Master Key by AD PDF

Aml
Bankers Selling Skill Builder

BASICS OF INVESTING
business continuity plan
CLEARINg
Emergency Response Procedures
fcrm
Financial crime prevention
insurance
mutual fund
rbo cash
reatail asset finance
Regulatory environment
remittance
RTGS
Money laundering is Converting legal money into illegal money
Converting illegitimate money into legitimate money
Reports on anti money laundering compliance to regulatory agencies is called Regulatory

reporting Reporting procedures
What forms an integral part of ICICI bank`s group AML policy Customer acceptance policy
Customer verification procedure
All SBUs must implement necessary procedures and controls to ensure Regulatory reporting
MLRO will escalate the suspicious transaction to AMLG
Multiple accounts set up by the same person with standing instructions is called Walkin accounts
Clause (b) of sub section (1) of section 12 of PMLA states that banking companies/financial
institutions/intermediaries should furnish information to Director
Consequences of money laundering are all
Person responsible for monitoring day-to-day implementation of ICICI bank`s groups AML policy
and procedures is SBU compliance officer
The MLRO report would contain Resource requirements Observations on deficiencies in

compliance and procedures
According to RBI guidelines branches should intimate their controlling offices about cash
transactions above Rs 1 million
Process whereby people send each other money without going through the banking system is called
Alternative remittances
The bank shall deal with the bank providing services to shell banks only with the prior approval of
the bank`s AMLG TRUE
Cooperation with law enforcement agencies means Sharing and reporting information when
required
The policy is applicable to all activities of the bank including all SBU`s in India and abroad TRUE
What approach would ICICI bank adopt in implementing its anti money laundering framework
Risk based Caution based
Banks are required to apply basic due diligence for low risk customers
At what point it is difficult for the bank to distinguish between legal and illegal funds Integration
Above the AML framework is Audit committee
Basic due diligence is an approach the bank takes to Identify and verify customers
AN card issued by income tax department is used as Identity proof
At which stage of the money laundering process it is relatively easy to detect the crime Placement
stage
According to PMLA obligations the records of the transactions should be maintained for 10 years
Who can call for records defined in the section 13 of PMLA Director Compliance officer
Money laundering is usually carried out in Four stages Three stages
This is the preferred means of laundering money accumulated by tax evasion

Offshore banks
From the cessation of the date of the transaction, ICICI bank maintains records of the transaction
for a period of 10 years
Which section of the PMLA talks about civil proceedings Section 14
Which of these customers fall under the high risk category Societies/Associations/Trusts
Correspondent banking
Govt of India in consultation with RBI has notified the rules under PMLA, for banking companies,
financial institutions and intermediaries for Verification of records of identity of clients
Maintenance of records of the nature and value of transactions
Adequate diligence is the fundamental requirement for any business transaction TRUE
Detailed guidelines on identification of suspicious transactions is given to the employees via e-

circular e-bulletin
Use of multiple cash deposits each smaller than the minimum cash reporting requirements is called
Smurfing
Regulations empowering the director to levy a fine or order on banking companies or financial
institutions or intermediaries for failure to comply with provisions of section 12 are laid down in
Section 14
Which section of the PMLA talks about the powers of the director to impose finesm
Section 14 Section 15 Section 13
Placement methods are broadly divided into Banks and financial institutions Non banking methods
Internal controls must be adequately supplemented by Effective audit function
Which of these is not non banking method of laundering money Smuggling Drug trafficking
ICICI bank will have proper record maintenance policies and procedures in place to Ensure required
documents are available within reasonable period of time
Which intergovernmental body develops promotes anti money laundering guidelines FATF
When a customer moves from a low risk to high risk the approach used is Enhanced due diligence
This is not a sources of funds for illegal money Charity
Significant suspicious activity is reported to the audit committee on Quarterly basis
Placement stage is when cash is channeled into Banks

This means also features in the placement methods of laundering money Electronic transfers
Companies that are set up according to the laws of the land but do not do any real business are
called Shell corporations
Collating and maintaining AML records is the responsibility of SBU compliance officer
Placement methods using banking and financial institutions is broadly divided into Electronic
Transfers Smurfing
In submitting information to MLRO all SBUs must use Specific policies and procedures specific
directives
Separating the funds from their illegal source is called Layering
Passport of the customer is used for Address proof Identity proof
Facilities provided by the bank for the transfer of money via electronic media are called Electronic
transfers
Illegal activity where stacks of gold, cash, jewllery or even rare stamps are moved from place to
place is called Smuggling
ICICI bank maintains records on customer transactions in order to Reconstruction of any

transactions
Effective element of a Know your customer (KYC) procedure is Customer identification
Pillars of AML standards are Monitoring/reporting of suspicious transactions Know your customer
(KYC)
Laundering money by putting it in cash intensive businesses like restaurants is called Business
recycling
This document is accepted as an identity proof at the time of opening the account Driving license
Financial transactions that are not in compliance with law are to be Blocked and frozen
Transactions that are inconsistent with the customer`s known legitimate activities are called
Suspicious transactions
Appropriate organization structure is one of the Internal controls
Photo debit card of the customer is used for Invalid
Appointing a compliance officer within a organization falls under which aspect of money
laundering regulations Internal policies and procedures
Customer identification procedures fall under which aspect of money laundering regulations Know
your customer (KYC)
This is not a step in the money laundering process Recovery stage
KYC procedures will be applicable to existing customers only if the risk profile of the customer or
customer segment changes from low to high TRUE
SBU compliance officer is responsible for Money laundering risk monitoring
This is a suspicious transaction Customer makes or receives huge deposits or remittances along
with pre-closure of loans payments of previous over dues
Each SBU will develop appropriate measures for transaction processing in consultation with MLRO
Regulations stating that banking companies, financial institutions, intermediaries and their officers
shall not be liable to any civil proceedings against them for furnishing information are laid down in
Section 14
MLRO will submit the quarterly report to BoD of the Subsidiary
Which section of the PMLA talks about procedure and manner of furnishing information Section
15
Before employing temporary or outsourced people ICICI bank adheres to HR policies
At the integration stage of the money laundering process Illegal funds are moved back into the
economy
Illegal funds are moved back into the economy
A bank which doesn`t have any physical presence in any country is called Shell bank
How many special regulations were issued to combat terrorist financing 9

The stage where clean money is mixed with illegal money to disguise it further is called Layering
FATF guidelines consists of how many regulations 60
revised antimoney laundering of rbi cover all
what does reselling and repurchasing assets for laundering money do furthers integration
fatf guidelines are intended to meet customer varification procedure
who reviews and approves risk profilling of various product segments mlro
The Bank's approach for establishing customer behaviour pattern includes both
Information of the violation of the provisions of section 12 is provided to the director by

compliance officers
A customer is extremely agitated because he has had to wait for a long time. How will you respond
to the customer.
`Sir, I know the wait is really frustrating. I can see why you are upset. However, now I will do all I
can to ensure that your problem is promptly resolved.`
When do you cross sell?

When you have gained customer commitment on one product or service
When you have identified an opportunity earlier which you would like to explore further
When the customer expresses another need
If the customer is unhappy with your solution
What are the characteristics of a good sales person?

Smiles and greets people
Is a good listener
Follows up
Is pushy with people
Is knowledgeable about his product
Is able to show value to his customers
Which of the following steps need to be used for gaining commitment from the customer?
Check for agreement
Get the customer to take action
Thank the customer
Cross sell a product to the customer
How does gaining commitment help us?

Helps us to close the sale
Which of the following questions is appropriate to seek permission from the customer to ask him
questions?
Sir, may I ask a few questions to understand your need better so that I can recommend the most
suitable solution for you?
Which of the following is a fact and not fiction?
Uncovering need and meeting it
Which of the following are buying cues from the customer?

`Wow! That is interesting.`
`That will really help me`
You have explained the features and benefits of the Current Accounts, now the customer has shown
interest in the product. What would you do / say next?
So, do you feel that you should open a Current Account with us?
Which of the following can be considered as rapport breakers?

Information overload
Acknowledging the customer
Not maintaining eye contact
Communicating problems to the customer
Pushing your own interest
Which of the following are the steps in the gathering information stage?
State how it will help the customer
Give examples of people who have benefited from the products you are about to sell
Explain why you want to ask the question
Take permission to ask questions
Ask question to uncover needs
A customer Ì would rather buy gold coins from my family jeweller whose quality I trust.` How will
you deal with this objection?
Maàm here is the purity certificate for the gold coin.
State whether true or false Objections related to doubt can be handled by offering proof in the form
of proof of statement or proof of source.
TRUE
Identify the type of question `Will it be an issue to maintain a quarterly balance of Rs 10,000?`
Closed
Which of the following statements is true for gathering information?

Ask questions to understand the customer`s needs
What type of questions should be asked to uncover customer`s needs?

Closed questions
Broad questions
Open questions
Which of the following are examples of openings for Closed questions?

`What ...``do ...`How...```How ofte...`àre ....``Which ....`
How can we gain commitment from the customer?

Ensure that both you and the customer agree on the solution
Get the customer to take action
Help the customer identify his needs
Match a product to the customer`s needs and explain it`s benefits
Which of the following is a need?

I need to be able to withdraw money anytime
I am recruiting 25 new people in my organization next month
I must be able to pay my suppliers immediately
I am unhappy with the service provided for my current credit card
Which of the following are features of a product?

8 to 8 banking
Free personalized cheque book
DD charges get eliminated
Access to your account anywhere
What are the categories of customer objections?

Objection because customer is in a bad mood
Objections due to doubt
Objections due to satisfaction with current situation
Objections due to misunderstanding
After you have made a sale, what will be your next step?
Thank the customer
Which of the following statements is true for making recommendations?

Match a product to the customer`s needs and explain it`s benefits
Help the customer identify his needs
Which of the following are the steps in the Making Recommendation stage?
Identify the need
Confirm the need
Make recommendation using benefits
Explain detailed features of the product you are selling
What are closed questions?

Limit the customer to answer either `yes` or `no`
Good for extracting detailed information from the customer
Should be used in the beginning of the communication
Are extremely useful when you want to get the customer to focus on something before moving on
How does acknowledging the customer help?

Tells the customer that he is important to you
Ensures that you definitely get a sale
Tells the customer that you are listening to him
Makes the customer feel comfortable that you will give the best solution possible to him
Which of these would you use to sell a product to a customer?

Benefit
How does gathering information help?
It helps us to uncover the customer`s needs
It helps you suggest the most suitable solution to the customer
It builds the customer`s confidence that you are interested in finding the perfect solution for him
It is only required if you do not know the customer well enough
Which of the following can be considered as a selling opportunity?

A request for information
A problem or complaint
A routine transaction
A request for service
A vulnerable customer
How can we build rapport with the customer?

Give non verbal signs of attention
Agree with everything the customer says
Acknowledgment the customer
Offer a free gift to the customer
Tell a joke about your bank
How can you help the customer to take action?

Ask the customer to fill out an application form
Ask the customer how much initial deposit he would like to put in immediately
Ask the customer when you can call him up to take this forward
Ask the customer if he liked what you told him
After which of the following steps do we gain commitment from the customer?
Making recommendations
Handling objections
What is cross selling?

Identifying customer`s additional needs and meeting these needs
Which of the following are examples of openings for Open questions?

What ...why...do... could you elaborate...how...how much...
Identify the type of question `You prefer a debit card or a credit card?
Closed
State whether True or False Telling a customer about features can actually cause information
overload and ultimately disinterest.
TRUE
How can you confirm a need?

Expressing agreement with the customer`s point of view
Expressing your understanding of the issue
Asking an open question to confirm your understanding
By summarizing the gist of your conversation with the customer
When can one proceed to making a recommendation for a solution?

When you have used open and closed questions to identify the customer`s needs
When you do not have any more questions to ask
When you know that you have a product or service that can support that need
When the customer looks satisfied that you are doing your best to service him
How can you check for agreement from the customer?

Ask a closed question
Which of these is a benefit?

With our extensive ATM network, you are sure to have access to you money anytime, anywhere
Which of the following statements best describes a benefit?

It is the value that the customer receives
Identify the type of question `How important is it that you should be able to access your account
instantly?`
Closed
In the final reckoning, buying decisions are based on _____________. (Fill in the blank)
Value
What are open questions?

Questions which encourage the customer to answer in detail
Are good for extracting general information about needs and opportunities
Should be used more in the end of the conversation
Can be used effectively when you hit a roadblock and want to understand something from the
customer`s point of view
Identify the type of question `How do you plan to manage your son`s financial needs when he is
college?`
Open
How does cross selling help?

Instrumental in increasing market share
Ensures your customer is unable to say no
Helps you to identify customer`s additional needs which he may not be aware of
Helps you become a complete solutions provider
Which of the following is an opportunity?

My son is getting admission in a new Engineering college in Maharashtra
I must have an extra ATM card for my wife
I am unhappy with the service provided for my current credit card
I am recruiting 25 new people in my organization next month
How can you handle objections due to a misunderstanding?

Rephrase the customer`s concern as a question
Which of the following are good examples of statements confirming a need?

I agree, your son should have the benefit of operating the account on his own.
I understand, with your hectic schedule, you cannot visit your branch for every single thing
So, the critical issue for you presently is to ensure that your father gets funds on time. Am I right.
You seem to be very happy about opening an account for your son.
Why do we need to confirm the customer`s need?
Which of the following is the most high risk and high return investment?
Equity
Real wealth is created almost magically through the most mundane and commonplace principles of
All of these
Once the investor has a rough idea of how much money he will need and how much time he has to
get there. He can start to think about what ________________ might be right for him and what kind
of ___________he can reasonably expect.
Investment vehicles Returns
Investment plan Returns
Investors __________ every time they commit money to something they don`t understand.
Speculate
Lack of investment planning can lead to

Investing erratically
Assumption of current income and consumption for the future too
Which of the following statements are true?

Most securities are poorly correlated with the market within a category hence holding these in a
portfolio is effective
The return correlations among stocks and bonds are high hence holding these investments in
a portfolio is effective
The return correlations among stocks and bonds bills are low hence holding these investments in a
None of these
Volatility (s) is normally in the range of _________ to 30% for an average equity stock
0.2
Will the investor need to live off the investment in later years? - is a statement associated with
Retirement Planning.
TRUE
The amount of money that an investor will need to reach his investment goal
Depends on current and the future investment scenarios with the chosen investment duration
Which from the following are measures of risk-reward ratio

Both Sharpe and Treynor Ratio
If you invest Rs.1,00,000 in a equity mutual fund for a period of 40 years which earns you a return
of 12%. At the end of this period, through the power of compounding, your earning will be 4.01L
FALSE
TRUE
Investors should not invest any money in stocks that they will need in less than _____ months.
12
24
Which of the following statements are false?A highly variable return could lead to investment
losses if the investment needs to be sold
Diversification lowers investment risk
Diversification is not effective if asset returns are strongly, positively correlated
Diversification is achieved because asset returns are strongly correlated
Which of the following statements are false

A highly variable return could lead to investment losses if the investment needs to be sold
Investors normally lose money in speculative investments because

The investor didn`t take the time to understand what he was investing in.
Speculation is like gambling and hence can result in either a profit or a loss
Mr. Sharma, a retired person, aged 62 years should ideally investment in

Balanced Fund
When you invest your savings in a stock, bond, or mutual fund, you do so because you think
________________.
Its value will appreciate over time
Investments with wider variation in returns

Are more risky
As per Warren Buffet investing is the act of seeking ______________ at least sufficient to justify
the amount paid
Value
Consciously paying more in the hope that it can soon be sold for a still higher price should be
labeled as Investment.
fALSE
TRUE
An investor needs to understand his investment style in order to match it with the various available
_____________.
Investment choices
Risk Profiles
Investments with wider variation in returns

Are more risky
Real wealth is created almost magically through the most mundane and commonplace principles of
All
As per John Bogle, investing is an act of Planning, a willingness to postpone present consumption
and save for the future.
FALSE
TRUE
The benefit of diversification can be achieved by diversification in upto ____ securities.

10
If we adjust returns obtained for inflation we arrive at _________
Real Return
Virtual Returns
Risk adjusted Returns
In investments the safest road is always the best.

FALSE
Calculate the mean for the following data points 14, 15, 15, 15, 16,16,16,17
15.5
Risk adjusted performance brings out the absolute post tax profit ordering
TRUE
Beta indicates a stocks _____________ relative to the market

Sensitivity

If beta = 1.0, the security is just as risky as the market index.
If beta > 1.0, the security is riskier than the market index.
___________ is the component of total returns

first two
The important thing to remember about stocks, though, is that an investor doesn`t lose anything
until he _____________.
Sells
Buys
Calculates the value of investment
Most stocks have beta values in the range of 0.5 to ______

1.5
As per John Bogle, investing is an act of _____, a willingness to postpone present consumption and
save for the future.
Faith
The statement Will the investor need to live off the investment in later years? is associated with
Retirement Planning
When you invest your savings in a stock, bond, or mutual fund, you do so because you think its
value will appreciate over time
TRUE
The return correlations among stocks and bonds bills are high hence holding these investments in a
portfolio is ineffective
FALSE
TRUE
Which of the following statements are true about asset allocation?

All
Every rupee that is used for speculation and lost is not working for the investor over the long-term
to create __________.
Wealth
An investment portfolio
Risk adjusted performance brings out the performance ordering (assuming positive average returns).
TRUE
Market risk premium depends on

Perceived risk of the stock market
Market participants risk tolerance
Investors expectation of returns
In the compounding formula, V = (P)*(1+k)^n, P stands for

Principal
Calculate the standard deviation for the following series 14, 15, 15, 15, 16,16,16,17\
0.9258
3.358
Sources of risk in investments include the following

all EXCEPT TAX
Rs.150 invested in an equity share falls to Rs. 125 after one year, what is the return on the
investment
0.2
-0.2
In October of 1987 the US Dow Jones Index declined _______ in just one day
0.25
0.175
___________ is the component of total returns Both Capital Appreciation and Dividend Yield
When one is investing in the stock market, one needs to think __________.
Long-term
A retired person in his late 60s, with little experience in financial matters will ideally have
Low appetite for risk
Which of the following statements are false about asset allocation?

It is a group of assets held together
Asset allocation varies with investor profiles
It strives to obtain the desired portfolio characteristics to suit distinct investor profiles
Commiting money to something one does not understand is called speculation

TRUE
Beta DOES NOT measures a stocks

Financial risk Non-diversifiable part of Market risk
An investment plan needs to consider

investment time horizon and the short term financial needs of the investor
The type of investments the investor will make
The investment amount required to reach the goal
An investment plan needs to consider

All of these
Investment risk is related to the probability of earning a ___________ actual return

Low or Negative `
None of these
Negative
During the US Great Depression, equity investments could have lost _____ % of their value if one
would have bought stocks at the high in 1929.
0.8
0.4
0.25
Sources of risk in investments include the following, except

Tax Rates
Following are the sources of risks which are Firm specific, except
Tax Rates
Business
Management
Volatility (s) is normally in the range of _________ to _________ for an equity mutual fund
portfolio
15 to 20%
Sharpe ratio is determined by using the following expression

(Return on the portfolio-Risk Free Return)/Beta
(Return on the portfolio+Risk Free Return)/(Beta+Standard Deviation)
An Investor invests in an instrument which compounds at 12%. If the investor holds the investment
for a period of 25 years the terminal value of the investment would be
Cannot be ascertained
If beta 1.0, the security is less risky than average

TRUE
Before investing in any companies equity, one must look at the following, except
Quality of management
It`s nature of business and Earnings track record
Commiting money to something one does not understand is called investment

FALSE
The benefit of diversification through addition of more securities dissipates after about
___________ securities
10
When one is investing in the stock market, one needs to think Long-term.
TRUE
As per Burton G. Malkiel, investing is a method of purchasing assets to gain profit in the form of
reasonably ______________ over the long term
Predictable income and / or appreciation
Predicable safety of principal
Investing money is putting that money into some form of `___________` - a fancy word for
anything that is secured by some assets.
Security
Asset Allocation Program
Consciously paying more in the hope that it can soon be sold for a still higher price should be
labeled as ________________.
Speculation
Portfolio diversification generally aims at enhancing return

FALSE
An investors comfort to see his investment decrease in the near term while waiting for it to increase
over the long term is termed as
Risk tolerance
Market risk is that portion of a securitys risk that __________ be eliminated through diversification
Cannot
Can
Stocks, bonds, mutual funds, certificate of deposits, etc., are commonly termed as Gilt
FALSE
TRUE
Market risk premium varies from year to year and most estimates suggest for US that it ranges
between ____________ per year
4 to 8%
15 to 20%
10 to 15%
Diversification is achieved because asset returns are strongly correlated

TRUE
An investors comfort to see his investment decrease in the near term while waiting for it to increase
over the long term is termed as Speculation.
FALSE
Which of the following statements are true about risk premium

ALL
Portfolio diversification generally aims at ______________

Lowering risk
The return correlations among stocks and bonds bills are low hence holding these investments in a
TRUE
Which of the following statements are true about market risk premium?
It is the additional return over the risk-free rate needed to compensate investors for assuming an
average amount of risk.
All of these
As per Benjamin Graham an investment operation is one which, upon thorough analysis promises
____________________.
Safety of principal and Adequate return
Safety of principal
Investors should not invest any money in stocks that they will need in
Six Months
Five Years
How active an investor wants to be in management of his money is dependent on the time that the
investor wants to spend on investing.
TRUE
Investing involves long term planning wherein you need to know

ALL
Investing money is putting that money into some form of `Security` - a fancy word for anything that
is secured by some assets.
FALSE
Ravi is 26 years old bachelor, working in a well paying job. The ideal invsetment option for him
would be
Equity Fund
Volatility (s) is normally in the range of 15% to ______ for an equity mutual fund portfolio
0.2
Which of the following statements are false

In investments risk is measured in terms of standard deviation
A widow with little experience in financial matters will ideally have

Low appetite for risk
Ms. R has Rs. 10,000/-, which he invests in a bank that offers him a rate of 20%. What would be his
expected return after 3 years?
17540
17820
An investor needs to understand his __________ in order to match it with the various available
investment choices.
Investment style
Beta measures a stocks

Inflation risk
As per the `Rule of 72` the principal will double at compounded at the rate of 9% in 8 years
TRUE
Compounding is
Generation of returns on reinvested earnings
All of these
The rolling return gives a better picture as it provides the average return for a particular holding
period and does away with the limitations of a point-to-point return estimation.
TRUE
Volatility (s) is normally in the range of _________ to _________ for government securities
0.5 to 2.5%
Investing involves long term planning wherein you need to know the following
All of these
An investment operation as one which, upon thorough analysis promises safety of principal and an
adequate return.
TRUE
______________ is the measurement of an investor`s willingness to suffer a decline in the value of

investments, while waiting and hoping for them to increase in value
Risk Tolerance
Which of the following statements are false about risk premium

It is the difference between the return on a risky asset and a less risky asset, which serves as
compensation for investors to hold riskier securities
Every rupee that is used for speculation and lost is not working for the investor over the long-term
to create Wealth.
True
Market risk is that portion of a securitys risk that cannot be eliminated through diversification
FALSE
Volatility (s) is normally in the range of _________ to _________ for an average equity stock
25 to 30%
As per Warren Buffet investing is the act of seeking Price at least sufficient to justify the amount
paid
FALSE
The goal of ______________ and response is to prevent loss of life, property and economic losses.
emergency preparedness
The records which can be retrieved after a considerable cost and time delay are useful records.
TRUE
A disaster scenario is based on the unavailabilty of

Both a and b
If evacuation is necessary, ________ will contact security.
the Facilities Management Group
A ______________provides contact list of bank personnel in case of an emergency

calling Tree
Site resumption is complete after

All the above
Immediate step to be taken after a disaster strikes is

Declare the Disaster
A Migration Plan does not include

Management Shift
Immediate steps to be taken after a disaster strikes

Assess Damage
Notify Key Personnel
Resume work Immediately
A specialized group for assisting the business groups in the compliance of the BCP is
Business Continuity Management Group
BIA helps the business units to __________ their _____________ and ______________ business
processes, along with the RTOs for each process
Prioritize, Critical, Important
Following parameters to be observed for understanding the effectiveness of BCP implementation

are
Essential personnel know evacuation procedures
Basic requirements at the alternate site are

Information technology equipment
Same Layout of the floor
Telecommunication equipment
DRP may be activated in case of Power outages and/or disruptions of internal and/or external
network connections for physical site with IT production
TRUE
Supporting Information for the smooth implementation of the BCP are

Both a and b
Ideal Disaster Recovery Strategy to ensure guarantee the reliability of standby systems
FALSE
An earthquake may result in the following impacts

None
Unavailability of premises
Probable loss of data and records stored locally
One among the many factors to be considered while carrying out a Business Impact Analysis is to
analyse the threats and risks to the organization
TRUE
The Business Group Head is responsible for the following in the context of BCP
Annually reviewing the status of business continuation strategy and plan
Approving the plan
Carrying out day to day business for the group
_____________ is one of the important supporting information for successful implementation of

BCP
Vendor Contact Listing
Activities that are not linked with Business Resumption are

Both a and b
Schedule & mobilize staff
Staff orientation
Fire and safety deficiency observed should promptly be brought to the attention of _____ for
investigation and resolution
Services Department
A power outage may lead to unavailability of manpower and premises.

FALSE
All events that do not cause critical damage or disruption in business operations would be classified
as __________
minor
Major events include

Major injuries to the team members
Unavailabilty of critical softwares and applications
Destruction of back office systems
Testing of the business continuity plan of the group ensures validity of the recovery plan and
procedures
TRUE
Fire occurring in one of the branches is a Major Event

FALSE
Testing and maintenance is predominantly carried out for ensuring ____________ and
____________ of BCP.
Timeliness, Effectiveness
Effectiveness, Preparedness
Business Impact Assessment comprises of the following steps

Business Impact Analysis Questionnaire
Documentaion of process flows & evaluation of critical processes
Opportunity threat matrix Questionnaire
Groups for the implementation of BCP are selected on the basis of impact of the process on the
organization
TRUE
A bomb threat may result to unavailability of premises and loss of data.

TRUE
FALSE
The team members in implementation of BCP report on the effectiveness of the plan to
____________
The team leader
One of the alternative strategies for the purpose of business recovery is Business Planning
TRUE
The point in time upto which the data needs to be restored is defined as
RPO
The alternative site required for continuity of business can be selected on the basis of following
criteria
Both a and b
RPO is defined as
The point in time upto which the data needs to be restored
An ideal data recovery site (DRS) to be

Both a and b
In the_________category of disaster the extent of communications and coordination required

continuing key operational activities are substantially reduced.
Minor
If central systems are not available from the data center it is a

Catastrophic Event
BCP ensures
Resumption of processes as defined in the plan
An alternate site that has the overall infrastructure to recover critical business functions or
information systems is known as
Warm Site
The intangible gains due to preparation of a successful BCP are

Avoidance of financial losses
Avoidance of Systems maintanance losses
The records retrievable after a considerable cost and time delay, are
Vital Records
Useless Records
BCP is a practical and robust guide that enables the organisation to pass through a crisis
comfortably
TRUE
Activities that are linked with Resource Recovery and Commissioning are
Determining staff requirement and staff availability
Determining system requirement and system availability
____________is not linked with initial response and assessment.

Staff validation
Examples of tangible impacts are

Extra expense
Revenue Loss
Interest losses
The impacts that do not occur in absence of Business Continuity Plan are
Organization cannot meet its payment obligations
Organisation cannot meet the customers expectations
The steps for development of Business Continuity Strategy are

Recommending solutions for recovery
Listing out detailed resumption steps for each scenario
Both
Activities that are linked with `Return to Normal` operations are

Arrange transfer of files
Resume non-critical functions
None
-Criticality of business process is assessed on the basis of having maximum processes / activity
False
Critical events have RTO of less than a day.

True
If a machine or appliance is burning or hot, ______ it and notify the supervisor immediately
unplug
Which other record, is not replaceable,

Both
A testing strategy is to be defined on the basis of

Scale of Operations
Criticality of business process is assessed on the basis of having maximum processes / activity
TRUE
The purpose of ____________ is to prevent loss of life, to minimize injury, and to reduce property
damage.Security procedures
The cooling will often cause ice to form around the _______ where the gas is expelled from the
extinguisher
Clapps
Activities that are linked with Interim Contingency measures are

Contact critical external third parties and regulatory authorities
Clear the backlog
Commence operations based on importance
Recovery Strategy is based on recovery time objective, recovery point objective

TRUE
The Systems can be classified as Catastrophic, Major, Minor

False
The role of the team members in implementation of BCP includes

Ensuring that plans are regularly revised and updated
None of the above
Documenting and presenting the status of the plan
The ______________supports the implementation of BCP by maintaining a centralized inventory

and control of the plan
Team Leader
Management Leader
DRP covers the IT Infrastructure required to run both critical business applications and associated
processes required for transition
TRUE
Which among these should not be considered by Recovery plans

The best case profit scenarios
_______ should be used on Class A

Air
The_________would indicate Testing Strategy

testing guidelines
Irreplaceable records are

Vital Records
Useful Records
Housekeeping includes
Keep aisles, doors, and stairs clear
Spot check normal unattended areas where combustibles are stored
No need to be extremely cautious of combustible liquids
An organization, which is better equipped to handle disaster situations, has a competitive advantage
over others even in good times.
TRUE
Aspect for deciding for the place of backup storage is protection against possible disasters
TRUE
The Business Impact Assessment consists of

Environment Analysis
Cost Benefit Analysis
A terrorist attack or riot could result in the following impacts

Unavailability of data
Unavailability of systems, applications and internet
Which step is not involved in Business Impact Assessment

___________ refers to procedures to reduce or eliminate risk of injury or death

Emergency response
One of the requirements stipulated by the Reserve Bank of India for the banking organisations is to
submit a copy of the BCP approved by RBI
FALSE
Tarnished image is an example of __________

intangible impacts
Other examples of intangible impacts are

Loss of competitive advantage
Interest losses
Which among these fall under Recovery Time objective.

Maximum Acceptable Tolerable Time
Maximum Acceptable Tolerance Downtime
The BCP culture can be driven by the way of making everyone responsible for the testing of the
process
TRUE
Activities that are linked with_______________are implementing problem reporting & escalation
procedures
Business Resumption
Activities that are linked with initial response and assessment are
Notify staff
Fulfillment of personal needs do not fall under the category of

intangible gains due to preparation of BCP
__________activities cannot be linked with `Return to Normal` operations

Work from home
The BCP testing needs to be evaluated on the basis of the following criteria
Both a and b
Migration Plan will include
Off-site data transfer
The scope of a Business Continuity Plan covers

Organization as a whole
To build a good Business Continuity Plan one should identify effects which need to be faced if an
incident occurs.
TRUE
A______________considers course of action to be followed in the event of a disaster under various

scenarios
Recovery plan
Business continuity plans are prepared considering some criteria that all the officials are available
for work following the incident.
TRUE
Catastrophic events include

Unavailability of treasury front office and back office
Unavailability of centralized operations team
Unavailability of corporate office
A flood at a data centre, may result in the following impacts

Unavailable of manpower
A Business continuity plan is created to effectively protect the life and safety of its personnel.
TRUE
Which of the following are correct

All of the above
A disaster occurs when a Catastrophic or Major event occurs.

TRUE
The various alternative locations for disaster recovery site could be hot site or warm site.
TRUE
____________ is not allowed inside the Bank facilities in order to prevent fire.
Smoking
Writing the BCP procedures consists of preparing process for declaration of disaster
TRUE
__________extinguishers are usually rated for multiple purpose use. They contain an extinguishing
vendor and use a compressed, non-flammable gas as a propellant
Dry Chemical Powder (DCP)
Business function recovery plan for the organisation to involve

Resumption steps in case of a disaster
People involved in implementation of BCP are those who support the business groups in
implementation3
TRUE
Important events have RTO of

Less than a day.
Disaster Recovery ensures a normal condition

TRUE
A fire in an organisation may result in the following impacts

Loss of data
Disaster avoidance measures should be implemented to address __________ and _____________

identified during the risk assessment phase.
Risks, Concerns
Business Continuity Planning is a component of _

Operational Risk Management
Both
Supporting documents required for the BCP testing are

Notification procedures for recovery teams and key personnel
Both
________is responsible for plan development, implementation and subsequent maintenance,

exercise and team training
The Security Committee
An alternate site that contains minimal infrastructure but if provisioned can support recovery
operations is known as
Warm Site
Power Outage for 2 hrs is a Minor event

true
An alternate site that is partially equipped but can provide backup after some additions is known as
Warm Site
102 Under ________ category alternate procedures and processes need not be used and these
activities may be deferred for a period of time without significantly affecting either customers,
banks and financial institutions
Minor
Fire Investigative Team Members

Both a and b
In case of Emergency call up 24x7 Emergency Hotline number which is.

040 23128811
What occurs when a muscle or tendon is overstretched or overexerted?

Sprain
While reporting the incident.

state only facts
What are the characteristics that help in identifying a suspicious letter or package?
Odor
Place of Origin
Feel & Balance
Who is responsible for directing and assisting in the evacuation of personnel from the building?
The Facilities Management Group
When an Alarm is heard, the farthest emergency Exit should be used to run
FALSE
What kind of Fire detection devices are available at a Branch?

Smoke detectors
In case of unexplained unconsciousness, what should one do?

One should not give the victim anything by mouth
If there is drainage from the nose, mouth, or ears stop it immediately
Third degree burns usually result from

a flash from gasoline
electric shocks
Why should communications protocols be adhered to during crises?

To prevent any kind of miscommunication with media
To prevent any kind of damage caused to the reputation of the bank
To find and punish the person behind the crisis
Should I wait for an approval from my superior before calling the Hotline number?
I should call the Hotline immediately, even if my superior is not reachable
Armed Guard should be utilized ONLY for security duties.

TRUE
Measures to mitigate the risk of fire are

Smoking is not allowed inside the Bank facilities
Replace wiring if worn out or cracked
Avoid checking normal unattended areas where combustibles are stored
Which of the following is a natural calamity?

Earth quake
What is the first aid measure incase of major burns?
Do not immerse the severe large burns in cold water
Remove burnt clothing
In case of Robbery/Dacoity people

should remain calm,
shouldn`t overreact
should start shouting for help
look for opportunity to raise an alarm without attracting attention of the intruders
Incase of an evacuation drill / test, which of the following steps have to be carried out one day
before the drill / test
Engage executive leadership to leave a message of support reiterating the importance of
participation
Confirm responsibilities of
- Building Management team
Security
Carry out the drill
Do not put ice directly on a burn as it can cause a frostbite

TRUE
If immediate danger exists and the fire alarm is not triggered who takes the decision for evacuation
of the area/premises
highest management personnel at the location
Who takes up the responsibility of evacuation in the absence of control rooms in the bank offices?
Branch Manager or Site Head
What questions will you ask yourself to know if a situation is a crisis or it has the potential to
become a crisis?
Could this action negatively influence how others think of ICICI Bank?
Is someone injured? Is bank`s security at risk? Is there any threat to property?
Is the media or community interested/involved?
Does it threaten our ability to do business?
All threats and suspicious objects should be treated seriously even though they seem to be hoax and
may actually turn out to be hoax in the end.
TRUE
What is an emergency crisis situation?

Emergency situations are immediate and unanticipated
Which of the following should be observed as a safety tip during fire accidents.
Always crawl low under the smoke
Treatment for burns depends on.

burning agent
Which is an emergency situation?
Major systems failure
Natural calamity
Workplace Violence
Burns can result from.

Electricity
moist heat
dry heat
In case of a bomb threat , received through phone call, what steps should be taken?
The person receiving the call should engage the caller in conversation to know more details of the
bomb
In order to avoid Robbery\Dacoity\Theft what preventive measures should be taken?

Guard should be on the watch at the entry / exit gate for suspicious persons
If a hazardous substance is discovered, Location Manager and Building Security should be notified
immediately
TRUE
In case of bomb threat received in writing, what steps should be taken?

Report the threat to Security
The moment the threat is received inform everyone in office about it
Once the message is recognized as a threat, further unnecessary handling should be avoided in order
to maintain evidence
Save all materials including the envelope
Unclaimed baggage can be brought to the security control rooms

FALSE
If a machine or appliance is burning or hot

unplug it and notify the supervisor immediately
A dislocated vertebrae in the spine often damages the spinal cord and can .
paralyze body parts higher than the injury site
When should the evacuation begin?

On the day of drill
A dislocation is
a separation of the end of a bone and the joint it meets
In case of bomb threat, what questions should be asked to the caller?

Where is the Bomb kept?
How is the bomb prepared?
How do we recognize it?
Which of the given form the objectives of an evacuation drill?

To test emergency communication and warning systems
In case of tsunami which of the following things are to be taken along with?
Lease papers/loan documents
Cheque/cash vouchers
Cash
In what situations should the evacuation start

On announcement over PA system
When announced by floor marshal.
On sounding of Fire Alarm
Who should be called in to remove the ATM cash and rolls (depending on the distance and time)?
Cash Replenishment Agency
The principle of R.I.C.E. is used to treat

Sprain

Customers or persons entering with bulky bags and suitcases should be requested to reveal contents
in the interest of security.
Water should be used on.

Class À` type fires
After receiving the bomb threat call, what are the steps that should be taken?
Any suspicious item should be checked immediately
One staff member should always be at the telephone to receive and answer calls
Strictly restrict all entry and exit points. Keep them under control of security person
One should use lighted match or electric switches to search for gas leaks or fire hazards
FALSE
A debriefing meeting of Evacuation Drill Committee should be scheduled to identify opportunities

for improvement
TRUE
Necessary steps to be taken for flood prevention are

Keep the automobile grease ready to apply on strong room door.
Know the external water flow and its outlets
Keep all internal drains and sewers free from blockage
How should the cash bundles be dried if it gets wet?

Under lamps and fans
Class À` type fires involve

ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber, and plastics
Which of the following is true

First aid is an emergency treatment administered to an injured or sick person before professional
medical care is available
Hand extinguishers are used

if the fire is small
Putting ice on the injured joint
reduces the swelling
The first-aid kit should consist of basic supplies, medications and emergency items
TRUE
A call centre receiving an abnormally larger than average number of calls from customers asking
about an issue or making a specific complaint could be an indication of a issue-driven crisis
situation
TRUE
Get under a desk or sturdy table, or stand in a doorway or in a corner, if the intensity of an
earthquake is high.
TRUE
How often should the evacuation drill be conducted?

At least annually
Which of the following are the steps taken by the Fire Investigation Team member?
Report to the problem location ,Find the cause of the problem, Inform security if
there is a live fire
______Dry Chemical Powder __________ extinguishers are usually used for multiple types of fire
Any packages or letters arriving before or after a phone call from an unknown person asking if the
item was received. One should
treat it with caution
If no danger exists or the situation is a false alarm, _________ will fix the existing problem and
verify that there is no danger
maintenance team
The fire extinguisher that is selected should be rated for the class of fire that needs to be
extinguished
TRUE
When can you call the Crisis Hotline/Emergency number?

24 hours, 7 days a week
Fire extinguishers must be regularly inspected by qualified personnel and be strategically located
TRUE
At the time of evacuation the Bank personnel including management staff will be responsible for
Waiting at assembly area till clearance
Directing the evacuation of visitors from the building
Shutting off all circulating devices and all air conditioners
The __________acronym is a method used for operating most common fire extinguishers
PASS
Which types of burns damage the epidermis layer of skin and cause blistering?
Third degree
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) extinguishers can be used to extinguish which type of fire
Metallic fires
Inflammable gases
Electrical fire
If a suspicious package is located one should

Prevent public from closing on to the suspected object
CPR ( cardiopulmonary resuscitation) may be administered only by a certified person

TRUE
What should be done if packages received are having words like `Fragile`, `Rush` or `Prize
Enclosed`, misspelling of common names?
These should be treated with caution
What do you do when you call the Hotline/Emergency number?

Identify yourself to the hotline executive and share whatever information you have
Shut off the main valve, when you smell gas or see a broken gas line
TRUE
Overload the outlets and extension cords.

FALSE
Appliances and electrical devices that have a label indication should only be purchased.
TRUE
In absence of Facilities Management Group, who is responsible for directing and assisting in the
evacuation of personnel from the building?
The Site Head
In case of any chances of water seeping inside the branches, one should
identify the location and try and block the same to the extent possible by water proof gunny bags,
plastic sheets.
Security or Facilities personnel should use portable radios to report a suspicious object
TRUE
Attachments can be added to an SR

True
Account number is mandatory to create an SR

True
Customer data in FCRM

there is no customer data in FCRM
is accessible to all users
is accessible only to branch users
All fields in the SR are mandatory

False
SR1234 has been assigned to BC - LOAN_OPS. The SR is accessible to

Users mapped to LOAN_OPS
SRs can be searched using the SR number and the account number on which the SR was created
True
Option to create SR in FCRM is available under __________

Support
The option for editing or closing an SR is

Edit Incident
Customer data for all international geographies has a restricted access in FCRM
True
With the use of a CRM system, businesspersons can determine individual customer behavior,
analyze preferences and provide one-to-one services to maximize customer satisfaction
True
1. `BC Tray` view is where all the SRs assigned to a BC can be viewed and accessed
2.SRs in a BC can be accessed by all the users in the system
Only 1 is True
The option used to check the audit trail of the SR is

View All Notes
User ID can be created without a BG and BC

False
To migrate a process in FCRM, the following are required

All of the above
Step TAT
can be different for each step
When a user is mapped to more than one BC

One of the BCs is a Primary BC
To `pull` an SR to the self tray, the option to be used is

Get Incident
Pull Incident
SR TAT = 7 days
Step 1 TAT = 4 days
Step 2 TAT = 3 days
SR created on Friday, 28th June
What is the due date? (Weekly holiday on Sundays)
6th July
BG owner can change BC owner

True
Direct escalation is
when the escalation mails are sent to specified persons at specified levels
All creation fields are mandatory

False
True
Priya has access to only Hong Kong customer data. Which statement is true?
Priya can search, edit and close only SRs created for HK customers
BC owner can change BC mappings

True
False
SR TAT = 4 days
SR created on Tuesday, 28th June When will FCRM send the 1st level escalation mail? (Weekly
holiday on Sunday)
2nd July
`Self Tray` view is where all the SRs assigned to a User can be viewed and accessed
True
Every BC is mapped with a

Both
An SR can be manually assigned to

Both
None
A Service Request has the following components

All of the above
FCRM stands for

Finacle Customer Relationship Management
SR TAT = 4 days Step 1 TAT = 3 days

Step 2 TAT = 1 day SR created on Monday, 09th August What is the due date?
13th August
To close an SR, the value in which drop down has to be changed to `Closed`?
Internal Status
Incident Status
SR Status
SR TAT = 1 days SR created on Monday, 14th January What is the due date? (Weekly holiday on
Sunday)
15th January
In the SR name, Type 2 generally represents

grouping of requests
nothing
In the SR name, Type 1 generally represents

the product
nothing
A CRM system gives a unified view of the customer`s interactions and requests only to the front-
end teams but not to the back-end teams.
False
SR TAT = 4 days Step 1 TAT = 3 days Step 2 TAT = 1 day SR created on Friday, 14th August what
is the due date? (Weekly holiday on Sunday)
18th August
19th August
BC can be created without a BG

False
The Ìncident Counter` option gives the count of open SRs in

Both
On searching an account number, all the SRs created on that account can be viewed
True
All decentralized options are available under

User Maintenance
Administration
If account number is not available, an SR

can be created on a `contact`
cannot be created
Call-Tag option is used to

Create SRs
Search SRs
Search customer records
Ravi reports to Amrita. The SR in Ravi`s tray has gone out of TAT. Also, the 1st level escalation in
the SR has been mapped to Vishal. If the SR has only direct escalation, to whom will the 1st level
escalation mail go to?
Both
Amrita
Position based escalation is

when the escalation mails follow the reporting hierarchy
SR is captured at
All of the above
Once in the self tray of a user, nobody other than the user can access, modify or close the SR
True
TAT for every step in an SR is called

Step TAT
the SR has been mapped to Vishal. If the SR has both direct and position-based escalation, to whom
will the 1st level escalation mail go to?
Both
Vishal
There can be multiple BGs (Business Groups) under one BC (Business Center)
False
the SR has been mapped to Vishal. If the SR has only position-based escalation, to whom will the
1st level escalation mail go to?
Amrita
Both
All closure fields are mandatory

False
True
CRM is a business strategy that enables organizations to serve customer needs, improve customer
service, enhance customer satisfaction and thereby maximize customer loyalty and retention
True
SR1234 is in Purnima`s self tray. Vishal can access the SR and edit \ close it.
False
A ______________ mapping defines the user structure in FCRM

User - BC BG
Summation of Step TAT in an SR is called

Step TAT
The___________ present on the first page should match the perforations on the other pages of the
passport (this is a must). Serial number
Address proof in a rural area was issued by a Senior police inspector of that area. Do you think it is
a trigger? If yes, what type of trigger is this Yes, it is Demography/ address trigger
City mentioned in the application form not matching with pincode mentioned is an example of
which trigger? A)Demography/ Address
A land document issued in Andhrapradesh with most of the details in Telugu language but few
details in Kannada language is an example of which trigger type Language
Credit manager should flag of all the positive cases for credit cards in the NACS for updation on
CPCS for build up negative database & future reference. TRUE FALSE
Copy of a bank statement in the file is not having the bank logo and statement is also not on the
bank letter head. Few cash deposits done through branch were on Publc holidays. What will you
do? A)Screen the file B)Sample the file
Sampler received 2 cases with original Sarpanch letters as KYC documents. Both the letters were in
the same format and both the letters appeared to be genuine. However in one of the case the format
was slightly thicker than the other one. What should the m files\rea -- Sampler should sample both
the casesSampler should screen both the cases
Which is the prevention activity from the below mentioned activities? A)Verification activity
Sampling activity
Document triggers can be discussed with the customer to avoid any fraudulent cases in future
TRUE False
Document issued in Gujarat and written in Marathi is an example of which trigger? A)Language
trigger
Following are the inputs to the screening process B)Files given by credit manager *** A)Login
sheets
Utility bill of a company not servicing the area where applicant resides is an example of which
trigger? B)Demography / address
Difference in name on the application form as per id proof is an example of which trigger? B)Name
abnormality
You can keep FCPG stamps in the custody of FI agency TRUE False
Difference in font type/ size in bank statement is an example of which trigger?C)Font / Handwriting
Passport issue date near to the application date is an example of which trigger? A)Date B)Forged
passport
What is sampling? B)Is an activity of picking up of documents/cases based on triggers

C)Collecting samples of fraudulent documents from the market
Self attestation differs from the signature on id proof is an example of which trigger? C)Self
attestation
Location of office mentioned on the stamp exactly matching with office location is an example of
Stamp trigger FALSE
Returned to credit stamp can be put only on Application form and file cover
Signature of the issuing officer is on the back page of voter card and stamped TRUE
A neat and clean original title deed issued 25 years back is an example of which trigger type?
Appearance
In case of an ITR is necessary that dates of filing should be on a weekly holiday or a public holiday
FALSE
Product wise FCPG stamps should be identical through out the locations where they are used
TRUE
Multiple applications from the same company getting declined is an example of which trigger?
A)Setup company C)Profile mismatch
Bihar Rajya Parichay Patra is a valid address proof FALSE TRUE
Sampler received a case where in customer staying in a slum area had applied for mercidize car.
Case was sampled for a profile check. Customer profile check revealed that no such address exits.
What is the trigger type for this case? Profile mismatch
Presence of water marks on the sale deed is an example of which trigger type? Appearance
Manipulation
What dose the 5th digit in the pan number stand for? B)First alphabet of the surname
What is screening Screening is a process which involves scrutiny of applications / documents on

the basis of feedback received from the sales team to detect and prevent fraudulent applications
from entering into the system
Which of these is a trigger for ID proof verification? B)Photo on application exactly matching with
photo on id proof
In a Farmer Finance case an applicant gave third party account cheques as Security PDC, with a
fraudulent intention. Which type of fraud is this? Instrument fraud
When should we screen a file? C)Both
Applicant providing a utility bill of a company which is not servicing the area of applicant
residence is an example of which type of trigger? Demography/ address trigger
Monthly Payslip issued by self is an example of which trigger? B)Business profile setup
companyC)Profile mismatch A)Appearance
In credit card sampling activity a ---------------------- is mentioned for every sampled application on
the face of application which includes a trigger and action code to facilitate the verification activity
13 digit RCU code
4th alphabet of a pan number should be P if the pan card belongs to A)An individual
Age of the applicant not matching with experience is an example of which trigger?C)Profile
mismatch
Passport for adults is valid for 10 years

True
Central government issued document in a vernacular language is an example of which trigger?
C)Language trigger
Material mismatch in signature of same Talathi in 2 certificates is an example of which trigger?

A)Signature trigger
Sampling is done to C)Both
FCPG sampled applications and documents are sent to ---------------- for field verification and other
intelligence gathering FCPG agencies
There were 2 cases of personal loan in which same pan numbers were used for 2 different
applicants. Both the cases were further declared as fraud as both the applicants denied that they
have applied for a loan. What type of fraud is this? KYC fraud
Passport serial number consists of 8 Alphanumeric characters FALSE TRUE
For a profile decline case applicant is not staying at the given address who is the deviation authority
Zonal FCPG manager
Date of issuing the bank statement before opening a bank account is an example of Income trigger
FALSE
Cheque clearing transactions on a bank holiday is not a trigger FALSE
For profile decline cases where in applicant has taken loan from other banks but defaulted, who is
deviation authority Zonal FCPG manager
Sourcing employee and employee doing the OSV are different is an example of_________ trigger
OSV
Which of these is a trigger for profile check? A)Age mismatch with experience
Self attestation of the applicant is different from the signature done on the application form. This
could be a case of ___________ Signature forgery *** Identity theft
Expired ID proof is an example of which trigger? B)Date
The changes made in the stamp format on a quarterly basis should be communicated to hind-
sighting teams only FALSE TRUE
Reporting nomenclature for credit cards are Negative profiles ** Profile Decline Document
Decline
________ pan card were issued to the customers after January 2010 C-series
Material mismatch in 2 or more stamps of the Sarpanch of the same village is an example of which
trigger? A)Stamp trigger
---------------- ink stamp pad should be used for all FCPG stamps Black/ Green ink padRed for
sampled and green for screened
Pasting is visible on the photo of ID proof is an example of which trigger? C)Forged ID photo
manipulation
Maximum Document Decline/Profile Decline cases getting sourced from a particular

channel/branch is an example of which trigger? A)Sourcing trigger
Information in the passport is filled in Hindi FALSE
Return to credit stamps are applicable for credit cards also FALSE
Semiannual interest not credited in the SB account is an example of which trigger? B)Other
Income tax return filed in an improper ward or a circle is an example of which trigger type?
Demography/ address trigger
As per the policy, Grampanchayat stamp put across the photograph with Sarpanch signature is
required on the Sarpanch letter TRUE
While doing the screening activity, always stamp on the right hand bottom side of the document/
file avoiding stamping on any written/ printed matter at the same time. TRUE
Photograph on the voter ID cards should be computerized and_________ with the photos of the
application form / or other documents. Applicant should be the same but should not exactly match
High loan applied by an applicant staying in a low profile area is an example of which trigger type?
Profile setup Demography/ Address trigger
If stamp on the original ITR is------------, means applicant has a pan card Blue
Bank statement having date format for 2 transactions as dd/mm/yy and for the rest of transactions as
dd-mm-yyyy is an example of which trigger type? Date trigger
If Outsourced Executive/ Junior Officer (I-Bank Employee) is involved in a fraud case, FCPG
CART to investigate and take it to----------------------------- for final actioning. FCPG investigations
head RCC
Applicants having a criminal background or underworld connection are referred as

___________Negative profiles
Mobile number of an applicant not matching with city/ state where applicant is staying is an
example of which trigger type? Demography/ address triggerArea trigger
Registration number on a driving license not matching the residence area of the applicant is an
example of which trigger type? Demography/ address trigger
Incorrect tax rebate / deductions in ITR is example of which trigger? C)Fraudulent profile
High loan amount applied by the applicant for a low profile area is an example of which trigger?
A)Demography / Address\
For Credit cards and liabilities product only 2 stamps are used namely ---------------- and -------------
----FCPG screened and Return to DVU
Forms accepted by------------------------- with supporting documents are handed over by RPC to
FCPG for checks Data Verification Unit(DVU)
STD code of a landline number of an applicant not matching with the residence area of the
applicant is an example of which trigger type? Landline triggerArea trigger Demography/ address
trigger
Cheque bounces seen in the bank statement with out any overdue charges is an example of
__________ trigger Entries mismatch
Font size and style for voter cards should not be matching for front and the back page of the voter
card FALSE
Corporate payslip issued in a vernacular language is an example of which trigger? B)Language

trigger
The fourth character in a pan card should be__________ in case it is a company pan card C
Which of the below could be a trigger on an ITR based on PAN number C)5th alphabet of PAN is
matching with first letter of surname
Which of the below mentioned are the triggers for bank statement? C)Both
Form 16 with different Tan number for applicant and co-applicant working in the same company is
an example of which trigger? B)Sourcing trigger
Information available in 6D-extract in Maharashtra can be obtained from Block level subregistrar`s
office*** Talathi***Commissioner of land extracts
In the computerized Passports (issued in the last 2 years) there is a 28 digit code in the last line
TRUE
How many times is the estimated number of road accidents in India compared to those in the
developed countries?
3 times higher
At how many Network garages across India is the Cashless Claim settlement facility available in a
motor policy of ICICI Lombard?
5000+
Can an Insured avail an additional discount on Premium in addition to NCB?

Yes, Voluntary Excess discount if he opts for a voluntary excess in addition to Compulsory Excess
What can we do to safeguard against against Calamities, manmade or natural that strike without
warning?
Use our Assets on rare occasions
Take Insurance Cover
Third Party Legal Liability protects car owners against legal liability arising due to accidental
damages.
TRUE
What is the maximum NCB that can be offered on a Motor Insurance policy if no claims are made?
Upto 50%
An Insured can transfer full benefits of NCB when he shifts his motor Insurance policy from
another company to ICICI Lombard.
TRUE
ICICI Lombard offers its customers a comprehensive Package Policy for four-wheelers, which
covers
All of the Above
Motor Insurance Policy protects against the following natural calamities.

Both a and b
Fire
Can a Motor Vehicle Owner Insure the Electrical and Non Electrical Accessories like Music System
fitted in the vehicle?
Yes
For covering motor vehicles fitted with CNG/LPG kits, what additional premium one has to pay?
4% of value of the Kit
What is the age upto which Family Floater policy can be renewed?
50 years
Lifestyle diseases are an outcome of unhealthy lifestyles, smoking, lack of physical exercise and
consumption of high salt diet and saturated fats.
TRUE
Which expenses are covered under cover A of Health Advantage Plus (HAP) policy?
All of the Above
Which of the following is true for OPD treatment claims under HAP Policy?
All of the Above
What is the enrolment age for Health Advantage Plus(HAP)?
Between 5 and 65 years
Which of the following treatments are covered under OPD treatment of HAP Policy?
Dental Treatment charges
What is the Toll Free Call Centre No. of ICICI Lombard GIC Ltd?
1800 209 8888
Which Policy covers expenses like Room rent, Nursing expenses, Doctor`s fees, Dialysis,
Chemotherapy,Radiotherapy?
Both a and b
Which of these below technological advanced treatment that require less than 24 hr hospitalization
are covered under HAP?
All of the Above
Which Section of Income Tax Law allows Tax Benefit for Health policies?
Section 80D
Medical Tests in HAP Policy are compulsory for persons who are
45 years and above
What is the age group eligible for taking Critical care Coverage?
20 to 45 years
ICICI Lombard`s Home Insurance covers the following natural calamities and man-made disasters
All of the Above
In Monsoon, the frequency of rainfalls increases. A heavy rainfall can do severe damage to home
structure and interiors. Is it covered by the Home Insurance Policy?
Yes, It also covers against man-made disasters like burglary, theft, riot, terrorism and strike
In case of a Home Insurance Policy, ILGIC Home plans cover not just the structure but also the
contents of your home.
TRUE
Value of Jewellery, silver articles and precious stones covered under the retail Home Policy is -
Upto 25% of Sum Insured or Rs 1 Lakh, which ever is less
Are Consumer Durables covered under the Burglary coverage of a Home Insurance policy of ICICI
Lombard?
Yes
Which of the following are not covered by the Home Insurance Plan?
Both a and b
ICICI Lombard`s Overseas Travel Insurance has

All of the Above
iAAA rating that ICICI Lombard has received from ICRA signify
Highest Claim paying ability
Can One extend a travel policy?

Yes
What is the Platinum Plan in Travel Insurance?

A comprehensive plan which includes medical cover to trip cancellation and interruption
In ICICI Lombard`s Overseas Travel Insurance, the premium is payable as a

Basic rate for first 7 days and then Pay on per day basis
When going to Schengen countries, Is travel Insurance mandatory for Visa purpose?
Yes
Home Insurance Cover available under Platinum travel Insurance plan provides a Sum Insured of
_______ for Building and _______ for Contents.
Rs 20 lakhs and 5 lakhs respectively
What is the maximum age upto which Travel insurance is available?

75 yrs
In case of Death of an Insured in Student Medical insurance, If the bail bond benefit has been
availed, then Insured`s immediate family member or Sponsor need to submit an official Death
certificate within a month.
Yes
Which of the following are Excluded under Student Travel Insurance?

Both a and b
While the core offer in a Travel Insurance is coverage of medical expenses, there are also several
non medical covers. Which of the following is on
All of the Above
Which Cover is mandatory in Motor Insurance?

Third-party cover
Which of the following is an Exclusion in a Motor Insurance Policy?

All of the Above
If an Insured takes a policy from ICICI lombard, when is the hard copy of the policy couriered to
him?
Same day or Next day if bought after 6pm
Under a Motor Insurance policy, Upto what is the Personal Accident cover for Individual Owners
while driving?
Rs 2 lakhs
What is the extent of the Personal Accident cover that the Insured can opt for other unnamed
passengers in his car like his family, friends?
Rs 2 lakhs
In Family Floater, An Insured child between 91 days and 5 years must be accompanied by an adult
in the policy.
TRUE
If a Person is diagnosed to have contracted a critical Illness within first 3 months of the Critical
Care Policy, Is it covered under it?
No
Section 80D benefit providing tax savings remains over and above the benefit of Section 80C
FALSE
For an Individual Plan in Family Floater Policy, the minimum and maximum age of Entry is
Min. 5 years and Max. 60 years
In Family Floater, subject to continous renewal with ICICI Lombard, pre-existing diseases are
covered from
3rd year onwards
To Claim Insurance, how many hours should the Insured be hospitalized under instructions of a
Medical Practitioner
Minimum 24 Consecutive Hours
What is the limit for Rent for Alternate Accomodation in a Retail Home Policy of ICICI Lombard?
Rs 1 Lac for maximum of 6 months
Travel Insurance is bought mainly due to the ________ when on the trip abroad.
Fear of medical expenses
Silver Plan of Travel Insurance also includes the cost of Medical Evacuation back to India.
TRUE
While the core offer in a Travel Insurance is coverage of medical expenses, there are also several
non medical covers. Which of the following is one?
All of the Above
Is Dental treatment covered in an Individual Overseas Travel insurance Policy?

Yes but deductible of US$100 applicable
Student Travel Insurance of ICICI Lombard is available with a continuous cover for
2 years
In order to make a claim in Travel Insurance of ICICI Lombard while visiting an EU country, the
insured should contact\
SOS International
Travel insurance is mandatory for

All of the Above
Senior citizens between 71 and 85 years have to undergo a medical check up before Travel policy
issuance at their own cost.
TRUE
Which of the following is not a benefit of investing in a Mutual Fund? Money is always secure and
it appreciates with time
If the entry Load is 2.25% and the NAV is Rs. 10/-, then the investor will have to pay for 1000 units
10225
Load is ...Charge borne by AMC Charge borne by investor
It is compulsory to use fund agents/intermediaries for investing Mfs FALSE TRUE
Mututal fund is not... A portfolio of stocks, bonds and other securities Pool of funds used to
purchase securities on behalf of investors
A company that manages an investment portfolio
A collective investment vehicle
-It is compulsory to use fund agents/intermediaries for investing MFs
A scheme can be launched by The AMC The AMC on behalf of the trustees
Mr. Kiran is in his mid forties and would like to invest in a Mutual Fund that would help him bear
the college expenses of his son in later life Growth Scheme Balanced Scheme
What is the purpose of Lock in period? To ensure that the units are not redeemed before a
reasonable time frame.
Which of the following is not a fundamental requirement of Mutual Fund investments? Investing in
only one type of scheme
Distributors are required to abide by a code of conduct as prescribed by SEBI. This code is based on
AMFI ARN AGNI
Who submits the portfolio of the scheme to SEBI? Custodians AMC
Application forms are available with... Memorandum containing key informationNewsletter Offer
document
Which one of the following is a self regulatory organisation? SEBI AMFI RBI
The most important link between Mutual Fund and Investors is Fund Distributors
Which of the following statements is true?
A Closed end schemes can offer re-purchase facility.
B Open-end schemes have variable unit capital.
C Open end schemes can be listed in the stock market Only A and B
The value of funds net assets is Rs. 1000. Mr. Singh owns 3 units of Face Value of Rs. 10. The
Value of his ownership is Not Possible to calculate unless more information is given
Which of the following statements is true?A Closed end schemes can offer re-purchase fa
What is forward pricing? Price known to the invefstor before any transaction
Which of the following could not be the reason for people to invest in Mutual Funds? To consider a
better alternative against investing in shares which carry greater risk
To invest in blue chip shares even with small amounts of money
The most comprehensive source of information available on investor services is found in

Offer Document Newspaper
What is a Mutual Fund? A Public Company. A Trust that pools the savings of a number of
investors.
Please select the appropriate Mutual Fund scheme for the given profile.. Mr. Arun will be retiring in
a year. He wants to invest his savings in a Mutual Fund which would offer him steady income after
retirement and also wants the risk to be minimum. Income Scheme Balanced Scheme
The best benchmark for the Index Based fund is ...Any Market Index
Mr. Kumar has Rs. 100000 which he wants to invest in an Open Ended Mutual Funds. Entry Load
is 2.25% for all investments is less than 5 Crs. The Current NAV of the scheme is 44.52. Mr Kumar
will get 2196.755 Units
The position on tax benefit under section 80C for investment in Equity Linked Savings Scheme is
Available without cap but within the overall limit of Rs. 100000/- for all section 80C investments
Which of the following is not a feature of Growth based schemes? Investments only in the debt
markets
Q:The section of the Pay-in Slip that is handed over to the customer is called
A:Counterfoil
Q:CRL stands for _________________________

A:Cash Retention Limit
Q:Identification mark security feature has been introduced in all the Gandhi series notes except?
A:10
Q:Why is there a provision of Cash Vault grill door to locked from inside ?
A:It is required as a security measure while removing cash at the beginning of the day and at the
end of the day
Q:The cash vouchers are to be maintained for ______ years.

A:8
Q:Takeover and Handover of keys is to be authorized by ______

A:BM*BOM
Q:If the account holder sign either on the face or the back of the instrument indicating that the
money is to be paid to anyone other than himself, it is called ______________
A:Endorsement
Q:_______ Are the store houses where bank notes and coins are stocked on behalf of the RBI.
A:ICMC
Q:At the time of cash being placed or removed from the vault,
A:the vault grill should be locked from inside
Q:The cash received stamp needs to be fixed at _______ places across the pay-in slip.
A:3
Q:A Branch receives a cheque for payment from a current account where the mode of operation is
jointly, there are some alterations made on the cheque which are signed only by one person, can the
cashier make the payment ?
A:No, as the MOP is joint any alteration has to be signed jointly
Q:In which of the below cases, it is mandatory to collect a letter from the customer mentioning the
source of cash\reason of cash withdrawl?
A:All cash transactions of 10 lacs and above
Q:As per RBI guidelines DD or BC cannot be made against cash above an amount of Rs._________
A:49999(inclusive of all charges and service tax)
Q:The movement of keys has to be recorded in which register?

A:Key Register
Q:Two signatures are required on bundles of Rs. ______ and above denomination.
A:100
Q:If a cheque is crossed with the name of a bank, what is it called?
A:Special crossing
Q:Any alteration in the cheque like change in amount, date of payment, name of the payee, etc.,
which is not as per the mandate of the customer is called ____________
A:Material Alteration
Q:If a cheque bears across its face, just 2 parallel line or words ànd company` between the lines,
the crossing type is called
A:General Crossing
Q:The vault keys are under dual custody of the cash officer and CSM, Is this true?
A:yes
Q:In case of cash payment of amount Rs.50,000/- and above, CSO to enter the transaction and
affix which stamp before handing the voucher to CSM for posting and verification?
A:Section retained by Bank ***`Cash Paid` stamp***`Please Pay Cash` stamp
Q:At the start of day`s\shift`s operation the teller needs to transfer funds to his/her teller account
from the main cash account. This is done after logging into _____________.
A:Finacle (I-Core)
Q:What is a Cash Shroff Report?

A:all
Q:Which of the statements below are true in the context of branch vault and cash handling?
A:Cash is moved between the vault and the teller counter by the guard****Notes should be stacked
such that no notes remain unused for a long time
Q:Branch`s cash balance in different denominations held at any point of time can be retrieved from
___________________.
A:Cash Balancing Register
Q:The Vault is also called as ______.

A:Strong Room
Q:Call the customer for all third party cash payment Rs.50000 and above in SB accounts and
Rs.100000 and above in Current account. Sate true or false?
A:TRUE
Q:The cashier has to sort notes into ____ and _____ series notes.
A:Gandhi and Ashoka
Q:The following are examples of material alterations, except

A:Alteration in the signature of the account holder
Q:The 12 digit Account Number comprises of the three parts. What is the correct sequence of the
three parts?
A:4 digit Branch Code, 2 digit Account Type, 6 digit Running Number
Q:The main teller wants to remove cash from the vault but Cash Officer is busy attending a
customer. Can he remove the cash with dual keys without Cash officer`s presence?
A:No. The vault keys are maintained in dual custody and presence of both the official is necessary
for cash to be removed
Q:Mr.Raghu has approached your cash counter for cash deposit, he is depositing Rs.5000 with
denominations as 500x10, the cashier while counting finds a forged note of Rs.500 in his cash, what
steps will the cashier take?
A:The cashier will inform the customer about the same and the note will not be returned to the
customer and the remaining amount will be credited to the customer`s account.FIR to be lodged
Q:While tallying the physical cash balance, the value of mutilated note is to be taken as per the face
value of the note?
A:false
Q:Which places can cash received stamp be affixed?

A:all
Q:At the time of cash opening, When the vault is being opened by Customer Service Manager and
the main Cashier, where should the guard be posted?
A:At the door of the branch
Q:Mr. Ram wants to a make a FD of Rs.80000 by paying cash, is it necessary for him to quote his
PAN No.?
A:yes
Q:A customer presents a bearer cheque of Rs.40,000. The balance in the account shows Rs.38,750.
The teller should
A:Return the cheque politely to the customer stating that the payment cannot be made because of
insufficient funds
Q:Payment against Order Cheque requires an essential check besides the other required in case of
any self\bearer cheque payment. That is
A:Check the Id. Proof of the customer withdrawing cash
Q:All packets of Rs._____ denomination and above need to be duly signed by both the cashier as
well as the Customer Service Manager (Cash).
A:100
Q:As per Negotiable Instrument Act, a cheque is a Bill of Exchange drawn on a specified banker
and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand.
A:TRUE
Q:Discontinuance of re-issuance of Bank notes of Rs. 500 denominations 1996 Mahatma Gandhi
Series is a part of clean note policy
A:yes
Q:For a cash deposit of Rs.50,000 or more the customer needs to provide his ________
A:PAN Number
Q:________________________ summarizes the cash entries of the day\ shift.

A:Cash Balancing Register
Q:In order to enter the cash payment transaction in Finacle, the teller should select the
________________________ menu.
A:Transactions Maintenance
Q:All the Gandhi currency notes have the following security features, except
A:Optically Variable ink
Q:The last step in the cash payment transaction is

A:Putting the `cash paid` stamp on the face of the cheque
Q:Branch need to submit cash verification report online to the corporate office on a _____ basis.
A:MONTHLY
Q:Which of the following option is must while performing cash opening activity for the day in a
branch?
A:all
Q:Bait money is not to be paid in any cash payment transaction. State true or false?
A:TRUE
Q:If `Self-Cheque` is presented by a third party, then it is to be treated as a third party payment.
State true or false?
A:TRUE
Q:The process of checking that all the notes in a bundle are of the same denomination, as handed
over by a customer for deposit, is called
A:Shroffing
Q:While verifying the identity of ICMC crew members,which of the follwing is required ?
A: all
Q:Details of the mutilated note, the value paid or rejected is to be recorded in which register?
A:Register DN2
Q:Soiled and Mutilated notes can be exchanged at the counter after filling up a Currency Exchange
Form.
A:false
Q:A customer wants to deposit cash in his savings account in a non-base branch. What is the
maximum amount of cash that can be accepted?
A:50000
Q:A customer has approached the Bank to deposit some soiled/mutilated notes. Can the bank accept
it?
A:Yes. RBI has given guidelines for all the banks to accept soiled or mutilated notes from the
customer and hence the Bank cannot refuse it.
Q:Branches are required to impound the fake notes and destroy them.
A:false
Q:The vault is opened under which of the following instances

A:At the commencement of the day/shift ***At the end of the day\shift ****At the time of
remittances made or received from RBI or the Banks` Currency chests ***At instances when a
customer wants a particular denomination that is not available with the teller.
Q:For a cash payment transaction, the cheque can not be

A:Crossed Cheque
Q:Which account is to be debited by the teller in I core while remiiting cash to ICMC ?
A:IB.IBIT A\c
LTV is decided based on a matrix of tenure, income and asset type.

True
A No Objection certificate is not required on case of foreclosure as the loan amount is payed before
the time.
False
True
An application ID is generated at which stage of loan process?

Scrutiny by CPA
Credit appraisals
PDC stands for

Post dated cheques
Asset cost means

Cost of asset being financed
Cost that the customer has to pay to bank
______ EMI is the term used to denote a practice of taking the initial or even a few of the
installments in advance, before commencing the repayment of the loan of the customer.
Advance
EMI is
Equated Monthly Income
CPA is
Credit processing agency
Processed fee is expressed as

Loan to value
Percentage of loan amount
IRR is the rate of discount when applied to a series of cash flows, makes the NPV of the cash flows
to ____.
0
DSA means ________ Sales Agents.

Direct
Which of the following is a positive pointer towards customer willingness for repayment?
Credit card statements showing timely repayments
Earlier loan repayments
Customer risk is entirely dependent on the customers ability to pay

False
Cheque is an instrument and does not show intention to repay.

True
In case of non-repayment or late payment, the case passes onto the collections team for recovery of
the loan installment
True
Amortisation schedule shows

Principal component reducing
Interest component reducing
Loan servicing includes creating amortization charts

True
NPV is ______ only when you get exactly your desired rate of return.
Zero
The difference between the present value and the investment being made is called the _______.
NPV
LTV
Which of the following assets could be financed?

Diagnostic machines
Cars
What is Margin money?

Difference between Asset cost and the loan amount
Banks usually finance 100% of the cost of the asset.
False
A ___________ scheme is popularly called as Rear Ended Repayment.

Bullet repayment
Step down
For a bank to make profit in assest business following factors should be considered
The rate of interest it can be invested at
The duration for which the money can be invested
The investment amount
IRR means
Internal Rate of Return
A customer had taken a loan for his car and wishes to foreclose the loan. He pay the cheques in
favor of
ICICI bank
PDCs are used for a legal recourse as a cheque is a _______ instrument

Negotiable
Loans with shorter tenors are preferred.

True
A de-dupe check is done to see if the applicant features on any of the defaulter lists.
True
PDCs are instruments for collection of money

True
Sum of Principal component and the Interest component should be _________ EMI.
Equal to
Credit is a subjective process.

True
Who decides whether the loan application should be considered for credit sanctioning?
Credit manager
The amount that the bank has to offer as loans is fixed based on the available capital.
True
False
Financing a computer is not advisable because

There may not be secondary demand
Who carries out the field investigation?

CPA
Balloon repayment is a term given to a structured scheme where the last installment is pretty
_______.
High
Passport is required to
Ascertain customer`s legal eligibility
Ascertain that the customer is indeed the person whocse income documents are being submitted
Loan closure can be of two types-

Natural and foreclosure
Natural and premature
Based on ______, deals are structured and EMIs calculated for loan repayments
IRR
Larger the tenure of the loan, ______ will be the depreciation

Larger
Assets depreciate over a period of time by normal wear and tear.

True
NPV stands for

Net Present Value
LTV stands for

Loan to Value
The first step in loan process is _______

Field investigation
Sourcing of applications
Step down schemes of loan repyament is not practiced widely because of the negative impact it has
on the credit behavior of the customer.
False
Subvention is used by the finance companies to ________the rate of the financial offering to the
customer.
Reduce
Increase
Commercial vehicles like Trucks and jeeps cannot be financed

False
Processing Fees is a fee charged to the ________.

Customer
The customers can apply loan through a) Dealers b) DSTs c) DSAs

All the options
DST stands for

Direct Sales Team
DM in the context of loan disbursement is

Disbursement memo
Once the loan amount is disbursed, the asset gets delivered to the client.
True
In the step up scheme of loan repayment, the repayment _______ with every completed year.
Increases
Subvention is a financial contribution by ________

An external company
The customer
What is the purpose of address proof?

To ensure that the customer can be accessed
Loan To Value ratio is dependent on ______ of loan

Tenure
Amount
Structured repayments are customized to the client`s requirements.

True
Construction equipments cannot be financed.

False
BiMonthly repayments are done twice every month.

True
Making a credit decision is a balance between Customer Risk and Asset Risk.
True
The risk of non-repayment is ______ in longer term loans.

Higher
Subvention is a financial contribution by an external agency\party\body towards the rate of a

financial proposal.
False
Amortisation can be described as a term that defines the rate\ratio in which the EMI is split into
Principal and Interest.
True
Principal Outstanding is the principal amount that is still to be recovered from the customer.
True
If there is no secondary market, then the asset risk is ______.

Higher
In case of vehicle loans, the money is made available in the form of cheques in the name of
_______
Dealer
A car used for one year has _____ resale value than the car used for five years.
More
The depth and width of the secondary market is an important factor to consider when giving a loan.
True
Signature on the PDCs must match with the agreement and signature proof
True
Processing Fees is a fee charged to the ________.

Customer
Only those assets that do not depreciate should be financed

False
TVs have a very ______ resale value.

Poor
Process of making the payment towards the loan requested by the customer is called ________
Disbursement
SOA is
Source of application
DM gives the break up of the financials associated with the customers loan application
true
No Objection certificate is issued at the termination of loan to

Facilitate removal of bank lien on the asset
Once the asset is purchased the documents pertaining to it needs to be handed over to the
Bank
Once all the post-disbursement document is in place, the entire file is sent to the ________.
Central Operations
________ is the last activity in loan process.

Disbursement
Asset purchase is a part of ________.

Post disbursal process
In case there are gaps documentation, the file is sent to the ________
CPA
Q)When do you classify an asset as NPA

A)Assets which are due for repayment for more than 90 days
Q)How is CRR calculated
A)5% of the demand and time liabilities have to be kept with RBI
Q)Factors affecting computation of SLR includes
A)All of the above
Q)End use monitoring mechanisms mentioned in Credit and Recovery Policy can be monitored by
A)All of the above
Q)In respect of guarantee issued by one bank favouring another bank
A)The guaranteeing bank should assume a funded exposure of at least 10% of the exposure
guaranteed
Q)As a listed company, the Bank is required to make periodic disclosures under SEBI regulations
and guidelines applicable to a listed company.
A)TRUE
Q)Banks in India are regulated by
A)AB
Q)Banks can grant Bridge loans\interim finance to NBFC`s
A)false
Q)As a _____________ the Bank can engage in the business of issue management either by making
arrangements regarding selling, buying or subscribing to securities or acting as manager, consultant,
adviser or rendering corporate advisory service in relation t
A)Merchant Banker
Q)Which are the Acts which regulate the Banks today
A)all of the above
Q)ECB up to USD 20 million can have call\put option provided the minimum average maturity of 4
years is complied before exercising call\put option.
A)false
Q)For what kind of accounts do Banks have to make provision in their Balance sheet
A)All of the above
Q)Who decides the PLR for each Bank
A)Bank`s themselves
Q)Methodology for calculating capital charge for operational risk include
A)Basic Indicator Approach*
Q)Which of these statements about Banks is Not true?
A)Banks are powerful and are not affected by systemic failures in the financial system
Q)Maximum service\inspection charges that can be levied on priority sector loan upto Rs.25000.
A)None of the above
Q)Bank guarantee can be issued for a period exceeding 10 years as per board approved policy
A)TRUE
Q)Schedule 4 of the Balance Sheet deals with
A)Borrowings
Q)Pre-shipment export credit in foreign currency can be maximum for
A)270
Q)XYZ Bank`s aggregate capital market exposure should not exceed
A)40% of net worth
Q)What are substandard accounts
A)Accounts which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months
Q)All categories of overseas foreign currency borrowings of AD(Category I) should be within
A)50% of its unimpaired Tier I capital or USD 10 million(or its equivalent)- whichever is higher
Q)What does CRR stand for
A)Cash Reserve Ratio
Q)An asset or liability is classified as rate sensitive if
A)124* 14*12
Q)What does section 8 of the BR Act define
A)Defines the business which the Bank is not permitted to undertake
Q)ICICI Bank cannot give rupee loan for buy back of shares.
A)TRUE
Q)Inter-bank security transactions can be put through with the help of brokers, provided board
approval is taken
A)FALSE
Q)The minimum tenure of domestic\NRO term deposits is
A)7 days
Q)Why is regulation of the Bank important
A)all of the above
Q) Working Capital limit renewal will be classified as NPA
A)After 180 days from due date
Q)What is the primary function of SEBI
A)All of the above
Q) An asset would be classified as doubtful if
A)Both of the above.
)ICICI Bank is a Trading and Clearing member (TCM) of the Currency Futures Segment of BSE,
NSE and MCX and is thereby registered as a `Trading and Clearing member of the Currency
Derivatives Segment` under the SEBI (Stock Brokers and Sub-Brokers) Regulations
A)TRUE
Q)What does NBFC stand for
A)Non Banking Financial Company
Q)RBI approval is not required for shifting of place of business within the same city
A)TRUE
Q)Under Call money market funds are transacted for the period between 2 to 14 days
A)FALSE
Q)Project under implementation would be classified as non performing asset if
A)Both of the above
Q)Does RBI have powers to choose/ remove any director, executive director and chairman
A)YES
Q)Loan cannot be given to NBFC for
A)All of the above
Q) Restriction of Sec 19(2) of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 does not apply in case of pledge of
shares.
A)false
Q)Issue of currency is centralized with RBI
A)1234
Q)ICICI Bank is a `Self Certified Self Certified Syndicate Banks under the __________ process.
A)ASBA
Q)Methodology for calculating capital charge for Credit risk include
A)123
Q)The banking Regulation Act permits banks to
A)123
Q)Bank`s exposure to leasing, hire purchase and factoring should not exceed
A)10% of total advances for each of the activities
Q)What does BCBS stand for
A)Basel Committee on Banking Supervision
Q)Group borrower exposure limit is
A)40% of capital funds and 50%of capital funds in case of infrastructure
Q)Bank Guarantees cannot be issued in respect of
A)ECB and FCCB
Q)Banking regulation seeks to ensure that banks
A)12345*1235*
Q)The Bank is required to comply with the circulars issued by NSDL and CDSL from time to time.
A)TRUE
Q)Which of these is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
A)Opening new banks
Q)Foreign banks do not require the permission of the RBI to set up a branch in India as they already
have a branch abroad
A)FALSE
Q)Banking regulation seeks to ensure that banksMaintain adequate liquid resources at all times
A)TRUE
Q)The maximum amount of ECB which can be raised under the automatic route by a corporate
during a financial year is
A)USD 500 million or equivalent
Q)Investments in Venture Capital Funds is treated as
A)Capital market exposure whether registered or not
Q)Under what International requirement also has to maintain its capital adequacy requirement
A)Basel
Q)RBI is owned by
A)By the Government
Q)Failure of banks can impact the following
A)12345*1234*
Q)RBI approval is required for establishment of a call centre
A)false
Q)Minimum amount of a Certificate of Deposits should be
A)1 Lakh
Q)Advances under priority sector includes
A)124*1234
Q)Wilful default includes
A)2345*1345
Q)How does RBI use CRR to impact the liquidity in the economy
A)Both of the above
Q)What does NPA stand for
A)Non performing Assets
Q)Bank`s investment in non SLR securities
A)All of the above
Q)Current interest rate fixed by RBI for savings account is
A)3.5% p.a.
Q)Single borrower exposure limit is
A)15% of capital funds and 20% of capital funds in case of infrastructure
Q)Bank can lend against FD of other Banks.
A)FALSE
Q)Regulation of Banks is important because
A)All of the above
Q)Identify the issues which RBI regulate
A)Only a, b and c
Q)As an issuer of license, the RBI CANNOT do the following
A)Issue the license without much review
Q)Can Bank take pledge of shares of a financial services company without RBI approval for loans
given to NBFC
A)NO
Q)Which of these functions does RBI as Banker to the Government NOT perform?
A)Issue currency to the Government whenever they need funds
Q)This ability makes the power of banks to influence the working of the economy tremendous.
A)Create credit
Q)The Cash Reserve Ratio is an important tool for RBI to
A)All of the above
Q)ICICI Bank can lend against FD maintained with ICICI Bank.
A)TRUE
Q)ICICI Bank can give rupee loan for buy back of shares.
A)FALSE
Q)What can be a bank`s investment in shares, convertible bonds and debentures, units of
equityoriented
mutual funds and all exposures to Venture capital funds?
A)Should not exceed 20% of bank`s net worth
Q)As a `_____________` the Bank can undertake activities like collection of application, allotment
and call monies, refund of application monies and payment of dividend or interest warrants.
A)Banker to Issue
Q)Capital market exposure is applicable on
A)Solo and Consolidated basis
Q)Ready forward contracts may be undertaken only in
A)Both of the above
Q)Buyer`s credit period is permissible up to ____ year for non capital goods and less than ______
year for capital goods from the date of shipment
A)1 and 3
Q)Under call money market, funds are transacted on ............... basis
A)None of the above
Q)Banks are prohibited from granting fresh loans or renewing existing loans of Rupees 100 lakhs
or below against NR(E)RA and FCNR(B) deposits either to the depositors or third parties.
A)FALSE
Q)Banks exposure to a single NBFC/NBFC-AFC should not exceed
A)10%\15% of capital funds
Q)Which section of the Banking Regulations Act defines the permissible activities of a Bank
A)sec 6
Q)ICICI Bank is a ___________ registered with SEBI.
A)Merchant Banker
Q)Who provides short term credit to the central government
A)RBI
Q)On a fortnightly average basis, borrowing outstanding should not exceed
A)100% of capital funds
Q)In case of prudential norm and income recognition and asset classification, NPA classification
should be
A)Borrower wise
Q)RBI has the sole authority of issuing all the currency in the country. Is this statement correct
A)Yes
Q)While giving bank guarantee for stock brokers in favour of stock exchange, the following criteria
should be met
A)All of the above
What is the instrument type mentioned in the debit part tran when there is a transfer transaction
through debit authority letter CHQ
The minimum amount for funds transfer through RTGS is 5,00,000
Branch Inventory is kept in _____________ Vault
Pay order is an instrument which is to be paid locally TRUE
In pay order the issuing branch and the drawee branch are different? FALSE
Who is a drawee branch? Branch on whom the draft is issued
When the draft is cancelled the funds are credited to The account from where the draft is issued
For validating a draft the customer has to approach _________ branch of the bank issuing branch
Beneficiary of the draft is Person whose account is credited at the time when draft is honoured
Draft is a ____________ type of instrument Pre Paid
It is necessary to print all Drafts before ABH FALSE
What is the validity of the draft issued ? 6 months
A draft is further revalidated for a period of _________ months 6 months
The general principle involved for transfer is first debit then credit
An instrument that contains an order of one branch of a bank (drawer branch) directing another
branch of the same bank (drawee branch) to pay on demand a certain sum of money to a specified
beneficiary (payee) or to the order of the payee is known as Demand Draft
Pay order is also known by the name of ____________Bankers Cheque
For draft issued in cash for an amount more than _________ KYC identity proof is needed 5000
What is the option in i-core for revalidating a draft DDSM
DDD menu in i-core is used for Duplicate issue of DD
Pay order is an instrument which is to be paid locally TRUE
BOM should reconcile the inventory at what intervals Fortnightly
What is the i-core option used for cancellation of draft DDC
What is the option to be used for printing of a single draft DDPRNT
Where is the inventory of the cancelled draft to be moved to DL\CAN
What is the command in i-core to commit a transaction F10

There are different set of stationery for DD and PO TRUE
It is mandatory to submit a cheque with RTGS slip TRUE
SBH Branches can process RTGS transactions upto a limit of Rs._________No limit
Pressing F10> will commit the transaction and give a tran-id that is to be noted down on the
relevant voucher. TRUE
Which of the following do you think are advantages that Drafts present to the Bank? Generates
income in the form of commission
Can a duplicate draft be issued beyond a period of 15 days Yes but with interest
The RTGS request above Rs.10,00,000 is sent to central team by Mail
The option to be used for doing RTGS at branch is ACMRTGS
As per RBI directives the period within which the duplicate draft should be issued is Fortnight
1. _________ is the URL for RTGS tracker?
*http//10.16.120.222/rtgstracker/Login.aspx
2. The RTGS system is maintained and operated by the_____.
*RBI
3. The RTGS system is maintained and operated by the ___________.
*Reserve Bank of India
4. Ms. Sonali had deposited a cheque in her savings account and issued another cheque against
this cheque. Suggest a way to her that she will be able to transfer the funds on the same day,
within 2-3 hrs.
*Route her request through RTGS
5. ICICI Bank has been participating in RTGS using the Participant Interface since March 2004.
*False
6. RTGS stands for _____________
*Real Time Gross Settlement
7. Receipt of funds through a normal clearing system depends on location and clearing type
whereas a similar transaction through RTGS can be done in ___________days
*0
8. For a better fund transfer on real time basis the Banks should incorporate which of the
following system.
*RTGS system
9. IFSC code contains _________ digit
*11
10. Which of the given cabinets should be selected while exporting the scanned slip?
*NewCTSU_COPS
11. What is the first step in a branch process of Omnidocs?
*Click on new job
12. In RTGS Central Team, The maker checks the details of the transaction for any discrepancies
with reference to mandatory fields, date, and signature as per mode of operation and enters the
details in __________.
*Finacle
13. Sequence the initial steps for exporting the scanned slip 1. Select Export to>Omnidocs>Export
current 2. Enter User id and Password 3. Click on Submit 4. Select NewCTSU_COPS cabinet.
(*2,3,1,4)
14. As per RBI guidelines, the payee`s bank must credit the payee`s account within_______ of
receiving the credit in its RTGS settlement account.
*two hours
15. Select the prerequisites which are essential to facilitate RTGS transactions.
*All
16. For logging into OmniDocs, the user has to use the six digit employee id and the password as
________________.
*infotech123
17. In case the customer complains about credit not reaching the beneficiary account, The
CSO\PBO should inquire the__________ of RTGS transaction.
*3
18. Normal Clearing system based on ______________
*Physical Instruments
19. When you export the scanned slip in process Omnidocs, which message pops up?
*Record exported successfully
20. The customer should have initiated the RTGS transaction at least ________hours before the
time of the call.In case the customer complains about credit not reaching the beneficiary
account.
*3
21. Which interface is used for accessing RTGS system?
*PI
22. RTGS Transaction charges for Retail Clients for Inward Transactions are _________
*No Charges
23. According to RBI guidelines, the payee`s bank must credit the payee`s account within
_____________hours of receiving the credit in its RTGS settlement account.
*2
24. Only Corporate customers can initiate RTGS transaction.
*FALSE
25. Normal Clearing Transaction is initiated by ______________
*By person making payment
26. Which of the following are included in the Instruction Slip provided by the customer ?
*All
27. RTGS system provides a faster funds transfer between banks, which takes place on a real time
basis.
*TRUE
28. CIB stands for__________.
*Corporate Internet Banking
29. For a customer to carry out the RTGS transaction, which of the given options is TRUE?
*An RTGS instruction slip
30. In staffware process, after selecting New Job, which fields needs to be entered ?
*All
31. On checking the RTGS payment worksheet, if the transaction exists, it means?
*Transaction has been returned from beneficiary bank
32. To receive funds through RTGS, the customer needs to provide __________ details to the payer.
*12 digit account no*ICICI Bank branch IFSC (Indian Financial System Code)
33. Which document do you scan in the branch process of Omnidocs?
*Payment instruction slip
34. To make a payment through RTGS, the customer needs to provide __________ details to the
payer.
*All
35. Select the channels through which an RTGS transaction can be initiated.
*Branches
36. Which of the given options could be a reason for rejecting a transaction?
*Wrong IFSC code
37. What is the third step in a branch process of Omnidocs?
(*Select the template-RTGS.INI)
38. Select the eligibility criteria to initiate RTGS transactions
*A customer necessarily has to have an account in ICICI Bank*Both Corporate and Individuals
can effect an RTGS transaction
39. Who provides PI for accessing the RTGS system to each of the member banks ?
*RBI
40. As per the RTGS process flow, the payer gives the transaction slip to _______.
*payer`s bank
41. What is the correct order to get a list of RTGS enabled branches on the Intranet?
*ICICI Bank Universe>Business Groups>WBG>PTG> General Banking Group> Branches
enabled for customer transactions through RTGS
42. Select RTGS benefits to the Economy
*All
43. Which interface is used as a gateway between the bank system and the RTGS system?
*PI
44. Which is the step that should be followed after providing the User Id and Password for creating
a case in Staffware?
*Click on Case Start-BRPS
45. When Staffware is not functional, what are the prerequisites for RTGS transactions ?
*Installation of OmniDocs for scanning
46. Which of the following menu should be selected to export a transaction slip to RCT?
*job
47. All transaction details submitted to the RBI server would flow to the beneficiary bank______.
*electronically
48. To submit RTGS request to make a payment, you would be required to know.
*Payee name, account number, bank name and IFSC code of payee branch
49. UTR No. stands for _________________
*Unique Transaction Reference
50. Where should you send the filled up and verified RTGS transaction slip?
*RCT
51. The SCO/PBO can make a second level verification in Finacle is done using the __________ of
the customer.
*Account Number
52. Select the RTGS benefits to Customers
*Faster and irrevocable credit*No returns due to insufficiency of funds*Movement of funds
made easier and faster
53. Which is the correct sequence for exporting a scanned slip?
*Export to> Omnidocs>Export current
54. _______would be the gateway between the bank system and RTGS system.
*PI
55. Which mediums are available to send the RTGS Instruction slip from the ICICI Bank Branch to
RTGS Central Team (RCT).
*Scanned copy using Omnidocs*Fax mode using RTGS tracker
56. Following are some details which, customer needs to provide in the Instruction Slip
*All
57. Select the correct option for the statements. Statement A Apart from Staffware, you can also use
RTGS Tracker in fax mode to send RTGS Instruction slip from Branch to RTGS central
team.Statement B You can also send scanned copy using Omnidocs for pro
*A and B are
58. The transaction can get rejected or returned for the following reasons
*Beneficiary Account frozen*Beneficiary Account closed
59. The file containing RTGS transaction details for the day would be updated every______.
*two hours
60. Which of the given options is used to standardize the transaction procedure?
*RBI
61. Sequence the Steps in RTGS process flow after the slip send to RTGS Central Team 1. ICICI
Bank`s RTGS Settlement Account is debited and Beneficiary Bank`s RTGS Settlement Account
is credited 2. Message moves to RBI Sever 3. Beneficiary Bank passes the cr
*4,2,1,3
62. ICICI Bank`s RTGS Settlement Account is ______________and Beneficiary Bank`s RTGS
Settlement Account is ___________through the RTGS process
*debited, credited
63. Cut-off timings of ICICI Bank for retail clients and corporate clients from Monday to Friday are
*9.00 a.m. to 3.00 p.m
64. Funds transferred between banks takes place on a_______ basis.
*real time
65. The file containing RTGS transaction details for the day would be updated every two hours
starting from _____.
*1200 to 1800 hours
66. The worksheet containing RTGS payments will have _________.
*Time of transaction
67. The template used for a RTGS transaction through the Omnidocs process is _______________.
*RTGS.INI
68. As per the RBI guidelines , the payee`s bank must credit the payee`s account within______of
receiving the credit in its RTGS settlement account..
*two hours
69. RTGS Central Team executes the transaction in ______ and ________ of RTGS. A. Staffware
B. Finacle C. Participant Interface
*B and C
70. When RTGS request is submitted in Staffware process, _____________ is generated through
RTGS system
*Unique Case Number
71. RTGS system launched in Mumbai in ______________.
*2004
72. RTGS system based on ______________
*Electronic messages
73. In Handling queries, Customer`s payments should be identified using Beneficiary Bank`s IFSC
code and ___________
*Amount
74. Settlement base of RTGS system on ________________ basis
*Gross
75. Currently, apart from Staffware there are ________mediums available to send the RTGS
Instruction slip from the ICICI Bank Branch to RTGS Central Team (RCT).
*2
76. A second level verification, after checking the RTGS payment worksheet, should be done in
Finacle using _____________.
*Account number of the customer
77. Which URL is used to Login into BRPS?
*http //10.16.58.71/brps
78. What is the link between ICICI Bank`s RTGS Settlement Account and Beneficiary Bank`s
RTGS Settlement Account?
*RBI server
79. Sequence the Steps in RTGS process flow 1. Branch scans the Instruction slip in Staffware and
sends it to RTGS Central Team 2. Customer submits the outward Instruction slip 3. Branch will
file the slip for the purpose of maintaining records 4. Scrutiny of
*2,4,1,3
80. What is the full form of PI in RTGS system?
*Participant Interface
81. __________ does not come under RTGS tracker process?
*FISC code
82. IFSC stands for _____________
(*International Financial Security Code)
83. RTGS Transaction is initiated by ______________
*By person making payment
84. What is the fourth step in a branch process of Omnidocs?
*Product type-RTGS
85. Final Settlement in Normal Clearing _____________________
*Only after return clearing
86. What is the second step in a branch process of Omnidocs?
(*Sol ID of branch initiating the transaction)
87. Settlement base of Normal Clearing system on ________________ basis
*Net
88. When a transaction is rejected, which of the given options becomes TRUE?
*The RTGS central team will credit the amount back to the payer`s account.
89. In case of rejected or returned transactions, the RTGS central team will credit the amount back
to the _____________________
*payer`s account
90. After the second level verification by SCO\PBO, the customer is asked to ______________.
*Initiate a fresh transaction
The goal of ______________ and response is to prevent loss of life, property and economic losses.
emergency preparedness
The records which can be retrieved after a considerable cost and time delay are useful records.
TRUE
A disaster scenario is based on the unavailabilty of

Both a and b
If evacuation is necessary, ________ will contact security.

the Facilities Management Group
A ______________provides contact list of bank personnel in case of an emergency

calling Tree
Site resumption is complete after

All the above
Immediate step to be taken after a disaster strikes is

Declare the Disaster
A Migration Plan does not include

Management Shift
Immediate steps to be taken after a disaster strikes
Assess Damage
Notify Key Personnel
Resume work Immediately
A specialized group for assisting the business groups in the compliance of the BCP is
Business Continuity Management Group
BIA helps the business units to __________ their _____________ and ______________ business
processes, along with the RTOs for each process
Prioritize, Critical, Important
Following parameters to be observed for understanding the effectiveness of BCP implementation

are
Essential personnel know evacuation procedures
Basic requirements at the alternate site are

Information technology equipment
Same Layout of the floor
Telecommunication equipment
DRP may be activated in case of Power outages and/or disruptions of internal and/or external
network connections for physical site with IT production
TRUE
Supporting Information for the smooth implementation of the BCP are

Both a and b
Ideal Disaster Recovery Strategy to ensure guarantee the reliability of standby systems
FALSE
An earthquake may result in the following impacts

None
Probable loss of data and records stored locally
TRUE
The Business Group Head is responsible for the following in the context of BCP
Annually reviewing the status of business continuation strategy and plan
Approving the plan
Carrying out day to day business for the group
_____________ is one of the important supporting information for successful implementation of

BCP
Vendor Contact Listing
Activities that are not linked with Business Resumption are
Both a and b
Schedule & mobilize staff
Staff orientation
Fire and safety deficiency observed should promptly be brought to the attention of _____ for
investigation and resolution
Services Department
A power outage may lead to unavailability of manpower and premises.

FALSE
All events that do not cause critical damage or disruption in business operations would be classified
as __________
minor
Major events include

Major injuries to the team members
Unavailabilty of critical softwares and applications
Destruction of back office systems
Testing of the business continuity plan of the group ensures validity of the recovery plan and
procedures
TRUE
Fire occurring in one of the branches is a Major Event

FALSE
Testing and maintenance is predominantly carried out for ensuring ____________ and
____________ of BCP.
Timeliness, Effectiveness
Effectiveness, Preparedness
Business Impact Assessment comprises of the following steps

Business Impact Analysis Questionnaire
Documentaion of process flows & evaluation of critical processes
Groups for the implementation of BCP are selected on the basis of impact of the process on the
organization
TRUE
A bomb threat may result to unavailability of premises and loss of data.

TRUE
FALSE
The team members in implementation of BCP report on the effectiveness of the plan to
____________
The team leader
One of the alternative strategies for the purpose of business recovery is Business Planning
TRUE
The point in time upto which the data needs to be restored is defined as
RPO
The alternative site required for continuity of business can be selected on the basis of following
criteria
Both a and b
RPO is defined as
The point in time upto which the data needs to be restored
An ideal data recovery site (DRS) to be

Both a and b
In the_________category of disaster the extent of communications and coordination required

continuing key operational activities are substantially reduced.
Minor
If central systems are not available from the data center it is a

Catastrophic Event
BCP ensures
Resumption of processes as defined in the plan
An alternate site that has the overall infrastructure to recover critical business functions or
information systems is known as
Warm Site
The intangible gains due to preparation of a successful BCP are

Avoidance of financial losses
Avoidance of Systems maintanance losses
The records retrievable after a considerable cost and time delay, are
Vital Records
Useless Records
BCP is a practical and robust guide that enables the organisation to pass through a crisis
comfortably
TRUE
Activities that are linked with Resource Recovery and Commissioning are
Determining staff requirement and staff availability
Determining system requirement and system availability
____________is not linked with initial response and assessment.

Staff validation
Examples of tangible impacts are

Extra expense
Revenue Loss
Interest losses
The impacts that do not occur in absence of Business Continuity Plan are
Organization cannot meet its payment obligations
Organisation cannot meet the customers expectations
The steps for development of Business Continuity Strategy are

Recommending solutions for recovery
Listing out detailed resumption steps for each scenario
Both
Activities that are linked with `Return to Normal` operations are

Arrange transfer of files
Resume non-critical functions
None
-Criticality of business process is assessed on the basis of having maximum processes / activity
False
Critical events have RTO of less than a day.

True
If a machine or appliance is burning or hot, ______ it and notify the supervisor immediately
unplug
Which other record, is not replaceable,

Both
A testing strategy is to be defined on the basis of

Scale of Operations
Criticality of business process is assessed on the basis of having maximum processes / activity
TRUE
The purpose of ____________ is to prevent loss of life, to minimize injury, and to reduce property
damage.Security procedures
The cooling will often cause ice to form around the _______ where the gas is expelled from the
extinguisher
Clapps
Activities that are linked with Interim Contingency measures are

Contact critical external third parties and regulatory authorities
Clear the backlog
Commence operations based on importance
Recovery Strategy is based on recovery time objective, recovery point objective

TRUE
The Systems can be classified as Catastrophic, Major, Minor

False
The role of the team members in implementation of BCP includes

Ensuring that plans are regularly revised and updated
None of the above
Documenting and presenting the status of the plan
The ______________supports the implementation of BCP by maintaining a centralized inventory

and control of the plan
Team Leader
Management Leader
DRP covers the IT Infrastructure required to run both critical business applications and associated
processes required for transition
TRUE
Which among these should not be considered by Recovery plans

The best case profit scenarios
_______ should be used on Class A

Air
The_________would indicate Testing Strategy

testing guidelines
Irreplaceable records are

Vital Records
Useful Records
Housekeeping includes
Keep aisles, doors, and stairs clear
Spot check normal unattended areas where combustibles are stored
No need to be extremely cautious of combustible liquids
An organization, which is better equipped to handle disaster situations, has a competitive advantage
over others even in good times.
TRUE
Aspect for deciding for the place of backup storage is protection against possible disasters
TRUE
The Business Impact Assessment consists of

Environment Analysis
Cost Benefit Analysis
A terrorist attack or riot could result in the following impacts

Unavailability of data
Which step is not involved in Business Impact Assessment

___________ refers to procedures to reduce or eliminate risk of injury or death
Emergency response
One of the requirements stipulated by the Reserve Bank of India for the banking organisations is to
submit a copy of the BCP approved by RBI
FALSE
Tarnished image is an example of __________

intangible impacts
Other examples of intangible impacts are

Loss of competitive advantage
Interest losses
Which among these fall under Recovery Time objective.

Maximum Acceptable Tolerable Time
Maximum Acceptable Tolerance Downtime
The BCP culture can be driven by the way of making everyone responsible for the testing of the
process
TRUE
Activities that are linked with_______________are implementing problem reporting & escalation
procedures
Business Resumption
Activities that are linked with initial response and assessment are
Notify staff
Fulfillment of personal needs do not fall under the category of

intangible gains due to preparation of BCP
__________activities cannot be linked with `Return to Normal` operations

Work from home
The BCP testing needs to be evaluated on the basis of the following criteria
Both a and b
Migration Plan will include

Off-site data transfer
The scope of a Business Continuity Plan covers

Organization as a whole
To build a good Business Continuity Plan one should identify effects which need to be faced if an
incident occurs.
TRUE
A______________considers course of action to be followed in the event of a disaster under various

scenarios
Recovery plan
Business continuity plans are prepared considering some criteria that all the officials are available
for work following the incident.
TRUE
Catastrophic events include

Unavailability of treasury front office and back office
Unavailability of centralized operations team
Unavailability of corporate office
A flood at a data centre, may result in the following impacts

Unavailable of manpower
A Business continuity plan is created to effectively protect the life and safety of its personnel.
TRUE
Which of the following are correct

All of the above
A disaster occurs when a Catastrophic or Major event occurs.

TRUE
The various alternative locations for disaster recovery site could be hot site or warm site.
TRUE
____________ is not allowed inside the Bank facilities in order to prevent fire.
Smoking
Writing the BCP procedures consists of preparing process for declaration of disaster
TRUE
__________extinguishers are usually rated for multiple purpose use. They contain an extinguishing
vendor and use a compressed, non-flammable gas as a propellant
Dry Chemical Powder (DCP)
Business function recovery plan for the organisation to involve

Resumption steps in case of a disaster
People involved in implementation of BCP are those who support the business groups in
implementation3
TRUE
Important events have RTO of

Less than a day.
Disaster Recovery ensures a normal condition

TRUE
A fire in an organisation may result in the following impacts

Loss of data
Disaster avoidance measures should be implemented to address __________ and _____________

identified during the risk assessment phase.
Risks, Concerns
Business Continuity Planning is a component of _

Operational Risk Management
Both
Supporting documents required for the BCP testing are

Notification procedures for recovery teams and key personnel
Both
________is responsible for plan development, implementation and subsequent maintenance,

exercise and team training
The Security Committee
An alternate site that contains minimal infrastructure but if provisioned can support recovery
operations is known as
Warm Site
Power Outage for 2 hrs is a Minor event

true
An alternate site that is partially equipped but can provide backup after some additions is known as
Warm Site
102 Under ________ category alternate procedures and processes need not be used and these
activities may be deferred for a period of time without significantly affecting either customers,
banks and financial institutions
Minor
Fire Investigative Team Members

Both a and b
The process where clearing is initiated is called -3

After the data is matched it is forwarded to IVR unit for 2
The SOL id is filled by - 2
One done with all the corrections in one batch click - 2
On the Finacle user menu type 3
Excel format is sent to---13
System displays the background menu on pressing 1
Put no of prints required in 1
Six fields to modify in the reject re-entry screen correspond to the data on 1
An important activity in outward processing is 2
The third option on the menu screen is 1
Batch balancing is done because 3
Exception field provides reason for which the cheque is 1
Customer`s instruction no match 1
In big centers like Delhi RBI acts as a 2
Data capture for the inward clearing cheques is done through 3
Screen with regularized zone details displays 12,
In the ICTM screen to view the amount to be deposited in the account to pass the clearing cheque 3
To upload the validation report in the checkmark select 3
After batching of cheques is done 1
The process involved in transferring money through cheques is 2
If data entered is incorrect the system displays 1
What is the most common way for ICICI bank customer to transfer money to another bank 3
All reject codes will be displayed when you press 3
Pressing which key directs you to inward clearing menu 2
Checking the cheque date is necessary because 3
RBNL stands for 2
In adminstration process select 3
To display the validation report on the foreground 3 1
Validation report consists of 1
Posting is done in 1
Cheques are modified manually only after 1
To generate the file on the Finacle menu type command 1 2
File received from the bank is uploaded into 3 1
In Finacle menu to select the clearing option either 3
Which function key to press to display print parameter acceptance form1
Signature of the customer is matched against 31 2
Select location of file from 1
Start chequeMark application from the desktop 2
RMI upload process is for 21
Which function key to press to return to the inward clearing menu 3
To upload files into the finacle server click on 3
What utility is used to upload files into finacle server 2
The details to be verified in the ICTM screen against each record are 3 1
After manual verification each screen is also verified with 1
To seggregate return cheques from the normal lot, cheques are run through NCR machine using 1
In the inward clearing menu select MICZ option by 1
To select print queue enquiry in the background menu 1
Which function do you use to start the posting process 2
Data is captured on which screen 1 3
Before starting the merging process the system prompts for the zone in 1
Second sub activity in Finacle processing is 3
List of all cheques in the field are displayed 1
If data on the cheques is not read correctly 21
To begin data capturing process click on the 12
Return memo is generated because 2
This band gets read at RBI cheques processing center 1
Reject re-entry screen displays the list of 3
In the ICTM screen to check the amount blocked in the account check the 13
Step 4 in acknowledge the encoding file is 2
Start the reject re-entry process by clicking on 32
Regularizing a zone is a batch activity to 3 2
ICICI bank clears the cheque deposited by its customer then such clearing is called 2
ICICI bank clears the cheque deposited by bank of India customer then such clearing is called 1
When you select encoding file and click it open, the system automatically generates 1
Select the merger of the floppy files onto disk files option in the 2
Finacle application marks all return cheques are marked with reject flag as 2
To generate the return command, which key do you select in the document processing menu 12
In the document processing window you click on 1
To begin data capturing process click on the 3
What do you select after the chequemark inward clearing menu is displayed 1
Where are the batched cheques that are to be balanced displayed 1
To generate the return memo which command do you select in the checkmark inward menu 2
Image files are taken from the chequemark application through payee details entry in 1
When print word screen appears type in the following 2
Vendor delivers the updated payee name file to 1 2
In the MICZ screen you type which alphabet to modify the screen 1
In the inward clearing process batch balancing is the next step after 1
To upload the data file, on the Finacle user menu screen type 2
Images are taken from the ChequeMark application through the payee details entry command in 1
What does the NCR machine does 2
Which fields are mandatory in checking cheques manually 12 ,
ICTM screen also displays 3
Posting means 1
Final action after the Finacle processing activity is completed is 1
After manual verification cheques are also verified with ICTM screen in 1
Before you start posting the cheques in the relevant zone, you have to 2
To mark the returns in checkmark you need to open 1
Purpose of marking cheque return in Finacle is 1
Discrepancy in any of the six basic fields displays the status of the batch as 3
By pressing which keys do you start posting the transaction in individual customer`s accounts 1
MICR data captured is displayed on the power encoding screen 3 2
Third sub activity of Finacle processing is 1
To access function list press 1
Clearing functions can be broadly classified as 3
Batch balancing window consists of 1
Final step in the inward clearing process is 21
In the ICTM screen you can verify the amount available by checking the 2 1
In the RBI return file generation window select the 1 2
Once the files are updated in the Finacle zone wise, a file is generated for the vendor to add
2
After suspending the zone you initiate posting function in 2
Actual process of batch balancing is done in 1
cheque image area you will refer to MICR band to 1
t re-entry option in the document processing menu displays 2
In the function field type 2
NCR machine scans cheques and saves the 2
Entering name, clearing date, zone code, name of file sent by the vendor 1
First sub activity in Finacle processing is 2 3
Verify the displayed account details with the physical cheque 3
Inward clearing starts from the receipt of the cheques from 1
You need to verify the correctness of the total no of cheques and the bar amount before pressing 3
Softwares used for outward cheque processing are 3
The balanced batch files are used in further processes in clearing 3
To create a data file you click on 1
In the zone field you first type 1
Cheques that are not scanned properly appear in 2
Entries of the Finacle upload file are reverified in 2 3
What do you select to revoke suspension of the zone 13
To generate exception report select 1
For various reasons some cheques are returned to ICICI bank and it is called 1
Clicking on the reject re-entry option in the document processing menu displays 2
First sub activity within chequeMark processing is to 1
Once the return charges file is created it has to be converted into 1
In technical verification process each cheque is checked for alteration 3 2
From the report command select 3
Before uploading data file into Finacle the vendor 1
Clear balances allows customers to 3 2
Cheque returns can be verified in 1
To generate report you select which option from the main menu 3
Along with the payee file what else is given to the vendor to update the data file 1
To print reports you select which option from the main menu 2
The application displays invalid field details in 1 2
File provided to the vendor has 3
Final step in the batch balancing process is 2
n how many steps you can upload the data file into the Finacle 1
Type your name, type of transaction, upload filename, in the 2
In clearing transaction upload maintenance screen type 1

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Aml

Bankers Selling Skill Builder

Money laundering is Converting legal money into illegal money

Converting illegitimate money into legitimate money

Reports on anti money laundering compliance to regulatory agencies is called Regulatory

MLRO will escalate the suspicious transaction to AMLG

Consequences of money laundering are all

The MLRO report would contain Resource requirements Observations on deficiencies in

Above the AML framework is Audit committee

AN card issued by income tax department is used as Identity proof

Money laundering is usually carried out in Four stages Three stages

This is the preferred means of laundering money accumulated by tax evasion

Which section of the PMLA talks about civil proceedings Section 14

Detailed guidelines on identification of suspicious transactions is given to the employees via e-

Internal controls must be adequately supplemented by Effective audit function

This is not a sources of funds for illegal money Charity

Significant suspicious activity is reported to the audit committee on Quarterly basis

Placement stage is when cash is channeled into Banks

Separating the funds from their illegal source is called Layering

Passport of the customer is used for Address proof Identity proof

ICICI bank maintains records on customer transactions in order to Reconstruction of any

Effective element of a Know your customer (KYC) procedure is Customer identification

Appropriate organization structure is one of the Internal controls

Photo debit card of the customer is used for Invalid

SBU compliance officer is responsible for Money laundering risk monitoring

MLRO will submit the quarterly report to BoD of the Subsidiary

Before employing temporary or outsourced people ICICI bank adheres to HR policies

How many special regulations were issued to combat terrorist financing 9

FATF guidelines consists of how many regulations 60

revised antimoney laundering of rbi cover all

fatf guidelines are intended to meet customer varification procedure

Information of the violation of the provisions of section 12 is provided to the director by

When do you cross sell?

What are the characteristics of a good sales person?

How does gaining commitment help us?

Which of the following are buying cues from the customer?

Which of the following can be considered as rapport breakers?

Which of the following statements is true for gathering information?

What type of questions should be asked to uncover customer`s needs?

Which of the following are examples of openings for Closed questions?

How can we gain commitment from the customer?

Which of the following is a need?

Which of the following are features of a product?

What are the categories of customer objections?

Which of the following statements is true for making recommendations?

What are closed questions?

How does acknowledging the customer help?

Which of these would you use to sell a product to a customer?

Which of the following can be considered as a selling opportunity?

How can we build rapport with the customer?

How can you help the customer to take action?

What is cross selling?

Which of the following are examples of openings for Open questions?

How can you confirm a need?

When can one proceed to making a recommendation for a solution?

How can you check for agreement from the customer?

Which of these is a benefit?

Which of the following statements best describes a benefit?

What are open questions?

How does cross selling help?

Which of the following is an opportunity?

How can you handle objections due to a misunderstanding?

Which of the following are good examples of statements confirming a need?