MCQ MicrobiologyA

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Copyright © 2008, New Age International (P) Ltd., Publishers Published by New Ag
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hanical, without the written permission of the publisher. All inquiries should b
e emailed to rights@newagepublishers.com ISBN (13) : 978-81-224-2931-2
PUBLISHING FOR ONE WORLD
NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS 4835/24, Ansari Road, Daryaganj, N
ew Delhi - 110002 Visit us at www.newagepublishers.com
This book is dedicated to
PROF. B.G. SHIVANANDA
Principal Al-Ameen College of Phar macy Pharmacy BANGALORE For his Her culean ef
for ts in bringing Herculean effor forts APTI to a high pedestal
FOREWORD
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) test a candidates ability to apply his or her k
nowledge acquired during the regular course of study. Framing a question paper b
ased on MCQs is time consuming but evaluating the answers is easy.subjectiveness
of the examiner associated with evaluation of essay type of answers is inherent
in the evaluation process & depends upon several variables such as hand writing
, methods of presentation etc. These variables do not exist during evaluation of
answers based on MCQs. I am of the opinion that for the examination system at t
he undergraduate level, the entire testing of theoretical knowledge should be MC
Q based since the evaluation can be computerized & human bias can be largely eli
minated. In this book, the multiple choice questions have been prepared with gre
at care such that the questions framed are precise & clear enabling the reader t
o make correct choices. A wide coverage of topics is given. I strongly recommend
this book for all related to Microbiology & College Libraries. PROF DR. KANTI G
OR Vice Chancellor K.S. K. V. Kachchh University Bhuj, Gujarat
PREFACE
The book is primarily meant for students appearing for PG competitive examinatio
ns. In USMLE, GATE, AFMC, AIIMS & other Medical, Paramedical entrance examinatio
ns for admissions to PG Programme, Microbiology is one of the important componen
t of the syllabus. The main objective of this book is to help students to review
their knowledge of Microbiology acquired through standard textbooks. A sound kn
owledge of Microbiology is essential for students of Medicine, Pharmacy, Dentist
ry & Nursing for understanding the subject with logical reasoning. This book is
specially designed to complement any standard microbiology textbook and to provi
de the students with a feedback on their progress & an opportunity to improve. T
hus the book can serve as a self assessment guide. With the explosion of knowled
ge in medical sciences, examinations in all faculties (Medicine, Pharmacy, Denti
stry & Nursing) is completely becoming MCQ oriented because this system of asses
sment is more accurate, reliable & quicker. A welcome trend in this direction is
already discernible Both the teachers & students of microbiology will find this
book useful. A quick persuation of the questions will provide evidence that the
book intends to stimulate reasoning Suggestions & criticism about the book are
welcome.
G. Vidya Sagar
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS
It gives me pleasure to acknowledge with deep appreciation for all those who hav
e extended their co-operation during the preparation of the book. • • Prof. Dr.
B. Suresh President, Pharmacy Council of India Sri. Harish Padh Director, Sri B.
V. Patel PERD centre Ahmedabad, Gujarat Prof. Dr. Ajay K. Saluja A.R. College of
Pharmacy Vallabh Vidyanagar Gujarat Dr. E. Bhanoji Rao Principal, Rolland Insti
tute of Pharmaceutical Sciences Behrampur, Orissa Dr. K. Senthil Kumar Principal
, Padmavathy College of Pharmacy Dharmapuri, Tamilnadu
•
•
•
Finally, I express my gratitude to Mr. Soumya Gupta, MD, Manager, New Age Intern
ational (P) Limited, New Delhi, for his encouragement and support. - Author
CONTENTS
Preface (ix)
Chapter 1
HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY
Chapter 2
1 9 25 33 37 39 45 51 61 77
BACTERIA & GRAM STAINING
Chapter 3
STERILISATION, CULTURE MEDIA & PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES
Chapter 4
GENERAL PROPERTIES OF MICROORGANISMS
Chapter 5
BACTERIAL NUTRITION
Chapter 6
BACTERIAL GROWTH
Chapter 7
STRUCTURE OF DNA & RNA
Chapter 8
IMMUNOLOGY
Chapter 9
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY
Chapter 10
INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY
CHAPTER 1
1. According to Pasteur statements which one of the following is true a. Living
organisms discriminate between stereoisomers b. Fermentation is a aerobic proces
s c. Living organisms doesn’t discriminate between stereoisomers d. Both a and b
2. “I found floating therin earthly particles, some green streaks, spirally wou
nd serpent-wise, and orderly arranged, the whole circumstance of each of these s
treaks was abut the thickness of a hair on one’s head”…. These words are of a. L
eeuwenhoek c. Pasteur b. A. Jenner d. Koch
5. Who demonstrated that open tubes of broth remained free of bacteria when air
was free of dust. a. Abbc Spallanzani b. John Tyndall c. Francisco Redi d. Paste
ur 6. Reverse isolation would be appropriate for a. b. c. d. a a a a patient wit
h tuberculosis patient who has had minor surgery patient with glaucoma patient w
ith leukemia
7. The symptome “ general feeling of illness and discomfort “ is called a. Cysti
tis b. Malaise c. Anaphylactic shockd. Arthritis 8. On soybean which of the foll
owing forms symbiotism a. b. c. d. Azatobactor paspali Rhizobium Nostoc Bradyrhi
zobium
3. The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Algae, and cyanobac
teria is a. Chlorophyll a c. Porphyrin b. Chlorophyll b d. Rhodapsin
4. During Bio Geo chemical cycle some amount of elemental carbon was utilized by
the microorganisms. The phenomenon is called as a. b. c. d. Dissimilation Immob
ilization Decomposition Neutralization
9. Who provide the evidence that bacteriophage nucleic acid but not protein ente
rs the host cell during infection a. b. c. d. Alfred D.Hershey & Leonard Tatum i
n 1951. Alfred D.Hershey & Zindar Lederberg in 1951. Alfred D.Hershey & Martha C
hase in 1952. Alfred D.Hershey & Macleod in 1952.
MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY
10. Spirulina belongs to a. Xanthophyceae c. Rhodophyceae b. Cyanophyceae d. Phe
ophyceae 19. The image obtained in a compound microscope is a. Real c. Real inve
rted b. Virtual d. Virtual inverted
11. The first antibody to contact invading microorganisms was a. IgG c. IgA b. I
gM d. IgD
20. Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation a. Ketolase c. Peroxidase a.
Conidia c. Ascospores b. Zymase d. Oxidase b. Sporangiospores d. None of these
12. The light emitted by luminescent bacteria is mediated by the enzyme a. b. c.
d. Coenzyme Q Luciferase Lactose dehydrogenase Carboxylase reductase
21. Which type of spores are produced sexually?
22. Bacterial transformation was discovered by a. b. c. d. Ederberg and Tatum Be
adle and Tatum Griffith None of these
13. Pick out the vector using in human Genome project a. b. c. d. Phagemid vecto
r Yeast artificial chromosomes Cosmid vectors Yeast episomal plasmids
23. Father of microbiology is a. Louis Pasteur b. Lister c. A.V. Leeuwenhock d.
Robert Koch 24. The antiseptic method was first demonstrated by a. Lwanowski c.
Edward Jenner a. Robert Koch c. Lister a. Pasteur c. Hugo devries a. Antony von
c. Johnsen & Hans a. Pasteur c. Koch b. Lord Lister d. Beijerinck b. Louis Paste
ur d. Edward Jenner b. Darwin d. Lamark b. Pasteur d. None of these b. Jenner d.
A.L.Hock
14. Salt and sugar preserve foods because they a. b. c. d. Make them acid Produc
e a hypotonic environment Deplete nutrients Produce a hypertonic environment
15. In a fluorescent microscope the objective lens is made of a. Glass c. Polyth
ene b. Quartz d. None of these
25. Small pox vaccine was first discovered by
26. The term mutation was coined by
16. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen is by means of a. Biological process b. Lig
htining c. Ultraviolet light d. All of the above 17. Which one of the following
fungi is the most serious threat in a bone marrow transplant unit? a. Candida al
bicans b. Aspergillus c. Blastomyces d. Cryptococus 18. Direct microscopic count
can be done with the aid of a. Neuberg chamber b. Anaerobic chamber c. Mineral
oil d. Olive oil
27. Compound microscope was discovered by
28. Father of Medical Microbiology is
29. Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as a. Spor
adic c. Epidemic b. Pandemic d. Endemic
30. Prophylaxis of cholera is a. b. c. d. Protected water supply Environmental s
anitation Immunization with killed vaccines All of these 39. Tuberculosis is a a
. b. c. d. Water borne disease Air borne disease Food borne disease Atthropod bo
rne disease
!
31. In electron microscope, what material is used as an objective lense? a. b. c
. d. Magnetic coils Superfine glass Aluminium foils Electrons
40. Phagocytic phenomenon was discovered by a. Louis Pasteur c. Metchnikof b. Al
exander Fleming d. Robert Koch
41. Meosomes are also known as a. b. c. d. Mitochondria Endoplasmic reticulum Pl
asmids Chondroids
32. The main feature of prokaryotic organism is a. b. c. d. Absence of locomotio
n Absence of nuclear envelope Absence of nuclear material Absence of protein syn
thesis
42. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by. a. b. c. d. Kohler and Milstein
Robert Koch ‘D’ Herelle Land Steiner
33. The stalked particles on the cristae of mitochondria are called a. Glyoxysom
es c. Oxysomes b. Peroxisomes d. Spherosomes
34. Antiseptic methods were first introduced by a. Lord Lister c. Beijernick b.
Iwanowski d. Edward Jenner
43. The minimum number of bacteria required to produce clinical evidence of deat
h in a susceptible animal under standard condition is called a. LD50 c. MLD b. I
D d. All of these
35. Kuru disease in Humans is caused by a. Bacteria c. Prions b. Viroides d. Myc
oplasma
44. In Electron Microscope source of electrons is from a. Mercury lamp c. both a
and b b. Tungsten metal d. None of these
36. A mutation that produces termination codon is a. b. c. d. Mis-sense mutation
Neutral mutation Non-sense mutation Reverse mutation
45. Griffith (1928) reported the phenomenon of transformation first in a. H. inf
luenzae c. Pneumococci b. Bacillus species d. E.coli
37. During conjunction the genetic material will be transferred through a. Cell
wall c. Pili a. Joseph Lister c. Pasteur b. Medium d. Capsule b. Ernest Abbe d.
Beijerink
46. The resolution power of the compound microscope is a. 0.2 micron b. 0.2 mill
imeter c. 0.2 Angstrom units d. 0.2 centimeter 47. The capacity of a given strai
n of microbial species to produce disease is known as a. Pathogen c. Infection b
. Virulence d. None of these
38. Antiseptic surgery was discovered by
"
48. Monoclonal antibodies are associated with the name of a. Burnet c. Milstein
kohler b. Medwar d. Owen
58. The causative organism of rocky mountain spotted fever was first described b
y a. Howard Ricketts c. Both a and b b. da Rocha-lima d. Robert Koch
49. Lederberg and Tatum (1946) described the phenomena of a. Conjunction c. Muta
tion b. Transformation d. Plasmids
59. The term bacteriophage was coined by a. De’Herelle c. Beijernick b. F.W. Two
rt d. Jwanosky
50. Hanging drop method for motility study was first introduced by a. Robert Koc
h c. Jenner b. Louis Pasteur d. Leeuwenhock
60. Viral infection of bacteria was discovered by a. De’Herelle c. Beijernick b.
F.W. Twort d. Jwanoksy
61. Eye cannot resolve any image less than a. 1ìm c. 7ìm b. 2ìm d. 5ìm
51. Electron microscope gives magnification upto a. 100 X c. 50,000 X b. 2000 X
d. 2,00,000 X
62. Compound Microscope was discovered by a. A.V. Lewenhoek b. Pasteur c. Jansse
n and Hans d. None of these 63. Electron Microscope was discovered by a. Prof. F
ritz c. Knoll and Ruska b. Janssen and Hans d. None of these
52. Term vaccine was coined by a. Robert Koch c. Needham b. Pasteur d. None of t
hese
53. The inventor of Microscope is a. Galileo c. Pasteur b. Antony von d. Koch
64. Magnification range of light microscope is a. 1000x – 5000x c. 500x – 1000x
b. 1000x – 2000x d. None of these
54. First Pasteur conducted fermentation experiments in a. Milk c. Fruit juices
b. Food material d. Both a and c
65. Condensation of light in light Microscope is by a. Objective c. Ocular b. Co
ndensor d. All of these
55. Modern concepts of chemotherapy was proposed by a. Paul Ehrlich c. Elie Metc
hnikoff b. Joseph Lister d. None of these
66. Light gathering capacity of Microscope is called a. Numerical aperture b. An
gular aperture c. Both a and b d. None of these 67. If 10x and 40x objectives ar
e used (air is the medium), the numerical aperture is a. 1.5 c. 1.0 b. 2.0 d. 1.
8
56. The role of phagocytosis was discovered by a. Paul Ehrlich c. Elie Metchikof
f b. Joseph lister d. Pasteur
57. L – forms are discovered by a. Klein Berger b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch
d. Antony von Leeuwenhock
68. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects into two separate objec
ts, is called. a. Resolving power c. N.A. b. Wave length d. None of these
69. Limit of resolution of compound microscope is a. 0.018 Ao c. 5 ìm b. 0.1 mm
d. 1 mm 79. Primary mediators in anaphylaxis a. Histamine c. Heparin b. Seratoni
n d. All of these
#
80. Arthus reaction was discovered by a. Marrice Arthus c. Richet b. Von Perquit
d. Porter
70. Source of light in fluorescence microscopy is from a. Mercury lamp c. Both a
and b b. Sunlight d. None of these
81. Serum sickness reaction was discovered by a. Marrice Arthus c. Richet b. Von
perquit d. Porter
71. Who perfected a magnetic lens in 1927 a. Gabor c. Busch b. Broglie d. None o
f these
82. Hybridoma technique was developed by a. Kochler & Milston b. Niel’s Jerne c.
Both a and b d. None of these 83. Disease that effects many people at different
countries is termed as a. Sporadic c. Epidemic b. Pandemic d. Endemic
72. The magnefication power of electron microscope developed by Knell and Ruska
is a. 10,000x c. 15,000x b. 12,000x d. 20,000x
73. In electron microscope source of electrons is from a. Mercury lamp c. Both a
and b b. Tungsten metal d. None of these
84. If the vectors transmit the infection mechanically they are called a. b. c.
d. Biological vectors Mechanical vectors Biological reservoir Both a and c
74. The electron passed out from the specimen are called a. Primary electrons b.
Secondary electrons c. Tertiary electrons d. None of these 75. Mycorrhiza was f
irst observed by a. Funk c. Fisher b. Frank d. Crick
85. If a person can be infected by direct contact with infected tissue of anothe
r person, it is termed as a. b. c. d. Indirect contact transmission Attachment D
irect contact transmission None of these
76. The transfer of genetic material during transformation is proved basing on G
riffith’s experiment by a. b. c. d. Avery Macleod & Mc.Carthy Lederberg & Taulum
Zinder & Lederberg Watson & Crick
86. Reduction of virulence is known as a. Exaltation c. Both a and b b. Attenuat
ion d. None of these
87. Enhancement of virulence is known as a. Exaltation c. Both a and b b. Attenu
ation d. None of these
77. Phagocytic theory was proposed by a. Louis Pasteur c. Behring b. Elie Metchn
ikoff d. Widal
78. Anaphylaxia was first observed by a. Parter & Richet c. Gell b. Coombs d. No
ne of these
88. The virulence of a pathogen is usually measured by a. LD c. ID b. MLD d. All
of the above
$
89. The lethal dose required to kill 50% of the lab animals tested under standar
d called a. ID c. ID50 a. Adhesions c. Toxigenicity e. All of the above b. LD50
d. MLD b. Invasiveness d. Enzymes
99. Staphylococcus aureus was isolated by a. b. c. d. Rosenbach Louis Pasteur Pa
sset Sir Alexander Ogston
90. The most important virulence factors are
100. Pseudomonas aeruginosa was first named a. b. c. d. Schroeter and Gessard Ro
bert Koch Louis Pasteur Edward Jenner
91. The ability of a pathogen to spread in ths host tissues after establishing t
he infection is known as a. Adhesion c. Toxigenicity b. Invasiveness d. None of
these
101. T. pallidum was discovered by a. b. c. d. Robert Koch Schaudinn and Hoffman
Louis Pasteur Edward Jenner
92. Which is the following enzyme acts as a spreading factor? a. Hyaluronidase c
. Catalase a. Koch c. John Snow a. Louis Pasteur c. Shiga b. Coagulase d. DNase
b. Metchnikoff d. Virchow b. Escherich d. Robert Koch
93. Vibrio Cholerae was discovered by
102. Neisseria gonorrhoeae was first described by a. Neisser in 1879 c. Robert K
och b. Pasteur in 1878 d. None of these
94. E.coli was first isolated by
103. Rh factor of the blood was discovered by scientist a. b. c. d. e. Louis Pas
teur Landsteiner and Weiner Janskey Moss None of these
95. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was first discovered by a. Robert Koch c. Louis P
asteur a. Robert Koch c. Edward Jenner b. Edward Jenner d. None of these b. Hans
en d. Louis Pasteur
96. Mycobacterium lepree was discovered by
104. Trepanema pallidum was discovered by a. b. c. d. e. Schaudinn and Hoffman L
ouis Pasteur Burgey Laennec None of these
97. Streptococcus pneumoniae was isolated by a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. Robert Koch
Edward Jenner Antony von Leewenhock Louis Pasteur Louis Pasteur Robert Koch Ant
onyvon Leewenhok None of these
105. Fluroscent substance used in fluorescent microscopy are a. Quinine sulphate
b. Auramine c. All of these d. None of these
98. B.anthracis was isolated by
%
ANSWERS 1. a 7. b 13. b 19. b 25. d 31. a 37. c 43. c 49. a 55. a 61. d 67. c 73
. b 79. d 85. c 91. b 97. d 103. b 2. a 8. d 14. d 20. b 26. c 32. b 38. a 44. b
50. d 56. c 62. c 68. a 74. b 80. a 86. b 92. a 98. b 104. a 3. a 9. c 15. c 21
. c 27. c 33. b 39. b 45. c 51. d 57. a 63. c 69. b 75. b 81. b 87. a 93. b 99.
b 105. c 4. b 10. b 16. d 22. a 28. c 34. a 40. c 46. a 52. b 58. c 64. b 70. a
76. a 82. c 88. d 94. b 100. a 5. b 11. b 17. b 23. c 29. b 35. c 41. d 47. b 53
. b 59. a 65. b 71. a 77. b 83. a 89. b 95. a 101. b 6. a 12. c 18. a 24. b 30.
b 36. c 42. a 48. a 54. c 60. b 66. a 72. b 78. a 84. b 90. e 96. b 102. b
CHAPTER 2
BACTERIA AND GRAM STAINING
1. Cold like symptoms are caused by which bacteria a. Pseudomonas b. E.coli c. H
aemophilus influenza d. Haemophilus streptococcus 2. In Streptococcus fecalis, t
he conjugation takes place at a. Pili c. Cell wall b. Cell membrane d. Flagella
7. The functions of plasmid are a. DNA replication b. Protein synthesis c. Cell
wall synthesis d. None of the above 8. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that a. F
ail to reproduce on artificial meida b. Have a rigid cell wall c. Are resistant
to penicillin d. Stain well with Gram’s stain 9. The etiologic agent of botulism
is a a. Neurotoxin c. Enterotoxin b. Endotoxin d. All of the above
3. The infected mad dogs may contain a. Nergi bodies c. Negri bodies b. Niagri b
odies d. Neisser bodies
4. What disease the Nesser will produce? a. Mumps c. Polio b. Rubella d. Measles
10. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during a. Lag phase c. Stati
onary b. Log d. Decline
5. Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to a. Lipolytic organisms b. Proteolytic or
ganisms c. Toxigenic microbes d. Saccharolytic microbes 6. The Baterium that is
most commonly used in genetic engineering is a. Escherichia c. Proteius b. Klebs
iella d. Serratia
11. Protein particles which can infect are called a. Virons c. Nucleoida b. Prio
ns d. None of these
12. In most of purple bacteria, the light harvesting centers are a. B 850 & Fe-S
c. B 845 & B 875 b. B 850 & B 875 d. B 850 & B830

13. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in a. Peptidoglycan c
. Theichoic acid b. Lippolysacharide d. Inner membrane
c. Tetrahymena thermophila d. Cryptaporiclium 22. Which of the following is most
similar to Rickettsia and Chlamydia? a. Bdellovibrio c. Mycobacterium b. Clostr
idium d. Mycoldaima
14. Which one of the following was Gramnegative, chemolithotrophic bacteria? a.
Siderococcus c. Spirellum b. E.coli d. Mycoplasms
15. The mode of reproduction which occurs in mycoplasma is a. Budding c. Binary
fission b. Bursting d. Binary fusion
23. How would you distinguish pseudomonas species from E-cloi? a. Gram staining
b. Morphology c. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration d. All of the above 24. Whi
ch of the following is pathogenic to humans? a. Spirogyra c. Prototheca b. Cepha
leuros d. Both b and c
16. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses? a. b. c. d. Icosahedral,
with envelope, ds DNA Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA RNA, helical with envelo
pe ds DNA, brick shape
17. Which one of the following produce typical fried egg appearance colonies on
solid media? a. Mycobacteria c. Mycoplasms b. Mycoplasts d. Bacteroides
25. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively used in production of a. Avirulent p
hases b. Single cell proteins c. Transgenic plants d. Nitrogen fixing bacteria 2
6. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are a. Fungi c. Bacteriophages
b. Commensels d. None of these
18. An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirements for sodium ch
loride resembles a. Halophile c. Barophile b. Basophile d. Xerophile
19. A population of cells derived from a single cell are called a. Monclonal cel
ls c. Protoplasts a. b. c. d. Lactic Lactic Lactic Lactic b. Clones d. Sub cultu
re
27. The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from a. Cattle c. Rats b. Sh
eeps d. Both a and b
20. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce acid only acid + H2O + CO2 acid + CO2 acid
+ alchohol + CO2
28. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas on Mac Conkey’s medium are a. Purple co
lored c. Pale colored b. Pink colored d. Green colored
21. In which of the follwing microorganism, conjunction tube was not produced du
ring conjunction process? a. Thiobaillus thiooxidence b. T. ferroxidance
29. Staining material of gram positive bacterium is a. Fast green c. Crystal vio
let b. Haematoxylon d. Safranin
BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING
30. The pigment present in red algae is a. Rhodochrome b. Fucoxanthin c. Chlorop
hyll only d. Chlorophyll + phycobilin 31. During mitosis, synapsis occurs in the
phase called a. Telophase c. Prophase b. Anaphase d. None of the above

39. Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only by a. Glycolysis 40. Virus will co
ntain a. Cell membrane c. DNA b. Cell wall d. DNA or RNA b. Kreb’s cycle c. Elec
tron Transport d. HMP shunt
41. The bacterial pili mainly contain a. Carbohydrates c. Proteins b. Lipids d.
Minerals
32. Which of the following change is a transition? a. ATGC’!ATCC c. ATGC’!AGGC b
. ATGC’!ATGG d. None of these
42. The wonder drug of second world war is produced by a. Algae c. Bacteria b. F
ungi d. Plants
33. Citrus canker is caused by a. Phytomonas c. Lactobacillus b. Salmonella d. H
ay bacillus
43. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is a. Photosynthesis b. Chemosynthesis c. B
reakdown of organic compounds d. Assimilation of nitrogen compounds 44. Centrome
re is that part of chromosome where a. Nucleoli are formed b. Crossing over take
s places c. Chromatids are attached d. Naking occurs 45. Somatic cell of the adu
lt body are haploid in many except a. Vertebrates c. Fungi b. Invertebrates d. V
ascular plants
34. Bacteria that are responsible for fermentation of dairy milk are a. Azetobac
ter c. Lactobacillus b. Rhizobium d. Hay bacillus
35. The fungal disease that affect the internal organs and spread through the bo
dy are called a. Mycoses c. Mycotoxicosis b. Systemic mycoses d. Superficial myc
oses
36. The staining technique used to stain the metachromatic granules of Corynebac
terium a. Giemsa stain b. Alberts stain c. Acid fast staining d. Both a and b 37
. The orderly increase in all components of protoplasm of a cell is called a. Re
production c. Growth b. Cell division d. All of the above
46. Congential diseases are a. Diseases present at birth b. Deficiency disease c
. Occur during life d. Spread from one individual to another
38. The causative organism of cholera, i.e., Vibrio show the movement called a.
Gliding movement b. Darting movement c. Pseudopoidal movement d. None of these
47. The enzyme needed in biological systems for joining two molecules is called
a. Lyases c. Polymerases b. Diastases d. Hydrolase

48. Meosomes are the part of a. Plasma membrane b. ER c. Lysosomes d. Golgi 49.
All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except a. Mycoplasms c. Actinomyce
tes b. Sperochetes d. Methanogena
58. The potorespiration involves a. Calvin cycle c. Glycolate cycle b. Hatch-Sla
ck cycle d. Kreb’s cycle
59. Bioleaching is done by a. Protozoa c. Algae b. Bacteria d. All of the above
50. Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall a. Lysozome c. Protease b. Reductase
d. Lysozyme
60. Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are called a. Elementary bodies b. Pas
cheur bodies c. Negri bodies d. Guarnieri bodies 61. Which of the following gene
ra is most likely to contain organisms capable of surviving high temperature? a.
Vibrio c. Torula b. Pseudomonas d. Coxiella
51. Cows can digest straw because they contain a. b. c. d. Cellulose hydrolyzing
microorganisms Protein hydrolyzing bacteria Lipid hydrolyzing microorganisms Am
ino acid degrading bacteria
52. The nucleus controls protein synthesis in the cytoplasm by sending a. Chroma
tin c. m RNA molecule b. A DNA template d. A pecialized protein
62. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as a. Co-
factors of enzymes b. Building blocks of important amino acids c. Constituents o
f hormones d. Binder of cell structure 63. The apparatus used to maintain a cont
inuous culture a. Chemostat c. Thermostat b. Autostat d. Both a and c
53. The site of energy production in a cell a. Micro body c. Ribosome b. Chromos
ome d. Mitochondria
54. Thylakoid is present in a. Mitochondria c. ER b. Chloroplast d. Golgi appara
tus
55. Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engin
eering work in plants? a. b. c. d. Clostridum septicum Xanthomonas oriza Bacillu
s coagulens Agrobacterium tumefaciens
64. The test used to detect the deamination of the amino acids by bacteria a. Ne
ssler’s reagent test b. Proteolytic test c. Lactose test d. Rose aindole reagent
test 65. Diphtheria is caused by a. Corynebacterium b. Staphylococcus c. Strept
ococcus d. None of these 66. Koplic spots observed in the mucous membrane is cha
racteristic feature of the disease a. Rubella c. Mumps b. Measles d. Influenza
56. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the produc
tion of a. Insulin c. Vaccines b. Interferons d. Edible proteins
57. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of a. Protein and DNA b. Protein and mRNA c
. Protein and rRNA d. Protein and tRNA
67. A bacterium containing prophage is called as a. Lytic c. Lytogen b. Lysogen
d. None of these c. Frchs bacillus d. Koch’s bacillus
!
77. Acridine dyes are more effective against a. Gram positive c. Ricke Hsia b. G
ram negative d. Mycoplasma
68. The most infectious food borne disease is a. Tetanus c. Gas gangrene b. Dyse
ntery d. Botulism
78. In bacteria pigment bearing structures are a. Chloroplast c. Sphaeroplast b.
Protoplast d. Chromatophores
69. An example for common air borne epidemic disease a. Influenza c. Encephaliti
s b. Typhoid d. Malaria
79. The procedure of differential staining of bacteria was developed by a. A.H.
Gram c. N.C. Gram b. H.C. Gram d. H.A. Gram
70. Vrial genome can become integrated into the bacterial genomes are known as a
. Prophage c. Bacteriophage b. Temperatephage d. Metaphage
80. Intermediate group of pathogen between bacteria and viruses which are intrac
ellular parasites are called a. Mucoplasmas c. Prions b. Rickettsias d. Virusoid
es
71. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of a. b. c. d. Toxigenic mi
crobes Proteolytic microbes Saccharolytic microbes Lipolytic microbes
81. Bacillus is an example of a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteri
a c. Virus d. Viroid 82. Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused by a. Plasmodium
b. Paramecium c. Yeast d. Entamoeba histolytica 83. Viral genome that can become
integrated into bacterial genome is called a. Prophage c. Bacteriophage 84. Cyt
ochromes are a. Oxygen acceptors b. ATP acceptors c. Electron acceptors d. Prote
in acceptors 85. The cells having F plasmid in the chromosomes were termed as a.
Hfr c. Hbr b. F– + d. C b. Temperate phage d. Metaphage
72. Virion means a. b. c. d. Infectious virus particles Non-infectious particles
Incomplete particles Defective virus particles
73. Virulence of the microorganisms can be reduced by a. Attenuation c. Inactiva
tion b. A virulence d. Freezing
74. The test used for detection of typhoid fever a. WIDAL test c. Rosewaller tes
t b. ELISA d. Westernblotting
75. Bacteriophage capable of only lytic growth is called a. Temperate c. Virulen
t b. Avirulent d. None of these
76. Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as a. Fried-Landers bacillus b. Kleb’
s hofflers bacillus
"
86. Recombination process occurring through the mediation of phages is a. Conjun
ction c. Transformation b. Transduction d. Transfection
97. Pigment bearing structure of bacteria are a. Mesosomes c. Mitochondria 98. S
pirochete is a. Gonococci b. Strphylococci c. Treponema pallidum d. Streptococci
99. Histones are found in a. Prokaryotes c. Viruses b. Eukaryotes d. None of th
ese b. Plasmids d. Chromophores
87. Mordant used in grams staining is a. Crystal violet c. Saffranin a. Capsule
c. Endospores b. Iodine d. All of these b. Cell-wall d. Flagella
88. Parasitic form must contain
89. Gram staining is an example for a. Simple staining b. Differential staining
c. Negative staining d. None of these 90. Following Cocci are non-motile except
a. Staphylococcus c. Gonococcus a. Birds c. Man b. Meningococcus d. Rhodococcus
agilis b. Animals d. All of them
100. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is a. Thick b. Lipids are present c. Te
ichoic acids are absent d. None of these 101. Cytoplasmic streaming is present i
n a. Prokaryotes c. Eukaryotes b. Animals d. Both a and b
91. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
92. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is secreted by a. Enterococci b.
Entamoeba histolytica c. Enterobacteriaceae d. Straphylococci 93. Autolysis is d
one by a. Mitochondria c. Golgi bodies b. Lysosomes d. Peroxisomes
102. The motile bacteria is a. S. typhi c. B. anthracis b. K. pneumoniae d. Shig
ella
103. The stain used to demonstrate fungus a. Albert b. Nigerosin c. Lactophenol
cotton blue d. None of these 104. Exotoxina are a. Heat labile b. Heat stable c.
Part of cell wall d. Polymerized complexes 105. The viruses that attack bacteri
a are a. Bacterial viruses c. Bacteriophages b. Bacterial pathogens d. Various
94. A facultative anaerobic is a. Only grow anaerobically b. Only grow in the pr
esence of O2 c. Ordinarily an anaerobe but can grow with O2 d. Ordinarily an aer
obe but can grow in absence of O2 95. The percentage of O 2 required by moderate
anaerobe is a. 0% c. 2 – 8% b. < 0.5% d. 5 – 10%
96. Interferon is formed by a. Lymphocytes c. Fibroblasts b. Lymphoblasts d. All
of these
106. The size of virus particle may range a. 0.02–0.2 ìm c. 0.015–0.2 ìm b. 0.5–
10 ìm d. 0.1–100 ìm
107. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by a. Mitosis c. Conjugation b
. Meiosis d. Binary-fission
#
117. The differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is shown t
o reside in the a. Cell wall c. Cell membrane b. Nucleus d. Mesosomes
108. Rod shaped bacteria are known as a. Cocci c. Bacilli a. Mycobacteria c. Clo
stridia b. Comma forms d. Plemorphic froms b. Mycoplasmas d. Rickettsia
118. Capsule formation occurs in the presence of a. Albumin c. Serum b. Charcoal
d. Starch
109. All the groups of bacteria have cell wall
119. The virulence determining antigens of microorganisms may be a. Proteins and
polysaccharides b. Carbohydrate – protein complexes c. Polysaccharide – Phospho
lipid – Protein complexes d. All of these 120. Organelles with hydrolytic enzyme
s are a. Mitochondria c. Lysosomes b. Golgi complex d. Ribosomes
110. Thickness of cell wall ranges from a. 9-10 nm c. 10-25 nm b. 12-13 nm d. 30
-40 nm
111. Teichoic acids and Teichuronic acids are found in a. b. c. d. Gram positive
bacteria Gram negative bacteria Fungi None of these
121. Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by a. Fimbria c. Cytoskeleton a. b. c.
d. a. b. c. d. b. Flagella d. Both a and b
112. Meosomes are a. b. c. d. Kind of ribosomes Formed during cell lysis A part
of cell wall Principal sites of respiratory enzymes
122. Fimbriae are demonstrated by Culture Gram stain Biochemical reactions Haema
ggulation test Salmonella typhi Klebsiella pneumoniae Bacillus anthracis Shigell
a flexneri b. Meningococcus d. Rhodococcus agilis
113. The characteristic shape of the bacteria is maintained because of a. Capsul
e c. Cell membrane b. Cell wall d. Slime layer
123. The motile bacteria is
114. Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of a. b. c. d. Polypeptide Polynuc
leotides Polysaccharides Polypeptides or polysaccharides
124. Following cocci are non-motile except a. Staphylococcus c. Gonococcus
115. The cell wall deficient form of bacteria is a. Mycoplasma c. Protoplast b.
‘L’ form d. Spheroplast
125. Metachromatic granules are chemically composed of a. b. c. d. Lipids Protei
ns Polymetaphosphates Polysaccharide
116. Mesosomes are also known as a. Mitochondria c. Golgi complex b. Chloroplast
s d. Chondroids
$
126. Metachromatic granules can be stained with a. Saffranine c. Crystal violet
127. Bacteria multiply by a. Spore formation c. Conjugation 128. Bacterial spore
s are a. Weakly acid fast c. Alcohol fast b. Strongly acid fast d. Non acid fast
b. Simple binary fission d. Gametes b. Methylene blue d. Pienic acie
135. The action of alcohol during Gramstaining is a. Allows the color b. It adds
color c. Decolorises the cells d. None of these 136. Lipid contents is more in
a. Gram negative bacteria b. Gram positive bacteria c. Same in both d. None of t
hese 137. Cell-wall is a. Thick in Gram positive than Gram negative b. Thick in
Gram negative than Gram positive c. Equal in both d. In Gram negative cell-wall
is absent 138. The Lipid content present in Gram positive bacterial cell-wall is
a. 1-10 % c. 2-8 % b. 1-5 % d. None of these
129. Endospores can be stained with a. Safranine c. Methylene blue b. Crystal vi
olet d. Malachite green
130. The following bacteria produce pigment, except a. Pseudomonas pyocyaneus b.
Serratia marcescens c. D. pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus 131. The order of
stains in Gram-staining procedure is a. Crystal violet, Iodine solution, Alcoho
l, Saffranine b. Iodine solution, Crystal Violet, Saffranine, Alcohol c. Alcohol
, Crystal Violet, Iodine solution, Saffranine d. All of these 132. The percentag
e of alcohol used in Gramstaining is a. 75% c. 60% b. 90% d. 25%
139. Rickettsiae stained by this technique responds as a. Gram positive b. Gram
negative c. Between positive and negative d. None of these 140. Chlamydiae occur
in a. Elementary bodies b. Reticulate bodies c. Complex structures d. a and b 1
41. Chlamydiae can be stained better with a. Ziehl neelsen staining b. Castaneda
& Machiavello stains c. Giminez stains d. Both b and c 142. Algae means a. Fres
h water organisms b. Sea weeds c. Fresh water weeds d. None of these
133. Gram positive bacteria appear as a. Pink c. both a & b b. Violet d. None of
these
134. Gram negative bacteria appear as a. Pink c. both a & b b. Violet d. None of
these
143. The study of algae is known as a. Algalogy c. Mycology b. Phycology d. Bact
eriology
%
154. The extra cellular infections virus particle is called a. Capsid c. Virion
b. Nucleocapsid d. None of these
144. The free floating algae are known as a. Phytoplankins c. Sea weeds b. Benth
ons d. None of these
155. Shape of bacteriophage is a. Brick shape c. Helical shape b. Bullet shape d
. Tadpole shape
145. Sexual reproduction of algae is carried by a. Isogamy c. Oogamy b. Anisogam
y d. All the above
156. If only one stain is used for staining a specimen a. Simple staining b. Neg
ative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these 157. Other than the sam
ple (specimen) the remaining portion is stained then it is called a. Simple stai
ning b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these 158. If more
than one stain is used, such staining is called a. Simple staining b. Negative
staining c. Differential staining d. None of these 159. ‘Fluorescence’ was first
observed by a. Kohler c. Both a and b b. Coons d. None of these
146. In algae, advanced type of sexual reproduction is a. Isogamy c. Oogamy b. A
nisogamy d. None of these
147. Alginic acids and its salts are obtained from the wall of a. Red algae c. G
reen algae b. Brown algae d. Red and brown algae
148. The molds obtained nutrition from dead and decaying matter which are called
a. Saphrophytes c. Commensals b. Parasites d. None of these
149. Most molds are capable of growing in the temperature range between a. 0o –
25oC c. 10o – 25oC b. 0o – 35oC d. 10o – 35oC
160. By using fluorescence property fluorescent antibody technique was developed
by a. Kohler c. Both and b b. Coons d. None of these
150. Examples for actinomycetes a. Streptomyces c. Frankia e. All of the above b
. Spirillospora d. Dermatophillia
161. During staining for Electron Microscopy, the method which improves contrast
of specimen is a. Positive staining c. Shadow staining b. Negative staining d.
None of these
151. Pellicle is found in only a. Algae c. Bacteria 152. The Largest virus is a.
Parvo virus c. Rhabdo virus 153. The smallest virus is a. Parvo virus c. Pox vi
rus b. Rhabdo virus d. Adeno virus b. Pox virus d. None of these b. Fungi d. Pro
tozoans
162. The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which are accepted by bacteria are a. Nitr
ates c. Ammonium salts b. Nitrites d. All of these
163. Archaeo bacteria are known as a. b. c. d. Halophiles Red extreme halophiles
Osmophiles Extreme thermophiles
&
164. Nitrite is converted into nitrate by the bacteria a. Nitrosomonas c. Nitrob
acter b. Nitrosocytes d. Azatobacter 173. Phycobiont is
a. The algal part in Lichens b. The fungal part in Lichens c. Laustoria formatio
n d. None of these 174. Parasitic form must contain a. Capsules c. Endospores b.
Cell-wall d. Flagella
165. Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is a. Alcaligenes c. Thiobacillus 166. Bacillus
Schlegelli is a. Hydrogen – Oxydising bacteria b. Sulphur – Oxydising bacteria c
. Iron-Oxidising bacteria d. Nitrite oxidizing bacteria 167. The group of bacter
ia which deopends on organic sources in nature for their energy requirements. Th
ey are said to be a. Chemotrophs c. Heterotrophes b. Phototrophs d. Organotrophs
177. b. Pseudomonas d. None of these
175. The total no. of genes in the group of same individuals is a. Genome c. Gen
e pool a. Bacteriophages c. λ –phage b. Gene map d. None of these b. Temperate p
hages d. A of these
176. Transformation was observed main y in
Capsu ated forms of bacteria are a. Viru ent c. Usefu b. A viru ent d. Symbioti
c
168. Majority of bacteria are a. Saprophytes c. Commensa s 169. Symbionts are a.
Bacteria in symbiotic association b. The group of fungi in symbiotic associatio
n c. The groups participating in symbiotic association d. A of these 170. The
best examp e for symbiotic association is a. E.co i in intestine of man b. Liche
ns c. Norma f oraof skin d. A of the above 171. The enzymes responsib e for d
ecomposition is a. Lipo ytic c. Lysozyme b. Proteo ytic d. Both a and b b. Symbi
onts d. Parasites
178. The bacteria ce s participating in conjugation are a. Conjugants c. Excon
jugants 179. Phagocytes are a. Monocytes c. Basophi s b. Macrophages d. A of t
hese b. Ferti e ce s d. None of these
180. The microorganism engu fed by phagocyte resides in a vacuo e is known as a.
Phagosome c. both a and b b. Lysosome d. None of these
181. Toxic products in phago ysosome are a. b. c. d. H2SO4 Sing et O2 Superoxide
radica s A of these
172. Urea is decomposed by the species a. Micrococcus sps. b. Nitrosomonas sps.
c. Proteus sps. d. Both a and c
182. During destruction of antigen partic e in phago ysosome the product formed
in phago ysosome the product formed during formu ation is a. Acetic acid c. Citr
ic acid b. Lactic acid d. None of these
183. The coating of a bacterium with antibody or comp ement that eads to enhanc
ed phagocytosis of the bacterium by phagocytes is ca ed a. Opsonisation c. CFT
184. Attenuation means a. b. c. d. Ki ing of the bacteria (microorganism) Inact
ivation of bacteria More activating the bacteria Both 1 and 2 b. Aggu ation d. N
one of these
'
192. Vibrio cho era differs from vibrio e tor by a. b. c. d. It shares some Inab
a, Ogawa subtypes with e tor Resistant to po ymuxin E tor is non-moti e Causes
ess subc inica infections as compared to e tor b. 3 – 6 months d. 9-12 months
193. Cho era vaccine gives protection for a. 1 – 3 months c. 6 – 9 months a. b.
c. d. a. b. c. d.
194. Prophy axis of cho era is Protected water supp y Environmenta sanitation I
mmunisation with ki ed vaccines A of these Sh.shiga Sh.schmitzi Both a and b
Sh.para dysenteriae b. Staphy ococci d. A of the above
185. Infection that resu ts in pus formation are ca ed a. Foca infection b. Ac
ute infection c. Pyogenic infection d. Chronic infection 186. Presence of viab e
bacteria in the b ood stream is ca ed a. Viraemia c. Bacteraemia b. Septicaemi
a d. Bactericida
195. Sh.dysenteriae is a so known as
187. Presence of viruses in the b ood stream is known as a. Viraemia c. Septicae
mia 188. Opsonin is the a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. Ce wa component P asma compon
ent Serum component Cytop asm component Streptococcus pyogenes Str. pneumoniae S
tr. viridans Str. faeca is b. Bacteraemia d. Pyemia
196. Acid fast bacteria are a. Neisseria c. Mycobacteria a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d.
a. b. c. d.
197. Mycobacteria are stained with Gram’s staining Simple staining Both a and b
Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining Corynebacterium M. tuberculosis M. bovis M. avium Is
negative in tubercular leprosy Positive in lepromatous type Indicated delayed hy
persensitivity test Indicates infection

189. β-haemolytic acteria is
198. Niacin test is positive in case of

190.
The natural reservoir of infection for cholera is a. Flies c. Man a. . c.
d. . Horse d. None of these
199. Lepromin test
191.
Main cause for Cholera is Poverty and insanitation Mosquitoes Toxin produce
d y pesticides None of these

200. Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections? a. Fever c. Pyogenic
. Zoonotic d. None of these

201.
Streptococcus pyogenes classification is ased on a. Protein M c. Protein R
. Protein T d. Polysaccharide C
211. Mc Fadyean’s
reaction is used to detect a. Bacillus
anthracis .Brucella c
. Corynae acterium
d. None of these
212. Gasgangarene acillus
is a. . c. d. Fa
cultative anaero e O ligate anaero e Facultative aero e O ligate aero e
202. α-h emolytic streptococci re lso known s . Str. pyogenes c. Virid ns gr
oup b. Virulence group d. None of these
203. Streptolysin O is in ctiv ted by . CO2 c. Oxygen 204. Streptolysin ‘S’ is
. Oxygen unst ble b. Thermost ble c. Oxygen st ble d. None of these 205. Influe
nz virus is identified by using . b. c. d. H em ggulutinin inhibition test Tis
sue culture method Embryon ted eggs Pl que form tion b. Nitrogen d. Serum
213. Co gul se test is used for . b. c. d. S lmonell St phylococcus Bordetell
Pneumococcus
214. HIV is belonging to . b. c. d. Retro Virid e Rh bdo Virid e Tog Virid e P
r myxo Virid e
215. Speci l fe ture of Retro viruses . b. c. d. Reverse tr nscript se RNA dire
cted DNA polymer ses Both & b Boils
206. Growth of influenz virus is identified by . Cytop thic effects b. Hel ce
lls c. Both nd b d. None of these 207. Glut mic cid is oxidized by the speci
es except . B. bortus c. B. suis b. B. melien sis d. B.c nis
216. AIDS virus is . RNA virus c. Retro virus 217. AIDS is c used by . HTLV –
I c. HTLV – III b. Buny virus d. All b. DNA virus d. Entero virus
208. “Prozone phenomenon” is encountered in . b. c. d. A typic l mycob cteri B
rucell Streptococcus Bordetell pertusis
218. Which of the following org nisms is most commonly ssoci ted with AIDS pneu
moni ? . b. c. d. Klebsiell Str. pneumoni Mycopl sm Mycob cterium tuberculos
is
209. Of the following, this is c psul ted org nism . B cillus nthr cis b. Es
cherichi -coli c. Coryneb cterium d. Brucell 210. Anthr x is . Vector borne
c. Wound bone b. Zoonotic infection d. Soil borne
219. Sero conserv tion in HIV infection t kes pl ce in . 3 weeks c. 9 weeks b.
6 weeks d. 12 weeks
220. Following is the m rker of HIV infection in blood: . b. c. d. Reverse tr n
script se DNA polymer se RNA polymer se None of these

230. Di gnosis of b cteri l dise se c n be m de by . Finding b cteri in p thol
ogic l fluids b. Isol tion of b cteri by culture from exud tes or blood c. Both
nd b d. None of these 231. St phylococcus ureus re ch r cterized by . For
m tion of cid in sucrose, dextrose b. Liquific tion of gel tin due to productio
n of gel tin se c. Str ins re c t l se positive d. All of bove e. None of thes
e 232. Choler occurs in _______ form . Endemic c. Spor dic e. None of these .
R.mooseri c. R.prow zekii e. None of these b. Epidemic d. ll
221. Which of the following is the most specific in di gnosis of AIDS? . b. c.
d. IHA Western blot ELISA Immuno electrophoresis
222. The interv l period between HIV infection nd ppe r nce of ntibodies in s
erum is c lled . Intrinsic period c. Window period . Western blot test c. Both
nd b . Western blot test c. K rp s test b. Incub tion period d. None of the
se b. ELISA test d. VDRL test b. ELISA test d. Fujerbio test
223. Screening test for AIDS is
233. Endemic typhus is c used by b. R.quint n d. ny of them
224. Confirm tory test for AIDS is
225. The most common infection in AIDS is b. CMV . LGV c. Pnemocystis c rnii d.
Syphilis 226. During AIDS, HIV infects . CD3 lymphocytes b. CD4 lymphocytes c.
CD2 lymphocytes d. Blymphocytes 227. L b di gnosis of Leishm ni sis is done by
. CFT c. Blood culture b. Peripher l sme r d. All of these
234. A m n is usu lly infected for tick typhus by – . b. c. d. Drinking milk of

sick nim ls Tending c ttle Inh ling infected dust All of these
235. In Gr m positive b cteri , r tio of RNA to DNA is . 8 : 1 c. Almost equ l
. Simple st in c. Differenti l st in b. 1 : 2 d. None of these b. Counter st in
d. None of them
236. Ziehl – Neelson st in is ______
228. Those fungi which do not h ve sexu l st ge re cl ssified s . Phycomyce
tes c. B sidiomycetes 229. Tine c pitis is . b. c. d. Ring worm of the foot Ri
ng worm of sc lp Ring worm of non-h iry skin of body Both nd c b. Ascomycetes
d. Fungi imperfecti
237. Wet mount slide prep r tions re used in microbiology s they llow to see
. b. c. d. e. Size nd sh pe of individu l org nisms Ch r cteristic rr ngement
or grouping of cells Motility of the org nism All of these None of these
238. Org nism resist nt to degr d tive lysosom l enzymes includes . M.tuberculo
sis b. Legionell pneumophil c. M.lepr e d. Both nd b e. Both b nd c 239. F
reeze-etch p rticles (used in prep ring cell for electron microscopy) c n be loc
ted in the . Cytopl sm c. Cell membr ne b. Cell w ll d. Nucleus b. Inv sion of
mucous membr ne c. Cont min tion of wounds with conidi or myceli t fr gments d
. All of these e. None of these 245. Fungi differs with b cteri in th t it – .
Cont in no peptidoglyc n b. Are prok ryotic c. Susceptible to griseofulvin d. H
ve nucle r membr nes e. All of these 246. A polys cch ride c psule is present o
n cryptococci which – . Inhibits ph gocytosis b. Is n id to di gnose c. Cross
re cts with rheum toid f ctor d. All of these 247. The l rgest protozo is – .
B l ntidium coli b. Ent moeb coli c. Trichomonus v gin lis d. Toxopl sm gondi
i 248. Premunition is p rticul rly seen in – . Asc ris c. Pl smodium b. Gi rdi
d. None of these
240. The properties common to Gr m positive nd neg tive cell w lls re . Equ l
susceptibility to hydrolysis by lysozyme b. Peptide crosslinks between polys cc
h rides c. Rigid peptoglycon ctivity d. Gre ter resist nce to drying th n veget
tive cell. e. All of these 241. The m in difference in true b cteri nd mycopl
sm is th t it does not posses – . Fl gell c. ATP synthesis b. Cell w ll d. A
c psule
242. The org nism responsible for ret rding penetr tion of host cell by n inhib
itor of ATP synthesis. . M.pneumoni e b. Rickettsi rickettsii c. Chl mydi tr
chom tis d. Chl mydi psit cci 243. Mycopl sm s differ from Ch l my-di e in th t
, it . h s bility to c use urin ry tr ct infection b. l ck of true b cteri l
cell w ll c. susceptible to penicillin d. All of these e. None of these 244. Fun
g l dise se in hum n is c used by – . Inh l tion of conidi
249. Which of the following v ccine cont ins ttenu ted form of b cteri ? . BCG
c. Polio b. TAB d. Choler
250. The b cteri , which is motile t 22oC but non-motile t 37oC is . Tr nform
tion c. Conjug tion 251. Techoic cid is – . Found in the w lls of Gr m positi
ve b cteri b. Provide receptors for ph ges c. M ke up outer w ll of Gr m neg ti
ve b cteri d. Influence the perme bility of the membr ne b. Tr nsduction d. Cel
l fusion
252. One fl gelium t one end of the org n is c lled – . Monotrich te c. Iophot
rich te b. Amphitrich te d. Peritrich te 261. Choler red re ction is identified
by . Sulphuric cid b. Nitric cid c. Hydrochloric cid d. C rbolic cid
!
253. Wh t is the function of b cteri l c psule? . Production of org nism from p
h gocytosis b. Helps in dherence of b cteri to surf ce in its environment c. B
oth nd b d. None of these 254. Which of the following is the ch r chteristic
of b cteri l spore? . b. c. d. Highly refr ctile Usu lly dehydr ted Sensitive t
o form ldehyde All of these
262. Di gnosis of c rrier of s lmonell typhi m y be shown by . Fec l culture c
. Urine culture b. Bile culture d. All of these
263. D isy he d colony is ssoci ted with . M.tuberculosis c. Cl. tet ni b. C.d
iphtheri e d. None of these
264. Neil mooseri re ction is rel ted to . Rickettsi e c. Spiroch etes periring
ens b. Chl mydi e d. C l o s t r i d i u m
255. Which of the following re cid f st structures? . Mycob cteri c. Noc rdi
b. B cteri l spores d. All of these
265. All of the following re DNA viruses except – . P rvo virus c. Herpes viru
s b. P r myxo virus d. Pix virus
256. All of the following re cid f st structures except . Clostridium c. Exos
keleton b. B cterium spores d. None of these
266. The dengue fever virus is – . Arbo virus c. Entero virus b. Echo virus d.
Orthomyxo virus
267. Dengue fever is c used by – . B cteri c. Fungi b. Virus d. Rickettsi
257. All of the following re energy source of b cteri except . b. c. d. Oxid
tion of inorg nic compounds Oxid tion of org nic compounds Absorption of he t Ut
ilis tion of visible light
268. Which of the following ch r cters re rel ted to viruses? . No growth on i
n nim te culture medi b. Not sensitive to ntibiotics c. No energy producing en
zymes d. Insensitive to interferon 269. M in c us tive org nism of chiken pox is
. Fox virus c. Me sles virus b. Mumps virus d. None of these
258. Identify the oblig te n erobes . S lmonell c. Cl. tet ni b. Vibrio chole
r d. S rcin e
259. Streptococci which re destroyed t 60°C for 30 minutes . Preptostreptococ
ci b. Strepto virid ns c. Strepto hemolyticus d. All of these 260. Toxins or enz
ymes which re not produced by streptococcus pyrogens . Hy luronides c. Hemolys
in b. Phosph te d. Streptokin se
270. Rickesi re st ined with . Giesn nd C st ned st ins b. M cchi vello n
d Gimnezst ins c. Both nd b d. M l chite green
" ANSWERS 1. c 7. d 13. b 19. b 25. c 31. c 37. c 43. c 49. 55. d 61. c 67. b
73. 79. b 85. 91. b 97. d 103. c 109. b 115. b 121. d 127. b 133. b 139. b 1
45. d 151. d 157. b 163. b 169. c 175. c 181. d 187. 193. b 199. c 205. 211.
217. d 223. b 229. c 235. 241. b 247. 253. c 259. d 265. b 2. c 8. c 14.
b 20. d 26. c 32. d 38. b 44. c 50. d 56. c 62. 68. d 74. 80. b 86. b 92. d
98. c 104. 110. c 116. d 122. d 128. 134. 140. d 146. c 152. b 158. c 164.
c 170. b 176. b 182. b 188. c 194. d 200. d 206. b 212. b 218. d 224. 230. c
236. c 242. b 248. c 254. d 260. b 266. 3. c 9. 15. c 21. 27. d 33. 39.
45. c 51. 57. c 63. 69. 75. 81. 87. b 93. b 99. b 105. c 111. 117.
123. 129. d 135. c 141. d 147. b 153. b 159. 165. c 171. b 177. c 183.
189. 195. c 201. 207. d 213. b 219. c 225. c 231. c 237. d 243. b 249. 255
. d 261. 267. b 4. d 10. b 16. 22. c 28. c 34. c 40. d 46. 52. c 58. c 64.
70. b 76. b 82. d 88. b 94. d 100. c 106. c 112. d 118. c 124. d 130. c 136.
142. b 148. 154. c 160. b 166. 172. d 178. 184. b 190. c 196. c 202. c 2
08. b 214. 220. 226. b 232. d 238. e 244. d 250. d 256. 262. d 268. d
5. 11. b 17. c 23. c 29. c 35. b 41. c 47. c 53. d 59. b 65. 71. d 77. 83.
89. d 95. c 101. c 107. d 113. b 119. d 125. c 131. 137. 143. b 149. b 15
5. d 161. b 167. c 173. 179. d 185. c 191. 197. d 203. c 209. 215. c 221.
b 227. d 233. 239. c 245. e 251. 257. c 263. b 269. d
6. 12. b 18. 24. c 30. d 36. b 42. b 48. 54. b 60. c 66. c 72. c 78. d 84.
c 90. 96. d 102. 108. c 114. d 120. c 126. b 132. b 138. b 144. 150. d 15
6. 162. d 168. d 174. 180. 186. c 192. d 198. b 204. c 210. b 216. c 222.
c 228. d 234. c 240. d 246. 252. 258. c 264. 270. c
CHAPTER 3
STERILISATION, CULTURE MEDIA AND PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES
1. The medium used in membr ne filter technique w s . EMB g r c. L ctose broth
2. Lysol is . Sterilent c. Antiseptic b. Disinfect nt d. Antifung l gent b.
EMR-Vp medium d. Endo g r 7. Therm l de th time is . Time required to kill l
l cells t given temper ture b. Temper ture th t kills ll cells in given ti
me c. Time nd temper ture needed to kill ll cells d. All of the bove 8. A cul
ture medium the ex ct composition of which is not known w s c lled s . Simple
c. Defined b. Complex d. N tur l
3. Which of the following is neutr l st in? . Picric cid c. Neutr l red b. G
miems d. M l chite green
4. Peptone w ter medium is n ex mple for . Synthetic medium b. Semisynthetic m
edium c. Differenti l medium d. None of these 5. The method in which the cells
re frozen dehydr ted is c lled . P steuriz tion c. Disinfection b. Dessic tion
d. Lypophiliz tion
9. Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the detection of . Tet ni toxin b. Cho
ler toxin c. Diophtheri toxin d. Toxoid 10. Temper ture required for p steuriz
tion is . Above 150oC c. 110oC b. Below 100oC d. None of these
11. Sep r tion of single b cteri l colony is c lle . Isol tion c. Pure cultur
ing b. Sep r tion d. All of these
6. The technique used to void ll microorg nisms is ccomplished by . Sterliz
tion b. Disinfection c. Surgic l steriliz tion d. Disinfection Steriliz tion
12. Which of the following is ionizing r di tion? . U.V. r ys c. γ-rays b. IR d
. None of these
$
13. Which of the followin dimerisation of thymine? a. X-rays c. ã-rays b. U.V.
rays d. None of these induces
22. The orderly increase in the quantity of all of the cellular components is kn
own as a. Reproduction c. Binary fission b. Growth d. None of these
14. When food material are preserved at a temperature just above freezin temper
ature, the process is called. a. Freezin c. Chillin b. Pasteurisation d. Frost
in
23. Theobacillus thio oxidans row at pH a. 7.0 c. 6.0 b. 1.0 d. 9.5
24. Slow freezin requires the conditions a. b. c. d. 0oC to 15oC for 15 min. –
6 oC to – 10oC for 10 min. – 15oC to 3 to 72 hrs. None of these
15. Which of the followin method of sterilization has no effect on spores? a. D
ryin c. Autoclave b. Hot air oven d. None of these
25. Discontinuous heatin is called a. Pasteurization c. Fermentation 26. Isolat
ion is a. b. c. d. Purification of culture Introduction of inoculum Separation o
f a sinle colony To row microoranisms on surfaces b. Sterilization d. Tindali
sation
16. Treponema pallidum can be best indentified usin a. Fluorescence microscope
b. Briht field microscope c. Dark field microscope d. Flourescence microscope 1
7. Autoclavin is carried at a. Dry heat b. Atmospheric pressure c. 120oC d. All
of these 18. Temperature in pasteurization is a. 62.8oC c. 68.2oC b. 35.7oC d.
60.8oC
27. The condition required for autoclave a. b. c. d. 121oC temp.and 15 lbs. pres
sure for 20 min. 120oC temp.and 20 lbs. pressure for 30 min 150oC temp. for 1 hr
. 130oC temp for 2 hr.
28. Lysozyme is effective aainst a. b. c. d. Gram neative bacteria Gram positi
ve bacteria Protozoa Helminthes
19. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture method is a. Inoculum c. Dilu
tion 20. Alae are rich in a. Carbohydrates c. Vitamins b. Proteins d. All of th
ese b. Suspension d. None of these
29. Blood aar medium is a. b. c. d. Enrichment medium Enriched medium Selective
medium Differential medium
21. L-Lysine is produced from a. Corynebacterium lutamicum b. Clostridium botul
inum c. Mycobacterium sps d. Pseudomonas
30. Infrared radiation is a method of sterilization by a. Dry heat b. Moist heat
c. Chemical method d. Mechanical method
31. Lyophilization means a. b. c. d. Sterilization Freeze-dryin Burnin to ashe
s Exposure to formation 40. Glassware are sterilized by a. Autoclavin c. Incine
ration a. Tyndall c. Koch a. Lab media c. Livin cells 43. By pasteurization a.
b. c. d. b. Hot air over d. None of these b. Pasteur d. Jenner b. Broth d. None
of these
%
41. Tyndallisation was proposed by
32. Temperature used for hot air oven is a. b. c. d. 100oC for 1 hour 120oC for
1 hour 160oC for 1 hour 60oC for 1 hour
42. Viruses can be cultivated in
33. Phenol co-efficient indicates a. b. c. d. Efficiency of a disinfectant Dilut
ion of a disinfectant Purity of a disinfectant Quantity of a disinfectant
All the microoranisms can be removed Only pathoenic forms can be removed Only
non-pathoenic forms can be removed All of these are correct
34. This is an aar plate method and is commonly used for estimation of the numb
er of bacteria in milk. a. b. c. d. Standard Plate Count (SPC) Spread plate Lawn
culture Roll tube method
44. The temperature required for pasteurization is a. Above 100oC c. 100oC b. Be
low 100oC d. None of these
45. In the medium other than nutrients, if any substance is used in excess, that
medium is a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. Enriched medium Special medium En
richment medium None of these Nutrient Aar Nutrient broth Wilson and Blair Czap
eck-dox medium Robertson cooked-meat medium Nutrient aar Nutrient broth Mac-Con
key’s aar
35. Aar is obtained form a. Brown alae c. Green alae b. Red alae d. Blue-re
en alae
36. A ram positive oranism which produces swarmin on culture medium is a. Sal
monella c. Staphylococci b. Clostridium d. Proteus
46. Example for indicator medium is
37. Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is known as a. Pathoenicity c. Exaltat
ion b. Attenuation d. Toxienicity
47. Example of Anaerobic medium is
38. For effective sterilization in an autoclave the temperature obtained is a. 5
0oC c. 120oC 39. Spores are killed by a. 70% alcohol c. Autoclavin b. Glutarald
ehyde d. Both b and c b. 100oC d. 180oC
48. The differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors, the medium used is a.
b. c. d. Wilson & lair Blood Aar Tetra thionate broth Mac-Conkey’s Aar
&
49. Best method for ettin pure culture is a. Streak-plate c. Both a & b b. Aa
r slant d. None of these
58. Aldehydes, which are most powerful disinfectants a. Formaldehyde b. Acetalde
hyde c. Glutamal aldehyde d. Both a and c 59. Accridine dyes are more effective
aainst a. Gram positive c. Mycoplasmas b. Gram neative d. Rickttsiae
50. To transfer cultures from one place to another, the device used is a. Slant
c. Inoculation loop b. Needle d. Autoclave
51. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture is a. Inoculum c. Dilution b.
Suspension d. None of these
60. The sterilizin aent is a. Ethelene oxide c. Nitroen b. Oxyen d. Carbon t
etrachloride
52. Separation of a sinle colony is a. Pure-culturin c. Separation b. Isolatio
n d. Both a and b
61. Salts of heavy metals used as disinfectants are a. Thiomersal nitrate c. Mer
curochrome b. Phenyl d. All of these mercury
53. Growth period of the culture is a. Inoculation c. Incineration b. Incubation
d. Isolation
62. Cultures are prepared by penetratin the inoculation loop with suspension in
to the medium, they are a. Stock cultures c. Sub-cultures b. Stabcultures d. Non
e of these
54. At the temperature 160oC for one hour, complete sterilization occurs in a. A
utoclave c. Laminar flow b. Hot air oven d. Incubator
63. The principle involved in the streak plate method is a. Separation c. Isolat
ion b. Streakin d. Dilution
55. In autoclave, the principle involved is a. Dry heat b. Moist heat c. Steam u
nder pressur d. Both b and c 56. The spores of th bacteria which can withstand t
he moist heat effect also a. Bacillus subtilis b. Coxiella burnetti c. Bacillus
stearothermophilus d. Pseudomonas 57. Factors on which disinfectivity of a disin
fectant depends a. Concentration of the substance b. Time of action c. pH of the
medium and temperature suitable for the chemical d. All of the above
64. Culture media for funi are a. Potato dextrose aar (PDA) b. Sabouraud’s aa
r c. Czapekdox aar d. All of the above 65. Spores of actinomycetes are very sen
sitive, killed at room temperature of a. 52oC for 30 min. b. 65oC for 30 min. c.
70oC for 30 min. d. 43oC for 30 min. 66. The term that is used for the bacteria
which can withstand pasteurization but does not row at hiher temperatures a.
Thermophiles b. Extreme thermophiles c. Thermoduric d. Facultative thermophiles
67. A common laborator y method of cultivatin anaerobic micro-oranisms is a. G
as pack system b. Brewer jar system c. Pyroallic acid over the cotton d. None o
f these 68. Alkaliphiles row at pH value between a. 1 to 6 c. 1 to 11 b. 6 to 9
d. 7 to 12
76. On Mac Conkey’s medium Esch. Coli forms a. b. c. d. Colorless colonies Green
ish pimentation Pink coloured colonies Medusa head appearance
77. C.diphtheriae requires a. b. c. d. LJ medium Mac Conkey’s medium Potassium t
ellurite medium PDA medium
69. The micro-oranisms row at hih salinity are a. Osmophiles c. Both a and b
b. Halophiles d. None of these
78. Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis a. b. c. d. L J medium Mac Con
key’s medium Wilson blair medium None of these
70. Non-lactose fermentin colonies seen on Mac Conkey’s medium are a. Salmonell
a typhi b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Shiella shiae 71. Wils
on and Blair medium is used for isolation of a. Staphylococci c. Vibrio cholerae
b. Salmonella typhosa d. Shiella shiae
79. Lepra bacillus is best cultured on a. b. c. d. Armadillo’s brain Foot pad of
mice Liver of uinea pi Any of the above
80. Culture medium for clostridia spp. a. b. c. d. 76 Lower stein Jensen’s mediu
m Mac Conkey’s medium Robertson’s cooked meat medium None of these
72. Laboratory dianosis of enteric fever is based on a. Blood culture b. Urine
and stool culture c. Widal test d. All of the above 73. Shiella was first isola
ted by a. Shia c. Sonnei b. Schmitz d. Robert Koch
81. Clsotridium welchii is positive for a. b. c. d. Elek’s el precipitation tes
t Naler’s test Weil felix test Bacitracin test
82. Naler’s reaction detects a. Coaulase c. Lecithinase b. Hyaluronidase d. No
ne of these
74. Which of the followin are as producin Salmonella? a. S.typhi c. S.cholera
suis b. S.enteritidis d. S.typhimurium
83. Incubation period of Cl. welchii is a. 8-12 hours c. 5-7 hours b. 7-10 hours
d. 2-4 hours
75. Kauffmann white scheme is used to detect a. Salmonella spp. c. E.coli b. Shi
ella spp. d. None of these
84. The averae incubation period of tetanus is a. 2-3 days c. 14-21 days b. 7-1
0 days d. 3-4 weeks
!
85. Salt aar is used for a. Streptococcus c. Vibrio b. Staphylococcus d. Shiel
la
92. Match the followin tests with their respective applications A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Schick test Mantoux test Sterility test Potency test A. B. Tuberculo
sis Detection of extraneous microoranisms Detection of infection caused by Rick
ettsia prowazeki Usefulness of immunoloical products
86. Culture medium of Leishmania is a. Sabousand’s medium b. NNN medium c. Wilso
n Blair medium d. Czapek – dox medium 87. A simple asexual spore which develops
by buddin is known as a. Chlamydospore c. Arthospore b. Blastospore d. Conidia
C. Diphtheria toxin D. E.
93. Match the followin equipments with their respective methods of sterilizatio
n A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Glass syrines Disposable instrument Respiratory parts Dialysis mach
ine C. Dry heat D. E. -Radiation Chicken pox in children A. B. Autoclave Chemic
al
88. Culture medium used for funus is a. Sabouraud’s medium b. Nutrient aar c.
Nutrient broth d. Minimal aar medium 89. For sterilization of fermentation equi
pment the method followed is a. Radiation c. Heatin b. Chemicals d. All of thes
e
94. The items listed from A to D can be identified by the tests iven below :
1. 2. Coomb’s test Coaulase test A. B. D. Candida albicans Virulent staphylococ
cus aureus Non-alutinatin antibodies
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
90. Listed below are substances which are assayed by oranisms mentioned in A to
E. Match them correctly:
1. 2. 3. 4. Crystal Violet I.P. Ampicillin I.P. Rifampicin A. B. D. E. Pasteurel
la pestis Bacillus cerus Lactobacillus aureus Lactobacillus aureus
95. D.pneumoniae can be cultivated in a. b. c. d. e. Glucose broth Serum broth A
ar and blood aar Chocolate aar All of these
Plaque Vaccine I.P. C. Micrococcus luteus

F. Bacillus subtillus
96. D.pneumoniae can be identified by a. b. c. d. e. Microscopic exam Culture of
sputum/blood Animal inoculation All of these None of these
91. Match the followin terms with their respective formulations A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Lysol Black fluids White fluids Iodophores A. B. D. E. Hiher boilin
fractions of the tar acids Prepared from refined tar acids Basic molecules has
varyin numbers of amino roups Iodine combined with complex oranic chemicals
C. Solution of cresol with soap
97. The dianosis of tuberculosis is carried out by a. Emulator c. Petroff’s met
hod e. All of these b. Antiformin method d. Concentration method
98. The size of the virus can be determined by a. b. c. d. Microraphy Ultra-cen
trifuation at hih speed Ultra-filteration All of these
!
100. Electron microscope studies does not help in identifyin the section of bac
terial spore a. Core c. Capsule b. Spore cortex d. All of these
99. Differential stainin of bacteria spore is related to a. b. c. d. Albert’s s
tainin Luol’ s stainin Moller’s stainin Indian ink preparation
101. Wilson and Blair bismuth sulphite medium is used for the rowth a. Salmonel
la typhi c. Vibrio cholerae b. Shiella dysenteriae d. E. coli
102. Which Rickettsia can be rown on blood aar media? a. Lactobacilli c. Bacil
lus anthrax b. Streptobacillus d. Vibrio cholerae
ANSWERS 1. b 2. b 7. b 8. a 13. b 14. c 19. a 20. d 25. d 26. c 31. b 32. c 37.
c 38. c 43. b 44. b 49. c 50. b 55. d 56. c 61. d 62. b 67. c 68. d 73. c 74. b
79. b 80. c 85. b 86. b 90. 1.d, 2.c, 3.a, 4.e 93. 1.c, 2.d, 3.e, 4.b 97. e 98.
d 3. c 4. b 9. c 10. b 15. a 16. b 21. a 22. b 27. c 28. b 33. a 34. a 39. d 40.
b 45. a 46. c 51. a 52. b 57. d 58. d 63. d 64. d 69. c 70. a 75. a 76. c 81. b
82. c 87. b 88. b 91. 1.c, 2.a, 3.b, 4.e 94. 1.d, 2.a 99. c 100. c 5. d 6. a 11
. a 12. c 17. c 18. a 23. b 24. c 29. b 30. d 35. b 36. d 41. a 42. c 47. a 48.
d 53. b 54. b 59. a 60. a 65. b 66. c 71. b 72. d 77. c 78. a 83. a 84. b 89. d
92. 1.c, 2.a, 3.b, 4.e 95. e 96. e 101. a 102. a
This pae intentionally left blank
CHAPTER 4
1. When a bacterial cell and mitochondria are treated with cyanide and carbon mo
noxide what happens initially? a. b. c. d. Respiration inhibits Photosynthesis i
nhibits Protein synthesis inhibits No effect occurs b. Ammonifiaction bacteria c
. Nitrification bacteria d. Denitrifyin bacteria 7. A cell becomes flaccid when
placed in a a. b. c. d. Isotonic solution Hypertonic solution Hypotonic solutio
n Normal solution
2. Which virus was first observed? a. b. c. d. Hepatitis Virus TMV Cauliflower m
ossaic virus None of these
8. A mutation causin a substitution of one amino acid is called a. Point mutati
on b. Silent mutation c. Missence mutation d. None of these 9. The formation spi
ndle fibres in the process of cell division is prevented by a. Corchicine c. Hyd
razine b. ATP d. All of these
3. The most important enery-yieldin reaction for an aerobic oranism is a. Gly
cosis c. KDPG b. EMP d. Both b and c
4. A disease that can be transmitted by an infectious aent from one individual
to another was called a. Epidemic c. Communicable b. Pandemic d. Comma
10. Important class of respiratory enzymes: a. NAD c. ATPase b. Cytochromes d. H
ydrolases
5. Cell cycle reulated by a. Cyclins b. Cdks c. Cyclins and Cd ks d. None of th
ese 6. The proteinaceous compound are converted to ammonia by a. Putrification b
acteria
11. The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis virus: a. Flies c. Person
to person b. Milk d. Food and water
12. Genetic constitution of the cell is a. Phenotype c. Cryptotype b. Genotype d
. Histotype
!"
13. The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis is a. Oral route c. Milk b
. Blood d. Person to person
21. The followin oranisms lack definite cell wall a. Mycoplasma c. Both a and
b b. L-forms d. Bacteria
14. Cerebral malaria is caused by a. b. c. d. Plasmodium vivox P.ovale P.falsipa
rum P.malaria
22. The followin disease are caused by Mycoplasma except a. b. c. d. Pneumonia
in human beins Little leaf of Brinjal Dwarf disease of Mulbery Citrus canker
15. Erot disease is caused by a. Puccinia c. Claveceps b. Rhizopus d. Penicilli
um
23. Mycotoxins are produced by a. b. c. d. Bacteria Funi Alae Protozoans
16. Most bacteria require vitamins as a. b. c. d. Growth Factors Sources of ener
y Sources of carbon Sources of electron donars
24. Size, shape and mode of arranements is typical of certain microoranisms. M

atch them correctly :
1. 2. 3. 4. Streptococci Sarcina Bacillus Anthracis Comma and S shaped form Gram
positive arraned in chains C. Multiples of eiht Lare bacilli, rectanular an
d ram positive E. Gram neative cocci F. Rod shaped-acid fast A. B.
17. Which of these is a trace element for bacteria? a. M+2 c. Ca+2 b. Na+ d. Mn
+2
18. Virulent factor in pneumococcus is a. b. c. d. Cell wall Capsule Mesosomes E
mdotoxins
Vibrios and Spirilla D.
25. Match the followin microoranisms with their respective characteristic A to
E :
1. Bacteria Much similar, contains one type of nucleic acid, do not reproduce by
binary fission B. Parasites on bacteria, hihly specific to one type of C. Livi
n oranism, unicellular, motile, microscopic and show reproduction D. Grows in

atmospheric oxyen, visible without microscope, produces, disease E. Tiny microo
ranism, enable to row outside livin cells, retained by bacteria proof filters
A.
19. The Bacteria move in response to manetic field is a. b. c. d. Spirochets Tr
eponema Aquaspirillum Manetotacticum None of these
2. 3.
Rickettsia Viruses
20. Naler reaction detects a. b. c. d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae Clostridium
tetani Clostridium perfrinens Clostridium botulinum
4.
Bacteriophaes
!#
ANSWERS 1. a 7. b 13. c 19. c
2. b 8. c 14. c 20. c
3. d 9. c 15. c 21. c
4. c 10. b 16. a 22. d
5. c 11. d 17. b 23. b
6. b 12. b 18. d
24. 1.b, 2.c, 3.d, 4.a
25. 1.c,2 .e, 3.a, 4.b
CHAPTER 5
BACTERIAL NUTRITION
1. The main product of lycolysis under aerobic conditions is a. Pyruvate c. Non
e of these b. Lactate d. Both a and b
6. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of a. b.
c. d. Succinic dehydroenase by malonic acid Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide Hexok
inase by lucose-6-phosphate Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
2. The protein moiety of an enzyme is known as a. Holo enzyme c. Co enzyme a. A
Vitamin c. B Vitamin a. b. c. d. b. Apo enzyme d. Enzyme b. Proteins d. Carbohyd
rates
7. The followin oranisms have been proposed as sources of sinle cell protein
a. Bacteria c. Alae b. Yeasts d. All the three
3. Yeast extract is an excellent source of
8. Nitrites are oxidized to nitrates by a microoranism a. Nitrosomonas c. Nitro
bacter a. Fats c. Polysaccharides b. Nitrosococcus d. Azatobacter b. Aminoacids
d. Polypeptides
4. Example of anaerobic medium Wilson blair medium Mac conkey broth Robertson’s
cooked meat medium EMB aar
9. The major constituents in aar are
5. Bioloical Oxyen Demand (BOD) is a measure of: a. Industrial wastes poured i
nto water bodies b. Extent to which water is polluted with oranic compounds c.
Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemolobin d. Amount of oxy
en needed by reen plants durin niht
10. Match the followin expressions with their respective bacteria A to E:

1. 2. 3. 4. K = lo (a/a –x) x t1 K = Cn t K1/K2 = q(T2-T1) x2 = 4D t In (mo/m)
A. Temperature effect
B. Watson’s expression C. Concentration of bactericide D. Film coefficient E. Fi
ck’s law
ANSWERS 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. 1.b,2.c,3.a,4.e
CHAPTER 6
BACTERIAL GROWTH
1. Multiple antibiotic resistance is mediated by a. Episome c. Colplasmid b. Pla
smid d. Both b and c
ketone bodies for ATP production? a. Liver c. Brain b. Muscle d. R.B.C
2. “Antaonism “ is seen in a. La phase c. Lo phase b. Plasmids d. None of the
se
8. Which one of the followin mineral elements play an important role in bioloi
cal nitroen fixation a. Copper c. Zinc a. Lo c. Lack b. Manesium d. Molybdenu
m b. La d. None of these
3. the first phase of a rowth curve is a. Lo phase c. γ phase b. La phase d.
Both a and b
9. Rapid bacterial rowth phase is known as
4. In ram positive and ram neative bacteria the electron transport contains a
. Naphthquinone c. Ubiquinone b. Plastoquinone d. Both a and b
10. Clostridium welchii spore formation can be induced only on specified media s
uch as a. b. c. d. Wilson-Blair medium Macconkey medium Ellner medium Thayee-Mar
tion medium b. Lo phase d. Stationary phase
5. Growth in a closed system, affected by nutrient limitation and waste product
accumulation is called a. Batch culturin c. Fruitin body b. Ascus d. Sporanio
sphore
11. Mycotoxins are formed durin the end of a. La phase c. Death phase
6. Cells are active and synthesizin new protoplasm. This stae of rowth is cal
led a. La phase c. Lo phase b. Stationary phase d. All of these
12. Bacteria which need oxyen for rowth are called a. b. c. d. Thermophilic ba
cteria Microaerophilic bacteria Facultative anaerobic bacteria Mycobacteria
7. Which one of the followin tissues can metabolize lucose, fatty acids and
"
13. pH required for the rowth of bacteria is a. 6.8 – 7.2 c. 3.0 – 6.0 b. 5.6 –
8.2 d. 8.0 – 14.0
22. Sulphur can be utilized by bacteria in the form of a. b. c. d. Oranic compo
unds Inoranic compounds Elemental compounds All of the above
14. Dru resistance in bacteria is mainly determined by factor: a. F c. Col b. R
d. Lysoenic factor
15. The ion that is required in trace amounts for the rowth of bacteria is a. C
alcium c. Cobalt b. Manesium d. Sodium
23. Phosphorous is an essential component of a. b. c. d. Nucleotides Nucleic aci
ds Phospholipids and Heichoic acids All the above
16. The most important vitamin for the rowth of bacteria is a. B-complex c. Vit
amin D b. Vitamin A d. Vitamin C
24. Trace elements are a. b. c. d. Zn+2, Cu+2, Mn+2 MO6+, Ni2+, B3+ and CO2+ Bot
h a and b None of these
17. The principle in microbioloical assays is a. At certain rane the concentra
tion of rowth factor will bear a linear relationship to the amount of nutrients
added b. Concentration of rowth factor have a linear relationship with the ro
wth of the oranism c. Both a and b d. None of the above 18. If the source of en
ery for bacteria is from chemical compounds they are said to be a. b. c. d. Pho
totrophs Autotrophs Chemotrophs Chemolithotroph
25. Most bacteria do not require the ion a. M2+ c. Na+ 26. Vitamin function as
a. b. c. d. Co-enzymes Co-melecules Buildin blocks of cell None of these b. Ca2
+ d. Fe+2
27. The vitamin required for Lactobacillus species is a. Riboflavin c. Pyridoxin
e b. Niacin d. Folic acid
19. In the synthesis of cell components the major element required is a. Nitroe
n c. Carbon b. Sulphur d. Oxyen
28. Vitamin K is necessary for the species a. b. c. d. Lactobacillus spp. Bacill
us anthracis Bacteroides melaninoenicus All of these
20. For the formation of cell-components the elements required are a. Nitroen c
. Sulphur b. Oxyen d. All of these
21. For the synthesis of amino acids cysteine, cystine and methionine the elemen
t required is a. Sulphur c. Nitroen b. Oxyen d. None of these
29. The bacteria which are able to row at 0°C but which row at 20°C to 30°C, a
re known as a. b. c. d. Psychrophiles Facultative psychrophiles Averae psychrop
hiles Mesophiles
BACTERIAL GROWTH
30. Radical shifts can be prevented by addin a. Acids c. Buffer b. Alkali d. No
ne of these
"
39. The no. of enerations per hour in a bacteria is a. Growth rate c. Simoid c
urve b. Generation time d. None of these
31. The orderly increase in the quantity of all the cellular components is known
as a. Reproduction c. Binary fission b. Growth d. None of these
40. In the simoid curve (or) rowth curve of bacteria how many staes are there
a. 3 c. 2 b. 4 d. 5
32. The most common mode of cell division in bacteria is a. b. c. d. Binary fiss
ion Transverse binary fission Lonitudinal binary fission None of these
41. The reproduction rate is equal to death rate in which stae a. Decline phase
c. La phase b. Stationary phase d. Lo phase
42. Minimum rowth temperature is a. The rowth of oranisms at lowest temperatu
re b. The lowest temperature at which the microoranisms row c. The maximum tem
perature at which the rowth is stable d. None of these 43. Optimum rowth tempe
rature is reater that 45oC is a. Mesophiles c. Psychrophiles b. Thermophiles d.
None of these
33. How much time a bacterium take for the complete duplication? a. 30 min. c. 2
0 min. b. 10 min. d. 25 min.
34. The eneration time is a. b. c. d. The time required for the cell to divide
The total division of the cell durin its life time The total no.of cells formed
None of these
35. In bacteria, the increase in population is in the manner a. b. c. d. Geometr
ic proression Multiplication Doublin None of these
44. The oranisms which can row both in presence and absence of oxyen a. b. c.
d. Aerobes Anaerobes Faculative anaerobes Strict aerobes
36. Physioloically the cells are active and are synthesizin new protoplasm in
which stae of the rowth in bacteria a. Lo phase c. Stationary phase b. La ph
ase d. None of these
45. The oranisms which can row best in the presence of a low concentration of
oxyen a. Aerophilic c. Aerobic b. Microaerophilic d. Anaerobic
37. The most active stae in the simoid curve of bacteria in which maximum row
th is attained a. La phase c. Decline phase b. Stationary phase d. Lo phase
46. The compound that is added to the medium to absorb oxyen for the creation o
f anaerobic conditions a. Sodium Thiolycollate b. Nitrous acid c. Citrate d. No
ne of these
38. Lo-phase is also known as a. Death phase c. La-phase b. Exponential phase
d. None
"
47. The utilization of liht enery to drive the synthesis of ATP is called as a
. b. c. d. Photolysis Photophosphorylation Photosynthesis Respiration
56. Mycotoxins are formed durin the end of a. La phase c. Death phase b. Lo p
hase d. Stationary phase
57. Match the followin rowth characteristics with their respective temperature
ranes A to E :
1. 2. 3. 4. Psychrotrophs Mesophils Thermophils A. B. Grows between 55 to 65oC M
ay survive above 60oC
48. Durin cyclic phosphorylation NADP is formed or not. a. b. c. d. No NADP for
mation No NADP utilization NADP is converted into NADPH All are correct
C. Grow well between 25 to 45oC Grow below 25oC Multiply slowly at 0-4oC E.
veetable bacteria D.
49. Cyclic phosphorylation is enerally present in a. Cyanobacteria c. Bacteria
b. Alae d. Plants
58. Match the followin microoranisms with their respective sources A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Achrommobacter . A. spp Asperillus flavus Oscillatiria scytonema Cl
ostridium niereticans E. Milk and cheese products D. Salad B. Water supply C. M
eat Bread
50. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also known as a. b. c. d. Oxyenic photos
ynthesis Photosynthesis Anoxyenic photosynthesis Photophosphorylation
51. The number of ATP molecules formed durin cyclic phosphorylation are a. One
c. Four b. Two d. Six
59. Match the followin microoranisms with their respective appearance of colon
ies on bismuth Sulphite aar from A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Salmonella typhi Salmonella choleraesuis Shiella flexneri Escherich
ia coli C. Green D. E. Yellow Black A. B. Brown No rowth
52. Artificial transformation in laboratory is carried out by treatin the cells
with a. MCl2 c. NaCl b. Cacl2 d. HCl
53. The process of formation of mesozyote is called a. Meromixis c. Mitosis b.
Exozyote d. Meiosis
60. The suitable temperature to transport viral culture is – a. 30oC c. 25oC e.
None of these b. 5oC d. 45oC
54. Which of the followin or anisms requires tryptophan for rowth? a. H.influ
enza c. Gonococci b. Vibrio d. S.typhi
61. Growth curve does not include followin phases of bacteria – a. Decline phas
e c. La phase b. Stationary phase d. Synchronous rowth
55. Tubercular bacilli row best in a. Absence of O2 c. Presence of O2 b. Presen
ce of CO2 d. None of these
62. Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which phase of rowth curve? a
. Decline phase c. La phase b. Stationary phase d. Lo phase
BACTERIAL GROWTH
"!
ANSWERS 1. b 7. b 13. a 19. c 25. c 31. b 37. d 43. a 49. a 55. b 2. d 8. d 14.
d 20. d 26. c 32. c 38. c 44. a 50. b 56. a 3. b 9. a 15. c 21. d 27. b 33. c 39
. b 45. b 51. d 60. b 4. a 10. c 16. a 22. a 28. a 34. c 40. b 46. b 52. b 61. d
5. a 11. a 17. b 23. d 29. c 35. a 41. d 47. c 53. a 62. d 6. a 12. b 18. c 24.
d 30. c 36. c 42. b 48. a 54. d
57. 1.b, 2.c, 3.d, 4.a
58. 1.e,2.a,3.b,4.c
59.1.e,2.c,3.a,4.b
CHAPTER 7
1. A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular
oxyen, what is it? a. Cyt b c. Cyt d b. Cyt c d. Cyt o
chimeric vectors. The cloned framents are called a. Clones c. mRNA b. Genomic l
ibrary d. None of these
2. The enetic material in HIV is a. ds DNA c. s RNA b. ss DNA d. None of these
7. Transenic animals are produced when GH ene fused with a. MT ene c. GRF b.
GH d. FIX
3. Which one of the followin mutaens act only on replicatin DNA? a. b. c. d.
Ethidium bromide Nitrosoeranidine Acridine orane None of above
8. In which medium the hydridoma cells row selectively? a. Polyethylene lycol
b. Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine c. Hypoxathin-uanin phosphoribosyl tran
sferase d. Both b and c 9. The enzymes which are commonly used in enetic enine
erin are a. b. c. d. Exonuclease and liase Restriction endonuclease and polyme
rase Liase and polymerase Restriction endonuclease and liase
4. Poly A tail is frequently found in a. Histone in RNA c. eukaryotic RNA b. Bac
terial RNA d. TRNA
5. Which of the followin is an example of RNA virus? a. b. c. d. SV 40 T4 phae
Tobacco mosaic virus Adeno virus
10. A successful hybridoma was produced by fusin a. b. c. d. Plasma cells and p
lasmids Plasma cells and myeloma cells Myeloma cells and plasmids Plasma cells a
nd bacterial cells
6. Genomic DNA is extracted, broken into framents of reasonable size by a restr
iction endonuclease and then inserted into a clonin vector to enerate
"$
11. The technique involved in comparin the DNA components of two samples is kno
wn as a. b. c. d. Monoclonal antibody techniques Genetic finer printin Recombi
nant DNA technoloy Polymerase chain reaction
d. Maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere 18. Malate dehydro
enase enzyme is a a. Transferase c. Isomerase a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. b. Hydrol
ase d. Oxido reductase
19. In E.Coli att site is in between Gal and bioenes Bio and niacin enes Gal a
nd B enes None of these Relaxed control plasmid Strinent control plasmid Both
a and b None of these
12. Plasmids are ideal vectors for ene clonin as a. They can be multiplied by
culturin b. They can be multiplied in the laboratory usin enzymes c. They can
replicate freely outside the bacterial cell d. They are self replicatin within
the bacterial cell 13. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How ma
ny autosomes would be expected in a kidney cell? a. 46 c. 47 b. 23 d. 44
20. The best vector for ene clonin
21. A ene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is a. Structural ene
c. Operator ene a. G1 – phase c. G2 – phase b. Reulator ene d. Promoter ene
b. S – phase d. M – phase
22. DNA replicates durin
14. Pasteur effect is due to a. Chane from aerobic to anaerobic b. Providin ox
yen to anaerobically respirin structures c. Rapid utilization of ATP d. Nonsyn
thesis of ATP 15. A mechanism that can cause a ene to move from one linkae ro
up to another is a. Trans location c. Crossin over b. Inversion d. Duplication
23. A human cell containin 22 autosome and a ‘Y’ chromosome is probably a a. b.
c. d. Male somatic cell Zyote Female somatic cell Sperm cell
24. Crossin-over most commonly occurs durin a. Prophase I c. Anaphase I a. Con
servative c. Dispersive a. Translation c. Transcription a. Alanine c. Lysine b.
Prophase II d. Telophase II b. Semiconservative d. None of the above b. RNA spli
cin d. Transposition b. Adenine d. Arinine
16. The smallest unit of enetic material that can undero mutation is called a.
Gene c. Replicon b. Cistron d. Muton
25. DNA-replication is by the mechanism of
17. The two chromatids of metaphase chrosome represent a. Replicated chromosomes
to be separated at anaphase b. Homoloous chromosomes of a diploid set c. Non-h
omoloous chromosomes joined at the centromere
26. Production of RNA from DNA is called
27. Nucleic acids contain
28. What are the structural units of nucleic acids? a. N-bases c. Nucleotides b.
Nucleosides d. Histones
"%
37. Microoranisms usually make acetyl CO-A by oxidizin a. b. c. d. Acetic acid
Pyruvic acid α-ketoglut ric cid Fum ric cid
29. The most import nt function of gene is to synthesize . Enzymes c. RNA b.
Hormones d. DNA
38. The method of DNA replic tion proposed by W tson nd Crick is . b. c. d. Se
mi conserv tive Conserv tive Dispersive Rolling loop
30. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in hum ns is concer
ned with . b. c. d. B ldness Red-green colour b ldness F ci l h ir/moust che in
m les Night blindness
39. The dist nce between e ch turn in the helic l str nd of DNA is . 20 Ao c. 2
8 Ao b. 34 Ao d. 42 Ao
31. Peptide link ges re formed in between . b. c. d. Nucleotides Amino cids G
lucose molecules Sucrose
40. Self-replic ting, sm ll circul r DNA molecules present in b cteri l cell re
known . Pl smids c. Pl smomeros b. Cosmids d. pl stides
32. The nucleic cid of polio viruses is . DNA c. t-RNA 33. R bies virus is .
b. c. d. N ke RNA virus N ked DNA virus Enveloped RNA virus Enveloped DNA virus
b. RNA – (+) type d. m-RNA
41. Western blotting is the technique used in the determin tion of . RNA c. Pro
teins b. DNA d. All of these
42. m RNA synthesis from DNA is termed . Tr nscription c. Tr nsl tion b. Tr nsf
orm tion d. Replic tion
34. Ex mple for DNA virus: . Polio virus c. Echo virus b. Adeno virus d. Poty v
irus
43. Western blotting is technique used in the determin tion of . DNA c. Prote
in b. RNA d. Polys cch rides
35. In genetic engineering bre ks in DNA re formed by enzymes known s . b. c.
d. Restriction enzymes Lig ses Nucle ses Hydr l ses
44. Building blocks of Nucleic cids re . Amino cids c. Nucleotides b. Nucleo
sides d. Nucleo proteins
45. DNA finger printing is b sed on . b. c. d. Repetitive sequences Unique sequ
ences Amplified sequences Non-coding sequences
36. DNA tr nsfer from one b cterium to nother through ph ges is termed s . Tr
nsduction c. Tr nsfection b. Induction d. Infection
"&
46. The enzyme required for DNA from RNA templ te: . b. c. d. RNA polymer se Re
verse tr nscript se DNA polymer se Termin l tr nsfer se
53. The length of e ch coil in DNA str nd is . 15 Ao c. 30 Ao b. 34 Ao d. 5 Ao
54. Nucleic cids re highly ch r ged polymers due to . There is phosphodiester
bond between 5’hydroxyl of one ribose nd 3’–hydroxyl of next ribose b. They h
ve positive nd neg tive ends c. Nucleotides re ch rged structures d. Nitrogeno
us b ses re highly ionized compounds 55. The best studied ex mple for speci liz
ed tr nsduction is . P1 ph ge c. ë-ph ge b. P22 ph ge d. Both nd c
47. Double st nd rd RNA is seen in . Reo virus c. P rvo virus . b. c. d. e. b.
Rh bdo virus d. Retro virus
48. Ex mple for DNA viruses: Adeno virus B cterioph ge T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6 P
pov virus Herpes virus nd c uliflower mois ic All of the bove
49. The following re the RNA viruses, except . b. c. d. e. Reo viruses Retro v
iruses B cterioph ge Φ C Tmv and Bacteriophages Ms2, 2 Dahila mosaic virus and
Bacteriophages Φ × 174, M12, M13
56. The diagrammatic representation of the total no. of genes in DNA is a. Genom
e c. Gene-structure b. Gene map d. Chromatin
57. During specialized transduction a. Large amound of DNA is transferred b. A f
ew no. of genes are transferred c. Whole DNA is transferred d. None of these 58.
The cell donating DNA during transformation is a. Endogenate c. Mesozygote b. E
xogenate d. Merosite
50. The two strands of DNA are joined noncovalently by a. b. c. d. Ionic bonds C
ovalent bonds Hydrogen bonds between bases Polar charges
51. The bases Adenine and Thymine are paired with a. b. c. d. Double hydrogen bo
nds Single hydrogen bonds Triple hydrogen bonds Both b and c
59. Genetic information transfer DNA to RNA is called – a. Transcriptase c. Tran
sformation b. Transduction d. Recombination
52. The no. of hydrogen bonds existing between Guanine and Cytosine are a. 5 c.
3 b. 2 d. None of these
60. The gene transfer occurs by – a. Transformation c. Conjugation b. Transducti
on d. Cell fusion

STRUCTURE O DNA & RNA
"'
ANSWERS 1. d 7. a 13. d 19. a 25. b 31. b 37. a 43. a 49. e 55. c 2. a 8. b 14.
b 20. a 26. c 32. b 38. a 44. c 50. c 56. b 3. c 9. a 15. a 21. a 27. b 33. c 39
. b 45. b 51. a 57. b 4. c 10. b 16. d 22. b 28. c 34. b 40. a 46. b 52. c 58. b
5. c 11. b 17. a 23. b 29. a 35. b 41. b 47. a 53. b 59. a 6. b 12. d 18. d 24.
a 30. b 36. a 42. a 48. e 54. a 60. a
CHAPTER 8
IMMUNOLOGY
1. Which of the following is called serum Hepatitis? a. HCV c. HBV b. HAV d. HIV
c. Centromeres d. Protein axes 8. How much of globulin is present in human serum
? a. 8% c. 16% b. 12% d. 4%
2. Which of the following was a non-neural vaccine for rabies? a. HEPV c. BPL b.
Card vaccine d. Simple
9. The substance which acts as antimetabolites are called a. Activators c. Inhib
itor a. Lipids c. Carbohydrates a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. b. Substrates d. Cofacto
r b. Proteins d. None of these
3. Which type of antibodies will associate in blood cell coagulation? a. IgE c.
IgM a. Immunogenic c. Antigenic b. IgA d. IgG b. Non-immunogenic d. None of thes
e
10. Enzymes are chemically
4. In a antigen haptens are

11. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by Hybridoma technology Biotechnology er
mentation Technology None of these Antibody molecules Unbroken skin Antigen mole
cules Phagocytic cells
5. The antibody that is first formed after infection is a. IgG c. IgD a. B-lymph
ocytes c. Monocytes b. IgM d. IgE b. T-lymphocytes d. RBC’s
12. First line of body defence is
6. Antibodies in our body are produced by
7. The points at which crossin over has taken place between homolous chromosom
es are called a. Chiasmata b. Synaptonemal complex
13. What is the strenth of the bond between antien and antibody? a. Affinity c
. Covalent b. Avidity d. None of these
#
14. Syphillis is caused by a. Staphylococcus aureuss b. Yersinia psdtis c. Trepo
nema pallidum d. Streptococcus syphilitis 15. Neribodies produced by rabies vir
us show characteristic _____ inner ranues a. Basophilic c. Neutrophilic b. Eosi
nophilic d. Acidophilic
22. The cellular immune response is mediated by a. B cells c. BT cells b. T cell
d. Endothelial cells
23. The major immunolobulin present in the human serum is a. IG c. IE b. IA
d. IG
24. Reaenic type antibody is a. IG c. IM b. IA d. IE
16. The widely used yeast for the production of sinle cell protein is a. Saccha
romyces cerevisiae b. Rhizopus c. Candida utilis d. All of the above 17. Analysi
s of protein antien is by a. Southern blot c. Western blot b. Northern blot d.
None of these
25. Blood roup antiens are a. Species specific c. Autospecific b. Isospecific
d. Oran specific
26. The reaction of soluble antien with antibody is known by a. Precipitation c
. Alutination b. Flocculation d. Complement fixation
18. Which of the followin can provide naturally acquired passive immunity for t
he new born. a. IA c. IE b. IG d. IM
27. Interferon is composed of a. Lipids c. Glycoprotein b. Lipoprotein d. Nuclei
c acid
28. Alutination reaction is stronest with the immunolobulin: a. IM c. IA b
. IG d. ID
19. AIDS disease is caused by a virus which belons to a. Retro virus roup b. R
habdo virus roup c. Hepatitis virus roup d. Adeno virus roup 20. Complement b
ased reaction is known as a. Haem alutination b. Coplement fixation c. Conlut
ination d. Schultz Dale Phenomenon 21. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme involv
ed in the synthesis of a. DNA b. Soluble RNA c. m-RNA from DNA d. Nucleotides a
lutination
29. The use of monoclonal antibodies is a. Immunotherapy b. Gene therapy c. Bloo

d transfusion d. Oran transfusion 30. Hybridoma technique is used for a. b. c.
d. Monoclonal antibodies Polyclonal antibodies Both a and b None of these
31. Test used for AIDS is a. Widal test c. Aluatination b. ELISA d. CFT
32. Antibody havin hih valency is a. IG c. ID b. IA d. IM
IMMUNOLOGY
33. Intensity of attraction between antien and antibody molecule is known as a.
Affiniy c. Reaction b. Avidity d. None of these
#!
43. Durin recombination, the strain that donates enetic material frequently wi
th hih rate: a. Hfr-Strain c. F-Strain b. F+-Strain d. both a and c
34. Active immunity is induced by a. b. c. d. Infection Placental transfer of an
tibodies Injection of antibodies Injection of amma- lobulins
44. The character acquired by the cell due to recombination is a. Inheritable c.
Dominatin b. Syppressed d. Heritable
35. Pasteur developed the vaccines for a. Anthrax c. Chicken cholera b. Rabies d
. All of the above
45. T-cells are produced from a. Bonemarrow c. Spleen b. Thymus d. None of these
36. Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in a. Penicillin allery c. Arthus
reaction b. Contact dermatitis d. Anaphylaxis for the
46. Antibodies are produced from a. T-cells c. NK cells b. â-cells d. Eosinophil
s
37. The followin are used preservation of virus, except a. b. c. d. Freezin (–
20°C–70°C) Lyophilization Ether Formaldehyde
47. Incomplete antiens are called a. Immunoens c. Haptens b. Epitomes d. Parat
ope
48. To be antien, the chemical molecule (protein) needs a. Hih molecular weih
t b. Chemical complexity c. Both a and b d. None of these 49. The parts which fi
lter lymph are a. Lymph nodes c. Thymus b. Spleen d. Bone marrow
38. Antibody formation depends on a. b. c. d. Ae of the person Amount of antie
n Well bein of the person All of the above
39. Local immunity is important in a. Influenza c. Polio b. Allery d. All of th
ese
40. Role of manesium in vaccine is a. Adjuvant c. Conditioner b. Stabilizer d.
All of these
50. The primary cells involved in immune response are a. NK-cells c. Lymphocytes
b. K-cells d. None of these
41. Immunity is life lon followin a. Diphtheria c. Measles b. Tetanus d. Yello
w fever
51. Plasma cells are the end cells of a. T-cells c. Killer cells b. β-cells d. N
k-cells

42. To prepare vaccine
for small pox, the material used y Edward Jenner is a. S
mall pox material . Chicken pox material c. Cow-pox material d. Measles materia
l

52. Basophils have receptors for anti odies a. IgG c. IgM . IgA d. IgE
#"
53. Because of denaturation, antigens ecome functionless, these are called: a.
. c. d. Cross-reactive antigens Epitopes Hidden epitopes Forssman antigens
63. For the separation of antigens the method used is a. . c. d. Immunoelectrop
horesis Flocculation Agglutination None of these

54. Capacity of antigen to reakdown into small fragments
eachwith a single epit
opic region is known as a. Solu ility c. Denaturation . Froeignness d. None of
these

64. Counter
immunoelectrophoresis is useful for detection of a. . c. d. One ant
igen/anti ody Two antigens/anti ody More than two None of these

55. Antigenic specificity is due to a. . c. d. Chemical complexity Solu ility S
teric configuration All of these

65. When a particular
antigen is mixed with anti ody in the presence of an elect
rolyte at suita le temperature and pHthe particles are clumped, this is called:
a. Precipitation c. Electrophoresis . Agglutination d. CIE

56. Anti odies are a. Proteins c. Phospholipids . Glycoproteins d. None of thes
e

66. Toxins and viruses can e detected y a. Precipitation c. Neutralisation .
Agglutination d. None of these

57. General purpose anti ody is a. IgA c. IgM . IgG d. IgD

67. Which is most antigenic? a. Exotoxins c. Viruses . Endotoxins d. All of the
se

58. Anti ody present in colostrums is a. IgG c. IgM . IgA d. IgE

68. Shick test is used for the detection of a. Diphtheria c. Cholera . T.B. d.
Typhoid

59. Which
anti ody is called millionaire
molecule? a. IgA c. IgG 60. IgE is disc
overed y a. Ishizaka c. Richet . Porter d. None of these . IgM d. IgD

69. Secondary function of complements are a. Haemolysis c. Both a and . Phago
cytosis d. None of these

61. Antigen-anti
ody reactions are a. Reversi le c. Specific . Irreversi le d.
Both a and

70. Very
effective, less time consuming and at a time so many samples can e det
ected y a. ELISA c. Neutralization . CFT d. Agglutination

62. Serological
reactions are useful for a. . c. d. Detection of antigens Detec
tion of anti odies Both a and None of these

71. â-cells are involved in a. . c. d. Humoral immunity Cell-mediated immunity
Active immunity Passive immunity
IMMUNOLOGY
72. Innate immunity is a.
Specific
c. Active . Non-specific
d. Passive
82. Anth
raxvaccine is prepared y a. . c. d. Attenuated acilli Killing the acilli Li
ve acilli None of these
##

73. Innate immunity
is developed y a. . c. d. Mechanical arriers Chemical ar
riers Both a and None of these

83. Attenuated, oral poliomyelitis vaccine is a. . c. d. BCG Measles vaccine Sa
in vaccine TAB vaccine

74. Acquired immunity is a. Natural c. Active & Passive . Artificial d. All of
these

84. Killed, polio vaccine is a. Sa in vaccine c. BCG . Salk d. TAB

75. Acquired immunity can e developed y a. Natural means c. Both a and . Ar
tificial means d. None of these

85.Measles vaccine is given to children at the age of a. . c. d. 1 year 7 mont
hs etween 9 months and 10 years None of these

76. Immediatetype hypersensitivity reactions are a. Type-I c. Type-III . Type-
II d. All a, and c

77. Immediate
type of hypersensitivity reactions are mediated y a. T-cells c. M
ast cells . β-cells d. Macrophages
86. Pertussis vaccineis a.Heat killed c. Attenuated 87.
DPT is a. Triple vacci
ne c. Tetanus toxoid . Dou le vaccine d. All of these . Formalin killed d. liv
e

78. Example for cell-mediated immunity are a. Tu erculin type c. Granulomatous
. Contact dermatitis d. All of these

88. DPT, is used as vaccine for a. Diphtheria c. Tetanus toxoid . Pertussis vac
cine d. All of these

79. Mountax reaction is used for detection of a. T.B. c. Cholera . Diphtheria d
. None of these

89. DPT is given to children at the age of 1624 months, as the dose isa. . c.
d. 0.5 ml at intervals of 4 weeks A ooster dose of 0.5 ml Both a and None of
these

80. All the anti odies produced from a â-cell are having a. Similar specificity
. Different
specificities c. Similar size d. None of these 81. Hy
ridoma format
ion in hy ridoma technique is from a. Spleen cell – Myeloma cell . Spleen cell
– Spleen cell c. Myeloma cell – Myeloma cell d. None of these
90.If more than one kind of immunizing
agent is included in the vaccine, it is
a. . c. d. Cellular vaccine Recom inant vaccine Mixed vaccine Toxoid vaccine
#$
91. Vaccines are prepared from killed micro es, they are a. . c. d. Inactivated
(killed) vaccine Attenuated vaccines Autogenous vaccine None of these
99. Match the following terms with their respective definitions A to E used in v
irology :
1. Haemagglutination
A. A phenomenon of acquiring resistance to infection y a i
nfection y a second virus B. A virus does not cause cytopathogenic changes in t
issue culture C.
Determination
of the num er of infective units in the
virus sus
pension
D. A su stance y which viruses can attack themselves to red lood cells
E. Su stance used to destroy virus
2.
Virus titre

92. Vaccines used against viral infections are a. . c. d. Measles and Mumps vac
cine Cholera vaccine Typhoid vaccine Anti-rickettsial vaccine
3. Virus interference
4.
Interferon

93. If the micro es used in the vaccine
are o tained from patient, they are a.
. c. d. Anti viral vaccines Anti acterial vaccines Autogenous vaccines None of
these
100. Match the following vaccines with their respective contents A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Typhoid vaccine Typhus vaccine Measles vaccine Smallpox A. B. C. D.
E.Killed rickettsia Killed acteria Attenuated viruses Killed viruses Attenuate
d acteria

94. Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are a. . c. d. Cellular vaccine
s Su -cellular vaccines Attenuated vaccines Heterologous vaccines

101. Match the following immunglo ulins with their respective occurrences A to E
:
1. 2. 3. 4. IgM IgG IgA IgE In the seromucous secretions After the primary antig
enic stimulus C. Synthesized during secondary response D. Plasma E. Serum A. B.

95. Example for live vaccine is a. . c. d. Ru ella & BCG Polio & TAB Diphtheria
& Tetanus Hepatitis A & Ra ies

96. DPT is given for the prevention of a. . c. d. Diphtheria, Tetanus Diphtheri
a, Pertusis Diphtheria, Tetanus & pertusis None of these
102. Match the followingviral vaccines with their source materials A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Influenza Ra ies Smallpox Yellow fever Fluid from cultures of human
diploid cells B. Dermal scraping from infectedanimals C. Allantoic fluid from f
ertile hen’s
eggs D. Fluid from cultures of ra it kidney E. Aqueous homogenate
of chick em ryo A.

97. The live vaccines
are availa le against the following viruses, except: a. In
fluenza c. Ra ies . Measles d. Polio

98. HIV can e transmitted through a. Blood c. Vaginal fluid . Semen d. All of
these

103. Animals
are naturally immune to infection caused y a. V. Cholera c. Both a
and . S.typhosa d. None of these
IMMUNOLOGY
104. The immunity
acquired y inoculation of living organism of attenuated virul
ence is a. . c. d. Artificial active immunity Passive immunity Natural active i
mmunity Local immunity
#%
110. Antitoxin is used for _____ immunization. a. Active c. Both a and . Pass
ive d. None of these

111.The agglutinin
test is used for _______ a. Identification of isolated acte
ria . Typing of acterial species c. Study of antigenic structure of acteria d
. All of these e. None of these 112. In lood transfusion it is essential
that a
. Blood of hologous group should always e same . Direct matching
etween patie
nt’s serum
and donor’s corpuscles e performed c. Both a& d. None of these 11
3. To e anaphylactic, the sensitizing su stance should e a. Protein in nature
. Should have a large molecular weight c. Solu le in tissue fluids d. All of th
e a ove e. None of these 114. The asics of pathology in asthama, allergic rhini
tis, urticaria are a. Local vasodilation . Increased capillary secretion c. Exc
ess eosinophils in tissue secretion
and lood d. All of these 115. Which test is
used for detecting suscepti
ility of an individual to diphtheria toxin? a. Schi
ck tests c. V-P test . Dick test d. Precipitin test

105. Or ganisms can e attenuated
for inoculation y a. Growing it at a temperat
ure higher than optimum
. By passage through animals of different species which
are less
suscepti le to it c. Bycontinous cultivation in presence of antagonis
tic su stance d. Any one of the a ove e. None of these 106. Passive immunity las
tsfor the period of a out a. . c. d. 10 days 2 – 3 months 10 years None of the
a ove

107. The markers helpful in detecting antiimmunity are a. . c. d. e. Hyper gamm
a glo ulinaemia Circulating anti odies Response to cortisone Lymphoid hyperplasi
a All of these

108. Followingsu stance may act as an antigen a. . c. d. e. Egg al umin RBC an
d serum Vegeta le protein Snake venom All of these

109.
H antigen are present in a. . c. d. Motile organ Non-motile organ Both a &
None of these
116. Syndromes associated
with Human T lymphotropic virus type I(HTLV-I) are a.
Adult T-cell lymphoma . Hairy cell leukemia c. Adult T cell leukemia d. All of
these
#&
117. Plague and
Tularemia
vaccine can e prepared from a. Chemical
fraction of t
he causative acteria . Heat killedsuspension of virulent acteria c. Formalin
inactivated suspension of virulent acteria d. Avirulent live acteria e. All o
f these
118. AIDS patients suffer from pneumoniae due to a. Pneumocystisis carin
ii . Cryptospodidium c. S.pneumoniae d. Toxoplasma
119. Statements applica le t
o human lice: a. Cause pruritic skin lesions. . Are wingless c. Transmit epidem
ic typhus, relapsing fever and Trench fever d. Pediculus humanus and phthirus pu
is are twospecies e. All of these 120. Natural killer cells a. Belongs to B-ce
ll lineage . Belongs to T-cell lineage c. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour ce
ll d. Require previous antigen exposure for activation 121. Immunoglo ulin is as
sociated with anaphylactic
delayed
hypersensitivity reaction a. IgE c. IgD e. Ig
G 122.
The most a undant anti
ody found in serum is a. IgA – 1 c. IgG – 2 e. IgG
– 4 . IgG – 1 d. IgG – 3 . IgA d. IgM
123. Patients suffering from AIDS have following immune a normalities a. . c. d
. e. Decreased CD4 + T cells Increased CD8 + T cells Hypergammaglo ulinemia CD4
+/CD8 + ratio greater than 21 Both & d

124. Immunoglo ulin which cannot activate complement a. IgM c. IgA . IgE d. IgG

125. Hydatid disease is identified y a. Schick test c. Casoni test . Dick test
d. Freis test

126. Prausnitz kustner reaction is generated y a. IgA c. IgG . IgE d. IgD

127. Immunoglo in which are found in asthma at elevated level: a. IgA c. IgM .
IgE d. IgD

128. What is the similarity etween IgM & IgG? a. A compliment fixation . Place
ntal transport c. Heat sta ility at 56oC d. Sedimentationcoefficient 129. What
is the technique for quantitative estimation of immunoglo ulin? a. Single diffus
ion in one dimension . Single diffusion in two dimension c. Dou le diffusion in
onedimension d. Dou le diffusion
in two dimension 130. Cell mediated immunity
can e identified
y a. Sheep red lood corpuscles roasette formation . Microp
hase inhi iting factor c. Skin test for delayed hyper sensitivity d. All of thes
e
IMMUNOLOGY
131. Out of the following
which are the examples of autoimmune disease? a. Acqui
red Haemolytic anaemia . Rheumatoid arthritis c. Hashiomoto disease d. All of t
hese 132. Which of the following
is a true statement regarding
Purified
Protine

Derivative (PPD) used in
tu erculin test? a. Prepared from tu ercle acilli . I
t is inferior to old tu erculin c. Consists of filtrate of glycerol roth d. Non
e of these
#
133.
Which of the following are inactive viral vaccines?
a. . c. d. Influenzae
Ra ies Russian spring summer encephalitis All of these . Small pox virus d. Her
pes virus
134. Antigenic variation is most extensive in a. Influenza virus c. Measles viru
s
135. Which is the correct
statement related to hepatitis B virus? a. Paramyxo vi
rus c. Reo viruses . Orthomyxo virus d. Retro viruses

ANSWERS 1. c 2. a 7. a 8. a 13. 14. c 19. a 20. a 25. 26. a 31. 32. d 37.
c 38. d 43. a 44. d 49. a 50. c 55. c 56. 61. d 62. c67. a 68. a 73. c 74. d
79. a 80. a 85. c 86. 91. a 92. a 97. c 98. d 101. 1. , 2.c, 3.a, 4.e 103. c 1
04. a 109. a 110. 115. a 116. 121. a122. a 127. 128. a 133. d 134. a 3. c
9. c 15. a 21. a 27. 33. a 39. d 45. 51. 57. 63. a 69. c 75. c 81. a 87
. a 93. c 99. 1.d, 2.c, 102. 1.c, 2.a, 105. d 111. d 117. e 123. e 129. 135. c
4. 10. 16. c 22.
a 28. a 34. a 40. 46. 52. d 58. 64. a 70. a 76. d 82
. a 88. d94. 3. , 4.a 3. , 4.e 106. a 112. c 118. d 124. 130. d 5. 6. a 1
1. a 12. 17. c 18. 23. a 24.
d 29. a 30. a 35.
d 36.
41. c 42. c 47. c 48.
c 53. c 54. a 59. 60. a65. 66. c 71. a 72. 77. 78. d 83. c 84. a 89. c
90. c 95. a 96. c 100. 1. , 2.a, 3.d, 4.c 107. e 113. 119. e 125. c 131. d 10
8. c 114. e 120. c 126. 132. a

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CHAPTER 9

1. Food poisoning is caused y a. . c. d. Clostridum tetani Clostridum Welchi D
iptheria Clostridium otulinum

c. They have
70 S ri osomes d. None of the a ove 7. AIDS
is caused y a. Retrovi

rus c. Rha dovirus 8.
Penicillin is a a. Primary
meta olite . Secondary meta ol
ite c. Tertiary meta olite d. None of the a ove 9. The rejection of an organ tra
nsplant such as a kidney
transplant, is an exampleof _____ Hypersensitivity. a.
Immediate c. Allergy . Delayed d. None of these . Prion d. Retroprison

2. Koplic’s spots will develop in a. HIV c. Mumps . Measles d. Ru ella

3. Viral DNA
is resistant to DNA of the host cell ecause it contains a. 5’-HMC
c. 5’-CHM . 5’-HMA d. 5’MHC
4. Which of the

following is an example of live vaccine? a. pertusis c. cholera
. mumps d. ra ies

10. Listeriosis
was ______ disease. a. Food orne c. Milk orne . Water orne d
. Air orne

5. Triple
toxoid vaccine gives protection
against a. . c. d. Diphtheria, tetanu
s and ra ies Tetanus, whooping cough, Tu erculosis Whooping cough, tetanus and D
iphtheria Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.

11. Pus-forming
forms are called as a. Pyoderm c. Pyrogen . Pyogenic d. None of
the a ove

6. Higher does
of chloramphenicol
affects the eukaryotic cells ecause a. They h
ave 30 S ri osomes . They have mitochondria

12. In Elisa
technique, the anti odies are laeled y a. Acridine orange c. Neut
ral red . Alkaline phosphate d. Bromothymol lue
$
13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized
y atotal or partial inaility to
synthesize glo ulins. a. Apitososis . Agamma glo ulinemia c. Gammaglo ulinemma
d. Sickle-cell anemia. 14. A study involving
analysis of risk for genetic defec
ts in a family isa. Genetic Engineering . Genetic counseling c. Genetic drift
d.Genetic equili rium 15. Viral antigens
are likely a. Proteins c. Lipo protein
s . Glyco proteins d. Both a and
22. Anti
iotic produced from streptomyces
orientalis is a. Streptomycin c. Vanco
mycin . Penicillin d. Both a and
23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral andvaginal candidiasis
is a. Griseofulv
in c. Gentian violet 24. Botulism
means a. . c.
d. a. . c. d. a. . c. d. Food
adultration Food poisioning y streptococcus acteria Chemical contamination of
food Food processing Streptomyces griseus Streptomyces venezuelae Streptomyces
pyrogenes None of these Streptococcus species Streptomyces griseus Straphylococc
us aureus None of these . Amphoterein B d. Nystatin

25. Chloramphenicol is o tained from

16. The suita le assay method for anti iotics is a.Enzymatic assay . Tur idome
tric assay c. End point determination assay d. Meta olic assay 17. ELISA test is
used for the identification of a. Janudice c. Cancer . AIDS d. Dia etis

26. Streptomycin is o tained from

27. The treatment
required
for small odies of water is a. Disinfection c. Purif
ication a. . c. d. a. . c. d. a. . c. d. . Filtration d. All of these

18. Incu
ation period for infective Hepatitis disease a. 45 – 80 days c. 35 – 50
days . 15 – 35 days d. 5 – 15 days

28.Surface ropiness is caused y Alkaligenes viscolactis Streptococcus
oth a a
nd None of these Bacteria in lood Toxin in lood Pus in lood Multiplication
of acteria and toxins in lood Interleukin – 2 infusion Azathioprine Alpha inte
rferon None of these

19. All of the following
are acteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except a. Ba
citracin c. Novo iocin . Chloramphenicol d. Tetracycline
29. Septicaemia is

20. Kinetosomes are o served in a. Algae c. Protozoa . Fungi d. Viruses
30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to

21. β-lactum ring is present in a. Erythromycin c. Tetracyclins . Penicillin d.
Chromphenical
31. Ciprofloxacin acts y inhi iting a. Cellwall synthesis
. RNA synthesis c. F
olate synthesis
d. DNA gyrase 32. Lyme disease is caused y a. Bacteria c. Spiro
chaete . Fungi d. Virus
$!
42. A num er of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called a. . c. d. Bact
eriophages Mycoplasma phages Virions Tiny strains

43. The following are true a out Rickettsiae. a. . c. d. e. Unicellular organis
ms Prokaryotic intracellular parasites Presence of 70 S ri osomes It causes hemo
lysis in human eings Gram negative plemorphic rods

33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused y a. Staph. al us c. Strep. viridana . Stap
h. aureus d. None of these

34. Black water fever is caused y a. P. vivax c. P. ovale . P. falciparum d. N
one of these

44. The causative agent of scru typhus: a. R.Quintana c. R.orinetalis . R.rick
ettsii d. R.prowazekii

35. Mantoux
test detects a. M. tu erculosis c. Clostridia . Cynao acteria d. Bo
th a and

45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV)
is a sexually transmitted disease is caused y
a. Copthalmia c. C.pneumonias . C.trachomatis d. C.psittasi

36. The anti iotic acting on cell wall is a. Bactracin c. Cyclosporine . Penici
llin d. All of these
46.
Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is a. Frei test c. Schick tes
t . Mantoux test d. Dick test

37. Aflatoxin is produced y a. Aspergillus sps c. Alternaria sps . Penicillium
sps d. None of these

47. Which algae is pathogenic to human? a. Cephaloeuros c. Macrocystis . Ulothr
ix d. Prototheca

38. Penicillin is discovered y a. Fleming c. Koch . Pasteur d. None of these

48. Erythromycin is o tained from a. S.griseus c. S.sca ies . S.rimosus d. S.er
ythraeus

39. Anti iotics used in com ination may demonstrate a. Synergism c. oth . Anta
ginism d. None of these

49. Common cold is caused y a. Adeno virus c. Hepatitis virus . Corono virus d
. Pox virus

40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is a. Histamine c. Epinephrine . C
orticosteroid d. None of these

50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis: a. Adeno virus c. Paramyxo virus . C
orono virus d. None of these
41. Drugs
of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections: a. Tetracyclines c.
a and . Erythromycin d. Penicillins

51. Anti
iotics used for treatment of cholera are a. Tetracyclines c. Streptomyc
ines . Penicillins d. None of these
$"
52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of a. Undulent fever c. Dengue fever
. Remittent fever d. Enteric fever

61. Coryne acterium is a. Gram positive . Resistant to Penicillin c. Gram nega
tive d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol 62. C. diphtheriae consists of a. Startch g
ranules
. Polymeta phosphate granules c. Lipid granules d. None ofthese 63. Th
e incu ation period of diphtheriae is a. Upto 2 weeks c. 2–4 weeks . Upto 1 wee
k d. None of these
53. Which
of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India? a. A
c. C . B d. None of these

54. In enteric fever, the organ
lodging maximum num er of the organism is a. Liv
er c. Small intestine . Gall ladder d. Large intestine

55. True a out Enteric fever is a. . c. d. Bacteraemia in first week Carrier in
90% All serotypes cause the disease Rosy spots on 18th day

64. Diphtheria virulence test is a. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test . Eleck’s
gel precipitation
test c. C.R.P test d. M.R.T. test 65. Diptheria toxoid is pre
pared y using a. Aldehyde c. Phenols . Formalin d. None of these

56. Gastroenteritis is caused y a. . c. d. Shigella V.cholerae V.cholera Parah
aenolyticus S.typhi

57. E.coli produces the following toxins: a. Enterotoxins c. Verocytotoxins . E
ndotoxins d. Hemolysins

66. Diphtheria is an example of a. Bacteraemia c. Septicemia . Pyaemia d. Toxae
mia

58. The following infections caused y Esch. Coli, except a. . c. d. e. Urinary
tract infections Septic infections of wounds Diarrhoea Dysentery Meningitis

67. Main symptom
of tu erculosis is a. Tu ercle formation . Liquid formation c.
Both a and d. None
of these 68. BCGvaccine is for the prevention of a. Bruce
llosis c. Botulism . Diphtheria d. Tu erculosis

59. Diphtheria is caused y a. . c. d. Coryne acterium diphtheriae C. Bovis C.
Jeikeium C. equi

69. Dose of BCG vaccine is a. 0.2–0.5 ml c. 0.05 ml . 0.1 ml d. 0.2 to 0.3 ml

70. Negative Mantoux
test is important in a. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome . Sarcoi
dosis c. Carcinoma ronchus d. Lymphoma

60. Causative organism
of diphtheria was first demonstrated y a. Ro ert Koch .
Lois Pasteur c. Kle s and Loeffler d. Volhard and Fahr
71. Bacilli
Calmette
Guerin (BCG)
contains
the avirulent
strains
of a. . c. d.
Human
tu ercle acilli Avian tu ercle acilli Bovine tu ercle acilli A typical
myco acteria
$#
79.In human eing str. pneumoniae causes a. Septicaemia c. Pneumomnia a. . c.
d. . Paronychia d. None of these
80. Virulence
factor for Stre. pneumoniae:Capsular polysaccharide Specific solu
le su stance Vi-antigen Forsmann antigen . Pneumococcus d. None of these

72. Drugs used against tu erculosis (TB) are a. . c. d. Refampicin, Isoniazid P
yrazinamide, Streptomycin Both a and None of these

81. Conjunctivitis in a new orn is caused y a. Streptococcus c. Meningococci

73. The greatest num er of tu ercle acilli
is present in a. . c. d. Large size
d tu erculomas Miliary tu erculosis Tu erculous lymphadinitis Tu erculous cavity
of the lung

82. Influenza is elonging to a. Orthomyxoviridae . Retroviridae c. Both a and
d. None of these 83. Influenza virus contains a. . c. d. Eight segments of RN
A Two strands of RNA Single RNA None of these . St.pyogenes d. None of these

74. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of a. . c. d. Tu erculoid Leprosy Borderline tu
erculoid Borderline lepramatous Lepronmetous leprosy

84. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused y a. St.pneumoniae c. Influenza a. . c. d.

75. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except a. . c.
d. Impetigo contagiosa Erysipeals Boil Paronchia

85. Geraman
measles is also known
as Ru ella / 2-day measles Ru ella / 3day meas
les Ru ella / 4-day measles Ru ella / 1-day measles

76. Causative agent of Scarlet fever: a. . c. d. Staphylococcus aureus Streptoc
occus viridans Stre. pyogens None of these

86. The commonest
cause of ru ella in new ornes a. . c. d. Congential ru ella
Post natal ru ella Expanded ru ella syndrome (ERS) Both a and c

87. Mumps virus is elonging go a. Retroviriae . Paramyxoviriae
c. Orthomyxo
vi
ridae
d. None of these 88. Measles is characterized y a. . c. d. Negri odies B
a es-Ernest granules Koplik’s spots Fever

77. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused y a. Str. viridans c. Stph. aures
. Str. pyogenes d. None of these

78. Penicillin is the drug of choice for a. Scarlet fever c. Brucellosis . Whoo
ping cough d. Cholera
$$
89. Brucella causes a. Pertusis c. Brucellosis . Plague d. None of these
99.Neurologicalcomplications following ra ies vaccines is common with a. Chick
emryo vaccine . HDCS vaccine c. Semple
vaccine d. BPL vaccine 100. Which anti
ra ic vaccine
has een recommended y WHO as the most effective? a. Duck em ryo
vaccine . HDCS vaccine c. Sheep rain vaccine d. BPL vaccine 101. The causativ
e agent of tetanus is a. Clostridium otulinum . Cl. tetani c. Cl. welchiid. C
l. perfringens 102. The mode of spread
of tetanus neurotoxin from lood to rain
is a. Via lymphaties
. Arterial lood c. Cranial nerves d. None of these 103.
Tetanus is caused y spread of a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system . Exotoxin in
para sympathetic system c. Endotoxin in sympathetic system d. Endotoxin in paras
ympathetic system 104. The first symptom of tetanus is a. Lock jaw c. Anorexia
. Trismus d. Dyspagia

90. Mediterranian fever is caused y a. M. tu erculosis c. C.neoformans . S. ty
phi d. Brucella
91. Which
of the following test is specific for Brucellosis? a. Frei c. Castaned
a strip . Weil d. Rose water

92. Malignant pustule is caused y a. Anthrax c. Diphtheria . Tetanus d. None o
f these

93. The commonest form of anthrax in man is a. Alimentary c. Pulmonary . Cutane
ous d. Hepatic

94. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are a. Sheep c. Goats . C
attle d. All of these

95. Virus causing Ra ies is a. Orthromyxo virus . Paramyxo virus c. Rh do virus
d. Toga viruses

96. Rha do viruses are elonging to the family:
a. Rha do viridae . Toga virida
e c. Paramyxo viridae d. None of these 97. Ra ies Virus isolated from
natural hu
man or animal infection is termed as a. Street virus c. Both a and . Fixed vi
rus d. None of these
105. Of which
clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful? a. Cl. tetani c. Cl.
otulism . Cl. welchii d. Cl. septicum

98. Ra ies virus can multiply in a. The central
nervous system only . The perip
heral nerves c. Muscle tissues d. All the a ove

106. Toxin produced y C. otulism is a. Botulin c. Tetanolysin . Tetanospasmin
d. Cholaragen
107. “Toxic shock syndrome” iscaused y the toxin of a. . c. d. Staphylococcus
aureus Streptococcus pyoge Vi rio cholerae Candida 116. Virulence in gonococcus
is due to
$%

a. Pili . Cell mem rane c. Its cellular location
d. Cyclic enzymes 117. Japanes
e encephalitis is caused y a. Toga Viruses . Ar o Viruses c. Para myxo Viruses
d. Ortho myxo Viruses 118. In India, Japanese encephalitis was first isolated
from the mosquitoes of the a. . c. d. Culex tritaeriorhynchus Culex annulirost
ris Culex vishnui None of these

108. Causative agent of syphilis a. T. pallidum c. T. carateum . T. pertenue d.
T. endemicum

109. Spirochaelis are sensitive to a. Penicillin . Chloramphenicols c. Erythrom
ycin d. Tetracyclins 110. Specific test for syphilis is a. VDRL test c. FTA 111.
VDRL test is a a. Agglutination test . Slide flocculation testc. Precipitatio
n test d. None of these 112. The following characters
are true a out Neisseria g
onorrhoeae except a. Gram-negative,aero ic acteria . Non-motile diplococci c.
Oxidase
positive organisms
d. Air orne infection 113. Gonorrhoea is a. . c. d
. Air ornedisease Water orne disease Sexually transmitted venereal disease Bo
th a and c . ELISA d. None of these

119. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man y the a. Sand fly c. Aedes aeg
ypti . Ticks d. Culex

120. Yellow fever is caused y a. Bunya virus c. Ar o virus . Calci virus d. No
ne of these

121. Vector for leishmaniasis is a. Tick c. Sand fly . Mite d. Tsetse fly

122. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of a. Kala-agar c. Malaria . Ty
phoid d. All of these

123. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar? a. . c. d. L
iver Spleen Adrenal gland Bone marrow

124. In India, malaria most often spreads y a. . c. d. Anophels cucifacies Ano
pheles fluvatis Anopheles stephensi Anopheles minimus

114. Bartholin cyst is caused y a. Candida c. Staphylococcus . Streptococcus d
. Gonococcus

115. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes a. Urethritis c. Arthritis . Conjuctivitis d.
All of the a ove

125. Man is intermediate host for a. Guinea Worm c. Malaria . Filaria d. Kala-a
zar
$&
126. Whichof the following prefera ly infects reticulocytes? a. P. ovale c. P.f
alciparum . P.vivax d. P.malaria
135. Penicillic acidis produced y a. A. ochraceus c. Both a and . P. pu eru
lum d. None of the a ove

136. Fungi producting mycelium are called a. Moulds c. Both a and . Filamento
us fungi d. Yeasts

127. In which type of material
parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage a sent? a.
P.ovale c. P.falciparum . P.vivax d. P. malariae

137. Candidiasis is caused y a. Candida
al icans . Aspergillus spp. c. E. floc
cosum d. M. audouinii 138. Candida al icans is capa le to form a. Single cells
. Pseudomonas c. Multicellular forms d. None of these 139. Aspergillus fumigatus
can infect a. A. niger c. A. flavus . A. fumigatus d. A. oryzae
128. In falciparum malaria,
all of the following stages are seen except a. Ring
stage c. Gametocyte . Schizont d. None of these

129. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has a. . c. d. Induces anti odies Prevents on
ly asexual forms with reproduction No effects on clinical illness None of the a
ove

140. A.fumigates can produce a. Endotoxins c. Enterotoxins . Exotoxins d. None
of these

130. Growing trophozoites and schizonts arenot seen in the peripheral lood in
malaria due to a. P. falciparum c. P.ovale . P.vivax d. P. malaria
141. The drug of choice
for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is a. Griseoful
vin c. Gentian violet . Amphotericin B d. Nystatin

131. Thin
lood smear for malaria is used to identify a. Plasmodium c. Type of p
arasite . Gametocytes d. Schizont
142. The following
Penicillium species are pathogenic except a. P. commune c. P.
glaucum . P. icolor d. P.notatum

132. The radical teatment of malaria is to half a. . c. d. Gametocyte Exo-eryth
rocytic phase Erythrocytic phase All of these

143. Tinea versicolor is caused y a. Candida al icans . Malassezia furfur c. A
spergillus niger d. None of these 144. Causative agent
of Tinea nigra a. . c. d
. Malassezia furfur Exophiala werenekii Candida al icans Aspergillus flavus

133. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis a. . c. d. Osteogenic sarcoma Lymphatic le
ukemia Malaise & Anorexia Both a and

134. Most important Penicillium toxins are a. . c. d. Citrinin Patulin Penicill
ic acid All of the a ove

145. Causative agent
of African histoplasmosis a. . c. d. Histoplasma capsulatu
m Histoplasma du oissi Aspergillus niger Aspergillus flavus
146. Sun ray fungus is a. . c. d. Actinomyces
irraeli Chromo lastomycosis Strep
tomyces griseus
Cryptococcosis 155. acitracin sensitivity test is done for a. P
neunocci . Group ‘A’ Streptococci c. Gonococci d. Staphylococci
$

147. Which agent on addition to a colony inhi its its growth and on removal the
colony regrows is? a. Bacteriostatic c. Anti iotic . Bactericidal d. Antiseptic

156. The effect of anti iotics on micro organisms is mainly due to a.Inhi ition
of cell-wall synthesis . Damage to the cytoplasmic mem rane c. Inhi ition of n
ucleic acid and protein synthesis d. All of the a ove 157. The anti iotic acting

on cell wall is a. Penicillin c. Cyclosporin . Bacitracin d. All of the a ove

148. Griseofluvin is o tained from a. . c. d. Penicillium notatum Streptomyces
griseus Penicillium griseofluvin None of these

149. β-lactum ring is present in a. Erythromycin c. Tetracyclins . Penicillin d
. Chloramphenicol

158. Erythromycin
elongs to chemical class of anti iotics a. â-lactose c. Macro
lides . Tetracyclines d. Aminoglycosides

150. All of the following drugs act on cell mem rane, except a. Novo iocin c. Ch
loromycetin . Nystatin d. Colicins

159. Bacterial
resistance to anti iotics is transmitted y a. Transduction c. Mu
tation . Transformation d. Plasmids

151. Cycloserine related to the amino acid in structure a. Serine c. Alanine .
Aspergine d. None of these

160.
Erythromycin inhi its proteinsynthesis y a. Attaching to 30 S ri osome un
it . Attaching to 50 S unit or ri osome c. By the attachment to t-RNA d. By the
attachment to m-RNA 161. The function
of (THFA) Tetrahydrofolic acid coenzyme i
nclude a.Amino acid synthesis . Thymidine synthesis c. Protein synthesis d. Bo
th a and 162. Resistant to drugs in tu erculosis develops y a. Transduction c
. Conjugation . Transformation d. Mutation

152. In Tu erculosis therapy mainly used anti iotic is a. Penicillin c. Chloramp
henol . Streptomycin d. Cycloserine

153. Theanti acterial action of penicillin is due to its effect on a. . c. d.
Cell mem rane permea ility Cell wall synthesis DNA synthesis Protein synthesis

154.
The anti iotic produced from Bacillus su tilis is a. Vancomycin c. Both a a
nd . Bactiracin d. None of these
%
163. Which of the following
is penicillinase resistang acid la ile penicillin? a
. Amoxycillin c. Car enicillin . Cloxacillin d. Methicillin
a. MIC (minimum inhi itory concentration) . Thermal death point (TDP) c. Death
rate d. None of these
172. Clear-zones formation around
anti iotic disc
is due t
o a. Growth of the acterium surrounding of the disc . Lysis ofthe acterial c
ells surrounding the disc c. The destruction of paper disc (anti iotic) d. None
of these 173. Bacitracin is o tained from a. B. su tilis c. B. cereus . B. anth
racis d. B. anthracoid

164. Which of
the following does not inhi it cell wall synthesis? a. Penicillin
c. Amikacin . Car enicillin d. Vancomycin

165. The anti tumor anti
iotics act y inhi iting a. Cell wall synthesis . RNA
synthesis c. Cell mem rane synthesis d. The DNA structure &function 166. Drug r
esistance to sulphonamides is due to a. Production of PABA .Folic acid synthet
ase c. Drug alteration
d. Low affinity for drugsynthesis y acteria 167. Amoxy
cillinis com ined with clavulanic acid to inhi it a. DNA gyrace c. Protein synt
hesis . Cell synthesis d. β-lactamase enzymes

174. Vancomycin is o tained from a. Streptococcus species . Aspergillus niger c
. Streptomyces orientalis d. Bacillus anthracis 175. â-lactum anti iotics are a.
Penicillin c. Both a & . Cephalosporin d. None of these
168. Drugof choice for methicillin resistant staph. Aureus is a. Ampicillin c.
Neomycin . Erythromycin d. Vancomycin

176.Following are the test organisms used for the I.P micro iological assay of
anti iotics match them correctly:
1. 2. 3. 4. Rifampicin
Tetracyclin Streptomycin
Chloramphenol A. B. D. E. Escher
ichia Coli Kle siella pneumonia Bacillus su tilis Bacillus cereus

169.
Nalidixic acid activity is due to a.
The inhi ition of DNA synthesis . Inh
i ition of protein
synthesis c. The inhi ition of cell wall synthesis d. Both

and c 170. The est test for the suscepti ility of a microorganism to anti iotic
s and other chemotherapeutic agents: a. Tu e-dilution test c. Both a and . Pa
per-disc test d. None of these
C. Micrococcus luteus

177. The drugs mentioned elow are produced y the species mentioned from Ato E.
Match them correctly :
1. 2. 3. 4. Rifampicin Nystatin Amphotericin B Candicidin A. B. D. E. Streptomyc
es griseus Bacillus polymyxa Streptomyces nodosus Streptomyces noursei

171. The smallest amount of chemotherapeutic agents required to inhi it the grow
th of the organism in Vitro is known as
C. Streptomyces mediterranei
178. Match the correct method of sterilization listed A to E for the following d
rugs :
1. 2. 3.
4. Tetracyclin injection
A. Insulin injection
Quinine injection
B. Ster
ilised y dry heat
Sterilised y heating with a acteria Prepared y aseptic met
hod Sterilised y heating in an autoclave
%
183. Match the following strains with their respective produced anti iotics A to
E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Streptomyces griseus. Streptomyces aureofaciens Streptomyces rimosus
Streptomyces griseus var. purpurea A. B. Oxytetracycline Neomycin sulphate

C. Sterilised y aseptic method E.
Morphine injection D.
C. Viomycin D. E. Chlortetracycline Streptomycin
179. Match the following rickettsial
disease with their respective organisms:
1. 2. 3. 4. Epidemic typhus Scru typhus Trench typhus Murine typhus A. B. D. E.
Rickettsia rickettsi Rickettsia prowazeki Rickettsia Quintana Rickettsia typhus

184. Match the following anti iotics with their respective disease A to E to e
cured :
1. 2. 3. 4. Streptomycin
Cycloserine Novo iocin
Griseofulvin A. B. D. E. Staphyl
ococcus infections Tu erculosis Pulmonary tu erculosis Anti-spirochaetes
C. Rickettsia typhus

C. Fungal tu erculosis

180. Match the following antimicro ial with their respective side effects A to E
:
1. 2. Acridines Benzalkonium chloride
Parahydroxy enzoatesFormalin A. B. Showe
d adverse effects on proteins exhi it synergism and unsuita le for preservative
in eye drops

185. Match the following
anti iotics with their respective side effects A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Novo iocin Neomycin Cycloserine Chloramphenol A. B. Damages 8th cram
ial nerve Damages CNS haemopoietic
3. 4.
C. Haemolytic D. E. Very toxic Toxic to leucocytes and retard granulation proces
s
C. Damages system D. E. Skin rashes

Kidney pro lems

181. Match the following anti iotics with their respective modes of administrati
on A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Penicillin V Benzathine penicillin Methicillin sodium Ampicillin A.
B. Intramuscular suspension Oral

186. Match the following anti iotics with their
modes of action A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Tetracyclines Erythromycin Novo iocin Griseofulvin A. B. D. E. Form
an irreversi le complex with
sterols
Chelation of light divalent salts Interfere
s with the conjugation of iliru in Influences mitosis
C. Blocks protein synthesis
C. Both as oral and injection D. E. Locally applied Intramuscular injection

182. Match the following anti iotics with respective strains A to E used for the
ir production :
1. 2. 3. 4. Tetracyclin Chloramphenicol Erythromycin Cycloserine A. B. D. E. Str
eptomyces erythreus Streptomyces garyphalous Streptomyces viridifaciens Streptom
yces venezuelae

187. Match the following dosage forms with their respective anti iotics A to E:
1. 3. 4. Ta lets Capsules Intramuscular injection A. Vancomycin Hcl Colistin Gen
tamycin Paromomycin sulphate 2. Intravenous injection B. D. E.
C. Polymixin B sulphate
C. Streptomyces niveus
%
188. Match the following side effects with their respective anti iotics A to E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Nephrotoxic Rashes Hypersensitivity Gastric irritation A. B. C. D. E
. Triacetyloleandomycin Polymixin B sulphate Cephaloridine Gentamycin Sodium fus
idate
193. Virus causing mumps is also responsi le for a. Measles c. Ra ies . Hepatit
is A d. Variola

194. Epidemic pleurodynia and
myocarditis of new orn infants are oth caused y
a. Group B cox sack virus . Reovirus c. Polyomavirus d. Cytomegalovirus
195. H
uman papillomavirus causes following tumors: a. Hepatic carcinoma . Cervical ca
ncer c. Condyloma acuminatum d. Plantar
wart 196. Viral infection is caused due
to a. Acute self limited illness . No apparent symptoms c. Chronic infection wi
th persistent viral shedding d. All of these 197. Viruses which do not carry enz
ymes for DNA synthesis as a part of their virion are a. Hepatitis B virus . Pox
yviruses c. Heepes simplex
virus d. Retroviruses e. All of these 198. Following
virus is known to esta lish latent infections: a. Adeno virus c. Cytomegalovirus
e. All ofthese 199. Viruses which have teratogenic property are a. Herpes simp
lex virus . Cytomegalovirus c. Ru ella virus d. All of these . Varicella-zoste
r virus d. Hepes simplex virus

189. Match the following anti iotics with their respective activity spectra A to
E:
1. 2. 3. 4. Bacitracin Gentamycin Sodium fusidate Framycetin A. B. C. D. Gram ne
gative Mainly staphylococci Mainly Ps. Aeruginosa Gram positive
190. Match the following enzymes with their activities A to E:
1. 2. Hyaluronidase
Collagenase
Inactivate leucocytes and aid acterial invasion
B. Reversi ly catalyzes the reakdown
of a major component C. Disintegrates a c
onstituent of muscle, cartilage and one D. Haemolysis oferythrocytes and the n
ecrosis of other cells E. Clots plasma and surrounds the acteria A.
3. 4.
Lecithinase Leucocidins
191. Match the following aggresins with their respective modes of action from A
to E:
1. 2. Hyaluronidase Haemolysis Destroys
RBC’s and other tissues B. Breaks down c
onnective tissues, increases permea ility
of tissue space C. Causes lysis of RBC
’s and other tissues D. Digest the fi rin of lood E. Dissolves collagen A.
3. 4.
Streptokinase Lecithinase
192. Match the following terms with their respective effects A to E:
1. Brucella melitensis 2. 3. 4. A. Causes trachoma, conjunctivitis and nongonoco
ccal gamets Causes influenza like fever Causes Malta fever in goats Contaminates
pharmaceutical products Weil’s disease (jaundice)

Flavo acterium B. species Chlamydia C. trachomatis Leptospira D. icterohaemorrha
giae E.
200. Kawasaki syndrome
is a. Most prevalent in Japan and Hawaii .Patients show

rickettsia like acteria in skin iopsies c. Strain involved may e propioni ac
terium d. All of these 201. Mode of action of quinoloneanti iotics on growing
acteria was thought to e a.Inhi ition of â lactamase . Prevention of the cros
s linking of glycine c. Inhi ition of DNA gyrase d. Inhi ition of reverse transc
riptase 202.
The role that human play in the plague life cycle is a. Secondary r
eservoir . Primary transmission vector c. Primary host d. Accidental intruder i
n rat flea cycle e. None of these 203. Patient with presence
of penile
chancre s
hould e advised y physician – a. To take rest at home . To swa the chancre a
nd culture on ThayerMartin agar c. To Gram stain the chancre fluid d. To repeat
VDRL test in 10 hourse. Perform dark field microscopy for treponemes 204. Which
organism is responsi
le for causing
fever to a man dealing with goats? a. Trepa
nema Pallidum . c. d. e. M.tu erculosis Clostridium novyl Brucella melitensis N
one of these
%!
206. Skin of the
healthy person has normal micro
ial flora which
includes a. .
c. d. e. Entero acteriaceae Aero ic diphtheria acilli Anaero ic diphtheriae ac
illi Nonhemolytic staphylococci All of these
207. Which of the following organisms can infect humans if improperly cooked mea
t is used? a. . c. d. e. Trichinella spiralis Taenia saginata Taenia solium Dip
hyllo othrium latum Both a and c

208. The parasite related to ancylostoma duodenale is a. . c. d. Wuchereria an
crofti Necatur americanes Loa loa Trichinella spiralis

209. Which
of the following amoe a does not live in large intestine
? a. . c. d
. Entamoe a coli Entamoeda histolytica Endolimax nana Entamoe a gingivalis
210. Which
of the following is not related to congenital syphilis? a. Aneurysm c
. Still irth . Saddle nose d. Hutchiso’s teeth

211. Streptococcus pyogens produce infection – a. . c. d. Streptococcal sore th
roat Acute glomerulo nephritis Rheumatic fever None of these
205. Diphtheria toxins
are produced from the strains of C.diphtheriae, which are
a. Encapsulated . Sucrose fermentors c. Of the mitis and strain d. Glucose fer
mentors e. Lysogenic for β prophase

212. Salmonella which can cause prolong septicaemia. a. . c. d. Salmonella anet
um Salmonella cholerasuis Salmonella typhimurium Salmonella entritidis
%"
213. E.coli produce
which type of toxins? a. Exotoxins c. Leucocidin . Endotoxi
ns d. Both a and
217. Diagnostic test forthe identification of primary syphilis: a. VDRL test .
Treponema pallidum immo ilization test c. Kahn’s test d. Dark ground microscopi
cexamination
218. Sporadic summer diarrhea may e caused y a. E.coli c. Hafnia
. Entero acter d. Serratia

214. Main causative organism of gas gangrene is a. B.anthrax c. Cl.deficile . C
lostridium tetani d. Cl.perfringens

215. Causative organism of whooping cough is a. . c. d. Bordetella pertussis Bo
rdetella parapertussis Bordetella ronchi septica None of these

219. Biological false reaction in VDRL is related to a. Lepra acilli . Coryne
acterium diphtheria c. Cl.welchi d. None of these

216. Pfeiffer phenomenon is related to a. Vi rio cholerae c. Rickettsial pox .
B.anthrax d. All of these

ANSWERS 1. d 7.
a 13. 19. a 25. 31. d 37. a 43. d 49. 55. a 61. a 67. a 73
. d 79. c 85. 91. c 97. a 103. a 109. 115. d 121. c 2. 8. 14. d 20. c 26
.a 32. c 38. a 44. c 50. a 56. c 62. 68. d 74. d 80. a 86. d 92. a 98. d 104.
110. a 116.
a 122. d 3. a 9. a 15. d 21. 27. d 33. 39. c45. 51. a 57.
63. c 69. 75. d 81. a87. 93. 99. c 105. c 111. 117. 123. 4. c 10.
a 16. c 22.c 28. d 34. 40. c 46. a 52. d 58. e 64. 70. a 76. c 82. a 88.
94. d 100. 106. a 112.d 118. c 124. a 5. c 11. 17. 23.d 29. d 35. a 41.
c 47. d 53. a 59. a 65. 71. c 77. 83. 89. c 95. c 101. 107. a 113. c 11
9. c 125. c 6. 12. 18. d 24. c 30. c 36. d 42. 48. d 54.
60. c 66. d 72.
c 78. a 84. c 90. d 96. a 102. c 108. a 114. d 120. c 126.
%#

127.
c 128. 129. a 130. a 131. c 132. c 133. d 134.
d 135. c 136. a 137. a 138
. 139. d 140. a 141. c 142. d 143.
144.
145. 146. a 147. a 148. c 149.
150. d 151. c 152. d 153. 154. 155. 156. d 157. d 158. c 159. d 160. 16
1.
d 162. d 163. d 164. c 165. d 166. 167. d 168. d 169. a 170. c 171.
a 172.
173. a 174.c 175. c176. 1.d, 2.e, 3.a, 4.a 177. 1.c, 2.e, 3.d, 4. 178. 1.d,
2.c, 3.e, 4. 179. 1. , 2.c, 3.d, 4.e 180.1.e,2.c,3. ,4.a 181. 1. , 2.a, 3.e, 4
.c 182. 1.d, 2.e, 3.a,4. 183. 1.e, 2.d, 3.a, 4.c 184.1. ,2.d,3.a,4.c
185. 1.d,
2.e, 3. , 4.c
186. 1. , 2.c, 3.d, 4.e 189. 1.e, 2.a, 3.d, 4. 187. 1. , 2.a, 3.
e, 4.c
188.1. ,2.c,3.a,4.e 90. 1. , 2.c, 3.d, 4.a 191. 1. , 2.a, 3.d, 4.c 192.1.
c,2. ,3.a,4.e 193. a 194. a 195. a 196. d 197. e 198. e 199. d 200. d 201. c 202
. d 203. e 204. d 205. e 206. e 207. e 208. 209. d 210. a 211. a 212. 213. d
214. d 215. a 216. a 217. d 218. a 219. a

This page intentionally left lank
CHAPTER 10

1. The est medium for the production of Penicillin is a. Nutrient agar . Corn
steep liquor c. Sulfite waste
liquor d. Whey 2.
Industrially important Anti ioti
c producing organisms shall e isolated y a. . c. d. Disk plate method Direct
plate method Serial dilution method Crowded plate method

6. A major ingradient of penicillin production media is a. Corn meal . Corn ste
ep liquor c. Cane
steep liquor d. None of these 7. the outstanding example
of tr
aditional micro ial fermentation product is a. Vinegar c. Citric acid . Penicil
lin d. Tetracyclin
8. Which of the following involves
the formation of nitrate from ammonia a. Ammo
nification c. Nitrification . Denitrification d. Nitrogen fixation

3. Industrial alchohol will e produced y using starter culture a. Top yeast c.
Bottom yeast . Middle yeast d. Feeder yeast

4. Pyruvate
decar oxylase acetaldehyde + CO2 = This reaction is specially o serv
ed in a. . c. d. Lactic acid fermentors Ethanol fermentors Algae Plants

9. First genetically engineered
and iotechnologically produced vaccine was agai
nst a. AIDS c. Herpes simplex . Small pox d. Hepatitis B.
10. one of thestandard cloning vector widely used in gene cloning is a. Ti pasm
id c. pBR 322 . EMBL 3 d. EMBL 4

5. The pyruvate,
dehydrogenase →multienzyme complex does not
occur
in a. . c.
d. Aeroic acteria Microphilic acteria Facultative anaero ic acteria Strictly
anaero ic acteria

11. In alchoholic
fermentation, CO2 is evolved during a. Decar oxylatin of pyruv
ic acid . Formation of acetaldehyde c. Oxidation of acetaldehyde d. Both a and
%&
12. In the industrial production of streptomycin,
the secondary meta olite or y
products is a. Vitamin – B12 c. Vitamin – B6 . Vitamin – C d. Ethanol
20. Penicilin is commercially produced y a. P.notatum c. P.citrinum . P.chryso
genum d. P.roquefortii

21. The most commonly used microorganism
in alchohol fermentation is a. . c. d.
A spergilus niger Bacillus su tilis Sacharomyces cerevisiae Escherichia coli

13. To acco and tea leaves are
fermented to give flavour and taste. This type of
fermentation is known as a. . c. d. Alcohol fermentation Curing Degradation La
ctic acid fermentation

22.V itamin B 12can e estimated and determined y using organism a. . c. d.
a. . c. d. Lacto acillus sps Lacto acillus Leichmanni
Bacillus su tilis E.Coli
Closed system Open system Fed-Batch system Su -merger system

14. Vinegar fermentation involves
a. Yeasts only .Yeasts withlactic acteria
c. Yeasts with acetic acid acteria d. Yeasts with utric acid acteria 15. Carc
inoma refers to a. Malignant
tumours of the connective tissue . Malignant tumor
s of the skin or mucous mem rane c. Malignant tumours of the
colon d. Malignant
tumors of the
connective tissue 16. By-product
of acetone- utanol fermentation i
nclude a. Ri oflavin c. Isopropanol . Penicillin d. All of these
23. Batch fermentation is also called

24. To differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors the medium used is a. .
c. d. Mac Conkey’s medium Stuart’s medium Sugar medium Citrate medium

25. The micro-organism useful for fermentation are a. Bacteria c. Fungi . Yeast
d. None of these

17. Transgenic animals
are for improvement of the quality of a. Milk c. Eggs .
Meat d. All of the a ove

26. Industrial microiology, mainly depends on the
phenomenon
a. Pasteurisation
c.
Vaccination
a. Fi rionolysin c. Coagulase a. . c. d. . Fermentation d. Both
and c . Catalase d. Hyaluronidase

18. Thermo resistant acteria are important in the preservation of foods y a. F
reezing c. Chemicals . Canning d. Irradiation
27. Streptokinase is also termed as

19. The fungus used in the industrial production of citric acid: a. . c. d. Rhi
zopus Oryzac Fusarium moniliformae Rhizopus nigricans Aspergillus nigricans

28. Streptokinase is produced y Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae
Str. faecalis Str. pyogenes
29. Large vessel containing all the parts and condition necessary for the growth
of desired microorganisms is called a. Bio reactor c. Impeller
. Auto reactor
d.
None of these 38. Protoplasts
can e prepared
from a. . c. d. Gram positive
acteria Gram negative acteria Both a & None of these
%

30. Basic principle in industrial micro iology is a. . c. d. Suita le growth co
nditions Fermentation Providing aseptic conditions All of these

39. Upto the production of desira le production in the fermentor is called a. .
c. d. Upstream process Downstream process Surface fermentation None of these
31. For thorough mixing of medium
of medium and inoculum the part of fermentor u
seful is a. Shaft c. Impeller . Headspace d. Sparger
40. The purification and recovery of the production after fermentation is called
a. . c. d. Upstream process Downstream process Surface fermentation None of th
ese

32. Infermentor the top portion left without roth is called a. Shaft c. Impelle
r . Head space d. Sparger

41.
If the microorganisms are allowed to nutrient medium is called a. . c. d. S
u merged fermentation Surface fermentation Dual fermentation All of these

33. Over heating of fermentator during fermentation is controlled y a. Cooling
jacket
c. Cool air 34. Antifoam agent is a. Silicon
compounds . Corn oil c. Soy
a ean oil d. All of these
35. The capacity of la oratory
fermentors is a. 12–15
liters c. 500 liters . 2000 gallons d. 10000 gallons . Steam d. None of these

42. Su merged fermentations
are a. . c. d. Batch fermentation Continuous fermen
tation Both a and None of these

43. Batch fermentation is also called a. Closed system c. Fed- atch system . Op
en system d. None of these

36. For the production of ethanol the raw material used is a. . c. d. Molasses
Cellulose Sulphite waste liquor None of these

44. If more than one microorganism is used to o tain the required product, that
type of fermentation is called a. Batch c. Dual . Continuous d. Fed- atch

37.Different methods of strain improvement
are a. . c. d. Protoplast fusion Re
com inant DNA technique Genetic recom ination All of these

45. L. lysine isproduced from a. . c. d. Coryne acterium glutamicum Coryne ac
terium sps. Myco acterium sps. None of these
&
46. Methods
used to get immo ilized enzymes: a. Adsorption . Encapsulation c. C
ovalent onding
d. All of these 47. Raw-material used for the production of alco
hol is a. . c. d. Molasses Starch Sulphite waste water All of these
55. Industrial Production of Vitamin-B12 is from a. Propioni acteriumsps. . Ps
eudomonas sps. c. Both a and d. None of these 56. Clostridium aceto utylicum i
s used for the production of a. Acetone - Butanol . Ethanol c. Vitamin-B12 d. N
one of these 57. In the production of ethanol industrially the yeast used is a.
K.pneumoniae
c. S. cerevisiae 58. Citric acid is used as a. Flavouring agent in
food . As an antioxident
c. As preservative
d. All of the a ove 59. Citric
acid
is produced in aero ic conditions y the fungi a. Aspergillus
c. Mucor . Penic
illin d. All of these . Kluyreromyces fragilis d. Both and c

48. Microorganisms
used for alcohol production a. . c. d. Saccharomyces serevic
eae Bacillus su tilis Penicillium chrysogenum None of these

49. For streptomycin production the microorganisms required are a. . c. d. Stre
ptomyces griseus Streptomyces niger Saccharomyces cereviceae All of these

50.
The y-product during streptomycin production is a. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B12
. Proline d. None of these

51. For acetic acid production the methods followed are a. . c. d. Orleans proc
ess Rapid process Su merged process All of these

60. The raw material for citric acid production is a. Corn c. Starch . Molasses
d. None of these
61. Aspergillus
niger is used generally for the production of a. Ethanol c. Citr
ic acid . Penicillin d. Lactic acid

52. For
amylase production the micro organism required is a. B. su tilis c. A. n
igar . S. cereviceae d. None of these

62. In the citric acid
production, the pH to e maintained in the fernmenter is
a. 7.0 c. 8.0 to 9.0 . 5.0 to 6.0 d. 1.0 to 6.0

53. Pectinase is industrially produced from a. S.cereviceae c. A. nigar . Trich
oderma Koningi d. None of these

54. Cellulose are produced from a. S.cereviceae c. A. nigar . Trichoderma Konin
gi d. None of these
63. The requiredtemperature for the production of citric acid is a. 10oC – 80oC
c. 20oC – 50oC . 30oC – 50oC d. 25oC – 30oC
64. The penicillin produced
in large scale su merged fermentations are a. Penici
llin-A c. Penicillin-G . Penicillin-D d. None of these
&
66. 6-amino penicillic acid is prepared from penicillin sps y a. . c. d. Acyla
se Punicillin acylase Penicillinone None of these
65. The strain of fungi used for the large scale production of penicillin is a.
. c. d. Penicillium chrysogenum P-notatum Streptomyces Aurecus Saccharomyces sp
s

67. The pH, to e maintained for the production of penicillin is a. 7.5 c. 8.0
. 6.5 d. 5.0

ANSWERS 1. 7. a 13. 19. d 25. 31. c 37. d 43. a 49. a 55. c 61. c 67.

2. d 8. c 14. c 20. 26. 32. 38. 44. c 50. c 56. 62.

3. c 9. 15. d 21. a 27. a 33. a 39. 45. a 51. d 57. d 63. d

4. 10. c 16. a 22. 28. d 34. d 40. 46. d 52. a 58. d 64. c

5. 11. d 17. d 23. a 29. a 35. a 41. 47. d 53. c 59. d 65. a

6. 12. a 18. 24. a 30. 36. c 42. c 48. a 54. 60. a 66.

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