EXAM 1

1. Which of the following antenna feedline can be easily be buried underground for a
distance without adverse effects?
A. Waveguide
B. Coaxial cable
C. Twisted pair
D. Twin lead

2. In the study of wave propagation, a condition at which zero absorption of radio waves is
describe as_______ medium.
A. Zero reflection
B. Free space
C. Neutral
D. Non-active

3. Which of the following in the radio emission designation refers to the first symbol?
A. Nature of signal modulating the main carrier
B. Type of modulation of the main carrier
C. Emission bandwidth
D. Type of information

4. The process of exchanging predetermine codes and signals in telecommunications

between two data terminals to establish a connection is called ________.
A. Handsoff
B. Handshake
C. Polling
D. Demodulating

5. The ILS localizer measures what deviation of an aircraft?

A. Horizontal
B. Distance between aircraft
C. Vertical
D. Ground speed

6. A pass from north to south of a satellite in orbit is called ________ pass.

A. Ascending
B. Prograde
C. Descending
D. Retrograde

7. What is a satellite period?

A. The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee.
B. The point on an orbit where satellite height is minimum.
C. The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit.
D. An orbital arc that extends from 60 degrees

8. What electronic instrument is referred to as a miniature radio transmitter and can be made
to generate signals at any desired frequency and normally used for test purposes?
A. Volt-Ohm Milliammeter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Signal generator
D. Wavemeter

9. A network interconnection facility which is used to interconnect networks whose

architectures are entirely different is called?
 A. Bridge
B. Gateway
C. Router
D. Repeater

10.What type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication uses a
twisted pair coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths?
A. Frequency-division multiplexing
B. Forward-division multiplexing
C. Pulse-code division multiplexing
D. Time-division multiplexing

11.An auto signal consists of two sine wave audio tones transmitted alternately at what
frequencies?
A. 121.5 and 243 MHz
B. 1300 and 220 kHz
C. 500 and 100 kHz
D. None of the above

12.What is facsimile?
A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed.
B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television.
C. The transmission of video by television
D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper.

13.Frequencies which have substantially straight-line propagation characteristics similar to

that of light waves are frequencies
A. Below 500 kHz
B. Between 500 kHz and 1000 kHz
C. Between 1000 kHz and 3000 kHz
D. Above 50000 kHz.

14.What is the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System (GMDSS)?

A. An automated ship-to shore distress alerting system using satellite and
advanced terrestrial communications systems.
B. An emergency radio service employing analog and manual safety apparatus.
C. An association of radio officers trained in emergency procedures.
D. The international organization charged with the safety of ocean-going vessels.

15.What rules in data communications are intended for establishing data links and message
interpretation?
A. Modes
B. CCIR rules
C. EIA rules
D. Protocols

16.What radio station in mobile service is intended to be used while in motion or during halts
at unspecified points?
A. Maritime mobile station
B. Mobile station
C. Land mobile station
D. Mobile earth station
17.If you are listening to an FM radio station at 100.6 MHz on a car radio when an airplane in
the vicinity is transmitting 121.2 MHz and your car radio receives interference the possible
problem could be?
A. Improper shielding in receiver
B. Poor Q receiver
C. Image frequency
D. Intermodulation or coupling

18.What ferrite device can be used instead of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter
and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna?
A. Isolator
B. Magnetron
C. Circulator
D. Simplex

19.What is the advantage on TV receiver audio, by employing FM audio and AM video on the
television transmitter?
A. FM receiver rejects static noise.
B. FM receiver is basically insensitive to amplitude modulation.
C. FM receiver is very sensitive to amplitude modulation.
D. FM receiver is clear over AM.

20.What does the elastic store refer to in the time division multiplex system used in fiber
optic?
A. Amplifier
B. Reflector
C. Holding memory
D. Timer

21.What are the two general categories of methods for generating emission F3E?
A. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance
modulator on the oscillator.
B. The only way to produce emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on the
oscillator
C. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on the
audio amplifier.
D. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance modulator on the
final amplifier.

22.What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday
rotation?
A. A nonpolarized antenna
B. An isotropic antenna
C. A circulary polarized antenna
D. A log-periodic array

23.What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY start pulse?

A. 11ms
B. 45ms
C. 22ms
D. 22.5ms

24.What is the function of the network layer in computer communications?

A. Parity control
B. Congestion control
 C. Direction control
D. Error control

25.Which of the following circuits does frequency translation?

A. Summer
B. Multiplier
C. Mixer
D. Divider

26.In high frequency radio transmission the lower the radio frequency the _______ of the
antenna.
A. Longer the length
B. Shorter the length
C. Bigger the diameter
D. Smaller the diameter

27.What is the wavelength of a signal at 500 MHz?

A. 60cm
B. 60m
C. 60mm
D. 60km

28.What limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic communication?
A. Noise
B. Time domain
C. Detector speed
D. Refractor index

29.What is a microwave device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with
very little loss, but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction?
A. Isolator
B. Multiplexer
C. Wave trap
D. Circulator

30.Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction are

A. 100kHz to 3.0MHz
B. VHF and UHF
C. HF
D. LF and MF

31.What do you call the repeater inside a communication satellite?

A. Transponder
B. Detector
C. Station
D. Modulator

32.If the slant range to a target is 732 meters and the target elevation is 40 degrees, what is
the altitude of the target above the earth?
A. 955m
B. 274m
C. 470m
D. 26m
33.A mobile telephone system which uses an analogue cellular radio standard which was
superceded by the Advanced Mobile Phone System in the US.
A. TDMA
B. CDMA
C. IMTS
D. D-AMPS

34.What is klystron used for in radar system?

A. A local oscillator
B. A power amplifier
C. A phase inverter
D. A display unit

35.If you install a 6-meter Yagi antenna on a tower 46 meters from your transmitter, which of
the following feedlines is best?
A. RG-213
B. RG-59
C. RG-58
D. RG-174
36.Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern.
A. Geosynchronous satellite
B. Nonsynchronous satellite
C. Molniya satellite
D. Spy satellite

37.Why you should regularly clean, tighten, and resolder all antenna connectors?
A. To keep looking nice.
B. To keep them from getting stuck in place.
C. To help keep their resistance at a minimum
D. To increase their capacitance

38.One of the following can be best attained by a trap antenna in radio communication?
A. Increase transmitter gain
B. Effective filter to noise signal
C. Directionality
D. Multi frequency ban operation

39.Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development Bureau
report?
A. RRB
B. WRC
C. WTDC
D. WTSC

40.When we talk of the of acoustics, a sound is considered __________ wave.

A. Circular
B. Laser
C. Light
D. Longitudinal

41.What is the main component of a dummy antenna?

A. A wire-wound resistor
B. A noninductive resistor
C. An iron-core coil
D. An air-core coil
 42.What does forward power mean?
A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna.
B. The power radiated from the top of an antenna system.
C. The power produced during the positive half of an RF cycle.
D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier
43. One of the major components required under the global, maritime distress and safety
system.
A. Provision of Morse code.
B. Provision of radio telegraph operator.
C. Provision of facsimile.
D. Provision of radio personnel.
44. What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?
A. very low pressure area.
B. An aurora to the north.
C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving antennas.
D. A temperature inversion.
45. A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth cause by both forward motion
away from the earth that produces inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight
line upwards and the gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as
A. centripetal acceleration
B. weight of satellite gravity
C. satellite
D. speed
46. Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the amateur
service?
A. Broadcasts intended for the general public.
B. Morse code practice.
C. Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station.
D. Telecommands to the model craft.

47. What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal?

A. Between 5 and 10 kHz
B. Less than 5 kHz
C. Between 10 and 20 kHz
D. Greater than 20 kHz 8.

48. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data transmissions above 222
MHz?
A. 300 baud
B. 19.6 kbaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 56 kbaud
49. A radar-set receiver has normally a mixer stage.
 A. tunnel diode
B. class A
C. FET
D. silicon crystal
50. One of the following processes or systems best describes an example of a pilot tone
system normally used in commercial broadcast FM stations.
A. Time division
B. Stereo multiplex
C. Frequency division
D. QSK
51. What is the main reason why coaxial cable is not used in microwave signal
transmission?
A. Wide bandwidth
B. Low, impedance
C. Number of repeaters
D. High attenuation
52. What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide? ,
A. It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference protection.
B. It gives RF exposure limits for the human body.
C. It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection.
D. It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection.
53. If a directional RF wattmeter reads 90 W forward power and 10 W reflected power, what
is the actual transmitter output power?
A. 10 W
B. 90 W
C. 80 W
D. 100 W

54. Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic.

A. Cladding thickness is less than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must
be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried.
B. Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core
must be lesser than the wavelength of the light to be carried.
C. Cladding thickness is less than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must
be lesser that the wavelength of the light to be carried.
D. Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of
the core must be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried.
55. What is the meaning of: "Your signal is full quieting?"
A. Your signal is strong enough to overcome all receiver noise.
B. Your signal has no spurious sounds.
C. Your signal is not strong enough to be received.
D. Your signal is being received, but no audio is being heard.
56. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station in beacon operation?
A. 10 W PEP output
B. 500 W PEP output
C. 100 W PEP output
D. 1500 W PEP output
57. What is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of one antenna to that
of another real or theoretical antenna?
A. Conversion gain.
B. Peak Envelope Power.
C. Effective Radiated Power.
D. Antenna gain.
58. What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work?
A. An unmodulated carrier.
B. A phase-modulated carrier.
C. An amplitude-modulated carrier.
D. A frequency-modulated carrier.
59. Two or more LANs linked together over a wide geographical area.
A. HAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. RAN
60. A process of sending data in computing technology by asking each remote computer terminal
one at a time if such computer terminal has data to send.
A. Selection
B. Polling
C. Networking
D. Coding
61. What causes the ionosphere to absorb radio waves?
A. The weather below the ionosphere.
B. The ionization of the D region.
C. The presence of the ionized clouds in, the E region.
D. The splitting of the F region.
62. Which ionospheric region is closest to earth?
A. The A region
B. The E region
C. The D region
D. The F region
63. What is the primary purpose of an rf amplifier in a receiver?
A. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC.
B. To provide most of the receiver gain.
C. To develop the AGC voltage.
D. To improve the receiver's noise figure.
64. What is the name for unmodulated carrier wave emissions?
A. Phone
B. CW
C. Test
D. RTTY
65. Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in
communication system?
A. Coaxial is very expensive than fiber optic
B. Due to weight.
C. Installation cost of coaxial.
D. Use of less repeaters.
66. During commuting rush hours, which type of repeater operation should be discouraged?
A. Mobile stations.
B. Low-power stations.
C. Highway traffic information nets.
D. Third party communications nets.
67. Refers to as a linkage by wire, radio, satellite-or other means, of two or more
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or enabling
the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carrier or
operator.
A. Interconnection
B. Gateway
C. Toll patching
D. Outside plant sharing
68. What is the proper way to break into a conversation on a repeater?
A. Say your callsign during a break between transmissions.
B. Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking.
C. Shout, "break, break!" to show that you eager to join the conversation.
D. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the desired party.

69. In order to have an effective radio antenna, the design of its radiator must have a minimum
length equivalent to
A. wavelength/10
B. wavelength/14
C. wavelength/4
D. wavelength/6
70. Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?
A. A long transmission might prevent someone with an emergency from using the
repeater.
B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake.
C. To give any listening nonhams a chance to respond.
D. To keep long distance charges down.
71. Referred as the forward link channel of the cellular duplex system.
A. Cell to cell
B. Mobile to cell unit
C. Mobile to mobile unit
D. Cell to mobile unit
72. The band of frequencies least susceptible to noise and interference is
A. 300 to 3000 MHz.
B. 300 to 3000 kHz.
C. 3 to 30 MHz.
D. 30 to 300 kHz.
73. Method of a telecommunications operation where transmission can be made simultaneously
in both direction of a channel.
A. Semi-duplex operation
B. Half-duplex operation
C. Duplex operation
D. Simplex operation
74. Which-symbol in radio signal emission designation is referred to type of modulation of the
main carrier?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. First

75. If there are too many harmonics from a transmitter, check the
A. shielding
B. coupling
C. tuning of circuits
D. Any of the above
76. What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated
by a facsimile signal?
A. A3F
B. A3C
C. F3
D. F3F
77. A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth.
A. Zenith
B. Apogee
C. Perigee
D. Azimuth
78. How can a single-sideband phone signal be produced?
A. By producing a double-sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the
unwanted sideband by neutralization.
B. By producing a double-sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the
unwanted sideband by mixing.
C. By producing a double-sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the
unwanted sideband by heterodyning.
D. By producing a double-sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then,
removing the unwanted sideband by filtering.
79. What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by
a television signal?
A. F3C
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. A3E
80. Determine from the following the common use of DSB in broadcast and telecommunications.
A. Satellite communications
B. Two-way communications
C. FM/TV stereo.
D. Telephone system
81. What is a crystal-lattice filter?
A. A filter with a narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals.
B. A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals.
C. An audio filter with four quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals.
D. A power supply filter with crisscrossed quartz crystals.
82. Determine the image frequency of a broadcast band receiver using a 455 kHz IF tuned to 630
kHz - DZMM.
A. 1085 kHz
B. 1540 kHz
C. -1530 kHz
D. 1715 kHz
83. What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver?
A. Bandwidth and noise figure.
B. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range.
C. Cost and availability.
D. Dynamic range and third-order intercept.
84. A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber material
changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber.
A. Bending
B. Diffraction
C. Refraction
D. Reflection
85. An electronic equipment used in radio communication to measure standing wave ratio.
A: Radio meter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Reflectometer
D. Wave meter
86. In an emission F3E signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation of a frequency
modulated signal and the modulating frequency?
A. FM compressibility
B. Modulation index
C. Quieting index
D. Percentage of modulation
87. What is the limiting condition for the sensitivity in a communications receiver?
A. The input impedance to the detector.
B. The two-tone intermodulation distortion.
C. The power' supply output ripple.
D. The noise floor of the receiver.
88. Referred as an effect of parasitic elements in an antenna system.
A. Decrease its directivity.
B. Makes the antenna omnidirectional.
C. Makes the antenna isotropic.
D. Increase its directivity.
89. Radio wave concentration in the direction of the signal emitted by a directional antenna.
A. Side lobe radiation
B. Back lobe radiation.
C. Major lobe radiation
D. Transmitted signal.
90. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the orbit/spectrum
resources?
A. Depending on the geographical boundary of a nation.
B. Efficient use and equitable access.
C. Depending on national sovereignty declaration.
D. Equal distribution.
91. Let us consider a frequency range of 405.012 MHz to 405.0875 MHz and a 25 kHz channeling
plan, determine the center frequency of the second channel from the lower limit.
A. 405.050 MHz
B. 405.500 MHz
C. 405.0125 MHz
D. 405.011MHz
92. What is the reason why 5/8 whip vertical antenna is of advantage than quarter wave vertical
whip antenna?
A. Less interference
B. More gain
C. Can handle high power signal
D. Flexible
93. Why is it that almost all switching-type integrated data communications circuits are called
digital?
A. They are mostly on/off devices.
B. They process digital information.
C. They are small type.
D. They are integrated circuits.
94. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global
maritime distress and safety system .implemented last 1999?
A. A facsimile.
B. A Morse code.
C. A radio personnel.
D. A radio telegraph operator.
95. What is the bit rate of a telecommunications carrier T2?
A. 7.312 Mbps
B. 6.511 Mbps
C. 7.318 Mbps
D. 6.312 Mbps
96. This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light.
A. Light sensitive
B. Laser
C. Photoresist
D. Photosensitive
97. In propagation of radio signals through an aerial, at what angle does magnetic field is
positioned with reference to the direction of propagation?
A. 180
B. 0
C. 90
D. 45
98. An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam.
A. Identity
B. Bandwidth
C. Footprint
D. Beamwidth
99. What is the frequency separation between the visual carrier and the upper limits of its total
channel bandwidth of a monochrome TV broadcast?
A. 4.5 MHz
B. 3.0 MHz
C. 4.75 MHz
D. 1.25 MHz
100. In radio communications, the term trap antenna is referred to, in one of the following
statements.
A. Antenna with wide beamwidth.
B. Those antennas with high rejecting capability to interfering signals.
C. Those antenna with long coverage in terms of distance.
D. Antenna which can be used on more than one band due to the use of parallel LC
networks.
EXAM 2
1. What is the range of an AM broadcast frequency tolerance above or below its assigned
frequency?
A. 25 kHz
B. 60 Hz
C. 20 Hz
D. 120 kHz
2. Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth?
A. Apogee
B. Zenith
C. Prograde
D. Perigee
3. Which part of the housing system in ECE Code is a circular opening through the floor structure
to allow the passage of cable and wire?
A. Insert
B. Raceway
C. Sleeve
D. Slot
4. Communication through the use of a modem, is transmission of data information in medium.
A. analog, analog
B. digital, analog
C. analog, digital
D. digital, digital
5. What type of emission is produced when amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a
television signal?
A. A3F
B. F3F
C. F3C
D. A3C
6. A term used in radio communication defining the frequency band from the lowest to its highest
limits, designed to be passed through a component, system or a device with an acceptable
attenuation.
A. Allocated band
B. Bandwidth
C. Baseband
D. Transmitted signal
7. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?
A. ITU-R
B. ITU-T
C. ITU-D
D. RAG
8. What is the propagation effect called when phase differences between radio wave components
of the same transmission are experienced at the recovery station?
A. Selective fading
B. Phase shift
C. Diversity reception
D. Faraday rotation
9. What is a wavefront?
A. A voltage pulse in a conductor.
B. A current pulse in a conductor.
C. A voltage pulse across a resistor.
D. A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave.
10. How would you best describe an example of a pilot tone system use in conunercial frequency
modulation broadcast radio stations?
A. Frequency simplex
B. Stereo multiplex
C. Time division
D. QSK
11. What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY stop pulse?
A. 40 ms
B. 11 ms
C. 18 ms
D. 31 ms
12. What kind of broadcasting system where television programs are transmitted directly to
home/user receivers via satellite, thus making the reception cover not only individual(s) in their
homes but other places as well?.
A. Pay TV
B. Cable TV
C. Direct to Home TV
D. VHF TV
13. In telecommunications, what do we call the difference in the voltage levels between a driver
and a terminator?
A. System gain
B. System loss
C. Noise Margin
D. Noise difference
14. Why is parallel transfer method in data transmission faster than serial?
A. Wider channel bandwidth.
B. Bits are transferred simultaneously.
C. Bits are lighter in parallel.
D. Due to faster changes in symbol.
15. Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively.
A. 3,750 MHz
B. 10.300 GHz
C. 2,000 MHz
D. 150 MHz
16. Which one of the following central office switching equipment resistance limit refers to the
longest subscriber loop length?
A. 1500 ohms
B. 2000 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 800 ohms
17. What particular area on the surface of the earth where the boresight of a steerable satellite
beam is intended to be pointed?
A. Foot print area
B. Equivalent service area
C. Contour boresight area
D. Effective boresight area
18. What is azimuth on a radar antenna?
A. Diameter
B. Degrees horizontal
C. Degrees elevation
D. Impedance
19. What ferrite rod device prevents the formation of reflected waves on a waveguide
transmission line?
A. Reflector
B. Wave-trap
C. Isolator
D. SWR refractor
20. What kind of information transfer in digital communication where the bits comprising one
character are sent in sequence one at a time?
A. Parallel transmission
B. Simplex transmission
C. Batch transmission
D. Serial transmission
21. What is the name of the circuit that establishes the PRF?
A. Magic T
B. Synchronizer
C. Duplexer
D. Diplexer
22. Which of the following antenna where its beamwidth is determined by the dimensions o its
horn, lens or reflector?
A. Whip antenna
B. Aperture antenna
C. Aperiodic antenna
D. Long wire antenna
23. What advantage, if any, does a Yagi antenna have in radar over a parabolic antenna?
A. It is lighter, so it is easier to turn.
B. It is easier to clean.
C. It is easier to match to a 300-0 transmission line.
D. It does not require impedance matching
24. Which of the following is referred to as the electromagnetic spectrum range of infrared
signals?
A. 1.0 millimeter - 100 millimeter
B. 0.70 micrometer - 0.40 micrometer
C. 1000 millimeter - 2000 millimeter
D. 0.01 millimeter - 0.70 micrometer
25. What is a parasitic beam antenna?
A. An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by induction or
radiation from a driven element.
B. An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple the elements.
C. An antenna where all the elements are driven by direct connection to the feedline.
D. An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy by induction or radiation from
director elements.
26. In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply in
heard?
A. 200 ms
B. 50 ms
C. 900 ms
D. 600 ms
27. What position of the maritime ship main antenna is when the radio watch is secured or when
the ship is in electrical storm?
A. AA
B. Grounded
C. Main transmitter
D. HF
28. Best applies to an optical fiber core.
A. The same refractive index with the cladding.
B. A higher refractive index than the cladding.
C. A lower refractive index than the cladding.
D. A lower refractive index than air.
29. An indication in radio communication when the voltage standing wave ratio is equal to zero.
A. Open power.
B. No input power.
C. Load is purely resistive.
D. Pure reactive load.
30. If your antenna feedline gets hot when you are transmitting, what might this mean?
A. You should transmit using less power.
B. The conductors in the feedline are not installed very well.
C. The feedline is too long.
D. The SWR may be too high, or the feedline loss might be high.
31. What measure will you adopt on the antenna system of a VHF or UHF mobile transceivers
that has very low height antenna?
A. Increase transmitter to antenna cable.
B. Use directional antenna.
C. Check grounding system.
D. Provide loading coil.
32. What minimum rating should a dummy antenna have for use with a 100-W single-sideband
phone transmitter?
A. 100 W continuous
B. 175 W continuous
C. 141 W continuous
D. 200 W continuous
33. How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Stable
D. Decreased by half
34. What refers to a major advantage in the selection of a guided tube?
A. Durability
B. Accuracy
C. Low cost
D. High power
35. What device can measure an impedance mismatch in your antenna system?
A. A reflectometer
B. An ammeter
C. A wavemeter.
D. A field-strength meter
36. What terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or an entire floor of a
building?
A. Floor terminal distribution area
B. Raceway terminal
C. Floor distribution terminal
D. Riser terminal
37. What is ionosphere?
A. An area of the atmosphere where weather takes place.
B. An area of the upper atmosphere where enough ions and free electrons exist to
propagate radio waves.
C. An area between two air masses of different temperature and humidity, along which radio
waves can travel.
D. An ionized path in the atmosphere where lightning has struck.
38. What is referred to a condition in a telephone network where the calling party cannot get
connected to the party being called?
A. Disconnection
B. Blocked call
C. Open network
D. Loss call
39. in data transmission technology, signals such as voice or video are binary transmitted over a
cable known as signals.
A. video
B. baseband
C. cable
D. audio
40. In satellite communications where satellite revolves in an orbit that forms a plane passing
through the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called
A. geocenter
B. plane center
C. earth center
D. center of gravity
41. Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communications satellite receiver?
A. On-board Computer
B. Reflector
C. Telemetry
D. Transponder
42. In television, what color has the most luminance.
A. Blue
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Red
43. What do you call the dissipated power affecting the antenna efficiency caused by arcing
effect in high powered transmitters?
A. Dissipated power
B. Corona discharge
C. Antenna resistance
D. Antenna loss
44. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet transmissions on the 2-meter band?
A. 300 baud
B. 19.6 kbaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 56 kbaud
45. What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio in an emergency?
A. An extra antenna.
B. A portable amplifier.
C. Several sets of charged batteries.
D. A microphone headset for hands-free operation.
46. What is the process in radio communication where information or intelligence signal at lower
frequency is put unto higher radio frequency for transmission to receiving station?
A. Detection
B. Modulation
C. Mixing
D. Demodulation
47. At what line impedance do most RF wattmeters usually operate?
A. 25 ohms
B. 100 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 300 ohms
48. What is the parasitic element of an antenna?
A. An element dependent on the antenna structure for support.
B. A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency-energy.
C. An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather than from a
transmission line.
D. An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element.
49. Which ionospheric region limits daytime radio communications on the 80-meter band to short
distances?
A. D region
B. F 1 region
C. E region
D. F2 region
50. An entity providing transmission and switching of telecommunications services, primarily but
not limited to voice, in a geographic area anywhere in the country.
A. Franchisee
B. Public toll calling operator
C. Value-added service operator
D. Local exchange operator
51. The highest frequency where refracted signals are returned to the earth at a desired distance
with usable strength, normally referred to as the critical frequency.
A. Minimum usable frequency
B. Maximum usable frequency
C. Edge of Band frequency
D. Knife edge frequency
52. The radar range in nautical miles to an object can be found by measuring the elapsed time
during a radar pulse and dividing this quantity by
A. 0.87 s
B. 12.36 us
C. 1.15 us
D. 1.73 us
53. A new regulation recently issued (March 1999) by the National Telecommunications
Commission providing for the guideline for mobile personal communication having a global
coverage using satellite.
A. NMT
B. GSM
C. GMPCS
D. TACS
54. What is the meaning of "Your signal report is 5 by 7..."?
A. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak.
B. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong.
C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty.
D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone.
55. In an open wire transmission line, what is the normal separation between its two (2)
conductors?
A. 0.001 to 0.01 cm
B. 2.5 to 5 ft
C. 2 to 6 cm
D. 2 to3m
56. What happens to signals higher in frequency than the critical frequency?
A. They are reflected back to their source.
B. They are absorbed by the ionosphere.
C. Their frequency is changed by the ionosphere to be-below the maximum usable frequency.
D. They pass through the ionosphere.
57. What is an inductor that is inserted in an antenna element or transmission line for the
purpose of producing a resonant system at specific frequency?
A. Reflector
B. Loading coil
C. Traps
D. Base loading
58. What is RTTY?
A. Amplitude-keyed telegraphy.
B. Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy.
C. Frequency-modulated telegraphy.
D. Phase-modulated telephony.
59. Satellite orbit around the earth are either, a. all are circular, b, all are elliptical, c. they are
either elliptical and d. none of these three.
A. d
B. c
C. b
D. a
60. What is the main reason why television picture signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice
is frequency modulated?
A. Maintain power signal at received end.
B. Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio.
C. Maintain synchronized scanning between transmit and received video.
D. To minimize interference between signals at received end.
61. What is a courtesy tone (used in repeater operations)?
A. A sound used to indicate when a transmission is complete.
B. A sound used to identify the repeater.
C. A sound used to indicate that a message is waiting for someone.
D. A sound used to activate a receiver in case of severe weather.
62. Which of the following is referred to as a disadvantage of using a squelch circuit?
A. Effect of AGC is reduced for strong signals.
B. Receiver sensitivity is reduced for strong signals.
C. Very weak signals might not be received.
D. Receiver selectivity is reduced for strong signals.
63. What effect does tropospheric bending have on a 2-meter radio waves?
A. It lets you contact stations farther away.
B. It causes them to travel shorter distances.
C. It garbles the signal.
D. It reverses the sideband of the signal.
64. How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?
A. Use of different polarity antennas.
B. Use of different types of antenna.
C. Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas.
D. Use of low gain antenna.
65. What causes VHF radio waves to be propagated several hundred miles over oceans?
A. An overcast of cirriform clouds.
B. A high-pressure zone.
C. A polar air mass.
D. A widespread temperature inversion.
66. Which coding is used in the Bell System's T2 transmission line wherein the receiver detects
where the substitution has occurred by detecting a bipolar violation?
A. B6ZS
B. Manchester coding
C. B3ZS
D. BPRZ-AMI
67. What does vertical wave polarization mean?
A. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface.
B. The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface.
C. The electric lines of force of a radio wave, are perpendicular to the earth's surface.
D. The electric and magnetic lines of force o a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface.
68. A parameter of light beam that do not change quantity when it enters one medium from
another.
A. Intensity
B. Frequency
C. Penetration
D. Wavelength
69. What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five by nine plus 20 dB?"
A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100.
B. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 dB above linearity.
C. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher.
D. A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 dB greater than strength 9.
70. How far is the visual carrier from the aural in a monochrome television broadcast channel
have?
A. 1.5 MHz
B. 4.5 MHz
C. 3 MHz.
D. 1.25 MHz
71. What is the proper Q signal to use to see if a frequency is in use before transmitting on CW?
A. QRV
B. QRL
C. QRU
D. QRZ
72. What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
A. Afternoon or early evening
B. Transequatorial propagation only works at night
C. Noon
D. Morning

73. How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in amplifier design?

A. By operating class AB.
B. By operating class C.
C. By using a push-pull amplifier.
D. By using a push-push amplifier.
74. Which unit tells how many times more or less but not how much in absolute terms?
A. Watt
B. Decibel
C. Volt
D. Neper
75. How can an FM-phone signal be produced?
A. By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator.
B. By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator.
C. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier.
D. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier.
76. What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by
a facsimile signal?
A. A3F
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. F3C
77. What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal-lattice bandpass filter for a single-sideband
phone emission?
A. 15 kHz at -6ddB
B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB
C. 500 Hz at -6 dB
D. 6 kHz at -6 dB
78. A circuit compares the output from a voltage-controlled oscillator and a frequency standard.
The difference between the two frequencies produces an error voltage that changes the voltage-
controlled oscillator frequency. What is the name of the circuit?
A. A variable frequency oscillator
B. A differential voltage amplifier
C. A phase-locked loop
D. A beat frequency oscillator

79. Microwave and UHF systems have which of the following in common?
A. Both provide fade-free communications.
B. Both are cheaper than HF radio.
C. They operate on the same frequency band.
D. They are both line-of-sight (LOS) systems.
80. Why is it microwave systems became popular?
A. Because microwave offers higher technology.
B. Coaxial cable cannot carry the bandwidth of microwave.
C. Microwave systems require control of only the repeater sites, not the entire right-
of-way.
D. Because optical communications was not yet in place.
81. Tropospheric scatter radio
A. uses molecules in the earth's troposphere to scatter some radio energy back to earth.
B. has a limited capability for data transmission.
C. is not widely used commercially.
D. All of the above.
82. Fiber optics were needed to permit practical lightwave systems because
A. air is not good transmission medium for light.
B. anything that blocks light, like fog, would block the transmission of information through air.
C. uniformity in transmission media is desirable, and fiber optic cables can be made uniform.
D. All of the above.
83. Why is open-wire line still found in many telephone system applications?
A. Because it is not economically sensible to replace it.
B. Because data signals travel better on open-wire line.
C. Because multiplexing systems need the bandwidth provided by open wire.
D. All of the above.
84. What type of cable would you choose if you wanted an inexpensive, long-distance, medium-
bandwidth transmission link where several circuits ran in parallel?
A. Open-wire
B. Quadded-toll cable
C. Coaxial cable
D. Quadded-exchange cable
85. In rf amplifiers consideration must be given to parameters that can usually be neglected at
Lower frequencies. These are known as _________ parameters.
A. alien
B. unkown
C. distributed
D. hidden
86. The rhombic antenna is primarily used for _ ______propagation.
A. ground wave
B. tropospheric scatter
C. space wave
D. sky wave
87. As the electron beam moves through a klystron's intercavity drift space
A. frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity.
B. velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the output
cavity.
C. Density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity.
D. Phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity.
88. What is the highest assigned carrier frequency_ for standard AM broadcast?
A. 107 kHz
B. 540 kHz
C. 535 kHz
D. 1600 kHz
89. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single crystal. What words describes this
synthesizer?
A. Crystal modulated
B. Indirect
C. Inexact
D. Phase-unlocked.
90. The purpose of the antenna monitor is to determine by measurement
A. total power input to the transmitter final stage.
B. antenna pattern, as influenced by ground moisture content.
C. electric field strength, in the direction of greatest area coverage.
D. current ratios and relative phase angles.
91. The function which tends to silence the receiver in the absence of a transmitted carrier is
called
A. squelch
B. AGC
C. muting
D. AFC
92. What word describes the brightness of an image?
A. Radiance
B. Reflectance
C. Chrominance
D. Luminance
93. Which of the following antennas receives signals in the horizontal plane equally well from all
directions?
A. Horizontal Hertz antenna
B. Vertical loop antenna
C. Vertical Yagi antenna
D. A vertical antenna which is a quarter wavelength long
94. The outer conductor of a coaxial cable is usually grounded
A. at the beginning and at the end of the cable
B. only at the beginning of the cable
C. only at the end of the cable
D. at the middle of the cable
95. What is the purpose of a frequency multiplier?
A. To provide a lower multiple frequency.
B. To provide a difference frequency.
C. To provide a modulated frequency with one set of sidebands.
D. To provide the multiple of an original reference frequency.
96. What establishes the receiver bandwidth?
A. RF amplifier
B. Local oscillator
C. Mixer
D. IF amplifier
97. What part of the receiver provides the major share of the overall gain?
A. RF amplifier
B. Local oscillator
C. Mixer
D. IF amplifier
98. The chrominance processing circuits are deactivated when monochrome broadcasts are
received by the
A. NOT gate.
B. one-shot MV
C. color killer
D. SAW filter
99. What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for color TV?
A. 0.6 MHz
B. 1.8 MHz
C. 1.2 MHz
D. 4.8 MHz
100. What is considered a disadvantage of direct FM?
A. The need for an AGC.
B. The need for an AFC.
C. The need for a frequency synthesizer.
D. The need for phase modulation.
EXAM 3
1. An order signed by former President F. Ramos last March 1998 providing the national policy in
the operation and use of international satellite communication in the Philippines.
A. Executive Order 3846
B. Executive Order 456
C. Executive Order 59
D. Executive Order 467
2. Transmission of information through a communication modem is intended to transmit digital
information over which of the following type of communications medium?
A. Digital
B. Radio
C. Hybrid
D. Analog
3. Determine from the following an advantage of using a trap antenna.
A. It has a directivity in the high frequency bands.
B. Can be used for multiband operation.
C. Minimizes harmonic radiation.
D. Has high gain.
4. Determine from the following, possible cause for a slow drift of frequency in self-excited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability.
A. Faulty capacitors, resistors, tubes or transistors.
B. Loose shielding.
C. Heating in the oscillator device causing a change in electrical characteristics.
D. Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier or antenna circuits.
5. Which of the following penalty is provided under the existing telecommunications law, should
an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange service in
un-served and undeserved areas within three years from grant of authority?
A. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedules.
B. Cancellation of its authority.
C. Given one year to comply.
D. Given two years to comply.
6. What allows microwaves to pass in only one direction?
A. RF emitter
B. Capacitor
C. Ferrite isolator
D. Varactor-triac
7. In basic transmitter such as CW transmission, the rounding off of square wave emission will
reduce
A. reach
B. bandwidth
C. voltage
D. transmitter power
8. Where does the Secretary General in the organizational structure of present ITU report?
A. WTSC
B. WRC
C. TDAB
D. Council
9. What is the name of the voltage that maintains a TR tube at near ionization?
A. Keep alive
B. I/R.
C. Reflex
D. Holding voltage.
10. In wire communication system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the
following statement when referred to fiber optic bundle.
A. Ratio of the total fiber radius, to the sum of the fiber optic bundle radius.
B. Ratio of half of the total fiber radius, to the sum of the fiber optic bundle radius.
C. Ratio of half-sectional area of the fiber optic bundle, to the cross-sectional area of the core.
D. Ratio of the total cross-sectional area, to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber
bundle.
11. At radar microwave frequencies, a waveguide has
A. higher loss than a transmission line.
B. lower loss than a transmission line.
C. the same loss as a transmission line.
D. infinite loss.
12. Determine the local oscillator frequency of a broadcast band receiver using a 455 kHz IF and
is tuned at 630 kHz.
A. 175 kHz
B. 280 kHz
C. 1085 kHz
D. 1530 kHz
13. What are the "parasitic elements" of a Yagi antenna?
A. The driven element and any reflectors.
B. The director and driven element.
C. Only the reflectors (if any).
D. Any directors or any reflectors.
14. One of the following is not a probable cause of radiating spurious signal from basic
transmitter.
A. Harmonics
B. Internal heating
C. Regulated supply
D. Parasitics
15. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hz shift, 45-baud Baudot emission FIB
transmission?
A. 45 Hz
B. 442 Hz
C. 249 Hz
D. 600 Hz
16. What is a directional antenna?
A. An antenna which sends and receives radio energy equally well in all directions.
B. An antenna that cannot send and receive -radio energy by skywave or skip propagation.
C. An antenna which sends and receives rail energy mainly in one direction.
D. An antenna which sends and receives radio energy equally well in two opposite directions.
17. What is the purpose of the two Yagi beam antenna on a VHF TV receiver?
A. Used to receiver VHF and UHF stations.
B. For receiving low and high band stations.
C. To increase selectivity.
D. To increase sensitivity on both bands.
18. What is the noise that is developed in the RF amplifier front end of a TV receiver which is
indicated by a white dot in the picture?
A. Inter carrier
B. Snow
C. Black
D. IF
19. What common connector usually joins RG-2 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver?
A. An F-type cable connector
B. A banana plug connector
C. A PL-259 connector
D. A binding post connector
20. What does reflected power mean?
A. The power radiated down to the ground from an antenna.
B. The power returned to a transmitter from an antenna.
C. The power produced during the negative half of an RF cycle.
D. The power to an antenna by building and trees.
21. Region in the atmosphere where ducting occurs.
A. Ground region
B. Ionosphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Troposphere

22. Who issues an authority to install, operate, and maintain a cable television or render a
television service within an specified area in the country?
A. Department of Transportation and Communication.
B. Board of Communication.
C. Congress of the Philippines.
D. National Telecommunication Commission.
23. On what frequencies within the 2-meter band may image emissions be transmitted?
A. 144.1 to 148.0 MHz only
B. 144.0 to 148.0 MHz only
C. 146.0 to 148.0 MHz only
D. 146.0 to 147.0 MHz only
24. The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to interfere
-constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber, this effect is called
A. multimode interference
B. multimode effect
C. modal delay spreading
D. single modal effect
25. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two story
residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE building code?
A. Two lines
B. Three lines
C. Five lines
D. Not required
26. What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?
A. The temperature of the ionosphere.
B. The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere.
C. The amount of radiation received from the sun, mainly ultraviolet.
D. The type of weather just below the ionosphere.
27. What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in the 2-meter band?
A. 600 kHz
B. 1.6 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 5.0 MHz
28. One of the following is not among the medium of primary communication?
A. Free space
B. Radio
C. Wire
D. Fiber optic cable
29. What are the station identification requirements for an amateur transmitter used for
telecommand (control) of model craft?
A. Station identification is not required if the transmitter is labeled with station
licensee's name, address and callsign.
B. At the beginning and end of each transmission.
C. Once every ten minutes, and at the beginning and end of each transmission.
D. Once every ten minutes.
30. Refers to the PCM transcoder which translates voice encoded signals between different
digital formats.
A. WBS
B. XBS
C. XCBR
D. WNT
31. The horizontal radiation pattern of an antenna can be described similar to
A. a heart pattern
B. a circular pattern
C. umber of eight
D. an oval pattern
32. According to the ANSI RF protection guide, what is the maximum safe power output to the
antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio?
A. 125 mW
B. 10 W
C. 7 W
D. 25 W
33. Which of the following is not part of the audio frequency section of radio transmitter?
A. AF voltage amplifier
B. Master oscillator
C. Microphone
D. AF power amplifier
34. How is a marker generator used?
A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver.
B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver.
C. To test the amplitude linearity of a transmitter.
D. To test the frequency deviation of a transmitter.
35. What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a driver and a power amplifier?
A. A packet-radio transmitter
B. A VFO-controlled transmitter
C. A crystal-controlled transmitter
D. A single-sideband transmitter
36. What type of amateur station transmits communications for the purpose of observation of
propagation and reception?
A. A beacon
B. An auxiliary station
C. A repeater
D. A radio control station
37. Which of the following solution will you prescribed to a telegraph transmitter power supply to
avert a chirp?
A. Resonate power supply filters.
B. Decrease the voltage of power supply.
C. Regulate the power supply voltage.
D. Decrease current output.
38. When does ionospheric absorption of radio signals occur?
A. When tropospheric ducting occurs.
B. When long wavelength signals enter the D region.
C. When signals travel to the F region.
D. When temperature inversion occurs.
39. What is the source of sidebands in frequency modulation?
A. Oscillator
B. Mixer
C. Baseband frequency
D. Carrier harmonics
40. What kind of propagation would best be used by two stations within each other's skip zone
on a certain frequency?
A. Ground-wave
B. Scatter-mode
C. Sky-wave
D. Ducting
41. What is the name of the voice emission most used on VHF/UHF repeaters?
A. Single-sideband phone
B. Slow-scan phone
C. Pulse-modulated phone
D. Frequency-modulated phone
42. What is the term for the location at which the control operator function is performed?
A. The control point
B. The manual control location
C. The station point
D. The operating desk
43. Which of the very thin layers of the tube's front surface of the vidicon TV camera located at
the middle layer and possess very high resistance when dark, while it reduces greatly when
struck by photons of light?
A. Transparent conductive film
B. Photo inductive lens
C. Photo conductive mosaic
D. Photo sensitive layer
44. What is a repeater called that is available for anyone to use?
A. A private repeater
B. An open repeater
C. A closed repeater
D. An autopatch repeater 4
45. One of the following refers to the standard frequency band limits of. AM broadcast band
A. 30 300 MHz
B. 3 30 MHz
C. 88 108 MHz
D. 535 1605 kHz
46. What is transequatorial propagation?
A. Propagation between any two stations at the same latitude.
B. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator.
C. Propagation between two points on the magnetic equator.
D. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and
south of the Magnetic equator.
47. In a cable facilities for a building communications service, is referred to as the physical cable
within a building or series .of buildings which may include both main cable pairs and house cable
pairs but not station wiring cable.
A. entrance cable
B. house cable
C. floor distribution
D. cable building cable
48. How does intermodulation interference between two transmitters usually occur?
A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from the airplanes passing
overhead.
B. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both of their final
amplifiers.
C. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their final
amplifiers.
D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing
overhead.
49. What is the range of the lower sideband of an amplitude modulated signal whose carrier is
1.5 MHz and the intelligence component is 50 Hz to 20 kHz?
A. 1.550 MHz to 1.700 MHz
B. 1,499.980 kHz to 2,520.000 kHz
C. 1.48 MHz to 1.49995 MHz
D. 1,500.980 kHz to 2, 480.000 kHz
50. How many voice transmissions can be packed into a given frequency band for amplitude-
compandored single-sideband systems over conventional FM-phone systems?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 8
D. 2
51. What is emission A3C?
A. Slow-scan TV
B. RTTY
C. ATV
D. Facsimile
52. A stage in cellular communication where voice channel is assigned to link up a call
connection after a mobile or network originated a call.
A. Call termination
B. Call connection
C. Call completion
D. Call drops
53. Motorboating (low-frequency oscillations an amplifier can be stopped by _____________.
A. grounding the plate
B. connecting a capacitor between the B+ lead and ground
C. by passing the screen grid resistor with a 0.1-uF capacitor
D. grounding the screen grid
54. Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure?
A. The local oscillator
B. The IF strip
C. The RF stage
D. The audio stage
55. How many satellites does the GPS system consist?
A. 12 satellites
B. 24 satellites
C. 3 satellites
D.60 satellites
56. What is amplitude distortion?
A. The variation in channel gain with time.
B. The variation in channel gain with frequency.
C. The variation in the amplitude of signals on the channel.
D. The variation of frequency with time.
57. Ratio of radiation resistance to the total resistance on an antenna system.
A. Antenna gain
B. Antenna efficiency
C. Antenna sensitivity
D. Antenna ratio
58. Which is not common to punched card and magnetic media terminals?
A. Both were developed before the teletypewriter.
B. Both are used to facilitate transmission of computer data without having to change the
medium in which it is stored. C. Both used the same data transmission principles as the
teletypewriter and the telegraph.
D. Both transmit data at higher speeds than teletypewriters.
59. What is a smart terminal?
A. A terminal capable of automating some of the functions that a dumb terminal requires the
operator to perfomi.
B. A terminal that is CRT based.
C. A type of data terminal equipment used by human operators.
D. All of the above.
60. Which of the following is not a common type of computer?
A. Mainframe
B. Computer terminal
C. Microcomputer
D. Minicomputer
61. Section of the radio transmitter that is responsible in the conversion of sound energy into
electrical energy.
A. Power amplifier
B. Microphone
C. Buffer amplifier
D. Speaker
62. Which of the following does not describe the International Morse Code?
A. Sophisticated
B. Extensible
C. Variable length
D. Fixed in size
63. What code is commonly used by teletypewriters?
A. CCITT Alphabet No. 1
B. CCITT Alphabet No. 3
C. CCITT Alphabet No. 2
D. CCITT Alphabet No. 4
64. Which of the following statements about ASCII code is not true?
A. ASCII is a seven-bit code.
B. ASCII is an ANSI standard.
C. ASCII and CCITT Alphabet No. 5 are nearly identical.
D. ASCII is a BCD code.
65. One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of
propagation or to become a multimode fiber.
A. Diameter of the core must be equal to the wavelength of the light to be carried.
B. Diameter of the core must be very much greater than the wavelength of the light
to be carried.
C. Diameter of the core must be very small compared to the wavelength of light to be carried.
D. Diameter of the core must be much half the wavelength of the light to be carried.
66. Why have teletypewriters largely replaced manual telegraphy for the transmission of record
traffic?
A. Because teletypewriters transmit faster.
C. Because teletypewriters do not require t4 operators to make code conversions in their heads.
C. Because teletypewriters facilitate message switching.
D. All of the above.
67. One of the following is a communications filter generally used in the transceiver of a single
sideband generator.
A. Low pass filter
B. Band pass filter
C. Crystal filter
D. Mechanical filter
68. Which of the following is not generally used as a stand-alone data communications terminal?
A. Mainframe computers
B. Minicomputers
C. A microcomputer
D. Magnetic media transceivers
69. The difference between synchronous and asynchronous data transmission can be observed
by noting what?
A. How fast the data is transmitted on the circuit.
B. When START and STOP pulses are used.
C. How accurate the system clock is.
D. All of the above.
70. In computer communications, the term RS-232C is referred to as
A. analog connection standard
B. digital connection standard
C. serial interface standard
D. parallel port standard
71. Which one of the following techniques will not help to correct for transmission line errors?
A. Algorithm conversion
B. Checksums
C. Parity checking
D. Hamming code
72. Which of the following is not a characteristic of code conversion by use of a translation cable?
A. Applicable to any code.
B. Easily implemented in both software and hardware.
C. Requires a straightforward transformation from one code to another.
D. Useful for defining fonts of printed character.
73. Where is the best place to perform code translation in a data communications network?
A. At the sending terminal.
B. In the network processor.
C. At the receiving terminal.
D. It depends on the network.
74. Which statement is not true?
A. Checksums detect errors more effectively than a simple parity checking.
B. Cyclic Redundancy Checking can find all of certain kinds of errors and more than 99.3% of
most of other kinds.
C. Parity checking is capable of providing enough information to detect and correct errors.
D. A Hamming code of distance 5 can detect and correct 4 errors in transmission.
75. Which of the following in not commonly used method of error control?
A. CRC
B. Gray coding
C. ARQ
D. FEC with convolutional coding
76. What is the primary consideration when designing an error control system for data
communications?
A. How many errors the system will detect and correct.
B. The overall function and needs of the network.
C. The efficiency of the code that results from the design.
D. All of the above.
77. The actual vertical resolution of broadcast TV with reference to the number of horizontal
lines.
A. 428 lines
B. 339 lines
C. 485 lines
D. 525 lines
78. Which of the following describes amplitude modulation?
A. It is accomplished by varying the amplitude of a carrier at the information rate.
B. It is commonly used in many applications.
C. It is vulnerable to noise.
D. All of the above.
79. Frequency modulation
A. has only two frequencies in its output when modulated by digital pulses, one for "0" and the
other for "1".
B. has the same frequency spectrum as does AM.
C. has narrower bandwidth than AM for the same modulation index.
D. has greater bandwidth than AM for the same modulation index.
80. Phase modulation
A. is widely used in radio broadcasting.
B. can transmit digital signals in less bandwidth than FM.
C. is useful only with synchronous signals.
D. All of the above.
81. Single-sideband transmission
A. is used with FM to reduce bandwidth.
B. It. is used when simplicity is required, because it halves the number of signals to be
concerned about.
C. carries all of the information that is found in double-sideband transmission.
D. is impractical for data transmission.
82. DC pulses
A. are often created by switching a voltage on and off.
B. have zero frequency.
C. are not very useful as carriers of information.
D. are not commonly used as carriers.
83. Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to the reserve
transmitter and receiver?
A. AA
B. Main transmitter
C. Direction finder
D. Emergency transmitter
84. What is the bandwidth of a DC pulse?
A. Is usually from 3 to 5 times the pulse repetition frequency.
B. It is the bandwidth needed to accurately detect the presence of the pulse.
C. Can be determined from a Fourier analysis of the DC pulse.
D. All of the above.
85. What is the resolution of group 3 fax?
A. 200 lines per inch
B. 400 lines per inch
C. 96 lines per inch
D. 300 lines per inch
86. An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ___________ to
clean up and amplify digital data moving in 7 one direction and a similar system for the opposite
direction.
A. filter and power
B. receiver and power
C. transmitter and receiver
D. transmitter and power
87. Pulse amplitude modulation is
A. similar to amplitude modulation in the analog world.
B. used in radio communications.
C. relatively insensitive to noise.
D. a version of frequency modulation.
88. The latest issued telecommunications law which addresses the public telecommunications
regulation.
A. Act 3846
B. E.O. 546
C. E.O. 436
D. Rep. Act 7925
89. PCM
A. begins with PAM.
B. is a coding system.
C. does not transmit the actual signal that is the input.
D. All of the above.
90. What do you call the definite time interval it takes to key the slave station by the master in
operating the long range navigational equipment or loran?
A. Cycle time
B. Time delay
C. Echo delay
D. Station delay
91. What is the easiest type of system to use for secure (encrypted) computer communications?
A. FDM
B. PDM
C. PCM
D. PPM
92. Frequency division multiplexing is
A. in, wide use throughout the world.
B. the key to the telephone expansion that has occurred since the 1920s.
C. not ideal for data transmission, but usable.
D. All of the above.
93. Which of the following is not a commonly-used modem modulation method?
A. 8-FSK
B. 4-PSK
C. BPSK
D. 8-QAM
94. Refers to one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in a self-excited transmitter
oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation.
A. Poor soldered connections.
B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator.
C. DC and RF ac heating of resistors which cause change in values.
D. Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics.
95. What type of modulation would you choose if you wanted to have an inexpensive, low-fidelity
transmission link where noise immunity was not a primary concern?
A. Amplitude modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Angle modulation
96. Due to the presence of parallel LC networks in the trap antenna, one of the following is a
disadvantage of using this kind of antenna.
A. Radiate harmonics
B. Reduce beamwidth
C. Reduce power
D. Allow entry of interference
97. What will happen, if the diplexer of a television transmitter station is removed?
A. Power dissipation to both video and audio transmitted power could happen due to
inter-feedback.
B. Audio signal will be transmitted and received at zero to very minimal attenuation over video
signal.
C. Video signal will be transmitted and received at zero to very minimal attenuation over audio
signal.
D. No transmitted signal will be received over the TV receiver.
98. When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground?
A. When the satellite passes a point at maximum distance from the ground and within range.
B. When the satellite passes at a point in an orbit near the reference ground station and within
range.
C. When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth.
D. When the satellite is located at very near the ground station at designated time of a day.
99. What is the relationship between power level, bandwidth, and modulation index of a
frequency-modulated signal?
A. As modulation index increases, bandwidth and power increase.
B. As modulation index increases, bandwidth and power decreases.
C. As modulation index increases, bandwidth increases and power decreases.
D. As modulation index increases, bandwidth decreases and power increases.
100. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, whet it is open circuited and that
any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
A. AA
B. Ground
C. Direction finder
D. Emergency transmitter