Broadcast and Acoustics

b. Half octave
1. Which best describe the sound wave? c. Third-octave
a. It may be longitudinal d. Decade
b. It is always transverse
c. It is always longitudinal 10. A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher than
d. All of the above a 500 Hz sound
a. 2
2. Which of the following can not travel through a b. 5
vacuum? c. 4
a. Electromagnetic wave d. 8
b. Radio wave
c. Soundwave 11. Sound waves composed of but one frequency is
d. Light wave a/an
a. Infra sound
3. Through which medium does sound travel b. Pure tone
fastest? c. Structure borne
a. Air d. Residual sound
b. Water
c. Steel 12. Sound wave has two main characteristics which
d. Mercury are
a. Highness and loudness
4. Speed that is faster than that of sound. b. Tone and loudness
a. Ultrasonic c. Pitch and loudness
b. Supersonic d. Rarefactions and compressions
c. Subsonic
d. Transonic 13. When waves bend away from straight lines of
travel, it is called
5. What is the speed of sound in air at 20C? a. Reflection
a. 1087 ft/s b. Diffraction
b. 1100 ft/s c. Rarefaction
c. 1126 ft/s d. Refraction
d. 200 ft/s
14. The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum
6. Calculate a half wavelength sound for sound of displacement of each air particle, is the property which
16000 Hz perceive as _____ of a sound
a. 35 ft a. Pitch
b. 10 ft b. Intensity
c. 0.035 ft c. Loudness
d. 100 ft d. Harmonics

7. The lowest frequency that a human ear can hear 15. It is the weakest sound that average human
is hearing can detect.
a. 5 Hz a. SPL = 0 dB
b. 20 Hz b. Threshold of hearing
c. 30 Hz c. Reference pressure = 2 x 10-5N/m2
d. 20 Hz d. A, b, c

8. Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the 16. What is a device that is used to measure the
human ear to hear (over 20 kHz) hearing sensitivity of a person?
a. Subsonic a. Audiometer
b. Ultrasonic b. OTDR
c. Transonic c. SLM
d. Stereo d. Spectrum analyzer

9. The frequency interval between two sounds 17. What is the device used in measuring sound
whose frequency ratio is 10 pressure levels incorporating a microphone, amplification,
a. Octave filtering and a display.
a. Audiometer c. 108 W/m2
b. OTDR d. 88 W/m2
c. SLM
d. Spectrum analyzer 26. The sound pressure level is increased by _____
dB if the pressure is doubled.
18. What weighted scale in a sound level meter a. 3
gives a reading that is most closely to the response of the b. 4
human ear? c. 5
a. Weighted scale A d. 6
b. Weighted scale B
c. Weighted scale C 27. The sound pressure level is increased by _____
d. Weighted scale D dB if the intensity is doubled.
a. 3
19. For aircraft noise measurements, the weighting b. 4
scale that is used is _____. c. 5
a. Weighted scale A d. 6
b. Weighted scale B
c. Weighted scale C 28. If four identical sounds are added what is the
d. Weighted scale D increase in level in dB?
a. 3
20. It is the device used to calibrate an SLM? b. 4
a. Microphone c. 5
b. Pistonphone d. 6
c. Telephone
d. Filter 29. The transmission of sound from one room to an
adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings.
21. _____ is the sound power measured over the a. Flanking transmission
area upon which is received. b. Reflection
a. Sound pressure c. Refraction
b. Sound energy d. Reverberation
c. Sound intensity
d. Sound pressure level 30. _____ is the continuing presence of an audible
sound after the sound source has stop.
22. A measure of the intensity of sound in a. Flutter echo
comparison to another sound intensity b. Sound concentration
a. Phon c. Sound shadow
b. Decibel d. Reverberation
c. Pascal
d. Watts 31. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB
a. Echo time
23. Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a b. Reverberation time
sound whose intensity is 0.007 W/m2. c. Delay time
a. 95 dB d. Transient time
b. 91 dB
c. 98 dB 32. A room containing relatively little sound
d. 101 dB absorption
a. Dead room
24. What is the sound pressure level for a given b. Anechoic room
sound whose RMS pressure is 200/m2? c. Live room
a. 200 dB d. Free-field
b. 20 dB
c. 140 dB 33. A room in which the walls offer essentially 100%
d. 14 dB absorption, therefore simulating free field conditions.
a. Dead room
25. What is the sound intensity for an RMS pressure b. Anechoic room
of 200 Pascal? c. Live room
a. 90 W/m2 d. Closed room
b. 98 W/m2
34. Calculate the reverberation time of the room, 42. A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1
which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound absorption mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its rated
140 sabins. efficiency?
a. 0.3 sec a. -10 dB
b. 3.5 sec b. -20 dB
c. 3 sec c. -30 dB
d. 0.53 sec d. -40 dB

35. It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic 43. An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a loudspeaker.
pressure in air into its equivalent electrical impulses If the rated efficiency of the loudspeaker is -60 dB. What is
a. Loudspeaker the maximum intensity 300 ft from it?
b. Amplifier a. 10 dB
c. Baffle b. 20 dB
d. Microphone c. 30 dB
d. 40 dB
36. _____ is a pressure type microphone with
permanent coil as a transducing element. 44. Speaker is a device that
a. Dynamic a. Converts sound waves into current and voltage
b. Condenser b. Converts current variations into sound waves
c. Magnetic c. Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. Carbon d. Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic
energy
37. A microphone which has an internal impedance
of 25 k is _____ type. 45. The impedance of most drivers is about _____
a. High impedance ohms at their resonant frequency.
b. Low impedance a. 4
c. Dynamic b. 6
d. Magnetic c. 8
d. 10
38. A microphone that uses the piezoelectric effect
a. Dynamic 46. It is a transducer used to convert electrical
b. Condenser energy to mechanical energy.
c. Crystal a. Microphone
d. Carbon b. Baffle
c. Magnetic assemble
39. _____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an d. Driver
effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange audio
frequency. 47. It is an enclosure used to prevent front and back
a. Tweeter wave cancellation.
b. Woofer a. Loudspeaker
c. Mid-range b. Driver
d. A or C c. Baffle
d. Frame
40. _____ is measure of how much sound is
produced from the electrical signal. 48. A circuit that divides the frequency components
a. Sensitivity into separate bands in order to have individual feeds to
b. Distortion the different drivers.
c. Efficiency a. Suspension system
d. Frequency response b. Dividing network
c. Magnet assembly
41. It describes the output of a microphone over a d. Panel board
range of frequencies.
a. Directivity 49. _____ is early reflection of sound.
b. Sensitivity a. Echo
c. Frequency response b. Pure sound
d. All of the above c. Reverberation
d. Intelligible sound
50. Noise reduction system used for film sound in a. Daytime
movie. b. Nighttime
a. Dolby c. Bed time
b. DBx d. Experimental period
c. dBa
d. dBk 59. The service area where the signal is not subject
to fading and co-channel interference.
51. Using a microphone at less than the a. Primary Service Area
recommended working distance will create a _____ which b. Secondary Service Area
greatly increases the low frequency signals. c. Intermittent Service Area
a. Roll-off d. Quarternary Service Area
b. Proximity effect
c. Drop out 60. It is a resistive load used in place of an antenna
d. None of the choices to test a transmitter under normal loaded condition
without actually radiating the transmitters output signal.
52. What is the unit of loudness? a. Auxiliary Tx
a. Sone b. Main Tx
b. Phon c. Secondary Tx
c. Decibel d. Artificial Antenna
d. Mel 61. The operating power of the auxiliary transmitter
shall not be less than _____% or never greater than the
53. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise authorized operating power of the main transmitter.
level a. 5
a. Noy b. 10
b. dB c. 15
c. Sone d. 20
d. Phon
62. What are the frequency limits of the MF BC
54. What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if its band?
intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2? a. 300-3000 kHz
a. 100 phons b. 3-30 MHz
b. 105 phons c. 535-1605 kHz
c. 110 phons d. 88-108 MHz
d. 100 phons
63. The center to center spacing between two
55. What is the process of sending voice, speech, adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____.
music or image intended for reception by the general a. 9 kHz
public? b. 200 kHz
a. Navigation c. 36 kHz
b. Telephony d. 800 kHz
c. Broadcasting
d. Mixing 64. How many AM stations can be accommodated in
a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest modulating frequency
56. What is the frequency tolerance for the RF is 10 kHz?
carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band? a. 10
a. Zero b. 15
b. 20 Hz c. 7
c. 10 Hz d. 14
d. 20 KHz
65. Short wave broadcasting operates in what band?
57. The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast a. MF
station should have a _____ polarization. b. HF
a. Vertical c. VHF
b. Horizontal d. VLF
c. Circular
d. Elliptical 66. What does the acronym STL stand for?
58. The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6 AM a. Station-to-link
local time b. Signal-to-loss-ratio
c. Shout-to-live 75. With stereo FM transmission, does a monaural
d. Studio-to-transmitter-link receiver produce all the sounds that a stereo does?
67. One of the main considerations in the selection a. Yes
of antenna site is (AM) b. No
a. Conductivity of the soil c. Either a or b
b. Height of the terrain d. Neither a or b
c. Elevation of the site
d. Accessibility 76. Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM
system?
68. One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary a. Before the matrix at the TX
services is: b. Before the matrix at the RX
a. Remote pick-up c. After the matrix at the TX
b. STL d. After the matrix at the RX
c. Communication, Coordination and Control
d. All of the above 77. Where is the pre-emphasis added in a stereo FM
system?
69. What is the spacing between any two adjacent a. Before the matrix at the TX
channels in the FM broadcast band? b. Before the matrix at the RX
a. 20 KHz c. After the matrix at the TX
b. 36 KHz d. After the matrix at the RX
c. 200 KHz
d. 800 KHz 78. The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier is
_____ KHz.
70. The first channel in the FM BC band has a center a. 67
frequency of b. 76
a. 88 MHz c. 38
b. 88.1 MHz d. 19
c. 88.3 MHz
d. 108 MHz 79. A monaural FM receiver receives only the _____
signal of a stereo multiplex transmission.
71. What is the radio transmission of two separate a. L+R
signals, left, and right, used to create a multidimensional b. LR
effect on the receiver? c. Both a & b
a. SCA d. 67 KHz
b. Stereo system
c. Pilot transmission 80. When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what
d. Monophonic transmission form are the L R signals?
72. The carrier frequency tolerance for FM a. AF
broadcasting is _____. b. DSBSC
a. 25 kHz c. 19 kHz
b. 2 kHz d. 38 kHz
c. 20 kHz
d. 30 kHz 81. An additional channel of multiplex information
that is authorized by the FCC for stereo FM radio stations
73. What is the modulation used by the to feed services such as commercial-free programming to
stereophonic subcarrier? selected customers.
a. FM a. STL
b. PM b. EBS
c. ISB c. EIA
d. DSB d. SCA

74. What is the pilot signal for stereo FM? 82. The class of FM station, which has an authorized
a. 4.25 MHz radiated power not exceeding 125 KW:
b. 10 kHz a. Class C
c. 19 KHz b. Class A
d. 38 KHz c. Class D
d. Class B
83. An FM broadcast station, which has an
authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW and 91. What is the main reason why television picture
ERP not exceeding 30 KW: signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice is frequency
a. Class D modulated?
b. Class C a. Better efficiency
c. Class A b. Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio
d. Class B c. Maintain synchronized scanning between
transmit and received video
84. A class of FM station which is limited in antenna d. To minimize interference between signals at
height of 500 ft. above average terrain received end
a. Class D
b. Class C 92. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV
c. Class A receiver are _____ respectively.
d. Class B a. 41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz
b. 45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz
85. What type of broadcast service might have their c. 41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz
antennas on top of hills? d. 45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz
a. FM
b. AM 93. What is the separation between visual and aural
c. TV carrier in TV broadcasting?
d. A&C a. 1.25 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
86. How are guardbands allocated in commercial FM c. 5.75 MHz
stations? d. 0.25 MHz
a. 25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting signal
b. 50 kHz on each side of the carrier 94. What is the separation between the lower limit
c. 75 kHz deviation of a channel and the aural carrier?
d. 15 kHz modulation a. 1.25 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
87. How many commercial FM broadcast channels c. 5.75 MHz
can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a commercial TV d. 0.25 MHz
station?
a. 10 95. What is the visual carrier for channel 12?
b. 20 a. 205.25 MHz
c. 30 b. 55.25 MHz
d. 40 c. 65.75 MHz
d. 59.75 MHz
88. How many international commercial AM
broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by 96. What is the aural carrier for channel 3?
a commercial TV station? a. 61.25 MHz
a. 100 b. 55.25 MHz
b. 200 c. 65.75 MHz
c. 125 d. 59.75 MHz
d. 600
97. What is color subcarrier for channel 2?
89. What kind of modulation is used for the sound a. 68.83 MHz
portion of a commercial broadcast TV transmission? b. 211.25 MHz
a. PM c. 58.83 MHz
b. FM d. 214.83 MHz
c. C3F
d. AM 98. If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is 529.75
MHz, what is the frequency of the tuners local oscillator,
90. Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the sound when turned to this channel?
portion of a TV transmission in US. a. 571 MHz
a. 25 kHz b. 511 MHz
b. 800 kHz c. 498 MHz
c. 80 kHz d. 500 MHz
d. 200 kHz
99. What is the frequency tolerance in the color c. Yellow, magenta, cyan
carrier of TV broadcasting? d. Violet, indigo, fushcia
a. 2 kHz
b. 20 Hz 108. When the colors Magenta and Yellow are mixed
c. 10 Hz the resultant color is:
d. 1 kHz a. Red
b. White
100. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for c. Blue
frequency for channel 7 offset by 10 KHz? d. Green
a 175.25 MHz
b 175.26 MHz 109. Which of the following consist of two of the
c 174 MHz three primary colors in television signal? a) red, b) violet,
d 175.24 MHz c) yellow, and d) blue
a. A and B
101. TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as _____. b. B and C
a. Mid band UHF c. C and D
b. Low band UHF d. A and D
c. High band VHF
d. low band UHF 110. The studio camera produces a luminance signal
that contains information about
102. What is eliminated by using interlaced scanning? a. The musical content
a. Noise b. The speech content
b. Excessive BW c. The brightness of the scene
c. Frame d. The color content of the scene
d. Flicker
111. Brightness variations of the picture information
103. What percentage of the primary colors used in are in which signal?
color TV are needed to produce the brightest white? a. I
a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue b. Q
b. 33% red, 33% green, 33% blue c. Y
c. 50% red, 28% green, 22% blue d. Z
d. 58% red, 20% green, 22% blue
112. Which of the following is the color video signal
104. The color with the most luminance is transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz C
a. Red signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz?
b. Yellow a. I signal
c. Green b. Q signal
d. Blue c. Y signal
d. X signal
105. Suppose the signal from a color camera has
R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1 represents the maximum 113. Which of the following is the color video signal
signal possible. Determine the value at the luminance transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz C
signal signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0 to 0.5 MHz?
a. 0.498 a. I signal
b. 0.254 b. Q signal
c. 0.1325 c. Y signal
d. 1.4 d. Z signal

106. In the previous problem, calculate the 114. The _____ affects the difference between black
chrominance signal and white on the picture tube and controls the gain of the
a. 0.305 video amplifier
b. 0.304 a. Brightness control
c. 0.498 b. Volume control
d. 0.022 c. Power control
d. Contrast control
107. The three complementary colors are:
a. White, yellow, cyan 115. Which of the following is not a requirement for a
b. Black, white, gray color TV signal?
a. compatibility with b lack and white receivers 124. In a TV receiver, what is the vertical signal
b. Within 6 MHz bandwidth frequency?
c. Simulate a wide variety of colors a. 30 Hz
d. Functional with baron super antenna b. 60 Hz
c. 15750 Hz
116. How many electron beams actually leave the d. 157625 Hz
electron gun of a single-gun color CRT?
a. 1 125. What scheme is employed to cause the electron
b. 2 beam in the TV receiver and the electron beam in the
c. 3 studio camera to track identically?
d. 1/3 a. Interlacing
b. NTSC
117. What is the difference between the sound c. Interleaving
carrier and color subcarrier frequencies? d. Transmission of sync pulses
a. 1.25 MHz 126. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during
b. 3.58 MHz a. Horizontal blanking
c. 4.5 MHz b. Vertical blanking
d. 0.92 MHz c. The serrations
d. Equalizing intervals
118. What does aspect ratio mean? 127. What is the return of the electron beam in a CRT
a. Ratio of the screen width to its height from right to left or from bottom to top?
b. Ratio of the screen height to its width a. Relay
c. Ratio of the screen diagonal to its width b. Flyback
d. Ratio of the screen diagonal to its height c. Utilization
d. Resolution
119. What is the aspect ratio for HDTV system?
a. 4/3 128. What is the North American TV standard video?
b. 9/7 a. PAL
c. 19/6 b. SECAM
d. 16/9 c. NTSC
d. FCC
120. The signal that will give the exact color
wavelength is _____. 129. What is the maximum allowable frequency
a. Hue deviation in the audio section of a TV signal for
b. Saturation PAL/SECAM?
c. Carrier a. 25 kHz
d. Monochrome b. 50 kHz
c. 75 kHz
121. Which of the following represents the intensity d. 100 kHz
of a given color?
a. Hue 130. What is the frame frequency in the US TV
b. Saturation system?
c. Carrier a. 30 Hz
d. Monochrome b. 60 Hz
c. 15750 Hz
122. The _____ ensures that the electron beam will d. 157625 Hz
strike the correct phosphor dot on the TV screen.
a. Coating 131. What is the highest video frequency set by the
b. Aperture Mask FCC for commercial TV?
c. Diplexer a. 4.2 MHz
d. Duplexer b. 15 MHz
123. In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal signal c. 6 MHz
frequency? d. 5.5 MHz
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz 132. What determines the maximum number of
c. 15750 Hz vertical picture elements?
d. 157625 Hz a. Number of frames per second
b. Number of lines on the screen
c. Number of pixels c. 31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and
d. Number of fields per second serrations in the vertical sync pulse
d. 31,500 Hz for the vertical scanning frequency
133. How many horizontal lines are used to develop a
TV raster? 141. The camera tube that uses selenium, arsenic and
a. 615 tellurium
b. 525 a. Plumbicon
c. 750 b. Vidicon
d. 15750 c. Saticon
d. Silicon Vidicon
134. The channel width in the U.S. TV system is :
a. 2 MHz 142. The components of composite video signal are:
b. 6 MHz a. Chroma signal
c. 7 MHz b. Blanking pulse
d. 8 MHz c. Synchronizing pulse
d. All of these
135. It is the popular TV camera designed with much
smaller package and lower cost than its earlier designs 143. What is the smallest amount of information that
a. Image orthicon can be displayed on a television screen?
b. Iconoscope a. Blip
c. Vidicon b. Burst
d. Plumbicon c. Pixel
d. Bits
136. In a composite video signal, what is the
relationship between the amplitude of the signal and the 144. It is the quality of the TV picture after
intensity of the electron beam in the receiver picture imperfections
tube? a. Aspect ratio
a. The greater the amplitude the darker the b. Utilization ratio
picture c. A1
b. The lower the amplitude the darker the picture d. Monochrome
c. The greater the amplitude the lighter the picture
d. No effect 145. What section of a TV receiver determines the
bandwidth and produces the most signal gain?
137. If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the a. RF amplifier
number of lines per field are: b. Audio amplifier
a. 1250 c. IF amplifier
b. 312.5 d. Tuned circuit
c. 625
d. 2500

138. What is the process of placing the chrominance

signal in the band space between portions of the
luminance signal?
a. Interlacing
b. Fitting
c. Sneaking
d. Interleaving

139. How much time elapses between the start of

one horizontal sync pulse and the next?
a. 10.2 s
b. 63.5 s
c. 16.67 s
d. 100 s

140. Which of the following frequencies is wrong?

a. 15,750 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning
b. 60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning