CET(PG)-2013 Sr. No.

Question Booklet Series : A

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
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corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
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5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for
each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
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given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
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the examination.
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permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 2
 M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Zoology/A

1. Larvae of which of the following parasites can be demonstrated in muscle biopsy ?

(A) Brugia malayi (B) Wuchereria bancroftia
(C) Trichinella spiralis (D) Dracunculus medinensis
2. A 28-year old woman suffered severe trauma to the head in a horseback riding accident that re-
sulted in the complete transection of the pituitary stalk. The plasma levels of which hormone would
be expected to increase as a result of this accident ?
(A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (B) Follicle-stimulating hormone
(C) Growth hormone (D) Prolactin
3. Marys father has haemophilia, an X-linked recessive trait, but her husband does not. What is the
chance that her son will have the disease ?
(A) 0% (B) 25%
(C) 50% (D) 100%
4. Within the endocrine system, specificity of communication is determined by :
(A) The chemical nature of the hormone
(B) The distance between the endocrine cell and its target cell(s)
(C) The presence of specific receptors on target cells
(D) Anatomical connections between the endocrine and target cells
5. Remiges and rectrices are types of :
(A) Tendons in birds (B) Feathers in birds
(C) Bones in all vertebrates (D) Vertebrae
6. Which of the following hormones does not act by a second messenger system ?
(A) Glucagon (B) Epinephrine
(C) Follicle stimulating hormone (D) Testosterone
7. Most peptide and protein hormones are synthesized as :
(A) A secretagogue (B) A pleiotropic hormone
(C) Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) (D) A preprohormone

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 3 [Turn over

8. Triiodothyronine (T3) :
(A) Is produced in greater amounts by the thyroid gland than T4
(B) Is bound by the thyroid receptor present in the cytosol of target cells
(C) Has a half-life of a few minutes in the bloodstream
(D) Can be produced by the deiodination of T4 in pituitary thyrotrophs
9. Parasite which may be transmitted by sexual contact is :
(A) Trichomonas vaginalis (B) Trypanosoma cruzi
(C) Leishmania donovani (D) Entamoeba histolytica
10. The best palaeontological evidence in support of organic evolution is given by phylogeny of :
(A) Horse (B) Camel
(C) Elephant (D) Man
11. Major function of the epididymis is :
(A) Storage and transport of mature sperm
(B) Initiating the development of spermatozoa
(C) Secretion of estrogens
(D) Secretion of fluids that contribute to semen
12. Successful fertilization is most likely to occur when the oocyte is in :
(A) The oviduct and has entered the second meiotic division
(B) The uterus and has completed the first meiotic division
(C) Metaphase of mitosis
(D) The graafian follicle, which then enters the oviduct
13. The second messengers cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP :
(A) Activate the same signal transduction pathways
(B) Are generated by the activation of cyclases
(C) Activate the same protein kinase
(D) Are important only in sensory transduction
14. Which statement is NOT true about nucleic acid hybridization ?
(A) It depends on complementary base pairing
(B) A polysaccharide can hybridize with a DNA strand
(C) Double strand DNA denatures at high temperature
(D) An RNA strand can hybridize with a DNA strand

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 4

15. Inhibin is an ovarian hormone that :
(A) Inhibits the secretion of LH and PRL
(B) Is produced by granulosa cells and inhibits the secretion of FSH
(C) Only has local ovarian effects and no effect on the secretion of FSH
(D) Has two forms, A and B, with the same subunits but distinct subunits
16. Which of the following Phylum also known as Ectoprocta ?
(A) Cnidaria (B) Bryozoa
(C) Annelida (D) Rotifera
17. Which statement is true according to biological species concept ?
(A) The different species can breed with each other
(B) Individuals of same species interbreed and produce fertile offsprings
(C) Species is man made concept
(D) Species are not formed from preexisting species
18. Tribe is a taxonomic category which falls between ?
(A) Family and Genus (B) Class and Cohort
(C) Class and Order (D) Phylum and Class
19. Which of the following is true ?
(A) The apneustic center contributes to exhalation and pneumotaxic centre prolongs inhalation
(B) The apneustic center prolongs inhalation and pneumotaxic centre contributes to exhalation
(C) The apneustic center stops inhalation
(D) The pneumotaxic centre increases the tidal volume
20. Which of the following are very closely associated in their origin and are derived from extraembry-
onic somatopleure in a developing bird ?
(A) Amnion and serosa (B) Serosa and allantois
(C) Allantois and yolk sac (D) Amnion and allantois
21. Which of the following arises as a diverticulum from the ventral wall of the hindgut ?
(A) Allantois (B) Serosa
(C) Amnion (D) Yolk sac

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 5 [Turn over

22. What is the mechanism through which catecholamines stabilize blood glucose concentration in
response to hypoglycemia ?
(A) Catecholamines inhibit glycogenolysis in the liver
(B) Catecholamines stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas
(C) Catecholamines stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver
(D) Catecholamines inhibit the release of lactate from muscle
23. The skull of birds :
(A) is monocondylar (B) is dicondylar
(C) has perforated condyles (D) lacks condyles
24. Cardiac output is equal to :
(A) Stroke volume X pulse (B) Stroke volume/pulse
(C) Stroke volume2 X pulse (D) Stroke volume/pulse2
25. Raptorial feet are found in :
(A) Parrots (B) Herons
(C) Hawks (D) Swifts
26. Pernicious anemia is seen in :
(A) Diphyllobothriasis (B) Malaria
(C) Hookworm disease (D) Phyllariasis
27. Which of the following birds will you find in columbiformes ?
(A) Psittacula krameri-the rose ringed parrot
(B) Corvus splendens-the House crow
(C) Streptopelia decaocto-the ring dove
(D) Pavo cristatus-the peafowl
28. Epitaenia in mollusks is :
(A) Another name for gill
(B) A ridge like structure dividing the mantle cavity
(C) Olfactory organ
(D) Siphon for passage of water current

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 6

29. Which treatment would provide the greatest therapeutic benefit in patients with acromegaly ?
(A) Glucocorticoid (B) Somatostatin
(C) Growth hormone (D) Thyroid hormone
30. Which of the following in star fish can turn inside out ?
(A) Madreporite (B) Stone canal
(C) Tube feet (D) Cardiac stomach
31. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species ?
(A) Mammals (B) Birds
(C) Reptiles (D) Fishes
32. The chitinous hooks of a hexacanth embryo of Taenia are secreted by :
(A) Hexacanth membranes (B) Embryophore
(C) Onchoblasts (D) Basement membrane
33. In bird species where both parents contribute equally to parental care, generally :
(A) Males are larger than females
(B) Females are more colorful than females
(C) Females are larger than males
(D) Both sexes are morphologically similar
34. Organ of Bojanus are :
(A) Respiratory organs of starfish (B) Chemoreceptors of Peripatus
(C) Excretory organs of Unio (D) Endocrine organs of Insects
35. Weberian ossicles are found in :
(A) Frogs (B) Birds
(C) Fishes (D) Snakes
36. In general, independent assortment of chromosomes in a cell with n pairs of chromosomes yields
how many different kinds of gametes ?
(A) n (B) n2
(C) 2n (D) n+2

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 7 [Turn over

37. Concology is the study of :
(A) Mollusca (B) Shell of Mollusca
(C) Foot of Mollusca (D) Behaviour of Mollusca
38. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation ?
(A) Sacred groves (B) National park
(C) Wildlife sanctuary (D) Seed bank
39. Which aortic arch modifies to form systemic arch :
(A) Vth Aortic arch (B) IVth Aortic arch
(C) VIth Aortic arch (D) Ist Aortic arch
40. Adaptive radiation refers to :
(A) Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
(B) Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
(C) Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(D) Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
41. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is :
(A) Random creation of new species (B) No change in the isolation faunax
(C) Preventing Speciation (D) Speciation through reproductive isolation
42. Which of the following is absent in ophiuroidea ?
(A) Anus (B) Mouth
(C) Stomach (D) Madreporite
43. A dicentric chromosome is unstable because :
(A) it cannot resynthesise its telomeres during replication
(B) it pairs with non-homologous chromosomes in meiosis
(C) it pairs with non-homologous chromosomes in mitosis
(D) it is often simultaneously drawn to opposing spindle poles in mitosis
44. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned.
(A) Sunderbans-Bengal tiger
(B) Dachigam National Park-Snow leopard
(C) Rann of Kutch-Wild Ass
(D) Periyar-Elephant

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 8

45. Which of the following characteristics best applies to an allosteric effector ?
(A) Competes with substrate for the catalytic site
(B) Changes the nature of the product formed
(C) Binds to a site on the enzyme molecule distinct from the catalytic site
(D) Changes the substrate specificity of the enzyme
46. Four chambered heart is found in :
(A) Cobra (B) Tortoise
(C) Salamander (D) Crocodile
47. Thermogenin, the natural uncoupler in brown fat mitochondria, generates heat based on its ability
to :
(A) Allow protons to re-enter into the mitochondrial matrix
(B) Inhibit electron transport by binding to b-type cytochromes
(C) Inhibit ATP production by binding to the ATP synthesis
(D) Block electron transport to flavoproteins
48. A bivalent consists of :
(A) Two chromatids and one centromere
(B) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(C) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(D) Four chromatids and four centromeres
49. Urey and Miller created the primitive environment in the Spark chamber and used Hydrogen,
Ammonia, Methane and Water vapor to simulate the chemical origin of life. The surprising mol-
ecule they obtained after the experiment was :
(A) Proteins (B) Lipids
(C) Amino acids (D) Polysaccharides
(E) Fatty acids
50. Paneth cells are found in :
(A) Hepatic lobules (B) Pancreatic islets
(C) Crypts of Liberkuhn (D) Payers patches

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 9 [Turn over

51. Pribnow box contains the nucleotide sequence :
(A) 5 TATAAT 3 (B) 5 TAA TAT 3
(C) 5 GCC CCG 3 (D) 5 AAT TTA 3
52. Besides giving out secretory vesicles, the golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of :
(A) Nucleus (B) Plastids
(C) Acrosome (D) Vacuoles
53. The first appearance of amphibians on earth was during the period :
(A) Silurian (B) Devonian
(C) Triassic (D) Jurassic
54. Interferon-gamma is a multifunctional cytokine produced by :
(A) Eosinophils and Basophils (B) Osteoclasts
(C) B Lymphocytes (D) Th l cells and NK cells
55. When two or more non allelic gene pairs affect the same character in the same way, this is called :
(A) Polygenic inheritance (B) Pleiotropy
(C) Multiple alleles (D) Additive expressivity
56. Australian lungfish is called :
(A) Lepidosiren (B) Lepidosteus
(C) Protopterus (D) Neoceratodus
57. A bacterium adds methyl group to its DNA in order to :
(A) Clone its DNA (B) Turn its gene on
(C) Transcribe many genes simultaneously (D) Protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme
58. Which of the following is the largest protozoal parasite inhabiting the large intestine of man ?
(A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Entamoeba coli
(C) Balantidium coli (D) Giardia lambia
59. The use of biotinylated secondary antibody in ELISA :
(A) Increases the sensitivity of the assay but compromises the specificity
(B) Increases the sensitivity of the assay without compromising the specificity
(C) Does not alter either sensitivity or specificity
(D) Decreases both sensitivity or specificity

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 10

60. The G+C content of bacteriophage 13 double stranded DNA is 68%. What would you expect the
G+C content of its mRNA ?
(A) About 68% (B) About 34%
(C) About 32% (D) About 86%
61. Select the true statement about membrane phospholipids :
(A) A phospholipid contains cholesterol
(B) Phospholipids move rapidly in the plane of the bilayer
(C) Specific phospholipids are always present in equal proportions in the two halves of the bilayer
(D) Phospholipids form ion channels through the membrane
62. Assume that an animal generates heat at a rate proportional to its volume and radiate heat at a rate
proportional to its body surface. Which of these animals would be best at maintaining its body
temperature in a cold climate ?
(A) Mouse (B) Rabbit
(C) Fox (D) Bear
63. Which one of the following statements about morula in human is correct ?
(A) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(B) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
(C) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(D) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
64. Effects of glucagon include :
(A) Inhibition of insulin secretion by pancreatic beta cells
(B) Primary actions in adipose tissue
(C) Promotion of gluconeogenesis and urea synthesis in liver cells
(D) Indirect stimulation of ketogenesis in liver cells by the inhibition of pancreatic somatostatin
secretion
65. Nilgiri Tahr is restricted only to upper heights (1200 to 2600 meters) of western ghat. The major
reason is :
(A) Habitat preferences
(B) Habitat shrinkage
(C) Urbanization in other part of habitat
(D) Pressure of tiger predation at lower height

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 11 [Turn over

66. Which of the following statement is correct with reference to replication in eukaryotes ?
(A) Single origin and continuous replication
(B) Multiple origin and continuous and discontinuous replication
(C) Multiple origin and continuous replication
(D) Single origin and continuous and discontinuous replication
67. Bohr effect in haemoglobin refers to the :
(A) Reduced affinity for oxygen at lower pH
(B) Higher pH in actively metabolizing tissues
(C) Increased affinity for oxygen at lower pH
(D) Low pH in actively metabolizing tissues
68. As we move from one geographical region to the next region, species diversity tend to change. It is
termed as :
(A) alpha-diversity (B) beta-diversity
(C) gamma-diversity (D) delta-diversity
69. In a hybridization experiment a plant shows phenotypic ratio of 15:1. How many genes control the
trait for observed phenotypic ratio ?
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Two (D) Polygene
70. Which of the following is a steroid hormone ?
(A) Glucagon (B) Epinephrine
(C) Aldosterone (D) Thyroxine
71. Crab may transmit :
(A) Diphyllobothrium latum (B) Clonorchis sinensis
(C) Paragonimus westermani (D) Enterobius vermicularis
72. The correct sequence in which water flows into the body of Sycon and comes out of it is :
(A) Ostia, apopyles, osculum, prosopyles
(B) Ostia, apopyles, prosopyles, osculum
(C) Ostia, prosopyles, apopyles, osculum
(D) Apopyles, ostia, prosopyles, osculum

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 12

73. Mammalian jaw has evolved from :
(A) Pharyngeal arches (B) Temporal bone
(C) Frontal bone (D) Dentary and squamosal bones
74. In signal transduction trimeric G protein with , and is involved. Which subunit will activate
adenylate cyclase ?
(A) subunit (B) subunit
(C) subunit (D) subunit
75. During the early origin of earth oxygen was absent in environment. Later on the oxygen increased
and reached to present level. The main source of oxygen was :
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Released from CaCO3
(C) Escape of CO2 to environment (D) Escape of oxygen from internal sources

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 13

 ROUGH WORK

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 ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 15

 ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/BZL-48986-A 16 94

 Panjab University, Chandigarh
CET(PG)-2013
ANSWERS / KEY
Subject: MSc(HS/2Yr)(Zoology)
Booklet Series Code: A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D C C B D D D A A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A B B B B B A B A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C A A C A C B B D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C D C C C B D B C

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A D B C D A B C C

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A C B D A D D C B A

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B D C C A B A B C C

71 72 73 74 75
C C D A A

Note: An 'X' in the key indicates that either the question is ambiguous or it has
printing mistake. All candidates will be given credit for this question.

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