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# Directions for questions 1 to 3: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the data given below, Table - 1 indicates the number of fruit bearing trees planted by six friends on three
days - Day1, Day 2 and Day 3. Table - 2 shows the number of trees of each of the six types planted on
these three days. The following conditions must be valid:
• On any given day, each of them planted only one type of tree.
• From among Ashish, Dinesh and Farhan exactly two people planted the same type of tree(s) on Day
2 and Day 3 as they planted on Day 1.
• The person who planted exactly one Orange tree on Day 3 had also planted Orange trees on each of
the first two days.
• Dinesh did not plant a Banana tree on Day 2.

## Name Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Tree Day 1 Day 2 Day 3

Ashish 4 4 1 Apple 2 0 0
Bobby 2 1 2 Banana 2 2 0
Chetan 2 1 4 Coconut 4 4 1
Dinesh 1 1 1 Guava 2 2 1
Ekant 2 1 1 Mango 1 1 1
Farhan 2 2 1 Orange 2 1 7

Table - 1 Table - 2

## 1. Who planted Orange trees on all the three days?

(a) Dinesh (b) Ekant (c) Ekant or Farhan (d) Dinesh or Ekant

2. For how many friends can the number of trees planted of each type be conclusively determined?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these

3. What can be the maximum number of Guava trees planted by Farhan in all the three days collectively?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) None of these

4. Four friends Himanshu, Mubashir, Saral and Abhishek go out for shopping. They have Rs 300,
Rs 500, Rs. 700 and Rs. 900 not necessarily in the same order. Abhishek has an amount greater
than twice the amount with Himanshu. Saral has an amount less than the sum of the amounts with
Himanshu and Mubashir. Which of the following is definitely true?
(a) The absolute difference in the amounts with Saral and Abhishek is equal to the absolute difference
in the amounts with Mubashir and Himanshu.
(b) The sum of the amounts with Saral and Mubashir is equal to the sum of the amounts with
Abhishek and Himanshu.
(c) The absolute difference in the amounts with Saral and Himanshu is equal to the absolute difference
in the amounts with Abhishek and Mubashir.
(d) The absolute difference in the amounts with Saral and Mubashir is equal to the absolute difference
in the amounts with Abhishek and Himanshu.

## Page 1 MBA Proctored Mock CAT 3

Test Prep
5. Five men are sitting around a circular table in such a way that all of them can see each other. Each
of these five men is wearing a hat the colour of which is not known to him. However, all of them are
aware that the hats have to be either black or white in colour and there are at least two hats of each
colour. How many of them can deduce the colour of their hats if they are not allowed to communicate
with each other?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

6. The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Q. A man has 57 pens. He wants to distribute these pens among his 3 sons such that his eldest son
receives the highest number of pens. What will be the number of pens received by the eldest son?
A. The number of pens received by the sons are in Arithmetic Progression.
B. The number of pens received by the sons are in Geometric Progression.

Directions for questions 7 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Alok, Bharti, Chaman, Dinu, Ekant and Faisal are the only people available for selection in a team. The
team should have at least two people subject to the following conditions.
• If Bharti is selected then Dinu should also be selected while Ekant should be rejected.
• If Alok is selected then exactly one from Bharti and Chaman should also be selected.
• If Chaman is selected then Ekant should also be selected while Faisal should be rejected.
• If the size of the team is less than 4 then Dinu and Faisal cannot be selected together.

7. If Bharti and Faisal are not selected in the team then who should definitely be selected?
(a) Chaman (b) Ekant
(c) Dinu (d) Alok

8. Which of the following pairs of two people cannot be selected along with any one else out of the
remaining 4 people?
(a) Bharti and Dinu (b) Chaman and Ekant
(c) Dinu and Ekant (d) Ekant and Faisal

9. If the team selected is of the maximum possible size, then who is/are definitely selected in the
team?
(a) Alok (b) Dinu (c) Bharti (d) Both Alok and Dinu

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Test Prep
10. The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Q. When three times of the unit’s digit of a number is subtracted from the number, 28 is obtained.
What is the number?
A. The digit at the ten’s place is greater than the digit at the unit’s place.
B. The digit at the ten’s place is less than the digit at the unit’s place.

Directions for questions 11 to 13: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A class of 1000 students, comprising boys and girls, is divided into three sections, named as A, B and
C. The ratio of boys to girls in the class is 9 : 11. The following table shows the percentage of boys and
girls in each of the sections.
Section Boys(%) Girls(%)
A 60
B 40
C p q

## 11. Based on the above information, which of the following is true?

(a) p = q (b) p < q (c) p > q (d) Data Insufficient

12. If the number of students in section C is 600, then what is the value of 3q + 2p?
(a) 265 (b) 235 (c) 225 (d) Data Insufficient

13. If the ratio of the number of students in Section A : Section B : Section C is 1 : 3 : 6, then what is the
ratio of the number of girls in Section C : Section B : Section A?
(a) 7 : 6 : 2 (b) 4 : 12 : 39 (c) 78 : 24 : 8 (d) None of these

14. P, Q, R, S and T were the five participants in a race. Before the race, there were five predictions
made for the final positions. The predictions were:
(1) TRQPS
(2) SPTRQ
(3) SRQPT
(4) QSPTR
(5) SRQTP
The leftmost means the first position and the rightmost means the fifth position in any sequence.
No prediction was completely correct. But two of them correctly predicted the position of exactly
two of the runners. The remaining three predictions were incorrect for all the five participants. What
was the actual outcome of the race?
(a) QPSTR (b) QPTSR (c) QTPSR (d) QPTRS

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Test Prep
15. In a family of seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G there is exactly one pair of twins. B is younger
than F but older than E, G and D. C is younger than E but older than A and D. G is younger than
F and E. Which of the following can be the pair of twins?
(a) B, C (b) A, E (c) C, G (d) F, G

Directions for questions 16 to 18: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following tables show the sales of five motorbike companies T.V.S., Bajaj, Kinetic, Honda and Hero
Honda across various grades in India.
Table - 1 gives the percentage breakup of the sales of the different grades of motorbikes across the
different companies.
Table - 2 gives the percentage breakup of the sales of motorbikes of the various companies across the

A B C D E
T.V.S. 18 24 15 32 12
Company

Bajaj 16 24 10 16 8
Kinetic 24 16 32 24 28
Honda 36 20 35 24 48
Hero Honda 6 16 8 4 4
100 100 100 100 100

Table - 1

Company
T.V.S. Bajaj Kinetic Honda Hero Honda
A 15 20 15 18 15
B 10 15 5 5 20

C 25 25 40 35 40
D 40 30 22.5 18 15
E 10 10 17.5 24 10
100 100 100 100 100

Table - 2

16. What is the ratio of motorbikes sold across the different grades in the order A, B, C, D and E?
(a) 2 : 1 : 4 : 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 : 3 : 2 : 4 (c) 2 : 3 : 4 : 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 4 : 1 : 3 : 1

17. What is the number of motorbikes sold in Grade ‘B’ by Hero Honda?
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 240 (d) Cannot be determined

18. In which grade is the total number of motorbikes sold equal to the total number of motorbikes sold
by one of the given companies?
(a) A (b) C (c) E (d) D

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Test Prep
19. There are 49 0’s, 51 1’s and 53 2’s written on the board randomly. Bikash is blindfolded and then
asked by his teacher to touch any two numbers on the board arbitrarily. The teacher deleted those
two numbers and replaced them by a single number in the following manner:

## If the pair is Replaced by

(0, 0) → 0
(1, 1) → 0
(2, 2) → 2
(1, 2) → 1
(0, 1) → 1
(0, 2) → 0

If they continued this process what was the number left on the board in the end?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Cannot be determined

20. The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.

Q. Two friends, Mubashir and Himanshu, are standing in a room in a way that Mubashir is 5 steps
to the left of Door 1 and 4 steps to the right of Door 2, and Himanshu is 4 steps to the left of Door 1
and 5 steps to the right of Door 2. Each of them tosses a coin and moves one step right if the
outcome is heads and moves one step left if the outcome is tails. After a series of tosses both of
them stop on reaching a door.

## Who is at which door?

A. Mubashir gets 5 more heads than tails, and Himanshu 5 more tails than heads.
B. They stop after 17 tosses each.

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Test Prep
Directions for questions 21 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose
the most appropriate answer to each question.

Ghosts are not renowned for their sense of humour. As Charles Lamb (he of the undeconstructed tales from
Shakespeare) put it; ‘Can a ghost laugh, or shake his gaunt sides, when you are pleasant with him?’ But
the ghost of the theorist of farcical returns might well be something of an exception. At any rate, one can’t
help thinking that, were the personal spirit of Marx to be in any position to take note of his conjurings in the
pages of Specters of Marx, it might be a little tickled in its gaunt ribs, inclined even to give vent to some
encounter between Derrida and Marx: namely, that it may be the cause - and this conference is itself
confirming of the suspicion - of a certain rehabilitation of Marx.

I say ‘certain’ because we must add ‘in the academy’, or ‘in philosophy’. The rehabilitation may prove
some-what local and limited, but nonetheless its peculiarity should not pass entirely without comment.
That the deconstructive turn in philosophy which looked to be exorcizing Marx, and which was certainly
interpreted by many as wanting to do so, may be that which conjures him forth again and puts him back
into philosophical vogue; that it may only be through the authorization of Derrida that Marx may return from
the shadowy wings of the academy to centre stage and even be allowed a speaking part: this is an odd
turnabout, maybe even a bit spooky, certainly a funny business. Derrida is right that there are several
spirits of Marx, including some we may want finally to put to rest. But one which we should surely continue
to summon is that which invites philosophy to be sensitive to its context and effects, and to see the
humour in some of its own inversions. Regrettably, Derrida’s return to Marx is too little haunted by this
spirit of self-appraisal.

But how far, in any case, is this coming back to Marx a genuinely new event, how far a revenant of Derrida’s
earlier deferrings of the engagement with the ethical and the political - which have always taken the form,
in fact, not so much of a postponement or a confident ‘don’t call me, I’ll call you’, but of what one might call
a politely tentative gesturing towards a possible handshake with the nettle.

Three aspects of Specters of Marx seem noteworthy here. In the first place, it offers a definite statement of
political affiliation. Derrida makes plain his distance from the celebrants of the demise of Marxism and from
all those who would echo Fukuyama’s triumphalist prophecies about the ‘end of history’. He is very ready
to acknowledge that if we measure the out-of-jointness of our times by the degree of human misery already
occurred or in the offing, then our times are indeed askew. In his ten indictments of global capitalism, he
also makes it very clear that he subscribes to a broadly Marxist view of the sources of the disorder.

21. The word closest to the contextual meaning of ‘indictments’ in the passage is:
(a) Commandments (b) Pronouncements (c) Accusations (d) Postulates

22. How does the author view Derrida’s earlier engagements with the ethical and political?
(a) A possible collaboration with a wise group.
(b) An assertive and overt expression of postponement.
(c) An unpleasant collaboration, which can result in pain.
(d) A collaboration done with some reluctance but which can prove to be highly profitable.

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Test Prep
23. The author would agree with which of the following?
(a) Despite opposing some Marxist ideas, Derrida’s writings hint at a revival of Marx.
(b) These days we experience an equal amount of misery as we did in the past.
(c) The roots of our present disorder can be traced back reasonably accurately by Marxist views.
(d) Derrida has never shown any indication in the past that he would come back to conform with
some of Marx’s views.

## 24. Where could the passage have been taken from?

(a) A book review of Specters of Marx
(b) A newspaper article highlighting Derrida’s best work
(c) A speech or presentation on Specters of Marx
(d) A book on political ideologies

Directions for questions 25 to 27: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Allergy sufferers like to claim — in between sniffles — that each spring’s allergy season is worse than the
last. But this year, they might actually be right.

Thanks to an unusually cold and snowy winter, followed by an early and warm spring, pollen counts are
through the roof in much of the U.S., especially in the Southeast, which is already home to some of the
most allergenic cities in the country. A pollen count — the number of grains of pollen in a cubic meter of air
— of 120 is considered high, but in Atlanta last week the number hit 5,733, the second highest level ever
recorded in the city.

The bad news is that in a warmer world, allergies are likely to get worse — and that’s going to cost
sufferers and the rest of us. A new report released on Wednesday by the National Wildlife Federation
(NWF) found that global warming will likely increase pollen counts in the heavily populated eastern section
of the country and that the effect of climate change could push the economic cost of allergies and asthma
well above the current \$32 billion price tag. “The latest climate science makes it clear that allergies could
get much worse,” says Amanda Staudt, a climate scientist at NWF and the author of the report. “I really
think this should be a wake-up call.”

Here’s how it works: higher concentrations of CO2 in the atmosphere generally speed plant growth, while
warmer temperatures mean that spring — and with it, allergy season — arrives earlier. Spring-like conditions
in the East are already arriving on average 14 days earlier than just 20 years ago

Pollen from ragweed, which triggers most cases of spring hay fever, is projected to increase up to 100%
between now and 2085 if fossil-fuel emissions continue to rise unabated. And more CO2 could make the
ragweed pollen that exists more potent: if CO2 concentrations rise from current levels (385 parts per
million) to 600 parts p.p.m., which could happen as soon as mid-century, ragweed pollen could become up
to 70% more allergenic. An earlier, longer spring will just give ragweed more time to grow and give off pollen.
As the climate warms, it is likely to favor trees that give off pollen — like oaks and hickories — over pines,
spruces and fir trees, which don’t. By 2100, once relatively cool states in the Northeast — including
Vermont, New Hampshire and New York — could have the sort of highly allergenic trees now seen in the
hotter Southeast, as species migrate north to adjust to the heat.

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Test Prep
There are ways to fight rising allergies even in a warmer world: for example, by replacing trees that emit
high levels of pollen in densely populated areas — like the Norway maples found on New York City streets
— with species that produce less, like mountain ash or golden rain. “We can get better allergy management
and help people reduce their exposure to triggers,” says Mike Triangle of the Asthma and Allergy Foundation
of America. But absent a concerted effort to reduce carbon emissions, get ready for a sniffly future.

25. Why does the author use the word ‘sniffle’ and its adjective ‘sniffly’ in the passage?
(a) To vividly describe the act of sneezing- the most common effect of allergens on people.
(b) To introduce an element of humour in an otherwise serious discussion.
(c) To draw the readers’ attention to what allergies can reduce people to.
(d) To begin the passage on a lighter vein as he is going to ring alarm bells later on.

26. Which of the following, if true, would have the most mitigating effect on the author’s argument on the
effect of climate change on allergies/allergic people?
(a) Climate change is always associated with widespread deforestation that cuts across all plant
species.
(b) People suffering from allergies generally stay indoors in the allergy season.
(c) The government is ready with a contingency plan to tackle allergy related problems among the
masses.
(d) There is enough stock of medicines to alleviate allergy related problems in the masses.

## 27. Which of the following is true about allergenic trees?

(a) Mountain Ash belongs to this category of trees.
(b) Most of them cause hay fever.
(c) They generally grow in populated areas.
(d) They are more suited to warmer climates.

Directions for questions 28 to 31: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose
the most appropriate answer to each question.

I am a sick man. ... I am a spiteful man. I am an unattractive man. I believe my liver is diseased. However,
I know nothing at all about my disease, and do not know for certain what ails me. I don’t consult a doctor
for it, and never have, though I have a respect for medicine and doctors. Besides, I am extremely
superstitious, sufficiently so to respect medicine, anyway (I am well-educated enough not to be superstitious,
but I am superstitious). No, I refuse to consult a doctor from spite. That you probably will not understand.
Well, I understand it, though. Of course, I can’t explain who it is precisely that I am mortifying in this case
by my spite: I am perfectly well aware that I cannot “pay out” the doctors by not consulting them; I know
better than anyone that by all this I am only injuring myself and no one else. But still, if I don’t consult a
doctor it is from spite. My liver is bad, well – let it get worse!

I have been going on like that for a long time – twenty years. Now I am forty. I used to be in the government
service, but am no longer. I was a spiteful official. I was rude and took pleasure in being so. I did not take
bribes, you see, so I was bound to find a recompense in that, at least. (A poor jest, but I will not scratch it
out. I wrote it thinking it would sound very witty; but now that I have seen myself that I only wanted to show
off in a despicable way, I will not scratch it out on purpose!)

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Test Prep
When petitioners used to come for information to the table at which I sat, I used to grind my teeth at them,
and felt intense enjoyment when I succeeded in making anybody unhappy. I almost did succeed. For the
most part they were all timid people – of course, they were petitioners. But of the uppish ones there was
one officer in particular I could not endure. He simply would not be humble, and clanked his sword in a
disgusting way. I carried on a feud with him for eighteen months over that sword. At last I got the better of
him. He left off clanking it. That happened in my youth, though. But do you know, gentlemen, what was the
chief point about my spite? Why, the whole point, the real sting of it lay in the fact that continually, even in
the moment of the acutest spleen, I was inwardly conscious with shame that I was not only not a spiteful
but not even an embittered man, that I was simply scaring sparrows at random and amusing myself by it.
I might foam at the mouth, but bring me a doll to play with, give me a cup of tea with sugar in it, and maybe
I should be appeased. I might even be genuinely touched, though probably I should grind my teeth at
myself afterwards and lie awake at night with shame for months after. That was my way.

I was lying when I said just now that I was a spiteful official. I was lying from spite. I was simply amusing
myself with the petitioners and with the officer, and in reality I never could become spiteful. I was conscious
every moment in myself of many, very many elements absolutely opposite to that. I felt them positively
swarming in me, these opposite elements. I knew that they had been swarming in me all my life and
craving some outlet from me, but I would not let them, would not let them, purposely would not let them
come out. They tormented me till I was ashamed: they drove me to convulsions and – sickened me, at last,
how they sickened me! Now, are not you fancying, gentlemen, that I am expressing remorse for something
now, that I am asking your forgiveness for something? I am sure you are fancying that ... However, I assure
you I do not care if you are. ...

It was not only that I could not become spiteful, I did not know how to become anything; neither spiteful nor
kind, neither a rascal nor an honest man, neither a hero nor an insect. Now, I am living out my life in my
corner, taunting myself with the spiteful and useless consolation that an intelligent man cannot become
anything seriously, and it is only the fool who becomes anything. Yes, a man in the nineteenth century
must and morally ought to be pre-eminently a characterless creature; a man of character, an active man is
pre-eminently a limited creature. That is my conviction of forty years.

28. According to author what was the real reason for his ill treatment of petitioners?
(a) He would get sadistic pleasure out of troubling timid people like them.
(b) He wanted to make them angry in order to get them to fight with him.
(c) He was humoring himself without bearing a grudge against anyone.
(d) He wants to assert his power and make them feel helpless.

29. The phrase “pay out” in the passage best refers to:
(a) Insult (b) Pay (c) Harm (d) Compensate

30. According to the passage which of the following conclusions about the protagonist would be incorrect?
(a) He lived during the 1800s.
(b) He works as a Government official.
(c) He is superstitious despite being well educated.
(d) He has been ill for twenty years.

## 31. The tone of the author can be best described as:

(a) Frivolous (b) Invective (c) Malicious (d) Derisive

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Test Prep
Directions for questions 32 to 34: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

“What is art, anyway?” said my disgruntled ex. “If you have a four-year-old son who draws you a heartfelt
picture you will keep for decades and which represents the world to you, is it not art? And do you only
become an artist once your work is showcased in a gallery?” I quickly cut him down, replying that art with
a capital A had specific qualities to it: it could summarise the struggles of a generation (something rarely
found in a child’s drawing), it was recognised by peers as worthy, it often used specific skills which
required years of practice, and its conceptuality often said something about the human condition. He
vehemently disagreed. With hindsight, I believe we were both right.

I was reminded of that argument recently when visiting a very special exhibition at the V&A museum, which
moved me in ways I did not foresee. Quilts, 1700-2010 is Britain’s first major exhibition devoted to quilts
and patchwork. It brings together a formidable collection of 70 delicate masterpieces, from hundreds of
pieced wool hexagons made in the early 1800s to a christening baby quilt sporting the tiniest details to
Tracey Emin’s To Meet My Past, a modern take on patchwork as a vehicle for storytelling.

As family heirlooms, quilts often play a role. Beyond being passive decorative objects, those scraps of
fabrics have an awful lot to say if one is willing to pay enough attention. The small but glorious imperfections
of a 350-year-old christening panel bring us back to times when not only all sewing was painstakingly done
by hand, but also done at the end of the day, by candlelight. The recycling of fabrics, compiling bits of
rustic cottons salvaged from old pyjamas and tea-towels, bares the proof of poor families’ ingenuity and
extreme thrift. Likewise, fancy velvets and silks especially shipped from India feature on quilts made for
well-to-do Victorian housewives, illustrating the luxury in which rich families were basking.

But it doesn’t stop, of course, in England. Take the Amish quilts, so conservative in their austere symmetrical
patterns, which shyed away from the “crazy patchwork” of the early 1900s. Or the African-American
quilting tradition, which told tales of resilience and escapism during the slavery years. The final stitch might
have been made dozens of decades ago, but those works managed to survive and tell stories thanks to an
overwhelming amount of creativity and savoir-faire.

And yet, for all their mind-boggling patience, few of the crafters behind the collection’s items will ever enjoy
any posthumous recognition. The majority of quilts were made by anonymous women (and men) with their
helpers, which further sets the exhibition apart from traditional art displays. It is unsure that many of the
quilters considered their craft to be art in and of itself – some made murals to be hung on walls or even
banners meant to be political statements, others more practical items to celebrate a special occasion,
such as wedding quilts. There is some sadness in that many names stood behind hours of labour without
the opportunity to acknowledged, but this also makes those objects more approachable (and less pretentious)
than art with a capital A.

This brings me back neatly to my ex-boyfriend and our little disagreement. Is quilting, and by extension,
crafts such as knitting or woodcarving, art? When it comes to the things that matter – historical importance,
ability to provoke emotions, display of intricate skills – I believe the answer is a resounding yes. Crafts may
traditionally quietly belong to the domestic sphere but when exhibited for all to see, their significance takes
on a life of their own.

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Test Prep
32. What can be inferred as a reason for the quilts being considered ‘art’ but not ‘Art’?
(a) Like a child’s drawing they revolve around simplistic themes related to home and family rather
than the struggle of a generation.
(b) It requires years of practice to hone the skills necessary to create Art whereas quilts were
created by almost anybody.
(c) Quilts do not bear the signature or identity of the people who created them.
(d) Crafts like quilting are more approachable and less pretentious than Art.

33. Which one of these would be an incorrect conclusion about the quilts in the exhibition ‘Quilts, 1700-
2010’?
(a) They demonstrate the difference in lifestyles of different sections of society.
(b) They reveal which religious ceremonies were important to the craftsmen who created them.
(c) They can be used to trace the evolution of the craft.
(d) They highlight the distinct ideas of different cultural groups.

34. What is the central question that the author has tried to answer throughout the passage?
(a) What should be called Art?
(b) Can crafts be considered Art?
(c) Does an object of sentimental value also have artistic value?
(d) Should Art necessarily deal with grand themes?

35. There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

Domestic violence belongs to the private sphere: it is part of its _________ nature. There are
normally no direct witnesses and there are very few convictions, despite its ___________.

## (a) pernicious, prevalence (b) pertinent, obscurity

(c) ominous, disparity (d) vindictive, preponderance

36. There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

We can stand in awe of the pyramids while understanding the slave labour and misery that comprised
their construction. Similarly, amid the politics and pain that engulf and sometimes threaten to
_________professional sport, there is also a/an ________ that can take your breath away.

## (a) overwhelm, emollient (b) smother, art

(c) promulgate, beauty (d) destroy, asperity

37. There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

The day dies slowly,___________. It’s reluctant to go and drags out the farewell, like an elemental
orchestra returning with just one more_______, one final flourish, and then another, and then just
one more.

(a) turbulently, encore (b) arduosly, presage (c) quietly, abyss (d) languorously, refrain

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38. There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

But what most annoys about the scheme is that it completely misses the point of linguistic__________.
It’s no fun __________adhering to grammatical rules if it’s mandatory.

## (a) sophistication, properly (b) machinations, solemnly

(c) pedantry, prissily (d) deviousness, steadily

39. Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. Fortunately, global wealth and technology allow us to better prepare for and respond to natural
disasters.
B. It does not necessarily mean that volcanoes and quakes are getting worse — but rather that
there are more of us living in areas where we might be affected by a disaster, and we have more to
lose.
C. As global populations have grown and people have crowded into risk zones — like earthquake
areas and flood plains — the toll of natural disasters has grown as well.
D. According to the Center for Research on Epidemiology of Disasters, the number of catastrophic
events has more than doubled since the 1980s.
E. The Red Cross estimates that the economic damage from disasters rose fivefold, to \$629 billion,
from 1985 to 2005.
(a) CDBEA (b) BCDEA (c) CDEBA (d) CADEB

40. Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
option.
. A. That may be beyond us, but as long as there are tears and suffering, so long our work will not be
over.
B. The service of India means the service of the millions who suffer.
C. That future is not one of ease or resting but of incessant striving so that we may fulfil the pledges
we have so often taken and the one we shall take today.
D. It means the ending of poverty and ignorance and disease and inequality of opportunity.
E. The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye.
(a) BDCEA (b) CBDEA (c) CDEBA (d) CEABD

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41. Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. So that his place shall never be with those cold and timid souls who neither know victory nor
defeat.
B. Who strives valiantly; who errs, who comes short again and again, because there is no effort
without error and shortcoming; but who does actually strive to do the deeds.
C. It is not the critic who counts; not the man who points out how the strong man stumbles, or where
the doer of deeds could have done them better.
D. Who knows great enthusiasms, the great devotions; who spends himself in a worthy cause; who
at the best knows in the end the triumph of high achievement, and who at the worst, if he fails, at
least fails while daring greatly,
E. The credit belongs to the man who is actually in the arena, whose face is marred by dust and
sweat and blood.
(a) EBDAC (b) CEDBA (c) DBAEC (d) CEBDA

42. Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows.

Anyone who supports the Telangana state has no chance of securing a majority in the Andhra
Pradesh state legislature. Also, anyone who understands the nitty-gritty of regional development
would not support carving out the state of Telangana. So, only someone who truly understands
regional development would have any chance of securing a majority in the house.

## The reasoning in the above argument is flawed because

(a) A person who understands the nitty-gritty of regional development could also have a chance of
securing a majority in the state legislature.
(b) A person who does not understand the nitty-gritty of regional development could also support the
creation of the Telangana state.
(c) A person who does not understand the nitty-gritty of regional development may also not support
the creation of the Telangana state.
(d) A person who does not understand the nitty-gritty of regional development can have no chance of
securing a majority in the state legislature.

43. Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows.

The spat between Reliance Communications and Reliance Petrochemical has taken a new turn.
Mukesh Ambani, owner of Reliance Petrochemical, has stated that he will supply natural gas to Anil
Ambani owned gas power projects only when Anil Ambani owned Reliance Communications shelves
its plan to sell the shares of Reliance Communications. So, the shares of Reliance Communications
will not be sold.

## Which of the following is the underlying assumption in the above argument?

(a) Anil Ambani will not explore any other options available to him.
(b) There are no other natural gas providers for the power projects owned by Anil Ambani.
(c) Anil Ambani will accept the proposal offered by Mukesh Ambani.
(d) Mukesh Ambani will not review the conditions offered in his proposal.

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44. Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows.

A news channel reporter raised a relevant question when a famous Astrologer referred to instances
when his prophecies came true. The reporter asked, “But what about those prophecies that turned
out to be incorrect?” We have a tendency to see what we wish to see and neglect everything that
goes contrary to what we wish to see.

Which one of the following is the best example of the error of reasoning described by the author in
the paragraph?

(a) December is the unluckiest month of a year. Just this past December, I not only lost my job but
also a dear friend of mine.
(b) I can no longer consider my lucky TV lucky. On the last ten occasions when I watched an India-
Pakistan match on my TV, India lost the match.
(c) I have appeared for the job interview and cleared the same, but I am not sure what is my lucky
charm.
(d) Every year around 10% students of IIM Ahmedabad opt out of placements to start their own
ventures. So, we can assume that this year IIM Ahmedabad will place around 90% of its students.

45 Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
The prince’s throne was threatened by a (A) cabal/(B) cable.
The crew tried (A) baling/(B) bailing out the ship after it struck the iceberg, but to no avail.
Who knew that the poor little boy would grow up to become an oil (A) magnate/(B) magnet?
The lovely (A) timbre/(B) timber of the singer’s voice amazed the audience.
(a) ABAA (b) AAAA (c) BBAB (d) ABBA

46. Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
During stressful times, the leader used to retreat to his (A) aerie/(B) eerie in the mountains.
His boss permitted him to come to work on (A) alternate/(B) alternative days during the week so
that he could give some time to his family.
The (A) chandler/(B) chandelier was known for his miserly nature.
The management decided to place the (A) mantle/(B) mantel of responsibility on the young MBA.
(a) ABAB (b) AAAA (c) BABA (d) AAAB

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Test Prep
47. Given below are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s)
that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical
consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.

## 1. Being on two wheels is more dangerous than four.

2. Around one in four road traffic accident fatality are motorcyclists.
3. But, overall, motorcycling is becoming safer even as it becomes more popular.
4. Most motorcyclists are responsible adults.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2

48. Given below are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s)
that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical
consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.

1. A team led by Indian-origin professor has devised a method of using mobile phones for conducting
eye tests, a technique they hope will be useful in places lacking hi-tech eye equipment.
2. The two-minute eye test can be carried out using a small plastic device clipped in front of a
cellphone’s screen.
3. The patient looks into a small lens, presses the phone’s arrow keys until a set of parallel green
and red lines just overlap.
4. The process is repeated eight times with the lines at different angles for each eye.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

49. Given below are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s)
that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical
consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.

## 1. In the 19th century defaulting borrowers were sent to prison.

2. The generation that lived through the Great Depression learned to scrimp and save.
3. The wider acceptance of credit cards in the 1960s created a “buy now, pay later” society.
4. The reckless lender, rather than the imprudent debtor, was likely to get the blame.
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) None of these

50. Given below are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s)
that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical
consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.

1. Jet engines rely on Isaac Newton’s third law of motion: for every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction.
2. When a jet is running, a compressor at the front draws in air and compresses it.
3. This air is guided and difused by static blades to allow for easier ignition when it is mixed with fuel
and ignited in a combustion chamber.
4. The reaction comes in the form of rapidly expanding hot gases, that blast out of the rear of the jet
and thus drive the aircraft forward.
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

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Test Prep
51. If N is a natural number less than 100, then for how many values of N are the numbers 6N + 1 and
15N + 2 relatively prime?
(a) 16 (b) 10 (c) 33 (d) None of these

52. There are two concentric circles of radii 7 cm and 8 cm. PQ, a diameter of the larger circle, cuts the
smaller circle at S and T. A tangent drawn from Q touches the inner circle at R. What is the length
of PR (in cm)?
(a) 222 (b) 211 (c) 241 (d) None of these

53. A sequence 192, 360, 576……. is formed by multiplying the corresponding terms of two different
Arithmetic Progressions. What is the eighth term of the sequence?
(a) 2376 (b) 1040 (c) 2116 (d) None of these

54. Kadbury offers a packet of 5 chocolates at the list price of 4 chocolates and on purchasing 19 such
packets gives one packet absolutely free. A trader receives 20 packets of the chocolates in the offer
and sells each chocolate at its list price. What is his net percentage profit?
(a) 24% (b) 31.58% (c) 35% (d) 53.75%

55. A function f(x) is defined as f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), for all real values of x and y. What is the value of
2
f ?
3
2 2 2
(a) f(1) (b) (c) f(0) (d) 0
3 3 3

56. In how many ways can 6 letters A, B, C, D, E and F be arranged in a row such that D is always
somewhere between A and B?
(a) 324 (b) 240 (c) 60 (d) 48

57. What can be the maximum number of acute angles in an octagon in which all the interior angles are
less than 180 degrees?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

58. John and David work on alternate days with John starting on the first day. John does 12.5% of the
total work on the last day and finishes the work. If John alone can do the work in 6 days then which
of following can be the number of days in which David alone can do the whole work?
(a) 24 days (b) 12 days (c) 8 days (d) 10 days

59. A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6 are 6 points in clockwise order on the circumference of a circle of radius 4 cm.
The length of the arc AiA i+1 is one-third the length of Ai+1Ai+2, for all i = 1 to 4. If the sum of the lengths
of the 5 arcs is one-eighth the circumference of the circle, what is the angle (in radians) subtended
by A2A3 at the center of the circle?
π 3π π 3π
(a) (b) (c) (d)
484 484 243 243

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Test Prep
60. A two digit number is divided by the sum of its digits. What is the maximum possible remainder?
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16

61. If the nth day of August lies on the same day as the 2nth day of October, then how many values of n
are possible?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 0

62. Identical black tiles, in the shape of a square of side 3 cm, are placed along the two diagonals of a
square shaped floor of side 39 cm. The rest of the floor is covered with identical white tiles of same
shape and size. How many white tiles need to be replaced by the black tiles so that the black and
the white tiles are in alternate positions in all the rows and columns?
(a) 60 (b) 81 (c) 144 (d) None of these

## 63. (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) = 6y

How many integer solutions exist for the given equation?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) More than 2

  1    1     1     1  
2 4 8
64. If P = 1 +  −   1 +  −   1 +  −   1 +  −   ....., then
  4     4     4     4  

7 6 4 4
(a) P = (b) P = (c) P = (d) P =
9 7 3 5

65. Ashu and Manoj start running simultaneously from the ends A and B respectively, of a straight track
of length 800 m, with speeds that are in the ratio 5 : 3. Whenever Ashu reaches either of the ends,
he turns around and continues running at the same speed. Whenever Manoj meets Ashu, he turns
around and continues running at the same speed. When Ashu comes back at A for the first time,
how far (in meters) is Manoj from B?
(a) 360 (b) 435 (c) 510 (d) None of these

66. If the roots of the equation ax3 + bx2 + cx + d = 0 are in Geometric Progression, then which of the
following relations is true?
(a) ac2 = b2d (b) ac3 = b3d (c) a2c = bd2 (d) a3c = bd3

67. N is a natural number of at least 5 digits and its leftmost digit is 6. When this 6 is removed from
1
N, the number thus obtained is found to be times of N. What is the sum of the digits of N?
25
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 18 (d) Cannot be determined

68. In a square PQRS, T is the midpoint of PQ and U is any variable point on QR. What is the minimum
possible value of ‘SU + UT’ (in cm) if the side of the square is 2 cm?
(a) 2 2 (b) 5+ 2 (c) 1 + 2 2 (d) 13

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Test Prep
69. 5 < x2 + y2 < 28
|x – y| < 3
How many integer solutions exist for the given set of inequalities?
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 24 (d) 40

70. Rs. 4,500 was distributed among Aman, Baman and Chaman. From the amount that they received
Aman, Baman and Chaman spent Rs.110, Rs.120 and Rs.140 respectively. The amounts then left
with Aman and Baman were in the ratio 3 : 4 and with Baman and Chaman were in the ratio 5 : 6.
What amount (in Rs.) did Baman receive?
(a) 1520 (b) 1400 (c) 1600 (d) 1420

Test Prep