100 PMP

Exam Q&A

Are You HOT

Enough To PASS
Your PMP Exam?

David Geoffrey Litten

 100 HOT PMP Q & A

Question 1

You are having problems with a project product that repeatedly fails inspection testing, and
you are advised that the design needs further refinement. This will cause cost and time
increases to the project. You have raised a change request that has now been approved.
What else must you do?

A. Create new quality assurance standards

B. Update the project baselines
C. Create an issue for preventative action
D. Inform the change control board

Question 2

Crashing can:

A. Reduce the schedule by reconnecting series activities to occur in parallel

B. Reduce project cost and duration
C. Reconnect activities so that slack or float is maximized
D. Reduce the schedule by adding extra resources on critical path activities

Question 3

There are outstanding issues, claims, and disputes with one supplier of your project. A
common method for addressing these is through:

A. Negotiated settlements
B. Procurement audits
C. Lessons learned
D. Firm fixed price

Question 4

An output of the Determine Budget processes is:

A. Cost baseline
B. Project funding requirements
C. Project document updates
D. All the above

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Question 5

Which of the following is not considered when calculating cost of quality?

A. Appraisal
B. Quality function deployment
C. Training
D. Rework

Question 6

Which process documents uncertain events that can influence your project objectives?

A. Identify risks
B. Plan risk management
C. Monitor and control risks
D. Plan risk actions

Question 7

When project managers do not have position power, they will need to use:

A. Listening
B. Leadership
C. Influencing
D. Negotiation skills

Question 8

The right to make and approve decisions is:

A. Competency
B. Responsibility level
C. Authority
D. Role definition

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Question 9

Which document would be the most appropriate to review if you need to ensure that all
project work is complete prior to closing the project. ?

A. Cost performance index

B. Project management plan
C. Schedule management plan
D. Scope management plan

Question 10

Information from the stakeholder register is used in which process?

A. Plan communications management

B. Develop project charter
C. Perform quality assurance
D. Manage communications

Question 11

To effectively manage your project team, you need to engage in:

A. Negotiating
B. Norming
C. Enforce project standards
D. Conflict management

Question 12

What is risk reassessment used for?

A. Correct errors from the original risk assessment

B. Check whether assumptions are valid
C. Identifying the risks and recalculate their impact and probability
D. To reconfirm the data accuracy

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Question 13

Your project has these details: EV = $450,000, AC = $510,000. Your BAC is $950,000. What is
your EAC?

A. $1,207,843
B. $1,076,666
C. $1,002,725
D. $1,325,000

Question 14

You measure completion of product scope against:

A. The product requirements

B. The scope management plan
C. The approved scope statement
D. The project management plan

Question 15

Projects are normally split down into phrases to make them easier to manage. Within the
initiating process group, which had the following is most likely to be used?

A. Development
B. Concept
C. Testing
D. Planning

Question 16

What are items at the lowest level of the WBS called?

A. Activities
B. Tasks
C. Milestones
D. Work packages

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Question 17

A good friend of yours has given you a job as a project manager within his company. Which
of the following types of power have you been given?

A. Forcing
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Formal

Question 18

The Close project or phase process inputs do NOT include which of the following?

A. Variant analysis
B. Project management plan
C. Organizational process assets
D. Accepted deliverables

Question 19

Project objectives do NOT include which of the following?

A. Project budget
B. Projects completion date
C. Quality parameters
D. Risk assessment

Question 20

A defect has been discovered in a product, and you are trying to determine what input may
have caused the defect. Which technique of the following would help you to chart this
analysis?

A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Run diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Scatter diagram

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Question 21

Which process (where the deliverables are created), will depend most on the nature of the
performed work?

A. Define project scope

B. Create WBS
C. Direct and manage project execution
D. Monitor and control project work

Question 22

Which following process uses the project charter as an input?

A. Create WBS
B. Collect requirements
C. Control scope
D. Verify WBS

Question 23

Which of the following is identified within the scope statement:

A. The name of the project manager

B. The specialist team for project delivery
C. The project business case
D. Assumptions and exclusions

Question 24

The validate scope process outputs include which of the following?

A. Formal acceptance of the project scope

B. Project team sign-offs
C. Formal acceptance of completed project deliverables
D. Formal documentation of the project scope

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Question 25

Which of the following stakeholders is responsible for funding the project?

A. Finance department
B. Senior management
C. The sponsor
D. The requestor of the project

Question 26

The output of quantitative risk analysis is:

A. Identifying risks with a close time proximity

B. The probability of achieving your project schedule and cost objectives
C. Provides trend information of qualitative risk analysis
D. Shows the likelihood of achieving your project risk objectives

Question 27

The least favored conflict management approach that a project manager would use is?

A. Avoidance
B. Compromise
C. Collaboration
D. Problem solving

Question 28

Which contract choice would encourage the seller to meet or exceed given project
performance criteria?

A. Firm fixed price

B. Cost plus incentive fee
C. Time and material
D. Cost plus fixed price

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Question 29

The motivation theory, set high standards tied to rewards for work performance, while
ensuring that such rewards are seen as beneficial for your team. Which of the following
theories do you favour?

A. Reward setting theory

B. Theory X
C. Contingency theory
D. Expectancy theory

Question 30

Which of the following options is an output from the estimate activity resources process?

A. Requested scope changes

B. Resource breakdown structure
C. Authorised changes
D. Activity cost requirements

Question 31

Your project is due for a financial review and you have gathered some data. Your EV is
$680,000, your AC is $720,000 and your BAC is $960,000. What is your EAC?

A. $1,000,550
B. $1,016,470
C. $1,200,000
D. $1,100,750

Question 32

Which of the following documents contains a definition of the project cost variance
thresholds?

A. The cost baseline

B. The configuration management plan
C. The resource management plan
D. The cost management plan

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Question 33

Where is the product lifecycle documented?

A. The project management plan

B. The project scope statement
C. The scope management plan
D. The scope requirements plan

Question 34

What type of chart ranks of the reasons for cost variance?

A. Flowchart
B. Cause and effect diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Run chart

Question 35

The ability, skills and capacity of an individual to implement project activities is called their:

A. Competency
B. Responsibility
C. Authority
D. Role

Question 36

Which of the following is not an activity within the control scope process?

A. Managing the product and project scope changes

B. Making sure that scope creep does not occur on the project
C. Deliverable verification
D. Obtaining customer sign-off on the final deliverable

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Question 37

You are currently negotiating a FPIF contract. The target cost = $400,000 with a target profit
of 15%. The incentive split has been decided as 60/40. As of today, the actual costs are
$350,000. What is the actual profit?

A. $80,000
B. $20,000
C. $40,000
D. $10,000

Question 38

The purpose of a change control system is to:

A. Assess cost or schedule impacts prior to implementation

B. Ensure that a common plan is used by all project team members
C. Ensure that changes to the SOW are approved
D. All the above

Question 39

When implementing the increased accuracy of a bottom up estimate, what potential

downside must be considered?

A. The size of the project

B. The additional cost of estimating
C. The amount of risk within the project
D. The experience of the estimators

Question 40

Your project is approaching the end of a key development phase and you are gathering
historic data to prepare for an important project status review. For the past three months
you note that the TCPI has been getting progressively larger. What does this signify?

A. Your forecast accuracy is improving

B. Your cost performance is improving
C. Your cost performance is getting worse
D. Your schedule performance is getting better

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Question 41

One of your key development resources has been head hunted by a competitor and they
have been immediately removed from the project site. For the immediate future, you need
to farm out his work to those team resources that remain on the project. Which tool or
technique should you use to spread his work among the remaining team?

A. Resource optimization
B. Resource leveling
C. Variance analysis
D. Schedule compression

Question 42

Which process has a primary purpose of maintaining the integrity of project baselines?

A. Perform integrated change control

B. Control the scope
C. Report performance
D. Monitor and control project work

Question 43

The sender within a communication model has the responsibility for:

A. Correct interpretation of the information

B. Making the content clear and complete
C. Ensuring that all the information is received
D. Decoding the message contents

Question 44

You have an unresolved dispute with the supplier during the close project process. You are
considering the option of alternative dispute resolution (ADR). What type of option is this?

A. Litigation
B. Arbitration
C. Sublimation
D. Transportation

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Question 45

Your project has emerged from an audit with a discrepancy between yourself and your
sponsor. In your opinion the discrepancy is not major, but as the sponsor is more senior,
you manage the situation by highlighting the many achievements and downplayed the few
differences that the audit has identified. This is an example of:

A. Smoothing
B. Compromising
C. Collaborating
D. Avoiding

Question 46

Your project that is producing a particular product must be developed by machinery that is
calibrated within very fine tolerances. To ensure that this happens, you have implemented
laser controlled measurement devices that constantly monitor this machines set up. To be
effective, these devices must have a high degree of:

A. Precision
B. Control
C. Repeatability
D. Accuracy

Question 47

Which of the following options is correct for the Close Project process:

A. It is not mandatory only optional

B. It may occur at the end of each project phase
C. It must occur once per project
D. The process ensures that the project is successful

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Question 48

Your project is developing a new product due to be launched at a trade show in November
this year. The total investment cost is $2,800,000, and you are expecting to recapture
$1,200,00 by February the following year, and the remaining $1,600,00 investment by July
of that year. What type of forecast is this called?

A. Future value
B. Payback period
C. Benefit cost ratio
D. Net present value

Question 49

Which is the highest performance level for a project team?

A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing

Question 50

As the project manager, you are working closely with your team to ensure they thought was
on meeting the project objectives and working as an efficient and effective team. This is an
example of:

A. Leadership
B. Listening
C. Negotiation skills
D. Influencing

Question 51

Which tool and technique is used in the process Create WBS?

A. Decomposition

B. Meetings

C. Brainstorming

D. Gantt Chart
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Question 52

What does the acronym RACI commonly stand for in project management?

A. Risk Analysis and Caution Initiation

B. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
C. Randomly Accessible Credit Information
D. Report, Analysis, Connected, Integration

Question 53

What kind of a relationship is implied when completion of a successor is dependent on

initiation of its predecessor?

A. FS
B. SF
C. FF
D. SS

Question 54

Which of the following is NOT a reason to start a project?

A. Market Demand
B. Customer Request
C. Peer Review
D. Legal Requirement

Question 55

SPI can be calculated by which formula?

A. EV/PV

B. EV-PV

C. PV/EV

D. AC - EV/PV

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Question 56

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the most basic need is:

A. Self-transcendence

B. Self-actualization

C. Safety

D. Physiological

Question 57

Which of the following is NOT a 7QC tool?

A. Flowchart

B. Check Sheet

C. Affinity Diagram

D. Scatter Diagram

Question 58

During a project, earned value analysis is performed and the attained parameters are
given below: EV: 500,000; PV: 450,000; AC: 650,000. Which results are correct?

A. CV: -150,000; SV: +50,000

B. CV: +150,000; SV: -50,000

C. CV: -200,000; SV: +50,000

D. CV: -150,000; SV: -200,000

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Question 59

Which of the following is NOT an input to the Identity Stakeholders process?

A. Project Charter

B. Procurement Documents

C. Enterprise Environmental Factors

D. Stakeholder Register

Question 60

If you are in the Perform Quality Assurance process, you are in which Process Group?

A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Closing

Question 61

A project may need to update its schedule baseline to:

A. Report schedule updates

B. Show that the project is not behind schedule

C. Provide realistic data to measure performance

D. Mask deviations within schedule tolerance

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Question 62

To ensure that all of the project work is included, which of the following should be used?

A. Create a contingency plan

B. Create a WBS

C. Create a risk management plan

D. Create a scope statement

Question 63

The purpose of attribute sampling is to:

A. Determine whether a batch conforms to the specifications

B. Check on the quality of the inspection process

C. Ensure that every item is tested individually

D. Identify which employees are creating defective items

Question 64

An organisation has a strong competitive advantage due to its adherence to pollution laws
and regulations. While planning the scope for a potential new project, one of the alternative
approaches provides a quick to market and high revenue option but includes a low
probability risk to meeting pollution legislation. What should the project team do?

A. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk

B. Work out a mitigation plan

C. Procure an insurance against the risk

D. Drop the alternative approach

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Question 65

Adjusting when non critical tasks occur without delaying the project is known as:

A. Resource levelling

B. Resource smoothing

C. Resource balancing

D. Resource optimising

Question 66

The three tasks shown below are the entire critical path of a project network. The three
estimates of each of these tasks are tabulated below. How long would the project take
to complete expressed with an accuracy of one standard deviation?

Task Optimistic Most likely Pessimistic

A 15 25 47
B 12 22 35
C 16 27 32

Which of the following:

A. 74.5 plus or minus 7.00

B. 75.5 plus or minus 7.09

C. 75.5 plus or minus 8.5

D. 73.5 plus or minus 2.83

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Question 67

The Total Point of Assumption is when:

A. The project is formally handed over to the client

B. Actual costs equal the project budget

C. When the project manager assumes full control of the project after the project
management plan is signed off

D. None of the above

Question 68

When the completion of a successor is dependent on initiation of its predecessor? What is the
relationship called?

A. SF

B. FF

C. SS

D. FS

Question 69

A quality audit team advises the project manager that the wrong quality standards were
being used on her project, and that this could lead to the need for rework. What was the
objective of the project manager in initiating the quality audit teams action?

A. Quality control

B. Quality planning

C. Checking adherence to processes

D. Quality assurance
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Question 70

Which of the following provides the foundation for team development?

A. Motivation

B. Individual Development

C. Conflict Management

D. Organizational development

Question 71

Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution?

A. Corrective action

B. Project plan

C. Work authorization system

D. Preventive action

Question 72

Which of the following options should a project manager do or follow to ensure that clear
boundaries are set and agreed for project completion?

A. Scope verification

B. Complete a scope statement

C. Scope definition

D. Risk management plan

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Question 73

A project manager has a team of 16 hardware developers out of which 4 are integration
specialists. In addition the team has 3 technical writers. As a result of a recent audit, the
project manager has agreed to add 2 hardware testers to assist the developers. This will
add to the project cost, but is seen as improving quality and reliability of the hardware
products.

To ensure that effective communication occurs, the project manager is updating the
Communications Management Plan. How many additional communication channels will
be added as a result of the above team additions?

A. 28

B. 41

C. 2

D. 21

Question 74

In which form of organisation would the project manager find team development most
difficult?

A. Weak Matrix organization

B. Balanced Matrix organization

C. Projectized organization

D. Tight Matrix organization

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Question 75

Which of the following options is a common format for performance reporting?

A. Pareto Diagrams

B. Responsibility Assignment Matrices

C. Bar charts

D. Control Charts

Question 76

You are checking the progress of your project and determine that both schedule and cost
variance are positive. Which of the following options does this signify?

A. Project is under budget and ahead schedule

B. Project is over budget and behind schedule

C. Project is under budget and behind of schedule

D. Project is over budget and ahead of schedule

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Question 77

As part of progressive elaboration a new risk is identified during the execution process
of your project. Due to the remedial actions and additional resources required for risk
management, an additional amount of cost will be added and an extra 4 days to the
critical path.

Your project already has provisions for contingency and management reserves, so how
should the extra time and cost be accounted for?

A. Contingency reserves

B. Residual risks

C. Management reserves

D. Secondary risks

Question 78

Which of the following options is a tool used to secure expert judgment?

A. Peer review

B. Delphi technique

C. Expected value technique

D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

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Question 79

Which one of the following is the last step of the Close Project or Phase process when
used at the end of the project?

A. Client has accepted the product

B. Lessons learnt are documented

C. Client appreciates your product

D. Archives are complete

Question 80

An organization based in the USA Midwest, is signing a contract to outsource a part of

its software development services to a highly skilled, efficient and lower cost company
based in the Philippines.

The project manager of a current project will be using these new services as part of their
project engineering development and wants to provide their team with the best
approach to aid working with their new co-workers. Which of the following options
would be most sensible?

A. A training course on the laws of the country

B. A course on linguistic differences

C. An exposure to the cultural differences

D. A communication management plan

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Question 81

While reviewing project progress, the project manager assesses that an activity has
been missed out from the implementation plan. A milestone, scheduled to be achieved
within another week, would be missed with the current implementation plan.

Which of the following options should be the first action for the project manager to
take?

A. Report the error and the expected delay

B. Omit the status update on the milestone

C. Report the error and the planned recovery actions

D. Assess alternatives to meet the milestone

Question 82

During a meeting with senior management, you are discussing four potential project
choices resulting from the recommendations of a recent feasibility study. The details of
these four projects are:

Project Whizz with BCR (Benefit Cost ratio) of 1:1.6;

Project Bang with NPV of US $ 500,000;
Project Rocket with IRR (Internal rate of return) of 17%
Project Launch with opportunity cost of US $ 500,000.

Which option would be your recommendation?

A. Project Whizz

B. Project Rocket

C. Either Project Bang or Launch

D. The information provided is ambiguous and a clear choice cannot be made

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Question 83

The three tasks shown in the table below are the entire critical path of a project network.
How long would the project take to complete expressed with an accuracy of one standard
deviation?

A. 74.5 plus or minus 7.00

B. 75.5 plus or minus 11.08

C. 75.3 plus or minus 7.11

D. 73.5 + plus or minus 2.83

Optimistic Most Likely Pessimistic

Task A 10 26 42
Task B 14 24 34
Task C 18 24 38
Critical Path

Question 84
Who should be involved in the creation of lessons learned, at closure of a project?

A. Stakeholders

B. Project team

C. Management of the performing organization

D. Project office

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Question 85

The Stakeholder Management Strategy is an input to which processes?

A. Plan Communications and Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B. Collect Requirements and Plan Communications

C. Identify Risks and Collect Requirements

D. Manage Stakeholder Expectations and Collect Requirements

Question 86

You want to categorize your people, equipment, materials and supplies by type and skill level to
obtain an overview of all of the types of resources you need for a project. What is a good way
to document this?

A. A resource traceability matrix

B. A resource calendar

C. A project resource diagram

D. A resource breakdown structure

Question 87

Funds that cover unplanned in-scope work are called:

A. Contingency reserve

B. Risk reserve

C. Management reserve

D. Risk response reserve

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Question 88

You are developing a lightweight piece of equipment and each component has to weigh
between 5.2 pounds and 5.6 pounds. You check their weights and see that all the components
are between 5.37 and 5.39 pounds. This indicates that the components weight is very:

A. Precise

B. Accurate

C. Tight

D. Predictable

Question 89

Which technique helps determine which risks have the most potential impact on a project, and
what type of diagram is used to depict this?

A. EMV, a decision tree

B. Monte Carlo simulations, a probability distribution

C. Sensitivity analysis, a tornado diagram

D. Expert judgement, a decision tree

Question 90

Approved change requests are in input to Direct and Manage Project Execution. In which
process are they approved?

A. Perform integrated Change Control

B. Approve Project Changes

C. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. Perform Quality Control

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Question 91

Which of the following has created the most conflict on projects?

A. Scarce resources

B. Technical approach

C. Cost constraints

D. Schedule issues

Question 92

Variances that are within the ____________ are considered acceptable

A. Baseline

B. Threshold

C. Boundaries

D. Range Limit

Question 93

Which of the following is an example of a work performance measurement?

A. Technical achievements

B. Status of defect repairs

C. 60 percent complete

D. Actual start date

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Question 94

You have a project to lay four miles of communication cables, and the planned value of each
mile of laid cable is $10,000. You plan to lay one mile of cable every week. At the end of the
second week, you have completed 1.6 miles of cable. You have spent $18,000 so far. What is
the TCPI to meet the original BAC?

A. 1.05

B. 1.06

C. 1.09

D. 0.91

Question 95

You have asked your team members to provide their status reports every Friday AM. You get
40% of them first thing Friday morning, around 20% up to 11 AM, and the remaining40% at
midday. What kind of correlation is this?

A. Positive correlation

B. Random correlation

C. Negative correlation

D. Curvilinear correlation

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Question 96

BAC/CPI is an example of which type of forecast?

A. Econometric

B. Time series

C. Linear regression

D. Cost scheduled

Question 97

Damages that are compensatory in nature and paid at a previously agreed upon rate are:

A. Punitive damages

B. Constructive damages

C. Liquidated damages

D. Forced damages

Question 98

The only tool and technique used in the Develop Project Management Plan is:

A. Expert judgement

B. Project management information system (PMIS)

C. Information-gathering techniques

D. Estimating techniques

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Question 99

A new employee just gave you an estimate that seems aggressive. What should you do first?

A. Seek to understand how he came up with the estimate

B. Let him know that you do not want aggressive estimates, only realistic ones

C. Let his boss know that she should review his estimates before they are forwarded to you

D. Go with the estimate he gave you, but hold him to it

Question 100

The value of work performed expressed in terms of the approved budget assigned to that work
for schedule activity or work breakdown structure component is known as:

A. Budget at completion

B. Earned Value

C. Planned value

D. Actual cost

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ANSWERS:
1. You are having problems with a project product that repeatedly fails inspection testing,
and you are advised that the design needs further refinement. This will cause cost and
time increases to the project. You have raised a change request that has now been
approved. What else must you do?

A. Create new quality assurance standards

B. Update the project baselines
C. Create an issue for preventative action
D. Inform the change control board

2. Crashing can:
A. Reduce the schedule by reconnecting series activities to occur in parallel
B. Reduce project cost and duration
C. Reconnect activities so that slack or float is maximised
D. Reduce the schedule by adding extra resources on critical path activities

3. There are outstanding issues, claims, and disputes with one supplier of your project. A
common method for addressing these is through:
A. Negotiated settlements
B. Procurement audits
C. Lessons learned
D. Firm fixed price

4. An output of the Determine Budget processes is:

A. Cost baseline
B. Project funding requirements
C. Project document updates
D. All the above

5. Which of the following is not considered when calculating cost of quality?

A. Appraisal
B. Quality function deployment
C. Training
D. Rework

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6. Which process documents uncertain events that can influence your project objectives?
A. Identify risks
B. Plan risk management
C. Monitor and control risks
D. Plan risk actions

7. When project managers do not have position power, they will need to use:
A. Listening
B. Leadership
C. Influencing
D. Negotiation skills

8. The right to make and approve decisions is:

A. Competency
B. Responsibility level
C. Authority
D. Role definition

9. Which document would be the most appropriate to review if you need to ensure that all
project work is complete prior to closing the project. ?
A. Cost performance index
B. Project management plan
C. Schedule management plan
D. Scope management plan

10. Information from the stakeholder register is used in which process?

A. Plan communications management
B. Develop project charter
C. Perform quality assurance
D. Manage communications

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11. To effectively manage your project team, you need to engage in:
A. Negotiating
B. Norming
C. Enforce project standards
D. Conflict management

12. What is risk reassessment used for?

A. Correct errors from the original risk assessment
B. Check whether assumptions are valid
C. Identifying the risks and recalculate their impact and probability
D. To reconfirm the data accuracy

13. Your project has these details: EV = $450,000, AC = $510,000. Your BAC is $950,000.
What is your EAC?
A. $1,207,843
B. $1,076,666
C. $1,002,725
D. $1,325,000

14. You measure completion of product scope against:

A. The product requirements
B. The scope management plan
C. The approved scope statement
D. The project management plan

15. Projects are normally split down into phrases to make them easier to manage. Within
the initiating process group, which had the following is most likely to be used?
A. Development
B. Concept
C. Testing
D. Planning

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16. What are items at the lowest level of the WBS called?
A. Activities
B. Tasks
C. Milestones
D. Work packages

17. A good friend of yours has given you a job as a project manager within his company.
Which of the following types of power have you been given?
A. Forcing
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Formal

18. The Close project or phase process inputs do NOT include which of the following?
A. Variant analysis
B. Project management plan
C. Organizational process assets
D. Accepted deliverables

19. Project objectives do NOT include which of the following?

A. Project budget
B. Projects completion date
C. Quality parameters
D. Risk assessment

20. A defect has been discovered in a product, and you are trying to determine what input
may have caused the defect. Which technique of the following would help you to chart
this analysis?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Run diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Scatter diagram

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21. Which process (where the deliverables are created), will depend most on the nature of
the performed work?
A. Define project scope
B. Create WBS
C. Direct and manage project execution
D. Monitor and control project work

22. Which following process uses the project charter as an input?

A. Create WBS
B. Collect requirements
C. Control scope
D. Verify WBS

23. Which of the following is identified within the scope statement:

A. The name of the project manager
B. The specialist team for project delivery
C. The project business case
D. Assumptions and exclusions

24. The validate scope process outputs include which of the following?
A. Formal acceptance of the project scope
B. Project team sign-offs
C. Formal acceptance of completed project deliverables
D. Formal documentation of the project scope

25. Which of the following stakeholders is responsible for funding the project?
A. Finance department
B. Senior management
C. The sponsor
D. The requestor of the project

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26. The output of quantitative risk analysis is:

A. Identifying risks with a close time proximity
B. The probability of achieving your project schedule and cost objectives
C. Provides trend information of qualitative risk analysis
D. Shows the likelihood of achieving your project risk objectives

27. The least favored conflict management approach that a project manager would use is?
A. Avoidance
B. Compromise
C. Collaboration
D. Problem solving

28. Which contract choice would encourage the seller to meet or exceed given project
performance criteria?
A. Firm fixed price
B. Cost plus incentive fee
C. Time and material
D. Cost plus fixed price

29. The motivation theory, set high standards tied to rewards for work performance, while
ensuring that such rewards are seen as beneficial for your team. Which of the following
theories do you favour?
A. Reward setting theory
B. Theory X
C. Contingency theory
D. Expectancy theory

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30. Which of the following options is an output from the estimate activity resources
process?
A. Requested scope changes
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. Authorised changes
D. Activity cost requirements

31. Your project is due for a financial review and you have gathered some data. Your EV is
$680,000, your AC is $720,000 and your BAC is $960,000. What is your EAC?
A. $1,000,550
B. $1,016,470
C. $1,200,000
D. $1,100,750

32. Which of the following documents contains a definition of the project cost variance
thresholds?
A. The cost baseline
B. The configuration management plan
C. The resource management plan
D. The cost management plan

33. Where is the product lifecycle documented?

A. The project management plan
B. The project scope statement
C. The scope management plan
D. The scope requirements plan

34. What type of chart ranks of the reasons for cost variance?
A. Flowchart
B. Cause and effect diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Run chart

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35. The ability, skills and capacity of an individual to implement project activities is called
their:
A. Competency
B. Responsibility
C. Authority
D. Role

36. Which of the following is not an activity within the control scope process?
A. Managing the product and project scope changes
B. Making sure that scope creep does not occur on the project
C. Deliverable verification
D. Obtaining customer sign-off on the final deliverable

37. You are currently negotiating a FPIF contract. The target cost = $400,000 with a target
profit of 15%. The incentive split has been decided as 60/40. As of today, the actual
costs are $350,000. What is the actual profit?
A. $80,000
B. $20,000
C. $40,000
D. $10,000

38. The purpose of a change control system is to:

A. Assess cost or schedule impacts prior to implementation
B. Ensure that a common plan is used by all project team members
C. Ensure that changes to the SOW are approved
D. All the above

39. When implementing the increased accuracy of a bottom up estimate, what potential
downside must be considered?
A. The size of the project
B. The additional cost of estimating
C. The amount of risk within the project
D. The experience of the estimators

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40. Your project is approaching the end of a key development phase and you are gathering
historic data to prepare for an important project status review. For the past three
months you note that the TCPI has been getting progressively larger. What does this
signify?
A. Your forecast accuracy is improving
B. Your cost performance is improving
C. Your cost performance is getting worse
D. Your schedule performance is getting better

41. One of your key development resources has been head hunted by a competitor and
they have been immediately removed from the project site. For the immediate future,
you need to farm out his work to those team resources that remain on the project.
Which tool or technique should you use to spread his work among the remaining team?
A. Resource optimization
B. Resource leveling
C. Variance analysis
D. Schedule compression

42. Which process has a primary purpose of maintaining the integrity of project baselines?
A. Perform integrated change control
B. Control the scope
C. Report performance
D. Monitor and control project work

43. The sender within a communication model has the responsibility for:
A. Correct interpretation of the information
B. Making the content clear and complete
C. Ensuring that all the information is received
D. Decoding the message contents

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44. You have an unresolved dispute with the supplier during the close project process. You
are considering the option of alternative dispute resolution (ADR). What type of option
is this?
A. Litigation
B. Arbitration
C. Sublimation
D. Transportation

45. Your project has emerged from an audit with a discrepancy between yourself and your
sponsor. In your opinion the discrepancy is not major, but as the sponsor is more
senior, you manage the situation by highlighting the many achievements and
downplayed the few differences that the audit has identified. This is an example of:

A. Smoothing
B. Compromising
C. Collaborating
D. Avoiding

46. Your project that is producing a particular product must be developed by machinery
that is calibrated within very fine tolerances. To ensure that this happens, you have
implemented laser controlled measurement devices that constantly monitor this
machines set up. To be effective, these devices must have a high degree of:

A. Precision
B. Control
C. Repeatability
D. Accuracy

47. Which of the following options is correct for the Close Project process:

A. It is not mandatory only optional

B. It may occur at the end of each project phase
C. It must occur once per project
D. The process ensures that the project is successful

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48. Your project is developing a new product due to be launched at a trade show in
November this year. The total investment cost is $2,800,000, and you are expecting to
recapture $1,200,00 by February the following year, and the remaining $1,600,00
investment by July of that year. What type of forecast is this called?

A. Future value
B. Payback period
C. Benefit cost ratio
D. Net present value

49. Which is the highest performance level for a project team?

A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing

50. As the project manager, you are working closely with your team to ensure they thought
was on meeting the project objectives and working as an efficient and effective team.
This is an example of:
A. Leadership
B. Listening
C. Negotiation skills
D. Influencing

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Question 51

Which tool and technique is used in the process Create WBS?

A. Decomposition

B. Meetings

C. Brainstorming

D. Gantt Chart

Answer: A
Decomposition is the technique to break project deliverables into smaller, manageable tasks,
and this is a feature of the Work Breakdown Structure.

Question 52

What does the acronym RACI commonly stand for in project management?

A. Risk Analysis and Caution Initiation

B. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
C. Randomly Accessible Credit Information
D. Report, Analysis, Connected, Integration

Answer: B
The definition of RACI stands for, Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed.

Question 53

What kind of a relationship is implied when completion of a successor is dependent on

initiation of its predecessor?

A. FS
B. SF
C. FF
D. SS

Answer: B
The relationship is Start-to-Finish. That is, the successor cannot be completed until the
predecessor starts.

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Question 54

Which of the following is NOT a reason to start a project?

A. Market Demand
B. Customer Request
C. Peer Review
D. Legal Requirement

Answer: C
Peer Review is a project selection method; the rest are all reasons to undertake a project.

Question 55

SPI can be calculated by which formula?

A. EV/PV

B. EV-PV

C. PV/EV

D. AC - EV/PV

Answer: A
By definition, SPI = EV/PV.

Question 56

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the most basic need is:

A. Self-transcendence

B. Self-actualization

C. Safety

D. Physiological

Answer: D
From Maslows pyramid, physiological is at the bottom and is the most basic need.

Question 57

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Which of the following is NOT a quality control tool?

A. Flowchart

B. Check Sheet

C. Affinity Diagram

D. Scatter Diagram

Answer: C
Affinity diagrams are used to collect requirements; the rest are all quality control tools.

Question 58

During a project, earned value analysis is performed and the attained parameters are
given below: EV: 500,000; PV: 450,000; AC: 650,000. Which results are correct?

A. CV: -150,000; SV: +50,000

B. CV: +150,000; SV: -50,000

C. CV: -200,000; SV: +50,000

D. CV: -150,000; SV: -200,000

Answer: A
CV = EV AC CV = 500,000 600,000 CV = -150,000 SV = EV PV SV = 500,000 450,000 SV =
+50,000

Question 59

Which of the following is NOT an input to the Identity Stakeholders process?

A. Project Charter

B. Procurement Documents

C. Enterprise Environmental Factors

D. Stakeholder Register

Answer: D
The Stakeholder Register is the output of the Identity Stakeholders process; the rest are all
inputs.

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Question 60

If you are in the Perform Quality Assurance process, you are in which Process Group?

A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Closing

Answer: B
Refer to your Process Groups and Knowledge Area matrix.

Question 61

A project may need to update its schedule baseline to:

A. Report schedule updates

B. Show that the project is not behind schedule

C. Provide realistic data to measure performance

D. Mask deviations within schedule tolerance

Answer: C

The baseline is the standard used to measure project performance, in this case, the schedule
reference, and should not be changed unless approved by management. Therefore, it is not
changed just because a report is due, nor to hide the truth to management whether this is
acceptable or unacceptable deviation.

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Question 62

To ensure that all of the project work is included, which of the following should be used?

A. Create a contingency plan

B. Create a WBS

C. Create a risk management plan

D. Create a scope statement

Answer: B

A WBS is a deliverable oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the
total scope of the project.

Question 63

The purpose of attribute sampling is to:

A. Determine whether a batch conforms to the specifications

B. Check on the quality of the inspection process

C. Ensure that every item is tested individually

D. Identify which employees are creating defective items

Answer: A

There is no middle ground in attribute sampling, it either conforms or it is non-conforming in

terms of a specification or requirement. It is not there to check the process, not insist that each
item is tested individually, nor to identify who creates the defects.

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Question 64

An organisation has a strong competitive advantage due to its adherence to pollution laws and
regulations. While planning the scope for a potential new project, one of the alternative
approaches provides a quick to market and high revenue option but includes a low probability
risk to meeting pollution legislation. What should the project team do?

A. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk

B. Work out a mitigation plan

C. Procure an insurance against the risk

D. Drop the alternative approach

Answer: D

Because the organizations reputation is at stake, the impact is high, therefore the threshold for
such a risk would be very low.

Mitigation plan against avoiding the threat to pollution laws would mean reducing the impact,
which may not be a plausible response.

Procuring an insurance against the risk would only transfer the monetary impact of the risk, and
not the intangible impact, for example, the reputation of the organization.

Planning precautions against the occurrence would still leave a probability of occurrence, and
cannot be completely avoided.

The best option would be to drop the approach that is, to plan complete avoidance of the
risk.

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Question 65

Adjusting when non critical tasks occur without delaying the project is known as:

A. Resource levelling

B. Resource smoothing

C. Resource balancing

D. Resource optimising

Answer: B

Smoothing tries to smooth out resources and reduce peaks by adjusting the start, end, or
duration of non-critical tasks and hence protect the project end date. Resource levelling may
move the project end date. Resource balancing and optimising do not refer to any particular
technique and are just general phrases.

Question 66

The three tasks shown below are the entire critical path of a project network. The three
estimates of each of these tasks are tabulated below. How long would the project take to
complete expressed with an accuracy of one standard deviation?

Task Optimistic Most likely Pessimistic

A 15 25 47
B 12 22 35
C 16 27 32

Which of the following:

A. 74.5 plus or minus 7.00

B. 75.5 plus or minus 7.09

C. 75.5 plus or minus 8.5

D. 73.5 plus or minus 2.83

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Answer: B

The critical path is the longest duration path through a network and determines the shortest
time to complete the project. The PERT estimates of the tasks listed are 27, 22.5 & 26.
Therefore, the length of the critical path of the project is 27+22.5+26 = 75.5

The standard deviations of the estimates of the three tasks are determined as (P-O)/6 = 5.33,
3.83 & 2.66 respectively. The standard deviation of the total path is determined as the square
root of the sum of the squares of standard deviation.

Hence, standard deviation of critical path = square root of (28.44+14.66+7.07) = 7.09

of critical path = 2 2 2
(1) + (2) + (2)

Question 67

The Total Point of Assumption is when:

A. The project is formally handed over to the client

B. Actual costs equal the project budget

C. When the project manager assumes full control of the project after the project
management plan is signed off

D. None of the above

Answer: B

When the actual costs equal the budget at completion, the entire budget is spent, and for a
fixed price contract, is the point where the contractor assumes responsibility for all further
costs.

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Question 68

When the completion of a successor is dependent on initiation of its predecessor? What is the
relationship called?

A. SF

B. FF

C. SS

D. FS

Answer: A

A start-to-finish (SF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of
successor is dependent on the initiation of its predecessor.

A finish-to-start (FS) relationship between two activities implies that the initiation of successor
is dependent on the completion of predecessor.

A finish-to-finish (FF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of
successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor.

A start-to-start (SS) relationship implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the
initiation of predecessor.

Question 69

A quality audit team advises the project manager that the wrong quality standards were being
used on her project, and that this could lead to the need for rework. What was the objective of
the project manager in initiating the quality audit teams action?

A. Quality control

B. Quality planning

C. Checking adherence to processes

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D. Quality assurance

Answer: D

Determining validity of quality standards, followed by the project is a quality assurance

activity.

Compliance of work results to required specifications is a quality control activity.

Determining quality standards is a quality planning activity.

Checking adherence to processes is a quality audit activity to ensure that relevant standard
procedures or guidance documents are being followed to ensure adherence for producing the
process deliverables.

Question 70

Which of the following provides the foundation for team development?

A. Motivation

B. Individual Development

C. Conflict Management

D. Organizational development

Answer: B

Individual development (managerial and technical) is the foundation of a team.

Question 71

Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution?

A. Corrective action

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B. Project plan

C. Work authorization system

D. Preventive action

Answer: C

A Project plan is the basis of project plan execution and is a primary input.

Work authorization system is a tool used for orchestrating execution of various project tasks.

Whereas, Corrective and Preventive actions are inputs to the project plan execution process
from various controlling processes.

Question 72

Which of the following options should a project manager do or follow to ensure that clear
boundaries are set and agreed for project completion?

A. Scope verification

B. Complete a scope statement

C. Scope definition

D. Risk management plan

Answer: B

The project team must complete a scope statement for developing a common understanding of
the project scope among stakeholders. This lists project deliverables summary level sub-
products, whose full and satisfactory delivery marks the completion of the project.

Scope verification is the process of securing a formal acceptance of the project scope by
stakeholders.

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Scope definition is the process of subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more
manageable components.

A risk management plan involves setting up processes for identifying and dealing with project
risks.

Question 73

A project manager has a team of 16 hardware developers out of which 4 are integration
specialists. In addition the team has 3 technical writers. As a result of a recent audit, the project
manager has agreed to add 2 hardware testers to assist the developers. This will add to the
project cost, but is seen as improving quality and reliability of the hardware products.

To ensure that effective communication occurs, the project manager is updating the
Communications Management Plan. How many additional communication channels will be
added as a result of the above team additions?

A. 28

B. 41

C. 2

D. 21

Answer: B

Number of communication channels with n members = n*(n-1)/2

Originally the project has 20 members (including the project manager), which makes the total
communication channels as (20*19)/2 = 190

With the addition of the two hardware testers, the communication channels increase to
(22*21)/2 = 231. Therefore, the additional channels as a result of the change is, 231-190 = 41

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Question 74

In which form of organisation would the project manager find team development most
difficult?

A. Weak Matrix organization

B. Balanced Matrix organization

C. Projectized organization

D. Tight Matrix organization

Answer: A

In a functional organization, the project team members have dual reporting to two bosses the
project manager and the functional manager.

In a weak matrix organization, the power rests with the functional manager.

In a balanced matrix organization, the power is shared between the functional manager and the
project manager. A projectized organization is grouped by projects and the project manager has
complete control on the project and its team.

A Tight matrix organization refers to co-locating the project team and has nothing to do with a
matrix organization.

Therefore, a project manager would find it difficult to drive team development in a weak matrix
organization.

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Question 75

Which of the following options is a common format for performance reporting?

A. Pareto Diagrams

B. Responsibility Assignment Matrices

C. Bar charts

D. Control Charts

Answer: C

Common formats for Performance Reports are, bar charts (also called Gantt Charts), S-curves,
histograms and tables etc.

Question 76

You are checking the progress of your project and determine that both schedule and cost
variance are positive. Which of the following options does this signify?

A. Project is under budget and ahead schedule

B. Project is over budget and behind schedule

C. Project is under budget and behind of schedule

D. Project is over budget and ahead of schedule

Answer: A

Positive Schedule Variance means the project is ahead of schedule; Negative Cost Variance
means the project is over-budget.

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Question 77

As part of progressive elaboration a new risk is identified during the execution process of your
project. Due to the remedial actions and additional resources required for risk management, an
additional amount of cost will be added and an extra 4 days to the critical path.

Your project already has provisions for contingency and management reserves, so how should
the extra time and cost be accounted for?

A. Contingency reserves

B. Residual risks

C. Management reserves

D. Secondary risks

Answer: A

Reserves are meant for making provisions in cost and schedule, to accommodate for
consequences of risk events.

Provisions for risks that were not originally identified and accounted for are in management
reserves. Risks that were identified and provisions made are accommodated in contingency
reserves.

Management reserves are at the discretion of senior management while the contingency
reserves are at the project managers discretion.

Residual and secondary risks are remaining unmitigated risks and resultant risks of mitigation,
respectively. These are not reserves.

In this case, the risk event is one of the identified risks and therefore, contingency reserve is
the option where the cost and schedule impact would be added.

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Question 78

Which of the following options is a tool used to secure expert judgment?

A. Peer review

B. Delphi technique

C. Expected value technique

D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Answer: B

The Delphi technique is a commonly used tool to secure expert judgment while initiating a
project.

Peer review is a project selection tool, Expected value is a method quantitative risk analysis,
and WBS is a project planning tool.

Question 79

Which one of the following is the last step of the Close Project or Phase process when used at
the end of the project?

A. Client has accepted the product

B. Lessons learnt are documented

C. Client appreciates your product

D. Archives are complete

Answer: D

Archiving is the last step in the project closing.

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Question 80

An organization based in the USA Midwest, is signing a contract to outsource a part of its
software development services to a highly skilled, efficient and lower cost company based in
the Philippines.

The project manager of a current project will be using these new services as part of their
project engineering development and wants to provide their team with the best approach to
aid working with their new co-workers. Which of the following options would be most sensible?

A. A training course on the laws of the country

B. A course on linguistic differences

C. An exposure to the cultural differences

D. A communication management plan

Answer: C

Understanding cultural differences is the first step towards an effective communication

amongst the project team involving outsourced work from a different country. So, what is
needed in this case is an exposure to the cultural differences, which is being mentioned as
choice C.

A training course on the laws of the country is a subject of legal experts and not of the project
team.

A course on linguistic differences would not serve the purpose of understanding and
appreciating cultural differences, for better teaming.

A communication management plan is a document that provides data gathering and

dissemination amongst stakeholders of the project. It is necessary for the project but does not
help in bridging communication gaps across different cultures.

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Question 81

While reviewing project progress, the project manager assesses that an activity has been
missed out from the implementation plan. A milestone, scheduled to be achieved within
another week, would be missed with the current implementation plan.

Which of the following options should be the first action for the project manager to take?

A. Report the error and the expected delay

B. Omit the status update on the milestone

C. Report the error and the planned recovery actions

D. Assess alternatives to meet the milestone

Answer: D

D indicates confronting the issue with an attempt to resolve the issue. Hence this would be the
first action to take followed by reporting the issue correctly. Options A and C, that is, report the
error and the expected delay or report the error and the planned recovery actions do not
make any attempt to solve the problem.

Option B is unethical.

Question 82

During a meeting with senior management, you are discussing four potential project choices
resulting from the recommendations of a recent feasibility study. The details of these four
projects are:

Project Whizz with BCR (Benefit Cost ratio) of 1:1.6;

Project Bang with NPV of US $ 500,000;
Project Rocket with IRR (Internal rate of return) of 17%
Project Launch with opportunity cost of US $ 500,000.

Which option would be your recommendation?

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A. Project Whizz

B. Project Rocket

C. Either Project Bang or Launch

D. The information provided is ambiguous and a clear choice cannot be made

Answer: B

Project Rocket has an IRR of 17%, which means the revenues from the project equal the cost
expended at an interest rate of 17%. This is a definitive and a favourable parameter, and hence
can be recommended for selection.

Project Whizz has an unfavourable BCR and hence cannot be recommended.

Information provided on Project Bang and Project Launch is not definitive, and hence neither of
these options qualifies for a positive recommendation.

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Question 83

The three tasks shown in the table below are the entire critical path of a project network. How
long would the project take to complete expressed with an accuracy of one standard deviation?

A. 74.5 plus or minus 7.00

B. 75.5 plus or minus 11.08

C. 75.3 plus or minus 7.11

D. 73.5 + plus or minus 2.83

Optimistic Most Likely Pessimistic

Task A 10 26 42
Task B 14 24 34
Task C 18 24 38
Critical Path

Answer: C

The critical path is the longest duration path through a network and determines the shortest
time to complete the project. The PERT estimates of the tasks listed are 26, 24 & 25.3.
Therefore, the length of the critical path of the project is 26+24+25.3 = 75.3.

The standard deviations of the estimates of the three tasks are determined as (P-O)/6 = 5.33,
3.33 & 3.33 respectively. The standard deviation of the total path is determined as the square
root of the sum of the squares of standard deviation.

Optimistic Most Likely Pessimistic Pert Duration Std Deviation 2

Task A 10 26 42 26 5.33 28.44
Task B 14 24 34 24 3.33 11.08
Task C 18 24 38 25.3 3.33 11.08
Critical Path 75.3 7.11 50.6

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Question 84

Who should be involved in the creation of lessons learned, at closure of a project?

A. Stakeholders

B. Project team

C. Management of the performing organization

D. Project office

Answer: A

Stakeholders include everyone who are actively involved in the project or whose interests may
be affected as a result of the project execution or completion.

The project team creates the lessons learned on the project.

The role of the project office depends on the function defined for it within the performing
organization and it could be either facilitating best practices for all projects or could constitute
the project team.

As lessons learned should capture all variations and what could have been done better for
future deployment, stakeholders should be involved in creation of lessons learned.

Question 85

The Stakeholder Management Strategy is an input to which processes?

A. Plan Communications and Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B. Collect Requirements and Plan Communications

C. Identify Risks and Collect Requirements

D. Manage Stakeholder Expectations and Collect Requirements

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Answer: A
Plan Communications and Manage Stakeholder Expectations

Question 86

You want to categorize your people, equipment, materials and supplies by type and skill level to
obtain an overview of all of the types of resources you need for a project. What is a good way
to document this?

A. A resource traceability matrix

B. A resource calendar

C. A project resource diagram

D. A resource breakdown structure

Answer. D
A resource breakdown structure. This identifies categories of resources and then decomposes
them into types, skill levels, or other subcategories as appropriate.

Question 87

Funds that cover unplanned in-scope work are called:

A. Contingency reserve

B. Risk reserve

C. Management reserve

D. Risk response reserve

Answer: C
Management reserve. This is used for project changes to scope and cost and covers work that is
in-scope, but unplanned.

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Question 88

You are developing a lightweight piece of equipment and each component has to weigh
between 5.2 pounds and 5.6 pounds. You check their weights and see that all the components
are between 5.37 and 5.39 pounds. This indicates that the components weight is very:

A. Precise

B. Accurate

C. Tight

D. Predictable

Answer: A
Precise. There is little scatter or variation in the measurements, therefore, they are precise.

Question 89

Which technique helps determine which risks have the most potential impact on a project, and
what type of diagram is used to depict this?

A. EMV, a decision tree

B. Monte Carlo simulations, a probability distribution

C. Sensitivity analysis, a tornado diagram

D. Expert judgement, a decision tree

Answer: C
Sensitivity analysis, a tornado diagram. A sensitivity analysis helps determine which risks have
the most potential impact on a project, and the tornado diagram is a visual display of that
information.

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Question 90

Approved change requests are in input to Direct and Manage Project Execution. In which
process are they approved?

A. Perform integrated Change Control

B. Approve Project Changes

C. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. Perform Quality Control

Answer: A
Perform Integrated Change Control. Change requests are analyzed, and a decision is made in
the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

Question 91

Which of the following has created the most conflict on projects?

A. Scarce resources

B. Technical approach

C. Cost constraints

D. Schedule issues

Answer: D
Schedule issues these create the most conflict on a project.

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Question 92

Variances that are within the ____________ are considered acceptable

A. Baseline

B. Threshold

C. Boundaries

D. Range Limit

Answer: B

Threshold, these variances are acceptable.

Question 93

Which of the following is an example of a work performance measurement?

A. Technical achievements

B. Status of defect repairs

C. 60 percent complete

D. Actual start date

Answer: C

60% complete. All the other answers are examples of work performance information.

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Question 94

You have a project to lay four miles of communication cables, and the planned value of each
mile of laid cable is $10,000. You plan to lay one mile of cable every week. At the end of the
second week, you have completed 1.6 miles of cable. You have spent $18,000 so far. What is
the TCPI to meet the original BAC?

A. 1.05

B. 1.06

C. 1.09

D. 0.91

Answer: C

1.09. The TCPI divides the work remaining by the funds remaining.
(BAC-EV) / (BAC-AC) = (40,000 16,000) / (40,000 18,00)

Question 95

You have asked your team members to provide their status reports every Friday AM. You get
40% of them first thing Friday morning, around 20% up to 11 AM, and the remaining40% at
midday. What kind of correlation is this?

A. Positive correlation

B. Random correlation

C. Negative correlation

D. Curvilinear correlation

Answer: D

Curvilinear correlation. This starts and ends around the same level and the points in between
are either higher or lower than the end points.

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Question 96

BAC/CPI is an example of which type of forecast?

A. Econometric

B. Time series

C. Linear regression

D. Cost scheduled

Answer: B

Time series. BAC/CPI assumes the future will continue the same as the past, and the time series
method uses past information to predict the future.

Question 97

Damages that are compensatory in nature and paid at a previously agreed upon rate are:

A. Punitive damages

B. Constructive damages

C. Liquidated damages

D. Forced damages

Answer: C

Liquidated damages reimburse damages at an agreed upon stipulated rate.

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Question 98

The only tool and technique used in the Develop Project Management Plan is:

A. Expert judgement

B. Project management information system (PMIS)

C. Information-gathering techniques

D. Estimating techniques

Answer: A

Expert judgement is the ONLY tool used in this process.

Question 99

A new employee just gave you an estimate that seems aggressive. What should you do first?

A. Seek to understand how he came up with the estimate

B. Let him know that you do not want aggressive estimates, only realistic ones

C. Let his boss know that she should review his estimates before they are forwarded to you

D. Go with the estimate he gave you, but hold him to it.

Answer: A

First, you should understand the estimating method that the employee used, because it is
possible he knows a faster way to get the work done than that used in the past.

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Question 100

The value of work performed expressed in terms of the approved budget assigned to that work
for schedule activity or work breakdown structure component is known as:

A. Budget at completion

B. Earned Value

C. Planned value

D. Actual cost

Answer: B

Earned Value. This is the value of the work performed

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