Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam.

-2011

Paper II : Science & Mathemat ics

Mathematics

16. Find the equivalent resistance between C and D 20. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Boron rods are used as control rods in nuclear
R R
reactors
C B
R (2) Biogas is a mixture of methane, carbon dioxide,
R 2R hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide
2R R 2R
(3) Nuclear fission is involved in making of atom
bomb
R R
A 2R (4) 200 keV energy is released in nuclear fission
D
R R reactions
21. Alums used for purifying water are chemically
(1) R (2) 4R
(1) Double chlorides
(3) 2R (4) R/2
(2) Double sulphates
17. Four wires of a cube of side a carry equal current i
in the direction shown in figure. If a uniform magnetic (3) Sulphates of aluminium

field (B ) along positive y-axis exists in space, then (4) Hydrated nitrates

(i) The force on wire 1 is in negative x-direction 22. Which of these reactions will not occur?
(ii) The force on wire 2 is in negative z-direction (1) Copper rod kept in silver nitrate solution
(iii) The force on wire 3 is zero (2) Zinc rod kept in iron sulphate solution
(iv) The force on wire 4 is in positive z-direction (3) Iron rod kept in magnesium sulphate solution
z
(4) Zinc rod kept in copper sulphate solution
3
23. Which of the following acts as the reducing agent in
2
a thermite reaction?
4
(1) Carbon
1 y
(2) Aluminium
(3) Hydrogen sulphide
x
(1) (i) & (ii) are true (4) Hydrogen
(2) (iii) & (iv) are true 24. Match the following in Column-I with Column-II
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true but (iv) is wrong Column- I Column- II
(4) All are correct (Chemical Name) (Common Name)
18. A bar magnet is falling freely through a conducting a. Sodium carbonate (i) Baking soda
ring. The acceleration of the magnet is
b. Sodium hydrogen (ii) Bleaching powder
(1) Equal to g
carbonate
(2) Greater than g
c. Calcium sulphate (iii) Soda ash
(3) Less than g hemihydrate
(4) Net upward acceleration
d. Calcium oxychloride (iv) Plaster of Paris
19. What is current in a gas discharge tube if 3.0 1017
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
electrons and 2.0 1016 positive ions pass through a
cross-section of the tube each second? (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) 0.0448 A (2) 0.448 A (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) 0.51 A (4) 0.051 A (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam.-2011 Sample Paper

25. Arrange the following in increasing order of hydrogen 29. When renal artery carrying waste and excess water
ion concentration from body enters kidney and forms a capillary

dil. HCl, conc. HCl, dil. NaOH, conc. NaOH, Pure water cluster known as A which remains associated
with a cup-shaped part of nephron.
(1) dil. HCl < conc. HCl < Pure water < conc.
NaOH < dil. NaOH Identify A in above statement

(2) conc. NaOH < dil. NaOH < Pure water < dil. (1) A Tubular part of nephron
HCl < conc. HCl
(2) A Malpighian body
(3) conc. NaOH < conc. HCl < Pure water < dil.
NaOH < dil. HCl (3) A Glomerulus
(4) conc. NaOH < conc. HCl < dil. NaOH < dil. HCl (4) A Bowmans capsule
< Pure water
30. In the diagram given below, choose the correct
26. The part of human brain which controls the body answer for labelling indicated by A, B and C
temperature and the desire for eating is
(1) Pons C

(2) Cerebellum B
(3) Medulla
A
(4) Hypothalamus
27. Identify the mismatched pairs among the following
(1) A Xylem, B Cambium, C Phloem
(i) Basic filtration unit in the kidney Nephron (2) A Xylem, B Pericycle, C Phloem
(ii) Abnormal increase in RBCs number in blood (3) A Pith, B Phloem, C Xylem
Polycythemia (4) A Xylem, B Cambium, C Pericycle
(iii) Diaphragm dome-shaped Expiration 31. Sides of ABC are subdivided into six equal parts as
(iv) Oxyntic cellsPepsinogen shown in the figure below. Areas of P2Q3R4 and
ABC are in the ratio
(v) Guard cellsOnly green epidermal cells with
A
thick outer wall
R1 Q1
Select the correct option among the following R2 Q2
alternatives R3 Q3
R4 Q4
(1) (i), (iii) & (v) only
R5 O Q5
(2) (i), (ii) & (iv) only
(3) (i), (iv) & (v) only B C
P1 P2 P3 P4 P5
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) only (1) 3 : 16 (2) 9 : 64
(3) 9 : 16 (4) 2 : 9
28. A Manufactures B Packages and
protein dispatches them 32. A tower PQ subtends an angle at point O on the
to target ground. A flagstaff QR stands on the tower and
subtends angle at the same point O. Height of the
Give the names of cell organelles labelled A and B n
respectively in above flow chart tower is 3 times the flagstaff. If OP PR , then
m
tan =
(1) A E.R. and B Vesicle
nm nm
(2) A R.E.R. and B Golgi apparatus (1) (2)
4n 2 3m2 4m 2 3n 2
(3) A S.E.R. and B Golgi apparatus
4nm 3mn
(4) A R.E.R. and B Lysosome (3) (4)
4n 2 3m2 4m 2 3n 2

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam.-2011

33. Find the greatest number of 5 digits, which is 37. If in ABC, BD AC, BAC = 2, BCD = ,
exactly divisible by 7, 10, 15, 21 and 28 AB = c, AD = d and CD = e, then find the relation
between c, d and e
(1) 99840
B
(2) 99900
(3) 99960
(4) 99990
34. 1020 7 is divisible by 2
A C
(1) 2 D
e
(2) 3 (1) c + d = e (2) c d
2
(3) 9 (3) c + d = 2e (4) 2c + d = e
(4) Both (1) & (2) 38. A trader professes to sell his goods at a loss of 8%
35. If both 112 and 33 are the factors of the number but weighs 900 g in place of 1 kg weight. His real
loss or gain percent is
a 4 3 6 2 1311 , then what is the smallest
possible value of a? (1) 2% loss (2) 2.22% gain

(1) 121 (3) 2.22% loss (4) 2% gain

(2) 3267 144

39. A sum of money grows to times when invested
121
(3) 363
for two years in a scheme where interest is
(4) 33 compounded annually. The same sum of money
36. Rahul and Rajeev share the same birthday. Rahul is shall take X years to triple under simple interest.
X is
twice as old as Rajeev was when Rahul was as old
as Rajeev is now. If Rahul is 24, how old is Rajeev (1) 9 years (2) 18 years
now? (3) 22 years (4) 33 years
(1) 6 40. The measure of central tendency that is most
affected by a few large or small values among
(2) 12 observations is
(3) 18 (1) Mean (2) Median
(4) 24 (3) Mode (4) Range

5
 SAMPLE PAPER
(P aper-I & P
(Paper-I aper II)
Paper
ANSWERS

1. (1) 9. (2) 17. (3) 25. (2) 33. (3)

2. (1) 10. (4) 18. (3) 26. (4) 34. (2)
3. (4) 11. (3) 19. (4) 27. (3) 35. (3)
4. (3) 12. (1) 20. (4) 28. (2) 36. (3)
5. (4) 13. (1) 21. (2) 29. (3) 37. (1)
6. (3) 14. (3) 22. (3) 30. (1) 38. (2)
7. (2) 15. (3) 23. (2) 31. (4) 39. (3)
8. (2) 16. (1) 24. (2) 32. (1) 40. (1)
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

Time : 2 Hours MM : 480

Part I
Science & Mathematics

SECTION - A : SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. The I-V graph of four resistors A, B, C and D is given 3. Bio-gas is rich in
below. If all the four resistors are of the same length
(1) Methane (2) Propane
and same material, then the resistor having the
minimum cross-sectional area is (3) Ethane (4) Butane

A 4. _______ between the different layers of water in the

B ocean is used to produced energy in OTEC plants.
C (1) Tidal energy (2) Temperature difference
I (3) Waves (4) Depth
D
5. An AC generator can be converted into a DC
V generator by replacing
(1) A (2) B (1) Its armature with a coil
(3) C (4) D (2) Its concave magnets
2. A wire PQ of length l and area of cross-section A is (3) Its slip rings with split rings
connected to a supply of V volt as shown in the
(4) Two brushes with four brushes
figure given below.
6. If an alternating current changes its direction after
V
1
every s, then its frequency is
120
P Q
A (1) 50 Hz (2) 45 Hz
(3) 60 Hz (4) 70 Hz
7. In the following circuit, the equivalent resistance
V between points A and B is
If the length of the wire is doubled and its area of 1.5 1.5 1
cross-section halved, then the reading of the A
ammeter and the voltmeter respectively
3 3 2
(1) Increases, increases
(2) Increases, remains the same B
(3) Decreases, remains the same (1) 1.5 (2) 3
(4) Remains the same, remains the same (3) 6 (4) 2

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper

8. The given figure shows the magnetic field pattern in 12. If a solution turns blue litmus red, its pH is likely to
a region. Which of the following is the correct be
relation regarding the strength of the magnetic fields (1) 4 (2) 8
BA, BB and BC?
(3) 10 (4) 13
13. The brown surface of copper becomes black on
heating in air. When hydrogen gas is passed over
BA BB BC this black surface, it turns
(1) Brown (2) Green
(3) Red (4) White
(1) BA = BB < BC (2) BA = BB = BC
14. 3MnO2 + bAl 3Mn + aAl2O3 + Heat
(3) BA = BB > BC (4) BA < BB < BC
The values of a and b for the above reaction are
9. The V - I graph of a metal cube is shown in the
figure. If the length of the conductor is 2 m, then (1) 4, 2 respectively (2) 2, 4 respectively
resistivity of the material is (3) 2, 2 respectively (4) 4, 3 respectively
V (V) 15. During the electrolytic refining of copper, the anode
30 is made up of
20 (1) Pure copper (2) Impure copper
10 (3) Graphite (4) Pure tin
16. Apart from sodium, which element among the
I (A)
5 10 15 following is kept immersed in kerosene oil?

(1) 10 m (2) 2 m (1) Magnesium (2) Zinc

(3) 4 m (4) 5 m (3) Potassium (4) Lead

10. Which of the following is correct? 17. How many molecules of water of crystallisation are
present in one molecule of gypsum?
(1) Magnetic force depends on the mass of charge
(1) 10 (2) 2
(2) Magnetic force acts in the direction of current
(3) Magnetic force does work on a moving charge 1
(3) (4) 5
2
(4) Magnetic force can accelerate a charge
11. Anode mud is formed during 18. Which of the following is a sulphide ore?

(1) Anodising (2) Electrolytic refining (1) Haematite (2) Bauxite

(3) Galvanization (4) Corrosion (3) Cinnabar (4) Magnetite

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

19. xPb(NO3)2 xPbO + yNO2 + zO2 25. The initiating step in photosynthesis is the
The values of x, y and z respectively are (1) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(1) 2, 2, 4 (2) 2, 4, 1 (2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose
(3) 2, 4, 2 (4) 1, 2, 1 (3) Photolysis of water
20. If a solution turns pH paper yellow, then the pH range (4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
of the solution is
26. Stomatal pores open, when the guard cells
(1) 1 - 2 (2) 5 - 6
(1) Swell up due to endosmosis
(3) 8 - 9 (4) 7 - 8
(2) Shrink due to exosmosis
21. The cork cells become impervious to water, gases
and nutrients due to the deposition of (3) Swell up due to exosmosis

(1) Lignin (2) Suberin (4) Shrink due to endosmosis

(3) Pectin (4) Oxalic acid 27. The very first enzyme to act on starch, present in
food, is secreted by
22. A cell organelle X, responsible for synthesis of
proteins is produced by a structure Y, which is (1) Pancreas (2) Gastric glands
located inside another organelle Z. Identify X, Y (3) Small intestine (4) Salivary glands
and Z.
28. Sphygmomanometer reading of a patient as mentioned
(1) X-RER, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Mitochondria
by a doctor is 140/60. 140 and 60 represent
(2) X-RER, Y-Golgi apparatus, Z-Nucleus
(1) Normal systolic and diastolic pressure
(3) X-Nucleolus, Y-Nucleus, Z-RER
(2) Abnormal systolic and diastolic pressure
(4) X-Ribosome, Y-Nucleolus, Z-Nucleus
(3) Normal systolic and abnormal diastolic pressure
23. Which of the following elements is necessary to
prevent goitre? (4) Abnormal systolic and normal diastolic pressure

(1) Calcium (2) Iron 29. The contraceptive device copper-T, is placed in the
(3) Iodine (4) Copper (1) Vagina (2) Uterus
24. Which of the following is incorrect? (3) Ovary (4) Fallopian tube
(1) Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood 30. Which part of the brain is damaged if a person is
(2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys unable to maintain the balance and posture of his
body?
(3) Bile juice is stored in the gall bladder
(1) Cerebrum (2) Medulla
(4) Both kidneys are present in the pelvic region at
the same height (3) Cerebellum (4) Pons

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper

SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS
31. If k, l and m are the zeroes of the polynomial 37. What percent of 15 is 15 percent of 1?
6x3 + 5x2 + 4x 1, then the value of k1 + l1 + m1 is
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.001
1 5 (3) 0.0001 (4) 1
(1) (2)
4 6 38. The number of integral divisors of 720 is
4 (1) 15 (2) 20
(3) (4) 4
6 (3) 25 (4) 30
32. Mohit textiles marks their clothes up by 60%
39. The average weight of Anil, Mohan and Sohan is
subsequently offering a discount of 30%. The net
45 kg. If the average weight of Anil and Mohan is
profit made by them after offering the discount is
40 kg and that of Mohan and Sohan is 43 kg, then
(1) 7.5% (2) 10% the weight of Mohan is
(3) 12% (4) 15% (1) 31 kg (2) 34 kg
33. If (1 + cotA cosecA) (1 + tanA + secA) = 2x2, (3) 35 kg (4) 38 kg
then the possible value of x is
3
1 40. In an acute angled ABC, if sin(A + B C) = ,
2
(1) 0 (2) then angle C is equal to
2
(3) 1 (4) 2 (1) 30 (2) 45

34. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side (3) 60 (4) 90

1 41. If a five digit number is written as pqrst, then the
BC such that BD BC . The ratio of AD2 and AB2 difference of pqrst and prsqt will always be divisible
4
is by
(1) 11 : 16 (2) 7 : 9 (1) 9 (2) 18
(3) 9 : 16 (4) 13 : 16 (3) 45 (4) All of these
35. The number of different positive integers lying 42. HCF of three numbers taken pairwise is 2. If the
between 1015 and 1016, the sum of whose digits is LCM of the three numbers is 59976, then the product
equal to 2 is of the three numbers taken together is
(1) 16 (2) 24 (1) 2592 (2) 46656
(3) 36 (4) 64 (3) 31426 (4) 239904
36. For getting a less than Ogive, we plot the graph of
43. The average of n non-zero numbers is zero. Out of
(1) Cumulative frequency with upper limits them at least, how many numbers may be greater
(2) Cumulative frequency with lower limits than zero?
(3) Cumulative frequency with classmark (1) 0 (2) 1
(4) Cumulative frequency with range (3) n/2 (4) n 1

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012

44. If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial 49. If f(x) is a quadratic polynomial such that f(2) = 3
f(x) = x 2 6x + 8, then the value of and f( 2) = 21, then the coefficient of x in f(x) is
a 1 b 1 a 1 b 1
is (1) 4 (2) 7
a 1 b 1
(3) 6 (4) 3
3 5
(1) (2)
2 2 50. ABCD is a rectangle in which AB = 2AD. P and Q
are mid-points of AD and AB respectively. If BP and
10
(3) 5 (4) DQ intersect at R, then the ratio of the area of
3
quad BRDC and ar( BAP)
45. Two ogives for a particular data, one less than type
and other more than type, intersect each other at (1) 1 : 5 (2) 4 : 2
a point P(a, b). The value of b is (3) 8 : 3 (4) 7 : 2
(1) Median of the data
2p
(2) Frequency of the data 51. If 0 < < 90, sin + cos = p and q ,
p2 1
(3) Half the frequency of the data
then q is equal to
(4) Half the median of the data
(1) sin cos (2) cos + sec
46. Which of the following can be the HCF and LCM of
two numbers? (3) sec + cosec (4) cosec cos

(1) HCF = 15, LCM = 155 52. ABCD is a trapezium. If diagonals AC and BD
intersect at O such that perimeter of AOB = 30 cm
(2) HCF = 24, LCM = 1008
ar( AOB )
(3) HCF = 24, LCM = 252 and perimeter of COD = 15 cm, then
ar( COD )
(4) HCF = 22, LCM = 422
is
47. If cos + sin = 2 cos , then cos sin is equal (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
to
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(1) 2 (2) 2 sin

53. If A B , then (tanA + 1) (tanB + 1) is equal to
(3) 2 tan (4) 2 cot 2

48. If X axis and Y axis form two triangles 1 and 2 (1) cosecA secA
with lines 3x + y = 3 and 2x + y = 7 respectively,
then the ratio of areas of 1 to 2 is (2) 2 + cosecA + secA

(1) 7 : 3 (2) 6 : 7 (3) 2 cosecA secA

(3) 6 : 49 (4) 36 : 7 (4) 2 + cosecA secA

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2012 Sample Paper

sec 1 sec 1 1
54. The value of is 58. If p q , then for p > 0
sec 1 sec 1 p
(1) 2/cosec (2) cosec (1) q = 0
(3) 2cosec (4) sin (2) q 0
55. If a person sold his watch for Rs. 144 and got a (3) 2 < q < 2
percentage of profit equal to the cost price, then the
(4) q 2
cost price of the watch is
59. If ABC is a triangle right angled at B and M, N are
(1) Rs. 80 (2) Rs. 88
the mid-points of AB and BC, then 4(AN2 + CM2) is
(3) Rs. 84 (4) Rs. 83 equal to
56. If x + y = 1, then the value of x3 + y3 + 3xy is (1) 4 AC2 (2) 5 AC2
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 6 AC2 (4) AC2
(3) 2 (4) 3 60. The ratio of inradius to the circumradius of an
57. If a certain number divides 232 + 1, then which of equilateral triangle is
the following is also divisible by the same number?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1: 2
(1) 296 + 1 (2) 216 1
(3) 216 + 1 (4) 7 233 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 2: 3

Part II
Mental Ability & General Knowledge
SECTION - A : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 40 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 100. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. If LADI is coded as 52, then TERG is coded as 63. Which is the incorrect number in the following
sequence?
(1) 100 (2) 50
2, 5, 10, 18, 26, 37, 50
(3) 25 (4) 75
(1) 18 (2) 26
62. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, then when (3) 37 (4) 50
will Friday be?
64. If SITA is coded as UGVY, then MONK is coded as
(1) Two days after today (2) Three days after today (1) OMLI (2) OMPI
(3) Tomorrow (4) Day after tomorrow (3) OKLI (4) OMKI

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

Time : 2 Hours MM : 480

Part I
Science & Mathematics
(foKku ,oa xf.kr)
SECTION - A : SCIENCE [k.M - A % foKku
1. Choose the correct statement. 1. lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,
(1) Electric current is a vector quantity (1) fo|qr /kjk ,d lfn'k jkf'k gS
(2) Movement of electrons is from high potential to (2) bysDVkuW ksa dh xfr mPp foHko ls fuEu foHko dh vksj
low potential gksrh gS
(3) Resistivity of a conductor is independent of its
(3) pkyd dh izfrjks/drk bldh HkkSfrd foekvksa ls Lora=k gS
physical dimensions
(4) Net power of the circuit decreases when the (4) ifjiFk dh usV 'kfDr ?kVrh gS tc ;qfDr;k lekUrj e esa
devices are connected in parallel la;ksftr gSa
2. Hydel electricity is obtained from 2. gkbMsy fo|qr fuEu esa ls fdlls izkIr gksrh gS\
(1) Fossil fuels (2) Dams (1) thok'e b/u (2) ck/
(3) Wind mills (4) Biogas plants
(3) iou pDdh (4) tSoxSl l;a=k
3. According to Fleming's right hand rule, if the
fore-finger of the right hand points towards east, then 3. ysfeax osQ nk;sa gkFk osQ fu;e osQ vuqlkj ;fn nkfgus gkFk
the directions of induced current and motion of the dh rtZuh vaxy q h iwoZ dh vksj funsfZ 'kr gS] rc izfs jr /kjk
conductor cannot respectively be towards rFkk pkyd dh xfr dh fn'kk,sa e'k% fuEu esa ls fdl
(1) North, upwards
vksj ugha gks ldrh gS\ a
(2) Upwards, south (1) mkj] mQij dh vksj
(3) South, downwards (2) mQij dh vksj] nf{k.k
(4) Upwards, north (3) nf{k.k] uhps dh vksj
4. Which of the following is more eco-friendly than the
others? (4) mQij dh vksj] mkj
(1) Burning of petrol 4. fuEu esa ls dkSu vU; dh rqyuk esa vf/d ikfjfLFkfrd
(2) Burning of coal
vuqoQw y gS\
(3) Burning of charcoal (1) isVk y
s dk ngu (2) dks;ys dk ngu
(4) Burning of cow dung (3) pkjdksy dk ngu (4) xkscj dk ngu
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
5. The equivalent resistance of the given circuit across A 5. A rFkk B osQ fljksa esa fn, x, ifjiFk dk rqY;kadh izfrjks/
and B, when each resistor is of resistance R, tc izR;sd izfrjks/d dk izfrjks/ R gS] gksxk
will be

A A

B B

4R 3R 4R 3R
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 7 5 7
6R 2R
6R 2R (3) (4)
(3) (4) 5 5
5 5
6. 20 izfrjks/ osQ ,d rkj dks rkfur dj bldh yEckbZ
6. A wire of resistance 20 is stretched to thrice its dks frxquk fd;k tkrk gS rFkk fiQj bls leckgq f=kHkqt osQ
length and then it is bent in the form of an equilateral
triangle. The equivalent resistance across any two :i esa eksMk+ tkrk gSA fdUgha nks 'kh"kks dk rqY;kadh izfrjks/
vertices is gS
(1) 20 (2) 30 (1) 20 (2) 30
(3) 40 (4) 60
(3) 40 (4) 60
7. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d dFku pqEcdh; {ks=k js[kkvksa ds
7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
regarding magnetic field lines? lUnHkZ esa xyr gS\
(1) They can pass through vacuum (1) ;s fuokZr ls xqtj ldrh gSa
(2) They cannot intersect with each other (2) ;s ,d nwljs dks izfrPNsfnr ugha dj ldrh gSa
(3) They can penetrate a metal only when they enter (3) ;s ,d /krq dks Hksn ldrh gSa dsoy tc ;s bldh
normal to its surface lrg ds yEcor~ izo's k djrh gSa
(4) They always form closed loops (4) ;s lnSo cUn ywi fufeZr djrh gSa
8. Which of the following is different from the others? 8. fuEu esa ls dkSu vU; ls fHkUu gS\
(1) watt (2) kilowatt hour (1) okV (2) fdyksokV ?k.Vk
(3) erg (4) joule (3) vxZ (4) twy

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

9. The direction of the current induced in the square 9. uhps n'kkZ, oxkZdkj ywi esa izfs jr /kjk dh fn'kk gksxh
loop shown below will be

I v
I v

(1) nf{k.kkorZ
(1) Clockwise (2) okekorZ
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) igys nf{k.kkorZ fiQj okekorZ
(3) First clockwise, then anticlockwise
(4) igys okekorZ fiQj nf{k.kkorZ
(4) First anticlockwise, then clockwise
10. ,d /ukRed vkos'k Q dks uhps fp=k esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj nks
10. A positive charge Q is projected exactly between and
/kjkokgh rkjksa osQ ry esa rFkk e; esa ;FkkFkZ :i ls iz{ksfir
in the plane of two current carrying wires, as shown
in the figure below. The deflection of the charge is fd;k tkrk gSA vkos'k dk fopyu gS

3A 5A 3A 5A
Q Q

(1) Towards right (2) Towards left (1) nk;ha vksj (2) ck;ha vksj
(3) Out of the plane (4) Into the plane (3) ry osQ ckgj (4) ry osQ vUnj
11. The formulae of slaked lime and quick lime 11. cq>s gq, pwus rFkk fcuk cq>s gq, pwus osQ lw=k e'k% gSa
respectively are
(1) Ca(OH)2, CaO (2) CaO, Ca(OH)2
(1) Ca(OH)2, CaO (2) CaO, Ca(OH)2
(3) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3
(3) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3
12. Which of the following is not a redox reaction? 12. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,d fjMkWDl vfHkf;k ugh gS\
(1) ZnO + C Zn + CO (1) ZnO + C Zn + CO

(2) MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 (2) MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
(3) CuO + H2 Cu + H2O (3) CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
(4) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4 + 2NaCl (4) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4 + 2NaCl

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
13. Identify a, b, x and y for the following reactions : 13. fuEu vfHkf;kvksa ds fy, a, b, x o y igpkfu, %
Reaction 1 : aNH3(g) + bO2(g) cNO(g) + dH2O(g) vfHkf;k 1 : aNH3(g) + bO2(g) cNO(g) + dH2O(g)
Reaction 2 : xFe2O3(s) + yCO(g) pFe(s) + qCO2(g)
vfHkf;k 2 : xFe2O3(s) + yCO(g) pFe(s) + qCO2(g)
(1) 4, 4, 2, 5 (2) 4, 5, 1, 3
(1) 4, 4, 2, 5 (2) 4, 5, 1, 3
(3) 2, 3, 2, 1 (4) 2, 4, 2, 3
(3) 2, 3, 2, 1 (4) 2, 4, 2, 3
14. Which of the following is a valid displacement
reaction? 14. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,d oS/ foLFkkiu vfHkf;k gS\
(1) Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) (1) Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
(2) Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq) PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)
(2) Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq) PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)
(3) Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s)
(3) Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s)
(4) 2Ag(s) + CuSO4(aq) Ag2SO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(4) 2Ag(s) + CuSO4(aq) Ag2SO4(aq) + Cu(s)
15. pH LosQy dh ijkl gS
15. pH scale ranges from
(1) 1 14 (2) 0 14
(1) 1 14 (2) 0 14
(3) 1 15 (4) 0 15
(3) 1 15 (4) 0 15
16. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) vk;fud ;kSfxd lkekU;r% ty esa foys;'khy rFkk osQjkslhu
(1) Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water ,oa isVk y
s tSls foyk;d esa vfoys;'khy gksrs gSa
and insoluble in solvents like kerosene and
petrol (2) vk;fud ;kSfxd Bksl voLFkk esa viuh n`<+ lajpuk osQ
(2) Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in dkj.k fo|qr dk lapkyu ugha djrs gSa
solid state due to their rigid structure (3) vk;fud ;kSfxd osQoy viuh xfyr voLFkk esa fo|qr
(3) Ionic compounds conduct electricity only in their lapkfyr djrs gSa
molten state
(4) nks foijhr vkosf'kr vk;uksa osQ e; fLFkj fo|qr vkd"kZ.k
(4) Heat is required to overcome the electrostatic cy dks vfHkHkwr djus osQ fy, mQ"ek dh vko';drk
forces of attraction between the oppositely
gksrh gS
charged ions
17. Dyksj&{kkj ize esa
17. In the chlor-alkali process
(1) lksfM;e gkbMkDW lkbM oSQFkksM osQ lehi mRiUu gksrh gS
(1) Sodium hydroxide is produced near the cathode
(2) Sodium hydroxide is produced near the anode (2) lksfM;e gkbMkDW lkbM ,uksM osQ lehi mRiUu gksrh gS
(3) Sodium hydroxide is produced exactly between (3) lksfM;e gkbMkDW lkbM ;FkkFkZ :i ls oSQFkksM rFkk ,uksM osQ
the cathode and anode e; mRiUu gksrh gS
(4) Sodium hydroxide is not produced (4) lksfM;e gkbMkDW lkbM mRiUu ugha gksrh gS
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
18. The formation of which ions is responsible for the 18. fdl vk;u dk fuekZ.k ,d inkFkZ osQ tyh; foy;u esa bldh
basic nature of a substance in its aqueous solution? {kkjh; izoQ` fr osQ fy, ftEesnkj gS\
(1) Hydrogen ions (2) Hydride ions (1) gkbMkt
s u vk;u (2) gkbMkbM vk;u
(3) Hydroxide ions (4) Peroxide ions (3) gkbMkDW lkbM vk;u (4) ijkWDlkbM vk;u
19. Thermite process is an example of a
19. FkekZbV ize mnkgj.k gS] ,d
(1) Combination reaction
(1) la;kstu vfHkf;k dk
(2) Displacement reaction
(2) foLFkkiu vfHkf;k dk
(3) Neutralisation reaction
(3) mnklhuhdj.k vfHkf;k dk
(4) Decomposition reaction
(4) vi?kVu vfHkf;k dk
20. For the given chemical reactions :
20. nh xbZ jklk;fud vfHkf;kvksa ds fy, %
2Na(s) + S(s) Na2S(s)
2Na(s) + S(s) Na2S(s)
Mg(s) + Cl2(g) MgCl2(s)
Mg(s) + Cl2(g) MgCl2(s)
The correct statement is
lgh dFku gS
(1) Sulphur and chlorine are oxidising agents
(1) lYiQj ,oa Dyksjhu vkDlhdkjd gSa
(2) Sulphur is oxidising agent and chlorine is
reducing agent (2) lYiQj vkDlhdkjd gS rFkk Dyksjhu vipk;d gS
(3) Sulphur is reducing agent and chlorine is (3) lYiQj vipk;d gS rFkk Dyksjhu vkDlhdkjd gS
oxidising agent
(4) lYiQj ,oa Dyksjhu vipk;d gSa
(4) Sulphur and chlorine are reducing agent
21. If a cell X with CO2 concentration 60 units is kept 21. ;fn 60 bdkbZ CO2 lkUnzrk okyh X dksf'kdk dks A, B rFkk
adjacent to cells A, B and C with CO2 concentration C dksf'kdkvksa osQ lehi j[kk tkrk gS ftudh CO2 lkUnzrk
30, 80 and 60 units, respectively, then CO2 would e'k% 30, 80 rFkk 60 bdkbZ gS rks CO2 folfjr gksxh
diffuse from
(1) C ls B esa (2) X ls C esa
(1) C to B (2) X to C
(3) X ls A esa (4) A ls B esa
(3) X to A (4) A to B
22. Find the incorrect pair. 22. xyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft;s
(1) Sclerenchyma provides strength (1) n`<k+ rs d lkeF;Z iznku djrk gS
(2) Aerenchyma provides buoyancy (2) ok;wrd mRIykodrk iznku djrk gS
(3) Parenchyma stores food (3) e`nrw d Hkkstu dk laxgz djrk gS
(4) Collenchyma provides rigidity (4) LFkwydks.k mQrd n`<r+ k iznku djrk gS
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
23. In an experiment regarding photosynthesis, the 23. izdk'kla'ys"k.k ls lEcfU/r ,d iz;ksx esa CO2 rFkk H2O
oxygen of CO2 and H2O is labelled as 16O and 18O,
respectively. The oxygen evolved during
dh vkWDlhtu dks e'k% 16O o 18O ls vafdr fd;k tkrk
photosynthesis would be labelled as gSA izdk'kla'ys"k.k osQ le; mRiUu vkWDlhtu fdlls vafdr
18O
gksxh\
(1)
(1) 18O ls
(2) 16O

(2) 16O ls
(3) Either 16O or 18O

(3) 16O ;k 18O esa ls fdlh ,d ls

(4) Neither 16O nor 18O

(4) u rks 16O ls vkSj u gh 18O ls

24. Which part of the brain controls respiration?

(1) Cerebrum 24. efLr"d dk dkSulk Hkkx 'olu dks fu;af=kr djrk gS\
(2) Cerebellum (1) izefLr"d (2) vuqefLr"d
(3) Medulla (3) esMy
q k (4) gkbiksFksyes l
(4) Hypothalamus 25. os #f/j okfgfu;ka tks #f/j o mQrdksa osQ chp inkFkksZ osQ
25. The blood vessels which permit exchange of fofue; dh vuqefr nsrh gSa
materials between blood and tissues are
(1) osQoy osQf'kdk;sa
(1) Capillaries only
(2) osQf'kdk;sa o f'kjk;sa
(2) Capillaries and veins
(3) osQf'kdk;s]a f'kjk;sa o /efu;ka
(3) Capillaries, veins and arteries
(4) osQf'kdk;sa o /efu;ka
(4) Capillaries and arteries
26. 'kjhj esa gkWeksZuy larqyu dks ifjofrZr djosQ ______
26. ______ is a contraceptive which acts by changing xHkZfujkskd dk;Z djrh gSA
the hormonal balance of the body.
(1) fujks/ (2) dkWij-T
(1) Condom (2) Copper-T
(3) V~;cw Ds Vkseh (4) vkWjy fiy
(3) Tubectomy (4) Oral pill

27. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 27. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
(1) Liver stores bile (1) ;o`Qr fik dks lafpr djrk gS
(2) Liver secretes bile (2) ;o`Qr fik dks L=kfor djrk gS
(3) Gall bladder stores bile (3) fikk'k; fik dks lafpr djrk gS
(4) Bile does not contain digestive enzymes (4) fik esa ikpd ,atkbe ugha gksrs gSa

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
28. The temperature regulation in plants is 28. ikniksa esa rki fu;eu
(1) Not required
(1) vko';d ugha gS
(2) Performed through transpiration
(2) ok"iksRltZu ds }kjk lEiUu fd;k tkrk gS
(3) Controlled by chloroplasts
(4) Operated through phloem (3) gfjryodksa }kjk fu;af=kr fd;k tkrk gS
29. Which of the following is not the function of Golgi (4) yks;e ds }kjk lEiUu fd;k tkrk gS
apparatus?
29. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dk;Z xkWYth midj.k dk ugha gS\
(1) Storage and packaging of products synthesised
in ER (1) ER esa la'ysf"kr mRiknksa dk laxgz .k rFkk lao"s Vu
(2) Formation of lysosomes (2) ykblkslkseksa dk fuekZ.k
(3) Synthesis of complex sugars from simple
sugars (3) ljy 'kdZjkvksa ls tfVy 'kdZjkvksa dk la'ys"k.k
(4) Detoxification of drugs (4) nokvksa dk fujkfo"khdj.k
30. All of the following are components of a nephron 30. fuEu esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh usksu ds vo;o gS\
a
except
(1) gsUys dk ywi
(1) Loop of Henle
(2) Bowman's capsule (2) ckseu lEiqV
(3) Kupffer cell (3) dqIiQj dksf'kdk
(4) Distal convoluted tubule (4) nwjLFk dq.Mfyr ufydk

SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS [k.M - B % xf.kr

31. Consider the following graph of y = f(x). If n is the 31. y = f(x) osQ fuEu xzkiQ ij fopkj dhft,A ;fn n, f(x) dh
degree of f(x), then the minimum possible value of n ?kkr gS] rc n dk laHko U;wure eku gS
is
Y
Y
y = f(x)
y = f(x)
X X
X X O
O

Y
Y
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper

1 1 1 1 1 1
32. If x m and x 2 n , then x 3 is 32. ;fn x m rFkk x2 n, rc x3 cjkcj
x x3 x2 x x3 x2
equal to gS
(1) m3 m2 + 3m + 4 n (1) m3 m2 + 3m + 4 n
(2) m3 + m2 3m 2 n (2) m3 + m2 3m 2 n
(3) m3 + m2 3m + 6 + n
(3) m3 + m2 3m + 6 + n
(4) m3 m2 + 3m + 12 n
(4) m3 m2 + 3m + 12 n
33. ;fn sin + cosec = 2, 0 < 90, rc
33. If sin + cosec = 2, 0 < 90, then the value
sin2 + cot2 dk eku gS
of sin2 + cot2 is
(1) 3 (2) 0
(1) 3 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2
(3) 1 (4) 2
352 1
2 34. ;fn x ,d iw.kkd gS rFkk Hkh ,d iw.kkd gS] rc
35 1 x
34. If x is an integer and is also an integer, then x ugha gks ldrk gS
x
x cannot be (1) 8 (2) 12
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 17
(3) 16 (4) 17 35. m O;fDr;ksa dk ,d lewg vius ,d fe=k dks R #i;s ewY;
35. A group of m people plan to contribute equally to dk migkj nsus osQ fy, cjkcj va'knku nsus dh ;kstuk cukrk
pay for a friends gift that costs rupees R. If n gSA ;fn migkj osQ fy, n vfrfjDr O;fDr Hkh va'knku nsuk
additional people want to contribute for the gift, then pkgrs gS]a rc okafNr va'knku fdrus #i;s ?kV tk;sxk\
the required contribution will reduce by rupees
Rm Rn
Rm Rn (1) 2 (2)
(1) (2) m mn m 2 mn
m 2 mn m 2 mn
Rm Rn
Rm Rn (3) (4)
2 2
(3) (4) m mn m mn
m 2 mn m 2 mn
36. If cot and cosec are the zeroes of the polynomial 36. ;fn cot o cosec cgqin ax2 + bx + c osQ 'kwU;d
ax2 + bx + c, then sin is equal to gS]a rc sin cjkcj gS
2c 2c
(1) a2 b2 (2) (1) a2 b2 (2)
a2 c 2 a2 c 2
2b 2ab 2b 2ab
(3) (4) (3) 2 2 (4)
2
a c 2 2
a b 2 a c a2 b2

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013

37. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect 37. ;fn ,d prqHkZt

q ABCD osQ fod.kZ ,d nwljs dks E ij bl
AE BE AE BE
each other at E such that , then ABCD izdkj izfrPNsfnr djrs gSa fd ] rc ABCD gksxk
EC ED EC ED
must be a (1) lekUrj prqHkqt
Z (2) irax
(1) Parallelogram (2) Kite (3) leyEc prqHkqt
Z (4) leprqHkqZt
(3) Trapezium (4) Rhombus 38. fdrus o"kks esa ,d /u 5% okf"kZd ljy C;kt dh nj ls
38. In how many years will a sum of money double at nqxuq k gks tk;sxk\
5% per annum simple interest?
(1) 20 o"kZ (2) 25 o"kZ
(1) 20 years (2) 25 years
(3) 10 years (4) 15 years (3) 10 o"kZ (4) 15 o"kZ

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
39. If 1 1 1 1 ....... 1 1
39. ;fn 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 5 1 19 1 20
2 3 4 5 19 20
x x
, then the value of x is equal to , rc x dk eku cjkcj gS
20 20
1 3
1 3 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 20 20
20 20
1
1 (3) 1 (4)
(3) 1 (4) 40
40
40. ,d d{kk ds 15 yM+dksa o ,d v;kid dh vkSlr vk;q
40. The average age in a class of 15 boys and one
teacher is 15 years. If the teachers age is excluded, 15 o"kZ gSA ;fn v;kid dh vk;q dks gVk fn;k tk;s] rks
the average age of class reduces by 1 year, then the d{kk dh vkSlr vk;q 1 o"kZ de gks tkrh gS] rc v;kid
teacher's age is dh vk;q gS
(1) 28 years (2) 30 years (1) 28 o"kZ (2) 30 o"kZ
(3) 32 years (4) 34 years (3) 32 o"kZ (4) 34 o"kZ
41. Which of the following numbers is the least?
41. fuEu esa ls dkSulh la[;k U;wure gS\
3
(1) 0.001 (2) 0.81 3
(1) 0.001 (2) 0.81
4 4
(3) (0.6)2 (4) 0.0016 (3) (0.6)2 (4) 0.0016
42. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, the value of A B C
42. ,d ph; prq H kZ q t ABCD es a ] sin sin cos
A B C D 2 2 2
sin sin cos cos is D
2 2 2 2 cos dk eku gS
2
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

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43. If p is a single digit number (0 - 9) such that 43. ;fn p

,d ,dy vadh; la[;k (0 - 9) bl izdkj gS fd
pn p is always divisible by 5, where n is a natural
pn p lnSo 5 ls foHkkT; gS] tgk n ,d izko`Qr la[;k gS]
number, then how many values can p take?
rc p fdrus eku xzg.k dj ldrk gS\
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

44. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 13. If 44. nks vadh; la[;k osQ vadksa dk ;ksx 13 gSA ;fn bdkbZ osQ
the units digit is divided by the tens digit, then vad dks ngkbZ osQ vad ls foHkkftr fd;k tkrk gS] rc
quotient is 1 and remainder is 3. The two digit HkkxiQy 1 gS o 'ks"kiQy 3 gS] rc nks vadh; la[;k gS
number is
(1) 67 (2) 76
(1) 67 (2) 76
(3) 58 (4) 85
(3) 58 (4) 85 45. ,d yM+dh o"kZ 2010 esa 45,000 #- esa ,d LowQVh [kjhnrh
45. A girl bought a scooty for Rs. 45,000 in 2010. gSA LowQVh dk ewY; izfr o"kZ 10% dh nj ls fxjrk gS] fiQj
Though the price of the scooty depreciated by 10% Hkh og 2012 esa LowQVh oQks 40,000 #- esa csprh gS] mldks
p.a., she still managed to sell the scooty in 2012 for yxHkx gksrk gS
Rs. 40,000. Overall, she had an approximate
(1) 10% ykHk (2) 10% gkfu
(1) 10% profit (2) 10% loss
(3) 15% ykHk (4) 15% gkfu
(3) 15% profit (4) 15% loss
46. ABC esa B ij ledks.k gS] BD AC. fuEu esa ls dkSulk
46. In ABC, right angled at B, BD AC. Which of the
following is true? fodYi lR; gS\
(1) BD2 = AD DC
(1) BD2 = AD DC
(2) BD2 = AB BC
(2) BD2 = AB BC
(3) AD2 = BD DC
(3) AD2 = BD DC (4) AD2 = AB BC
(4) AD2 = AB BC 47. ;fn jkt dh vk; mlosQ fe=k dh vk; ls 60% de gS]
47. If Rajs income is 60% less than his friend's income, rc mlosQ fe=k dh vk; jkt dh vk; ls fdruh vfkd
then his friends income is more than Rajs income by gS\

200 200
(1) % (2) 150% (1) % (2) 150%
3 3

100
100 (3) 200% (4) %
(3) 200% (4) % 3
3

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
48. In the given figure, if AB = x units, BC = z units and 48. fn, x;s fp=k es]a ;fn AB = x bdkbZ] BC = z bdkbZ rFkk
DE = y units, then the value of BE is
DE = y bdkbZ] rc BE dk eku gS

A
A

D
D

B E C
B E C

( x y )z yz ( x y )z yz
(1) units (2) units (1) (2)
x x x
bdkbZ
x
bdkbZ

( z x )y ( x y )z ( z x )y ( x y )z
(3) units (4) units (3) bdkbZ (4) bdkbZ
x 2x x 2x

49. If the difference between the simple interest and 49. ;fn ,d fuf'pr /u ij nks o"kZ osQ fy, 5% okf"kZd nj
compound interest compounded annually on a ls ifjdfyr ljy C;kt o po`f C;kt osQ e; vUrj
certain sum for two years at 5% rate of interest is
1 #- gS] rc ku gS
Rupee 1, then the sum is
(1) 350 (2) 300
(1) 350 (2) 300
(3) 400 (4) 275
(3) 400 (4) 275
50. lewg ckjEckjrk caVu esa vf/dre ckjEckjrk okyk oxZZ
50. In a grouped frequency distribution, the class with dgykrk gS
the maximum frequency is called
(1) ek; oxZ
(1) Mean class
(2) ekf;dk oxZ
(2) Median class
(3) cgqyd oxZ
(3) Modal class
(4) caVu oxZ
(4) Distribution class
51. (723)463 dk bdkbZ dk vad gS
51. The units digit of (723)463 is
(1) 3 (2) 7
(1) 3 (2) 7
(3) 1 (4) 9
(3) 1 (4) 9

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013 Sample Paper
52. In the given figure, OA and OB bisect POQ and 52. fn;s x;s fp=k es]a OA o OB e'k% POQ o QOR dks
1 1
QOR respectively. If CD PR, PR = 12 cm, lef}Hkkftr djrs gSaA ;fn CD PR, PR = 12 cm,
3 3
OC = 10 cm, OA = 12 cm and OP = OR, then the OC = 10 cm, OA = 12 cm o OP = OR, rc AB dk
value of AB is eku gS
O O

C D C D
P R P R

A B B
A
Q Q
(1) 2.4 cm (2) 4.8 cm (1) 2.4 cm (2) 4.8 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm (3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 53. dk eku gS
53. The value of is 35 57 79 23 25
35 57 79 23 25
22 21
22 21 (1) (2)
75 75
(1) (2)
75 75
4 11
(3) (4)
4 11 75 75
(3) (4)
75 75 54. ,d fuf'pr la[;k dks 342 ls Hkkftr djus ij] gesa 'ks"kiQy
49 izkIr gksrk gSA ;fn blh la[;k dks 18 ls Hkkftr djs]a
54. On dividing a certain number by 342, we get 49 as
remainder. If the same number is divided by 18, then rks 'ks"kiQy gksxk
the remainder will be (1) 13 (2) 11
(1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 10
(3) 12 (4) 10 55. ;fn cgqin ax2 + bx + c (a 0) osQ 'kwU;d cjkcj gS]a rc
55. If the zeroes of the polynomial ax2 + bx + c (a 0) fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi lR; gksxk\
are equal, then which of the following must be true?
(1) a o c osQ fp foijhr gSa
(1) a and c have opposite signs
(2) a and c have same sign (2) a o c osQ fp leku gSa
(3) a and b have same sign (3) a o b osQ fp leku gaS
(4) a and b have opposite signs (4) a o b osQ fp foijhr gSa
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam. 2013
56. In the given figure, PQR is right angled at Q and 56. fn;s x;s fp=k es]a PQR ledks.k f=kHkqt gS] Q ij ledks.k
the points S and T trisect the side QR.
gS rFkk S o T] Hkqtk QR dks f=kHkkftr djrs gSAa
P
P

R T S Q
R T S Q
Which one of the following relation is true?
fuEu esa ls dkSulk lac/
a lR; gS\
(1) PT2 = 2PR2 + 5PS2
(1) PT2 = 2PR2 + 5PS2
(2) 8PT2 = 3PR2 + 5PS2
(2) 8PT2 = 3PR2 + 5PS2
(3) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + 3PS2
(3) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + 3PS2
(4) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + PS2
(4) 8PT2 = 5PR2 + PS2
57. The number of zeroes at the end of the product
18 12 15 40 25 16 55 105 is
57. xq.ku 18 12 15 40 25 16 55 105 osQ vUr
esa 'kwU;ksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) 5 (4) 6
58. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 + 465 is divisible by
58. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 + 465 fdlls foHkkT; gS\
(1) 3 (2) 5
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 11 (4) 17
(3) 11 (4) 17
59. When the natural numbers 1, 2, 3, 500 are
written, then the digit 3 appears x times. The value 59. tc izko`Qr la[;kvksa 1, 2, 3, 500 dks fy[kk tkrk gS]
of x is rc vad 3, x ckj vkrk gSA x dk eku gS
(1) 300 (2) 200 (1) 300 (2) 200
(3) 310 (4) 190 (3) 310 (4) 190
60. The circumcentre of a triangle is determined by the 60. ,d f=kHkqt dk ifjosQUnz fduosQ laxeu ls izkIr gksrk gS\
concurrence of
(1) 'kh"kZyEcksa
(1) Altitudes
(2) ekf;dkvksa
(2) Medians
(3) Perpendicular-bisectors (3) yEc&vZdksa
(4) Angle-bisectors (4) dks.k&vZdksa
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam-2014

Time : 2 Hours MM : 360
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. The distance(S)-time(t) graph of an object of mass 5. If the current flowing through the electric circuit shown
2 kg moving along a straight line is as shown below. below is 1.6 A, then the reading of the voltmeter is
The net work done on the object in the first four
seconds is V
2

8m

9.6 V
S
(1) 3.2 V (2) 4.8 V
4s (3) 8 V (4) 6.4 V
t
(1) 16 J (2) Zero 6. If a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slab
as shown below, then
(3) 32 J (4) 8 J

2. A man crosses a 90 m long straight track with a 75

uniform acceleration in 6 s. If his initial velocity is
3 m/s, then he leaves the track with velocity 60
(1) 30 m/s (2) 27 m/s
i
(3) 18 m/s (4) 9 m/s

3. Which of the following is not a unit of power?

(1) VA (2) Js1 sin75

(1) sin i
3
(3) kW (4) Wh

4. A passenger, sitting inside a train, is facing in the (2) sin i 3 (sin75)

direction of motion of the train. He tosses a coin that
falls ahead of him. It means that the train is sin30
(3) sin i
(1) In uniform motion (2) Slowing down 3

(3) Speeding up (4) Taking a turn (4) sin i 3 sin30

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
7. In the circuit shown below, if the battery does 11. Which of the following reactions involves both
3240 J of work in 5 s, then the value of resistance R is neutralisation and precipitation?
R (1) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O
(2) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O
(3) BaCl2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaCl
6
(4) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI PbI2 + 2KNO3

36 V 12. Baking powder is

(1) A compound of sodium hydrogencarbonate and
(1) 4 (2) 10 lime
(3) 3 (4) 2 (2) A mixture of baking soda and quick lime
8. Locate the position of image formed by a concave
mirror for an object placed between its principal (3) A compound of baking soda and mild edible acid
focus and centre of curvature. (4) A mixture of sodium bicarbonate and mild edible
(1) At centre of curvature acid
(2) Between infinity and centre of curvature 13. Which of the following substances cannot be used
(3) Between pole and focus to neutralise an acid extract?
(4) Behind the mirror (1) Suspension of milk of magnesia
9. Velocity(v)-time(t) graph of an object undergoing (2) Baking powder solution
uniform motion is
(3) Dock leaf extract
v v
(4) Nettle leaf extract
14. Average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. It occurs
(1) (2) in atmosphere in two isotopic forms 17Cl 35 and
t t 37
17 Cl . The percentage abundances of these
v v isotopes are respectively
(1) 80% and 20% (2) 75% and 25%
(3) (4) (3) 70% and 30% (4) 60% and 40%
t t 15. An element E contains 19 protons and 20 neutrons.
10. In the given figure, value of I2 will be The ion formed by E, during the formation a stable
4 I2 compound, is
2
(1) E2+ (2) E+
I
4 (3) E (4) E2
16. A mixture contains 0.2 g of oxygen gas and 0.4 g of
8V carbon dioxide gas. The ratio of oxygen atoms present
in oxygen gas to that in carbon dioxide gas is
(1) 1 A (2) 3 A (1) 3 : 16 (2) 11 : 8
(3) 4 A (4) 2 A (3) 3 : 4 (4) 11 : 16

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
17. The total number of oxygen atoms present in one
molecule of sodium sulphate is 21. C6H12O6
A
Pyruvate B
in presence of O

(3-carbon compound) 2

(1) 4
6CO2 + 6H2O + 36 or 38 ATP.
(2) 3
The reaction A and B occur in
(3) 4.81 1022
(1) A - Cytoplasm and B - Chloroplast
(4) 1.20 1022
(2) A - Cytoplasm and B - Mitochondria
18. On heating the crystals of ferrous sulphate strongly
(3) A - Mitochondria and B - Chloroplast
two gases X and Y are evolved. The nature of X and
Y is (4) A - Ribosome and B - Cytoplasm
(1) Acidic (2) Basic 22. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric (1) Urine is produced in kidneys
19. Read the following statements carefully : (2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys
Statement-1: The main component of bio-gas has (3) Kidneys are located in the pelvic region
six single bonds in its one molecule. (4) Urinary bladder is under the nervous control
Statement-2: Boiling point of propane is higher than 23. The part of the brain which maintains balance of the
that of ethane. body is
Now, mark the correct option. (1) Cerebrum
(1) Both the statements are correct (2) Cerebellum
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Medulla
(3) Only statement-1 is correct (4) Pons
(4) Only statement-2 is correct 24. Bile juice responsible for emulsification of fats is
20. Match the following : stored in
Functional Group Formula (1) Gall bladder
HO (2) Small intestine
i. Alcohol (a) C=O
(3) Liver
ii Aldehyde (b) C=O (4) Stomach
H 25. Radhika removed her hand abruptly after touching a
iii. Ketone (c) C=O
hot object. The message to remove her hand was
iv. Carboxylic acid (d) OH given by the
(1) i-(b), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(d) (1) Vertebral column
(2) i-(c), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(d) (2) Spinal cord
(3) i-(d), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(a) (3) Brain
(4) i-(d), ii-(c), iii-(b), iv-(a) (4) Cranium

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper

26. A pigment essential for photosynthesis is present in 29. In the given diagram, which of the following parts
the labelled as A, B, C and D is responsible for carrying
(1) Vacuole messages towards the cell body?

(2) Leucoplast A
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast
27. In humans, growth hormone is secreted by B C
(1) Pituitary gland
D
(2) Adrenal gland (1) A (2) B
(3) Thyroid gland (3) C (4) D
(4) Pancreas 30. Statement 1 : Carbon dioxide in humans is
28. In an experiment related to photosynthesis a student transported in dissolved form.
added iodine to the leaf in order to test the presence of Statement 2 : In humans, haemoglobin is present
in blood plasma.
(1) Sucrose
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Glucose
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Starch
(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(4) Fructose (4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS

31. If x 2 is a factor of the polynomial 2x3 2x + k, 34. In the given figure, if ABC PQR , then the
then the value of k is
measure of ATP is
(1) 12 (2) 2
A P
(3) 12 (4) 8
32. The expression (2x + 3y)3 18xy(2x + 3y) is equal to T
(1) 2x + 3y (2) 4x2 + 9y2
130 140
(3) 8x3 + 27y3 (4) 0
B Q C R
33. If , and are the zeroes of the polynomial
2x3 + 3x2 4x + 2, then the value of 2 + 2 (1) 50
+ 2 is (2) 40
3 (3) 90
(1) (2) 4
2
(4) 145
(3) 2 (4) 1
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

35. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If 41. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle.
AP = a units, then the length of PB is AOC + 2ABC is
P

45 O
A B
O C
A
B
a a (1) 360 (2) 180
(1) units (2) units
2 4
(3) 90 (4) 270
2a
(3) units (4) a units 42. The value of k for which the quadratic equation
3
kx2 + 6x + 1 = 0 has equal roots is
36. If 3x + 3x 1 = 36, then the value of x is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) 9 (4) 4

1 43. If f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2

+ a3x3 + ... + a10x10, where
37. If p q , where p and q are positive a 0 , a 1 , .... a 10 are constants, then the sum of
p q
coefficients of terms having even powers of x can be
rational numbers, then q p2 is expressed as
(1) Equal to 1 (2) Not real f (2) f ( 2) f (2) f ( 2)
(1) (2)
(3) Equal to 1 (4) Equal to 0 2 2
38. The dimensions of the base of a cuboid are f (1) f ( 1) f (1) f ( 1)
40 cm 20 cm. If its volume is 4,000 cm3, then its (3) (4)
2 2
height is
44. A train takes 2 hours less for a journey of 600 km,
(1) 8 cm (2) 7 cm if its speed is increased by 10 km/hr from its
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm original speed. The original speed of the train is
39. ABC is an equilateral triangle. If P and Q are the (1) 65 km/hr (2) 60 km/hr
midpoints of AB and AC respectively and
PQ = 3 cm, then the value of PA + AQ is (3) 55 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr
(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm 45. A rectangular piece of paper of dimensions
(3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm 88 cm 28 cm is folded without overlapping to
make a cylinder of height 28 cm. The volume of the
40. Which of the following equations has two distinct cylinder is
real roots?
(1) x2 + 5x + 7 = 0 (2) 3x2 2x + 4 = 0 (1) 1456 cm3 (2) 4277 cm3

(3) 2x2 + 6x 5 = 0 (4) x2 + 4x + 5 = 0 (3) 1746 cm3 (4) 5488 cm3

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper

46. If (7 4 3)x (7 4 3)x 14 , where x < 0, then 52. If PQRS is a quadrilateral and PR is one of its
diagonals, then which of the following is always true?
1
x5 is equal to
x5 (1) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 3PR

1 (2) PQ + QR + RS + SP < 2PR

(1) (2) 2
2 (3) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 2PR
1 (4) PQ + QR + RS + SP = 2PR
(3) (4) 2
2
53. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + 3y = 5
47. If an angle of a parallelogram is three-seventh of its is
adjacent angle, then the measures of angles of the
parallelogram are (1) One (2) Two

(1) 126, 54, 126, 54 (3) Zero (4) Infinitely many

(2) 48, 132, 48, 132 54. If the base and height of a triangle are increased by
1 unit each, then the area of the triangle is increased
(3) 62, 118, 62, 118 by 9 sq. units. Also, if base of the triangle is
(4) 58, 122, 58, 122 reduced by 2 units and the height remains the
same, then the area of the triangle is reduced by 12
452 sq. units. The base of the triangle is of length
48. If 0.P 56 , where P is any integer between
990 (1) 5 units (2) 6 units
0 and 9, then the value of PP is
(3) 12 units (4) 8 units
(1) 16 (2) 64
55. A field is 1700 cm long and 11 m broad. A
(3) 27 (4) 256 rectangular pit of dimensions 6 m 3.5 m 1 m is
dug anywhere in this field and dug out soil is spread
49. Two cubes of edge 4 cm each are joined end to evenly over the remaining part of the field. The
end. The surface area of the resulting figure is approximate rise in the level of the rest of the field
(1) 160 cm2 (2) 96 cm2 is

(3) 140 cm2 (4) 192 cm2 (1) 11.23 cm (2) 12.65 cm

50. In ABC, I is the incentre. If BIC : CIA : AIB (3) 9.57 cm (4) 10.1 cm
= 5 : 6 : 7, then the value of A : B : C is 56. The non-negative real root of the quadratic equation
(1) 3 : 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 2x2 x 21 = 0 is

(3) 5 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 5 : 3 3 7
(1) (2)
51. If 7x + 5y = 12 = 5x + 7y, then x2y + xy2 is equal to 2 2

(1) 12 (2) 24 5
(3) (4) 3
(3) 2 (4) 0 2

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

57. In the given figure, OBC is equilateral. If AB is the 59. In the given figure, the value of p is
longest chord of the circle and D is the mid-point of
AC, then the ratio of side OA to AD is B

A
+ 60
A 2p
D
135
O
C
76 65
B D C
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 14 (2) 12
(3) 3 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 (3) 16 (4) 18
58. If P is any point inside a ABC and s is the semi- 60. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of sides
perimeter of ABC, then which of the following is of a rhombus, taken in order, must be a
always true?
(1) PA + PB + PC < s (2) PA + PB + PC > 2s (1) Rectangle (2) Kite

(3) PA + PB + PC < 2s (4) PA + PB + PC > s (3) Rhombus (4) Square

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

Directions for Q.61 & Q.62 : If '24 4' means 6, C

'18 2' means 20, '16 12' means 4, '2 + 4' means 8, D E
then find the solution of the following questions. Place Place
A B
61. 9 18 2 4 + 3
(1) 6 (2) 5 G
H F
(3) 7 (4) 13
(1) Four (2) Eight
62. 2000 200 20 2 + 15
(3) Twelve (4) Six
(1) 203 (2) 78
64. If 'R' weighs half as much as 'S', 'S' weighs one
(3) 1 (4) 0 fourth of 'J' and 'R' weighs thrice as much as 'M', then
63. What are the maximum number of ways or paths in which of the following weighs the least?
which you can go from place 'A' to place 'B', provided (1) M (2) R
you can cross any junction only once in each
journey? [C, D, E, F, G, H are junction points] (3) S (4) J

Space for Rough Work