FORCE AND NEWTONS LAWS OF MOTION
of nuclear forces. It acts within the nucleus that too
INTRODUCTION
Force is a push or pull which tries to change or
successfully changes the state of rest or of uniform
motion of a body, i.e., force is the cause of translatory
motion.
It arises due to interaction of the bodies either due to
contact (e.g., normal reaction, friction, tension, spring
force etc.) or from a distance (e.g., gravitational or
electric force).
FUNDAMENTAL FORCES
All forces observed in nature such as muscular force,
tension, reaction, friction, weight, electric, magnetic,
nuclear, etc., can be explained in terms of only following
four basic interactions.
(a) Gravitational Force :
The force of interaction which exists between two
particles of masses m1 and m2, due to their masses is
called gravitational force. The gravitational force acts
over long distances and does not need, any intervening
medium. Gravitational force is the weakest force of
nature.
(b) Electromagnetic Force :
Force exerted by one particle on the other because of
the electric charge on the particles is called
electromagnetic force. Following are the main
characteristics of electromagnetic force
(i) These can be attractive or repulsive.
(ii) These are long range forces.
(iii) These depend on the nature of medium between
the charged particles.
(iv) All macroscopic forces (except gravitational) which
we experience as push or pull or by contact are
electromagnetic, i.e., tension in a rope, the force
of friction, normal reaction, muscular force, and
force experienced by a deformed spring are
electromagnetic forces. These are manifestations
of the electromagnetic attractions and repulsions
between atoms/molecules.
(c) Nuclear Force :
It is the strongest force. It keeps nucleons (neutrons
and protons) together inside the nucleus inspite of
large electric repulsion between protons. Radioactivity,
fission, and fusion, etc. results because of unbalancing
upto a very small distance. It does not depends on
charge and acts equally between a proton and proton,
a neutron and neutron, and proton and neutron,
electrons does not experience this force. It acts for very
short distance order of 1015 m.
(d) Weak Force :
It acts between any two elementary particles. Under its
action a neutron can change into a proton emitting an
electron and a particle called antineutrino. The range
of weak force is very small, in fact much smaller than
size of a proton or a neutron.
It has been found that for two protons at a distance of 1
fermi :
FN:FEM:FW:FG::1:102:107:1038
On the basis of contact forces are classified into two
categories
(i) Contact forces
(ii) Non contact or field forces
(a) Contact force :
Forces which are transmitted between bodies by short
range atomic molecular interactions are called contact
forces. When two objects come in contact they exert
contact forces on each other. e.g. Normal, Tension etc.
( b ) Field force :
Force which acts on an object at a distance by the
interaction of the object with the field produced by other
object is called field force. e.g. Gravitational force,
Electro magnetic force etc.
DETAILED ANALYSIS OF CONTACT FORCE
(a) Normal force (N) :
It is the component of contact force perpendicular to
the surface. It measures how strongly the surfaces in
contact are pressed against each other. It is the
electromagnetic force.
e.g.1 A table is placed on Earth as shown in figure
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PAGE # 11
 Here table presses the earth so normal force exerted
by four legs of table on earth are as shown in figure.
e.g.2 A boy pushes a block kept on a frictionless
surface.
(b) Tension :
Tension is the magnitude of pulling force exerted by a
string, cable, chain, rope etc. W hen a string is
connected to a body and pulled out, the string said to
be under tension. It pulls the body with a force T, whose
direction is away from the body and along the length of
the string. Usually strings are regarded to be massless
and unstretchable, known as ideal string.

Here, force exerted by boy on block is electromagnetic

interaction which arises due to similar charges
appearing on finger and contact surface of block, it is
normal force.
A block is kept on inclined surface. Component of its
weight presses the surface perpendicularly due to
which contact force acts between surface and block.
Note : (i) Tension in a string is an electromagnetic
force and it arises only when string is pulled. If a
massless string is not pulled, tension in it is zero.
(ii) String can not push a body in direct contact.
(c) Force Exerted by spring :
A spring is made of a coiled metallic wire having a
definite length. When it is neither pushed nor pulled
then its length is called natural length.
At natural length the spring does not exert any force on
the objects attached to its ends.f the spring is pulled
at the ends, its length becomes larger than its natural
length, it is known as stretched or extended spring.
Extended spring pulls objects attached to its ends.

A B
Normal spring
Normal force exerted by block on the surface of inclined
plane is shown in figure. Here normal force is a Spring force on A Spring force on B
component of weight of the body perpendicular to the A B
inclined surface i.e. N = mgsin Stretched spring
Spring force on A Spring force on B
A B
Compressed spring

If the spring is pushed at the ends, its length becomes

less than natural length. It is known as compressed
spring. A compressed spring pushes the objects
Force acts perpendicular to the surface attached to its ends.

F = 0 spring in natural
1. Two blocks are kept in contact on a smooth surface as length does not exerts
any force on its ends
shown in figure. Draw normal force exerted by
A on B. x
Fext
F F
F = kx ;k = spring
constant or stiffness
constant (unit = N/m)
Sol. In above problem, block A does not push block B, so x = extension in spring
there is no molecular interaction between A and B.
x
Hence normal force exerted by A on B is zero. F
F
Note : Fext
F = kx
Normal is a dependent force it comes in role when x = compression in spring
one surface presses the other.

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PAGE # 22
 Note : Spring force is also electromagnetic in nature :

(d) Friction force :

When a body is moving on a rough surface resistance

to the motion occurs because of the interaction
between the body and its surroundings. We call such
resistance as force of friction. Friction is also
considered as component of contact force which acts
parallel to the surfaces in contact.

(i) Origin of friction : The frictional force arises due to

molecular interactions between the surfaces at the
points of actual contact. When two bodies are placed
one over other, the actual area of contact is much
(C) Once the motion started, the smaller force is now
smaller then the total surface areas of bodies. The necessary to continue the motion (F3) and thus
molecular forces starts operating at the actual points frictional force decreases. The force of friction
of contact of the surfaces. Molecular bonds are formed when body is in state of motion over the surface is
at these contact points. When one body is pulled over called kinetic or dynamic friction fk (figure d).
the other, these bonds are broken, and the material
get deformed and new bonds are formed. The local
deformation sends vibrations into the bodies. These
Vibrations ultimately dumps out and energy of
vibrations appears as heat. Hence to start or carry on
the motion, there is a need of force.

Body 1

Body 2 (iii) More about frictional force :

(A) About static friction
Actual area of contact
1.
(ii) Statics and Kinetic Frictions :
Experiment :
2.
(A) Consider a block placed on a table, and a small
force F1 is acted on it. The block does not move. It
indicates that the frictional force fs starts acting in
opposite direction of applied force and its magnitude 3.
is equal of F1(figure b). That is for the equilibrium of
the block, we have
F1 fs = 0 or F1 = fs
The force of friction when body is in state of rest over
We can write, s =
the surface is called static friction (fs).
(B) About kinetic friction :
(B) As the applied force increases the frictional force
also increases. When the applied force is increased 1.
up to a certain limit (F2) such that the block is on the
verge of motion. The value of frictional force at this 2.
stage is called limiting friction flim (figure c).
3.
The limiting friction depends on the materials
of the surfaces in contact and their state of
polish.
The magnitude of static friction is
independent of the apparent area of contact
so long as the normal reaction remains the
same.
The limiting friction is directly proportional to
the magnitude of the normal reaction
between the two surfaces i.e. flim= SN. Here
s is coefficient of static friction.
flim
N
The kinetic friction depends on the materials
of the surface in contact.
It is also independent of apparent area of
contact as long as the magnitude of normal
reaction remains the same.
Kinetic friction is almost independent of the
velocity, provided the velocity is not too large
not too small.
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PAGE # 33
 4. The kinetic friction is directly proportional to
the magnitude of the normal reaction
between the surfaces.
fk = k N. Here k is coefficient of kinetic friction.
fk A force is conservative if the total work done by the
We can write, k = force on an object in one complete round is zero,
N
i.e. when the object moves around any closed path
There are two types of kinetic frictions:
(returning to its initial position).
(i) Sliding friction : The force of friction when one
A force is conservative if there is no change in kinetic
body slides over the surface of the another body is
energy in one complete round. KE = 0
called sliding friction.
This definition illuminates an important aspect of a
conservative force viz. Work done by a conservative
force is recoverable. Thus in figure, we shall have to
do mgh amount of work in taking the body from A to B.
(ii) Rolling friction : When a wheel rolls without However, when body is released from B, we recover
slipping over a horizontal surface, there is no mgh of work.
relative motion of the point of contact of the wheel Other examples of conservative forces are spring force,
with respect to the plane. Theoretically for a rolling electrostatic force etc.
wheel the frictional force is zero. This can only
(b) Non-Conservative Force :
possible when bodies in contact are perfectly rigid
A force is non-conservative if the work done by that force
and contact of wheel with the surface is made
on a particle moving between two points depends on
only at a point. But in practice no material body is
the path taken between the points.
perfectly rigid and therefore bodies get deformed
The force of friction is an example of non-conservative
when they pressed each other. The actual area of
force. Let us illustrate this with an instructive example.
their contact no longer remains a point, and thus
Suppose we were to displace a book between two points
a small amount of friction starts acting between
on a rough horizontal surface (such as a table). If the
the body and the surface. Here frictional force is
book is displaced in a straight line between the two
called rolling friction. It is clear from above
points, the work done by friction is simply FS where :
discussion that rolling friction is very much smaller
F = force of friction ;
than sliding friction.
S = distance between the points.

However, if the book is moved along any other path

between the two points (such as a semicircular path),
the work done by friction would be greater than FS.
flim > fkinetic > frolling. Finally, if the book is moved through any closed path,
the work done by friction is never zero, it is always
Note : s and k are dimensionless quantities and
negative. Thus the work done by a non-conservative
independent of shape and area of contact . It is a
force is not recoverable, as it is for a conservative force.
property of two contact surfaces. s will always be
greater than k .Theoretical value of can be o to but
SYSTEM
practical value is 0 < 1.6
Two or more than two objects which interact with each
other form a system.
(a) Conservative Force : Classification of forces on the basis of boundary of
system :
A force is said to be conservative if the amount of work
done in moving an object against that force is (a) Internal Forces : Forces acting with in a system
independent on the path. One important example of among its constituents.
conservative force is the gravitational force. It means
(b) External Forces : Forces exerted on the
that amount of work done in moving a body against
constituents of a system by the outside
gravity from location A to location B is the same
surroundings are called as external forces.
whichever path we may follow in going from A to B. This
is illustrated in figure.

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PAGE # 44
 FREE BODY DIAGRAM B
A
A free body diagram consists of a diagrammatic
representations of single body or a subsystem of
bodies isolated from surroundings showing all the
Sol.F.B.D. of sphere A :
forces acting on it.

Steps for F.B.D.

Step 1 : Identify the object or system and isolate it from
other objects, clearly specify its boundary.
Step 2 : First draw non-contact external force in the
diagram, generally it is weight.
Step 3 : Draw contact forces which acts at the boundary
F.B.D. of sphere B :
of the object of system. Contact forces are normal ,
(exerted by A)
friction, tension and applied force. In F.B.D, internal
forces are not drawn only external are drawn.

2. A block of mass m is kept on the ground as shown in

figure.

Note : Here NAB and NBA are the action - reaction pair
(Newtons third law).

(i) Draw F.B.D. of block. 4. Draw F.B.D. for systems shown in figure below.

(ii) Are forces acting on block forms action- reaction

pair.

(iii) If answer is no, draw action reaction pair.

Sol.(i) F.B.D. of block

Sol.

(ii) N and mg are not action -reaction pair. Since pair

act on different bodies, and they are of same
nature.

(iii) Pair of mg of block acts on earth in opposite

direction.

earth
mg

TRANSLATORY EQUILIBRIUM
and pair of N acts on surface as shown in figure.

N When several forces acts on a body simultaneously in

3. Two sphere A and B are placed between two vertical
walls as shown in figure. Draw the free body diagrams
of both the spheres.
such a way that resultant force on the body is zero, i.e.,
F = 0 with F = Fi the body is said to be in translatory
equilibrium. Here it is worthy to note that :
(i) As if a vector is zero all its components must vanish
i.e. in equilibrium as -

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PAGE # 55

Note : The absolute unit of force remains the same

everywhere, but the gravitational unit of force varies
F = 0 with F = F = 0 i
from place to place because it depends on the value of g.

F x
=0; F y =0; F z
=0 ( b ) Applications of Newtons 2 nd Law
(i) When objects are in equilibrium :
So in equilibrium forces along x axes must balance Steps to solve problem involving objects in
each other and the same is true for other directions. equilibrium :
If a body is in translatory equilibrium it will be either at Step 1 : Make a sketch of the problem.
rest or in uniform motion. If it is at rest, equilibrium is Step 2 : Isolate a single object and then draw the free-
called static, otherwise dynamic.
body diagram for the object. Label all external forces
Static equilibrium can be divided into following three acting on it.
types : Step 3 : Choose a convenient coordinate system and
(a) Stable equilibrium : resolve all forces into rectangular components along x
and Y direction.
If on slight displacement from equilibrium position a
body has a tendency to regain its original position it is Step 4 : Apply the equations F x 0 and Fy 0.
said to be in stable equilibrium. In case of stable Step 5 : Step 4 will give you two equations with several
equilibrium potential energy is minimum and so center unknown quantities. If you have only two unknown
of gravity is lowest. quantities at this point, you can solve the two equations
for those unknown quantities.
Step 6 : If step 5 produces two equations with more
O than two unknowns, go back to step 2 and select
another object and repeat these steps. Eventually at
(b) Unstable equilibrium : If on slight displacement step 5 you will have enough equations to solve for all
from equilibrium position a body moves in the direction unknown quantities.
of displacement, the equilibrium is said to be unstable.
In this situation potential energy of body is maximum
5. A block of mass 10 kg is
and so center of gravity is highest.
suspended with string as
O shown in figure.
Find tension in the string.
(g = 10 m/s2).
(c) Neutral equilibrium : If on slight displacement from Sol.F.B.D. of block
equilibrium position a body has no tendency to come For equilibrium of block along Y axis
back to its original position or to move in the direction
of displacement, it is said to be in neutral equilibrium.
F y 0
T 10 g = 0
In this situation potential energy of body is constant
T = 100 N
and so center of gravity remains at constant height.
6. The system shown in figure is in equilibrium. Find the
magnitude of tension in each string ; T1 , T2, T3 and T4.
(g = 10 m/s2).

(a) Newtons 2 nd law of motion :

The rate of change of linear momentum of a body is

directly proportional to the applied force and the change
takes place in the direction of the applied force.

In relation F = ma the force F stands for the net Sol.F.B.D. of 10 kg block
external force. Any internal force in the system is not to For equilibrium of block along Y axis.
T0
be included in F .
In S.I. the absolute unit of force is newton (N) and
F y 0

gravitational unit of force is kilogram weight or kilogram T0 = 10 g

force (kgf.) T0 = 100 N 10g

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PAGE # 66
 F.B.D. of point A N2 = 50 sin 30 + N3
y N3 = 100 25 = 75 N
T2
F y 0
30
& N4 = 50 cos 30 + 20 g
T2 cos 30 = T0 = 100 N N4 = 243.30 N
T1 x
A 8. Find magnitude of force exerted by string on pulley.
200
T2 = N
3 T0

F x 0

T1 = T2 . sin 30
Sol B. F.B.D. of 10 kg block :
200 1 100
= . = N.
3 2 3
F.B.D. of point of B
y

T4
T = 10 g = 100 N
60 F.B.D. of pulley :
T3 x
B
30
T2

F y = 0 T4 cos 60 = T2 cos 30

T4 = 200 N Since string is massless, so tension in both sides

of string is same.
and F x = 0 T3 + T2 sin30 = T4 sin 60 So magnitude of force exerted by string on pulley
200
T3 = N = 100 2 100 2 = 100 2 N
3
7. Two blocks are kept in contact as shown in figure. Find :- Note : Since pulley is in equilibrium position, so net
(a) forces exerted by surfaces (floor and wall) on forces on it is zero.
blocks. (ii) Accelerating Objects :
(b) contact force between two blocks. Steps to solve problems involving objects that are in
accelerated motion :

Step 1 : Make a sketch of the problem.

Step 2 : Isolate a single object and then draw the free
- body diagram for that object. Label all external forces
SolA : F.B.D. of 10 kg block acting on it. Be sure to include all the forces acting on
the chosen body, but be equally careful not to include
any force exerted by the body on some other body.
Some of the forces may be unknown , label them with
algebraic symbols.
Step 3 : Choose a convenient coordinate system, show
N1 = 10 g = 100 N .......(1)
location of coordinate axis explicitly in the free - body
N2 = 100 N .........(2)
diagram, and then determine components of forces
F.B.D. of 20 kg block
with reference to these axis and resolve all forces into
x and y components.
Step 4 : Apply the equations Fx = max & Fy = may.
Step 5 : Step 4 will give two equations with several
unknown quantities. If you have only two unknown
quantities at this point, you can solve the two equations
for those unknown quantities.

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PAGE # 77
 Step 6 : If step 5 produces two equations with more Sol.For calculating the value of F0.
than two unknowns, go back to step 2 and select F.B.D of whole system
another object and repeat these steps. Eventually at
F0
step 5 you will have enough equations to solve for all
unknown quantities.
2
(a) 2m/s
9. A force F is applied horizontally on mass m1 as shown 10 g = 100 N
in figure. Find the contact force between m1 and m2.
F0 100 = 10 2
F0 = 120 N ........(1)

(b) According to Newtons second law, net force on

Sol.Considering both blocks as a system to find the rope.
common acceleration. F = ma = 2 2
Common acceleration = 4N ............(2)

(c) For calculating tension at the middle point we draw

F
a= F.B.D. of 3 kg block with half of the rope (mass 1
m1 m2 .......(1) kg) as shown.

F m1 m2 a
T4g=4.2

To find the contact force between A and B we draw

F.B.D. of mass m2. T = 48 N
F.B.D. of mass m2
11. A block of mass 50 kg is kept on another block of mass
1 kg as shown in figure. A horizontal force of 10 N is
applied on the 1Kg block. (All surface are smooth).
Find : (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) Acceleration of blocks A and B.
(b) Force exerted by B on A.
F x = max
B 50 kg
A 1 kg
N = m2 . a

m2F F Sol.(a) F.B.D. of 50 kg

N= sin ce a
m1 m2 m1 m 2

10. A 5 kg block has a rope of mass 2 kg attached to its

underside and a 3 kg block is suspended from the other
end of the rope. The whole system is accelerated
upward at 2 m/s2 by an external force F0. N2 = 50 g = 500 N
along horizontal direction, there is no force aB = 0
(a) What is F0 ?
(b) F.B.D. of 1 kg block :
(b) What is the net force on rope ?
N1 N2
(c) What is the tension at middle point of the rope ?
(g = 10 m/s2) 10 N

1g

along horizontal direction

10 = 1 aA.
aA = 10 m/s2
along vertical direction
N1 = N2 + 1g
= 500 + 10 = 510 N
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PAGE # 88
12. One end of string which passes through pulley and N = Mg
connected to 10 kg mass at other end is pulled by 100 = 60 10
N force. Find out the acceleration of 10 kg mass. (g N = 600 N.
2
=9.8 m/s ) SPRING BALANCE

It does not measure the weight. It measures the force

Sol.Since string is pulled by 100 N force. So tension in the
string is 100 N
exerted by the object at the hook. Symbolically, it is
represented as shown in figure.
A block of mass m is suspended at hook. When spring
balance is in equilibrium, we draw the F.B.D. of mass
m for calculating the reading of balance.

F.B.D. of 10 kg block

spring balance

hook
m
F.B.D. of m.

100 10 g = 10 a
100 10 9.8 = 10 a
mg T = 0
a = 0.2 m/s2.
T = mg
Magnitude of T gives the reading of spring balance.
WEIGHING MACHINE
14. A block of mass 20 kg is suspended through two light
A weighing machine does not measure the weight but spring balances as shown in figure . Calculate the :
measures the force exerted by object on its upper
surface.

13. A man of mass 60 Kg is

standing on a weighing
machine placed on ground.
Calculate the reading of
weighing machine
machine (g = 10 m/s2).

Sol.For calculating the reading of weighing machine, we

(1) reading of spring balance (1).
draw F.B.D. of man and machine separately.
(2) reading of spring balance (2).
F.B.D of man
Sol.For calculating the reading, first we draw F.B.D.of 20 kg
block.
F.B.D of man taking F.B.D. of weighing machine F.B.D. 20 kg
mass of man as M
N N
weighing machine
T

N1 Mg
N = Mg
Mg
20 g

Here force exerted by object on upper surface is N

Reading of weighing machine
mg T = 0
T = 20 g = 200 N
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PAGE # 99
 Since both the balances are light so, both the scales As the block is in equilibrium along y-axis, so we have
will read 200 N.
F y 0;
15. (i) A 10 kg block is supported by a cord that runs to a
or N = mg + F sin
spring scale, which is supported by another cord
from the ceiling figure (a). What is the reading on To just move the block along x-axis, we have
the scale ? F cos = N = (mg + F sin )
(ii) In figure (b) the block is supported by a cord that
runs around a pulley and to a scale. The opposite mg
or F= .......(i)
end of the scale is attached by cord to a wall. What cos sin
is the reading of the scale.
Pull : Along y-axis we have ;
(iii) In figure (c) the wall has been replaced with a
second 10 kg block on the left, and the assembly is
stationary. What is the reading on the scale now ?

spring balance
F y 0;
T
hook N = mg F sin
10 kg
To just move the block along x-axis, we have
(a) F cos = N = (mg F sin )
T T
mg
T
or F = . .......(ii)
cos sin
10kg
It is clear from above discussion that pull force is
smaller than push force.
(b)
T T 17. Discuss the direction of friction in the following cases :

T T (i) A man walks slowly, without change in speed.

10kg 10kg (ii) A man is going with increasing speed.

(iii) When cycle is gaining speed.

(c)
Sol. In all the three cases the spring balance reads 10 kg. (iv) When cycle is slowing down .
To understand this let us cut a section inside the spring
Sol. (i) Consider a man walks slowly without acceleration,
as shown;
and both the legs are touching the ground as
shown in figure (a). The frictional force on rear leg
is in forward direction and on front leg will be on
As each part of the spring is at rest, so F= T. As the backward direction of motion.
block is stationary, so T= 10g = 100N.
As a = 0,
16. Pull is easier than push Fnet = 0 or f1 f 2 = 0
Push : Consider a block of mass m placed on f1 = f2 & N1 = N2.
rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and surface is . Let a
push force F is applied at an angle with the
horizontal.

N1 N2

f1 f1 f2 f2
Ground
N1 N2
(b)

10
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PAGE # 1010
 (ii) When man is gaining the speed : The frictional Block is to be raised without acceleration, so
force on rear leg f1 will be greater than frictional T = 25 g.
force on front leg f2 (fig. b).
N1 = 25 g + 50 g
f f
acceleration of the man, a = 1 2 . = 75 g = 75 9.8 = 735 N
m nd
In II case, let the force exerted by the man on the floor
(iii) When cycle is gaining speed : In this case torque in N2 . Consider the forces inside the dotted box, we
is applied on the rear wheel of the cycle by the have
chain-gear system. Because of this the slipping N2 = 50 g T
tendency of the point of contact of the rear wheel is and T = 25 g
backward and so friction acts in forward direction. N2 = 50 g 25 g
The slipping tendency of point of contact of front = 25 g = 25 9.8 = 245 N.
wheel is forward and so friction acts in backward As the floor yields to a downward force of 700 N, so the
direction. If f1 and f2 are the frictional forces on rear man should adopt mode .
and front wheel, then acceleration of the cycle a =
f1 f2 19. Figure shows a weighing machine kept in a lift is
, where M is the mass of the cycle together
M moving upwards with acceleration of 5 m/s2. A block is
with rider (fig. a). kept on the weighing machine. Upper surface of block
is attached with a spring balance. Reading shown by
weighing machine and spring balance is 15 kg and 45
N1 N2 N1 N2 kg respectively.

f1 f2 f1 f2
(a) (b)

(iv) When cycle is slowing down : When torque is not

applied (cycle stops pedaling), the slipping
tendency of points of contact of both the wheels
are forward, and so friction acts in backward
direction (fig. b). If f1 and f2 are the frictional forces
on rear and front wheel, then retardation Answer the following questions. Assume that the
f1 f2 weighing machine can measure weight by having
a=
M negligible deformation due to block, while the spring
balance requires larger expansion. (take g = 10 m/s2)
18. A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in two
different ways as shown in fig.. What is the action on (i) Find the mass of the object in kg and the normal
the floor by the man in the two cases ? If the floor yields force acting on the block due to weighing machine?
to a normal force of 700 N, which mode should the (ii) Find the acceleration of the lift such that weighing
man adopt to lift the block without the floor yielding. machine shows its true weight ?

Sol. (i)

50g T + N Mg = Ma
50g 45 g + 15 g = M(g + a)
450 + 150 = M(10 + 5)
M = 40 kg
Sol. The FBD for the two cases are shown in figure. Normal force is the reaction applied by weighing
In Ist case, let the force exerted by the man on the floor is machine i.e. 15 10 = 150 N.
N1. Consider the forces inside the dotted box, we have
N1 = T + 50 g.

11
11
PAGE # 1111
 4. A dish of mass 10 g is kept horizontally in air by firing
bullets of mass 5 g each at the rate of 100 per second.
If the bullets rebound with the same speed, what is the
(ii) velocity with which the bullets are fired :
(A) 0.49 m/s (B) 0.098 m/s
(C) 1.47 m/s (D) 1.96 m/s
T + N Mg = Ma
45 g + 40 g = 40(g + a)
5. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a
450 + 400 = 400 +40 a
frictionless plank. If struck by a jet releasing water at a
450 45 rate of 1 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/s. The initial
a= = m/s2
40 4 acceleration of the block will be :
(A) 2.5 m/s2 (B) 5.0 m/s2
(C) 10 m /s2 (D) none of the above
EXERCISE
6. A constant force F is applied in horizontal direction as
Normal Force : shown. Contact force between M and m is N and
between m and M is N then
1. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table. One
has mass m and the other 2m.A force F is applied on
2m as shown in the figure. Now the same force F is
applied from the right on m. In the two cases
respectively, the ratio of force of contact between the
two blocks will be :
(A) N= N (B) N > N
(C) N> N
(D) cannot be determined

(A) Same (B) 1 : 2 ASSERTION / REASON

(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
7. STATEMENT-1 : Block A is moving on horizontal surface
2. Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two blocks of
2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor. What is the force towards right under action of force. All surface are
exerted on 2kg block by 1kg block ?: smooth. At the instant shown the force exerted by block
A on block B is equal to net force on block B.
6N
3N
2kg 1kg

(A)1N (B) 2N STATEMENT-2 : From Newtonss third law, the force

(C) 4N (D) 5N exerted by block A on B is equal in magnitude to force
exerted block B on A
3. There are two forces on the 2.0 kg box in the overhead
(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-2
view of figure but only one is shown. The second force
is nearly : is correct explanation for statement-1.
y (B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-2
is NOT a correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
F1 = 20 N (D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True
x
8. A certain force applied to a body A gives it an acceleration
30
of 10 ms2 . The same force applied to body B gives it
a = 12 m/s
2 an acceleration of 15 ms2 . If the two bodies are joined
(A) 20 j N (B) 20 i + 20 j N together and same force is applied to the combination,
the acceleration will be :
(C) 32 i 12 3 j N (D) 21 i 16 j N (IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
(A) 6 ms 2
(B) 25 ms2
(C) 12.5 ms2 (D) 9 ms2
12
12
PAGE # 1212
 9. Four blocks are kept in a row on a smooth horizontal 13. Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of a
table with their centres of mass collinear as shown in light string which passes over a massless pulley
the figure. An external force of 60 N is applied from left attached to the top of a double inclined smooth plane
on the 7 kg block to push all of them along the table. of angles of inclination and . If M2 > M1 then the
The forces exerted by them are :(IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2008)
acceleration of block M2 down the inclined will be :
P Q R S
60N
7 kg 5 kg 2 kg 1 kg

(A) 32 N by P on Q (B) 28 N by Q on P
(C) 12 N by Q on R (D) 4 N by S on R

Tension :
M2 (sin ) M1g(sin )
(A) g (B)
M1 M2 M1 M2
10. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid support M2 sin M1 sin
at A as shown in figure. Another rope is tied at the end (C) g (D) Zero
M1 M2
B, and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope
AB makes an angle with the vertical in 14. Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are connected to
equilibrium,then the tension in the string AB is : each other by threads and are placed on table as
shown in figure. What is the acceleration with which
the system is moving ? Take g = 10 m s2:

(A) F sin (B) F /sin

(C) F cos (D) F / cos

11. In the system shown in the figure, the acceleration of

the 1kg mass and the tension in the string connecting
between A and B is : (A) Zero (B) 1 ms2
(C) 2 m s2 (D) 3 m s2

15. The pulley arrangements shown in figure are identical

the mass of the rope being negligible. In case I, the
mass m is lifted by attaching a mass 2m to the other
end of the rope. In case II, the mass m is lifted by
pulling the other end of the rope with a constant
g 8g g g downward force F= 2 mg, where g is acceleration due
(A) downward, (B) upward,
4 7 4 7 to gravity. The acceleration of mass in case I is :

g 6 g
(C) downward, g (D) upward, g
7 7 2

12. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of

mass 12 kg. The combination is being pulled by a
string with an acceleration of 2.2 m s2. The tension T1
and T2 will be respectively :(Use g =9.8 m/s2)

(A) Zero
(B) More than that in case II
(C) Less than that in case II
(A) 200 N, 80 N (B) 220 N, 90 N
(C) 240 N, 96 N (D) 260 N, 96 N (D) Equal to that in case II

13
13
PAGE # 1313
16. A 50 kg person stands on a 25 kg platform. He pulls
massless rope which is attached to the platform via
the frictionless, massless pulleys as shown in the
figure. The platform moves upwards at a steady velocity
if the force with which the person pulls the rope is :
20. Two blocks of mass m each is connected with the
string which passes over fixed pulley, as shown in figure.
The force exerted by the string on the pulley P is :

(A) mg (B) 2 mg
(C) 2 mg (D) 4 mg

21. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a

(A) 500 N (B) 250 N massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook C
(C) 25 N (D) 50 N while the other end is free. Maximum tension that rope
can bear is 360 N, with what minimum safe
17. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled along a
acceleration (in m/s2) can a monkey of 60 kg move
smooth horizontal surface. The mssses of the blocks
down on the rope :
and tension in one cord are given. The pulling force F is :

F
30N P
60 4kg 3kg 2kg 1kg

(A) 50 N (B) 100 N

(C) 125 N (D) 200 N
C
18. A10 kg monkey climbs up a massless rope that runs
over a frictionless tree limb and back down to a 15 kg
package on the ground. The magnitude of the least (A) 16 (B) 6
acceleration the monkey must have if it is to lift the (C) 4 (D) 8
package off the ground is : 22. Which figure represents the correct F.B.D. of rod of
mass m as shown in figure :

(A) 4.9 m/s2 (B) 5.5 m/s2

(C) 9.8 m/s2 (D) none of these (A) (B)

19. Two blocks, each of mass M, are connected by a

massless string, which passes over a smooth

massless pulley. Forces F act on the blocks as shown. (C) (D) None of these
The tension in the string is :
23. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible weight
tightly at its ends so that it is horizontal. A 15 kg weight
is attached to the rope at the mid point which now no
longer remains horizontal. The minimum tension
required to completely straighten the rope is :
(A) 15 kg
(A) Mg (B) 2 Mg 15
(B) kg
(C) Mg + F (D) none of these 2
(C) 5 kg
(D) Infinitely large (or not possible) 14
14
PAGE # 1414
24. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass each have
acceleration a1 , a2 and a3 respectively . F1 and F2 are
external forces of magnitudes 2 mg and mg
respectively then which of the following relations is
correct :
29. Two bodies of masses M1 and M2 are connected to
each other through a light spring as shown in figure. If
we push mass M1 with force F and cause acceleration
a1 in mass M1 what will be the acceleration in M2 ?

(A) F/M2 (B) F/(M1 + M2)

(C) a1 (D) (FM1a1)/M2

30. A spring balance is attached to 2 kg trolley and is used

to pull the trolly along a flat surface as shown in the fig.
(A) a1 = a2 = a3 (B) a1 > a2 > a3 The reading on the spring balance remains at 10 kg
(C) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3 (D) a1 > a2 , a2= a3 during the motion. The acceleration of the trolly is (Use

25. A weight is supported by two strings 1.3 and 2.0 m g= 9.8 m2) :

long fastened to two points on a horizontal beam 2.0

m apart. The depth of this weight below the beam is :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2007)

(A) 1.0 m (B) 1.23 m

(A) 4.9 ms2 (B) 9.8 ms2
(C) 0.77 m (D) 0.89 m
(C) 49 ms2 (D) 98 ms2
26. A fully loaded elevator has a mass of 6000 kg. The
tension in the cable as the elevator is accelerated 31. A body of mass 32 kg is suspended by a spring balance
downward with an acceleration of 2ms2 is (Take g = I0 from the roof of a vertically operating lift and going
ms 2 ) (KVPY/2007) downward from rest. At the instants the lift has covered
(A) 72 104 N (B) 4.8 104 N 20 m and 50 m, the spring balance showed 30 kg & 36
(C) 6 104 N (D) 1.2 104 N kg respectively. The velocity of the lift is :
(A) Decreasing at 20 m & increasing at 50 m

27. A light string goes over a frictionless pulley. At its one (B) Increasing at 20 m & decreasing at 50 m
end hangs a mass of 2 kg and at the other end hangs (C) Continuously decreasing at a constant rate
a mass of 6 kg. Both the masses are supported by throughout the journey
hands to keep them at rest. When the masses are (D) Continuously increasing at constant rate throughout
released, they being to move and the string gets taut. the journey
(Take g = 10 ms2) The tension in the string during the
motion of the masses is : (KVPY/2008) Friction Force :
(A) 60 N (B) 30 N
(C) 20 N (D) 40 N
32. A ship of mass 3 107 kg initially at rest is pulled by a
force of 5 104 N through a distance of 3m. Assume
Force Exerted by Spring :
that the resistance due to water is negligible, the speed
of the ship is :
28. In the given figure. What is the reading of the spring
(A) 1.5 m/s (B) 60 m/s
balance:
(C) 0.1 m/s (D) 5 m/s

33. When a horse pulls a cart, the force needed to move

the horse in forward direction is the force exerted by :
(A) The cart on the horse
(B) The ground on the horse
(A) 10 N (B) 20 N (C) The ground on the cart
(C) 5 N (D) Zero (D) The horse on the ground

15
15
PAGE # 1515
34. A 2.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal surface. 40. A bock of mass 5 kg is held against wall by applying a

A 6.0 N horizontal force and a vertical force P are applied horizontal force of 100N. If the coefficient of friction
between the block and the wall is 0.5, the frictional
to the block as shown in figure. The coefficient of static
force acting on the block is : (g =9.8 m/s2)
friction for the block and surface is 0.4. The magnitude
of friction force when P = 9N : (g = 10 m/s2)

100N 5kg

(A)100 N (B) 50 N
(A) 6.0 N (B) 6.4 N (C) 49 N (D) 24.9 N
(C) 9.0 N (D) zero
41. A heavy roller is being pulled along a rough road as
35. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination is shown in the figure. The frictional force at the point of
perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A body contact is : (IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2007)
starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the
F
bottom, if the coefficient of friction for the lower half is :
(A) 2 tan (B) tan
(C) 2 sin (D) 2 cos
(A) parallel to F (B) opposite to F
36. Minimum force required to pull the lower block is (take (C) perpendicular to F (D) zero
g = 10 m/s2) :
42. When a motor car of mass 1500 kg is pushed on a
road by two persons, it moves with a small uniform
velocity. On the other hand if this car is pushed on the
same road by three persons, it moves with an
acceleration of 0.2 m/s2. Assume that each person is
producing the same muscular force. Then, the force of
friction between the tyres of the car and the surface of
(A) 1 N (B) 5 N the road is : (IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2009)
(C) 7 N (D) 10 N (A) 300 N (B) 600 N
(C) 900 N (D) 100 N
37. N bullets each of mass m are fired with a velocity v m/
s at the rate of n bullets per sec., upon a wall. If the 43. A block of mass M is at rest on a plane surface inclined
bullets are completely stopped by the wall, the reaction at an angle to the horizontal The magnitude of force
offered by the wall to the bullets is : exerted by the plane on the block is : (KVPY/2009)
(A) Mg cos (B) Mg sin
(A) N m v / n (B) n m v
(C) Mg tan (D) Mg
(C) n N v / m (D) n v m / N
44. A block of mass M rests on a rough horizontal table. A
38. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough horizontal steadily increasing horizontal force is applied such that
road with momentum P. If the coefficient of friction the block starts to slide on the table without toppling.
between the tyres and the road be , then the stopping The force is continued even after sliding has started.
distance is : Assume the coefficients of static and kinetic friction
between the table and the block to be equal. The cor-
P P2
(A) (B) rect representation of the variation of the frictional
2 mg 2 mg forces, , exerted by the table on the block with time t is
P P2 given by : (KVPY/2010)
(C) (D)
2 m2g 2 m2g

39. What is the maximum value of the force F such that the
block shown in the arrangement, does not move : (A) (B)
1
F
2 3
60
m = 3kg

(A) 20 N (B) 10 N
(C) 12N (D) 15 N
(C) (D)

16
16
PAGE # 1616
45. A small child tries to move a large rubber toy placed on
the ground. The toy does not move but gets deformed
under her pushing force (F) which is obliquely upward
as shown . Then (KVPY/2011)
(A) The resultant of the pushing force (F) , weight of
the toy, normal force by the ground on the toy and the
frictional force is zero.
(B) The normal force by the ground is equal and oppo-
site to the weight of the toy.
(C) The pushing force (F) of the child is balanced by
the equal and opposite frictional force
51. STATEMENT-1 : A man standing in a lift which is moving
(D) The pushing force (F) of the child is balanced by
the total internal force in the toy generated due to
deformation
46. On a horizontal frictional frozen lake, a girl (36 kg) and
a box (9kg) are connected to each other by means of a
rope. Initially they are 20 m apart. The girl exerts a
horizontal force on the box, pulling it towards her. How
far has the girl travelled when she meets the box ?
(KVPY/2011)
(A) 10 m
(B) Since there is no friction, the girl will not move
(C) 16 m
(D) 4m
47. Which of the following does NOT involve friction ?
(IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
(A) Writing on a paper using a pencil
(B) Turning a car to the left on a horizontal road.
(C) A car at rest parked on a sloping ground
(D) Motion of a satellite around the earth.
48. In the two cases shown below, the coefficient of kinetic
friction between the block and the surface is the same,
and both the blocks are moving with the same uniform
speed. Then, (IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2008)
F1 F2
(A) F1 = F2
(B) F1 < F2
(C) F1 > F2
(D) F1 = 2F2 if sin = Mg/4F2
Weighing Machine :
49. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and
when it is moving downward with uniform acceleration
a 3:2. The value of a is : (g = acceleration, due to
gravity)
(A) (3/2)g (B) g
(C) (2/3) g (D) g/3
50. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a
coin. The coin reaches the floor of the elevator in time
t1 when elevator is stationary and in time t2 if it is moving
uniformly. Then
(A) t1 = t2
(B) t1 > t2
(C) t1 < t2
(D) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending
ASSERTION / REASON
upward, will feel his weight to be greater than when
the lift was at rest.
STATEMENT-2 : If the acceleration of the lift is a upward
then the man of mass m shall feel his weight to be
equal to normal reaction (N) exerted by the lift given N
= m(g+a) (where g is acceleration due to gravity
(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-
2 is correct explanation for statement 1.
(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-
2 is NOT a correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True
52. A beaker containing water is placed on the platform of
a digital weighing machine. It reads 900 g. A wooden
block of mass 300 g is now made to float in water in
the beaker (without touching walls of the beaker). Half
the wooden block is submerged inside water. Now,
the reading of weighing machine will be :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2009)
(A) 750 g (B) 900 g
(C) 1050 g (D) 1200 g
Miscellaneous :
53. An object will continue accelerating until :
(A) Resultant force on it begins to decreases
(B) Its velocity changes direction
(C) The resultant force on it is zero
(D) The resultant force is at right angles to its direction
of motion
17
17
PAGE # 1717
54. In which of the following cases the net force is not zero ? 58. A force of magnitude F1 acts on a particle so as to
(A) A kite skillfully held stationary in the sky accelerate if from rest to velocity v. The force F1 is then
(B) A ball freely falling from a height replaced by another force of magnitude F2 which
(C) An aeroplane rising upward at an angle of 45 with
decelerates it to rest.
the horizontal with a constant speed
(A) F1 must be the equal to F2
(D) A cork floating on the surface of water.
(B) F1 may be equal to F2
(C) F1 must be unequal to F2
55. Figure shows the displacement of a particle going
along the X-axis as a function of time. The force acting (D) None of these
on the particle is zero in the region.
59. In a imaginary atmosphere, the air exerts a small force
F on any particle in the direction of the particles motion.
A particle of mass m projected upward takes a time t1
in reaching the maximum height and t2 in the return
journey to the original point. Then
(A) t1 < t2
(B) t1 > t2
(A) AB (B) BC (C) t1 = t2
(C) CD (D) DE (D) The relation between t1 and t2 depends on the mass
of the particle
56. A 2 kg toy car can move along x axis. Graph shows force
Fx, acting on the car which begins to rest at time t = 0. The 60. A single force F of constant magnitude begins to act on
velocity of the car at t = 10 s is : a stone that is moving along x axis. The stone continues
to move along that axis. W hich of the following
represents the stones position ?
(A) x = 5t 3 (B) x = 5t2 + 8t 3
2
(C) x = 5t + 5t 3 (D) x = 5t3 + 4t2 3

61. Three forces act on a particle that moves with

unchanging velocity v = (3 i 4 j ) m/s. Two of the

forces are F1 = (3 i + 2 j 4 k ) N and F2 = (5 i + 8 j
+ 3 k ) N. The third force is :
(A) (2 i + 10 j 7 k ) N
(B) (2 i 10 j + k ) N
(C) (7 i 2 k + 10 j ) N
(D) none of these

62. An 80 kg person is parachuting and experiencing a

(A) i m/s (B) 1.5 i m/s downward acceleration of 2.5 m/s2 . The mass of the
parachute is 5.0 kg. The upward force on the open
(C) 6.5 i m/s (D) 13 i m/s parachute from the air is :
(A) 620 N (B) 740 N
57. Figure shows the displacement of a particle going (C) 800 N (D) 920 N
along the x-axis as a function of time :

63. A block of mass m is pulled on the smooth horizontal

surface with the help of two ropes, each of mass m,
connected to the opposite faces of the block. The
forces on the ropes are F and 2F. The pulling force on
the block is :
(A) The force acting on the particle is zero in the region AB
(B) The force acting on the particle is zero in the region BC
(C) The force acting on the particle is zero in the region CD (A) F (B) 2F
(D) The force is zero no where (C) F/3 (D) 3F/2

18
18
PAGE # 1818
64. A body of mass 5 kg starts from the origin with an initial 68. A body of 0.5 kg moves along the positive x - axis under

velocity u = 30 i + 40 j ms1 . If a constant force the influence of a varying force F (in Newtons) as shown

F = ( i + 5 j ) N acts on the body, the time in which the below : (KVPY/2011)
y-component of the velocity becomes zero is :
(A) 5 s (B) 20 s
(C) 40 s (D) 80 s

65. STATEMENT-1 :According to the newtons third law of 3

motion, the magnitude of the action and reaction force

is an action reaction pair is same only in an inertial 3

F(N)
frame of reference.

STATEMENT-2 : Newtons laws of motion are

1
applicable in every inertial reference frame.
(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-
2 is correct explanation for statement 1.
0,0 2 4 6 8 10
(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-
x(m)
2 is NOT a correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True
If the speed of the object at x = 4m is 3.16 ms1 then its
66. A body of mass 10 g moves with constant speed 2 m/ speed at x = 8 m is :
s along a regular hexagon. The magnitude of change (A) 3.16 ms1 (B) 9.3 ms1
in momentum when the body crosses a corner is : (C) 8 ms 1
(D) 6.8 ms1
(IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2007)
69. A soldier with a machine gun, falling from an airplane
(A) 0.04 kg-m/s (B) zero gets detached from his parachute. He is able to resist
the downward acceleration if he shoots 40 bullets a
(C) 0.02 kg-m / s (D) 0.4 kg-m/s second at the speed of 500 m/s. If the weight of a bullet
is 49 gm, what is the weight of the man with the gun ?
67. An object with uniform density is attached to a spring Ignore resistance due to air and assume the
that is known to stretch linearly with applied force as acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2 . (KVPY/2010)
shown below (A) 50 kg (B) 75 kg
(C) 100 kg (D) 125 kg

When the spring object system is immersed in a

liquid of density 1 as shown in the figure, the spring
stretches by an amount x1 ( > 1). When the experiment
is repeated in a liquid of density 2 < 1 . the spring is
stretched by an amount x2. Neglecting any buoyant force
on the spring, the density of the object is:
(KVPY/2011)

1x1 2 x 2 1x 2 2 x1
(A) x x (B) x x
1 2 2 1

1x 2 2 x1 1x1 2 x 2
(C) x x (D) x x
1 2 1 2

19
19
PAGE # 1919
 CARBON
INTRODUCTION
The compounds like urea, sugars, fats, oils, dyes,
proteins, vitamins etc., which are isolated directly or
indirectly from living organisms such as animals and
plants are called organic compounds.The branch of
chemistry which deals with the study of these
compounds is called ORGANIC CHEMISTRY.
VITAL FORCE THEORY OR
BERZELIUS HYPOTHESIS
Organic compounds cannot be synthesized in the
laboratory because they require the presence of a
mysterious force (called vital force) which exists only
in living organisms.
WOHLERS SYNTHESIS
In 1828, Friedrich Wohler synthesized urea (a well
known organic compound) in the laboratory by heating
ammonium cyanate.
(NH 4)2 SO4 + 2 KCNO 2NH 4CNO + K2SO 4
Ammonium Potassium Ammonium Potassium
sulphate cyanate cyanate sulphate
Note :
Urea is the first organic compound synthesized in
the laboratory.
MODERN DEFINITION OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
Organic compounds may be defined as hydrocarbons
and their derivatives and the branch of chemistry
which deals with the study of hydrocarbons and their
derivatives is called ORGANIC CHEMISTRY.
Organic chemistry is treated as a separate branch
because of following reasons-
(i) Organic compounds are large in number.
(ii) Organic compounds generally contain covalent
bond.
(iii) Organic compounds are soluble in non polar solvents.
(iv) Organic compounds have low melting and boiling
points.
(v) Organic compounds show isomerism .
(vi) Organic compounds exhibit homology.
VERSATILE NATURE OF CARBON
About 3 million organic compounds are known today.
The main reasons for this huge number of organic
compounds are -
(i) Catenation : The property of self linking of carbon
atoms through covalent bonds to form long straight
or branched chains and rings of different sizes is
called catenation.Carbon shows maximum
catenation in the periodic table due to its small size,
electronic configuration and unique strength of carbon-
carbon bonds.
(ii) Electronegativity and strength of bonds : The
electronegativity of carbon (2.5) is close to a number
of other elements like H (2.1) , N(3.0) , P (2.1), Cl (3.0)
and O (3.5). So carbon forms strong covalent bonds
with these elements.
(iii) Tendency to form multiple bonds : Due to small
size of carbon it has a strong tendency to form multiple
bonds (double & triple bonds).
(iv) Isomerism : It is a phenomenon by the virtue of
which two compounds have same molecular formula
but different physical and chemical properties.
CLASSIFICATION OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
The organic compounds are very large in number on
account of the self -linking property of carbon called
catenation. These compounds have been further
classified as open chain and cyclic compounds.
Organic compounds
Open chain Closed chain
compounds compounds
Alicyclic Aromatic
compounds compounds
(a) Open Chain Compounds :
These compounds contain an open chain of carbon
atoms which may be either straight chain or branched
chain in nature. Apart from that, they may also be
saturated or unsaturated based upon the nature of
bonding in the carbon atoms. For example.
, ,
20
20
PAGE # 20
 , e.g.

Benzene Toluene Ethyl benzene

Phenol Aniline
Note :
Benzene is the parent compound of majority of
n-Butane is a straight chain alkane while aromatic organic compounds.
2-Methylpropane is branched alkane.
HYDROCARBONS
(b) Closed Chain or Cyclic Compounds :
The organic compounds containing only carbon and
Apart from the open chains, the organic compounds hydrogen are called hydrocarbons. These are the
can have cyclic or ring structures. A minimum of three simplest organic compounds and are regarded as
atoms are needed to form a ring. These compounds parent organic compounds. All other compounds are
have been further classified into following types. considered to be derived from them by the
replacement of one or more hydrogen atoms by other
(i) Alicyclic compounds : Those carbocyclic
atoms or groups of atoms. The major source of
compounds which resemble to aliphatic compounds
hydrocarbons is petroleum.
in their properties are called alicyclic compounds .
Types of Hydrocarbons :

The hydrocarbons can be classified as :

e.g. or Cyclopropane (i) Saturated hydrocarbons :

(A) Alkanes : Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons

containing only carbon - carbon and carbon - hydrogen
single covalent bonds.
or Cyclobutane
General formula- CnH2n + 2(n is the number of carbon atoms)

e.g. CH4 ( Methane)

C2H6 (Ethane)

(ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons :

or Cyclopentane
(A) Alkenes : These are unsaturated hydrocarbons
which contain carbon - carbon double bond. They
contain two hydrogen less than the corresponding
alkanes.

General formula - CnH2n

e.g. C2H 4 (Ethene)
C3H 6 (Propene)
or Cyclohexane
(B) Alkynes : They are also unsaturated hydrocarbons
which contain carbon-carbon triple bond. They contain
four hydrogen atoms less than the corresponding
(ii) Aromatic compounds : Organic compounds which alkanes.
contain one or more fused or isolated benzene rings General formula - CnH 2n2
are called aromatic compounds. e.g. C2H 2 (Ethyne)
C3H 4 (Propyne)

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PAGE # 21
 Examples :
NOMENCLATURE OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
a
Nomenclature means the assignment of names to M
organic compounds . There are two main systems of Eth - E
nomenclature of organic compounds - P
(1) Trivial system B
E
(2) IUPAC system (International Union of Pure and
Propene
Applied Chemistry)

(a) Basic rules of IUPAC nomenclature of

Note :
organic compounds :
The name of the compound, in general , is written in
For naming simple aliphatic compounds, the normal
the following sequence-
saturated hydrocarbons have been considered as
the parent compounds and the other compounds as (Position of substituents )-(prefixes ) (word root)-(p -
their derivatives obtained by the replacement of one suffix).
or more hydrogen atoms with various functional
groups. (iii) Names of branched chain hydrocarbon : The
carbon atoms in branched chain hydrocarbons are
(i) Each systematic name has two or three of the
following parts- present as side chain . These side chain carbon atoms
constitute the alkyl group or alkyl radicals. An alkyl group
(A) Word root : The basic unit of a series is word root
which indicate linear or continuous number of carbon is obtained from an alkane by removal of a hydrogen.
atoms.
General formula of alkyl group = CnH2n+1
(B) Primary suffix : Primary suffixes are added to the
An alkyl group is represented by R.
word root to show saturation or unsaturation in a
e.g.
carbon chain.
(C) Secondary suffix : Suffixes added after the
primary suffix to indicate the presence of a particular H
functional group in the carbon chain are known as (A)
H
H C
secondary suffixes.
H
(ii) Names of straight chain hydrocarbons : The
Methyl
name of straight chain hydrocarbon may be divided
into two parts-
(A) Word root (B) Primary suffix H H

(A) Word roots for carbon chain lengths : (B) H H C C

Chain Word Chain Word H H

length root length root Ethyl
C1 Meth- C6 Hex-
C2 Eth - C7 Hept-
C3 Prop - C8 Oct-
C4 But - C9 Non-
C5 Pent- C10 Dec-

(B) Primary suffix :

(C)

22
22
PAGE # 22
 A branched chain hydrocarbon is named using the e.g.
following general IUPAC rules :

Rule1: Longest chain rule : Select the longest possible 2Methylpentane 4Methylpentane
continuous chain of carbon atoms. If some multiple (Correct) (Wrong)
bond is present , the chain selected must contain the
multiple bond. e.g.

(i) The number of carbon atoms in the selected chain

determines the word root . 3Methylbut1 ene 2Methylbut 3 ene

(ii) Saturation or unsaturation determines the primary (Correct) (Wrong)

suffix (P. suffix).

CH3 CH3
(iii) Alkyl substituents are indicated by prefixes. 4 3
| 2 1 1
|
2 3 4
e.g.
3-Methylbut-1-yne 2-Methylbut-3-yne
Prefix : Methyl (Wrong)
e.g. CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3 (Correct)
Word root : pent-
P. Suffix: - ane
CH3 Rule 3 : Use of prefixes di, tri etc. : If the compound
contains more than one similar alkyl groups,their
positions are indicated separately and an appropriate
Prefix : Methyl numerical prefix di, tri etc. , is attached to the name
e.g. CH3 CH CH2 CH CH3
Word root : Hept- of the substituents. The positions of the substituents
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 are separated by commas.
P. Suffix : -ane

CH3
5 4 3 2 1
Prefix : Methyl e.g. CH3 CH2 C CH CH3
e.g. CH3 CH2 C CH3
Word root : But- CH3 CH3
CH2 P. Suffix : ene 2,3 - Dimethylpentane 2,3,3 - Trimethylpentane

Prefixes : Ethyl, Methyl e.g.

e.g. CH3 CH 2 CH CH2 CH 3
Word root : Pent-
P. Suffix : -ane
CH CH3
2,3,5 -Trimethylhexane 2,2,4 - Trimethylpentane
CH3
Rule 4 : Alphabetical arrangement of prefixes: If there
are different alkyl substituents present in the
Rule 2 : Lowest number rule: The chain selected is compound their names are written in the alphabetical
numbered in terms of arabic numerals and the order. However, the numerical prefixes such as di,
position of the alkyl groups are indicated by the number tri etc. , are not considered for the alphabetical order.
of the carbon atom to which alkyl group is attached .

(i) The numbering is done in such a way that the e.g.

substituent carbon atom has the lowest possible
number.
3-Ethyl - 2,3-dimethylpentane
(ii) If some multiple bond is present in the chain, the
Rule 5 : Naming of different alkyl substituents at the
carbon atoms involved in the multiple bond should
equivalent positions :
get lowest possible numbers.
Numbering of the chain is done in such a way that the
alkyl group which comes first in alphabetical order
e.g. gets the lower position.

2Methylbutane 3Methylbutane e.g.

(Correct) (Wrong)
3-Ethyl-4-methylhexane

23
23
PAGE # 23
 Rule - 6 : Lowest sum rule
According to this rule numbering of chain is done in
such a way that the sum of positions of different
substituents gets lower value.
e.g.
(i)
FUNCTIONAL GROUP
An atom or group of atoms in an organic compound
or molecule that is responsible for the compounds
characteristic reactions and determines its properties
is known as functional group. An organic compound
generally consists of two parts -
(i) Hydrocarbon radical (ii) Functional group

e.g.

Hydrocarbon radical Functional group

Functional group is the most reactive part of the
molecule.
Functional group mainly determines the chemical
properties of an organic compound.
Hydrocarbon radical mainly determines the physical
properties of the organic compound.

(a) Main Functional Groups :

(i) Hydroxyl group ( OH) : All organic compounds

Word root : Hex - containing - OH group are known as alcohols .
Primary suffix : - ane e.g. Methanol (CH3OH) , Ethanol (CH3 CH2 OH) etc .
Substituent : two methyl & one ethyl groups
(ii) Aldehyde group (CHO) : All organic compounds
IUPAC name : 4-Ethyl - 2, 4 - dimethylhexane containing CHO group are known as aldehydes.
e.g. Methanal (HCHO), Ethanal (CH3CHO) etc.
Some other example :
(iii) Ketone group (CO) : All organic compounds
containing CO group are known as ketones.
e.g. Propanone (CH 3 COCH 3 ), Butanone
(i) (CH3COCH2CH3) etc.
(iv) Carboxyl group ( COOH) : All organic compounds
containing carboxyl group are called carboxylic acids.
Word root : Prop -
e.g. CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid)
P. Suffix : -ane
CH3CH2COOH(Propanoic acid)
Substituent : two methyl groups
IUPAC name : 2, 2 - Dimethylpropane (v) Halogen group (X = F, Cl, Br, I) : All organic
compounds containing X (F, Cl, Br or I) group are
known as halides.
(ii) e.g. Chloromethane (CH3Cl), Bromomethane (CH3Br)
etc .

(b) Nomenclature of Compounds Containing

Word root : But - Functional Group :
P. Suffix : - ene In case functional group (other than C = C and C C)
Substituent : two methyl groups is present, it is indicated by adding secondary suffix
IUPAC name : 2, 3 - Dimethylbut - 1 - ene after the primary suffix. The terminal e of the primary
suffix is removed if it is followed by a suffix beginning
(iii) with a, e, i, o, u. Some groups like
F, Cl, Br and are considered as substituents
and are indicated by the prefixes.
Word root : Hex - O
P. Suffix : - yne
Substituent : one methyl group Some groups like CHO, C , COOH, and OH
IUPAC name : 4 - Methylhex - 2 - yne are considered as functional groups and are
indicated by suffixes.

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24
PAGE # 24
 Functional General
Class Group Formula Prefix Suffix IUPAC Name

Carboxylic
Carboxy - oic acid Alkanoic acid
acid
(R = CnH2n+1)

Ester Carbalkoxy alkyl (R) - oate Alkyl alkanoate

Formyl
Aldehyde CHO R CHO - al Alkanal
or oxo

Ketone oxo - one Alkanone

Alcohol OH R OH Hydroxy - ol Alkanol

Alkenes C=C CnH2n - ene Alkene

Alkynes C C CnH2n2 - yne Alkyne

X
Halides RX Halo Haloalkane
(X = F,Cl,Br,I)

Steps of naming of an organic compound Step 4 :

containing functional group : The carbon atoms of the parent chain are numbered

in such a way so that the carbon atom of the functional

Step 1:
group gets the lowest possible number . In case the
Select the longest continuous chain of the carbon
functional group does not have the carbon atom, then
atoms as parent chain. The selected chain must
the carbon atom of the parent chain attached to the
include the carbon atoms involved in the functional
functional group should get the lowest possible
groups like COOH, CHO, CN etc, or those which
number.
carry the functional groups like OH, NH2, Cl,

NO2 etc. Step 5 :

The name of the compound is written as -

The number of carbon atoms in the parent chain
Prefixes - word root - primary suffix - secondary suffix
decides the word root.
Note :
Step 2 :
The number of carbon atoms in the parent chain
The presence of carbon - carbon multiple bond

decides the primary suffix. decides the word root.

Step 3 :

The secondary suffix is decided by the functional

group.

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25
PAGE # 25
S.No. Compound Common name Derived name IUPAC Name Structure

Methyl alcohol
1 CH3 OH Carbinol Methanol
or Wood spirit

2 CH3 CH2 OH Ethyl alcohol Methyl carbinol Ethanol

3 CH3 CH2 CH2 OH n-Propyl alcohol Ethyl carbinol 1- Propanol

H H
4 Isopropyl alcohol Dimethyl carbinol 2 - Propanol H C C O H
H C H3

5 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH n-Butyl alcohol n-Propyl carbinol 1- Butanol

6 HCOOH Formic acid Methanoic acid

7 CH3COOH Acetic acid Ethanoic acid

methyl acetic
8 CH3 CH2 COOH Propionic acid Propanoic acid
acid

ethyl acetic
9 CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH Butyric acid Butanoic acid
acid

O
n-Propyl acetic
10 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH Valeric acid Pentanoic acid
acid

Some more examples :

(iii) CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2
(i) Word root : Prop -
Primary suffix : - ane
Secondary suffix : - amine
Word root : Hept- IUPAC name : Propan - 1 - amine
Primary suffix : ane
Functional group : OH (iv)
Secondary suffix : ol Word root : Prop-
Primary suffix : - ane
IUPAC Name : 2, 5-Dimethylheptan1 ol
Substituent : nitro(prefix)
IUPAC name : 1 - Nitropropane
(ii)
(v)
Word root : Pent -
Primary suffix : ene
Secondary suffix : oic acid Word root : But -
Position of double : 2nd bond Primary suffix : ane
Prefix : chloro
IUPAC name : Pent-2-en-1-oic acid/Pent-2-enoic acid
IUPAC name : 2 - Chlorobutane
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26
PAGE # 26
 ISOMERISM
(vi)
Such compounds which have same molecular
formula but different physical and chemical properties
Word root : But - are known as isomers and the phenomenon is
Primary suffix : ane known as isomerism.
Secondary suffix : one
Prefix : Methyl
IUPAC name : 3 - Methylbutan - 2- one

HOMOLOGOUS SERIES
Homologous series may be defined as a series of
similarly constituted compounds in which the members
possess similar chemical characteristics and the two
consecutive members differ in their molecular formula
by CH2.
(a) Chain Isomerism :
(a) Characteristics of Homologous Series : The isomerism in which the isomers differ from each
other due to the presence of different carbon chain
(i) All the members of a series can be represented by
the same general formula. skeletons is known as chain isomerism.
e.g. General formula for alkane series is CnH2n+2 . e.g.

(ii) Any two consecutive members differ in their formula (i) C4H10
by a common difference of CH 2 and differ in
molecular mass by 14. ,

(iii) Different members in a series have a common

functional group. 2 - Methylpropane
e.g. All the members of alcohol family have OH group . (Isobutane)
(iv) The members in any particular family have almost (ii) C5H12
identical chemical properties. Their physical
properties such as melting point, boiling point, density
etc, show a regular gradation with the increase in the
molecular mass. 2 - Methylbutane
(v) The members of a particular series can be (Isopentane)
prepared almost by the identical methods.

(b) Homologues :
The different members of a homologous series are
known as homologues.
e.g. 2, 2 -Dimethylpropane
(i) Homologous series of alkanes (neo - pentane)
General formula : CnH2n+2 (iii) C4H8
Value of n Molecular formula IUPAC name
n=1 CH 4 Methane
n=2 C2H 6 Ethane CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 ,
n=3 C3H 8 Propane But - 1 - ene Methylpropene
(ii) Homologous series of alkenes (b) Position Isomerism :
General formula :CnH2n
In this type of isomerism, isomers differ in the structure
Value of n Molecular IUPAC Common
due to difference in the position of the multiple bond
formula name name
or functional group.
n=2 C2H 4 Ethene Ethylene
e.g.
n=3 C3H 6 Propene Propylene
n=4 C4H 8 But-1-ene - Butylene (i) C4H8
(iii) Homologous series of alkynes CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 , CH3 CH = CH CH3
But -1 - ene But -2 - ene
General formula : CnH2n2
Value of n Molecular IUPAC Common (ii) C3H8O
formula name name CH3 CH2 CH2 OH , CH3 CH CH3
n=2 C2H 2 Ethyne Acetylene Propan-1-ol
n=3 C3H 4 Propyne Methyl acetylene OH
n=4 C4H 6 But -1-yne Ethyl acetylene Propan-2-ol

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27
PAGE # 27
 (c) Functional Group Isomerism : only. These compounds are open chain compounds
which are also addressed as Acyclic compounds.
In this type of isomerism, isomers differ in the
Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2 .The carbon
structure due to the presence of different functional
atoms in alkanes are in a state of sp3 hybridization,
groups.
i.e. the carbon atoms have a tetrahedral geometry.
e.g.
(a) Physical Properties :
(i) C3H8O
(i) Alkanes of no. of carbon atoms C1 to C4 are gases.
CH3 CH2 O CH3 CH3 CH2 CH2 OH Carbon atoms C5 to C17 are liquids and C18 & onwards
are solids.
Methoxy ethane Propan-1-ol
(ii) Alkanes are colourless and odourless.
(ii) C4H6 (iii) They are non-polar in nature, hence they dissolve
CH3 CH2 C CH CH2 = CH CH = CH2 only in non-polar solvents like benzene, carbon
But - 1- yne Buta - 1, 3 - diene tetrachloride etc.
[or 1, 3 - Butadiene ] (iv) Boiling point of alkanes increases as their
molecular weight increases.
ALKANES Note :

Alkanes are aliphatic hydrocarbons having only Alkanes are unaffected by most chemical reagents
C C single covalent bonds. These are also known and hence are known as paraffins (parum-little, affinis
as saturated hydrocarbon as they contain single bond affinity).

SOME COMMON EXAMPLES OF ALKANES

M olcula r Form ula Structure Trivia l Na m e IUPAC Na m e

CH 4 CH 4 Methane Methane

C2H6 CH 3CH 3 Ethane Ethane

C3H8 CH 3CH 2 CH 3 Propane Propane

C 4 H 10 C H 3 C H 2 CH 2 C H 3 n-Butane Butane
Isobutane 2Methy lpropane
CH 3 CH CH 3
|
CH 3

C 5 H 12 CH CH CH CH n-P entane Pentane

3 2 2 3

CH 3 CH C H 2 C H 3
Isopentane 2Methy lbutane
|
CH
3
CH
| 3 Neopentane 2,2Dimethylpropane
CH C CH
3 | 3
CH
3
C 6 H 14 n-Hexane Hexane
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3

C H 3 CH CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
Isohexane 2Methy lpentane
CH3

CH 3 CH2 CH CH 2 CH 3 3Methy lpentane

CH 3

CH 3 CH CH CH 3 2,3Dimethylbutane
CH 3 CH 3

CH 3
CH 3 C CH 2 CH3 Neohexane 2,2Dimethylbutane
CH 3

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PAGE # 28
 Note : (vi) Laboratory Method : Methane is prepared in the
laboratory by heating a mixture of dry sodium acetate
The C C bond distance in alkanes is 1.54 and the and soda lime in a hard glass tube as shown in
bond energy is of the order of 80 Kcal per mole. figure. It is a decarboxylation reaction.

METHANE
It is a product of decomposition of organic matter in
Hard glass tube
absence of oxygen. It is found in coal mines (hence Delivery
the name damp fire), marshy places (hence the name Sodium acetate
tube
marsh gas) and the places where petroleum is found. and soda lime Gas jar
Cork
Bubbles of
Note : Burner
methane gas
Trough
Methane is a major constituent of natural gas. Iron
Gas stand Beehive shelf
Water
(a) Properties :
Methane is a colourless gas with practically no smell
Preparation of methane gas
and is almost insoluble in water. It melts at 183 C
and boils at 162C. Methane has tetrahedral Methane, so formed is collected by downward
geometry in which Hatoms are situated at four displacment of water. This gas contains some
corners of the regular tetrahedron. Bond angle is hydrogen, ethylene etc. as impurities which can be
removed by passing the impure gas through alkaline
10928. It has sp3 hybridisation.
potassium permanganate solution.
(b) Structure : (d) General Reactions :
H (i) Combustion :
(A) Methane burns with explosive violence in air
C forming carbon dioxide and water.
H CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O + Heat
H H (B) In the presence of insufficient supply of oxygen.
Tetrahedral 2CH4 + 3O2 2CO + 4H2O + Heat
(c) Preparation of Methane : (ii) Halogenation :
(A) In direct sunlight
(i) Direct synthesis : h
CH4 + 2Cl2 C + 4HCl
Ni
C + 2H2 CH4
500C (B) In diffused light
Carbon Hydrogen Methane Cl2 Cl2 Cl2 Cl2
CH4 CH3Cl CH2Cl2 CHCl3 CCl4
Methane Methyl Methylene Chloroform Carbon
(ii) Sabatier and Senderens reductive method : chloride dichloride tetrachloride
Methane can be prepared by passing carbon
Fluorine forms similar substitution products in the
monoxide or carbon dioxide and hydrogen over finely
presence of nitrogen which is used as a diluent
powdered nickel catalyst at 300C. because of high reactivity of fluorine. Bromine vapours
react very sluggishly while iodine vapours do not react
Ni powder
CO + 3H2 CH4 + H2O at all.
300C
(iii) Nitration :
Ni powder CH4 + HONO2
400C
CH3NO2
CO2 + 4H2 CH4 + 2H2O 10 atm.
+ H 2O
300C Methane Nitric acid Nitromethane

(iii) Hydrolysis of aluminium carbide : (iv) Catalytic Air oxidation : This is a method for
Al4C3 + 12H2O 3CH4 + 4Al(OH)3 commercial production of methanol.
Aluminium Water Methane Aluminium When a mixture of methane and oxygen in a ratio of 9: 1
carbide hydroxide by volume is passed through a heated copper tube at
(iv) Reduction of methyl iodide : 200C and at a pressure of 100 atmospheres,
methanol is formed.
ZnCu Couple
CH3 + 2H CH4 + H CH4 + 1/2 O2 CH 3OH
H2O Methane Hydrogen
Methyl
iodide iodide Methane Methanol
(e) Uses :
(v) Reduction of methanol or formaldehyde or formic
acid with H (i) Alkanes are used directly as fuels .
Red P (ii) Certain alkanes, such as methane, are used as a
CH3OH + 2H CH4 + + H2O
source of hydrogen.
Methanol Methane
(iii) The carbon obtained in decomposition of alkanes
Red P
HCHO + 4H CH4 + 2+ H 2O is in very finely divided state and is known as carbon
Methanal Methane black. This is used in making printers ink, paints, boot
polish and blackening of tyres.
(iv) Alkanes are used as starting materials for a
number of other organic compounds e.g.
methanol, methyl chloride, methylene dichloride etc.

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PAGE # 29

ALKENES
Alkenes are the simplest unsaturated aliphatic
hydrocarbons with one carbon - carbon double bond.
Alkenes have general formula CnH2n. The carbon
atoms connected by the double bond are in a state of
sp2 hybridisation and this part of molecule is planar.
A double bond is composed of sigma () and a pi ()
bond. Alkenes are also called olefines (oil forming)
becuase they form oily products with halogens.
R CH = CH2 + Br2 R CH CH2
Br Br
(Oily liquid)
(a) Properties :
(i) Alkenes of C2 to C4 are gases. Alkenes of carbon
atoms C5 to C14 are liquids and C14 and onwards are
solids.
(ii) Ethene is colourless gas with faint sweet smell.
All other alkenes are colourless and odourless.
(iii) Alkenes are insoluble in polar solvents like water,
but fairly soluble in non-polar solvents like benzene,
carbon tetrachloride etc.
(iv) Boiling point of alkenes increases with increase
in molecular mass.
(b) Uses :
(i) Ethylene is mainly used in the manufacture of
ethanol, ethylene oxide and higher 1-alkenes.
Ethylene is used for ripening of fruits. It is also used
for preparation of mustard gas.
[Cl CH2 CH2 S CH2 CH2 Cl]
(ii) Polythene from ethylene, teflon from tetra
fluoroethylene and polystyrene from styrene are used
as plastic materials. Acrilon or orlon obtained from
vinyl cyanide is used for making synthetic fibres.
ETHENE
Ethene occurs in natural gas, coal gas and wood
gas. It is also formed during the cracking of high boiling
petroleum fractions.
(a) Properties :
Ethene is a colourless gas (B.P. = 105C). It is very
sparingly soluble in water but dissolves in acetone,
alcohol etc. It burns with smoky flame. Ethene has
trigonal planar geometry. Bond angle is 120. It has
sp2 hybridisation.
(b) Structure :

Bond length of C = C is 1.34 . The energy of the

double bond is 142 Kcal mol1, which is less than
twice the energy of a single bond i.e. 80 Kcal mole-1.
This indicates that a pi () bond is weaker than a
sigma () bond.
(c) Preparation of Ethene :
(b) Some common examples of alkenes -
(i) By dehydration of alcohol (Lab. method) :
Conc. H2SO4
Molecular Structure Trivial IUPAC CH3 CH2 OH
formula Name Name 165 170C CH2 = CH2 + H2O
C2H4 H2C = CH2 Ethylene Ethene Ethanol Ethene
C3H6 CH3 CH = CH2 Propylene Propene (ii) By cracking of kerosene :
C4C8 CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 -Butylene 1-Butene Cracking
CH3 (CH2)4 CH3 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 + CH2 = CH2
CH3 C H -Butylene 2-Butene
n-Hexane Butane Ethene
(cis) (cis)
CH3 C H
(iii) From alkyl halides (Dehydrohalogenation) :
CH3 C H -Butylene 2-Butene
(trans) (trans) CH2 CH2 + KOH CH2 = CH2 + KX + H2O (Here X = Halogen)
H C CH3 (Alcoholic) Ethene
H X
CH3 C = CH2 Isobutylene 2-Methyl propene
Ethyl halide
CH3
C5H10 CH2 = CH (CH2)2CH3 1-Pentene (d) General Reactions :
CH3CH = CHCH2CH3 2-Pentene (i) Addition of halogens :
(cis and
trans) CCl4
CH2 = CH2 + Cl2 CH2 CH2
CH3 CH CH = CH2 3-Methyl-1-butene Ethene Chlorine
Cl Cl
CH3 1,2-Dichloroethane
CH3 C = CH CH3 2-Methyl-2-butene (Ethylene dichloride)
CH3
CCl4
CH2 = CH2 + Br2 CH2 CH2
CH2 = C CH2 CH3 2-Methyl-1-butene
Ethene Bromine
CH3 (red-brown colour) Br Br
1,2-Dibromoethane
(colourless)

30
30
PAGE # 30
 Note :
Addition of bromine on alkenes in presence of CCl4 ALKYNES
is the test for unsaturation. Alkynes are unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons
having a carbon-carbon triple bond. Alkynes have
(ii) Addition of halogen acids (Hydrohalogenation) : general formula CnH2n2. Thus, they have two hydrogen
atoms less than an alkene and four hydrogen atoms
CH2 = CH2 + HCl CH2 CH2 less than an alkane with same number of carbon
Ethene atoms. A triple bond is composed of one sigma ()
H Cl
and two pi () bonds. The carbon atoms connected
Chloroethane
by a triple bond are in state of sp hybridisation.
(iii) Hydrogenation :
(a) Properties :
Ni or Pt
CH2 = CH2 + H2 CH3 CH3 (i) Alkynes of carbon atoms C2 to C4 are gases. Alkynes
High T& P
Ethene Ethane of carbon atoms C5 to C12 are liquids.Alkynes of C13 &
onwards are solids.
(iv) Combustion : (ii) Alkynes are colourless and odourless, but ethyne
C2H4 + 3O2 2CO2 + 2H2 O + Heat has characteristic odour.
Ethene (iii) Boiling point and solubilities in water are relatively
higher than those of alkanes and alkenes.
(v) Addition of oxygen :
(iv) Alkynes are weakly polar in nature.
(v) Alkynes are lighter than water and soluble in non-
polar solvents.
(vi) Boiling point of alkynes increases with the increase
in molecular mass.
(vi) Polymerisation :
Note :
High T The bond energy of a triple bond is 190.5 Kcal per
nCH2 = CH2 (CH2 CH2 )n
& High P mole, which is less than thrice the energy of a single
Ethene Polyethene () bond.

SOME COMMON EXAMPLES OF ALKYNES :

M ole cula r form ula Structure De rive d Na m e IUPAC na m e

C2H2 H C CH Acetylene Ethyne

C3H4 M ethyl acetylene Propyne

CH 3 C C H

C4H6 CH3 CH 2 C CH Ethyl acety lene 1Butyne

Dimethyl acety lene 2 Buty ne

C5H8 CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 C CH n-Propyl ac etylene 1Pentyne

Ethyl m ethyl acetylene 2-Pentyne

C H 3 CH C C H Isopropyl acety lene 3-M ethy l- 1-buty ne

C H3

(a) Structure :
ETHYNE

It is also known as acetylene. Acetylene is the first

member of alkyne series and has a linear geometry.
180
It has sp hybridisation.The carbon-carbon triple bond
H C C H
distance and carbon-hydrogen bond distance have
been found to be 1.20 and 1.06 respectively. The
carbon-carbon hydrogen bond angle is 180.
Linear
31
31
PAGE # 31
 (b) Properties :
TEST FOR ALKANES, ALKENES AND ALKYNES
It is a colourless gas which is slightly soluble in water.
Pure ethyne has ethereal odour. Acetylene burns with (a) Alkanes :
luminous flame like aromatic compounds. This is a
(i) Bromine water test: It does not decolourise the
highly exothermic reaction.
bromine water.
Note :
(ii) Baeyers test: It does not, react with Baeyers
The temperature of oxyacetylene flame is about reagent (alkaline solution of KMnO4).
3000C and is used for welding and cutting steel.
(iii) Silver nitrate Test: No reaction
(c) Preparation : (b) Alkenes:
(i) From carbon and hydrogen (Direct synthesis ) : When (i) Bromine water test: It decolourises the orange
an electric arc is struck between carbon (graphite) rods colour of Bromine water.
in an atmosphere of hydrogen, acetylene is formed.
H H H H
CCl
1200C C=C + Br2 4
CC
2C + H2 C2H2 H H Bromine water H Br Br H
(ii) From calcium carbide (Lab. Method) : Ethene (red-brown colour)
1,2-Dibromoethane
(Colourless)
CaC2 + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
(ii) Baeyers test: It decolourises the purple colour of
Calcium Calcium Ethyne Baeyers reagent.
carbide hydroxide
H H H H
(iii) Dehydrohalogenation of dihaloalkanes : H2O + [O]
C=C HCCH
H H
OH OH
Ethene Ethylene glycol
(iii) Silver nitrate Test: No reaction
(c) Alkynes :
(d) Chemical Properties :
(i) Bromine water test : It decolourises the Br2 water.
(i) Addition of halogens :
H H H
H Br2
H C C H + Br2 C=C Br C C Br
Ethyne Br Br
Bromine Br Br
water 1,2-Dibromoethene 1,1,2,2-Tetrabromoethane
(Colourless)

(ii) Baeyers test : It also decolourises the purple

(ii) Addition of Halogen acid :
colour of alkaline KMnO4 .
Cl
HCl
HC CH + HCl H2C = CH H3C CH

Ethyne Cl Cl
Chloroethene 1,1-Dichloroethane
(Vinyl chloride) (Gem dihalide) (iii) Silver nitrate Test : It gives white precipitate
(iii) Hydrogenation : H C C H + 2 [Ag (NH3)2 ]NO3 Ag C C Ag + 2NH4NO3 + 2NH3
Ethyne Tollen's reagent White ppt.
H2 H2/Ni
HC CH H2C = CH2 CH3 CH3
Ni
Ethene Ethane
Ethyne
EXERCISE
H2
HC CH H2C = CH2
Pd/BaSO4
Ethene 1. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula
Ethyne
(CH3)3 CCH = CH2 is -
(iv) Combustion :
2C2H2 + 5O2 4CO2 + 2H2O + Heat (A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl -1-propane
Ethyne
(B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-1-butene
(v) Polymerisation : (C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene
H (D) 1,1Dimethyl- 3 -butene
Fe H H
3HC CH or (C6H6) 2. Which of the following is not an example of aromatic
H H compound ?
Ethyne
H (A) Benzene (B) Naphthalene
Benzene
(C) Cyclobutane (D) Phenol
32
32
PAGE # 32
3. The IUPAC name of the following compound is - 13. The functional group, present in CH3COOC2H5 is -
CH2 = CH CH (CH3)2 (A) ketonic (B) aldehydic
(A) 1,1-Dimethyl -2-propene (C) ester (D) carboxylic
(B) 3-Methyl-1-butene 14. How many chain isomers (non- cyclic aliphatic) could
(C) 2-Vinylpropane be obtained from the alkane C6H14 ?
(D) 1-Isopropylethylene (A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
4. Which of the following is an alkyne ?
(A) C4H8 (B) C5H8 15. The isomerism exhibited by n-propyl alcohol and
(C) C7H19 (D) None of these isopropyl alcohol is -
(A) chain isomerism
5. The IUPAC name of the following compound is -
(B) position isomerism
C2H5 (C) functional isomerism
(D) None of these
CH3 CH C = CH2
16. Any two consecutive members in a homologous
CH3 series differ in molecular mass by-
(A) 3-Ethyl-2-methylbut-3-ene (A) 8 (B) 14
(B) 2-Ethyl-3- methylbut -1-ene (C) 24 (D) 12
(C) 2-Methyl-3-ethylbut-3-ene 17. The IUPAC name of-
(D) 3-Methyl-2-ethylbut-1-ene CH3 C(CH3) (OH) CH2 CH(CH3) CH3 is -
(A) 2,4-Dimethylpentan -2-ol
6. The first organic compound synthesized in the
(B) 2,4- Dimethylpentan-4-ol
laboratory was -
(C) 2,2-Dimethylbutane
(A) urea (B) glucose
(D) Isopentanol
(C) alcohol (D) None of these
18. The IUPAC name of (CH3)2 CHCH2 CH2 Br is-
7. Propane is an - (A) 1-Bromopentane
(A) acyclic compound (B) 2-Methyl-4-bromopentane
(B) open chain compound (C) 1-Bromo -3- methylbutane
(C) alipthatic compound (D) 2-Methyl-3-bromopentane
(D) All of these
19. Which of the following does not belong to homologous
8. The scientist who gave vital force theory was - series of alkanes ?
(A) Berzelius (B) Avogadro (A) C2H6 (B) C3H4
(C) Wohler (D) Lavoisier (C) C4H10 (D) C5H12
9. Which one of the following is not an organic compound ?
(A) Hexane (B) Urea 20. Isomers have -
(C) Ammonia (D)Ethyl alcohol (A) same molecular formula & same structure.
(B) different molecular formula & different structure.
10. Vast number of carbon compounds is due to the fact (C) same molecular formula & different structure.
that carbon has -
(D) different molecular formula & same structure.
(A) variable valency
(B) property of catenation 21. Which of the following properties is not true regarding
(C) great chemical affinity organic compounds ?
(D) None of these (A) They are generally covalent compounds.
(B) They have high melting and boiling points.
O
|| (C) They are generally insoluble in water.
11. The IUPAC name for CH3 C H is - (D) They generally show isomerism.
(A) Acetal (B) Methanal 22. The nature of linkage in organic compounds is
(C) Ethanal (D) Acetaldehyde generally -
12. The IUPAC name of compound (A) ionic bond
(B) covalent bond
H
(C) co-ordinate covalent
CH3 C CH2 CH3 is - (D) metallic bond
COOH
23. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Butan -3- oic acid The members of the homologous series of alkanes
(B) Butan -2- oic acid (A) are all straight chain compounds.
(C) 3-Methylbutanoic acid (B) have the general formula CnH2n+2.
(D) 2-Methylbutanoic acid (C) have similar chemical properties .
(D) show a regular gradation of physical properties.
33
33
PAGE # 33
24. Which of the following pairs is an example of chain 32. Ethyne on passing through a red hot iron tube gives -
isomer ? (A) mesitylene (B) benzene
(A) CH3 CH2 OH & CH3OCH3 (C) butenyne (D) None
(B) CH3 CH2 CHO & CH3 CO-CH3
33. The general molecular formula of alkynes is -
(C)CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 &
(A) CnH2n (B) CnH2n4
(C) CnH2n2 (D) CnH2n+2
(D) All of the above
34. Which of the following is not a pair of homologues ?
25. Which of the following is a functional isomer of
CH3 COOH ? (A) Ethylacetylene and Dimethylacetylene
(B) Methylacetylene and Ethylacetylene
(C) 1-Butyne and 2-Pentyne
(A) CH3 CH2 OH (B)
(D) 1-Pentyne and 3-Hexyne
35. Ethyne is obtained by dehydrobromination of -
(C) (D) All of these (A) CHBr = CHBr (B) CH3CHBr2
(C) CH3CH2Br (D) None of these
26. Which of the following forms a homologous series ?
(A) Ethane, Ethylene, Acetylene
36. The temperature of oxy-acetylene flame is
(B) Ethane, Propane, Butanol
(C) Methanal, Ethanol, Propanoic acid (A) 200C (B) 1600C
(D) Butane, 2-Methylbutane, 2,3-Dimethylbutane (C) 2000C (D) > 2500

27. Homologous have the same -

37. Ethyne is isoelectronic with-
(A) empirical formulae
(B) molecular formulae (A) chlorine (B) oxygen
(C) chemical properties (C) nitrogen gas (D) CO2
(D) physical properties
38. C C bond length is -
28. Write down the general formula of homologous series
(A) 1.54 (B) 1.20
whose third homologue is C4H6 ?
(A) CnH2n 2 (B) Cn H2n + 2 (C) 1.34 (D) 1.39
(C) Cn + 1 H2n 2 (D) Cn H2n 39. Which of the following gives silver nitrate test ?
(A) Methane (B) Ethene
29. The general formula of saturated hydrocarbons is -
(A) CnH2n (B) CnH2n+2 (C) Ethyne (D) All
(C) CnH2n2 (D) CnH2n+1
40. Which of the following does not decolourise bromine
30. The third member of methyl ketone homologous water ?
series is - (A) Alkanes only (B) Alkenes only
(A) Acetone (B) 2Butanone
(C) Alkynes only (D) (B) and (C) both
(C) 2Pentanone (D) 3Pentanone.
31. The values of bond energies of single, double and 41. Unsaturated fatty acids contain -
triple bonds are in the order - [IJSO-State-I/2011]
(A) C C > C = C > C C (A) atleast one double bond
(B) C = C > C C > C C (B) two double bonds
(C) C C > C = C > C C (C) more than two double bonds
(D)C = C > C C > C C (D) no double bond

34
34
PAGE # 34
 NUMBER SYSTEM

Pre-requisite : Before going through this chapter, you Fundamental Laws of Logarithm :
should be thorough with the basic concepts of the
Logarithm to any base a (where a > 0 and a 1 ).
same chapter explained in IX NCERT.
(i) loga a = 1
LOGARITHM
If a is a positive real number, other than 1 and x is a (ii) loga 0 = not defined
rational number such that ax = N, then x is the [As an = 0 is not possible, where n is any number]
logarithm of N to the base a.
(iii) loga (ve no.) = not defined.
If ax = N then loga N = x.
[As in loga N, N will always be (+ ve)]
[ Remember N will be +ve]
Systems of Logarithm : (iv) loga (mn) = loga m + logan
There are two systems of logarithm which are generally [Where m and n are +ve numbers]
used.
m
(i) Common logarithm : In this system base is always (v) loga = logam logan
n
taken as 10.
(ii) Natural logarithm : In this system the base of the (vi) loga(m)n = n logam
logarithm is taken as e. Where e is an irrational
number lying between 2 and 3. (The approximate value log m
b
of e upto two decimal places is e = 2.73) (vii) logam
log a
b
Some Useful Results :
(i) If a > 1 then (viii)logam . logma = 1
(a) loga x < 0 [for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1]
(b) loga x = 0 for x = 1 (ix) If a is a positive real number and n is a positive
(c) loga x > 0 for x > 1 rational number, then
(d) x > y loga x > loga y i.e. logax is an increasing a loga n n
function.
(x) If a is a positive real number and n is a positive
Graph of y = loga x, a > 1 rational number, then
y
logaq np p log n
a
y = logax, a > 1 q

x' 0 (1,0) x (xi) ploga q qloga p

(xii) logax = logay x = y

y'
Ex.1 If log3a = 4, find value of a.
(ii) If 0 < a < 1, then Sol. log3a = 4
(a) loga x < 0 for all x > 1
a = 34
(b) loga x = 0 for x = 1
(c) logax > 0 for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1 a = 81.
(d) x > y logax < loga y i.e. loga x is a decreasing 9 27 3
function. Ex.2 Find the value of log log log
8 32 4
Sol. Given :
Graph of y = loga x, 0 < a < 1.
y 9 27 3 9 27 3
log log log log log
y = logax, 0 < a < 1. 8 32 4 8 32 4

(1,0) 9 32 3
log
x' 0 x 8 27 4

= log1 = 0. [ loga1 = 0]

y'

PAGE # 3535
Ex.3 If 2log4x = 1 + log4(x 1), find the value of x. FACTORS AND MULTIPLES
Sol. Given 2log4x = 1 + log4(x 1)
log4x2 log4(x 1) = 1 Factors : a is a factor of b if there exists a relation
such that a n = b, where n is any natural number.
x2 x2
log4 =1 41 = 1 is a factor of all numbers as 1 b = b.
x 1 x 1
x2 = 4x 4 x2 4x + 4 = 0 Factor of a number cannot be greater than the number
(x 2) = 0 2
x = 2. (in fact the largest factor will be the number itself).
Thus factors of any number will lie between 1 and the
Ex.4 Evaluate : 3 2 log3 5 . number itself (both inclusive) and they are limited.

Multiples : a is a multiple of b if there exists a relation

Sol. Given 3 2 log3 5 = 3 2.3 log3 5 [ am + n = am.an]
of the type b n = a. Thus the multiples of 6 are
log3 5 1 6 1 = 6, 6 2 = 12, 6 3 = 18, 6 4 = 24, and so on.
= 9. 3
= 9 51 The smallest multiple will be the number itself and the
number of multiples would be infinite.
9
= .
5 NOTE :
To understand what multiples are, lets just take an
log11 13 log11 7 example of multiples of 3. The multiples are 3, 6, 9, 12,
Ex.5 If A = log27625 + 7 and B = log9125 + 13 ,
.... so on. We find that every successive multiples
then find the relation between A and B.
appears as the third number after the previous.
log11 13 4 log 13
Sol. A = log27625 + 7 = log 3 3 5 + 7 11 So if one wishes to find the number of multiples of 6
less than 255, we could arrive at the number through
4 log 13 255
or, A = log35 + 7 11 ....(i) = 42 (and the remainder 3). The remainder is of
3 6
no consequence to us. So in all there are 42 multiples.
log11 7
and,B = log9125 + 13 255
If one wishes to find the multiples of 36, find =7
36
log11 13
or, B = log 3 2 5 3 + 7 (and the remainder is 3).
Hence, there are 7 multiples of 36.
3 log 13
or, B = log35 + 7 11 ...(ii)
2 Ex.7 How many numbers from 200 to 600 are divisible by
By (i) and (ii) we have, 4, 5, 6 ?
Sol. Every such number must be divisible by L.C.M. of
4 3
A log35 = B log35 (4, 5, 6) = 60.
3 2
600 200
4 3 60 60 = 10 3 = 7.

log35 < log35
3 2
Such numbers are 240, 300, 360, 420, 480, 540 and
A < B. 600.
Clearly, there are 7 such numbers.
Ex.6 Find the value of log25125 log84
Sol. Given, log25125 log84 Factorisation : It is the process of splitting any number
into a form where it is expressed only in terms of the
= log 5 2 5 3 log 2 3 2 2
most basic prime factors.
For example, 36 = 22 3 2. It is expressed in the
3 2 factorised form in terms of its basic prime factors.
= log55 log2 2
2 3
Number of factors : For any composite number C,
3 2 which can be expressed as C = ap bq cr ....., where
= [ loga a 1 ]
2 3 a, b, c ..... are all prime factors and p, q, r are positive
integers, the number of factors is equal to
5
= . (p + 1) (q + 1) (r + 1).... e.g. 36 = 22 32. So the
6
factors of 36 = (2 +1) (2 + 1) = 3 3 = 9.

PAGE # 3636
Ex.8 If N = 123 34 52, find the total number of even factors
of N.
Sol. The factorised form of N is
(22 31)3 34 52 26 37 52.
Hence, the total number of factors of N is
(6 + 1) (7 + 1) (2 + 1) = 7 8 3 = 168.
Some of these are odd multiples and some are even.
The odd multiples are formed only with the combination
of 3s and 5s.
So, the total number of odd factors is
(7 + 1) (2 + 1) = 24.
Therefore, the number of even factors is
168 24 = 144.
Ex.9 A number N when factorised can be written
N = a4 b3 c7. Find the number of perfect squares
which are factors of N (The three prime numbers
a, b, c > 2).
Sol. In order that the perfect square divides N, the powers
of a can be 0, 2 or 4, i.e. 3.
Powers of b can be 0, 2, i.e. 2. Power of c can be 0, 2,
4 or 6, i.e. 4.
Hence, a combination of these powers given 3 2 4
i.e. 24 numbers.
So, there are 24 perfect squares that divides N.
Ex.10 Directions : (i to iv) Answer the questions based on
the given information.
There are one thousand lockers and one thousand
students in a school. The principal asks the first student
to go to each locker and open it. Then he asks the
second student go to every second locker and close it.
The third student goes to every third locker, and if it is
closed, he opens it, and it is open, he closes it. The
fourth student does it to every fourth locker and so on.
The process is completed with all the thousand
students.
(i) How many lockers are closed at the end of the
process ?
(ii) How many students can go to only one locker ?
(iii) How many lockers are open after 970 students
have done their job ?
(iv) How many student go to locker no. 840 ?
Sol. (i to iv) : Whether the locker is open or not depends on
the number of times it is accessed. If it is accessed odd
number of times, then it is open while if it is accessed
even number of times then it is closed.
How many times a locker will be accessed depends
on the locker no. If it contains odd number of factors,
then it will be open and if it contains even number of
factors. Then it will be closed. We know that a perfect
square contains odd number of factors while a
non-perfect square contains even number of factors.
Thus the lockers with perfect square number will be
open and the number of these perfect squares from 1
to 1000 determines the no. of open lockers.
(i) No. of closed lockers = No. of non-perfect square
numbers from 1 to 1000 = 1000 31 = 969.
(ii) Upto 500 students they can go to two or more than two
lockers, while the rest 500 can go to only one locker.
(iii) The 31 perfect squares ( the last being 312 = 961)
will be open while the lockers from 971 to 1000 is yet
to be accessed last time so they all are open. The total
being = 31 + 30 = 61
(iv) The no. of students that have gone to locker no.
840 is same as the no. of factors of 840.
840 = 23 3 5 7.
So, the no. of factors = (3 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) = 32.
HCF AND LCM
LCM (least Common Multiple) : The LCM of given
numbers, as the name suggests is the smallest
positive number which is a multiple of each of the given
numbers
HCF (Highest Common factor) : The HCF of given
numbers, as the name suggests is the largest factor
of the given set of numbers.
Consider the numbers 12, 20 and 30. The factors and
the multiples are
Factors
Given
Multiples
numbers
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 12 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 108, 120....
1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20 20 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120.....
1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30 30 30, 60, 90, 120....
The common factors are 1 and 2 and the common
multiples are 60, 120...
Thus the highest common factor is 2 and the least
common multiple meaning of HCF it is the largest
number that divides all the given numbers.
Also since a number divides its multiple, the meaning
of LCM is that it is the smallest number which can be
divided by the given numbers.
HCF will be lesser than or equal to the least of the
numbers and LCM will be greater than or equal to the
greatest of the numbers.
Ex.11 Find a number greater than 3 which when divided by
4, 5, and 6 always leaves the same remainder 3.
Sol. The smallest number which, when divided by 4, 5 and
6, leaves the remainder 3 in each case is
LCM (4, 5 and 6) + 3 = 60 + 3 = 63.
Ex.12 In a school 437 boys and 342 girls have been divided
into classes, so that each class has the same number
of students and no class has boys and girls mixed.
What is the least number of classes needed?
Sol. We should have the maximum number of students in
a class. So we have to find HCF (437, 342) = 19.
HCF is also the factor of difference of the number.
437 342
Number of classes = +
19 19
` = 23 + 18 = 41 classes.
PAGE # 3737
 For any two numbers x and y,
x y = HCF (x, y) LCM (x, y).
HCF and LCM of fractions :
LCM of numerators
LCM of fractions = HCF of deno min ators
HCF of numerators
HCF of fractions = LCM of deno min ators
Make sure the fractions are in the most reducible form.
8 16 2 10
Ex.13 Find the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of , , and .
9 81 3 27
H.C.F. of (2, 8,16,10 )
Sol. H.C.F. of given fractions = = ,
L.C.M. of (3, 9, 81, 27 )
L.C.M. of (2, 8,16,10 ) 80
L.C.M. of given fractions = = .
H.C.F. of (3, 9, 81, 27 )
Ex.14 Find the least number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, 9
and 10 leaves remainder 1.
Sol. As the remainder is same
Required number = LCM of divisors + Remainder
= LCM (6, 7, 8, 9, 10) +1
= 2520 + 1
= 2521.
Ex.15 Six bells start tolling together and they toll at intervals
of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 sec. respectively, find
(i) after how much time will all six of them toll together ?
(ii) how many times will they toll together in 30 min ?
Sol. The time after which all six bells will toll together must
be multiple of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12.
Therefore, required time = LCM of time intervals.
= LCM (2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12) = 120 sec.
Therefore after 120 s all six bells will toll together.
After each 120 s, i.e. 2 min, all bell are tolling together.
30
Therefore in 30 min they will toll together 1
2
= 16 times
1 is added as all the bells are tolling together at the
start also, i.e. 0th second.
Ex.16 LCM of two distinct natural numbers is 211. What is
their HCF ?
Sol. 211 is a prime number. So there is only one pair of
distinct numbers possible whose LCM is 211,
i.e. 1 and 211. HCF of 1 and 211 is 1.
Ex.17 An orchard has 48 apple trees, 60 mango trees and
96 banana trees. These have to be arranged in rows
such that each row has the same number of trees and
all are of the same type. Find the minimum number of
such rows that can be formed.
Sol. Total number of trees are 204 and each of the trees
are exactly divisible by 12. HCF of (48, 60, 96).
204
= 17 such rows are possible.
12
DIVISIBLITY
Division Algorithm : General representation of result
is,
Dividend Re mainder
Quotient
Divisor Divisor
Dividend = (Divisor Quotient ) + Remainder
Ex.18 On dividing 15968 by a certain number, the quotient
is 89 and the remainder is 37. Find the divisor.
Dividend Re mainder 15968 37
Sol. Divisor =
2 Quotient 89
81 = 179.
NOTE :
(i) (xn an) is divisible by (x a) for all the values of n.
3 (ii) (xn an) is divisible by (x + a) and (x a) for all the
even values of n.
(iii) (xn + an) is divisible by (x + a) for all the odd values of n.
Test of Divisibility :
No. Divisiblity Te st
2 U nit digit s hould be 0 or even
3 The s um of digits of no. s hould be divis ible by 3
4 The no form ed by las t 2 digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 4.
5 U nit digit s hould be 0 or 5.
6 N o s hould be divis ible by 2 & 3 both
8 The num ber form ed by las t 3 digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 8.
9 Sum of digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 9
The difference betw een s um s of the digits at even & at odd places
11
s hould be zero or m ultiple of 11.
25 Las t 2 digits of the num ber s hould be 00, 25, 50 or 75.
Rule for 7 : Double the last digit of given number and
subtract from remaining number the result should be
zero or divisible by 7.
Ex.19 Check whether 413 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 3, remaining number = 41, 41 (3 x 2) = 35
(divisible by 7). i.e. 413 is divisible by 7.
This rule can also be used for number having more
than 3 digits.
Ex.20 Check whether 6545 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 5, remaining number 654, 654 (5 x 2)
= 644; 64 (4 x 2) = 56 divisible by 7. i.e. 6545 is
divisible by 7.
Rule for 13 : Four times the last digit and add to
remaining number the result should be divisible by
13.
Ex.21 Check whether 234 is divisible by 13 or not .
Sol. 234, (4 x 4) + 23 = 39 (divisible by 13), i.e. 234 is divisible
by 13.
PAGE # 3838
 Rule for 17 : Five times the last digit of the number and
REMAINDERS
subtract from previous number the result obtained
should be either 0 or divisible by 17. The method of finding the remainder without actually

Ex.22 Check whether 357 is divisible by 17 or not. performing the process of division is termed as
Sol. 357, (7 x 5) 35 = 0, i.e. 357 is divisible by 17. remainder theorem.

Rule for 19 : Double the last digit of given number and
add to remaining number The result obtained should
be divisible by 19.
Ex.23 Check whether 589 is divisible by 19 or not.
Sol. 589, (9 x 2) + 58 = 76 (divisible by 19), i.e. the number
is divisible by 19.
Remainder should always be positive. For example if
we divide 22 by 7, generally we get 3 as quotient
and 1 as remainder. But this is wrong because
remainder is never be negative hence the quotient
should be 4 and remainder is +6. We can also get
remainder 6 by adding 1 to divisor 7 ( 71 = 6).

Ex.24 Find the smallest number of six digits which is exactly
divisible by 111.
Sol. Smallest number of 6 digits is 100000.
On dividing 100000 by 111, we get 100 as remainder.
Number to be added = (111 100) = 11.
Hence, required number = 100011.
Ex.25 Find the largest four digit number which when
reduced by 54, is perfectly divisible by all even natural
numbers less than 20.
Sol. Even natural numbers less than 20 are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10,
12, 14, 16, 18.
Their LCM = 2 LCM of first 9 natural numbers
= 2 2520 = 5040.
This happens to be the largest four-digit number
divisible by all even natural numbers less than 20. 54
was subtracted from our required number to get this
number.
Hence, (required number 54) = 5040
Required number = 5094.
Ex.28 Two numbers, x and y, are such that when divided by
6, they leave remainders 4 and 5 respectively. Find the
remainder when (x2 + y2) is divided by 6.
Sol. Suppose x = 6k1 + 4 and y = 6k2 + 5
x2 + y2 = (6k1 + 4)2 + (6k2 + 5)2
= 36k12 + 48k1 + 16 + 36k22 + 60k2 + 25
= 36k12 + 48k1 + 36k22 + 60k2 + 41
Obviously when this is divided by 6, the remainder will
be 5.
Ex.29 A number when divided by 259 leaves a remainder
139. What will be the remainder when the same
number is divided by 37 ?
Sol. Let the number be P.
So, P 139 is divisible by 259.
P 139
Let Q be the quotient then, =Q
259
P = 259Q + 139

Ex.26 Ajay multiplied 484 by a certain number to get the P 259 Q 139
=
result 3823a. Find the value of a. 37 37
Sol. 3823a is divisible by 484, and 484 is a factor of 3823a.
259 is divisible by 37,
4 is a factor of 484 and 11 is also a factor of 484.
When 139 divided by 37, leaves a remainder of 28.
Hence, 3823a is divisible by both 4 and 11.
To be divisible by 4, the last two digits have to be Ex.30 A number being successively divided by 3, 5 and 8
divisible by 4. leaves remainders 1, 4 and 7 respectively. Find the
a can take two values 2 and 6. respective remainders if the order of divisors be
38232 is not divisible by 11, but 38236 is divisible by reversed.
11. Sol.
Hence, 6 is the correct choice. 3 x
5 y 1
Ex.27 Which digits should come in place of and $ if the 8 z 4
number 62684$ is divisible by both 8 and 5 ? 1 7
Sol. Since the given number is divisible by 5, so 0 or 5 must
z = (8 1 + 7) = 15 ; y = (5z + 4) = (5 15 + 4) = 79 ;
come in place of $. But, a number ending with 5 in
x = (3y + 1) = (3 79 + 1) = 238.
never divisible by 8. So, 0 will replace $.
Now,
Now, the number formed by the last three digits is 40, 8 238
which becomes divisible by 8, if is replaced by 4 or 8. 5 29 6
Hence, digits in place of and $ are (4 or 8 or 0) and 0 3 5 4
1 2
respectively.
Respective remainders are 6, 4, 2.

PAGE # 3939
 16
Ex.31 A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5 Ex.36 What is the remainder when 1415 is divided by 5 ?
and 6. The remainders were respectively 2, 3 and 4. 16
15
Then find out the number. Sol. 14 = (15 1)odd = 15n + (1)odd, i.e. a (multiple of 5)
Sol. 4 x
1. Thus when divided by 5 the remainder will be (1),
5 y 2 i.e. 4.
6 z 3
1 4 Ex.37 What is the remainder when 357 + 27 is divided by
28?
z = (6 1 + 4) = 10 Sol. 357 = (33)19
y = (5 z + 3) = (5 10 + 3) = 53 357 + 27 = (27)19 + 27
x = (4 y + 2) = (4 53 + 2) = 214 = (28 1)19 + 27
Hence, the required number is 214. = 28M + (1)19 + 27 [Expand by binomial theorem]
Ex.32 In dividing a number by 585, a student employed the = 28M 1 + 27
method of short division. He divided the number = 28M + 26
successively by 5, 9 and 13 (factors of 585) and got the When 28M + 26 divided by 28, the remainder is 26.
remainders 4, 8 and 12. If he had divided number by Hence, the required remainder is 26.
585, then find out the remainder. Ex.38 What is the remainder when 82361 + 83361 + 84361
Sol.
5 x + 85361 + 86361 is divided by 7?
9 y 4 Sol. 82 361 + 83 361 + 84 361 + 85 361 + 86 361 = [(84 2) 361
13 z 8 + (84 1)361 + 84361 + (84 + 1)361 + (84 + 2)361]
1 12
Since, 84 is a multiple of 7, then the remainder will be
Now, 1169 when divided by 585 gives remainder when, ( 2)361 + (1)361 + 1361 + 2361 is divided by 7 is
= 584. ( 2)361 + (1)361 + 1361 + 2361 = 0. So the remainder is
To find the remainder of big number zero.

NOTE :
CYCLICITY
(i) Binomial Expansion :
n n(n 1) We are having 10 digits in our number systems and
(a + b)n = an + an1b + an 2b2 + .... + bn, or some of them shows special characteristics like they,
1! 2!
repeat their unit digit after a cycle, for example 1 repeat
n n(n 1)
(a b)n = an an1b + an 2b2 ......+ ( 1)nbn. its unit digit after every consecutive power. So, its
1! 2! cyclicity is 1 on the other hand digit 2 repeat its unit
Hence, first term is purely of a i.e an and last digit is
digit after every four power, hence the cyclicity of 2 is
purely of b, i.e. bn.
four. The cyclicity of digits are as follows :
(ii) Total number of terms in the expansion of (a + b)n is
(n + 1). Digit Cyclicity
0, 1, 5 and 6 1
Ex.33 What is the remainder when 738 is divided by 48.
4 and 9 2
19 19 19
7 38 72 49 48 1 2, 3, 7 and 8 4
Sol. = = = so by using
48 48 48 48
binomial expansion, we can say that 18 terms are So, if we want to find the last digit of 245, divide 45 by 4.
completely divisible by 48 but the last term which is The remainder is 1 so the last digit of 245 would be
same as the last digit of 21 which is 2.
119
is not divisible. So, 119 = 1 is the remainder..
48 To Fi n d t h e U n i t Di g i t i n Ex p o n e n t i a l
Ex p r e s s i o n s :
Ex.34 What is the remainder if 725 is divided by 4?
Sol. 725 can be written (81)25. There are 26 terms in all and (i) When there is any digit of cyclicity 4 in units place.
first 25 terms are divisible by 8, hence also by 4. The Since, when there is 2 in units place then in 21 unit
last term is (1)25. Hence, (8 1)25 can be written digit is 2, in 22 unit digit is 4, in 23 unit digit is 8, in 24 unit
8X 1 or 4Y 1 ( where Y = 2X). So, 4Y 1 divided by digit is 6, after that the units digit repeats. e.g. unit digit
4 leaves the remainder 3. (12)12 is equal to the unit digit of, 24 i.e.6.
Ex.35 What is the remainder if 345 is divided by 8 ?
Ex.39 In (32)33 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 21 i.e. 2.
Sol. 345 can be written as 922 3. 9 can be written as (8 + 1).
Hence, any power of 9 can be written as 8N + 1. In Ex.40 In (23)15 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 33 i.e. 7.
other words, any power of 9 is 1 more than a multiple
Ex.41 In (57)9 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 71 i.e. 7.
of 8. Hence, (8N + 1) 3 leaves remainder 3 when
divided by 8. Ex.42 In (678)22 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 82 i.e. 4.

PAGE # 4040
 (ii) When there is any digit of cyclicity 2 in units place.
Since, when there is 4 in units place then in 41 unit
digit is 4, in 42 unit digit is 6 and so on.
33
Ex.43 In (34) unit digit is 4.
Ex.44 In (29)15 unit digit is 9.
Ex.45 In (49)18 unit digit is 1.
(iii) When there is any digit of cyclicity 1 in units
place.
Since, when there is 5 in units place then in 51 unit
digit is 5, in 52 unit digit is 5 and so on.
HIGHEST POWER DIVIDING A FACTORIAL
Factorial n : Product of n consecutive natural numbers
is known as factorial n it is denoted by n!.
So, n! = n(n 1)(n 2)...321. e.g. 5! = 5 4 3 2 1 = 120.
The value of factorial zero is equal to the value of
factorial one. Hence 0! = 1 = 1!
The approach to finding the highest power of x dividing
y y y
y! is 2 3 ......., where [ ] represents just
x x x

Ex.46 In (25)15 unit digit is 5. the integral part of the answer and ignoring the fractional
part.
Ex.47 In (46)13 unit digit is 6.
Ex.52 What is the highest power of 2 that divides 20!
Ex.48 Find the last digit of
completely?
(i) 357 (ii) 1359
Sol. 20! = 1 2 3 4 .... 18 19 20 = 1 (21) 3 (22)
57
Sol. (i) The cyclicity of 3 is 4. Hence, gives the remainder 5 (21 31) 7 (23) ..... so on. In order to find the
4
highest power of 2 that divides the above product, we
1. So, the last digit of 357 is same as the last digit of 31,
need to find the sum of the powers of all 2 in this
i.e. 3.
expansion. All numbers that are divisible by 21 will
(ii) The number of digits in the base will not make a
difference to the last digit. It is last digit of the contribute 1 to the exponent of 2 in the product
base which decides the last digit of the number itself.
20
59 = 10. Hence, 10 numbers contribute 21 to the
For 1359, we find which gives a remainder 3. So 21
4 product. Similarly, all numbers that are divisible by
the last digit of 1359 is same as the last digit of 33, i.e. 7. 22 will contribute an extra 1 to the exponent of 2 in the
Ex.49 Find units digit in y = 717 + 734 20
product, i.e = 5. Hence, 5 numbers contribute an
Sol. 717 + 734 = 71 + 72 = 56, Hence the unit digit is 6 22
6476
extra 1 to exponents. Similarly, there are 2 numbers
Ex.50 What will be the last digit of (73 )75 that are divisible by 23 and 1 number that is divisible
by 24. Hence, the total 1s contributed to the exponent
6476 76
Sol. Let (73 )75 = (73)x where x = 75 64 = (75)even power of 2 in 20! is the sum of ( 10 + 5 +2 +1) = 18. Hence,
Cyclicity of 3 is 4 group of all 2s in 20! gives 218 x (N), where N is not
To find the last digit we have to find the remainder divisible by 2.
when x is divided by 4. If 20! is divided by 2x then maximum value of x is 18.
x = (75)even power = (76 1)even power , where n is divided by
Ex.53 What is the highest power of 5 that divides of
4 so remainder will be 1.
x = 100! = 100 99 98 ...... 3 2 1.
6476
Therefore, the last digit of (73 )75 will be 31 = 3. Sol. Calculating contributions of the different powers of 5,
100 100
75 63
55
we have 1 = 20, = 4.
Ex.51 What will be the unit digit of (87 ) . 5 52
Hence, the total contributions to the power of 5 is 24, or
6355 55
75
Sol. Let (87 ) = (87)x where x = 75 63 = (75)odd the number 100! is divisible by 524.
Cyclicity of 7 is 4. Ex.54 How many zeros at the end of first 100 multiples
To find the last digit we have to find the remainder of 10.
when x is divided by 4. Sol. First 100 multiple of 10 are = 10 20 30 ...... 1000
x = (75)odd power = (76 1)odd power
= 10100 (1 2 3 ....... 100)
where x is divided by 4 so remainder will be 1 or 3, but
= 10100 1024 N
remainder should be always positive.
= 10124 N
6355
Therefore, the last digit of (87 )75 will be 73 = 343. Where N is not divisible by 10
So, there are 124 zero at the end of first 100 multiple of
6355
Hence, the last digit is of (87 )75 is 3. 10.

PAGE # 4141
Ex.55 What is the highest power of 6 that divides 9! (i) Conversion from base 10 to any other base :
9 9
Sol. By the normal method. = 1 and 2 = 0. Thus Ex.58 Convert (122)10 to base 8 system.
6 6
answers we get is 1 which is wrong. True there is just Sol.
8 122
one multiple of 6 from 1 to 9 but the product 2 3 = 6 8 15 2
and also 4 9 = 36, can further be divided by 6. Thus, 8 1 7
when the divisor is a composite number find the 0 1
highest power of its prime factors and then proceed. In
The number in decimal is consecutively divided by the
this case, 9! can be divided by 27 and 34 and thus by 64
(In this case we need not have checked power of 2 as number of the base to which we are converting the

it would definitely be greater than that of 3). decimal number. Then list down all the remainders in
the reverse sequence to get the number in that base.
Ex.56 What is the largest power of 12 that would divide 49! ?
So, here (122) 10 = (172)8.
Sol. To check the highest power of 12 in 49!, we need to
check the highest powers of 4 and 3 in it. Ex.59 Convert (169)10 in base 7.
Highest power of 3 in 49! = 22
Highest power of 2 in 49! = 46
7 169
7 24 1
46 Remainder
Highest power of 4 in 49! = = 23 7 3 3
2 Sol. 0
3
Highest power of 12 will be 22. (Since the common
power between 3 and 4 is 22). (169)10 =(331)7

Ex.60 Convert (0.3125)10 to binary equivalent.

Ex.57 How many zeros will be there at the end of 36!36! ?
Sol. Integer
Sol. Highest power of 5 in 36! is 8.
2 0.3125 = 0.625 0
So, there will be 8 zeros at the end of 36!.
2 0.625 = 1.25 1
So, at the end of 36!36! , there will be 8 36! zeros.
2 0.25 = 0.50 0
2 0.50 = 1.00 1
BASE SYSTEM
Thus
The number system that we work in is called the
(0.3125)10 = (0.1010)2
decimal system. This is because there are 10 digits
in the system 0-9. There can be alternative system that Ex.61 Convert (1987.725)10 (........)8
can be used for arithmetic operations. Some of the Sol. First convert non-decimal part into base 8.
most commonly used systems are : binary, octal and 8 1987
hexadecimal. 8 248 3
These systems find applications in computing. 8 31 0
Binary system has 2 digits : 0, 1. 8 3 7
Octal system has 8 digits : 0, 1,..., 7. 0 3
Hexadecimal system has 16 digits : 0, 1, 2,..., 9, A , B,
(1987)10 = (3703)8
C, D, E, F.
After 9, we use the letters to indicate digits. For instance, Now we have to convert (0.725)10 (........)8
A has a value 10, B has a value 11, C has a value 12,... Multiply
so on in all base systems. 0.725 8 = [5.8] ...5
0.8 8 = [6.4] ...6
The counting sequences in each of the systems would
0.4 8 = [3.2] ...3
be different though they follow the same principle. 0.2 8 = [1.6] ...1
0.6 8 = [4.8] ...4
Conversion : Conversion of numbers from (i) decimal
Keep on accomplishing integral parts after
system to other base system. (ii) other base system to
multiplication with decimal part till decimal part is zero.
decimal system.
(0.725)10 = (0.56314...)8
(1987.725)10 = (3703.56314...)8

PAGE # 4242
 (ii) Conversion from any other base to decimal Ex.68 The sum of first n natural numbers is a three-digit
system :
number, all of whose digits are the same. What is the
Ex.62 Convert (231)8 into decimal system. value of n?
Sol. (231)8 , the value of the position of each of the numbers
( as in decimal system) is : Sol. In 5 seconds, you can solve the equation
1 = 80 1 n(n 1)
= aaa (111, 222, etc) . How do you proceed
3 = 81 3 2
2 = 82 2 next ? If you think it's hit-and-trial from this point, you
Hence, (231)8 = (80 1 + 81 3 + 82 2)10
are wrong. Here goes the simple logic. It might strike
(231)8 = (1 + 24 + 128)10
(231)8 = (153)10 you instantly if you have been working with numbers:

Ex.63 Convert (0.03125)10 to base 16. n(n 1)

= aaa = a 111 = a 3 37
Sol. 16 0.03125 = 0.5 0 2
16 0.5 = 8.0 8 n(n + 1) = 6a x 37
So (0.03125)10 = (0.08)16
Look at the L.H.S. of the equation, n(n + 1) is a product
Ex.64 Convert (761.56)8 (......)16 of two consecutive natural numbers. Therefore, R.H.S.
Sol. In such conversion which are standard form
should also be a product of two consecutive natural
conversions, it is easier to
(761.56)8 (.....)2 (.....)16 numbers. One of the numbers is 37. Therefore, what
Converting every digit in base 8 to base 2, could the other number 6a, consecutive to 37 be? It can
(111110001.101110)2 (1F1.B8)16
only be 36, giving a = 6 and n = 36. Therefore, 36
Ex.65 Convert (3C8.08)16 to decimal numbers have been summed up and their sum is equal
Sol. (3C8.08)16 = 3 162 + C 161 + 8 16 + 0 161 + 8 162
to 666.
= 768 + 192 + 8 + 0 + 0.03125
= (968.03125)10 Ex.69 If ABC x CBA = 65125, where A, B and C are single
So, (3C8.08)16 = (968.03125)10
digits, then A + B + C = ?
Sol. As the unit digit of the product is 5, therefore, the unit
ALPHA NUMERICS NUMBERS
digit of one of the numbers is 5 and the unit digit of the
other number is odd. Therefore, AB5 x 5BA = 65125,
aa
where A = 1, 3, 5, 7 or 9.
b b
Ex.66 If a b = 2, and then find the value of a, b and c. As the product of two three-digit numbers is a five-digit
cc 0
number, and not a six-digit number, A can only be equal
Sol. These problems involve basic number to 1. IB5 x 5B1 = 65125.
(i) aa + bb = 11(a + b) (ii) aa, bb are two-digit numbers. The digit sums of both numbers, 1B5 and 5B1 will be
Hence, their sum cannot exceed 198. So, c must be 1.
(iii) Hence, cc0 = 110. This implies a + b = 10 or a = 6 same. Therefore, the product would give digit sum of a
and b = 4. perfect square. The digit sum on the R.H.S. is 1.
Such problems are part of a category of problems called Therefore, the digit sum of each number can be 1or 8.
alpha numerics.
Correspondingly B will be 4 or 2 (as digit sum cannot
a 3b be equal to 1).
a c Keeping B = 2, we can see that 125 x 521 = 65125.
Ex.67 If _____ then find a, b and c if each of them is
a a 9
Ex.70 Find the four-digit number ABCD such that
distinctly different digit.
Sol. (i) since the first digit of (a 3 b) is written as it is after ABCD x 4 = DCBA.
subtracting ac carry over from a to 3. Sol. Any number multiplied by 4 will give us an even number.
(ii) there must be a carry over from 3 to b, because if no Hence, the digit D when multiplied by 4 will give us an
carry over is there, it means 3 a = a.
even number.
3
2a = 3 a = Since A is the unit digit of the product it is even. Hence,
2
which is not possible because a is a digit. For a carry A = 2, 4, 6 or 8 (It cannot be 0). A is also the first digit of
over 1, 2 a = a the multiplicand and if A = 4, 6 or 8 the product
a=1
(iii) it means b and c are consecutive digit (2, 3), ABCD x 4 will become a 5 digit number. Hence A = 2.
(3, 4),.... (8, 9) Writing the value of A we get 2BCD x 4 = DCB2.

PAGE # 4343
 Now for the value of D looking at the first and last digits 6. How many numbers between 200 and 600 are divisible
of the multiplicand, we can see that 4 x D gives the unit by 14?
(A) 28 (B) 29
digit of 2 and 4 x 2 gives the first digit of D. Yes, you got
(C) 27 (D) None of these
it right D = 8. Writing the multiplication again with the
7. The number of prime factors of (3 5)12 (2 7)10 (10)25
value of D we get 2BC8 x 4 = 8CB2.
is :
Now for the value of B. A number is divisible by 4 if the
(A) 47 (B) 60
number formed by the last two digits is divisible by 4. (C) 72 (D) 94
Since the number 8CB2 is a multiple of 4, the number
8. How many three-digit numbers would you find, which
B2 should be divisible by 4. Or, the number B2 = 12, when divided by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 leave the remainders 1, 2,
32, 52, 72 or 92. Hence the original number ABCD is 3, 4, and 5 respectively ?
21C8, 23C8, 25C8, 27C8 or 29C8. But the last 4 (A) 4 (B) 3
numbers when multiplied by 4 will not give you the first (C) 2 (D) 1

digit of 8 in the product. Therefore B = 1 and the original 9. Six strings of violin start vibrating simultaneously and
number is 21C8. We write the multiplication again they vibrate at 3, 4, 5, 6,10 and 12 times in a minute,
find :
21C8 x 4 = 8C12.
i. After how much time will all six of them vibrate
Now for the value of C notice that when you multiply 8,
together ?
the unit digit of 21C8, by 4 you write 2 in the unit digit of ii. How many times will they vibrate together in 30 min ?
the product and carry 3. The tenth digit of the product is (A) 60 min, 31 times (B) 60 sec, 31 times
1. Therefore, 4 x C + 3 (carry over) gives a unit digit of 1. (C) 120 sec, 15 times (D) None of these
Hence, C is 2 or 7. You can easily check by the hundreds 10. The HCF of 2 numbers is 11 and their LCM is 693.
digit in the product (which is C again) that C = 7. If their sum is 176, find the numbers.
Therefore, our answer is 2178 x 4 = 8712. (A) 99,77 (B) 110, 66
(C) 88,77 (D) 121, 44

11. If P is a prime number, then the LCM of P and (P + 1) is

(A) P(P +1) (B) (P + 2)P
1. Convert 0.225 in to form p/q.
(C) (P + 1)(P 1) (D) None of these
3 9
(A) (B)
10 40 12. Find out (A + B + C + D) such that AB x CB = DDD, where
9 9 AB and CB are two-digit numbers and DDD is a three-
(C) (D) digit number.
50 400
(A) 21 (B) 19
2. When (55) 10 is represented in base 25 then the
(C) 17 (D) 18
expression is :
(A) (25)25 (B) (35)25 1 3
13. Three pieces of cakes of weights 4 Ibs, 6 Ibs and
(C) (55)25 (D) none of these 2 4
1
7 Ibs respectively are to be divided into parts of equal
3. There are four prime numbers written in ascending 5
order. The product of the first three is 385 and that of weights. Further, each must be as heavy as possible.
the last three is 1001. The last number is : If one such part is served to each guest, then what is
(A) 11 (B) 13 the maximum number of guests that could be
(C) 17 (D) 19 entertained ?

4. If logxy = 100 and log2x = 10, then the value of y is : (A) 54 (B) 72
(A) 21000 (B) 2100 (C) 20 (D) 41
2000
(C) 2 (D) 210000 14. How many natural numbers between 200 and 400 are
5. Find the value of x if 2logx 7 + log7x 7 + 3log49x 7 = 0 there which are divisible by
i. Both 4 and 5?
4
(A) x = (B) x = 71/2 ii. 4 or 5 or 8 or 10 ?
3
(A) 9, 79 (B) 10, 80
(C) x = 74/3 (D) Either (B) or (C) (C) 10, 81 (D) None of these

PAGE # 4444
15. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 is divisible by : 27. What is the remainder when 650 is divided by 215?
(A) 3 (B) 10 (A) 1 (B) 36
(C) 11 (D) 13 (C) 5 (D) 214

28. What is the remainder when 7413 4113 + 7513 4213 is

16. If x is a whole number, then x2 (x2 1) is always divisible
divided by 66?
by :
(A) 2 (B) 64
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 1 (D) 0
(C) 12 x (D) Multiple of 12
29. A number when divided successively by 4 and 5 leaves
17. If 653 xy is exactly divisible by 80, then the find the value
remainders 1 and 4 respectively. W hen it is
of (x + y).
successively divided by 5 and 4, then the respective
(A) 2 (B) 3
remainders will be :
(C) 4 (D) 6 (A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3
18. Find the unit digit of (795 358). (C) 3, 2 (D) 4, 1
(A) 6 (B) 4 30. W hen Sholey screened on the TV there was a
(C) 3 (D) None of these commercial break of 5 min after every 15 min of the
movie. If from the start of the movie to the end of the
19. When a number P is divided by 4 it leaves remainder
movie there was in all 60 min of commercials that was
3. If the twice of the number P is divided by the same
screened what is the duration the movie ?
divisor 4 than what will be the remainder ?
(A) 180 min (B) 195 min
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 169 min (D) 165 min
(C) 2 (D) 6
Directions : (31 to 35) Read the following information
20. If (232 +1) is divisible by a certain number then which of
carefully and answer the questions given below.
the following is also divisible by that number. In a big hostel, there are 1,000 rooms. In that hostel
(A) (216 1) (B) 216 + 1 only even numbers are used for room numbers, i.e.
(C) 296 + 1 (D) None of these the room numbers are 2, 4, 6, ...., 1998, 2000. All the
21. If the number 357y25x is divisible by both 3 and 5, then rooms have one resident each. One fine morning, the
find the missing digit in the units place and the warden calls all the residents and tells them to go
back to their rooms as well as multiples of their room
thousand place respectively are :
numbers. When a guy visits a room and finds the door
(A) 0, 6 (B) 5, 6
open, he closes it, and if the door is closed, he opens
(C) 5, 4 (D) None of these
it, All 1,000 guys do this operation. All the doors were
22. A number when divided by 342 gives a remainder 47. open initially.
When the same number is divided by 19, what would
31. The last room that is closed is room number ?
be the remainder ?
(A) 1936 (B) 2000
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 1922 (D) None of these
(C) 9 (D) None of these
32. The 38th room that is open is room number :
23. What is the remainder when 9875347 7435789 (A) 80 (B) 88
5789743 is divided by 4 ? (C) 76 (D) None of these
(A) 1 (B) 2
33. If only 500 guys, i.e. residents of room number 2 to
(C) 3 (D) None of these
1000 do the task, then the last room that is closed is
24. What is remainder when 784 is divided by 2402? room number
(A) 1 (B) 6 (A) 2000 (B) 1936
(C) 2401 (D) None of these (C) 1849 (D) None of these

25. P is a prime number greater than 5. What is the 34. In the case of the previous question, how many rooms
remainder when P is divided by 6? will be closed in all ?
(A) 5 (B) 1 (A) 513 (B) 31
(C) 1 or 5 (D) None of these (C) 13 (D) 315

26. What is the remainder when 3040 is divided by 17? 35. If you are a lazy person, you would like to stay in a room
(A) 1 (B) 16 whose number is :
(C) 13 (D) 4 (A) more than 500 (B) more than 1000
(C) 500 (D) 2000

PAGE # 4545
36. A 4-digit number is formed by repeating a 2-digit 45. In a number system, the product of 44 and 11 is 3414.
number such as 2525, 3232 etc. Any number of this The number 3111 of this system, when converted to
from is exactly divisible by : the decimal number system, becomes :
(A) 7 (B) 11 (A) 406 (B) 1086
(C) 13 (C) 213 (D) 691
(D) Smallest 3-digit prime number 46. A set of consecutive positive integers beginning with 1
37. How many numbers between 400 and 600 begin with is written on the blackboard. A student came and erased
or end with a digit of 5 ? one number. The average of the remaining numbers
(A) 40 (B) 100 7
is 35 . What was the number erased?
(C) 110 (D) 120 17
(A) 7 (B) 8
38. If (12 + 22 + 32 + .....+ 102) = 385, then the value of (C) 9 (D) None of these
(22 + 42 + 62 +...... + 202).
47. Let D be a recurring decimal of the form D = 0. a1 a2 a1
(A) 770 (B) 1155
a2 a1 a2 ....., where digits a1 and a2 lie between 0 and 9.
(C) 1540 (D) (385 385)
Further, at most one of them is zero. Which of the
39. Find the total number of prime factors in the expression following numbers necessarily produces an integer,
(4)11 (7)5 (11)2. when multiplied by D?
(A) 37 (B) 33 (A) 18 (B) 108
(C) 26 (D) 29 (C) 198 (D) 288

40. The largest number which exactly divides the product 48. W hat is the value of the following expression
of any four consecutive natural numbers is : 1 1 1 1
(2 2 1) ( 4 2 1) (6 2 1) ..... (20 2 1) ?

(A) 6 (B) 12
(C) 24 (D) 120 9 10
(A) (B)
41. The largest natural number by which the product of 19 19
10 11
three consecutive even natural numbers is always (C) (D)
21 21
divisible, is :
(A) 6 (B) 24 49. Let N = 1421 1423 1425. What is the remainder
(C) 48 (D) 96 when N is divided by 12?
(A) 0 (B) 9
42. A 3-digit number 4a3 is added to another 3-digit (C) 3 (D) 6
number 984 to give the four-digit number 13b7, which
50. Let N = 553 + 173 723, then N is divisible by :
is divisible by 11. Then ,(a + b) is :
(A) both 7 and 13 (B) both 3 and 13
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) both 17 and 7 (D) both 3 and 17
(C) 12 (D) 15
51. Convert the number 1982 from base 10 to base 12.
43. Anita had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as
The results is :
one of the multipliers, she took 53. As a result, the
(A) 1182 (B) 1912
product went up by 540. What is the new product?
(C) 1192 (D) 1292
(A) 1050 (B) 540
(C) 1440 (D) 1590 52. If n2 = 12345678987654321, find the value of n ?
(A) 12344321 (B) 1235789
44. Three friends, returning from a movie, stopped to eat
(C) 11111111 (D) 111111111
at a restaurant. After dinner, they paid their bill and
noticed a bowl of mints at the front counter. Sita took 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1/3 of the mints, but returned four because she had a 53 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
monetary pang of guilt. Fatima then took 1/4 of what is equal to :
was left but returned three for similar reasons. Eswari (A) 9 (B) 8
then took half of the remainder but threw two back into (C) 4.5 (D) None of these
the bowl. The bowl had only 17 mints left when the raid
54. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If
was over. How many mints were originally in the bowl?
the difference between the two numbers is 18, find the
(A) 38 (B) 31 two numbers :
(C) 41 (D) 48 (A) 36 and 18 (B) 78 and 60
(C) 63 and 81 (D) 52 and 34

PAGE # 4646
55. If a, a + 2, and a + 4 are prime numbers, then the 64. Which of the following surds is greatest in magnitude
number of possible solution for a is : 6
17 , 2,12 25 , 3 4 .
(A) three (B) two
(C) one (D) more than three (A) 6 17 (B) 12
25
56. Find the square root of 7 4 3 . (C) 3 (D)
4 2
(A) 2 3 (B) 5 3
65. If log 10N 2.5 then, find out total number of digits in N.
(C) 2 5 (D) None of these (A) 3 (B) 4
57. How many even integers n, where 100 n 200, are (C) 5
divisible neither by seven nor by nine ? (D) cannot be determine
(A) 40 (B) 37 66. If log x = n then 2n is equal to :
(C) 39 (D) 38 (A) log (x2) (B) (logx)2
58. The number of positive n in the range 12 n 40 such (C) log (x+2) (D) log 2x
that the product (n 1) (n 2).... 3.2.1 is not divisible by 67. Given log2 = 0.3010, then log 16 is :
n is : (A) 2.4080 (B) 1.2040
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 0.2408 (D) 1.9030
(C) 13 (D) 14
68. The value of [log10 (5 log10 100)]2 is :
59. A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did (A) 0 (B) 1
not want any body to know about him. One day, his (C) 2 (D) 10
wife asked, How many gold coins do we have? After
pausing a moment he replied, Well ! if divide the coins 69. If log10 [log10(log10x)] = 0.
into two unequal numbers, then 48 times the difference (A) x = 103 (B) x = 1010
between the two numbers equals the difference (C) x = 155 (D) None
between the square of the two numbers. The wife 70. If n = 67 then find the unit digit of [3n + 2n ].
looked puzzled. Can you help the merchants wife by (A) 1 (B) 10
finding out how many gold coins the merchant has ? (C) 5 (D) None
(A) 96 (B) 53 71. What is the decimal equivalent of the 25 digits of
(C) 43 (D) 48 hexadecimal number (100.....001)16 ?
60. 76n 66n, where n is an integer > 0, is divisible by : (A) 223 + 1 (B) 224 + 1
(A) 13 (B) 127 (C) 292 + 1 (D) 296 + 1
(C) 559 (D) All of these
72. If the decimal number 2111 is written in the octal system,
then what is its unit place digit ?
61. The value of 10 25 108 154 225 is : (A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10 1
73. If log 3 M 3 log 3 N = 1+ log 5, then :
3 0.008

1 1 1
62. log 10 1 + log 10 1 + log 10 1 + ... + 9 9 9 9
2 3 4 (A) M (B) N
N M
3 3 9 3
1 (C) M (D) N
log10 1 . When simplified has the value equal N M
1999
74. The value of x, when log3(log2 x) + 2 log9(log7 8) = 2, is :
to :
(A) 243 (B) 27
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 343 (D) 64
(C) 10 (D) 100
75. Find x if log10 1250 + log1080 = x.
63. Arrange the following rational number in ascending
(A) 5 (B) 4
3 4 7 1
order , , , . (C) 8 (D) 7
7 5 9 2
76. P, Q and R are three natural numbers such that P and
4 7 3 1 3 1 7 4
(A) , , , (B) , , , Q are primes and Q divides PR. Then out of the
5 5 9 2 7 2 9 5
following the correct statement is : [IJSO-2008]
4 7 1 3 1 3 7 4 (A) Q divides R (B) P divides R
(C) , , , (D) , , , (C) P divides QR (D) P divides PQ
5 9 2 7 2 7 9 5

PAGE # 4747
77. It is required to decide if 1107 is a prime number or 85. If 2009 = pa.qb, where "p" and "q" are prime numbers,
not. The number of trials of division necessary is : then find the value of p + q. [NSTSE 2009]
[IJSO-2008] (A) 3 (B) 48
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 51 (D) 2009
(C) 12 (D) 235
86. If HCF (p, q) = 12 and p q = 1800 n then LCM (p, q) is :
78. The number of integers between 8 and 32 is : [NSTSE 2010]
[NSTSE-2009] (A) 3600 (B) 900
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 150 (D) 90
(C) 7 (D) 8
x y 10
79. When expanded, the number of zeros in 100010 is : 87. If y + x
=
3
and x + y = 10, then the value of xy will
[NSTSE-2009]
(A) 13 (B) 30 be : [NSTSE 2010]
(C) 4 (D) 10 (A) 16 (B) 9
80. If a2 + 2b = 7, b2 + 4c = 7 and c2 + 6a = 14, then the (C) 2 (D) 10
value of (a2 + b2 + c2) is : [IJSO-2009] 88. The value of log10(3/2) + log10 (4/3) + ......... up to 99
(A) 14 (B) 25 terms. [IAO 2008]
(C) 36 (D) 47 (A) 0 (B) 2
81. Let N = 28, the sum of All distinct factors of N is : (C) 2.5 (D) None of the above
[IJSO-2009]
89. In the familiar decimal number system the base is 10.
(A) 27 (B) 28
In another number system using base 4, the counting
(C) 55 (D) 56
proceeds as 1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 20, 21 ....
82. The units digit of (1 + 9 + 92 + 93 + --------- + 92009) is : The twentieth number in this system will be :
[IJSO-2009] [IJSO-2010]
(A) 0 (B) 1 (A) 40 (B) 320
(C) 9 (D) 3 (C) 210 (D) 110

83. The biggest among the following is : [IJSO-2009] 90. If the eight digit number 2575d568 is divisible by 54
(A) 21/2 (B) 31/3 and 87, the value of the digit d is : [IJSO-2011]
(C) 61/6 (D) 81/8 (A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 0 (D) 8
84. If a, b 1, ab > 0, a b and logba = logab, then ab = ?
[IAO- 2009]
91. If x < 0 and log7 (x2 5x 65) = 0, then x is :
(A) 1/2 (B) 1
[IJSO-2011]
(C) 2 (D) 10 (A) 13 (B) 11
(C) 6 (D) 5

PAGE # 4848
 TRIGONOMETRY

ANGLE (ii) Centesimal system : In this system a right angle is

An angle is the amount of rotation of a revolving line
with respect to a fixed line. If the rotation is in
anticlock-wise sense, then the angle measured is
positive and if the rotation is in clock-wise sense,
then the angle measured is negative.
divided into 100 equal parts, called grades. Each grade
is sub divided into 100 minutes, and each minute into
100 seconds.
Thus, 1 right angle = 100 grades (100g)
1 grade = 100 minutes (100)
1 minute = 100 seconds (100)

(iii) Circular system : In this system the unit of

measurement is radian. One radian, written as 1c, is
the measure of an angle subtended at the centre of a
circle by an arc of length equal to the radius of the
circle.

QUADRANTS

Let XOX and YOY be two lines at right angles in a The number of radians is an angle subtended by an
plane. These lines divide the plane into four equal length of arc
arc of a circle at the centre is equal to .
parts are known as quadrants. The lines XOX and radius
YOY are known as X-axis and Y-axis respectively. s
=
These two lines taken together are known as the co- r
ordinate axes. The regions XOY, YOX, XOY and YOX Where, = angle in radian, s = arc length and r = radius.
are known as first, second, third and fourth quadrants
respectively. (b) Relation Between Three System of
Measurement of Angles :

D G 2R

90 100
Where, D = number of degrees,
G = number of grades,
and R = number of radians.

NOTE :

(i) The angle between two consecutive digits in a clock

is 30 = (/6 radians).

(ii) The hour hand rotates through an angle of 30 in

one hour, i.e. (1/2) in one minute.
(a) Systems of measurement of angles :
(iii) The minute hand rotates through an angle of 6 in
(i) Sexagesimal system (ii) Centesimal system
one minute.
(iii) Circular system
Ex.1 Express in radians 47 25 36.
(i) Sexagesimal system : In this system a right angle
is divided into 90 equal parts called degrees. Each '
36 3
'

degree is divided into 60 equal parts called minutes Sol. 47 25 = 47 25

60 5
and each minute is divided into 60 equal parts called
'
seconds. 128 128 1 32
= 47 = 47 = 47
Thus, 1 right angle = 90 degrees ( 90) 5 5 60 75
1 = 60 minutes (60) 3557

3557 c 3557 c
1 = 60 seconds (60) = = = .
75 75 180 13500

PAGE # 4949
Ex.2 Express in degrees : Ex.6 The angles in one regular polygon is to that in another
c as 3 : 2, also the number of sides in the first is twice
2
(a) (b) ( 2)c . that in the second ; how many sides do the polygons
15
c have ?
2 2 180
Sol. (a) = 24 Sol. Suppose the second regular polygon has number of
15 15
side = x.

180 The first regular polygon will have number of side = 2x.
(b) ( 2)c = 2

( 4 x 4)
Each angle of the first polygon = right angle
180

6
2x
= 7 ( 2) = 114 And each angle of the second polygon
22 11
( 2x 4)
6
'
8
' = right angle
= 114 60 = 114 32 x
11 11 4 x 4 2x 4
: =3:2
'' 2x x
8
= 114 32 60 4 x 4 6 x 12
11

x x
= 114 32 44.
4x 4 = 6x 12
Ex.3 Express in radians 345g 25 36.
Sol. 345g 25 36 = 345.2536g 2x = 8 x = 4.
The number of sides in the first and second polygons
3452536 c
= = 1.726268 c respectively are 8 and 4.
2000000
2x Ex.7 The radius of a certain circle is 30 cm, find the
Ex.4 One angle of a triangle is grades another is approximately length of an arc of this circle ; if the length
3
3x x of the chord of the arc be 30 cm.
degrees, whilst the third is radians ; express Sol. Let ABC be the circle whose centre is O and AC is
2 75
all angles in degrees. chord.
2 g 2 9 3 In AOC, AO = OC = AC = 30 cm.
Sol. x = x x
3 3 10 5
AOC = 60 =
3
x c x 12 x
And 180 = Hence,
75 75 5

3 3 12 arc AC = radius = 30 = 10 = 31.4159 cm.
But x + x + x = 180 3 3
5 2 5
6x + 15x + 24x = 1800 TRIGONOMETRY
45x = 1800
x = 40 Trigonometry means, the science which deals with
Hence, three angles of the triangle are 24, 60 and 96. the measurement of triangles.
Ex.5 The angles of a triangle are in A.P. and the number of Trigonometric Ratios :
degrees in the least is to the number of radians in the
greatest is 60 to c. Find the angles in degrees.
Sol. The three angles in A.P. ; if y is common difference, let
these angles be (x y), x and (x + y).
x + y + x + x y= 180
x = 60
According to the question.
( x y) 60 A right angled triangle is shown in Figure. B is of

c 90. Side opposite to B is called hypotenuse. There
(x y)
180 are two other angles i.e. A and C. If we consider

or (x y) = (x + y) 60 C as , then opposite side to this angle is called
180
3 (x y) = x + y perpendicular and side adjacent to is called base.
4y = 2x
(i) Six Trigonometric Ratios are :
y = x/2
60 Perpendicular P AB
y= = 30.
2 sin = Hypotenuse = =
Hence three angles are 30, 60 and 90. H AC

PAGE # 5050
 13
Hypotenuse H AC Ex.9 If cosec A = , then prove that :
cosec = = = 5
Perpendicular P AB tan A sin A = sin4A sec2 A.
2 2

13 Hypotenuse
Base B BC Sol. We have cosec A = = .
cos = = = 5 Perpendicular
Hypotenuse H AC
So, we draw a right triangle ABC, right angled at C
Hypotenuse H AC such that Hypotenuse AB = 13 units and perpendicular
sec = = = BC = 5 units
Base B BC
By pythagoras theorem,
Perpendicu lar P AB AB2 = BC2 + AC2 (13)2 = (5)2 + AC2
tan = = = 2
AC = 169 25 = 144
Base B BC
AC = 144 = 12 units
Base B BC
cot = = = BC 5 BC 5
Perpendicular P AB tan A = = and sin A = =
AC 12 AB 13
(ii) Interrelationship in Basic Trigonometric Ratios : AB 13 B
and sec A = =
AC 12
1 1
tan = cot =
cot tan L.H.S tan2 A sin2 A
2 2 13
5 5 5
1 1 =
cos = sec = 12 13
sec cos
A
25 25 C 12
=
1 1 144 169
sin = cos ec cosec =
sin 25(169 144 )
=
We also observe that 144 169

sin cos 25 25
tan = and cot = =
cos sin 144 169

m R.H.S. sin4A sec2 A

Ex.8 If tan = , then find sin 4 2
n 5 13
=
13 12
Sol. Let P = m and B = n
5 4 13 2
=
P m 13 4 12 2
tan = =
B n 54 25 25
= =
13 12 2
2 144 169
So, L.H.S = R.H.S Hence Proved.

Ex.10 In ABC, right angled at B, AC + AB = 9 cm and

BC = 3 cm. Determine the value of cot C, cosec C, sec C.
Sol. In ABC, we have
(AC)2 = (AB)2 + BC2
(9 AB)2 = AB2 + (3)2 C
H2 = P2 + B2 [ AC + AB = 9cm AC = 9 AB]
81 + AB2 18AB = AB2 + 9
H2 = m22 + n22 72 18 AB = 0
5cm
72 3cm
H = m 2 n2 AB = = 4 cm.
18
Now, AC + AB = 9 cm
P m A B
sin = = AC = 9 4 = 5 cm 4cm
H m2 n 2 BC 3 AC 5
So, cot C = , cosec C = ,
m AB 4 AB 4
sin = .
m n2
2 AC 5
sec C = .
BC 3

PAGE # 5151
 TR IG O N O M E T R I C RA TIO S O F
TRIGONOMETRIC TABLE COMPLEMENTARY ANGLES

sin (90 ) = cos cos (90 ) = sin

tan (90 ) = cot cot (90 ) = tan

sec (90 ) = cosec cosec (90 ) = sec

cot 54 tan 20
Ex.14 2.
tan 36 cot 70

cot 54 tan 20
Sol. 2
tan 36 cot 70

cot( 90 36 ) tan( 90 70 )
= + 2
tan 36 cot 70

tan 36 cot 70
Ex.11 Given that cos (A B) = cos A cos B + sin A sinB, find = + 2
tan 36 cot 70
the value of cos15.
Sol. Putting A = 45 and B = 30 [cot (90 ) = tan and tan (90 ) = cot ]
We get = 1 + 1 2 = 0.
cos (45 30) = cos 45 cos 30 + sin 45 sin 30
1 3 1 1 2 sin 68 2 cot 15
Ex.15.
cos 15 = + cos 22 5 tan 75
2 2 2 2
3 tan 45 tan 20 tan 40 tan 50 tan 70
3 1 .
cos 15 = . 5
2 2
2 sin 68 2 cot 15
Ex.12 A Rhombus of side of 10 cm has two angles of 60 Sol.
cos 22 5 tan 75
each. Find the length of diagonals and also find its
area. 3 tan 45 tan 20 tan 40 tan 50 tan 70

Sol. Let ABCD be a rhombus of side 10 cm and 5
BAD = BCD = 60. Diagonals of parallelogram 2 sin( 90 22 ) 2 cot( 90 75 )
=
bisect each other. cos 22 5 tan 75
So, AO = OC and BO = OD 3(1)(tan 20 tan 70 )(tan 40 tan 50 )

In right triangle AOB 5
D C
OB 2 cos 22 2 tan 75
sin 30 = =
AB cos 22 5 tan 75
1 OB
= O 3[tan( 90 70 ) tan 70 ][tan( 90 50 ) tan 50 ]
2 10
OB = 5 cm 5
30
BD = 2(OB) A B 2 3
=2 (cot 70 tan 70) (cot 50 tan 50)
BD = 2 ( 5 ) 5 5
BD = 10 cm [ t an ( 90 ) = c ot , c ot ( 90 ) = ta n &
OA sin (90 ) = cos]
cos 30 =
AB 2 3
3 OA =2 = 2 1 = 1.
= 5 5
2 10
Ex.16 If sin 3A = cos (A 26) where 3A is an acute angle,
OA = 5 3
find the value of A.
AC = 2(OA) Sol. sin 3A = cos (A 26)
AC = 2 ( 5 3 ) = 10 3 cm cos (90 3A) = cos (A 26)

So, the length of diagonals AC = 10 3 cm & BD = 10 cm. [ sin = cos(90 ]

1 90 3A = A 26
Area of Rhombus = AC BD
2 4A = 116
1 A = 29
= 10 3 10 = 50 3 cm2.
2

PAGE # 5252
AREA OF TRIANGLE

In a ABC, a & b are the length of 2 sides of triangle

and is the included angle between them.
1
Then, Area of triangle = ab sin
2
Proof :

Ex.17 A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 8 m

above water level. He observes the angle of elevation
of the top of a hill as 60 and the angle of depression of
the base of the hill as 30. Calculate the distance of the
hill from the ship and the height of the hill.
Sol. Let x be distance of hill from man and h + 8 be height of
hill which is required.

Const. : Draw a line from B perpendicular to AC,

i.e.BD AC
BD
sin = BD = a sin
a
1
Area of triangle = base height
2
1
= b BD
2
1 1
= b a sin = ab sin
2 2 In right triangle ACB,
AC h
tan 60 =
ANGLE OF ELEVATION BC x
h
In order to see an object which is at a higher level 3 =
x
compared to the ground level we are to look up. The
In right triangle BCD,
line joining the object and the eye of the observer is
CD 8
known as the line of sight and the angle which this line tan 30 =
BC x
of sight makes with the horizontal drawn through the
1 8
eye of the observer is known as the angle of elevation.

3 x x=8 3
Therefore, the angle of elevation of an object
helps in finding out its height (Figure). Height of hill = h + 8

= 3 .x + 8 = 3 8 3 + 8 = 32 m.

Distance of ship from hill = x = 8 3 m.

Ex.18 A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is

surmounted by a vertical flag staff of height 5 meters.
At a point on the plane, the angle of elevation of the
bottom and the top of the flag staff are respectively 30
and 60. Find the height of tower.
Sol. Let AB be the tower of height h metre and BC be the
height of flag staff surmounted on the tower.
ANGLE OF DEPRESSION
Let the point on the plane be D at a distance x meter
When the object is at a lower level than the observers from the foot of the tower
eyes, he has to look downwards to have a view of the In ABD
AB 1 h
object. In that case, the angle which the line of sight tan 30 = =
makes with the horizontal through the observers eye AD 3 x
is known as the angle of depression (Figure). x= 3h .....(i)

PAGE # 5353
 1 3000
= xy ( AB = CD)
3
x + y = 3000 3 .......(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)

x + 3000 = 3000 3

x = 3000 3 3000 x = 3000 ( 3 1)

x = 3000 (1.732 1) x = 3000 0.732
x = 2196 m.
Dis tan ce covered
Speed of Aeroplane =
Time taken
In ADC
2196
AC = m/sec
tan 60 = 15
AD
2196 18
5h = Km/hr
3 = 15 5
x
= 527.04 Km/hr
5h
x= ......(ii) Hence, the speed of aeroplane is 527.04 Km/hr.
3
From (i) and (ii) Ex.20 If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point h
5h metres above a lake is and the angle of depression
3 h= of its reflection in the lake is , prove that the distance
3
3h = 5 + h 2h = 5 of the cloud from the point of observation is

5 2h sec
h= = 2.5 m .
2 tan tan
So, the height of tower = 2.5 m Sol. Let AB be the surface of the lake and let C be a point of
observation such that AC = h metres. Let D be the
Ex.19 The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point
position of the cloud and D be its reflection in the lake.
on the ground is 45. After a flight of 15 sec, the elevation
Then BD = BD.
changes to 30. If the aeroplane is flying at a height of In DCE
3000 metres, find the speed of the aeroplane.
Sol. Let the point on the ground is E which is y metres from
point B and let after 15 sec flight it covers x metres
distance.
In AEB

AB
tan 45 =
EB
DE
3000 tan =
CE
1= y
H
y= 3000 m .......(i) CE = ......(i)
tan
In CED In CED
CD ED'
tan 30 = tan =
ED EC

PAGE # 5454
 hHh 4. Angle between the minute hand of a clock and hour
CE =
tan hand when the time is 7 : 20 am is :
2h H (A) 80 (B) 100
CE = .......(ii)
tan
(C) 120 (D) 140
From (i) & (ii) 7
5. Degree measure of is :
H 2h H 6
= (A) 210 (B) 240
tan tan
H tan = 2h tan + H tan (C) 270 (D) None
H tan H tan = 2h tan a a sin b cos
6. If tan = then value of is =
H (tan tan ) = 2h tan b a sin b cos
2h tan a2 b2 a 2 b2
H= ........(iii) (A) (B)
tan tan a2 b2 a2 b2
In DCE a 1
(C) (D)
DE a 2 b2 a 2 b2
sin =
CD
DE 7. If tan 15 = 2 3 , then the value of cot2 75 is :
CD =
sin
(A) 7 + 3 (B) 7 2 3
H
CD = (C) 7 4 3 (D) 7 + 4 3
sin
Substituting the value of H from (iii) 4 3
8. If a = cot2 30 + 3 sin2 60 3 cosec2 60 tan2 30
2h tan 3 4
CD = and b = 3 tan2 45 + cos 0 cot 90 then logb(a) is :
tan tan sin
sin (A) 2 (B) 1
2h
cos 1 1
CD = (C) (D)
tan tan sin 2 2
2h sec
CD = 9. The angles of the triangles ABC and DEF are given as
tan tan
follows : A = 900, B = 300, D = 900 and E = 300. If the side
Hence, the distance of the cloud from the point of
BC is twice the side EF, which of the following statement
2h sec
observation is . Hence Proved. is true?
tan tan
(A) Sin B = 2 Sin E (B) Sin E = 2 Sin B
(C) Sin B = Sin E (D) Sin A = Sin B

1. Radian measure of 175 45 is : 10. The value of the expression

700 703 4 3
(A) (B) cot2 30 + 3sin2 60 2cosec2 60 tan2 30 is :
720 720 3 4
20
(A) 1 (B)
705 710 3
(C) (D)
10
720 720
(C) (D) 5
3
c
1 11. The value of the expression
2. Degree measure of is :
4
5 sin2 30 cos 2 45 4 tan 2 60
(A) 15 195 (B) 14 19 5 is :
2 sin 30 cos 60 tan 45
(C) 15 18 6 (D) 14 18 6
(A) 4 (B) 9
3. A horse is tied to a post by a rope. If the horse moves
53 55
along a circular path always keep the rope tight and (C) (D)
12 6
describes 88 metres when it has traced out 72 at the
centre, then the length of rope is : 12. The value of tan 5 tan 10 tan 15 tan 20...... tan 85 is :
(A) 60 m (B) 65 m (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 70 m (D) 72 m (C) 3 (D) None

PAGE # 5555
 1 21. If each of , and is a positive acute angle such that

13. If + = and sin = , then sin is :
2 3 1 1
sin ( + ) = , cos( + ) = and
2 2
2 2 2 tan ( + ) = 1, then the values of , and is :
(A) (B)
3 3
(A) 45, 45 & 90 (B) 60, 45 & 75
2 3
(C) (D) 1 1
3 4 (C) 37 , 45 & 52 (D) none
2 2

14. If 7 sin = 24 cos ; 0 < < , then value of 1
2 22. If tan (A B) = and tan (A + B) = 3 ,
14 tan 75 cos 7 sec is equal to : 3
0 < A + B 90, A > B. Then the value of A and B is :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(A) 45, 30 (B) 45, 15
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) 60, 30 (D) none

23. If A, B, C are the interior angles of a triangle ABC, then
tan is equal to :
15. If tan = 4, then A B
sin 3
sin cos cos equals to :
cos 2
C C
(A) 0 (B) 2 2 (A) cos (B) sec
2 2
(C) 2 (D) 1
C C
16. Find the value of x from the equation : (C) cosec (D) sin
2 2

cot 2 sec tan 24. An aeroplane when flying at a height 2500 m from the

x sin cos 2
6 3 4 ground, passes vertically above another aeroplane. At
6 4 cos ec 2 cos ec
an instant when the angles of elevation of the two
4 6
aeroplanes from the same point on the ground are 45
(A) 4 (B) 6 and 30 respectively, then the vertical distance between
(C) 2 (D) 0 the two aeroplanes at that instant is :
(A) 1158 m (B) 1058 m
17. The area of a triangle is 12 sq. cm. Two sides are 6 cm
(C) 1008 m (D) none
and 12 cm. The included angle is :
25. The shadow of a tower is 30 metres when the suns
1 1 altitude is 30. When the suns altitude is 60, then the
(A) cos1 (B) cos1 6
3 length of shadow will be :
(A) 60 m (B) 15 m
1 1 (C) 10 m (D) 5m
(C) sin1 6 (D) sin1
3
26. The angles of elevation of the top of a vertical tower
18. If + = 90 and = 2, then cos2 + sin2 equals to : from two points 30 metres apart, and on the same
straight line passing through the base of tower, are
1
(A) (B) 0 300 and 600 respectively. The height of the tower is :
2
(A) 10 m (B) 15 m
(C) 1 (D) 2
(C) 15 3 m (D) 30 m
19. The difference between two angles is 19 and their
890 27. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 200
sum is grades. Find the greater angle. metres above a lake is 30 and the angle of depression
9
(A) 63 (B) 35 of its reflection in the lake is 60, then the height of the
(C) 27 (D) 54 cloud (in metres) above the lake is :
(A) 200 (B) 300
1 (C) 500 (D) none
20. If and are angles in the first quadrant, tan = ,
7
28. The angle of elevation of the top of tower from the top
1
sin = , then using the formula sin (A + B) = sin A and bottom of a building h metre high are and , then
10 the height of tower is :
cos B + cos A sin B, one can find the value of ( + 2) to
(A) h sin cos / sin ( + )
be : (B) h cos cos / sin()
(A) 0 (B) 45 (C) h cos sin / sin()
(C) 60 (D) 90 (D) None of these

PAGE # 5656
29. When a eucalyptus tree is broken by strong wind, its 35. The trigonometric expression
top strikes the ground at an angle of 30 to the ground
sec 1 sin 1
and at a distance of 15 m from the foot. What is the cot2 + sec2 has the value
height of the tree? 1 sin 1 sec

[IJSO-2009]
(A) 15 3 m (B) 10 3 m
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 20 m (D) 10 m (C) 1 (D) 2
30. A man at the top of a vertical lighthouse, observes a 36. (1 + tan2 ) / (1 + cot2 ) = [IJSO-2009]
boat coming directly towards it.If it takes 20 minutes (A) tan2 (B) cot2
for the angle of depression to change from 30 to 60, (C) sec2 (D) cosec2
the time taken by the boat to reach the lighthouse from
the point when the angle of depression was 30, is : 37. If cos + sin = 2 cos, then cos sin = ?
(A) 30 minutes (B) 20 minutes
[NSTSE 2009]
(C) 10 minutes (D) 5 minutes
(A) 2 tan (B) 2 sin
31. In a triangle ABC, the internal bisector of the angle A
meets BC at D. If AB = 4, AC = 3 and A = 60, then 2
(C) (D) none of these.
the length of AD is : cos sin
12 3 38. The tops of two poles of heights 20m and 14m are
(A) 2 3 (B)
7 connected by a wire. If the wire makes an angle of 30
15 3 with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is :
(C) (D) None of these
8
[NSTSE 2009]
32. The expression (1 tan A + sec A) (1 cot A + cosec (A) 40 m (B) 12 m
A) has value : [IJSO-2008] (C) 28 m (D) 68 m
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) + 1 (D) + 2 2 3 4 x 1
39. If sin 2 1 . 2 . 3 ...... x 2 = 1, 0 < x < 100, then the

33. A person on the top of a tower observes a scooter
moving with uniform velocity towards the base of the value of x is equal to : [NSTSE 2010]
tower. He finds that the angle of depression changes (A) 91 (B) 80
from 30 to 60 in 18 minutes. The scooter will reach (C) 49 (D) 46
the base of the tower in next : [IJSO-2008]
1 sin x 1 sin x cos x
(A) 9 minutes 40. If p = ,q= ,r= , then
1 sin x cos x 1 sin x
(B) 18 / ( 3 1) minutes Which one of the following statement is correct ?
[NSTSE-2010]
(C) 6 3 minutes
(A) p = q r (B) q = r p
(D) the time depends upon the height of the tower (C) r = p q (D) p = q = r
34. In the diagram, PTR and QRS are straight lines. Given 41. If sin + cosec = 2, then [sin8 + cosec8 ] will have
4 the value : [IJSO-2010]
that, tan x = and "T" is the midpoint of PR, calculate
3 (A) 2 (B) 24
the length of PQ, in cm. [NSTSE 2009] (C) 26 (D) 28
S
42. An aeroplane is flying horizontally at a height of
x
3 cm

3150 m above a horizontal plane ground. At a

particular instant it passes another aeroplane verti-
T
R P cally below it. At this instant, the angles of elevation of
the planes from a point on the ground are 30 and 60.
6 cm

Hence, the distance between the two planes at that

instant is :
[IJSO-2011]
Q (A) 1050 m. (B) 2100 m.
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 4200 m. (D) 5250 m.
(C) 59 (D) 10

PAGE # 5757
 PROTOPLASM
INTRODUCTION
All the living organisms are essentially formed of
numerous coordinated compartments called as cells.
Every cell basically formed of two functional regions
as plasma membrane and protoplasm. The ground
substance of protoplasm, after removing nucleus, all
the cell organelles and cell inclusions, is called
hyaloplasm/ cytoplasm. It consists of high water
contents containing various compounds of biological
importance, some of which are soluble in water e.g.
glucose, amino acids, minerals etc. while some of
these are insoluble in water e.g. lipids.
Physical Properties :
(i) Protoplasm is a polyphasic colloidal system.
(ii) Its specific gravity is slightly above that of water.
(iii) Its viscosity has been found to be like that of
glycerin.
(iv) It has power of responding to external stimuli, like
heat, electric shocks, application of chemicals
etc.This property of protoplasm is called irritability.
(v) It exhibits streaming movement e.g. rotatory
movements in the leaves of aquatic plants like Hydrilla
and Vallisneria.
(vi) Amoeboid movement of the protoplasm can also
be noticed in myxomycetes and Amoeba.
(vii) In general, the pH of cytoplasm is slightly acidic
i.e. 6.8, however pH of the nucleoplasm is 7.6 to 7.8.
Chemical Properties :
The collection of various types of biomolecules of a
cell collectively form cellular pool. Elements do not
occur in free form but combines to form organic
molecules and inorganic molecules. Organic and
inorganic compounds occur in a ratio of 9 : 1. Cellular
pool is mainly constituted by :
Inorganic materials include salts, minerals and water.
These materials generally occur in aqueous phase
which contains molecules and ions dissolved in water.
Organic compounds as carbohydrates, lipids, amino
acids, proteins, nucleic acids and vitamins.
These molecules usually occur in aqueous and non
aqueous phase.
(a) Inorganic Compounds :
The inorganic substances include salts, minerals and
water.
(A) Minerals: These occur in ionic state and form only
1-3 % of cellular pool. Cellular functions fail to occur
in the absence of proper ionic balance in the cell
cytoplasm and extracellular fluid.
A compound which releases H+ ion when dissolved
in water is called as an acid, e.g., HCl, H2SO4 etc. and
base releases OH- ion, e.g., NaOH, KOH etc.
Salt is a compound formed, when an acid and a base
react with each other.
A cell has many salts of Na+, K+, Ca++ and Cl-, HCO3-,
PO4-3 etc.
A large amount of minerals also occur as hard deposits
as crystals within the cell.
The salt concentration in cells and in body fluids is of
great importance for normal cell functioning.
(B) Gases: Oxygen, carbon dioxide , nitrogen and
other gases are also present in protoplasm.
(C) Water : Water is not an organic molecule because
it does not contain carbon. The bonding properties of
water account for some of its characteristics, which
are very important to living organisms.
(i) Water is the main component of cell contents and
body fluid.
(ii) It is neutral with pH 7. It ionises to H+ and OH- ion.
Phospholipids, nucleic acids and proteins by
accepting or donating H+ ions from water attain specific
ionic state.
(iii) It forms an average 55 to 60% of living material.
(iv) Water dissolves more substances in it than any
other liquid due to it's highest known dielectric
constant (the measure of capacity to neutralize the
attraction between electric charges).Only polar
molecules dissolve in water.
(v) It is generally non toxic to the cell. Colloids like
starch, glycogen and protein remain dispersed in
water in cell cytoplasm.
(vi) It is a medium of heat exchange and transfer.
(vii) It participates in chemical reactions both as a
reactant and a product. It forms an ideal medium for
chemical reactions, because dissolved molecules can
make intimate contact.
(viii) It acts as a lubricating and protective fluid.
(b) Organic Compounds :
A large series of covalent compounds are formed with
the help of carbon, hydrogen and some other
elements. These are called as organic compounds.
Their special properties distinguish them from
inorganic compounds found in living bodies.
(i) Carbohydrates :
Carbohydrates can be chiefly composed of carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen. In this hydrogen and oxygen
atoms are present in a ratio of 2 : 1. As in carbohydrates
hydrogen and oxygen are present therefore these are
also termed as hydrates of carbon.
PAGE # 59
 Carbohydrates have general formula as Cn H2n On.
Carbohydrates are widely distributed in plant tissues
and in animal tissues. In animals they are in the form
of glucose and glycogen. In plants they are in the form
of cellulose and starch.
One gram of carbohydrate yields about 4 kilocalories
of energy.
Carbohydrates can be defined chemically as aldehyde
or ketone derivatives or the poly hydric (more than one
OH group) alcohol and their derivatives.
Carbohydrates can be further divided as :
(A) Monosaccharides (B) Disaccharides
(C) Polysaccharides
(A) Monosaccharides : These sugars cannot be
hydrolyzed into simpler forms. They have the general
formula C n H 2n O n . The simplest types of
monosaccharides are glyceraldehyde and
dihydroxyacetone. Depending upon the number of
carbon atoms present, these can be further subdivided
into trioses (e.g. Glyceraldehyde), tetrose
(e.g. Erythrose), pentoses (e.g. Ribose, Deoxyribose )
etc. Generally if free H is present at carbon 1 the
sugar is an aldose but if a CH2OH group is substituted,
the sugar is a ketose. They have reducing property
due to the presence of aldehyde or ketone group
present in them. Some examples are as follows :
Glucose : It is a hexose. It 's formula is C6 H12 O6 . It is
normally found in fruit juice and formed in the body by
the hydrolysis of starch, cane sugar, maltose and
lactose. Glucose is said to be the sugar of the body. It
is a principal sugar in blood, serving the tissue as a
major metabolic fuel. Normal level of blood glucose
is 80 120 mg / 100 ml of blood. When the blood
sugar level exceeds the threshold value i.e. 180 mg /
100 ml, glucose begins to appear in the urine. This
condition is called as glycosuria.
Structure of glucose
O about 90%.
II
CH
I carbohydrates and is found in cereals, potatoes,
H C OH
I CH2OH
HO C H
I O
H C OH H H H Glucose molecules) and Amylopectin (a branched
I chain of about 2000-20,000 -Glucose molecules.).
H C OH OH OH H OH
I colour with iodine solution.
CH2OH H OH
Ring structure of glucose
Glucose simple chain
Note : The simple ring structure of glucose is given by
Haworth.
Fructose : Fructose or fruit sugar is also known as
levulose. Similar to glucose it is a ketohexose and
less readily absorbed by tissue cells. It is obtained by
the hydrolysis of cane sugar.
Galactose : It is found in milk sugar or lactose along
with glucose. It is synthesized in the mammary glands
and combines with glucose to make the lactose of
milk. In the liver it can be changed to glucose and thus
used in the body. It is a part of glycolipids and
glycoproteins.
(B) Disaccharides : The disaccharides are sugars
composed of two molecules of the same or different
monosaccharides, united by a glycosidic linkage.
They have a general formula Cn (H2O)n1 . These
include maltose, lactose , sucrose.
Maltose: They consist of two glucose residues. It's
occurrence have been reported in germinating cereals
and malt. It is the major product of enzymatic
hydrolysis of starch.
Lactose: It is found in milk to the extent of about 5%.
Upon hydrolysis it yields a mixture of galactose and
glucose.
Sucrose : A single molecule of sucrose consists of
one glucose and one fructose molecule. It is the
common sugar of commerce and the kitchen. It is
derived commercially from either cane sugar or occurs
in varying amount in a variety of fruits, seeds, leaves ,
flowers, roots and in maple sugar.
On hydrolysis it yields an equimolar mixture of glucose
and fructose.
(C) Polysaccharides : Polysaccharides (Glycans)
are those which yield more than six molecules of
monosaccharides on hydrolysis. It's general formulae
is (C6 H10 O5)n. It's examples are as follows :
Cellulose : It is the chief constituent of the frame work
of plants, constituting 50% or more of all carbon in
vegetation. It is a linear and unbranched
homopolysaccharide of about 6000 to 10,000 - D
Glucose molecules.
Mammals do not have cellulase enzyme and therefore
cannot digest wood & vegetable fibers.
Purest form of cellulose is found in cotton which is
Starch : It is the most important food source of
legumes and other vegetables. Chemically, the starch
is formed of two glucose polymers : -Amylose (an
unbranched but spiral chain of about 200-2000 -
Natural starch is insoluble in water and gives a blue
Glycogen : The counterpart of starch in the animal
body is glycogen thats why it is also called as animal
starch, which occurs in significant amount in liver and
muscles. Glycogen is non reducing sugar which
gives red colour with iodine. It is a branched
homopolysaccharide formed of about 30,000 -
D-Glucose molecules.
Note : Glycosidic linkage: The linkage between the
hydroxyl groups of two monosaccharide molecules
with the release of one molecule of water.
PAGE # 60
 Biological significance of carbohydrates :
Essential Non-Essential Sem i-Essential
Carbohydrates serve as an important structural Am ino acids Am ino acids Am ino acids
material in some animals and in all plants, where
they constitute the cellulose framework. Is oleucine Alanine Arginine

Carbohydrates are essential for life. Almost all animals Leucine As pargine His tidine
use them as respiratory fuel. In animal cells, Methionine As partic acid
carbohydrates are in the form of glucose and glycogen, Phenylalanine Cys teine
which serve as an important source of energy for the
Threonine Glutam ic acid
vital activities.
Tryptophan Glutam ine
Carbohydrates play a key role in the metabolism of Valine Glycine
amino acids and fatty acids.
Lys ine Proline
Some carbohydrates have highly specific functions Serine
e.g. ribose in the nucleoprotein of the cells, galactose
Tyros ine
in certain lipids and the lactose of milk.
Note : Peptide bond : Polypeptide and simple protein
(ii) Protein : The name protein is derived from the
consist entirely of long chain of amino acids linked
Greek word proteios, which means"Of the first
together by peptide bonds formed between the
rank". This was coined by Berzelius in 1838. Proteins
carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group
are the complex nitrogenous substances found in the
of other amino acid. A molecule of water is released
cells of animals and plants. Chemically proteins are
out during bond formation.
polymers of molecular units called as amino acids.
These polymers contain carbon, oxygen, nitrogen and H H O H H O
I I II I I II
hydrogen atoms. Usually sulphur atoms are also H N C C OH H N C C OH
present .Certain proteins contain phosphorus or some I I
R1 R2
trace metal elements, such as copper, iron etc. in
addition to the other elements. The proteins have high H H O H H O
molecular weight. One gram of protein yields 4 I I II I I II
HNCC N C C OH
kilocalories of energy. The amino acids found in a I I
molecule of protein are linked together by peptide R1 R2
bonds. The general structure of a amino acid is Peptide bond formation
represented by the following formula :
Biological significance of proteins :
They act as a structural components of cell. They are
essential for growth and repair of the body.
All the enzymes are made up of proteins. They help to
catalyze various reactions occurring in our body.
The R group is variable in different amino acids.
They play important roles as hormones, antibodies, etc.
Amino acids can react with acid and base both, this is
due to the presence of carboxyl and amino groups in Haemoglobin , the respiratory pigment of animals is
them. There are about 20 amino acids that take part a conjugated protein composed of colourless basic
in the formation of proteins. The 20 amino acids are protein the globin and haem.
further divided into three groups : (iii) Lipid : Term lipid was coined by Bloor. Fats and
their derivatives are collectively known as lipids (In
Essential amino acids : They are 8 in number. They greek Lipas = fat). The principal component
are not synthesized in a human body and are obtained associated with most lipids are the fatty acids. The
from food etc. are called as essential amino acids. lipids are a heterogenous groups of substances which
have the common property of being relatively insoluble
Non essential amino acids : They are 10 in number.
in water and soluble in non polar solvents such as
They are synthesized in a human body and are termed
ether, chloroform and benzene. They consist of
as non essential amino acids.
comparatively less oxygen. One gram of fat yields 9
Semiessential amino acids : They are two in number kilocalories of energy. Similar or different fatty acids
and needed by growing children and lactating and participate in the composition of a fat molecule. The
pregnant women. lipids include fats, oils, ghee, waxes and related
compounds.

PAGE # 61
 Note : Lipids generally consist of a single molecule
of glycerol and three molecules of fatty acids joined
together by ester bonds. Therefore these are also
termed as triglycerides. Three molecules of water
are released during the formation of triglycerides.
Biological significance of lipids :
They takes part in the synthesis of steroids, hormones,
vitamin D, bile salts etc.
They act as a solvent for fat soluble vitamins i.e. vitamin
A , D, E and K.
They act as storage compounds in animals, in the
fruits and seeds of plants and in other organism.
They act as structural cellular components particularly
in cell membranes. They are found in the form of
phospholipids, glycolipids and sterols.
They act as insulators. They provide electrical and
thermal insulation. They are deposited beneath the
skin and other internal organs to reduce the heat loss.
They also work as shock absorbers and other
mechanical impacts.
(iv) Nucleic acids : These are the hereditary materials
of living organisms. There are two types of nucleic
acids :
(A) DNA (Deoxyribose nucleic acids) : DNA is coiled
macromolecule made of two antiparallel chains held
together by hydrogen bonds. DNA has diameter of 20
. One turn of spiral has a distance of 34 and distance
between two adjacent nucleotides is 3.4 .
Nucleotides : A single nucleotide consist of following
parts :
Pentose sugar : It is a 5 - carbon containing sugar
which is ribose is RNA and deoxyribose in DNA.
Nitrogen bases : There are two types of purines which
include adenine (A), and guanine (G) and pyrimidines
which include thymine (T), uracil (U) and cytosine (C).
In DNA adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine
present while in RNA uracil is present in place of
thymine.
Phosphate group : PO4-3 group in the form of H3PO4
(B) RNA : (Ribonucleic acid) Structure of RNA is
fundamentally the same as DNA but there are some
differences. The differences are as follows.
In place of deoxyribose sugar of DNA, there is a
presence of ribose sugar in RNA.
In place of nitrogen base, thymine present in DNA
there is a nitrogen base uracil in RNA.
RNA is made up of only one polynucleotide chain i.e.
RNA is single stranded.
In RNA, polynucleotide chain runs in 3' 5' direction.
Exception : RNA found in Reovirus is double
stranded i.e. it has two polynucleotide chains.
Types of RNA- A cell contains three types of RNA :
1. Ribosomal RNA (r RNA) : This RNA is 80% of the
cell's total RNA. It is the most stable form of RNA. It is
found in ribosomes and it is produced in nucleolus.
They are present as 80 S type of ribosome in
eukaryotic cells and 70 S type of ribosome in
prokaryotic cells. It is the site of protein synthesis.
2. Transfer RNA (t RNA) :
It is 10 15% of total RNA
It is synthesized in the nucleus by DNA.
It is also known as soluble RNA.
It is also known as adapter RNA.
It is the smallest RNA. At the time of protein synthesis
it acts as a carrier of amino acids.
It has the most complex structure.
3. Messenger RNA (m RNA) : The m RNA is 1 5 %
of the cells total RNA. The m RNA is produced by
genetic DNA in the nucleus. This process is called as
transcription, m RNA is also called as template
RNA. It acts as the template for protein synthesis.
(v) Enzymes : Enzymes are protein catalysts for
biochemical reactions in the living cells. The
substance which increases reaction rate is called as
catalyst and the phenomenon is called as catalysis.
The term enzyme is derived from Greek word which
means 'in yeast' because the yeast cells were the
first to reveal enzyme activity in living organisms.
Enzyme was first introduced by W. Kuhne in 1878.
Berzelius was the first to define and recognize the
nature of catalyst. In 1926 J.B Sumner isolated the
enzyme urease as a crystalline protein for the first
time. Enzymes could be intracellular and extracellular
enzymes. When the enzymes remain and function
inside the cells, they are called as endoenzymes or
intracellular enzymes. The enzymes which leave the
cell and function outside the cell are called extra
cellular enzymes.
General properties of enzymes :
They remain unaltered at the end.
They are required in small quantities.
They accelerate the rate of reaction.
They are proteinaceous in nature.
Enzymes are highly specific towards substrate.
Certain enzymes exhibit the property of reversibility.
(vi) Pigments :
The coloured substance found in the living being is
called as pigment. The beauty of nature is due to
animals, birds and flowers having different pigments.
The living beings depend on sun for energy. The green
pigment in nature is called as chlorophyll, can only
PAGE # 62
 store light energy obtained from the sun, in the form of
10. Which of the following is a monosaccharide ?
chemical energy. Thus, chlorophyll is the nutritional
(A) pentose sugar (B) hexose sugar
basis of life on earth. The colour of our skin is due to
(C) glucose (D) all of the above
the pigment melanin. Haemoglobin & haemocyanin
pigments play an important role in transportation of 11. The process of m-RNA synthesis on a DNA template
oxygen in the body of living beings. Pigments belong is known as
to the group carotenoid are found in both plants and (A) translation (B) transcription
animals. (C) transduction (D) transformation

BIOCHEMICAL REACTIONS 12. Which amino acid is non essential for a human body ?
(A) Glycine (B) Phenylalanine
The reactions undergoing inside a living cell to sustain (C) Arginine (D) Methionine
life are called as biochemical reactions. The biological
13. Double helix model of DNA was proposed by
system can't use heat liberated in biological reactions
(A) Watson and Crick
directly as they are isothermic so the biological
(B) Schleiden and Schwann
systems use chemical energy (ATP) to perform various
(C) Singer and Nicholson
living processes. Biochemical reactions are catabolic
(D) Kornberg and Khurana
(breakdown/exergonic reactions) and anabolic
(synthetic reactions), collectively they are called as 14. Which of the following nitrogen base is not found in
metabolic reactions. DNA ?
(A) Thymine (B) Cytosine
(C) Guanine (D) Uracil
EXERCISE
15. Glycogen is a / an
(A) polymer of amino acids
1. Which of the following is a disaccharide ?
(B) polymer of fatty acids
(A) Galactose (B) Fructose
(C) unsaturated fat
(C) Maltose (D) Dextrin
(D) polymer of glucose units
2. Nucleic acids are made up of
16. Carbohydrate is a
(A) amino acids (B) pentose sugars
(A) polymer of fatty acids
(C) nucleosides (D) nucleotides
(B) polymer of amino acids
3. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate ? (C) polyhydric aldehyde or ketone
(A) Starch (B) Glycogen (D) none of the above
(C) Wax (D) Glucose 17. In which form, food stored in animal body ?
4. To get quick energy one should use (A) Glucose (B) Glycogen
(A) carbohydrates (B) fats (C) Cellulose (D) ATP
(C) vitamins (D) proteins 18. Chemically enzymes are
5. Circular and double stranded DNA occurs in (A) fats (B) carbohydrates
(A) golgi body (B) mitochondria (C) hydrocarbons (D) proteins
(C) nucleus (D) cytoplasm 19. Long chain molecules of fatty acids are obtained by
6. The most abundant protein in human body is (A) polymerisation of two carbon compounds
(A) collagen (B) myosin (B) decomposition of fats
(C) actin (D) albumin (C) polymerisation of glycogen
(D) conversion of glycogen
7. Which is not a polysaccharide ?
(A) Sucrose (B) Starch 20. The amino acids which are not synthesized in the
(C) Glycogen (D) Cellulose body are called as
(A) nonessential
8. The decreasing order of the amount of organic
(B) essential
compounds, present in an animal body is
(C) deaminated
(A) carbohydrates, proteins, fats, and nucleic acid
(D) all of them are correct
(B) proteins, fats, nucleic acid and carbohydrates
(C) proteins, fats, carbohydrates and nucleic acid 21. Fats in the body are formed when
(D) carbohydrates, fats, proteins and nucleic acid (A) glycogen is formed from glucose
(B) sugar level becomes stable in blood
9. Term protoplasm was introduced by
(C) extra glycogen storage in liver and muscles is
(A) Purkinje (B) Schultze
stopped
(C) Sutton and Boveri (D) Van Mohl
(D) all of the above

PAGE # 63
22. Which element is not found in nitrogen base ? 29. Similarity in DNA and RNA is
(A) Nitrogen (B) Hydrogen (A) both are polymers of nucleotides
(C) Carbon (D) Phosphorous (B) both have similar pyrimidine
(C) both have similar sugar
23. Proteins are the polymers of
(D) None of the above
(A) amino acids (B) natural protein
(C) enzymes (D) nucleic acids 30. In which stage of cell cycle, DNA replication occurs
(A) G1phase (B) S Phase
24. DNA polymerase is needed for (C) G2 phase (D) M phase
(A) replication of DNA (B) synthesis of DNA c31. Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted pickle

(C) elongation of DNA (D) all of the above because [IJSO-Stage-I/2011]

25. Duplication of DNA is called as
(A) replication
(C) transcription
26. Ligase enzyme is used for
(A) denaturation of DNA
(B) splitting of DNA into small fragments
(C) joining fragments of DNA
(D) digestion of lipids
27. Orange juice contains plenty of
(A) vitamin C
(C) vitamin D
(A) they become plasmolysed and consequently die.
(B) they do anaerobic respiration.
(B) transduction
(C) water is not available to them.
(D) translation (D) of all the reasons mentioned above.
32. Maximum vitamin A content is likely to be found in
the extract of [IJSO-Stage-I/2011]
(A) sprout of pulse (B) cod liver
(C) white muscles (D) rose petals
33. The ointment prescribed for burns usually contains,
among other ingredients, [IJSO-Stage-I/2011]
(B) vitamin A (A) vitamin A (B) vitamin B
(D) vitamin E (C) vitamin D (D) vitamin E

28. Sucrose is composed of 34. Unsaturated fatty acids contain [IJSO-Stage-I/2012]

(A) glucose & fructose (A) atleast one double bond
(B) glucose & glycogen (B) two double bonds
(C) more than two double bonds
(C) two molecules of glucose
(D) no double bond
(D) glycogen & fructose

PAGE # 64
 SERIES COMPLETION
Series completion problems deals with numbers, Ex 5. 8, 12, 21, 46, 95, ?
alphabets and both together. While attempting to (A) 188 (B) 214
solve the question, you have to check the pattern of (C) 148 (D) 216
the series. Series moves with certain mathematical Sol. (D) The pattern is + 22, + 32, + 52, + 72, .......
operations. You have to check the pattern. missing number = 95 + 112 = 216
Type of questions asked in the examination : Ex 6. 3, 9, 36, 180, ?
(i) Find the missing term(s). (A) 1080 (B) 900
(ii) Find the wrong term(s). (C) 720 (D) None of these
Sol. (A) Each term is multiplied by 3, 4, 5 and so on
NUMBER SERIES respectively. Therefore, the next term would be
180 6 = 1080.
(a) Some Important Patterns :
(b) Multiple Series :
(i) a, a d, a 2d, a 3d.......(Arithmetic Progression)
A multiple series is a mixture of more than one
(ii) a, ak, ak2, ak3, ................(Geometric Progression) series :

Ex 7. 4, 7, 3, 6, 2, 5, ?
a a a (A) 0 (B) 1
(iii) a, , 2 , 3 , .............(Geometric Progression)
k k k (C) 2 (D) 3
Sol. (B) The sequence is a combination of two series
(iv) Series of prime numbers i.e. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ...... I 4, 3, 2, ?
II 7, 6, 5
(v) Series of composite numbers
The pattern followed in I is 1, 1, 1
i.e. 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, .................
missing number = 2 1 = 1
Directions : (1 to 10) Find the missing numbers : Ex 8. 14, 15, 12, 16, 9, 18, 4, 21, ?
Ex 1. 16, 19, 22, 25, ? (A) 2 (B) 3
(A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 3 (D) 5
Sol. (C) The sequence is a combination of two series.
(C) 29 (D) 25
14, 12, 9, 4, (....) and
Sol. (B) As per series a, a + d, a + 2d,.........
15. 16, 18, 21
a = 16
The pattern followed in is 2, 3, 5, .......
d=3
missing number = 4 7 = 3
a + 4d = 16 + 4 3
Ex 9. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
Ex 2. 9, 18, 36, ?, 144 (A) 21 (B) 27
(A) 70 (B) 56 (C) 25 (D) 28
(C) 54 (D) 72 Sol. (B) (i) 1, 4, 9, 16 [12, 13, 22, 23, 32, 33.............]
Sol. (D) As per series, a, ak, ak2, ak3, ........ (ii) 1, 8, __, 64 mixed combination
a = 9, k = 2
Ex 10. 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, ?, 132
ak3 = 9 23 = 72
(A) 58 (B) 42
Ex 3. 2, 6, 14, 26, ? (C) 90 (D) 120
(A) 92 (B) 54 Sol. (D) The difference between the terms is given
(C) 44 (D) 42 below as :
Sol. (D) The pattern is +4, +8, +12, +16, .......
3 6 24 30 63 72 ? 132
Ex 4. 240, ? , 120, 40, 10, 2
(A) 120 (B) 240 Difference 3 18 6 33 9 48 ?
(C) 40 (D) 10
Difference
3 15 3 15 ?
1 1 1 1
Sol. (B) The pattern is 1, , , , Therefore, alternate difference between the
2 3 4 5
difference is 3 and 15 respectively.
missing term = 240 1 = 240
Hence, the next term would be 72 + 48 = 120.

PAGE # 65
Directions : (11 to 12) Find the wrong term(s) Ex 13. 12 28 64 140
37 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Ex 11. 5, 8, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20, 23 Which number will come in place of (T) ?
(A) 8 (B) 12 (A) 1412 (B) 164
(C) 15 (D) 18 (C) 696 (D) 78
Sol. (B)

Sol. (A)
Therefore, number 12 is wrong and should be
replaced by 13. Similarly (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
37 78 164 340 696 1412
Ex 12. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 88, 184
2+4 2+8 2+12 2+16 2+20
(A) 3 (B) 8
(C) 19 (D) 88 Therefore, the number 1412 will come in place of (T).
Sol. (D)
Ex 14. 2 9 57 337
1 3 8 19 42 89 184 3 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
2 5 11 23 47 95 Which number will come in place of (Q) ?
3 6 12 24 48 (A) 113 (B) 17
(C) 3912 (D) 8065
Hence, number 88 is wrong and should be
replaced by 89.
or 1 2 + 1, 3 2 + 2, 8 2 +3, 19 2 + 4, 42 2 + 5, Sol. (A)
89 2 + 6
Similarly,
Directions : (13 to 14) In each of the following questions, a (P) (Q) (R) (S)
number series is given. After the series, below it in 3 17 113 673 3361
the next line, a number is given followed by (P), (Q), 87 76 65 54
(R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
Therefore, the number 113 will come in place of (Q).
starting with the number given following the
sequence of the given series. Then answer the
question given below it.

ALPHABET SERIES

(a) Pattern of Alphabets Show Variation Based on :

(i) Position of the letters (ii) Difference between the alphabets

(i) Position of alphabets :

Alphabets in order :

Alphabets in reverse order :

Directions : (15 to 24) Find the missing term(s) : Ex 17. A, Y, D, W, G, U, J, ?

(A) R (B) T
Ex 15. B, E, H, ?
(A) K (B) L (C) S (D) P
(C) J (D) M Sol. (C) The given sequence consists of two series :
Sol. (A) In the given series, every letter is moved three . A, D, G, J in which each letter is moved three
steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters steps forward to obtain the next term
of the next term. So, the missing term is K. . Y, W, U, ? in which each letter is moved two steps
Ex 16. Q, N, K, ?, E backward to obtain the next term.
(A) H (B) I So, the missing term would be S.
(C) J (D) G
Sol. (A) In the given series, every letter is moved three Ex 18. AG, LR, WC, HN, ?
steps backward to obtain the corresponding letters (A) SX (B) RY
of the next term. So, the missing term is H. (C) SY (D) TX

PAGE # 66
Sol. (C) The first letter of each group and the second Ex 24. (ABC) 6, (DEF) 15, (GHI) 24, ?
letter of each group differs by 11 letters between (A) (IJK) 33 (B) (JKM) 33
them. (C) (IJK) 32 (D) (JKL) 33
A L W H Sol. (D) In a given series
1 12 23 8 Alphabetical
positions Let A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4, E = 5, F = 6, and so on

11 11 11 Difference in A B C 6 D E F 15 G H I 24
, 4 5 6 ,
Alphabetical 1 2 3 7 8 9
positions
G R C N
7 18 3 14 Alphabetical
positions
So, the missing term would be J K L 33
10 11 12
Similarly, 11 Difference in
11 11 Directions : (25 to 27) Find the wrong term (s) :
Alphabetical
positions
Therefore, the next group of letter would be SY. Ex 25. ABD, DGK, HMS, NTB, SBL, ZKW
H S N Y (A) NTB (B) DGK
And (C) SBL (D) ZKW
11 11 Sol. (A) First letter of first, second, third,.........terms is
Ex 19. AD, EI, JO, PV, ? moved three, four, five, ........steps forward
(A) VD (B) WC respectively. Similarly, second letter is moved five,
(C) WD (D) VE six, seven,......steps forward respectively and third
Sol. (C) The first letter of subsequent groups have a letter is moved seven, eight, nine,........steps
difference of 4, 5 and 6 places respectively, whereas forward respectively. Hence, NTB is the wrong term
the second letter of the subsequent groups has a and should be replaced by MTB.
difference of 5, 6, and 7 places respectively,
Therefore, on following the same pattern, we get Ex 26. EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
WD as the next term which would replace the (A) FQW (B) GRX
question mark. (C) HTY (D) ITZ
Sol. (C) In every term, first second and third letter is in
Ex 20. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?
alphabetical order to its next term respectively.
(A) SRQP (B) SRPQ
(C) SQRP (D) RSQP Fourth term is not following the same rule. Hence,
Sol. (A) The first term is reversed to get second term. HTY is the wrong term and should be replaced by
The third term is reversed to get the fourth term. HSY.
Similarly, to get the sixth term, we reverse the fifth
term. So, the missing term would be SRQP. Ex 27. D4V, G10T, J20R, M43P, P90N
(A) P90N (B) G10T
Ex 21. HEJ, JGL, LIN, NKP, ? (C) J20R (D) D4V
(A) MOR (B) PNS
Sol. (B) First letter of every term is moved three steps
(C) PMR (D) NPT
forward in each next term. Second number of every
Sol. (C) First letter of each group differs by 2 letters.
Second letter of each group differs by 2 letters. term of the pattern 2 + 1, 2 + 2, 2 + 3,............and
Third letter of each group differs by 2 letters. All the third letter of every term is moved two steps
letters differ in the forward direction. Hence, the backward. Hence, G10T is the wrong term and
next choice would be PMR. should be replaced by G9T.
Ex 22. XYQ, ZAR, BCS, DET, ?
(A) GFU (B) FUG LETTER REPEATING SERIES
(C) FZU (D) FGU
Sol. (D) Here, first two terms of every group of letters Pattern of such questions is that some letters in
are in continuation, like XY, ZA, BC, DE, and the sequence are missing.
third letter of each group is again in forward
(i) The letters may be in cyclic order (clockwise or
continuation,
anti-clockwise).
i.e. Q, R, S, T. Hence, the term replacing the
(ii) To solve a problem, we have to select one of the
question mark would be FGU.
alternative from the given alternatives. The
Ex 23. 17Z5, 15X4, 13V3, ?, 9R1 alternative which gives a sequence form of letters
(A) 11S2 (B) 11T2 is the choice.
(C) 11U2 (D) 11T3
Directions : (28 to 32) Find the missing term(s) :
Sol. (B) The first number & second letter of every term
is moved two steps backward & the third number Ex 28. a a _ b a a _ b b b _ a
of every term is moved one step backward. So, the (A) baa (B) abb
missing term would be 11T2. (C) bab (D) aab

PAGE # 67
Sol. (A) we proceed step by step to solve the above Ex 35. a_h_ _c_ ne_ h_ eac_ _ _ _ _
series: 21_4 3_5 __2 54 ____ _ _ _ _
Steps : The last five terms in the series are
(A) 32524 (B) 43215
1. The first blank space should be filled in by 'b' so
that we have two a's followed by two b's. (C) 25314 (D) 32541
Sol. (B) By taking a = 2, c = 1, n = 4, h = 5 and e = 3, the
2. Second blank space should be filled in by 'a' so numbers series runs as 21543 15432 54321
that we have three a's followed by three b' s. 43215. If first digit of a group of five digits is placed
as the last digit, we obtain the second group of five
3. The last blank space must be filled in by 'a' to keep
the series in sequence. digits and so on.
Ex 29. _ bca _ ca _ c _ b _
Ex 36. _ m y e _ _ y l x _ y l m _ _ l _ _ _ _
(A) aabbc (B) abbbc
4 6 _ 5 8 6 _ __ 5 7_ 6 5 8 __ _ _ _
(C) aabcc (D) abbac
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 46758 (B) 74658
Sol. (D) (C) 76485 (D) 46785
Sol. (D) By taking e = 5, l = 4, m = 6, y = 7 and x = 8 the
number series runs as 46758 67485 74658 46785.
Series is abc/ abc/ abc/ abc. So, pattern abc is By taking the digits in the groups of five, we find
repeated. that first digit of the first group (i.e. 4) is the third
digit of the second group and the last two digits
Ex. 30 a _ abb _ aa _ ba _ a _ b have interchanged their positions. The same rule
(A) ababa (B) aabba applies in others groups also.
(C) aabab (D) aaabb
Sol- (C) Series is aaabb/ aaabb/ aaabb. So, pattern Direction : (37) In the following question, three sequences
aaabb is repeated. of letter/numbers are given which correspond to
each other in some way. In the given question, you
Ex 31. a _ c _ abb _ ca _ a
(A) baca (B) bbca have to find out the letter/numerals that come in
(C) bacc (D) bacb the vacant places marked by (?). These are given
Sol- (A) Series is abc/ aabbcc/ aaa as one of the four alternatives under the question.
Mark your answer as instructed.
Ex 32. bc _ b _ c _ b _ ccb
(A) cbcb (B) bbcb Ex 37. C B _ _ D _ B A B C C B
(C) cbbc (D) bcbc _ _ 2 3 5 4 _ _ ? ? ? ?
Sol- (A) Series is bccb / bccb / bccb. So, pattern bccb is p _ p q _ r _ q _ _ _ _
repeated (A) 4 5 5 4 (B) 4 3 3 4
Directions : (33 to 34) The question given below is based (C) 4 2 2 4 (D) 2 5 5 2
on the letter series, In series, some letters are Sol. (C) Comparing the positions of the capital letters,
missing. Select the correct alternative. If more than numbers and small letters, we find p corresponds
five letters are missing, select the last five letters to C and 2 corresponds to p. So, p and 2 correspond
of the series. to C. q corresponds to A and 3 corresponds to q.
So, q and 3 corresponds to A. Also, 5 corresponds
Ex 33. xyzu _ yz _ v _ _ uv _ _ _ _ _ _ _
to D. So, the remaining number i.e., 4 corresponds
(A) uvxyz (B) vuzyx
to B. So, BCCB corresponds to 4, 2, 2, 4.
(C) uvzyx (D) vuxyz
Sol. (A) The series is x y z u v / y z u v x/ z u v x y/u v x y z
Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order. MISSING TERMS IN FIGURES
EX 34. abcd _ bc _ e _ _ de _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Directions : (38 to 47) Find the missing number(s) :
(A) deabc (B) edcba
(C) decba (D) edabc
Sol. (A) The series is a b c d e / b c d e a / c d e a b / b e a b c 6 9 15
Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order. 8 12 20
Ex 38.
Direction : (35 to 36) There is a letter series in the first row 4 6 ?
and a number series in the second row. Each
number in the number series stands for a letter in (A) 5 (B) 10
the letter series. Since in each of that series some (C) 15 (D) 21
term are missing you have to find out as to what Sol. (B) In the first row, 6 + 9 = 15
those terms are, and answer the questions based In the second row, 8 + 12 = 20
on these as given below in the series.
In the third row, missing number = 4 + 6 = 10.

PAGE # 68
 3 5 5
Ex 39. Ex 43. 6 10 2 9 30 3 6 ? 5
4 5 2

(A) 11 (B) 6 (A) 15 (B) 20

(C) 3 (D) 2 (C) 25 (D) 40
6 4 Sol. (B) Clearly
Sol. (C) Clearly, in the column, 8 In first figure] 6 3 4 2 = 18 8 = 10
3
18 3 In second figure] 9 5 5 3 = 45 15 = 30
In the column, 27 We take x in place of ? In third figure] 6 5 2 5 = 30 10 = 20
2
15 x 95
Similarly in the column, 9 ,x 3
5 15 5 26 4 6 ? 3 8 29 3
Ex 44.
6 4 5
3C 27D 9E
(A) 32 (B) 22
7I 21K 3M (C) 18 (D) 27
Ex 40.
4D ? 7J Sol. (B) In first figure] 5 4 + 6 = 26
In second figure] 8 3 + 5 = 29
(A) 11E (B) 28G missing number in third figure] 6 3 + 4 = 22
(C) 35I (D) 48F
Sol. (B) The letters in the first row form a series C, D, E 5
8 3 7 5 2 5
(a series consecutive letters). The letters in the 6 3
second row form a series I, K, M (a series of Ex 45.
alternate letters). Similarly, the letters in the third 174 336 ?
row will form the series D, G, J (a series in which
each letter is three steps ahead of the previous 3 2 9 2 7 9 6 4 5
one). So, the missing letter is G. Also, the (A) 140 (B) 150
number in the second column is equal to the (C) 200 (D) 180
product of the numbers in the first and third Sol. (B) In first figure]8 5 3 + 3 2 9 = 120 + 54 =
columns. So, missing number is (4 7) i.e. 28. 174
Thus, the answer is 28G. In second figure]6 7 5 + 2 7 9= 210 + 126
= 336
missing number in third figure]
3 2 5 + 6 4 5 = 30 + 120 = 150
4 5
Ex 41. 11 9 15 7 25 21
41
6 ? 5 2 Ex 46.
40 176 ?
7 1
(A) 184 (B) 210
(A) 16 (B) 9
(C) 241 (D) 425
(C) 85 (D) 112
Sol. (C) Hint ; 42 + 52 = 16 + 25 = 41 Sol. (A) The number at the bottom is the difference of
12 + 22 = 1 + 4 = 5 squares of two numbers given at top
62 + 72 = 36 + 49 = 85 In first figure] 112 92 = 121 81 = 40
In second figure] 152 72 = 225 49 = 176
84 81 88 In third figure] 252 212 = 625 441 = 184
Ex 42.
14 12 18 9 ? 11
(A) 16 (B) 21
3 5 4 7 3 5
(C) 61 (D) 81
14 33 48 ?
Ex 47.
Sol. (A) In first figure, 12 = 84. 6 3 5 4 4
2 5
18
In second figure, 9 = 81. (A) 47 (B) 45
2 (C) 37 (D) 35
Let the missing number In third figure be x.
Sol. (D) In first figure, 6 3 + 3 5 = 33
x 88 2
In second figure, 5 4 + 4 7 = 48
Then, 11 = 88 or x = = 16.
2 11 In third figure, 5 4 + 3 5 = 35

PAGE # 69
 17. 0, 6, 20, 42, 72, ?
EXERCISE-1 (A) 106 (B) 112
(C) 110 (D) 108
Directions : (1 to 25) Find the missing numbers :
18. 2, 9, 28, 65, ?
1. 2, 8, 18, 32, ? (A) 121 (B) 195
(A) 62 (B) 60 (C) 126 (D) 103
(C) 50 (D) 46
19. 1, 11, ?, 11, 11, 11, 16, 11
2. 16, 54, 195, ? (A) 1 (B) 11
(A) 780 (B) 802 (C) 6 (D) 192
(C) 816 (D) 824
20. 137, 248, 359, 470, ?
3. 14, 316, 536, 764, ?
(A) 981 (B) 1048 (A) 582 (B) 581
(C) 8110 (D) 9100 (C) 571 (D) 481

4. 8, 11, 15, 22, 33, 51, ?, 127, 203 21. 3, 15, 35, ?, 99, 143
(A) 80 (B) 53 (A) 63 (B) 77
(C) 58 (D) 69 (C) 69 (D) 81
5. 2, 3, 6, 18, ?, 1944 22. 9, 16, 30, 58, ?
(A) 154 (B) 180 (A) 104 (B) 114
(C) 108 (D) 452
(C) 116 (D) 118
6. 7,19, 55, 163, ?
23. 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ?
(A) 387 (B) 329
(C) 527 (D) 487 (A) 192 (B) 183
(C) 162 (D) 147
7. 1, 2, 9, 4, 25, 6, ?
(A) 51 (B) 49 24. 1, 4, 12, 30, ?
(C) 50 (D) 47 (A) 60 (B) 62
(C) 64 (D) 68
8. 16, 33, 67, 135, ?
(A) 371 (B) 175 25. 94, 166, 258, ?, 4912
(C) 271 (D) 287
(A) 3610 (B) 1644
9. 8, 24, 16, ?, 7, 14, 6, 18, 12, 5, 5, 10 (C) 1026 (D) 516
(A) 14 (B) 10
(C) 7 (D) 5 Directions : (26 to 28) In each of the following questions, a
number series is given. After the series, below it in
10. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ? the next line, a number is given followed by (P), (Q),
(A) 194 (B) 210 (R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
(C) 252 (D) 258 starting with the number given following the
11. 101, 100, ?, 87, 71, 46 sequence of the given series. Then answer the
(A) 92 (B) 88 question given below it.
(C) 89 (D) 96
26. 2 3 8 27
12. 100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ? 16, 8 5 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(A) 30 (B) 36 Which of the following numbers will come in place
(C) 14 (D) 32 of (T) ?
13. 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, ?, 720 (A) 184 (B) 6
(A) 496 (B) 502 (C) 925 (D) 45
(C) 504 (D) 498
27. 5 18 48 112
14. 3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ? 7 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(A) 32 (B) 37 Which number will come in place of (S) ?
(C) 41 (D) 28 (A) 172 (B) 276
(C) 270 (D) 376
15. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ?
(A) 720 (B) 1080 28. 15 159 259 323
(C) 1600 (D) 2160 7 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which of the following numbers will come in place
16. 78, 79, 81, ?, 92, 103, 119
(A) 88 (B) 85 of (R) ?
(C) 84 (D) 83 (A) 251 (B) 315
(C) 176 (D) 151

PAGE # 70
Directions : (29 to 35) Find the wrong term(s) 8. DFK, FEL, HDM, JCN, ?
(A) KBN (B) KBO
29. 9, 11, 15, 23, 39, 70, 135 (C) LBO (D) LBN
(A) 23 (B) 39
(C) 70 (D) 135 9. JXG, HTJ, FPN, ?, BHY
(A) EKS (B) ELS
30. 3, 9, 36, 72, 216, 864, 1728, 3468 (C) DLR (D) DLS
(A) 3468 (B) 1728
(C) 864 (D) 216 10. CYD, FTH, IOL, LJP, ?
(A) PET (B) OET
31. 2, 5, 11, 20, 30, 47, 65 (C) OEY (D) PEV
(A) 5 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 47 11. ZGL, XHN, VIQ, TJU, ?
(A) RKX (B) RKY
32. 121, 143, 165, 186, 209 (C) RLZ (D) RKZ
(A) 143 (B) 165
(C) 186 (D) 209 12. MTH, QRK, UPN, YNQ, ?
(A) CKT (B) ELT
33. 9, 15, 24, 34, 51, 69, 90 (C) CLT (D) EKT
(A) 15 (B) 24
13. ZSD, YTC, XUB, WVA, ?
(C*) 34 (D) 51 (A) VZZ (B) ZVX
(A) 15 (B) 24 (C) VWZ (D) VZX
(C) 34 (D) 51
14. RML, VIJ, ZFH, DDF, ?
34. 9, 13, 21, 37, 69, 132, 261 (A) HDC (B) CHI
(A) 21 (B) 37 (C) HCD (D) DIC
(C) 69 (D) 132 15. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?
(A) ELS (B) FMR
35. 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, 45, 90
(C) GKS (D) FLR
(A) 85 (B) 45
(C) 105 (D) 0 16. MAD, OBE, SCH, YDM, ?
(A) HET (B) HES
(C) GET (D) UAE
EXERCISE-2
17. 2B, 4C, 8E, 14H, ?
Directions : (1 to 24) Find the missing term(s) : (A) 22L (B) 24L
(C) 22K (D) 2M
1. X, U, S, P, N, K, I, ?
(A) J (B) K 18. 1 BR, 2 EO, 6 HL, 15 KI, ?
(C) M (D) F (A) 22 NF (B) 31 NF
(C) 31 NE (D) 28 NF
2. Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
(A) F (B) K 19. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?
(C) G (D) E (A) Y17O (B) X17M
(C) X17O (D) X16O
3. A, H, N, S, W, ?
(A) A (B) Y 20. Z 15 A, W 13 C, ?, Q 9 G, N 7 I
(C) B (D) Z (A) T 12 E (B) R 11F
(C) T 11E (D) R 13 D
4. Q, T, V, Y, A, ?
21. B3M, E7J, H15G, K31D, ?
(A) B (B) C
(A) N65A (B) O63A
(C) D (D) F
(C) N63A (D) N63Z
5. X, A, D, G, J, ?
22. 5X9, 8U12, 11R15, 14O18, ?
(A) N (B) O
(A) 17L21 (B) 17K21
(C) M (D) P
(C) 17M21 (D) 17L23
6. Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ?
23. 6C7, 8F10, 11J14, 15O19, ?
(A) R, D (B) R, E
(A) 19U24 (B) 20U25
(C) S, E (D) Q, D
(C) 19U25 (D) 20U24
7. AZ, YB, CX, WD, ?
24. B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ?
(A) VE (B) UE
(A) J58Q (B) J56Q
(C) EU (D) EV
(C) J57Q (D) J56P

PAGE # 71
Directions : (25 to 30) Find the wrong term(s) : 9. a _ cab _ a _ c _ b c
(A) bbac (B) abab
25. ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU
(C) abba (D) bcba
(A) ECA (B) JHF
(C) TQP (D) YWU 10. ba _ cb _ b _ bab _
(A) acbb (B) bcaa
26. DKY, FJW, HIT, JHS, LGQ
(C) cabb (D) bacc
(A) FJW (B) LGQ
(C) JHJ (D) HIT 11. a _ bc _ a _ bcda _ ccd _ bcd _
(A) abddbd (B) acbdbb
27. DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO (C) adbbad (D) bbbddd
(A) DVG (B) JNM
(C) HPK (D) LJO 12. cc _ ccdd _ d _ cc _ ccdd _ dd
(A) dcdcc (B) dcddc
28. CDF, DEG, EFH, FHI (C) dccdd (D) None of these
(A) CDF (B) DEG
(C) FHI (D) EFH 13. a_baa_baa _ba
(A) a a b (B) b a b
29. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS (C) b b a (D) b b b
(A) ZLA (B) BMY
(C) FOU (D) CNW 14. babbb_b_b_bb
(A) b b a (B) b a a
30. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L (C) a b a (D) a a a
(A) G4T (B) J10R
15. m _ l _ ml _ m _ llm
(C) M20P (D) P43N
(A) lmmm (B) lmlm
(C) lmml (D) mllm
EXERCISE-3 Directions : (16 to 19) The questions given below are based
on the letter series, In each of these series, some
Directions : (1 to 15) Which sequence of letters when placed letters are missing. Select the correct alternative. If
at the blanks one after the other will complete the more than five letters are missing, select the last
given letter series ? five letters of the series.
1. a_baa_aa__ab 16. _ _ r _ ttp _ _ s _ tp _ _ _ s _ _ _
(A) a a a a (B) b a a a (A) rstqp (B) tsrqp
(C) b b a a (D) a b b a (C) rstpq (D) None
2. _aabb_a_ab_b 17. _ _ x _ zbxazyxabyz _ _ _ _ _
(A) b b a a (B) b a b a (A) abxzy (B) abzxy
(C) b a a b (D) a b a b (C) abxyz (D) bxayz
3. aab_aaa_bba_ 18. x _ xxy _ x _ xy _ yxx _ _ yy _ y
(A) b a a (B) a b b
(A) xyyyy (B) xxyyx
(C) b a b (D) a a b
(C) yxxyx (D) xyxyx
4. a__b_a_ab_aa
19. _ _ r _ tqrptsrpqst _ _ _ _ _
(A) a b a a b (B) b b a b a
(A) pqrts (B) pqtrs
(C) b b a b b (D) b a a b a
(C) pqrst (D) qrpst
5. abc _ d _ bc _ d _ b _ cda
Directions : (20 to 23) There is a letter series in the first row
(A) bacdc (B) cdabc
and a number series in the second row. Each
(C) dacab (D) dccbd
number in the number series stands for a letter in
6. a _ bbc _ aab _ cca _ bbcc the letter series. Since in each of that series some
(A) bacb (B) acba term are missing you have to find out as to what
(C) abba (D) caba those terms are, and answer the questions based
on these as given below in the series.
7. _bc__bb_aabc
(A) acac (B) babc 20. ab_cd_a_abd_dba_
(C) abab (D) aacc 1_3_32_1___4____
8. _ b c c _ ac _ a a b b _ a b _ c c The last four terms in the series are
(A) aabca (B) abaca (A) 1234 (B) 3112
(C) bacab (D) bcaca (C) 3211 (D) 4312

PAGE # 72
21. _bnt _ _nam _nab_ _a__ _ _
13_25 3__ 5 24_32 5__ _ __
The last five terms in the series are 3.
(A) 13425 (B) 41325
(C) 34125 (D) 13452 (A) 112 (B) 92
(C) 82 (D) 102
22. n _ g f _ t _ f h t n _ _ t _ b _ f
1 3_ 2 4 5 0 _ 4 _ _ 3 _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 50123 (B) 40321
(C) 40231 (D) 51302 4.
23. _ m i a x _ i r x a _ _ma _ _ _ _ _ _
4 _ 5 _7 3 _ _ _6 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five term of the letter series are (A) 235 (B) 141
(A) r m x i a (B) x m r a i (C) 144 (D) 188
(C) x r m a i (D) r m i x a

Directions : (24 to 26) In each of the following questions, 12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27

three sequences of letter/numbers are given which
5.
correspond to each other in some way. In each
question, you have to find out the letter/numerals ?
6 8
that come in the vacant places marked by (?). These
are given as one of the four alternatives under the (A) 18 (B) 12
question. Mark your answer as instructed. (C) 9 (D) 6

24. _ A C _ B D _ CD C D
2 _4 1 _ 1 4 _ _ _ _
r s _ q r _ p ? ? ? ? 5 6 6 7 4 8
(A) p q p q (B) p r p r 6. 12 21 ?
(C) r q r q (D) r s r s 4 5 10
25. A _ B A C _ D _ B C D C (A) 14 (B) 22
_ 4 _ 3 _ 2 _ 5 ? ? ? ? (C) 32 (D) 320
d c _ _ b a c b _ _ _ _
(A) 2 4 5 4 (B) 2 5 4 5
5 9 8
(C) 3 4 5 4 (D) 4 5 2 5
7. 5 15 ?
26. _ A D A C B _ _ B D C C
2 4 _ _2 3 5 3 _ _ _ _ 3 5 6
p _ _ q _ _ r s ? ? ? ? (A) 12 (B) 11
(A) p r s s (B) p s r r (C) 16 (D) 26
(C) r p s s (D) s r p p

EXERCISE-4
8.

Directions : (1 to 39) Find the missing term in the given

figures (A) 72 (B) 18
(C) 9 (D) 19

1.
9.

(A) 36 (B) 9
(C) 25 (D) 64 (A) 1 (B) 18
(C) 90 (D) 225

2. 10.

(A) 14 (B) 18 (A) 20 (B) 22

(C) 11 (D) 13 (C) 24 (D) 12

PAGE # 73
 7 11 49
11. 12 8 54
15 4 ?
18.
(A) 36 (B) 7
(C) 25 (D) 0

18 24 32 (A) 28 (B) 36
12 14 16 (C) 81 (D) 49
12. 3 ? 4
72 112 128 2 5
6
(A) 2 (B) 3 2 ? 8
6 8 6
(C) 4 (D) 5 19. 72 6 140
4 12 3 1 4 3 4 10 7
2 4 8
(A) 16 (B) 14
13. 4 C26 3 10 H70 5 6 J90 ? (C) 20 (D) 22

5 4 6
5 4 3 8 9 4
(A) 1 (B) 3 20.
20 9 24 11 ? 13
(C) 4 (D) 5
(A) 117 (B) 36
29 27 29 30 59 40 (C) 32 (D) 26
14. 39 80 33 42 70 31 ? 80 10
45 43 43 44 39 20
(A) 69 (B) 49 21.
(C) 50 (D) 60

101 43 48 34 (A) 26 (B) 25

(C) 27 (D) 30
15. 38 ?
35 15 56 184
12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 34
(A) 127 (B) 142
(C) 158 (D) 198 22.

30 44 ?
1 7 6 (A) 48 (B) 9
16. 3 3 ? (C) 44 (D) 64
5 4 8
35 74 104

(A) 1 (B) 2 5 21 51
(C) 3 (D) 4 23. 16 109 2 22 53 19 17 ? 48

6 15 13
(A) 25 (B) 129
17. (C) 7 (D) 49

2 3 6

(A) 33 (B) 145 24. 3 33 2 4 54 2 3 ? 5

(C) 135 (D) 18 4 5 4
(A) 78 (B) 82
(C) 94 (D) 86

PAGE # 74
 2 5 1 3 8 10 2 ? 1
25. 4 28 5 34.
7 38 4 2 ? 3 6 56 90 2 20 0

3 3 7 (A) 0 (B) 3
(A) 14 (B) 18 (C) 5 (D) 7
(C) 11 (D) 26
15 2 9 7 13 16
35. 80 65 ?
5 6 4 6 11 8
26.
(A) 48 (B) 72
(C) 35 (D) 120

(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 10 (D) 12

27. BIG - 792 HCA - 138 FED - 456 E?H - 87? 36.

(A) G, 6 (B) I, 9
(C) G, 5 (D) I, 5 (A) 38 (B) 64
(C) 4 (D) 16
36 9 25
28. 49 26 64 81 21 25 64 ? 144
101 43 48 34
25 16 36
(A) 19 (B) 23 37. 38 ?
(C) 25 (D) 31 35 15 56 184
(A) 127 (B) 142
2 3 6
(C) 158 (D) 198
29. 3 2 8 4 1 6 12 ? 8
6 8 4
12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
38.
29 27 29 30 59 40
6 8 ?
30. 39 80 33 42 70 31 ? 80 10 (A) 18 (B) 12
(C) 9 (D) 6
45 43 43 44 39 20
(A) 69 (B) 49
(C) 50 (D) 60 4 9 9 16 16 ?
39.

6 12 20
31.
(A) 60 (B) 50
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 21 (D) 25
(C) 3 (D) 1
40. Find the value of X in the following figure :

32. 15 4
33 2

(A) 12 (B) 9 27 2
(C) 14 (D) 10 36 8

33 Find the missing letters from left to right. 32 X

18 9
22 11
12 3

(A) JSN (B) JNS (A) 3 (B) 4

(C) JRS (D) KRS (C) 8 (D) 12

PAGE # 75
 PUZZLE TEST
Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information carefully Names University Subject
and answer the questions given below it. Dr. Joshi Delhi History
(i). Five professors (Dr. Joshi, Dr. Davar, Dr. Dr. Davar Osmania Geology
Natrajan, Dr. Choudhary and Dr. Zia) teach five Dr. Natrajan Gujarat Botany
different subjects (zoology, physics, botany, geology
Dr. Choudhary Mumbai Zoology
and history) in four universities ( Delhi, Gujarat,
Dr. Zia Gujarat Physics
Mumbai, and Osmania). Do not assume any
specific order.
(ii). Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in Mumbai On the basis of the above table, rest of the questions
University . can be solved very easily.
(iii). Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania University
nor in Delhi University and he teaches neither 1. (C) Dr. Davar teaches geology.
geology nor history. 2. (A) Dr. Zia is from Gujarat university.
(iv). Dr. Zia teaches physics but neither in Mumbai
University nor in Osmania University. 3. (D) Dr. Natrajan teaches botany.
(v). Dr. Joshi teaches history in Delhi University.
(vi). Two professors are from Gujarat University. 4. (B) Dr. Davar is from Osmania University.
(vii). One professor teaches only one subject and
5. (D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University is the correct
in one University only.
combination.
Ex 1. Who teaches geology ?
(A) Dr Natrajan (B) Dr. Zia Ex 6. Ramesh is taller than Vinay who is not as tall as
(C) Dr. Davar (D) Dr. Joshi Karan. Sanjay is taller than Anupam but shorter
than Vinay. Who among them is the tallest ?
Ex 2. Which university is Dr. Zia from ? (A) Ramesh (B) Karan
(A) Gujarat (B) Mumbai (C) Vinay (D) Cannot be determined
(C) Delhi (D) Osmania Sol. (D) In this question ranking of Karan is not defined.
Ex 3. Who teaches botany ? Consequently, either Ram or Karan occupies the
(A) Dr. Zia (B) Dr. Davar top position with regard to height. Hence,
(C) Dr. Joshi (D) Dr. Natrajan option (d) is the correct choice.

Ex 4. Who is from Osmania University ?
(A) Dr. Natrajan (B) Dr. Davar
(C) Dr. Joshi (D) Dr. Zia
Ex 5. Which of the following combinations is correct ?
(A) Delhi University - Dr. Zia
(B) Dr. Choudhary - geology
(C) Dr. Davar - Mumbai University
(D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University
Sol. : (1 to 5)
From the given information in the question :
From II, we get Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in
Mumbai University.
From III, We get Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania
nor in Delhi University. Therefore, he will be either
at Mumbai or Gujarat University. Similarly, as he Ex 7.
teaches neither geology nor history, therefore, he
must be teaching physics or botany. ..........(1)
From IV, Dr. Zia Physics but as he is not teaching
in either Mumbai or Osmania University, he must
be teaching either in Delhi or Gujarat University...(2) Sol.
Form V, we get Dr Joshi teaches history in Delhi
University Form (1) and (2), we conclude that Dr
Natarajan teaches botany. And from (1), (2) and VI,
we get both Natarajan and Zia teach in Gujarat
University. Finally, On summarisation we can
prepare the following table.
Directions : (7 to 11) Read the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below it :
There are five men A, B, C, D and E and six women
P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are advocates; C, D,
P, Q and S are doctors and the rest are teachers.
Some teams are to be selected from amongst
these eleven persons subject to the following
conditions :
A, P and U have to be together.
B cannot go with D or R.
E and Q have to be together.
C and T have to be together.
D and P cannot go together.
C cannot go with Q.
If the team is to consist of two male advocates, two
lady doctors and one teacher, the members of the
team are
(A) A B P Q U (B) A B P U S
(C) A P R S U (D) B E Q R S
(B) The male advocates are A and B, lady doctors
are P, Q and S ; teachers are E, T and U.
Now, A and B will be selected.
A, P and U have to be together. Now, we have to
select one lady doctor more. It can be Q or S. But Q
and E have to be together. Since E is not selected,
so S will be selected. Thus, the team is A B P U S.

PAGE # 76
Ex 8. If the team is to consist of one advocate, two Directions : (12 to 15) Read the following paragraph
carefully :
doctors, three teachers and C may not go with T,
Four women A, B, C and D and three men E, F and
the members of the team are : G play bridge, a game for four players.
(A) A E P Q S U (B) A E P Q T U (i) The group consists of three married couples
(C) B E Q S T U (D) E Q R S T U and a widow.
(ii) Spouses are never partners in a game.
Sol. (B) The advocates are A, B and R ; doctors are
(iii) No more than one married couple ever plays in
C, D, P, Q, S ; teachers are E, T and U. The team the same game.
consists of 3 teachers i.e. E, T, U. Now, A, P and U (iv) One day they played four games as follows.
have to be together. E and Q have to be together. A and E versus B and F.
A and G versus D and F.
Thus, the team is A E P Q T U. B and C versus F and G.
C and E versus D and G.
Ex 9. If the team is to consist of one male advocate, one
male doctor, one lady doctor and two teachers, the Ex 12. Whom is E married to ?
members of the team are : (A) A (B) B
(A) A C P T U (B) A D E P T (C) C (D) D
(C) A D E P U (D) B C E Q U Ex 13. Whom is F married to ?
Sol. (A) The male advocates are A and B ; male doctors (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
are C and D ; lady doctors are P, Q and S ; teachers
are E, T and U. If A is selected, P and U will be Ex 14. Whom is G married to ?
selected. D and P cannot go together. So, a male (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
doctor C will be selected. C and T have to be
together. Thus, the team is A C P T U. If B is Ex 15. Which of the following is a widow ?
(A) A (B) B
selected, D will not be selected. So, male doctor C
(C) C (D) D
will be chosen. C and T have to be together. Now,
Sol. : (12 to 15)
the second teacher to be selected is E or U. But, U
From (iv), is married either to A or to C. If F is married
cannot go without A. So, E will be selected. E and Q to A, then G is married to B or to C. If G is married to
have to be together. Thus, the team can also be B, then E is married to D ; if G is married to C, then
B C E Q T. E is married to B or to D. If F is married to C, then G
is married to B ; then E is married to D. Hence, the
Ex 10. If the team is to consist of one advocate, three married couples are : FA, GB, ED or FA, GC, EB or
FA, GC, ED or FC, GB, ED. Of these, only FA, GB,
doctors and one male teacher, the members of ED does not contradict any of the statements.
the team are:
12. (D) E is married to D.
(A) A D P S U (B) C D R S T
(C) D E Q R S (D) D E Q R T 13. (A) F is married to A.
Sol. (C) The advocates are A, B and R ; the doctors are 14. (B) G is married to B.
C, D, P, Q and S ; male teacher is E. Clearly, E will
15. (C) C is a widow.
be selected. E and Q have to be together. C and Q
cannot be together. So, C will not be selected. P Ex 16. A vagabond runs out of cigarettes. He searches for
the stubs, having learnt that 7 stubs can make a
also cannot be selected because U is not selected.
new cigarette, good enough to be smoked, he
So, two other doctors D and S will be selected. P is gathers 49 stubs, If he smokes 1 cigarette every
not selected, so A will not be selected. D is three - quarters of an hour, how long will his supply
selected, so B cannot be selected. Thus, the team last ?
(A) 5.25 hr (B) 6 hr
is D E Q R S.
(C) 4.5 hr (D) 3 hr
Ex 11. If the team is to consist of two advocates, two Sol. 49
(B) He has got = 7 cigarettes.
doctors, two teachers and not more than three 7
The duration of time he will take to smoke these
ladies, the members of the team are :
3
(A) A B C P T U (B) A C P R T U 7 cigarettes = 7 hr = 5.25 hr (i.e. 5 hr and 15
4
(C) A E P Q R T (D) B C E Q R T min). Now note that after he has smoked these 7
Sol. (A) A C P R T U and A E P Q R T are wrong because cigarettes, he will collect 7 more stubs (one form
each of these combinations consists of four ladies. each), form which he will be able to make another

B C E Q R T is incorrect because B and R cannot 3

cigarette. This will take him another hr (45 min)
go together. 4
to smoke. Therefore, total time taken = 6hr.

PAGE # 77
Directions : (17 to 18) Read the following information and 1. Who stays in locality Q ?
answer the questions that follow. (A) A (B) B
There are 70 clerks working with M/s. Jha Lal (C) C (D) E
Khanna & Co. chartered accountants, of which 30
are female. 2. What is Es occupation ?
(i) 30 clerks are married. (A) Business (B) Engineer
(ii) 24 clerks are above 25 years of age (C) Lawyer (D) Doctor
(iii) 19 Married clerks are above 25 years of age;
among them 7 are males. 3. Agewise who among the following lies between A
(iv) 12 males are above 25 years of age and C ?
(v) 15 males are married. (A) Lawyer (B) Doctor
Ex 17. How many unmarried girls are there ? (C) Cloth merchant (D) Engineer
(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 18 (D) 10 4. What is Bs occupation ?
(A) Business (B) Engineer
Ex 18. How many of these unmarried girls are above 25 ? (C) Lawyer (D) Doctor
(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 4 (D) 0 5. What is Cs occupation ?
Sol. (17 to 18) : From the given data, we can make the (A) Doctor (B) Lawyer
following table with the help of which rest of the (C) Engineer (D) Business
questions can be solved very easily.
Directions : (6 to 10) Study the given information carefully
Male (40) Female (30)
and answer the questions that follow.
Above 25 There are four people sitting in a row : one each
Married 7 12 from India, Japan, USA and Germany, but not in
Unmarried 5 0 that order,
. They are wearing caps of different colours - green,
Below 25
yellow, red and white, not necessarily in that order.
married 8 3 II. One is wearing a kurta and one a T-shirt.
unmarried 20 15 III. The Indian is wearing a green cap and a jacket.
IV. The American is not seated at either end.
Total 40 30
V. The persons with kurta and T-shirt are sitting
next to each other.
17. There are 15 unmarried girls. VI. The persons with kurta wears a red cap and
18. In these 15 unmarried girls no one is above 25. sits next to the Japanese.
VII. The Japanese wears a shirt and is not seated
at either end.
EXERCISE VIII. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is
seated at one end.

Directions : (1 to 5) Study the following information carefully 6. Who wears the T-shirt ?
and answer the questions given below it : (A) Indian (B) Japanese
There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. Two of them
(C) American (D) German
are businessmen while the other three belong to
different occupations viz. medical, engineer and 7. Who is wearing a kurta ?
legal. One businessman and the lawyer stay in
(A) Indian (B) Japanese
the same locality S, while the other three stay in
(C) American (D) German
three different localities P, Q and R. Two of these
five persons are Hindus while the remaining three 8. What is the colour of the cap worn by the Japanese?
come from three different communities viz. Muslim,
(A) Red (B) Green
Christian and Shikh. The lawyer is the oldest in
(C) Yellow (D) White
age while one of the businessmen who runs a
factory is the youngest. The other businessman is 9. Who precedes the man wearing T-shirt ?
a cloth merchant and agewise lies between the
(A) Indian (B) Japanese
doctor and the lawyer. D is a cloth merchant and
(C) American (D) German
stays in locality S while E is a Muslim and stays in
locality R. The doctor is a Christian and stays in
10. Who precedes the man wearing jacket ?
locality P, B is a Shikh while A is a Hindu and runs
(A) Indian (B) German
a factory.
(C) Japanese (D) Cannot say

PAGE # 78
Directions : (11 to 15) Read the following information Directions : (19 to 23) Read the information given below
carefully and answer the questions that follow. and answer the questions.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in a The age and height of six children in a class are as
group. Each student can opt for only three choices follows :
out of the six which are music, reading, painting, (i) A is taller and older than B but shorter and
badminton, cricket and tennis. younger than C.
II. A, C and F like reading. (ii) D is taller than E who is not as tall as B.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music. (iii) The oldest is the shortest.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music. (iv) The youngest would be fourth if the children
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like cricket. stood in a line according to their height and one
VI. All student except one like badminton. started counting from the tallest.
VII. Two students like tennis. (v) D is younger than F but older than E who is
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis. older than C.

11. Which pair of students has the same combination 19. Who among them is the tallest ?
of choices ? (A) B (B) E
(A) A and C (B) C and D (C) C (D) Data inadequate
(C) B and E (D) D and F
20. Who is older than B but younger than C ?
12. Who among the following students likes both (A) F (B) D
tennis and cricket ? (C) A (D) Data inadequate
(A) A and B (B) C
(C) B and D (D) D 21. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(A) D is the most old person
13. How many students like painting and badminton ? (B) B has the max. height
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) A is older than D
(C) 3 (D) 4 (D) F is the shortest
14. Who among the following do not like music ? 22. Which of the following is the correct order of height
(A) A , C and D (B) A, B and C in descending order?
(C) A, C and F (D) B, D and F (A) A, C, D, B, E, F (B) F, D, E, C, A, B
(C) D, C, A, B, E, F (D) C, D, A, B, E, F
15. Which of the following is the most popular choice?
(A) Tennis (B) Badminton 23. W hose Rank in height cannot be positioned
(C) Reading (D) Painting definitely ?
(A) B (B) D
16. R earns more than H but not as much as T, M
(C) C (D) E
earns more than R. Who earns least among
them? Directions : (24 to 28) Study the information given below
(A) R (B) T and answer the questions that follow.
(C) H (D) M (i) Six Plays P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be organised
from Monday to Saturday i.e. 10 to 15 one play each
17. Harish is taller than Manish but shorter than
Suresh. Manish is shorter than Anil but taller than day.
Raghu. Who among them is the shortest having (ii) There are two plays between R and S and one
regard to height ? play between P and R.
(A) Anil (B) Manish (iii) There is one play between U and T and T is to
(C) Raghu (D) Cannot be determined be organised before U.
(iv) Q is to be organised before P, not necessarily
Direction : (18) Examine the following statements : immediately.
I. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older (v) The organisation does not start with Q.
than B.
II. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older 24. The organisation would start from which play ?
than C. (A) P (B) S
III. B is older than C. (C) T (D) None

18. Which one of the following conclusions can be 25. On which date is play T to be organised ?
drawn from the above statements ? (A) 10th (B) 11th
th
(A) A is older than B (C) 12 (D) None
(B) B and D are of the same age 26. The organisation would end with which play ?
(C) D is older than C (A) P (B) Q
(D) A is older than C (C) S (D) None

PAGE # 79
27. Which day is play Q organised ? 31. If it is sure that Henna will go to the fair, then who
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday among the following will definitely go ?
(C) Thursday (D) None (A) Rama (B) Shamma
(C) Reena (D) Rama and Reena
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
organising plays ? 32. If Tina does not go to the fair, which of the following
(A) PTRUQS (B) QSTURP statements must be true ?
(C) SUTRQP (D) None (i) Henna cannot go
(ii) Shamma cannot go
Directions : (29 to 30) Read the following information
(iii) Reena cannot go
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
(iv) Rama cannot go
I. Seven books are placed one above the other in a
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
particular way .
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
II. The history book is placed directly above the
civics book. Directions : (33 to 37) Read the following paragraph
III. The geography book is fourth from the bottom carefully and choose the correct alternative.
and the English book is fifth from the top. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently
IV. There are two books in between the civics and consists of three females A, B, C and five males D,
economics books. E, F, G and H. The management is planning to
29. To find the number of books between the civics open a new office in another city using three males
and the science books, which other extra piece of and two females of the present staff. To do so they
information is required, from the following ? plan to separate certain individuals who do not
(A) There are two books between the geography function well together. The following guidelines
and the science books. were established
(B) There are two books between the mathematics I. Females A and C are not to be together
and the geography books . II. C and E should be separated
(C) There is one book between the English and III. D and G should be separated
the science books. IV. D and F should not be part of a team.
(D) The civics book is placed before two books
33. If A is chosen to be moved, which of the following
above the economics book.
cannot be a team ?
30. To know which three books are kept above the (A) ABDEH (B) ABDGH
English book, which of the following additional (C) ABEFH (D) ABEGH
pieces of information, if any, is required?
(A) The economics book is between the English 34. If C and F are to be moved to the new office, how
and the science books. many combinations are possible ?
(B) There are two books between the English and (A) 1 (B) 2
the history books. (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) The geography book is above the English book.
35. If C is chosen to the new office, which number of
(D) No other information is required.
the staff cannot be chosen to go with C ?
Directions : (31 to 32) A five-member team that includes (A) B (B) D
Rama, Shamma, Henna, Reena, and Tina, is (C) F (D) G
planning to go to a science fair but each of them
36. Under the guidelines, which of the following must
put up certain conditions for going .They are as
be chosen to go to the new office ?
follows.
(A) B (B) D
I. If Rama goes, then at least one amongst
(C) E (D) G
Shamma and Henna must go.
II. If Shamma goes, then Reena will not go.
37. If D goes to the new office, which of the following
III. If Henna will go, then Tina must go.
is/are true ?
IV. If Reena goes, then - Henna must go.
I. C cannot be chosen
V. If Tina goes, then Rama must go but Shamma
II. A cannot be chosen
cannot go.
III. H must be chosen.
VI. If Reena plans not to go the fair, then Rama will
(A) I only (B) II only
also not go.
(C) I and II only (D) I and III only

PAGE # 80
Directions : (38 to 42) Study the following information Directions : (45 to 49) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions that follow : carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There is a family of six persons- L, M, N, O, P
A team of five is to be selected from amongst five
and Q. They are professor, businessman,
boys A, B, C, D and E and four girls P, Q, R and S.
chartered account, bank manager, engineer and
Some criteria for selection are : medical representative, not necessarily in that
A and S have to be together order.
P cannot be put with R. (ii) There are two married couples in the family.
D and Q cannot go together. (iii) O, the bank manager is married to the lady
C and E have to be together. professor.
(iv) Q, the medical representative, is the son of M
R cannot be put with B.
and brother of P.
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are (v) N, the chartered accountant, is the daughter - in
applicable to all the questions below : law of L.
(vi) The businessman is married to the chartered
38. If two of the members have to be boys, the team acconuntant.
will consist of : (vii) P is an unmarried engineer.
(A) A B S P Q (B) A D S Q R (viii) L is the grandmother of Q
(C) B D S R Q (D) C E S P Q
45. How is P related to Q.
(A) Brother (B) Sister
39. If R be one of the members, the other members of
(C) Cousin (D) Either brother or sister
the team are :
(A) P S A D (B) Q S A D 46. Which of the following is the profession of M ?
(C) Q S C E (D) S A C E (A) Professor
(B) Chartered accountant
40. If two of the members are girls and D is one of the (C) Businessman
members, the members of the team other than D (D) Medical representative
are : 47. Which of the following is the profession of L ?
(A) P Q B C (B) P Q C E (A) Professor (B) Charted accountant
(C) P S A B (D) P S C E (C) Businessman (D) Engineer

41. If A and C are members, the other members of the 48. Which of the following is one of the couples ?
(A) QO (B) OM
team cannot be :
(C) PL (D) None of these
(A) B E S (B) D E S
(C) E S P (D) P Q E 49. How is O related to Q?
(A) Father (B) Grandfather
42. If including P at least three members are girls, the (C) Uncle (D) Brother
members of the team other than P are :
Directions : (50 to 54)
(A) Q S A B (B) Q S B D I. There is a group of six persons P,Q, R, S, T and U
(C) Q S C E (D) R S A D from a family. They are Psychologist, Manager,
Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
Directions : (43 to 44) Read the given information carefully II. The Doctor is grandfather of U, who is a
and answer the questions that follow : Psychologist.
Ratan, Anil, Pinku and Gaurav are brothers of Rakhi, III. The Manager S is married to P.
Sangeeta, Pooja and Saroj, not necessarily in that IV. R, the Jeweller is married to the Lawyer.
V. Q is the mother of U and T.
order. Each boy has one sister and the names of
VI. There are two married couples in the family.
bothers and sisters do not begin with the same
letter. Pinku and Gaurav are not Sarojs or 50. What is the profession of T ?
Sangeetas brothers. Saroj is not Ratans sister. (A) Doctor (B) Jeweller
(C) Manager (D) None of these
43. Poojas brother is
51. How is P related to T ?
(A) Ratan (B) Anil
(A) Brother (B) Uncle
(C) Pinku (D) Gaurav (C) Father (D) Grandfather

44. Which of the following are brother and sister ? 52. How many male members are their in the family ?
(A) Ratan and Pooja (B) Anil and Saroj (A) One (B) Three
(C) Pinku and Sangeeta (D) Gaurav and Rakhi (C) Four (D) Data inadequate

PAGE # 81
53. What is the profession of P ? III. Two persons from the same side of the roads
(A) Doctor (B) Lawyer cannot move in consecutive movements.
(C) Jeweller (D) Manager
IV. If one person crosses the road in a particular
54. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples movement, he or she cannot immediately move
in the family ? back to the other side.
(A) PQ (B) PR V. Jai and Reema did not take part in first 3
(C) PS (D) Cannot be determined movements.
Direction : (55) The ages of Mandar, Shivku, Pawan and
56. W hat is the minimum possible number of
Chandra are 32, 21, 35 and 29 years, not in order,
Whenever asked they lie of their own age but tell movements that took place in the entire game ?
the truth abut others. (A) 3 (B) 4
(i) Pawan says, My age is 32 and Mandars age is (C) 5 (D) 6
not 35
(ii) Shivku says, My age is not 2 9 and Pawans 57. If number of movements are minimised in the
age in not 21 game, then which of the following combination of
(iii) Mandar says, My age is 32. friends can never be together on one particular
55. What is Chandras age ? side of the road during the course of the game ?
(A) 32 years (B) 35 years (A) Nitin, Reema amd Deepti
(C) 29 years (D) 21 years (B) Nitin, Jai and Deepti
(C) Deepti, Jai and Ashutosh
Directions : (56 to 57) Answer the questions on the basis
(D) Ashutosh, Nitin and Deepti
of the information given below. 5 friends Nitin,
Reema, Jai, Deepti and Ashutosh are playing a
58. You have 12 similar looking coins. 11 of them weigh
game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, Nitin,
Reema and Ashutosh are on the one side of the the same. One of them has a different weight, but
road and Deepti and Jai are on the other side. At you dont know whether it is heavier or lighter. You
the end of the game, it was found that Reema and also have a scale. You can put coins on both sides
Deepti are on the one side and Nitin, Jai and of the scale and itll tell you which side is heavier or
Ashutosh are on the other side of the road. Rules will stay in the middle if both sides weigh the same.
of the game are as follows : What is the minimum number of weighing required
I. One movement means only one person crosses
to find out the odd coin.
the road from any side to the other side.
II. No two persons can cross the road (A) 3 (B) 4
simultaneously from any side to the other side. (C) 5 (D) 6

PAGE # 82
 CALENDAR AND CLOCK TEST
Similarly, 200 years = 10 odd days = 03 odd days
15
300 years = = 1 odd day..
We are to find the day of the week on a mentioned 7
date. Certain concepts are defined as under. 20 1
400 years = = 0 odd day (1 is added as 400
7
An ordinary year has 365 days. is a leap year)
Similarly, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 2400 years
In an ordinary year, first and last day of the year are
contain 0 odd days.
same.
After counting the odd days, we find the day
A leap year has 366 days. Every year which is according to the number of odd days.
divisible by 4 is called a leap year. For example
Sunday for 0 odd day, Monday for 1 odd day and so
1200, 1600, 1992, 2004, etc. are all leap years.
on as shown in the following table.
For a leap year, if first day is Monday than last day Table : 1 (Odd days for week days)
will be Tuesday for the same year.
Days Sunday Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
In a leap year, February is of 29 days but in an
ordinary year, it has only 28 days.
Odd Days 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Year ending in 00's but not divisiable by 400 is not
considered a leap year. e.g., 900, 1000, 1100, 1300, Table : 2 (Odd days for months in a year)
1400, 1500, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2100 are not leap Ordinary Odd Odd
years. Days Leap year Days
Year Days Days

The day on which calendar started (or the very first January 31 3 January 31 3

day ) i.e., 1 Jan, 0001 was Monday. February 28 0 February 29 1

March 31 3 March 31 3
Calendar year is from 1 Jan to 31 Dec. Financial
April 30 2 April 30 2
year is from 1 April to 31 March.
May 31 3 May 31 3
June 30 2 June 30 2
ODD DAYS
Total 181 days 6 Total 182 days 0

The no. of days exceeding the complete no. of July 31 3 July 31 3

weeks in a duration is the no. of odd days during August 31 3 August 31 3

that duration. September 30 2 September 30 2
October 31 3 October 31 3
COUNTING OF ODD DAYS November 30 2 November 30 2
December 31 3 December 31 3
Every ordinary year has 365 days = 52 weeks +1 day. Total 184 days 1 Total 184 days 2
Ordinary year has 1 odd day.
Table : 3 (Odd days for every quarter)
Every leap year 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 days.
Leap year has 2 odd days. M onths
I st three IInd three IIIrd three Iv th three
Total year
m onths m onths m onths m onths
of 1 Jan to
Odd days of 100 years = 5, 1 Jan to 1 Apr to 1 July to 1 Oct. to
years 31 Dec.
31 M arch 30 June 30 Sep. 31 Dec.
Odd days of 200 years = 3,
Odd days of 300 years = 1, 90 / 91 365 / 366
Total days 91 92 92
Ord. / Leap Ord. / Leap
Odd days of 400 years = 0. 6 /0 0 1 1 1 /2
Odd days
Ord. / Leap O dd day Odd day Odd day Ord. / Leap
Explanation :
100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years Ex 1. If it was Saturday on 17th December 1982 what
( The year 100 is not a leap year) will be the day on 22nd December 1984 ?
= 76 odd days + 2 24 odd days = 124 odd days. Sol. Total number of odd days between 17 Dec.1982
to 17 Dec.1984 the number of odd days = 1+2 = 3.
124
Odd days = = 5 odd days. From 17 to 22 Dec. number of odd days = 5
7 3 + 5 = 8 odd days = 1 odd day.
Saturday + 1 odd day = Sunday.

PAGE # 83
Ex 2. Find the day of the week on 16 January, 1969.
Sol. 1600 years have 0 odd day. .....................(A)
300 years have 1 odd day. ......................(B) Sol.
68 years have 17 leap years and 51 ordinary years.
Thus = (17 2 + 51 1 ) = 85 odd days
' 01' odd day ...(C)
16 January has = ' 02' odd days..(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 01 +01 +02 = 04 odd days
Ans. Thursday
Ex 3. Find the day of the week on 18 July, 1776 (leap Sol.
year).
Sol. Here 1600 years have 0 odd day.....................(A)
100 years have 5 odd days..............................(B)
75 years = (18 leap years + 57 ordinary years)
= (18 2 + 57 1)
= 93 odd days
= (7 13 + 2) = 2 odd days.............................(C)
Now, the no. of days from 1st January to 18 July,
1776
= 182 + 18 = 200 days
= (28 7 + 4) days = 4 odd days.....................(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 5 + 2 + 4 = 04 odd days
Ans. Thursday
Ex 4. On what dates of October, 1975 did Tuesday fall ?
Sol. For determining the dates, we find the day on 1st
Oct, 1975.
1600 years have 0 odd days.....................(A).
300 years have 01 odd days.....................(B).
74 years have (18 leap years + 56 ordinary years)
2 18 + 1 56 = 92 odd days
= 01 odd days.............(C)
Days from 1st January to 1st Oct., 1975
1st Jan 30 June + 1st July to 1st Oct.
181 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 1 = 274 days
= 01 odd days......(D) (274/7= 01 days)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D) = 0 + 01 +01 +01
= '03' odd days
Ans. Wednesday( 1st Oct), hence 7,14,21,28 Oct. will
Tuesday fall.
Ex 5. Calendar for 1995 will serve for 2006, prove ?
Sol. The Calendar for 1995 and 2006 will be the same
,if day on 1st January of both the years is the same.
This is possible only if the total odd days between
31st Dec. 1994 and 31st Dec.2005 is 0. [one day
before both the years as we want to know the day
on 1st January of both the years i.e. same]
During this period, we have
3 leap years
(1996, 2000, 2004) and
08 ordinary years
(1995,1997,1998,1999, 2001, 2002, 2003,2005)
Total odd days = (2 3 + 1 8) = 14 = 0 odd
days (Thus Proved)
Ex 6. The year next to 1996 having the same Calendar
will be -
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003
2 1 1 1 2
Total = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 7= 0 odd days
Hence, year 2001 will have the same calendar as
year 1996.
Ex 7. Prove that last day of a century cannot be Tuesday,
Thursday or Saturday.
100 years have = 5 odd days
Last day of st century is Friday
200 years have = 10 odd days
Last day of IInd century is Wednesday
= 3 odd days
300 years have = 15 odd days
Last day of rd century is Monday
= 01 odd day
400 years have = (5 4 + 1)
Last day of 4th century is Sunday
= 21 odd days
= 0 odd days
Since the order keeps on cycling, we see that the
last day of the century cannot be Tuesday, Thursday
or Saturday.
Important Notes :
Minute hand and hour hand coincides once in every
hour. They coincide 11 times in 12 hours and 22
times in 24 hours.
They coincide only one time between 11 to 1 O
clock. at 12 O clock.
Minute hand and hour hand are opposite once in
every hour. They do it 11 times in 12 hours and 22
times in 24 hours.
They opposite only one time between 5 to 7 O
clock. at 6 O clock.
Both hands (minute and hour) are perpendicular
twice in every hour. 22 times in 12 hours and 44
times in 24 hours.
In one minute, hour hand moves 1/2 and minute
hand moves 6. In one hour, hour hand moves 30
and minute hand moves 360.
In an hour, minute hand moves 55 minutes ahead
of hour hand.
PAGE # 84
 Case-II When the time taken (20 + 15) = 35 min.
HANDS COINCIDE
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
Ex.8 At what time between 3 OClock and 4 OClock will 60 min.
the two hands coincide ? Minute hand is 35 min. ahead of hour hand in
Sol. At 3 Oclock the distance between the two hands is 60 35 420 2
= = 38 min.
15 minutes when they coincide with each other the 55 11 11
distance between the two hands will be 0 min. 2
Hence, the right time is 38 min. past 4.
So, the time taken (15 + 0 ) = 15 minutes. 11
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min. MIRROR IMAGE OF CLOCK
Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
55 If the time is between 1 Oclock to 11 Oclock, then
Minute hand is 15 min. ahead of hour hand in to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from
11 : 60.
60 15 180 4
= = 16 min.
55 11 11 If the time is between 11 Oclock to 1 Oclock, then
4 to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from
Hence the right time is 16 minute past 3.
11 23 : 60.

HANDS ARE OPPOSITE Ex.11 The time in the clock is 4 : 46, what is the mirror image ?
Sol. (11 : 60) (4 : 46) = 7 : 14.
Ex.9 At what time between 2 Oclock and 3 Oclock will
Ex.12 The time in the clock is 12 : 35, then find its mirror
the two hands be opposite ?
image.
Sol. At 2 Oclock the distance between the two hands is
Sol. (23 : 60) (12 : 35) = 11 : 25.
10 minutes. When they are at 30 minutes distance,
they are opposite to each other. The time taken
(30 + 10 ) = 40 min.
TO FIND THE ANGLE BETWEEN TWO HANDS
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
Angle are of two types :
60 min.
Positive angle : It is obtained by moving from hour
Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in
hand to minute hand moving in clockwise direction.
60
min. Negative angle : It is obtained by moving from
55
Minute hand is 40 minutes ahead of hour hand minute hand to hour hand.
60 40 480 7 Both types of angles are 360 in total. If one angle
in = = 43 min.
55 11 11 is known, other can be obtained by subtracting from
7 360.
Hence, the right time is 43 min. past 2.
11
Ex.13 At 4 : 30, what is the angle formed between hour
HANDS ARE PERPENDICULAR hand and minute hand ?
Sol. At 4 O clock angle between hour and min. hand is
Ex.10 At what time between 4 Oclock and 5 Oclock will of 120.
the hands are perpendicular ? In 30 min. minute hand make an angle of 180.
Sol. At 4 Oclock the distance between the two hands is So, the resultant angle is 180 120 = 60.
20 min. When they are at 15 minutes distance, But in 30 min. hour hand will also cover an angle of 15.
they are perpendicular to each other.
Hence, the final angle between both hands is
Case-I When the time taken (20 15) = 5 min. 60 15 = 45.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
Short trick
60 min.
Minute hand is 5 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 5 60 5
= = 5 min.
55 11 11
5
Hence, the right time is 5 min. past 4.
11

PAGE # 85
 9. If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day
will fall on the day after tomorrow ?
(A) Friday (B) Thursday
Ex.14 A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty minutes from a bus
stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus (C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday
had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will
leave at 9.35 A.M. At what time did the enquiry clerk 10. If February 1, 1996 is Wednesday, what day is March
give this information to the passenger ? 10, 1996 ?
Sol. Bus leaves after every 30 minutes. (A) Monday (B) Sunday
The next bus will leave at 9 : 35 A.M. (C) Saturday (D) Friday
The last bus left at 9 : 35 0 : 30 = 9 : 05 A.M.
but clerk said that bus had left 10 minutes earlier. 11. If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier
9 : 05 + 0 : 10 = 9 : 15 A.M.
than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth
day of the month ?
EXERCISE (A) Sunday (B) Monday
(C) Wednesday (D) Friday
1. Find the day of the week on 26 January, 1950.
12. Mohini went to the movies nine days ago. She goes
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday
to the movies only on Thursday. What day of the
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
week is today ?
2. W hich two months in a year have the same (A) Thursday (B) Saturday
calendar ? (C) Sunday (D) Tuesday
(A) June, October (B) April, November
13. At what time are the hands of a clock together
(C) April, July (D) October, December
between 5 and 6 ?
3. Are the years 900 and 1000 leap years ?
3 3
(A) Yes (B) No (A) 33 min. past 5 (B) 28 min. past 5
11 11
(C) Can't say (D) None of these
3 3
4. If it was Saturday on 17th November, 1962 what (C) 27 min. past 5 (D) 26 min. past 5
11 11
will be the day on 22nd November, 1964 ?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday
14. At what time between 9 and 10 will the hands of a
(C) Wednesday (D) Sunday
clock be in the straight line, but not together ?
5. Sangeeta remembers that her father's birthday (A) 16 minutes past 9
was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of 4
(B) 16 minutes past 9
December. Her sister Natasha remembers that 11
their father's birthday was definitely after ninth but 6
(C) 16 minutes past 9
before fourteenth of December. On which date of 11
9
December was their father's birthday ? (D) 16 minutes past 9
11
(A) 10th (B) 11th
(C) 12th (D) Data inadequate 15. At what time between 5 & 5 : 30 will the hands of a
clock be at right angle ?
6. Find the day of the week on 15 August, 1947.
10
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday (A) 10 minutes past 5
11
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday 5
(B) 11 minutes past 5
11
7. Karan was born on Saturday 22nd March 1982. On
10
what day of the week was he 14 years 7 months (C) 9 minutes past 5
11
and 8 days of age ? 9
(A) Sunday (B) Tuesday (D) 10 minutes past 5
11
(C) Wednesday (D) Monday
16. Ajay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier
8. If on 14th day after 5th March be Wednesday, what than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the stop.
day of the week will fall on 10th Dec. of the same He reached the stop at 8.40 a.m. What time does
year ? he usually leave home for the bus stop ?
(A) Friday (B) Wednesday (A) 8.30 a.m. (B) 8.45 a.m.
(C) Thursday (D) Tuesday (C) 8.55 a.m. (D) Data inadequate

PAGE # 86
17. The priest told the devotee, "The temple bell is 26. The train for Lucknow leaves every two and a half
rung at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The last hours from New Delhi Railway Station. An
bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is announcement was made at the station that the
due to be rung at 7.45 a.m." At what time did the train for Lucknow had left 40 minutes ago and the
priest give this information to the devotee ? next train will leave at 18. 00 hrs. At what time was
(A) 7.40 a.m. (B) 7.05 a.m.
the announcement made ?
(C) 6.55 a.m. (D) None of these
(A) 15.30 hrs (B) 17.10 hrs
18. There are twenty people working in an office. The (C) 16.00 hrs (D) None of these
first group of five works between 8.00 A.M. and 2.00
P.M. The second group of ten works between 10.00 27. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each
A.M. and 4.00 P.M. And the third group of five works hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20
between 12 noon and 6.00 P.M. There are three feet before he again starts climbing in the
computers in the office which all the employees beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent
frequently use. During which of the following hours at 8.00 a.m., at what time will he first touch a flag at
the computers are likely to be used most ? 120 feet from the ground ?
(A) 10.00 A.M. 12 noon (A) 4 p.m. (B) 5 p.m.
(B) 12 noon 2.00 P.M. (C) 6 p.m. (D) None of these
(C) 1.00 P.M. 3.00 P.M.
(D) 2.00 P.M. 4.00 P.M. 28. If the two incorrect watches are set at 12 : 00 noon
at correct time, when will both the watches show
19. A tired worker slept at 7.45 p.m.. If he rose at 12
the correct time for the first time given that the first
noon, for how many hours did he sleep ?
watch gains 1 min in 1 hour and second watch
(A) 5 hours 15 min. (B) 16 hours 15 min.
(C) 12 hours (D) 6 hours 45 min. loses 4 min in 2 hours :
(A) 6 pm, 25 days later
20. How many times are the hands of a clocks (B) 12 : 00 noon, 30 days later
perpendicular in a day ? (C) 12 noon, 15 days later
(A) 42 (B) 48 (D) 6 am 45 days later
(C) 44 (D) 46
29. Rajeev and Sanjeev are too close friends Rajeev's
21. If a clock shows 04: 28 then its mirror image will
watch gains 1 minute in an hour and Sanjeev's
be ?
watch loses 2 minutes in an hour. Once they set
(A) 07: 42 (B) 07: 32
(C) 08: 32 (D) 08: 42 both the watches at 12 : 00 noon, with my correct
watch. When will the two incorrect watches of
22. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes slow Rajeev and Sanjeev show the same time together?
at noon on Monday and is 3 minutes 48 seconds (A) 8 days later (B) 10 days later
fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. What time it (C) 6 days later (D) can't be determined
was correct ?
(A) 2 p.m. On Tuesday 30. At a railway station a 24 hour watch loses 3 minutes
(B) 2 p.m. On Wednesday in 4 hours. If it is set correctly on Sunday noon
(C) 3 p.m. On Thursday when will the watch show the correct time ?
(D) 1 p.m. On Friday. (A) 6 pm after 40 days
23. How many times are the hands of a clocks coincide (B) 12 noon after 75 days
in a day ? (C) 12 pm after 100 days
(A) 10 (B) 11 (D) 12 noon after 80 days
(C) 12 (D) 22
31. A swiss watch is being shown in a museum which
24. At what time between 2 and 3 O clock the hands of has a very peculiar property. It gains as much in
a clock will make an angle of 160 ? the day as it loses during night between 8 pm to 8
(A) 20 minutes past 2 (B) 30 minutes past 2 am. In a week how many times will the clock show
(C) 40 minutes past 2 (D) 50 minutes past 2 the correct time ?
25. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in (A) 6 times (B) 14 times
the morning, reaches Kunals house in 25 minutes, (C) 7 times (D) 8 times
they finish their breakfast in another 15 minutes
and leave for their office which takes another 35 32. A wrist watch which is running 12 minutes late on
minutes. At what time do they leave Kunals house a Sunday noon is 16 minutes ahead of the correct
to reach their office ? time at 12 noon on the next Sunday. When is the
(A) 7.40 am (B) 7.20 am clock 8 minutes ahead of time ?
(C) 7.45 am (D) 8.15 am (A) Thursday 10 am (B) Friday noon
(C) Friday 8 pm (D) Tuesday noon

PAGE # 87
33. A clock loses 2 minutes in a hour and another clock 38. Kumbhakarna starts sleeping between 1 pm and
gains 2 minutes in every 2 hours. Both these clocks 2 pm and he wakes up when his watch shows
are set correctly at a certain time on Sunday and
such a time that the two hands (i.e., hour-hand
both the clocks stop simultaneously on the next
and minute-hand) interchange the respective
day with the time shown being 9 am and 10 : 06
AM. What is the correct time at which they stopped? places. He wakes up between 2 pm and 3 PM on
(A) 9 : 54 am (B) 9 : 44 pm the same night. How long does he sleep ?
(C) 9 : 46 am (D) 9 : 44 am 5 10
(A) 55 min (B) 110 min
13 13
34. David sets his watch at 6 : 10 am on Sunday, which
6
gains 12 minutes in a day. On Wednesday if this (C) 54 min (D) None of these
13
watch is showing 2 : 50 pm. What is the correct
time ? 39. A clock loses 3% time during the first week and
(A) 1 : 50 pm (B) 2 : 10 pm
then gains 2% time during the next one week. If the
(C) 2 : 30 pm (D) 3 : 30 pm
clock was set right at 12 noon on a Sunday, what
35. Ramu purchased a second hand Swiss watch will be the time that the clock will show exactly 14
which is very costly. In this watch the minute-hand days from the time it was set right ?
3 (A) 1 : 36 : 48 (B) 1 : 40 : 48
and hour hand coincide after every 65 minutes.
11
How much time does the watch lose or gain per (C) 1 : 41 : 24 (D) 10 : 19 : 12
day ?
Direction : (40 to 41) A 12 dial clock has its minute hand
(A) 4 min (B) 5 min
(C) 4 min, 20 sec (D) none of these defective. W henever it touches dial 12, it
immediately falls down to 6 instead of running
36 My watch was 8 minutes behind at 8 pm on Sunday smoothly (the hour hand remains unaffected during
but within a week at 8 pm on Wednesday it was 7
that fall). It was set right at 12 O clock in the noon.
minutes ahead of time. During this period at which
time this watch has shown the correct time :
40. What was the actual time when the minute hand of
(A) Tuesday 10 : 24 am
the clock touched dial 9 for the 5th time?
(B) Wednesday 9 : 16 pm
(C) It cannot show the correct time during this period (A) 2 : 15 (B) 3 : 00
(D) None of the above (C) 5 : 15 (D) 6 : 45

37. Out of the following four choices which does not 41. If the actual time is 10 : 10, what is the position of
show the coinciding of the hour hand and minute- the hour hand in that defective clock ?
hand : (A) Between 2 and 3 (B) Between 4 and 5
(A) 3 : 16 : 2 (B) 6 : 32 : 43
(C) Between 10 and 11 (D) Between 3 and 4
(C) 9 : 59 : 05 (D) 5 : 27 : 16

PAGE # 88
 CUBE AND DICE-TEST

CUBES
A cube is three dimensional figure, having 8
corners, 6 surfaces and 12 edges. If a cube is
painted on all of its surfaces with any colour and
further divided into various smaller cubes, we get
following results. Smaller cubes with three
surfaces painted will be present on the corners of
the big cube.
side of big cube 4
Here n= 4
3 2 2 3
side of small cube 1
2 1 1 2
2 1 3
1 2
3 2 2 3
2
2 2
3 2 2 3 3
1 Ex 1. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
1
2 2 painted ?
2 1 1 2 1
1 3
2 1 1 2 2
2 (A) 4 (B) 8
2
3 2 2 3 3 (C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
Smaller cubes with two surface painted will be painted = 8
present on the edges of the big cube. Smaller
cubes with one surface painted will be present on Ex 2. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
the surfaces of the big cube. Smaller cubes with painted ?
no surface painted will be present inside the big (A) 4 (B) 8
cube.
(C) 16 (D) 24
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with a Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
colour and then divided into smaller cubes of equal
painted = (n 2) 12 = (4 2) 12 = 24
size then after separation, number of smaller cubes
so obtained will be calculated as under :
Ex 3. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8 painted ?
Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces (A) 8 (B) 16
painted = (n 2) 12 (C) 24 (D) 32
Number of smaller cubes with one surfaces
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = (n 2)2 6
Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces painted painted = (n 2)2 6 = (4 2)2 6 = 4 6 = 24
= (n 2)3
Ex 4. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted ?
Where n = No of divisions on the surfaces of the (A) 18 (B) 16
bigger cube
(C) 22 (D) 8
length of edge of big cube Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with no surface
=
length of edge of one smaller cube painted = (n 2)3 = (4 2)3 = (2)3 = 8

TYPE I
TYPE II
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with single
colour and then divided into various smaller cubes If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with
of equal size. different colours and then divided into various
Directions : ( 1 to 4) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on smaller cubes of equal size.
all of its surfaces and then divided into various
smaller cubes of side 1 cm each. The smaller Directions : ( 5 to 7 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on
cubes so obtained are separated. the pair of one opposite surfaces, blue on the pair
of another opposite surfaces and red on remaining
444
Total cubes of obtained = 64 pair of opposite surfaces. The cube is now divided
1 1 1
into smaller cubes of equal side of 1 cm each.

PAGE # 89
 Ex 9. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = Number of cubes present at the corners
+ Numbers of cubes present at 4 edges
= 8 + (n 2) 4 = 8 + 8 = 16

Ex 5. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8
(These smaller cubes will have all three surfaces
painted with different colour blue, black and red.)

Ex 6. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 Ex 10.
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = 24. And out of this -
(a) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted Sol.
with black and blue colour = 8.
(b) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with blue and red colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with black and red color = 8. Ex 11.
Ex 7. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = 24. And out of this -
(a) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with black colour =8.
(b) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with blue colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with red colour = 8.
TYPE III
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
that one pair of opposite surfaces is left unpainted.
Directions : ( 8 to 11 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted red on
the pair of one opposite surfaces, green on the
pair of another opposite surfaces and one pair of
opposite surfaces is left unpainted. Now the cube
is divided into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
(D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = Number of cubes present at the 8 edges
+ number of cubes present at the four surfaces=
(n 2) 8 + (n 2)2 4
= 2 8 + 4 4 = 16 + 16 = 32
How many smaller cubes will have no side painted
?
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with no side painted
= Number of cubes on the two unpainted surfaces +
number of cubes present inside the cube.
= (n 2)2 2 + (n 2)3 = 4 2 + (2)3 = 8 + 8 = 16.
TYPE IV
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
that one pair of adjacent surfaces is left unpainted.
Directions : (12 to 15 )A cube of side 4 cm is painted red on
the pair of one adjacent surfaces, green on the
pair of other adjacent surfaces and two adjacent
surfaces are left unpainted. Now the cube is divided
into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.

Ex 8. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 20
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces Ex 12. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
painted = 0 (Because each smaller cube at the painted ?
corner is attached to a surface which is unpainted.) (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 6

PAGE # 90
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
Type-II
painted = Number of smaller cubes at two corners
=2 Ex 17. The figures given below show the two different
positions of a dice. Which number will appear
Ex 13. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces opposite to number 2 ?.
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 14
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = Number of smaller cubes at four corners
(A) 3 (B) 4
+ Number of smaller cubes at 5 edges.
(C) 5 (D) 6
= 4 + (n 2) 5 = 4 + 2 5 Sol. (C) The above question,
= 4 + 10 = 14 where only two positions of
a dice are given, can easily
Ex 14. How many smaller cubes have only one surface be solved with the
painted ? following method.
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 30 Step I. The dice, when unfolded, will appear as shown in
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface the figure given on the right side.
painted = Number of smaller cubes at four Step II. Write the common number to both the dice in the
surfaces + Number of smaller cubes at 6 edges + middle block. Since common number is 4, hence
Number of smaller cubes at two corners. number 4 will appear in the central block.
= (n 2)2 4 + (n 2) 6 + 2 Step III. Consider the figure (i) and write the first number in
= 4 4 + 2 6 + 2 = 16 + 12 = 28 + 2 = 30 the anti-clockwise direction of number 4,
(common number) in block I and second number
Ex 15. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted in block II. Therefore, numbers 3 and 2 being the
? first and second number to 4 in anticlockwise
(A) 18 (B) 16 directions respectively, will appear in block I & II
(C) 22 (D) 8 respectively.
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces Step IV. Consider figure (ii) and wire first and second
painted = Number of smaller cubes from inside number in the anticlock-wise direction to number
the big cube + Number of cubes at two surfaces + 4, (common number) in block (III) & (IV). Hence
Number of cubes at one edge. numbers 6 and 5 will appear in the blocks III and IV
3 2 respectively.
= (n 2) + (n 2) 2 + (n 2)
3 2
= (2) + (2) + 2 Step V. Write remaining number in the remaining block.
= 8 + 8 + 2 = 18 Therefore, number 1 will come in the remaining
block. Now, from the unfolded figures we find that
DICES number opposite to 6 is 3, number opposite to 2 is
5 and number opposite to 4 is 1. Therefore, option
Type-I (C) is our answer.
( Short Trick : From the given dice, we will take the
General Dice : In a general dice the sum of numbers common number as the base and then in its
on the any two adjacent faces is 7. respect move clockwise direction and write as
Standard Dice : In a standard dice the sum of follows : 4 2 3
numbers on the opposite faces is '7'. 4 5 6.
Here,we find that number opposite to 6 is 3, number
Ex 16. Which number is opposite 4 in a standard dice opposite to 2 is 5 and number opposite to 4 is
given below ? remaining number 1.
Therefore, option (C) is our answer. )
1
5 Ex 18. On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell
4
what number will be on the opposite face of number
(A) 1 (B) 3 5?
(C) 5 (D) Cant be determined

Sol. Clearly , from the standard dice the sum of

numbers on the opposite faces is '7', so number
opposite to 4 is 3.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6

PAGE # 91
Sol. (D) The above question where only two positions
of a dice are given, can easily be solved with the Type-V
following method :
If in the given dice, there are two numbers common, Ex 21. Which of the following dices is identical to the
then uncommon numbers will always be opposite unfolded figure as shown here ?
of each other.
Therefore, option (D) is our answer.

Type-III

Ex 19. From the following figures of dice, find which

number will come in place of ?
(X)

(A) (B)

(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 3
Sol. (D) If the above dice is unfolded, it will look like as (C) (D)
the figure (i) given below.
Sol. (A) From the unfolded figure of dice, we find that
number opposite to 2 is 4, for 5 it is 3 and for 1 it is
6. From this result we can definitely say that figure
(B), (C) and (D) can not be the answer figure as
Figure (i) numbers lying on the opposite pair of surfaces are
present on the adjacent surfaces.

Now the number in place of ? can be obtained by

making a slight change in the figure as given here. EXERCISE
Now comparing figure (ii) with third dice as above,
we get that number in place of ? is 3.
Directions : (1 to 5) A cube is coloured orange on one face,
pink on the opposite face, brown on one face and
silver on a face adjacent to the brown face. The
other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut
into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. Now answer
the following questions based on the above
statements.
Figure (ii) 1. How many cubes have at least one face coloured
pink ?
Type-IV (A) 1 (B) 9
(C) 16 (D) 25
Ex 20. A dice has been thrown four times and produces
following results. 2. How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured ?
(A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 48 (D) 64

3. How many cubes have at least two faces coloured ?

(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 23

4. How many cubes are coloured orange on one face

and have the remaining faces uncoloured ?
(A) 8 (B) 12
Which number will appear opposite to the number (C) 14 (D) 16
3?
(A) 4 (B) 5 5. How many cubes one coloured silver on one face,
(C) 6 (D) 1 orange or pink on another face and have four
Sol. (A) From the figures (i), (ii) and (iv) we find that uncoloured faces ?
numbers 6, 1, 5 and 2 appear on the adjacent (A) 8 (B) 10
surfaces to the number 3. Therefore, number 4 (C) 12 (D) 16
will be opposite to number 3.

PAGE # 92
Directions : (6 to 11) A cube is painted red on two adjacent Directions : (17 to 21) The outer border of width 1 cm of a
surfaces and black on the surfaces opposite to cube with side 5 cm is painted yellow on each side
red surfaces and green on the remaining faces.
and the remaining space enclosed by this 1 cm
Now the cube is cut into sixty four smaller cubes of
equal size. path is painted pink. This cube is now cut into 125
smaller cubes of each side 1 cm. The smaller
6. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ? cubes so obtained are now seperated.
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32 17. How many smaller cubes have all the surfaces
uncoloured ?
7. How many smaller cubes will have no surface
painted ? (A) 0 (B) 9
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 18 (D) 27
(C) 8 (D) 16
18. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
8. How many smaller cubes have less than three
surfaces painted ? coloured ?
(A) 8 (B) 24 (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 28 (D) 48 (C) 8 (D) 10
9. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
19. How many cubes have at least two surfaces
painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 coloured yellow ?
(C) 16 (D) 24 (A) 24 (B) 44

10. How many smaller cubes with two surfaces (C) 48 (D) 96
painted have one face green and one of the
20. How many cubes have one face coloured pink and
adjacent faces black or red ?
(A) 8 (B) 16 an adjacent face yellow ?
(C) 24 (D) 28 (A) 0 (B) 1

11. How many smaller cubes have at least one surface (C) 2 (D) 4
painted with green colour ?
21. How many cubes have at least one face coloured ?
(A) 8 (B) 24
(C) 32 (D) 56 (A) 27 (B) 98
(C) 48 (D) 121
Directions : (12 to 16) A cube of 4 cm has been painted on
its surfaces in such a way that two opposite Directions : (22 to 31) A solid cube has been painted yellow,
surfaces have been painted blue and two adjacent
blue and black on pairs of opposite faces. The
surfaces have been painted red. Two remaining
cube is then cut into 36 smaller cubes such that
surfaces have been left unpainted. Now the cube
32 cubes are of the same size while 4 others are
is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
of bigger sizes. Also no faces of any of the bigger
12. How many cubes will have no side painted ? cubes is painted blue.
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8 22. How many cubes have at least one face painted
blue ?
13. How many cubes will have at least red colour on (A) 0 (B) 8
its surfaces ? (C) 16 (D) 32
(A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 28 (D) 32 23. How many cubes have only one faces painted ?
(A) 24 (B) 20
14. How many cubes will have at least blue colour on
its surfaces ? (C) 8 (D) 12
(A) 20 (B) 8
24. How many cubes have only two faces painted ?
(C) 24 (D) 32
(A) 24 (B) 20
15. How many cubes will have only two surfaces (C) 16 (D) 8
painted with red and blue colour respectively ?
(A) 8 (B) 12 25. How many cubes have atleast two faces painted ?
(C) 24 (D) 30 (A) 36 (B) 34
(C) 28 (D) 24
16. How many cubes will have three surfaces coloured ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 26. How many cubes have only three faces painted ?
(C) 2 (D) 16 (A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 0

PAGE # 93
27. How many cubes do not have any of their faces 37. How many cubes will be formed?
painted yellow ? (A) 6 (B) 12
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 24
(C) 8 (D) 16
38. If cubes having only black as well as green colour
28. How many cubes have at least one of their faces are removed then how many cubes will be left?
painted black ? (A) 4 (B) 8
(A) 0 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 30
(C) 16 (D) 20
39. How many cubes will have 4 coloured sides and
29. How many cubes have at least one of their faces
2 sides without colour?
painted yellow or blue ?
(A) 8 (B) 4
(A) 36 (B) 32
(C) 16 (D) 10
(C) 16 (D) 0

30. How many cubes have no face painted ? 40. How many cubes will have two sides with green
(A) 8 (B) 4 colour and remaining sides without any colour?
(C) 1 (D) 0 (A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 4
31. How many cubes have two faces painted yellow
and black respectively ?
(A) 0 (B) 8 41. Which alphabet is opposite D ?
(C) 12 (D) 16

Directions : (32 to 35) Some equal

cubes are arranged in the
form of a solid block as
shown in the adjacent (A) E (B) C
figure. All the visible (C) F (D) A
sufaces of the block (except
the bottom) are then 42. What should be the number opposite 4 ?
painted.

32. How many cubes do not have any of the faces

painted ?
(A) 27 (B) 8 (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) 10 (D) 12
(A) 5 (B) 1
33. How many cubes have one face painted ? (C) 3 (D) 2
(A) 9 (B) 24
(C) 22 (D) 20

34. How many cubes have only two faces painted ?

(A) 0 (B) 16 43.
(C) 20 (D) 24

35. How many cubes have only three faces painted ? (i) (ii)
(A) 4 (B) 12
(C) 6 (D) 20
Directions : (36 to 40) A cuboid of dimensions
(6 cm 4 cm 1 cm) is painted black on both the
surfaces of dimensions (4 cm 1 cm), green on the (iii) (iv)
surfaces of dimensions (6 cm 4 cm). and red on Which letter will be opposite to letter D ?
the surfaces of dimensions (6 cm 1 cm). Now the (A) A (B) B
block is divided into various smaller cubes of side
(C) E (D) F
1 cm. each. The smaller cubes so obtained are
separated.
Directions : (44 to 45) The figure (X) given below is the
36. How many cubes will have all three colours black, unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of the
green and red each at least on one side? following questions this unfolded figure is followed
(A) 16 (B) 12 by four different figures of dice. You have to select
(C) 10 (D) 8 the figure which is identical to the figure (X).

PAGE # 94
 50. Which symbol will appear on the opposite surface
to the symbol x?

44. (X)

(A) (B) =
(A) (B)
(C) (D) O

51. Three positions of the same dice are given below.

Observe the figures carefully and tell which number
(B) (D) will come in place of ?

1 3 4
6 3 5 4 2 ?
(i) (ii) (iii)
45. (X) (A) 1 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 5

52. On the basis of the following figures you have to

tell which number will come in place of ?

(A) (B) 3 4 ?
6 1 2 6 1 5
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) (D) (C) 6 (D) 4

Directions : (53 to 55) Choose from the alternatives, the

Directions : (46 to 48) In each of the following questions, boxes that will be formed when figure (X) is folded:
select the correct option for the question asked.

53. (X)
(i) (ii)

46. Which number will come opposite to number 2?

(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 6 (D) 3 (A) (B)

47. Which number will come opposite to number 6?

(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) (D)
(C) 4 (D) 3

48. Which number will come opposite to number 4?

(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 2
+
49. On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell what 54. (X)
number will be on the opposite face of number 5?

(A) (B) +
(i) (ii)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6 (C) + (D)

PAGE # 95
 59.
55. (X)
(i) (ii)

(A) (B)

(iii) (iv)
Which number is opposite to number 5?
(C) (D) (A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 3

Directions : (60 to 64) Choose the cube from the options

that will unfold to give the figure on the left
Direction : (56) The six faces of a cube have been marked
with numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. This
cube is rolled down three times. The three X
60.
positions are given. Choose the figure that will be
formed when the cube is unfolded. M

56.
M X M
M X

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B)

4 1 8

61. 3
7
9
(C) (D)
9 7 8
1 8 4 1 7 7 8 7 4
57. Which number is opposite 3 in a standard dice (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
given below ?

62.
(A) 1 (B) 4 8
(C) 5 (D) Cant be determined
D

58. Which number is opposite 4 ?

8 8 D

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1 63.

Directions : (59) In the following question four positions of B

the same dice have been shown. You have to see
these figures and select the number opposite to
B
the number as asked in each question.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

PAGE # 96
 66. Which number/letter is opposite 2 ?
J

64. 3 I C
A
B
2

J (A) A (B) C
J
(C) 1 (D) 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions : (65 to 68) In each of the following questions, a 67. Which number/letter is opposite O?
diagram has been given which can be folded into
a cube. The entries given in the squares indicate L
the entries on the face of the cube. In each question N M 2
a number or a letter has been given . Of the four I O
alternatives given below it, you have to find the one
that would appear on the face opposite to it in the (A) L (B) M
cube. (C) N (D) 2
65. Which letter is opposite Q ?
68. Which letter is opposite R?
Q Q R
O P L S P
N U T
M
(A) L (B) M (A) P (B) S
(C) N (D) P (C) T (D) U

PAGE # 97
 ANSWER KEY
FORCE AND NEWTONS LAW OF MOTION(PHYSICS)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C C B A B D A ACD B C C C C C
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B D A A A C C D B B B B A D C
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B C B A A C B D A C A B D A A
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D D CD D A D D C B A,C C A,B,C B B B
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69
Ans. B A C C D C B B C

CARBON(CHEMISTRY)
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C C B B B A D A C B C D C B B
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B A C B C B B A C C D C A B C
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. C B C A B D C B C A A

NUMBER SYSTEM(MATHEMATICS)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A B A D A D C B A
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A D A B A D B C C
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C A C C A B D B B
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. C B A A B D C C D C
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. C A D D A A C C C D
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. C D C C C A C B D D
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. A B B A A A B B B C
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. D A B C A A,D B D B A
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. D A B B B B B D D B
Q. 91
Ans. C

PAGE # 9898
 TRIGONOMETRY(MATHEMATICS)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B C B A A C C C C
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D A B B D B D A D B
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B D B C C D C A A
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B D A D B A B B D D
Q. 41 42
Ans. A B

PROTOPLASM (BIOLOGY)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A. C D C A B A A C A D B A A D D
Q. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. C B D B B C D A D A C A A A B
Q. 31 32 33 34
A. A B D A

SERIES COMPLETION(MENTAL ABILITY)

EXERCISE-1 (Number Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C D D A C D B C C C D C C B D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C C C B A B D D A C B B C A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. C C C D D

EXERCISE- 2 (Alphabet Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D A D C C A D C D B D C C C D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C A B C C C A B A C D B C D B

EXERCISE- 3 (Letter Repeating Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D D A A C B A C D D C B D C B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. C A A A C D D D A B D

PAGE # 9999
 EXERCISE- 4 (Missing Term In Figure)
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans . B D B D C C C D A D D B C A B
Que . 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans . B C A B B A C A D D A C D B A
Que . 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . B B A C A C B C D B

PUZZLE-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B D C A D C C C C C D C C B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C C D D C D D B B C A A D C D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C B A B A D A D C D A C B D
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans. C A D B D D D A C A A D B

CALENDAR AND CLOCK-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C B D D B C B C C A B C B A
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B B B B C B C D C B D C B B D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. D B D B A A C A D A C

CUBE AND DICE TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C C D A C C D B B C A C D B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C D C B A B D D A D C A D C B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C D C D C A D C B C B B A D B
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D A B C D A B D B D C B A C C
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. A D E D C A B B

PAGE # 100
100