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TABLE OF CONTENTS
14. Mangroves
THEME-II : INDIA AND CLIMATE CHANGE
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4. Graded Action Plan Against Air Pollution THEME-V : WASTE MANAGEMENT 79
Practice Questions have been provided at the end of every lesson/ topic. Questions have been
framed to highlight those aspects of the news and related dimensions which we want you to
develop clarity on. Answers are given at the last page of this issue.
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THEME ONE| CLIMATE CHANGE
THEME 1
CLIMATE CHANGE
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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for
the formation of this hole? (Pre:2011)
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming
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Methane (CH4) Growing paddy, excreta of cattle and other livestock, termites, burning of fossil
fuel, wood, landfills, wetlands, fertilizer factories.
Nitrous oxides (N2O) Burning of fossil fuels, fertilizers; burning of wood and crop residue.
Hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs) Used as refrigerants, aerosol propellants, solvents and fire retardants.
Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) Used as tracer gas for leak detection, used in electrical transmission equipment
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c. The report also examined whether human-induced climate change was directly linked to individual extreme
events. Some studies found that the probability of extreme heat increased by ten times or more.
d. The report highlighted some of the high-impact events around the world like East African drought in 2010-2012,
Southern African drought in 2013-2015, flooding in South-East Asia in 2011, heat waves in India and Pakistan in
2015, Hurricane Sandy in 2012 in US and Typhoon Haiyan in Philippines in 2013.
e. Global temperatures in both 2015 and 2016 saw a surge due to exceptionally strong El Nino and by continuous
trapped greenhouse gases in the atmosphere for decades.
Climate Engineering solutions to global warming
o Climate engineering deals with the deliberate and large-scale intervention in the Earths climate system with
the aim of limiting adverse climate change. It can be done in two ways.
Removal of Green House Gases, which can be done through:
o Carbon capture and storage (CCS), where some of the carbondioxide being emitted by coal-fired power
stations is recaptured by physically sucking it in and transporting it elsewhere (like oilfields) to be
sequestered underground.
o Enhanced weathering involves a chemical approach to remove carbondioxide involving land or ocean based
techniques. Examples of land based enhanced weathering techniques are in-situ carbonation of silicates.
Afforestation
Management of Sun light: Here the plan is to reduce global warming by cutting down the heat absorbed by our
planet from the sun through techniques such as stratospheric aerosol injection, cirrus cloud manipulation, marine
cloud brightening, and obstructing sunrays with space based mirrors.
IPCCs 5th Assessment Report on Global Warming
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Changes (IPCC) its 5th Assessment Report known as WGII AR5 which is
compiled using a substantially larger knowledge base of relevant scientific, technical, and socio-economic
literature has explained the associated risks of Global warming, which are:
o Risk of death, injury, ill-health, or disrupted livelihoods in low-lying coastal zones and small island developing
states and other small islands, due to storm surges, coastal flooding, and sea-level rise.
o Risk of severe ill-health and disrupted livelihoods for large urban populations due to inland flooding in some
regions.
o Systemic risks due to extreme weather events leading to breakdown of infrastructure networks and critical
services such as electricity, water supply, and health and emergency services.
o Risk of mortality and morbidity during periods of extreme heat, particularly for vulnerable urban populations
and those working outdoors in urban or rural areas.
o Risk of food insecurity and the breakdown of food systems linked to warming, drought, flooding, and
precipitation variability and extremes, particularly for poorer populations in urban and rural areas.
o Risk of loss of rural livelihoods and income due to insufficient access to drinking and irrigation water and
reduced agricultural productivity, particularly for farmers and pastoralists with minimal capital in semi-arid
regions.
o Risk of loss of marine and coastal ecosystems, biodiversity, and the ecosystem goods, functions, and services
they provide for coastal livelihoods, especially for fishing communities in the tropics and the Arctic.
o Risk of loss of terrestrial and inland water ecosystems, biodiversity, and the ecosystem goods, functions, and
services they provide for livelihoods.
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Practice Questions:
1. Nitrogen Oxide gas is also held responsible for the depletion of Ozone layer. Which of following is/are the
source/s of Nitrogen Oxide?
(a) Industrial emission
(b) Fertilizers which are used in agricultural activities
(c) Thermonuclear weapons
(d) All of the above
2. The highest percentage of increase as compared to pre-industrial era concentration is observed in which of the
following Greenhouse gases?
(a) Carbondioxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Methane
(d) Ozone
Q. Regarding carbon, credits, which one of the following statements is not correct? (Pre : 2011)
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission
quota
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
(d) Carbon credits are- traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme
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UNFCCC:
United Nation Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international environment treaty
opened for signature in 1992. It came into force from 1994. Secretariat is located in Bonn, Germany. The
convention is legally non-binding, but makes provisions for meeting called protocols where negotiating countries
can set legally binding limits.
What it does?
a. It aims to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous
anthropogenic interference with the climate system. The framework set no binding limits on greenhouse gas
emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms. Instead, the framework outlines how
specific international treaties (called "protocols" or "Agreements") may be negotiated to set binding limits on
greenhouse gases. Kyoto Protocol was negotiated under this framework.
b. One of the first tasks set by the UNFCCC was for signatory nations to establish national greenhouse inventories of
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and removals, which were used to create the 1990 benchmark levels for
accession of Annex I countries to the Kyoto Protocol and for the commitment of those countries to GHG
reductions. Updated inventories must be regularly submitted by Annex I countries. Annex I, Annex II countries and
developing countries.
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o The Protocol is based on the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities: it puts the obligation to
reduce current emissions on developed countries on the basis that they are historically responsible for the
current levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
o The Protocols first commitment period started in 2008 and ended in 2012.
o A second commitment period was agreed on in 2012, known as the Doha Amendment to the protocol. This
has not entered into force as required number of nations has not ratified this amendment. Paris agreement
(2015) is not an amendment to Kyoto Protocol but a separate instrument altogether.
Target under this protocol applies to following GHGs:
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) Methane (CH4) Nitrous Oxide (NO2) Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6) Two groups of gases :
Hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs) Per fluorocarbons (PFCs).
Kyoto Protocol includes "flexible mechanisms" which allow Annex 1 economies to meet their GHG targets by
purchasing GHG emission reductions from elsewhere. These can be bought either from: financial exchanges
(International Emissions Trading Scheme) or from projects which reduce emissions in non-Annex 1 economies
under the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), or in other Annex-1 countries under the Joint Implementation
(JI). Only CDM Executive Board-accredited Certified Emission Reductions (CER) can be bought and sold in this
manner.
What are Doha Amendments?
o The Kyoto Protocol had initially assigned GHGs emission cut targets to the developed countries only till 2012.
o Developed countries wanted it to be extended till 2020. So, Doha Amendments to the Kyoto Protocol was
made at Doha climate conference in 2012 and extended the obligation of the developed countries under
Kyoto Protocol to make targeted cuts in their greenhouse gas (GHGs) emissions till 2020.
What is the Paris Agreement?
It is an agreement under UNFCC. It deals with greenhouse gasses emissions, mitigation, adaptation and finance
starting in the year 2020. It is opened for signature on 22 April 2016 (Earth Day).
Aims of Paris agreement:
o Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2C above pre-industrial levels and to
pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 C above pre-industrial levels, recognizing that this
would significantly reduce the risks and impacts of climate change.
o Increasing the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low
greenhouse gas emissions development, in a manner that does not threaten food production.
o Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate resilient
development.
o The contribution that each individual country should make in order to achieve the worldwide goal are
determined by all countries individually and called "nationally determined contributions" (NDCs).
o These targets will not be binding as it is not possible to enforce them. NDCs will be revised after 5 years in
2023.
o It will enter into force (and thus become fully effective) only if 55 countries that produce at least 55% of the
world's greenhouse gas emissions (according to a list produced in 2015) ratify, accept, approve or accede to
the agreement.
o The Paris Agreement entered into force on 4 November 2016, at Marrakech Climate Change Conference.
Capacity-Building Initiative for Transparency (CBIT) Fund
CBIT is an outcome of the UNFCCC's Paris agreement in 2015 and expected to address the issue of transparency.
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Objectives:
a. To help developing countries monitor and report the progress on their climate actions
b. Strengthening of national institutions of participating members in transparency related activities with respect to
the Nationally Determined Contributions
c. To bring transparency in the financial help, technology transfer and capacity building support by the developed
countries to developing countries. Both have to provide relevant information
Design:
a. The fund will be set up by the GEF, with financial support from the developed nations like US, UK, Canada etc.
b. World Bank has been requested to act as the trustee for the fund, who was also a trustee in the initial hand
holding of GEF
Significance:
a. Many developing countries lack the necessary capacity to monitor and report their progress on the front of INDCs
b. This fund helps developed countries to take on board the developing countries in developing their domestic
capacities leading to transparent mechanisms in reporting the progress.
Global Environment Facility (GEF)
1. It is an independently operating financial organization It was setup as a fund under World Bank in 1991.
2. In 1992, at the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a
permanent, separate institution.
3. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund and provided administrative
services.
4. It supports actions to combat major environmental issues such as climate change, loss of biodiversity, polluted
international waters, land degradation and desertification, and persistent organic pollutants, as well as stimulate
green growth.
5. It also serves as the financial mechanism under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), which is the global climate regime to address climate change, the UN Convention on Biological
Diversity, the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (2001), the United Nations Convention to
Combat Desertification (2003) and the Minamata Convention on Mercury (2013).
6. UNDP is also an Implementing Agency for the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
7. The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (MP),
supports implementation of the Protocol in countries with economies in transition.
Green Climate Fund
o In 2010 the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) had set Green Climate
Fund (GCF) to help developing countries to finance clean energy projects other mitigation efforts and
adaptation to climate change.
o National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) got accredited by the Green Climate Fund as
a national implementing entity for undertaking climate change related projects in India.
Concepts: Points to focus
Marrakech Climate Change Conference COP 22: The aim is to reaffirm the commitments of member countries to
climate action under Paris Agreement adopted in November 2015. To provide an opportunity to communicate
concerns about the future climate policy. It laid an emphasis on raising the commitment of all countries to reduce
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.
Significance of COP22
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o The adaptation of Marrakech Action Proclamation sends out a strong signal to the world on climate action.
o It made a shift towards a new era of implementation and action on climate and sustainable development.
o It called for an increase in the volume, flow and access to finance for climate projects, alongside improved
capacity and technology.
o Developing nations have demanded firm commitments from the developed countries for how and from
where the money will flow for the pledged $100 billion by 2020.
o It aimed to strengthen and increase support for the efforts to eradicate poverty, ensure food security and to
take strict action to deal with climate change challenges in agriculture.
o Nations, who are parties to the Kyoto Protocol (which does not include the U.S.), also encouraged the speedy
ratification of the Doha Amendment.
o Climate Vulnerable Forum, comprising a group of over 45 most vulnerable countries, was launched and
vowed to convert to 100 percent renewable energy as soon as possible.
o The conference successfully demonstrated to the world that the implementation of the Paris agreement is
underway and the constructive spirit of multilateral cooperation on climate change continues.
o 114 Parties have ratified Paris Agreement out of 197 Parties.
India and COP22:
o India has ratified Paris Agreement.
o There is a huge pressure on India as it has got 2 challenges before 1) to meet the development aspirations of
its growing economy and 2) cutting emissions.
o India would have to update its preparedness to meet the new regime of transparency that is to be launched
under the climate pact.
o At Marrakech climate conference, India hosted a special event on 12 Himalayan States that face the impact of
a changing climate.
o Almora based G.B. Pant National Institute of Himalayan Environment and Sustainable Development has been
asked by the center to represent the 12 Himalayan States at COP22.
o Though the Himalayas are warming faster than the global average, they are not yet in focus.
o At the COP 22, the impact of climate change on disasters, biodiversity, livelihood, and agriculture has been
highlighted.
o India has taken a lead in cementing the International Solar Alliance.
COP 22 to UNFCCC has definitely seen some small success. State governments are now required to come together
to strengthen the case for international funding. The developing countries have raised voice against the developed
nations and have shown unity, and were also successful in inserting a clause which requires scaling up of financial
resources beyond $100 billion per year after 2020. The Paris objective of limiting temperature rise to 2 degrees
Celsius above pre-industrial levels is achievable once all the mentioned commitments are on track.
Practice Questions:
3. Which of the following is/are true?
1) Paris agreement deals with greenhouse gasses emissions, mitigation, adaptation and finance starting in the year
2020.
2) Paris agreement though adopted has not yet been ratified by India.
(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as financial mechanism for which of the following?
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
3. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
4. Montreal Protocol
5. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
6. Minamata Convention on Mercury
Select the correct code
(a) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
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The ozone layer is important because it filters harmful ultraviolet radiation as it travels from the sun to the surface
of the Earth.
These ultraviolet rays can harm both plant and animal life. After observation of a depletion of the ozone layer from
the addition of chlorofluorocarbons and other man-made chemicals, the Montreal Protocol was enacted as an
attempt to eradicate these chemicals from the atmosphere.
Q. Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used (Pre:
2012)
(b) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The 28th Meeting of the Parties (MOP 28) to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that deplete the Ozone Layer
met in Kigali in Rwanda to finalize a decision on the phasing out of a set of chemicals called HFCs- Hydro
fluorocarbons.
Ozone Layer
o The Earth's atmosphere is divided into several layers. The lowest region, the troposphere, extends from the
Earth's surface up to about 10 kilometres (km) in altitude. Virtually all human activities occur in the
troposphere. Mt. Everest, the tallest mountain on the planet, is only about 9 km high.
o The next layer, the stratosphere, continues from 10 km to about 50 km. Most atmospheric ozone is
concentrated in a layer in the stratosphere, about 15-30 kilometers above the Earth's surface.
o This ozone layer in the Earths stratosphere absorbs most of the Suns ultraviolet (UV) radiation that may
cause skin cancer. It contains high concentrations of ozone (O3) in relation to other parts of the atmosphere.
Stratospheric Ozone is not harmful, but its presence on land is harmful.
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Sources Forms when Nitrous oxides (NOx) reacts Naturally forms when Oxygen is in
with Volatile Organic Compounds the presence of UV radiation.
(VOCs).
Vienna Convention
o It is a Multilateral Environmental Agreement that was agreed upon at the 1985 Vienna Conference and
entered into force in 1988. It is one of the most successful treaties of all time. It has been ratified by 197
states. It acts as a framework for the international efforts to protect the ozone layer. These are laid out in the
accompanying Montreal Protocol.
o Vienna convention is not legally binding.
Montreal Protocol
o Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a protocol to Vienna Convention for the
Protection of Ozone Layer.
o It is an international treaty and aims to protect the ozone layer by phasing out: 1. Chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs), 2. Hydro chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), 3. Hydrobromofluorocarbons (HBFCs), 4. Carbontetrachloride
(CCl4), 5. Methylbromide (CH3Br), 6. Bromochloromethane (CH2BrCl), 7. Methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3),
8. Halons.
How these compounds deplete Ozone layer?
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THEME ONE| CLIMATE CHANGE
Concepts to focus:
Kigali Agreement
The Kigali Agreement amends the 1987 Montreal Protocol that was designed to close growing ozone hole by
banning ozone-depleting substances. This amended Montreal Protocol which was initially conceived only to plug
gases that were destroying the ozone layer now includes HFCs responsible for global warming. This move will help
to prevent a potential 0.5 degree Celsius rise in global temperature by the end of the century.
All signatory countries have been divided into three groups with different timelines to go about reductions of
HFCs.
o First group includes countries like US and those in European Union (EU). They will freeze production and
consumption of HFCs by 2018. They will reduce them to about 15% of 2012 levels by 2036.
o Second group includes countries like China, Brazil and all of Africa which will freeze HFC use by 2024 and cut
it to 20% of 2021 levels by 2045.
o Third group countries like India, Pakistan, Pakistan, Iran, Saudi Arabia etc will be freezing HFC use by 2028
and reducing it to about 15% of 2025 levels by 2047.
HFCs and their harmful effects
o HFCs-Hydro fluorocarbons are organic compounds that contain fluorine and hydrogen atoms and are the
most common type of Organo-fluorine compounds used in electronic industries.
o HFCs are used as refrigerants in place of the older CFCs-chlorofluorocarbons such as R-12 and hydro-
chlorofluorocarbons such as R-21.
o HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer because, unlike CFCs and HCFCs, they do not contain chlorine.
However, studies have confirmed that HFCs are greenhouse gases, with a high global warming potential
(GWP), compared to that of CFCs and HCFCs.
Global Warming Potential
o Global warming potential (GWP) is a relative measure of heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere with
a similar mass of carbon dioxide. A GWP is calculated over a specific time interval, commonly 20, 100 or 500
years.
o The GWP depends on factors such as the absorption of infrared radiation by a given species, the spectral
location of its absorbing wavelengths and the atmospheric lifetime of the species.
Practice Questions:
7. Which of the following is/are true regarding the Kigali Agreement?
1) Kigali Agreement is legally binding like the Paris Agreement.
2) All countries are divided into 3 groups with different timelines to phase out emissions with India in the third group.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Which of the following are sources of pollutants that adversely affect the ozone layer?
1) Bromine
2) Carbon tetrachloride
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3) Hydrofloro carbons
4) Methyl chloroform
5) Chlorofluorocarbons
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) All of the above
9. The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer aims to control the production and use of:
1. Dichloromethane
2. CFCs
3. HFCs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
10. Which of the following is most likely the result of decreasing levels of ozone in the stratosphere?
(a) A decrease in the levels of smog in major cities
(b) A decrease in the rate of global warming
(c) An increase in the occurrence of skin cancer in humans
(d) An increase in photosynthetic activity of phytoplankton.
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THEME 2
Q. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India? (Pre: 2013)
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
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symptoms, irritation, inflammations and pneumoconiosis (a disease of the lungs due to inhalation of dust,
characterized by inflammation, coughing, and fibrosis).
Difference between Black and Brown Carbon
o Black carbon is inorganic in nature consisting of soot particles that directly come out of combustion process,
exhaust fumes that form part of particulate matter present in the air. Black carbon absorbs sunlight and in
turn warms the atmosphere. When inhaled it causes severe health problems. Black carbon absorbs light in
the visible spectrum. It absorbs both incoming and terrestrial radiations.
o Brown carbon or organic carbon, unlike black carbon, comes from complex organic reactions in the airborne
atmospheric particles. This includes tar material from smouldering fires or coal combustion, breakdown
products from biomass burning, a mixture of organic compounds given off by vegetation. Brown carbon is
light brown in colour and absorbs light in the ultraviolet region. Brown carbon leads to the formation of
ground level ozone in the atmosphere.
Air pollution control Measures
Air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act 1981: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was
enacted to stop the deterioration of the air quality. Key features of the act are:
o The Act makes provisions for the establishing of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) at the apex level and
State Pollution Control Boards at the state level.
o The CPCB advises the Central Government on any matter concerning the improvement of the quality of the
air and prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
o It also helps to plan and cause to be executed a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control and
abatement of air pollution as well as provides technical assistance to and guidance to the State Pollution
Control Board.
o It also lays down the down standards for the quality of air.
o The SPCBs plan a comprehensive programme for prevention, control and abatement of air pollution and to
secure the execution thereof. They also advise the State Government on any matter concerning prevention,
control and abatement of air pollution.
o Kindly note that according to this act, the air pollutant means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance
(including noise) present in the atmosphere in such
concentration as may be or tend to be injurious to human
beings or other living creatures or plants or property or
environment.
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SAFAR
o The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Govt. of India, has introduced a major national initiative, "System of Air
Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research" known as "SAFAR" for greater metropolitan cities of India to
provide location specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for
the first time in India. It has been combined with the early warning system on weather parameters.
o The implementation of SAFAR is made possible with an active collaboration with local municipal corporations
and various local educational institutions and governmental agencies in that Metro city.
o The ultimate objective of the project is to increase awareness among general public regarding the air quality in
their city well in advance so that appropriate mitigation measures and systematic action can be taken up for
betterment of air quality and related health issues.
This SAFAR project involves 4 components to facilitate the current and 24 advance forecasting, namely:
a. The development of emission inventory of air pollutants for NCR and defining air quality index for India,
b. Network of eleven Air Quality Monitoring Stations (AQMS) equipped with 11 automatic weather stations to
provide near real time air quality information ,
c. 3-D atmospheric chemistry transport forecasting modelling coupled with weather forecasting model to provide 24
hour advance forecast of air pollutant levels.
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d. Display on LED and LCD screens located at 20 different locations in Delhi in a public friendly format and displaying
the online detailed information through the Web portal developed for CWG.
o Pollutants monitored: PM1, PM2.5, PM10, Ozone, CO, NOx (NO, NO2), SO2, BC, Methane (CH4), Non-
methane, hydrocarbons (NMHC), VOCs, Benzene, Mercury.
o Monitored Meteorological Parameters: UV Radiation, Rainfall, Temperature, Humidity, Wind speed, Wind
direction, and solar radiation.
Other initiatives taken to up to control Air pollution
o Government is dis-incentivising the use of private vehicles through congestion charging.
o The National Green Tribunal has ordered that diesel vehicles over 10 years old not ply on Delhi roads.
o Odd even formula.
o Making city roads friendly to bicycle users.
o Promoting rooftop solar power as an alternative to coal power.
Practice Questions:
11. Which of the following pollutants are considered for Ambient Air Quality Standards but not for National Air
Quality Index?
1. Benzene
2. Arsenic
3. Nickel
4. Lead
5. Ammonia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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and the broad public sentiment against dangerously high levels of air pollution in major Indian cities, like
Delhi.
Saumitra Chaudari Committee
o Saumitra Chaudari Committee on Auto fuel Vision and Policy recommended certain measures to be taken for
vehicle emission control in India. These recommendations are:
o Recommendations: 1. Use of alternative fuels like ethanol, methanol, hydrogen fuel to reduce consumption of
traditional petrol and diesel. 2. Implementation of next stage emission norms like BS-V, BS-VI by 2020.
3. Additional taxation by imposing 75 paise/litre Special Fuel Up gradation Cess on petrol and diesel.
Pollutants covered under BS Norms:
o The harmful emissions that are identified for regulations in different Bharat Stages (BS) are carbon monoxide
(CO), unburnt hydrocarbons (HC), Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) and Particulate matter (PM).
o CO emissions are more prevalent in petrol engines. Continuous exposure to them can prevent oxygen
transfer and increases nausea/headaches.
o HC emissions are also more prevalent in petrol engines. Short term exposure to them can cause headaches,
vomiting and disorientation.
o NOx emissions are more evident in diesel engines. Long Term exposure can cause Nose and eye irritation
and damage lung tissue.
o PM is more prevalent in diesel engines and long term exposure to it can harm the respiratory tract and
reduce lung function.
India uses Euro standards with only one modification which is the lower maximum speed of 90 km/hr instead of
120 km/h as mandated in the EU norms. This is the maximum speed at which the vehicle is tested. The conditions
of the road and general climate of India should be taken into account while fixing this.
What needs to be done: To upgrade the vehicles to BS-IV and then to BS-VI
o Implementation of BS-IV and BS-VI requires changes in vehicle manufacturing and oil refining.
o Changes in vehicle manufacturing sector: Automobile manufacturers who have to manufacture emission
norms compliant vehicles should fit specific equipment like Catalytic converters and Particulate filters in
engines, which helps to decrease soot and pollutants.
o Diesel Particulate Filters (DPF): DPF is a cylinder mounted vertically in the engine compartment of the vehicle.
Its function is to remove PM or soot from the diesel exhaust. It needs temperature of 600 degrees Celsius
which is difficult to obtain.
o What is the problem? Small cars, popular in India, have limited bonnet space and will require a major
redesign to accommodate DPF. But a bigger bonnet may result in the car breaching the sub-4-meter mark
and loosing excise benefits.
o Selective Catalytic Reduction Technology (SCR): An SCR module reduces the oxides of Nitrogen in the engine
exhaust by injecting an aqueous solution called AUS32 in to the system. AUS 32 contains Ammonia for which
a separate container will be needed on board the vehicle.
o Challenge: A nationwide infrastructure will be needed for supply of AUS32, which is safe but does need
careful storage and handling.
o Improvements in Fuel, Oil refineries: Though catalytic converters and particulate filters are fit to reduce the
emissions, chemical catalyst in such devices get immobilised in the presence of sulphur/lead. So the oil
refineries should minimise the quantity of sulphur and lead in the fuel.
o India has already achieved Lead-free petrol. In BS IV fuel sulphur concentration is maintained at 50ppm and
this will come down to as low as 10ppm in BS VI.
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Alternate fuels for reducing petrol and diesel consumption: Methanol, Ethanol, Hydrogen fuel, CNG, CNG, Hybrid
and electrical vehicles, etc.
Related Information
o Flash Point: lowest temperature at which a fuel starts turning into vapour and ignites. Flash point of diesel is
set at 35 degrees Celsius.
o Cetane number: It is a measure of diesel quality. Lower the Cetane number, diesel will produce more smoke.
Why Supreme Court has banned Bharat Stage III (BS-III) vehicles?
o Many vehicles including heavy commercial vehicles with BS-III built engines, employ a mechanical fuel pump
and used fuel less efficiently. It negatively influences environment by subsequent emissions of nitrous oxide,
carbon monoxide and particulate matter.
Comparison of BS-III vs. BS-IV
o Passenger vehicles compliant with Bharat Stage-III emission norms vary widely from their Bharat Stage-IV
compliant engines, depending on the size of the car and whether they are petrol or diesel versions.
o BS-IV compliant engines differ in the electronics, sensor system, and its ability to process low-sulphur fuel
and their after-exhaust system that determines emissions.
o BS-IV engines also require that the sulphur content of the fuel they use be less than 50 part per million (ppm)
whereas BS-III ones can run on 350 ppm fuel.
o The transition from BS-III to BS-IV will lead to substantial reductions in particulate matter emissions. For
instance, from new trucks, the emissions dip by 80% and from cars by 50%.
o Similarly, hydrocarbon and nitrogen oxide emissions can also drop between 41% and 80%, depending on the
engine sizes.
Practice Questions:
14. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Bharat norms?
1. To comply with higher level Bharat norms, oil refineries need to produce diesel with less sulphur content.
2. India implements BS V and BS VI emission norms nationwide by 2020 and 2024 respectively.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. India decided to skip which stage of Bharat norms and implement which stage from 1 April 2020 respectively?
(a) Stage V (skip) and stage VI (implement)
(b) Stage III (skip) and stage V (implement)
(c) Stage VI (skip) and stage VII (implement)
(d) Stage III (skip) and stage IV (implement)
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17. Which of the following committees recommended for BS-III and BS-IV norms?
(a) Raghavan Committee
(b) Mashelkar Committee
(c) Natrajan Committee
(d) Rangarajan Committee
Concepts to focus
What is meant by Compensatory Afforestation?
o Since forests are an important natural resource and provides us with a variety of ecological services, they
must not be destroyed. Because of developmental or industrial activities, forests are routinely cut, or, diverted
for non-forest purposes.
o In such cases, the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980 requires that non-forest land, equal to the size of the
forest being diverted, is afforested. This process is termed as Compensatory Afforestation.
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Bill, 2015
The aim of the bill is to provide institutional mechanism for Compensatory Afforestation at both centre and states.
o The Bill establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a
State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.
o These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present value of forest (NPV),
and (iii) other project specific payments.
o The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds for administrative expenses, and the State Funds will
receive the remaining 90%.
o These Funds will be primarily spent on afforestation to compensate for loss of forest cover, regeneration of
forest ecosystem, wildlife protection and infrastructure development.
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o The Bill also establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning
Authorities to manage the National and State Funds.
Key facts and Analysis of the Bill: There are several factors (other than administration of funds) which affect
compensatory afforestation and forest conservation. These factors are mentioned below:
o Procuring land for compensatory afforestation is difficult as land is a limited resource, and is required for
multiple purposes, such as agriculture, industry, etc. This is compounded by unclear land titles, and
difficulties in complying with procedures for land use.
o A High Level Committee on Environment Laws observed that quality of forest cover has declined between
1951 and 2014, with poor quality of compensatory afforestation plantations being one of the reasons behind
the decline.
o The Bill delegates the determination of NPV (value of loss of forest ecosystem) to an expert committee
constituted by the central government. As NPV constitutes about half of the total funds collected, its
computation methodology would be important.
What is meant by Net Present Value of forest?
o The newly afforested land is expected to take no less than 50 years to start delivering comparable goods and
services that the diverted forest would have provided.
o These goods and services include timber, bamboo, fuel wood, carbon sequestration, soil conservation, water
recharge, and seed dispersal.
o To compensate for this loss, the bill requires that the Net Present Value (NPV) of the diverted forest is
calculated for a period of 50 years, and recovered from the user agency that is diverting the forests.
CAMPA
o Compensatory Afforestation Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) manage the fund and use it for
designated purposes. Under the Bill, the CAMPA authorities are dominated by the forest bureaucracy, who
will just about unilaterally decide how this multi-crore outlay will be spent, and administer it.
o The Bill provides for one tribal expert or tribal representative in the authority.
What are the major challenges that India faces in implementing the bill?
o One of the major challenges in implementing the Compensatory Afforestation Bill is securing existing natural
tracts, making forests contiguous, safeguarding fragile habitat, and bringing fair compensation schemes for
local stakeholders like tribals and forest dwellers.
Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation (REDD)
o It is a mechanism negotiated under UNFCC since 2005.
o Its objective is to mitigate climate change through reducing net emissions of greenhouse gases through
enhanced forest management in developing countries.
o Inclusion of reducing emissions from land use change is considered essential to achieve the objectives of the
UNFCCC.
o During the negotiations for the Kyoto Protocol the inclusion of tropical forest management was debated but
eventually dropped due to anticipated methodological difficulties in establishing in particular
additionality and leakage (detrimental effects outside of the project area attributable to project activities).
o India did not participate in UN-REDD.
o REDD+ (Defined in Bali Action Plan, 2007, CoP13)
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o What constitutes "+": 1. sustainable management of forests, 2. conservation of forest carbon stocks and 3.
enhancement of forest carbon stocks.
What is the difference between REDD and REDD+?
o REDD = "reducing emissions from deforestation in developing countries"
o REDD+ (or REDD-plus) = to "reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing
countries, and the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests, and enhancement of forest
carbon stocks in developing countries"
o REDD+ is essentially a vehicle to financially reward developing countries for their verified efforts to reduce
emissions and enhance removals of greenhouse gases through a variety of forest management option.
o India favours REDD+
Practice Questions:
18. Which of the following is/are true with respect to Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF) Bill, 2015?
1) The Bill establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Consolidated Fund of India.
2) Of all the funds collected, the National Fund will receive 25% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the
remaining 75%.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. SOLAR ENERGY
Why is this topic important?
Solar energy is important because the sun is a sustainable source of energy that can be used to power homes and
businesses globally.
On the other hand, Fossil fuels are finite, so it's important that alternative energy sources be embraced because It
is widely believed that fossil fuels are causing global warming.
So moving to renewables becomes extremely important.
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Concepts to focus
Indias largest floating Solar PV Plant
o Recently, NTPC has installed Indias largest floating solar photovoltaic (PV) plant at Rajiv Gandhi Combined
Cycle Power Plant (RGCCPP) at Kayamkulam in Kerala.
o Such floating solar panel system saves land usage and could be installed on saline water environment.
o It has various benefits like conserving water through reduction of evaporation, increased power generation
due to cooling effect on the panels, reduced installation time.
Worlds Largest Solar Power Plant Commissioned in Tamil Nadu at Kamudhi in Ramanathapuram district.
International Solar Alliance
o Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and French President Francois Hollande together invited over 100
countries to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA). The initiative has been launched by them on first day of
the Climate Change Conference (COP21), Paris Summit.
o International Solar Alliance (ISA) is conceived as a coalition of solar resource rich countries (countries lying
fully or partially between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn) to address their special energy
needs and will provide a platform to collaborate on addressing the identified gaps through a common,
agreed approach.
o ISA has been envisioned as a specialized platform and will contribute towards the common goal of increasing
utilization and promotion of solar energy and solar applications in its member countries.
o The institutional structure of ISA consists of an Assembly, a Council and a Secretariat. The secretariat of the
ISA is to be located in India.
o Its members will take coordinated actions through programmes and activities that will aggregate demands
for solar finance, solar technologies, innovation, R&D and capacity building.
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Practice Questions:
21. Which of the following statements is/are correct about International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
1. All countries between tropics of Cancer and Capricorn are part of International Solar Alliance (ISA).
2. It will function from the National Institute of Solar Energy in India, Gurgaon.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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THEME 3
BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY
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o It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of
the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources. The
Protocol was adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Aichi Province, Japan, and entered into force in 2014.
o Its objective is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources,
thereby contributing to the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity. The Strategic Plan consists of 20
new biodiversity targets for 2020, termed the 'Aichi Biodiversity Targets'
Aichi Biodiversity Targets
The 20 Aichi Targets are divided into 5 sections
o Strategic Goal A: Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming biodiversity across
government and society
o Strategic Goal B: Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use.
o Strategic Goal C: To improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species and genetic
diversity.
o Strategic Goal D: Enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services.
o Strategic Goal E: Enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge management and
capacity building.
International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
o Popularly known as the International Seed Treaty.
o International agreement in harmony with the Convention on Biological Diversity.
o Aims at guaranteeing food security through the conservation, exchange and sustainable use of the worlds
plant genetic resources for food and agriculture (PGRFA), as well as the fair and equitable benefit sharing
arising from its use.
India and the convention on Biological Diversity
o In pursuance to Article 6 of the CBD, India within five years of ratifying the convention had developed a
National Policy and Macro level Action Strategy on Biodiversity in 1999.
o The Ministry of Environment and Forests implemented an externally-aided project on National Biodiversity
Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP) from 2000-2004.
Biological Diversity Act
o In pursuance to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), India had enacted the Biological Diversity Act in
2002 following a widespread consultative process over a period of eight years.
o The Act gives effect to the provisions of the CBD.
o It also addresses access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge to ensure equitable
sharing of benefits arising out of their use to the country and its people.
o India is one of the first few countries to have enacted such legislation.
o Twenty two State Biodiversity Boards have been established till date.
o To regulate access to genetic resources and associated sharing arrangements, apart from developing policies
and programmes on long term conservation and protection of biological resources and associated
knowledge, the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was promulgated.
o All foreign nationals require approval from NBA for obtaining Biological Resources.
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Practice Questions
23. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Cartagena Protocol?
1. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was the first international regulatory framework for safe transfer, handling
and use of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs)
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2. It was negotiated under the aegis of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
3. India is party to the protocol.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
25. Consider the following statements about National Biodiversity Authority (NBA):
1. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established to implement India's Biological Diversity Act (2002).
2. The NBA is a statutory and an autonomous body.
3. The NBA has its headquarters in Chennai.
4. Biological Diversity Act 2002 mandates all local bodies to setup Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC).
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4
(d) All the above
26. The Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) Protocol adopted by COP-10 at Nagoya is regarding the fair and equitable
sharing of benefits arising from the use of:
(a) The genetic resources of the Earth.
(b) Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs)
(c) Marine and coastal areas significant for eco-tourism.
(d) Technology transfer mechanisms for Clean Energy Development.
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9. WILDLIFE CONSERVATION
Why is this topic important for the exam?
Wildlife conservation is the attempt to protect endangered animal and plant species, along with their natural
habitat. The main objective is to make sure that their habitats will be preserved so that the future generations of
both wildlife and humans can mutually benefit.
Q. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area
but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that
animal? (Pre:2011)
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle
Q. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect
and use the biomass? (Pre : 2012)
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
Q. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the
establishment of
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) Botanical Gardens
(c) National Parks
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
Q. The Red Data Books published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(IUCN) contain lists of: (2011)
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots,
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3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?(Pre:2012)
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
Q. Government of India encourages the cultivation of sea buckthorn. What is the importance of this plant? (Pre:
2012)
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(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
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a. Schedule I and part II of schedule II are the most important sections of the act. These sections covers
animals which are in the category of endangered species. The sections in this schedule give absolute
protection to certain species and these cannot be infringed on any account.
b. Schedule III and IV - These also have roughly the same provisions of Section I and II, but cover animals
that are not in danger of becoming extinct. The penalties under this section are also less than Schedule I
and II.
c. Schedule V delineates animals that can be hunted like ducks and deers with the prior permission of chief
wildlife warden.
d. Schedule VI concerns cultivation and plant life and gives teeth to setting up more protected animal parks.
Vermin
o Vermin means wild mammals and birds which are harmful to crops, farm animals or which carry disease.
o In India, wild animals can be declared as vermin if they have become
o Dangerous to human life or property (including standing crops on any land).
o Become disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery.
o Using these provisions, any animal listed in Schedule I to IV of WPA can be declared vermin by listing it in
Schedule V for a specific period.
o Currently, some animals like the common crow, fruit bats, mice and rats have been listed as vermin in
Schedule V of WPA.
Animal welfare board of India
o The Animal Welfare Board of India was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to
Animals Act, 1960. Well-known humanitarian Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale was instrumental in setting up the
board and was its first chairperson.
o The Board was initially within the jurisdiction of the Government of India's Ministry of Food and Agriculture.
And later in 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of
Environment and Forests.
o From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal
Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been
the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
o AWBI suggests changes to laws and rules about animal welfare issues. It also offers guidance to organisations
and officials such as police to help them interpret and apply the laws.
o The board also issues publications to raise awareness of various animal welfare issues. Its education team
gives talks on animal welfare subjects, and trains members of the community to be Certified Animal Welfare
Educators.
Difference between Tiger Reserves, National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Reserved Forests, etc.
All these can be broadly classified into two:
o Sites of Conservation Importance
Conservation Areas are areas of notable environmental or historical interest or importance which is protected
by law against undesirable changes. These areas are conserved by varying levels of legal protection which are
given by the policies formulated by the government or global conventions. They are Tiger Reserves, Elephant
Reserves ,Biosphere reserves, RAMSAR Wetland Sites, Natural World Heritage Sites- Important Coastal and
Marine Biodiversity Areas (ICMBA) Important Bird Areas (IBAs)
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National Initiatives - National Parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, rules and procedures for their establishment.
o Declaration of Sanctuary:
A wildlife sanctuary is defined by State Government via a Notification. There is no need to pass legislation
(act) by the state assembly to declare a wildlife sanctuary. Fixation and alternation of boundary can be done
by state legislature via resolution. No need to pass an act for alternation of boundaries. No alternation of
boundaries in wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL (National Board of Wildlife)
Limited human activities are permitted in the sanctuary.
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1 Nilgiri Part of Wayanad, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Nilgiri Tahr, Lion-tailed macaque
(UNESCO MAB) Madumalai, Nilambur, Silent Valley and
Siruvani hills (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and
Karnataka).
2 Nanda Devi Part of Chamoli, Pithoragarh, and Bageshwar Asiatic black bear, snow leopard,
(UNESCO MAB) districts (Uttarakhand). brown bear and blue sheep
5 Gulf of Mannar Indian part of Gulf of Mannar between India Dugong or Sea Cow
(UNESCO MAB) and Sri Lanka (Tamil Nadu).
8 Simlipal Part of Mayurbhanj district (Orissa). Gaur, Royal Bengal Tiger, Wild
(UNESCO MAB) elephant
10 Dehang-Dibang Part of Siang and Dibang Valley in Arunachal Mishmi takin, Red goral, musk
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11 Pachmarhi Parts of Betul, Hoshangabad and Chindwara Giant Squirrel, Flying Squirrel
(UNESCO MAB) districts of Madhya Pradesh.
12 Khangchendzonga Parts of Khangchendzonga hills and Sikkim. Snow Leopard, Red Panda
14 Achanakamar Covers parts of Anupur and Dindori districts striped Hyaena, four-horned
Amarkantak of M.P. and parts of Bilaspur districts of antelope, Chital, Wild Bear,
(UNESCO MAB) Chhattishgarh State. Leopard
15 Kachchh Part of Kachchh, Rajkot, Surendra Nagar and Indian Wild Ass
Patan Civil Districts of Gujarat State.
16 Cold Desert Pin Valley National Park and surroundings; Snow Leopard
Chandratal and Sarchu & Kibber Wildlife
Sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh.
17 Seshachalam Hills Seshachalam Hill Ranges covering parts of Slender Loris, Indian giant
Chittoor and Kadapa districts of Andhra squirrel, Mouse deer Golden
Pradesh. Gecko, Yellow throated bul bul.
IUCN
o Created in 1948, IUCN has evolved into the worlds largest and most diverse environmental network.
o It is a member union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organisations.
o It provides public, private and non-governmental organisations with the knowledge and tools that enable
human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place together.
o The organization is best known for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List, which assesses the
conservation status of species worldwide.
IUCN Red List
o The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the worlds most comprehensive inventory of
the global conservation status of biological species.
o When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official term threatened is a grouping of three categories: Critically
Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable.
o The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species. As the status of the species
changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers.
o Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered, but have now recovered to a point
where they are no longer threatened.
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2. CITES
o CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is also known
as the Washington Convention.
o It is a multilateral treaty drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
3. TRAFFIC
o The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC)
o Found in 1976, TRAFFIC is a non-governmental organization working globally on trade in wild animals and
plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
o TRAFFIC is a joint programme of World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and IUCN.
o Traffic is complementary to Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES).
o TRAFFICs mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of
nature.
o It investigates and analyses wildlife trade trends, patterns, impacts and drivers to provide the leading
knowledge base on trade in wild animals and plants.
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o It has put the endangered tiger on a guaranteed path of revival by protecting it from extinction.
o The Project Tiger aims to promote an exclusive tiger agenda in the core areas of tiger reserves, with inclusive
people participation.
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Concepts to focus
Elephant Census
The states conduct the census based on an identical set of rules using:
o Direct counting method: The direct counting method is based on sighting of elephants
o Indirect counting method: This method uses the elephant dung decay formula, in which the analysis of dung
is used to estimate the population. This method already been used in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
o Earlier, field officials were deputed inside a forest area for direct counting. It was expected that the entire
area would be covered. But, that is not possible because of many reasons. As a result, the population was
underestimated in some places while duplication was reported elsewhere. A simultaneous census will
eliminate these factors.
Conservation of Elephants in India:
o In our country there are approximately 30 thousand elephants spread in 16 Elephant states. Maximum
number of elephants is in Kerala, followed by Karnataka and Assam.
o Project Elephant: launched in 1991-92 as a centrally sponsored scheme to assist the States on three key areas:
1. Protection of wild elephants, their habitat and corridors, 2. Address the issue of man-animal conflict and
3. Welfare of domesticated elephants.
o A total of 28 elephant reserves have been so far notified in India by the state governments. Out of 28
Elephant Reserves maximum number is in Assam and Odisha with five each.
Two new tiger reserves to Uttarakhand
o The Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary and the Surai Forest Range are the two proposed tiger reserves.
o The Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary falls under the Terai Arc Landscape spanning across India and Nepal and
Surai forest range falls under the Terai East division of the Uttarakhand forest department.
o The Nandhaur landscape lies between the rivers Gola and Sharda, in the Haldwani forest division, which
includes five ranges namely Chakata, Nandhaur, Jaulasal, Danda and Sharda. The Nandhaur sanctuary has a
healthy population of Asian elephants, leopards and sloth bears along with Tigers.
How many Tiger reserves already exist in Uttarakhand?
o Uttarakhand now has two tiger reserves the Corbett Tiger Reserve and the Rajaji Tiger Reserve.
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o Corbett tiger reserve is also the oldest national park in India and it was the first to come under the Project
Tiger initiative.
o With the addition of the 2 proposed reserves Uttarakhand would become the first state in North India to get
four tiger reserves.
o Thestate has the second highest tiger population in the country after Karnataka.
How will a National Park or a Wildlife Sanctuary get a Tiger Reserve status?
o To get the tiger reserve status to a national park, the state government has to send a proposal to National
Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
o After NTCA has given its final approval, the State Govt. can notify the tiger reserve based on NTCA
recommendation.
Practice Questions
27. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
2. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national
laws.
Select the correct using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
28. Which of the following Indian Biosphere reserves have been included in the world network of Biosphere reserves
under the UNESCOs Indias Biosphere reserves?
1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Agasthyamalai
3. Achanakamar Amarkantak
4. Seshachalam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 only
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THEME THREE| BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY
30. World Heritage Sites are places of importance of cultural or natural heritage as described in the UNESCO World
Heritage Convention, established in 1972. These Heritage sites from the State of Himachal Pradesh is/are
1. Great Himalayan National Park
2. Kalka - Shimla railway
3. Nanda Devi National Park
4. Valley of Flowers National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above
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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY
THEME 4
ECOLOGY
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raising the ultimate irrigation potential from 140 million hectare to 175 million hectare and generation of
34000 megawatt of power.
o Apart from the above, implementation of NPP would lead to Domestic & Industrial Water Supply,
Employment Generation, Salinity Control, Pollution Control and Recreation Facilities.
Provisions relating to Water in Constitution
o Entry 56 of List 1 of Schedule VII: (Union List), Shipping and navigation in National waterways.
o Entry 17 of List II of Schedule VII: (State List), Inland waterways, irrigation, drainage, canals, supplies,
embankments.
o Article 262 empowers the parliament to legislate in disputes pertaining to Inter-state River Water Disputes.
Convention on the Law of the Non-Navigational Uses of International Watercourses
o It is a document adopted by the UN on May 21, 1997, pertaining to the use and conservation of all waters
that cross international boundaries, including surface and ground water.
o The convention is not yet ratified.
o India, US, China, Canada and Australia are major opponents of the CLNNUIW.
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Objectives of NTCA:
o Providing statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its directives becomes legal.
o Fostering accountability of Centre-State in management of Tiger Reserves, by providing a basis for MoU with
States within our federal structure.
o Providing for an oversight by Parliament.
o Addressing livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding Tiger Reserves.
o Functions: Its functions are to assist in population assessment of tigers, law enforcement, wildlife forensics,
infrastructural development and mitigation, smart patrolling and advisory role in policy formulation.
Project Tiger is a centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change,
providing funding support to tiger range States, for in-situ conservation of tigers in designated tiger reserves.
Panna Tiger Reserve
o Panna tiger reserve is situated in Vindhyan mountain ranges of northern part of Madhya Pradesh and is
spread over the Panna and Chattarpur districts. The terrain consists of extensive plateaus and gorges.
o River Ken flowing from south to north passes through the reserve. It is the lifeline of this reserve and is the
least polluted of Yamunas tributaries. Ken Gharial Sanctuary forms a significant part of the catchment area of
this river. The path of the meandering Ken offers some spectacular scenery.
o The reserve is also dotted with two thousand year-old rock paintings.
o This reserve contains the last remaining tiger habitat of North Madhya Pradesh. Apart from the tiger, it is
home to other animals like the leopard, nilgai, chinkara, chousinga, chital, rusty spotted cat, porcupine, and
sambhar. Gharials (long snouted crocodiles) and muggars (marsh crocodiles) can be found in River Ken.
o Poaching is one of the significant concerns of this tiger reserve.
Jal Manthan-III was organized on January 13, 2017 in New Delhi to have wider consultations among various
stakeholders to brain-storm new ideas for solutions to various issues of water sector.
4th India Water Week Themed Water for all: Striving together was organized in 2016.
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Practice Questions:
31. Consider the following statements regarding Panna Tiger Reserve:
1. Panna tiger reserve is situated in Vindhyan mountain ranges.
2. It is drained by River Betwa.
3. It is present in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only 1
(d) All the above
32. Consider the following statements regarding National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) :
1. National Board for Wild Life is an advisory body.
2. Alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL.
Select the correct code from below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
33. Consider the following statements about the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
1. The Union Minister of Environment and Forests is the chairperson of NBWL.
2. National Board for Wild Life is a Statutory Organization constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
Select the correct code from below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
34. The National board of Wild life (NBWL) has given its much-awaited clearence to the Ken - Betwa interlinking of
rivers (ILR) project to benefit Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh .The Ken river is a tributary of:
(a) Yamuna
(b) Ganga
(c) Godavari
(d) Narmada
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Q. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma
regions as hotspots of biodiversity: (Pre: 2011)
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6
Q. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate
reason for this phenomenon? (Pre:2011)
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
(d) It has less human interference
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o Anaimudi (2,695 m) is the highest peak in the whole of southern India. Three ranges radiate in different
directions from Anaimudi. These ranges are the Anamalai (1800-2000 m) to the north, the Palani (900-1,200
m) to the north-east and the Cardamom Hills or the Ealaimalai to the south.
Marked landscape of Western Ghats across 1,29,037 Used remote sensing and aerial survey methods for
sq km. Using existing data. zonal demarcation of land in Western Ghats and marked
1,64,280 sq km landscape.
The report proposed to declare this entire landscape This report marks only 37 percent area (but considers
as ESA, creating three ESZs within it. wider Western Ghat boundaries) as ESA.
Existing sanctuaries and ESZ-1 60%(no mining Adopted the criteria followed by the Western Ghats
would be allowed) Development Programme of the Planning Commission
ESZ-2 15%(existing mines could continue in with a and marked 37 percent of this stretch as ESA where
moratorium on new licences) hazardous industries, thermal plants or mines would not
be allowed i.e. the restriction level of Kasturirangans
ESZ-3 25%(lowest priority areas) to allow all
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developmental activities with precautions i.e. new ESA corresponds to that of Gadgils ESZ-1
mines could come up
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o Way ahead: The states have 60 days to voice concerns over the draft notification. If no changes need to be
made, the notification will become final.
Endemic Species of Western Ghats
Four species are endemic to Western Ghats.
1. Malabar Large-spotted Civet
2. Lion-tailed Macaque
3. Brown Palm Civet
4. NilgiriTahr
Practice Questions:
35. Consider the following statements
1. The Narmada valley marks the northern limit of Western Ghats.
2. Palani hills, Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills converge at Doda Betta.
3. Mahendra Giri is highest peak in Eastern Ghats.
Which among the following are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) All the above
36. The trees found in the western side of Western Ghats and in the Northeast region generally dont shed their leaves
i.e. they are evergreen.
What are the possible reasons?
1) These regions do not have prolonged dry season.
2) These regions dont have severe winters.
3) These regions have the humidity level beyond 75% almost throughout the year.
Choose the correct reason/s from the codes below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 only
(d) All the above
37. Which among the following is the highest peak in the peninsular plateau?
(a) Annapurna peak
(b) Dodda Beta
(c) Anaimudi peak
(d) K2 (Godwin Austen)
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38. Which among the following are the important gaps in the Western Ghats?
(a) Palghat
(b) Borghat
(c) Thalghat
(d) All the above
Q. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine
productivity by bringing the: (Pre:2011)
1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. nutrients to the surface.
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to- the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
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Q. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? (Pre:2012)
1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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o This is the worst die-off ever recorded in Great Barrier Reef and also the largest ever recorded anywhere,
called the third global bleaching event the first occurred in 1998.
o It is estimated that nearly two-thirds of 2,300-kilometre long reef or 700 km stretch of coral in the Great
Barrier Reefs northern part have died in the past nine months.
o The Great Barrier Reef is a site of remarkable variety and beauty on the north-east coast of Australia. It
contains the worlds largest collection of coral reefs, with 400 types of coral, 1,500 species of fish and 4,000
types of mollusc. It also holds great scientific interest as the habitat of species such as the dugong (sea cow)
and the large green turtle, which are threatened with extinction.
What are the reasons for the mass coral bleaching in Great Barrier Reef?
o Warmer sea temperatures
o El-Nino
o Burning of fossil fuels
o Unregulated coal mining in Australia
o Study noted that climate change had added 1.0 degree Celsius of warming to ocean temperatures.
Practice Questions
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Corals are considered as the tropical rain forests of oceans.
2. Coral reefs are fragile ecosystem which are susceptible to climate change.
Which of the above is/are correct regarding coral reefs?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
41. Corals reefs are generally absent on the western coasts of continents. This is because
(a) western coast of continents witnesses subsidence of air.
(b) western coast of continents have cold currents.
(c) western coast of continents have dry winds blowing over them.
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Q. Wetland locations
Wetlands Confluence of rivers
1. Harike wetland Beas and Satluj
2. Keolado Ganga National Park Banas and Chambal
3. Kolleru Lake Musi and Krishna
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY
Q. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the Montreux Record, what does it imply?
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of
human interference.
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo
meters from the edge of the wetland
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its
vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
(d) It is given the status of World Heritage Site
Q. With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for
better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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o Among the most productive life support, wetlands have immense socio-economic and ecological importance
for mankind. They are crucial to the survival of natural biodiversity. They provide suitable habitats for
endangered and rare species of birds and animals, endemic plants, insects besides sustaining migratory birds.
Importance of Wetlands
o Wetlands are indispensable for the countless benefits or ecosystem services that they provide humanity,
ranging from freshwater supply, food and building materials, and biodiversity, to flood control, groundwater
recharge, and climate change mitigation.
o Wetlands are habitat to aquatic flora and fauna, numerous species of native and migratory birds.
o Wetlands are an important resource for sustainable tourism.
o They carry out water purification, filtration of sediments and nutrients from surface water.
o They help in nutrients recycling, ground water recharging and stabilization of local climate.
o Play an important role in flood mitigation by controlling rate of runoff.
o Buffer shorelines against erosion and pollutants.
o They act as genetic reservoir for various species of plants (especially rice).
Reasons for depletion
o Excessive pollutants (Industrial effluents, domestic waste, agricultural runoff etc.) are dumped into wetlands
beyond the recycling capacity.
o Habitat destruction and deforestation creates ecological imbalance by altering the population of wetland
species.
o Conversion of wetlands for agriculture and encroachment by public and mafia.
o Over fishing and fish farming (Aqua culture).
o Overgrazing in marshy soils.
o Removal of sand from beds near seas makes the wetland vulnerable to wave action and tidal bore.
Organisations and conventions for protection of Wetlands
1. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
o The Convention on Wetlands, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971, is an intergovernmental treaty which provides
the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of
wetlands and their resources.
o Ramsar Convention is the only global environment treaty dealing with a particular ecosystem.
o The Convention uses a broad definition of the types of wetlands covered in its mission, including lakes and
rivers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands and peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, near-shore
marine areas, mangroves and coral reefs, and human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs,
and salt pans.
o At the centre of the Ramsar philosophy is the wise use of wetlands. - Wise use: maintenance of ecological
character within the context of sustainable development.
o At the time of joining the Convention, each Contracting Party undertakes to designate at least one wetland
site for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance.
o The inclusion of a Ramsar Site in the List embodies the governments commitment to take the steps
necessary to ensure that its ecological character is maintained.
o The country with the highest number of Sites is the United Kingdom with 170
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o If it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of
a particular biogeographic region.
o If it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during
adverse conditions.
o If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of water birds.
o If it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path.
o If it is an important source of food and water resource, increased possibilities for recreation and eco-tourism,
etc.
o The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of international importance where
changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological
developments, pollution or other human interference and therefore in need of priority conservation
attention.
o Loktak Lake (Manipur): Due to deforestation in the catchment area, infestation of water hyacinth and
pollution. The construction of a hydroelectric power plant has caused the local extinction of several native
fish species.
o Keoladeo National Park: Water shortage and unbalanced grazing regime around it. The invasive growth of the
grass and reducing its suitability for certain water-bird species, notably the Siberian Crane.
The Ramsar Convention works closely with six other organizations known as International Organization Partners
(IOPs). These are:
1. Birdlife International
4. Wetlands International -
5. WWF
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Wetlands in India
Policies in India
o National Wetland Policy : National wetland strategy encompass
a. Conservation and collaborative management,
b. Prevention of loss and promotion of restoration and
c. Sustainable management.
o These include protection of the existing wetlands. Of the many wetlands in India, only around 68 wetlands
are protected. But there are thousands of other wetlands that are biologically and economically important
but have no legal status.
o Planning, Managing and Monitoring of Wetlands comes under the Protected Area Network have
management plans but others do not.
o It is important for various stakeholders along with the local community and the corporate sector to come
together for an effective management plan. Active monitoring of these wetland systems over a period of
time is essential.
o Although several laws protect wetlands there is no special legislation pertaining specially to these
ecosystems.
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o Environment Impact Assessment is needed for major development projects and highlighting threats to
wetlands need must be included and appropriate measures to be formulated.
o Coordinated Approach is required because Wetlands are common property with multi-purpose utility; their
protection and management also need to be a common responsibility.
o An appropriate forum for resolving the conflict on wetland issues has to be set up.
o It is important for all the relevant ministries to allocate sufficient funds towards the conservation of these
ecosystems.
o There is a necessity for research in the formulation of a national strategy to understand the dynamics of
these ecosystems.
o This could be useful for the planners to formulate strategies for the mitigation of pollution. The scientific
knowledge will help the planners in understanding the economic values and benefits, which in turn will help
in setting priorities and focusing the planning process.
o Building Awareness is needed. Awareness among the general public, educational and corporate institutions
must be created for achieving any sustainable success in the protection of these wetlands. The policy makers
at various levels, along with site managers, need to be educated.
o The bi-lateral cooperation in the resource management needs to be enhanced if country's wetlands are
shared.
Sambhar Lake
o The Sambhar Salt Lake, Indias largest inland salt lake a bowl shape lake encircles historical sambhar lake
town of Rajasthan.
o It is India's largest saline lake and is the source of most of Rajasthan's salt production. It produces 196,000
tonnes of clean salt every year, which equates to around 9% of India's salt production.
o Salt is produced by evaporation process of brine and is mostly managed by Sambhar Salts Ltd. (SSL), a joint
venture of the Hindustan Salts Ltd. and the state government.
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o Sambhar has been designated as a Ramsar site (recognized wetland of international importance) because the
wetland is a key wintering area for tens of thousands of Flamingoes and other birds that migrate from
northern Asia
o The specialized algae and bacteria growing in the lake provide striking water colours and support the lake
ecology that, in turn, sustains the migrating waterfowl.
Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules:
o The rules are applicable to three types of wetlands:
a. Wetlands of international importance under Ramsar Convention.
b. Wetlands notified by central govt based in Union Territories.
c. Wetlands notified by State govts located in their respective states.
o The wetland rules 2016 follow the wise use philosophy of the Ramsar Convention and accord emphasis on
maintaining ecological character and integrity of wetlands in their conservation and use. Accordingly, the
following activities have been prohibited in wetlands:
a. 12 activities including fishing, boating, dredging, etc. are restricted without prior permission from the
state government.
b. Activities prohibited in wetlands include reclamation, constructing permanent structures within 50 m,
setting up or expanding industries, throwing waste, etc.
c. An Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is compulsory before undertaking any activity in a wetland
area.
Practice Questions
43. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the Montreux Record, what does it imply?
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of
human interference.
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo
meters from the edge of the wetland.
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its
vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
(d) It is given the status of World Heritage Site
44. With reference to conservation organization called Wetlands International, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for
better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY
46. The Draft Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2016 are applicable to which of the following sites?
1) Wetlands under Ramsar Convention.
2) Wetlands notified by State Governments located in respective states.
3) Wetlands notified by Central Government located in union territories.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All the above
14. Mangroves
Why is this topic important for the exam?
Mangrove forests are home to a large variety of fish, crab, shrimp, and mollusc species. These fisheries form an
essential source of food for thousands of coastal communities around the world.
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o Pollution : Fertilizers, pesticides, and other toxic man-made chemicals carried by river systems from sources
upstream can kill animals living in mangrove forests, while oil pollution can smother mangrove roots and
suffocate the trees.
o Climate change : Mangrove forests require stable sea levels for long-term survival. They are therefore
extremely sensitive to current rising sea levels caused by global warming and climate change.
Mangroves distribution in the world
o About one third of the worlds mangroves are found in Asia (39%), followed by Africa (21%) and North and
Central America (15%).
Distribution of Mangroves in India
o The mangroves of Sundarbans are the largest single block
of tidal halophytic mangroves of the world.
o This mangrove forest is famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger
and crocodiles. Mangrove areas here are being cleared for
agricultural use.
o The mangroves of Bhitarkanika (Orissa), which is the
second largest in the Indian sub-continent, harbour high
concentration of typical mangrove species and high
genetic diversity.
o Mangrove swamps occur in profusion in the intertidal
mudflats on both side of the creeks in the Godavari-
Krishna deltaic regions of Andhra Pradesh.
o Mangroves of Pichavaram and Vedaranyam are degraded
mainly due to construction of aquaculture ponds and salt
pans.
o On the west coast of India, mangroves, mostly scrubby
and degraded occur along the intertidal region of
estuaries and creeks in Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.
o The mangrove vegetation in the coastal zone of Kerala is very sparse and thin.
o In Gujarat (north-west coast) mangroves are found mainly in Gulf of Kachchh and the Kori creek.
o In size, mangroves range from bushy stands of dwarf mangroves found in Gulf of Kuchchh, to taller stands
found in the Sunderbans.
o On the Andaman & Nicobar Islands, the small tidal estuaries, neritic inlets and the lagoons support a dense
and diverse undisturbed mangrove flora.
International Conventions and treaties for the Protection of Mangroves
a) The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance The most Extensive treaty for the protection of
Mangroves;
b) The Convention for the Protection of World Cultural and Natural Heritage;
c) The Convention on the Conservation of Biological Diversity;
d) The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals; and,
e) The World Heritage Convention.
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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY
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flora and fauna of mangrove ecosystems. Since 1927, the Indian Forest Act has been applied to the
mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, which have been declared as a reserved area.
o The Forest Conservation Act, 1980 states that no forest area shall be diverted for any non-forestry purpose
without prior approval of the Government of India. This act has proved very effective in preventing diversion
of mangrove forest areas for non-forestry purposes.
o The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has had a crucial role in the conservation and management of
mangrove ecosystems. - It declares a Coastal Regulation Zone in which industrial and other activities such as
discharge of untreated water and effluents, dumping of waste, land reclamation and bunding are restricted in
order to protect the coastal environment. Coastal stretches are classified into four categories, and mangroves
are included in the most ecologically sensitive category.
Practice Questions
48. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Mangroves?
1. Mangroves can survive in high temperature area.
2. Mangroves can be found in Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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THEME FOUR| ECOLOGY
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THEME FIVE| WASTE MANAGEMENT
THEME 5
WASTE MANAGEMENT
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THEME FIVE| WASTE MANAGEMENT
2. Environmental issues: Releases of large proportion of hazardous gases like CO, methane as per CPCB report.
o Some of main causes for such problems arising out of solid waste are : 1. improper segregation of waste in
country, 2. insufficient recycling of waste in country though about more than 30% waste is recyclable, 3.
improper recyclable technology and inefficient regulatory mechanism.
o Keeping in mind the alarming issues the cities are facing, the union government revised Solid waste
management rules 2016 in regard to its Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.
o Indias Environment Ministry has notified rules targeting the wide range of groups like hotels, residential
colonies, bulk producers of consumer goods, ports, railway stations, airports and pilgrimage spots. This is to
ensure that the solid waste generated in their facilities are treated and recycled.
The Solid Waste Management, 2016 Rules' provide for:
o Mandatory Segregation- All waste generators will have to segregate and store the waste generated by them
under three separate categories - bio-degradable, non bio-degradable and domestic hazardous waste - in
suitable bins before handing it over to authorised rag pickers or waste collectors.
o Concept of Extended Producer Responsibility: Local bodies can charge a fee from generator of wastes. The
new rules have asked all such brand owners who sell products in non-biodegradable packaging material to
put in place a system to collect back the packaging waste generated due to their production (ET).
o Burning of Solid Waste has been prohibited
o Social Dimension has been adequately considered. Rag pickers are to be integrated in the formal system.
o Increasing Coverage: The new rules will now apply much beyond the municipal areas, extending to urban
agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways,
airports, airbase, port and harbour, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central State
and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance. Event organizers,
and new townships and group housing societies have been brought under the system. This would bring 450
million people under its ambit against 150 million previously.
o Waste-processing facilities will have to be set up within two years by all local bodies having a population of 1
million or more.
Thus social, environmental, aesthetic aims will be served by the rules. EPR would decrease the burden of
municipalities.
NGT bans open waste burning across the country with the following directions:
o Complete prohibition on open burning of waste on lands, including at landfill sites.
o For each such incident, violators will pay environmental compensation of Rs. 5,000 in case of simple burning
and Rs. 25,000 in case of bulk waste burning.
o States and UTs to enforce and implement Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in a time-bound manner.
o Union Environment Ministry and all States must pass appropriate directions in relation to the ban on short-
life Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) and chlorinated plastics within a period of six months.
o Establishment and operationalisation of plants for processing and disposal of the waste and selection and
specifications of landfill sites non-biodegradable waste and non-recyclable plastic should be segregated from
the landfill sites. It must be used for construction of roads and embankments in all road projects all over
country.
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Japanese researchers have successfully isolated a bacterium species Ideonellasakaiensis 201-F6 capable of breaking
down plastic polyethylene terephthalate (PET) or polyester. How?
1. Ideonellasakaiensis relies on PET film as a primary source of carbon for growth. It is capable of completely
degrading a thin film of PET in a short span of six weeks at 30C.
2. The bacterium species uses two enzymes in sequence to break down the highly biodegradable-resistant
polymer PET. First enzyme helps the bacterium to adhere to the PET and produce an intermediate substance
through process of hydrolysis. The second enzyme then works with water and acts on this intermediate
substance. It produces the 2 monomers ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid that are used for making PET
through polymerisation.
3. The bacteria could potentially be used in industrial recycling processes without having any adverse impact on
the environment.
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THEME FIVE| WASTE MANAGEMENT
E-Waste Management
o Electronic waste, or e-waste, is a term for electronic products that have become unwanted, non-working or
obsolete, and have essentially reached the end of their useful life. Used electronics which are destined for
reuse, resale salvage, recycling or disposal are also considered e-waste.
o Developed countries like USA, UK etc have a dedicated, stringent policy for managing this new-world
problem as more gadgets are consumed, more electronic equipment are thrown away and our environment
is hammered with the wastage of silicon chips, wires and conductors. E-waste in India is now generated 4
times faster than normal, solid waste.
o The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has introduced a strict and practical E-Waste
Management Rules, 2016, which will take over from the previous E-waste (Management & Handling) Rules,
2011 which wasnt enough to manage this massive problem of e-waste which has the potential to
permanently harm our environment.
E-Waste Management Rules, 2016
o For the first time in India, Manufacturer, Dealer, Refurbisher and Producer Responsibility Organization (PRO)
has been made responsible for managing the e-waste.
o E-waste rules will now include Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamps, as well
as other such equipment.
o The rules will bring the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), along with targets, i.e.
producers have been made responsible for collection of E-waste and for its exchange.
o State Governments has been also introduced to ensure safety, health and skill development of the workers
involved in dismantling and recycling operations.
o The process of dismantling and recycling has been simplified through one system of authorization and that
the Central Pollution Control Board will give the single authorization throughout the country.
o Emphasizing that toxic constituents present in E-waste and their disposal mechanism affect human health
and lead to various diseases, the transportation of E-waste has been made more stringent.
The Anthropocene concept:
o It is the new proposed epoch highlighting the impact humans have made to the planet.
o An epoch is an instant in time chosen as the origin of a particular era.
o Technosphere has enabled the production of enormous material objects, from simple tools to most
sophisticated computers and smart phones. Many of these, if arranged in strata and preserved into the
distant geological future as technofossils, will help in characterising and date the Anthropocene.
o The study suggests that if technofossils were to be classified as normal fossils based on their shape, form
and texture the number of individual types of technofossils now on the planet likely reaches a billion or
more thus outnumbering the numbers of biotic species now living.
What is Technosphere?
o The Technosphere is a major new phenomenon of this planet and is extraordinarily rapid.
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o It is comprised of all of the structures that humans have constructed to keep them alive on the planet (from
houses, factories and farms to computer systems, smart phones and CDs, to the waste in landfills and spoil
heaps).
o Humans and human organisations also form part of it, as the Technosphere is a system, with its own
dynamics and energy flows and humans have to help keep it going to survive.
o Technosphere is proposed by US scientist Peter Haff.
Fly Ash Utilisation Policy
What is Fly Ash?
o Fly ash is a by-product of burning pulverized coal especially in electric power generating plants. During
combustion, mineral impurities in the coal like clay, feldspar, quartz, and shale fuse in suspension and float
out of the combustion chamber with the exhaust gases. Ash that falls at the bottom of the boiler is called
bottom ash.
o Fly ash includes substantial amounts of oxides of silica, aluminium and calcium. Element like Arsenic, Boron,
Chromium, lead etc. are also found in trace concentrations and is hazardous to environment and health. The
Fly ash causes air pollution, contaminate water and soil systems.
Significance of Fly Ash
o All fly ashes exhibit cementitious properties to varying degrees depending on the chemical and physical
properties of both the fly ash and cement. Compared to cement and water, the chemical reaction between fly
ash and calcium hydroxide typically is slower resulting in delayed hardening of the concrete.
o Fly ash chemically reacts with the by-product calcium hydroxide released by the chemical reaction between
cement and water to form additional cementitious products that improve many desirable properties of
concrete.
Fly Ash Utilisation Policy states that:
o This fly ash will be used to make bricks, blocks, tiles, wall panels, cement and other construction materials. It
will save soil excavation and protect environment.
o Earlier, use of fly ash was allowed within 100 kms radius of power plant, now it has been extended to 300
kms, the official said.
o The policy will create new employment opportunities in the power plant areas and also make available raw
material for construction at low cost to help Housing for all projects.
o Recyclable Uses: Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
It can be used in the production of bricks for building construction. Central Government has made it
mandatory for use of fly ash bricks in construction activities happening 500km around thermal power plants.
o Maharashtra has become the first state to adopt Fly Ash Utilisation Policy, paving way for prosperity by
generating wealth from waste, and environment protection.
International conventions that deal with movement of Hazardous wastes
1. Basel Convention
o Formally known as The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes
and their Disposal
o Aims to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations and specifically to prevent transfer of
hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries.
The Convention is also intended to:
o Minimize the amount and toxicity of wastes generated,
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o To ensure their environmentally sound management as closely as possible to the source of generation,
o To assist Least Developed Countries (LDCs) in environmentally sound management of the hazardous and
other wastes they generate.
o It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
o Its objective was to stop dumping of hazardous waste from developed countries in developing nations.
2. Rotterdam Convention
o Formally called as Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous
Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade
o Aims to promote shared responsibilities in relation to import of hazardous chemicals.
What it does?
o The convention promotes open exchange of information between importers-exporters of hazardous
chemicals.
o Calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labelling, include directions on safe handling, and
inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans.
o Signatory nations can decide whether to allow or ban the importation of chemicals listed in the treaty.
o Exporting countries are obliged to make sure that producers within their jurisdiction comply.
o Convention has a list of substances which can change and evolve over time.
3. Stockholm Convention
o It is an International treaty and aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of Persistent Organic
Pollutants. India is a party to this treaty.
Why regulate POPs?
o POPs are chemical substances that: 1. Persist in the environment, 2. Bio-accumulate through the food web, 3.
Pose a risk of causing adverse effects to human health.
o The environment Intergovernmental Forum on Chemical Safety (IFCS) and the International Programme for
Chemical Safety (IPCS) prepared a list, known as the Dirty Dozen:
a. Eight organ chlorine pesticides: aldrin, chlordane, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, heptachlor, mirex and toxaphene;
b. Two industrial chemicals: hexachlorobenzene (HCB) and the polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) group;
c. Two groups of industrial by-products: dioxins and furans.
o POPs can be reviewed and added to the convention, if they meet certain criteria for persistence and
transboundary threat i.e. list of POPs can change and evolve over time.
o There is provision that developed countries provide new and additional financial resources and measures to
minimise/regulate POPs to developing nations.
Describing the effects of the highly controversial and cheap agro-chemical Endosulfan (a potent persistent organic
pollutant) as devastating, the Supreme Court directed the Kerala government to release the entire compensation
to over 5000 victims, mostly newborns and the families who were living in the adjoining habitats of cashew
plantations where endosulfan was aerially sprayed.
o Endosulfan is an organic chlorine pesticide and a colourless solid which emerged as a highly controversial
agrichemical due to its acute toxicity, endocrine effects, and potential for bio-accumulation.
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o Endosulfan is used as an insecticide on a variety of crops, including many food crops such as teas, grains,
fruit, vegetables, and also on non-food crops such as tobacco and cotton. It is also used as wood
preservative.
o This chemical is classified among the worst of POPs (persistent organic pollutants).
Practice Questions
52. Which of the following are the features of newly notified E-Waste Management Rules, 2016 by the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change?
1. These rules for the first time will bring the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR).
2. For the first time, Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamp brought under the purview
of rules.
3. Provision for Pan India EPR Authorization by CPCB has been introduced replacing the state wise EPR authorization.
4. Micro and Small industry sector as defined in Micro Small and Medium Developmental Act, 2006 are completely
exempted with EPR Responsibility.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
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THEME SIX| GEOGRAPHY RELATED TOPICS
THEME 6
Q. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the: (Pre: 2013)
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
3. violent upward movement of air and water particles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above produces the thunder
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THEME SIX| GEOGRAPHY RELATED TOPICS
o The root cause is the rampant migration from rural areas to the cities that has caused immense pressure on
land, the failure of the civic authorities in checking encroachment of land which are traditional outlets for the
overflowing rivers, poor planning and corruption.
o Monsoon Pattern - These factors are further compounded by irregular pattern of monsoon, unseasonal rains
or even shift in the traditional periodicity of Monsoon.
Jhelum-Tawi Flood Recovery Project
o Jammu and Kashmir Government has launched Jhelum-Tawi flood recovery project to give push to the
reconstruction and rehabilitation of infrastructure post-2014 floods in the state. The project is funded by
World Bank. The loan was provided by International Development Association, the World Banks
concessionary lending arm.
o Continuous unprecedented heavy rainfall had caused Jhelum, Chenab and Tawi rivers and their tributaries to
flow above the danger mark. These overflowing rivers had flooded the catchment areas, particularly low lying
ones for more than two weeks. It had severely affected livelihoods and had damaged the basic infrastructure
in the state.
o The project seeks to strengthen and reinforce existing weak and vulnerable flood control infrastructure. The
investments will primarily include rehabilitation and renovation of storm water pumping stations in several
areas.
o The project will also focus on disaster risk mitigation in state and strengthen the capacity of government
entities in disaster risk management. It will also help in preparation of a Hydro-Meteorological Resilience
Action Plan to enhance preparedness and achieve resilient recovery. The action plan will focus on river
morphology study for some key rivers impacted by the disaster, extreme weather events and urban
vulnerability assessment.
Cyclone
o A cyclone is a large scale air mass that rotates around a strong centre of low atmospheric pressure. A tropical
cyclone is a rotating, organized system of clouds and thunderstorms that originates over tropical or
subtropical waters and has a closed low-level circulation. Tropical cyclones rotate counter clockwise in the
Northern Hemisphere.
o Hurricanes, cyclones, and typhoons are all the same weather phenomenon; it is just the use of different
names for these storms in different places. In the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific, the term hurricane is used.
The same type of disturbance in the Northwest Pacific is called a typhoon and cyclones occur in the South
Pacific and Indian Ocean.
o A cyclone is formed when a warm temperature of the sea reaches a threshold level and the wind structure is
rising. In other words, Tropical Cyclones derive their energy from the warm tropical oceans and do not form
unless the sea-surface temperature is above 26.5C.
o However, once formed they can persist at lower temperatures and dissipate over land or colder oceans. The
eye of the cyclone is the centre of the cyclone where the focus lies. The areas surrounding the eye will be
most affected because of the strong wind.
o There are four stages that form a cyclone which include : Formative Stage, Immature Cyclone, Mature Cyclone,
Decay stage
o The precautionary warning of cyclones is usually made during the formative stages. Then, if necessary, an
evacuation will take place during the immature stages. The most dangerous stage is the mature progress,
where the cyclone reaches the peak limit of its strength cause the most damage. Finally, the cyclone will ease
into the decay stage and dissipate.
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THEME SIX| GEOGRAPHY RELATED TOPICS
Cyclone Vardah
o Cyclonic Storm Vardah is a strong tropical cyclone that affected South India. Under the influence of a
persistent area of convection, a low pressure area was formed in Malay Peninsula and adjoining north
Sumatra.
o It emerged as a tropical disturbance as it was moving slowly towards southeast Bay of Bengal. The storm
began travelling north towards Little Andaman, moving westward and soon it was named Cyclone Vardah,
the fourth named storm of the 2016 North Indian Ocean cyclone season.
Why is it named Vardah? (Naming of Cyclones)
o 'Vardah', which means 'red rose', the name of this severe cyclonic storm has been given by Pakistan. The
naming of tropical cyclones is a recent phenomenon. The process of naming cyclones involves several
countries in the region and is done under the aegis of the World Meteorological Organization.
o For the Indian Ocean region, deliberations for naming cyclones began in 2000 and a formula was agreed
upon in 2004. Eight countries in the region - Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri
Lanka and Thailand - all contributed a set of names which are assigned sequentially whenever a cyclonic
storm develops.
Area of impact
o As a strong low pressure area over Malay peninsula, Vardah had caused massive flash flooding in Thailand,
coastal areas of Sumatra and some Parts in Peninsular Malaysia witnessed flooding and landslides.
o In India, Andaman and Nicobar islands were hard hit by Vardah as it was a deep depression, Havelock island
in Andaman and Nicobar Islands worst hit by storm Vardah, and further became a very severe tropical
cyclone and moved towards south India over Bay Of Bengal and began its landfall in the areas surrounding
Chennai, in northern Tamil Nadu and off of the southern coast of Andhra Pradesh.
o A Landfall is the intersection of the centre of a tropical cyclone with a coastline, typically, in strong tropical
cyclones, a landfall occurs when the eye of the cyclone moves over land.
o A landfall is often accompanied by strong winds, lashing rain and rising sea waves that could endanger
people and cause damage to property inland.
Indian Monsoons
o Indian Monsoons are Convection cells on a very large scale.
o They are periodic or secondary winds with seasonal reversal in wind direction.
o India receives south-west monsoon winds in summer and north-east monsoon winds in winter.
o South-west monsoons are formed due to intense low pressure system formed over the Tibetan plateau.
o North-east monsoons are associated with high pressure cells over Tibetan and Siberian plateaus.
o South-west monsoons bring intense rainfall to most of the regions in India and north-east monsoons bring
rainfall to mainly south-eastern coast of India (Southern coast of Seemandhra and the coast of Tamil Nadu.).
o Countries like India, Indonesia, Bangladesh, Myanmar etc. receive most of the annual rainfall during south-
west monsoon season where as South East China, Japan etc., during north-east rainfall season.
Formation of Indian monsoon and Effects
1. The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. It refers to a season in which the wind system
reverses completely. The monsoons are experienced in the tropical area roughly between 20 N and 20 S.
2. India has two major monsoon patterns
a. South West
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THEME SIX| GEOGRAPHY RELATED TOPICS
b. North East
3. Various atmospheric conditions influence the monsoon winds.
a. The first condition is the differential heating and cooling of land and water. This creates low pressure on the
landmass, while high pressure is created over the seas around during day time, but is reversed during the
night time.
b. The second condition is the shift in the position of Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). In summer, the
equatorial trough normally positioned about 5N of the equator moves over the Ganga plain creating a
monsoon trough during the monsoon season.
c. The third condition is the presence of the high-pressure area that develops east of Madagascar. It is
approximately at 20S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the
Indian Monsoon.
d. The fourth condition develops during the summer - The Tibetan Plateau gets intensely heated resulting in
strong vertical air currents and high pressure over the plateau about 9 km above sea level.
e. The fifth condition develops during the summer due to the movement of the westerly jet streams to the north
of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian Peninsula.
4. Changes in pressure over the southern oceans also affect the monsoons.
5. In certain years, there is a reversal in the pressure conditions. This periodic change in pressure conditions is known
as the Southern Oscillation, or SO.
6. The Southern Oscillation is connected to El Nino, which is a warm ocean current that flows past the Peruvian Coast
and flows every two to five years in place of the cold Peruvian current. The phenomenon is, referred to as ENSO (El
Nino Southern Oscillations).
7. In India, the monsoon lasts for 100 to 120 days from early June and to mid-September.
8. The monsoon winds encounter various atmospheric conditions on their way and hence are pulsating in nature, and
not steady. The monsoon arrives with a sudden downpour of rainfall that continues for several days and this is
known as the burst of the monsoon.
9. The monsoon arrives at the southern tip of the Indian Peninsula generally by the first week of June.
10. By early September, the monsoon starts to withdraw or retreat and is a more gradual process. By mid-October, it
withdraws completely from the northern half of the peninsula. The withdrawal takes place progressively from north
to south from the first week of December to the first week of January; this is the start of the winter season.
11. The retreating monsoon winds move over the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal, and collect moisture on the way
and these monsoon winds reach the southern states of India by October, and are responsible for a second round
of rainfall. These are called the winter monsoons.
12. The winter monsoon is experienced in the states of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh in the first week of January.
Possible Emergence of ElNino
Meteorologists are likely to review the threat to the Indian monsoon from a possible El Nino. Scientists from the
India Meteorological Department, Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology and the Ministry of Earth Sciences are
expected to meet in to analyse a range of forecasts from international climate models and their own-that suggest
waters are likely to warm and change wind patterns enough to El Nino-like conditions.
What are the key findings of the review?
1. According to meteorologists, its too early to be sure of an El Nino and its impact on the monsoon, as predictions
made from a climate model before March could dramatically differ from that in April or later.
2. El Nino by itself isnt enough to disrupt a monsoon. How it influences the sea around India has to be studied and
there could be local factors that may be stronger.
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3. The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) doesnt seem to be giving good indications. A positive IOD is traditionally known to
bolster (strengthen) monsoon rains in India.
What is meant by El Nino?
1. El Nino is a climate cycle in the Pacific Ocean with a global impact on weather patterns. The cycle begins when
warm water in the western tropical Pacific Ocean shifts eastward along the equator toward the coast of South
America.
2. Normally, this warm water pools near Indonesia and the Philippines. During an El Nino, the Pacific's warmest
surface waters sit offshore of north-western South America.
3. This phenomenon observed in the southern Pacific ocean which emerges after a gap of 3 to 7 years and is
associated with abnormally high rainfall which is otherwise dry along the coast of Peru. This phenomena result in
floods in Peru while Pacific coast of Australia and Indonesia have abnormally dry conditions that forces collapse of
Agriculture with instances of Forest fire.
4. During El Nino there are on average fewer hurricanes over the Atlantic Ocean, the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of
Mexico. In the central Pacific Ocean El Nino brings more typhoons, both north and south of the equator. Their
more easterly genesis makes fewer of these tropical cyclones reach Australia. In the northern Pacific Ocean the area
with typhoons also shifts east. There are no effects on the number of cyclones over the Indian Ocean.
5. The phenomenon is not well understood but it is related to Ocean current and trade winds. In this Sea Surface
Temperature (SST) increases above normal by 0.5 degree.
6. In normal years the trade winds are fairly consistent and strong. The equatorial current of Pacific are well
developed which leads to development of warm Western Pacific Pool resulting in a zone of low pressure off
Australian and Indonesian Coast with rising limb of air causing rain.
7. At the same time Peruvian coast have cold current (Humboldt current) and upwelling which brings cold current
along coast of Peru resulting in High Pressure with descending air current. This is favourable to Peruvian economy
as Upwelling brought up nutrients at surface which flourishes fishing population.
8. This low Pressure at Australian Coast and High Pressure at Peruvian coast form a vertical cell called as Walker cell.
(This cell is exception to otherwise general pattern of Air circulation e.g. Trade winds, westerlies and Polar
circulation and tricellular meridional circulation. Here east-west zonal Pattern is found).
a. During El-Nino years, for reasons not yet known the trade winds of Pacific weakens, resulting in weak
equatorial current.
b. The Warm Pacific Pool waters flows back strengthening the Counter Equatorial current. This reverses water
flows southward towards Peruvian coast and this current is known as El Nino current. (It is warm surface
current appear at the coast of Peru during December flowing from equator towards Pole) which can stop the
upwelling Process.
c. This result in reversing the pressure cells (Now Peruvian coast have low pressure and Australian-Indonesian
coast having relative High Pressure) with this Walker Cell too is reversed i.e. rising limb of air at Peruvian
coast and descending limb of air along Australian coast which reverses the climatic condition along these
coast which results to Peruvian coast having High rainfall and West Pacific coast have dry condition).
ENSO= El Nino+ Southern Oscillations: The atmospheric component of El Nino/La Nina is called Southern
Oscillation. The clearest sign of the Southern Oscillation is the inverse relationship between surface air pressures at
two sites: Darwin, Australia, and the South Pacific island of Tahiti.
The ENSO cycle is the way scientists describe the fluctuations in temperature between the atmosphere and the
ocean in the east-central Equatorial Pacific. An El Nino year will have negative value of SOI (Southern Oscillation
Index) that means eastern pacific have below normal pressure over Tahiti and above normal pressure over Darwin.
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Practice Questions
55. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon is much more powerful than the Bay of Bengal branch because
(a) Arabian sea is larger than the Bay of Bengal.
(b) entire Arabian sea current advances towards India, whereas only a part of the Bay of Bengal current enters India.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none is correct because Bay of Bengal branch is more powerful.
56. With reference to monsoon of eastern Asia and southern Asia, consider the following statements:
1. Winter monsoon in eastern Asia is stronger than summer monsoon while it is the opposite in southern Asia.
2. The burst of monsoon over southern Asia is associated with turbulent weather whereas that in east Asia is
characterized by mild weather disturbances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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III. It has a declining trend with increasing distance from the sea.
IV. The monsoon rains occur in wet spells of few days duration at a time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) All
58. Which of the following sectors can possibly be affected by the onset of El-Nino?
1. Food processing industries
2. Irrigation sector
3. Power sector
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
60. The Kori Creek rich in mangroves is a tidal creek in the state of
(a) West Bengal (b) Odisha
(c) Karnataka (d) Gujarat
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ANSWERS
ANSWERS
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10
d a a a c d b c b c
Q11 Q12 Q13 Q14 Q15 Q16 Q17 Q18 Q19 Q20
a b c a a d b d a c
Q21 Q22 Q23 Q24 Q25 Q26 Q27 Q28 Q29 Q30
c c d c d a c d c d
Q31 Q32 Q33 Q34 Q35 Q36 Q37 Q38 Q39 Q40
a a b a c d c d c a
Q41 Q42 Q43 Q44 Q45 Q46 Q47 Q48 Q49 Q50
b d a b a d d c c d
Q51 Q52 Q53 Q54 Q55 Q56 Q57 Q58 Q59 Q60
c d a d c c d d a d
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CORRIGENDUM
CORRIGENDUM
With reference to the General Science & Technology (Vol. I) released on 28th March, 2017, please find
attached below the corrected questions (previous years asked by UPSC) which were misprinted in the
volume.
Q. A Team of scientists at Brookhaven National Q. In which of the following activities are IRS satellites
Laboratory including those from India created the used? (# Pre-2015)
heaviest anti-matter. What is/are the implications 1. Assessment of crop productivity
of the creation of anti-matter? (# Pre-2011)
2. Locating groundwater resources
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil
exploration cheaper 3. Mineral exploration
a) 1 only
Q. What do you understand by Standard Positioning
b) 2 and 3 only
Systems in GPS era? Discuss the advantages India
c) 1 and 3 only perceives from its ambitious IRNSS Programme
employing just 7 satellites. (# Main-2015)
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Discuss Indias achievements in the field of space
science and Technology. How the applications of
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Page - 32
Page - 18
Q. India is an important member of the International
Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor. If this
Q. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly experiment succeeds, what is the immediate
matched? (# Pre-2014) advantage for India? (# Pre-2016)
1) Cassini-Huygens: Orbiting the Venus and
a) It can use thorium in place of Uranium for the
transmitting data to the Earth
power generation
2) Messenger: Mapping and investigating
b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
3) Voyager 1 and 2: Exploring the outer Solar System
c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its
a) 1 only fission reactors in power generation
b) 2 and 3 d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation.
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3 Page - 45
Page - 52
Q. Which of the following have been accorded
Geographical Indication status: (# Pre-2015)
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees Q. With reference to Near Field Technology, which of
the following statements are correct? (# Pre-2014)
2. Rajasthani Daal Bati-churma
1. It is a contactless communication technology that
3. Tirupathi Laddu
uses electromagnetic radio fields
a) 1 only
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at
b) 2 and 3 a distance of even a metre from each other.
c) 1 and 3
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CORRIGENDUM
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