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TABLE OF CONTENTS

TABLE OF CONTENTS

THEME-I : CLIMATE CHANGE 02 THEME-IV : ECOLOGY 50


1. 2016: The hottest year on record 10. Ken-Betwa Link Project

2. Marrakech Climate Change Conference 11. Western Ghats


COP 22 12. Coral Reefs
3. Kigali Amendment to Montreal Protocol 13. Wet Lands

14. Mangroves
THEME-II : INDIA AND CLIMATE CHANGE
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4. Graded Action Plan Against Air Pollution THEME-V : WASTE MANAGEMENT 79

5. Bharat Stage Norms 15. Waste Management

6. Compensatory Afforestation Bill, 2015

7. Solar Energy THEME-VI : GEOGRAPHY RELATED TOPICS


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THEME-III : BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY 32 16. Floods, Cyclones and Monsoons

8. Convention on Biological Diversity


CORRIGENDUM 96
9. Wildlife Conservation

Practice Questions have been provided at the end of every lesson/ topic. Questions have been
framed to highlight those aspects of the news and related dimensions which we want you to
develop clarity on. Answers are given at the last page of this issue.

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FOCUS SPECIAL EDITION | RAUS C3 JOURNAL CSE 2017 | GEOGRAPHY, ENVIRONMENT, ECOLOGY & BIODIVERSITY
THEME ONE| CLIMATE CHANGE

THEME 1

CLIMATE CHANGE

1. 2016: The hottest year on record


Why is this topic important for the exam?
Climate change is term which acquired great importance in last 2 decades and Its history started very long back in
1980s.
Climate change, also called global warming, refers to the rise in average surface temperatures on Earth.
An overwhelming scientific consensus maintains that climate change is due primarily to the human use of fossil
fuels, which releases carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases into the air.
The gases trap heat within the atmosphere, which can have a range of effects on ecosystems, including rising sea
levels, severe weather events, and droughts that render landscapes more susceptible to wildfires.

Previous Year Questions


Q. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2C above pre-industrial level. If
the global temperature increases beyond 3C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible
impact/impacts on the world?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?(Pre:2012)


1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only

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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for
the formation of this hole? (Pre:2011)
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming

What is the current context?


2016 was the hottest year on record by a significant margin with temperatures that were 1.2Celsius above pre-
industrial times as per World Meteorological Organization.

Core: Points to focus


Earths climate is mostly influenced by its atmosphere which contains several gases, both natural and
anthropogenic. Global warming is the gradual increase in the overall temperature of Earths atmosphere due to the
greenhouse effect. This is caused due to increased levels of green house gases in the atmosphere, which trap
heat that would otherwise escape from the earth.
Green House Effect and Green House Gases
o Greenhouse gases (GHGs) are a group of gases that are able to absorb heat in the atmosphere keeping the
earths surface warm. This absorbed heat/thermal radiation by the green house gases is re-radiated back to
earths surface in all directions. This ability of gases to trap heat in thermal form and spread evenly at earths
surface is known as Green house effect.
o The spreading of these green house gases is responsible for the heat required to sustain life on earth. But the
presence of these GHGs in excess enhances the Green house effect which is creating global warming and
consequently climate change.
o Water vapour (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrous oxide (N2O) and methane (CH4) are the primary
greenhouse gases in the Earths atmosphere.
o Along with the rapid industrialisation in the 19th and 20th centuries human activities such as burning of fossil
fuels and deforestation have increased the level of the presence of these gases within the earths
atmosphere.
o UNFCCCs (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change) Kyoto Protocol has recognised six
main green house gases primarily responsible for global warming. They are:
o Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), Nitrous oxide (N2O), Hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs), Per fluorocarbons
(PFCs), Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6).
o The most dominant greenhouse gas overall is water vapour, but it has a very short atmospheric lifetime
(about 10 days) and is very nearly in a dynamic equilibrium in the atmosphere, so it is not a forcing gas in the
context of global warming.
o CO2 is identified as the dominant green house gas followed by methane and nitrous oxide as the major
forcing contributors to global warming.
o Maximum anthropogenic GHG emissions is from Power stations followed by Industries, Transportation fuels,
Agriculture by-products, Land use and burning, etc.

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Green House Gas Sources and Causes

Carbon dioxide (CO2) Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation

Methane (CH4) Growing paddy, excreta of cattle and other livestock, termites, burning of fossil
fuel, wood, landfills, wetlands, fertilizer factories.

Nitrous oxides (N2O) Burning of fossil fuels, fertilizers; burning of wood and crop residue.

Hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs) Used as refrigerants, aerosol propellants, solvents and fire retardants.

Per fluorocarbons (PFCs) Produced as a by-product in aluminium production and manufacturing of


semi-conductors.

Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) Used as tracer gas for leak detection, used in electrical transmission equipment

World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)


o WMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) with 191 member States and Territories. As weather,
climate and the water cycle know no national boundaries, international cooperation at a global scale is
essential for the development of meteorology and operational hydrology as well as to reap the benefits from
their application. WMO provides the framework for such international cooperation.
o The Organization plays a leading role in international efforts to monitor and protect the environment
through its Programmes. In collaboration with other United Nations agencies and National Meteorological
and Hydrological Services, WMO supports the implementation of a number of environmental conventions
and is instrumental in providing advice and assessments to governments on related matters. These activities
contribute towards ensuring the sustainable development and well-being of nations.
IPCC- Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
o The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change is a scientific government body under the United Nations
set up at the request of the member governments, dedicated to providing the world with an objective,
scientific view of climate change and its political and economic impacts on the nations.
o It was first established in 1988 by two United Nations organizations, the World Meteorological Organization
and the United Nations Environment Programme and later endorsed by the United Nations General
Assembly.
o Membership of the IPCC is open to all members of the WMO and the UNEP. The IPCC produces reports that
support the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, which is the main international treaty
on climate change.
o The main objective of UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that
would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system. IPCC reports cover the
scientific, technical and socio-economic information relevant to understanding the scientific basis of risk of
human induced climate change, its potential impacts and options for adaptation and mitigation.

Concepts: Points to focus


WMO Report on Global Warming:
a. As per WMO, the record temperatures were accompanied by rising sea levels and declines in Arctic sea-ice extent,
continental glaciers and northern hemisphere snow cover.
b. Carbon dioxide reached the significant level of 400 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere for the first time in
the year.

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THEME ONE| CLIMATE CHANGE

c. The report also examined whether human-induced climate change was directly linked to individual extreme
events. Some studies found that the probability of extreme heat increased by ten times or more.
d. The report highlighted some of the high-impact events around the world like East African drought in 2010-2012,
Southern African drought in 2013-2015, flooding in South-East Asia in 2011, heat waves in India and Pakistan in
2015, Hurricane Sandy in 2012 in US and Typhoon Haiyan in Philippines in 2013.
e. Global temperatures in both 2015 and 2016 saw a surge due to exceptionally strong El Nino and by continuous
trapped greenhouse gases in the atmosphere for decades.
Climate Engineering solutions to global warming
o Climate engineering deals with the deliberate and large-scale intervention in the Earths climate system with
the aim of limiting adverse climate change. It can be done in two ways.
Removal of Green House Gases, which can be done through:
o Carbon capture and storage (CCS), where some of the carbondioxide being emitted by coal-fired power
stations is recaptured by physically sucking it in and transporting it elsewhere (like oilfields) to be
sequestered underground.
o Enhanced weathering involves a chemical approach to remove carbondioxide involving land or ocean based
techniques. Examples of land based enhanced weathering techniques are in-situ carbonation of silicates.
Afforestation
Management of Sun light: Here the plan is to reduce global warming by cutting down the heat absorbed by our
planet from the sun through techniques such as stratospheric aerosol injection, cirrus cloud manipulation, marine
cloud brightening, and obstructing sunrays with space based mirrors.
IPCCs 5th Assessment Report on Global Warming
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Changes (IPCC) its 5th Assessment Report known as WGII AR5 which is
compiled using a substantially larger knowledge base of relevant scientific, technical, and socio-economic
literature has explained the associated risks of Global warming, which are:
o Risk of death, injury, ill-health, or disrupted livelihoods in low-lying coastal zones and small island developing
states and other small islands, due to storm surges, coastal flooding, and sea-level rise.
o Risk of severe ill-health and disrupted livelihoods for large urban populations due to inland flooding in some
regions.
o Systemic risks due to extreme weather events leading to breakdown of infrastructure networks and critical
services such as electricity, water supply, and health and emergency services.
o Risk of mortality and morbidity during periods of extreme heat, particularly for vulnerable urban populations
and those working outdoors in urban or rural areas.
o Risk of food insecurity and the breakdown of food systems linked to warming, drought, flooding, and
precipitation variability and extremes, particularly for poorer populations in urban and rural areas.
o Risk of loss of rural livelihoods and income due to insufficient access to drinking and irrigation water and
reduced agricultural productivity, particularly for farmers and pastoralists with minimal capital in semi-arid
regions.
o Risk of loss of marine and coastal ecosystems, biodiversity, and the ecosystem goods, functions, and services
they provide for coastal livelihoods, especially for fishing communities in the tropics and the Arctic.
o Risk of loss of terrestrial and inland water ecosystems, biodiversity, and the ecosystem goods, functions, and
services they provide for livelihoods.

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THEME ONE| CLIMATE CHANGE

Practice Questions:
1. Nitrogen Oxide gas is also held responsible for the depletion of Ozone layer. Which of following is/are the
source/s of Nitrogen Oxide?
(a) Industrial emission
(b) Fertilizers which are used in agricultural activities
(c) Thermonuclear weapons
(d) All of the above

2. The highest percentage of increase as compared to pre-industrial era concentration is observed in which of the
following Greenhouse gases?
(a) Carbondioxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Methane
(d) Ozone

2. Marrakech Climate Change Conference COP 22


Why is this topic important?
The United Nations Climate Change Conferences are yearly conferences held in the framework of the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
They serve as the formal meeting of the UNFCCC Parties (Conference of the Parties, COP) to assess progress in
dealing with climate change, and beginning in the mid-1990s, to negotiate the Kyoto Protocol to establish legally
binding obligations for developed countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions.

Previous Years Questions


Q. With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Pre: 2014)
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for Convention on Biological Diversity and United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change.
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with
specific aim to protect their environment.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q. Regarding carbon, credits, which one of the following statements is not correct? (Pre : 2011)
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission
quota
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
(d) Carbon credits are- traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme

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What is the current context?


The COP22 to the UNFCCC (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change), which is the first session
of COP to the Paris Agreement held in Marrakech, Morocco ended on positive note giving a strong signal that no
single country could halt worldwide climate action momentum.

Core: Points to focus

UNFCCC:
United Nation Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international environment treaty
opened for signature in 1992. It came into force from 1994. Secretariat is located in Bonn, Germany. The
convention is legally non-binding, but makes provisions for meeting called protocols where negotiating countries
can set legally binding limits.
What it does?
a. It aims to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous
anthropogenic interference with the climate system. The framework set no binding limits on greenhouse gas
emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms. Instead, the framework outlines how
specific international treaties (called "protocols" or "Agreements") may be negotiated to set binding limits on
greenhouse gases. Kyoto Protocol was negotiated under this framework.
b. One of the first tasks set by the UNFCCC was for signatory nations to establish national greenhouse inventories of
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and removals, which were used to create the 1990 benchmark levels for
accession of Annex I countries to the Kyoto Protocol and for the commitment of those countries to GHG
reductions. Updated inventories must be regularly submitted by Annex I countries. Annex I, Annex II countries and
developing countries.

Parties to UNFCCC are classified as:


o Annex I countries: Industrialized countries and economies in transition
o Annex II countries: Developed countries which pay for costs of developing countries. Annex II countries are a
sub-group of the Annex I countries.
o Non-Annex I countries: Developing countries are not required to reduce emission levels unless developed
countries supply enough funding and technology.
o Setting no immediate restrictions under UNFCCC serves three purposes: i. It avoids restrictions on their
development, because emissions are strongly linked to industrial capacity; ii. They can sell emissions credits
to nations whose operators have difficulty meeting their emissions targets; iii. they get money and
technologies for low-carbon investments from Annex II countries; iv. Developing countries may volunteer to
become Annex I countries when they are sufficiently developed; v. India is Non Annex party to UNFCCC.
What is meant by Conference of Parties (COP)?
The Conference of the Parties (COP) is the supreme governing body of the United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change. Heads of state and other delegates from UN member countries attend the conference.
Kyoto Protocol
o It is an international treaty negotiated under UNFCC and adopted in 1997 in Kyoto, Japan and came into
force in 2005. Parties: 192 (Canada withdrew). USA was not a part of Kyoto Protocol.
o It gave binding targets to Annex I countries. The Kyoto Protocol implemented the objective of the UNFCCC
to fight global warming by reducing greenhouse gas concentrations.

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o The Protocol is based on the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities: it puts the obligation to
reduce current emissions on developed countries on the basis that they are historically responsible for the
current levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
o The Protocols first commitment period started in 2008 and ended in 2012.
o A second commitment period was agreed on in 2012, known as the Doha Amendment to the protocol. This
has not entered into force as required number of nations has not ratified this amendment. Paris agreement
(2015) is not an amendment to Kyoto Protocol but a separate instrument altogether.
Target under this protocol applies to following GHGs:
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) Methane (CH4) Nitrous Oxide (NO2) Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6) Two groups of gases :
Hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs) Per fluorocarbons (PFCs).
Kyoto Protocol includes "flexible mechanisms" which allow Annex 1 economies to meet their GHG targets by
purchasing GHG emission reductions from elsewhere. These can be bought either from: financial exchanges
(International Emissions Trading Scheme) or from projects which reduce emissions in non-Annex 1 economies
under the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), or in other Annex-1 countries under the Joint Implementation
(JI). Only CDM Executive Board-accredited Certified Emission Reductions (CER) can be bought and sold in this
manner.
What are Doha Amendments?
o The Kyoto Protocol had initially assigned GHGs emission cut targets to the developed countries only till 2012.
o Developed countries wanted it to be extended till 2020. So, Doha Amendments to the Kyoto Protocol was
made at Doha climate conference in 2012 and extended the obligation of the developed countries under
Kyoto Protocol to make targeted cuts in their greenhouse gas (GHGs) emissions till 2020.
What is the Paris Agreement?
It is an agreement under UNFCC. It deals with greenhouse gasses emissions, mitigation, adaptation and finance
starting in the year 2020. It is opened for signature on 22 April 2016 (Earth Day).
Aims of Paris agreement:
o Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2C above pre-industrial levels and to
pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 C above pre-industrial levels, recognizing that this
would significantly reduce the risks and impacts of climate change.
o Increasing the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low
greenhouse gas emissions development, in a manner that does not threaten food production.
o Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate resilient
development.
o The contribution that each individual country should make in order to achieve the worldwide goal are
determined by all countries individually and called "nationally determined contributions" (NDCs).
o These targets will not be binding as it is not possible to enforce them. NDCs will be revised after 5 years in
2023.
o It will enter into force (and thus become fully effective) only if 55 countries that produce at least 55% of the
world's greenhouse gas emissions (according to a list produced in 2015) ratify, accept, approve or accede to
the agreement.
o The Paris Agreement entered into force on 4 November 2016, at Marrakech Climate Change Conference.
Capacity-Building Initiative for Transparency (CBIT) Fund
CBIT is an outcome of the UNFCCC's Paris agreement in 2015 and expected to address the issue of transparency.

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Objectives:
a. To help developing countries monitor and report the progress on their climate actions
b. Strengthening of national institutions of participating members in transparency related activities with respect to
the Nationally Determined Contributions
c. To bring transparency in the financial help, technology transfer and capacity building support by the developed
countries to developing countries. Both have to provide relevant information
Design:
a. The fund will be set up by the GEF, with financial support from the developed nations like US, UK, Canada etc.
b. World Bank has been requested to act as the trustee for the fund, who was also a trustee in the initial hand
holding of GEF
Significance:
a. Many developing countries lack the necessary capacity to monitor and report their progress on the front of INDCs
b. This fund helps developed countries to take on board the developing countries in developing their domestic
capacities leading to transparent mechanisms in reporting the progress.
Global Environment Facility (GEF)
1. It is an independently operating financial organization It was setup as a fund under World Bank in 1991.
2. In 1992, at the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a
permanent, separate institution.
3. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund and provided administrative
services.
4. It supports actions to combat major environmental issues such as climate change, loss of biodiversity, polluted
international waters, land degradation and desertification, and persistent organic pollutants, as well as stimulate
green growth.
5. It also serves as the financial mechanism under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), which is the global climate regime to address climate change, the UN Convention on Biological
Diversity, the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (2001), the United Nations Convention to
Combat Desertification (2003) and the Minamata Convention on Mercury (2013).
6. UNDP is also an Implementing Agency for the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
7. The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (MP),
supports implementation of the Protocol in countries with economies in transition.
Green Climate Fund
o In 2010 the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) had set Green Climate
Fund (GCF) to help developing countries to finance clean energy projects other mitigation efforts and
adaptation to climate change.
o National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) got accredited by the Green Climate Fund as
a national implementing entity for undertaking climate change related projects in India.
Concepts: Points to focus
Marrakech Climate Change Conference COP 22: The aim is to reaffirm the commitments of member countries to
climate action under Paris Agreement adopted in November 2015. To provide an opportunity to communicate
concerns about the future climate policy. It laid an emphasis on raising the commitment of all countries to reduce
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.
Significance of COP22

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o The adaptation of Marrakech Action Proclamation sends out a strong signal to the world on climate action.
o It made a shift towards a new era of implementation and action on climate and sustainable development.
o It called for an increase in the volume, flow and access to finance for climate projects, alongside improved
capacity and technology.
o Developing nations have demanded firm commitments from the developed countries for how and from
where the money will flow for the pledged $100 billion by 2020.
o It aimed to strengthen and increase support for the efforts to eradicate poverty, ensure food security and to
take strict action to deal with climate change challenges in agriculture.
o Nations, who are parties to the Kyoto Protocol (which does not include the U.S.), also encouraged the speedy
ratification of the Doha Amendment.
o Climate Vulnerable Forum, comprising a group of over 45 most vulnerable countries, was launched and
vowed to convert to 100 percent renewable energy as soon as possible.
o The conference successfully demonstrated to the world that the implementation of the Paris agreement is
underway and the constructive spirit of multilateral cooperation on climate change continues.
o 114 Parties have ratified Paris Agreement out of 197 Parties.
India and COP22:
o India has ratified Paris Agreement.
o There is a huge pressure on India as it has got 2 challenges before 1) to meet the development aspirations of
its growing economy and 2) cutting emissions.
o India would have to update its preparedness to meet the new regime of transparency that is to be launched
under the climate pact.
o At Marrakech climate conference, India hosted a special event on 12 Himalayan States that face the impact of
a changing climate.
o Almora based G.B. Pant National Institute of Himalayan Environment and Sustainable Development has been
asked by the center to represent the 12 Himalayan States at COP22.
o Though the Himalayas are warming faster than the global average, they are not yet in focus.
o At the COP 22, the impact of climate change on disasters, biodiversity, livelihood, and agriculture has been
highlighted.
o India has taken a lead in cementing the International Solar Alliance.
COP 22 to UNFCCC has definitely seen some small success. State governments are now required to come together
to strengthen the case for international funding. The developing countries have raised voice against the developed
nations and have shown unity, and were also successful in inserting a clause which requires scaling up of financial
resources beyond $100 billion per year after 2020. The Paris objective of limiting temperature rise to 2 degrees
Celsius above pre-industrial levels is achievable once all the mentioned commitments are on track.

Practice Questions:
3. Which of the following is/are true?
1) Paris agreement deals with greenhouse gasses emissions, mitigation, adaptation and finance starting in the year
2020.
2) Paris agreement though adopted has not yet been ratified by India.
(a) 1 only

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THEME ONE| CLIMATE CHANGE

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements:


1. United nations summit, held in Rio de Janeiro resulted in the creation of United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC).
2. The parties to the convention have met annually from 1995 in Conferences of the Parties (COP) to assess progress
in dealing with climate change.
3. The first COP (COP 1) was held in Kyoto.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

5. Which of the following statements are true?


1. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC.
2. It will redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries
in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as financial mechanism for which of the following?
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
3. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
4. Montreal Protocol
5. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
6. Minamata Convention on Mercury
Select the correct code
(a) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6

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3. Kigali Amendment to Montreal Protocol


Why is this topic important?

The ozone layer is important because it filters harmful ultraviolet radiation as it travels from the sun to the surface
of the Earth.

These ultraviolet rays can harm both plant and animal life. After observation of a depletion of the ozone layer from
the addition of chlorofluorocarbons and other man-made chemicals, the Montreal Protocol was enacted as an
attempt to eradicate these chemicals from the atmosphere.

Previous Year Questions

Q. Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used (Pre:
2012)

1. In the production of plastic foams

2. In the production of tubeless tyres

3. In cleaning certain electronic components

4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

What is the current context?

The 28th Meeting of the Parties (MOP 28) to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that deplete the Ozone Layer
met in Kigali in Rwanda to finalize a decision on the phasing out of a set of chemicals called HFCs- Hydro
fluorocarbons.

Core: Points to focus

Ozone Layer

o The Earth's atmosphere is divided into several layers. The lowest region, the troposphere, extends from the
Earth's surface up to about 10 kilometres (km) in altitude. Virtually all human activities occur in the
troposphere. Mt. Everest, the tallest mountain on the planet, is only about 9 km high.

o The next layer, the stratosphere, continues from 10 km to about 50 km. Most atmospheric ozone is
concentrated in a layer in the stratosphere, about 15-30 kilometers above the Earth's surface.

o This ozone layer in the Earths stratosphere absorbs most of the Suns ultraviolet (UV) radiation that may
cause skin cancer. It contains high concentrations of ozone (O3) in relation to other parts of the atmosphere.
Stratospheric Ozone is not harmful, but its presence on land is harmful.

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Difference between Stratospheric and Tropospheric Ozone

Prescription Ground-Level Ozone Stratospheric Ozone

Description Bad Ozone Good Ozone


Part of Photochemical Smog Natural filter that absorbs the Suns
Found in Troposphere (0-15 Km) UV rays
Found in Stratosphere (15 - 35 km)

Sources Forms when Nitrous oxides (NOx) reacts Naturally forms when Oxygen is in
with Volatile Organic Compounds the presence of UV radiation.
(VOCs).

Effects Eye and respiratory irritation Thinning of ozone shield that


Lung tissue damage, shortened lifespan absorbs UV rays leads to crop
and lung disease damage, Aquatic life death, eye
Corrosion in buildings, damage to crops, irritation and skin cancer.
increase in Vulnerability to diseases.

Vienna Convention
o It is a Multilateral Environmental Agreement that was agreed upon at the 1985 Vienna Conference and
entered into force in 1988. It is one of the most successful treaties of all time. It has been ratified by 197
states. It acts as a framework for the international efforts to protect the ozone layer. These are laid out in the
accompanying Montreal Protocol.
o Vienna convention is not legally binding.
Montreal Protocol
o Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a protocol to Vienna Convention for the
Protection of Ozone Layer.
o It is an international treaty and aims to protect the ozone layer by phasing out: 1. Chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs), 2. Hydro chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), 3. Hydrobromofluorocarbons (HBFCs), 4. Carbontetrachloride
(CCl4), 5. Methylbromide (CH3Br), 6. Bromochloromethane (CH2BrCl), 7. Methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3),
8. Halons.
How these compounds deplete Ozone layer?

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THEME ONE| CLIMATE CHANGE

Concepts to focus:
Kigali Agreement
The Kigali Agreement amends the 1987 Montreal Protocol that was designed to close growing ozone hole by
banning ozone-depleting substances. This amended Montreal Protocol which was initially conceived only to plug
gases that were destroying the ozone layer now includes HFCs responsible for global warming. This move will help
to prevent a potential 0.5 degree Celsius rise in global temperature by the end of the century.
All signatory countries have been divided into three groups with different timelines to go about reductions of
HFCs.
o First group includes countries like US and those in European Union (EU). They will freeze production and
consumption of HFCs by 2018. They will reduce them to about 15% of 2012 levels by 2036.
o Second group includes countries like China, Brazil and all of Africa which will freeze HFC use by 2024 and cut
it to 20% of 2021 levels by 2045.
o Third group countries like India, Pakistan, Pakistan, Iran, Saudi Arabia etc will be freezing HFC use by 2028
and reducing it to about 15% of 2025 levels by 2047.
HFCs and their harmful effects
o HFCs-Hydro fluorocarbons are organic compounds that contain fluorine and hydrogen atoms and are the
most common type of Organo-fluorine compounds used in electronic industries.
o HFCs are used as refrigerants in place of the older CFCs-chlorofluorocarbons such as R-12 and hydro-
chlorofluorocarbons such as R-21.
o HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer because, unlike CFCs and HCFCs, they do not contain chlorine.
However, studies have confirmed that HFCs are greenhouse gases, with a high global warming potential
(GWP), compared to that of CFCs and HCFCs.
Global Warming Potential
o Global warming potential (GWP) is a relative measure of heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere with
a similar mass of carbon dioxide. A GWP is calculated over a specific time interval, commonly 20, 100 or 500
years.
o The GWP depends on factors such as the absorption of infrared radiation by a given species, the spectral
location of its absorbing wavelengths and the atmospheric lifetime of the species.

Practice Questions:
7. Which of the following is/are true regarding the Kigali Agreement?
1) Kigali Agreement is legally binding like the Paris Agreement.
2) All countries are divided into 3 groups with different timelines to phase out emissions with India in the third group.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Which of the following are sources of pollutants that adversely affect the ozone layer?
1) Bromine
2) Carbon tetrachloride

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3) Hydrofloro carbons
4) Methyl chloroform
5) Chlorofluorocarbons
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) All of the above

9. The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer aims to control the production and use of:
1. Dichloromethane
2. CFCs
3. HFCs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

10. Which of the following is most likely the result of decreasing levels of ozone in the stratosphere?
(a) A decrease in the levels of smog in major cities
(b) A decrease in the rate of global warming
(c) An increase in the occurrence of skin cancer in humans
(d) An increase in photosynthetic activity of phytoplankton.

Rau's IAS Study Circle

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THEME TWO| INDIA AND CLIMATE CHANGE

THEME 2

INDIA AND CLIMATE CHANGE

4. GRADED ACTION PLAN AGAINST AIR POLLUTION


Why is this topic important?
The Graded action plan and Air Quality Index report daily air quality.
It tells about how clean or unhealthy the air is, and what associated health effects might be of huge concern.

Previous year Questions


Q. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by (Pre: 2013)
(a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c) ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Q. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among: (Pre: 2013)


(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening

Q. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India? (Pre: 2013)
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

What is the current context?


The Union Environment Ministry notified a Graded Response Action Plan against air pollution for Delhi and the
National Capital Region. The plan puts governments under the lens and holds out the promise of improvement in
air quality, along with huge challenges of implementation.

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Core: Points to focus


Air Pollution
o Pollution is defined as an addition or excessive addition of certain materials to the physical environment,
making it less fit or unfit for life. Air pollution is mainly aggravated due to four major developments: 1.
Increasing traffic, 2. Growing cities, 3. Rapid economic development and 4. Industrialisation.
o Primary pollutants are directly emitted from the process such as burning of fossil fuel, volcanic eruptions and
factories. Some of the primary air pollutants are sulphur oxides, nitrogen oxides, ammonia, particulate matter,
etc.
o The secondary pollutants are not emitted directly. The secondary pollutants are formed when the primary
pollutants react among themselves or with other components of the atmosphere. Example: ground level
ozone, persistent organic pollutants, photo chemical smog.
Major Air Pollutants
1. Carbon monoxide (CO) is colourless, odourless, and short lived. Carbon monoxide is produced from the exhaust of
internal combustion engines and from incomplete combustion of various other fuels. Iron smelting also produce
carbon monoxide as a by-product. Other natural sources of CO include volcanoes, forest fires, and other forms of
combustion. CO lowers the amount of oxygen that enters our blood by combining itself with haemoglobin,
forming carboxyhaemoglobin. In the atmosphere it plays a key in the formation of ground-level Ozone, a
secondary air pollutant.
2. Carbon dioxide (CO2): It is a principle greenhouse gas emitted as a result of human activities such burning of coal,
oil, and natural gas. Natural sources include volcanoes, hot springs and geysers, and it is freed from carbonate
rocks by dissolution in water and acids. Concentrations of 7% may cause suffocation, even in the presence of
sufficient oxygen, manifesting as dizziness, headache, and unconsciousness.
3. Nitrogen Oxide (NOx): NOx is a generic term for the various nitrogen oxides produced during combustion. They
are produced mainly in internal combustion engines and coal burning power plants. They are produced naturally
by lightening. They are believed to aggravate asthmatic conditions and create many respiratory health issues,
especially in children. NOx gases react to form smog and acid rain as well as being central to the formation of
Tropospheric ozone. When NOx and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) react in the presence of sunlight, they
form photochemical smog.
4. Sulphur dioxide (SO2): It is a toxic gas with pungent irritating smell. It contributes to acid rain. Inhaling sulphur
dioxide is associated with increased respiratory symptoms and disease, difficulty in breathing, and premature
death. It also weakens the functioning of certain nerves.
5. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are used in refrigerators, air conditioners and aerosol sprays. Since the late 1970s, the
use of CFCs has been heavily regulated because of their destructive effects on the ozone layer. The Montreal
Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of
the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of
numerous substances including CFCs which are responsible for ozone depletion.
6. Lead: It is present in petrol, diesel, lead batteries, paints, hair dye products, etc. Lead affects children in particular. It
can cause nervous system damage and digestive problems and in some cases cause cancer.
7. Particulate Matter: Particulate matter suspended in air is dust and soot released from the industrial chimneys. Their
size ranges from 0.001 to 500 micrometers (m) in diameter. Particles less than 10 m float and move freely with
the air current. Particles which are more than 10 m in diameter settle down. Particles less than 0.02 m form
persistent aerosols. Major source of SPM (suspended particulate matter) are vehicles, power plants, construction
activities, oil refinery, railway yard, market place, industries, etc. According to Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB), particulate size 2.5 m or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human
health. These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory

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symptoms, irritation, inflammations and pneumoconiosis (a disease of the lungs due to inhalation of dust,
characterized by inflammation, coughing, and fibrosis).
Difference between Black and Brown Carbon
o Black carbon is inorganic in nature consisting of soot particles that directly come out of combustion process,
exhaust fumes that form part of particulate matter present in the air. Black carbon absorbs sunlight and in
turn warms the atmosphere. When inhaled it causes severe health problems. Black carbon absorbs light in
the visible spectrum. It absorbs both incoming and terrestrial radiations.
o Brown carbon or organic carbon, unlike black carbon, comes from complex organic reactions in the airborne
atmospheric particles. This includes tar material from smouldering fires or coal combustion, breakdown
products from biomass burning, a mixture of organic compounds given off by vegetation. Brown carbon is
light brown in colour and absorbs light in the ultraviolet region. Brown carbon leads to the formation of
ground level ozone in the atmosphere.
Air pollution control Measures
Air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act 1981: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was
enacted to stop the deterioration of the air quality. Key features of the act are:
o The Act makes provisions for the establishing of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) at the apex level and
State Pollution Control Boards at the state level.
o The CPCB advises the Central Government on any matter concerning the improvement of the quality of the
air and prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
o It also helps to plan and cause to be executed a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control and
abatement of air pollution as well as provides technical assistance to and guidance to the State Pollution
Control Board.
o It also lays down the down standards for the quality of air.
o The SPCBs plan a comprehensive programme for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution and to
secure the execution thereof. They also advise the State Government on any matter concerning prevention,
control and abatement of air pollution.
o Kindly note that according to this act, the air pollutant means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance
(including noise) present in the atmosphere in such
concentration as may be or tend to be injurious to human
beings or other living creatures or plants or property or
environment.

Concept: Points to focus


Graded Action Plan against Air Pollution
o Graded Action: A graded response lays down stratified
actions that are required to be taken as and when the
concentration of pollutants (in this case particulate matter)
reaches a certain level. Based on the air quality the grades
have been classified as Emergency, Severe, Very Poor and
Moderate poor.
o EPCA (Environment Pollution Control Authority) is the
implementing agency for the enforcement of the Action
Plan as per section 3 of Environment (Protection) Act.

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How will the system work?


o The concentration of pollutants will be communicated to EPCA by a task force that will primarily comprise
officials from the respective pollution control boards and India Meteorological Department. This will be an
average for the entire city.
o The job of ensuring implementation of the action plan will be EPCAs, which will delegate the responsibility to
the concerned departments, at least 16 agencies will have to work together to implement the various parts of
the plan. Each body has been set a task that it will have to carry out when EPCA asks it to, based on the
concentration of pollutants.
Air Quality Index (AQI): AQI is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change under Swachh
Bharat Abhiyan.
The index is constituted as a part of Governments mission to improve the culture of cleanliness and helps public
to judge air quality within their vicinity. It is a colour coded index.
There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.
The index will measure eight major pollutants, namely, particulate matter (PM 10 and PM 2.5), nitrogen dioxide,
sulphur dioxide, ozone, carbon monoxide, ammonia and lead.

SAFAR
o The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Govt. of India, has introduced a major national initiative, "System of Air
Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research" known as "SAFAR" for greater metropolitan cities of India to
provide location specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for
the first time in India. It has been combined with the early warning system on weather parameters.
o The implementation of SAFAR is made possible with an active collaboration with local municipal corporations
and various local educational institutions and governmental agencies in that Metro city.
o The ultimate objective of the project is to increase awareness among general public regarding the air quality in
their city well in advance so that appropriate mitigation measures and systematic action can be taken up for
betterment of air quality and related health issues.

This SAFAR project involves 4 components to facilitate the current and 24 advance forecasting, namely:
a. The development of emission inventory of air pollutants for NCR and defining air quality index for India,
b. Network of eleven Air Quality Monitoring Stations (AQMS) equipped with 11 automatic weather stations to
provide near real time air quality information ,
c. 3-D atmospheric chemistry transport forecasting modelling coupled with weather forecasting model to provide 24
hour advance forecast of air pollutant levels.

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d. Display on LED and LCD screens located at 20 different locations in Delhi in a public friendly format and displaying
the online detailed information through the Web portal developed for CWG.
o Pollutants monitored: PM1, PM2.5, PM10, Ozone, CO, NOx (NO, NO2), SO2, BC, Methane (CH4), Non-
methane, hydrocarbons (NMHC), VOCs, Benzene, Mercury.
o Monitored Meteorological Parameters: UV Radiation, Rainfall, Temperature, Humidity, Wind speed, Wind
direction, and solar radiation.
Other initiatives taken to up to control Air pollution
o Government is dis-incentivising the use of private vehicles through congestion charging.
o The National Green Tribunal has ordered that diesel vehicles over 10 years old not ply on Delhi roads.
o Odd even formula.
o Making city roads friendly to bicycle users.
o Promoting rooftop solar power as an alternative to coal power.

Practice Questions:
11. Which of the following pollutants are considered for Ambient Air Quality Standards but not for National Air
Quality Index?
1. Benzene
2. Arsenic
3. Nickel
4. Lead
5. Ammonia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

12. SAFAR is an initiative of


(a) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(c) Ministry of Urban Development
(d) Ministry of Railways
13. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Black carbon is inorganic in nature consisting of soot particles that directly come out of combustion process.
2. Brown carbon is organic in nature, and comes from complex organic reactions in the airborne atmospheric
particles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only

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THEME TWO| INDIA AND CLIMATE CHANGE

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Bharat Stage Norms


Why is this topic important?
India is suffering from the menace of pollution, and vehicular emissions have become the primary reason behind
this.
Bharat stage emission standards (BSES) are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate
the output of air pollutants from internal combustion engines and Spark-ignition engines equipment, including
motor vehicles.
The standards and the timeline for implementation are set by the Central Pollution Control Board under the
Ministry of Environment & Forests and climate change..

What is the current context?


The Supreme Court of India has banned the sale and registration of Bharat Stage III (BS-III) vehicles from April 1
2017, when environmentally friendly BS-IV emission norms will come into force across the country.

Core and Concepts to focus


What are Bharat Stage Norms (BS Norms)?
o Bharat stage norms are rules which determine the maximum limit of pollutants vehicles (Including motor
vehicles) can emit.
o The standards, based on European regulations were first introduced in the year 2000.
History and future of vehicular emission norms in India
o 1991 - Vehicular emission control norms introduced in India
o 1999 - The Supreme court ordered the government to follow Euro norms.
o 2000 - Bharat stage I introduced
o 2003 - Mashelkar Committee on Auto fuel policy recommended for BS-III and BS-IV.
o 2005 - BS-III introduced in 13 cities.
o 2010- BS-III introduced in entire India.
o 2012- Saumitra Chaudari Committee was set up Auto Vision and Fuel Policy 2025 and submitted its report in
2014.
o 2017- April- BS-IV entire India
o 2020- Plan to implement BS-VI directly bypassing BS-V
Why India is planning to implement BS-VI bypassing BS-V?
o The implementation of the intermediate stage BS-V standard was originally scheduled for 2019. While
this stage has been bypassed, the BS-VI standard, originally proposed to come in by 2024, has been
advanced by 4 years in line with promises India made at the Climate Change Conference in Paris in 2015,

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and the broad public sentiment against dangerously high levels of air pollution in major Indian cities, like
Delhi.
Saumitra Chaudari Committee
o Saumitra Chaudari Committee on Auto fuel Vision and Policy recommended certain measures to be taken for
vehicle emission control in India. These recommendations are:
o Recommendations: 1. Use of alternative fuels like ethanol, methanol, hydrogen fuel to reduce consumption of
traditional petrol and diesel. 2. Implementation of next stage emission norms like BS-V, BS-VI by 2020.
3. Additional taxation by imposing 75 paise/litre Special Fuel Up gradation Cess on petrol and diesel.
Pollutants covered under BS Norms:
o The harmful emissions that are identified for regulations in different Bharat Stages (BS) are carbon monoxide
(CO), unburnt hydrocarbons (HC), Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) and Particulate matter (PM).
o CO emissions are more prevalent in petrol engines. Continuous exposure to them can prevent oxygen
transfer and increases nausea/headaches.
o HC emissions are also more prevalent in petrol engines. Short term exposure to them can cause headaches,
vomiting and disorientation.
o NOx emissions are more evident in diesel engines. Long Term exposure can cause Nose and eye irritation
and damage lung tissue.
o PM is more prevalent in diesel engines and long term exposure to it can harm the respiratory tract and
reduce lung function.
India uses Euro standards with only one modification which is the lower maximum speed of 90 km/hr instead of
120 km/h as mandated in the EU norms. This is the maximum speed at which the vehicle is tested. The conditions
of the road and general climate of India should be taken into account while fixing this.
What needs to be done: To upgrade the vehicles to BS-IV and then to BS-VI
o Implementation of BS-IV and BS-VI requires changes in vehicle manufacturing and oil refining.
o Changes in vehicle manufacturing sector: Automobile manufacturers who have to manufacture emission
norms compliant vehicles should fit specific equipment like Catalytic converters and Particulate filters in
engines, which helps to decrease soot and pollutants.
o Diesel Particulate Filters (DPF): DPF is a cylinder mounted vertically in the engine compartment of the vehicle.
Its function is to remove PM or soot from the diesel exhaust. It needs temperature of 600 degrees Celsius
which is difficult to obtain.
o What is the problem? Small cars, popular in India, have limited bonnet space and will require a major
redesign to accommodate DPF. But a bigger bonnet may result in the car breaching the sub-4-meter mark
and loosing excise benefits.
o Selective Catalytic Reduction Technology (SCR): An SCR module reduces the oxides of Nitrogen in the engine
exhaust by injecting an aqueous solution called AUS32 in to the system. AUS 32 contains Ammonia for which
a separate container will be needed on board the vehicle.
o Challenge: A nationwide infrastructure will be needed for supply of AUS32, which is safe but does need
careful storage and handling.
o Improvements in Fuel, Oil refineries: Though catalytic converters and particulate filters are fit to reduce the
emissions, chemical catalyst in such devices get immobilised in the presence of sulphur/lead. So the oil
refineries should minimise the quantity of sulphur and lead in the fuel.
o India has already achieved Lead-free petrol. In BS IV fuel sulphur concentration is maintained at 50ppm and
this will come down to as low as 10ppm in BS VI.

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Alternate fuels for reducing petrol and diesel consumption: Methanol, Ethanol, Hydrogen fuel, CNG, CNG, Hybrid
and electrical vehicles, etc.
Related Information
o Flash Point: lowest temperature at which a fuel starts turning into vapour and ignites. Flash point of diesel is
set at 35 degrees Celsius.
o Cetane number: It is a measure of diesel quality. Lower the Cetane number, diesel will produce more smoke.
Why Supreme Court has banned Bharat Stage III (BS-III) vehicles?
o Many vehicles including heavy commercial vehicles with BS-III built engines, employ a mechanical fuel pump
and used fuel less efficiently. It negatively influences environment by subsequent emissions of nitrous oxide,
carbon monoxide and particulate matter.
Comparison of BS-III vs. BS-IV
o Passenger vehicles compliant with Bharat Stage-III emission norms vary widely from their Bharat Stage-IV
compliant engines, depending on the size of the car and whether they are petrol or diesel versions.
o BS-IV compliant engines differ in the electronics, sensor system, and its ability to process low-sulphur fuel
and their after-exhaust system that determines emissions.
o BS-IV engines also require that the sulphur content of the fuel they use be less than 50 part per million (ppm)
whereas BS-III ones can run on 350 ppm fuel.
o The transition from BS-III to BS-IV will lead to substantial reductions in particulate matter emissions. For
instance, from new trucks, the emissions dip by 80% and from cars by 50%.
o Similarly, hydrocarbon and nitrogen oxide emissions can also drop between 41% and 80%, depending on the
engine sizes.

Practice Questions:
14. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Bharat norms?
1. To comply with higher level Bharat norms, oil refineries need to produce diesel with less sulphur content.
2. India implements BS V and BS VI emission norms nationwide by 2020 and 2024 respectively.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. India decided to skip which stage of Bharat norms and implement which stage from 1 April 2020 respectively?
(a) Stage V (skip) and stage VI (implement)
(b) Stage III (skip) and stage V (implement)
(c) Stage VI (skip) and stage VII (implement)
(d) Stage III (skip) and stage IV (implement)

16. The Saumitra Chaudari Committee is related to


(a) Agrarian reforms

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(b) Foreign Direct Investment


(c) Monetary Policy
(d) Auto fuel policy

17. Which of the following committees recommended for BS-III and BS-IV norms?
(a) Raghavan Committee
(b) Mashelkar Committee
(c) Natrajan Committee
(d) Rangarajan Committee

6. COMPENSATORY AFFORESTATION BILL, 2015


Why is this topic important?
Huge deforestation is harmful for climate, creates pollution, prevents drought proofing, dries up the soil, leads to
desertification. So, it has to be prevented.
Afforestation is the establishment of a forest or stand of trees in an area where there was no previous tree cover.
Compensatory Afforestation is the effort to plant trees in barren lands so as to create a forest.

What is the current context?


The Parliament has passed the Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF) Bill, 2015. The Bill, will create an
institutional mechanism to use around Rs 42,000 crore to mitigate the impact of diversion of forest land for non-
forest use.

Concepts to focus
What is meant by Compensatory Afforestation?
o Since forests are an important natural resource and provides us with a variety of ecological services, they
must not be destroyed. Because of developmental or industrial activities, forests are routinely cut, or, diverted
for non-forest purposes.
o In such cases, the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980 requires that non-forest land, equal to the size of the
forest being diverted, is afforested. This process is termed as Compensatory Afforestation.
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Bill, 2015
The aim of the bill is to provide institutional mechanism for Compensatory Afforestation at both centre and states.
o The Bill establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a
State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.
o These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present value of forest (NPV),
and (iii) other project specific payments.
o The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds for administrative expenses, and the State Funds will
receive the remaining 90%.
o These Funds will be primarily spent on afforestation to compensate for loss of forest cover, regeneration of
forest ecosystem, wildlife protection and infrastructure development.

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o The Bill also establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning
Authorities to manage the National and State Funds.
Key facts and Analysis of the Bill: There are several factors (other than administration of funds) which affect
compensatory afforestation and forest conservation. These factors are mentioned below:
o Procuring land for compensatory afforestation is difficult as land is a limited resource, and is required for
multiple purposes, such as agriculture, industry, etc. This is compounded by unclear land titles, and
difficulties in complying with procedures for land use.
o A High Level Committee on Environment Laws observed that quality of forest cover has declined between
1951 and 2014, with poor quality of compensatory afforestation plantations being one of the reasons behind
the decline.
o The Bill delegates the determination of NPV (value of loss of forest ecosystem) to an expert committee
constituted by the central government. As NPV constitutes about half of the total funds collected, its
computation methodology would be important.
What is meant by Net Present Value of forest?
o The newly afforested land is expected to take no less than 50 years to start delivering comparable goods and
services that the diverted forest would have provided.
o These goods and services include timber, bamboo, fuel wood, carbon sequestration, soil conservation, water
recharge, and seed dispersal.
o To compensate for this loss, the bill requires that the Net Present Value (NPV) of the diverted forest is
calculated for a period of 50 years, and recovered from the user agency that is diverting the forests.

CAMPA
o Compensatory Afforestation Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) manage the fund and use it for
designated purposes. Under the Bill, the CAMPA authorities are dominated by the forest bureaucracy, who
will just about unilaterally decide how this multi-crore outlay will be spent, and administer it.
o The Bill provides for one tribal expert or tribal representative in the authority.
What are the major challenges that India faces in implementing the bill?
o One of the major challenges in implementing the Compensatory Afforestation Bill is securing existing natural
tracts, making forests contiguous, safeguarding fragile habitat, and bringing fair compensation schemes for
local stakeholders like tribals and forest dwellers.
Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation (REDD)
o It is a mechanism negotiated under UNFCC since 2005.
o Its objective is to mitigate climate change through reducing net emissions of greenhouse gases through
enhanced forest management in developing countries.
o Inclusion of reducing emissions from land use change is considered essential to achieve the objectives of the
UNFCCC.
o During the negotiations for the Kyoto Protocol the inclusion of tropical forest management was debated but
eventually dropped due to anticipated methodological difficulties in establishing in particular
additionality and leakage (detrimental effects outside of the project area attributable to project activities).
o India did not participate in UN-REDD.
o REDD+ (Defined in Bali Action Plan, 2007, CoP13)

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o What constitutes "+": 1. sustainable management of forests, 2. conservation of forest carbon stocks and 3.
enhancement of forest carbon stocks.
What is the difference between REDD and REDD+?
o REDD = "reducing emissions from deforestation in developing countries"
o REDD+ (or REDD-plus) = to "reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing
countries, and the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests, and enhancement of forest
carbon stocks in developing countries"
o REDD+ is essentially a vehicle to financially reward developing countries for their verified efforts to reduce
emissions and enhance removals of greenhouse gases through a variety of forest management option.
o India favours REDD+

Practice Questions:
18. Which of the following is/are true with respect to Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF) Bill, 2015?
1) The Bill establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Consolidated Fund of India.
2) Of all the funds collected, the National Fund will receive 25% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the
remaining 75%.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. If a private company wants to set up a project in a forest land, then:


1. the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (FCA) governs diversion or use of forest land for non-forest purposes such as
industrial or infrastructure projects.
2. the company diverting forest land must provide alternative land for taking up compensatory afforestation.
3. for the afforestation purpose, the company should pay for planting new trees in the alternative land provided to
the state.
4. the loss of forest ecosystem must also be compensated by paying for net present value of forest (NPV).
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
(a) None of the above
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 only

20. Which of the following statements is/are correct about REDD?


1. Its objective is to mitigate climate change through reducing net emissions of greenhouse gases through enhanced
forest management in developing countries.
2. REDD+ is essentially a vehicle to financially reward developing countries for their verified efforts to reduce
emissions respectively.

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THEME TWO| INDIA AND CLIMATE CHANGE

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. SOLAR ENERGY
Why is this topic important?
Solar energy is important because the sun is a sustainable source of energy that can be used to power homes and
businesses globally.
On the other hand, Fossil fuels are finite, so it's important that alternative energy sources be embraced because It
is widely believed that fossil fuels are causing global warming.
So moving to renewables becomes extremely important.

Previous Year Questions


Q. With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements:
1. Photovoltaics is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while Solar
Thermal is a technology that utilizes the Suns rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation
process.
2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Q. Consider the following statements:


1. The international solar alliance was launched at the United Nations climate change Conference in 2015
2. The alliance includes all the countries of the United Nations
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

What is the current context?


India has been able to make International Solar Alliance a reality, which is a unique coalition of sunlight-rich
countries to fight climate change through deployment of Renewable energy.

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Core: Points to focus


Solar energy: Solar energy is the energy provided by the Sun.
o This energy is in the form of solar radiation, which makes the production of solar energy possible.
o Solar panels turn energy from the suns rays directly into useful energy that can be used in homes and
businesses. There are two main types of solar panels: solar thermal and photovoltaic (or PV).
o Photo voltaic cells: A photovoltaic cell (PV cell) is a specialized semiconductor diode that converts visible light
into direct current (DC).
o PV panels use the photovoltaic effect to turn the suns energy directly into electricity.
o Photo voltaic literally means light and electricity

What is photovoltaic effect?


o When sunshine hits the PV cell, the photons of the light excite the electrons in the cell and cause them to
flow, generating the electricity. This is known as photovoltaic effect.
o A PV panel is made up of a semiconducting material usually silicon-based, placed between two electrical
contacts. To generate as much electricity as possible, PV panels need to spend their time in direct sunlight.
o A sloping, south-facing roof is the ideal place to mount a solar panel.
o A sheet of glass protects the semiconductor from hail, grit blown by the wind, and wildlife. The
semiconductor is also coated in an antireflective substance, which makes sure that it absorbs the sunlight it
needs instead of scattering it away.
o Concentrated Solar Power systems usually use large set of plane mirrors or concave mirrors to focus sunlight.
Solar Thermal Technology: Solar thermal technology creates electricity indirectly, as opposed to photovoltaic
technology that directly creates electricity from light. Solar thermal energy collects the sun's light, which heats a
fluid, such as water; the resulting steam is used to run a generator that makes electricity.
Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM)
o The Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission was launched in 2010 and has set the ambitious target of
deploying 20,000 MW of grid connected solar power by 2022.
o In 2014, the government revised the mission and has increased the target from 20,000 MW to 1, 00, 000 MW
i.e., 100 GW.
o The above capacity is proposed to be achieved via deployment of 40,000 MW of Rooftop Solar Projects and
60,000 MW of Large and Medium Scale Solar Projects.
o So, the clearance given by CCEA is in line with the goal of creating a base of 100 GW by 2022.
National Action Plan for Climate Change
o National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) is a comprehensive action plan which outlines measures on
climate change related adaptation and mitigation while simultaneously advancing development.
o The 8 Missions form the core of the Plan, representing multi-pronged, long termed and integrated strategies
for achieving goals in the context of climate change.
o The 8 missions are:
a. National Solar Mission
b. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
c. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat

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d. National Water Mission


e. National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
f. National Mission for Green India
g. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
h. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge on Climate Change
Seeking to broaden Indias response to climate change, the government will soon add at least four new missions
to the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) which include 1. to promote wind energy, 2. To build
preparedness to deal with impacts on human health, 3. A programme for more effective management of Indias
coastal resources and 4. To harness energy from waste.
Solar Energy Corporation of India
o Solar Energy Corporation of India Ltd. (SECI) is a central PSU under the administrative control of the Ministry
of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) established to facilitate the implementation of JNNSM and
achievement of targets set therein.
o It is the only CPSU dedicated to the solar energy sector. It was originally incorporated as a section-25 (not
for-profit) company under the Companies Act, 1956.
National Institute of Solar Energy: It is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(MNRE) and is the apex National Research and Development institution in the field of Solar Energy. It is located at
Gurugram.

Concepts to focus
Indias largest floating Solar PV Plant
o Recently, NTPC has installed Indias largest floating solar photovoltaic (PV) plant at Rajiv Gandhi Combined
Cycle Power Plant (RGCCPP) at Kayamkulam in Kerala.
o Such floating solar panel system saves land usage and could be installed on saline water environment.
o It has various benefits like conserving water through reduction of evaporation, increased power generation
due to cooling effect on the panels, reduced installation time.
Worlds Largest Solar Power Plant Commissioned in Tamil Nadu at Kamudhi in Ramanathapuram district.
International Solar Alliance
o Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and French President Francois Hollande together invited over 100
countries to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA). The initiative has been launched by them on first day of
the Climate Change Conference (COP21), Paris Summit.
o International Solar Alliance (ISA) is conceived as a coalition of solar resource rich countries (countries lying
fully or partially between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn) to address their special energy
needs and will provide a platform to collaborate on addressing the identified gaps through a common,
agreed approach.
o ISA has been envisioned as a specialized platform and will contribute towards the common goal of increasing
utilization and promotion of solar energy and solar applications in its member countries.
o The institutional structure of ISA consists of an Assembly, a Council and a Secretariat. The secretariat of the
ISA is to be located in India.
o Its members will take coordinated actions through programmes and activities that will aggregate demands
for solar finance, solar technologies, innovation, R&D and capacity building.

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Why only Tropical Countries?


o The countries which are geographically located in the tropics, between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of
Capricorn, either fully or partially get ample sunlight throughout the year, making solar energy an easily
available resource. These countries are termed as Suryaputras.
o These countries also happen to be ones where maximum growth in energy demand in the coming years, but
their current production is woefully short of requirement.
o Thus, the ISA will ensure that as these countries rapidly ramp up their electricity production, predominantly
by using clean solar energy and avoid fossil fuels.
Objectives of ISA
The overarching objectives are:
o To create a collaborative platform for increased deployment of solar energy technologies.
o To enhance energy security & sustainable development.
o Improve access to energy and opportunities for better livelihoods in rural and remote areas.
o To increase the standard of living.
ISA Focus Areas
To achieve the objectives, ISA will have the following key focus areas:-
o Promote solar technologies and investment in the solar sector to enhance income generation for the poor
and global environment.
o Formulate projects and programmes to promote solar applications.
o Develop innovative Financial Mechanisms to reduce cost of capital.
o Build a common Knowledge e-Portal.
o Facilitate capacity building for promotion and absorption of solar technologies and R&D among member
countries.
o Promote standardisation in the use of equipments and processes for generating electricity.
ISA and India
o India is betting big on solar power. India has scaled up its renewable energy target from 30GW by 2016-17 to
175GW by 2021-22. Of this, the highest share would be of solar power (100GW-Solar, 60GW Wind energy,
15GW Bio-mass energy).
o India, a country blessed with abundant sunshine, has also taken a lead role in setting up the International
Solar Alliance (ISA).
o The ISA gives India an opportunity to take a global leadership role in the fight against climate change. The
secretariat of the ISA is to be located in India. It will also host a meeting of ISA assembly every year.
What are the advantages of expansion of solar power?
o It is among the most efficient means to meet the commitment under the Paris Agreement on climate change,
i.e., to keep carbon emissions in check.
o It can create additional employment with economic dividends.
o Recent report suggests jobs in solar energy have witnessed the fastest growth since 2011.
o Asia has harnessed the potential the most by providing 60% of all renewable energy employment.

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What the government should do?


o India should also take a look at manufacturing of photovoltaics.
o It should open training facilities to produce the human resources the industry will need in future.
o Low-cost financing channels can quickly augment the solar generating capacity.
o Electricity regulators should fix tariffs taking into account the reduction in the levellised cost of electricity.
o Other funding options like green bonds are also necessary.
o Without realistic purchase prices i.e. the price an investor pays for an investment, curtailment of renewable
power sources happen because of some non-technical considerations. It directly affects investments.
o Besides promoting phase two of the solar parks plan, and powering public facilities using solar power, the
Centre should make it easier for citizens and small business to adopt rooftop solar.
o This is crucial for achieving the goal of 100 GW, and also to raise the share of renewables in the total energy
mix to 40% in the next decade.

Practice Questions:
21. Which of the following statements is/are correct about International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
1. All countries between tropics of Cancer and Capricorn are part of International Solar Alliance (ISA).
2. It will function from the National Institute of Solar Energy in India, Gurgaon.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Consider the following statements regarding Solar Power Technology:


1. Photovoltaic cells use the ultraviolet radiations to convert solar energy into electric current.
2. Semiconductors are used to manufacture solar panels.
3. Concentrated Solar power use infrared radiations to heat the water and rotate turbines with the generated steam.
4. Concentrated Solar Power systems generally use a huge convex lens to concentrate energy at its focus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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THEME THREE| BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY

THEME 3

BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY

8. CONVENTION ON BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY


Why is this topic important for the exam?
Biodiversity is the variability among living organisms from all sources, including terrestrial, marine, and other
aquatic ecosystems and the ecological complexes of which they are part; this includes diversity within species,
between species, and of ecosystems.
Biodiversity is the foundation of ecosystem services to which human well-being is intimately linked.
Biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity where each species, no matter how small, all have an important role to
play. For example a larger number of plant species means a greater variety of crops. Greater species diversity
ensures natural sustainability for all life forms.

Previous Years Question


Q. Consider the following international agreements:
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2. and 3

Q. Consider the following international agreements:


1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only,
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

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Q. With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:


1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above Acts

Core: Points to focus


Convention on Biological Diversity
o The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), known informally as the Biodiversity Convention, is a
multilateral treaty.
o The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was adopted at the Earth Summit, in Rio de Janeiro, in 1992.
o It has three main objectives:
a. To conserve biological diversity;
b. To use its components in a sustainable way;
c. To share fairly and equitably the benefits arising from the use of genetic resources.
o The CBD was negotiated under the guidance of the United Nations. It was signed by more than 150
government leaders at the Rio Earth Summit (which official denomination is the 'United Nations Conference
on Environment and Development').
o The convention is now one of the most widely ratified international treaties on environmental issues, with 194
member countries.
o Unlike other international agreements that set compulsory targets and obligations, the CBD takes a flexible
approach to implementation.
o It identifies general goals and policies, and countries are free to determine how they want to implement
them.
The Convention on Biological Diversity has adopted two supplementary protocols they are:
o The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety - The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety to the Convention on Biological
Diversity is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting
from modern biotechnology from one country to another. It was adopted in 2000 as a supplementary
agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity and entered into force in 2003.
o Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from
their Utilization - The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of
Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity is a supplementary agreement
to the Convention on Biological Diversity.

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o It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of
the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources. The
Protocol was adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Aichi Province, Japan, and entered into force in 2014.
o Its objective is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources,
thereby contributing to the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity. The Strategic Plan consists of 20
new biodiversity targets for 2020, termed the 'Aichi Biodiversity Targets'
Aichi Biodiversity Targets
The 20 Aichi Targets are divided into 5 sections
o Strategic Goal A: Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming biodiversity across
government and society
o Strategic Goal B: Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use.
o Strategic Goal C: To improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species and genetic
diversity.
o Strategic Goal D: Enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services.
o Strategic Goal E: Enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge management and
capacity building.
International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
o Popularly known as the International Seed Treaty.
o International agreement in harmony with the Convention on Biological Diversity.
o Aims at guaranteeing food security through the conservation, exchange and sustainable use of the worlds
plant genetic resources for food and agriculture (PGRFA), as well as the fair and equitable benefit sharing
arising from its use.
India and the convention on Biological Diversity
o In pursuance to Article 6 of the CBD, India within five years of ratifying the convention had developed a
National Policy and Macro level Action Strategy on Biodiversity in 1999.
o The Ministry of Environment and Forests implemented an externally-aided project on National Biodiversity
Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP) from 2000-2004.
Biological Diversity Act
o In pursuance to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), India had enacted the Biological Diversity Act in
2002 following a widespread consultative process over a period of eight years.
o The Act gives effect to the provisions of the CBD.
o It also addresses access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge to ensure equitable
sharing of benefits arising out of their use to the country and its people.
o India is one of the first few countries to have enacted such legislation.
o Twenty two State Biodiversity Boards have been established till date.
o To regulate access to genetic resources and associated sharing arrangements, apart from developing policies
and programmes on long term conservation and protection of biological resources and associated
knowledge, the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was promulgated.
o All foreign nationals require approval from NBA for obtaining Biological Resources.

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National Bio-diversity Action Plan (NABP)


o The NBAP draws from the principle in the National Environment Policy that human beings are at the centre of
concerns for sustainable development and they are entitled to a healthy and productive life in harmony with
nature.
o This Action Plan identifies threats and constraints in biodiversity conservation taking into cognizance the
existing legislations, implementation mechanisms, strategies, plans and programmes, based on which action
points have been designed.

Concepts: Points to focus


Cancun Declaration
o Countries adopted Cancun Declaration which is named after Mexican city where the 13th meeting of the
Conference of Parties (COP) to Convention on Biodiversity (CBD) was held.
o In Cancun Declaration, countries committed to work at all levels within the governments and across all
sectors to mainstream bio-diversity, establishing effective institutional, legislative and regulatory frameworks
tailored to national needs and circumstances and incorporating an inclusive economics, social and cultural
approach with full respect for nature and human rights.
BIOFIN
o To address the biodiversity finance challenge in a comprehensive manner UNDP has launched the
Biodiversity Finance Initiative BIOFIN for building a sound business case for increased investment in the
management of ecosystems and biodiversity.
o BIOFIN will thus provide a framework for undertaking 'bottom-up' analysis of the biodiversity finance gap
and resource mobilization strategies, through a transformative process led by national stakeholder.
o BIOFIN is managed by the UNDP Ecosystems and Biodiversity Programme, in partnership with the European
Union and the Governments of Germany and Switzerland, who support the initiative. The Global Environment
Facility is a further partner financing parallel in-country projects in support of the revision of National
Biodiversity Strategies and Action Plans (NBSAPs).
o BIOFIN aims to develop a methodology for quantifying the biodiversity finance gap at national level, for
improving cost-effectiveness through mainstreaming of biodiversity into national development and sectoral
planning, and for developing comprehensive national resource mobilising strategies.
o BIOFIN focus on two areas : 1. Globally-led development of a new methodological framework; 2. Adaptation
and implementation of this new methodological framework at national level.
o BIOFIN in India is led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). The initiative is
hosted by the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), working with four relevant State Biodiversity Boards,
with technical assistance from Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and National Institute of Public Finance and
Policy (NIPFP).
o UNDP India manages the programme under the guidance of MoEFCC. A Steering Committee with
representatives of relevant ministries will oversee the programme and a Technical Advisory Group will
provide technical guidance.

Practice Questions
23. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Cartagena Protocol?
1. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was the first international regulatory framework for safe transfer, handling
and use of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs)

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2. It was negotiated under the aegis of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
3. India is party to the protocol.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

24. Consider the following statements about Nagoya Protocol:


1. The Nagoya Protocol provides access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising
from their utilization.
2. Aichi Biodiversity Targets were created in the Nagoya Protocol.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Consider the following statements about National Biodiversity Authority (NBA):
1. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established to implement India's Biological Diversity Act (2002).
2. The NBA is a statutory and an autonomous body.
3. The NBA has its headquarters in Chennai.
4. Biological Diversity Act 2002 mandates all local bodies to setup Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC).
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4
(d) All the above

26. The Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) Protocol adopted by COP-10 at Nagoya is regarding the fair and equitable
sharing of benefits arising from the use of:
(a) The genetic resources of the Earth.
(b) Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs)
(c) Marine and coastal areas significant for eco-tourism.
(d) Technology transfer mechanisms for Clean Energy Development.

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THEME THREE| BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY

9. WILDLIFE CONSERVATION
Why is this topic important for the exam?
Wildlife conservation is the attempt to protect endangered animal and plant species, along with their natural
habitat. The main objective is to make sure that their habitats will be preserved so that the future generations of
both wildlife and humans can mutually benefit.

Previous Year Questions


Q. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora? (Pre:2011)
(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary

Q. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area
but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that
animal? (Pre:2011)
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle

Q. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect
and use the biomass? (Pre : 2012)
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Q. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the
establishment of
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) Botanical Gardens
(c) National Parks
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Q. The Red Data Books published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(IUCN) contain lists of: (2011)
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots,

2. Threatened plant and animal species.

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3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Q. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?(Pre:2012)
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

Q. Consider the following : (Pre: 2012)


1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. A particular State in India has the following characteristics : (Pre:2012)


1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand

Q. Government of India encourages the cultivation of sea buckthorn. What is the importance of this plant? (Pre:
2012)

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1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.


2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. Consider the following pairs


1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland
Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q. Consider the following statements:


1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q. Consider the following pairs. (Pre:2013)


National Park River flowing through the Park
1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

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(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

What is the current context?


With the Uttarakhand forest department focusing on tiger conservation, the State is soon to get two new tiger
reserves.
These are the Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary and the Surai Forest Range.
Four states namely- Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and West Bengal for the first time have decided to conduct a
synchronised Elephant census. The four states together have the maximum number of human-animal conflict
prone regions in India.

Core: Points to focus


Wild Life Protection Act
The Government of India enacted Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 with the objective of effectively protecting the
wild life of this country and to control poaching, smuggling and illegal trade in wildlife and its derivatives. The Act
was amended in January 2003 and punishment and penalty for offences under the Act have been made more
stringent. The act has six schedules which cover the entire gamut of wild life.
The major provisions and summary of Wildlife Protection Act
o It defines the wildlife related terminology.
o It provides for the appointment of wildlife advisory Board, Wildlife warden, their powers, duties etc.
o Becoming a party to the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora (CITES,
1976).
o Launching a national component of UNESCOs Man and Biosphere Programme (1971).
o Under the Act, comprehensive listing of endangered wildlife species was done for the first time and
prohibition of hunting of the endangered species was mentioned.
o Protection to some endangered plants.
o The Act provides for setting up of National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries etc.
o The Act provides for the constitution of Central Zoo Authority.
o There is provision for trade and commerce in some wildlife species with license for sale, possession, transfer
etc.
o The act imposes a ban on the trade or commerce in scheduled animals.
o It provides for legal powers to officers and punishment to offenders.
o It provides for captive breeding programme for endangered species. Several Conservation Projects for
individual endangered species like Lion (1972), Tiger (1973), Crocodile (1974) and Brown antlered Deer (1981)
were stated under this Act.
o The Act is adopted by all states in India except J & K, which has its own Act.

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a. Schedule I and part II of schedule II are the most important sections of the act. These sections covers
animals which are in the category of endangered species. The sections in this schedule give absolute
protection to certain species and these cannot be infringed on any account.
b. Schedule III and IV - These also have roughly the same provisions of Section I and II, but cover animals
that are not in danger of becoming extinct. The penalties under this section are also less than Schedule I
and II.
c. Schedule V delineates animals that can be hunted like ducks and deers with the prior permission of chief
wildlife warden.
d. Schedule VI concerns cultivation and plant life and gives teeth to setting up more protected animal parks.
Vermin
o Vermin means wild mammals and birds which are harmful to crops, farm animals or which carry disease.
o In India, wild animals can be declared as vermin if they have become
o Dangerous to human life or property (including standing crops on any land).
o Become disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery.
o Using these provisions, any animal listed in Schedule I to IV of WPA can be declared vermin by listing it in
Schedule V for a specific period.
o Currently, some animals like the common crow, fruit bats, mice and rats have been listed as vermin in
Schedule V of WPA.
Animal welfare board of India
o The Animal Welfare Board of India was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to
Animals Act, 1960. Well-known humanitarian Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale was instrumental in setting up the
board and was its first chairperson.
o The Board was initially within the jurisdiction of the Government of India's Ministry of Food and Agriculture.
And later in 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of
Environment and Forests.
o From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal
Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been
the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
o AWBI suggests changes to laws and rules about animal welfare issues. It also offers guidance to organisations
and officials such as police to help them interpret and apply the laws.
o The board also issues publications to raise awareness of various animal welfare issues. Its education team
gives talks on animal welfare subjects, and trains members of the community to be Certified Animal Welfare
Educators.
Difference between Tiger Reserves, National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Reserved Forests, etc.
All these can be broadly classified into two:
o Sites of Conservation Importance
Conservation Areas are areas of notable environmental or historical interest or importance which is protected
by law against undesirable changes. These areas are conserved by varying levels of legal protection which are
given by the policies formulated by the government or global conventions. They are Tiger Reserves, Elephant
Reserves ,Biosphere reserves, RAMSAR Wetland Sites, Natural World Heritage Sites- Important Coastal and
Marine Biodiversity Areas (ICMBA) Important Bird Areas (IBAs)

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o Protected Areas of India


Protected areas are those in which human occupation or at least the exploitation of resources is limited. The
definition that has been widely accepted across
regional and global frameworks has been provided
by the International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) in its categorization guidelines for protected
areas. There are several kinds of protected areas,
which vary by level of protection depending on the
enabling laws of each country or the regulations of
the international organizations involved.
The term "protected area" also includes Marine
Protected Areas, the boundaries of which will include
some area of ocean, and Transboundary Protected
Areas that overlap multiple countries which remove
the borders inside the area for conservation and economic purposes.
a) National Parks - An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can be notified by the state government to
be constituted as a National Park, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or
zoological association or importance, needed to for the purpose of protecting & propagating or
developing wildlife therein or its environment. No human activity is permitted inside the national park
except for the ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state under the conditions given in
the wildlife protection Act 1972.
b) Wildlife Sanctuaries- Any area other than area comprised with any reserve forest or the territorial waters
can be notified by the State Government to constitute as a sanctuary if such area is of adequate
ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, natural or zoological significance, for the purpose of
protecting, propagating or developing wildlife or its environment. Some restricted human activities are
allowed inside the Sanctuary area details of which are given in wildlife protection Act 1972.
c) Conservation reserves and community reserves- These are terms denoting protected areas of India
which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established
national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India. Such areas are
designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of
India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands is privately
owned. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed
protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use.
d) Marine Protected Areas - A marine protected area (MPA) is essentially a space in the ocean where
human activities are more strictly regulated than the surrounding waters - similar to parks we have on
land. These places are given special protections for natural or historic marine resources by local, state,
territorial, native, regional, or national authorities.

National Initiatives - National Parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, rules and procedures for their establishment.
o Declaration of Sanctuary:
A wildlife sanctuary is defined by State Government via a Notification. There is no need to pass legislation
(act) by the state assembly to declare a wildlife sanctuary. Fixation and alternation of boundary can be done
by state legislature via resolution. No need to pass an act for alternation of boundaries. No alternation of
boundaries in wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL (National Board of Wildlife)
Limited human activities are permitted in the sanctuary.

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o Declaration of the National Parks:


Similar to the Wildlife Sanctuaries, a National Park is defined by state government via notification. The state
government can fix and alter boundaries of the National Parks with prior consultation and approval with
National Board of Wildlife. There is no need to pass an act for alternation of boundaries of National Parks.
No human activities are permitted in a National Park.

Man and Biosphere Reserve Program


o Launched in 1971, UNESCOs Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) is an Intergovernmental Scientific
Programme that aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and
their environments.
o MAB combines the natural and social sciences, economics and education to improve human livelihoods and
the equitable sharing of benefits, and to safeguard natural and managed ecosystems, thus promoting
innovative approaches to economic development that are socially and culturally appropriate, and
environmentally sustainable.
o Its World Network of Biosphere Reserves currently counts 669 sites in 120 countries all over the world,
including 16 transboundary sites.

Sl. Name of Location (States) Important animals


No. Biosphere Reserve

1 Nilgiri Part of Wayanad, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Nilgiri Tahr, Lion-tailed macaque
(UNESCO MAB) Madumalai, Nilambur, Silent Valley and
Siruvani hills (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and
Karnataka).

2 Nanda Devi Part of Chamoli, Pithoragarh, and Bageshwar Asiatic black bear, snow leopard,
(UNESCO MAB) districts (Uttarakhand). brown bear and blue sheep

3 Nokrek Part of Garo hills (Meghalaya). Red Panda


(UNESCO MAB)

4 Great Nicobar Southern most islands of Andaman And Saltwater Crocodile


(UNESCO MAB) Nicobar (A & N Islands).

5 Gulf of Mannar Indian part of Gulf of Mannar between India Dugong or Sea Cow
(UNESCO MAB) and Sri Lanka (Tamil Nadu).

6 Manas Part of Kokrajhar, Bongaigaon, Barpeta, Golden Langur, Red Panda


Nalbari, Kamprup and Darang districts
(Assam).

7 Sunderbans Part of delta of Ganges and Brahmaputra Royal Bengal Tiger


(UNESCO MAB) river system
(West Bengal).

8 Simlipal Part of Mayurbhanj district (Orissa). Gaur, Royal Bengal Tiger, Wild
(UNESCO MAB) elephant

9 Dibru-Saikhowa Part of Dibrugarh and Tinsukia Districts Golden Langur


(Assam).

10 Dehang-Dibang Part of Siang and Dibang Valley in Arunachal Mishmi takin, Red goral, musk

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Pradesh. deer, red panda, Asiatic Black


bear

11 Pachmarhi Parts of Betul, Hoshangabad and Chindwara Giant Squirrel, Flying Squirrel
(UNESCO MAB) districts of Madhya Pradesh.

12 Khangchendzonga Parts of Khangchendzonga hills and Sikkim. Snow Leopard, Red Panda

13 Agasthyamalai Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife NilgiriTahr, Elephants


(UNESCO MAB) Sanctuaries and their adjoining areas in
Kerala.

14 Achanakamar Covers parts of Anupur and Dindori districts striped Hyaena, four-horned
Amarkantak of M.P. and parts of Bilaspur districts of antelope, Chital, Wild Bear,
(UNESCO MAB) Chhattishgarh State. Leopard

15 Kachchh Part of Kachchh, Rajkot, Surendra Nagar and Indian Wild Ass
Patan Civil Districts of Gujarat State.

16 Cold Desert Pin Valley National Park and surroundings; Snow Leopard
Chandratal and Sarchu & Kibber Wildlife
Sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh.

17 Seshachalam Hills Seshachalam Hill Ranges covering parts of Slender Loris, Indian giant
Chittoor and Kadapa districts of Andhra squirrel, Mouse deer Golden
Pradesh. Gecko, Yellow throated bul bul.

18 Panna Part of Panna and Chhattarpur districts in Tiger, Chital,


Madhya Pradesh. Chinkara, Sambharand Sloth
bear

IUCN
o Created in 1948, IUCN has evolved into the worlds largest and most diverse environmental network.
o It is a member union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organisations.
o It provides public, private and non-governmental organisations with the knowledge and tools that enable
human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place together.
o The organization is best known for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List, which assesses the
conservation status of species worldwide.
IUCN Red List
o The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the worlds most comprehensive inventory of
the global conservation status of biological species.
o When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official term threatened is a grouping of three categories: Critically
Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable.
o The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species. As the status of the species
changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers.
o Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered, but have now recovered to a point
where they are no longer threatened.

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IUCN is associated with three entities they are:


1. Bird Life International
o Bird Life International is the worlds largest nature conservation Partnership.
o Together they are 120 BirdLife Partners worldwide.
o Bird Life International strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people
towards sustainability in the use of natural resources.
o Bird Life International is the official Red List authority for birds, for the International Union for Conservation
of Nature.
o It identifies the sites known/referred to as Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.

2. CITES
o CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is also known
as the Washington Convention.
o It is a multilateral treaty drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
3. TRAFFIC
o The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC)
o Found in 1976, TRAFFIC is a non-governmental organization working globally on trade in wild animals and
plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
o TRAFFIC is a joint programme of World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and IUCN.
o Traffic is complementary to Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES).
o TRAFFICs mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of
nature.
o It investigates and analyses wildlife trade trends, patterns, impacts and drivers to provide the leading
knowledge base on trade in wild animals and plants.

Project Tiger and Asian Ministerial Conference on Tiger conservation.


o The National Tiger Conservation Authority is constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972 for escalating tiger conservation.
o It is a statutory body working under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. The Authority
has been satisfying its mandate within the sphere of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for strengthening
tiger conservation in the country.
Project Tiger
o The Project Tiger launched in 1973 is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme. It gives fund help to the tiger
range States, for in-situ conservation of tigers in the chosen tiger reserves.

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o It has put the endangered tiger on a guaranteed path of revival by protecting it from extinction.
o The Project Tiger aims to promote an exclusive tiger agenda in the core areas of tiger reserves, with inclusive
people participation.

Objectives of Project Tiger


o To guarantee a viable population of tigers for financial, scientific, aesthetic, social and ecological values.
o Limit the elements which lead to the reduction of tiger habitat and to tone down them by suitable strategy.
o Site-particular eco-development to decrease the dependency of local individuals and indigenous people on
tiger reserve.
India and international cooperation for conservation of tigers
o India is the founder member of the Global Tiger Forum of Tiger Range Countries for addressing international
issues related to tiger conservation.
o The Tiger Range Countries (TRC) countries where tigers still roam free are: Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia,
China, India, Indonesia, Laos, Malayasia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand, Vietnam and North-Korea.
o India hosted Asia Ministerial Conference on Tiger Conservation in 2016.

Project Elephant and elephant corridors in India.


Project Elephant (PE) was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a centrally sponsored scheme
with following objectives :
a. To protect elephants, their habitat and corridors;
b. To address issues of man-animal conflict;
c. Welfare of captive elephants;
d. Financial and Technical support are being provided to major elephant bearing States in the country;
e. The Project is being mainly implemented in 16 States / UTs , viz. Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Tripura,
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal.
Elephant Corridors
o Elephant corridors are narrow strips of land that allow elephants to move from one habitat patch to another.
o There are 183 identified elephant corridors in India.
o Out of this 138 are State Elephant Corridors, 28 Inter-State Elephant Corridors and 17 are International
Elephant Corridors.
o Among state corridors, maximum numbers of them are located in Meghalaya.
o Among, inter-state corridors, maximum are shared by Jharkhand and Odisha.
o Maximum International corridors India shares with Bangladesh.
Monitoring of Illegal Killing of Elephants ( MIKE ) Programme
Mandated by COP resolution of CITES , MIKE program started in South Asia in the year 2003 with following
purpose
The main objectives of the MIKE are:
o To measure levels and trends in the illegal hunting of elephants;

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o To determine changes in these trends over time; and


o To determine the factors causing or associated with such changes, and to try and assess in particular to what
extent observed trends are a result of any decisions taken by the Conference of the Parties to CITES
Haathi Mere Saathi
o Haathi Mere Saathi is a campaign launched by the Ministry of environment and forest (MoEFCC) in
partnership with the wildlife trust of India (WTI).
o The campaign was launched at the Elephant- 8 Ministerial meeting held in Delhi in 2011.
o The E-8 ministerial meeting represented regions with all 3 species of elephants, viz., Asian elephant, African
Bush Elephant, African Forest Elephant.
o The E-8 countries comprise of India, Botswana, the Republic of Congo, Indonesia, Kenya, Srilanka, Tanzania,
and Thailand.
o This public initiative was aimed at increasing awareness among people and developing friendship,
companionship between people and elephants.

Concepts to focus
Elephant Census
The states conduct the census based on an identical set of rules using:
o Direct counting method: The direct counting method is based on sighting of elephants
o Indirect counting method: This method uses the elephant dung decay formula, in which the analysis of dung
is used to estimate the population. This method already been used in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
o Earlier, field officials were deputed inside a forest area for direct counting. It was expected that the entire
area would be covered. But, that is not possible because of many reasons. As a result, the population was
underestimated in some places while duplication was reported elsewhere. A simultaneous census will
eliminate these factors.
Conservation of Elephants in India:
o In our country there are approximately 30 thousand elephants spread in 16 Elephant states. Maximum
number of elephants is in Kerala, followed by Karnataka and Assam.
o Project Elephant: launched in 1991-92 as a centrally sponsored scheme to assist the States on three key areas:
1. Protection of wild elephants, their habitat and corridors, 2. Address the issue of man-animal conflict and
3. Welfare of domesticated elephants.
o A total of 28 elephant reserves have been so far notified in India by the state governments. Out of 28
Elephant Reserves maximum number is in Assam and Odisha with five each.
Two new tiger reserves to Uttarakhand
o The Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary and the Surai Forest Range are the two proposed tiger reserves.
o The Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary falls under the Terai Arc Landscape spanning across India and Nepal and
Surai forest range falls under the Terai East division of the Uttarakhand forest department.
o The Nandhaur landscape lies between the rivers Gola and Sharda, in the Haldwani forest division, which
includes five ranges namely Chakata, Nandhaur, Jaulasal, Danda and Sharda. The Nandhaur sanctuary has a
healthy population of Asian elephants, leopards and sloth bears along with Tigers.
How many Tiger reserves already exist in Uttarakhand?
o Uttarakhand now has two tiger reserves the Corbett Tiger Reserve and the Rajaji Tiger Reserve.

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o Corbett tiger reserve is also the oldest national park in India and it was the first to come under the Project
Tiger initiative.
o With the addition of the 2 proposed reserves Uttarakhand would become the first state in North India to get
four tiger reserves.
o Thestate has the second highest tiger population in the country after Karnataka.

How will a National Park or a Wildlife Sanctuary get a Tiger Reserve status?
o To get the tiger reserve status to a national park, the state government has to send a proposal to National
Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
o After NTCA has given its final approval, the State Govt. can notify the tiger reserve based on NTCA
recommendation.

Practice Questions
27. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
2. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national
laws.
Select the correct using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

28. Which of the following Indian Biosphere reserves have been included in the world network of Biosphere reserves
under the UNESCOs Indias Biosphere reserves?
1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Agasthyamalai
3. Achanakamar Amarkantak
4. Seshachalam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 only

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29. Consider the following statements about Keoledeo National Park:


1. It is the famous for avifauna sanctuary that plays host to thousands of birds especially during the winter season.
2. It is declared as a world Heritage site by UNESCO.
Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. World Heritage Sites are places of importance of cultural or natural heritage as described in the UNESCO World
Heritage Convention, established in 1972. These Heritage sites from the State of Himachal Pradesh is/are
1. Great Himalayan National Park
2. Kalka - Shimla railway
3. Nanda Devi National Park
4. Valley of Flowers National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above

Rau's IAS Study Circle

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THEME 4

ECOLOGY

10. KEN-BETWA LINK PROJECT


Why is this topic important for the exam?
Interlinking of River (ILR) programme is of national importance and has been taken up on high priority.
The mission of this programme is to ensure greater equity in the distribution of water by enhancing the availability
of water in drought prone and rainfed area.

Previous years Question


Q. Two important rivers one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another,
with its source in Odisha merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing
into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.
Which one of the following could be this? (Pre : 2011)
(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal

What is the current context?


Recently, the National Board of Wildlife (NBWL) has given its clearance to the Ken-Betwa Interlinking of River
project. In this background, let us understand the various concepts and issues regarding river linking in India, its
advantages, implications and impacts on ecology.

Core: Points to focus


River Interlinking in India
o Interlinking of Rivers is the joining the networks of canals and reservoirs under the National Perspective Plan
(NPP) prepared by the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
o National Water Development Agency (NWDA) has identified 14 links under Himalayan Rivers Component and
16 links under Peninsular Rivers Component for inter-basin transfer of water based on field surveys and
investigation and detailed studies.
National Water Development Agency (NWDA)
o The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) is a registered society under the Ministry of Water
Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation set up in the year 1982 to carry out detailed studies,
surveys and investigations in respect of Peninsular component of National Perspective for Water Resources
Development.
o It is responsible for the work of preparation of detailed Project Reports (DPR) of various link proposals and
Pre-feasibility Reports and feasibility reports of intra-State links as proposed by the States.

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National Perspective Plan (NPP)


o NPP has 3 components- a. Himalayan Component, b. Peninsular River Component and c. Inter-state River
linking Component.
o Himalayan Rivers Development envisages construction of storage reservoirs on the main Ganga and the
Brahmaputra and their principal tributaries in India and Nepal along with interlinking canal system to transfer
surplus flows of the eastern tributaries of the Ganga to the West apart from linking of the main Brahmaputra
with the Ganga.
o It will provide substantial flood control in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin. It would provide 40,000 cusecs to
Calcutta Port and would provide navigation facilities across the country. The scheme will benefit our
neighbours also Nepal and Bangladesh as well as the Northern and the Western States in our country.
o The Peninsular river development has been divided into four major parts:
Part-I- Interlinking of Mahanadi-Godavari-Krishna-Pennar-Cauvery
Part-II- Interlinking of West Flowing Rivers, North of Bombay and South of Tapi
Part-III- Inter-linking of Ken with Chambal
Part-IV - Diversion of West Flowing Rivers
o The Supreme Court in February 2012 had directed the central government and particularly the Ministry of
Water Resources to constitute Special Committee for Inter-Linking of Rivers. Accordingly, the Union Cabinet
has recently approved constitution of the High Power Committee for interlinking of rivers in November 2016.
Water management in India
The committee on restructuring the Central Water Commission and Central Ground Water Board under Mihir Shah
in its report has recommended a new National Water Commission (NWC) be established as the nations apex
facilitation organisation dealing with water policy, data and governance.

Water Regulation Nodal agency

Dams and water-storage bodies Central Water Commission

Groundwater in India Central Ground Water Board

What are the advantages of Inter River linking in India?


o ILR will enable transfer of water from water surplus regions of India to water deficit ones. Peninsular and
Western India fulfils its water needs depending upon the Indian monsoon.
o India being an agricultural economy, water availability plays an important role in food security and farmer
welfare. ILR can help reduce the ill effects of monsoonal failure and climate change. For instance, Mahanadi-
Godavari will solve the water scarcity in Rayalseema region of Andhra.
o River Basins like Ganga and Brahmaputra are already prone to flooding. Hence linking these rivers would help
control floods.
o It would boost the inland waterways and which helps in faster movement of goods from one place to other.
o People living in and around these canals can benefit as they can be the main areas of fishing in India
o Reduce poverty, increase agricultural production and lead to water equality.
o According to estimates of the Ministry of Water Resources, the overall implementation of Interlinking of
Rivers programme under National Perspective Plan would give benefits of 35 million hectares of irrigation,

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raising the ultimate irrigation potential from 140 million hectare to 175 million hectare and generation of
34000 megawatt of power.
o Apart from the above, implementation of NPP would lead to Domestic & Industrial Water Supply,
Employment Generation, Salinity Control, Pollution Control and Recreation Facilities.
Provisions relating to Water in Constitution
o Entry 56 of List 1 of Schedule VII: (Union List), Shipping and navigation in National waterways.
o Entry 17 of List II of Schedule VII: (State List), Inland waterways, irrigation, drainage, canals, supplies,
embankments.
o Article 262 empowers the parliament to legislate in disputes pertaining to Inter-state River Water Disputes.
Convention on the Law of the Non-Navigational Uses of International Watercourses
o It is a document adopted by the UN on May 21, 1997, pertaining to the use and conservation of all waters
that cross international boundaries, including surface and ground water.
o The convention is not yet ratified.
o India, US, China, Canada and Australia are major opponents of the CLNNUIW.

Concepts: Points to focus


Ken-Betwa river linking project
o It aims to transfer surplus water from Ken to Betwa by construction of 221 km long concrete canals.
o It would provide relief to Indias worst drought affected
regions, Bundelkhand
o The project had got a nod from the Supreme Court
following the tripartite MoU involving UP, MP and
Centre.
o The project has been divided into 2 Phases
o It is the 1st ILR project to pass through a Tiger Reserve,
Panna Tiger Reserve. Nearly 8,650 hectares of forest land
- including part of Panna National Park - in Madhya
Pradesh will be submerged due to implementation of
the Ken-Betwa project
o The project required the permission from NBWL since
the project requires diversion of forest land from core
area of Panna Tiger Reserve.
o The National Board of Wildlife (NBWL) has given
regulatory clearance to the Phase-1 of the project in December 2016. This would allow fast tracking of the
construction of the project.
o The clearance was given with certain conditions which include integration of nearby sanctuaries including Rani
Durgavati and Ranipur with the Panna Tiger Reserve to compensate loss of tiger habitat and complete ban of
fresh mining lease in the area.
o The Board also wants the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) to take care of the landscape plan for
the area with the help of state forest department and Wildlife Institute of India (WII).

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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY

NBWL National Board for Wild Life


o National Board for Wild Life is a Statutory Organization constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
The board is advisory in nature and advises the central government on framing policies and measures for
conservation of wildlife in the country.
o It is the apex body to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and
sanctuaries.
o Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests. It has
power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and
sanctuaries. No alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without
approval of the NBWL.
o The Indian Board for Wildlife is chaired by the Prime Minister.
What is NTCA?
The National Tiger Conservation Authority, a statutory body under the Environment Ministry, is constituted under
enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and
functions assigned to it under the said Act.

Objectives of NTCA:
o Providing statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its directives becomes legal.
o Fostering accountability of Centre-State in management of Tiger Reserves, by providing a basis for MoU with
States within our federal structure.
o Providing for an oversight by Parliament.
o Addressing livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding Tiger Reserves.
o Functions: Its functions are to assist in population assessment of tigers, law enforcement, wildlife forensics,
infrastructural development and mitigation, smart patrolling and advisory role in policy formulation.
Project Tiger is a centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change,
providing funding support to tiger range States, for in-situ conservation of tigers in designated tiger reserves.
Panna Tiger Reserve
o Panna tiger reserve is situated in Vindhyan mountain ranges of northern part of Madhya Pradesh and is
spread over the Panna and Chattarpur districts. The terrain consists of extensive plateaus and gorges.
o River Ken flowing from south to north passes through the reserve. It is the lifeline of this reserve and is the
least polluted of Yamunas tributaries. Ken Gharial Sanctuary forms a significant part of the catchment area of
this river. The path of the meandering Ken offers some spectacular scenery.
o The reserve is also dotted with two thousand year-old rock paintings.
o This reserve contains the last remaining tiger habitat of North Madhya Pradesh. Apart from the tiger, it is
home to other animals like the leopard, nilgai, chinkara, chousinga, chital, rusty spotted cat, porcupine, and
sambhar. Gharials (long snouted crocodiles) and muggars (marsh crocodiles) can be found in River Ken.
o Poaching is one of the significant concerns of this tiger reserve.
Jal Manthan-III was organized on January 13, 2017 in New Delhi to have wider consultations among various
stakeholders to brain-storm new ideas for solutions to various issues of water sector.
4th India Water Week Themed Water for all: Striving together was organized in 2016.

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Practice Questions:
31. Consider the following statements regarding Panna Tiger Reserve:
1. Panna tiger reserve is situated in Vindhyan mountain ranges.
2. It is drained by River Betwa.
3. It is present in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only 1
(d) All the above

32. Consider the following statements regarding National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) :
1. National Board for Wild Life is an advisory body.
2. Alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL.
Select the correct code from below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

33. Consider the following statements about the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
1. The Union Minister of Environment and Forests is the chairperson of NBWL.
2. National Board for Wild Life is a Statutory Organization constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
Select the correct code from below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

34. The National board of Wild life (NBWL) has given its much-awaited clearence to the Ken - Betwa interlinking of
rivers (ILR) project to benefit Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh .The Ken river is a tributary of:
(a) Yamuna
(b) Ganga
(c) Godavari
(d) Narmada

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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY

11. Western Ghats


Why is this topic important for the exam?
A chain of mountains running parallel to Indias western coast, approximately 30-50 km inland, the Ghats traverse
the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
A significant characteristic of the Western Ghats is the exceptionally high level of biological diversity and
endemism.

Previous years Questions


Q. With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zones, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones
except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma
regions as hotspots of biodiversity: (Pre: 2011)
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6

Q. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate
reason for this phenomenon? (Pre:2011)
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
(d) It has less human interference

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What is the current context?


The government has notified nearly 56,825 square km area in the Western Ghats region as ecologically sensitive
area (ESA) where all kinds of mining activities, large constructions, thermal power plants and highly polluting
industries would no longer be allowed.
The notified land is spread over six states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Core: Points to focus


Western Ghats
o Called 'The Great Escarpment of India', Western Ghats or Sahyadri run parallel to the west coast of Indian
peninsula through six states.
o It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site as well as a Biodiversity Hotspot due to the presence of a large number of
endemic flora and fauna species along with several undiscovered species.
o The range is heavily forested and is home to a large number of tribes such as Adars, Kotas, Badagas, Todas,
Kurumbas, and Paniyas etc. The Government of India has established many protected areas including 2
biosphere reserves, 13 National parks to restrict human access to protect specific endangered species.
o They form the western edge of the Deccan tableland.
o Run from the Tapi valley (21 N latitude) to a little north of Kannyakumari (11 N latitude) for a distance of
1,600 km. Spread across states Gujarat, Maharastra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
o The Western Ghats are steep-sided, terraced, flat-topped hills presenting a stepped topography facing the
Arabian Sea coast.
o But they slope gently on their eastern flank and hardly appear to be a mountain when viewed from the
Deccan tableland.
o South of Malabar, the Nilgiris, Anamalai, etc. present quite different landscape due to the difference in
geological structure.
o The northern section of the Ghats from Tapi valley to a little north of Goa is made of horizontal sheets of
Deccan lavas (Deccan Traps). The average height of this section of the Ghats is 1,200 m above mean sea level,
but some peaks attain more heights.
o Kalasubai (1,646 m) near Igatpuri, Salher (1,567 m) about 90 km north of Nasik, Mahabaleshwar (1,438 m) and
Harishchandragarh (1,424 m) are important peaks. Thalghat and Bhorghat are important passes which
provide passage by road and rail between the Konkan Plains in the west and the Deccan Plateau in the east.
o The Middle Sahyadri runs from 16N latitude upto Nilgiri hills. This part is made of granites and gneisses. This
area is covered with dense forests. The western scarp is considerably dissected by headward erosion of the
west flowing streams. The average height is 1200 m but many peaks exceed 1500 m.
o The Vavul Mala (2,339 m), the Kudremukh (1,892 m) and Pashpagiri (1,714 m) are important peaks. The Nilgiri
Hills which join the Sahyadris near the tri-junction of Karnataka, Kerala and TN, rise abruptly to over 2,000 m.
They mark the junction of the Western Ghats with Eastern Ghats. Doda Betta (2,637 m) and Makurti (2,554 m)
are important peaks of this area.
o The southern part of the Western Ghats is separated from the main Sahyadri range by Pal ghat Gap [Palakkad
Gap]. The high ranges terminate abruptly on either side of this gap. Pal ghat Gap is a rift valley.
o This gap is used by a number of roads and railway lines to connect the plains of Tamil Nadu with the coastal
plain of Kerala. It is through this gap that moist-bearing clouds of the south-west monsoon can penetrate
some distance inland, bringing rain to Mysore region. South of the Palghat Gap there is an intricate system of
steep and rugged slopes on both the eastern and western sides of the Ghats.

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o Anaimudi (2,695 m) is the highest peak in the whole of southern India. Three ranges radiate in different
directions from Anaimudi. These ranges are the Anamalai (1800-2000 m) to the north, the Palani (900-1,200
m) to the north-east and the Cardamom Hills or the Ealaimalai to the south.

Threats faced by the region


1. Illegal sand mining which is destroying the rivers of the area
2. Illegal quarrying and mining
3. Human activities like agriculture, tourism, deforestation, dam construction, industrial activity etc
4. Development of urban areas
5. Infrastructure projects and road expansion
6. Fishing by using chemicals
7. Introduction of exotic species
8. Thermal power plants
9. Monoculture plantation
To find the strategy for conserving these Western Ghats, the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change
has set up committees like:
1. Gadgil report
Gadgil Commission, an environmental research commission is named after its chairman Madhav Gadgil. The
commission is formally known as Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP).
Due to several Criticisms of Madhav Gadgil Report like the Committee reports was more environment-friendly and
not in tune with the ground realities and the Recommendations were cited as impractical to implement, the
Kasturirangan committee was constituted to examine the Madhav Gadgil (WGEEP) report.
2. Kasturirangan committee Report Recommendations
Instead of the total area of Western Ghats, only 37% (i.e. 60,000 sq. km.) of the total area is brought under ESA
under Kasturirangan report.
Comparison of Gadgil Report and Kasturirangan Report

Gadgil Report Kasturirangan Report

Laid too much importance to environment Was biased towards development

Marked landscape of Western Ghats across 1,29,037 Used remote sensing and aerial survey methods for
sq km. Using existing data. zonal demarcation of land in Western Ghats and marked
1,64,280 sq km landscape.

The report proposed to declare this entire landscape This report marks only 37 percent area (but considers
as ESA, creating three ESZs within it. wider Western Ghat boundaries) as ESA.

Existing sanctuaries and ESZ-1 60%(no mining Adopted the criteria followed by the Western Ghats
would be allowed) Development Programme of the Planning Commission
ESZ-2 15%(existing mines could continue in with a and marked 37 percent of this stretch as ESA where
moratorium on new licences) hazardous industries, thermal plants or mines would not
be allowed i.e. the restriction level of Kasturirangans
ESZ-3 25%(lowest priority areas) to allow all

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developmental activities with precautions i.e. new ESA corresponds to that of Gadgils ESZ-1
mines could come up

What are Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZs)?


o An ecologically sensitive zone is an area that is protected by the government given the sheer number of
species, plants and animals endemic to the region. They are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act,
1986 according to which the government (MoEFCC) can prohibit industrial operations such as mining, sand
quarrying and building thermal power plants in sensitive areas.
o To categorise an area as ecologically sensitive, the government looks at topography, climate and rainfall, land
use and land cover, roads and settlements, human population, biodiversity corridors and data of plants and
animal species.
o Lands falling within 10 kilometres of the boundaries of National Parks and Sanctuaries should be notified as
eco-fragile zones/ Ecologically sensitive zones under Section 3(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
and Rule 5 of the Environment Protection Rules, 1986."
o The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) indicates that "Areas outside the protected area network are
often vital ecological corridor links and must be protected to prevent isolation of fragments of biodiversity
which will not survive in the long run. Land and Water use policies will need to accept the imperative of
strictly protecting ecologically fragile habitats and regulating use elsewhere." It also indicates that "All
identified areas around Protected Areas and Wildlife Corridors to be declared as ecologically fragile under
the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986."
o The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some kind of shock absorbers to the protected areas by
regulating and managing the activities around such areas. They also act as a transition zone from areas of
high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
Environment Protection Act, 1986
o The Environment Protection Act, 1986 was enacted with objective of providing protection for the
environment and improving it.
o It empowers the central government to establish authorities under section 3(3) charged with mandate of
preventing environmental pollution in all its forms and to tackle specific problems that are peculiar to
different parts of the country. The act was last amended in 1991.
Objectives
o To protect and improve environmental qualities.
o To establish an authority to study, plan and implement long term requirements of environmental safety.
o To give directions and to co-ordinate a system of adequate response to emergency situations threatening
the environment.
o To create an authority with the purpose of environmental protection and regulation of discharge of
pollutants and handling of harmful substances.
o To co-ordinates the activities of various regulating agencies.
o To cover all problems relating to environment comprehensively.
Biodiversity Hotspots
o According to Conservational International (CI), to qualify as a hotspot a region must meet two strict criteria:
1. it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the worlds total) as endemics, and 2. it
has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat.

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Biodiversity Hotspots in India


o Himalayas: It includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan,
China and Myanmar)
o Indo-Burma: It includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of Islands (and
Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia and southern China)
o Sundalands: It includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines)
o Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka)
UNESCO World Heritage Sites
o A UNESCO World Heritage Site is a place that is listed by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical significance.
o The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World
Heritage Committee, composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the General Assembly.
o Each World Heritage Site remains part of the legal territory of the state wherein the site is located and
UNESCO considers it in the interest of the international community to preserve each site.
o The List of recorded sites on the World Heritage now stands at 981 which include both cultural and natural
wonders.
o Italy is home to the greatest number of World Heritage Sites with 50 sites.
o India has three natural Heritage site: 1. Western Ghats, 2. Sundarbans National Park, 3. ManasWildlife
Sanctuary.

Concepts: Points to focus


Western Ghats: 56,825 sq km notified as Ecologically
Sensitive
The government has notified nearly 56,825 square km area
in the Western Ghats region as ecologically sensitive area
(ESA) where all kinds of mining activities, large
constructions, thermal power plants and highly polluting
industries would no longer be allowed. The 56,825 square
km of land is spread over six states of Gujarat,
Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
What is the basis for declaring the Western Ghats as ESZs
by the government?
o The MoEF notification is based on findings of a High-
Level Working Group known as the Kasturirangan
committee.
o The government-appointed committee had said that
the natural landscape of the Ghats constitutes only
41 per cent/ 90 percent or 60,000 square kilometres
were identified as ecologically sensitive.
o The committee suggested phasing out current mining projects within five years, or when mining leases were
about to expire. It recommended that infrastructure and development projects be subject to environmental
clearance, and that villages in ESA be involved in decision making regarding future projects.

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o Way ahead: The states have 60 days to voice concerns over the draft notification. If no changes need to be
made, the notification will become final.
Endemic Species of Western Ghats
Four species are endemic to Western Ghats.
1. Malabar Large-spotted Civet
2. Lion-tailed Macaque
3. Brown Palm Civet
4. NilgiriTahr

Practice Questions:
35. Consider the following statements
1. The Narmada valley marks the northern limit of Western Ghats.
2. Palani hills, Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills converge at Doda Betta.
3. Mahendra Giri is highest peak in Eastern Ghats.
Which among the following are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) All the above

36. The trees found in the western side of Western Ghats and in the Northeast region generally dont shed their leaves
i.e. they are evergreen.
What are the possible reasons?
1) These regions do not have prolonged dry season.
2) These regions dont have severe winters.
3) These regions have the humidity level beyond 75% almost throughout the year.
Choose the correct reason/s from the codes below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 only
(d) All the above

37. Which among the following is the highest peak in the peninsular plateau?
(a) Annapurna peak
(b) Dodda Beta
(c) Anaimudi peak
(d) K2 (Godwin Austen)

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38. Which among the following are the important gaps in the Western Ghats?
(a) Palghat
(b) Borghat
(c) Thalghat
(d) All the above

12. Coral Reefs


Why is this topic important for the exam?
Coral reefs are important for many different reasons aside from supposedly containing the most diverse
ecosystems on the planet.
They protect coastlines from the damaging effects of wave action and tropical storms and provide habitats and
shelter for many marine organisms. They are called the rain forests of oceans.

Previous Years Questions


Q. Which of the following have coral reefs?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kutch
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine
productivity by bringing the: (Pre:2011)
1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. nutrients to the surface.
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to- the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

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Q. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? (Pre:2012)
1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

What is the current context?


Warm seas around Australias Great Barrier Reef have killed two-thirds of a 700-km (435 miles)stretch of coral in
the past nine months, the worst die-off ever recorded on the World Heritage site.

Core: points to focus


What are coral reefs?
o Coral reefs begin to form when free-swimming coral larvae attach to submerged rocks or other hard surfaces
along the edges of islands or continents.
o They are the most biologically diverse ecosystems of the planet.
o Over centuries, shells (mostly made up of Calcium Carbonate) of these corals combine to form the exotic
shapes of coral reefs.
o Warm tropical oceans with minimum temperature of 20 degree.
o They are primarily located between 30 degree north and 25 degree south latitudes where water temperature
favours the growth of coral organisms.
Conditions for corals reefs to exist
o Reef-building corals are restricted in their geographic distribution. There are certain special conditions which
are necessary prerequisites for the growth and development of corals.
o That is why the reef building corals and their associates are not uniformly deposited throughout the tropical
warm ocean waters. For the growth of corals in such large numbers, as is necessary to give rise to coral
deposits, there must be a reasonable balance of favourable conditions.
The most important of these conditions are the following:
o Coral reefs are huge deposits made up dead shells and secretions of marine organisms like Corals, Calcarious
algae, Mollusca etc. The deposits are mostly made up of Calcium Carbonate.

Conditions required for their growth:


o Warm tropical oceans located between 30 degree north and 25 degree south latitudes where a minimum
temperature of 20 degree is found and this temperature favour the growth of coral organisms.
o Oceanic water free of sedimentation.

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o Transparent parts of ocean bodies.


o Relatively low salinity ocean bodies.
Coral Reef Formation:
o Coral reefs begin to form when free-swimming coral larvae attach to submerged
rocks or other hard surfaces along the edges of islands or continents. As the corals
grow and expand, reefs take on one of three major characteristic structures
fringing, barrier or atoll.
o Fringing reefs: They are the most common, project seaward directly from the shore,
forming borders along the shoreline and surrounding islands.
o Barrier reefs: Grow at border shorelines, but at a greater distance. They are separated
from their adjacent land mass by a lagoon of open, often deep water.
o Atoll: If a fringing reef forms around a volcanic island that subsides completely below
sea level while the coral continues to grow upward, an atoll forms. Atolls are usually
circular or oval, with a central lagoon.
Distribution of Coral Reef in India:
o The Gulf of Kutch - The coral formations of the Gulf of Kutch represent one of the
extreme northern limits of corals in the Indian Ocean
o The West Coast of India
o The Lakshadweep Islands
o The Gulf of Mannar
o Palk Bay
o Andaman and Nicobar Group of Islands
Threats to Coral Reefs:
o Coral reefs have survived tens of thousands of years of natural change, but many of them may not be able to
survive the havoc wrought by humankind.
o Roughly one-quarter of coral reefs worldwide are already considered damaged beyond repair, with another
two-thirds under serious threat.
o Major threats to coral reefs and their habitats include : Destructive fishing practices, Overfishing, Careless
tourism, Pollution, Sedimentation, Coral mining, Climate change
Likely impacts of climate change to coral reefs:
Coral Bleaching:
o Corals are extremely sensitive to temperature changes. Increased water temperatures, which may be linked to
global warming, can cause mass coral bleaching.
o Bleaching occurs when coral polyps, stressed by heat or ultraviolet radiation, expel the symbiotic algae that
live within coral tissues. When the algae are expelled, the coral appears white or bleached. These algae
provide corals with most of their food and oxygen.
o Corals can recover after short periods of bleaching, but as the length and severity of the stress increase so
does coral mortality. Coral bleaching events and subsequent reef mortality are expected to become more
frequent as sea temperature increases. Other causes of Coral bleaching are:
a. oxygen starvation caused by an increase in zooplankton levels as a result of overfishing
b. increased sedimentation

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c. pollution from urban or agricultural run-off


d. sedimentation from undersea activities like dredging
e. disease
Conventions, Programmes And Agreement for conservation of Coral Reefs
o Global Programme of Action for the Protection of the Marine Environment from Land-based Activities (GPA)
- The GPA is implementing Sewage Action Plans (SAP) in many tropical countries with coral reefs, as well as a
project on the Physical Alteration and Destruction of Habitats (PADH).
o Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) - The Jakarta Mandate on Marine and Coastal Biological Diversity of
the CBD was adopted in 1995. Through its programme of work, adopted in 1998, the convention focuses on
integrated marine and coastal area management, the sustainable use of living resources, protected areas,
mariculture and alien species. Coral bleaching is an element of the programme, and a work plan on the
physical degradation and destruction of coral reefs is in progress.
o Ramsar Convention on Wetlands - 35 Ramsar sites in the world have significant coral reefs.
o Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) - All species of
stony corals, black corals, blue corals, organ pipe corals, fire corals, lace corals, giant clams, sea horses as well
as the queen conch are listed in Appendix II of CITES as species not necessarily threatened with extinction,
but for which trade must be controlled in order to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.
International trade in these organisms requires an export permit issued by the country of export, proving the
specimen has been legally obtained and that the export is not detrimental to the survival of the species. The
Animals Committee has initiated a review of the artificial propagation and rearing of corals for international
trade.
o World Heritage Convention - About 20 of the World Heritage sites contain coral reefs
o The Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) 22 MAB reserves include coral reefs, two of which are also
World Heritage Sites
o International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) - The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI), a partnership among
nations and organizations , was established in order to stop and reverse the global degradation of coral reefs
and related ecosystems.
o International Coral Reef Action Network (ICRAN) - ICRAN, one of the operational networks of ICRI, is a global
partnership between Intergovernmental Organisation (IGOs), NGOs, research and conservation
organizations, working for the sustainable development of coral reef areas through management action and
information sharing. ICRAN is at site level implemented by UNEP Regional Seas Programmes, while activities
by the Global Partners focus on information and assessment.
o The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) - Under UNCLOS, States are under a duty to
adopt and enforce laws and regulations to prevent, reduce and control marine pollution.
o The International Convention for the Prevention of Marine Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) - MARPOL is the
main international convention covering prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from
operational or accidental causes. It is a combination of two treaties adopted in 1973 and 1978 respectively
and updated by amendments through the years.

Concepts: Points to focus


What happened at Great Barrier Reef?
o A mass bleaching event on the Great Barrier Reef this year killed more corals than ever before, sounding the
alarm over the delicate ecosystem.

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o This is the worst die-off ever recorded in Great Barrier Reef and also the largest ever recorded anywhere,
called the third global bleaching event the first occurred in 1998.
o It is estimated that nearly two-thirds of 2,300-kilometre long reef or 700 km stretch of coral in the Great
Barrier Reefs northern part have died in the past nine months.
o The Great Barrier Reef is a site of remarkable variety and beauty on the north-east coast of Australia. It
contains the worlds largest collection of coral reefs, with 400 types of coral, 1,500 species of fish and 4,000
types of mollusc. It also holds great scientific interest as the habitat of species such as the dugong (sea cow)
and the large green turtle, which are threatened with extinction.
What are the reasons for the mass coral bleaching in Great Barrier Reef?
o Warmer sea temperatures
o El-Nino
o Burning of fossil fuels
o Unregulated coal mining in Australia
o Study noted that climate change had added 1.0 degree Celsius of warming to ocean temperatures.

Practice Questions
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Corals are considered as the tropical rain forests of oceans.
2. Coral reefs are fragile ecosystem which are susceptible to climate change.
Which of the above is/are correct regarding coral reefs?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

40. Consider the following statements regarding Great Barrier Reef:


1. The reef is located in the Coral Sea.
2. It is located off the coast of New South Wales in Australia.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) None of the above

41. Corals reefs are generally absent on the western coasts of continents. This is because
(a) western coast of continents witnesses subsidence of air.
(b) western coast of continents have cold currents.
(c) western coast of continents have dry winds blowing over them.

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(d) none of the above

42. Identify the factors that contribute to the coral bleaching:


(a) pathogen infections
(b) change in salinity level
(c) increased sedimentation
(d) all the above

13. WET LANDS


Why is this topic important for the exam?
Wetlands also help reduce the impacts from storm damage and flooding, maintain good water quality in rivers,
recharge groundwater, store carbon, help stabilise climatic conditions and control pests. They are also important
sites for biodiversity.

Previous Years Questions


Q. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements : (Pre: 2012)
1. The countrys total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to
other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands larger than that of wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Wetland locations
Wetlands Confluence of rivers
1. Harike wetland Beas and Satluj
2. Keolado Ganga National Park Banas and Chambal
3. Kolleru Lake Musi and Krishna
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the Montreux Record, what does it imply?
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of
human interference.
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo
meters from the edge of the wetland
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its
vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
(d) It is given the status of World Heritage Site

Q. With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for
better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

What is the current context?


National Green Tribunal (NGT) has directed the Rajasthan government to cancel allotments of salt pans in the
Sambhar Salt Lake that fall within the wetland and also directed the State government not to make any further
allotments or permit new salt pans within the wetland areas or in the no construction zone identified for the said
purpose in accordance with the Wetland Rules, 2010.

Core: Points to focus


What are Wet Lands?
o Wetlands are transition zones between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. E.g. Mangroves, lake littorals
(marginal areas between highest and lowest water level of the lakes), floodplains (areas lying adjacent to the
river channels beyond the natural levees and periodically flooded during high discharge in the river) and
other marshy or swampy areas.
o The Ramsar Convention uses a broad definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes and rivers, underground
aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands, peat-land, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves
and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and
salt pans.
o These habitats experience periodic flooding from adjacent deep water habitats and therefore support plants
and animals specifically adapted to such shallow flooding or water logging.
o Waterlogged soil adapted plant life (hydrophytes) and hydric soils (not enough O2) are the chief
characteristics of wetlands.

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o Among the most productive life support, wetlands have immense socio-economic and ecological importance
for mankind. They are crucial to the survival of natural biodiversity. They provide suitable habitats for
endangered and rare species of birds and animals, endemic plants, insects besides sustaining migratory birds.
Importance of Wetlands
o Wetlands are indispensable for the countless benefits or ecosystem services that they provide humanity,
ranging from freshwater supply, food and building materials, and biodiversity, to flood control, groundwater
recharge, and climate change mitigation.
o Wetlands are habitat to aquatic flora and fauna, numerous species of native and migratory birds.
o Wetlands are an important resource for sustainable tourism.
o They carry out water purification, filtration of sediments and nutrients from surface water.
o They help in nutrients recycling, ground water recharging and stabilization of local climate.
o Play an important role in flood mitigation by controlling rate of runoff.
o Buffer shorelines against erosion and pollutants.
o They act as genetic reservoir for various species of plants (especially rice).
Reasons for depletion
o Excessive pollutants (Industrial effluents, domestic waste, agricultural runoff etc.) are dumped into wetlands
beyond the recycling capacity.
o Habitat destruction and deforestation creates ecological imbalance by altering the population of wetland
species.
o Conversion of wetlands for agriculture and encroachment by public and mafia.
o Over fishing and fish farming (Aqua culture).
o Overgrazing in marshy soils.
o Removal of sand from beds near seas makes the wetland vulnerable to wave action and tidal bore.
Organisations and conventions for protection of Wetlands
1. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
o The Convention on Wetlands, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971, is an intergovernmental treaty which provides
the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of
wetlands and their resources.
o Ramsar Convention is the only global environment treaty dealing with a particular ecosystem.
o The Convention uses a broad definition of the types of wetlands covered in its mission, including lakes and
rivers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands and peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, near-shore
marine areas, mangroves and coral reefs, and human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs,
and salt pans.
o At the centre of the Ramsar philosophy is the wise use of wetlands. - Wise use: maintenance of ecological
character within the context of sustainable development.
o At the time of joining the Convention, each Contracting Party undertakes to designate at least one wetland
site for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance.
o The inclusion of a Ramsar Site in the List embodies the governments commitment to take the steps
necessary to ensure that its ecological character is maintained.
o The country with the highest number of Sites is the United Kingdom with 170

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o The country with the greatest area of listed wetlands is Bolivia.


Criteria for Identification of Wetlands under Ramsar Convention

o If it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type.

o If it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species; or threatened ecological communities.

o If it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of
a particular biogeographic region.

o If it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during
adverse conditions.

o If it regularly supports 20,000 or more water birds.

o If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of water birds.

o If it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies

o If it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path.

o If it is an important source of food and water resource, increased possibilities for recreation and eco-tourism,
etc.

The Montreux Record-

o The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of international importance where
changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological
developments, pollution or other human interference and therefore in need of priority conservation
attention.

o It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

Montreux Record Sites in India

o Loktak Lake (Manipur): Due to deforestation in the catchment area, infestation of water hyacinth and
pollution. The construction of a hydroelectric power plant has caused the local extinction of several native
fish species.

o Keoladeo National Park: Water shortage and unbalanced grazing regime around it. The invasive growth of the
grass and reducing its suitability for certain water-bird species, notably the Siberian Crane.

International Organization Partners-

The Ramsar Convention works closely with six other organizations known as International Organization Partners
(IOPs). These are:

1. Birdlife International

2. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)

3. International Water Management Institute (IWMI)

4. Wetlands International -

5. WWF

6. International Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT)

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Wetlands in India

S.No Wetland State


1 Ashtamudi Wetland Kerala
2 Bhitarkanika Mangroves Orissa
3 Bhoj Wetland Madhya Pradesh
4 Chandra Taal Himachal Pradesh
5 Chilika Lake Orissa
6 Deepor Beel Assam
7 East Calcutta Wetlands West Bengal
8 Harike Wetland Punjab
9 Hokera Wetland Jammu and Kashmir
10 Kanjli Wetland Punjab
11 Keoladeo National Park Rajasthan
12 Kolleru Lake Andhra Pradesh
13 Loktak Lake Manipur
Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary
14 Gujarat
[Declared as Ramsar site in 2012. Most recent Ramsar Site in India]
15 Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary Tamil Nadu
16 Pong Dam Lake Himachal Pradesh
17 Renuka Lake Himachal Pradesh
18 Ropar Wetland Punjab
19 Rudrasagar Lake Tripura
20 Sambhar Lake Rajasthan
21 Sasthamkotta Lake Kerala
22 Surinsar-Mansar Lakes Jammu and Kashmir
23 Tsomoriri Jammu and Kashmir
24 Upper Ganga River (Brijghat to Narora Stretch) Uttar Pradesh
25 Vembanad-Kol Wetland Kerala
26 Wular Lake Jammu and Kashmir

Policies in India
o National Wetland Policy : National wetland strategy encompass
a. Conservation and collaborative management,
b. Prevention of loss and promotion of restoration and
c. Sustainable management.
o These include protection of the existing wetlands. Of the many wetlands in India, only around 68 wetlands
are protected. But there are thousands of other wetlands that are biologically and economically important
but have no legal status.
o Planning, Managing and Monitoring of Wetlands comes under the Protected Area Network have
management plans but others do not.
o It is important for various stakeholders along with the local community and the corporate sector to come
together for an effective management plan. Active monitoring of these wetland systems over a period of
time is essential.
o Although several laws protect wetlands there is no special legislation pertaining specially to these
ecosystems.

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o Environment Impact Assessment is needed for major development projects and highlighting threats to
wetlands need must be included and appropriate measures to be formulated.
o Coordinated Approach is required because Wetlands are common property with multi-purpose utility; their
protection and management also need to be a common responsibility.
o An appropriate forum for resolving the conflict on wetland issues has to be set up.
o It is important for all the relevant ministries to allocate sufficient funds towards the conservation of these
ecosystems.
o There is a necessity for research in the formulation of a national strategy to understand the dynamics of
these ecosystems.
o This could be useful for the planners to formulate strategies for the mitigation of pollution. The scientific
knowledge will help the planners in understanding the economic values and benefits, which in turn will help
in setting priorities and focusing the planning process.
o Building Awareness is needed. Awareness among the general public, educational and corporate institutions
must be created for achieving any sustainable success in the protection of these wetlands. The policy makers
at various levels, along with site managers, need to be educated.
o The bi-lateral cooperation in the resource management needs to be enhanced if country's wetlands are
shared.

NATIONAL WETLAND CONSERVATION PROGRAMME (NWCP):


o The Government operationalized National Wetland Conservation Programme (NWCP) in closed collaboration
with concerned State Government during the year 1986.
o The aim of this scheme is Conservation and wise use of wetlands in the country so as to prevent their further
degradation.
o The scheme was initiated to lay down policy guidelines for conservation and management of wetlands in the
country; to undertake intensive conservation measures in priority wetlands; to monitor implementation of the
programme and to prepare an inventory of Indian wetlands.

Concepts: Points to focus


Cancellation of illegal salt pans at sambhar lake. What is the issue?
o Salt manufacturers are digging unauthorized bore wells around the lake and exploiting the groundwater.
Over exploitation of water resources had lowered the groundwater level by almost 60 meters in the area.
o Commercial and other activities detrimental to the eco-system of the wetland were being carried out
contrary to the provisions of the Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules framed under the
Environment Protection Acts of 1986 and 2010.

Sambhar Lake
o The Sambhar Salt Lake, Indias largest inland salt lake a bowl shape lake encircles historical sambhar lake
town of Rajasthan.
o It is India's largest saline lake and is the source of most of Rajasthan's salt production. It produces 196,000
tonnes of clean salt every year, which equates to around 9% of India's salt production.
o Salt is produced by evaporation process of brine and is mostly managed by Sambhar Salts Ltd. (SSL), a joint
venture of the Hindustan Salts Ltd. and the state government.

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o Sambhar has been designated as a Ramsar site (recognized wetland of international importance) because the
wetland is a key wintering area for tens of thousands of Flamingoes and other birds that migrate from
northern Asia
o The specialized algae and bacteria growing in the lake provide striking water colours and support the lake
ecology that, in turn, sustains the migrating waterfowl.
Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules:
o The rules are applicable to three types of wetlands:
a. Wetlands of international importance under Ramsar Convention.
b. Wetlands notified by central govt based in Union Territories.
c. Wetlands notified by State govts located in their respective states.
o The wetland rules 2016 follow the wise use philosophy of the Ramsar Convention and accord emphasis on
maintaining ecological character and integrity of wetlands in their conservation and use. Accordingly, the
following activities have been prohibited in wetlands:
a. 12 activities including fishing, boating, dredging, etc. are restricted without prior permission from the
state government.
b. Activities prohibited in wetlands include reclamation, constructing permanent structures within 50 m,
setting up or expanding industries, throwing waste, etc.
c. An Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is compulsory before undertaking any activity in a wetland
area.

Practice Questions
43. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the Montreux Record, what does it imply?
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of
human interference.
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo
meters from the edge of the wetland.
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its
vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
(d) It is given the status of World Heritage Site

44. With reference to conservation organization called Wetlands International, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for
better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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45. What is a wetland complex?


(a) Set of wetlands dependent on each other
(b) A wetland with variety of vegetation and water types
(c) Wetlands which form a boundary of a large water body
(d) All of the above

46. The Draft Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2016 are applicable to which of the following sites?
1) Wetlands under Ramsar Convention.
2) Wetlands notified by State Governments located in respective states.
3) Wetlands notified by Central Government located in union territories.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All the above

47. Which of following statements is correct about the wetland in India?


(a) Tso Moriri and Chandartal are glaciated wetlands
(b) Chilka in Odisha is an example of lagoon wetland.
(c) Loktak lake is oxbow wetland it is in Manipur
(d) All of the above

14. Mangroves
Why is this topic important for the exam?
Mangrove forests are home to a large variety of fish, crab, shrimp, and mollusc species. These fisheries form an
essential source of food for thousands of coastal communities around the world.

Previous year question


Q. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
(Pre:2013)
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

What is the current context?


Climate Change and El Nio have caused the worst mangrove die-off in recorded history, stretching along 700 km
of Australias Gulf of Carpentaria

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Core: Points to focus


Mangroves
o Mangroves are salt-tolerant plants, also called halophytes, that are adapted to harsh costal conditions of
tropical and subtropical intertidal regions of the world receiving rainfall between 1,000 to 3,000 mm and
temperature ranging between 26-35 C.
o Since mangroves are located between the land and sea they represent the best example of ecotone.
Importance of Mangroves
o Act as a Buffer Zone between the land and sea.
o Protect the land from erosion.
o Play an invaluable role as nature's shield against cyclones, ecological disasters and as protector of shorelines.
o Breeding and nursery grounds for a variety of marine animals.
o Harbour a variety of life forms like invertebrates, fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and even mammals like
tigers.
o Good source of timber, fuel and fodder.
o Main source of income generation for shoreline communities like fisher folk.
o Save the marine diversity, this is fast diminishing.
o Purify the water by absorbing impurities and harmful heavy metals and help us to breathe a clean air by
absorbing pollutants in the air.
o Potential source for recreation and tourism.
Threats to Mangrove Ecosystem
o Anthropological pressures and natural calamities are the enemies of the ecosystem. Growing industrial areas
along the coastlines and discharge of domestic and industrial sewage are polluting these areas.
o Clearing : Mangrove forests have often been seen as unproductive and smelly, and so cleared to make room
for agricultural land, human settlements and infrastructure (such as harbours), and industrial areas. More
recently, clearing for tourist developments, shrimp aquaculture, and salt farms has also taken place. This
clearing is a major factor behind mangrove loss around the word.
o Overharvesting : Mangrove trees are used for firewood, construction wood, wood chip and pulp production,
charcoal production, and animal fodder. While harvesting has taken place for centuries, in some parts of the
world it is no longer sustainable, threatening the future of the forests.
o River changes : Dams and irrigation reduce the amount of water reaching mangrove forests, changing the
salinity level of water in the forest. If salinity becomes too high, the mangroves cannot survive. Freshwater
diversions can also lead to mangroves drying out. In addition, increased erosion due to land deforestation
can massively increase the amount of sediment in rivers. This can overcome the mangrove forests filtering
ability, leading to the forest being smothered.
o Overfishing: The global overfishing crisis facing the worlds oceans has effects far beyond the directly
overfished population. The ecological balance of food chains and mangrove fish communities can also be
altered.
o Destruction of coral reefs : Coral reefs provide the first barrier against currents and strong waves. When they
are destroyed, the stronger-than-normal waves and currents reaching the coast can undermine the fine
sediment in which the mangroves grow. This can prevent seedlings from taking root and wash away nutrients
essential for mangrove ecosystems.

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o Pollution : Fertilizers, pesticides, and other toxic man-made chemicals carried by river systems from sources
upstream can kill animals living in mangrove forests, while oil pollution can smother mangrove roots and
suffocate the trees.
o Climate change : Mangrove forests require stable sea levels for long-term survival. They are therefore
extremely sensitive to current rising sea levels caused by global warming and climate change.
Mangroves distribution in the world
o About one third of the worlds mangroves are found in Asia (39%), followed by Africa (21%) and North and
Central America (15%).
Distribution of Mangroves in India
o The mangroves of Sundarbans are the largest single block
of tidal halophytic mangroves of the world.
o This mangrove forest is famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger
and crocodiles. Mangrove areas here are being cleared for
agricultural use.
o The mangroves of Bhitarkanika (Orissa), which is the
second largest in the Indian sub-continent, harbour high
concentration of typical mangrove species and high
genetic diversity.
o Mangrove swamps occur in profusion in the intertidal
mudflats on both side of the creeks in the Godavari-
Krishna deltaic regions of Andhra Pradesh.
o Mangroves of Pichavaram and Vedaranyam are degraded
mainly due to construction of aquaculture ponds and salt
pans.
o On the west coast of India, mangroves, mostly scrubby
and degraded occur along the intertidal region of
estuaries and creeks in Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.
o The mangrove vegetation in the coastal zone of Kerala is very sparse and thin.
o In Gujarat (north-west coast) mangroves are found mainly in Gulf of Kachchh and the Kori creek.
o In size, mangroves range from bushy stands of dwarf mangroves found in Gulf of Kuchchh, to taller stands
found in the Sunderbans.
o On the Andaman & Nicobar Islands, the small tidal estuaries, neritic inlets and the lagoons support a dense
and diverse undisturbed mangrove flora.
International Conventions and treaties for the Protection of Mangroves
a) The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance The most Extensive treaty for the protection of
Mangroves;
b) The Convention for the Protection of World Cultural and Natural Heritage;
c) The Convention on the Conservation of Biological Diversity;
d) The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals; and,
e) The World Heritage Convention.

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Conservation of Mangroves in India


o India has a long tradition of mangrove forest management. The Sundarbans mangroves, located in the Bay of
Bengal (partly in India and partly in Bangladesh), were the first mangroves in the world to be put under
scientific management.
o The concern of the Government of India for the conservation of forests and wildlife also reflected in the
amendment of 1976 to the constitution by adding the fundamental duties which states that it shall be the
duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers
and wildlife.
o Recognizing the importance of mangroves, the Government of India set up the National Mangrove
Committee in the Ministry of Environment and Forests in 1976 to advise the government about mangrove
conservation and development.
o The government subsequently introduced a scheme for mangrove conservation and protection, consisting of:
a. identification of selected mangrove areas for conservation;
b. preparation of a management plan;
c. promotion of research;
d. adoption of a multidisciplinary approach involving state governments, universities, research institutions
and local organizations.
o In 1979, the National Mangrove Committee recommended areas for research and development and for
management of the mangroves, which included the following:
a. nationwide mapping of the mangrove areas, preferably by remote sensing techniques coupled with land
surveys, and time series to assess the rate of degradation of the ecosystems;
b. quantitative surveys of area, climatic regime, rate of growth of forest trees and seasonal variations of
environmental parameters;
c. assessment of suitable sites for reserve forests;
d. conservation programmes;
e. afforestation of degraded mangrove areas;
f. study of management methods, the ecology of mangroves, their flora and fauna, their microbiology and
the biochemistry of organic matter and sediments.
o On the basis of the National Mangrove Committee's recommendation, 15 mangrove areas were identified for
conservation.
o The Government of India has provided guidance and financial assistance to states and Union territories for
the preparation and implementation of Management Action Plans for the conservation and development of
these mangrove ecosystems.
o Most of these plans are now being implemented. The plans broadly cover survey and demarcation, natural
regeneration in selected areas, afforestation, protection measures, fencing and awareness programmes.
o The government also supports research by academic institutions for development of mangrove ecosystems
on a sound ecological basis. The National Forest Policy, 1988 lists effective conservation and management of
natural forest ecosystems (including the mangrove ecosystem) as a priority area for forestry research.
In India, a legislative framework for the conservation and management of mangroves is already in place.
o The Indian Forest Act, 1927 and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provide protection to flora and fauna.
Although they do not specifically mention mangroves, these acts can also apply to the conservation of the

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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY

flora and fauna of mangrove ecosystems. Since 1927, the Indian Forest Act has been applied to the
mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, which have been declared as a reserved area.
o The Forest Conservation Act, 1980 states that no forest area shall be diverted for any non-forestry purpose
without prior approval of the Government of India. This act has proved very effective in preventing diversion
of mangrove forest areas for non-forestry purposes.
o The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has had a crucial role in the conservation and management of
mangrove ecosystems. - It declares a Coastal Regulation Zone in which industrial and other activities such as
discharge of untreated water and effluents, dumping of waste, land reclamation and bunding are restricted in
order to protect the coastal environment. Coastal stretches are classified into four categories, and mangroves
are included in the most ecologically sensitive category.

Concepts: Points to focus


Dieback of Australian mangroves
o According to the scientists, thousands of hectares of mangroves in Australias remote north have died, with
climate change being the likely cause. Some 9% of the mangroves in the Gulf of Carpentaria, perished in just
one month according to researchers from Australias James Cook University. It is the first time such an event
has been recorded
o Mangroves and coastal wetlands take in 50 times more carbon than tropical forests by area. Australia is home
to 7% of the world's mangroves.
o The so-called dieback where mangroves are either dead or defoliated (widespread loss of leaves) was
confirmed by aerial and satellite surveys and was likely to have been the result of an extended and severe
drought period that Australia has faced.
o Researchers believe the event took place in the semi-arid region in late November or early December last
year. Factors that stressed the plants beyond their level of tolerance include:
a. Hotter water and environment temperatures during last summer
b. Lack of rainfall
c. Lack of a wet season
d. Lack of fresh water
o The extent of the damage came to light during an international wetland conference in Darwin. Many
conference delegates have called for mangrove monitoring efforts to be scaled-up as a matter of priority, so
scientists could establish baseline conditions of national shorelines, and quickly isolate and manage dieback
events such as those seen in the gulf.

Practice Questions
48. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Mangroves?
1. Mangroves can survive in high temperature area.
2. Mangroves can be found in Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Which of the following is/are correct?


1. Mangroves are self-propagating plants and if it is undisturbed can grow quite easily in conducive soils and
locations
2. These are plants that grow in the intertidal zone along the coastline of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

50. Which of the following are incorrect ?


1. Mangroves are salt tolerant forest ecosystems found mainly in the tropical and subtropical regions of the world.
2. Mangrove plants can survive high salinity, tidal extremes, strong wind velocity, high temperature and Muddy
aerobic soil.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above.

51. Consider the following statements:


1. Mangroves in India account for about 5% of worlds mangroves.
2. West Bengal has maximum of mangrove cover followed by Gujarat.
3. The National Mangrove genetic research centre is in Orissa.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

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THEME FIVE| WASTE MANAGEMENT

THEME 5

WASTE MANAGEMENT

15. WASTE MANAGEMENT


Why is this topic important for the exam?
One of the major problems being faced by cities and towns relate to management of solid waste (MSW).
Efficient waste management rules (include e-waste and bio-medical waste also along with solid waste) has got its
significance.
India is one of the largest waste generator.

What is the current context?


The government in the recent past has taken many measures and revised many rules for waste management.
Recently The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has ordered Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Delhi
Pollution Control Committee (DPCC) to inspect of plants which treat waste in the hospitals of the National Capital
Delhi and ensure proper segregation, collection and disposal of such waste.
India, which has emerged as world's second largest mobile market, is also the fifth largest producer of e-waste, a
study says. The telecom equipment alone accounts for 12 per cent of the e-waste.

Core and Concepts: Points to focus


Waste Management: Waste management refers to proper treatment of wastes like leftover edible products, plastic,
metals, household garbage, medical waste, etc. This in turn leads to clean, green and healthy environment.
Types Of Waste
In general, the wastes may be classified into the following categories:
1. Solid wastes These are the unwanted substances discarded by the human society. These include urban
wastes, industrial wastes, agricultural wastes, biomedical wastes and radioactive wastes.
2. Liquid wastes Wastes generated from washing, flushing or manufacturing processes of industries are called
liquid wastes.
3. Gaseous wastes These are the wastes that are released in the form of gases from automobiles, factories or
burning of fossil fuels, like petroleum, and get mixed in the atmosphere.

Solid Waste Management


o Scientific disposal of solid waste through segregation, collection and treatment and disposal in an
environmentally sound manner minimises the adverse impact on the environment. The local authorities are
responsible for the development of infrastructure for collection, storage, segregation, transportation,
processing and disposal of MSW.
o The magnitude of solid waste in India is on a rise because of rapid population growth, urbanization and
unchecked pollution. This has resulted in improper disposal of solid waste to improper waste management.
o Nature of solid wastes is wide and includes municipal wastes which are every day discarded items, e-wastes,
appliances, metal scraps, construction debris, etc. The solid waste contains both bio degradable and non-
biodegradable items.

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Problems faced due to poor Solid Waste Management


1. Health issues: Releases toxic gases on burning/after catching fire due to non-segregation.

2. Environmental issues: Releases of large proportion of hazardous gases like CO, methane as per CPCB report.

3. Ecological problems: Ground water Contamination due to waste in nearby areas.

o Some of main causes for such problems arising out of solid waste are : 1. improper segregation of waste in
country, 2. insufficient recycling of waste in country though about more than 30% waste is recyclable, 3.
improper recyclable technology and inefficient regulatory mechanism.
o Keeping in mind the alarming issues the cities are facing, the union government revised Solid waste
management rules 2016 in regard to its Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.
o Indias Environment Ministry has notified rules targeting the wide range of groups like hotels, residential
colonies, bulk producers of consumer goods, ports, railway stations, airports and pilgrimage spots. This is to
ensure that the solid waste generated in their facilities are treated and recycled.
The Solid Waste Management, 2016 Rules' provide for:
o Mandatory Segregation- All waste generators will have to segregate and store the waste generated by them
under three separate categories - bio-degradable, non bio-degradable and domestic hazardous waste - in
suitable bins before handing it over to authorised rag pickers or waste collectors.
o Concept of Extended Producer Responsibility: Local bodies can charge a fee from generator of wastes. The
new rules have asked all such brand owners who sell products in non-biodegradable packaging material to
put in place a system to collect back the packaging waste generated due to their production (ET).
o Burning of Solid Waste has been prohibited
o Social Dimension has been adequately considered. Rag pickers are to be integrated in the formal system.
o Increasing Coverage: The new rules will now apply much beyond the municipal areas, extending to urban
agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways,
airports, airbase, port and harbour, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central State
and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance. Event organizers,
and new townships and group housing societies have been brought under the system. This would bring 450
million people under its ambit against 150 million previously.
o Waste-processing facilities will have to be set up within two years by all local bodies having a population of 1
million or more.
Thus social, environmental, aesthetic aims will be served by the rules. EPR would decrease the burden of
municipalities.
NGT bans open waste burning across the country with the following directions:
o Complete prohibition on open burning of waste on lands, including at landfill sites.
o For each such incident, violators will pay environmental compensation of Rs. 5,000 in case of simple burning
and Rs. 25,000 in case of bulk waste burning.
o States and UTs to enforce and implement Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in a time-bound manner.
o Union Environment Ministry and all States must pass appropriate directions in relation to the ban on short-
life Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) and chlorinated plastics within a period of six months.
o Establishment and operationalisation of plants for processing and disposal of the waste and selection and
specifications of landfill sites non-biodegradable waste and non-recyclable plastic should be segregated from
the landfill sites. It must be used for construction of roads and embankments in all road projects all over
country.

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THEME FIVE| WASTE MANAGEMENT

Japanese researchers have successfully isolated a bacterium species Ideonellasakaiensis 201-F6 capable of breaking
down plastic polyethylene terephthalate (PET) or polyester. How?
1. Ideonellasakaiensis relies on PET film as a primary source of carbon for growth. It is capable of completely
degrading a thin film of PET in a short span of six weeks at 30C.
2. The bacterium species uses two enzymes in sequence to break down the highly biodegradable-resistant
polymer PET. First enzyme helps the bacterium to adhere to the PET and produce an intermediate substance
through process of hydrolysis. The second enzyme then works with water and acts on this intermediate
substance. It produces the 2 monomers ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid that are used for making PET
through polymerisation.
3. The bacteria could potentially be used in industrial recycling processes without having any adverse impact on
the environment.

Bio-Medical Waste Management:


o Biomedical waste comprises human & animal anatomical waste, treatment apparatus like needles, syringes
and other materials used in health care facilities in the process of treatment and research.

Why proper disposal of Bio-Medical Waste is important?


o Scientific disposal of biomedical waste through segregation, collection and treatment in an environmentally
sound manner minimises the adverse impact on health workers and on the environment.
o The quantum of waste generated in India is estimated to be 1-2 kg per bed per day in a hospital.
o 85% of the hospital waste is non-hazardous, 15% is infectious/hazardous.
o Mixing of hazardous results in to contamination and makes the entire waste hazardous.
o Improper disposal increases risk of infection.

Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016


1. Bio-medical waste has been classified in to 4 categories instead 10 to improve the segregation of waste at source
and these 4 categories have colour-code.
a. Red Bin for plastic waste such as bottles, syringes, etc.
b. Yellow Bin for infectious wastes such as cotton, bandage, placenta, etc.
c. Blue Bin for glass bottles like discarded medicines
d. Black Bin for needles without syringes, metal articles, etc.
2. Phase-out the use of chlorinated plastic bags, gloves and blood bags within two years.
3. The ambit of the rules has been expanded to include vaccination camps, blood donation camps, surgical camps or
any other healthcare activity.
4. Pre-treatment of the laboratory waste, microbiological waste, blood samples and blood bags through disinfection
or sterilisation on-site in the manner as prescribed by WHO or NACO.
5. State Government to provide land for setting up common bio-medical waste treatment and disposal facility.
6. No occupier shall establish on-site treatment and disposal facility, if a service of `common bio-medical waste
treatment facility is available at a distance of seventy-five kilometer.
7. The new rules prescribe more stringent standards for incinerator to reduce the emission of pollutants in
environment;

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8. Inclusion of emissions limits for Dioxin and furans;


9. Establish a Bar-Code System for bags or containers containing bio-medical waste for disposal.
10. Provide training to all its health care workers and immunise all health workers regularly.

E-Waste Management
o Electronic waste, or e-waste, is a term for electronic products that have become unwanted, non-working or
obsolete, and have essentially reached the end of their useful life. Used electronics which are destined for
reuse, resale salvage, recycling or disposal are also considered e-waste.
o Developed countries like USA, UK etc have a dedicated, stringent policy for managing this new-world
problem as more gadgets are consumed, more electronic equipment are thrown away and our environment
is hammered with the wastage of silicon chips, wires and conductors. E-waste in India is now generated 4
times faster than normal, solid waste.
o The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has introduced a strict and practical E-Waste
Management Rules, 2016, which will take over from the previous E-waste (Management & Handling) Rules,
2011 which wasnt enough to manage this massive problem of e-waste which has the potential to
permanently harm our environment.
E-Waste Management Rules, 2016
o For the first time in India, Manufacturer, Dealer, Refurbisher and Producer Responsibility Organization (PRO)
has been made responsible for managing the e-waste.
o E-waste rules will now include Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamps, as well
as other such equipment.
o The rules will bring the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), along with targets, i.e.
producers have been made responsible for collection of E-waste and for its exchange.
o State Governments has been also introduced to ensure safety, health and skill development of the workers
involved in dismantling and recycling operations.
o The process of dismantling and recycling has been simplified through one system of authorization and that
the Central Pollution Control Board will give the single authorization throughout the country.
o Emphasizing that toxic constituents present in E-waste and their disposal mechanism affect human health
and lead to various diseases, the transportation of E-waste has been made more stringent.
The Anthropocene concept:
o It is the new proposed epoch highlighting the impact humans have made to the planet.
o An epoch is an instant in time chosen as the origin of a particular era.
o Technosphere has enabled the production of enormous material objects, from simple tools to most
sophisticated computers and smart phones. Many of these, if arranged in strata and preserved into the
distant geological future as technofossils, will help in characterising and date the Anthropocene.
o The study suggests that if technofossils were to be classified as normal fossils based on their shape, form
and texture the number of individual types of technofossils now on the planet likely reaches a billion or
more thus outnumbering the numbers of biotic species now living.
What is Technosphere?
o The Technosphere is a major new phenomenon of this planet and is extraordinarily rapid.

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o It is comprised of all of the structures that humans have constructed to keep them alive on the planet (from
houses, factories and farms to computer systems, smart phones and CDs, to the waste in landfills and spoil
heaps).
o Humans and human organisations also form part of it, as the Technosphere is a system, with its own
dynamics and energy flows and humans have to help keep it going to survive.
o Technosphere is proposed by US scientist Peter Haff.
Fly Ash Utilisation Policy
What is Fly Ash?
o Fly ash is a by-product of burning pulverized coal especially in electric power generating plants. During
combustion, mineral impurities in the coal like clay, feldspar, quartz, and shale fuse in suspension and float
out of the combustion chamber with the exhaust gases. Ash that falls at the bottom of the boiler is called
bottom ash.
o Fly ash includes substantial amounts of oxides of silica, aluminium and calcium. Element like Arsenic, Boron,
Chromium, lead etc. are also found in trace concentrations and is hazardous to environment and health. The
Fly ash causes air pollution, contaminate water and soil systems.
Significance of Fly Ash
o All fly ashes exhibit cementitious properties to varying degrees depending on the chemical and physical
properties of both the fly ash and cement. Compared to cement and water, the chemical reaction between fly
ash and calcium hydroxide typically is slower resulting in delayed hardening of the concrete.
o Fly ash chemically reacts with the by-product calcium hydroxide released by the chemical reaction between
cement and water to form additional cementitious products that improve many desirable properties of
concrete.
Fly Ash Utilisation Policy states that:
o This fly ash will be used to make bricks, blocks, tiles, wall panels, cement and other construction materials. It
will save soil excavation and protect environment.
o Earlier, use of fly ash was allowed within 100 kms radius of power plant, now it has been extended to 300
kms, the official said.
o The policy will create new employment opportunities in the power plant areas and also make available raw
material for construction at low cost to help Housing for all projects.
o Recyclable Uses: Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
It can be used in the production of bricks for building construction. Central Government has made it
mandatory for use of fly ash bricks in construction activities happening 500km around thermal power plants.
o Maharashtra has become the first state to adopt Fly Ash Utilisation Policy, paving way for prosperity by
generating wealth from waste, and environment protection.
International conventions that deal with movement of Hazardous wastes
1. Basel Convention
o Formally known as The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes
and their Disposal
o Aims to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations and specifically to prevent transfer of
hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries.
The Convention is also intended to:
o Minimize the amount and toxicity of wastes generated,

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o To ensure their environmentally sound management as closely as possible to the source of generation,
o To assist Least Developed Countries (LDCs) in environmentally sound management of the hazardous and
other wastes they generate.
o It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
o Its objective was to stop dumping of hazardous waste from developed countries in developing nations.

2. Rotterdam Convention
o Formally called as Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous
Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade
o Aims to promote shared responsibilities in relation to import of hazardous chemicals.
What it does?
o The convention promotes open exchange of information between importers-exporters of hazardous
chemicals.
o Calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labelling, include directions on safe handling, and
inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans.
o Signatory nations can decide whether to allow or ban the importation of chemicals listed in the treaty.
o Exporting countries are obliged to make sure that producers within their jurisdiction comply.
o Convention has a list of substances which can change and evolve over time.

3. Stockholm Convention
o It is an International treaty and aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of Persistent Organic
Pollutants. India is a party to this treaty.
Why regulate POPs?
o POPs are chemical substances that: 1. Persist in the environment, 2. Bio-accumulate through the food web, 3.
Pose a risk of causing adverse effects to human health.
o The environment Intergovernmental Forum on Chemical Safety (IFCS) and the International Programme for
Chemical Safety (IPCS) prepared a list, known as the Dirty Dozen:
a. Eight organ chlorine pesticides: aldrin, chlordane, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, heptachlor, mirex and toxaphene;
b. Two industrial chemicals: hexachlorobenzene (HCB) and the polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) group;
c. Two groups of industrial by-products: dioxins and furans.
o POPs can be reviewed and added to the convention, if they meet certain criteria for persistence and
transboundary threat i.e. list of POPs can change and evolve over time.
o There is provision that developed countries provide new and additional financial resources and measures to
minimise/regulate POPs to developing nations.
Describing the effects of the highly controversial and cheap agro-chemical Endosulfan (a potent persistent organic
pollutant) as devastating, the Supreme Court directed the Kerala government to release the entire compensation
to over 5000 victims, mostly newborns and the families who were living in the adjoining habitats of cashew
plantations where endosulfan was aerially sprayed.
o Endosulfan is an organic chlorine pesticide and a colourless solid which emerged as a highly controversial
agrichemical due to its acute toxicity, endocrine effects, and potential for bio-accumulation.

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THEME FIVE| WASTE MANAGEMENT

o Endosulfan is used as an insecticide on a variety of crops, including many food crops such as teas, grains,
fruit, vegetables, and also on non-food crops such as tobacco and cotton. It is also used as wood
preservative.
o This chemical is classified among the worst of POPs (persistent organic pollutants).

Stockholm Convention and Endosulfan:


1. Stockholm Convention is first ever-concerted global effort to save mankind from the adverse impact of Persistent
Organic Pollutants (POP).
2. The chemicals targeted by the Stockholm Convention are listed in the annexes of the convention.
a. Annex A: Parties must take measures to eliminate the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex
A. Specific exemptions for use or production are listed in the Annex and apply only to Parties that register for
them.
b. Annex B : Parties must take measures to restrict the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex B
in light of any applicable acceptable purposes and/or specific exemptions listed in the Annex.
c. Annex C : Parties must take measures to reduce the unintentional releases of chemicals listed under Annex C
with the goal of continuing minimization and, where feasible, ultimate elimination.
3. Endosulfan is banned under the Stockholm Convention and is listed in the Annex A of the Convention due to its
acute toxicity and potential for bio-accumulation.
o In India it is produced by Hindustan Insecticides Limited. Currently, a global ban on the use and manufacture
of endosulfan is being considered under the Stockholm Convention and India is also the largest user of
endosulfan.
Minamata Convention on Mercury
o It is an international treaty that aims to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic
emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.
o The Convention is named after the Japanese city Minamata. This naming is of symbolic importance as the city
went through devastating incident of mercury poisoning.
o It is expected that over the next few decades, this international agreement will enhance the reduction of
mercury pollution from the targeted activities responsible for the major release of mercury to the immediate
environment.

Practice Questions
52. Which of the following are the features of newly notified E-Waste Management Rules, 2016 by the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change?
1. These rules for the first time will bring the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR).
2. For the first time, Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamp brought under the purview
of rules.
3. Provision for Pan India EPR Authorization by CPCB has been introduced replacing the state wise EPR authorization.
4. Micro and Small industry sector as defined in Micro Small and Medium Developmental Act, 2006 are completely
exempted with EPR Responsibility.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

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THEME FIVE| WASTE MANAGEMENT

(d) All of the above

53. Consider the following statements about Basel Convention:


1) It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations.
2) It specifically focuses on to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries
(LDCs).
3) It also addresses the movement of radioactive waste between different nations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

54. Consider the following regarding Fly Ash:


1. It is used as a fertilizer.
2. It can be used in soil stabilization.
3. It is used as a replacement for Portland cement in concrete.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Rau's IAS Study Circle

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THEME SIX| GEOGRAPHY RELATED TOPICS

THEME 6

GEOGRAPHY RELATED TOPICS

16. Floods, Cyclones and Monsoons


Why is this topic important for the exam?
Climatology portion of geography includes topics like weather, climate, temperature, humidity, pressure belts,
atmospheric circulation including cyclones and monsoons etc.
This is very important from UPSC point of view.

Previous Year Questions


Q. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino? (Pre: 2011)
1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is
characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the: (Pre: 2013)
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
3. violent upward movement of air and water particles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above produces the thunder

Q. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of (Pre: 2014)


(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Monsoon climate

(d) All of the above climates

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THEME SIX| GEOGRAPHY RELATED TOPICS

What is the current context?


Torrential rain, winds blowing at over 100 kmph made life in Chennai and nearby areas to stand still as severe
cyclonic storm "Vardah" made its landfall through the coast of Bay of Bengal.
Meteorologists are likely to review the threat to the Indian monsoon from a possible El Nino. Scientists from the
India Meteorological Department, Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology and the Ministry of Earth Sciences are
expected to meet in to analyse a range of forecasts from international climate models and their own-that suggest
waters are likely to warm and change wind patterns enough to El Nino-like conditions.

Core: Points to focus


Floods
o A flood is rising and overflowing of water onto normally dry land. Some floods develop slowly, while others
such as flash floods can develop in just a few minutes.
o Floods occur due to heavy rainfall when the natural water routes exceed their capacity to hold the entire
mass. But floods are not always caused by heavy rainfall.
o Floods are both natural and manmade. The manmade component is dangerously mixing up with the natural
factors to make flooding that is propelled by natural factor more disastrous.
o Floods in India are most common and frequently occurring source of disaster. According to the National
Flood Commission about 40 million hectares of land area in the country is flood prone.
o Over 60% of the flood damage results from river floods. Another 40% is the result of heavy rainfall and
cyclones, most of which is in peninsular river basins. The major flood areas in India are in the Ganges-
Brahmaputra-Meghna basin which accounts for nearly 60% of the total river flow of the country.
o The total flood prone area in India is more than 4 crore hectares. This area can be divided into four regions
viz. Brahmaputra Region; Ganga Region; North West Region; and Central India and Deccan region.
What are the reasons for floods in India?
o Seasonality - The rainy season is heavily concentrated in a short span of 3-4 months of the season. It results
in heavy discharge from rivers resulting in devastating floods at times.
o Cloud Burst - Heavy precipitation and at time cloud bursts in the hills or upstream also floods the rivers. The
rivers start spilling over if rainfall of about 15 cm or more occurs in a single day. This affects Western coast of
Western Ghats, Assam and sub-Himalayan West Bengal and Indo-Gangetic plains.
What is Cloud Burst: A cloudburst is short-term extreme precipitation that takes place over a small area.
Cloudbursts have a very specific definition: if rainfall of about 10 cm or above per hour is recorded over a place
that is roughly 100 km in area, it is classified as a cloudburst event. And by this definition, 5 cm of rainfall in half an
hour would also be classified as a cloudburst.
o Accumulation of silt - The Himalayan Rivers having huge ingredients bring in large amount of silt and sand
that ultimately get accumulated with no clearing operations taking place for years on. As a result the water
carrying capacity of the rivers is drastically reduced, resulting in floods. e.g. Jhelum flooding
o Obstruction Obstruction caused by construction of embankments, canals and railway related activities also
results in floods.
o Deforestation - Trees play a vital role to hold the surface on mountains and create natural barriers for the rain
waters. Therefore deforestation of hill slopes results in the water level rivers suddenly raising and causing
floods.
o Town Planning - The new addition to this is the phenomena of urban flooding as witnessed in the
metropolitan cities of Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru and Srinagar.

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o The root cause is the rampant migration from rural areas to the cities that has caused immense pressure on
land, the failure of the civic authorities in checking encroachment of land which are traditional outlets for the
overflowing rivers, poor planning and corruption.
o Monsoon Pattern - These factors are further compounded by irregular pattern of monsoon, unseasonal rains
or even shift in the traditional periodicity of Monsoon.
Jhelum-Tawi Flood Recovery Project
o Jammu and Kashmir Government has launched Jhelum-Tawi flood recovery project to give push to the
reconstruction and rehabilitation of infrastructure post-2014 floods in the state. The project is funded by
World Bank. The loan was provided by International Development Association, the World Banks
concessionary lending arm.
o Continuous unprecedented heavy rainfall had caused Jhelum, Chenab and Tawi rivers and their tributaries to
flow above the danger mark. These overflowing rivers had flooded the catchment areas, particularly low lying
ones for more than two weeks. It had severely affected livelihoods and had damaged the basic infrastructure
in the state.
o The project seeks to strengthen and reinforce existing weak and vulnerable flood control infrastructure. The
investments will primarily include rehabilitation and renovation of storm water pumping stations in several
areas.
o The project will also focus on disaster risk mitigation in state and strengthen the capacity of government
entities in disaster risk management. It will also help in preparation of a Hydro-Meteorological Resilience
Action Plan to enhance preparedness and achieve resilient recovery. The action plan will focus on river
morphology study for some key rivers impacted by the disaster, extreme weather events and urban
vulnerability assessment.
Cyclone
o A cyclone is a large scale air mass that rotates around a strong centre of low atmospheric pressure. A tropical
cyclone is a rotating, organized system of clouds and thunderstorms that originates over tropical or
subtropical waters and has a closed low-level circulation. Tropical cyclones rotate counter clockwise in the
Northern Hemisphere.
o Hurricanes, cyclones, and typhoons are all the same weather phenomenon; it is just the use of different
names for these storms in different places. In the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific, the term hurricane is used.
The same type of disturbance in the Northwest Pacific is called a typhoon and cyclones occur in the South
Pacific and Indian Ocean.
o A cyclone is formed when a warm temperature of the sea reaches a threshold level and the wind structure is
rising. In other words, Tropical Cyclones derive their energy from the warm tropical oceans and do not form
unless the sea-surface temperature is above 26.5C.
o However, once formed they can persist at lower temperatures and dissipate over land or colder oceans. The
eye of the cyclone is the centre of the cyclone where the focus lies. The areas surrounding the eye will be
most affected because of the strong wind.
o There are four stages that form a cyclone which include : Formative Stage, Immature Cyclone, Mature Cyclone,
Decay stage
o The precautionary warning of cyclones is usually made during the formative stages. Then, if necessary, an
evacuation will take place during the immature stages. The most dangerous stage is the mature progress,
where the cyclone reaches the peak limit of its strength cause the most damage. Finally, the cyclone will ease
into the decay stage and dissipate.

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Cyclone Vardah
o Cyclonic Storm Vardah is a strong tropical cyclone that affected South India. Under the influence of a
persistent area of convection, a low pressure area was formed in Malay Peninsula and adjoining north
Sumatra.
o It emerged as a tropical disturbance as it was moving slowly towards southeast Bay of Bengal. The storm
began travelling north towards Little Andaman, moving westward and soon it was named Cyclone Vardah,
the fourth named storm of the 2016 North Indian Ocean cyclone season.
Why is it named Vardah? (Naming of Cyclones)
o 'Vardah', which means 'red rose', the name of this severe cyclonic storm has been given by Pakistan. The
naming of tropical cyclones is a recent phenomenon. The process of naming cyclones involves several
countries in the region and is done under the aegis of the World Meteorological Organization.
o For the Indian Ocean region, deliberations for naming cyclones began in 2000 and a formula was agreed
upon in 2004. Eight countries in the region - Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri
Lanka and Thailand - all contributed a set of names which are assigned sequentially whenever a cyclonic
storm develops.
Area of impact
o As a strong low pressure area over Malay peninsula, Vardah had caused massive flash flooding in Thailand,
coastal areas of Sumatra and some Parts in Peninsular Malaysia witnessed flooding and landslides.
o In India, Andaman and Nicobar islands were hard hit by Vardah as it was a deep depression, Havelock island
in Andaman and Nicobar Islands worst hit by storm Vardah, and further became a very severe tropical
cyclone and moved towards south India over Bay Of Bengal and began its landfall in the areas surrounding
Chennai, in northern Tamil Nadu and off of the southern coast of Andhra Pradesh.
o A Landfall is the intersection of the centre of a tropical cyclone with a coastline, typically, in strong tropical
cyclones, a landfall occurs when the eye of the cyclone moves over land.
o A landfall is often accompanied by strong winds, lashing rain and rising sea waves that could endanger
people and cause damage to property inland.
Indian Monsoons
o Indian Monsoons are Convection cells on a very large scale.
o They are periodic or secondary winds with seasonal reversal in wind direction.
o India receives south-west monsoon winds in summer and north-east monsoon winds in winter.
o South-west monsoons are formed due to intense low pressure system formed over the Tibetan plateau.
o North-east monsoons are associated with high pressure cells over Tibetan and Siberian plateaus.
o South-west monsoons bring intense rainfall to most of the regions in India and north-east monsoons bring
rainfall to mainly south-eastern coast of India (Southern coast of Seemandhra and the coast of Tamil Nadu.).
o Countries like India, Indonesia, Bangladesh, Myanmar etc. receive most of the annual rainfall during south-
west monsoon season where as South East China, Japan etc., during north-east rainfall season.
Formation of Indian monsoon and Effects
1. The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. It refers to a season in which the wind system
reverses completely. The monsoons are experienced in the tropical area roughly between 20 N and 20 S.
2. India has two major monsoon patterns
a. South West

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b. North East
3. Various atmospheric conditions influence the monsoon winds.
a. The first condition is the differential heating and cooling of land and water. This creates low pressure on the
landmass, while high pressure is created over the seas around during day time, but is reversed during the
night time.
b. The second condition is the shift in the position of Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). In summer, the
equatorial trough normally positioned about 5N of the equator moves over the Ganga plain creating a
monsoon trough during the monsoon season.
c. The third condition is the presence of the high-pressure area that develops east of Madagascar. It is
approximately at 20S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the
Indian Monsoon.
d. The fourth condition develops during the summer - The Tibetan Plateau gets intensely heated resulting in
strong vertical air currents and high pressure over the plateau about 9 km above sea level.
e. The fifth condition develops during the summer due to the movement of the westerly jet streams to the north
of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian Peninsula.
4. Changes in pressure over the southern oceans also affect the monsoons.
5. In certain years, there is a reversal in the pressure conditions. This periodic change in pressure conditions is known
as the Southern Oscillation, or SO.
6. The Southern Oscillation is connected to El Nino, which is a warm ocean current that flows past the Peruvian Coast
and flows every two to five years in place of the cold Peruvian current. The phenomenon is, referred to as ENSO (El
Nino Southern Oscillations).
7. In India, the monsoon lasts for 100 to 120 days from early June and to mid-September.
8. The monsoon winds encounter various atmospheric conditions on their way and hence are pulsating in nature, and
not steady. The monsoon arrives with a sudden downpour of rainfall that continues for several days and this is
known as the burst of the monsoon.
9. The monsoon arrives at the southern tip of the Indian Peninsula generally by the first week of June.
10. By early September, the monsoon starts to withdraw or retreat and is a more gradual process. By mid-October, it
withdraws completely from the northern half of the peninsula. The withdrawal takes place progressively from north
to south from the first week of December to the first week of January; this is the start of the winter season.
11. The retreating monsoon winds move over the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal, and collect moisture on the way
and these monsoon winds reach the southern states of India by October, and are responsible for a second round
of rainfall. These are called the winter monsoons.
12. The winter monsoon is experienced in the states of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh in the first week of January.
Possible Emergence of ElNino
Meteorologists are likely to review the threat to the Indian monsoon from a possible El Nino. Scientists from the
India Meteorological Department, Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology and the Ministry of Earth Sciences are
expected to meet in to analyse a range of forecasts from international climate models and their own-that suggest
waters are likely to warm and change wind patterns enough to El Nino-like conditions.
What are the key findings of the review?
1. According to meteorologists, its too early to be sure of an El Nino and its impact on the monsoon, as predictions
made from a climate model before March could dramatically differ from that in April or later.
2. El Nino by itself isnt enough to disrupt a monsoon. How it influences the sea around India has to be studied and
there could be local factors that may be stronger.

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3. The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) doesnt seem to be giving good indications. A positive IOD is traditionally known to
bolster (strengthen) monsoon rains in India.
What is meant by El Nino?
1. El Nino is a climate cycle in the Pacific Ocean with a global impact on weather patterns. The cycle begins when
warm water in the western tropical Pacific Ocean shifts eastward along the equator toward the coast of South
America.
2. Normally, this warm water pools near Indonesia and the Philippines. During an El Nino, the Pacific's warmest
surface waters sit offshore of north-western South America.
3. This phenomenon observed in the southern Pacific ocean which emerges after a gap of 3 to 7 years and is
associated with abnormally high rainfall which is otherwise dry along the coast of Peru. This phenomena result in
floods in Peru while Pacific coast of Australia and Indonesia have abnormally dry conditions that forces collapse of
Agriculture with instances of Forest fire.
4. During El Nino there are on average fewer hurricanes over the Atlantic Ocean, the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of
Mexico. In the central Pacific Ocean El Nino brings more typhoons, both north and south of the equator. Their
more easterly genesis makes fewer of these tropical cyclones reach Australia. In the northern Pacific Ocean the area
with typhoons also shifts east. There are no effects on the number of cyclones over the Indian Ocean.
5. The phenomenon is not well understood but it is related to Ocean current and trade winds. In this Sea Surface
Temperature (SST) increases above normal by 0.5 degree.
6. In normal years the trade winds are fairly consistent and strong. The equatorial current of Pacific are well
developed which leads to development of warm Western Pacific Pool resulting in a zone of low pressure off
Australian and Indonesian Coast with rising limb of air causing rain.
7. At the same time Peruvian coast have cold current (Humboldt current) and upwelling which brings cold current
along coast of Peru resulting in High Pressure with descending air current. This is favourable to Peruvian economy
as Upwelling brought up nutrients at surface which flourishes fishing population.
8. This low Pressure at Australian Coast and High Pressure at Peruvian coast form a vertical cell called as Walker cell.
(This cell is exception to otherwise general pattern of Air circulation e.g. Trade winds, westerlies and Polar
circulation and tricellular meridional circulation. Here east-west zonal Pattern is found).
a. During El-Nino years, for reasons not yet known the trade winds of Pacific weakens, resulting in weak
equatorial current.
b. The Warm Pacific Pool waters flows back strengthening the Counter Equatorial current. This reverses water
flows southward towards Peruvian coast and this current is known as El Nino current. (It is warm surface
current appear at the coast of Peru during December flowing from equator towards Pole) which can stop the
upwelling Process.
c. This result in reversing the pressure cells (Now Peruvian coast have low pressure and Australian-Indonesian
coast having relative High Pressure) with this Walker Cell too is reversed i.e. rising limb of air at Peruvian
coast and descending limb of air along Australian coast which reverses the climatic condition along these
coast which results to Peruvian coast having High rainfall and West Pacific coast have dry condition).
ENSO= El Nino+ Southern Oscillations: The atmospheric component of El Nino/La Nina is called Southern
Oscillation. The clearest sign of the Southern Oscillation is the inverse relationship between surface air pressures at
two sites: Darwin, Australia, and the South Pacific island of Tahiti.
The ENSO cycle is the way scientists describe the fluctuations in temperature between the atmosphere and the
ocean in the east-central Equatorial Pacific. An El Nino year will have negative value of SOI (Southern Oscillation
Index) that means eastern pacific have below normal pressure over Tahiti and above normal pressure over Darwin.

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Indian Ocean Dipole:


1. The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in the sea surface temperature between the two
equatorial areas of the Indian Ocean a western pole near the Arabian Sea (in western Indian Ocean) and an
eastern pole closer to the Bay of Bengal (in eastern Indian Ocean). The IOD affects the climate of Southeast Asia,
Australia and other countries that surround the Indian Ocean Basin. The Indian Monsoon is invariably influenced
by the IOD.
2. IOD is simply the periodic oscillation of sea surface temperatures, from positive to neutral and then negative
phases. If the sea surface temperature of the western end rises above normal (0.4C) and becomes warmer than
the eastern end, it leads to a positive IOD. This condition is favourable for the Indian Monsoon as it causes a kind
of barrier in the eastern Indian Ocean and the entire south-westerly winds blow towards the Indian sub-continent.
3. Accordingly, the waters in the eastern Indian Ocean cools down, which tends to cause droughts in adjacent land
areas of Indonesia and Australia. Conversely, during a negative IOD period the waters of the tropical eastern Indian
Ocean are warmer than water in the tropical western Indian Ocean. This results in increased rainfall over parts of
southern Australia.

What is the difference between ElNino and IOD?


1. The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) and the El Nino are independent climatic phenomena but often co-occur. Both IOD
and El Nino result in change of global wind patterns.
2. However the cycle of IOD is shorter, while El Nino condition could last for even two years. IOD commences in the
month of May and end with the withdrawal of Southwest Monsoon in the Indian sub-continent.

Practice Questions
55. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon is much more powerful than the Bay of Bengal branch because
(a) Arabian sea is larger than the Bay of Bengal.
(b) entire Arabian sea current advances towards India, whereas only a part of the Bay of Bengal current enters India.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none is correct because Bay of Bengal branch is more powerful.

56. With reference to monsoon of eastern Asia and southern Asia, consider the following statements:
1. Winter monsoon in eastern Asia is stronger than summer monsoon while it is the opposite in southern Asia.
2. The burst of monsoon over southern Asia is associated with turbulent weather whereas that in east Asia is
characterized by mild weather disturbances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

57. Identify the prominent characteristics of Monsoonal Rainfall in India.


I. Rainfall is seasonal in character.
II. Monsoonal Rainfall is largely governed by relief or topography.

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III. It has a declining trend with increasing distance from the sea.
IV. The monsoon rains occur in wet spells of few days duration at a time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) All

58. Which of the following sectors can possibly be affected by the onset of El-Nino?
1. Food processing industries
2. Irrigation sector
3. Power sector
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

59. Match the following :


Convention Resolution
A. Stockholm 1. Control of
Convention movement of
Hazardous goods
B. Minamata 2. Restrict Production
Convention of Persistent Organic
Pollutants
C. Basel Convention 3. Reduction of
Mercury Pollution
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) A-2; B-3; C-1 (b) A-2; B-1; C-3
(c) A-3; B-1; C-2 (d) A-1; B-2; C-3

60. The Kori Creek rich in mangroves is a tidal creek in the state of
(a) West Bengal (b) Odisha
(c) Karnataka (d) Gujarat

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ANSWERS

ANSWERS

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10

d a a a c d b c b c

Q11 Q12 Q13 Q14 Q15 Q16 Q17 Q18 Q19 Q20

a b c a a d b d a c

Q21 Q22 Q23 Q24 Q25 Q26 Q27 Q28 Q29 Q30

c c d c d a c d c d

Q31 Q32 Q33 Q34 Q35 Q36 Q37 Q38 Q39 Q40

a a b a c d c d c a

Q41 Q42 Q43 Q44 Q45 Q46 Q47 Q48 Q49 Q50

b d a b a d d c c d

Q51 Q52 Q53 Q54 Q55 Q56 Q57 Q58 Q59 Q60

c d a d c c d d a d

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CORRIGENDUM

CORRIGENDUM

With reference to the General Science & Technology (Vol. I) released on 28th March, 2017, please find
attached below the corrected questions (previous years asked by UPSC) which were misprinted in the
volume.

Page - 2 Page - 12 & 13

Q. A Team of scientists at Brookhaven National Q. In which of the following activities are IRS satellites
Laboratory including those from India created the used? (# Pre-2015)
heaviest anti-matter. What is/are the implications 1. Assessment of crop productivity
of the creation of anti-matter? (# Pre-2011)
2. Locating groundwater resources
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil
exploration cheaper 3. Mineral exploration

2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of 4. Telecommunications


stars and galaxies made of anti-matter
5. Traffic Studies
3. It will help understand the evolution of the
a) 1,2 and 3
universe.
b) 4 and 5
a) 1 only
c) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Q. With the reference to Astrosat which of the
following are correct?(# Pre- 2016)
Page - 6
1. Other than USA and Russia,India is the only
country to have launched a similar lab into space
Q. In the context of modern scientific research,
consider the following statements about IceCube, 2. Astrosat is a 2000 Kg Satellite placed in an orbit at
a particle detector located at the South Pole: (# 1650 Km above the Earth.
Pre-2014)
a) 1 only
1. It is the worlds largest neutrino detector,
encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice. b) 2 only

2. It is a powerful telescope for dark matter. c) 1 and 2

3. It is buried in the ice. d) Neither

a) 1 only
Q. What do you understand by Standard Positioning
b) 2 and 3 only
Systems in GPS era? Discuss the advantages India
c) 1 and 3 only perceives from its ambitious IRNSS Programme
employing just 7 satellites. (# Main-2015)
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Discuss Indias achievements in the field of space
science and Technology. How the applications of

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this technology has helped India in its socio- d) 1,2 and 3


economic development? (# Main-2016)

Page - 32
Page - 18
Q. India is an important member of the International
Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor. If this
Q. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly experiment succeeds, what is the immediate
matched? (# Pre-2014) advantage for India? (# Pre-2016)
1) Cassini-Huygens: Orbiting the Venus and
a) It can use thorium in place of Uranium for the
transmitting data to the Earth
power generation
2) Messenger: Mapping and investigating
b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
3) Voyager 1 and 2: Exploring the outer Solar System
c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its
a) 1 only fission reactors in power generation
b) 2 and 3 d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation.
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3 Page - 45

Page - 24 Q. Which one of the following is the best description


of the INS Astradharini that was in the news? (#
Pre-2016)
Q. In a globalized world, Intellectual Property Rights
assume significance and are a source of litigation. a) Amphibious warfare ship
Broadly distinguish between the terms- Copyright, b) Nuclear-powered submarine
Patent and Trademark. (# Main-2014)
c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
Q. Indias Traditional Knowledge Digital Library
d) Nuclear powered aircraft carrier
(TKDL) which has a database containing formatted
information on more than 2 million medicinal
formulations is proving a powerful weapon in the
Page - 49
countrys fight against erroneous patents. Discuss
the pros and cons of making this database publicly
available under open-source licensing. (# Main-
Q. Discuss the advantages and security implications
2015)
of cloud hosting of servers vis-a-vis in-house
machine-based hosting for government
businesses. (# Main-2015)
Page - 28

Page - 52
Q. Which of the following have been accorded
Geographical Indication status: (# Pre-2015)
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees Q. With reference to Near Field Technology, which of
the following statements are correct? (# Pre-2014)
2. Rajasthani Daal Bati-churma
1. It is a contactless communication technology that
3. Tirupathi Laddu
uses electromagnetic radio fields
a) 1 only
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at
b) 2 and 3 a distance of even a metre from each other.
c) 1 and 3

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3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive Page - 60


information.
Q. In the context of the development in
a) 1 and 2 only Bioinformatics, the term transcriptome
sometimes seen in the news refers to : (# Pre 2016)
b) 3 only
a) A range of enzymes used in genome editing
c) 1 and 3 only
b) The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an
d) 1,2 and 3
organism
c) The description of the mechanism of gene
Q. With reference to Li-Fi, recently in the news, which expression
of the following statements is/are correct? (# Pre-
d) A mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in
2016)
cells.
1. It uses light as the medium of high-speed data
transmission
Page 68 & 69
2. It is a wireless technology and is several times
faster than Wifi.
a) 1 only Q. Which of the following have been eradicated in
India? (# Pre- 2016)
b) 2 only
1. Diphtheria
c) Both 1 and 2
2. Chickenpox
d) Neither
3. Smallpox
a) 1 and 2 only
Q. Project Loon sometimes seen in the news is
related to: (# Pre-2016) b) 3 only
a) Waste management c) 1, 2 and 3
b) Wireless communication technology d) None
c) Solar power
d) Water conservation Q. H1N1 virus in the news is with reference to?
(# Pre-2015)
Q. Regarding DigiLocker, which of the following are a) AIDS
correct? (# Pre-2016)
b) Bird flu
1 It is a digital locker system offered by the
c) Dengue
government under Digital India
d) Swine Flu
2 It allows you to access your e-documents
irrespective of your physical location.
a) 1 only Q. Which among the following were frequently
mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola
b) 2 only
Virus recently? (# Pre-2014)
c) Both 1 and 2
a) Syria and Jordan
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea
d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam

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