1 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16

08/08/2016

CODE

GOL

COMMON PRACTICE TEST [PMT] : 2016-18

[ XI STD (MEDICAL) ]

Time: 3 Hr. CPT-10 MM : 720

INSTRUCTIONS :
There are four sections in this paper, consisting Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology.

For each correct answer 4 marks awarded and for each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted.

Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.

Use of Calculator is not allowed.

Dark the circle in the space provided only.

Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on the Answer
Sheet.

USEFUL CONSTANTS
Boltzmann constant (k) = 1.38 1023 J K1 Avogadros number (NA) = 6.02 1023 mol1
Plancks constant (h) = 6.63 1034 J s Speed of light in vacuum (c) = 3 108 m s1
Rest mass of electron (me) = 9.1 1031 kg 1 unified atomic mass unit (u) = 1.66 1027 kg
1 eV = 1.6 1019 J 1 nm = 109 m
Charge of Electron (e) = 1.6 1019 C Gas constant (R) = 8.31 J mol1 K1

TOPIC

Physics : Present : Motion in a plane (Projectile motion)

Previous : Relative motion in 1-D, Motion in a plane (Introduction) Not including projectile
motion)
Chemistry : Present : Chemical Bonding : Covalent bond, Co-ordinate bond. Fajans rule and Dipole moment
Previous : Periodicity and periodic properties (I.E., E.A. Atomic radius Covalent raduus Ionic
radius), Chemical Bonding : Types of chemical bonds, Lewis structures, Ionic bond lattice energy
Botany : Present : Biological Classification : Fungi : Deuteromycetes Lichens, Mycorhizae
Previous : Biological Classification : Fungi : Zygomycetes, Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes
Zoology : Present : Cell Division : Meiosis
Previous : Structure of cell : Ribosomes Microbodies, Cytoskeletal structure. Flagella & Cilia, Cell
inclusions, Cell Division : Cell cycle Mitosis.

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2 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16

PHYSICS

1. A projectile fired with initial velocity u at some angle 10. A river is flowing at the rate of 6 kmh1. A swimmer
has a range R.If the initial velocity be doubled at swims across with a velocity of 9 kmh 1
the same angle of projection, then the range will be perpendicular to river. The resultant velocity of the
man will be
(1) 2R (2) R/2
(3) R (4) 4R (1) 17 km h 1 (2) 117 km h 1
2. If the initial velocity of a projection be doubled, keeping
the angle of projection same, the maximum height
(3) 340 km h 1 (4) 3 40 km h 1
reached by it will 11. A projectile, thrown with velocity v0 at an angle to
(1) remain the same (2) be doubled the horizontal, has a range R. It will strike a vertical
(3) become four times (4) be halved wall at a distance R/2 from the point of projection with
a speed of
3. The range of a projectile when launched at angle is
(1) 0 (2) 0 sin
same as when launched at angle 2. What is the value
of ?
gR
(1) 15 (2) 30 (3) 0 cos (4)
2
(3) 45 (4) 60
12. Two projectiles A and B are projected with same speed
4. The time of flight of projectile is 10 s and its range is at angles 30 and 60 to be horizontal, then which one
500 m. What will be its maximum height reached? Take is wrong?
g = 10 m/s2.
(1) 250 m (2) 125 m (1) R A R B (2) H B 4H A
(3) 100 m (4) 50 m
(3) TB 3TA (4) None of these
5. A stone is projected with speed of 50 m/s at an angle
of 60 with the horizontal. The speed of the stone at 13. An object is projected at an angle of 45 with the
highest point of trajectory is horizontal. The horizontal range and the maximum
(1) 75 m/s (2) 25 m/s height reached will be in the ratio
(3) 50 m/s (4) Cannot find (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
6. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the directions (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
of its velocity and acceleration are 14. The horizontal range of a projectile is 4 3 times of
(1) parallel to each other its maximum height. The angle of projection will be
(2) antiparallel to each other (1) 60 (2) 37
(3) inclined to each other at an angle of 45 (3) 30 (4) 45
(4) perpendicular to each other
15. At what angle to the horizontal should an object is
7. At the top of the trajectory of a particle, the acceleration projected so that the maximum height reached is equal
is to the horizontal range?
(1) maximum (2) minimum (1) tan1 (2) (2) tan1 (4)
(3) zero (4) g (3) tan1 (2/3) (4) tan (3)
8. A football player throws a ball with a velocity of 16. Three balls of same masses are projected with equal
50 m/s an angle 30 from the horizontal. The ball speeds at angle 15, 45, 75, and their ranges are
remains in the air for (g = 10 m/s2) respectively R1 R2 and R3 then
(1) 2.5 s (2) 1.25 s (1) R1 > R2 > R3 (2) R1 < R2 < R3
(3) 5 s (4) 0.635 s (3) R1 = R2 = R3 (4) R1 = R3 < R2
9. When a stone is projected which remains constant?
17. A projectile is thrown at an angle with the horizontal
(1) Angular momentum
and its range is R1. It is then thrown at an angle
(2) Linear momentum
with vertical and the range is R2, then
(3) Vertical component of velocity
(4) Horizontal component of velocity
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3 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16
(1) R1 = 4 R2 (2) R1 = 2 R2
26. If VA 20 ms 1 and VB 15 ms 1
(3) R1 = R2 (4) Data insufficient
18. The height y and distance x along the horizontal for a VB VA
body projected in the xy plane are given by y = 8t 5t2
and x = 6t. The initial speed of projection is Then VAB is
(1) 8 m/s (2) 9 m/s
(1) 5 ms 1 (2) 5 ms 1
(3) 10 m/s (4) (10/3) m/s
19. The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x = (3) 35 ms 1 (4) 20 ms 1
36 t m and 2y = 96 t 9.8 t2 m. The angle of projection 27. Which one in the following is a correct option
is
(1) VAB VBA (2) VAB VB VA
1 4 1 3
(1) sin (2) sin
5 5 (3) VAB VBA (4) None of these
28. Two trains A and B having length 250 m each if they
1 4 1 3
(3) sin (4) sin are traveling in opposite direction. If VA 30 ms 1
3 4

20. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial and VB 20 ms 1. Then time required by trains to
velocity of 20 ms1. If g = m/s2, the range of the missile
cross each other
is
(1) 50 s (2) 10 s
(1) 50 m (2) 60 m
(3) 20 s (4) 30 s
(3) 20 m (4) 40 m

21. A ball is projected horizontally with a velocity of 5 m/s 29. If a particle A is having velocity VA and particle B is
from the top of a building 19.6 high. How long will the
ball take to hit the ground? having velocity VB then velocity of B with respect to

(1) (2) 2 s A is
2s

(1) VA VB (2) VA VB
(3) 3s (4) 3 s

22. The relation between the time of flight of a projectile (3) VA VB (4) VA VB
T and the time to reach the maximum height tm is
(1) Tf = 2tm (2) Tf = tm 30. If velocity of particle A and B is VA 2i 3jms
1

tm and VB 2i 3jms
1 respectively then the
(3) Tf (4) Tf 2 (t m )
2
magnitude of relative velocity VAB is
23. Two bullets are fired simaltaneously , horizontally with
different speed from the same height. Which bullet (1) 13 ms 1 (2) 4 13 ms 1
will hit the ground first
(1) The faster one (3) 2 13 ms 1 (4) 53 ms 1
(2) Depends on their mass 31. Two trains each of length 1 km aproaching to each
(3) The slower one other with velocity 10 ms1 and 15 ms1 find time taken
(4) Both will reach simaltaneously by trains to cross each other
24. The equation of trajectory of a ground to ground (1) 65 sec (2) 400 sec
projectile is y ax bx 2 . The horizontal range covered (3) 200 sec (4) 80 sec
is 32. Two particles are moving with velocities v1 and v2.
(1) a/b (2) b/a (3) 2a/b (4) a/2b Their relative velocity is the maximum, when the angle
between their velocity is
25. A particle is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower
(1) zero (2) / 4
of height h and a velocity 2gh . It strikes the ground
at a distance from the foot of the tower equal to (3) / 2 (4) .
(1) h/2 (2) 2h/3 (3) h (4) 2h

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4 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16
33. A stone is thrown upwards and it rises to a height of (1) 80 km/h (2) 60 km/h
100 m. The relative velocity of the stone w.r.t the earth (3) 15 km/h (4) 145 km/h
will be maximum at
40. If 2 balls are projected at angles 45 and 60 and the
(1) the ground (2) a height of 5 m maximum heights reached are same, what is the ratio
(3) height of 50 m (4) the highest point of their initial velocities?
34. A stone is thrown upwards with a velocity 50 ms1.
(1) 2: 3 (2) 3: 2
Another stone is simultaneously thrown downwards
from the same location with a velocity 50 ms1. When (3) 3: 2 (4) 2 : 3
the first stone is at the highest point, the relative velocity
41. A man can throw a stone such that it acquires maximum
of the second stone w.r.t. the first stone is
horizontal range 80 m. The maximum height to which
(1) Zero (2) 50 ms1 it will rise for the same projectile in metre is
(3) 100 ms1 (4) 150 ms1 (1) 10 (2) 20
35. Two bodies are moving in opposite directions with (3) 40 (4) 50
velocity v. The relative velocity of one w.r.t. the other
42. The ratio of the speed of a projectile at the point of
is
projection to the speed at the top of its trajectory is x.
(1) zero (2) v The angle of projection with the horizontal is
(3) 2 (4) 2 (1) sin 1 x (2) cos 1 x
36. Two cars C1 and C2 are moving on parallel roads in (3) sin 1 (1/ x) (4) cos 1 (1/ x)
the same direction with velocity v. The relative velocity
of C1 w.r.t. C2 isa 43. Two trains are each 50 m long moving parallel towards
(1) Directed towrds C2 (2) Directed towards C1 each other at speeds 10 m/s and 15 m/s respectively,
at what time will they pass each other?
(3) Zero (4) 2 (1) 8 s (2) 4 s
37. The relative velocity of a particle moving with a velocity (3) 2 s (4) 6 s
v, w.r.t. itself is 44. Two bodies are held separated by 98 m vertually one
(1) zero (2) v above the other. They are released simultaneously to
(3) (4) None of the above fall freely under gravity. After 2 s the relative distance
between them is
38. A train is moving with a velocity of 25 m/s and a car is
moving behind it by a velocity of 8 m/s in same direction. (1) 49 m (2) 196 m
The relative velocity of train with respect to car is (3) 98 m (4) 392 m
(1) 17 m/s (2) 33 m/s 45. A 100 m long train crosses a man travelling at 5 km/h,
(3) 17.5 m/s (4) None of these in opposite direction, in 7.2 s then the velocity of train
is
39. A moves with 65 km/h while B is coming behind of A
with 80 km/h. The relative velocity of B with respect (1) 40 km/h (2) 25 km/h
ot A is (3) 20 km/h (4) 45 km/h

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5 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16

CHEMISTRY

46. The correct order of polarisability of the ions is (2) High electron affinity, low ionisation energy

(1) Cl > Br > I > F (2) F > I > Br > Cl (3) Low electron affinity, low ionisation energy

(3) F > Cl > Br > I (4) I > Br > Cl > F (4) High electron affinity, high ionisation energy
47. Maximum I.E. is for 57. Amongst the elemens with following electronic
+ + configurations, which one of them may have the highest
(1) Be (2) Li
(3) B +
(4) Ne + ionization energy?
48. Which bond is most polar? (1) [Ne]3s23p1 (2) [Ne]3s23p3
(1) ClF (2) BrF (3) [Ne]3s23p2 (4) [Ar]3d104s24p3
(3) IF (4) FF 58. Which of the following is an electrovalent linkage?
49. The correct order of electron affinity of B, C, N, O is (1) CH4 (2) MgCl2
(1) O > C > N > B (2) B > N > C > O (3) SiCl4 (4) BF3
(3) O > C > B > N (4) O > B > C > N 59. From the following which group of elements easily
forms cation
50. Nitrogen has lower electron affinity than its preceding
element carbon because (1) F, Cl, Br (2) Li, Na, K
(1) Electron affinity decreases along a period (3) O, S, Se (4) N, P, As
(2) Electron affinity generally increases along a period 60. Which of the following has zero dipole-moment?
(3) Nitrogen atom has half-filled p-orbital (1) ClF (2) PCl3
(4) Nitrogen is a p-block element (3) SiF4 (4) CFCl3
51. The second ionistion potential is 61. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon
(1) Less than the first ionisation potential (1) Charge on the ion only
(2) Equal to the first ionisation potential (2) Size of the ion only
(3) Greater than the first ionisation potential (3) Packing of ions only
(4) None of these (4) Charge on the ion and size of the ion
52. The correct order of the size is 62. Which pair of molecules will have permanent dipole
moment for both members?
(1) Ca 2 K Ar Cl S2
(1) NO2 and O3 (2) SiF4 and CO2
(2) K Ca 2 Cl Ar S2 (3) SiF4 and NO2 (4) NO2 and CO2
63. Correct sequence of increasing covalent character is
(3) S2 Cl Ar K Ca 2
represented by
(4) S2 Ar Cl Ca 2 K (1) LiCl, NaCl, BeCl2 (2) BeCl2, NaCl, LiCl
53. Which of the following does not have a coordinate (3) NaCl, LiCl, BeCl2 (4) BeCl2, LiCl, NaCl
bond? 64. The correct order of the lattice energies of the following
(1) SO2 (2) HNO3 ionic compounds is;
(3) H2SO3 (4) HNO2 (1) NaCl > MgBr2 > CaO > Al2O3
54. Which of the following has the largest ionic radius? (2) NaCl > CaO > MgBr2 > Al2O3
(1) Na + (2) Ni + (3) MgBr2 > Al2O3 > CaO > NaCl
+ +2 (4) Al2O3 > CaO > MgBr2 > NaCl
(3) Cs (4) Mg
55. Which of the following is the most polar? 65. Which of the following contains a coordinate covalent
(1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3 bond?
(3) CH3OH (4) CH3Cl (1) N2O5 (2) BaCl2
56. Ionic compounds are formed most easily with (3) HCl (4) H2O
(1) Low electron affinity, high ionisation energy

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6 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16
66. A compound with the maximum ionic character is 75. Which has the maximum atomic radius?
formed from (1) Al (2) Si
(1) Na and F (2) Cs and F (3) P (4) Mg
(3) Cs and I (4) Na and Cl 76. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds
67. Which is the most covalent? with the greatest and the least ionic character,
(1) C O (2) C Br respectively, are
(3) C S (4) C F (1) LiCl and RbCl (2) RbCl and BeCl2
68. HCl molecule contains (3) RbCl and MgCl2 (4) MgCl2 and BeCl2
(1) ionic bond (2) covalent bond 77. Which of the following is electron deficient molecule?
(3) hydrogen bond (4) coordinate bond (1) B2H6 (2) C2H6
69. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is (3) PH 3 (4) SiH4
(1) CH3Cl (2) NF3 78. Which of the following pairs form a stable coordinate
bond?
(3) BF3 (4) ClO2
(1) NaOH.HCl (2) NH3.H2O
70. The first ionisation potential is maximum for
(3) NH3.BF 3 (4) BF3.BCl3
(1) B (2) N
79. Which of the following transitions involves maximum
(3) O (4) Be
amount of energy?
71. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly
represented? (1) M (g ) M (g ) (2) M(g) M (g)
(1) H H H (2) Na F O 2 (3) M (g) M 2 (g) (4) M 2 (g) M 3 (g)
(3) F O 2 Na (4) Al3 Mg 2 N3 80. For electron affinity of halogens which of the following
is correct
72. Which of the following have both polar and non-polar
bonds? (1) Br > F (2) Fi > Cl
(3) Br < Cl (4) F < I
(1) C 2 H 6 (2) NH 4 Cl
81. Polarization is the distortion of the shape of an anion
(3) HCl (4) AlCl3 by an adjacently placed cation. Which of the following
statements is correct?
73. Ionisation energy is highest for
(1) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation
(1) noble gases of high charge
(2) alkali metals (2) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation
(3) transition elements of low radius
(4) inner-transition elements (3) A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree
74. The structure of orthophosphoric acid is of polarization
(4) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of
polarization
82. Which of the following is the most electropositive
(1) (2) element?
(1) Aluminium (2) Magnesium
(3) Phosphorus (4) Sulphur
83. Mg and Li are similar in their properties due to
(1) Same e/m ratio (2) Same electron affinity
(3) Same group (4) Same ionic potential
(3) (4)
84. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing
power. Which one of the following sequences represent
the increasing order of the polarizing power of the
cationic species, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+

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7 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16
(1) Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+
2+ + 2+ 2+
Y :1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p5
(2) Be < K < Ca < Mg
The expected compound formed by combination of X
(3) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+
and Y will be expressed as
(4) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+
(1) XY2 (2) X5Y2
85. Which among the following elements has the tendency
(3) X2Y5 (4) XY5
to form covalent compounds?
88. A sudden large jump between the values of second
(1) Ba (2) Be
and third ionisation energies of an element would be
(3) Mg (4) Ca associated with the electronic configuration
86. Fluorine has lower electron gain enthalpy than chlorine (1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1 (2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p1
because of
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p2 (4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
(1) Smaller radius of fluorine, high density
89. Which of the following is electron deficient?
(2) Smaller radius of chlorine, high density
(1) BCl3 (2) PCl3
(3) Bigger radius of fluorine, less density
(3) PCl5 (4) NH3
(4) Smaller radius of chlorine, less density
90. Which chloride should exhibit the most covalent type
87. Two elements X and Y have following electronic of bond?
configurations
(1) KCl (2) SrCl2
2 2 6 2 6 2
X :1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s (3) BeCl2 (4) BaCl2

BOTANY

91. Lichen are mutualistic and have symbiotic associations 96. Lichens do not grow in cities, because of
between
(1) High temperature (2) SO2 pollution
(1) Fungi and virus
(3) CO2 pollution (4) Green house effect
(2) Fungi and algae
97. All the given fungi belongs to Deuteromycetes, except
(3) Fungi and root of higher plants
(1) Alternaria (2) Colletotrichum
(4) Fungi and mosses
(3) Trichoderma (4) Ustilago
92. Mycorrhiza are mutualistic and have symbiotic
98. Hartigs net is the characteristic feature of :
associations between
(1) Ectomycorrhiza (2) Endomycorrhiza
(1) Fungi and gymnosperms
(3) Lichens (4) Root nodules
(2) Fungi and non-vascular plants
99. Consider the following statements about
(3) Fungi and roots of higher plants
Deuteromycetes
(4) Fungi and bryophytes
I. Some members are saprophytes or parasites
93. In Deuteromycetes, the mycelium is
II. A large number of members are decomposers of
(1) septate and branched litter and help in mineral cycling
(2) sepate and unbranced III. Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Cercospora and
(3) coenocytic Trichoderma are examples of Deuteromycetes.
(4) multinucleated Which of the above are correct?
94. Deuteromycetes reproduces only by asexual spores (1) I and II (2) I and III
known as (3) II and III (4) I, II and III
(1) conidia (2) endospores 100. The coenocytic fungus which has aseptate, richly
(3) zoospores (4) heterocyst branched, multinucleate and haploid mycelium
95. Sexual reproduction is present in all fungi classes, (1) Rhizopus
except (2) Schizosaccharomyces
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Phycomycetes (3) Agaricus
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes (4) Neurospora

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8 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16
101. The technical term of fungi that grows on dung is 111. The indicator of SO2 pollution of air is
(1) Anemophilous (2) Coprophilous (1) Lichens (2) Ferns
(3) Phycophilous (4) Lithophilous (3) Liverworts (4) Hornworts
102. Match the following: 112. The disease caused by Rhizopus is
Column A Column B (1) Early blight of potato
a. Aspergillus (i) Blue green mould (2) Damping of seedlings
b. Peziza (ii) Pink bread mould
(3) Soft rot in sweet potato
c. Mucor (iii) Pin bread mould
(4) Blast disease in rice
d. Penicillium (iv) Black smoky mould
e. Neurospora (v) Cup fungi 113. The structure that helps in the respiration of lichens is
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii), e(v) (1) Soredia (2) Isidia
(2) a(iv), b(v), c(iii), d(i), e(ii) (3) Cyphellae (4) Cephalodia
(3) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii), e(iii) 114. Clamp connection are observed in
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv), e(v) (1) Basidiomycetes (2) Zygomycetes
103. Neurospora is very good taxon for
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Oomycetes
(1) Genetic studies (2) Biofertilisers
115. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by
(3) Antibiotics (4) Biological control
(1) Colletotrichum falcatum
104. The common phenomenon for the development of both
(2) Phytophthora infestans
ascus and basidium
(3) Ustilago nuda
(1) Exogenous development of reproductive spores
(4) Alternaria solani
(2) Fusion of two nuclei and subsequent meiotic division
116. Edible part of mushroom is
(3) Crozier formation and clamp connection
(1) Basidiocarp (2) Primary mycelium
(4) Endogenous development of reproductive spores
(3) Fungal hyphae (4) Basidiospores
105. All fungi are
117. Match the following columns
(1) Heterotrophs (2) Parasites
Column I Column II
(3) Autotrophs (4) Saprotrophs
A. Morels (i) Deuteromycetes
106. Dolipore septa occur in
B. Smut (ii) Ascomycetes
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
C. Bread Mould (iii) Basidiomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Dueteromycetes
D. Imperfect fungi (iv) Phycomycetes
107. In fungus Albugo cell wall is made up of
Codes
(1) Lime (2) Peptidoglycon
A B C D
(3) Chitin (4) Cellulose
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
108. Rice crop was destroyed by a fungus which resulted
in severe famine in Bengal is in 1942-43. That was (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Penicillium (2) Helminthosporium (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Rhizopus (4) Cystopus (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
109. The function of gills in a mushroom is 118. Which one is wrong pairing for the disease and its
causal organism?
(1) Enhancing buoyancy
(1) Late blight of potato Alternaria solani
(2) Bearing spores for reproduction
(2) Black rust of wheat Puccinia graminis
(3) Exchange of gases
(3) Loose smut of wheat Ustilago nuda
(4) Absorption of food
(4) Root knot of vegetables Meloidogyne sp
110. The commonly found fungus in endomycorrhiza belong
to 119. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
(1) Zygomycete (2) Phycomycete (1) Birds nest fungi and Glomes
(3) Ascomycete (4) Basidomycete (2) Puffballs and Claviceps
(3) Peziza and stick horns
(4) Morchella and mushrooms

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9 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16
120. Which of these reproductions is exhibited by Rhizopus 128. Hyphae of Aspergillus are
and Mucor? (1) aseptate multinucleate
(1) Somatogamy (2) Spermatisation (2) septate and multinucleate
(3) Gametangial contact (4) Gametangial copulation (3) aseptate and uninucleate
121. What is true? (4) septate and uninucleate
(1) Toadstool is an edible fungus 129. Zygospore is formed in
(2) Rust fungi are homoecious (1) Rhizopus (2) Penicillum
(3) Parathecium is fruiting body (3) Aspergillus (4) Saccharomyces
(4) In mushroom, gills produce basidia 130. The fungus without mycelium is
122. The deadlist mushroom is (1) Puccinia (2) Phytophthora
(1) Agaricus (2) Amanita (3) Rhizopus (4) Saccharomyces
(3) Pleurotus (4) Volvariella 131. The fungus that is edible is
123. Among rust, smut and mushroom all the three (1) Penicillium (2) Mucor
(1) are pathogens (2) are heterotrophs (3) Rhizopus (4) Morchella
(3) bear ascocarps (4) bear basidiocarps 132. Which choice below generally represents the correct
124. Which division of fungi includes club fungi? order of events in fungal sexual reproduction?
(1) Zygomycota (2) Ascomycota (1) Karyogamy, meiosis, plasmogamy, germination
(3) Deuteromycota (4) Basidiomycota (2) Meiosis, plasmogamy, karyogamy, germination
125. Heterothallism was discovered by (3) Germination, meiosis, karyogamy, plasmogamy
(1) Blakeslee (4) Plasmogamy, karyogamy, meiosis, germination
(2) Darwin 133. The wall of Rhizopus hypha is composed of
(3) Roper and Pontecarvo (1) cellulose (2) chitin
(4) de Barry (3) pectin (4) hemicellulose
126. Fungal spores produced externally at the top of hyphae 134. The mode of nutrition of Rhizopus, yeast and
are Penicillium are
(1) conidia (2) oidia (1) parasitic (2) saprophytic
(3) aplanospores (4) sporangiophore (3) symbiotic (4) autotrophic
127. `Litmus is made from 135. The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potato
(1) fungi (2) bacteria known as
(3) algae (4) lichens (1) Late blight (2) Early blight
(3) Dry rot of potato (4) None of these

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10 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16

ZOOLOGY

136. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its 145. In which stage, the chromosomes that have reached
genome, synthesises the other constituents of the cells their respective poles decondense and lose their
and eventually divides into two daughter cells is called individuality
(1) Cell division (2) Cell cycle (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Karyokinesis (4) Cytokinesis (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
137. In the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human 146. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect
cell, cell division properly lasts for about statement
(1) 23 hours (2) An hour (1) In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the
(3) Half an hour (4) 90 minutes appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane
138. The M phase starts with the nuclear division, (2) Furrow formation starts in the centre of cell and
corr esponding to the separation of daughter grows outward to meet the existing lateral walls
chromosome called ...a... and usually ends with (3) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between
division of cytoplasm called ...b.... the walls of two adjacent plant cells
(1) aCytokinesis, bKaryokinesis (4) During cytokinesis, organelles like mitochondria
(2) aInterkinesis, bCytokinesis and plastids get distributed between the two
(3) aKaryokinesis, bCytokinesis daughter cells
(4) aInterkinesis, bKaryokinesis 147. What is the significance of mitosis?
139. Which phase corresponds to the interval between (1) Growth (2) Repair
mitosis and initiation of DNA replication? (3) Replacement (4) All of the above
(1) Gap 1/G1 phase (2) Gap 2/G2 phase 148. Shape of chromosome can be best observed during
(3) Synthesis/S phase (4) M phase (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
140. Centriole replicates during (3) Replacement (4) All of the above
(1) Interphase (2) Early prophase 149. In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs by
(3) Late prophase (4) Late telophase (1) Cell plate (2) Invagination
141. If a cell possesses twice as much DNA as in the (3) Furrowing (4) All of the above
functional cell, the cell 150. The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the
(1) is preparing to divide (1) Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
(2) has completed division (2) Tendency of the recombined homologous
(3) has ceased to function chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from
(4) has reached end of its life span each other
142. Which of the following cells in an adult animal do not (3) Meiotic spindle is assembled
appear to exhibit division? (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Bone marrow cells 151. Non-sister chromatids exchange segments during
(2) Upper layer of epidermis (1) Leptotene (2) Diplotene
(3) Heart cells (3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene
(4) All of the above 152. Which is unique to mitosis and does not occur in
143. Prophase is marked by meiosis?
(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear membrane (1) Homologous chromosomes cross over
(2) Complete condensation of chromatin (2) Homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents
(3) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material (3) Homologous chromosomes behave independently
(4) Chromosomes aligns at the equatorial plate (4) Chromatids are separated during anaphase
144. By this stage, condensation of chromosomes is 153. Tetrad is made of
completed, mark this stage (1) Four homologus chr omosomes with four
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase chromatids
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

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11 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16
(2) Two homologous chromosomes, each with two 160. Assembly of 60 S and 40 S subunits of ribosome
chromatids produces
(3) Four non-homologous chromatids (1) 80 S (2) 70 S
(4) Four non-homologous chromosomes (3) 50 S (4) 100 S
154. Meiosis II performs 161. Ribosomes take part in protein synthesis in
(1) Separation of sex chromosomes (1) Viruses
(2) Synthesis of DNA and centromere (2) Prokaryotes only
(3) Separation of homologous chromosomes (3) Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(4) Separation of chromatids (4) Eukaryotes only
155. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct 162. Read the following statements and find out the correct
sequence statement
(i) Crossing over (a) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are structurally
(ii) Synapsis similar
(iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata (b) Cilia work like oars and comparatively smaller than
flagella
(iv) Disappearance of nucleolus
(c) The core of cilium or flagellum is called axoneme
(1) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) Central tubules are connected by interdoublet
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (4) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
bridges and is enclosed by central sheath
156. Select the correct option
(e) Central sheath is connected to one of the tubules
I II of each peripheral doublets by a radial spoke.
(a) Synapsis (i) Anaphase-II There are nine radial spokes
(b) Duplication (ii) Zygotene (f) Peripheral doublets are also interconnected by
of centrioles linkers
(c) Action of enzyme (iii) S-phase (1) b, d, e, f (2) c, d, e
recombinase (3) a, b, c (4) b, c, e, f
(d) Centromeres do not (iv) Anaphase-I 163. Axoneme with 9+2 microtubular arrangement occurs
separate but in
chromosomes move (1) Cilia (2) Flagella
towards opposite poles (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Centriole
(v) Pachytene 164. Membrane bound minute vesicles that contain various
enzymes are present in both plant and animal cells
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(v), d-(iv) called
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(v) (1) Chloroplast (2) Centrosome
(3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv) (3) Microbodies (4) Mesosomes
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(v), d-(iv) 165. Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear
157. How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1, after division is
S and after M-phase respectively if it has 14 (1) Centriole (2) Golgi body
chromosomes at interphase?
(3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochndrion
(1) 7, 14, 14 (2) 14, 14, 14
166, Which of the following statements about cilia is not
(3) 14, 14, 7 (4) 7, 7, 7 correct?
158. Post-mitotic phase of the cell in which active (1) Organised beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes
synthesis of RNA and proteins takes place is of Ca2+ across the membrane
(1) S-phase (2) Amitotic phase (2) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
(3) G2-phase (4) G1-phase (3) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet
159. In the beginning of meiosis, a meiocyte has 16 pg of microtubules surrounding two singlet microtubules
DNA. The amount in a gamete will be (4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin
(1) 16 pg (2) 8 pg 167, Element required for bringing about union of ribosome
(3) 4 pg (4) 32 pg subunit is
(1) Ca 2+ (2) Mg2+
(3) Fe2+ (4) Cu+
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12 CPT-10-/XI-S/PMT/08-08-16
168, Polyribosomes are aggregates of 175. Axonemal arrangement of microtubules is
(1) Bibosomes and rRNA (1) 6 peripheral pairs of doublets and one central pair
(2) Only rRNA of singlets
(3) Peroxisomes (2) 6 peripheral pairs of doublets and one central
singlets
(4) Several ribosomes held together by string of
mRNA (3) 9 peripheral pairs of doublets and one central pair
of singlets
169, The organelle present in germinating seeds and
(4) 9 peripheral pairs of doublets and one central
connecting with -oxidation or fat digestion is
singlets
(1) Glyoxysome (2) Sphaerosome 176. Sphaerosomes have
(3) Peroxisome (4) Mitochondrion (1) Cellulose reserve
170. Cytoskeleton is formed of (2) Protein reserve
(1) Callose deposits (3) Lipid reserve
(2) Cellulose microfibrils (4) Both protein and lipid reserve
(3) Calcium carbonate granules 177. What is the role of cytoskeleton in the cell?
(4) Proteinaceous filaments (1) Motility
171. Ribosomes are granules made of (2) Mechanical support
(1) rRNA and tRNA (2) mRNA and tRNA (3) Maintenance of the shape of the cell
(3) rRNA and proteins (4) mRNA and proteins (4) All of the above
172. Smallest cell organelle discovered by Palae (1953) is 178. Which of the following function is not associated with
(1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome microtubules?
(3) Sphaerosome (4) Dictyosome (1) Help in anaphasic movement of chromosomes
173. Microtubules are the constituents of (2) Form the cytoskeleton of cilia & flagella
(1) Cilia, flagella and peroxisomes (3) Help in pseudopodia formation
(2) Spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia (4) Spindle and astral ray formation
(3) Centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin 179. Centrosome is
(4) Centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles (1) Centriole
174. The movement of cilia and flagella is due to the (2) Centriole along with centrosphere
presence of (3) Centrosphere
(1) Radial spokes (2) Central sheath (4) Diplosome
(3) Singlet microtubules (4) Dyneins 180. Cell organelle with both oxidase and catalse enzymes
is
(1) Lysosome (2) Peroxisome
(3) Mitochondria (4) Centrosome

Paper Setter JANAKPURI

Physics : Mr. Ankit Kumar [8797591981]
Chemistry : Ms. Ankita Singh [9654288178]
Botany : Ms. Preeti Mishra [7838154570]
Zoology : Mr. M P. Singh [9718696937]

Next Week Syllabus

CPT-11-22-08-2016
Physics : S. No. 5-12
Chemistry : S. No. 5-12
Botany : S. No. 5-12
Zoology : S. No. 5-12
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