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This Test 1 covers the Polity section, which has (1) Indian Polity and (2) Political
system in India topics of APSC GS Prelim syllabus. We are releasing the PDF format
of the Test 1 Question paper with answer keys at the end of the document,
especially for those candidates who are not able to attempt the test in Online Mode.
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relationship.
Q2. In the order of precedence, the speaker has an equal rank with
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Prime Minister
c. Cabinet Ministers
d. Vice-President
Q3. Consider an ordinary bill that originated in the legislative assembly and is sent
to the legislative council. If the council rejects the bill then
a. a joint sitting is called.
b. the bill ends and becomes dead
c. legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time.
d. none of the above
Q4. Consider the following statements are true about National emergency
a. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament
within one month.
b. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament
passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q5. A political party shall have to apply to Election Commission of India for
registration, if any question arises in this regard, whose decision is final
a. President
b. Election Commission of India
Page | 3 c. Supreme Court
d. High Court
Q6. Which articles of the constitution does not has a bearing on the rights of
women are
a. Article 123
b. Article 42
c. Article 39
d. Article 15
Q7. With reference to regionalism, which of the statements given below is/are
correct?
(1) Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying
force.
(2) Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q8. Civil services plays which of the following important roles in a democracy
a. policy making
b. policy implementation
c. socio-economic development
d. all of the above
Q9. India follows the First Past the Post (FPTP) system in Election process,
FPTP system which of the following advantage
a. providing a proportionate outcome of seats based on votes.
b. less wastage of votes.
c. establishing a clear link between representatives and constituencies.
d. encourages tactical voting, as voting is often not based on likeness but
against voters dislike for the candidates.
Q10. Apart from law making, Indian parliament does not have which of the
following function
a. custodian of Constitution of India
b. providing representation.
Page | 4 c. constraining executive power.
d. providing legitimacy to government
Q11. Kalelkar Commission set up in 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka Kalelkar
with regard to which of the following issues
a. Backward classes
b. State reorganisation on language basis
c. Boundary settlement between India and East Pakistan
d. Community development
Q13. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), Which of the
statements given above is incorrect
a. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.
b. The chairman can be reappointed.
c. President appoints the Chairman on the recommendation of committee headed
by the Prime Minister.
d. Justice Ranganath Misra was the first Chariman
Q16. Which of the following statement is true about Chief Election Commissioner
(CEC)
a. CEC receive salary equal to other election commissioners (EC).
b. CEC along with other EC are provided with security of tenure.
c. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails.
d. CEC is assisted by three other EC
Q19. Which of the Provision regarding the Attorney General of India is correct
a. He is a part of Union Executive
b. Provisions regarding AG have been duly enshrined in Part-VI of the
constitution
c. He has executive authority
d. He is a neutral person
Q20. About the chairman of a state public service commission, consider the
following statements
a. He/she is appointed by governor and also can be removed by governor.
b. He/she is appointed by UPSC and also can be removed by Central Govt.
Page | 6 c. He/she is appointed by governor but can only be removed by president.
d. He/she is appointed by President and also can be removed by governor.
Q21. During the time of national emergency, the President can not
a. reduce the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
b. increase the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
c. cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
d. suspend all fundamental rights
Q22. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by which of the following authority
a. Government via a resolution
b. President
c. Parliament
d. (b) or( c) depending on the type of extension
Q24. Find the wrong statement about the 21st Law Commission of India (LCI)
a. Justice Balbir Singh Chauhan is Chairman of the commission
b. Law commission is constituted for period of 3 years with effect from 1
September 2015 to 31 August 2018.
c. It is a constitutional body
d. First commission was constituted in 1955
Q25. If the Lok Sabha has been adjourned by the Speaker, then which of the
following would happen
a. All pending notices would lapse.
b. All bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses.
c. All bill passed by both houses but pending assent by president get lapsed
d. None of the above
Q26. The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government, which of
following does not contribute to make India Federal
a. Rigidity of constitution
Page | 7 b. Single citizenship
c. Separate list of subjects for Union and state govt.
d. Supremacy of constitution
Q27. Rajya Sabha does not have power equal to that of Lok Sabha in which of
the following regards
a. Approval of ordinances
b. Approval of national emergency
c. Voting on demand for grants
d. Election of President of India
Q28. With regard to the controversial legislation of Armed Forces Special powers
Act (AFSPA), which authority can declare a particular area as disturbed area
a. Governor and Chief Minister
b. Chief Minister and his council of minister only
c. President and Central Government
d. Governor and Central Government
Q29. Which of the following tax is being levied by the central govt
a. Octroi
b. Professional tax
c. Corporation tax
d. Excise duty on liquor
Q30. Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any
particular tax
a. increase it
b. decrease or abolish it
c. full power to increase, decrease or abolish it
d. Parliament has no power, only Finance ministry can take decision on tax
Q31. With reference to starred questions, which of following statements is correct
a. Starred questions are important and hence answer to them have to be given
in written form.
b. Questions are asked and answered in the same sitting only
Page | 8 c. Can be asked and answered by private MPs only
d. Answers to starred questions can be followed by supplementary questions.
Q36. In total how much time it took for Constituent Assembly to finalise the
constitution
a. 2 Years 11 Months 18 Days
b. 2 Years 9 Months 8 Days
c. 2 Years 7 Months 18 Days
d. 2 Years 5 Months 20 Days
Q37. Which Article is related to Equality before law
a. Art. 15
b. Art. 16
c. Art. 14
Page | 9 d. Art. 13
Q40. Which article is related to "Equal Justice and free legal aid"
a. Article 39
b. Article 43
c. Article 43 A
d. Article 39 A
Q41. Which of the following language is not included in the Eight Schedule of
Indian constitution
a. Santali
b. Sanskrit
c. Bodo
d. English
Q42. In which Constitutional Amendment Act Sikkim was made full fledged State of
the Union of India
a. 21st Constitutional Amendment Act
b. 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975
c. 31st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973
d. 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974
Q43. Which Constitutional Amendment Act provided reservation in admissions in
private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled
castes/tribes and other backward classes
a. 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
Page | 10 b. 94th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2006
c. 95th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2009
d. 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005
Q44. According to the constitution of India, who are the ultimate Sovereign
a. People of India
b. Prime Minister of India
c. President of India
d. Parliament
Q47. Which of the following is not among six fundamental rights given in our
Constitution
a. Right to equality
b. Right against exploitation
c. Right to freedom of religion
d. Right to Protest Peacefully
Q50. What is the minimum age criteria to become the President of India
a. 30 years
b. 35 Years
c. 36 years
d. 22 Years
Q51. The provision of fundamental duties of Indian constitution was borrowed from
which document
a. Constitution of USA
b. United Nations Charter
c. Constitution of Socialist Countries
d. Constitution of UK
Q52. Which is the largest High court of India, in terms of number of sanctioned
Judges
a. Guwahati High Court
b. Bombay High Court
c. Madras High Court
d. Allahabad High Court
Q53. Which is the oldest High Court in the country, being established in 1862
a. Madras High Court
b. Calcutta High Court
c. Bombay High Court
d. Allahabad High Court
Q54. After the presentation of Union Budget, all money bills related are mandatorily
needed to be passed within what period
a. One month
b. Three month
c. 45 days
d. 75 days
Q55. President of India nominates how many members in Rajya Sabha
a. 2 members
b. 24 members
c. 12 members
Page | 12 d. 10 members
Q56. The Andaman and Nicobar islands falls under jurisdiction of which High court
of India
a. Calcutta High Court
b. Madras High Court
c. Bombay High Court
d. Allahabad High Court
Q57. Which of the following kind of emergency has not been declared so far
a. National emergency under Article 352
b. President Rule under Article 356
c. Financial emergency under Article 360
d. All kinds of emergency has been declared at least once
Q62. What is the minimum no. of seat required for a political party to form a
majority government in the state
a. 94
b. 126
c. 64
d. 75
Q63. Who holds the record for being the Chief Minister of Assam for maximum
no. of days
a. Bimala Prasad Chaliha
b. Gopinath Bordoloi
c. Tarun Gogoi
d. Hiteswar Saikia
Q64. Assam has how many Autonomous Councils, being constituted in terms of
the Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution
a. Six
b. Two
c. Five
d. Three
Q67. Which of the following set of items are available in Concurrent List of Indian
Constitution
a. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Insurance. and Economic and social
planning.
b. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Forests and Economic and social
planning.
c. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Forests and Foreign affairs
d. Criminal law, Marriage, Bankruptcy, Extradition and Economic and social
planning.
Q68. The 3-tier Panchayat Raj system was first introduced in which state
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Rajasthan
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Goa
Q69. The executive power of the state is with which of the following authority
a. President
b. Chief Minister
c. Governor
d. Council of Ministers in the state
Q72. First Inter-state council was constituted in 1990, under which Article of
Indian constitution
a. Article 263
b. Article 143
c. Article 109
d. Article 110
Q73. Which Article of Indian Constitution is also described as the "Heart and
Soul" of it
a. Article 20
b. Article 32
c. Article 36
d. Article 50
Q74. The Preamble was recognised as a part of the constitution in which of the
following case
a. Bebubari Case
b. Golaknath Case
c. Minerva Mills Case
d. Kesavananda Case
Q75. Citizenship Act 1955 provides for how many modes for acquisition of
Citizenship of India
a. Two modes
b. Five modes
c. Three modes
d. This act does not specifies any modes of acquiring Citizenship of India
Q78. 77th Constitutional Amendment has added the Provision for Reservation in
matters of Promotion for SCs and STs in which Article of Indian Constitution
a. Article 14
b. Article 16
c. Article 48
d. Article 21
Q80. Directive Principles of State Policy of our constitution promotes the idea of a
a. Welfare State
b. Nation State
c. Police State
d. Economically developed state only
Q81. Fundamental Duties which are the Part IV of Indian Constitution, are
incorporated in
a. Article 48
b. Article 51
c. Article 39
d. Article 51A
Q82. Parliamentary Govt or Responsible form of Govt is found in which of
following set of countries
Page | 17
a. Britain, Canada, Japan and Bangladesh
b. Britain, China, USA and Japan
c. Britain, UAE, Canada and Japan
d. Britain, USA, Canada and Bhutan
Q84. Who should decide and gives final verdict regarding any disputes arising out
of election of President of India
a. Election Commission
b. Supreme Court
c. Parliament
d. Business Advisory Committee of Parliament
Q85. What types of Vero Power does the President of India has
a. Absolute veto and suspensive veto onlyAbsolute veto, pocket veto,
b. Qualified veto and suspensive veto only
c. Absolute veto, pocket veto and suspensive veto only
d. Pocket veto and suspensive veto only
Q88. Who among the following acts as a link and buffer between the Politicians
and executives
a. Governor
b. Secretary of various ministries
c. Political party
d. Cabinet Secretary
Q89. On the recommendation of which committee, does the Railway budget was
separated in 1921
a. Balwantray committee
b. Butler Committee
c. Acword Committee
d. Its separately mentioned in Constitution
Q90. which of the statement regarding the Unique Identification Authority of India
(UIDAI) is correct
a. It comes under the Union Ministry of Finance
b. It is a statutory authority established by the Government of India
c. It is regarded as the world's second largest biometric ID system
d. Nandan Nilekani is the CEO of UIDAI
Q93. Who can include or exclude any tribe from the list of Scheduled Tribe
a. Parliament only
b. Parliament and President Only
c. Governor and State Legislative Assembly Only
d. All the Above
Q95. Which of the following commission was setup to examine the relationship and
balance of power between union and state govt and to recommend necessary steps
to improve the relation
a. Mandal commission
b. States Reorganisation Commission
c. Sarkaria Commission
d. Nachiket More Committee
Q96. Which of the following statement is/are not correct regarding the Panchayats
(Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
a. It ensures self governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living
in the Scheduled Areas of India.
b. It has extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to cheduled
Areas, which were not covered by the Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian
Constitution.
c. Makes prior consultation with Gram Sabhas before acquisition of any land for
developemtn purpose.
d. It made a National body for Tribal Panchayats to interact and discuss
various development works
Q97. Which of the following is not a duty of the Public Information Officers
(PIOs), as specified under the Right To Information Act 2005
a. He/She to deal with the requests frompublic seeking information
b. He/she to provide the information within 30 days of receipt of request, if
Page | 20 the request it to be accepted
c. Wherever a request is rejected, He/She shall communicate the reason to
the information seeker.
d. His/Her decision is final with regards to the information of the concern
Public Authority, and there is no appeal for his/her action
Q98. Which committee has recommended for setting up of the Central Vigilance
Commission
a. Wanchoo Committee
b. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
c. Santhanam Committee
d. Jyoti Basu Committee
Q99. Which is the first country in the world to create the post of Ombudsman, as
an officer to handle complain against administrative and judicial action
a. India
b. Sweden
c. Norway
d. Japan
Q100. Which of the following options are not correct regarding the Ninth Schedule
of Indian Constitution
a. Added by first Amendment Act of 1951
b. This part is out of the scope of Judicial Review
c. Related to Laws relating to land reform
d. Deals with Article 31 (B) of the constitution
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