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By raising his hands, G.E. Moore claims to have proven the existence of an
external world in his Proof of an External World. This proof, he claims, satisfies
three necessary conditions for a rigorous proof. I will explain the proof and its
critically evaluate Moores arguments for the proof satisfying these conditions, and
how the Cartesian sceptic might response to this. Consequently, I will argue that
Moores proof is not a convincing proof of the external world, that is does not provide
a compelling response to the Cartesian sceptic, and that Moore does indeed beg the
I will briefly explain G.E. Moores proof and his three conditions for a
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(3): The conclusion must follow from the premise (Moore, 1993, p. 166).
his proof as being perfectly rigorous, and that a better or more rigorous proof cannot
I will now critically evaluate Moores arguments for the proof satisfying these
conditions, and how the Cartesian sceptic might respond to this. I think that
condition (3) is good because it makes a proof valid. Moore argues that his proof
meets condition (3). He claims that if he were to change his premise to here is one
hand and here is another now, then it follows that there are two hands in existence
now (Moore, 1993, p. 167). It seems here that the Cartesian sceptic would not be
able to respond because Moores proof does appear to satisfy (3) (C) does follow on
I think that condition (2) is also good because it makes a proof sound as (2)
states the truth of the premise is required. Moore further claims that his proof
satisfies (2) by arguing that he knows (P2) to be true and says that it would be
absurd to suggest that I did not know it, but only believed it (Moore, 1993, p.
166). The Cartesian sceptic could ask how does he actually know (P2)? And proceed
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(C): Therefore, I cannot be sure that I have two hands (Preston, 2004).
conclusive evidence that he is awake, this is a very different thing from being
able to prove it (Moore, 1993, p. 169). However, Moore could respond to the
argument whilst keeping (P1) the same. This is called the Moore shift and appears
as:
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(C): Therefore, I can tell the difference between waking and dreaming
(Preston, 2004).
Both arguments are valid because the conclusion follows logically from the
premises. However, only one of these arguments can be sound because if one
premise for example (P2) is true, the other (P2) must be false. Moore would
suggest that we would have more reason to believe in (P2) than in (P2) because
(P2) seems more plausible than the plausibility of hyperbolic doubt that we are
sceptics use to prove (P2) (Preston, 2004). This comparative plausibility, I think,
gives Moores proof some weight, but ultimately means that condition (2) is
unsatisfied because Moore concedes to not being able to prove that he knows (P2) to
be true.
different from a conclusion, but still presuppose the conclusion. Condition (1)
therefore will make the proof less convincing because begging the question doesnt
further the proof. Moore argues that his proof satisfies (1) because his premise is
more specific than his conclusion (Moore, 1993, p. 166). Which is correct, (P1) and
(P2) are more specific than, and different to (C). Hence, (1) is satisfied. However, the
problem with (1), the Cartesian sceptic may argue, is there are examples which
meet condition (1) but seem to beg the question. Take the example here:
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Clearly, this meets condition (1) because (P1) and (P2) are more specific and
different from (C). However, it seems that this argument begs the question
because the statement philosophy is fun is in both (P1) and (C). It seems like
both this example, and Moores proof presuppose the conclusion in the premise.
I will argue why Moores proof is not a convincing proof. It could be argued
that Moore is not trying prove his knowledge of the existence of the external world,
but rather, he is trying to prove the existence of an external world (Baldwin, 2010).
That means that (P2) is simply just known, meaning condition (2) is satisfied.
However, this does not make it a convincing proof of the external world. This is
because he still presupposes (C) in (P1), even though (2) is met and the proof is
Finally, I will argue that this proof is not a compelling response to the
Cartesian sceptic, and that he does indeed beg the question against the Cartesian
sceptic because in the Moore shift, the factor that determines which premise is more
plausible is intuition. That is, a person such as a Cartesian sceptic could find
more reason to believe in the plausibility of (P2) than that of (P2). For a Cartesian
sceptic, this is already intuitively more plausible as they take hyperbolic doubt
seriously. Hence, this is not a compelling response because it will not change the
Cartesian sceptics view. Even if we accept that (P2) is true, there still exists the
problem of (P1) presupposing (C), which ultimately means that Moore does indeed
This essay has explained Moores proof of an external world and the
conditions he presents that make his proof a rigorous proof. I have critically
evaluated Moores arguments for the proof satisfying these conditions, and how the
evaluation, that Moores proof is not a convincing proof of an external world, that it
does not provide a compelling response to the Cartesian sceptic and Moore does
Baldwin, T. (2010). George Edward Moore. (E. N. Zalta, Editor) Retrieved April 24,
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/moore/
Preston, A. (2004). George Edward Moore (18731958). Retrieved April 25, 2016,
http://www.iep.utm.edu/moore/#SH2d