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FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER 2017

for students of
Class 12 Appeared
Paper 2
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 399
Code 1313
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. This Question paper consists of 1 section. All questions will be multiple choice single correct out of four
choices with marking scheme in table below:

Section I Marking Scheme for each question


Question no.
(PCM) correct answer wrong answer
1 to 9, 11 to 12, 18 to 20, 31 +3 1
PHYSICS 10, 13 to 17, 21 to 23, 26, 32 to 33 +4 1
24 to 25, 27 to 30, 34 to 35 +5 2
36 to 44, 46 to 47, 53 to 55, 66 +3 1
CHEMISTRY 45, 48 to 52, 56 to 58, 61, 67 to 68 +4 1
59 to 60, 62 to 65, 69 to 70 +5 2
71 to 79, 81 to 82, 88 to 90, 101 +3 1
MATHEMATICS 80, 83 to 87, 91 to 93, 96, 102 to 103 +4 1
94 to 95, 97 to 100, 104 to 105 +5 2

2. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
4. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 105 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

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Section I PCM
Physics (Part A)
Straight Objective Type
Physics contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 35. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The acceleration of block A of mass 5 kg is at given instant is:- (Pulley and thread are ideal)
F = 60N

m
A
(A) 5 m/s2 (B) 7 m/s2
(C) 2 m/s2 (D) 4 m/s2

2. Electrical field intensity is given as E 2x 1 yi x x 1 j . The potential of a point (1, 2) if
potential at origin is 2 volts is,
(A) 2 volts (B) 4 volts
(C) 2 volts (D) 0 volts

3. In the following P-V diagram of an ideal gas, two


P AB T1
adiabates cut two isotherms at T1 = 300K and
T2 = 200K. The value of A DC T2
VB/VC is B
(A) = VA/VD T1
(B) < VA/VD
(C) > VA/VD
(D) 3/2 D C
T2
VA VD VB VC
V

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4. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are connected to a battery C2


as shown in the figure. The three capacitors have equal
capacitances. Which capacitor stores the most energy?
(A) C2 or C3 as they store the same amount of energy +
(B) C2 C1 C3
V
(C) C1 -
(D) All three capacitors store the same amount of energy

5. When a plastic thin film of refractive index 1.45 is placed in the path of one of the interfering
waves then the central fringe is displaced through width of five fringes. The thickness of the film,
o
if the wavelength of light is 05890 A , will be
(A) 6.544 10 4 cm (B) 6.544 10 4 m
(C) 6.54 104 cm (D) 6.5 10 4 m

o
6. A double slit arrangement produces fringes for 5890 A that are 0.4o apart. What is the
angular width if the entire arrangement is immersed in water? ( w 4 / 3 )
(A) 0.3o (B) 2.3o
o
(C) 0.8 (D) 1.3o

7. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius R applies a


gravitational force of attraction equal to F1 on a particle placed
at P, distance 2R from the centre C of the sphere. A spherical
R C P
cavity of radius is now made in the sphere as shown. The R R
2
sphere with cavity now applies a gravitational force, F2 on the
same particle placed at P. The ratio of F2/F1 will be
1 7
(A) (B)
2 9
(C) 3 (D) 7

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8. In the potentiometer circuit shown in Fig, E


the balance point with R 10.0 when
switch S1 is closed and S 2 is open is 50 cm,
while that when S 2 is closed and S1 is open
is 60 cm. What is the value of X ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
E

9. In the circuit shown in Fig., A and


B are two cells of the same and
E and of internal resistances
rA and rB respectively. L is an
ideal inductor and C is an ideal
capacitor. The key K is closed.
When the current in the circuit
becomes steady, what should be
the value of R so that the potential
difference across the terminals of
cell A is zero.
(A) R rA rB if rA rB
(B) R rA rB
1
(C) R rA rB
2
(D) For no value of R will the potential difference between the terminals of cell A be equal to zero.

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10. A ray of light travels from a medium of refractive index to air. Its angle of incidence in the
medium is , measured from the normal to the boundary, and its angle of deviation is . is
plotted against . Which of the following best represents the resulting curve?
(A) (B)
2 2

1 1


O 2 O 2

(C) (D)
2 2

1 1


O 2 O 2

1
11. In a series L C R circuit the frequencies f1 and f2 at which the current amplitude falls to
2
of the current at resonance, are separated by an interval equal to
R 2 L
(A) (B)
2 L R
R L
(C) (D)
L R
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12. A body having mass m is released over a scale pan from a height h.
The scale pan is hung from a spring. Assume scale pen has negligible
mass and the body does not bounce relative to the pan. If spring
constant of the spring is k, then the amplitude of vibration is
mg 2hk mg mg 2 hk
(A) 1 (B) 1
k mg k k mg
mg 2hk mg
(C) 1 (D)
k mg k

13. One mole of ideal gas under gas a process T 2V 100 (where T is temperature and V is
volume of gas). Find the amount of work done by gas when volume increases form 2m 3 to 4m3.
(A) 4R 100R ln2 (B) 100R
(C) 2R Rln100 (D) 2R 100Rln2

14. The minimum value of between the two blocks for no slipping
between them is (ground is smooth): m
F F F
(A) (B) 2m
mg 3mg
2F 4F
(C) (D)
3mg 3mg

15. A conducting sphere of radius R and charge Q is placed near a uniformly


charged nonconducting infinitely large thin plate having surface charge + +Q
A
density . Then find the potential at point A (on the surface of sphere) +
1 + 0
due to charge on sphere (here K = , 0 ) O
+
4 0 3 + 4R
Q Q R +
(A) K R (B) K
R 4 0 R 0
Q
(C) K (D) none of these
R

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16. A long straight wire along the Z-axis carries a current I in the negative X-direction. The

magnetic vector field B at a point having coordinates (x, y) in the Z = 0 plane is

(A)

0I yi xj (B)

0I yi xj
2
2 x y 2

2 x y 2 2

(C)

0I xj yi (D)

0I xj yi
2
2 x y 2

2 x y 2 2

17. A homogeneous aluminium ball of radius R = 0.5 cm is suspended on x y
a weightless thread from one end of a uniform rod of mass 4.5 gm..
The rod is placed on the edge of a tumbler with water so that half of
the ball is submerged in water when the system is in equilibrium. The
densities of aluminium and water are 2.7 x 103 kg/m3 and 9 x 102
y
kg/m3 respectively. The ratio of the two parts of the rod as shown
x
in figure will be:

(A) 1.5 (B) 2.2


(C) 1.16 (D) 3.21

18. A hemisphere of radius r and mass M is pulled by means of a string


(figure) so that it moves with a uniform velocity. Find the coefficient of
friction with the surface if angle of inclination of the hemisphere F
30o .
1 3
(A) (B)
4 8
2 1
(C) (D)
3 2

19. A glass tube of 1.0 m length is filled with water. The water can be drained out slowly at the
bottom of the tube of the vibrating tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz is brought at the upper end of
the tube and the velocity of sound is 300 m/s. Find the number of resonances that can be
obtained. (Ignore end correction)
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 7 (D) 2

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20. The switch (SW ) in the figure closes when VC > 2V/3 and
opens when VC V/3. The voltmeter reads a voltage as R
plotted in the figure. What is the period T of the waveform V
of the voltage? Voltmeter is ideal. R
VC
SW
C

VC
2V
3
V
3
t
T
(A) 3RC ln 2 (B) RC ln 2
(C) 2 RC ln 2 (D) none of these

21. Determine the coefficient of restitution e which will allow the ball to bounce down the steps as
shown. The trend and riser dimensions are same for each step equal to d and the ball bounces
the same distance h above each step. (Friction between the ball and the steps is zero).

d
d h

d d
(A) (B)
h hd
dh h
(C) (D)
h hd

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22. A particle is moving in a plane with velocity given by u u0 i a cos t j , where i and j are
unit vectors along x and y axis respectively. If the particle is at the origin at t = 0, find its distance
3
from the origin at time
2
92u20 92u20
(A) a2 (B) a2
42 22
32u20 72u20
(C) a2 (D) a2
42 42

23. Determine the force P required to impend the motion of the block B shown in figure. Take
coefficient of friction = 0.3 for all surfaces in contact.

m=3 kg
T
A
P
B m = 5 kg
C
m=4 kg

(A) 12.34 N (B) 32.34 N


(C) 62.12 N (D) 6.34 N

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24. A smooth track in the form of a quarter circle of radius 6m lies in the vertical plane (as shown in

figure). A particle of weight 4N moves from P1 to P2 under the action of forces F1, F2 , and F3 .

Force F1 is always towards P2 and is always 20N in magnitude, force F2 always acts horizontally

and is always 30N in magnitude, force F3 always acts tangentially to the track and is of
magnitude 15 10s N when s is in meters. If the particle has speed 4 m/s at P1, what will its
speed be at P2?
6m
P2
2

6m
F1 = 20N

F3 15 10s N
F2= 30N
s
P1 w = 4N

(A) 11.3 m/s (B) 15.4 m/s


(C) 22.6 m/s (D) 6.5 m/s

25. A spaceship is sent to investigate a planet of mass M and radius R. While hanging motionless in
space at a distance 5R from the centre of the planet, the spaceship fires an instrument package
with speed v 0 as shown in the figure. The package has mass m, which is much smaller than the
mass of the spaceship. For what angle will the package just graze the surface of the planet?
1 8GM 1 8GM
(A) sin1 1 (B) sin1 1
2 5v 0r
2 5 5v 20r

1 2GM 1 8GM
(C) sin1 1 (D) sin1 1
5 5v 20r 5 3v 20r

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26. The circuit shown has been operating for a long time. The L
instant after the switch in the circuit labeled S is opened. What S
is the voltage across the inductor VL and which labeled point (A A B
or B) of the inductor is at a higher potential? Take R1 = 4.0 ,
R2 = 8.0 and L = 2.5 H. R2
R1
(A) VL = 12 V, point A is at the higher potential E=12V
(B) VL = 12 V, point B is at the higher potential
(C) VL = 6 V, point A is at the higher potential
(D) VL = 12 V, point B is at the higher potential

27. The key K in circuit diagram shown in figure can be I


either in position 1 or 2. The circuit includes two d.c.
sources, two resistors, and an ammeter. The emf of K
one sources is E1 and of the other is unknown. The Rx
internal resistance of the sources should be taken as
2
zero. The resistance of the resistance chosen in E1
such a way that the current through the ammeter is
the same for both positions of the key. The current is
measured and is found to be equal to I. Determine
the resistance denoted by Rx in the diagram. A
(A) 2 E1/I
(B) e1/2I
(C) 3 E1/I
(D) E1/I

28. A block of mass m is suspended by means of an ideal spring of force


constant k, from ceiling of a car which is moving along a circular path of
radius r with acceleration a. The time period of oscillation of the block
when it is displaced along the spring, will be
mg ma m
(A) 2 (B) 2
k k g2 a 2
m
m m
(C) 2 (D) 2
k k 2 g2 a2

29. An open pipe is in resonance in 2nd harmonic with frequency f 1. Now one end of the tube is
closed and frequency is increased to f 2 such that the resonance again occurs in nth harmonic.
Choose the correct option.
3 5
(A) n = 3, f2 f1 (B) n = 3, f2 f1
4 4
3 5
(C) n = 5, f2 f1 (D) n = 5, f2 f1
4 4

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30. Three pieces of metallic heat conductors X, Y, Z of equal lengths 100oC


0o C
and cross-sectional area are connected in series as shown in figure.
Ends A and D are maintained at 0oC and 100oC respectively. If Y is X Y Z
o
made up of same material as that of Z, point B is at 20 C. What will D
A B C
be the temperature of B, if Y is made up of a material same as that
of X. Consider only conduction and laterally insulated surfaces of
conductors.
(A) 25oC (B) 50oC
o
(C) 40 C (D) 20oC

31. The key K (figure) is connected in turn to each of the contacts over E1
short identical time intervals so that the change in the charge on the R1
capacitor over each connection is small. What will be the final
charge qf on the capacitor?
C
C E 2R1 E1R2 C E2R1 E1R2 K
(A) (B)
R1 R2 R1 R 2
2C E 2R1 E1R 2 C E 2R1 E1R2 E2
(C) (D)
R1 R 2 2 R1 R 2
R2


32. An electron, charge e, mass m, enters a uniform magnetic field B B i with an initial velocity

v v x i v y j . What is the velocity of the electron after a time interval of t second?
e e
(A) v x i v y j v yB t k (B) v x i v y j v yB t k
m m
e e
(C) v x i v y v yB t j (D) v x i v y v yB t i v y j
m m

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33. Find the time period of oscillation for arrangement shown in figure:

m 2m
(A) 2 (B) 2
2k k
m m
(C) (D)
k 2k

34. What is the amount of power delivered by the ac source in the circuit shown (in watts).
XC 12 R1 5

XL 8 R2 6


Rrms = 130V

(A) 500 watt (B) 1014 watt


(C) 1514 watt (D) 2013 watt

35. A point object is located at a distance 15 cm. from the pole of a concave mirror of focal length 10

cm on its principal axis is moving with a velocity 8i 11j cm/s and velocity of mirror is 4i 2j

cm/s as shown. If v is the velocity of image. Then find the value of v in (cm/s)
y

8i 11j cm/s x

O 4i 2j cm/s
15cm

(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 10 (D) 40

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Chemistry (Part B)
Straight Objective Type
Chemistry contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 36 to 70. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

36. Chlorine gas is dried over :


(A) CaO (B) NaOH
(C) H2SO4 (D) HBr

37. Which of the following is extensive property?


(A) G (B) CP, m
(C) P (D) T

38. Argon is used in arc welding because of its


(A) low reactivity with metal (B) Flammability
(C) ability to lower the melting point of the metal (D) high calorific value

39. Among the given compound choose that yield same carbocation on ionization.

Br Br
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Br
Br
(A) (a), (c) (B) (b), (d)
(C) (a), (b) (D) (b), (c)

40. Xanthoproteic test is not given by


(A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan
(C) Phenylalanine (D) Glycine

41. Which of the following interaction form non-bonding molecular orbital when z-axis is the bonding
axis
(A) dyz dz2
(B) dyz dxy
(C) dx2 y2 dxy
(D) all the above will form non bonding molecular orbitals

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42. The deep colour produced when iodine dissolves in potassium iodide solution is due to the
presence of
+
(A) I (B) I

(C) I3 (D) I2

43. For the given reactions :


(i) Hg (OAc)2 / H2O
I: CH2 CH CH2 CH2 CH2 OH J (major)
(ii) NaBH4

H+
II : O O H K (major)

J & K respectively are


O O
CH3 CHO CH3
(A) & CHO
CH2 (B) &
CHO

(C) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH2 OH (D) CH2 (CH 2)3 CH2 OH

OH & OH &

OH O

44. Equivalent mass of reducing agent in the following reaction is


H2S + SO2 S + H2O
(A) 64 (B) 17
(C) 34 (D) 16

45. Which of the following options are incorrect?


(i) S S ; H ve
(ii) S S ; H ve
(iii) Red P Black P, H ve
(iv) Black P White P, H ve
(v) Graphite Diamond, H ve
(A) (ii), (iv) & (v) (B) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(C) (i) & (iv) (D) (i) & (iii)

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46. How many stereoisomers of the following compound are possible?


OH O

OH O OH
(A) zero (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

47. The correct order of acidic strength of the following chloro-substituted phenols is -
OH OH OH OH
Cl
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Cl
Cl
(A) (b) > (c) > (d) > (a) (B) (d) > (b) > (c) > (a)
(C) (c) > (b) > (d) > (a) (D) (c) > (a) > (b) > (d)

48. Lassaignes test for the detection of nitrogen will fail in the case of :
(A) NH2CONH2 (B) NH2CONHNH2 . HCl
(C) NH2NH2 . HCl (D) C6H5NHNH2 . 2HCl

49. Statement I: Average kinetic energy of gas molecule is larger than the largest possible value
of attractive potential energy of a molecular pair
Statement II: Viscosity of a gas decreases on increasing the temperature
1
Statement III: Mean free path
Molecular diameter
(A) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(B) Statement I is correct but III is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect but II & III is correct
(D) All the three statements are correct

50. The number of moles of acidified KMnO4 required to convert one mole of sulphite ion into
sulphate ion is :
(A) 2/5 (B) 3/5
(C) 4/5 (D) 1

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51. Which of the following has maximum bond energy?


(A) He2 (B) O2
(C) O 22 (D) O 2

52. Which among the following is the major product for the given electrophilic substitution reaction?
CH3
HNO3
'P'
H2SO4
Cl
NO2 CH3 CH3
(A) (B)

Cl Cl
NO2
NO2
CH3
CH3
(D)
(C)
NO2 Cl
Cl

53. Name the solid waste product of the Bayer process (used in the metallurgy of aluminium).
(A) Brown mud (B) Yellow mud
(C) Black mud (D) Red mud

54. Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide. To which class of solid does it belong?
(A) Amorphous solid (B) Molecular solid
(C) Network solid (D) Polymeric solid

55. Identify the incorrect statement.


(A) cis-1, 2- dimethyl cyclohexane has non superimposable mirror image
(B) cis-1, 2, dimethyl cyclohexane shows no optical activity
(C) Benzene and naphthalene both can give EAS
(D) In naphthalene C C are of equal lengths

56. If the shortest wavelength of H-atom in Lyman series is , then longest wavelength in Balmer
series of He+ ion is:
9 36
(A) (B)
5 5
5
(C) (D)
4 9
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57. In a unit cell of NaCl if all the atoms along one of tetrad axis and one of the diad axis are
removed, then the resultant formulae of the unit cell will be
(A) Na5Cl6 (B) Na5Cl11
(C) No change in the formula (D) Na2Cl3

58. Which of the following regarding radioactive decay is incorrect?


(A) -decay always results in transmutation
(B) Internal pair production is a type of -decay
(C) In -decay, a nucleus changes from a higher to lower energy state through the emission of
photons
(D) -decay is accompanied by the emission of neutrino

59. What will be the free energy change (kJ/mole) which accompanies the expansion of one mole of
mercury vapour (in equilibrium with its liquid) at 433 K to a pressure of 1 atm at the same
temperatures (Given (V.P)Hg = 4.19 mm of Hg at 433K)
(A) 18.725 (B) zero
(C) 1 (D) 2.05

60. Which of the following is incorrect option?


(A) HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (acidic strength)
(B) HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (thermal stability)
(C) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (basic strength)
(D) BiH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (boiling point)

61. Consider the following reactions



(I) Na2S2O3 + dil. HCl (II) Na2S2O3 + Cl2 + water

(III) SO2 + H2S (IV) H2S + H2O2
The reactions which gives yellow turbidity are :
(A) II, III & IV (B) III & IV only
(C) I, III & IV (D) I, II, III & IV

62. In the Parkers process of Ag extraction, Zn is removed from (Zn - Ag) alloy by using:
(A) Cupellation (B) Electrolytic Refining
(C) Distillation (D) Fractional crystallization

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63. If 1 mole of ideal gas kept in a piston (massless & frictionless) that is placed in an evacuated
chamber expands to double its volume then for such expansion process

Large
evacuated
chamber

(A) Ssurr. Ssys 0


(B) Ssurr. Ssys 1.3864 cal/mol.
(C) Ssurr. 0 & Ssys 1.3864 cal
(D) Ssurr. 1.3864 cal & Ssys 1.3864 cal

64. A solution of specific gravity 1.6 is 67% by weight. What will be the percentage by weight of the
solution of same acid if it is diluted to specific gravity 1.2?
(A) 50.25 (B) 80.6
(C) 42.7 (D) 29.8

65. Ph
Mg (i) HCHO
C
Ether
A
(ii) H
B. Product B is
Br
Ph
(A) C (B) Ph C C CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
CH2 OH

(C) Ph C C CH2 CH2 OH (D) Ph CH2 C C CH2 CH2 OH

66. For the following parallel chain reaction, what will be the value of
overall half-life of A in minutes? -1

Bt 16 -3 sec 4B
0
Given the 2 x1
Ct 9 K 1=
A
(A) 3.3 (B) 6.3
(C) 3.6 (D) None
3C

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67. After SrCO3 was equilibrated with a buffer of pH 8.60, the solution was found to have [Sr+2] =
2.2 104 . What is the solubility product constant for SrCO3? (Given: log 8.6 2.51 10 5 ,
Ka1 H2CO3 2 105 and Ka2 H2CO 3 4.7 10 11 )
(A) 8.9 1010 (B) 4.84 10 8
(C) 6.25 109 (D) 8.0 1011

68. 0.685 gm of an alloy of copper-zinc-lead containing 1% lead (w/w) was dissolved in nitric acid
and diluted to 250 cm3. After that 100 ml of this diluted solution was electrolyzed with a current of
1.47 mA for 1 hr & 20 min. which ensured that all the lead was completely converted to lead
dioxide. (Given: In the process, nitrated ions are reduced to ammonium ions which at the same
time prevents the liberation of hydrogen at cathode). The fraction of total current passed that is
used in the formation of PbO2 is
(A) 36.1% (B) 12.8%
(C) 22% (D) 31.5%

69. 24 cm

P atm = 75 cm

10 cm 10 cm, d = 20.4 gm/ml


of
Hg
If above tube is placed vertically with the open end upward then the length of the air
column is (density of Hg = 13.6 gm/ ml)
(A) 10 cm (B) 7 cm
(C) 14 cm (D) 18 cm

70. For a real gas a graph is drawn between PVm & P

A
PVm

135o
O B
P

Given OA = 0.03. The Vanderwalls constant a for the real gas will be :
(A) .03 (B) 33.33
(C) approximately zero (D) 1

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Mathematics (Part C)
Straight Objective Type
Mathematics contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 71 to 105. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

x x
71.

f x a2 3a 2 cos2 sin2 a 1 x cos1 does not passes critical point then the
4 4
number of integral values of a are
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) Infinite

72. Let , be real roots of the equation x 2 k 2 x k 2 3k 5 0 . Then the maximum value
of 2 2 is
(A) 2 (B) 16
(C) 19 (D) 4

x
73. Let f x , x 1 , then the value of satisfying f f x x is
x 1
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 1

2
74. From the origin, chords are drawn to the circle x 1 y 2 1, then the locus of middle points of
these chords will be
x
(A) x 2 y x 0 (B) x 2 y 2 0
2
2 2 2 2 x
(C) x y x 0 (D) x y 0
2

75. If 1 sin x sin2 x ......... 4 2 3, 0 x , then x is equal to



(A) (B)
6 4
2
(C) or (D) or
3 6 3 3

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1 x 3x x 3
76. If f x log and g x , then f g x is equal to
1 x 1 3x 2
3
(A) f 3x (B) f x
(C) 3f x (D) f x

r r2
77. If , then
r1 r3
0 o
(A) A = 90 , (B) B = 90
(C) C = 90o (D) None of these

The period of f x e sin x is ([.] & {.} denotes greatest integer function and fractional
cos x
78.
part function respectively)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) (D) 2

5 12
79. If sin1 sin1 then x is equal to
x x 2
7 4
(A) (B)
13 3
(C) 13 (D) 13

80. A plane passes through (1, 2, 1) and perpendicular to two planes 2x 2y z 0 &
x y 2z 4, then the distance of the plane from the point (1, 2, 2) is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 2 2

2F n 1
81. Suppose that F n 1 for n = 1, 2, 3, and F(1) = 2. Then, F(101) equals
2
(A) 50 (B) 52
(C) 54 (D) None of these

82. If the equation cot 4 x 2cosec 2 x a 2 0 has at least one solution, then the sum of all possible
integral values of a is equal to
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 0

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83. Given that a, b, c are the sides of a triangle ABC which is right angled at C, then the minimum
2
c c
value of is
a b
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8

d2 y dy
84. If y a bx ecx and 2
2 k ky 0, then k is (for c > 0)
dx dx
(A) c (B) c
(C) c 2 (D) c 3 /2

85. If the equation x 2 2 k 1 x 9k 5 0 have only negative roots, then k belongs to


5
(A) , 1 6, (B) , 0
9
5
(C) 5, (D) , 6
9

1
86. If f : 1, 2, is given by f x x , then f 1 x will be
x
x x2 4 x
(A) (B)
2 1 x2
x x2 4
(C) (D) 1 x 2 4
2

x2
87. The domain of the function f x sin1 log2 is
2
(A) 2, 1 1, 2 (B) 2, 1
(C) 1, 2 (D) 2, 2 0
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sec 2 x

f t dt
2
88. The value of lim is
x
2 2
4
x
16
2 2 1
(A) f 2 (B) f
2
4 8
(C) f 2 (D) f 2

2
sin3 x x
89. dx is equal to
2 3 x2
7 3
(A) ln (B) ln
3 7
(C) ln 3 (D) None of these

90. A common tangent is drawn to the circle x 2 y 2 c 2 and the parabola y 2 4ax . If the angle
which this tangent makes with the axis of x is / 4 then the relationship between a and c
(a, c > 0) is:
(A) a 2 c (B) c a 2
(C) a = 2c (D) c = 2a

91. A hyperbola has centre C & one focus at P (6, 6). If its two directrices are 3x 4y 10 0 and
3x 4y 10 0 , then
(A) CP 12 (B) eccentricity = 5
5
(C) CP = 8 (D) eccentricity =
2

92. The values of for which 3 cos 3 sin 4 sin 2 cos3 holds true are
n n n
(A) , , nz (B) , n z
3 18 2 6 6 18
n n
(C) , , nz (D) None of these
3 18 2 6

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93. If 2p2 3q2 4pq p 0 and a variable line px qy 1 always touches a parabola whose axis is
parallel to x-axis, then the equation of the parabola is
2 2
(A) y 4 24 x 2 (B) y 3 12 x 1
2 2
(C) y 4 12 x 2 (D) y 2 24 x 4

d 1
94. Let f : 2, 5 2, 5 be a bijective function such that f x 0 x 2, 5 then
dx
5

f x f x dx is
1

2
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 21

f x f x , x 1, 1 0
95. Let f x x 2 1 and g x (where [ ] denotes greatest
1 , otherwise
b
integer function). Let a g x dx & sin x dx 4 . Then b a is
0


(A) (B) 2
2
5
(C) (D) 4
2

n
96. If Pn denotes the product of all the coefficients of 1 x and 8! Pn 1 98 Pn then n is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 11

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97. If the area of a triangle is given and angle C is given and if the value of side c opposite to
angle C is minimum, then
2 4
(A) b (B) b
sinC sinC
4 2
(C) a (D) a
sinC sinC

98. There are 3 different pairs (i.e. 6 units say a, a, b, b, c, c) of shoes in a lot. Now three person
come & pick the shoes randomly (each gets 2 units). Let p be the probability that no one is able
13 p
to wear shoes (i.e. no one gets a correct pair), then is
4 p
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

x3 1
99. x
dx aln x 4 1 bln x 1 c then a b is equal to
4

1 x 1
1 3
(A) (B)
4 4
1 3
(C) (D)
3 4

1
100. If the equation ax 2 bx c x3 (a, b, c 0) has only real roots and all the roots are integers
x
then the value of a b c is
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 14 (D) 8

101. The point a2 , a 1 lies in the angle between the lines 3x y 1 0 and x 2y 5 0
containing the origin if :
1 1
(A) a 3, 0 , 1 (B) a , 0 , 1
3 3
1 1
(C) a 3, (D) a ,
3 3

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102. The locus of the foot of the perpendicular from the centre of the hyperbola xy c 2 on a variable
tangent is:
2 2
(A) x 2
y2 4c xy 2
(B) x 2

y2 2c 2 xy
2 2
(C) x 2
y2 4c xy
2
(D) x 2
y 4c 2 xy

3 1

Let A 2 2 B 1 1 &
103. 0 1 C AB A T , then A T C5 A is equal to
1 3

2 2
3 1 1 0
(A) 2 2 (B) 3
1
1 0 2
3
1 1 5
(C) 2
(D)
0 1
0 5

x 2 12
x log 4
104. The equation 2 e e has
(A) No real solution
(B) Only two real solution whose sum is zero
(C) Only two real solution whose sum is non-zero
(D) Four real solutions whose sum is zero

105. f x y f x f y xy 1 x, y R & f 1 1 , then the number of solutions of f n n


n N is
(A) No solution (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) infinite

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FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER 2017


for students of
Class 12 Appeared
Paper 2
ANSWERS
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C
5. A 6. A 7. B 8. B
9. A 10. A 11. A 12. A
13. A 14. C 15. A 16. A
17. C 18. B 19. B 20. A
21. D 22. A 23. B 24. A
25. B 26. D 27. D 28. C
29. D 30. A 31. B 32. A
33. A 34. C 35. A 36. C
37. A 38. A 39. C 40. D
41. D 42. C 43. A 44. B
45. C 46. B 47. A 48. D
49. A 50. A 51. D 52. A
53. D 54. B 55. D 56. A
57. A 58. A 59. A 60. D
61. D 62. C 63. C 64. D
65. B 66. A 67. A 68. A
69. D 70. A 71. B 72. C
73. D 74. C 75. D 76. C
77. C 78. A 79. C 80. D
81. B 82. D 83. D 84. C
85. A 86. A 87. A 88. D
89. B 90. A 91. B 92. A
93. C 94. D 95. B 96. B
97. D 98. B 99. B 100. C
101. A 102. D 103. D 104. D
105. C

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