NFT QP Ii Merge

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
NARAYANA FULL TEST 6 PAPER II

Exam Date : 16-01-2011
Time : 3 hours Max i mum ma rks : 2 43
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and

A. General: STATEMENT-2 is the correct
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 explanation of STATEMENT-1.
questions. The booklet has 23 pages. Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right STATEMENT-2 is NOT the correct
hand top corner of this booklet. explanation of STATEMENT-1.
3. Black papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and
calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and
be carried inside the examination hall. STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective 14. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon
Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A),
OR THE BOOKLET. (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct.
6. Do not break the seals of the question-paper 15. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question
booklet before being instructed to do so by the contains statements given in 2 columns.
invigilators. Statements in the first column have to be matched
with statements in the second column. The
B. Filling the ORS answers to these questions have to be
7. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the
name in box L1, your Registration No. in box L2 instructions given at the beginning of the section.
and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write
these anywhere else. D. Marking Scheme:
8. Write your Registration No. in ink, in the box L4 16. For each questions in Section I, you will be
provided in the lower part of the ORS and darken awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the
the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your bubble corresponding to the correct answer and
Registration No. with a good quality HB pencil. zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other
9. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
upper parts. 17. For each question in Section II, you will be
10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as awarded 3 marks if you have darken only the
that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in bubble corresponding to the correct answer and
box L5 on the ORS affirming that you have verified zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other
this. cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
18. For each question in Section III, you will be
C. Question paper format: awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
11. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: corresponding to the correct answer and zero
Mathematics, Part II: Physics, Part III: Chemistry). mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
Each part has 4 sections. minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
12. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. 19. For each question in Section IV, you will be
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), awarded 6 marks if you ALL the bubble
out of which only one is correct. corresponding ONLY to the correct answer or
13. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question awarded 1 mark each for correct bubbling of
contains STATEMENT-1 AND STATEMENT-2. answer in any row. No negative mark will be
awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
USEFUL DATA
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1 1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1 1 amu = 1.66 1027 kg
Avogadros Number Na = 6.023 1023 1 Ev = 1.6 101 J
Plancks constant h = 6.625 1034 J . s
= 6.625 1027 erg . s
Atomic No: H = 1, D = 1, Li = 3, Na = 11, K = 19, Rb = 37, Cs = 55, F = 9, Ca = 20, He = 2, O = 8, Au = 79, Ni = 28, Zn =
30, Cu = 29, Cl = 17, Br = 35, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, S = 16, P = 15, C = 6, N = 7, Ag = 47.
Atomic Masses: He = 4, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, P = 31, Br = 80, Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56, Mn = 55, Pb = 207, Au = 197, Ag =
108,
F = 19, H = 1, Cl = 35.5, Sn = 118.6, Na = 23, D = 2, Cr = 52, K = 39, Ca = 40, Li = 7, Be = 4, Al = 27, S = 32.
NIITA-DEL-KS_XIIP-PH-I-P-II
MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
2sin x
2n
1. Let f x lim ; n I ,then which of the following is not true?

3 2 cos x
n n 2n

(A) at x n , f(x) is discontinuous (B) f 1
6 3

(C) f(0) = 0 (D) f 1
2
2. Let P, Q, R and S be the feet of perpendiculars drawn from a point (1, 1) upon the
lines
y = 3x + 4 and y = 3x 6 and their angle bisectors respectively, then equation of
the circle whose extremities of a diameter are R and S is
(A) 3x 2 3y 2 104x 110 0 (B) x 2 y 2 104x 110 0
(C) 3x 2 3y 2 4x 18y 16 0 (D) x 2 y 2 4x 18y 16 0
3. The equation of plane passing through (1, 2, 3) and at the maximum distance
from origin is
(A) x + 2y + 3z = 14 (B) x + y + z = 6
(C) x + 2y + 3z + 14 = 0 (D) x + y + z + 6 = 0
4. In an acute angled triangle ABC, A = 30o, H is the ortho centre and M is the
midpoint of BC. On the line HM, take a point T such that HM = MT, then
(A) AT = BC (B) AT = 2BC
(C) AT = 3BC (D) AT = 4BC
5. Number of 6 digit natural numbers divisible by 6 formed by using all the digits 1,
2, 3, 4, 5, 6 is
(A) 2.5 ! (B) 3 . 5!
(C) 5! (D)work
space for rough none
6. If A is a skew symmetric matrix, then B ( I A)( I A) 1 is (where I is an

identity matrix of same order as of A)
(A) idempotent matrix (B) symmetric matrix
(C) orthogonal matrix (D) skew symmetric matrix
n
2 2
k
7. The product 1 tan n will be equal to

k 1 2 1
(A) 2n (B) 2n
(D) 2
n
(C) 2 n
2
8. The number of positive integers which divide 10999 but not 10998 is equal to
(A) 999 (B) 1000
(C) 1999 (D)10000
3 n 4 5
The value of 2 Co C1 n C2 n C3 ....... is
n
9.
2 3 4
2n 1 n 1 2 n n 3 1
(A) (B)
n 1 n 1
2 1
n
2
n
(C) (D)
n 1 n 1
SECTION II
Assertion Reason Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and
STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation
for Statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
Statement-1: Period of function sin sin x tan tan x is equal to 2.
1 1
10.
12
Statement-2: The number of solution of the equation 2 tan x x in the
5
interval 0, 2 is equal to 3.
11. Statement-1: If f(x) and g(x) are two differentiable function x R, then
y max f x , g x is always continuous but not differentiable at
the point of intersection of graph of f(x) and g(x).

Statement-2: max f x , g x is always differentiable in between the two
y
consecutive roots of f(x)for- rough
space g(x) work
= 0. If both the functions f(x) and
g(x) are differentiable x R .
12. Consider two regions

R1: Point P is nearer to (1, 0) than to x 1 .
R2: Point P is nearer to (0, 0) than to (8, 0).
Statement-1: Area of region common to R1 and R2 in the first quadrant is
32
square units.
3
32
Statement-2: Area bounded by x 2 y and y = 4 is square units.
3
3
13. Statement-1: If line x + y = 3 is a tangent to an ellipse with foci (4, 3) and (6, y)
at the point (1, 2) then y = 17.
Statement-2: Tangent and normal to ellipse at any point bisect the angle
subtended by foci at that point.
SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
C1416 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 14 to 16

x
1
Consider the function f x 1
x
14. The domain of f(x) contains
(A) 1, 0 0, (B) R ~ 0
(C) , 1 0, (D) 2,
15. The function f(x) x (-, -1) (0, )

(A) has a maxima but no minima
(B) has a minima but no maxima
(C) has exactly one maxima and one minima
(D) has neither a maxima nor a minima
16. The range of function f(x), x (-, -1) (0, ) is
(A) 0, (B) , e
(C) 1, (D) 1, e e,
/2
f(x) satisfies the relation f x sin x cos t f t dt sin x

0
17. If > 2, then f(x) decreases in which of following interval

3
(A) 0, (B) ,
2 2
space for rough work

(C) , (D) none of these
2 2
18. If f(x) = 2 has at least one real root, then
(A) 1, 4 (B) 1, 2
(C) 0,1 (D) 1,3
/2
19. If f x dx 3, then the value of is

0
3
(A) 1 (B)
2
4
4
(C) (D) none of these
3
SECTION IV
Matrix Match Type
Matrix-Match Type
p q r s
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
A p q r s
column which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have B p q r s
to be appropriately bubbles as illustrated in the following example.
C p q r s
If the correct matches are Ap, As, Bq, Br, Cp, Cq and Ds, then the correctly
bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows : D p q r s
20. Column I Column II

(A) The equations r a t1b and r c t 2 d
(p) [ a b d ] [c b d ], b d 0
have a unique solution if

(B) The equations r a t1b and r c t 2 d
(q) [ a b d ] [c b d ]
have infinitely many solutions if

(C) The equations r a t1b and r c t 2 d
(r) a b b c 0, b d 0
have no solutions if

(D) The lines r a t1b and r c t 2 d are
(s) a b b c 0, b d 0
coplanar if

(A) 1 1 6
The value of f(0) so that function f x is
x sin x (p)
continuous at x = 0 is
(B) 1 1 1 1 1 1
lim ...... ln K , then value
n n
n2 n4 3n 2 (q)
of K is
(C) The system of equations x ky z 0 , kx y z 0 , 3
(r)
x y z 0 has a non-zero solution, if value of k is
5
(D) Let f x max x 2 , x 1,3x then maximum value of 0

(s)
f(x) in 0, 2 is

(A) For a rectangular hyperbola xy = c 2 (c is purely 3
imaginary). If a point on it is (a, ), where 'a' is a (p)
positive number, can take value
(B) If the sides a, b, c of a triangle are in A. P. and 1 3
(a - b + c)s = kb2 (where s is semi perimeter), then k (q)
2
is equal to
(C) Radius of the circle having centre at (3, 4) and 17
(r)
touching the circle x2 + y2 = 4 can be
(D) Maximum distance of any point on the circle 3

2
x 7
2
y 2 30 16 from the centre of the (s) 2
ellipse 25x 2 16y 2 400 is
PHYSICS
SECTION I
23. In the figure, field lines of three charges are

shown. If q1 8 C and q 2 12 C what q2
is the magnitude of q3 in C q1
(A) 12 C (B) 3 C
(C) 4 C (D) 6 C
q3
24. There are two events as shown in figures. In first event sphere 1 kg collides
headon elastically with sphere 2 kg at t = 0. In second event sphere 2 kg collides
headon elastically with sphere 4 kg at t = 0.
6
v=4 m/s v=0 v=4 m/s v=2 m/s

1 kg 2 kg 2 kg 4 kg
Event 1 Event 2
Force-time variation during collision may be represented as
(A) F Event 1 (B) F Event 2
Event 2 Event 1
t t
(C) F (D) F Event 1

Event 1 & 2 Event 2
t t
25. A block of mass m placed on a smooth horizontal K

floor is connected with 2 light springs of stiffness K
k. The angular frequency of small horizontal M
oscillations of the block along horizontal is
(Given: m = 41 kg, K = 100 N/m, = 37o)

(A) radian/s
2
(B) 2 radian/s
(C) 2 radian/s
(D) radian/s
26. A solid cone of mass (m = 1 kg) is placed on a

plank of mass M = 1 kg which is placed on a H
smooth horizontal plane. The coefficient
space for roughof
work r m
friction between cone and the plank is 1/4. If a M F
horizontal force F is applied on the plank, then
the maximum value of F for which the cone is
in equilibrium with respect to plank is (Given: g
r 1
= 10 m/s2 and )
H 20
(A) 5 N (B) 3 N
(C) 4N (D) none of these
27. An X-ray tube is operating at 50 kV and 20 mA. The target material of the tube
has a mass of 1.0 kg and specific heat 495 Jkg-1C-1. One percent of the supplied
7
electric power is converted into X-rays and entire remaining energy goes into
heating the target. Then the INCORRECT option is
(A) the average rate of rise of temperature of the target would be 2oC/sec
(B) the minimum wavelength of the X-rays emitted is about 0.25 10-10 m
(C) a suitable target material just have a high melting temperature
(D) a suitable target material must have low thermal conductivity
28. In YDSE setup (see figure), the screen

moves towards the cardboard with speed
v. If the distance between the slits is d and
the distance between the screen and silts
is D (d << D) and is the wavelength of
the light used, then the INCORRECT
option is
(A) all the fringes shrink towards the
central one
(B) The speed of 2nd bright fringe with
2 v
respect to screen is
d
(C) The central fringe remains at rest
(D) The fringes above the central one move upward.
29. A thin plane convex glass lens ( = 1.5) has its plane surface silvered and R is the
radius of curvature of the curved part. Then which of the following ray diagram is
the correct representation for an object placed at O.
O 2R O 2R
(A) (B)
O 3R O 2R
(C) (D)
30. An ideal di-atomic gas occupies a volume Vo at a pressure Po. The gas undergoes
a process in which the pressure is proportional to the square of the volume. At the
end of the process, it is found that the most probable speed of the gas molecules
has doubled from its initial volume. Determine the amount of heat transferred to
the gas
8
23Po Vo 13Po Vo
(A) (B)
6 6
17Po Vo
(C) (D) none of these
2
31. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 and shows full scale deflection at
50 A. Then select the INCORRECT option.
(A) Resistance needed to use it as a voltmeter of range 50V is 106 approx
(B) The resistance needed to use it as an ammeter of range 10 mA is 0.5 approx
(C) Shunting the galvanometer decreases its sensitivity
(D) Larger the value of shunt lesser will be the range of the ammeter
SECTION II
STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation
for Statement 1.
32. Statement-1: According to Wein's Law the product of wavelength

corresponding to maximum intensity of radiation and temperature
of the body in Kelvin is constant, i.e. mT = constant.
Statement-2: Since intensity is maximum so out of all photons coming out of the
body the energy of the photon corresponding of m is maximum.

33. Statement-1: It is easier to curve the flight of a tennis ball than it is to curve the
flight of a base ball.
Statement-2: The pressure difference on the two sides of a tennis ball due to spin
imparted to it is greater than it is in the case of a base ball because
the former is rougher.
34. Statement-1: Scratches on the lens of a camera appear on the photograph taken
with the camera.
Statement-2: Scratches on the lens of a camera effects the sharpness of the
photograph.
35. Statement-1: In series LCR circuit, the electrostatic energy stored in a capacitor
plus magnetic energy stored in inductor will always be zero under
resonance condition.
9
Statement-2: The complete voltage of ac source appears across the resistor in

series LCR circuit driven by a ac voltage under condition of
resonance.
SECTION III

A conveyor belt is used to transport
luggage. A simplified model of a
conveyor belt is shown in the figure. It
consists of a flexible strip that moves on
rollers. The rollers are kept close enough
to avoid any movement of the moving
strip in vertical direction, when luggage
is placed on it. The upper surface of the
strip is rough so that object placed on it
are dragged due to frictional forces.
A stationary homogeneous sphere of radius R and mass M is placed on the
conveyor belt which is moving with constant speed v o in the east direction.
Assume the coefficient of static and kinetic friction to be s and k respectively.
Initially the sphere sides on the conveyor belt due to force of kinetic friction,
which also provides necessary torque to increase its angular velocity. This
condition persists until the sphere starts rolling without slipping on the conveyor
belt.
36. Consider the following statements regarding the motion of the sphere.
(i) Its linear speed relative to the ground increases and relative to the belt
decreases. space for rough work
(ii) Its linear speed relative to the ground and also relative to the belt decreases.
(iii) It rotates in anticlockwise sense when looked facing due north.
(iv) It rotates in clockwise sense when looked facing due north.
Choose the correct option.
(A) only statements (i) and (iii) are correct
(B) only statements (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) only statements (ii) and (iv) are correct
(D) only statements (i) and (iv) are correct
10
37. After a time t from the instant the sphere was placed on the belt, it starts pure
rolling and moves with velocity v relative to the ground. Which of the following
are correct expressions for t and v?
2v o 2v 2v o 2v
(A) t , v o due East (B) t , v o due West
5 k g 7 7 k g 7
2v o 2v 2v o 2v
(C) t , v o due East (D) t , v o due West
7 k g 7 5 k g 7
38. Work done by the kinetic friction on the sphere relative to the ground is W G and
relative to the belt is WB. Which of the following are correct expressions for W G
and WB?
1 1 1 1
(A) WG Mvo , WB Mv o (B) WG Mv o , WB Mv o
2 2 2 2
7 7 7 7
1 1 1 1
(C) WG Mv o , WB Mv o (D) WG Mvo , WB Mv o
2 2 2 2
7 7 7 7
A block of mass 1 kg is placed inside the box. z
y
The box is moved with a velocity
r
v 3ti 4tj a z tk , where a z is a constant. The
surface of contact between the block and the box
r
is rough. g gk
x
39. If the coefficient of friction between the box and
the block is = 0.9 then the value of a z for
which the block is on the verge of slipping.
(A) zero (B) 5 m/s2
2
(C) 4.44 m/s (D) none of these
40. If az = 5 m/s2 and = 0.6 then the net force exerted by the box on the block is
(A) 250 N (B) 150 N
(C) 234 N (D) 306 N
41. If a z 5m / s 2 and = 0.2 then the acceleration of the block with respect to the
-2
box is (in ms ) space for rough work
(A) 3i 4j (B) 4.8i 6.4j
(C) 1.2i 1.6j (D) zero.
SECTION IV
Matrix Match Type
Matrix-Match Type
11
p q r s
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given
A p q r s
in two column which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in
Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The B p q r s
answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbles as illustrated
in the following example. C p q r s
If the correct matches are Ap, As, Bq, Br, Cp, Cq and Ds, then the D p q r s
correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows :
42. Column-I represents some principles/phenomenon related to wave nature of light
and in Column-II there are statements related to column-I. Match Column-II with
Column-I.
Column1 ColumnII
Huygens principle of secondary Phase difference of all the points is
wavelets independent of time or space.
Wavefronts Infinite secondary sources of light.
Sustained interference Secondary sources must be coherent.
Visible interference pattern Maximum or minimum intensity.
43. An observer inspects image of A

the rod AB into a plane mirror R
as shown in figure. Match the S
T B
region (specified in column-I)
with the nature of image he U V
sees (column - II).
Q P
Column1 ColumnII
Region RPS Full image
Region SVQT Image of some portion near the end A
Region TQU Image of some portion near the end B
Region PQV Image of middle portion leaving some
portion near both ends
44. A homogenous field of magnetic induction
B is perpendicular and into the plane of a
sufficiently long track of gauge length l
(separation between tracks) which space for is
rough work
inclined at an angle to the horizontal. A
conducting rod of mass 'm' slides on the
two frictionless rails of the track as shown
in the figure. The rod is released from rest.
If the circuit formed by the rod and the
track is closed by the moving switch of
terminals 1, 2, 3 and 4. (Neglect the
resistance every where except shown
resistances)
Column1 (Switch Position) ColumnII (Effect)
A resistor of resistance R Rod moves with constant
acceleration
12
A capacitor of capacitance C Rod moves with decreasing

acceleration and finally attains a
terminal velocity (constant)
A coil of inductance L Rod will perform simple harmonic
motion about uniformly
accelerated mean position
An ideal cell of time varying emf Rod moves with constant velocity
E Bl g sin t
CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
45. H2SO4 cannot be used to prepare HI from KI as
(A) the reaction with KI is slow (B) it oxidises HI to I2
(C) it disproportionates HI (D)
space for rough work it reduces HI
46. 1gm of the complex [Cr(H2O)5 Cl] Cl2. H2O was passed through a cation
exchanger. The acid liberated was diluted to 1litre. What volume of 0.1M Ca
(OH)2 will be needed to titrate the above solution?
(A) 37 ml (B) 55.65
(C) 18.5 ml (D) 74 ml
47. At 18C the conductivities at infinite dilution of NH4Cl, NaOH& NaCl are 130,
220 & 100 mho respectively. If the equivalent conductivity of N/100 solution of
NH4OH is 10 Mho, then find the pH of the NH4OH solution.
(A) 10.6 (B) 4.6
13
(C) 7 (D) 3.4
48. Which of the following is the INCORRECT statement?

(A) The (NO) bond length in NOCl is less than NO
(B) NCl3 gives NH3 on hydrolysis
(C) Dipole moment of PF3Cl2 is Zero
(D) H2 S2 O6 has a (SS) bond
49. F
MeO Na +

F excess,
F
F MeO
(A) OMe (B) OMe
F MeO
F
(C) OMe (D) No reaction
MeO
50. If 20gm/litre solution of starch has an osmotic pressure of 10 2 atm at 25C then
what is approximate average number of glucose units in the given sample of
starch
(A) 310 (B) 115
(C) 150 (D) 620
51.
Correct order of Acidic strength is

(A) I > II > III > IV > V (B) I > II > V > III > IV
(C) I > II > III > V > IV (D) I > II > V >IV > III
14
52. Which of the following compound is not a Hydride?

(A) CaH2 (B) B2 H6
(C) Li Al H4 (D) HCl
53. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
SECTION II
STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
15
(A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct

explanation for
Statement 1.
54. Statement-1 :Boiling point of H2O is higher than boiling point of HF

Statement-2 :Hydrogen bond in HF is stronger than Hydrogen bonding in H2O
55. Statement-1 :The specific heat at constant volume for a gas is 0.075 cal/gm &
at constant pressure is 0.125 cal/gm then the molecular weight of
gas is 40
Statement-2 :Ratio of Cp/Cv is a measure of atomicity of a gas .
56. Statement-1 :The greater is the difference in energy level, lower will be
wavelength of the light emitted when an electron falls from higher
to lower level
Statement-2 :Energy increases as the orbit number increases in a hydrogen
atom
57. Statement-1 :Allyl halides can undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions
Statement-2 :Vinyl halides can neither undergo both SN1 and SN2 reaction.
SECTION III
16
When H3PO4 solution is titrated against NaOH reactions

occurs in three steps F
H3PO4 + NaOH = NaH2PO4 + H2O E

NaH2PO4 + NaOH = Na2HPO4 + H2O p D
Na2HPO4 + NaOH = Na3HPO4 + H2O H C

If 0.1M 300ml H3PO4 is titrated using 0.1M NaOH then B
A
titration curve pH vs volume of NaOH is given below
Ka1 (H3PO4) = 103 Ka2(H3PO4) = 108
13
Ka3(H3PO4) = 10
Volume of NaOH
58. What will be the pH of the solution when 50ml of NaOH is added to 0.1M, 300ml
H3 PO4 solution (MNaOH = 0.1) ?
(A) 3 (B) 2.3
(C) 3.36 (D) 4.6
59. What is the composition of solution at point C ?

(A) Buffer of NaH2 PO4 + Na2 HPO4 (B) Buffer of NaH2 PO4 + H3 PO4
(C) Only NaH2 PO4 (D) Only Na2 H PO4.
60. pH of the solution at point D will be

(A) 10.5 (B) 5.5
(C) 8 (D) 8.5

Et
O
O
Et

B EtO
Me
O
(A)
R3 N
CHO
Et
(C) Me
O
O
CHO
(D)

Pr oducts E
H

OH
61. In the formation of (C) from (A) & (B) which of the statement is incorrect?
(A) [A] acts as a donor & [B] acts as acceptor
(B) [B] acts as a donor & [A] acts as an acceptor
17
(C) O O
[B] may be H OMe or H OEt
(D) It is a Claisen ester type condensation

62. Which statement is incorrect for formation of (D) ?
(A) It is a Claisen condensation reaction
(B) It is a Michael addition reaction
(C) The (CHO) group is introduced in (C) to increase the acidity of
Hydrogen
(D) Is formed by 1, 4 addition reaction.

63. Which of the following statements is incorrect about formation of (E) from (D)?
(A) Two aldol products are formed
(B) Intra molecular aldol reaction takes place
(C) H2O is lost in formation of E
(D) Loss of H2O takes place by E-2 mechanism.
SECTION IV
Matrix Match Type
Matrix-Match Type
p q r s
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given
A p q r s
in two column which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in
Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The B p q r s
answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbles as illustrated
in the following example. C p q r s
If the correct matches are Ap, As, Bq, Br, Cp, Cq and Ds, then the D p q r s
correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows :
64. Match the following :
Column-I Column-II
(Reaction sequence) (Product)
(A (p)
) (i) H3O+ OH
Mg/

ether X (ii) LiAlH4 Product
Br
O
MeO
(B (q) OH
) H3O+
Mg/
X
ether Product
Br
O
18
(C Me (r)
) OH Me
(i) H3O+
Br Mg/

ether X (ii)LiAlH 4 Product
O
MeO
(D (s)
)
H3O+ HO
Br ether X
Mg/ Product
O

Column-I Column-II
(A) BeO (p) Peroxide
(B) Na2O2 (q) Paramagnetic oxide
(C) Sb2O3 (r) Amphoteric Oxide
(D) KO2 (s) Basic Oxide
Column-I Column-II
(A) Chemisorption (p) Exothermic
(B) Physisorption (q) Endothermic
(C) Desorption (r) Removal of adsorbed
substance
(D) Activation of adsorbent (s) Specific
19
Space for rough work
20

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ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

NARAYANA FULL TEST 6 PAPER II

INSTRUCTIONS Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and

1. Let f x lim ; n I ,then which of the following is not true?

6. If A is a skew symmetric matrix, then B ( I A)( I A) 1 is (where I is an

7. The product 1 tan n will be equal to

the point of intersection of graph of f(x) and g(x).

12. Consider two regions

C1416 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 14 to 16

15. The function f(x) x (-, -1) (0, )

f(x) satisfies the relation f x sin x cos t f t dt sin x

17. If > 2, then f(x) decreases in which of following interval

19. If f x dx 3, then the value of is

20. Column I Column II

21. Column I Column II

(D) Let f x max x 2 , x 1,3x then maximum value of 0

22. Column I Column II

ellipse 25x 2 16y 2 400 is

23. In the figure, field lines of three charges are

v=4 m/s v=0 v=4 m/s v=2 m/s

(C) F (D) F Event 1

25. A block of mass m placed on a smooth horizontal K

26. A solid cone of mass (m = 1 kg) is placed on a

28. In YDSE setup (see figure), the screen

space for rough work

32. Statement-1: According to Wein's Law the product of wavelength

body the energy of the photon corresponding of m is maximum.

Statement-2: The complete voltage of ac source appears across the resistor in

C3638 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 36 to 38

43. An observer inspects image of A

A capacitor of capacitance C Rod moves with decreasing

(C) 7 (D) 3.4

48. Which of the following is the INCORRECT statement?

(A) OMe (B) OMe

(C) OMe (D) No reaction

Correct order of Acidic strength is

52. Which of the following compound is not a Hydride?

space for rough work

(A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct

54. Statement-1 :Boiling point of H2O is higher than boiling point of HF

C5860 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 58 to 60

When H3PO4 solution is titrated against NaOH reactions

H3PO4 + NaOH = NaH2PO4 + H2O E

59. What is the composition of solution at point C ?

60. pH of the solution at point D will be

C6163 : Paragraph for Questions Nos. 61 to 63

[B] may be H OMe or H OEt

(D) It is a Claisen ester type condensation

(D) Is formed by 1, 4 addition reaction.

65. Match the following :

space for rough work

Space for rough work

space for rough work

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