teachers Recruitment Board shall be rejected.
e. Examination Fee: The Examination fee is Rs.600/- (Rupees Six
Hundred only) for all the candidates except SC/ST and Differently
Abled candidates. For SC/ST and Differently Abled candidates
examination fee is Rs.300/- (Rupees Three Hundred only). The fee
should be paid by the candidates in any Branch of S T A T E B A N K
O F I N D I A / INDIAN OVERSEAS BANK using only the prescribed
challan attached with the prospectus. Payment of examination fees in
any other method will not be accepted.
The prescribed challan contains certain details of the fees,
Application number, account number for the specific recruitment etc.,
Candidates have to write the Name of the Bank where the candidates
6
make the payment, the date of payment, fee remittance branch
code and bank journal number in the relevant columns in the
application form.
f. The Teachers Recruitment Board's copy of the challan should not
be pasted / stapled/ tied, but it has to be kept in a separate
envelope and submitted along with the application form without fail.
g. The decision of the Teachers Recruitment Board is final for fixing
the eligibility of the candidate to appear for the Examination.
11. Scheme of Examination: The written examination will consist of a
single paper of 3-hour duration with 190 marks. The question paper
will be of objective type with multiple choice questions. The question
paper will be based on the Syllabus for the subject hosted on TRB
website. The marks allotted to the Main Subject and General
Knowledge are as follows
Main Part A 1 mark question: 100 100 Marks
Subject Part B 2 mark question: 40 80 Marks
General Knowledge 1 mark question: 10 10 Marks
Total questions : 150 190 Marks
The Question Papers for all subjects will be in English only. The
candidates are required to answer the questions in the special OMR
answer sheet provided, by shading a single answer for each question
in blue or black ball-point pen only.
The decision of the Chairman, Teachers Recruitment Board is final
for fixing the eligibility of the candidate to sit for the Examination.
7
12.Written Examination: The written Examination will be held on
22-10-2016 from 10.00 A.M. to 1.00 P.M. The venue for the
Examination will be intimated in the Hall Ticket. Hall Ticket will be
uploaded in Teachers Recruitment Board official website
http://www.trb.tn.nic.in. The Hall Tickets will not be sent through
post at any cost. The candidate may refer to TRB website
(http://trb.tn.nic.in) for details. The candidate will be allowed to sit
for examination after verifying his/her identity with the nominal roll
in Exam centre before the commencement of the examination.
Visually Impaired candidates will be allowed assistance of Scribes,
who are not Graduates/Postgraduates in the respective Subjects.
The decision of Chairman, Teachers Recruitment Board on the
eligibility of the candidate to sit for the Examination will be final.
Key Answers:
Tentative key will be published on completion of the exams. The
candidates who intend to have objections on tentative key answers
shall raise them along with materials they relay within 5 days from
date of release of tentative key. Any objections and materials
produced beyond the stipulated time will not be entertained and that
candidates are stopped from questioning them at later point of time.
On consideration of such objections, final key answers would be
published and the same would be final. No independent orders either
accepting or rejecting the objections of the candidates will be passed.
Only final key would be published.
8
Constitution of experts to consider the objections cannot be
questioned by the candidates.
Written E xamination Results : The results of the Written
Competitive Examination with Marks of all the candidates will be
released in the website of Teachers Recruitment Board viz.
http://trb.tn.nic.in by notifying about release of results in the Press /
Media.
13. Merit List : The merit list of candidates short-listed for Certificate
Verification (CV), in the ratio of 1:2, based on written examination
marks following the communal reservation, will also be published in
the website. If more than one candidate secures the same lowest cut-
off mark for a particular communal turn, all such candidates will be
called for Certificate Verification. Hence the number of candidates
called for Certificate Verification may be slightly higher than twice the
number of vacancies. Weightage marks will not be added to the
marks scored by the candidate in the written examination for short
listing candidates for certificate verification.
14. Certificate Verification : Candidates, short-listed as above will be
called for certificate verification by intimation through official website.
The candidate should bring the original and attested copies of all
certificates to the certificate verification centre, as stated in the call
letter for Certificate Verification. Weightage marks as shown below
will be awarded after Certificate Verification. All the certificates
should have been issued prior to the last date for submission of filled
9
in Application (cut-off date). Certificate issued after the cut off date
will not be considered and shall be rejected.
Description Engineering Non-Engineering
For Teaching experience
i of two years and above 2 marks 2 marks
in a recognized college
For M.Phil Degree from
a recognized University
ii in the appropriate --- 3 marks
branch of study in the
non-engineering subject
For Ph.D. in the relevant 8 marks 5 marks
iii
subject
These marks will be added for preparing the provisional merit-cum-
communal selection list. Teaching Experience Certificate, issued by
Principal of the Institution in the prescribed form (Specimen copy of
the Teaching Experience Certificate is attached in Annexure-II) and
countersigned by the officer concerned, should be produced. The
Teaching Experience Certificate may be obtained for a period of
service after the cut-off date, but the period of service shall be
counted upto the cut-off date only. The certificates for higher
qualifications, shown above, should have been obtained before the
cut-off date.
10
15. Provisional Selection : The provisional list of candidates selected
for appointment after the Certificate Verification and addition of
weightage marks for the short-listed candidates duly following the
merit cum communal rotation, will be published in the website of
TRB viz. http://trb.tn.nic.in by notifying about release of the
provisional result in the Press/media. Intimation to the
provisionally selected candidates will not be sent by post
individually. The final eligibility of the candidates will be subject to
the decision of Teachers Recruitment Board and the Board has every
right to alter or cancel their results.
16. TA / DA : No T.A./D.A. will be paid. Candidates will have to bear
their own expenses to attend the Written Examination in districts
and for Certificate Verification at Teachers Recruitment Board,
Chennai, if called.
17. Special Instructions:
a. The Application Forms should be carefully filled up. The passport
size photograph should be pasted in the space provided and should
not be stapled. The photograph should not be attested and it should
be free from any mark, as the same has to be used for printing the
Hall Tickets.
b. Incomplete Application Forms will be summarily rejected.
Canvassing in any form will be a disqualification for selection.
c. The Application Form should not be folded. The Application form
should be submitted in the envelope issued along with the form.
11
d. The Subject Code should be clearly filled up in the space allotted
in the Application Form. The name of the subject should be entered
exactly as shown in the application form.
e. As the form is computer readable and pre-programmed, any
information written outside the boxes provided will not be read by
the computer. Hence, altering the form or adding any additional box
will result in your application becoming invalid.
f. A photocopy of the filled and signed application form with
acknowledgement may be preserved.
g. The TRB will not take any responsibility for non-submission of
essential certificates by the candidates.
h. The Teaching Experience Certificate should be in the prescribed
format as in the Annexure II.
i. Candidates are informed to ascertain their full eligibility for the
post to which they have applied. The onus of proof of providing
subject equivalence is vested with the candidates only. TRB cannot
take any responsibility for the non-selection and ineligibility if any
mistake detected at any stage during or after the recruitment and
declaration of results and their candidature will be liable for
cancellation.
j. Electronic gadgets / Clark’s Table / Calculators / Cell Phones
are not permitted inside the Examination Hall.
12
k. In the matter of recruitment, the decision of the TRB is final. Any
representation for non-selection will not be entertained at any cost.
Application forms will not be accepted after 5.00 p.m. on
07-09-2016.
MEMBER SECRETARY.
13
14
15
INSTRUCTIONS TO FILL UP THE OMR APPLICATION FORM FOR
DIRECT RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANT PROFESSORS IN
ENGINEERING COLLEGES 2013-2014 and 2014-2015
General:
D. After filling up of application take xerox copy of the same and use it
for getting acknowledgment from the Office of the Chief Educational
officer concerned.
****
16
1. CANDIDATE’S NAME: Candidates should write their name in
capital Letters, each letter occupying one box. The initials must be
written at the end after leaving one box blank after the name.
Moreover the candidates have to correctly shade the appropriate
circles below each letter as the computer reads the shaded region
only.
For Example : If the Candidate’s name is P. UMA
MAHESHWARI, fill in the box as below.
U M A M A H E S H W A R I P
2. DATE OF BIRTH: Fill-in the appropriate boxes with Date of Birth
(e.g. 12 JAN 1982) and shade the relevant circles.
3. NAME OF THE FATHER / MOTHER / HUSBAND / GUARDIAN:
a. Shade the relevant circle
b. Candidate should write his/her father’s / mother’s / husband’s
/guardian’s name in capital letters. Each letter should occupy
one box.
4. GENDER: Candidates should shade the appropriate circle whether
MALE or FEMALE or TRANSGENDER.
5. COMMUNITY: Candidate should shade the relevant circle to denote
his/her community.
6. SPECIFY DIFFERENTLY ABLED (IF ANY) : If the Candidate is
differently-abled with Physical Disability / Visual impairment,
he/she should shade the appropriate circle. Otherwise no need to
shade the circle.
17
7. Post Applied For : Candidate should shade the relevant circle to
denote the post applied for.
8. Subject Code : Fill in the Box with correct subject code and shade
the relevant circle. For subject code refer Annexure I.
9. Exam Center Code : Candidate should select the Examination
Centre from the list given in Annexure III and fill up the boxes with
the selected centre number and shade the appropriate circles.
10. Photograph : Candidates should paste the recent Passport size
photo. (Don’t staple the photo with pin). Applications with stapled
photo will not be accepted
11. Signature of the Candidate : Put the signature within the box
12. Address for Communication : Write the Name and Address in
capital letters and PIN code legibly in the space provided for that
purpose.
As this portion is to be scanned and uploaded as Hall Ticket,
strictly limit your writings within the boxes provided in the
application form
13. (a) Educational Qualification : Shade the relevant circle to denote
the subject studied in UG and PG Degree.
(b)whether secured 60% and above (B.E/B.Tech and
M.E/M.Tech): Shade the relevant circle whether secured 55% and
above (M.A/M.Sc) : Shade the relevant circle
(c) Medium Studied in .............. : Shade the relevant circle
18
(d) Have you completed SLET / NET (OR) Ph.D, M.Phil : Shade
the relevant circle
20
ANNEXURE – I
Estimated Vacancies [Tentative] 2013-2014
Code Subject
G W G W G W G W G W G W G W G W All
Civil
1 14E01 5 2 4 2 1 4 1 3 1 1 18 6 24
Engineering
Mechanical
2 14E02 6 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 1 1 16 6 22
Engg.
3 14E03 E.E.E 4 2 3 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 13 6 19
4 14E04 E.C.E 5 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 1 1 15 7 22
5 14E05 EIE * 1 1 0 2 2
Computer
6 14E06 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 13 6 19
Science Engg.
7 14E08 Metallurgy 1 1 0 1
8 14E09 Mathematics 5 2 5 2 1 3 2 3 2 17 8 25
9 14E10 English 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 13 6 19
10 14E11 Physics 3 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 14 7 21
11 14E12 Chemistry 3 2 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 12 6 18
TOTAL 38 18 32 18 6 3 28 11 23 9 5 1 132 60 192
* Backlog vacancies
Note: The estimated number of vacancies given above is tentative and subject to modification
from time to time.
21
For Submission to Teachers Recruitment Board, Chennai -6 Passport size -
photograph of the
Candidate duly
Annexure-II attested by the
certificate issuing
EXPERIENCE CERTIFICATE authority.
(Sign and Seal should
be partly in photograph
and application)
Counter Signature
Ref. No.
Place: Signature:
Date: Name:
Seal: Designation:
/ (In
Director, DOTE Regional Joint Director
(In case of Govt/Aided/ Self-finance case of Govt/Aided/Self-finance
Engineering Colleges) Arts &
Registrar Science Collges)
(In case of State/ Deemed Universities)
22
Note:
23
Annexure III
24
SYLLABUS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT OF
ASSISTANT PROFESSORS IN GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGES
2013-2014
Linear Algebra: Matrix Algebra, Systems of Linear equations, Eigen Values and eigen vectors.
Calculus: Mean Value Theorems, Theorems of integral Calculus Evaluation of definite and
improper integrals, Partial Derivatives, Maxima and minima, Multiple integrals, Fourier
series. Vector identities, Directional derivatives, Line, Surface and Volume integrals, Stokes,
Gauss and Green’s theorems.
Differential equations: First order equation (linear and nonlinear), Higher order linear
differential equations with constant coefficients, Method of variation of parameters,
Cauchy’s and Euler’s equations, initial and boundary value problems, Partial Differential
Equations and variable separable method.
Complex variables: Analytic functions, Cauchy’s integral theorem and integral formula,
Taylor’s and Laurent’ series, Residue theorem, solution integrals.
Probability and Statistics: Sampling theorems, Conditional probability, Mean, median, mode
and standard deviation, Random variables, Discrete and continuous distributions, Poisson,
Normal and Binomial distribution, Correlation and regression analysis.
Network graph, KCL, KVL, node and mesh analysis, transient response of dc and ac
networks; sinusoidal steady-state analysis, resonance, basic filter concepts; ideal current
and voltage sources, Thevenin’s, Norton’s and Superposition and Maximum Power Transfer
theorems, two-port networks, three phase circuits.
Gauss Theorem, electric field and potential due to point, line, plane and spherical charge
distributions; Ampere’s and Biot-Savart’s laws; inductance; dielectrics; capacitance.
Single Phase transformer – equivalent circuit, phasor diagram, tests, regulation and
efficiency; three phase transformers – connections, parallel operation; auto-transformer;
energy conversion principles; DC machines – types, windings, generator characteristics,
armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors; three phase
induction motors – principles, types, performance characteristics, starting and speed
control; Single phase induction motors; synchronous machines – performance, regulation
and parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and applications; servo
and stepper motors.
Basic power generation concepts; transmission line models and performance; cable
performance insulation; corona and radio interference; distribution systems; per-unit
quantities; bus impedance and admittance matrices; load flow; voltage control; power
factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components; fault analysis.
Principles of over-current, differential and distance protection; solid state relays and digital
protection; circuit breakers; system stability concepts, swing curves and equal area
criterion; HVDC transmission and FACTS concepts.
Principles of feedback; transfer function; block diagrams; steady – state errors; Routh and
Niquist techniques; Bode plots; root loci; lag, lead and lead-leg compensation; state space
model; state transition matrix, controllability and observability.
Bridges and potentiometers; PMMC, moving iron, dynamometer and induction type
instruments; measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power factor; instrument
transformers; digital voltmeters and multimeters; phase, time and frequency measurement;
Q-meters; Oscilloscopes; potentiometric recorders; error analysis.
Characteristics of diodes, BJT, FET; amplifiers – biasing, equivalent circuit and frequency
response; oscillators and feedback amplifiers; operational amplifiers – characteristics and
applications; simple active filters; VCOs’ and timers; combinational and sequential logic
circuits; multiplexer; Schmitt trigger; multi-vibrators; sample and hold circuits; A/D and D/A
convertors; 8-bit microprocessor basics, architecture, programming and interfacing.
Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors, triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs –
static characteristics and principles of operation; triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers;
bridge converters – fully controlled and half controlled; principles of choppers and inverters;
basis concepts of adjustable speed dc and ac drives.
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C A D C D C A C C B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A C B A D D D D D D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D D B B C C C C D B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D C A B C A C C B C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
C D A B A C B A A C
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
C C C C C C C B D A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
C A C D C B B B D C
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TEACHERS RECRUITMENT BOARD, CHENNAI-6. (12PT03-EEE)
BOOK A
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C C D C B A B C *
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C B A D B D B A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B D C A D C * D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B A C/D A C D D D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
* B C A C * C B B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A B B B A B D C B C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B C A C A D B * C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B B C A A D B B C A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C * C A B A D B C A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C B B D B B D D B A
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A C B C C B D B C B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B D B C * B A A * D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B B A D B C C B A C
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A * A B A A A B A B
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D D C B C D B B A *
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TEACHERS RECRUITMENT BOARD, CHENNAI-6. (12PT03-EEE)
BOOK B
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C B A D B D B A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B B B A B D C B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C C D C B A B C *
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
* B C A C * C B B C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B C A C A D B * C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C B B D B B D D B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B B C A A D B B C A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C * C A B A D B C A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C B A C/D A C D D D B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B D C A D C * D A
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C B D B C B B C A C
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A * A B A A A B A B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D D C B C D B B A *
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B D B C * B A A * D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
B B A D B C C B A C
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TEACHERS RECRUITMENT BOARD, CHENNAI-6. (12PT03-EEE)
BOOK C
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
* B C A C * C B B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B B D B B D D B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B A C/D A C D D D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C * C A B A D B C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B D C A D C * D A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B B C A A D B B C A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C C B A D B D B A B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C B C A C A D B * C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C C D C B A B C *
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B B B A B D C B C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D B A C B C C B C B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C C B A C D B B A *
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A * A B A B D B C *
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B B A D B D D C B C
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A A B A B B A A * D
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TEACHERS RECRUITMENT BOARD, CHENNAI-6. (12PT03-EEE)
BOOK D
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B B D B B D D B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C * C A B A D B C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B B C A A D B B C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B C A C A D B * C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B B B A B D C B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
* B C A C * C B B C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B A C/D A C D D D B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A B D C A D C * D A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C C B A D B D B A B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B C C D C B A B C *
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C B C B D B A C B C
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D D C B C A * A B A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B D B C * B B A D B
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B A A * D D B B A *
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
C C B A C A A B A B
======================================================================
Checked By 1.
Checked By 2.
Page 1
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
NO OF
UNIT NAME QNS
1A DC GENERATORS 124
1B DC MOTORS 123
2 TRANSFORMERS 135
THREE PHASE INDUCTION
3A MOTORS 101
SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION
3B MOTORS 110
4 SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS 124
TRANSMISSION AND
5A DISTRIBUTION 102
5B CABLES 56
TOTAL 875
1. A. DC GENERATORS
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: b
11. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the
thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated
e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors
is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then
induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen
coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors
which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic
neutral axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing
direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature
while generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A
and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains
constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure
that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any residual
magnetism in the poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator
Ans: d
61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral
axis, when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the
coil is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed
increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature
resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as
to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f.
induced is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on
no-load ?
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) None of the above
Ans: d
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the
following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit
voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will
be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would
produce high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its
own insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in
parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for
which of the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the
load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field
resistance of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have
'
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
119. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
121. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
122. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
123. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over
compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
(d) unequal series field resistances
124. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run,
the first thing to do is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of primemover
(d) check armature insulation resis¬tance
Ans: a
1. B. DC MOTOR
8. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy
is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the
armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular
motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the
efficiency of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
32. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of
D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated
torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the
motor will be equal
to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: c
42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to th£ motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses (d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc'ompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive
atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease
?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better unifor-mity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the mag-netic path
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio
of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor,
compound motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is
required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make
use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
65. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
efficiency ?
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a
heavy current from flowing though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed
by the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(6) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next higher
H.P. motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer
following kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(d) none of the above
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to
square of armature current
Ans: d
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and many kinds
of timers ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: d
89. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
(a) Loss of efficiency
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have
highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load
current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
100. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
Ans: d
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a
D.C. generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
105. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
(d) all of the above
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors
of large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne's test
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
112. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing
and speed control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
Ans: a
117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time
and some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle
and peak value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is
possible by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current
(c) increasing the armature current
(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: a
123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and
2. TRANSFORMERS
5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-load
current ?
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent
(b) 2 to 5 per cent
(c) 12 to 15 per cent
(d) 20 to 30 per cent
Ans: b
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is around
15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short
circuited
(a) High voltage side
(b) Low voltage side
16. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional area
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: a
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because
(a) there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
(b) a D.C. circuit has more losses
(c) Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux
is zero
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by an angle of
about
(a) 180°
(b) 120"
(c) 90°
(d) 75°
Ans: d
36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
(a) leakage reactance
(b) per unit impedance
(c) efficiencies
(d) ratings
38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with
regard to polarity ?
(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the power factor of
common load
(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
(c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA ratings
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
39. Ifthe percentage impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are different,
then
(a) transformers will be overheated
(b) power factors of both the trans-formers will be same
(c) parallel operation will be not possible
(d) parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which the two
transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the common load
Ans: d
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of
(a) ionizing air
(b) absorbing moisture
(c) cleansing the transformer oil
(d) cooling the transformer oil.
Ans: b
44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary inductances. The
statement is
(a) true
(b) false
Ans: b
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic forces, is termed as
(a) magnetostrication
(b) boo
(c) hum
(d) zoom
Ans: c
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil unless the oil
temperature exceeds
(a) 50°C
(b) 80°C
(c) 100°C
(d) 150°C
Ans: d
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) 90% load
(b) zero load
(c) 25% load
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the material for
transformer core ?
(a) Mechanical strength
(6) Low hysteresis loss
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High permeability
Ans: c
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for
transformer core ?
(a) Low hysteresis loss
(b) High permeability
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Adequate mechanical strength
Ans: c
73. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will
be
(a) 6400 W
(b) 1600 W
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload
Ans: c
.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two
winding transformer ?
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(b) Saving in winding material
(c) Copper losses are negligible
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
(a) the current on secondary side is negligible
(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
Ans: c
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal
percentage impedance. This is likely to result in
(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries
(b) power factor of one of the trans¬formers is leading while that of the other lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
(d) loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric
temperature during day and
night is taken care of by which part of transformer
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
(d) Buchholz relay
Ans: a
83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
(a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) iron losses are reduced
(c) core flux density is reduced
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from noload to
fullload because
(a) value of transformation ratio remains constant
(b) permeability of transformer core remains constant
(c) core flux remains practically constant
(d) primary voltage remains constant
(c) secondary voltage remains constant
Ans: c
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that
(a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) copper loss > iron loss
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,"the iron loss will
(a) not change
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron core will be
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is necessary that they should
have
(a) same efficiency
(b) same polarity
(c) same kVA rating
(d) same number of turns on the secondary side.
Ans: b
96. The transformer oil should have _____ volatility and _____ viscosity.
(a) low,low
(b) high,high
(c) low,high
(d) high,low
Ans: a
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed ?
(a) Step-up transformer
(b) Step-down transformer
(c) Potential transformer
(d) Current transformer
Ans: d
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply in India ?
(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 122 kV
Ans: d
105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are obtained with transformer
employing
(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end turns are heavily
insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by the shunting
capacitance of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of transformer from damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer from damage
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the applied voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in trans formers
are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
Ans: a
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(b) friction and windage losses
(c) copper losses
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase transformer having
a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
(c) Its rating is 2 kVA
(d) Its secondary current is 20 A
(e) It is a step-up transformer
Ans: d
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary should be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Ans: d
114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur
at
(a) 0.8 leading power factor
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution
transformers ?
(a) Overfluxing protection
(b) Buchholz relay
(c) Overcurrent protection
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to
lightning and switching ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Thermal overload relays
(c) Breather
(d) Conservator
Ans: a
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be
determined by
(a) short-circuit test
(b) back-to-back test
(c) open circuit test
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the highest temperature
safely ?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Asbestos
(c) Mica
(d) Glass fibre
Ans: c
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load ?
(a) Core loss
(b) Friction loss
(c) Eddy current loss
(d) Hysteresis loss
Ans: b
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer ?
(a) poor insulation
(b) Overload
(c) loose connections
(d) Core saturation
Ans: d
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur
in
(a) core
(b) windings
(c) tank
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by its
(a) temperature rise
(b) dielectric strength of oil
(c) voltage ratio
(d) copper loss
Ans: c
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low because
(a) copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
(b) iron loss is increased considerably
(c) voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
(d) secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Ans: a
130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is
(a) iron core
(b) copper winding
(c) winding insulation
(d) frame or case
(e) transformer tank
Ans: c
132. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its
transformation ratio is
(a) approximately equal to one
(b) less than one
(c) great than one
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
133. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: c
134. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load current. This results
in change of supply current of
(a) less than 15 A
(b) more than 15 A
135. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric motors of the same
power are
(a) about the same
(6) much smaller
(c) much higher
(d) somewhat smaller
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in order
to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Ans: d
10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will
be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an
induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Ans: c
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
Ans: d
20. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux
density in the air gap is
(a) absent
(b) small
(c) large
(d) infinity
Ans: b
22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
(a) zero frequency
(b) the same frequency as the slip fre-quency
23. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the
squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Ans: a
25. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to start cage induction
motor of the following type
(a) star connected only
(b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
26. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with autostarter is
(a) k/torque with direct switching
(6) K x torque with direct switching
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching
(d) k2/torque with direct switching
Ans: c
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of doouble squirrel-cage induction motor is
constructed the two cages can be
considered
(a) in series
(b) in parallel
(c) in series-parallel
(d) in parallel with stator
Ans: b
28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: a
29. Stepless speed control of induction motor is possible by which of the following
methods ?
(a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
(b) Changing the number of poles
(c) Cascade operation
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
31. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the circle represents
(a) slip
(b) rotor current
(c) running torque
(d) line voltage
Ans: b
32. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side ?
(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
(b) Slip-ring induction motor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Ans: d
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following
except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage
Ans: c
41. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to
(a) 0.2 lagging
(b) 0.2 leading
(c) 0.5 leading
(d) unity
Ans: a
43. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the
normal speed, the phenomenon will be termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
Ans: c
45. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motorfor the same H.P. will be
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) same
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: a
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the
motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: c
49. In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and rotor slots is that
(a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots
(c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short circuited rotor will move
(a) in the opposite direction as the direction of the rotating field
(b) in the same direction as the direction of the field
(c) in any direction depending upon phase squence of supply
Ans: b
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) it will run in reverse direction
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) motor takes five to seven times its fullload current
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: c
54. The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble the speedload
characteristics of which of the
following machines
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) universal motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
55. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft
?
(a) Ball bearings
(b) Cast iron bearings
(c) Bush bearings
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
56. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 30% lower than its rated voltage.
The pump runs. What will
eventually happen ? It will
(a) stall after sometime
(b) stall immediately
(c) continue to run at lower speed without damage
(d) get heated and subsequently get damaged
Ans: d
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for the following r.p.m.
Which motor will be the
costliest ?
(a) 730 r.p.m.
(b) 960 r.p.m.
(c) 1440 r.p.m.
(d) 2880 r.p.m.
Ans: a
63. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram for an induction
motor ?
(a) Block rotor test only
(b) No load test only
(c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test
Ans: d
64. In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are placed deep in the rotor
to
(a) improve starting torque
(b) reduce copper losses
(c) improve efficiency
(d) improve power factor
Ans: a
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found from
(a) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only
(c) short-circuit test only
(d) noue of the above
Ans: c
70. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by adding
(a) external inductance to the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor
(c) external capacitance to the rotor
(d) both resistance and inductance to rotor
Ans: b
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on
full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Ans: d
72. The complete circle diagram of induetion motor can be drawn with the help of data
found from
(a) noload test
(6) blocked rotor test
(c) stator resistance test
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually given slight skew
(a) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
(b) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars
(c) to ensure easy fabrication
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
74. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is maximum
(a) at the unit value of slip
(b) at the zero value of slip
75. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of
the induction motor is zero ?
(a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
(b) The rotor will not run
(c) The rotor will run at very high speed
(d) The torque produced will be very large
Ans: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be used to determine
(a) efficiency
(b) power factor
(c) frequency
(d) output
Ans: a
80. Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases exist ?
(a) Air motor
85. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has
(a) high inductance arid low resistance
(b) low inductance and high resistance
(c) low inductance and low resistance
(d) high inductance and high resis¬tance
Ans: a
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an induction motor to develop a given torque
(a) decreases the rotor current
(b) increases the rotor current
(c) rotor current becomes zero
(d) rotor current rernains same
Ans: d
89. For driving high inertia loods best type of induction motor suggested is
(a) slip ring type
(b) squirrel cage type
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
90. Temperature of the stator winding of a three phase induction motor is obtained by
(a) resistance rise method
(b) thermometer method
(c) embedded temperature method
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor where
(a) high starting torque is required
(b) load torque is heavy
(c) heavy pull out torque is required
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
100. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by
(a) increasing slip
(b) increasing current
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in series with
the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement between starting and running
winding can be nearly
(a) 10°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque ?
(a) Capacitor start motor
(b) Capacitor run motor
(c) Split phase motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power factor ?
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced by the use of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to dis- connect 'starting winding when motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed
(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque, then which of the
following motor will be
preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor will be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is found to be
ground. Most probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on to supply with its
capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the
connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest starting torque ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing and control
purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running purposes is
(a) air capacitor
(b) paper spaced oilfilled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C. supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: a
44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is generally used in time
phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
(b) Capacitor start capacitor run
(c) Shaded pole
(d) Universal
Ans: c
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the motor is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs more attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
(d) Balancing of rotor
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will be around
(a) 100 to 150 W
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor starting torque ?
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power factor will be low
because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by reversing the flow
of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations therefore
these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load whenever switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors
(c) Pistol drills
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of synchronous speed of
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is similar to that of a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel to the shaft
because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: b
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load increases with speed ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Three-phase series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor at about ____
percent of synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the most likely defect is
(a) worn bearings
(b) short-circuit in the winding
(c) open-circuit in the winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor where frequent
reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rush¬ing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small
home air-conditioners
because
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost non-destructible capacitor
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high power factor
(d) it is quiet in operation
Ans: c
86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two capacitors fails to
open then
(a) motor will not come upto speed
(b) motor will not carry the load
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower
Ans: c
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor while it is running we
should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to supply with
reversed connection of main or auxiliary winding
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to supply with reversed
connections of the main winding
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and after motor comes to
rest then connect auxiliary winding to the supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and im-mediately
connect it to supply
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that it cannot maintain
synchronous speed the motor will
(a) become unstable
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors
(d) solidly
Ans: a
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is disconnected from
supply, it continues to run only on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
106. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record players and tape-
recorders because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes of upto 1 W output
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in amplitude and phase
Ans: d
108. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase induction motoris correct
?
(a) It requires only one winding
(b) It can rotate in one direction only
(c) It is self-starting
(d) It is not self-starting
Ans: d
4. SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS
2. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
7. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is likely to occur
?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Ans: a
8. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor suddenly gets
disconnected
(a) the motor stops
(b) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(c) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of a synchronous motor
varies as
(a) V
(b) V312
(c) V2
(d) 1/V
Ans: a
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the load angle
is
(a) zero
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation. Now if the load on
the motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will increase
Ans: d
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes more armature current
because
(a) the increased load has to take more current
(b) the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take more current
(c) the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor current
(d) the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more motor current
Ans: b
19. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor corresponds to operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading
Ans: b
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. £& depends on
(a) d.c. excitation only
(b) speed of the motor
(c) load on the motor
(d) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: a
21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is 6° electrical, its value in
mechanical degrees is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: b
22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
(a) field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) power factor and field current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans: a
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power factor will be
(a) leading
(b) lagging
(c) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value by
(a) changing the load
(b) changing the supply voltage
(c) changing frequency
(d) using brakes
Ans: c
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: c
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the number of poles
are made half, the speed of
the rotor of a synchronous motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
Ans: d
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at the same
speed ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
42. The standard full-load power factor ratings for synchronous motors are
(a) zero or 0.8 leading
(b) unity or 0.8 lagging
(c) unity or 0.8 leading
(d) unity or zero
Ans: c
43. A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to load increases
essentially by increase in
(a) back e.m.f.
(b) armature current
(c) power factor
(d) torque angle
Ans: b
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an equivalent
induction motor. This is mainly
because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Ans: b
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of the following
will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: d
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will usually fall in range
(a) 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
(c) 85 to 95%
(d) 99 to 99.5%
Ans: c
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should have proper
(a) voltage rating
(b) current rating
(c) power factor
(d) speed
Ans: b
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has higher values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the load is increased
three times, its torque angle
becomes approximately
(a) one-third
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) six times
(e) nine times
Ans: c
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called _____ angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound round induction motor
is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator, in polyphase
multipolar synchronous motors
running at full load, is of the order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action, field winding is
66. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing current at lagging
power factor from constant
voltage supply, its field excitation is increased, then its power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
(c) remain constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation operates with such an
excitation that it takes power
at lagging power factor. Now if the applied voltage of the synchronous motor goes down,
the power factor of the
synchronous motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by induction motor action and
connecting field discharge resistance across field, starting and accelerting torque is
produced by
(a) induction motor torque in field winding
(b) induction motor torque in damper winding
(c) eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces
(d) reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the rotor
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
70. If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a constant load is decreased from
its normal value, ignoring effects of armature reaction, it leads to
(a) increase in both armature current and power factor angle
(b) increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature current
(c) increase in both armature current and power factor which is lagging
(d) increase in torque angle but decrease in back e.m.f.
Ans: a
71. When a 3-phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero power factor lagging load,
the armature field affects
the main field in the following way
(a) augments it directly
(b) directly opposes it
(c) cross-magnetises it
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of induction motor
because
(a) stator supply is relieved of responsibility of producing magnetic field
(b) mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted
(c) synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed
(d) synchronous motor has large air gap
Ans: a
74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical load and drawing current at a
leading power factor from
constant voltage supply its field excitation is increased, its power factor
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When the load is increased,
the armature current drawn
by it increases because
(a) speed of the motor is reduced
(b) power factor is decreased
(c) Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied voltage)
(d) Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is increased
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole synchronous motor gets suddenly open-
circuited, then
(a) it runs at a slower speed
(b) the motor stops
(c) it continues to run at the same speed
(d) it runs at a very high speed
Ans: b
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor fields rotate simultaneously ?
(a) D.C. motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
(e) Induction motor
Ans: d
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to pull into
synchronism after applying D.C. field
current ?
(a) High field current
(b) Low short circuit ratio
(c) High core losses
(d) Low field current
Ans: d
84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed depends on all of the
following except
(a) rotor excitation
(b) maximum value of coupling angle
(c) direction of rotation
(d) supply voltage
Ans: c
85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence exists when the motor
is
(a) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(b) under-loaded
(c) over-loaded
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on leading power factor will be
(a) more than the supply voltage
(b) less than the supply voltage
(c) equal to the supply voltage
Ans: a
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running with normal
excitation is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(6) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor
Ans: c
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the direction of its field current
is reversed
(a) the motor will stop
(b) the motor continue to run in the same direction
(c) the winding of the motor will burn
(d) the motor will run in the reverse direction
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a synchronous motor can be
changed to new fixed value ?
(a) By changing the supply frequency
(b) By interchanging any two phases
(c) By changing the applied voltage
98. In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency, pole number and load
torque all are halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 3000 r.p.m.
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
(c) 750 r.p.m.
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at constant full load, 100%
excitation and unity power fac
tor. On changing the excitation only, the armature current will have
(a) no change of power factor
(b) lagging power factor with over-excitation
(c) leading power factor with under-excitation
(d) leading power factor with over-excitation
Ans: d
101. In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in the armature at noload is
approximately equal to the applied voltage, then
(a) the motor is said to be fully loaded
(b) the torque generated is maximum
(c) the excitation is said to be zero per cent
(d) the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
Ans: d
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power factor will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
Ans: c
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing
its synchronism, is known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pull-out torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque
Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not vary with load?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Copper losses
(c) Any of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core surface in a
synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous motor is usually about
(a) one hour
(b) one minute
(c) one second
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous motor will pull into
synchronism at rated rotor
supply voltage and frequency is known as
(a) pull-up torque
(b) pull-in torque
(c) pull-out torque
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor is open circuited,
the motor will
(a) stop
(b) run as induction motor
(c) function as static condenser
(d) burn with dense smoke
Ans: a
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop at rest for any
angular position of the rotor, at rated
stator supply voltage and frequency, is known as
(a) locked-rotor torque
(b) synchronous torque
(c) pull up torque
(d) reluctance torque
Ans: a
118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as the angle
between the
(a) rotor and stator teeth
(b) rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
(c) rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
119. If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the supply is running on no load
and is having negligible loss
then
(a) the stator current will be zero
(b) the stator current will be very small
(c) the stator current will be very high
(d) the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and does not drive a
mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
2 are the conductors, which connect the consumer's terminals to the distribution
(a) Distributors
(b) Service mains
(c) Feeders
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
5. If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and depreciation on the capital
outlay is equal to the
annual cost of electrical energy wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost will be
minimum and the corresponding size of conductor will be most economical. This statement
is known as
(a) Kelvin's law
(b) Ohm's law
6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite oil or any preservative compound
have life
(a) from 2 to 5 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Ans: c
7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of
electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Ans: d
11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines ?
13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly
loaded line is called the
(a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt admittance is called the
(a) surge impedance of the line
(b) conductance of the line
(c) regulation of the line
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
15. Which of the following is the demerit of a 'constant voltage transmission system' ?
(a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system
(b) Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line terminals
(c) Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of higher terminal
reactances
(d) Improvement of power factor at times of moderate and heavy loads
(e) Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size in case of long-
distance heavy power
transmission
Ans: a
20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables ?
(a) Direct laying
(b) Draw-in-system
(c) Solid system
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
(b) losses in the conductor
(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings
(d) All of the above
Ans:
22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too hot ?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and lowest in first cost
?
(a) Radial system
(b) Ring system
(c) Inter-connected system
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator
(b) shunt wound generator
(c) synchronous generator
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following methods is employed for
solution of network problems
in interconnected system ?
(a) Circulating current method
(b) Thevenin's theorem
(c) Superposition of currents
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is
(a) lead
(b) paper
(c) rubber
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
Ans: b
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Ans: c
44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is approximately equal to
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
Ans: c
46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are cross-connected in order to
(a) boost the generated voltage
(b) balance loads on both sides of the neutral
(c) make both machine^ run as unloaded motors
(d) equalize voltages on the positive and negative outers
Ans: d
47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
(b) both balancers run as motors
(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor
(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor
Ans: c
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire feeder is
increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
(d) 100 percent
Ans: b
49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. As
compared to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the middle point is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-half
(d) twice
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same maximum
voltage to earth uses only
(a) 31.25 percent of copper
(b) 33.3 percent of copper
(c) 66.7 percent of copper
(d) 125 percent of copper
Ans: a
57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission lines ?
(a) Steel cored aluminium
58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators ?
(a) Quartz
(b) Kaolin
(c) Felspar
(d) Silica
Ans: d
63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for transmission lines
67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle
(b) triangle
(c) ellipse
(d) catenary
Ans: d
68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is
(a) insulin
(b) bitumen
(c) varnish
(d) no insulation is required
Ans: d
75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary ?
(a) Circuit breakers
(b) Isolators
(c) Load break switch
(d) Circuit breakers and load break switches
Ans: b
77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around the conductor
exceeds
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) 30 kV (maximum v^lue)/cm
Ans: d
78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is compensated by installing
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
(c) synchronous motors
(d) all of above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are
(a) dead ended
(b) at intermediate anchor towers
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the transmission voltage should
be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Ans: a
84. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors have higher values
except
(a) specific volume
(6) electrical conductivity
(c) co-efficient of linear expansion
(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section
Ans: b
85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution feeder,
will be most economical ?
(a) Static condenser
(b) Synchronous condenser
(c) Tap changing transformer
(d) Booster transformer
Ans: d
90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should
be in the range
(a) 150 to 220 kV
(b) 100 to 120 kV
(c) 60 to 100 kV
(d) 20 to 50 kV
Ans: a
91. In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected ?
(a) Short transmission lines
(b) Medium transmission lines
(c) Long transmission lines
(d) Medium as well as long transmission lines
Ans: a
92. When the interconnector between two stations has large reactance
94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar voltage will
(a) fall
(b) rise
(c) remain unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
95. The angular displacement between two interconnected stations is mainly due to
(a) armature reactance of both alternators
(b) reactance of the interconnector
(c) synchronous reactance of both the alternators
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the load VAR
requirement is
(a) large
(b) small
(b) fluctuating
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage regulator is effected by
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) varying the reactance
(d) variable transformer
Ans: c
99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, it is due
to
(a) permeability variation
(b) corona
(c) skin effect
(d) unsymmetrical fault
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
102. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth
which of the following will happen ?
(a) Current will flow to earth
(b) Supply voltage will drop
(c) Supply voltage will increase
(d) No current will flow in the conductor
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
5. B. DC GENERATORS
4. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
5. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
30. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced
by one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
31. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride
(b) Vulcanised rubber
(c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
52. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient 'draw in system'
of laying of underground cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
56. The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead alloy or of aluminium.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is
known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of
the system will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
(b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
Ans: b
10. A car is running at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback
element for the driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
11. The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following
?
(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern
(d) Input pattern
Ans: b
17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a
path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments ?
(a) Vernistats
(b) Microsyns
(c) Resolvers
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not
decrease ?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain
changes and load disturbances depend ?
(a) Frequency
(b) Loop gain
(c) Forward gain
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?
(a) The time constant of the system
(b) Damping of the system
(c) The gain of the system
(d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop system ?
(a) All the co-efficients can have zero value
(6) All the co-efficients are always non-zero
(c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to
unity or a phase margin close to zero ?
(a) The system is relatively stable
(b) The system is highly stable
(c) The system is highly oscillatory
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should
be avoided ?
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
Ans: d
38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered
analogous to
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) capacitance
(d) charge
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to
(a) head
(b) liquid flow
(c) liquid flow rate
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
52 signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled
variable is known as
(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
(a) Ramp input signal
(b) Sinusoidal input signal
(c) Unit impulse input signal
(d) Exponentially decaying signal
Ans: c
64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following?
(a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
(b) Laplace Transform
(c) Fourier Integral
(d) Either (b) or (c)
Ans: a
66. Static error co-efficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop
systems for specified ________ input signal.
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) position
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit
_______ function.
(a) parabolic
(b) ramp
(c) impulse
(d) step
Ans: b
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains below a
certain level for all the time, the system is
(a) not necessarily stable
(b) stable
(c) unstable
(d) always unstable
(e) any of the above
Ans: a
75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient
response ?
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?
(a) Frequency response
(b) Absolute stability
(c) Relative stability
(d) Time response
Ans: c
79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following
compensators may be used ?
(a) Phase-lead
(b) Phase-lag
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) and (b)
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ?
(a) Low-level oscillations
(b) High-level oscillations
(c) Conditional stability
(d) Overdamping
Ans: a
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element
converts
(a) pressure signal to electric signal
(b) pressure signal to position change
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
(d) position change to pressure signal
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the
system is
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(b) working normally with reference input
(c) working normally with zero reference input
(d) at rest but stores energy
Ans: d
96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
(a) oscillatory
(b) critically damped
(c) overdamped
(d) underdamped
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady state error
(a) increases
(b) minimizes
(c) does not have any effect on
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
102. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the
following conditions ? (a) Systems having complexities and non-linearities
(b) Systems having stability problems
(c) Systems having multiple input dis¬turbances
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
(a) small bandwidth
(b) negative time constant
(c) large negative transfer function pole
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
6. In induction motors, the length of air gap in kept as small as mechanically possible is
order to have
(a) low power factor
(b) high power factor
(c) high over load capacity
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
7. In ______ machines, the size of the shaft is decided by the critical speed which depends
on the deflection of the shaft.
(a) small
(b) medium
(c) large
(d) any of the above.
Ans: c
8. The length cf air gap to be provided in ______ is primarily determined by power factor
consideration.
(a) d.c. series motor .
(b) d.c. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) synchronous motor
Ans: c
10. Electrical machines having power outputs ranging from a few kW upto approximately
250 kW may be classified as
(a) small size machines
(b) medium size machines
(c) large size machines
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: b
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
11. Commercial available medium size machines have a speed range of ______ .
(a) 200 to 400 r.p.m.
(b) 600 to 1000 r.p.m.
(c) 1000 to 1500 r.p.m.
(d) 2000 to 2500 r.p.m.
Ans: d
12. The action of electromagnetic machines can be related to which ofthe following basic
principles ?
(a) Induction
(b) Interaction
(c) Alignment
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
13. The change in flux linkages can be caused in which ofthe following ways ?
(a) The flux is constant with respect to time and is stationary and the coil moves through
it
(b) The coil is stationary with respect to flux and the flux varies in magnitude with
respect to time
(c) Both the changes mentioned above occure together, i.e., the coil moves through a time
varying field
(d) All ofthe above
Ans: d
15. Aluminium when adopted as a conductor material in ______ transformers, decreases the
overall cost of the transformer
(a) small size
(b) medium size
(c) large size
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
16. Which ofthe following materials is used in the manufacture of resistance grids to be
used in the starters of large motors ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Cast-iron
Ans: d
18. ________ has a lowrelative permeability and is used principally in field frames when cost
is of primary importance and extra weight is not objectionable.
(a) Cast steel
(b) Aluminium
(c) Soft steel
(d) Cast iron
Ans: d
19 ______is extensively used for those portions of magnetic circuit which carry steady flux
and need superior mechanical properties ?
(a) Grey cast-iron
(b) Cast steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Stainless steel
Ans: b
Ans: b
21. The heated parts of an electrical machine dissipate heat into their surroundings by
which of the following modes of heat dissipation ?
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) All ofthe above
Ans: d
22. The heat dissipated by from a surface depends upon its temperature and its
characteristics like colour, roughness etc.
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: c
25. Which ofthe following methods is used for air cooling of turbo-alternators ?
(a) One sided axial ventilation
(b) Two sided axial ventilation
(c) Multiple inlet system
(d) All ofthe above
Ans: d
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
26. Multiple inlet system of air cooling of turbo-alternators can be used for machines of
rating upto
(a) 10 MW
(b) 30 MW
(c) 60 MW
(d) 150 MW
Ans: c
29. Hydrogen has a heat transfer co-efficient _____ times that of air
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 4.5
Ans: a
31. With conventional hydrogen cooling it is possible to increase the rating of a single unit
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
to
(a) 50 MW
(b) 100 MW
(c) 200 MW
(d) none ofthe above
Ans: c
32. The noise produced by a ______ cooled machine is less as the rotor moves in a medium
of smaller density.
(a) air
(b) hydrogen
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
33 cooling is the process of dissipating the armature and field winding losses to a cooling
medium circulating within the winding insulation wall
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Conventional
(d) Any ofthe above
Ans: a
35. In direct cooled system using hydrogen both stator and rotor conductors are made
(a) solid
(b) hollow
(c) perforated
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: b
(b) 300 MW
(c) 400 MW
(d) 600 MW
Ans: d
39. The time taken by the machine to attain 0.632 of its final steady temperature rise is
called
(a) heating time constant
(b) cooling time constant
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
40. In self cooled motors the cooling time constant is about ______ than the heating time
constant because cooling conditions are worse at standstill.
(a) 2 to 3 times greater
(b) 3 to 4 times greater
(c) 4 to 5 times greater
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
41. By which of the following methods motor rating for variable load drives can be
determined ?
(a) Method of average losses
(b) Equivalent current method
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
42. Which of the following methods does not take into account the maximum temperature
rise under variable load conditions ?
(a) Equivalent power method
(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Method of average losses
(d) Equivalent torque method
Ans: c
44. By which of the following methods the temperature rise of windings and other parts
may be determined ?
(a) Thermometer method
(6) Resistance method
(c) Embedded temperature detector method
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
45. The slot leakage can be calculated by making which of the following assumptions ?
(a) The current in the slot conductors is uniformly distributed over their cross-section
(b) The leakage path is straight across the slot and around the iron at the bottom
(c) The permanence of air paths is only considered. The reluctance of iron paths is
assumed as zero
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
46. The value of exciting or magnetizing current depends upon which of the following
factors ?
(a) Total m.m.f. required
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
51. The design of electromagnets is based upon which of the following fundamental
equations ?
(a) Force equation
(b) Magnetic circuit equation
(c) Heating equation
(d) Voltage equation
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
52. When the two coil sides forming a coil are spaced exactly one pole pitch apart they are
said to be of
(a) short pitch
(b) full pitch
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
54. The distance between the starts of two consecutive coils measured in terms of coil
sides is called
(a) front pitch
(b) winding pitch
(c) commutator pitch
(d) back pitch
Ans: b
55. The winding where dummy coils are used is sometimes called
(a) duplex winding
(b) triplex winding
(c) forced winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
59. In transformers using hot rolled steel, the cross-section of the yoke is made about _____
greater than that of the core
(a) 5 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 15 percent
(d) 30 percent
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
61. The cold rolled grain oriented steel has ______ permeability in the direction of the
grain orientation.
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) nil
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
64. Multi-layer helical windings are commonly used in the transformers as high voltage
windings
(a) upto 20 kV
(b) upto 50 kV
(c) upto 80 kV
(d) for 110 kV and above
Ans: d
66. The heat dissipating capability of transformers of ratings higher than 30 kVA in
increased by providing which of the following ?
(a) Corrugations
(b) Fins
(c) Tubes
(d) Radiator tanks
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
67. Transformers with a capacity of upto _____ have a cooling radiator system with natural
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
cooling
(a) 2 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 7.5 MVA
(d) 10 MVA
Ans: d
68. The forced oil and air circulation method is usual one for transformers of capacities
(a) upto 5 MVA
(b) upto 10 MVA
(c) upto 20 MVA
(d) 30 MVA upwards
Ans: d
70. The voltage control in electric supply networks in required on account of which of the
following reasons ?
(a) Adjustment of voltage at consumers premises within statutory limits
(b) Control of active and reactive power
(c) Adjustment of short period daily and seasonal voltage variations in accordance with
variations of load
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
72. The usual values of maximum flux densities for distribution transformers using hot
rolled silicon steel are
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
73. For 275 kV transformers, using cold rolled grain oriented steel, which of the following
values of flux density may be used?
(a) 1.0 Wb/m2
(b) 1.1 Wb/m2
(c) 1.3 Wb/m2
(d) 1.6 Wb/m2
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
74. For large power transformers, self oil cooled type or air blast type which of the
following values of current density may be used ?
(a) 1.0 to 1.2 A/mm2
(b) 1.5 to 2.0 A/mm2
(c) 2.2 to 3.2 A/mm2
(d) 3.2 to 4.2 A/mm2
Ans: c
75. A current density of _____ is ilsed for large power transformers with forced circulation
of oil or with water cooling coils
(a) 1.5 to 2.5 A/mm2
(b) 3.5 to 4.5 A/mm2
(c) 4.0 to 5.0 A/mm2
(d) 5.4 to 6.2 A/mm2
Ans: d
76. The high voltage winding is usually which of the following type ?
(a) Cylindrical winding with circular conductors
(b) Cross-over winding with either circular or small rectangular conductors
(c) Continuous disc type winding with rectangular conductors
(d) All of the above types
Ans: d
77. Which of the following is the basic consideration in the design of insulation ?
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
78. A practical formula for determining the thickness of insulation between low voltage
and high voltage windings is
(a) 1 + 0.2 kVmm
(6) 2 + 0.5 kVmm
(c) 4 + 0.7 kV mm
(d) 5 + 0.9 kV mm
Ans: d
79. The insulation between windings and grounded core and the insulation between the
windings of the same phase is called
(a) minor insulation
(b) major insulation
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
80. The cylindrical windings using circular conductors are used for current rating of
(a) upto 20 A
(b) upto 40 A
(c) upto 60 A
(d) upto 80 A
Ans: d
85. The laminations of the armature of a D.C. machine are usually _____ thick.
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.3 mm
(c) 0.3 to 0.4 mm
(d) 0.4 to 0.5 mm
Ans: d
87. ______ brushes are fragile and cause excessive wear of commutator,
(a) Natural graphite
(b) Hard carbon
(c) Electro graphitic
(d) Metal graphite
Ans: a
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
88. Which of the following brushes can be used for high values of current density ?
(a) Metal graphite brushes
(b) Hard carbon brushes
(c) Electro-graphitic brushes
(d) Natural graphite brushes
Ans: a
90. Which of the following problem arises in D.C. motors which are fed from thyristor
bridge circuits ?
(a) Increased I R losses
(b) Increased core losses
(c) Poor commutation
(d) Change in motor parameters
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
91. The weight of copper of both armature and field windings decreases with _____ in
number of poles.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
92. In a D.C. machine the number of brush arms is _____ the number of poles.
(a) less than
(b) equal to
(c) greater than
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
93. In a D.C. machine the current per brush arm should not be more than
(a) 100 A
(6) 200 A
(e) 300 A
(d) 400 A
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. machine, the value of peripheral speed should not, normally, exceed
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 30 m/s
(d) 40 m/s
Ans: c
96. D.C. machines designed with a large value of air gap length have
(a) worst, ventilation
(b) poor ventilation
(c) better ventilation
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
97. In D.C. machines, ir order to prevent excessive distortion of field form by the armature
reaction, the field mmf must be made
(a) equal to that of armature mmf
(b) less in comparison with the arma¬ture mmf
(c) large in comparison with the arma-ture mmf
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
98. In D.C. machines, the ____ in field mmf results in increase in size and cost of machines.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani, Asst Professor, Dept of EEE, GCE, Bargur
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
99. The operation of a D.C. machine with large air gap lengths is comparatively
(a) quiet
(b) noisy
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
100. Which of the following methods may be adopted to reduce the effects of armature
reaction ?
(a) Increase in length of air gap at pole tips
(b) Increasing reluctance of pole tips
(c) Compensating windings
(d) Interpoles
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
102. In D.C. machines the number of slots per pole usually lies
(a) between 2 to 4
(b) between 6 to 8
(c) between 9 to 16
(d) between 20 to 30
Ans: c
ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY
ELECTROSTATICS
1. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled,
the force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Ans: b
2. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is 200 N/C. If
the distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C
(b) 600 N/C
(c) 800 N/C
(d) 1200 N/C
Ans: c
Ans: b
4. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is
(a) proportional to d
(b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
5. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .
(a) away from the charge
(b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
7. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the existence
of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) electric field
Ans: d
8. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the
capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Ans: b
19. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the
circuit because
(a) varying voltage produces the charg¬ing and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Ans: a
20. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times
greater than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ?
(a) 50
(6) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Ans: b
23. "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
amount oflcharge enclosed".
The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb's square law
(b) Gauss's law
(c) Maxwell's first law
(d) Maxwell's second law
Ans: b
24. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Ans: c
25. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor
remains unaffected ?
(a) Distance between plates
(b) Area of the plates
(c) Nature of dielectric
(d) Thickness of the plates
Ans: d
27. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
(c) E = jtD
(d) E= nD2
Ans: a
29. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil
Ans: c
30. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Silver plated mica capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
32. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
33. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
34. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) zero
Ans: c
37. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference
between plates will
(a) remain uncharged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) become zero
Ans: b
44. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF
Ans: b
45. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong con¬nections,
which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any-of the above
Ans: c
46. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of
voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Ans: a
50. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Ans: d
52. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts
Ans: c
53. While testing a capacitor with ohm-metre, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final
resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Ans: d
55. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Both will be of equal size
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
56. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF
condenser to make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF
Ans: b
57. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions.
Which will have more value of capacitance ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied voltage
Ans: a
58. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper
Ans: b
59. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
63. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ?
(a) Air capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Paper capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
66. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic disc capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
67. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a
distance of 0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
69. "The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any
closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface".
The above statement is associated with
(a) Gauss's law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) Faraday's law
(d) Lenz's law
Ans: a
75. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceramic
Ans: b
78. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the
material of high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
81. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the in¬ternal
diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
Ans: b
82. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential
difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
(d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
Ans: d
85. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a
charged body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Ans: d
87. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is
called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge density
Ans: a
89. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
(a) Faraday's laws
(b) Kirchhoff s laws
(c) Coulomb's laws
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
90. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit
cross section at that point.
(a) Electric intensity
(6) Magnetic flux density
(c) Electric flux
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
91. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point.
(a) electric flux
(b) magnetic flux density
(c) potential gradient
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
92. Electric displacement is a______quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
97. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Potential gradient
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
98. A capacitance of 100 fiF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 £2. The time
constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s
Ans: d
100. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor
charging voltage actually rises to ______ percent of its______value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 63.2, initial
(c) 63.2, final
(d) 37, final
Ans: c
101. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the
charging current falls to ______ percent of its initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 73
Ans: a
106. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown
voltage is applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Ans: c
112. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien's bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay's bridge
Ans: c
113. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor
is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactory
Ans: b
114. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest
dimensions ?
(a) Aluminium foil capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: c
116. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the
(a) charge of the charged conductor
(6) capacity of the charged conductor
(c) potential of the charged conductor
(d) all of the above
Ans: b
117. Paper condenser is
(a) always polarised
(6) usually of fixed value
(c) electrolytic condenser
(d) a variable condenser
Ans: b
119. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4 mm apart. The
strength of electric field is
(a) 100 kV/m
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
(d) 2 kV/m
Ans: a
123. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor
(b) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Mica capacitor
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
126. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges,
then this third charge will
(a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges
(b) remain in stable equilibrium
(c) not be in equilibrium
(d) be in unstable equilibrium
Ans: b
130. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a
force of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulomb
Ans: b
132. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close
together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be
(a) 5 times smaller than before
(b) 5 times greater than before
(c) 10 times greater than before
(d) 25 times larger than before
Ans: d
1. Tesla is a unit of
(a) field strength
(b) inductance
(c) flux density
(d) flux
Ans: c
Ans: b
19. A conductor of length L has current I passing through it, when it is placed parallel to a
magnetic field. The force experienced by the conductor will be
(a) zero
(b) BLI
(c) B2LI
(d) BLI2
Ans: a
20. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional to
(a) radius of conductors
(b) current in one conductor
(c) product of current in two conduc¬tors
(d) distance between the conductors
Ans: d
22. Indicate which of the following material does not retain magnetism permanently.
(a) Soft iron
(b) Stainless steel
(e) Hardened steel
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
27. Substances which have permeability less than the permeability of free space are known
as
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) bipolar
Ans: c
28. Two infinitely long parallel conductors in vacuum anf' separated 1 metre between
centres >rhen a current of 1 ampere flows thn. ugh each conductor, produce on each otLer
a force of
(a) 2 x 1(T2 N/m)
(b) 2 x KT3 N/m
(c) 2 x 10"5 N/m
(d) 2x 1(T7 N/m)
Ans: d
33. The working of a meter is based on the use of a permanent magnet. In order to protect
the meter functioning from stray magnetic fields
(a) meter is surrounded by strong magnetic fields
(b) a soft iron shielding is used
(c) a plastic shielding is provided
(d) a shielding of anon-magnetic material is used
Ans: b
37. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been removed is known as
(a) permeance
(b) residual magnetism
(c) susceptance
(d) reluctance
Ans: b
42. Out of the following statements, concerning an electric field, which statement is not true
?
(a) The electric intensity is a vector quantity
(b) The electric field intensity at a point is numerically equal to the force exerted upon a
charge placed at that point
(c) An electric field is defined as a point in space at which an electric charge would
experienc* a force
(d) Unit field intensity in the exertion of a force of one newton on a charge of one
coulomb
Ans: b
43. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the induced e.m.f. does not depend upon
(a) resistance of the coil
(b) motion of the magnet
(c) number of turns of the coil
(d) pole strength of the magnet
Ans: a
46. When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the terminals of a battery, the
field at the centre of the circle
(a) will be zero
(b) will be infinite
(c) will depend on the amount of e.m.f. applied
(d) will depend on the radius of the circle
Ans: d
48. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are separated by 20 mm,
the force per metre of length of each conductor will be
(a) 100 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 1 N
(d) 0.1 N
Ans: d
49. A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a current of 10 A and is situated at right angles to
a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T ; the force on the conductor will be
(a) 240 N
(6) 24 N
(c) 2.4 N
(d) 0.24 N
Ans: c
50. A 200 turn coil having an axial length of 30 mm and a radius of 10 mm is pivoted in a
magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T. If the coil carries a current of 0.5 A, the torque
acting on the coil will be
(a) 4.8 N-m
(b) 0.48 N-m
(e) 0.048 N-m
(d) 0.0048 N-m
[Hint. Torque = 2BIlNr N-m]
Ans: c
51. The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of 1A flows through the coil. If the length
of the magnet circuit is 200 mm, what is the magnetic field strength ?
(a) 2500 AT/m
(b) 250 AT/m
(c) 25 AT/m
(d) 2.5 AT/m
Ans: b
52. What is the magnitude and the direction of force per 1.1m length of a pair of conductors
of a direct current linecarrying 10 amperes and spaced 100 mm apart ?
(a) 22 x 10"8 N
(b) 22 x 10"7 N
(c) 22 x 10-6 N
(d) 22 x 10"5 N
Ans: d
53. A square cross-sectional magnet has a pole strength of 1 x 10 Wb and cross sectional
area of 20 mm x 20 mm. What is the strength at a distance of 100 mm from the unit pole in
air ?
(a) 63.38 N/Wb
(b) 633.8 N/Wb
(c) 6338 N/Wb
(d) 63380 N/Wb
Ans: c
61. The most effective and quickest may of making a magnet from soft iron is by
(a) placing it inside a coil carrying current
(b) induction
(c) the use of permanent magnet
(d) rubbing with another magnet
Ans: a
63. If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended magnetic needle, the
magnetic needle shall start rotating with a velocity
(a) less than that of disc but in opposite direction
(b) equal to that of disc and in the same direction
(c) equal to that of disc and in the opposite direction
(d) less than that of disc and in the same direction
Ans: d
67. The materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than air.
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) dielectric
Ans: c
68. Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard materials is more in shape as compared to
magnetically soft materials.
(a) circular
(b) triangular
(c) rectangular
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
69. A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two piece of same length, the
magnetic moment of each piece will be
(a) M
(6) M/2
(c) 2 M
(d) M/4
Ans: b
72. The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will affect
(a) reluctance of conductor
(b) resistance of conductor
(c) (a) and (b) b >th in the same way
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
75. What will be the current passing through the ring shaped air cored coil when number of
turns is 800 and ampere turns are 3200 ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
76. What will be the magnetic potential difference across the air gap of 2 cm length in
magnetic field of 200 AT/m ?
(a) 2 AT
(b) 4 AT
(c) 6 AT
(d) 10 AT
Ans: b
78. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with fixed number of
turns. How does the mag
netic induction B varies inside the coil if an iron core is threaded into coil without
dimensional change of coil ?
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains same
(d) First increases and then decreases depending on the depth of iron in¬sertion
Ans: b
82. How does the magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field ?
(a) It assures a position right angle to magnetic field
(b) It starts rotating
(c) It assures a position which follows a line of magnetic flux
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
87. Which of the following type of materials are not very important for engineering
applications ?
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
89. For which of the following materials the saturation value is the highest ?
(a) Ferromagnetic materials
(6) Paramagnetic materials
(c) Diamagnetic materials
(d) Ferrites
Ans: d
91. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero ?
(a) Diamagnetic materials
(b) Ferrimagnetic materials
(c) Antiferromagnetic materials
(d) Antiferrimagnetic materials
Ans: c
MAGNETIC CIRCUIT
Ans: c
Ans: d
9. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores
which have____permeability and_______hystersis loss.
(a) high, high
(b) low, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: c
11. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
(a) time constant remains unchanged
(b) initial rate of rise of current is doubled
(c) final steady current is doubled
(d) time constant is halved
Ans: a
12. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly
connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is_______Vs
(a) 50
(b) 20
(c) 0.05
(d) 500
Ans: b
16. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which
have______retentivity and _______coercivity.
(a) low, high
(b) high, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: b
17. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the hysteresis loss in this material
will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) large
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
21. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
(a) reluctivity
(b) magnetomotive force
(c) permeance
(d) reluctance
Ans: d
24. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared
with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
(a) E.m.f.
(b) Current
(c) Current density
(d) Conductivity
Ans: b
26. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
(a) ferrites have high resistance
(b) ferrites are magnetic
(c) ferrites have low permeability
(d) ferrites have high hysteresis
Ans: d
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through
the coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
Ans: c
3. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Ans: a
4. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase
(c) when more area for each turn is provided
(d) when permeability of the core increases
Ans: a
6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil.
The inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Ans: b
8. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Ans: b
9. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage
Ans: c
15. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is
due to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Ans: b
18. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
21. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current
must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Ans: d
22. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core
length is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the in ductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH
(d)48mH
Ans: a
23. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is
0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12 mH
Ans: c
24. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If
the two coils are connected in series aiding, the total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: b
25. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increased to 400
turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: d
26. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If
the two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Ans: c
27. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling
will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Ans: b
28. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance
is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms
Ans: d
29. A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1
tesla with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V
Ans: c
31. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla.
The force on the conductor will be
nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Ans: b
32. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right
angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Ans: a
33. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
35. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time
interval must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Ans: c
36. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core
Ans: a
37. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of
inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Ans: b
38. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Ans: b
40. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and capacitance
Ans: b
42. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil
is not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
(d) the resistance of magnetic path
Ans: b
43. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:
44. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator
rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
45. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
46. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
47. When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines of flux,
the force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
48. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts
when the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, BARGUR
MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
2. Which of the following instruments indicate the instantaneous value of the electrical quantity
being measured at the time at which it is being measured ?
(a) Absolute instruments
(b) Indicating instruments
(c) Recording instruments
(d) Integrating instruments
Ans: b
3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total quantity of electricity delivered in a
particular time.
(a) Absolute
(b) Indicating
(c) Recording
(d) Integrating
Ans: d
8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter to
reach its final position quickly
(a) deflecting
(b) controlling
(c) damping
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
9. The spring material used in a spring control device should have the following property.
(a) Should be non-magnetic
(b) Most be of low temperature co-efficient
(c) Should have low specific resistance
(d) Should not be subjected to fatigue
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
13. Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments ?
(a) Shunts
(b) Multipliers
(c) Current transformers
(d) Potential transformers
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are used in conjunction with
(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(c) power transformers
(d) either of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
16. Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in
(a) kW
(b) Wh
(c) kWh
(d) VAR
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and industrial
installations are
(a) mercury motor meters
(b) commutator motor meters
(c) induction type single phase energy meters
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuits
(a) Mercury motor meters
(b) Commutator motor meters
(c) Induction meters
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
26. An ammeter is a
(a) secondary instrument
(b) absolute instrument
(c) recording instrument
(d) integrating instrument
Ans: a
35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter should be
(a) almost zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current coil
when
(a) load impedance is high
(b) load impedance is low
(c) supply voltage is low
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
41. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, both the watt meters had
identical readings. The power factor of the load was
(a) unity
(6) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) zero
Ans: a
42. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method the reading of one of the
wattmeter was zero. The power factor of the load must be
(a) unity
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) zero
Ans: b
43. The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an energy meter is done to provide
(a) friction compensation
(b) creep compensation
(c) braking torque
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
44. An ohmmeter is a
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) moving coil instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of ohmmeter, the pointer indicated a low
resistance initially and then slowly came to infinity position. This shows that capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) all right
(c) faulty
Ans: b
51. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C.
voltage ?
(a) Small range moving coil voltmeter
(b) D.C. potentiometer
(c) Small range thermocouple voltmeter
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery. The best device is
(a) D.C. voltmeter
(b) Ammeter and a known resistance
(c) D.C. potentiometer
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
(a) as long as possible
(b) as short as possible
(c) neither too small not too large
(d) very thick
Ans: a
59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply
for the potentiometer in taken
(a) from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
(b) from a battery
(c) from the same source as the unknown voltage
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an A.C. potentiometer
usually has a
(a) single-phase winding
(b) two-phase winding
(c) three-phase winding
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and quadrature
potentiometer are adjusted to be
(a) out of phase by 90°
(6) out of phase by 60°
(c) out of phase by 30°
(d) out of phase by 0°
(e) out of phase by 180°
Ans: a
68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80°, the loss angle of the capacitor is
(a) 10°
(b) 80°
(c) 120°
(d) 170°
Ans: a
69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is
(a) a few volts only
(6) 1 kV
(c) 5 kV
(d) 10 kV
Ans: a
70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can use
(a) magnetic screening
(b) Wagner earthing device
(c) wave filters
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining three
arms
(a) the bridge can always be balanced
(b) the bridge cannot be balanced
(c) the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some specific values
Ans: b
73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have
(a) the same dimensions and the same number of turns
(b) the same dimension but different number of turns
(c) the same number of turns but different dimensions
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase difference between the currents in the two
pressure coils is
(a) exactly 0°
(b) approximately 0°
(c) exactly 90°
(d) approximately 90°
Ans: c
75. In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the two moving coils are at
(a) 0°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: d
76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a
difference of
(a) 0.1 Hz
(b) 0.25 Hz
(c) 0.5 Hz
(d) 1.5 Hz
Ans: c
77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed coils are
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) inclined at 60°
(d) inclined at 120°
Ans: b
82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the instruments available are
(a) one voltmeter and one ammeter
(b) one voltmeter, one ammetqr and one wattmeter
(c) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale deviation of the instrument is
called
(a) static sensitivity
(b) dynamic deviation
(c) linearity
(d) precision or accuracy
Ans: c
91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it follows
(a) square law
(b) logarithmic law
(c) uniform law
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because current is proportional to
(a) balancing weight
(b) deflection angle
(c) sine of deflection angle
Ans: c
106. Two holes in the disc of energymeter are drilled at the opposite sides of the spindle to
(a) improve its ventilation
(b) eliminate creeping at no load
(c) increase its deflecting torque
(d) increase its braking tcrque
Ans: b